Test Bank for Child Development 9th Edition by Laura Berk

Test Bank For Child Development 9th Edition by Laura E. Berk Table of Contents Part I: Theory and Research in Child Development Chapter 1 History, Theory, and Applied Directions Chapter 2 Research Strategies Part II: Foundations of Development Chapter 3 Biological Foundations, Prenatal Development, and Birth Chapter 4 Infancy: Early Learning, Motor Skills, and Perceptual Capacities Chapter 5 Physical Growth Part III: Cognitive and Language Development Chapter 6 Cognitive Development: Piagetian, Core Knowledge, and Vygotskian Perspectives Chapter 7 Cognitive Development: An Information-Processing Perspective Chapter 8 Intelligence Chapter 9 Language Development Part IV: Personality and Social Development Chapter 10 Emotional Development Chapter 11 Self and Social Understanding Chapter 12 Moral Development Chapter 13 Development of Sex Differences and Gender Roles Part V: Contexts for Development Chapter 14 The Family Chapter 15 Peers, Media, and Schooling

CHAPTER 1 HISTORY, THEORY, AND APPLIED DIRECTIONS MULTIPLE CHOICE 1) The field of child development A) is devoted to understanding human constancy and change throughout the lifespan. B) is part of a larger, interdisciplinary field known as developmental science. C) focuses primarily on children’s physical and emotional development. D) focuses primarily on infants’ and children’s social and cognitive development. Answer: B Page Ref: 4 2) The common goal of investigators who study child development is to A) understand how physical growth and nutrition contribute to health and well-being throughout the lifespan. B) understand more about personality and social development. C) analyze child-rearing practices and experiences that promote children’s well-being. D) describe and identify those factors that influence the consistencies and changes in young people during the first two decades of life. Answer: D Page Ref: 4 3) Which of the following factors contributed to the study of child development in the twentieth century? A) The beginning of public education led to a demand for knowledge about what and how to teach children of different ages. B) Parents were having more children and researchers became interested in the effects of family size on children’s well-being. C) Pediatricians were pressured by insurance companies to improve children’s health, which inspired nutritional research. D) High rates of childhood depression inspired new areas of research into children’s anxieties and behavior problems. Answer: A Page Ref: 4 4) Which of the following statements is true about the field of child development? A) Scientific curiosity is the prevailing factor that led to the study of children, and current researchers primarily answer questions of scientific interest. B) The field of child development is considered interdisciplinary because it has grown through the combined efforts of people from many fields. C) Child development is the area of study devoted to understanding constancy and change throughout the lifespan. D) Most of what we know about child development comes from psychologists and medical professionals. Answer: B Page Ref: 4 5) Development is often divided into which of the following three broad domains? A) infancy, childhood, and adolescence B) social, cultural, and historical C) physical, cognitive, and emotional and social D) biological, social, and intellectual Answer: C Page Ref: 4

6) The domains of development A) combine in an integrated, holistic fashion. B) are not influenced by each other. C) operate independently of one another. D) are distinct and unrelated. Answer: A Page Ref: 4 7) What period of human development brings the most rapid time of change? A) the prenatal period B) infancy and toddlerhood C) early childhood D) adolescence Answer: A Page Ref: 5 8) During which period of development do children form their first intimate ties to others? A) the prenatal period B) infancy and toddlerhood C) early childhood D) middle childhood Answer: B Page Ref: 5 9) Charlotte is long and lean. She engages in make-believe play and has a blossoming sense of morality. Charlotte is probably in which period of human development? A) the prenatal period B) infancy and toddlerhood C) early childhood D) middle childhood Answer: C Page Ref: 5–6 10) Pete participates in soccer and is beginning to master fundamental reading and math skills. Pete is probably in which period of human development? A) adolescence B) middle childhood C) early childhood D) infancy and toddlerhood Answer: B Page Ref: 6 11) During adolescence, A) thought and language expand at an astounding rate. B) young people begin to master academic knowledge and skills. C) young people fully assume adult roles. D) thought becomes abstract and idealistic. Answer: D Page Ref: 6

12) Which of the following factors have contributed to the period of development called emerging adulthood? A) Teenagers from large families assume adult roles upon entering adolescence. B) The transition to adult roles has become increasingly prolonged. C) Schooling is increasingly directed toward preparation for the world of work. D) Young people make enduring commitments soon after high school graduation. Answer: B Page Ref: 6 13) A good theory A) provides an ultimate truth. B) cannot be scientifically verified. C) describes, explains, and predicts behavior. D) is not influenced by the cultural values or beliefs of its time. Answer: C Page Ref: 6 14) Which of the following statements is true about child development theories? A) They guide and give meaning to our observations and help us understand development. B) They are defined as mere opinions or beliefs. C) They provide ultimate truths about children and adolescents. D) They are difficult to verify, even with contemporary research methods. Answer: A Page Ref: 6 15) Theories differ from mere opinion and belief in that A) they provide the ultimate truth. B) they are usually too abstract to be used as a basis for practical action. C) they cannot be tested in a research setting. D) their continued existence depends on scientific verification. Answer: D Page Ref: 7 16) The continuous development view holds that A) infants and preschoolers respond to the world in much the same way as adults do. B) children’s thoughts, emotions, and behavior differ considerably from those of adults. C) development takes place in stages. D) development is much like climbing a staircase. Answer: A Page Ref: 7 17) Eight-month-old Annabelle is not yet able to organize objects or remember and interpret experiences as an adult does because her development is A) continuous. B) discontinuous. C) stable. D) plastic. Answer: B Page Ref: 7–8

18) The concept of is characteristic of theories. A) nurture; continuous B) context; nature C) change; heredity D) stages; discontinuous Answer: D Page Ref: 8 19) The stage concept assumes that children A) gradually add more of the same types of skills that were there to begin with. B) undergo a slow transformation as they step up from one stage to the next. C) make fairly sudden and distinct changes as they grow. D) think just as logically as adults do. Answer: C Page Ref: 8 20) Dr. Zettler compares children growing up in non-Western village societies with those growing up in large Western cities. Dr. Zettler likely emphasizes in her research. A) the nature–nurture controversy B) the effects of distinct contexts on development C) the concept of step-by-step learning D) continuous development Answer: B Page Ref: 8 21) Dr. Hoo believes that children who are high in verbal ability, anxiety, or sociability will remain so at later ages. Dr. Hoo likely emphasizes the role of in her research. A) plasticity B) stability C) discontinuity D) context Answer: B Page Ref: 9 22) Dr. Shepherd studies individual differences in intelligence, personality, and social skills of identical twins raised in different families. Dr. Shepherd likely emphasizes the role of in his research. A) heredity B) plasticity C) early experiences D) stability Answer: A Page Ref: 9 23) Theorists who emphasize in explaining individual differences typically stress the importance of . A) early experiences; discontinuity B) stability; nurture C) the environment; early experiences D) context; continuity Answer: C Page Ref: 9

24) Professor Cortez believes that development is largely due to nature. Professor Cortez would argue that A) early intervention is of supreme importance for economically at-risk children. B) environmental factors have a greater impact on development than genetic factors. C) offering high-quality stimulation in infancy and toddlerhood is vital for favorable development. D) providing experiences aimed at promoting change is of little value. Answer: D Page Ref: 9 25) Which of the following factors fosters resilience? A) an inability to inhibit impulses B) having more than two siblings C) social support outside the immediate family D) an emotionally reactive personality Answer: C Page Ref: 10–11 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Resilient Children 26) The most consistent asset of resilient children is A) a strong bond with a competent, caring adult. B) high academic performance in elementary school. C) musical ability. D) athletic competence. Answer: A Page Ref: 11 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Resilient Children 27) During medieval times, A) children were treated as adults once they were old enough to perform daily routines. B) clear awareness existed of children as vulnerable beings. C) children were viewed as blank slates. D) harsh, restrictive child-rearing practices were recommended to tame depraved children. Answer: B Page Ref: 11 28) During the Reformation, the Puritans A) characterized children as innocent and close to angels. B) regarded children as fully mature by the time they were 7 or 8 years old. C) suggested that parents reward children with praise and approval. D) believed that children were born evil and stubborn and had to be civilized. Answer: D Page Ref: 11 29) In the sixteenth century, prevented most Puritan parents from using extremely repressive child-rearing measures. A) the belief that children are vulnerable B) religious prohibitions against harsh punishment C) love and affection for their children D) the belief that children are close to angels Answer: C Page Ref: 11

30) The Enlightenment period brought new philosophies that A) emphasized ideals of human dignity and respect. B) emphasized original sin. C) regarded children as noble savages. D) recognized the need to protect children from people who might mistreat them. Answer: A Page Ref: 12 31) British philosopher John Locke viewed the child as A) tainted by original sin. B) a tabula rasa. C) a noble savage. D) an active, purposeful being. Answer: B Page Ref: 12 32) Ms. Xavier opposes physical punishment in schools. She believes that such punishment makes children fear teachers. Ms. Xavier is most aligned with which historical prospective? A) medieval times B) the Reformation C) the Enlightenment D) the Puritans, after they emigrated to the New World Answer: C Page Ref: 12 33) Locke regarded development as and largely influenced by . A) continuous; nature B) continuous; nurture C) discontinuous; nature D) discontinuous; nurture Answer: B Page Ref: 12 34) According to Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s view, the child is A) tainted by original sin. B) a tabula rasa. C) a noble savage. D) an active, purposeful being. Answer: C Page Ref: 12 35) In contrast to Locke, Rousseau A) viewed development as a continuous process. B) believed that children’s moral sense is learned through religious training. C) regarded children as empty containers to be filled by adult instruction. D) believed that children’s unique ways of thinking would only be harmed by adult training. Answer: D Page Ref: 12

36) Rousseau’s philosophy included which of the following two influential concepts? A) stage and maturation B) evolution and stage C) natural selection and survival of the fittest D) maturation and natural selection Answer: A Page Ref: 12 37) Rousseau regarded development as and largely influenced by . A) continuous; nature B) continuous; nurture C) discontinuous; nature D) discontinuous; nurture Answer: C Page Ref: 12 38) Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution emphasizes and . A) stage; maturation B) natural selection; stage C) maturation; survival of the fittest D) natural selection; survival of the fittest Answer: D Page Ref: 13 39) is generally regarded as the founder of the child-study movement. A) Charles Darwin B) John Locke C) G. Stanley Hall D) Benjamin Spock Answer: C Page Ref: 13 40) G. Stanley Hall and his student, Arnold Gesell, A) developed the first intelligence test. B) regarded child development as a maturational process. C) argued that children actively revise their ways of thinking, but also learn through habit. D) were the first researchers to implement behavior modification techniques. Answer: B Page Ref: 13 41) Dr. Adolph takes measures of behavior on large numbers of individuals and computes age-related averages to represent typical development. Dr. Adolph uses A) the normative approach. B) behaviorism. C) intelligence testing. D) psychoanalysis. Answer: A Page Ref: 13

42) Gesell’s child-rearing advice to parents recommended A) harsh, restrictive punishment. B) the use of money or sweets for rewards. C) home remedies for common childhood illnesses. D) sensitivity to children’s cues. Answer: D Page Ref: 13 43) Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon’s intelligence test was originally constructed to A) measure individual differences among children with the same IQ. B) document developmental improvements in children’s intellectual functioning. C) identify gifted and talented children who required educational enrichment. D) identify children with learning problems who needed to be placed in special classes. Answer: D Page Ref: 13 44) Binet defined intelligence as A) recall, reflection, and communication. B) reaction time and sensitivity to physical stimuli. C) good judgment, planning, and critical reflection. D) emotional, social, and cognitive awareness. Answer: C Page Ref: 14 45) James Mark Baldwin A) created one of the earliest intelligence tests used in American schools. B) argued that intelligence is best understood in terms of reaction time to physical and social stimuli. C) believed that children’s unique ways of thinking and feeling could be harmed by adult interference. D) believed that children’s understanding of their physical and social worlds develops through a sequence of stages. Answer: D Page Ref: 14 46) Although he was long overlooked in the history of child development, Baldwin A) adapted Binet’s intelligence test for use with English-speaking children. B) granted nature and nurture equal importance. C) viewed development as a continuous process. D) was among the first to make developmental research relevant to parents. Answer: B Page Ref: 14 47) According to , children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations. A) ecological systems theory B) the psychoanalytic perspective C) the behaviorist perspective D) social learning theory Answer: B Page Ref: 15

48) Sigmund Freud constructed his psychosexual theory A) by examining the unconscious motivations of his patients. B) by documenting the dreams of emotionally troubled adults. C) by observing his own children. D) on the basis of interviews with institutionalized children and adolescents. Answer: A Page Ref: 15 49) According to Freud, the works to reconcile the demands of the and the . A) id; ego; superego B) superego; id; ego C) ego; id; superego D) id; conscience; subconscious Answer: C Page Ref: 15 50) Freud’s psychosexual theory was the first to stress the influence of A) the early parent–child relationship on development. B) society’s values and beliefs on parent’s disciplinary techniques. C) older siblings on newborns. D) the academic environment on young children. Answer: A Page Ref: 15 51) Which of the following is a major criticism of Freud’s theory? A) It was based on the problems of sexually repressed, well-to-do adults, not on direct study of children. B) It does not acknowledge the individual’s unique life history as worthy of study and understanding. C) It ignores the value of the clinical, or case study, method. D) It mostly ignores milestones of infant and toddler development. Answer: A Page Ref: 15 52) In his psychosocial theory, Erik Erikson emphasized that A) conflicts about anal control may appear if parents toilet train before children are ready. B) in addition to mediating between id impulses and superego demands, the ego makes a positive contribution to development. C) children feel a sexual desire for the other-sex parent. D) directly observable events—stimuli and responses—are the appropriate focus of study. Answer: B Page Ref: 15–16 53) During the oral psychosexual stage, if oral needs are not met appropriately, an individual may develop such habits as A) extreme messiness and disorder. B) hostility toward the same-sex parent. C) sexual promiscuity. D) fingernail biting and overeating. Answer: D Page Ref: 16

54) According to Freud, the superego strengthens during the stage. A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) latency Answer: D Page Ref: 16 55) According to Erikson, children gain insight into the person they can become through make-believe play during the stage. A) basic trust versus mistrust B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) initiative versus guilt D) industry versus inferiority Answer: C Page Ref: 16 56) Martin is striving to establish a personal identity by exploring his values and vocational goals. Martin is in Erikson’s stage. A) initiative versus guilt B) intimacy versus isolation C) identity versus role confusion D) integrity versus despair Answer: C Page Ref: 16 57) In contrast to Freud, Erikson A) viewed children as taking a more active role in their own development. B) focused on the impact of early experiences on later behavior. C) minimized the role of culture in individual development. D) recognized the lifespan nature of development. Answer: D Page Ref: 16 58) A special strength of the psychoanalytic perspective is its A) global application to most cultures. B) emphasis on the individual’s unique life history as worthy of study and understanding. C) emphasis on empirical research. D) effectiveness in dealing with everyday difficulties. Answer: B Page Ref: 17 59) Which of the following is a contribution of psychoanalytic theory? A) It inspired a wealth of research on many aspects of emotional and social development. B) It emphasized a wide range of research methods to study child development. C) It provided a rich source of testable hypotheses about personality development. D) It remains in the mainstream of child development research. Answer: A Page Ref: 17

60) Psychoanalytic theorists were strongly committed to A) the experimental method. B) correlational studies of preschool children. C) systematic observation. D) in-depth study of individual children. Answer: D Page Ref: 17 61) Traditional behaviorists like John Watson believed that is the supreme force in development. A) environment B) heredity C) sexuality D) early experience Answer: A Page Ref: 17 62) According to B. F. Skinner’s operant conditioning theory, A) modeling is the most powerful source of development. B) the frequency of behavior can be increased by following it with reinforcers. C) development is a discontinuous process. D) children actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore the world. Answer: B Page Ref: 17 63) Marcus, age 12, wears the same clothes and hairstyle as his best friends at school. According to Albert Bandura, Marcus is displaying A) operant conditioning. B) behavior modification. C) classical conditioning. D) observational learning. Answer: D Page Ref: 18 64) Today, Bandura’s theory stresses the importance of A) cognition. B) punishment. C) heredity. D) classical conditioning. Answer: A Page Ref: 18 65) The most recent revision of Bandura’s theory places such strong emphasis on how children think about themselves and other people that he calls it a approach. A) social learning B) social-cognitive C) behavior modification D) psychosocial Answer: B Page Ref: 18

66) Sydney views herself as hardworking and high-achieving. She believes that she will succeed if she relies on her abilities. Sydney has developed a sense of A) generativity. B) industry. C) self-efficacy. D) equilibrium. Answer: C Page Ref: 18 67) In her research, Dr. Esse uses procedures that combine conditioning and modeling to eliminate undesirable behaviors and increase desirable responses. Dr. Esse relies on A) observational learning. B) behavior modification. C) classical conditioning. D) psychosocial learning. Answer: B Page Ref: 18 68) has been used to relieve a wide range of serious developmental problems, such as persistent aggression and extreme fears. A) Modeling B) Observational learning C) Behavior modification D) Social-cognitive theory Answer: C Page Ref: 18 69) Which of the following is an important criticism of behaviorism? A) It overemphasizes genetic influences. B) It underestimates children’s contributions to their own development. C) It cannot be effectively applied to toddlers or preschool children. D) It only works in controlled settings, not in children’s everyday lives. Answer: B Page Ref: 19 70) If one individual has influenced the contemporary field of child development more than any other, it A) Sigmund Freud. B) Erik Erikson. C) B. F. Skinner. D) Jean Piaget. Answer: D Page Ref: 19 71) Accordingly to Jean Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, children A) actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore their world. B) acquire new social values as sexual instincts die down. C) gradually become more selective in what they imitate. D) develop within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment. Answer: A Page Ref: 19

72) Central to Piaget’s view of development is the concept of A) modeling. B) reinforcement. C) adaptation. D) cultural identity. Answer: C Page Ref: 19 73) According to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, A) children’s understanding is different from adults’. B) development must be understood in relation to each child’s culture. C) children gradually develop adaptive behaviors. D) rapid development occurs during a sensitive period. Answer: A Page Ref: 19 74) According to Piaget’s theory, cognitive development begins in the stage. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: A Page Ref: 19 75) In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, children A) consider all possible outcomes in a scientific problem. B) develop the capacity for abstract thinking. C) reason with symbols that do not refer to real-world objects. D) transform cognition into logical reasoning. Answer: D Page Ref: 19–20 76) Five-year-old Stefan uses symbols to represent sensorimotor discoveries. However, his thinking lacks logic. Stefan is in Piaget’s stage of development. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: B Page Ref: 20 77) According to Piaget’s theory, thought becomes abstract in the A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational Answer: D Page Ref: 20

stage.

78) Early in his career, Piaget derived his ideas about cognitive changes during the first two years by A) conducting clinical interviews. B) engaging in rigorous experiments. C) observing his own three children. D) summarizing baby biographies. Answer: C Page Ref: 20 79) To study childhood and adolescent thought, Piaget A) used psychoanalysis. B) conducted open-ended clinical interviews. C) observed young people from diverse cultures. D) relied on classical and operant conditioning. Answer: B Page Ref: 20 80) One important criticism of Piaget’s theory is that A) he overestimated the competencies of infants and young children. B) his stagewise account pays insufficient attention to social and cultural influences. C) he overemphasized discovery learning and direct contact with the environment. D) children’s performance on Piagetian tasks cannot be improved with training. Answer: B Page Ref: 21 81) The information-processing approach views the mind as A) a system for manipulating symbols. B) a socially constructed structure. C) the result of stimulus–response associations. D) a mechanism of genetically programmed behaviors. Answer: A Page Ref: 21 82) Dr. Winsock often designs flowcharts to map the precise steps that her research participants use to solve problems and complete tasks, much like the plans devised by programmers to get computers to perform a series of “mental operations.” Dr. Winsock probably subscribes to which of the following theories of development? A) psychoanalytic perspective B) information-processing approach C) social-cognitive approach D) ecological systems theory Answer: B Page Ref: 21 83) Information-processing researchers A) record stimulus–response pathways in the brain. B) build computers with humanlike circuitry. C) focus on the evolutionary significance of human behavior. D) seek to clarify how both task characteristics and cognitive limitations influence performance. Answer: D Page Ref: 21–22

84) The information-processing approach is being used to A) clarify the processing of social information. B) identify differences between innate and learned behaviors. C) facilitate bilingual speech recognition. D) predict school achievement and career success. Answer: A Page Ref: 22 85) The information-processing approach A) regards children as tabula rasa. B) does not divide development into stages. C) views development as discontinuous. D) regards thought processes as vastly different at all ages. Answer: B Page Ref: 22 86) A great strength of the information-processing approach is its commitment to A) fieldwork. B) structured observations. C) rigorous research methods. D) clinical interviews. Answer: C Page Ref: 22 87) A criticism of the information-processing approach is that it A) focuses too heavily on creativity and imagination. B) lacks scientific research. C) has little to say about nonlinear cognition. D) views children as blank slates. Answer: C Page Ref: 23 88) Dr. Cooper is a developmental cognitive neuroscientist. Which of the following questions would Dr. Cooper most likely investigate? A) What is the best technique to measure intelligence? B) Does actual brain size affect cognitive progress? C) How does nutrition affect overall brain growth and memory patterns? D) How do experiences at various ages influence the organization of the brain? Answer: D Page Ref: 23 89) The roots of ethology can be traced to the work of A) Charles Darwin. B) Sigmund Freud. C) Jean Piaget. D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau. Answer: A Page Ref: 23

90) Observations of led to the concept of in child development. A) learned behaviors in dogs; the sensitive period B) imprinting in baby birds; the critical period C) modeling in young mammals; adaptation D) human infant–caregiver attachment; resilience Answer: B Page Ref: 23 91) The term applies better to human development than the strict notion of a critical period. A) resilience B) discontinuity C) sensitive period D) equilibrium Answer: C Page Ref: 24 92) British psychoanalyst John Bowlby applied theory to understanding the human caregiver–infant relationship A) social learning B) cognitive-developmental C) ethological D) sociocultural Answer: C Page Ref: 24 93) Dr. O’Donnell studies why children play in gender-segregated groups and how such play might lead to adult gender-typed behaviors. Dr. O’Donnell’s research is in the realm of A) cognitive psychology. B) ecological systems theory. C) sociocultural theory. D) evolutionary developmental psychology. Answer: D Page Ref: 24 94) Evolutionary developmental psychologists seek to understand the entire system. A) ecological B) social–cultural C) organism–environment D) genetic Answer: C Page Ref: 24 95) Lev Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory focuses on A) how the values, beliefs, customs, and skills of a social group are transmitted to the next generation. B) the child as a developing organism within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment. C) the child’s mind, body, and physical and social worlds, which form an integrated system that guides mastery of new skills. D) the ways in which evolution and heredity influence behavior and development. Answer: A Page Ref: 25

96) According to Vygotsky, is necessary for children to acquire the ways of thinking and behaving that make up a community’s culture. A) social interaction B) reinforcement C) discipline D) independence Answer: A Page Ref: 25 97) Which of the following behaviors is consistent with Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory? A) When working on a math assignment, Michelle tries several solutions before arriving at the correct answer. B) When building a tower with blocks, Ted produces the same guiding comments that his father previously used when helping him build block towers. C) When his mother takes him to the store, Tom is well-behaved because he knows that he will be rewarded with a lollipop. D) When playing in her sandbox, Amy builds the same castle that she saw her friend build yesterday. Answer: B Page Ref: 25 98) Vygotsky’s theory differs from Piaget’s theory in that Vygotsky A) believed that children are active, constructive beings. B) believed that children undergo certain stagewise changes. C) viewed cognitive development as taking place in universal stages. D) viewed cognitive development as a socially mediated process. Answer: D Page Ref: 25 99) Cross-cultural research stimulated by Vygotsky’s theory reveals that A) the developmental sequences observed in Western cultures are universal. B) adults begin to encourage valued skills as soon as children start school. C) cultures select different tasks for children’s learning. D) sociocultural theory has little application outside industrialized nations. Answer: C Page Ref: 25 100) Among the !Kung, a hunting-and-gathering society living in the desert regions of Botswana, a child’s first words generally include words meaning “ ” and “ .” A) mine; yours B) No; I’ll do it myself C) I want it; That belongs to my family D) Here, take this; Give it to me. Answer: D Page Ref: 26 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: !Kung Infancy: Acquiring Culture 101) In !Kung society, infants are A) provided with a diverse range of learning toys. B) provided with natural objects, such as twigs, grass, stones, and nutshells. C) encouraged to explore objects independently. D) discouraged from interacting with nonrelatives. Answer: B Page Ref: 26 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: !Kung Infancy: Acquiring Culture

102) Urie Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory views the child as A) a blank slate upon which adults and more experienced peers can write. B) developing with a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment. C) resembling our primate relatives in social behavior and emotional expression. D) a biological organism with a highly plastic brain, especially open to growth and reorganization as a result of experience. Answer: B Page Ref: 26 103) In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, interactions between a father and his child occur in the A) mesosystem. B) microsystem. C) macrosystem. D) exosystem. Answer: B Page Ref: 27 104) As a result of Ginny’s dissatisfying interaction with her two defiant teenage sons, Ginny is less patient with her preschooler’s attempts at dressing herself. This is an example of influences. A) third-party B) bioecological C) bidirectional D) mesosystem Answer: A 105) In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, interactions between parents and teachers occur in the A) mesosystem. B) macrosystem. C) microsystem. D) exosystem. Answer: A Page Ref: 27 106) Mona’s flexible work schedule indirectly enhances her children’s development by allowing her time off for school activities and to care for sick children. This is an example of interactions within the A) microsystem. B) mesosystem. C) exosystem. D) macrosystem. Answer: C Page Ref: 28 107) Twelve-year-old Ross lives in a country with very low governmental standards for public education. As a result, he is barely literate. The public policies that impact Ross’s education are part of the A) microsystem. B) mesosystem. C) macrosystem. D) exosystem. Answer: C Page Ref: 28

108) An organized family life A) is linked to economic disadvantage. B) provides a supportive context for warm, involved parent–child interaction. C) guarantees high IQ in offspring. D) can stifle children’s creativity and independence. Answer: B Page Ref: 29 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being 109) According to ecological systems theory, the priority that the gives to children’s needs affects the support they receive at inner levels of the environment. A) microsystem B) mesosystem C) exosystem D) macrosystem Answer: D Page Ref: 28 110) According to Bronfenbrenner, the environment A) negatively impacts the breakdown in exosystem activities. B) is a static force. C) is an effective substitute for lack of parental involvement. D) is an ever-changing system. Answer: D Page Ref: 28 111) Annmarie’s grades in school have never been affected by her father’s multiple job transfers. However, when the family moves from Michigan to Texas between her sophomore and junior years of high school, Annmarie’s grades drop significantly. In ecological systems theory, this move represents a change in her A) chronosystem. B) mesosystem. C) microsystem. D) macrosystem. Answer: A Page Ref: 28 112) In ecological systems theory, children are A) primarily influenced by the social transmission of knowledge. B) controlled by successful imprinting during the early critical period. C) both products and producers of their environments. D) driven solely by their inner dispositions. Answer: C Page Ref: 28 113) Family life survey findings reveal that considering U.S. families as a whole, time with children has over the past three decades. A) mothers’; increased B) fathers’; remained fairly stable C) mothers’; remained fairly stable D) fathers’; increased Answer: D Page Ref: 29 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being

114) Frequency of is associated with reduced sexual risk taking, alcohol and drug use, and mental health problems in adolescence. A) family meals B) extracurricular activities C) peer interaction D) parental communication Answer: A Page Ref: 29 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being 115) According to the dynamic systems perspective, development occurs when A) behavior is actively reorganized following a change in any part of the child’s integrated system. B) a child internalizes the behaviors of more skilled members of society. C) a child is in the sensitive period for a particular behavior. D) disequilibrium is experienced by the child in the home environment. Answer: A Page Ref: 30 116) Dynamic systems theorists emphasize that A) children are driven mainly by instincts and unconscious motives. B) different children master the same skills in unique ways. C) sensitive periods are key to understanding development. D) development can be best understood in terms of its adaptive value. Answer: B Page Ref: 30 117) Dynamic system theorists regard development as A) a single, continuous line. B) stagewise. C) a web of fibers branching out in many directions. D) static. Answer: C Page Ref: 30 118) Both and emphasize discontinuous development. A) behaviorism; social learning theory B) Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory; the psychoanalytic perspective C) information processing; Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory D) ethology; evolutionary developmental psychology Answer: B Page Ref: 32 119) Which of the following theories emphasizes many possible courses of development? A) psychoanalytic perspective B) cognitive-developmental theory C) information processing D) social learning theory Answer: D Page Ref: 32

120) Which of the following major theories in child development primarily emphasizes nurture rather than nature as an important influence? A) the psychoanalytic perspective B) behaviorism C) ethology D) information processing Answer: B Page Ref: 32 121) Both and emphasize nature and nurture. A) behaviorism; ethology B) social learning theory; evolutionary developmental psychology C) sociocultural theory; the dynamic systems perspective D) behaviorism; ecological systems theory Answer: C Page Ref: 32 122) Public policy research shows that A) the United States has more public policies safeguarding children than any other developed nation. B) extreme poverty is no longer a major problem among U.S. families with children. C) U.S. public policies safeguarding children and youths lag behind policies in other developed nations. D) the United States has an excellent system in place for guaranteeing high-quality child care to all citizens. Answer: C Page Ref: 33 123) Of all Western nations, has the highest percentage of extremely poor children. A) the United States B) Canada C) Denmark D) Australia Answer: A Page Ref: 33 124) is the only industrialized nation without a universal, publicly funded health-care system, A) Saudi Arabia B) Japan C) The United States D) The United Kingdom Answer: C Page Ref: 33 125) Which of the following countries has the highest teenage pregnancy rate? A) Canada B) the United States C) Slovakia D) Poland Answer: B Page Ref: 34 126) One reason Americans have been slow to endorse government-supported benefits for all families is because the A) people in the United States tend to value interdependence. B) United States is a relatively wealthy nation. C) United States is a highly complex society. D) United States is an individualistic society. Answer: D Page Ref: 34–35

127) Which of the following statements is true about collectivist societies? A) Most Western European countries lean away from collectivism. B) Collectivism tends to increase as cultures become more complex. C) Collectivist societies value the interdependent self. D) People think of themselves as separate entities and are largely concerned with their own needs. Answer: C Page Ref: 35 128) Research on the importance of early experiences for children’s intellectual development played a major role in the founding of A) the Convention on the Rights of the Child. B) the Children’s Defense Fund. C) Project Head Start. D) the National Association for the Education of Young Children. Answer: C Page Ref: 35 129) In the United States, a family can be on Temporary Aid to Needy Families for continuous months. A) 24 B) 36 C) 48 D) 60 Answer: A Page Ref: 36 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Welfare Reform, Poverty, and Child Development 130) Welfare reform A) promotes children’s development only when it results in a more adequate standard of living. B) is beneficial for children and for low-skilled, less-educated single mothers. C) protects children from the damaging effects of poverty. D) has been successful, even in families that moved to total reliance on work. Answer: A Page Ref: 36 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Welfare Reform, Poverty, and Child Development 131) Which of the following is one way Great Britain used welfare policies to reduce its child poverty rate by more than half over the past decade? A) It initiated a minimum wage sufficient to cover a family’s basic needs. B) It instituted a 60-month lifetime cap on welfare benefits. C) It only allows families to receive welfare benefits for 24 continuous months. D) It completely eliminated government-funded preschool and child-care subsidies. Answer: A Page Ref: 36 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Welfare Reform, Poverty, and Child Development 132) The field of child development now recognizes that is among the most powerful tools for preventing developmental problems and enhancing children’s quality of life. A) sound public policy B) family therapy C) early IQ testing D) high-quality child care Answer: A Page Ref: 37

133) With regard to the Convention on the Rights of the Child, the United States A) played no role in drafting the agreement. B) is one of only two nations in the world whose legislature has not yet ratified it. C) ratified it in 1989. D) adopted it as public policy in 2010. Answer: B Page Ref: 37 134) Opponents of the Convention on the Rights of the Child A) maintain that its provisions would shift the burden of child rearing from the family to the state. B) believe that investing in children yields valuable returns to a nation’s economy. C) are mostly located in war-torn nations. D) argue that it should contain child abuse and neglect protections. Answer: A Page Ref: 37 135) The Children’s Defense Fund A) was founded by James Mark Baldwin. B) engages in public education, legal action, and community organizing. C) partners with corporations to enhance the social relevance of child development research. D) primarily publishes reports on children’s conditions in developing nations. Answer: B Page Ref: 37 ESSAY 136) Summarize differences between continuous and discontinuous development. Answer: The continuous view of development holds that infants and preschoolers respond to the world in much the same way as adults do. The difference between the immature and the mature being is simply one of amount or complexity. Continuous development is a process of gradually adding more of the same types of skills that were there to begin with. The discontinuous view of development holds that children’s thoughts, emotions, and behavior differ considerably from those of adults. Discontinuous development is a process in which new ways of understanding and responding to the world emerge at specific times. Children move through a series of developmental steps, each with unique features, until they reach the highest level of functioning. Theories that accept the discontinuous perspective regard development as taking place in stages. In stage theories, development is much like climbing a staircase, with each step corresponding to a more mature, reorganized way of functioning. The stage concept assumes that children undergo periods of rapid transformation as they step up from one stage to the next, alternating with plateaus during which they stand solidly within a stage. In other words, change is fairly sudden rather than gradual and ongoing. Page Ref: 7–8 137) Discuss the concepts of stability and plasticity with regard to individual differences among children. Answer: A theory’s position on the roles of nature and nurture affects how it explains individual differences. Some theorists emphasize stability—that children who are high or low in a characteristic (such as verbal ability, anxiety, or sociability) will remain so at later ages. These theorists typically stress the importance of heredity. If they regard environment as important, they usually point to early experiences as establishing a lifelong pattern of behavior. Powerful negative events in the first few years, they argue, cannot be fully overcome by later, more positive ones. Other theorists, taking a more optimistic view, see development as having substantial plasticity throughout life—as open to change in response to influential experiences. Page Ref: 9

138) Compare and contrast the terms “critical period” and “sensitive period,” and discuss how observations of imprinting led to the development of these concepts. Answer: Watching diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The best known of these is imprinting, the early following behavior of certain baby birds, such as geese, which ensures that the young will stay close to the mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an early, restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is absent during this time but an object resembling her in important features is present, young goslings may imprint on it instead. Lorenz’s and Tinbergen’s observations of imprinting led to the concept of the critical period. It refers to a limited time during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of an appropriately stimulating environment. A sensitive period refers to a time that is optimal for certain capacities to emerge because the individual is especially responsive to environmental influences. However, its boundaries are less well defined than those of a critical period. Development can occur later, but it is harder to induce. The term sensitive period applies better to human development than the strict notion of a critical period. Page Ref: 23–24 139) Describe Urie Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory. Answer: According to Bronfenbrenner’s theory, the child develops within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment. Because the child’s biologically influenced dispositions join with environmental forces to mold development, Bronfenbrenner characterized his perspective as a bioecological model. Bronfenbrenner envisioned the environment as a series of nested structures that form a complex functioning whole, or system. These include but also extend beyond the home, school, and neighborhood settings in which children spend their everyday lives. Each layer of the environment joins with the others to powerfully affect development. The microsystem concerns relations between the child and the immediate environment, the mesosystem encompasses connections among immediate settings, the exosystem consists of social settings that affect but do not contain the child, and the macrosystem consists of the values, laws, customs, and resources of the culture that affect activities and interactions at all inner layers. The chronosystem refers to the dynamic, ever-changing nature of the person’s environment. It is the temporal dimension of his model. Life changes can be imposed on the child. Alternatively, they can arise from within the child, since as children get older they select, modify, and create many of their own settings and experiences. Page Ref: 26–28 140) Describe the dynamic systems perspective of child development. Answer: According to the dynamic systems perspective, the child’s mind, body, and physical and social worlds form an integrated system that guides mastery of new skills. The system is dynamic, or constantly in motion. A change in any part of it—from brain growth to physical and social surroundings—disrupts the current organism–environment relationship. When this happens, the child actively reorganizes her behavior so the components of the system work together again but in a more complex, effective way. Researchers adopting a dynamic systems perspective try to find out just how children attain new levels of organization by studying their behavior while they are in transition. Dynamic systems theorists acknowledge that a common human genetic heritage and basic regularities in children’s physical and social worlds yield certain universal, broad outlines of development. But biological makeup, everyday tasks, and the people who support children in mastery of those tasks vary greatly, leading to wide individual differences in specific skills. Even when children master the same skills, such as walking, talking, or adding and subtracting, they often do so in unique ways. And because children build competencies by engaging in real activities in real contexts, different skills vary in maturity within the same child. From this perspective, development cannot be characterized as a single line of change. It is more like a web of fibers branching out in many directions, each representing a different skill area that may

undergo both continuous and stagewise transformations. Page Ref: 30 141) List the three basic issues in child development. What stances do behaviorism and Piaget’s cognitivedevelopmental theory take on each of these issues? Answer: The three basic issues in child development are: (1) Is the course of development continuous or discontinuous? (2) Does one course of development characterize all children, or are there many possible courses? (3) What are the roles of genetic and environmental factors—nature and nurture—in development? Behaviorism views development as continuous. Development involves an increase in learned behaviors. Behaviors reinforced and modeled may vary from child to child. Thus, there are many possible courses of development. Finally, the theory emphasizes nurture. Development results from conditioning and modeling. Both early and later experiences are important. On the other hand, Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory views development as discontinuous. Cognitive development takes place in stages. There is one course of development, as stages are assumed to be universal. Both nature and nurture are important. Development occurs as the brain grows and children exercise their innate drive to discover reality in a generally stimulating environment. Both early and later experiences are important. Page Ref: 7, 32 142) Compare the United States with other industrialized countries on several indicators of child health and well-being. Why have U.S. public policies safeguarding children and youths lagged behind policies in other developed nations? Answer: American children do not fare well compared to those living in other industrialized countries on a range of childhood social indicators. For example, the United States has high percentages of children living in poverty, infant deaths in the first year of life, and teenage pregnancy rates. The United States has been slow to move toward national standards and funding for child care. U.S. public policy has lagged behind that of other nations because of the cultural value of individualism, limited social programs, lack of involvement of researchers in the policy-making process, and a public that has been slow to endorse government-supported benefits for all families. Page Ref: 33–36

Chapter 2 Research Strategies Multiple Choice 1. Your textbook discusses the issue of facilitated communication and its applicability to assisting children with autism. One possibility for the early research results was that the children were communicating through the adults who were assisting them. As the book notes, a simpler explanation for the miraculous findings was that the “facilitators” were simply guiding the hands of the children to communicate things that their parents would want to hear. This simpler explanation is consistent with the concept of A) replicability. Incorrect. Though replication of early findings was a problem for the issue of facilitated communication, it is not the answer to this particular question. B) Occam’s Razor. Correct. Occam’s Razor suggests that the simplest explanation for a phenomenon tends to be the correct explanation. In this example, the facilitator guiding the “communication” of the children is the simplest explanation for the early outcomes. C) falsifiability. D) correlation versus causation. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 44–45 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 5.1a TEXT LO: Introduction 2. What is one take home message from the discussion of autism and facilitated communication? A) Autistic children want to communicate with their parents but need someone to facilitate the process. B) In almost all cases researched, the data failed to support the idea that facilitated communication was truly effective. Correct. Your authors note that in nearly 100% of cases tested, the picture flashed to the facilitator was the word typed. C) Psychological research is dangerous because it allows anyone to find support for any idea or opinion. Incorrect. While this may be true in some cases, this is not the prevailing message that the authors are trying to convey. D) The scientific method is not an effective means for finding solutions for persons who live with autism and other psychological disorders. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 44–45 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 5.1a TEXT LO: Introduction

3. Contradicting years of theory and practice, Douglas Biklen claimed that children with autism could, in fact, communicate with the aid of a “facilitator.” With his help, these children gave messages of love and warmth to their parents, many of whom had been without such affection since their children were born. When the evidence of this “facilitated communication” is examined, which principle of critical thinking from your chapter is not supported? A) Occam’s Razor B) Correlation vs. causation C) Falsifiability Incorrect. In this case, the claims were falsifiable as demonstrated by ongoing research. D) Extraordinary claims Correct. The extraordinary claims that autistic children could suddenly be given an avenue to communicate effectively was belied by the research evidence, which showed facilitated communication to be without validity of any kind. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44–45 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 5.1a TEXT LO: Introduction 4. The discussion on the topic of facilitated communication demonstrated the importance of which critical component of critical thinking? A) Developing falsifiable hypotheses Incorrect. In this case, the claims were falsifiable as demonstrated by ongoing research. B) Parsimonious theories C) Replication of earlier research findings D) Ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. As it turned out, research demonstrated that facilitated communication had no true research validity, and an alternate explanation was needed. That explanation was that the “facilitators” were actually the ones doing the communicating, not the children with autistic disorder. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44–45 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 5.1a TEXT LO: Introduction 5. The use of the prefrontal lobotomy was, for quite some time, regarded as a miracle treatment for people suffering from schizophrenia and other mental illnesses. The amazing nature of this treatment was not, however, supported by research into its effectiveness. Which concept of critical thinking is important to consider in this example? A) Correlation vs. causation B) Replicability Incorrect. Because there was no scientific research that supported the claims of the effectiveness of the lobotomy, there would be nothing to be replicated. Therefore this answer is not the best choice. C) Occam’s Razor D) Extraordinary claims Correct. Remember that extraordinary claims, including “miracle cures,” must be supported by extraordinary evidence. That evidence was sorely lacking in the case of the prefrontal lobotomy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 46 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1 Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning

6. Once controlled research studies were conducted on the effectiveness of prefrontal lobotomies, they were discovered to be A) slightly effective. B) sometimes effective, sometimes not. C) universally effective. D) virtually useless. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 46 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1 Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning 7. When a psychologist is discussing a heuristic, he or she is referring to A) biased information processing strategies. B) a mental shortcut or rule of thumb. C) a mental technique to improve memory recall. D) a mental technique to increase deliberation in our decision making. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 47 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1 Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning 8. A mental shortcut that helps us to streamline our thinking and make sense of our world is called a A) theory. B) heuristic. C) schema. D) mental reference. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1 Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning 9. Dr. Fortner is discussing cognitive psychology with his introductory psychology class and says that we act as cognitive misers when making judgments about others or making decisions. What does Dr. Fortner mean with this statement? A) We are frequently incorrect in our judgments and decision making. Incorrect. This is not implied by calling people cognitive misers. B) We value accuracy in our judgments and decisions. C) We are lazy and conserve mental energy by simplifying the world. Correct. Referring to people as cognitive misers suggests that they take mental shortcuts in their attempt to solve problems. This implies that people are lazy and conserve their mental energy by using heuristics. D) We will use heuristics only as long as they give us the correct answer. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 46–47 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1 Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning

10. A key idea that emerged from Kahneman and Tversky’s research is that people often behave A) irrationally. B) logically and reasonably. C) rationally. D) in an unbiased fashion. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 47 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1 Identify two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning 11. When a researcher tests his or her hypothesis, he or she is often hoping to gather information that is consistent with a particular theory. What, more specifically, allows a researcher to say that he or she has “proven” a theory? A) Any time a hypothesis is confirmed, a theory is automatically “proven.” B) Any time a hypothesis confirms one theory and simultaneously disconfirms at least one other theory, a theory has been “proven.” C) Any time a hypothesis confirms one theory and simultaneously disconfirms all other known theories, a theory has been “proven.” D) A researcher is never able to say that he or she has “proven” a theory. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 48 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 12. Which of the following is one of the questions that a researcher should ask herself before conducting a research study? A) “How can I avoid using statistics to analyze my results?” B) “What research strategies should I use to test my idea?” Correct. In fact, this should be one of the first questions asked after the idea has been formulated. C) “Will I be able to prove my hypothesis?” Incorrect. Recall from your chapter that a true theory cannot be proven. It simply stands as the best model, based on the available data, until a better model replaces it. D) “How can I guarantee that I obtain subjective results?” Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48–49 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

13. Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation? A) It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid. B) It involves observing behavior in its real-world context. C) It is basically the same process as objective introspection. D) It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys % correct 75 a = 14 b = 75 c = 0 d = 11 r = .53 % correct 74 a = 21 b = 74 c = 0 d = 5 r = .66 14. Watching behavior in real-world settings is known as A) case study. B) correlation design. C) naturalistic observation. D) existence proof. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 15. Dr. Watson wanted to know which sex was better at sharing at the sixth-grade level, so he went to the local middle school to observe lunch periods. This is a form of A) case study. B) naturalistic observation. Correct. Naturalistic observation entails watching behavior in a real-world settings. C) experimental design. Incorrect. Naturalistic observation takes place in the real world. Experimental designs take place in a laboratory setting. D) confirmation bias. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

16. A researcher is interested in determining how frequently bullying behavior occurs in real-life settings. This researcher would best be advised to use the A) case study design. B) correlational design. C) experimental design. Incorrect. Naturalistic observation takes place in the real world. Experimental designs take place in a laboratory setting. D) naturalistic observation design. Correct. Naturalistic observation occurs in the real world, rather than in a laboratory. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys % correct 84 a = 11 b = 0 c = 5 d = 84 r = .32 17. A group of student researchers divide up the different times and buildings on their campus to attempt to determine when people will hold a door open for another person. These student researchers are most likely to use which research method design when conducting their study? A) Case study design B) Correlational design C) Experimental design Incorrect. Naturalistic observation takes place in the real world. Experimental designs take place in a laboratory setting. D) Naturalistic observation design Correct. Naturalistic observation occurs in the real world, rather than in a laboratory. This is how one can most effectively assess behaviors without influencing them. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys % correct 75 a = 6 b = 19 c = 0 d = 75 r = .23 18. Jason was conducting an evaluation of a restaurant waitress. He sat at the table with a list of things to observe in front of him, and the waitress noticed that he was assessing her every move. He noticed that she began acting more professionally around him, was friendlier, and gave him extra attention. Why would Jason have been better off using naturalistic observation for this assessment? A) So that he could have more experimental control over his independent variable. Incorrect. Remember that naturalistic observation is not a form of experimental research, and so one of its drawbacks is a lack of control. B) So that he would be sure to “catch” the waitress behaving unprofessionally. C) So that he could have been sure to get enough data to use proper statistics. D) So that his observations would not have changed the waitress’s behaviors. Correct. Naturalistic observation involves watching behaviors take place without influencing them. This way the researcher can get a true and objective “picture” of how those behaviors take place. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

19. Professor Williams wants to know if “real” college students exhibit the same kinds of behaviors in class that subjects who were paid to act like college students do. She decides to have someone come in once a week to her classes to record the types of nonverbal behaviors that students engage in while listening to her lectures. This would be an example of which kind of study? A) A formal experiment Incorrect. In this study there is no manipulation of one variable to explore its effect on a second variable. This research is naturalistic observation. B) Naturalistic observation Correct. Naturalistic observation involves watching and recording participants’ behavior, often without their knowledge. C) Case study D) Survey research Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 20. The extent to which it is possible to draw cause-and-effect conclusions from a given research project describes the study’s validity. A) construct B) cohesive C) external D) internal Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 21. Vincent is designing a research study as part of his Master’s thesis. He wants to do a laboratory study where he can control as many variables as possible, but he is concerned that his findings will not generalize very well from the laboratory setting to the real world. In technical terms, Vincent is concerned about the of his study. A) internal validity B) test-retest reliability Incorrect. Test-retest reliability refers to the consistency of findings from one administration of an assessment tool to the next. C) external validity Correct. External validity refers to the extent to which we can generalize findings from a research study to real world settings. D) confound reliability Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

22. A student researcher wishes to maximize the external validity of his or her research design. What research method should you recommend to him or her? A) Case study design B) Correlational design C) Experimental design Incorrect. The primary benefit of experimental designs is that they are high in internal validity. The generalizability, or external validity, of such research is sometimes quite low. D) Naturalistic observational design Correct. Because naturalistic observations often generalize well to the real world, they are high in external validity. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 23. This research design involves an extremely deep and detailed information gathering from a single individual over an extended period of time. A) Case study design B) Correlational design C) Experimental design D) Naturalistic observation design Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 24. Which of the following is one of the primary benefits of the case study method of conducting research? A) They can be helpful in providing existence proofs. Correct. Existence proofs, which are demonstrations that a particular psychological phenomenon can occur, are actually assisted by case study research. B) They have a very high level of external validity. Incorrect. In fact, one problem with case studies is that they often have a low level of external validity. C) They are the only type of research that allows for cause-and-effect conclusions. D) They are resistant to heuristic biases that can skew results. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

25. The study of rare or unusual phenomena is most easily done through the use of the design. A) case study Correct. Because case studies can get unusually high levels of detail information, there are very useful for studying rare or unusual phenomena. B) correlational C) experimental Incorrect. In fact, rare or unusual phenomena occur so infrequently that they are not effectively studied using experimental designs. D) observational Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 26. Sarah, a graduate student in psychology, just heard about a five-year-old child who has already learned calculus. She is thinking about doing an in-depth study of the child for her dissertation because such earlylife math skill is so rare. Sarah is considering which research method? A) Naturalistic observation Incorrect. While naturalistic observation might give Sarah some useful information about this five-year-old child, in order to get the depth that she is looking for she would have to do a case study. B) Experiment C) Independent study D) Case study Correct. Case studies involve in-depth analyses of one or a few participants. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 27. When psychologists want to find out about people’s personality or attitudes, an effective research tool would be a(n) A) naturalistic observation. B) experiment. C) case study. D) self-report measure. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

28. Dr. Potter, an English professor, is curious about his students’ attitudes toward one of his favorite books. What research method is he most likely to use to gather this information? A) Case study Incorrect. Because Dr. Potter wants to get information from multiple students, a case study would not be an effective way of gathering that information. B) Survey Correct. The survey method is most appropriate when we are interested in people’s attitudes or opinions. C) Experiment D) Naturalistic observation Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 29. The most important factor to ensure that one’s results apply to other people in other settings is to use A) extremely large sample sizes. B) extremely small sample sizes. C) random assignment. D) random selection. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys % correct 67 a = 11 b = 5 c = 17 d = 67 r = .68 % correct 63 a = 21 b = 5 c = 11 d = 63 r = .63 30. Sue asked three of her friends after class if they thought the test they just finished taking was as easy as she thought it was. They all agreed that it was. She was surprised to find out the next day that, although she and her friends had indeed done well, a majority of the class had failed. Why shouldn’t Sue have been surprised? A) Most of the students did not study for the test. B) She did not use random selection when asking people about the test. Correct. Without random selection, we can’t be sure whether the group we’ve selected is representative of the larger group. C) Students should have been randomly assigned to take the tests on different days. Incorrect. The concept of randomness is important to answer this question, but the correct answer is random selection, not random assignment. D) Her friends shouldn’t have expressed their views regarding the test. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

31. The large difference in the percentages of women who admitted to extramarital affairs in the Hite Report versus a Harris organization pool was most likely due to A) demand characteristics. B) how the questions were worded in each study. Incorrect. It is not the wording of the questions that was the problem, rather the way participants were selected. C) the method of participant selection used in each study. Correct. As your text points out, random selection was not used in this case. D) the use of covert versus participant observation. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 32. is consistency of measurement. A) Random assignment B) Validity C) Reliability D) Confounding variable Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys % correct 58 a = 0 b = 26 c = 58 d = 16 r = .47 33. Dr. Sparks is concerned because he gave Julie a new intelligence test that he personally designed and her scores do not seem very consistent. With which aspect of psychological testing is Dr. Sparks concerned? A) Validity Incorrect. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. B) Self-report measures C) Reliability Correct. Reliability is the extent to which test scores are consistent. D) Falsibility Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys % correct 47 a = 36 b = 11 c = 47 d = 6 r = .43

34. Dr. Riviera measures his students’ knowledge on the topic of memory by giving them three different quizzes over the course of 3 weeks (1 per week). He is hoping to show that student scores are largely the same from week to week. He is trying to establish the of his quiz. A) objectivity B) reliability Correct. Reliability is the extent to which test scores are consistent. C) subjectivity D) validity Incorrect. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 35. When assessing patients’ personalities using an “ink blot” test that she created, Dr. Hardcastle is gaining confidence in the test’s reliability. Which of the following is likely to be happening? A) Her patients are enjoying being tested every day. B) The test is generating approximately the same results each time. Correct. We have evidence of reliability when test scores are consistent, or similar, each time the test is administered to the same person. C) The test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring. Incorrect. This concept would refer to validity, not reliability. D) The test is likely to be uninformative. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51–52 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 36. Brittany, a softball player who plays catcher for the local college, has thrown out base stealers at a 42, 39, and 41 percent rate over her three years. Her performance could be considered which of the following? A) Valid Incorrect. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. B) Invalid C) Reliable Correct. Reliability refers to the extent to which performance is consistent. D) Not reliable Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51–52 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

37. is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. A) Operationalization B) Reliability C) Validity D) Control group Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 38. Jack, Martin, and Gene are all psychologists who are asked to consult on a difficult case. They are all given the results of a particular client’s Rorschach Test, and are asked to come up with independent assessments of the results. All three psychologists have approximately the same level of training, and their findings are very similar. From a research perspective, one could say that there was a high level of reliability between the three reports. A) interrater Correct. Interrater reliability refers to the extent to which different people agree on a given finding, whether it refers to a behavioral observation or an interview outcome. B) construct C) external D) predictive Incorrect. Predictive validity refers to the extent to which a given assessment tool can accurately anticipate future behaviors or outcomes. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 39. The most central question used to assess the quality of a psychological measure is its A) objectivity. B) readability. C) reliability. Incorrect. Reliability refers to the extent to which performance is consistent. D) validity. Correct. Validity is the extent to which a measure assesses what it claims to measure. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 52 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

40. Sarula recently completed a compatibility “quiz” from one of her favorite magazines, and although she and her boyfriend have been dating for nearly two years, the “quiz” results suggested they are not compatible. Luckily, Riley, one of Sarula’s friends, is a student of psychology and suggested that the “quiz” may not be valid. What is her friend suggesting? A) The “quiz” only gives you the answers you want. B) The “quiz” is going to give you similar results every time. Incorrect. This would be the case of her friend suggested that the quiz was not reliable. C) The “quiz” is not very scientific. D) The “quiz” may not actually measure compatibility. Correct. If a measure is not valid, that means that it does not measure what it claims to measure or predict what it claims to predict. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 52 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 41. Jasmine took several different self-administered intelligence tests online yesterday and obtained scores of 124, 128, and 125. She felt great, because the score she received from the psychologist last month at school was only a 95. What characteristic might the online tests be lacking? A) Reliability Incorrect. In fact, this test has high reliability because it’s producing very consistent results. B) Validity Correct. The tests might lack validity because they don’t match a psychologist-administered test (which presumably has been validated). It does seem to be reliable, because the scores are consistent with each other. C) Both reliability and validity D) The tests appear to have both reliability and validity. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 53 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 42. The major advantage of self-report measures, like surveys, is that they A) are easy to administer. Correct. This is, in fact, the easiest type of research to conduct. B) are extremely reliable and valid. Incorrect. Validity is often a problem with self-report measures, because you can’t be certain that your respondents are being totally honest. C) help establish causality. D) are unaffected by the wording or phrasing of the questions. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

43. One difficulty of survey research is that people may not answer questions with complete honesty, and thus may skew the results of the study. If people give different answers to a survey question that is asked on different occasions, this would be a particular problem for the critical thinking concept of . A) correlation versus causation Incorrect. There is nothing in the question that speaks to the nature of relationships (causal or otherwise) between variables. B) replicability Correct. If people give different answers to survey questions asked at different times, the outcomes of the research would be inconsistent. This would present a problem for replication, as the research will not give the same picture from study to study. C) extraordinary claims D) falsifiability Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 44. Alex, a freshman in college, wants to know how many of her dormmates have tried marijuana, so she decides to survey everyone on her floor. Despite rumors to the contrary, the results suggest that fewer than ten percent of her classmates have tried the drug. What is the most likely explanation for her findings? A) People often distort their answers or fail to tell the complete truth when surveyed. Correct. One downside of using self-report measures and surveys is that people often distort answers, either for lack of personal insight or because they want to appear more in a more positive light. B) Her dormmates did not understand the question. C) Alex did not calculate the findings correctly. Incorrect. Alex may have calculated the findings correctly, but the findings may not represent the true behaviors of those with whom she spoke. D) Surveys are not an acceptable means to gather new information. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53–54 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 45. A key disadvantage to self-report measures is that A) demand characteristics can bias participants answers. B) observing behavior leads to changes in behavior. Incorrect. This problem occurs more in experimental research, not in research that uses self-report measures. C) respondents are not always honest in their answers. Correct. This can be a serious problem with self-report measures. D) they are less effective than experiments in accurately predicting peoples’ behavior. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53–54 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

46. While taking a survey on her opinions on abortion rights, Carolyn feels very conflicted. On the one hand, she believes in a woman’s right to choose to terminate a pregnancy if she wants to, but at the same time she feels like this is not a particularly popular answer. Most of her friends are very opposed to the idea of having an abortion. In order to make herself feel like a better person, Carolyn distorts her answers to the survey questions. Instead of being totally honest, she answers in ways that make her feel like a better person. This tendency to distort one’s answer is called a(n) A) demand characteristic. Incorrect. A demand characteristic is a cue that participants in a research study may pick up that allows them to figure out the true nature of the researcher’s hypotheses. B) confirmation heuristic. C) response set. Correct. A response set refers to the tendency of research participants to distort their responses to questionnaire items. D) confounding bias. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 54 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 47. A group of students watch a videotape of two managers interacting with their subordinates at a customer service desk in a department store. Students see one of the managers act in a friendly and respectful manner toward all of the employees. The other manager is less friendly but still respectful toward the employees. What concept would explain the more positive ratings on other dimensions for the friendly manager as compared to the less friendly manager? A) The central tendency error Incorrect. Central tendency refers to a type of statistics, and does not apply to this example. B) The halo effect Correct. The halo effect refers to the tendency of ratings of one positive characteristic to influence the ratings of other positive characteristics. C) The horns effect D) The leniency effect Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 54 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 48. If you are interested in examining the relationship between the number of class days missed and one’s subsequent semester grade point average, you would be best served to use a(n) to study this question. A) case study design B) correlational design Correct. Correlational research is used to examine relationships between variables. C) experimental design Incorrect. Experimental research can investigate the relationship between variables, but if one is not looking to establish a cause and effect relationship, a correlational design is usually easier to employ. D) naturalistic observation design Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54–55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation % correct 84 a = 0 b = 84 c = 11 d = 5 r = .70

49. Two variables are said to be correlated when scores on one variable A) are unrelated to the scores on the second variable. B) are related to the scores on the second variable. C) cause the scores on the second variable. D) are different from the scores on the second variable. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54–55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 50. Authorities have noted that there is an increased number of teen pregnancies among high schools that offer day care to their students. We can draw which of the following conclusions? A) The presence of day care is causing students to become sexually active. B) High schools that provide day care are also offering sexual education. C) There is a negative correlation between teen pregnancies and day care in the high schools. Incorrect. Two variables are negatively correlated if, as one increases, the other decreases. D) There is a positive correlation between teen pregnancies and day care in the high schools. Correct. Two variables are positively correlated if, as one increases, the other increases. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 51. Which of these is a type of correlation coefficient? A) Normal B) Parallel C) Skewed D) Negative Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 52. If there is no discernible relationship between scores on students’ homework assignments and their exam scores in an introductory biology class, we would say that a(n) correlation exists. A) inverse B) negative Incorrect. A negative correlation would indicate that there is a relationship between the two variables in question. C) positive D) zero Correct. When there is no relationship between two variables, the correlation is zero. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation % correct 70 a = 5 b = 11 c = 14 d = 70 r = .46

53. As the average daily temperature in Des Moines, Iowa, decreases, the number of persons who are observed wearing sweaters in the workplace increases. This is an example of a correlation. A) causal B) negative Correct. A negative correlation occurs when one variable moves in one direction as the other variable moves in the opposite direction. C) positive Incorrect. A positive correlation occurs when both variables move in the same direction. D) zero Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation % correct 47 a = 11 b = 47 c = 37 d = 3 r = .40 % correct 47 a = 11 b = 47 c = 42 d = 0 r = .35 54. Hopefully, the amount of time a student spends studying would show a(n) correlation with the student’s grades. A) negative Incorrect. A negative correlation occurs when the variables move in the opposite direction. In this example this is not the outcome that we would hope to see. B) spurious C) positive Correct. A positive correlation means that as the value of one variable goes up, so does the other; in this instance, one would hope that the more one studies, the higher the grade. D) illusory Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 55. There is a negative correlation between wearing one’s seat belt and the severity of injuries received during an accident. Which statement correctly illustrates this correlation? A) The more often you wear your seat belt, the more serious the injury you are likely to receive in an accident. B) The more often you wear your seat belt, the less likely you are to suffer serious injuries in an accident. Correct. A negative correlation means that as one variable goes up, the other goes down. And remember, correlation is not causation. C) Wearing your seatbelt prevents you from being injured in an accident. Incorrect. At first glance this might look like a correct conclusion, and tell you recognize that this conclusion involves a cause and effect statement. Correlation does not imply causation. D) Failing to wear your seat belt increases the likelihood that you will sustain serious injuries in an accident. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

56. Mr. Jones, a sixth grade science teacher, has tried to predict his students’ end-of-the-year grades by looking at their end-of-the-year grades from the previous year. Unfortunately, there does not seem to be any systematic relationship between these two variables. The correlation between these two variables is probably A) near zero. Correct. When there is no relationship between two variables, the correlation coefficient will be at or near zero. B) positive. C) negative. Incorrect. A negative correlation would indicate that there is a relationship between the two variables in question. D) near 1.0. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 57. A correlation coefficient will always range between A) 0 and 1. B) –10 and +10. C) 0 percent and 100 percent. D) –1.0 and +1.0. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 58. Which correlation coefficient is most likely to describe the relationship between brushing one’s teeth and the number of cavities one gets? A) r = –.62 Correct. One would expect that as brushing increases, cavities tend to decrease. Thus, a negative correlation would best describe the relationship. Further, one would expect the relationship to be fairly strong and thus closer to 1.0 than to 0 in absolute value. B) r = .83 Incorrect. This correlation coefficient would suggest that as brushing increases, the number of cavities increases. We would hope that the relationship between tooth brushing and the number of cavities one gets would be a strong negative correlation. C) r = –.08 D) r = .45 Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

59. Which of the following correlations represents the weakest degree of relation between two variables? A) Daily calcium intake and bone mass density, r = +.11 B) Degree of exposure to lead and IQ scores in children, r = –.12 C) Hours of exposure to media violence and aggressive behavior, r = +.31 D) Number of cigarettes smoked per day and incidence of lung cancer, r = +.39 Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation % correct 14 a = 14 b = 80 c = 3 d = 3 r = .45 60. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest degree of relation between two variables? A) +.19 B) –.25 C) +.43 D) –.47 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 61. A graph that can be used to represent the pattern of relationship between scores from two variables is called a A) bar graph. B) frequency polygon. C) histogram. D) scatterplot. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 62. Dr. Schott’s scatterplot reveals no real patterns or clusters. In fact, the data seems to fall randomly on the graph. This pattern of results is most likely from which type of correlation? A) Positive B) Zero Correct. When the correlation coefficient is near zero, the points on a scatterplot will be all over the graph, with no discernable pattern. C) Negative Incorrect. On a scatterplot, a negative correlation will appear as data points clustered around a line going from upper left to lower right. D) Skewed Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

63. Dr. Stanhope is trying to determine which type of correlation is represented on his scatterplot, in which nearly all of his data are clustered along a diagonal line running from higher numbers on the left down to lower numbers on the right. Which type of correlation is represented by this pattern? A) Positive B) Zero Incorrect. When the correlation coefficient is near zero, the points on a scatterplot will be all over the graph, with no discernable pattern. C) Negative Correct. On a scatterplot, a negative correlation will appear as data points clustered around a line going from upper left to lower right. D) We need more information to draw a conclusion. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 64. For many years, newspapers often mentioned the race of criminal suspects who were NOT white in the article detailing their crimes. This often led people who were not obviously biased or prejudiced to conclude that more non-whites committed crimes than whites. This is one example of A) the confirmation bias. Incorrect. The confirmation bias occurs when people attend to information that supports their beliefs, but disregard information that contradicts their beliefs. B) the hindsight bias. C) an illusory correlation. Correct. An illusory correlation exists when there is the appearance of a relationship between two variables that does not truly exist. D) the representativeness heuristic. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 57 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 65. The perception of a statistical association between two variables where none exists is known as A) confirmation bias. B) illusory correlation. C) existence proof. D) Type I error. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 57 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

66. While playing poker with his friends, Matthew scratches his right leg before winning a very big hand. He decides that scratching his right leg will be his “lucky gesture,” and for a long time scratches his right leg with every hand that is dealt. This silly superstition violates which rules of critical thinking? A) Correlation versus causation Correct. A demonstration of an illusory correlation, which underlies many superstitions, Matthew has failed to recognize that the relationship between a leg scratch and a winning hand is not causal. B) Falsifiability C) Extraordinary claims D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. Nothing in this particular question speaks to the rule of parsimony, or Occam’s Razor. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 57 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 67. When asked if there are more ice cream cones sold in November or July, Mary answers July immediately. She is surprised to find out that there is little to no difference between the two months in terms of ice cream cone sales. Mary’s error is most clearly an example of A) imaginary correlation. Incorrect. The correct term for this incorrect belief in the existence of relationship is the illusory correlation. B) common sense. C) superstitions. D) illusory correlation. Correct. Illusory correlation occurs when we perceive a relationship between two variables where none actually exists. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57–58 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 68. Six-year-old Scotty comes running in the door and yells triumphantly to his mother, “Today is my lucky day; I found a four-leaf clover!” Many superstitions, like this one, likely began as which of the following? A) Imaginary correlation B) Anecdotal stories C) Coincidence Incorrect. Coincidental events are often at the heart of the belief in an illusory correlation. D) Illusory correlation Correct. Illusory correlation refers to our tendency to perceive a relationship between two events that are not actually related. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57–58 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

69. studies allow us to make predictions about one variable based on the knowledge of another. A) Case B) Experimental C) Natural D) Correlational Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 70. Correlational research designs are NOT appropriate for purposes of A) causation. B) description. C) prediction. D) describing relationships. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58–59 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 71. As your textbook discusses, a statistician once discovered that in one of the United States there was a negative correlation between the number of Ph.Ds granted and the number of mules in that state. The fact that you cannot then state that the number of Ph.Ds conferred causes the mule population to decrease demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) Correlation vs. causation Correct. Bear in mind that correlational data only gives information about the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables. It says nothing of the causal direction. B) Extraordinary claims Incorrect. It is indeed extraordinary to believe that the number of mules in a state would be related to the number of Ph.Ds that are conferred, but this question demonstrates the problem of correlation versus causation. C) Ruling out rival hypotheses D) Falsifiability Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58–59 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2e and 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.3 and 2.4 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation; identify the components of an experiment and the potential pitfalls that can lead us to faulty conclusions % correct 74 a = 74 b = 21 c = 0 d = 5 r = .24

72. The only research design that allows one to make cause-and-effect inferences is the design. A) case study B) correlational C) experimental D) naturalistic observation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls % correct 49 a = 19 b = 24 c = 49 d = 8 r = .39 73. What is the main difference between an experiment and a correlational study? A) A correlational study involves the manipulation of variables, while an experiment does not. Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. B) An experiment looks at the relationship between independent and dependent variables, while a correlational study looks at the relationship between within-group and between-group variables. C) A correlational study looks at the relationship between independent and dependent variables, while an experiment looks at the relationship between within-group and between-group variables. D) An experiment involves the manipulation of variables, while a correlational study does not. Correct. It is the manipulation of variables along with random assignment that allows an experiment to make cause and effect conclusions, while a correlational study cannot. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 and 2.4 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation; identify the components of an experiment and the potential pitfalls that can lead us to faulty conclusions % correct 44 a = 0 b = 31 c = 25 d = 44 r = .35 % correct 42 a = 5 b = 53 c = 0 d = 42 r = .46 74. A research design characterized by random assignment of participants to conditions and manipulation of an independent variable is called a(n) A) case study. B) naturalistic observation. C) experiment D) survey. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

75. A key aspect of an experiment that is missing in other research designs is A) description of the phenomena of interest. B) explanation of why a relationship exists. C) prediction of the effects of differences in variable on another. D) random assignment. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 76. Professor Golder is studying hyperactivity in preschool age children. She is concerned that differences in child rearing, diet, and so forth may affect her results. To minimize these potential preexisting variables, she should be sure to do which of the following? A) Use random assignment when forming her groups. Correct. Random assignment “cancels out” the effects of any preexisting differences between groups, allowing study of the variable of interest. B) Include an independent variable. C) Include a dependent variable. D) Assign boys to the experimental group and girls to the control group. Incorrect. This kind of assignment to participant groups would actually be problematic, because it would create a confounding variable that could make the experiment invalid. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 77. In an experiment, the group receives no manipulation. A) control B) dependent C) independent D) experimental Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

78. A researcher wants to see whether she can make the typical administrative assistant job more motivating at Acme, Inc. To experimentally investigate this possibility, she randomly assigns administrative assistants to one of the following conditions: doing the job as it has always been done, having a computer performance monitoring device installed, receiving feedback about their performance on a weekly basis, or being given a say in how one’s workload is structured and done. Which of the preceding conditions is an example of a control group? A) Being given a say in how one’s workload is structured and done B) Doing the job as it has always been done Correct. The group that receives no independent variable is the control group. In this case, doing the job as it always has been done would serve as the control. C) Having a computer performance monitoring device installed Incorrect. This group of participants would represent one of the experimental groups. D) Receiving feedback on a weekly basis Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls % correct 65 a = 19 b = 65 c = 13 d = 3 r = .37 % correct 79 a = 16 b = 79 c = 5 d = 0 r = .45 79. Ryan, a professional bass fisherman, is trying to determine which lure is most effective on Wakeby Lake: the plastic worm he normally uses or the new minnow-style lure he bought yesterday. Based on this scenario, what would constitute the control? A) The new minnow lure Incorrect. Using the new minnow lure would represent the experimental case. B) The plastic worm Correct. A control receives no manipulation in an experiment. In this case, normal use of the plastic worm suggests lack of manipulation. C) Neither the minnow lure nor the plastic worm D) There is no control in this particular experiment. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 80. Dr. Johansen randomly assigned subjects to three different groups during her last experiment. She then proceeded to give all the participants in the experiment a new study technique designed to enhance their learning for the upcoming test. What critical error did she make during her experiment? A) She failed to identify the independent variable. B) She failed to identify the dependent variable. C) She failed to include an experimental group. Incorrect. Because all of her participants received the independent variable in question, they were all part of an experimental group. The problem with this research is that there is no control group. D) She failed to include a control group. Correct. In an experiment, we need to ensure that there is a group that receives the “active” treatment and a group that receives a “placebo” treatment (in this case, a study technique that has already been tested). Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

81. Several years ago, the NBA (National Basketball Association) introduced a new style of basketball to the players. After several months, many players complained that they did not like the “feel” of the new ball. Based on this scenario, what constitutes the control? A) There is no control condition. Incorrect. The control condition was the use of the original ball that the players have become accustomed to. B) The new ball that was introduced C) The original ball the players were used to Correct. A control receives no manipulation in an experiment. In this case, the original ball suggests lack of manipulation. D) Both the new and old balls are part of the control condition. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 82. The group that receives the manipulation is called the A) control group. B) dependent group. C) experimental group. D) independent group. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 83. The variable is what the experimenter “manipulates” or varies. A) control B) dependent C) operational D) independent Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 84. The variable that an experimenter measures to determine whether or not the manipulation has had an effect is the variable. A) causal B) confounding C) dependent D) independent Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

85. An administrator believes that the placement of motivational posters on the walls in classrooms of academic buildings will lead to increased GPAs at his school. To test his theory, he randomly assigns certain classrooms within the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences to have the posters, while others do not. None of the remaining four academic colleges have any posters placed in their classrooms. What is the independent variable in this study? A) Academic college B) Classroom wall hangings Correct. The presence or absence of classroom wall hangings is the manipulated variable, so that is the independent variable. C) Gender of the student D) Grade point average Incorrect. The grade point average of the students is what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls % correct 74 a = 0 b = 74 c = 10 d = 16 r = .47 86. A medical doctor believes that the presence of aromatherapy will reduce the anxiety of first-time mothers-to-be during labor and will increase their reported satisfaction with their care at his hospital. He randomly assigns mothers to give birth in a room either with or without aromatherapy. What is the independent variable in this example? A) Anxiety level during labor B) Number of previous birthing experiences C) Presence or absence of aromatherapy Correct. The room environment is what is being manipulated in the experiment, so that is the independent variable. D) Satisfaction with hospital care Incorrect. He satisfaction with hospital care is what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

87. Professor Todd decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students’ test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? A) Students’ test scores Correct. These students’ test scores are what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. B) Chocolate bars Incorrect. The presence or absence of a chocolate bar is what is being manipulated in the experiment, so that is the independent variable. C) The students themselves D) The professor Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls % correct 50 a = 50 b = 42 c = 5 d = 3 r = .62 % correct 79 a = 79 b = 16 c = 0 d = 5 r = .47 88. Coach Ezell wants her players to relax before playing important conference games. At the halfway point in the season, instead of the dance music she normally had playing in the locker room, she switches to classical music before the games. What is the dependent variable in this scenario? A) The new classical music Incorrect. The type of music that is being played is what is being manipulated in the experiment, so that is the independent variable. B) The players’ anxiety level Correct. The players’ anxiety level is what is being measured, so that is the dependent variable. C) The coach D) The original dance music Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

89. Professor Todd decides to test her hypothesis that eating chocolate prior to exams increases students’ test scores. She randomly assigns students to two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group receives a bar of chocolate before each test, while the other group receives another type of candy. She compares their scores at the end of the year, and finds that the students who ate the chocolate scored an average of ten points higher on their exams. What is a fair conclusion that can be drawn from this experiment? A) Eating chocolate causes students’ test scores to increase. Correct. An experiment with random assignment to groups allows us to determine cause and effect. B) Eating chocolate has no relationship to students’ test scores. C) Eating chocolate may increase students’ satisfaction with the class. D) Eating chocolate makes students happy. Incorrect. These students may feel happy as a result of doing better on their exams, but that is not a relationship measured in this experiment. This experiment also does not look at the relationship between eating chocolate and student happiness. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 90. When conducting an experiment, it is of crucial importance that the operational definitions of what is being measured are clearly stated and easily identified. This allows for other researchers to try to repeat the research to verify the findings. To which principle of critical thinking is this factor most salient? A) Occam’s Razor B) Replicability Correct. If research is to be repeated (or replicated), then the operational definitions from one study to the next must be consistent and clear. C) Extraordinary claims Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that speaks to the need for extraordinary claims to be supported by similarly impactful evidence. D) Correlation versus causation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 91. A(n) definition in an experiment refers to a working description of what the researcher is measuring or observing in the study. A) control B) dependent C) operational D) independent Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

92. In an experiment, a researcher wants to avoid the presence of A) confounding variables. B) dependent variables. C) independent variables. D) random assignment. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 93. When acting as a participant in a research study examining the relationship between alcohol consumption and driving ability, Layla was assigned to the experimental group that received the highest amount of alcohol to drink. Despite this ingestion of liquor, Layla was still able to navigate the driver’s course perfectly. The experimenter did not consider the fact that Layla had been a drinker for many years, and had developed a high alcohol tolerance. This factor, which impacted the dependent variable in the study, would be called a(n) variable. A) external B) dependent C) independent D) confounding Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 94. A difference between experimental and control groups, other than the independent variable, is a variable. A) confounding B) dependent C) false D) placebo Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

95. Why is it important to make sure that different participant groups are roughly equivalent in terms of personal characteristics (e.g., age, gender) before any independent variable is introduced? A) Because it is important to treat all research participants equally so that they feel that they are not being manipulated. Incorrect. This is a correct statement, but it does not answer the question of why we want participant groups to be equivalent before an independent variable is introduced. B) Because research ethics forbid any experiment to take place when the participant groups are fundamentally different from each other. C) So that no major differences between the groups unduly bias the results of the experiment. Correct. When the groups are different before the research begins, any changes in the dependent variable might be caused by those differences (which are called confounding variables). D) Because it threatens the integrity of a within-group experimental design. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 96. One difficulty in conducting medical research is that participants often assume that any treatment will be effective in alleviating their symptoms. Therefore, a researcher has to design an experiment that measures the influence of A) random selection. B) medical confounds. C) the Rosenthal effect. Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. D) the placebo effect. Correct. The placebo effect occurs when a participant’s expectations cause him or her to experience certain effects. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 97. People report feeling better after taking medication even though it hasn’t had time to be effective. They are experiencing A) the experimenter bias effect. B) low reliability. C) the placebo effect. D) confirmation bias. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

98. Dr. Wilkins randomly assigns subjects to one of three groups. He is interested in the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. He gives subjects in the first group an extra two cups of coffee a day for six months. The second group receives an extra two cups of decaffeinated coffee a day for the same time period, while the control group is not given either regular or decaffeinated coffee. By providing one group with decaffeinated coffee, Dr. Wilkins is trying to account for which potential element of the experiment? A) A control condition B) The Rosenthal effect Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. C) The placebo effect Correct. The placebo effect occurs when an inert treatment “works.” In this case, it would occur if the decaf coffee increased anxiety (it should have no effect on anxiety). D) The artificial condition Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls % correct 88 a = 8 b = 1 c = 88 d = 1 r = .37 99. Lisa, a college student, had a great time at the party last night. She danced, sang karaoke, and even played the “rock band” video game—all behaviors that she had never exhibited in public before. She had been drinking the “punch” all night long, which she was told contained high levels of alcohol. Lisa was quite surprised to find out the next morning that the punch did NOT contain any alcohol. What concept may explain Lisa’s behavior? A) The Rosenthal effect B) Illusory correlations C) The nocebo effect Incorrect. The nocebo effect is harm resulting from the mere expectation of harm. D) The placebo effect Correct. The placebo effect occurs when an inert treatment “works.” In this case, it would occur if the nonalcoholic punch produced more gregarious behavior. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 100. The best way to avoid the placebo effect in research is to: A) keep the participants “blind” as to which participant group they are in. B) use adequate debriefing before the research is conducted. C) wait until after the research is complete before garnering informed consent. D) using better methods of deception (consistent with research ethics) in the experiment. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

101. When someone experiences harm based solely on the expectation that they will experience harm, this is called the effect. A) Zaigarnik B) nocebo C) Barnum D) placebo Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62–63 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 102. is a phenomenon in which researchers’ hypotheses lead them to unintentionally bias the outcome of a study. A) Durability bias B) Experimenter expectancy effect C) Availability heuristic D) Confounding variable Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 103. Dr. Francis is conducting a study in which she is examining the impact of a new math tutoring program on elementary school students’ performance in a math class. She has hypothesized that the tutoring will significantly increase the performance of students who are enrolled in this program. She has to remember not to let her expectation of an outcome influence her interpretation of the final data. In other words, she needs to defend against the effect. A) Flynn Incorrect. The Flynn effect, which is not discussed in this chapter, refers to a tendency for a population’s IQ scores to gradually increase over time. B) nocebo C) Rosenthal Correct. The Rosenthal effect, which is another name for experimenter expectancy effect, occurs when a researcher’s hypotheses lead them to unintentionally bias the study’s outcomes. D) Rogers Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 64 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

104. An experiment would be described as when neither researchers nor participants are aware of who is in the experimental or control group. A) blind B) unfalsifiable C) a placebo D) double-blind Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 105. How does conducting a double-blind study attempt to remedy the experimenter expectancy effect? A) The experimenter does not know, but the participant does know, what condition the participant is assigned to. Incorrect. This would be an example of a single blind study. In a double-blind study, neither the experimenter nor the participant knows which condition the participant has been assigned to. B) The experimenter and the participant both know what condition the participant is assigned to. C) The experimenter knows, but the participant does not know, what condition the participant is assigned to. D) Neither the experimenter nor the participant knows what condition the participant is assigned to. Correct. When neither the experimenter nor the participant knows what condition has been assigned, it eliminates the possibility of the placebo and experimenter effects. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 106. In the case of Clever Hans, a teacher named Wilhelm von Oster claimed that he had taught his horse arithmetic, including square roots. As it turns out, the horse was merely responding to subtle, unintentional physical signals being given by von Oster. This demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) Extraordinary claims Correct. It is certainly extraordinary to think that a horse can be taught to do higher math problems, but in this case, the evidence of the validity of the claims was not so extraordinary. B) Correlation vs. causation C) Replicability D) Occam’s Razor Incorrect. The simplest explanation for the case of Clever Hans is that he was being unintentionally fed the correct answers, but the best answer to this case is extraordinary claims. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64–65 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

107. Marissa just finished completing her new employee questionnaire form for a job in sales. Despite being a rather shy, introverted person, Marissa checked all the areas that referred to her as a talkative and outgoing individual. She believes those extraverted characteristics are exactly what her new employer is looking for. Which concept is being illustrated? A) Participant bias B) The primacy effect C) Demand characteristics Correct. Demand characteristics are cues that participants pick up that allow them to guess about the researcher’s hypothesis. In this case, Marissa could guess that the employer was looking for extraverted candidates. D) The Rosenthal effect Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 108. Eila is participating in a psychological experiment for one of the graduate students at her university. She is pretty confident that she knows the true intent of the study and is trying to answer the questions accordingly. A common pitfall in experiments, Eila is falling prey to A) intentionality. B) the Rosenthal effect. Incorrect. The Rosenthal effect refers to experimenter expectancy effects. That is not seen in this example. C) observer bias. D) demand characteristics. Correct. Demand characteristics are cues that participants pick up that allow them to guess about the researcher’s hypothesis. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 109. In attempt to examine whether research done in a laboratory setting can, in fact, be generalized to the “real world,” Douglas Mook pointed out that studies that had high internal validity often had high external validity and could be repeated in a way that yielded the same, or at least similar, findings. Which principle of critical thinking does this address? A) Occam’s Razor B) Ruling out rival hypotheses C) Falsifiability Incorrect. There is nothing in this question that discusses the possibility of a finding being falsified, or proven incorrect. D) Replicability Correct. This issue directly addresses the ability to repeat research and obtain the same or similar findings. That is the crux of the issue of replicability. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

110. According to your authors, laboratory research generalizes A) poorly from college undergraduates to other groups of people in other settings. B) poorly from experimental designs in the laboratory but well from correlational or naturalistic observation designs. C) well from laboratory settings to the real world, but only when undergraduates are not used as participants. D) well from laboratory settings to the real world. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 111. In one of the most shameful violations of research ethics to date, nearly 400 African American men from were not informed that they had been diagnosed with syphilis and were not provided with available, effective treatments for this illness. A) Tuskegee B) Baton Rouge C) Biloxi D) Montgomery Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 112. Which ethical requirement of research was not present in the Tuskegee experiment, where nearly 400 African American men were exposed to syphilis and denied treatment for its symptoms? A) Anonymity B) Confidentiality C) Informed consent D) Protection from deception Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 113. What is the purpose of an institutional review board? A) To help protect research participants from abuse B) To hinder the research process by placing unnecessary hurdles in the way of researchers C) To help protect the university from lawsuits from unhappy research participants D) To encourage the use of deception in medical and psychological research with humans Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants

114. Students of psychology are often frustrated because there are very few, if any, clear-cut answers to many of their questions. What is the primary limiting factor in obtaining first-hand knowledge of questions such as the long-term effects of child abuse or the effects of smoking marijuana on a pregnancy? A) Most people in the general public are not concerned with these issues. B) It is difficult to find people who are victims of abuse or mothers who smoke marijuana during pregnancy. C) Ethical guidelines in research prevent psychologists from carrying out many of these studies. Correct. Due to ethical considerations, we cannot randomly assign children to abusive or nonabusive homes, for example. Thus, it is impossible to say whether A causes B, in many cases. D) Institutional review boards encourage participation in studies that may be harmful to participants either mentally or physically. Incorrect. Nothing could be further from the truth. Institutional review boards exist to prevent unnecessary harm or discomfort to research participants. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 115. If Dr. Shioux wants to conduct research that will involve human participants at his university, he will have to submit a summary of the study to a(n) before he can actually proceed. This will act as a form of protection for the participants he intends to enroll in his research. A) subjects rights committee (SRC) B) institutional review board (IRB) Correct. An IRB exists to protect human participants from potentially abusive research protocols. C) human resources investigation panel (HRIP) Incorrect. Human resources is usually a department involved in assisting and interacting with faculty members at a company or business. It is not involved in research protocol examination. D) ethics assurance board (EAB) Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 116. Which of these is part of the APA ethical principles for human research? A) Research participants must give informed consent. B) Research participants must be deceived so that they do not know the true nature of the research to which they are contributing. C) Research participants must be paid for their contribution. D) As long as informed consent has been given, research participants may be subjected to any level of physical or psychological pain or discomfort. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 68 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants % correct 91 a = 91 b = 0 c = 0 d = 9 r = .44

117. In examining the research of Stanley Milgram, who explored factors related to obedience in research participants, which of the following areas of ethics seems to be the most salient issue in determining if his research was or was not a violation of reasonable ethical standards? A) The right to withdraw from research B) Pain and suffering in non-human participants C) Debriefing Incorrect. Milgram’s research protocol involved a thorough debriefing to participants after the research session was completed. D) Informed consent Correct. Some have suggested that because he did not adequately inform participants what they were “getting into,” that his research failed in its obligation to obtain true informed consent. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 68 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 118. Dr. Williams believes that by administering brief electric shocks to his students, he can improve their attention to his lectures. He blames daydreaming and inattention by his students for their poor performance in his class. His colleagues are not convinced that the potential benefits to the students will outweigh the physical pain they may endure. Ultimately, what will Dr. Williams have to obtain from his students before proceeding? A) Medical records B) A debriefing of the results of the study Incorrect. Debriefings come after a participants contribution to a study has been completed. In this case, informed consent must be obtained before the participants contribute to the study. C) Information about the students’ parents D) Informed consent Correct. Informed consent is a process that helps research participants know what they are getting into, and is necessary for conducting an ethically sound study. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 68 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 119. Professor Wagner is explaining to his subjects the purpose behind the experiment they just participated in, along with a general description of the results. He is engaging in what aspect of a research study? A) Debriefing Correct. Debriefing is a process that allows the researcher to fully disclose the nature of the study and provide more information. It occurs once an individual’s participation is complete. B) Informed consent Incorrect. Informed consent is a process that helps research participants know what they are getting into, and is necessary for conducting an ethically sound study. It must be garnered before a participant contributes to a study. C) Ethical considerations D) Ethical consent Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 68 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants

120. An overwhelming number of research studies that examine non-human participants involve the use of A) monkeys and chimpanzees. B) fish and insects. C) rodents and birds. D) dogs and cats. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 69 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1c TEXT LO: 2.6 Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects 121. Dr. Nolen wants to know the effects of removing portions of one’s hippocampus on long-term memory, in the hopes of one day finding a cure for patients with Alzheimer’s disease. The subjects for his study are most likely to be A) humans. Incorrect. Although it would probably be most useful for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease to conduct this research on human beings, there is no ethical way this could be occur. B) nonhuman animals. Correct. Some research cannot ethically be conducted on humans, so nonhuman animals (most often mice or rats) are used instead. C) robots. D) insects. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 69 Skill: Applied APA LO: 2.1c TEXT LO: 2.6 Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects 122. What is the authors’ position on the use of animal research in psychology? A) Animal research provides important insights but also comes with costs in terms of death and suffering of these subjects. Correct. This is a correct statement of the authors’ position on the use of animal research. B) All animal research must be ended as soon as is possible. Incorrect. Many people feel this way, but this is not the position taken by the authors. C) It is more desirable to harm animals than to harm humans in the research process. D) Results from animal research cannot inform us of how the same phenomenon occur with humans. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 69–70 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 2.1c TEXT LO: 2.6 Describe both sides of the debate on the use of animals as research subjects 123. The application of mathematics to describe and analyze data is known as A) dispersion. B) data reduction. C) statistics. D) psychometrics. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability

124. Numerical characterizations that describe data are known as A) central tendencies. B) inferential statistics. C) dispersion. D) descriptive statistics. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 125. Which of the following is one of the two types of statistics that researchers use to analyze the data that they collect? A) Predictive statistics B) Conscriptive statistics C) Descriptive statistics D) Computational statistics Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 126. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? A) Mode B) Variability C) Range D) Standard deviation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 127. Which of the following words is probably the best synonym for the mean of a data set? A) Popular B) Middle C) Spread Incorrect. The spread of a set of data points would be indicated by the range, not the mean. D) Average Correct. The mean is a measure of central tendency that refers to the average of a set of data points. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability

128. A university president asks her psychology department chair if the university has more male or more female undergraduate psychology majors. What measure of central tendency is she asking about? A) Mean Incorrect. The mean refers to the average of a data set. B) Median C) Mode Correct. The mode is a measure of central tendency that refers to the most frequently appearing value in a data set. D) Range Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 129. A British literature instructor examines the number of class periods his students have missed by midterms and has the following data: 1, 0, 10, 0, 2, 1, 0, 0, 5, 2, 3, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2. What is the median for this data set? A) 0 B) 1 Correct. Fifty percent of the data points occur below and above 1, so it is the median. C) 1.7 Incorrect. 1.7 is the average of this data set, so it is the mean. D) 2.5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 130. In which situation would presenting the mean as one’s measure of central tendency be least accurate? A) When the distribution is normally distributed B) When the distribution is negatively skewed Correct. The mean is adversely affected by positively or negatively skewed data sets. C) When the distribution is bimodal Incorrect. A bimodal data set does not necessarily impact the meaning of that data set. D) When there are many scores in the data set Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 131. If I wanted to determine, on average, how far apart any one score is from another, I should use a measure of A) central tendency. B) correlation. C) variability. D) statistical significance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability

132. This simplest measure of variability is the A) mean. B) mode. C) range. D) standard deviation. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 133. Which descriptive statistic is least likely to be influenced by the presence of skewed data? A) Mean B) Median C) Range D) Standard deviation Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 134. Which of the following is one of the two types of statistics that researchers use to analyze the data that they collect? A) Referential statistics B) Inferential statistics C) Binomial statistics D) Cyclical statistics Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 135. In a data set, the measure of variability that indicates how far each individual data point is from the average of the entire set is called the . A) standard deviation B) canonical correlation C) regression from the mean D) variance Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability

136. Mathematical methods that allow us to determine whether we can generalize findings from our sample to the full population are called A) central tendencies. B) inferential statistics. C) dispersion. D) descriptive statistics. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 137. A researcher wishes to generalize his findings beyond the people at the organization he is studying in Florida. He wants to attempt to show that the findings apply to all people who work in a similar type of organization throughout the United States. He should use to analyze his data. A) correlational statistics B) descriptive statistics Incorrect. Descriptive statistics are used to describe a data set, not to generalize from a sample to a larger population. C) inferential statistics Correct. Inferential statistics are used to generalize findings from a sample to the larger population from which it was drawn. D) logical statistics Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Applied APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 138. Mary conducts research examining the efficacy of treatment of elderly persons in nursing facilities in her home state. In order for her to use this research to influence larger political policies regarding the care of the elderly on a state and federal level, she will have to generalize her findings to the larger population of elderly nursing home residents. What sort of statistics should she use to accomplish this goal? A) correlational statistics B) descriptive statistics Incorrect. Descriptive statistics are used to describe a data set, not to generalize from a sample to a larger population. C) inferential statistics Correct. Inferential statistics are used to generalize from a sample to the larger population from which it was drawn. D) logical statistics Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.5d TEXT LO: 2.8 Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population

139. When a given research finding is believed to have less than a in 100 probability of occurring by chance, it is usually described as being statistically significant. A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 25 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.5d TEXT LO: 2.8 Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population 140. The term statistical significance implies that the results are A) important. B) extremely meaningful. C) valid. D) not likely due to chance. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.5d TEXT LO: 2.8 Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population % correct 63 a = 6 b = 7 c = 23 d = 63 r = .32 141. What is the relationship between the p-value of a study and its statistical significance? A) The higher the p-value, the greater the statistical significance. Incorrect. This is the opposite of the correct answer. The higher the p-value, the lower the statistical significance. B) The p-value is unrelated to the level of statistical significance. C) The p-value is equal to the statistical significance. D) The lower the p-value, the greater the statistical significance. Correct. As p, or probability, drops, there is a greater chance that the findings are a real event and not caused by random chance or happenstance. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.5d TEXT LO: 2.8 Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population

142. A therapist wishes to show that his new therapy is a marked improvement over the current best available therapy. To do so, he examines the number of participants who improved with each. A total of 125 participants received his treatment (and 100 of them improved). A total of 80 participants received the alternative treatment (and 64 of them improved). What should the therapist conclude? A) His treatment is superior to the alternative because 100 is greater than 64. B) His treatment is no better than the alternative because the percentages are the same. Correct. He has found the same probability in both cases, so there is no statistical difference between the two participant groups. C) His treatment is inferior because the percentages are the same. Incorrect. His treatment is neither inferior nor superior. His findings suggest that his treatment is equivalent. D) His treatment is superior because it included 125 people as opposed to 80. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.5d TEXT LO: 2.8 Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population 143. After carefully observing thousands of students, Dr. O’Brien revealed to his colleagues that students with brown eyes are statistically more likely to write with pens instead of pencils. Although his colleagues did not question his statistics, they did suggest that a finding such as this lacked A) authenticity. B) validity. Incorrect. There is nothing in this example that suggests a lack of validity. The practical significance of his findings is rather small. C) statistical measures. D) practical significance. Correct. Practical significance refers to whether a statistical difference “makes a difference” in the real world. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.5d TEXT LO: 2.8 Explain how inferential statistics can help us to determine whether we can generalize from our sample to the full population 144. A mechanism by which experts in a field carefully screen the work of their colleagues is known as A) experimental validity. B) experimenter bias effect. C) peer review. D) peer assessment. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 75 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1b TEXT LO: 2.10 Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them

145. The peer review process is designed to A) block alternative therapies from being made available to the general public. B) identify flaws in a research study’s methods, findings, and conclusions. C) make researchers feel bad when their article is not published. D) place obstacles in front of people whose theories differ from mainstream science. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.1b TEXT LO: 2.10 Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them 146. In one research project, a scientist gave students subliminal cassette tapes and told them to play them for 2 months. After 2 months, she assessed whether the tapes helped the self-esteem of her participants and found that self-esteem had indeed risen! While she may have attributed this to the tapes, it is also possible that those students may have found college life to be manageable and thus experienced an increase in selfesteem for that reason. This demonstrates which principle of critical thinking? A) Correlation vs. causation B) Extraordinary claims C) Ruling out rival hypotheses Correct. In this case, there are alterative explanations that must be considered before assuming that a research finding is accurate. D) Replicability Incorrect. Nothing in this example addresses repeating the research with the goal of producing the same findings. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media % correct 59 a = 38 b = 0 c = 59 d = 3 r = .46 147. The general public is often misled by discussions of research in the media because A) most reporters are not fair and balanced in their reporting of the facts. B) most reporters are actively working to bias the public against scientific research. C) most reporters are not trained in understanding research or how to accurately communicate about it. D) most reporters are lazy and attempting to do as little as possible in their jobs. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 76 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media

148. Professor Bowden is in the middle of her lecture on marital satisfaction when a student in the back interrupts her and says, “Dr. Phil doesn’t agree with that theory!” Soon other students chime in to add fuel to the discussion. Professor Bowden just smiles and asks the original student to produce the research that Dr. Phil carried out to justify his statements. What lesson is Professor Bowden trying to teach? A) Information from the media is always inaccurate. B) One should never question a well-established theory. Incorrect. It is one of the most important aspects of critical thinking that the theories should be questioned, whether they are or are not well-established. C) Always check the source of your information before you believe it. Correct. The authors discuss how we should be skeptical of psychology-related claims in the media, and look for scientific evidence. D) Secondary sources are just as reliable as primary sources. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 76 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media 149. A key factor to consider when reading about the results of a study on the Internet, in a newspaper, or in a news magazine is to A) consider the source of the information. Correct. One must always consider the source from which information is drawn. B) determine how well it fits with what others have told you in the past. C) rely on your common sense or “gut” intuition. D) popular media outlets always have inaccurate information. Incorrect. It is entirely possible that the results of the study reported on the Internet, a newspaper, or in a newsmagazine are accurate. One must simply not accept that to be the case just because it is published. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 76 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media % correct 88 a = 88 b = 12 c = 0 d = 0 r = .34 150. A major limitation in reading about the results of psychological research in the newspaper is that A) reporters provide too much detailed information about the research study that the general public cannot comprehend in their articles. B) reporters are so well-trained to discuss research that they cannot easily communicate about it with the average lay person. C) reporters create controversy where none exists by treating scientific evidence and dissenter’s biased opinions as equally compelling. Correct. This is an important point to make, because those without basis for opinions are often given the same weight as those who do have scientific basis for opinions. D) reporters do not know how to identify experts to interview for many of their stories and end up unintentionally misleading the public. Incorrect. Reporters may very well know how to interview people for their stories, but may choose to do so in such a way that makes the stories more sensational. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media

Fill-in-the-Blank 1. communication is a process that involves one person sitting next to a child with autism for the purpose of helping that child type out words and sentences. Research has demonstrated that it was an invalid way of assisting these children with communication deficits. Answer: Facilitated Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 Skill: Factual APA LO: 5.1a TEXT LO: Introduction 2. A(n) refers to a mental shortcut or rule of thumb that assists people with intuitive decision-making problems. Answer: heuristic Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.1. Identity two modes of thinking and their application to scientific reasoning 3. If a researcher investigated the topic of aggression by simply recording instances of aggression on a school playground, in a place of business, in a nightclub, and in many other everyday settings, he or she would be using the research design of . Answer: naturalistic observation Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 4. is the most important part of ensuring the generalizability of one’s results to the general population. Answer: Random selection Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys 5. Dr. Barrios is examining the relationship between student scores on a practice test in his senior-level class with their actual performance, with different questions, on his first exam. If there is consistency or stability in these scores, Dr. Barrios would be able to say that exists. Answer: reliability Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4a TEXT LO: 2.2 Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using naturalistic observation, case studies, self-report measures, and surveys

6. An important concern in research is that people will respond in a manner that conveys a specific impression rather than in a way that reflects his or her true behavior. If a person does this to make themselves appear more skilled than they really are, he or she is engaging in a(n) . Answer: response set Diff: 3 Page Ref: 53 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 7. The degree of statistical association between two variables is the focus of designs. Answer: correlational Diff: 1 Page Ref: 54 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 8. The major advantage of a correlational design over a naturalistic observation or a case study design is that a correlational design allows us to . Answer: make predictions (or make predictions about future events or describe and make predictions about behavior) Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 9. When one variable under investigation rises while the second variable under investigation drops, a(n) correlation would be the result. Answer: negative Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 10. According to the authors, many superstitious behaviors result from . Answer: illusory correlation Diff: 3 Page Ref: 57 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation 11. Causal inferences are only possible with a(n) design. Answer: experimental Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

12. When a researcher provides a specific definition of the independent and dependent variables for the purpose of a study, they are creating definitions for the research. Answer: operational Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 13. The ability to state that differences in the conditions of the independent variable led to the observed differences in the dependent variable is lessened when a(n) variable is present in one’s research design. Answer: confounding Diff: 3 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 14. The two major features of an experiment – random assignment and manipulatiosn of an independent variable - permit the researcher to infer relationships between variables. Answer: cause and effect Diff: 3 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 15. Although, physiologically speaking, it should take approximately 30 minutes for an aspirin to relieve a headache, most people claim to feel better only minutes after taking the pill. This observation can best be explained by the effect. Answer: placebo Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 16. One important limitation of the experimental design is that when research participants know what condition they have been assigned to, this knowledge, rather than the independent variable, may be the cause of the differences observed in the dependent variable. This is known as the effect. Answer: placebo (nocebo is also correct) Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61–64 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls

17. When neither the experimenter nor the participant have any knowledge of the experimental condition to which the participant has been assigned, we say that this is a study. Answer: double-blind Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.4b TEXT LO: 2.4 Identify the components of an experiment, the potential pitfalls that can lead to faulty conclusions, and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 18. In psychological research studies, the researcher is required to obtain the participant’s . Answer: informed consent Diff: 1 Page Ref: 68 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 19. Dr. Friesz asks his research assistant to gather information on how his data are clustering together on the variable, average daily temperature for December. He is asking for a measure of . Answer: central tendency Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 20. If a statistician asks you, his assistant, to calculate the middle score from a data set, he is asking you to determine the value of the . Answer: median Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 21. The preferred measure of variability in descriptive statistics is the . Answer: standard deviation Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 22. The goal of inferential statistics is to our results to other similar samples. Answer: generalize (or apply is also correct) Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 Skill: Factual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 23. Before Dr. Smith submits his new grant proposal to the committee, he asks several of his colleagues to read, revise, and make suggestions about his research design. He is engaging in one form of . Answer: peer review Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.1b TEXT LO: 2.10 Identify flaws in research designs and how to correct them

24. Jay is writing an article for the school newspaper about student attendance. His main point is that during the final semester of one’s senior year, a student is more likely to miss school. Data obtained from his principal indicate that, on any given day, 17% of the senior class is absent (compared to 12% of juniors, and 13% and 16% of sophomores and freshmen). His headline reads “Senioritis: A Real Phenomenon.” He has engaged in use of the misleading tool of . Answer: leveling Diff: 3 Page Ref: 76 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media 25. When the media provide information about a scientific question, it often does so using a balanced coverage approach. This creates an artificial appearance of , and thus gives the impression that a scientific debate exists where it does not. Answer: pseudosymmetry Diff: 3 Page Ref: 77 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media Essay 1. Why is it necessary for psychologists to have so many different research designs to study human behavior? Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following points for full credit. • Each research design has its own important limitations. Students should identify at least two examples from two different designs to earn full credit. • The goals of research differ (some focus on description, others on predictions, and others on establishing causation). • If different methods produce similar results, this increases our confidence in our understanding of a particular phenomenon (idea of convergence). Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48–61 Skill: Factual APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 and 2.4 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation; identify the components of an experiment and the potential pitfalls that can lead us to faulty conclusions and how psychologists control for these pitfalls 2. Discuss how the concept of the illusory correlation would explain a friend’s complaint that his fraternity/her sorority (or other student group) is always being displayed in a negative light by the campus newspaper while other groups are not treated the same. Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following to earn full credit. • Student should define or describe what the illusory correlation is in his/her answer (either directly or demonstrate an understanding indirectly). • The student should discuss the general ideas associated with the Great Fourfold Table of Life from page 57. • More specifically, he or she should focus on the fact that the student—in the question—is focusing on instances where negative portrayal of the fraternity/sorority are occurring but is neglecting stories about the fraternity/sorority that are positive or have no evaluative component. Likewise, the student—in the question—is also ignoring when other groups are discussed negatively or other negative stories that are irrelevant to friend’s group are published. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 57–58 Skill: Applied APA LO: 1.2e TEXT LO: 2.3 Describe the role of correlational designs and distinguish correlation from causation

3. Describe the roles of institutional review boards and statements of informed consent within the human research process. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following for full credit. • Institutional review boards (IRBs) exist to ensure that participants are protected against abuses from researchers. The members are drawn from different departments and must give their approval, and their concerns and requests for changes addressed, before research with human participants may begin. • The informed consent ensures that participants understand what is being asked of them and what will be involved in their experience. Participants must be given enough information to make a decision to voluntarily participate in the research. If they are misled during the research, the missing information must be explained during a debriefing. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 68–69 Skill: Factual APA LO: 2.1a TEXT LO: 2.5 Explain the ethical obligations of researchers toward their research participants 4. Explain why no single measure of central tendency and measure of dispersion exists that a researcher can use every single time. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following information for full credit. • Sometimes one measure is more appropriate than another. For example, the mean is distorted by the presence of outliers in a skewed distribution, so a researcher would be advised to report the median instead. • It depends what information a researcher wants to highlight. For example, if a researcher wants to identify what was the most frequently endorsed option for a question, he or she would choose the mode. If he or she wants to report about how the scores were represented over all the possible answers, he or she would report the mean. • Some people may wish to know the typical difference between scores and thus choose standard deviation, while others would look at the amount of difference from the most extreme scores and choose the range. • A researcher cannot just report central tendency or dispersion because they each only tell part of the whole, either where scores are located (central tendency) or how much difference between scores is present (dispersion). Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70–71 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability 5. Illustrate why being an informed consumer about research, research designs, and statistics will be helpful in identifying incorrect statements about research in the media and on the Internet. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain at least four of the following, and include the first idea, for full credit. • Student should mention that understanding research designs will aid in identifying when statements of cause and effect are appropriate and when they are not. (Need to give supportive evidence for this and all statements to see that they truly demonstrate an understanding of each idea.) • One will recognize misleading or inaccurate statistical statements. • One will recognize when headlines are inaccurate summaries of the research results. • One will recognize when reporters or writers have used sharpening or leveling. • One will consider the source and whether the story coverage is balanced or whether it muddies the discussion. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75–77 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 1.2b TEXT LO: 2.11 Identify skills for evaluating psychological claims in the popular media

Critical Thinking 1. Discuss why researchers need to be familiar with both descriptive and inferential statistics. Answer: Answers will vary but should contain the following ideas for full credit. • Student needs to mention that each gives a different kind of information because each has differing goals (organization and summarization for descriptive and generalization for inferential). • Techniques in each can be misused in different ways to make effects appear that really are not accurate or appropriate. • Often both are used in conjunction by the researcher rather than being two types that are chosen between (e.g., using the means of the groups to help see the statistically significant group differences). Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70–72 Skill: Conceptual APA LO: 3.1f TEXT LO: 2.7 Identify uses of various measures of central tendency and variability

CHAPTER 3 BIOLOGICAL FOUNDATIONS, PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT, AND BIRTH MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Brothers, Patrick and Michael, do not look very much alike. Patrick has green eyes and blond, curly hair like his mother. Michael has blue eyes and dark brown, straight hair like his father. These directly observable characteristics are A) phenotypes. B) genotypes. C) chromosomes. D) DNA. Answer: A Page Ref: 73 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.1

2)

Which of the following statements is true about genotypes? A) They are directly observable characteristics. B) They always pair up in the same way across the DNA ladder rungs. C) They are rodlike structures in the cell nucleus that transmit genetic information. D) They are a complex blend of genetic information that influences all our unique characteristics. Answer: D Page Ref: 73 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.1

3)

Each person is made up of trillions of A) genes; billion cells B) cells; matching pairs of chromosomes C) matching pairs of chromosomes; genes D) cells; chromosomes Answer: B

and 23

.

Page Ref: 73 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

4)

Deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA, A) is a rodlike structure that stores and transmits genetic information. B) comes in 23 matching pairs. C) looks like a twisted ladder. D) cannot duplicate itself. Answer: C Page Ref: 74 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

5)

Individuals around the world are about A) 10 B) 33.3 C) 55 D) 99.1 Answer: D

percent genetically identical.

Page Ref: 74 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

6)

During mitosis, A) a single cell develops into a complex, many-celled human being. B) new body cells are created, each with its own unique DNA. C) the number of chromosomes normally present in body cells is halved. D) crossing over occurs. Answer: A Page Ref: 74 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

7)

are the biological foundation on which our characteristics are built. A) Phenotypes B) Chromosomes C) Proteins D) Genes Answer: C Page Ref: 75 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

8)

are sex cells that contain A) Gametes; 23 B) Gametes; 23 pairs of C) Zygotes; 46 D) Autosomes; 23 pairs of Answer: A

chromosomes each.

Page Ref: 75 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

9)

Gametes are A) the result of the uniting of the sperm and the ovum at fertilization. B) formed through a cell division process called meiosis. C) created with twice the usual number of chromosomes. D) formed through a cell division process called mitosis. Answer: B Page Ref: 75 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

10)

In

, is/are produced when meiosis is complete. A) males; one sperm B) females; four eggs C) males; four sperm D) females; 1 to 2 million eggs Answer: C Page Ref: 76 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

11)

matching pair(s) of chromosomes is/are called autosomes. A) One B) Two C) Four D) Twenty-two Answer: D Page Ref: 76 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

12)

The sex of a new organism is determined by A) the genes on the X chromosome. B) whether the ovum is carrying an X chromosome or a Y chromosome. C) whether the sperm fertilizes an X-bearing or a Y-bearing ovum. D) whether an X-bearing or a Y-bearing sperm fertilizes the ovum. Answer: D Page Ref: 76 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

13)

A zygote that separates into two clusters of cells produces A) a child with Down syndrome. B) fraternal twins. C) identical twins. D) a child with triple X syndrome. Answer: C Page Ref: 76 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

14)

Dizygotic twins monozygotic twins. A) are more common than B) are more genetically similar than C) are as genetically similar as D) look more alike than Answer: A Page Ref: 76 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.1

15)

Fred and George are identical twins. Ashton and Michael are fraternal twins. Which of the following statements is true? A) Ashton and Michael have the same genetic makeup. B) Fred and George have the same genetic makeup. C) Ashton and Michael are more genetically similar than Fred and George. D) Fred and George are genetically no more alike than ordinary siblings. Answer: B Page Ref: 76 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.1

16)

Fraternal twinning A) occurs more often in Asian than Caucasian births. B) occurs more often among women whose mothers and sisters gave birth to fraternal twins. C) occurs less often among women who are overweight than among those with a slight body build. D) is less likely with each additional birth. Answer: B Page Ref: 77 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

17)

Fraternal twins account for 1 in every A) 60 B) 100 C) 330 D) 500 Answer: A

births in the United States.

Page Ref: 77 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.1

18)

If the alleles from both parents are alike, A) the child is heterozygous. B) the child will not display the inherited trait. C) dominant–recessive inheritance occurs. D) the child is homozygous. Answer: D Page Ref: 77 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.2

19)

Blond hair can result only from having A) two dominant alleles. B) two recessive alleles. C) a dominant dark hair allele and a recessive blond hair allele. D) a dominant blond hair allele and a recessive dark hair allele. Answer: B Page Ref: 77 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.2

20)

Which of the following is an example of a dominant characteristic? A) red hair B) nearsightedness C) curly hair D) Type O blood Answer: C Page Ref: 77 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.2

21)

Which of the following is an example of a recessive characteristic? A) facial dimples B) pattern baldness C) farsightedness D) double-jointedness Answer: B Page Ref: 77 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.2

22)

One of the most frequently occurring recessive disorder is A) phenylketonuria (PKU). B) Down syndrome. C) cystic fibrosis. D) Tay-Sachs disease. Answer: A Page Ref: 77 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.2

23)

Amelia was born to parents of Mediterranean descent. In infancy, Amelia appeared pale, had slowed physical growth, and was lethargic. Amelia’s parents should have her tested for A) Cooley’s anemia. B) Huntington disease. C) Marfan syndrome. D) Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Answer: A Page Ref: 78 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.2

24)

One example of a dominant disorder is A) sickle cell anemia. B) diabetes insipidus. C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy. D) Huntington disease. Answer: D Page Ref: 78 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.2

25)

All U.S. states require that each newborn be given a blood test for A) Tay-Sachs disease. B) hemophilia. C) PKU. D) cystic fibrosis. Answer: C Page Ref: 79 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.2

26)

is an example of incomplete dominance. A) Sickle cell anemia B) Cooley’s anemia C) Marfan syndrome D) PKU Answer: A Page Ref: 79 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.2

27)

Victoria carries the abnormal allele for hemophilia. Which of the following children is most likely to inherit the disorder? A) her oldest daughter, Maryanne B) her second daughter, Alice C) her oldest son, Albert D) her youngest daughter, Beatrice Answer: C Page Ref: 80 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.2

28)

Which of the following statements is true about sex differences? A) More girls than boys are born with birth defects. B) More boys than girls are born mentally retarded. C) More girls than boys have learning disabilities. D) Fewer boys than girls die in infancy and childhood. Answer: B Page Ref: 80 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.2

29)

The fact that children are more likely to develop diabetes if their father, rather than their mother, suffers from it is best explained by A) genomic imprinting. B) genetic mutation. C) X-linked inheritance. D) polygenic inheritance. Answer: A Page Ref: 80 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.2

30)

reveals that genomic imprinting can operate on the sex chromosomes. A) Cooley’s anemia B) Marfan syndrome C) Homosexuality D) Fragile X syndrome Answer: D Page Ref: 80 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.2

31)

On the job, Mr. Williams was exposed to high doses of radiation. Because of this exposure, when planning their family, the Williams’ should be concerned about A) germline mutation. B) somatic mutation. C) polygenic inheritance. D) chromosomal abnormalities. Answer: A Page Ref: 81 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.2

32)

Characteristics that vary on a continuum among people, such as height, weight, intelligence, and personality, are due to A) dominant–recessive relationships. B) polygenic inheritance. C) incomplete dominance. D) genomic imprinting. Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.2

33)

Down syndrome is most commonly caused by A) advanced maternal or paternal age. B) an error that occurs in the early stages of mitosis, called mosaic pattern. C) mutation of the genetic material on the twenty-third chromosome pair. D) failure of the twenty-first pair of chromosomes to separate during meiosis. Answer: D Page Ref: 82 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.3

34)

Which of the following statements is true about individuals with Down syndrome? A) Most die before the age of 40 and have eye cataracts and hearing loss. B) Many have enlarged brains, especially in the cerebral cortex region. C) More than half who live past age 40 show symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. D) Affected individuals have few common physical features. Answer: C Page Ref: 82 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.3

35)

The risk of bearing a baby with Down syndrome rises dramatically with A) paternal age. B) maternal age. C) maternal smoking. D) paternal radiation exposure. Answer: B Page Ref: 82 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.3

36)

Harley was born with Klinefelter syndrome. Which of the following statements is true? A) Harley is missing an X chromosome. B) Harley has an extra Y chromosome. C) Harley will probably need hormone therapy at puberty to stimulate development of sex characteristics. D) Harley will probably need special education to treat spatial ability problems. Answer: C Page Ref: 83 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.3

37)

Which of the following statements is true about individuals with sex chromosome disorders? A) Males with XYY syndrome are more aggressive and antisocial than XY males. B) Verbal difficulties are common among girls with triple X syndrome. C) Most children with sex chromosome disorders suffer from mental retardation. D) Girls with Turner syndrome have trouble with reading and vocabulary. Answer: B Page Ref: 83 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.3

38)

Individuals who know that genetic problems exist in their families are good candidates for to conceive. A) gene therapy B) chorionic villus sampling C) genetic counseling D) amniocentesis Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.4

39)

Women of advanced maternal age are primary candidates for A) fetoscopy. B) ultrafast MRI. C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis. D) chorionic villus sampling. Answer: D Page Ref: 84 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.4

before deciding

40)

In , a hollow needle is inserted through the abdominal wall to obtain a sample of fluid in the uterus during the 14th week after conception or later. A) fetoscopy B) amniocentesis C) ultrafast MRI D) preimplantation genetic diagnosis Answer: B Page Ref: 85 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.4

41)

Using , researchers hope to correct genetic abnormalities by delivering DNA carrying a functional gene to the cells. A) gene therapy B) proteomics C) ultrafast MRI D) ultrasound Answer: A Page Ref: 85 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.4

42)

Donor insemination A) is often used to overcome female reproductive difficulties. B) is 70 to 80 percent successful. C) is sharply restricted in 11 states and the District of Columbia. D) results in multiple births about 50 percent of the time. Answer: B Page Ref: 86: Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies Skill: Remember Objective: 3.4

43)

Usually, is used to treat women whose fallopian tubes are permanently damaged. A) in vitro fertilization B) donor insemination C) surrogacy D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: A Page Ref: 86 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies Skill: Remember Objective: 3.4

44)

Which of the following statements is true about donor insemination and in vitro fertilization? A) In vitro infants are less securely attached to their parents than naturally conceived infants. B) Sperm donors are always screened for genetic or sexually transmitted diseases. C) In vitro babies are at no greater risk for birth defects than naturally conceived infants. D) There is a higher rate of low birth weight among in vitro babies than naturally conceived infants. Answer: D Page Ref: 86 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies Skill: Understand Objective: 3.4

45)

One concern about surrogate motherhood is that it A) poses a greater risk than natural conception to infant survival and healthy development. B) may promote exploitation of financially needy women. C) is a dangerous step toward selective breeding. D) is too heavily regulated. Answer: B Page Ref: 86 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies Skill: Understand Objective: 3.4

46)

While the ovum is traveling, the fertilized ovum. A) fallopian tubes B) corpus luteum C) cervix D) blastocyst Answer: B

secrete(s) hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a

Page Ref: 88 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

47)

The male produces an average of A) 300 B) 300,000 C) 3 million D) 300 million Answer: D

sperm each day.

Page Ref: 88 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

48)

Sperm live for up to A) 2; 1 B) 4; 2 C) 6; 1 D) 8; 2 Answer: C

days and can lie in wait for the ovum, which survives for

day(s).

Page Ref: 88–89 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

49)

During the period of the zygote, the becomes the new organism, and the structures that provide protective covering and nourishment. A) embryonic disk; trophoblast B) trophoblast; amnion C) yolk sac; chorion D) embryonic disc; villi Answer: A Page Ref: 89 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

becomes the

50)

Between the seventh and ninth days, during the period of the zygote, A) the one-celled zygote multiplies and forms a blastocyst. B) fertilization occurs. C) the face forms. D) implantation occurs. Answer: D Page Ref: 89 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

51)

Which of the following statements is true about the period of the zygote? A) It lasts from implantation to the eighth week of pregnancy. B) During this period, the primitive brain and spinal cord appear. C) During this period, the blastocyst burrows into the uterine lining. D) It spans the first and second trimester of pregnancy. Answer: C Page Ref: 89 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.5

52)

The yolk sac A) produces blood cells until the developing liver, spleen, and bone marrow are mature enough to take over this function. B) forms a membrane that encloses the developing organism. C) helps keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant. D) provides a cushion against any jolts caused by the mother’s movement. Answer: A Page Ref: 89 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

53)

From the , tiny A) amnion; veins B) chorion; villi C) trophoblast; hairs D) embryonic disk; veins Answer: B

emerge, which burrow into the uterine wall and start to develop the placenta.

Page Ref: 89 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

54)

The umbilical cord A) contains two veins. B) provides the fetus a cushion against jolts caused by the mother’s movements. C) grows to a length of 1 to 3 feet. D) develops during the period of the fetus. Answer: C Page Ref: 89 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

55)

The period of the embryo A) lasts for about two weeks. B) is the period of the most rapid prenatal changes. C) begins during the second trimester of pregnancy. D) is the period when the developing organism is the least vulnerable. Answer: B Page Ref: 91 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

56)

During the period of the embryo, the becomes the nervous system, the system, and the becomes the digestive system. A) ectoderm; mesoderm; endoderm B) ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm C) mesoderm; ectoderm; endoderm D) endoderm; ectoderm; mesoderm Answer: A Page Ref: 91 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

57)

At first, the A) circulatory B) digestive C) nervous D) endocrine Answer: C

system develops the fastest.

Page Ref: 91 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

58)

At the end of the period of the embryo, the developing organism A) establishes a regular sleep–wake cycle. B) makes flutters that can be felt by the mother. C) is about 3 inches long and weighs an ounce. D) responds to touch. Answer: D Page Ref: 91 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

59)

The is the longest prenatal period. A) period of the embryo B) period of the zygote C) period of the fetus D) first trimester Answer: C Page Ref: 92 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

becomes the circulatory

60)

Yardley is pregnant with her first child. When should she expect to feel its movements? A) between 8 and 11 weeks B) between 12 and 15 weeks C) between 17 and 20 weeks D) between 21 and 24 weeks Answer: C Page Ref: 92 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.5

61)

During the period of the fetus, A) neurons are first produced. B) the organism remains awake about 6 hours a day. C) brain weight increases tenfold. D) teratogenic damage is the most severe. Answer: C Page Ref: 92 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

62)

Sometime between 22 and 26 weeks, A) vernix and lanugo begin to cover the skin. B) a fetus has a chance of survival outside the womb. C) synchrony between the fetal heart rate and motor activity peaks. D) the external genitals are formed. Answer: B Page Ref: 92 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

63)

Higher fetal activity in the last weeks of pregnancy A) predicts a more active infant in the first month of life. B) predicts a more fearful 2-year-old. C) can indicate a premature delivery. D) predicts a more easily frustrated toddler. Answer: A Page Ref: 93 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.5

64)

In the final three months of pregnancy, the fetus A) is especially vulnerable to teratogens. B) gains less than 3 pounds. C) grows 7 inches. D) reduces its body fat to help with temperature regulation. Answer: C Page Ref: 94 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.5

65)

Which of the following statements is true about teratogens? A) Harm done by them is usually simple and straightforward. B) Larger doses over longer time periods usually have more negative effects. C) They are not influenced by heredity. D) The presence of several negative factors at once can lessen the impact of a single harmful agent. Answer: B Page Ref: 95 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.6

66)

Which of the following statements is true about teratogens during the fetal period? A) Teratogenic damage is usually minor. B) Teratogens cause irreversible brain damage. C) Serious defects are most likely to occur from teratogens. D) Teratogens rarely have any impact. Answer: A Page Ref: 96 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.6

67)

The effects of teratogens A) are limited to immediate physical damage. B) show up at birth. C) may occur indirectly. D) are no longer a serious concern. Answer: C Page Ref: 96 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

68)

Betty was born with deformities of the arms and legs, as well as damage to her heart and kidneys. She scores below average in intelligence. Based on the damage to the developing organism, you could conclude that Betty’s mother took while pregnant. A) diethylstilbestrol (DES) B) Accutane C) aspirin D) thalidomide Answer: D Page Ref: 96 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.6

69)

Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is A) DES. B) Accutane. C) aspirin. D) thalidomide. Answer: B Page Ref: 96 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

70)

Which of the following statements is true about teratogens? A) Aspirin cannot penetrate the placental barrier. B) Having two cups of coffee per day cannot increase the risk of miscarriage. C) Ingesting in excess of 100 milligrams of caffeine per day increases the risk of low birth weight. D) Antidepressant medication use is not linked to any long-term birth complications. Answer: C Page Ref: 96–97 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.6

71)

It is difficult to assess the damage from illegal drug use during pregnancy because A) the effects of the drugs wear off within days of delivery. B) many users display other high-risk behaviors. C) public interest in the area has diminished. D) prenatally exposed babies rarely develop lasting problems. Answer: B Page Ref: 97 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.6

72)

Although smoking has declined in Western nations, an estimated pregnancies. A) 8 B) 11 C) 14 D) 17 Answer: C

percent of U.S. women smoke during their

Page Ref: 98 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

73)

Prenatal tobacco exposure is linked to A) a predisposition to nicotine addiction during adolescence. B) impaired heart rate and breathing during sleep, infant death, and asthma. C) deformed facial features and poor vision. D) delayed language development and poor fine-motor skills. Answer: B Page Ref: 98 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

74)

Hillary is seven months pregnant. She has not yet stopped smoking. If she stops now, she can immediately reduce the risk that her infant will A) smoke in the future. B) be born with physical defects. C) be born underweight. D) have a flattened philtrum. Answer: C Page Ref: 98 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.6

75)

Reign’s biological mother died of alcohol poisoning. Reign exhibits slow physical growth and has short eyelid openings, a thin upper lip, and a flattened philtrum. Reign probably has A) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). B) partial fetal alcohol syndrome (p-FAS). C) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND). D) brain impairment in a maximum of two areas of functioning. Answer: A Page Ref: 98 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.6

76)

High rates of miscarriage, physical deformities, and slow physical growth have occurred in . A) Native American reservations; ARND B) inner city neighborhoods; lead exposure C) Minimata; mercury poisoning D) Hiroshima, Nagasaki, and Chernobyl; radiation exposure Answer: D

due to

Page Ref: 100 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

77)

Prenatal exposure from maternal seafood diets predicts deficits in speed of cognitive processing and motor, attention, and verbal test performance during the school years. A) lead B) mercury C) polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) D) DES Answer: B Page Ref: 101 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

78)

In Taiwan, prenatal exposure to very high levels of deformities of the gums and nails. A) lead in paint chips B) zinc in fish C) radiation D) PCBs in rice oil Answer: C

resulted in low birth weight, discolored skin, and

Page Ref: 101 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

79)

Even tiny amounts of A) lead B) dioxin C) mercury D) PCBs Answer: B Page Ref: 101 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

in the paternal bloodstream cause a dramatic change in the sex ratio of offspring.

80)

The most frequent prenatal infection is A) herpes simplex 2. B) syphilis. C) cytomegalovirus. D) chlamydia. Answer: C Page Ref: 103 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.6

81)

An expectant mother who ensures that her meat is well-cooked and has other family members change her cat’s litter box is trying to avoid A) toxoplasmosis. B) cytomegalovirus. C) herpes simplex 2. D) AIDS. Answer: A Page Ref: 103 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.6

82)

Julie is in her second trimester of pregnancy. She is physically fit and feeling great. In what kind of exercise should Julie participate? A) any frequent, vigorous exercise B) working up a sweat for more than 30 minutes, four times a week C) seven days of strenuous aerobic exercise followed by seven days of low-impact exercise D) most regular, moderate exercise Answer: D Page Ref: 103 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.7

83)

A study of the famine in the Netherlands revealed that women affected by malnutrition during the more likely to give birth to babies with physical defects. A) first trimester B) fetal period C) second trimester D) third trimester Answer: A

were

Page Ref: 104 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.7

84)

Folic acid taken around the time of conception can lower the incidence of weeks of pregnancy cuts in half the risk of . A) maternal high blood pressure; premature birth B) anemia; cleft palate C) neural tube defects; premature delivery D) anemia; low birth weight Answer: C Page Ref: 104 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.7

, and taken during the last 10

85)

Maternal stress A) during pregnancy is associated with higher birth weight. B) hormones cross the placenta, causing a dramatic rise in fetal heart rate. C) is especially detrimental during the third trimester of pregnancy. D) is a concern for a pregnant mother, but does not affect her growing baby. Answer: B Page Ref: 105 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.7

86)

Pregnancy complication rates increase sharply among women age A) 30 to 35. B) 35 to 40. C) 40 to 45. D) 50 to 55. Answer: D Page Ref: 106 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.7

87)

Infants born to teenage mothers A) are more likely to have chromosomal disorders than infants born to women in their forties. B) are healthier than infants born to mothers in their thirties. C) have a higher rate of problems, but not directly because of maternal age. D) have a higher rate of problems directly related to immature maternal age. Answer: C Page Ref: 106 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.7

88)

The longest stage of labor is A) dilation and effacement of the cervix. B) transition. C) delivery of the baby. D) delivery of the placenta. Answer: A Page Ref: 107 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.8

89)

The second stage of labor lasts about A) 10 minutes; 5 minutes B) 50 minutes; 20 minutes C) 3 to 4 hours; 1 hour D) 12 to 14 hours; 4 to 6 hours Answer: B Page Ref: 107 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.8

for a first baby and

in later births.

90)

A baby’s production of stress hormones during birth A) causes the baby to sleep during dilation and effacement. B) causes the mother to breathe more deeply, increasing the baby’s oxygen supply. C) prepares the mother to withstand the pain by anesthetizing the uterus. D) arouses the baby into alertness so it is born wide awake. Answer: D Page Ref: 108 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.8

91)

Newborn Wayne’s round face, chubby cheeks, large forehead, and big eyes A) are a sign of chromosomal abnormalities. B) indicate that he may have suffered birth trauma. C) make adults feel like picking him up and cuddling him. D) ensure that nonrelated adults and older children will not be drawn to him. Answer: C Page Ref: 109 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.8

92)

If baby Jaymie has a combined Apgar score of 7, doctors should A) hand her to her parents, as she is in good physical condition. B) provide immediate emergency assistance. C) put her in an incubator. D) provide some assistance in establishing breathing. Answer: A Page Ref: 109 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.8

93)

For a newborn to score a 2 on the pulse or heart rate section on the Apgar, her heart rate should indicate A) no heartbeat. B) under 100 beats per minute. C) 100 to 140 beats per minute. D) over 150 beats per minute. Answer: C Page Ref: 109 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.8

94)

Which of the following statements is true about approaches to childbirth? A) A Jarara mother delivers her own baby in a birthing pool with a crowd of family members close by. B) A Siriono mother gives birth in full view of the entire community. C) In the Yucatan, a Mayan woman gives birth assisted by medical personnel. D) A Pukapukan girl is so familiar with the events of labor and delivery that she frequently can be seen playing at it. Answer: D Page Ref: 110 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.9

95)

After the industrial revolution, childbirth in Western nations A) became a family-centered event. B) moved to freestanding birth centers. C) moved from home to hospital. D) became less reliant on pain medications. Answer: C Page Ref: 110 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

96)

Grantly Dick-Read and Ferdinand Lamaze recognized that A) cultural attitudes had taught women to fear the birth experience. B) the health of mothers and babies could best be protected in a hospital or medical birth setting. C) childbirth was a personal experience, rather than a family-centered event. D) analgesics given in mild doses during labor help a birthing mother relax. Answer: A Page Ref: 110 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

97)

In a typical natural childbirth program, the expectant mother and a companion participate in A) child development classes. B) relaxation and breathing techniques. C) training in the use of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding. D) home-birth training. Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

98)

Studies indicate that mothers who A) are supported by a doula B) have an epidural C) use anesthetics D) use pitocin Answer: A Page Ref: 111 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

99)

When mothers are upright, labor is A) longer. B) more intense. C) shortened. D) more painful. Answer: C Page Ref: 111 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

during labor and delivery less often have cesarean deliveries.

100)

Water birth is associated with A) longer labor. B) higher rates of infection. C) higher rates of birth complications. D) reduced maternal stress. Answer: D Page Ref: 111 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

101)

For healthy women who are assisted by a well-trained doctor or midwife, A) complications rarely occur during home birth. B) the rate of infant death is high during home birth. C) home birth continues to be less safe than hospital birth. D) water birth increases the likelihood of the use of pain-relieving medication. Answer: A Page Ref: 111 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

102)

In the United States, the most common approach to controlling pain during labor is the use of A) anesthetics. B) relaxation and breathing techniques. C) a spinal block. D) epidural analgesia. Answer: D Page Ref: 112 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.9

103)

Epidural analgesia A) does not cross the placenta. B) weakens uterine contractions. C) induces labor. D) has no negative impact on the baby. Answer: B Page Ref: 112 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.9

104)

Tara is in her final month of pregnancy. She is writing a birth plan and would like to know how the use of epidural analgesia might impact her baby. You can tell Tara that exposed newborns tend to A) be hyperactive and animated. B) suck more aggressively when feeding. C) have lower Apgar scores. D) be alert when awake. Answer: C Page Ref: 112 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.9

105)

Breech babies often experience a cesarean delivery because of the danger of A) placenta abruptio. B) anoxia. C) infection. D) hyaline membrane rupture. Answer: B Page Ref: 113 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.10

106)

Which of the following statements is true about anoxia during labor and delivery? A) Rh factor incompatibility can lead to anoxia. B) The effects of mild to moderate anoxia disappear within the first few months of life. C) When development is severely impaired, anoxia is probably not the cause. D) It occurs during the birth process, not during labor. Answer: A Page Ref: 113 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.10

107)

is the best available predictor of infant survival and healthy development. A) Ultrasound B) Apgar score C) Maternal age D) Birth weight Answer: D Page Ref: 113 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.10

108)

are below their expected weight considering the length of the pregnancy. A) Preterm infants B) Small-for-date infants C) Infants born after induced labor D) Infants born at 38 weeks Answer: B Page Ref: 114 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.10

109)

Preterm babies are than full-term babies. A) more often talked to B) less susceptible to the effects of parenting quality C) less often held close D) less irritable Answer: C Page Ref: 115 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.10

110)

Which of the following statements is true about kangaroo care? A) It has been shown to be beneficial to the mother, but not to the baby. B) It involves placing the infant in a horizontal position near the parent’s stomach. C) It is used often in nonindustrialized nations instead of hospital care. D) It fosters improved oxygenation of the baby’s body. Answer: D Page Ref: 115 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.10

111) Which of the following statements is true about training parents in preterm infant caregiving skills? A) All parents of preterm infants need long-term intensive intervention. B) Just a few sessions of coaching are needed for families with preterm infants, regardless of the parents’ economic or personal resources. C) Interventions that support parents of preterm infants generally teach them about the infant’s characteristics. D) Interventions that support parents of preterm infants generally teach them about situational and personal barriers. Answer: C Page Ref: 116 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.10

112)

Which of the following statements summarizes the long-term consequences of birth complications found in Emmy Werner’s Kauai study? A) Children who experienced birth trauma never fully acquired the same levels of cognitive development as the control group children. B) As long as birth injuries are not overwhelming, a supportive home environment can restore children’s growth. C) Even children who experienced severe birth trauma eventually tested as well on measures of intelligence as those with no birth problems. D) None of the children from troubled family environments achieved at the rate of their control group peers. Answer: B Page Ref: 117 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.10

113)

The second leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States is A) congenital defects. B) low birth weight. C) sudden infant death syndrome. D) HIV/AIDS. Answer: B Page Ref: 118 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for Parents and Newborn Babies Skill: Remember Objective: 3.10

114)

Which of the following statements is true about maternity leave? A) The United States has the most generous maternity leave program in the world. B) In the United States, the federal government mandates 12 weeks of paid maternity leave for all working mothers. C) The average length of maternity leave in the United States is not enough to promote favorable maternal mental health and sensitive caregiving. D) All Western nations guarantee women at least six weeks of paid maternity leave. Answer: C Page Ref: 119 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for Parents and Newborn Babies Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.10

115)

Behavioral genetics A) is devoted to uncovering the contributions of nature and nurture to the diversity in human traits and abilities. B) is a communication process designed to help couples assess their chances of giving birth to a baby with a genetic disorder. C) is devoted to proving that heredity, not the environment, is responsible for human diversity. D) strives to identify variations in DNA sequences and uses these genetic markers to explain almost all variations in human behavior. Answer: A Page Ref: 119 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.11

116)

Researchers use to infer the role of heredity in complex human characteristics. A) gene–environment interaction B) heritability estimates C) canalization D) niche-picking Answer: B Page Ref: 120 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.11

117)

Kinship studies reveal a A) very strong B) strong C) moderate D) weak Answer: C

role for heredity in intelligence.

Page Ref: 120 Skill: Remember Objective: 3.11

118)

Heritability estimates A) reveal that genetic factors are unimportant in personality. B) are controversial measures because they can easily be misapplied. C) show a strong role of heredity in antisocial behavior and major depression. D) give precise information on how children respond to environments designed to maximize development. Answer: B Page Ref: 121 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.11

119)

Dr. Weasley theorizes that children have unique, genetically influenced reactions to particular experiences. Dr. Weasley studies A) canalization. B) niche-picking. C) gene–environment interaction. D) epigenesis. Answer: C Page Ref: 121 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.11

120)

Which of the following is strongly canalized in humans? A) personality development B) cognitive development C) motor development D) social development Answer: C Page Ref: 122 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.11

121)

Elena and Aidan are both writers and spend a great deal of time reading to their young son. This is an example of A) a passive gene–environment correlation. B) an evocative gene–environment correlation. C) an active gene–environment correlation. D) niche-picking. Answer: A Page Ref: 122 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.11

122)

Gina is an intellectually curious child. She is a familiar patron at her local library. This example illustrates A) canalization. B) an evocative gene–environment correlation. C) a passive gene–environment correlation. D) an active gene–environment correlation. Answer: D Page Ref: 123 Skill: Apply Objective: 3.11

123)

explains why pairs of identical twins reared apart during childhood and later reunited may find that they have similar hobbies and vocations. A) Passive gene–environment correlation B) Niche-picking C) Genotyping D) Epigenesis Answer: B Page Ref: 123 Skill: Understand Objective: 3.11

124)

Which of the following statements is true about the epigenetic interplay between maternal smoking and attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A) By itself, the DD genotype was related to impulsivity and oppositional behavior. B) Children of mothers who smoked during pregnancy scored lower in overactivity than children of nonsmoking mothers. C) Five-year-olds with both prenatal nicotine exposure and the DD genotype obtained substantially higher impulsivity scores than all other groups. D) Five-year-olds with both prenatal nicotine exposure and the DD genotype obtained lower oppositional behavior scores than all other groups. Answer: C Page Ref: 125 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: A Case of Epigenesis: Smoking During Pregnancy Alters Gene Expression Skill: Understand Objective: 3.11

125)

Which of the following statements is true about maternal smoking and ADHD symptoms as viewed through the epigenetic framework? A) The majority of children prenatally exposed to nicotine are at high risk for learning and behavior problems. B) The DD genotype is present in only 10 percent of children prenatally exposed to nicotine. C) The DD genotype is present in only 10 percent of children with little or no prenatal nicotine exposure. D) There is no correlation between prenatal nicotine exposure and ADHD symptoms. Answer: A Page Ref: 125 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: A Case of Epigenesis: Smoking During Pregnancy Alters Gene Expression Skill: Understand Objective: 3.11

ESSAY 126)

Describe fraternal twinning, including maternal factors linked to fraternal twinning. Answer: Fraternal, or dizygotic, twins, the most common type of multiple birth, result from the release and fertilization of two ova. Genetically, they are no more alike than ordinary siblings. Older maternal age, fertility drugs, and in vitro fertilization are major causes of the dramatic rise in fraternal twinning and other multiple births in industrialized nations over the past several decades. Specific maternal factors linked to fraternal twinning include: – Ethnicity. Occurs in 4 per 1,000 births among Asians, 8 per 1,000 births among whites, and 12 to 16 per 1,000 births among blacks – Family history of twinning. Occurs more often among women whose mothers and sisters gave birth to fraternal twins – Age. Rises with maternal age, peaking between 35 and 39 years, and then rapidly falls – Nutrition. Occurs less often among women with poor diets; occurs more often among women who are tall and overweight or of normal weight as opposed to slight body build – Number of births. Is more likely with each additional birth – Fertility drugs and in vitro fertilization. Is more likely with fertility hormones and in vitro fertilization, which also increase the chances of bearing triplets, quadruplets, or quintuplets Page Ref: 76–77

127)

Describe incomplete dominance, and provide an example. Answer: Incomplete dominance, a pattern of inheritance in which both alleles are expressed in the phenotype, results in a combined trait, or one that is intermediate between the two. The sickle cell trait, a heterozygous condition present in many black Africans, provides an example. Sickle cell anemia occurs in full form when a child inherits two recessive alleles. They cause the usually round red blood cells to become sickle (crescent-moon) shaped, especially under low-oxygen conditions. The sickled cells clog the blood vessels and block the flow of blood, causing intense pain, swelling, and tissue damage. Heterozygous individuals are protected from the disease under most circumstances. However, when they experience oxygen deprivation—for example, at high altitudes or after intense physical exercise—the single recessive allele asserts itself, and a temporary, mild form of the illness occurs. The sickle cell allele is common among black Africans for a special reason. Carriers of it are more resistant to malaria than are individuals with two alleles for normal red blood cells. In Africa, where malaria is common, these carriers survived and reproduced more frequently than others, leading the gene to be maintained in the black population. But in regions of the world where the risk of malaria is low, the frequency of the gene is declining. Page Ref: 79

128)

Describe amniocentesis, and discuss its use as a prenatal diagnostic method.

Answer: Amniocentesis is the most widely used prenatal diagnostic technique. Women of advanced maternal age are prime candidates. The procedure consists of the insertion of a hollow needle through the abdominal wall to obtain a sample of fluid in the uterus. Cells are examined for genetic defects. It can be performed by the 14th week after conception, and test results are usually given 1 to 2 weeks later. There is a small risk of miscarriage associated with the procedure. Therefore, amniocentesis should not be used routinely. Page Ref: 84–85

129)

Discuss teratogens. Why does the harm from teratogens vary, and what are some long-term consequences of exposure? Answer: The term teratogen refers to any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period. Scientists chose this label (from the Greek word teras, meaning “malformation” or “monstrosity”) because they first learned about harmful prenatal influences from cases in which babies had been profoundly damaged. But the harm done by teratogens is not always simple and straightforward. It depends on the following factors: – Dose. Larger doses over longer time periods usually have more negative effects. – Heredity. The genetic makeup of the mother and the developing organism plays an important role. Some individuals are better able than others to withstand harmful environments. – Other negative influences. The presence of several negative factors at once, such as additional teratogens, poor nutrition, and lack of medical care, can worsen the impact of a single harmful agent. – Age. The effects of teratogens vary with the age of the organism at time of exposure. In the period of the zygote, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact. If they do, the tiny mass of cells is usually so damaged that it dies. The embryonic period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur because the foundations for all body parts are being laid down. During the fetal period, teratogenic damage is usually minor. However, organs such as the brain, ears, eyes, teeth, and genitals can still be strongly affected. The effects of teratogens go beyond immediate physical damage. Some health outcomes are delayed and may not show up for decades. Furthermore, psychological consequences may occur indirectly, as a result of physical damage. Over time, parent–child interaction, peer relations, and opportunities to explore may suffer. Furthermore, prenatally exposed children may be less resilient in the face of environmental risks, such as single parenthood, parental emotional disturbance, or maladaptive parenting. As a result, their long-term adjustment may be compromised. Page Ref: 95–96

130)

Explain the importance of folic acid supplements for women of childbearing age. Answer: Taking a folic acid supplement around the time of conception reduces by more than 70 percent abnormalities of the neural tube, such as anencephaly and spina bifida. Folic acid supplementation early in pregnancy also reduces the risk of other physical defects, including cleft lip and palate, urinary tract abnormalities, and limb deformities. Furthermore, adequate folic acid intake during the last 10 weeks of pregnancy cuts in half the risk of premature delivery and low birth weight. Because of these findings, U.S. government guidelines recommend that all women of childbearing age consume 0.4 milligrams of folic acid per day. For women who have previously had a pregnancy affected by neural tube defect, the recommended amount is 4 or 5 milligrams (dosage must be carefully monitored, as excessive intake can be harmful). About half of U.S. pregnancies are unplanned, so government regulations mandate that bread, flour, rice, pasta, and other grain products be fortified with folic acid. Mandatory grain fortification has resulted in substantial reductions in neural tube defects in the United States and other nations. Page Ref: 104

131)

Describe common labor and delivery medications in the United States, and give the possible problems associated with their use. Answer: Although natural childbirth techniques lessen or eliminate the need for pain-relieving drugs, some form of medication is used in more than 80 percent of U.S. births. Analgesics, drugs used to relieve pain, may be given in mild doses during labor to help a mother relax. Anesthetics are a stronger type of painkiller that blocks sensation. Currently, the most common approach to controlling pain during labor is epidural analgesia, in which a regional pain-relieving drug is delivered continuously through a catheter into a small space in the lower spine. Unlike older spinal block procedures, which numb the entire lower half of the body, epidural analgesia limits pain reduction to the pelvic region. Because the mother retains the capacity to feel the pressure of contractions and to move her trunk and legs, she is able to push during the second stage of labor. Although pain-relieving drugs help women cope with childbirth and enable doctors to perform essential medical interventions, they also cause problems. Epidural analgesia, for example, weakens uterine contractions. As a result, labor is prolonged, and the chances of cesarean (surgical) delivery increase. And

because drugs rapidly cross the placenta, exposed newborns tend to have lower Apgar scores, to be sleepy and withdrawn, to suck poorly during feedings, and to be irritable when awake. Although no confirmed long-term consequences for development exist, the negative impact of these drugs on the newborn’s adjustment supports the current trend to limit their use. Page Ref: 112

CHAPTER 4 INFANCY: EARLY LEARNING, MOTOR SKILLS, AND PERCEPTUAL CAPACITIES MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Psychologist William James viewed the world of a neonate as a(n) A) blooming, buzzing confusion. B) blank slate. C) ordered, predictable environment. D) refined, complex place. Answer: A Page Ref: 129 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

2)

In relating to their physical and social worlds, babies are A) passive for the first three to four months. B) passive for the first year. C) active from the very start. D) passive for only the first month, and then active. Answer: C Page Ref: 129 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

3)

Baby Callum is displaying an inborn, automatic response to a particular form of stimulation. Callum is displaying a A) basic emotion. B) reflex. C) self-conscious emotion. D) state of arousal. Answer: B Page Ref: 130 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.1

4)

The rooting reflex disappears around A) 3 weeks. B) 3 months. C) 4 months. D) 6 months. Answer: A Page Ref: 130 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

5)

The function of the Babinski reflex is A) to protect the infant from strong stimulation. B) linked to human evolutionary past, and may have helped an infant cling to the mother. C) to prepare an infant for voluntary reaching. D) unknown. Answer: D Page Ref: 130 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

6)

Which of the following reflexes may form the basis for complex motor skills that will develop later? A) the Babinski reflex B) the tonic neck reflex C) the eye blink D) the sucking reflex Answer: B Page Ref: 131 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

7)

Pediatricians test reflexes carefully because weak, absent, overly rigid, or exaggerated reflexes may indicate A) brain damage. B) a circadian rhythm. C) parental abuse or neglect. D) skeletal trauma. Answer: A Page Ref: 131–132 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

8)

Baby Yolanda’s eyelids are closed, and her breathing is irregular. Her limbs show gentle movements, and she shows some facial grimacing. Occasional rapid eye movements can be seen beneath her eyelids. Yolanda is displaying which state of arousal? A) regular sleep B) irregular sleep C) drowsiness D) quiet alertness Answer: B Page Ref: 132 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.1

9)

During the first month of life, the most fleeting state of arousal is A) regular sleep. B) irregular sleep. C) quiet alertness. D) waking activity and crying. Answer: C Page Ref: 132 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

10)

Napping usually subsides A) around 6 to 9 months. B) by about 18 months. C) between 18 months and 2 years. D) between 3 and 5 years. Answer: D Page Ref: 132 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

11)

The expression “sleeping like a baby” was probably meant to describe the A) REM sleep B) drowsiness C) NREM sleep D) quiet alertness Answer: C

state of arousal.

Page Ref: 133 Skill: Understand Objective 4.1

12)

In non-rapid-eye-movement sleep, A) facial grimacing occurs. B) breathing is uneven. C) the body is almost motionless. D) heart rate is irregular. Answer: C Page Ref: 133 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

13)

Cross-cultural research shows that cosleeping A) is the norm for approximately 90 percent of the world’s population. B) causes a decrease in mothers’ total sleep time. C) is a risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). D) children are at risk for later emotional problems, especially dependency. Answer: A Page Ref: 134 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Cultural Variation in Infant Sleeping Arrangements Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

14)

The American cultural norm of having infants sleep in a separate room from their parents is meant to foster A) an awareness of personal boundaries. B) respect for parents. C) an interdependent self. D) an independent self. Answer: D Page Ref: 134 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Cultural Variation in Infant Sleeping Arrangements Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

15)

In cultures where cosleeping is widespread, A) children rarely sleep through the night. B) parents often complain about bedtime struggles. C) SIDS is rare. D) SIDS is common. Answer: C Page Ref: 134 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

16)

The percentage of REM sleep is greatest in A) preterm babies. B) full-term newborns. C) infants between 2 to 3 months. D) infants between 6 to 9 months. Answer: A Page Ref: 135 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

17)

Rapid eye movements during sleep A) are a sign of central nervous system damage. B) help protect the health of the eye. C) are associated with a dreamless sleep. D) cause the vitreous to remain motionless. Answer: B Page Ref: 135 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

18)

Babies with poor sleep organization are likely to A) nap excessively during the day. B) grow out of it by the end of the first year. C) be behaviorally disorganized. D) be cognitively advanced. Answer: C Page Ref: 135 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

19)

The most common cause of a young infant’s cry is A) hearing a startling noise. B) a novel stimulus. C) fatigue. D) hunger. Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

20)

Baby Wesley cries at the sound of another infant crying. Some researchers believe that this response A) is a form of simple imitation. B) is an attempt to take an adult’s attention from the other infant. C) reflects an inborn capacity to react to the suffering of others. D) is uncommon and probably signifies a cognitive abnormality. Answer: C Page Ref: 135–136 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.1

21)

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) usually occurs A) during the day. B) during the second year of life. C) in healthy infants with no signs of physical problems. D) between ages 2 and 4 months. Answer: D Page Ref: 136 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

22)

Two-month-old Roderick lives in a home with parents who both smoke cigarettes. He has a mild respiratory infection and sleeps on a soft crib mattress. Roderick is at high risk for A) SIDS. B) an ear infection. C) a urinary tract infection. D) cognitive delays. Answer: A Page Ref: 136 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Apply Objective: 4.1

23)

Which of the following is a protective measure to reduce the incidence of SIDS? A) wrapping the baby in warm clothing and blankets B) pacifier use C) stomach sleeping D) use of soft bedding Answer: B Page Ref: 136 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

24)

Crying typically peaks at A) 3 weeks. B) 6 weeks. C) 3 months. D) 6 months. Answer: B Page Ref: 136 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

25)

Which of the following statements is true regarding adult responsiveness to infant cries? A) A baby’s cry stimulates stronger feelings of arousal and discomfort in men than women. B) Parents who score low in empathy are most likely to respond quickly to infant crying. C) Compared to non-depressed mothers, depressed mothers tend to be more sensitive to their infant’s crying. D) As babies get older, parents react to more subtle cues in the cry, which help them figure out what is wrong. Answer: D Page Ref: 137 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

26)

To soothe a crying baby, most Western parents usually try A) swaddling the baby. B) infant massage. C) lifting the baby to the shoulder. D) taking the baby for a walk in a carriage. Answer: C Page Ref: 137 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

27)

Dr. Thatcher believes that parental responsiveness is adaptive in that it ensures that the infant’s basic needs will be met. At the same time, it brings the baby in close contact with the caregiver, who encourages the infant to communicate through means other than crying. Dr. Thatcher probably endorses theory. A) psychoanalytic B) ethological C) behavioral D) ecological systems Answer: B Page Ref: 138 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.1

28)

When Western parents choose to practice third. A) proximal care B) the “cry it out” method C) nighttime cosleeping D) kangaroo care Answer: A

, amount of crying in the early months is reduced by about one-

Page Ref: 138 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

29)

Virtually all researchers agree that parents can lessen older babies’ need to cry by A) providing a multitude of engaging activities for them. B) surrounding them with a variety of visually stimulating toys. C) encouraging more mature ways of expressing their desires. D) placing them in group child care in early infancy. Answer: C Page Ref: 138 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

30)

The cries of brain-damaged babies and those who have experienced prenatal and birth complications are often than those of healthy infants. A) quieter B) longer in duration C) more shrill and piercing D) more muffled Answer: C Page Ref: 138 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.1

31)

Baby Xavier reacts especially strongly to unpleasant stimuli. His crying is intense and high-pitched. Xavier did not experience prenatal or birth complications and has no brain damage. Xavier probably A) has colic. B) is easier to calm down than other babies. C) is at high risk for SIDS. D) is deficient in REM sleep. Answer: A Page Ref: 138 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.1

32)

Which of the following statements is true about crying infants? A) Few parents respond to a crying baby’s call for help with extra care and attention. B) Abusive parents sometimes cite a high-pitched, grating cry as one factor that caused them to lose control and harm the baby. C) Preterm and ill babies are the least likely to be abused by highly stressed parents. D) Colic rarely subsides before 12 months of age. Answer: B Page Ref: 138 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.1

33)

T. Berry Brazelton’s Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) A) is specially designed for use with newborns at risk for developmental problems. B) is useful in Western cultures, but is not helpful in cross-cultural research. C) evaluates a baby’s reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to physical and social stimuli. D) evaluates a baby’s skin color, complexion, pulse rate, reflex irritability, muscle tone, and breathing. Answer: C Page Ref: 138 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.2

34)

The Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) A) is specially designed for use with newborns at risk for developmental problems. B) is useful in Western cultures, but is not helpful in cross-cultural evaluations. C) evaluates a baby’s reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to physical and social stimuli. D) evaluates a baby’s skin color, complexion, pulse rate, reflex irritability, muscle tone, and breathing. Answer: A Page Ref: 139 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.2

35)

Cross-cultural research using NBAS scores reveals that A) Asian babies are more irritable than Caucasian babies. B) Native-American babies are less irritable than Caucasian babies. C) U.S. babies have a stronger, more flexible muscle tone than Kipsigis babies of rural Kenya. D) in Zambia, Africa, maternal care has little to no effect on poor NBAS scores of undernourished infants. Answer: B Page Ref: 139 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.2

36)

In some hospitals, health professionals use the NBAS to A) measure habituation and recovery to visual stimuli. B) demonstrate to parents the capacities of their newborn infant. C) measure the newborn’s physical condition at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. D) teach new mothers how to breastfeed their infants. Answer: B Page Ref: 139 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.2

37)

Which of the following statements is true about learning capacities? A) Newborns are capable of classical, but not operant, conditioning. B) Infants do not yet learn by observing others. C) Newborns have built-in learning capacities that permit them to profit from experience immediately. D) Infants’ natural preference for novel stimulation often interferes with learning. Answer: C Page Ref: 139 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

38)

Classical conditioning A) works best after newborn reflexes disappear. B) helps infants relax in unfamiliar situations due to the calming effect of the unconditioned stimulus. C) makes an infant’s environment more disorganized and less predictable. D) helps infants recognize which events usually occur together in the everyday world. Answer: D Page Ref: 140 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

39)

Right before baby Dom’s mother leaves for work every morning, she takes her car keys off of a hook on the wall. As soon as Dom’s mother unhooks the keys, Dom cries. In this example, is the conditioned stimulus. A) Dom’s mother leaving for work B) Dom’s mother unhooking the keys C) Dom’s crying D) morning time Answer: B Page Ref: 140 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

40)

Before learning takes place, a(n) A) unconditioned; unconditioned B) unconditioned; conditioned C) conditioned; unconditioned D) neutral; neutral Answer: A

stimulus must consistently produce a reflexive, or

, response.

Page Ref: 140 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

41)

Sam presents a conditioned stimulus alone enough times, without pairing it with the unconditioned stimulus, that the conditioned response no longer occurs. Sam is demonstrating A) reinforcement. B) punishment. C) extinction. D) a novelty preference. Answer: C Page Ref: 140 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

42)

In , infants act on the environment, and stimuli that follow their behavior change the probability that the behavior will occur again. A) classical conditioning B) operant conditioning C) habituation D) recovery Answer: B Page Ref: 141 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

43)

Sweet liquid increases the occurrence of the sucking response in baby Basil. Sweet liquid is a(n) A) punisher. B) conditioned response. C) reinforcer. D) unconditioned response. Answer: C Page Ref: 141 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

44)

Each time Baby Masha sucks on her bottle, she receives a sweet-tasting liquid. When baby Masha sucks on a pacifier, she is met with a sour taste, which causes her to purse her lips and stop sucking entirely. The sour taste is a(n) A) unconditioned response. B) conditioned response. C) reinforcer. D) punisher. Answer: D Page Ref: 141 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

45)

Research using the technique of attaching a baby’s foot to a mobile with a long cord revealed that remember how to activate the mobile for two weeks after training. A) newborn B) 2-month-old C) 3-month-old D) 6-month-old Answer: D

babies

Page Ref: 141 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

46)

A study conducted by Rovee-Collier using a mobile attached to a baby’s foot showed that after 2- to 6-month-olds forget an operant response, A) they need only a brief prompt to reinstate the memory. B) they have to relearn the skill using classical conditioning. C) their memory returns but diminishes dramatically. D) they have to relearn the skill using habituation. Answer: A Page Ref: 141 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

47)

At first, infants’ memory for operant responses is A) nonexistent. B) highly context dependent. C) context-free. D) inconsistent. Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

48)

is strongly associated with 9-month-olds’ formation of an increasingly context-free memory. A) Food B) Talking C) Punishment D) Crawling Answer: D Page Ref: 142 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

49)

When baby Raj’s mom first started carrying an on-call beeper, Raj was easily awakened by the sound of it going off. After several nights, Raj’s sleep was not disturbed by the beeping. This is an example of A) recovery. B) operant conditioning. C) habituation. D) classical conditioning. Answer: C Page Ref: 142 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

50)

Baby Quinn’s attention to a song on an iPod decreased after her mother played it several times. When her mother played a different song, Quinn’s attention increased. This is an example of A) recovery. B) classical conditioning. C) habituation. D) operant conditioning. Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

51)

Habituation and recovery make learning more efficient by A) helping us anticipate what event is about to happen next. B) focusing our attention on those aspects of the environment we know least about. C) helping us generalize newly learned behaviors to unfamiliar contexts. D) influencing the occurrence of stimulus events in the environment. Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

52)

A baby who first habituates to a green circle and then recovers to a blue circle A) does not remember the green circle. B) perceives both stimuli as identical. C) prefers the green circle. D) can distinguish between green and blue. Answer: D Page Ref: 142 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

53)

Which of the following statements is true regarding habituation and recovery in babies? A) Newborn babies habituate and recover faster than 4-month-old babies. B) Habituation to an auditory stimulus is evident in the third trimester of pregnancy. C) Habituation and recovery are not mastered until the second half of the first year. D) Newborns’ attention spans are nonexistent; thus, they cannot habituate and recover. Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

54)

Which of the following babies will most likely take the longest time to habituate to novel visual forms? A) Aaron, a newborn B) Jared, a 2-month-old C) Virginia, a 4-month-old D) Olivia, a 5-month-old Answer: B Page Ref: 142–143 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.3

55)

Studies of familiarity preference show that infants A) look longer at the features of a familiar person than the action in which the person is engaged. B) are better at discriminating faces in static displays than in moving displays. C) retain information much longer in operant conditioning studies than in habituation studies. D) look longer at a familiar action than the features of the person engaging in the action. Answer: D Page Ref: 143 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

56)

Which of the following statements is true about learning using habituation versus operant conditioning? A) In operant conditioning studies, infants retain certain information over much longer time spans than they do in habituation research. B) Although habituation research tells us more about infant perceptual and cognitive capacities than operant conditioning, its findings are not clear-cut. C) Operant conditioning studies reveals more about infant perceptual and cognitive capacities than habituation research. D) Operant conditioning studies are a more reliable predictor of later intelligence than habituation and recovery. Answer: B Page Ref: 144 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

57)

is/are among the earliest available predictors of intelligence in childhood, adolescence, and young adulthood. A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Habituation and recovery to visual stimuli D) Imitation Answer: C Page Ref: 145 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

58)

Habituation studies test A) recall memory. B) imitation. C) operant responses. D) recognition memory. Answer: D Page Ref: 145 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

59)

According to Andrew Meltzoff, newborns A) do not actually imitate; their responses are actually mouthing. B) have an automatic imitative capacity that declines with age. C) imitate much as older children and adults do. D) cannot yet imitate facial expressions. Answer: C Page Ref: 146 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.3

60)

Which of the following statements is true regarding mirror neurons? A) Brain-imaging studies confirm that human adults have especially elaborate systems of mirror neurons. B) Mirror neurons do not appear until visual acuity is fully developed. C) Mirror neurons undergo a short period of development during infancy. D) Mirror neurons develop at the same rate as the development of the child’s self-image and ego. Answer: A Page Ref: 146 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.3

61)

Babies’ motor achievements have a powerful effect on their A) development novelty preference. B) social relationships. C) sleep–wake cycle. D) visual acuity. Answer: B Page Ref: 147 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.5

62)

Which of the following pairs are examples of fine-motor activities? A) sitting and crawling B) standing and grasping C) reaching and grasping D) walking and crawling Answer: C Page Ref: 147 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.5

63)

Which of the following statements is true about the sequence of motor development? A) A baby who is a late reacher will probably also be a late crawler. B) Motor skills are separate, innate abilities that emerge in a fixed sequence. C) Motor skills are interrelated; each is a product of earlier motor attainments. D) All children acquire motor skills in the same way. Answer: C Page Ref: 147 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.5

64)

Motor skills A) develop more rapidly in boys than girls. B) follow a fixed maturational timetable. C) develop in highly individualized ways. D) follow a strict, predetermined cephalocaudal pattern without exception. Answer: C Page Ref: 147 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.5

65)

Which of the following motor achievements, on average, occurs last? A) grasps cube B) sits alone C) rolls from back to side D) rolls from side to back Answer: B Page Ref: 148 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.5

66)

Ninety percent of infants will crawl between A) 2 to 7 B) 5 to 9 C) 5 to 11 D) 7 to 15 Answer: C

months.

Page Ref: 148 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.5

67)

Which of the following infants is the most likely to engage in a game of pat-a-cake with a caregiver? A) Yolanda, age 4 months B) Xavier, age 6 months C) Juanita, age 8 months D) Zeb, age 10 months Answer: D Page Ref: 148 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.5

68)

Baby Rolf first demonstrated the ability to kick and reach, then learned to rock on all fours, and later combined the skills to crawl. Rolf is exhibiting evidence of A) dynamic systems theory of motor development. B) the cephalocaudal trend. C) the proximodistal trend. D) a built-in maturational timetable. Answer: A Page Ref: 148 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.4

69)

According to dynamic systems theory of motor development, each new skill is a joint product of central nervous system development, the body’s movement capacities, the child’s goals, and A) environmental supports for the skill. B) the child’s cognitive development. C) the child’s social relationships. D) the child’s age. Answer: A Page Ref: 148 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.4

70)

Dynamic systems theory provides convincing evidence that motor skill behaviors are A) governed by a built-in maturational timetable. B) hardwired. C) genetically determined. D) softly assembled. Answer: D Page Ref: 149 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.4

71)

To find out how infants acquire motor capacities, researchers conduct A) field experiments. B) ethnographic studies. C) microgenetic studies. D) natural experiments. Answer: C Page Ref: 149 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.4

72)

Microgenetic research by James Galloway and Esther Thelen shows that A) of all the motor skills, walking alone plays the greatest role in infant cognitive development. B) infants reach for objects with their feet before they reach for objects with their hands. C) there are minimal individual differences in the rate and progression of infant motor development. D) infant motor skills develop according to a strict, predetermined cephalocaudal pattern. Answer: B Page Ref: 149 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.4

73)

In Wayne Dennis’s research, Iranian babies who spent their days lying on their backs A) learned to walk by 16 months of age. B) scooted in a sitting position rather than crawled on their hands and knees when they first moved on their own. C) rarely attempted to reach or grasp at moving objects. D) transitioned from crawling to walking within several weeks of adoption. Answer: B Page Ref: 150 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.4

74)

Kipsigis and Jamaican infants walk considerably earlier than North American infants because A) they are physically smaller at birth, requiring less leg-muscle strength for standing. B) they must help their parents work in the fields at an extremely young age. C) they are genetically “hardwired” to do so. D) their parents promote early walking instruction, practicing formal exercises to stimulate skills. Answer: D Page Ref: 150 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.4

75)

Of all motor skills, A) rolling over B) reaching C) crawling D) walking Answer: B

may play the greatest role in infant cognitive development.

Page Ref: 150 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.5

76)

Newborn Alexia makes poorly coordinated swipes toward an object in front of her. Alexia is demonstrating A) prereaching. B) the ulnar grasp. C) the pincer grasp. D) voluntary reaching. Answer: A Page Ref: 150 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.5

77)

Early behaviors suggest that infants are biologically prepared to coordinate hand with eye in the act of exploring. A) ulnar grasping B) prereaching C) visual acuity D) pincer grasping Answer: B Page Ref: 150 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.5

78)

Reaching is largely controlled by A) vision. B) proprioception. C) gross-motor development. D) depth perception. Answer: B Page Ref: 151 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.5

79)

Three-month-old Royal holds his rattle and shakes it. He is most likely using A) the pincer grasp. B) the ulnar grasp. C) gross-motor skills. D) prereaching. Answer: B Page Ref: 151 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.5

80)

Twelve-month-old Britney picks up a raisin from the table. Britney is most likely using A) the ulnar grasp. B) prereaching. C) the pincer grasp. D) proprioception. Answer: C Page Ref: 151 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.5

81)

Trying to push infants beyond their current readiness to handle stimulation A) will delay social development. B) can undermine the development of important motor skills. C) enhances early motor development. D) can cause depression and insecurity in early childhood. Answer: B Page Ref: 152 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.5

82)

The sense of A) taste B) smell C) touch D) hearing Answer: C

is a fundamental means of interaction between parents and babies.

Page Ref: 153 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

83)

The newborn baby responds to touch, especially around the A) eyes, ears, and soles of the feet. B) eyes, palms, and genitals. C) feet, stomach, and head. D) mouth, palms, and soles of the feet. Answer: D Page Ref: 153 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

84)

Infant reactions to A) pain B) hunger C) cold D) anxiety Answer: A Page Ref: 153 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

include an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, palm sweating, and pupil dilation.

85)

Which of the following newborns is the most likely to feel pain especially intensely? A) Miranda, who was born eight days after her due date B) Helen, who was born two days after her due date C) Miguel, who was born three weeks before his due date D) Demitria, who was born on her due date Answer: C Page Ref: 153 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.6

86)

Baby Nathalie is trying a new food. Her facial expression shows a distinct, archlike mouth opening. Based on her reaction, Nathalie probably finds that the food tastes A) sweet. B) salty. C) sour. D) bitter. Answer: D Page Ref: 154 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.6

87)

Baby Noah prefers a salty taste to plain water. This may indicate that Noah is A) iron-deficient. B) ready to accept solid foods. C) malnourished. D) ready to be weaned. Answer: B Page Ref: 154 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.6

88)

At birth, babies A) cannot hear high-pitched sounds. B) display no taste preferences. C) display certain odor preferences. D) cannot detect nonspeech sounds. Answer: C Page Ref: 154 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

89)

Newborn Amelia is presented with the odor of chocolate. Which of the following facial expressions do you expect to see? A) pursed lips B) a frown C) a relaxed, pleasant face D) a distinct, archlike mouth opening Answer: C Page Ref: 154 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.6

90)

In many mammals, the sense of smell plays an important role in A) protecting the young from predators. B) communicating a baby’s discomfort. C) choosing non-poisonous foods. D) communicating danger. Answer: A Page Ref: 154 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

91)

At birth, babies prefer A) pure tones to complex sounds, such as noises and voices. B) nonspeech sounds to human speech. C) male voices to female voices. D) complex sounds, such as noises and voices, to pure tones. Answer: D Page Ref: 155 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

92)

By , infants recognize the same melody when it is played in different keys. A) 2 to 4 months B) 4 to 6 months C) 6 to 8 months D) the end of the first year Answer: D Page Ref: 155 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

93)

Research on hearing shows that A) newborns prefer listening to Mozart minuets with awkward breaks to those with pauses between phrases. B) newborns prefer pure tones to complex sounds, such as noises and voices. C) the ability to identify the location of a sound is at adult levels by 1 month of age. D) newborns’ ability to perceive sounds not found in their own language is more precise than an adult’s. Answer: D Page Ref: 155 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

94)

Which of the following sounds is newborn Cherise most likely to prefer? A) nonspeech sounds B) her mother’s voice C) children laughing D) an unfamiliar speaker’s voice Answer: B Page Ref: 155 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.6

95)

ERP brain-wave recordings reveal that around 5 months, babies A) become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in their own language. B) begin to prefer the sound of their mother’s voice. C) divide the speech stream into wordlike units. D) have no statistical learning capacity. Answer: A Page Ref: 156 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

96)

Which of the following statements is true about speech perception? A) Not until the end of the second year can toddlers “screen out” sounds not used in their native tongue. B) Between 6 and 8 months, babies start to “screen out” sounds not used in their native tongue. C) Young infants listen longer to nonspeech sounds than to human speech. D) Newborns prefer speech that is fast, low-pitched, and monotone. Answer: B Page Ref: 156 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.6

97)

In a study examining infants’ ability to perceive faces, 6-month-olds could A) discriminate individual faces of both humans and monkeys equally well. B) distinguish human but not monkey faces. C) distinguish monkey but not human faces. D) only distinguish their mother’s face from an unfamiliar woman’s face. Answer: A Page Ref: 156: Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: “Tuning In” to Familiar Speech, Faces, and Music: A Sensitive Period for Culture-Specific Learning Skill: Understand Objective: 4.6

98)

Unlike adults, 6-month-olds A) are unaware of deviations in foreign musical rhythms. B) can detect rhythmic-pattern deviations in Western but not in non-Western melodies. C) can detect rhythmic-pattern deviations in non-Western but not in Western melodies. D) can detect rhythmic-pattern deviations in both Western and non-Western melodies. Answer: D Page Ref: 156 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: “Tuning In” to Familiar Speech, Faces, and Music: A Sensitive Period for Culture-Specific Learning Skill: Understand Objective: 4.6

99)

Research findings suggest a sensitive period during the on socially meaningful perceptual distinctions. A) second half of the second year B) first half of the first year C) first half of the second year D) second half of the first year Answer: D

, when babies are biologically prepared to “zero in”

Page Ref: 156 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: “Tuning In” to Familiar Speech, Faces, and Music: A Sensitive Period for Culture-Specific Learning Skill: Remember Objective: 4.6

100)

A study that asked infants to distinguish between ABA and ABB structured strings of nonsense words revealed that infants. A) cannot detect speech patterns in nonsense words. B) can detect simple word-order rules. C) cannot detect regularities in word sequences. D) are less attentive to nonsense words than to nonspeech sounds. Answer: B Page Ref: 157 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.7

101)

At birth, A) touch B) smell C) vision D) hearing Answer: C

is the least developed of the senses.

Page Ref: 158 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.7

102)

At birth, infants perceive objects at a distance of 20 feet about as clearly as adults do at A) 100 B) 200 C) 500 D) 600 Answer: D

feet.

Page Ref: 159 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.7

103)

is the first depth cue to which infants are sensitive. A) Motion B) Stereopsis C) Perspective D) Texture Answer: A Page Ref: 160 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.7

104)

Baby Samantha adjusts her arm and hand movements to match the distance of objects from her eyes. Samantha is demonstrating A) shape sensitivity. B) contrast sensitivity. C) pictorial depth perception. D) binocular depth perception. Answer: D Page Ref: 160 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.7

105)

Which of the following infants is the most likely to refuse to cross the deep side of the visual cliff? A) Joey, a shy baby, who has just begun crawling B) Monica, a fearless baby, who has just begun crawling C) Ross, a shy baby, with a few weeks of crawling experience D) Phoebe, a fearless baby, with several weeks of crawling experience Answer: D Page Ref: 160–161 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.7

106)

Infants with severe visual impairments are not motivated to move independently until A) “reaching on sound” is achieved. B) their parents push them to do so. C) they have received extensive orientation and mobility training. D) they receive vision correction through eyeglasses or surgery. Answer: A Page Ref: 162 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Development of Infants with Severe Visual Impairments Skill: Understand Objective: 4.7

107)

Visually impaired infants A) attain gross- and fine-motor milestones at the same time as their sighted counterparts. B) usually have adult caregivers who provide them with rich early exposure to sounding objects. C) have great difficulty evoking stimulating caregiver interaction. D) can imitate and pick up nonverbal social cues. Answer: C Page Ref: 162 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Development of Infants with Severe Infant Impairments Skill: Understand Objective: 4.7

108)

Baby Charlotte prefers looking at a checkerboard with many small squares compared to looking at one with a few large squares. Charlotte is demonstrating A) contrast sensitivity. B) pictorial depth perception. C) shape sensitivity. D) binocular depth perception. Answer: A Page Ref: 161, 163 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.7

109)

When exposed to dynamic stimuli, infants A) fixate on the image’s edges. B) fixate more on external features. C) cannot thoroughly inspect the image until 4 months of age. D) often become bored and listless. Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.7

110)

Newborns prefer to look at photos and simplified drawings of faces with features arranged A) upright. B) upside down. C) sideways. D) with the eyes closed. Answer: A Page Ref: 163 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.7

111) Baby Naomi is presented with photos of faces. She is most likely to look the longest at a(n) A) female face than a male face. B) older man’s face than a younger man’s face. C) face judged by adults as attractive. D) older woman’s face than a younger woman’s face. Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.7

112)

and are evident in the first week of life, long before babies can actively rotate objects and view them from different angles. A) Binocular depth perception; shape constancy B) Size constancy; shape constancy C) Contrast sensitivity; pictorial depth perception D) Size constancy; binocular depth perception Answer: B Page Ref: 164–165 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.7

113)

Baby Grace sees and hears a bouncing ball. When she hears the sound later, without seeing the ball, she is nonetheless able to recognize a picture of a ball. Grace is demonstrating A) size constancy. B) shape constancy. C) intermodal perception. D) object perception. Answer: C Page Ref: 166 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.8

114)

Babies quickly learn that certain sights are linked with certain sounds. This is because babies are sensitive to A) optical sensory flow. B) kinetic depth cues. C) contrast sensitivity. D) amodal sensory properties. Answer: D Page Ref: 166 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.8

115)

Which of the following statements is true about intermodal perception? A) Intermodal perception develops very slowly over time. B) Intermodal sensitivity is crucial for perceptual development. C) Young infants notice changes in purely visual properties only when exposed to intermodal information. D) Intermodal perception interferes with social and language processing. Answer: B Page Ref: 166 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.8

116)

According to Eleanor and James Gibson’s environment. A) amodal perception B) dynamic systems C) differentiation D) intermodal perception Answer: C

theory, infants actively search for invariant features of the

Page Ref: 168 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.9

117)

Baby Franklin has figured out that crawling down a ramp might mean getting to the desired location or falling. Franklin’s perception is guided by the discovery of A) affordances. B) invariant features. C) contrast sensitivity. D) binocular depth cues. Answer: A Page Ref: 168–169 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.9

118)

Studies of animals exposed to extreme forms of sensory deprivation provide ample evidence that A) operant learning plays a major role in early development. B) sensitive periods in development exist. C) developmental delays resulting from early life events cannot be overcome. D) development proceeds according to the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. Answer: B Page Ref: 170 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.10

119)

Studies on the lasting effects of infant deprivation and sensitive periods are conducted A) using parent volunteers who are not fully informed about the purpose of the research. B) in naturally occurring environments, such as orphanages. C) in highly-controlled, laboratory settings. D) in low-income, single-parent households only. Answer: B Page Ref: 170 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.10

120)

Which of the following children born with cataracts will likely show permanent impairment? A) Jon, who had corrective surgery at 4 months old B) Jesse, who had corrective surgery at 4 years old C) Jennifer, who had corrective surgery at 12 years old D) Jackson, who had corrective surgery at 18 years old Answer: D Page Ref: 170 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.10

121)

In a study of severely deprived Romanian orphans who were later adopted, those who had been institutionalized past age 6 months showed A) average mental test scores by adolescence. B) serious intellectual defects. C) little or no catch-up in physical size. D) no improvement in mental test scores during middle childhood. Answer: B Page Ref: 170 Skill: Remember Objective: 4.10

122)

Dmitri was adopted from a severely deprived orphanage. He has strabismus because of muscle weakness. If left untreated and the strabismus persists longer than a few months, Dmitri will probably A) have long-term hearing difficulties. B) be overwhelmed by stimulation, reacting to it with disorganized behavior or withdrawal. C) show permanent deficits in visual acuity and depth perception. D) experience short-term, mild cognitive delays. Answer: C Page Ref: 171 Skill: Apply Objective: 4.10

123)

Which of the following is an accurate finding of the Bucharest Early Intervention Project? A) Foster placement is no better than institutionalization. B) The later the foster placement, the better the outcome. C) To be maximally effective, intensive intervention must begin early. D) The institutional-care group exceeded the foster-care group in perception of emotional expression. Answer: C Page Ref: 171 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.10

124)

Expensive early learning centers that feature a full curriculum of reading, math, science, art, music, and gym A) tend to produce the most academically advanced schoolchildren. B) can compensate for extreme deprivation in the early months of life. C) usually create a stress-free environment for infants and parents. D) can overwhelm children, cause them to withdraw, and threaten their interest in learning. Answer: D Page Ref: 171 Skill: Understand Objective: 4.10

ESSAY 125)

Describe the five infant states of arousal. Answer: 1) Regular, or NREM, sleep: The infant is at full rest and shows little or no body activity. The eyelids are closed, no eye movements occur, the face is relaxed, and breathing is slow and regular. 2) Irregular, or REM, sleep: Gentle limb movements, occasional stirring, and facial grimacing occur. Although the eyelids are closed, occasional rapid eye movements can be seen beneath them. Breathing is irregular. 3) Drowsiness: The infant is either falling asleep or waking up. The body is less active than in irregular sleep but more active than in regular sleep. The eyes open and close; when open, they have a glazed look. Breathing is even but somewhat faster than in regular sleep. 4) Quiet alertness: The infant’s body is relatively inactive, with eyes open and attentive. Breathing is even. 5) Waking activity and crying: The infant shows frequent bursts of uncoordinated body activity. Breathing is very irregular. The face may be relaxed or tense and wrinkled. Crying may occur. Page Ref: 132

126)

Identify and describe useful techniques for soothing a crying baby. Answer: • Talk softly or play rhythmic sounds. Continuous, monotonous, rhythmic sound (such as a clock ticking, a fan whirring, or peaceful music) are more effective than intermittent sounds. • Offer a pacifier. Sucking helps babies control their own level of arousal. • Massage the baby’s body. Stroking the baby’s torso and limbs with continuous, gentle motions relaxes the baby’s muscles. • Swaddle the baby. Restricting movement and increasing warmth often soothe a young infant. • Lift the baby to the shoulder and rock or walk. This combination of physical contact, upright posture, and motion is an effective soothing technique, causing young infants to become quietly alert. • Take the baby for a short car ride or walk in a baby carriage; swing the baby in a cradle. Gentle, rhythmic motion of any kind helps lull the baby to sleep. • Combine several of the listed methods. Stimulating several of the baby’s senses at once is often more effective than stimulating only one. If these methods do not work, let the baby cry for a short period. Occasionally, a baby responds well to just being put down and will, after a few minutes, fall asleep. Page Ref: 137

127)

Describe operant conditioning, reinforcers, and punishment. Answer: In operant conditioning, infants act, or operate, on the environment, and stimuli that follow their behavior change the probability that the behavior will occur again. A stimulus that increases the occurrence of a response is called a reinforcer. For example, sweet liquid reinforces the sucking response in newborns. Removing a desirable stimulus or presenting an unpleasant one to decrease the occurrence of a response is called punishment. A sour-tasting fluid punishes newborns’ sucking response. It causes them to purse their lips and stop sucking entirely. Page Ref: 141

128)

Explain dynamic systems theory of motor development. Why, according to this view, is motor development softly assembled rather than genetically hardwired? Answer: According to dynamic systems theory of motor development, mastery of motor skills involves acquiring increasingly complex systems of action. When motor skills work as a system, separate abilities blend together, each cooperating with others to produce more effective ways of exploring and controlling the environment. For example, control of the head and upper chest combine into sitting with support. Kicking, rocking on all fours, and reaching combine to become crawling. Then standing, stepping, and improved upright postural control unite into walking. Each new skill is a joint product of central nervous system development, the body’s movement capacities, the goals the child has in mind, and environmental supports for the skill. Change in any element makes the system less stable, and the child starts to explore and select new, more effective motor patterns. The factors that induce change vary with age. The broader physical environment also profoundly influences motor skills. For example, infants with stairs in their home learn to crawl up stairs at an early age. Dynamic systems theory shows us why motor development cannot be genetically determined. Because it is motivated by exploration and the desire to master new tasks, heredity can map it out only at a general level. Rather than being hardwired into the nervous system, behaviors are softly assembled, allowing for different paths to the same motor skill. Page Ref: 148–149

129)

Summarize milestones in the development of touch, taste, smell, and hearing that are present at birth and during the first half of the first year. Answer: At birth, newborns respond to touch and pain. They can distinguish the shape of an object placed in their palm. Newborns can also distinguish sweet, sour, and bitter tastes; they prefer sweetness. Newborns can distinguish odors; they prefer those of sweet-tasting foods. They also prefer the smell of their own mother’s amniotic fluid and the lactating breast. With regard to hearing, newborns can distinguish some sound patterns. They prefer complex sounds to pure tones, prefer listening to their own mother’s voice over an unfamiliar woman’s voice, and prefer listening to their native language over a foreign language. Newborns can make subtle distinctions between almost all speech sounds, including sounds not found in their own language. They turn their eyes and head in the general direction of a sound. During the first half of the first year, infants frequently engage in exploratory mouthing of objects. They prefer a salty taste to plain water and readily change their taste preferences through experience. With regard to hearing, infants prefer listening to human speech over structurally similar nonspeech sounds and can identify the location of a sound more precisely than at birth. By age 6 months, infants become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in their own language. They can organize sounds into increasingly elaborate patterns, such as musical phrases. Page Ref: 158

CHAPTER 5 PHYSICAL GROWTH MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

When asked what they expect their sons and daughters to be like as teenagers, Kate and Harriett, moms of preschoolers, say “Rebellious and reckless” and “Full of rages and tempers.” Their view is consistent with which theorists’ views on adolescence? A) G. Stanley Hall and Erik Erikson B) Jean-Jacques Rousseau and G. Stanley Hall C) Sigmund Freud and Jean-Jacques Rousseau D) Jean Piaget and John Bowlby Answer: B Page Ref: 175 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.1

2)

Physical immaturity is exaggerated in humans, who devote about A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: D

percent of their total years to growing.

Page Ref: 176 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

3)

Human children’s prolonged physical immaturity A) gives them added time to acquire the knowledge and skills essential for life in the complex social world. B) hinders cognitive development because young children are too physically immature to manipulate their environment. C) is adaptive because of the physical dangers present in their everyday environment. D) hinders emotional development because physically immature children are too small to socialize effectively. Answer: A Page Ref: 176 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.1

4)

Ben is a typical infant. He was 21 inches long and 8 pounds at birth. Assuming normal growth, what is a realistic estimate of his measurements at age 6 months? A) 30 inches and 12 pounds B) 36 inches and 12 pounds C) 42 inches and 16 pounds D) 45 inches and 23 pounds Answer: C Page Ref: 176 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.1

5)

In early and middle childhood, children add about A) 1–2; 3 B) 2–3; 5 C) 3–4; 7 D) 4–5; 10 Answer: B

inches in height and

pounds in weight each year.

Page Ref: 176 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

6)

A distance curve A) plots the average amount of growth at each yearly interval. B) indicates typical yearly progress toward maturity. C) reveals the exact timing of growth spurts. D) helps track brain and body growth in children from diverse cultures. Answer: B Page Ref: 176 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

7)

Baby Andrea’s head and chest are growing at a greater rate than her trunk and legs. This is an example of the A) velocity curve. B) proximodistal trend. C) distance curve. D) cephalocaudal trend. Answer: D Page Ref: 176 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.1

8)

During infancy and childhood, the A) upper body grows faster than the lower body. B) hands and feet continue to grow ahead of the arms and legs. C) arms and legs continue to grow ahead of the hands and feet. D) head grows at a much faster rate than any other body part. Answer: C Page Ref: 176–177 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

9)

Which of the following statements best describes growth during puberty? A) It follows the cephalocaudal trend. B) The hands, legs, and feet accelerate first, followed by the torso. C) It proceeds from near to far. D) It occurs in brief but steady spurts. Answer: B Page Ref: 177 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

10)

During adolescence, A) boys’ shoulders broaden relative to the hips. B) boys and girls have similar body proportions. C) girls’ legs are longer than boys’ in relation to the rest of their body. D) girls’ shoulders broaden relative to the hips and waist. Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

11)

Which of the following statements is true about muscle–fat makeup? A) Body fat reaches a peak at about 9 months of age. B) At birth, boys have slightly more body fat than girls. C) During the early school years, boys have slightly more body fat than girls. D) During puberty, the arm and leg fat of boys increases. Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.1

12)

Both sexes gain muscle at puberty, but this increase is A) 75; girls B) 100; girls C) 100; boys D) 150; boys Answer: D

percent greater in

Page Ref: 177 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

13)

The best estimate of a child’s physical maturity is A) the distance curve. B) biological age. C) the velocity curve. D) skeletal age. Answer: D Page Ref: 178 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

14)

tend to be ahead of in skeletal age. A) African-American children; Caucasian-American children B) Boys; girls C) Premature infants; full-term infants D) Low birth weight babies; normal birth weight babies Answer: A Page Ref: 178 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

.

15)

Jaynie walks down stairs, alternating her feet. Jaynie is probably A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D

year(s) old.

Page Ref: 179 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.1

16)

Four-year-old Liam can probably A) gallop and skip with one foot. B) run at about 18 feet per second. C) involve his whole body in batting a ball. D) display mature, whole-body throwing and catching patterns. Answer: A Page Ref: 179 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.1

17)

Sex differences in gross-motor development A) are non-existent. B) are not present until adolescence. C) decrease during middle childhood. D) are present as early as the preschool years. Answer: D Page Ref: 180 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Sex Differences in Gross-Motor Development Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

18)

Although sex-related differences in muscle mass can explain boys’ skill advantages like differences in athletic performance in boys and girls is probably due to . A) throwing; social pressure B) kicking; boys’ growth spurts C) balance; girls’ body fat ratio D) catching; neurological differences Answer: A

, the primary

Page Ref: 180 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Sex Differences in Gross-Motor Development Skill: Remember Objective: 5.1

19)

Which of the following statements is true about organized youth sports? A) Partly because of parents’ concern about safety, today’s children devote far less time to organized sports than children in previous generations. B) About half of U.S. children participate in organized sports outside of school hours at some time between ages 5 and 18. C) In most organized sports, the rate of serious injury is high throughout childhood and adolescence. D) High parental pressure to excel at sports and frequent, intense practices are linked to promoting elite performance. Answer: B Page Ref: 181 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.1

20)

The most important hormones for human growth are released by the the brain near the . A) pituitary; hypothalamus B) pituitary; cerebellum C) thyroid; cerebrum D) endocrine; hypothalamus Answer: A Page Ref: 181 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.2

21)

is the only pituitary secretion produced continuously throughout life. A) Estrogen B) Thyroxine C) Growth hormone (GH) D) Testosterone Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.2

22)

Growth hormone (GH) A) affects prenatal growth. B) decreases in production during puberty. C) decreases in production after final adult height is reached. D) affects development of the central nervous system. Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.2

23)

A deficiency of thyroxine results in A) morbid obesity. B) mental retardation. C) androgyny. D) excess facial and body hair. Answer: B Page Ref: 183 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.2

24)

The maturation of the breasts, uterus, and vagina are caused by the release of A) estrogens. B) adrenal androgens. C) testosterone. D) thyroxine. Answer: A Page Ref: 183 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.2

gland, which is located at the base of

25)

Dr. Widner is studying children’s physical size worldwide by comparing the size of 8-year-olds in several countries, including Burma, Vietnam, Australia, the United States, and Canada. Dr. Widner can expect to find around a inch gap between the smallest and the largest children. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 Answer: D Page Ref: 183 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.3

26)

In comparing ethnic variations in growth rate, researchers find that children. A) European; African-American B) Asian; Caucasian-American C) European; Asian D) Caucasian-American; African-American Answer: B

children tend to mature faster than

Page Ref: 183 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.3

27)

Yesica is much taller than the worldwide average height for children her age. Yesica probably lives in a(n) A) cold, Arctic area. B) undeveloped region. C) developed country. D) poor nation. Answer: C Page Ref: 183 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.3

28)

Vi, age 12, is taller and heavier than her mother was at her age, and Vi’s mother was taller and heavier than Vi’s grandmother was at age 12. This is an example of the A) velocity curve. B) proximodistal trend. C) cephalocaudal trend. D) secular trend. Answer: D Page Ref: 184 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.3

29)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on secular trends? A) The larger size of today’s children is mostly due to a faster rate of physical development. B) Age of first menstruation increased steadily from 1900 to 1970. C) Secular trends are primarily observed in wealthy, industrialized nations. D) Secular trends are larger for low-income children, who have poorer diets. Answer: A Page Ref: 184 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.3

30)

While the secular trend toward earlier first menstruation has stopped in most industrialized nations, in the United States A) the trend has slightly reversed due to improved nutrition. B) soaring rates of overweight and obesity are responsible for a modest, continuing trend. C) improved health care is responsible for a modest, continuing trend. D) the trend has slightly reversed due to improved health care. Answer: B Page Ref: 184 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.3

31)

Despite its complexity, the human A) brain B) skeleton C) heart D) liver Answer: A

reaches its adult size earlier than any other organ or structure.

Page Ref: 184 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

32)

Which of the following statements is true about neurons? A) Like other body cells, they are tightly packed together. B) The human brain has about 100 to 200 million neurons. C) They store and transmit information. D) After birth, they can only die as a result of significant trauma. Answer: C Page Ref: 185 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

33)

The is among the last regions to attain adult levels of synaptic connections—in mid-to-late adolescence. A) cerebellum B) prefrontal cortex C) temporal lobe D) optical lobe Answer: B Page Ref: 185 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

34)

Programmed cell death A) is the result of maternal drug or alcohol use during pregnancy. B) often results in permanent mental retardation. C) primarily occurs in unstimulated regions of the brain. D) makes room for the formation of new synapses. Answer: D Page Ref: 185 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

35)

are responsible for coating neural fibers with A) Glial cells; myelin B) Synapses; glial cells C) Neurotransmitters; dopamine D) Epiphyses; cartilage Answer: A

.

Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

36)

Dramatic increases in first years of life. A) neurons; neural fibers B) synapses; glial cells C) neurons; glial cells D) neural fibers; myelination Answer: D

and

are responsible for the swift gain in overall brain size during the

Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

37)

At birth, the brain is nearly A) 20 B) 30 C) 50 D) 70 Answer: B

percent of its adult weight.

Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

38)

The cerebral cortex A) is the largest brain structure. B) is the first brain structure to stop growing. C) accounts for about half of the brain’s weight. D) contains the smallest number of neurons and synapses. Answer: A Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

39)

The is sensitive to environmental influences for a much longer period than any other part of the brain. A) temporal lobe B) optical lobe C) cerebellum D) cerebral cortex Answer: D Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

40)

The is responsible for thought—in particular, consciousness, attention, inhibition of impulses, integration of information, and use of memory, reasoning, planning, and problem-solving strategies. A) cerebellum B) parietal lobe C) temporal lobe D) prefrontal cortex Answer: D Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

41)

The prefrontal cortex undergoes especially rapid myelination and formation and pruning of synapses during A) infancy. B) the preschool and school years. C) early adulthood. D) midlife. Answer: B Page Ref: 186 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

42)

Before lateralization occurs, A) if a part of the cortex is damaged, other parts can take over the tasks it would have handled. B) each hemisphere controls only one side of the body. C) damage to a particular region means that abilities controlled by it will be lost forever. D) each hemisphere receives sensory information from only one side of the body. Answer: A Page Ref: 187 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

43)

Most newborns A) show greater activation in the right hemisphere while listening to speech sounds. B) react more strongly in the left hemisphere to nonspeech sounds. C) do not show specialization in the hemispheres of the brain. D) favor the right side of the body in their head position and reflexive reactions. Answer: D Page Ref: 187 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

44)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on the influence of early experience in the organization of the cerebral cortex? A) Deaf infants depend only on the left hemisphere for language processing, whereas hearing infants depend on both hemispheres. B) Adolescents and adults show more diffuse fMRI activity than children while performing motor and cognitive skills. C) Deaf adults who learned sign language as infants and children depend more than hearing adults on the right hemisphere for language processing. D) Toddlers who are advanced in language development show greater right-hemisphere specialization than their more slowly developing agemates. Answer: C Page Ref: 187 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

45)

In a large study of children with injuries to the cerebral cortex that occurred before birth or in the first six months of life, where language and spatial skills were assessed repeatedly into adolescence, A) the children showed language delays that persisted until about 3½ years of age. B) recovery was greater for spatial skills than language abilities. C) the brain-damaged children caught up to their peers in spatial skills only if the damage occurred in the right hemisphere. D) the children who showed early language delays in the left hemisphere still had not caught up to their peers by age 5. Answer: A Page Ref: 188 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Brain Plasticity: Insights from Research on Brain-Damaged Children and Adults Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

46)

Research on brain injuries shows that A) the young brain is completely plastic and, therefore, almost always recovers any abilities lost due to injury. B) children with early brain injuries show deficits in a wide variety of complex mental abilities during the school years. C) brain plasticity is restricted to infancy and early childhood due to the rapid production of neurons. D) the adult brain cannot produce new neurons and, therefore, lacks the plasticity of the young brain. Answer: B Page Ref: 188 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Brain Plasticity: Insights from Research on Brain-Damaged Children and Adults Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

47)

Research on brain plasticity shows that when healthy brain regions take over the functions of damaged areas, A) children’s IQ scores increase by 10 to 15 points, on average. B) the brain processes information more quickly and accurately than it would if it were intact. C) a “crowding effect” occurs in which multiple tasks must be done by a smaller than usual volume of brain tissue. D) neurons in the healthy regions tend to die, leaving those areas vulnerable to future damage. Answer: C Page Ref: 188 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Brain Plasticity: Insights from Research on Brain-Damaged Children and Adults Skill: Understand Objective: 5.4

48)

In Western nations, A) 90 percent of the population is right-handed. B) 25 percent of the population is left-handed. C) only about 5 percent of adults are left-handed. D) right-handed children are more likely than left-handed agemates to have outstanding verbal skills. Answer: A Page Ref: 189 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

49)

The brains of left-handers tend to be A) less plastic B) structurally larger C) more strongly lateralized D) less strongly lateralized Answer: D

than those of right-handers.

Page Ref: 189 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.4

50)

Children with damage to the cerebellum usually display A) motor, but not cognitive, B) cognitive, but not motor, C) both motor and cognitive D) neither motor nor cognitive Answer: C

deficits.

Page Ref: 189–190 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.5

51)

Neurons sent by the controlled attention. A) cerebellum B) corpus callosum C) hippocampus D) reticular formation Answer: D

to the prefrontal lobes of the cerebral cortex contribute to improvements in sustained,

Page Ref: 190 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.5

52)

Rapid development of the A) reticular formation B) hippocampus C) corpus callosum D) amygdala Answer: B

makes drawing and reading maps possible.

Page Ref: 190 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.5

53)

The is sensitive to facial emotional expressions, especially fear. A) corpus callosum B) hippocampus C) amygdala D) cerebellum Answer: C Page Ref: 190 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.5

54)

Teenagers do not perform as well as adults on tasks requiring self-restraint, planning, and future orientation because A) the prefrontal cognitive-control network still requires fine-tuning. B) adolescent brains are less plastic than adult brains. C) brain lateralization is not complete until the mid- to late 20s. D) production of synapses and myelination of the corpus callosum do not peak until early adulthood. Answer: A Page Ref: 190 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.5

55)

Heightened opinions. A) insulin B) oxytocin C) thyroxine D) cortisol Answer: B

sensitivity helps explain why adolescents are so self-conscious and sensitive to others’

Page Ref: 191 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.5

56)

Experience-expectant brain growth A) occurs throughout the lifespan. B) consists of additional growth and refinement of established brain structures. C) refers to the young brain’s rapidly developing organization, which depends on ordinary experiences. D) occurs as a result of specific learning experiences that vary widely across individuals and cultures. Answer: C Page Ref: 191 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.5

57)

Experience-dependent brain growth A) occurs early and naturally. B) provides a foundation for experience-expectant brain development. C) occurs as a result of specific and varied learning experiences. D) occurs as caregivers engage babies in daily routines. Answer: C Page Ref: 191 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.5

58)

Which of the following activities would promote experience-dependent brain growth? A) weaving an intricate rug B) sharing a meal C) playing peekaboo D) bathing before bedtime Answer: A Page Ref: 191 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.5

59)

Which of the following activities would promote experience-expectant brain growth? A) reading B) writing C) playing a computer game D) singing a song Answer: D Page Ref: 191 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.5

60)

Which of the following statements is true about the role of heredity in physical growth? A) When diet and health are adequate, heredity has little effect on height and rate of growth. B) Even if negative environmental influences are not severe, children show little catch-up growth once conditions improve. C) Twin studies reveal that genetic makeup has little effect on body weight. D) Genes influence growth by controlling the body’s production of and sensitivity to hormones. Answer: D Page Ref: 192 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

61)

Research on low-level lead exposure and children’s development indicates that A) low blood levels are associated with early onset diabetes. B) higher blood levels are associated with distractibility, overactivity, and behavior problems. C) the majority of children overcome any negative cognitive effects by adolescence. D) early exposure to lead can be neutralized by fluoride treatments in drinking water. Answer: B Page Ref: 193 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Low-Level Lead Exposure and Children’s Development Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

62)

Research suggests that persistent childhood lead exposure contributes to A) diabetes in adulthood. B) high rates of autism in industrialized nations. C) antisocial behavior in adolescence. D) tooth decay and poor fine-motor skills. Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Low-Level Lead Exposure and Children’s Development Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

63)

Which of the following statements is true about the effects of lead exposure in childhood? A) A stressed, disorganized home life seems to heighten lead-induced damage. B) Investigators agree that the greatest period of vulnerability is middle childhood. C) Children given drugs to induce excretion of lead (chelation) improve dramatically. D) Negative cognitive consequences are not evident when the level of lead exposure is below 10 µg/dL. Answer: A Page Ref: 193 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Low-Level Lead Exposure and Children’s Development Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

64)

Nutrition is especially crucial during A) the first two years. B) the preschool years. C) middle childhood. D) adolescence. Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

65)

Breastfed babies in poverty-stricken regions are formula-fed babies in the same regions. A) much more likely to be malnourished than B) just as likely to die during the first two years as C) 6 to 14 times more likely to survive the first year of life than D) much more likely to be iron-deficient than Answer: C Page Ref: 194 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

66)

The World Health Organization recommends breastfeeding until age A) 6 months. B) 12 months. C) 18 months. D) 2 years. Answer: D Page Ref: 194 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

67)

Today, most developing countries A) have banned the practice of giving free or subsidized formula to new mothers. B) encourage new mothers to give their breastfed infants an iron supplement. C) provide free or subsidized formula to new mothers. D) provide free rice water or highly diluted cow or goat milk to new mothers. Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

68)

Partly as a result of the natural childbirth movement, breastfeeding has become more common in especially among . A) developing nations; older women B) rural communities; young mothers C) industrialized nations; well-educated women D) industrialized nations; working mothers Answer: C Page Ref: 194 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

,

69)

Benita is 14 months old. Her diet should include A) only breast milk. B) breast milk and some protein. C) all of the basic food groups. D) formula and several servings of cereal. Answer: C Page Ref: 195 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

70)

Which of the following statements is true about preschoolers and nutrition? A) Preschoolers have very predictable appetites. B) Preschoolers’ wariness of new foods is adaptive. C) Parents should worry if their preschooler’s diet varies in amount eaten from meal to meal. D) Preschoolers left to their own devices will naturally consume a balanced diet. Answer: B Page Ref: 195 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

71)

In order to get 5-year-old Mikah to eat more broccoli, Mikah’s parents should A) serve and eat broccoli. B) offer a cookie to Mikah if he eats broccoli. C) restrict his access to tastier foods. D) keep Mikah at the table until he finishes his broccoli. Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

72)

The Yardleys have a teenage son and a teenage daughter. How can they improve the likelihood that their teens will make healthy food choices? A) Serve two, rather than three, meals per day because teens consume less in the morning. B) Make sure that they only eat fast food one or two days a week. C) Frequently schedule and serve family meals. D) Enroll them in a health and nutrition class and encourage competitive sports participation. Answer: C Page Ref: 196 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

73)

Enrique is 2 months old, painfully thin, and in danger of dying. His mother is too malnourished to produce enough breast milk and bottle-feeding is inadequate. What is the most likely cause of Enrique’s illness? A) lack of thyroxine B) marasmus C) kwashiorkor D) iron-deficiency anemia Answer: B Page Ref: 196 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

74)

Kiana is 2 years old and has an unbalanced diet very low in protein. She has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, a skin rash, and thinning hair. What is the most likely cause of Kiana’s condition? A) HIV/AIDS B) marasmus C) kwashiorkor D) iron-deficiency anemia Answer: C Page Ref: 196 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

75)

Kwashiorkor A) is common in regions where children get just enough calories from starchy foods but little protein. B) usually appears in the first year of life when a baby’s mother is too malnourished to produce enough breast milk. C) affects 27 percent of the world’s children before the age of 5. D) affects an estimated 21 percent of U.S. children. Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

76)

Children who survive extreme forms of malnutrition A) rarely show catch-up growth when their diets improve. B) develop a high basal metabolism rate. C) usually continue to undereat when food becomes plentiful. D) tend to gain excessive weight when their diets improve. Answer: D Page Ref: 197 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

77)

affects about 25 percent of infants and children worldwide and interferes with many central nervous system processes. A) Marasmus B) Kwashiorkor C) Iron-deficiency anemia D) Food insecurity Answer: C Page Ref: 197 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

78)

In the United States, is especially high among low-income ethnic minority families and affects an estimated 21 percent of U.S. children. A) marasmus B) kwashiorkor C) iron-deficiency anemia D) food insecurity Answer: D Page Ref: 197 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

79)

About one A) fifth B) quarter C) third D) half Answer: C

of U.S. children and adolescents are overweight.

Page Ref: 198 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

80)

Which of the following statements is true about overweight children and teens? A) All children are equally at risk for excessive weight gain. B) Obese children are at risk for lifelong health problems. C) Around 30 percent of obese teenagers become overweight adults. D) Type 2 diabetes is rapidly declining among overweight children. Answer: B Page Ref: 198 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

81)

In industrialized nations, studies confirm that A) heredity accounts for excessive weight gain. B) obesity risk is greatest for individuals living in economically well-off households. C) parental feeding practices have little impact on childhood obesity. D) children of mothers who smoked during pregnancy are more likely to be overweight. Answer: D Page Ref: 199 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

82)

Compared to normal-weight children, obese children A) are less responsive to internal hunger cues. B) are less responsive to external stimuli associated with food. C) eat much slower. D) tend to chew more thoroughly. Answer: A Page Ref: 199 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

83)

Six-year-old Augustus watches about 3 hours of television per day. Research reveals that Augustus is likely to accumulate percent body fat than children devoting 1.75 hours per day to television. A) 20; less B) 20; more C) 40; less D) 40; more Answer: D Page Ref: 199 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

84)

Which of the following statements is true about obesity? A) Obese children and adolescents report fewer emotional and school difficulties than their normal-weight peers. B) Overweight individuals are less likely than their normal-weight agemates to receive financial aid for college. C) Childhood obesity is fairly easy to treat with strict diet and exercise. D) The most effective interventions are individually based and focus on weight loss. Answer: B Page Ref: 200 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

85)

Of the 9 million annual deaths of children under age 5 worldwide, A) 30 B) 50 C) 70 D) 90 Answer: C

percent are due to infectious diseases.

Page Ref: 201 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

86)

In developing countries, widespread , resulting from unsafe water and contaminated foods, leads to growth stunting and nearly 3 million childhood deaths each year. A) malaria B) diarrhea C) influenza D) measles Answer: B Page Ref: 201 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

87)

Which of the following statements is true about infectious diseases in developing countries? A) Illnesses such as measles and chicken pox typically do not appear until age 3. B) Most developmental impairments and death due to diarrhea can be prevented with nearly cost-free oral rehydration therapy (ORT). C) Since 1990, public health workers have taught about 10 percent of the families in the developing world how to administer ORT. D) The majority of children in the world’s poorest countries—such as Chad, Morocco, Somalia, and Togo—receive ORT. Answer: B Page Ref: 201 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

88)

Overall, about A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: C Page Ref: 201 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.6

percent of U.S. preschoolers lack essential immunizations.

89)

Which of the following is one reason why the United States lags behind other industrialized nations in immunization? A) Not all medically uninsured children in the U.S. are guaranteed free immunizations. B) Vaccines are not usually available in U.S. public health clinics. C) There have not been any outbreaks of childhood diseases in the U.S., even in areas where many parents refuse to immunize their children. D) Some parents have been influenced by media reports suggesting a link between vaccines and autism. Answer: D Page Ref: 202 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.6

90)

Baby Zima keeps his eyes on nearby adults, anxiously watching their every move. He rarely smiles at his caregivers. Zima’s weight, height, and head circumference are substantially below age-related growth norms. Zima and his mother have a disturbed parent–infant relationship. Zima may be suffering from A) growth faltering. B) psychosocial dwarfism. C) iron-deficiency anemia. D) food insecurity. Answer: A Page Ref: 202 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

91)

Seven-year-old Moses, who has experienced extreme emotional deprivation, has decreased GH secretion, very short stature, immature skeletal age, and serious adjustment problems. Moses may be suffering from A) growth faltering. B) psychosocial dwarfism. C) iron-deficiency anemia. D) food insecurity. Answer: B Page Ref: 202 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.6

92)

Which of the following is an example of a primary sexual characteristic? A) breast development in females B) the appearance of underarm hair C) penis development in males D) the appearance of pubic hair Answer: C Page Ref: 203 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.7

93)

Which of the following is an example of a secondary sexual characteristic? A) development of the uterus B) breast development in females C) development of the vagina D) development of the testes Answer: B Page Ref: 203 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.7

94)

Typically, pubertal development takes about A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: C

years.

Page Ref: 203 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.7

95)

Sexual maturation in usually begins with A) girls; menarche B) boys; the appearance of pubic hair C) girls; the budding of the breasts D) boys; voice change Answer: C

.

Page Ref: 203 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.7

96)

Which of the following statements is true about individual and group differences in pubertal growth? A) Heredity contributes substantially to the timing of pubertal changes. B) In developing countries, boys and girls reach pubertal milestones at about the same age. C) Girls who begin rigorous athletic training at an early age usually experience early puberty. D) In developing countries, girls from affluent families consistently reach menarche 6 to 18 months later than those from economically disadvantaged homes. Answer: A Page Ref: 204 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.7

97)

Contemporary research suggests that A) emotional turbulence is routine during adolescence. B) adolescence is greatly extended in industrialized nations. C) the notion of adolescence as a period of storm and stress is accurate. D) biological, rather than psychological and social, forces influence adolescent development. Answer: B Page Ref: 206 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.8

98)

Research on reactions to pubertal changes indicates that A) most girls get information about puberty from their doctors. B) most boys do not know about ejaculation before the onset of spermarche. C) boys often say that their first ejaculation occurred earlier than they expected. D) most girls view the onset of menarche as traumatic. Answer: C Page Ref: 206 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.8

99)

Setting the voting age at 18 and the drinking age at 21 are examples of A) adolescent initiation ceremonies. B) legal adult status in non-Western societies. C) rites of passage. D) partial adult status in Western society. Answer: D Page Ref: 206 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.8

100)

Research on adolescent moodiness shows that A) a major contributor to adolescent moodiness is change in sleep schedules. B) negative moods decrease steadily from childhood to adolescence. C) the relationship between higher sex hormones and greater moodiness is strong. D) frequent reports of negative moods tend to occur when adolescents are socializing. Answer: A Page Ref: 207 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.8

101)

Which of the following statements is true about parent–child relationships in adolescence? A) Studies show a decrease in parent–child conflict after puberty ends. B) Psychological distancing may contribute to a rise in family tensions. C) Parent–son conflict tends to be more intense than parent–daughter conflict. D) Parent–daughter conflict is more evident in countries where gender-role values are more traditional. Answer: B Page Ref: 208 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.8

102)

Parent–adolescent disagreements focus largely on A) long-term goals, such as college or vocational training. B) substance abuse. C) early sexual activity. D) mundane, day-to-day matters, such as driving and curfews. Answer: D Page Ref: 208 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.8

103)

Both adults and peers tend to view as A) early-maturing boys; relaxed and physically attractive B) early-maturing girls; lively and school leaders C) late-maturing boys; independent and self-confident D) late-maturing girls; unpopular and anxious Answer: A Page Ref: 208 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.9

.

104)

Studies of pubertal timing show that A) early-maturing girls are more satisfied with their body image than their late-maturing agemates. B) the negative body image of early-maturing boys worsens throughout adolescence. C) early-maturing boys tend to be overly talkative and attention seeking. D) early-maturing adolescents of both sexes seek out older companions. Answer: D Page Ref: 209 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.9

105)

are especially prone to lasting difficulties. A) Early-maturing girls B) Late-maturing girls C) Early-maturing boys D) Late-maturing boys Answer: A Page Ref: 209 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.9

106)

Girls who are especially at risk for eating disorders. A) reach puberty late B) grow up with overweight mothers C) reach puberty on time D) are very dissatisfied with their body image Answer: D Page Ref: 210 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.10

107)

Anorexia nervosa A) typically appears between ages 11 and 13. B) affects 2 to 4 percent of U.S. teenage girls. C) is equally common in all social-class groups. D) affects more African-American than Hispanic girls. Answer: C Page Ref: 210 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.10

108)

Bulimia nervosa A) is usually easier to treat than anorexia. B) is less common than anorexia nervosa. C) typically appears in early adolescence. D) affects more late-maturing than early-maturing girls. Answer: A Page Ref: 212 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.10

109)

Which of the following statements is supported by cross-cultural research on sexuality? A) Most North American adolescents get information from parents about sexually transmitted diseases and contraception. B) Sexual attitudes in North America are liberal compared to other Western nations. C) In some cultures, adolescents are expected to engage in sexual experimentation with a variety of partners. D) Rates of extramarital sex among North American adolescents have risen sharply in recent decades. Answer: C Page Ref: 212 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.11

110)

Which of the following statements is true about sex education? A) Fathers talk to adolescents about sex and birth control more often than mothers. B) Because teenagers can look up information from a variety of sources, the Internet is a good sex educator. C) It is better for schools to teach adolescents about sex and contraception than parents. D) Adolescents who are prone to early sexual activity choose to consume more sexualized media. Answer: D Page Ref: 212 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.11

111) Which of the following statements is true regarding the results of a survey about the Internet as a “sex educator”? A) Media exposure to sexual content causes adolescents to engage in risky sexual activity. B) The Internet is the best source for accurate medical information about sexual activity. C) Youths who were involved in delinquent activities had more encounters with Internet pornography. D) Nearly 90 percent of 10- to 17-year-olds said they viewed online pornographic websites while surfing the Internet in the past 12 months. Answer: C Page Ref: 212 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.11

112)

Which of the following statements is true about adolescent sexual attitudes and behavior? A) Girls tend to have their first intercourse earlier than boys. B) During the past decade, adolescents have swung slightly back to more conservative sexual beliefs. C) Compared with a generation ago, fewer people approve of sexual intercourse before marriage. D) Rates of extramarital sex among U.S. young people have recently risen. Answer: B Page Ref: 213 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.11

113)

Seventeen-year-old Megan has not seen her father since she was 2 years old. Which of the following statements is true about such early and prolonged father absence? A) Megan is more likely than her agemates to choose abstinence. B) Megan is more likely than her agemates to become a pregnant teen. C) Megan is less likely than her agemates to engage in frequent sexual activity. D) Megan is less likely than her agemates to engage in casual sexual relationships. Answer: B Page Ref: 214 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.11

114)

Adolescent contraceptive use A) has decreased in recent years. B) is more common among teens who report poor relationships with parents. C) is more common among U.S. teens than among teenagers in other industrialized nations. D) is more common among teens who talk openly about sex with their parents. Answer: D Page Ref: 215 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.11

115)

Eighteen-year-old Emily identifies as bisexual. Which of the following will probably be true when Emily is 28? A) Emily will be gender-deviant in dress or behavior. B) Emily will identify as bisexual. C) Emily will identify as lesbian. D) Emily will report far more same-sex than other-sex attractions than she did at age 18. Answer: B Page Ref: 215 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.12

116)

Which of the following statements is true about sexual orientation? A) Adoptive relatives are just as likely as biological relatives to share a homosexual orientation. B) Male homosexuality tends to be more common on the paternal than the maternal side of families. C) The evidence to date suggests that genetic and prenatal biological influences are largely responsible for homosexuality. D) One gene-mapping study found that among 40 pairs of homosexual brothers, 82 percent had an identical segment of DNA on the Y chromosome. Answer: C Page Ref: 215 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.12

117)

Greer, age 10, is less interested in sports than his older brothers. He is drawn to quieter activities and is more emotionally sensitive. Greer wonders why the typical heterosexual orientation does not apply to him. Greer is engaging in A) internalized homophobia. B) sexual questioning. C) gender deviance. D) role reversal. Answer: B Page Ref: 216 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Lesbian, Gay, and Bisexual Youth: Coming Out to Oneself and Others Skill: Apply Objective: 5.12

118)

In research on ethnically diverse lesbian, gay, and bisexual youths, awareness of a same-sex physical attraction occurred, on average, between ages A) 8 and 10 for boys. B) 11 and 12 for girls. C) 14 and 15 for girls. D) 14 and 15 for boys. Answer: C Page Ref: 216 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Lesbian, Gay, and Bisexual Youth: Coming Out to Oneself and Others Skill: Remember Objective: 5.12

119)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on sexual orientation? A) Parental understanding is the strongest predictor of favorable adjustment—including reduced internalized homophobia. B) Most young people first acknowledge their sexual orientation publicly by telling their parents. C) Lesbian, gay, and bisexual young people report higher levels of family support than their heterosexual agemates. D) Contact with other gays and lesbians is not important in the attainment of self-acceptance. Answer: A Page Ref: 216 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Lesbian, Gay, and Bisexual Youth: Coming Out to Oneself and Others Skill: Understand Objective: 5.12

120)

About 90 percent of high school students are aware of basic facts about AIDS, A) so the spread of the disease has slowed dramatically in the past decade. B) resulting in the virtual elimination of the disease among high school graduates. C) in spite of huge parental and political protests. D) yet most have limited understanding of other STDs. Answer: D Page Ref: 217 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.13

121)

The number of American teenage births is considerably lower than it was 50 years ago because A) nearly one-third of U.S. teen pregnancies end in abortion. B) fewer teens are having sex. C) 90 percent of sexually active teens use contraceptives. D) most schools offer effective sex education. Answer: A Page Ref: 217 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.13

122)

Studies of unmarried mothers show that A) they tend to wait for marriage before having additional children. B) most are motivated to complete high school in an effort to better the lives of their children. C) lack of material resources greatly reduces the likelihood of earning a high school diploma. D) their children are less likely to become adolescent parents. Answer: C Page Ref: 218 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.13

123)

Raelyn, age 15, just became a mom. Which of the following statements is true for Raelyn? A) She is more likely than her agemates without children to marry in the future. B) There is a 95 percent likelihood that she will graduate from high school. C) She is more likely than her agemates without children to divorce in the future. D) She is more likely than an adult mother to have realistic expectations of her infant. Answer: C Page Ref: 218 Skill: Apply Objective: 5.13

124)

The most effective sex education programs A) focus on abstinence. B) provide specific information about contraceptives and ready access to them. C) last only a few sessions. D) target teenagers who are already sexually active. Answer: B Page Ref: 219 Skill: Remember Objective: 5.13

125)

Which of the following statements is true about intervening with adolescent parents? A) Teenage mothers who have a long-term mentor relationship are less likely than those without a mentor to stay in school. B) Home-visited mothers have less frequent contact with the child’s father than those who are not in a homevisiting program. C) Teenage mothers who receive financial assistance from the child’s father are more distressed than those who do not receive assistance. D) As with teenage mothers, support from family members helps teenage fathers stay involved with their children. Answer: D Page Ref: 220 Skill: Understand Objective: 5.13

ESSAY 126)

What is skeletal age, and how is it measured? Give an example of a sex difference and an ethnic difference in skeletal age. Answer: The best estimate of a child’s physical maturity is skeletal age—a measure of development of the bones of the body. The embryonic skeleton is first formed out of soft, pliable tissue called cartilage. In the sixth week of pregnancy, cartilage cells begin to harden into bone, a gradual process that continues throughout childhood and adolescence. Just before birth, special growth centers, called epiphyses, appear at the two extreme ends of each of the long bones of the body. Cartilage cells continue to be produced at the growth plates of these epiphyses, which increase in number throughout childhood and then, as growth continues, get thinner and disappear. After that, no further growth in bone length is possible. Skeletal age can be estimated by X-raying the bones to determine the number of epiphyses and the extent to which they are fused. African-American children tend to be slightly ahead of Caucasian-American children in skeletal age. And girls are considerably ahead of boys—a gap of about four to six weeks at birth, which widens over infancy and childhood. Page Ref: 178

127)

Describe the pros and cons of participation in organized youth sports during childhood. Answer: For most children, joining community athletic teams is associated with increased self-esteem and social skills. Among shy children, sports participation seems to play a protective role, fostering self-confidence and a decline in social anxiety, perhaps because it provides a sense of group belonging and a basis for communicating with peers. Also, children who view themselves as good at sports are more likely to continue playing on teams in adolescence, which predicts greater participation in sports and other physical fitness activities in early adulthood. When parents and coaches emphasize effort, improvement, participation, and teamwork, young athletes enjoy sports more, exert greater effort to improve their skills, and perceive themselves as more competent at their chosen sport. This positive emphasis helps promote physical activity. In some cases, though, youth sports overemphasize competition and substitute adult control for children’s natural experimentation with rules and strategies. Children who join teams so early that the necessary skills are beyond their abilities soon lose interest. Coaches and parents who criticize rather than encourage can prompt intense anxiety in some children. Rather than promoting elite performance, high parental pressure to excel at sports and frequent, intense practice are linked to children’s emotional difficulties and early athletic dropout. Further, frequent, intense practice in any sport can lead to painful “overuse” injuries and, in extreme cases, to stress-related fractures resulting in premature closure of the epiphyses of the long bones. Page Ref: 181

128)

Discuss brain plasticity. When is the brain the most plastic? What evidence does research on brain-damaged children and adults provide? Answer: A highly plastic cerebral cortex, in which many areas are not yet committed to specific functions, has a high capacity for learning. And if a part of the cortex is damaged, other parts can take over the tasks it would have handled. But once the hemispheres lateralize, damage to a specific region means that the abilities it controls cannot be recovered to the same extent or as easily as earlier. Researchers study when brain lateralization occurs to learn more about brain plasticity. At birth, the hemispheres have already begun to specialize. The brain is more plastic during the first few years than it will be ever again. An overabundance of synaptic connections supports brain plasticity, ensuring that young children will acquire certain capacities even if some areas are damaged. And although the cortex is programmed from the start for hemispheric specialization, experience greatly influences the rate and success of its advancing organization. Research on brain-damaged children and adults offers dramatic evidence for substantial plasticity in the young brain. Consistently, adults who suffered brain injuries in infancy and early childhood show fewer cognitive impairments than adults with later-occurring injuries. Nevertheless, the young brain is not totally plastic. When it is injured, its functioning is compromised. The extent of plasticity depends on several factors, including age at time of injury, site of damage, and skill area. Page Ref: 187–188

129)

Summarize the major nutritional and health advantages of breastfeeding. Answer: In early infancy, breast milk is ideally suited to babies’ needs, and bottled formulas try to imitate it. The major nutritional and health advantages of breast milk include: – Provides the correct balance of fat and protein. Human milk is high in fat and low in protein. This balance, as well as the unique proteins and fats contained in human milk, is ideal for a rapidly myelinating nervous system. – Ensures nutritional completeness. A mother who breastfeeds need not add other foods to her infant’s diet until the baby is 6 months old. The iron contained in breast milk is easily absorbed by the baby’s system. – Helps ensure healthy physical growth. One-year-old breastfed babies are leaner (have a higher percentage of muscle to fat), a growth pattern that persists through the preschool years and that may help prevent later overweight and obesity. – Protects against many diseases. Breastfeeding transfers antibodies and other infection-fighting agents from mother to baby and enhances functioning of the immune system. Compared with bottle-fed infants, breastfed babies have far fewer allergic reactions and respiratory and intestinal illnesses. Breast milk also has antiinflammatory effects, which reduce the severity of illness symptoms. Breastfeeding in the first four months (especially when exclusive) is linked to lower blood cholesterol levels in childhood and, thereby, may help prevent cardiovascular disease. – Protects against faulty jaw development and tooth decay. Sucking the mother’s nipple instead of an artificial nipple helps avoid malocclusion and protects against tooth decay due to sweet liquid remaining in the mouths of infants who fall asleep while sucking on a bottle. – Ensures digestibility. Because breastfed babies have a different kind of bacteria growing in their intestines than do bottle-fed infants, they rarely suffer from constipation or other gastrointestinal problems. – Smooths the transition to solid foods. Breastfed infants accept new solid foods more easily than do bottle-fed infants, perhaps because of their greater experience with a variety of flavors, which pass from the maternal diet into the mother’s milk. Page Ref: 194–195

130)

Discuss the factors that contribute to adolescent moodiness. Answer: Higher pubertal hormone levels are linked to greater moodiness, but only modestly so. In several studies, adolescents reported less favorable moods than school-age children and adults. But negative moods were linked to a greater number of negative life events, such as difficulties getting along with parents, disciplinary actions at school, and breaking up with a boyfriend or girlfriend. Negative events increased steadily from childhood to adolescence, and teenagers also seemed to react to them with greater emotion than children. Compared with the moods of older adolescents and adults, those of younger adolescents (ages 12 to 16) were less stable, often varying from cheerful to sad and back again. These mood swings were strongly related to situational changes. High points of adolescents’ days were times spent with friends and in self-chosen leisure activities. Low points tended to occur in adult-structured settings—class, job, and religious services. Furthermore, emotional highs coincided with Friday and Saturday evenings, especially in high school. Going out with friends and romantic partners increases so dramatically during adolescence that it becomes a “cultural script” for what is supposed to happen. Teenagers who spend weekend evenings at home often feel profoundly lonely. Yet another contributor to adolescent moodiness is change in sleep schedules. Although teenagers need almost as much sleep as they did in middle childhood (about nine hours), they go to bed much later than they did as children, perhaps because of increased neural sensitivity to evening light. This sleep “phase delay” strengthens with pubertal development. Sleep-deprived adolescents are more likely to suffer

from depressed mood, achieve poorly in school, and engage in high-risk behaviors, including drinking and reckless driving. Page Ref: 207

131)

Discuss the factors that influence adolescents’ decisions about contraceptive use. Answer: Although adolescent contraceptive use has increased in recent years, about 20 percent of sexually active teenagers in the United States are at risk for unintended pregnancy because they do not use contraception consistently. One reason is that advances in perspective taking lead teenagers, for a time, to be extremely concerned about what others think of them. Also, in the midst of everyday social pressures, adolescents often overlook the potential consequences of risky behaviors. And many teenagers—especially those from troubled, low-income families—do not have realistic expectations about the impact of early parenthood on their current and future lives. The social environment also contributes to adolescents’ reluctance to use contraception. Those who lack the rewards of meaningful education and work are especially likely to engage in irresponsible sex, sometimes within exploitative relationships. In contrast, teenagers who report good relationships with parents and who talk openly with them about sex and contraception are more likely to use birth control. But few adolescents believe their parents would be understanding and supportive. School sex education classes, as well, often leave teenagers with incomplete or incorrect knowledge. Some do not know where to get birth control counseling and devices; those who do often worry that a doctor or family planning clinic might not keep their visits confidential. About 20 percent of adolescents using health services say that if their parents were notified, they would still have sex, but without contraception. Page Ref: 214–215

CHAPTER 6 COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT: PIAGETIAN, CORE KNOWLEDGE, AND VYGOTSKIAN PERSPECTIVES MULTIPLE CHOICE Research indicates that children’s cognitive immaturity

1)

1. A) results from overstimulation during infancy and toddlerhood. 2. B) results from a lack of stimulation. 3. C) hinders their mastery of basic academic skills. 4. D) may be adaptive. Answer: D Page Ref: 226 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.1 Piaget’s theory is described as a constructivist approach because he

2)

1. A) stressed the social and cultural contributions to children’s thinking. 2. B) viewed children as discovering virtually all knowledge about theirworld through their own activity. 3. C) emphasized how genetic and environmental factors combine to yieldmore complex ways of thinking. 4. D) believed that children construct knowledge through adult training andmodeling. Answer: B Page Ref: 226 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.1 In Piaget’s theory, children move through four stages

3)

1. A) during which their exploratory behaviors transform into logical andabstract intelligence. 2. B) not always in a sequential manner, depending on the children’sinnate intelligence. 3. C) sequentially at a rate observed in children everywhere. 4. D) in which different cognitive skills follow unique courses of development. Answer: A Page Ref: 226 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.1

4)

In Piaget’s theory, the most powerful .

1. A) schemes; categorization; hierarchical classification

are

and

2. B) mental representations; images; concepts 3. C) operations; hypothetico-deductive reasoning; logical necessity 4. D) cognitive skills; private speech; propositional thought Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.1

5)

According to Piaget’s theory,

1. A) the disappearance of schemes marks the transition fromsensorimotor to preoperational thought. 2. B) environmental, but not genetic, factors can affect the speed withwhich children move through cognitive stages. 3. C) schemes are built through interaction with adults or more skilledpeers. 4. D) two processes account for the change from sensorimotor to representational schemes. Answer: D Page Ref: 227 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.1 In Piaget’s theory, adaptation refers to

6)

1. A) the back-and-forth movement between equilibration and disequilibration. 2. B) the process of building schemes through direct interaction with theenvironment. 3. C) a rearrangement and linking together of schemes. 4. D) a steady, comfortable cognitive state. Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Skill: Remember

Objective: 6.1

7)

Children use current schemes to interpret their world in the process of , whereas allows them to create new schemes oradjust old ones after noticing that their current way of thinking does not capture the environment completely.

1. A) assimilation; accommodation 2. B) adaptation; organization 3. C) adaptation; assimilation 4. D) equilibration; organization Answer: A Page Ref: 227 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.1

8)

When 18-month-old James is given peas for the first time, he picks oneup, throws it, and says “ball.” According to Piaget’s theory, James is most likely the pea into his ball scheme.

1. A) accommodating 2. B) organizing 3. C) equilibrating 4. D) assimilating Answer: D Page Ref: 227Skill: Apply Objective: 6.1 Two-year-old Viola calls her father’s swimming goggles “waterglasses.” According to Piaget’s theory, Viola is most likely

9)

1. A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) Answer: A

Page Ref: 227 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.1 In Piaget’s theory, when children are in a state of disequilibrium,

10)

1. A) their schemes become disorganized and development is temporarilystalled. 2. B) they realize that new information does not match their currentschemes. 3. C) they are likely to construct inefficient schemes. 4. D) their existing schemes are not likely to change very much. Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.1 According to Piaget’s theory, during periods of rapid cognitive change,children

11)

1. A) shift from accommodation to assimilation. 2. B) shift from assimilation to accommodation. 3. C) equally balance assimilation and accommodation. 4. D) are in a state of cognitive equilibrium. Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.1

12)

In Piaget’s theory, children use organization to

1. A) build schemes through direct interaction with the environment. 2. B) adjust old schemes and create new ones to fit with the environment. 3. C) accommodate the back-and-forth movement between cognitiveequilibration and disequilibration.

4. D) internally rearrange and link schemes to create a stronglyinterconnected cognitive system. Answer: D Page Ref: 227 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.1

13)

Baby Pedro has combined his reaching, grasping, and sucking schemes into one higher-order scheme that allows him to reach for his pacifierand put it into his mouth to suck. In Piaget’s theory, this achievement is an example of

1. A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) Answer: C Page Ref: 227Skill: Apply Objective: 6.1 Which of the following behaviors is characteristic of infants in Piaget’ssensorimotor Substage 2?

14)

1. A) a baby who drops toys down the steps in varying ways 2. B) a baby who accidentally makes a smacking noise while eating andlater tries to reproduce the sound 3. C) a baby who can push aside a cover to retrieve a hidden toy 4. D) a baby who accidentally hits a toy hung in front of her and then triesto repeat this effect Answer: B Page Ref: 228Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2

15)

In Piaget’s theory, primary circular reactions are oriented toward , whereas secondary circular reactions are oriented toward .

1. A) the infant’s own body; the surrounding world 2. B) involuntary actions; voluntary actions 3. C) external actions; internal representations 4. D) concrete thought; abstract thought Answer: A Page Ref: 228 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.2

16)

According to Piaget, tertiary circular reactions include

1. A) the ability to find a hidden object that has been moved while out ofsight. 2. B) deferred imitation and private speech. 3. C) the ability to search in several locations for a hidden object. 4. D) make-believe play and social speech. Answer: C Page Ref: 228 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.2

17)

Piaget divided the sensorimotor stage into six substages based on

1. A) anecdotal evidence provided by hundreds of parents. 2. B) rigorous laboratory experiments with young children. 3. C) observations of his three children. 4. D) his research with children in French orphanages. Answer: C Page Ref: 228 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.2

When Baby Carissa “stumbles” onto a new experience, such as making a mobile hanging over her crib move by kicking her feet, engaging inthat activity repeatedly will

18)

1. A) strengthen Carissa’s response and create a new scheme. 2. B) provide Carissa with entertainment until she is better able to exploreher world. 3. C) lead to the refinement of reflexive schemes. 4. D) facilitate cognitive equilibrium. Answer: A Page Ref: 228Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2

19)

Baby Raja accidentally pushes over a tower of blocks. Each time his sister rebuilds the tower, Raja tries to push it over. In Piaget’s theory, this is anexample of a circular reaction.

1. A) reflexive 2. B) primary 3. C) secondary 4. D) tertiary Answer: C Page Ref: 229Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2

20)

Baby Henry enters Piaget’s Substage 4 of the sensorimotor periodwhen his

schemes

1. A) are directed toward his body. 2. B) are repeated with variation to produce new outcomes. 3. C) are coordinated deliberately to solve simple problems. 4. D) represent sudden solutions rather than trial-and-error solutions. Answer: C

Page Ref: 229 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2

21)

and are the two landmark cognitive changes that take place in sensorimotor Substage 4 of Piaget’s theory.

1. A) Deferred imitation; make-believe play 2. B) Conservation; centration 3. C) Dual representation; analogical problem solving 4. D) Intentional behavior; object permanence Answer: D Page Ref: 229 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.2

22)

Baby Lakota is shown a ball that is then hidden under a cover. Whatmust Lakota do to retrieve the ball?

1. A) Lakota will need to recall the location of the ball. 2. B) Lakota must coordinate “pushing aside” and “grasping” schemes toretrieve the ball. 3. C) Lakota will not be able to retrieve the ball until she is in Substage 6 ofthe sensorimotor period. 4. D) Lakota will have trouble retrieving the ball until she no longer makesthe A-not-B error. Answer: B Page Ref: 229Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2 Each time Mr. Chow hides 7-month-old Jana’s doll under her blanket,she retrieves the toy. When Mr. Chow then hides the doll under a pillow near the blanket, Jana continues to look under the blanket for the doll. Jana is demonstrating

23)

1. A) the secondary circular reaction.

2. B) habituation and recovery. 3. C) displaced reference. 4. D) the A-not-B search error. Answer: D Page Ref: 229Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2

24)

Infants in Substage 5

1. A) repeat behaviors with variations. 2. B) become skilled at reaching for and manipulating objects. 3. C) use their capacity for intentional behavior to try to change events. 4. D) arrive at solutions to problems suddenly rather than through trial-and-error behavior. Answer: A Page Ref: 229 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.2

25)

Baby Waldo is twisting and turning triangles, circles, and squares to fitthem into his shape-sorter toy. According to Piaget, this behavior is best described as acircular reaction.

1. A) reflexive 2. B) primary 3. C) secondary 4. D) tertiary Answer: D Page Ref: 229Skill: Apply Objective: 6.2

26)

Toddlers in Substage 6 of the sensorimotor period can solve object-permanence problems involving invisible displacement because they have developed the capacity to

1. A) engage in goal-directed behavior. 2. B) construct mental representations. 3. C) carry out means–end action sequences. 4. D) understand dual representation. Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.2

27)

In the violation-of-expectation method, Baby Will is “surprised” by a deviation from physical reality.

suggests that

1. A) a lack of attention and unfocused behavior 2. B) heightened attention to the unexpected event 3. C) smiling rather than crying 4. D) quick recovery to a familiar event Answer: B Page Ref: 230Skill: Apply Objective: 6.3

28)

Some critics of the violation-of-expectation method

1. A) believe that it indicates a conscious awareness of physical eventsrather than a limited understanding. 2. B) argue that wide individual differences in recovery times exist. 3. C) believe that it indicates limited, implicit awareness of physical eventsrather than conscious understanding. 4. D) argue that it is an inappropriate task to use with very young infants. Answer: C Page Ref: 230 Skill: Understand

Objective: 6.3 Baillargeon’s violation-of-expectation studies provided evidence thatinfants have some knowledge of object permanence

29)

1. A) between 1½ and 2½ months. 2. B) between 2½ and 3½ months. 3. C) no earlier than 6 months. 4. D) after 12 months. Answer: B Page Ref: 231 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

30)

When infants are tested to discover whether they understand the concept of object permanence and are shown two events—one expected andone unexpected—the infants

1. A) show no awareness that the events differ from one another. 2. B) ignore the unexpected event. 3. C) look longer at the unexpected event than the expected event. 4. D) show a preference for the expected event. Answer: C Page Ref: 231 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

31)

Baby Rina, who is still developing the expertise at motor skills necessary for the search task, is more likely to make the A-not-B search errorbecause

1. A) she does not yet understand object permanence. 2. B) her short attention span prevents her from thinking beyond A. 3. C) her reaching scheme is limited to reflexive actions. 4. D) she has little attention left to focus on inhibiting her habitual reachtoward A in favor of B.

Answer: D Page Ref: 232Skill: Apply Objective: 6.3

32)

In Piaget’s theory, infants are unable to mentally represent experienceuntil about months of age.

1. A) 3 2. B) 9 3. C) 12 4. D) 18 Answer: D Page Ref: 232 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

33)

Laboratory research suggests that deferred imitation is present at of age.

1. A) 6 weeks 2. B) 12 weeks 3. C) 6 months 4. D) 14 months Answer: A Page Ref: 232 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

34)

Toddlers’ ability to represent others’ intentions

1. A) occurs later than Piaget predicted. 2. B) requires the refinement of reflexive schemes. 3. C) seems to have roots in earlier sensorimotor activity. 4. D) leads to gains in categorization. Answer: C

Page Ref: 233 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

35)

Categorization helps infants learn and remember by

1. A) teaching them how to group abstract stimuli. 2. B) enhancing their symbolic understanding. 3. C) reducing the enormous amount of new information they encounterevery day. 4. D) pairing objects with word associations. Answer: C Page Ref: 233 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.3 Based on habituation and recovery research, Dahlia’s parents knowthat between 6 and 12 months old, Dahlia will be able to

36)

1. A) only sort items into one or two basic categories, such as animals andpeople. 2. B) group objects into an impressive array of categories like food items,furniture, birds, animals, kitchen utensils, and spatial location. 3. C) organize her physical world but not yet categorize her emotional andsocial worlds. 4. D) sort familiar and novel items based on color, size, shape, andfunction. Answer: B Page Ref: 234Skill: Apply Objective: 6.3

37)

Some researchers believe that before the end of the first year, babies undergo a fundamental shift from a(n) basis to a(n) basis for constructing categories

1. A) logical; abstract 2. B) perceptual; abstract 3. C) logical; conceptual 4. D) perceptual; conceptual Answer: D Page Ref: 234–235 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

38)

Jae-Sun is a toddler growing up in Korea where children learn a language in which object names are often omitted from sentences. For thatreason, he will most likely develop object-grouping skills speaking counterparts.

1. A) later than his English 2. B) earlier than his English 3. C) at about the same time as his English 4. D) earlier than his Spanish Answer: A Page Ref: 235Skill: Apply Objective: 6.3

39)

Mara is 10 months of age. Research suggests that Mara can

1. A) engage in sociodramatic play. 2. B) imitate novel behaviors. 3. C) engage in analogical problem solving. 4. D) appreciate the symbolic nature of pictures. Answer: C Page Ref: 235Skill: Apply Objective: 6.3

40)

By the end of the first year, infants

1. A) use language to acquire new information about an absent object. 2. B) use pictures as vehicles for communicating with others and acquiringnew knowledge. 3. C) begin to use an object that already has an obvious use as a symbolfor another object. 4. D) form flexible mental representations of how to use tools to getobjects. Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.3 Around the first birthday, the symbolic capacity called “displacedreference” emerges, which allows toddlers to

41)

1. A) use abstract thought to solve problems. 2. B) form initial mental representations that can be used to evaluatefurther information. 3. C) categorize objects on the basis of their physical attributes. 4. D) recognize that words can be used to cue mental images of things notphysically present. Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

42)

The capacity to use the end of the second into the third year.

1. A) make-believe 2. B) language 3. C) deferred imitation 4. D) the circular reaction Answer: B Page Ref: 236 Skill: Remember

as a flexible symbolic tool improvesfrom

Objective: 6.3

43)

Before about 9 months of age, how are babies likely to treat a pictureof a person or an

object?

1. A) They touch or manipulate the picture in ways that reveal confusionabout the picture’s real nature. 2. B) They do not seem to have difficulty distinguishing between thesymbol and the referent. 3. C) They use it as a tool to modify an existing mental representation. 4. D) They treat it as a symbol. Answer: A Page Ref: 236 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.3

44)

Initially, infants respond to videos of people

1. A) as make-believe characters. 2. B) in a fearful manner. 3. C) with indifference, paying little attention to the characters. 4. D) as if viewing people directly. Answer: D Page Ref: 237 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Baby Learning from TVand Video: The Video Deficit Effect Skill: Understand Objective: 6.3

45)

Gregor just turned 2½. By this age, the video deficit effect

1. A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) Answer: A

Page Ref: 237 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Baby Learning from TVand Video: The Video Deficit Effect Skill: Apply Objective: 6.3

46)

Research indicates that amount of TV viewing is negatively related to8- to 18-month-

olds’

1. A) motor development. 2. B) language process. 3. C) analogical problem solving. 4. D) visual development. Answer: B Page Ref: 237 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Baby Learning from TVand Video: The Video Deficit Effect Skill: Remember Objective: 6.3

47)

Piaget believed that the major benefit of make-believe play during thepreoperational

stage is to

1. A) strengthen representational schemes. 2. B) exercise logical reasoning skills. 3. C) build creativity and imagination. 4. D) facilitate perspective-taking ability. Answer: A Page Ref: 239 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

48)

By the time children reach age 4 or 5, they combine their playschemes with those of peers by creating and coordinating roles in

1. A) sociodramatic play. 2. B) adult-directed play acting. 3. C) secondary circular reactions. 4. D) categorization of others’ intentions.

Answer: A Page Ref: 240 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.4

49)

Research on the development of make-believe play indicates that

1. A) girls spend more time in sociodramatic play than boys. 2. B) preschoolers who devote more time to sociodramatic play are seenas more socially competent by their teachers. 3. C) school-age children are more self-centered in their pretend play thanpreschoolers. 4. D) preschoolers who create imaginary companions are at risk formaladjustment. Answer: B Page Ref: 240 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

50)

Between 25 and 45 percent of preschoolers and young school-agechildren spend much time in solitary make-believe,

1. A) avoiding contact with adults or peers. 2. B) which interferes in their ability to form friendships. 3. C) which is a sign of maladjustment. 4. D) creating imaginary companions. Answer: D Page Ref: 240 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

51)

Because of simplest forms.

1. A) limited adult instruction 2. B) a lack of motivation

, preschoolers are only able to draw figuresin their

3. C) an inability to form detailed mental representations 4. D) fine-motor and cognitive limitations Answer: D Page Ref: 242 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

52)

Research conducted on schooled and nonschooled children in theJimi Valley of Papua New Guinea indicates that

1. A) nonrepresentational scribbles seem to be a universal beginning indrawing. 2. B) schooled children include fewer details in their drawings thannonschooled children. 3. C) early drawings of the human figure produced by nonschooledchildren emphasize the head and face over the hands and feet. 4. D) schooling has minimal impact on children’s first representationalshapes and forms. Answer: A Page Ref: 242 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.4

53)

In one study, 2½-year-olds were unable to use a scale model of aroom to find a toy hidden in the room that the model represented. This is because young preschoolers have difficulty with

1. A) deferred imitation. 2. B) analogical problem solving. 3. C) transitive inference. 4. D) dual representation. Answer: D Page Ref: 243 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

According to Piaget, preschoolers’ thinking is

54)

1. A) flexible. 2. B) rigid. 3. C) 4. D) Answer: B Page Ref: 243 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.4

55)

According to Piaget, when children first mentally represent the world,they

1. A) exhibit thinking that is unlimited and flexible. 2. B) are adept at forming mental representations of actions that obeylogical rules. 3. C) assume that others perceive, think, and feel the same way they do. 4. D) are especially adept at distinguishing other people’s symbolicviewpoints from their own. Answer: C Page Ref: 244 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4 Five-year-old Sasha is participating in Piaget’s three-mountains problem. When Sasha is asked to choose the picture that shows what thedisplay looks like from the doll’s perspective, he will most likely

56)

1. A) choose the correct picture, but not be able to explain why he chosethat picture. 2. B) know that the correct picture is different from his point of view, but notbe sure which picture to choose. 3. C) choose the picture that shows his own point of view. 4. D) choose the correct picture and be able to explain why he chose thatpicture.

Answer: C Page Ref: 244Skill: Apply Objective: 6.4

57)

When 3-year-old Gwen explains that her bicycle is sad because it isalone in the garage, she is demonstrating

1. A) analogical problem solving. 2. B) animistic thinking. 3. C) hypothetico-deductive reasoning. 4. D) propositional thought. Answer: B Page Ref: 244Skill: Apply Objective: 6.4

58)

Children in Western nations typically acquire conservation of number,mass, and liquid sometime between years and of weight between years.

1. A) 2 and 3; 5 and 6 2. B) 4 and 6; 7 and 9 3. C) 6 and 7; 8 and 10 4. D) 8 and 10; 11 and 12 Answer: C Page Ref: 244 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.4 Which of the following helps to explain why preoperational children’sthinking keeps them from being able to understand the idea of conservation?

59)

1. A) They tend to spend too much time on reversibility, or mentallyreversing the steps in a problem back to the starting point.

2. B) They tend to focus more on the dynamic transformation of a situationwithout giving adequate attention to beginning and ending states. 3. C) They have a significant grasp on the idea that appearances canchange without changing the fundamental characteristics of the situation. 4. D) Their understanding is characterized by centration in which theyfocus on one aspect of the situation while ignoring other important features. Answer: D Page Ref: 245 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

60)

According to Piaget, 4-year-olds cannot solve a conservation-of-liquidproblem because they

1. A) focus on the height of the water, failing to realize that changes inwidth compensate for the changes in height.

2. B) do not notice the difference in appearance between the water levelsin the two glasses. 3. C) have limited experience with the task materials. 4. D) do not understand the point of the question, “Which glass holds morewater?” Answer: A Page Ref: 245 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.4

61)

The most important illogical feature of preoperational thought is

1. A) 2. B) 3. C) magical thinking. 4. D) Answer: A Page Ref: 245

Skill: Remember Objective: 6.5

62) with

Piaget’s famous .

demonstrates preoperational children’sdifficulty

1. A) three-mountains problem; dual representation 2. B) three-mountains problem; hierarchical classification 3. C) class inclusion task; hierarchical classification 4. D) class inclusion task; dual representation Answer: C Page Ref: 245 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.4

63)

During a task, 4-year-old Vanessa is asked whether there are more oranges or fruits in a group of two apples, three bananas, andfive oranges. She will most likely say that there are more .

1. A) class inclusion; fruits 2. B) class inclusion; oranges 3. C) conservation-of-number; fruits 4. D) conservation-of-number; oranges Answer: B Page Ref: 245Skill: Apply Objective: 6.4

64)

Three-year-old Dominic calls his toy robot Sam and talks to him as ifSam is another 3-year-old. What explanation do researchers give for Dominic’s behavior?

1. A) Dominic actually believes that the robot is alive. 2. B) Dominic believes that all people and objects think the same thoughtsthat he thinks. 3. C) Dominic cannot distinguish between animate and inanimate objects.

4. D) Dominic has incomplete knowledge about certain objects, includinghis toy robot. Answer: D Page Ref: 246Skill: Apply Objective: 6.5

65)

When 4-year-old Leela wished for her grandmother to come and visit,and the very next day her grandmother arrived at Leela’s house, Leela believed it was

1. A) because her grandmother knew every thought Leela had. 2. B) nothing out of the ordinary. 3. C) because magic accounts for events she cannot otherwise explain. 4. D) a special power that only Leela has. Answer: C Page Ref: 246Skill: Apply Objective: 6.5 Preschoolers’ understanding that sugar continues to exist when it isdissolved in water is evidence that they

66)

1. A) can overcome appearances and think logically in familiar contexts. 2. B) can think logically even about unfamiliar topics. 3. C) are incapable of logical thought, as Piaget asserted. 4. D) do not understand cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: A Page Ref: 246 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.5

67)

Preschoolers seem to use when they must grapple with unfamiliar topics, too much information, or contradictory facts that they cannotreconcile.

1. A) illogical reasoning 2. B) mental representation 3. C) analogical problem solving 4. D) logical thought Answer: A Page Ref: 247 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.5

68)

Preschoolers’ impressive skill at categorization is supported by

1. A) animistic thinking. 2. B) their rapidly expanding vocabularies. 3. C) egocentric tendencies. 4. D) the use of magical thinking for events they cannot explain. Answer: B Page Ref: 247 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.5

69)

A hallmark of the concrete operational stage is the ability to

1. A) understand dual representation. 2. B) participate in sociodramatic play. 3. C) pass conservation tasks. 4. D) engage in animistic thinking. Answer: C Page Ref: 249 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.6

70)

During a conservation-of-water problem, Wanda recognizes that a change in the height of the water is compensated for by a change in its width.This example demonstrates that Wanda is capable of

1. A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) hypothetico-deductive reasoning. Answer: B Page Ref: 249Skill: Apply Objective: 6.6

71)

According to Piaget, children who pass class inclusion tasks

1. A) can focus on relations between a general and two specific categoriesat the same time. 2. B) have the capacity to think through a series of steps and then mentallyreverse them. 3. C) can order items along a quantitative dimension. 4. D) are able to recognize more than five separate and distinct categoriesof items. Answer: A Page Ref: 250 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.6

72)

Ten-year-old Delaney is helping her dad put new shingles on her playhouse in the backyard. Her dad asks her to put the shingles in order fromlongest to shortest so that he can vary the start of each row. She is able to dothis because she

1. A) can think abstractly. 2. B) can perform seriation tasks. 3. C) understands dual representation. 4. D) understands conservation. Answer: B Page Ref: 250Skill: Apply

Objective: 6.6

73)

Elena can mentally represent her neighborhood and describe the space to others. Elena’s mental representation of her neighborhood is knownas

1. A) a cognitive map. 2. B) propositional thought. 3. C) reasoning by analogy. 4. D) an organized route of travel. Answer: A Page Ref: 250Skill: Apply Objective: 6.6

74)

Children’s ability to draw a map of a large-scale space improves withage due to

1. A) their ability to reason by analogy. 2. B) gains in fine-motor development. 3. C) an increase in spatial cognition. 4. D) better perspective-taking skills. Answer: D Page Ref: 250 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.6 When his friend’s mom asks him if he wants a ride home from baseball practice, Pele gives her directions using a that helps him imagine the mom’s movements along the route she needs to take between the baseball field and Pele’s house.

75)

1. A) conservation technique 2. B) “mental walk” strategy 3. C) “decentration” method 4. D) transitive inference strategy

Answer: B Page Ref: 251Skill: Apply Objective: 6.6

76)

Melissa and Anjay are both 12 years old. Melissa is from the UnitedStates, and Anjay is from India. When asked to draw a map of their neighborhood, Melissa’s map will show than Anjay’s map.

1. A) a richer array of landmarks and aspects of social life 2. B) a smaller area surrounding her home 3. C) a more formal, extended space, highlighting main streets and keydirections 4. D) fewer features that are actually helpful in providing directions forother people Answer: C Page Ref: 251Skill: Apply Objective: 6.6

77)

Children in the concrete operational stage

1. A) can think logically when dealing with abstract information. 2. B) move along a continuum of acquisition of logical concepts. 3. C) master Piaget’s concrete operational tasks all at once. 4. D) continue to fail conservation tasks. Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.6

78)

Opportunities to seriate objects, to learn about order relations, and toremember the parts of complex problems are probably responsible for

1. A) the development of the imaginary audience. 2. B) improvements in decision-making strategies. 3. C) mastery of Piagetian tasks.

4. D) advanced abstract thinking. Answer: C Page Ref: 252 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.6

79)

Some investigators have concluded that the forms of logic required byPiagetian tasks

1. A) are heavily influenced by training, context, and cultural conditions. 2. B) emerge spontaneously during middle childhood. 3. C) emerge spontaneously during adolescence. 4. D) show little variation worldwide. Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.7

80)

Petra is an average 10-year-old. Research indicates that Petra

1. A) is egocentric in her social relationships. 2. B) provides clear directions and constructs well-organized cognitivemaps. 3. C) is in Piaget’s formal operational stage. 4. D) grasps the logical necessity of propositional thought. Answer: B Page Ref: 253Skill: Apply Objective: 6.7

81)

The capacity for from the concrete operational stage.

1. A) conservation 2. B) abstract thinking

distinguishes the formal operationalstage

3. C) analogical problem solving 4. D) dual representation Answer: B Page Ref: 253 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.8

82)

Once young people enter the formal operational stage, they are ableto systematically isolate and combine variables to see which of these inferences are confirmed in the real world through

1. A) hypothetico-deductive reasoning. 2. B) animistic thinking. 3. C) transitive inference. 4. D) analogical problem solving. Answer: A Page Ref: 253–254 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.8

83)

In watching two children, Wiley, who is in the concrete operationalstage, and Abby, who is in the formal operational stage, solve Piaget’s pendulum problem, what difference would be evident?

1. A) Both Wiley and Abby will use similar strategies to solve the problem. 2. B) Wiley will systematically test alternative hypotheses. 3. C) Abby will intuitively solve the problem without experimentation. 4. D) Abby will systematically test alternative hypotheses. Answer: D Page Ref: 253–254 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.8

During a study, the experimenter tells Kerri, “Either the swan is black or it is not black.” Even though Kerri has never seen a black swan, she judgesthis statement to be true. This is because Kerri

84)

1. A) cannot yet conserve. 2. B) is making an A-not-B error. 3. C) is engaging in propositional thought. 4. D) is egocentric. Answer: C Page Ref: 254Skill: Apply Objective: 6.8

85)

In one study, an experimenter hid a poker chip in her hand and askedadolescents to evaluate the truthfulness of the following statement: “The chip in my hand is green and it is not green.” An adolescent who is capable of propositional thought would most likely answer that this statement is

1. A) always false, regardless of the color of the poker chip. 2. B) false only if the poker chip is not green. 3. C) true if the poker chip is green. 4. D) always true, regardless of the color of the poker chip. Answer: A Page Ref: 254Skill: Apply Objective: 6.8

86)

Adolescents are able to ponder the concepts of justice and freedombecause they have developed

1. A) a moral code. 2. B) verbal reasoning about abstract concepts. 3. C) idealism and egocentric decision making. 4. D) the ability to delay gratification. Answer: B Page Ref: 254–255

Skill: Remember Objective: 6.8

87)

According to Piaget, a form of egocentrism emerges during the formaloperational stage in which adolescents have difficulty

1. A) distinguishing their own and others’ perspectives. 2. B) with day-to-day decision making. 3. C) comparing the merit of their accomplishments with that of others. 4. D) establishing a sense of self that is independent from their parents. Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.8

88)

helps explain the long hours adolescents spend inspecting every detail of their appearance and why they are so sensitive topublic criticism.

1. A) Propositional thought 2. B) The imaginary audience 3. C) Abstract thought 4. D) Hierarchical classification Answer: B Page Ref: 255 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.8

89)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the consequencesof abstract

thought?

1. A) Sense of personal uniqueness eliminates sensitivity to criticism. 2. B) Sense of omnipotence is moderately associated with depression andsuicidal thinking. 3. C) The imaginary audience discourages independence from parents.

4. D) The imaginary audience helps teenagers maintain importantrelationships. Answer: D Page Ref: 256 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.8

90)

With respect to the personal fable, viewing the self as highly capableand influential helps young people

1. A) cope with the “storm and stress” of puberty. 2. B) view the imaginary audience more realistically and avoid negativeemotions. 3. C) cope with the challenges of adolescence. 4. D) recognize their vulnerability and decrease their risk-taking behaviors. Answer: C Page Ref: 256 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.8 As a result of adolescents’ ability to engage in , they often construct grand visions of a perfect world that are at odds with adults’ more realistic views.

91)

1. A) hypothetico-deductive reasoning 2. B) propositional thinking 3. C) animistic thinking 4. D) abstract thinking Answer: D Page Ref: 256 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.8

92)

Evidence confirms that, when making decisions, adolescents, relativeto adults, are

1. A) less willing to take risks. 2. B) more influenced by the possibility of immediate reward. 3. C) more apt to seek advice from others. 4. D) more likely to learn from feedback by revising their decision-makingstrategies. Answer: B Page Ref: 256 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.8

93)

In making decisions, adolescents, more often than adults,

1. A) ignore well-learned intuitive judgments. 2. B) seek advice from parents or other trusted adults. 3. C) fall back on well-learned intuitive judgments. 4. D) weigh the pros and cons of possible outcomes. Answer: C Page Ref: 257 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.8

94)

Research on formal operational thought indicates that 6-year-olds

1. A) show signs of hypothetico-deductive reasoning on tasks that involvesimplified situations. 2. B) display hypothetico-deductive reasoning only when assisted by anadult. 3. C) only display hypothetico-deductive reasoning during pretend play. 4. D) are capable of abstract thinking when presented with real-worldproblems. Answer: A Page Ref: 257 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.9

95)

Axel, who is younger than age 10, will have difficulty reasoning from premises that contradict reality or his own beliefs because he is not yet able to

1. A) analyze the logic of propositions in situations in which he has hadextensive experience. 2. B) grasp the logical necessity of propositional thought. 3. C) recognize symbolic objects as both objects and symbols. 4. D) apply his problem-solving strategies. Answer: B Page Ref: 257–258 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.9

96)

People are most likely to think abstractly and systematically on tasksin which

1. A) they have had extensive guidance and practice in using suchreasoning. 2. B) hypothetico-deductive reasoning is not required. 3. C) the rules of logical thought can be ignored. 4. D) logical necessity is required. Answer: A Page Ref: 258 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.9

97)

Miss Caroline, a teacher who uses Piagetian principles in herclassroom,

1. A) provides extensive instruction in reading and mathematics. 2. B) pairs low-ability students with high-ability students to enhancelearning. 3. C) encourages her students to discover for themselves throughspontaneous interaction with their environment.

4. D) forms cooperative groups with two to four students who take turnsleading dialogues. Answer: C

Page Ref: 259 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.10 Piaget’s belief that infants and young children must act on theenvironment to revise their thinking is

98)

1. A) widely accepted by contemporary researchers. 2. B) too broad a notion of how learning takes place. 3. C) too narrow a notion of how learning takes place. 4. D) a major contribution to early intervention research. Answer: C Page Ref: 260 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.11

99)

One neo-Piagetian perspective combines Piaget’s stage approachwith

1. A) ecological systems theory. 2. B) information processing. 3. C) 4. D) the core knowledge perspective. Answer: B Page Ref: 261 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.11 Researchers in diverse theories continue to draw inspiration fromPiaget’s view of the child as a(n)

100)

1. A) tabula rasa. 2. B) active, constructive learner. 3. C) passive learner. 4. D) social being.

Answer: B Page Ref: 261 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.11

101)

Core knowledge theorists disagree with Piaget’s ideas and arguethat

1. A) infants begin life with innate, special-purpose knowledge systems. 2. B) cognitive development originates with sensorimotor reflexes. 3. C) development occurs in stages with little variations across domains. 4. D) development is primarily a matter of cultural and social influences. Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.12

102)

According to the core knowledge perspective, physical andnumerical

knowledge

1. A) permitted our ancestors to secure food and other resources from theenvironment. 2. B) does not emerge until children start formal schooling. 3. C) helps children understand people as agents who have mental statesthat influence their behavior. 4. D) helps children understand certain bodily processes, such as birth,growth, illness, and death. Answer: A Page Ref: 262 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.12

103)

Core knowledge theorists view development as

1. A) simply refining already advanced knowledge systems. 2. B) following a strict, stagewise progression. 3. C) a sociocultural phenomenon.

4. D) domain-specific and uneven. Answer: D Page Ref: 262 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.12

104)

Which of the following statements provides support for the coreknowledge perspective?

1. A) Baby Lisa looks longer at an unexpected physical event than anexpected physical event. 2. B) Baby Marcus can discriminate quantities up to three and use thatknowledge to perform simple arithmetic. 3. C) Before entering preschool, Fayola has difficulty with less-than andgreater-than number relationships. 4. D) Quinn cannot understand the concepts of addition and subtractionuntil elementary school. Answer: B Page Ref: 263 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.12

105)

According to theory theory,

1. A) children draw on innate concepts to form explanations of everydayevents. 2. B) cognitive development is largely due to increases in information-processing capacity. 3. C) the child and the social environment collaborate to build cognition inculturally adaptive ways. 4. D) by acting directly on the environment, children construct virtually alltheir knowledge about the world. Answer: A Page Ref: 264

Skill: Understand Objective: 6.12

106)

More seriously than other perspectives, core knowledge theoristshave addressed which of the following questions?

1. A) “Why is experience essential for children and the knowledge they areborn with?” 2. B) “Why does speed of learning differ in children?” 3. C) “What allows learning to get off the ground?” 4. D) “Do all aspects of cognition develop uniformly, or do some develop atfaster rates than others?” Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.12 A criticism of both the core knowledge perspective and Piaget’stheory focuses

107) on

1. A) how they ignore children’s independent efforts to constructknowledge. 2. B) their inability to explain how heredity and environment jointly producecognitive change.

3. C) how they underestimate the cognitive competencies of children andadolescents. 4. D) their inability to account for or explain stagewise change. Answer: B Page Ref: 266 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.13

108)

According to Vygotsky, infants are endowed with basic perceptual, attention, and memory capacities that they share with other animals. These develop during the first two years through

1. A) stimulating interactions with adults. 2. B) direct contact with the environment.

3. C) the biological unfolding of genetic structures. 4. D) independent exploration of the environment. Answer: A Page Ref: 266 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.14 Based on Piaget’s view of children’s private speech, which of thefollowing statements is true?

109)

1. A) Both Tatiana and her parents engage in private speech. 2. B) Taylor’s cognitive development and certain social experiences willbring an end to his private speech. 3. C) As Carolina internalizes the perspective of others, she will begin toengage in private speech. 4. D) Kaz’s social speech declines in favor of egocentric speech, in whichhe adapts what he says to his listeners. Answer: B Page Ref: 267 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.14

110)

Unlike Piaget, Vygotsky believed that

1. A) language often distracts children from thinking about mental activitiesand behavior. 2. B) egocentric speech interferes with children’s attempts at constructingknowledge. 3. C) children discover virtually all knowledge about the world through theirown activity. 4. D) language provides the foundation for all higher cognitive processes. Answer: D Page Ref: 267 Skill: Understand

Objective: 6.14

111)

Anthony has a learning disability. Which of the following statementsis most likely true about Anthony?

1. A) Anthony’s private speech is an indication of unhealthy egocentricbehavior. 2. B) Anthony’s use of self-guiding private speech during a challengingactivity will not lead to better task performance. 3. C) Anthony’s private speech will only be as good as his communicationskills with others. 4. D) Anthony uses private speech to help compensate for impairments incognitive processing. Answer: D Page Ref: 267 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.14

112)

Research on private speech suggests thatyoungchildren

1. A) are more likely to talk to themselves when tasks are too hard. 2. B) are more likely to talk to themselves when tasks are appropriatelychallenging. 3. C) talk to themselves because they have difficulty taking the perspectiveof others. 4. D) with learning and behavior problems rarely use private speech. Answer: B Page Ref: 267 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.14

113)

Vygotsky believed that learning takes place

1. A) within the zone of proximal development. 2. B) in discrete stages. 3. C) primarily through independent exploration. 4. D) once children are capable of mental representation.

Answer: A Page Ref: 267 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.14 According to Vygotsky, which of the following would be within achild’s zone of proximal development?

114)

1. A) Edward is completing a homework assignment with a classmate. 2. B) Elise recently mastered a task independently following the assistanceof her mother. 3. C) Jasira cannot yet handle a specific task on her own, but she can do itwith the help of an adult. 4. D) Tevan figures out how to accomplish a task through trial and error. Answer: C Page Ref: 267 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.14 In Vygotsky’s theory, when two participants to a task each adjust tothe perspective of the other in order to create common ground for communication, they are

115)

1. A) engaging in scaffolding, but only at a verbal level. 2. B) engaging in reciprocal teaching. 3. C) stepping outside each other’s zone of proximal development. 4. D) contributing to cognitive development through intersubjectivity. Answer: D Page Ref: 268 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.14

116)

Two-year-old Maya is building a block tower. Her father begins by pointing to where each block needs to go as Maya piles them up. As Maya’s

competence with the task increases, her father gradually withdraws support.This is an example of

1. A) transitive inference. 2. B) cooperative learning. 3. C) reciprocal teaching. 4. D) Answer: D Page Ref: 268 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.14

117)

Lester has learned how to give his dog a bath all by himself from helping his mother give the dog a bath in the past. Lester has learned this skillthrough

1. A) cooperative learning. 2. B) 3. C) guided participation. 4. D) Answer: C Page Ref: 268 Skill: Apply Objective: 6.14

118)

Vygotsky regarded make-believe play as a major source of cognitivedevelopment because it in which children advance themselves.

1. A) is a zone of proximal development 2. B) fosters intersubjectivity 3. C) promotes cooperative learning 4. D) provides opportunities for private speech Answer: A Page Ref: 269 Skill: Understand

Objective: 6.15

119)

Which of the following would signal to Christie, a toddler, that hermother is engaging in make-believe play with her?

1. A) She smiles less and is more serious with Christie. 2. B) She uses more “we” talk than she would during the same real-lifeevent. 3. C) She always waits for the cues to come from Christie beforeparticipating in make-believe play with Christie. 4. D) She rarely offers any cues, and so Christie has to learn on her ownwhen her mother is pretending and when she is not. Answer: B Page Ref: 270 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Social Origins of Make-Believe Play Skill: Apply Objective: 6.15

120)

Which of the following statements is supported by research onmake-believe

play?

1. A) When adults participate, toddlers’ make-believe play is moreelaborate than when they play alone. 2. B) In early childhood, make-believe play often occurs with an imaginarycompanion. 3. C) In cultures where make-believe play occurs with older siblings ratherthan with mothers, the fantasy play of toddlers is hindered. 4. D) Children are more likely to combine schemes into complex sequences when engaging in make-believe play with agemates thanwhen they are playing with caregivers. Answer: A Page Ref: 270 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Social Origins of Make-Believe Play Skill: Understand Objective: 6.15

121)

Make-believe play is a major means through which children

1. A) develop and refine representational schemes. 2. B) learn about prejudice and the differences among different racial andethnic groups. 3. C) learn language and its more subtle nuances. 4. D) extend their cognitive skills and learn about important activities intheir culture. Answer: D Page Ref: 270 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Social Origins of Make-Believe Play Skill: Understand Objective: 6.15

122) to

Vygotsky emphasized once formal schooling begins.

for preschool children, and thenshifting

1. A) independent discovery learning; social context and collaboration 2. B) rote memory; make-believe play and reading 3. C) meaningful activities in children’s zones of proximal development;literacy activities 4. D) a basic skills approach; scaffolding Answer: C Page Ref: 270 Skill: Remember Objective: 6.16

123)

In her classroom, Kim and small groups of students take turnsleading dialogues on the content of various texts. This is an example of

1. A) cooperative learning. 2. B) reciprocal teaching. 3. C) 4. D) guided participation. Answer: B Page Ref: 271Skill: Apply

Objective: 6.16

124)

Elementary and middle school students exposed to reciprocalteaching

1. A) tend to experience more conflict and competition. 2. B) have dramatically higher IQ scores than children exposed totraditional methods. 3. C) show impressive gains in reading comprehension. 4. D) are often overly dependent on adults. Answer: C Page Ref: 271 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.16

125)

Which of the following approaches is likely to be seen in aVygotskian

classroom?

1. A) opportunities for active participation 2. B) an emphasis on teacher-directed instruction 3. C) activities developed to foster peer collaboration 4. D) learning experiences designed to promote independent exploration Answer: C Page Ref: 271 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.16

126)

In which of the following situations of cooperative learning wouldchildren learn

best?

1. A) when children have first been trained in make-believe play 2. B) when adults provide structured lessons 3. C) when groups have more than three children 4. D) when their peer partner is an “expert” Answer: D Page Ref: 271

Skill: Understand Objective: 6.16

127)

Which of the following statements is true regarding cooperativelearning?

1. A) The extent to which children achieve independence is key tofostering cooperative learning.

2. B) For cooperative learning to succeed, Western children usually requireextensive guidance. 3. C) A single peer interaction is more beneficial than interactions withmultiple peers. 4. D) Children’s problem solving improves most when their peer partnerhas equal expertise on the task. Answer: B Page Ref: 271 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.16

128)

In Western societies, the role of equipping children with the skillsthey need to become competent workers is assigned to

1. A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) vocational programs. Answer: A Page Ref: 273 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Children in Village and TribalCultures Observe and Participate in Adult Work Skill: Remember Objective: 6.17

129)

Recent ethnographic research reveals that

1. A) young Yucatec Mayan children decide for themselves how much tosleep and eat, what to wear, when to bathe, and when to start school.

2. B) Yucatec Mayan children and Western children display impressive similarities in their make-believe play, despite very different cultural andsocial conditions. 3. C) in cultures where parents rarely scaffold their children’s learning,children tend to be delayed in early cognitive skills. 4. D) in cultures where parents rarely converse with their children, childrentend to frequently display attention-getting behaviors. Answer: A Page Ref: 273 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Children in Village and TribalCultures Observe and Participate in Adult Work Skill: Remember Objective: 6.17

130)

Critics of Vygotsky argue that his theory cognitive development.

in advancing

1. A) says little about biological contributions 2. B) overemphasizes the importance of children’s independent efforts 3. C) assumes a set of experiences common to all cultures 4. D) underemphasizes the significance of teaching Answer: A Page Ref: 272 Skill: Understand Objective: 6.17 ESSAY Describe Piaget’s sensorimotor stage of development, includingfollow-up research on Piaget’s ideas.

131)

Answer: According to Piaget, specific psychological structures called schemes, change with age. At first, schemes are sensorimotor action patterns.Sensorimotor—the name of the stage—reflects Piaget’s belief that infants andtoddlers “think” with their eyes, ears, hands, and other sensorimotor equipment. They cannot yet carry out many activities mentally. The circular reaction involves stumbling onto a new experience caused by thebaby’s own motor activity. It provides a special means of adapting her first schemes. The reaction is “circular” because, as the infant tries to repeat the

event again and again, a sensorimotor response that originally occurred by chance strengthens into a new scheme. She starts to gain voluntary control over her actions through the primary circular reaction, by repeating chance behaviors largely motivated by basic needs. This leads to some simple motorhabits. Through the secondary circular reaction, she tries to repeat interestingevents—through intentional, or goal-directed, behaviors—in the surrounding environment that are caused by her own actions. As she begins to master object permanence and imitation, the tertiary circular reaction, or repeated behaviors with variation, emerges. In Piaget’s theory, infants lead purely sensorimotor lives. Yet research indicates that, beginning at 8 to 10 months, babies can recall the location of hidden objects, indicating that babies construct mental representations of objects and their whereabouts. And in studies of deferred imitation, categorization, and problem solving, representational thought is evident evenearlier. Researchers disagree on how babies arrive at these impressive attainments. One view holds that older infants and toddlers categorize more effectively because they become increasingly sensitive to fine-grained perceptual features and to stable relations among these features. An alternative view is that before the end of the first year, babies undergo a fundamental shift from a perceptual to a conceptual basis for constructing categories. Consistent with Piaget’s ideas, sensorimotor action helps infants construct some forms of knowledge. Yet we have also seen evidence that infants comprehend a great deal before they are capable of the motor behaviors thatPiaget assumed led to those understandings. Page Ref: 226–238

132)

Compare Piaget’s and Vygotsky’s views on children’s make-believeplay.

Answer: Piaget believed that through pretending, children practice and strengthen newly acquired representational schemes. However, today, Piaget’s view of make-believe as mere practice of representational schemes isregarded as too limited. Play not only reflects but also contributes to children’scognitive and social skills. Sociodramatic play has been studied most thoroughly. Compared with social nonpretend activities (such as drawing or putting puzzles together), during sociodramatic play preschoolers’ interactionslast longer, show more involvement, draw more children into the activity, and are more cooperative.

Vygotsky regarded make-believe play as a unique, broadly influential zone of proximal development in which children advance themselves as they try out awide variety of challenging skills. In Vygotsky’s theory, make-believe is the central source of development during the preschool years, leading development forward in two ways. First, as children create imaginary situations, they learn to act in accord with internal ideas, not just in response to external stimuli. While pretending, children continually use one object to stand for another—a stick for a horse, a folded blanket for a sleeping baby— and, doing so, change the object’s usual meaning. Gradually they realize that thinking (or the meaning of words) is separate from objects and that ideas canbe used to guide behavior. Second, the rule-based nature of make-believe strengthens children’s capacity to think before they act. Pretend play, Vygotsky pointed out, constantly demands that children act against their impulses because they must follow the rules of the play scene. For example, a child pretending to goto sleep obeys the rules of bedtime behavior. A child imagining himself as a father and a doll as his child conforms to the rules of parental behavior. Through enacting rules in make-believe, children better understand socialnorms and expectations and strive to follow them. Vygotsky questioned Piaget’s belief that make-believe arises spontaneously inthe second year of life. Vygotsky argued that, like other higher cognitive processes, the elaborate pretending of the preschool years has social origins. Page Ref: 239–240, 269

133)

Discuss the limitations of preoperational thought from Piaget’s pointof view.

Answer: For Piaget, the most fundamental deficiency of preoperational thinking is egocentrism—failure to distinguish others’ symbolic viewpoints fromone’s own. He believed that when children first mentally represent the world, they tend to focus on their own viewpoint and to assume that others perceive, think, and feel the same way they do. Egocentrism is responsible for preoperational children’s animistic thinking—the belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities, such as thoughts, wishes, feelings, and intentions. Piaget argued that young children’s egocentric bias prevents them fromaccommodating, or reflecting on and revising their faulty reasoning in response to their physical and social worlds. Piaget’s famous conservation tasks reveal several deficiencies of preoperational thinking. Conservation refers to the idea that certain physicalcharacteristics of objects remain the same, even when their outward

appearance changes. The inability to conserve highlights several relatedaspects of preoperational children’s thinking. First, their understanding iscentered, or characterized by centration. They focus on one aspect of a situation, neglecting other important features. The most important illogical feature of preoperational thought is irreversibility.Reversibility— the ability to go through a series of steps in a problem and thenmentally reverse direction, returning to the starting point—is part of every logical operation. Preoperational children also have difficulty with hierarchicalclassification—the organization of objects into classes and subclasses on thebasis of similarities and differences. Page Ref: 244–245

134)

Discuss the two major features of Piaget’s formal operations stage.

Answer: Piaget believed that at adolescence, young people become capableof hypotheticodeductive reasoning. When faced with a problem, they start with a hypothesis, or prediction about variables that might affect an outcome,from which they deduce logical, testable inferences. Then they systematicallyisolate and combine variables to see which of these inferences are confirmedin the real world. This form of problem solving begins with possibility and proceeds to reality. A second important characteristic of Piaget’s formal operational stage is propositional thought— adolescents’ ability to evaluate the logic of propositions(verbal statements) without referring to real-world circumstances. In contrast, children can evaluate the logic of statements only by considering them againstconcrete evidence in the real world. Although Piaget did not view language as playing a central role in cognitive development, he acknowledged its importance in adolescence. Formal operations require language-based and other symbolic systems that do not stand for real things, such as those in higher mathematics. Secondary schoolstudents use such systems in algebra and geometry. Formal operational thought also involves verbal reasoning about abstract concepts. Adolescentsshow that they can think in this way when they ponder the relations among time, space, and matter in physics or wonder about justice and freedom in philosophy. Page Ref: 253–255

135)

Describe the core knowledge perspective of cognitive development.

Answer: According to the core knowledge perspective, infants begin life with innate, specialpurpose knowledge systems referred to as core domains of thought. Each of these “prewired” understandings permits a ready grasp of new, related information and therefore supports early, rapid development of certain aspects of cognition. Core knowledge theorists argue that infants couldnot make sense of the multifaceted stimulation around them without having been genetically “set up” in the course of evolution to comprehend its crucial aspects. Two core domains have been studied extensively in infancy. The first is physical knowledge—in particular, understanding of objects and their effects on one another. The second is numerical knowledge—the capacity to keep track of multiple objects and to add and subtract small quantities. Physical andnumerical knowledge permitted our ancestors to secure food and other resources from the environment. Rather than regarding development as a general process, core knowledge theorists see it as domain-specific and uneven, with each core domain developing independently. And although initial knowledge is assumed to be innate, that knowledge becomes more elaborate as children explore, play, andinteract with others. Page Ref: 261–262 Compare and contrast Piaget’s and Vygotsky’s views on children’sprivate speech, and evaluate each on the basis of research findings.

136)

Answer: Piaget called preschoolers’ utterances egocentric speech, reflecting his belief that young children have difficulty taking the perspectives of others. Their talk, he said, is often “talk for self” in which they express thoughts in whatever form they happen to occur, regardless of whether a listener can understand. Piaget believed that cognitive development and certain social experiences eventually bring an end to egocentric speech. Specifically, through repeated disagreements with peers, children see that others hold viewpoints different from their own. As a result, egocentric speech declines infavor of social speech, in which children adapt what they say to their listeners. Vygotsky disagreed strongly with Piaget’s conclusions. Because language helps children think about mental activities and behavior and select courses ofaction, Vygotsky saw it as the foundation for all higher cognitive processes, including controlled attention, deliberate memorization and recall, categorization, planning, problem solving, abstract reasoning, and selfreflection. In Vygotsky’s view, children speak to themselves for self-guidance.

As they get older and find tasks easier, their self-directed speech is internalized as silent, inner speech—the internal verbal dialogues we carry onwhile thinking and acting in everyday situations. Over the past three decades, almost all studies have supported Vygotsky’s perspective. As a result, children’s self-directed speech is now called private speech instead of egocentric speech. Children use more of it when tasks are appropriately challenging (neither too easy nor too hard), after they make errors, or when they are confused about how to proceed. With age, as Vygotsky predicted, private speech goes underground, changing into whispersand silent lip movements. Furthermore, children who freely use self-guiding private speech during a challenging activity are more attentive and involved and show better task performance than their less talkative agemates. Page Ref: 267

137)

Describe how Vygotsky’s ideas influence trends in education today.

Answer: Vygotsky’s theory offers new visions of teaching and learning—ones that emphasize the importance of social context and collaboration. Vygotskianclassrooms accept individual differences and provide opportunities for children’s active participation, but they go beyond independent discovery to promote assisted discovery. Teachers guide children’s learning with explanations, demonstrations, and verbal prompts, tailoring their interventionsto each child’s zone of proximal development. Assisted discovery is aided by peer collaboration, as children work in groups, teaching and helping one another. Vygotsky’s educational message for the preschool years is to provide sociallyrich, meaningful activities in children’s zones of proximal development and a wealth of opportunities for makebelieve play—the ultimate means of fosteringthe self-discipline required for later academic learning. Once formal schoolingbegins, Vygotsky emphasized literacy activities. Vygotsky-based educational innovations include reciprocal teaching, in whicha teacher and two to four students form a collaborative group and take turns leading dialogues on the content of a text passage. Within the dialogues, group members apply four cognitive strategies: questioning, summarizing, clarifying, and predicting. Today, peer collaboration is widely used, but evidence is mounting that it promotes development only under certain conditions. A crucial factor is cooperative learning, in which small groups of classmates work toward common goals. Conflict and disagreement seem less important than the extent to which peers achieve intersubjectivity—by resolving differences of

opinion, sharing responsibilities, and providing one another with sufficientexplanations to correct misunderstandings. Teaching through cooperative learning broadens Vygotsky’s concept of thezone of proximal development, from a single child in collaboration with an expert partner (adult or peer) to multiple partners with diverse forms of expertise stimulating and encouraging one another. Page Ref: 269–272

Chapter 7 Cognitive Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following statements is true? a. Children are less accurate than adults in identifying perpetrators in police line-ups b. Children are more accurate than adults in identifying perpetrators in police line-ups c. Children are just as accurate as adults in identifying perpetrators in police line-ups d. Children’s memory capacity does not develop until the age of 12 Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: Chapter Introduction Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 2. Which activities involve the psychological processes studied by information processing researchers? a. Learning to read b. Finding a street address c. Figuring out how to open a locked door d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Nature of the Information-Processing Approach Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 3. The information processing perspective differs from the traditional learning view because information processing theorists are concerned with rather than with , as are traditional learning theorists. a. input into the sensory registers; external responses b. the internal processes involved when information is processed; external stimuli and external responses c. more recent phenomena; phenomena more familiar to the animal lab experimentalist d. how information is processed to produce response output; permanent memory store Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Flowchart Metaphor Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

4. According to the flowchart metaphor, a teacher’s goal is to get the pupils to store information in their a. auditory registers. b. sensory registers. c. short-term memories. d. long-term memories. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Flowchart Metaphor Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 5. Ryan, a second grader, is practicing his spelling with his father when he comes across a new word he has not heard before. According to the flowchart metaphor, where does this new word that he has just heard enter first? a. Visual register b. Auditory register c. Short-term memory (working memory) d. Response-generating mechanism Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Flowchart Metaphor Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 6. Which statement below is false? a. Humans and computers can be said to store representations of symbols. b. Humans and computers can be said to manipulate symbols to solve problems. c. Humans and computers are limited in the amount of information they can store and manipulate. d. Humans can learn from experience and modify their rule systems in a progressively adaptive direction, however, computers cannot. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 7. The term flowchart and the concept of a computer metaphor are related most to

a. learning theory. b. the nurture perspective. c. environmental/learning theory. d. information processing. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 8. refers to programming a computer to perform a cognitive task in the same way in which humans are thought to perform it. a. Computer programming b. Computer simulation c. Rule-encoding d. Symbol manipulation Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 9. At the most specific level, the computer makes possible one of the prime methodologies of the information-processing approach, a. computer programming. b. symbol manipulation. c. computer simulation. d. rule-encoding. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 10. The information-processing approach that is most similar to the complex system of neurons in the human brain is a. the computer simulation model. b. the flowchart model. c. connectionism. d. Case’s operating space-short-term-storage space model.

Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 11. Connectionist computer programs take the form of a. microgenetic studies. b. training studies. c. parallel symbolic systems. d. artificial neural networks. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 12. The microgenetic technique is to the longitudinal approach as a a. movie is to snapshots. b. pen is to a pencil. c. point is to a dot. d. moon is to the sun. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. The Computer Metaphor Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 13. The min strategy involves a. programming computers to solve a problem in the smallest number of steps. b. programming computers to simulate mathematical abilities in children. c. counting up from the larger of two addends to arrive at a sum. d. counting down from the larger of two addends to arrive at a sum. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard

14. Which approach allows a researcher to gather the most information about the path, rate, breadth, variability, and sources of cognitive change? a. Cross sectional b. Interview c. Microgenetic d. Correlational Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. The Computer Metaphor Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 15. What do information processing approaches have in common with Piaget’s theory? a. All agree that a complex system of mental rules underlies cognitive performance. b. All subscribe to a stage model of development. c. All emphasize environmental influences more than biological influences on development. d. All attempt to explain and describe basic cognitive processes such as sensation, perception, and attention. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: Comparisons with Piaget Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 16. Compared to Piaget’s theory, most information processing theories tend to a. be less concerned with process-oriented questions. b. describe development in terms of broader stages. c. be more domain-specific. d. be less concerned with underlying psychological processes than behaviour. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: Comparisons with Piaget Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 17. Event memory involves the use of a. scripts for sequences of familiar actions or routine events in a familiar context. b. pre-existing knowledge to interpret information that is taken in. c. specific, personal, and long-lasting memories about the self. d. a past stimulus when the stimulus is no longer present.

Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 18. Constructive memory involves the use of a. scripts for sequences of familiar actions or routine events in a familiar context. b. pre-existing knowledge to interpret information that is taken in. c. specific, personal, and long-lasting memories about the self. d. a past stimulus when the stimulus is no longer present. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 19. Eight-month-old David watched as his mother covered his favourite toy with a diaper. David later moved the diaper in order to retrieve his toy. In remembering where his toy was, David utilized a. recall memory. b. recognition memory. c. constructive memory. d. event memory. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 20. Suppose that you witnessed a hold-up at a bank, and you were later asked to identify the robber in a police line up. This identification of the robber from a line up of people involves a. recall memory. b. recognition memory. c. constructive memory. d. event memory. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 21. Suppose that you witnessed a hold-up at a bank, and you were later asked to help a police artist develop a sketch of the robber. You would rely on to develop the sketch. a. recall memory b. recognition memory c. constructive memory d. event memory Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 22. Rosita’s baby sitter lives in an apartment complex with an unusual and striking entrance. Every morning when Rosita’s father carries her through the entrance on the way to the sitter’s apartment, Rosita begins to bounce and babble in excitement. Rosita’s behaviour best illustrates a. recall memory. b. constructive memory. c. recognition memory. d. script memory. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 23. Victor’s parents brought him to Disneyland when he was 5 years old. He relies on to remember his trip. a. Recognition memory b. Autobiographical memory c. Self-constructive memory d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Memory in Infancy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

24. Habituation studies have been relied on to investigate the information processing abilities of nonverbal infants. Dishabituation or the informs researchers about the infant’s recognition memory. a. recovery of response to a new stimulus b. failure to habituate to a single stimulus c. loss of interest in a single stimulus d. infant’s fatigue Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 25. We can learn a lot about newborn memory capabilities through studies. a. habituation b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 26. Studies that demonstrate newborns prefer to listen to stories and languages they were exposed to in utero provide evidence that very young infants are capable of a. habituation. b. classical conditioning. c. recognition memory. d. recall memory. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 27. The habituation paradigm is used to test a. recognition memory b. generalizability c. operant conditioning

in infants.

d. recall Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 28. The fact that babies as young as 2 months of age will kick their leg in order to make a mobile jump suggests that a. even very young infants can be classically conditioned. b. babies will emit behaviour simply to produce an interesting sight. c. in order to serve as a reinforcer for infants, a consequence must satisfy a biological need. d. habituation emerges very early in infancy. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 29. Flavie is 2 months old. Her parents have bought her a new play mat that includes a mobile. When kicked, the mobile will light up and play music. Which of the following statements is true? a. Flavie will be able to learn that kicking the mobile will lead to an action b. Flavie does not have enough memory capacity to remember this association c. Flavie will use the mobile to prevent her from getting upset d. All of the alternatives are correct Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 30. One- and two-day-old infants received a sucrose solution. The sucrose served as an unconditioned stimulus that elicited the unconditioned response of sucking. The conditioned stimulus consisted of the experimenter stroking the baby’s forehead immediately before the delivery of sucrose. The conditioned response is the a. sucking in response to the sucrose alone. b. sucking in response to the forehead stroking alone. c. sucking in response to dextrose. d. head turn toward the sucrose.

Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 31. One- and two-day-old infants received a sucrose solution. The sucrose served as an unconditioned stimulus that elicited the unconditioned response of sucking. Milliseconds before the delivery of sucrose, the experimenter stroked the baby’s forehead. Eventually, to the stroke of the forehead, the baby would suck. The conditioned stimulus is a. the stroke of the forehead. b. the sucrose alone. c. the experimenter. d. dextrose. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 32. In their first half of life, infants’ memories are not as developed as are those of older infants. Which modification to research procedures has resulted in the earliest indication of a long-term memory? a. Employing speech stimuli b. Employing dynamic, moving stimuli c. Employing face stimuli d. Employing mobiles as stimuli Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 33. Using a dynamic, moving stimulus, Bahrick and Pickens showed a memory retention of up to three months in a. newborns. b. 2-month-olds. c. 3-month-olds. d. 5-month-olds. Answer: c

Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 34. Three-month-old infants are exposed to the mobile procedure in which they learn to activate a mobile by kicking their legs. For about how long will the babies be able to remember the association between the kicking and the movement of the mobile? a. 1 hour b. 1 day c. 1 week d. 1 year Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 35.Two groups of infants were exposed to the mobile procedure in which they learned to activate a mobile by kicking their legs. After 13 days, one group of infants watched as the experimenter jiggled the mobile over their heads. How did the infants in the two groups behave when placed in the mobile procedure at day 14? a. Both groups did a moderate amount of kicking. b. The infants who saw the mobile jiggled at day 13 kicked more than the babies who did not observe the jiggling. c. The infants who did not see the mobile jiggled at day 13 kicked more than the babies who watched the experimenter jiggle the mobile. d. Neither group appeared to remember the association between kicking their legs and the movement of the mobile. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 36. Infants were exposed to the mobile procedure in which they learned to activate a mobile by kicking their legs. After 13 days, they watched as the experimenter jiggled the mobile over their heads. In this experiment, occurred when the mobile was jiggled. a. memory loss b. reactivation

c. cueing d. crying Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 37. refers to the preservation of the memory for an event through reencounter with at least some portion of the event in the interval between initial experience and memory test. a. Long-term memory b. Reactivation c. Memory-loss prevention d. Activation Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 38. Infants, age 12 to 24 months, were shown a series of pictures of various kinds of food, then given a choice of looking at either a previously unseen item from the food category (e.g., an apple) or an item from a new category (e.g., a chair). What were the findings of this study? a. The infants looked longer at the chair than the apple, suggesting they had learned a general category of food and found a new category more interesting. b. The infants looked longer at the apple than the chair, suggesting they had learned a general category of food and found it comforting to look at a familiar category. c. The older infants looked longer at the chair, suggesting they had learned a general category of food, whereas the younger infants looked longer at the apple, suggesting they had not noticed a relationship among the food items presented previously. d. The infants spent an equal amount of time looking at the chair and the apple, suggesting they had not noticed a relationship among the food items presented previously. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard 39. If Alice is 17 months old, she should be able to remember information for approximately weeks.

a. 3 b. 7 c. 9 d. 13 Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recognition Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 40. Thirteen-month-olds can remember and imitate simple sequences of action such as how to give teddy a bath (first place in tub, then wash with a sponge, then dry with a towel). This example suggests that have their origins in infancy. a. scripts b. categorization abilities c. metamemory skills d. problem-solving strategies Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recall Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 41. Matthew, a 14-month-old, has just watched his first deer hunting movie with his father. Research suggests that a. If he sees a deer, he will not “remember” to pretend to shoot it because his memory is not yet developed b. If he sees a deer, he will shoot it as in the hunting movie c. He will know how to manipulate guns and hunting material because watching this movie has allowed him brain to make different associations (recall memory) d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recall Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 42. The statement there is no autobiographical memory for the events of infancy refers to a. prospective recall. b. infantile amnesia.

c. retroactive memory. d. the conjugate reinforcement technique. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recall Memory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 43. Three possible contributions to developmental improvement in memory that are considered by the text are a. greater use of mnemonic strategies, greater knowledge about memory, and more powerful cognitive structures. b. increase in eidetic memory, physiological changes in the brain, and increase in metamemory. c. decrease in mnemonics, decrease in metamemory, and increase in adaptation. d. elimination of the utilization deficiency, increase in production deficiency, and refined equilibration. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: Memory in Older Children Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 44. Techniques that people use in an attempt to help them remember something are called a. metamemory. b. scripts. c. schemas. d. mnemonic strategies. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 45. Tim was asked to remember pictures of a cow, truck, tree, car, dog, and flower. Tim rearranged the pictures into the following pairs: cow-dog, car-truck, and tree-flower during his study period. The pictures were then taken away, and Tim was asked to recall them. The fact that Tim used a mnemonic strategy but it didn’t seem to help suggests that he has a a. utilization deficiency. b. production deficiency. c. organization deficiency.

d. conceptual deficiency. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 46. Classic research by Flavell and his colleagues showed that most older children use rehearsal as a mnemonic strategy. Kamisha, as expected by Flavell’s research, uses rehearsal to memorize verses for Sunday school each week. One day at school, her teacher asks her to memorize a short speech for a school assembly. Kamisha does not know how to begin memorizing this short speech. It doesn’t occur to her to use rehearsal. This is an example of a. utilization deficiency. b. production deficiency. c. organization deficiency. d. conceptual deficiency. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 47. Marissa is undergoing neuropsychological testing and is being asked to remember a list of words. Which of the following is a strategy she might attempt to use to remember the words? a. Utilization b. Elaboration c. Recall d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 48. Flavell and his colleagues asked 5-, 7-, and 10-year-olds to participate in a memory task. Each participant was shown an array of 7 pictures, and a subset of the 7 was pointed to on a given trial. The participants were told to remember the subset of pictures in order. These researchers found that: a. there was a utilization deficiency; children who rehearsed did not remember more. b. there was a production deficiency; children who knew how to rehearse didn’t use rehearsal.

c. surprisingly, there was no age difference in performance. d. surprisingly, even the 5-year-olds used elaboration. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 49. Two brothers, ages 3 and 6, are taking turns hiding the car keys from their mother. What memory strategies are the two brothers likely to use to help themselves remember where the car keys are? a. The 3-year-old is likely to use rehearsal, whereas the 6-year-old will use elaboration. b. The 3-year-old is likely to rehearse the location by repeating it out loud, whereas the 6-yearold is likely to silently rehearse the location. c. The 3-year-old is not likely to rehearse the location whereas the 6-year-old may rehearse the location. d. The 3-year-old is likely to use rehearsal, whereas the 6-year-old will simply remember the location without employing any strategies. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Hard 50. Between age 6 and adolescence, children become increasingly likely to use mnemonics to remember a list of words such as cow, truck, tree, car, dog, flower, etc. The mnemonic that the youngest children would be most likely to use is a. organizing them into abstract categories. b. rehearsing the entire list out loud. c. creating visual images that link the items. d. elaboration. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 51. When compared to the performance of older children on memory tasks, younger children are a. less likely to use any memory strategies. b. more likely to limit rehearsal to items that are visually present.

c. less likely to use elaboration. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 52. The last memory strategy to appear in children’s repertoire is a. elaboration. b. organization. c. categorization. d. rehearsal. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 53. In one study, children as young as 3 years of age had to keep track of a toy dog that was hidden under one of several cups. What memory strategy did the children use to help them remember where the dog was hidden? a. The children rehearsed the location out loud. b. The children sat with their eyes and a finger fixed on the cup where the dog was hidden. c. The children placed a raisin on top of the cup with the dog. d. The children did not use any strategies to help them remember where the dog was hidden. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 54. Which of the following is the least mature mnemonic strategy? a. Repeating the times-tables over and over again b. Grouping to-be-remembered items into categories c. Staring at and putting one’s finger on a cup that momentarily covers the toy whose movements must be tracked d. Linking a new, to-be-remembered item to a familiar image or story Answer: c

Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 55. Mnemonic strategies that students use in an attempt to remember school material are a. called study strategies. b. typically acquired and mastered by the end of elementary school. c. directly taught by teachers and are an established part of the curriculum. d. called academic schemes. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 56. Memory strategies appear to aid memory by a. expanding the capacity of the sensory register. b. strengthening neural connections. c. overcoming information-processing limitations. d. exercising the executive function. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 57. Knowing that you have an easier time remembering baseball statistics than the birthdates of relatives is an example of a. social cognition. b. metamemory. c. a script. d. habituation. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Metamemory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

58. Metacognition refers to a. knowledge about memory. b. cognitions that are mathematical in nature. c. thoughts about mental or psychological phenomena. d. effects of a general knowledge system about how information is interpreted and remembered. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Metamemory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 59. The kind of metamemorial knowledge that 6-year-olds possess includes a. the understanding that, at McDonald’s, you pay for your food before you eat it. b. a clear recollection of the birth of a sibling when they were three years of age. c. awareness that it is easier to remember the names of the children in their own kindergarten class than the names of children in a different class. d. knowledge that The Incredibles are fictional characters. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Metamemory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 60. When asked how many items from a list of 10 they would be able to recall, more than half of the preschoolers and kindergarteners asked responded with an estimate of a. 1. b. 5. c. 8. d. 10. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Metamemory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 61. Studies that examine the relationship between metamemory and performance on memory tasks suggest that a. while practice on memory tasks improves performance, efforts to train children in various forms of metamemory have not improved performance on memory tasks. b. as metamemory increases, memory performance decreases.

c. what children know about their memory processes is not always reflected in their actual behaviour. d. what children know about their memory is highly predictive of how they will perform on a wide range of memory tasks. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Metamemory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 62. What is the relationship between knowledge base and memory development? a. Increases in knowledge base and improvements in memory develop in parallel but do not influence each other directly. b. While increases in memory abilities lead to increases in knowledge, the reverse is not true. c. As children acquire more knowledge, it becomes harder for them to remember new information. d. As children acquire more knowledge, they understand more and hence remember more. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 63. Constructive memory refers to a. techniques that people use in an attempt to remember something. b. thoughts that have constructive psychological phenomena as their target. c. the preservation of the memory for an event through reencounter with at least some portion of the event in the interval between initial exposure to, and the time of recall about, the event. d. effects of the general knowledge system on how information is interpreted and remembered. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 64. Researchers interested in constructive memory study a. how general knowledge affects memory. b. the development of memory strategies. c. how metamemory leads to improved memory performance. d. how developmental increases in cognitive capacity lead to decreases in memory performance.

Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 65. How do “constructive memory” processes change with age? a. Children’s memory becomes more accurate and less affected by prior knowledge. b. Children become increasingly likely to rely on what they know to draw inferences beyond the information given. c. Children draw fewer inferences from the information given. d. As one’s knowledge base increases, the ability to remember events literally (like a video recorder) increases. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 66. Because of the nature of constructive memory, a. memory ends up being a literal copy of what is experienced. b. memory is fixed. c. memory for an event can become distorted. d. different individuals typically assimilate an event in the same way. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 67. Karina, a five-year old, is shown some gender-stereotypical pictures that were reversed (for example, a boy playing with dolls and a girl playing with trucks and tractors). Based on recent research on constructive memory, what is Karina most likely to remember? a. She is most likely to “correct” these images by saying that the boy was playing with the trucks and tractors and that the girl was playing with the dolls b. She is going to remember all of the images correctly c. She is most likely not to be able to remember a single item from the pictures because she is too young d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: a

Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 68. When Piaget and Inhelder asked 4- and 5-year-old children to draw their recollections of a seriated array they had seen 1 week earlier, their illustrations a. suggested a more accurate understanding of seriation than is typically observed when preschoolers actually solve seriation problems. b. included different errors than are typically observed when preschoolers actually solve seriation problems. c. included the same errors observed when preschoolers actually solve seriation problems. d. included far more errors than is observed when preschoolers have the opportunity to physically place sticks in serial order. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 69. Which of the following influences constructive memory? a. Cognitive level b. Gender and ethnic stereotypes c. Information stored in long-term-memory d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 70. Memory for the arrangement of chess pieces on a checkerboard has been used to assess a. eyewitness memory. b. expertise. c. constructive memory. d. utilization deficiency. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 71. Controlled investigations into the reliability of children’s eyewitness testimony suggest that a. children are more likely to omit certain details than they are to introduce false information. b. the younger the child (up to age 3), the more accurate the recall is likely to be. c. young children are less likely to incorporate the implications of leading questions into subsequent testimony than are adults. d. children appear to be particularly poor at memory for faces. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 72. For the purposes of eyewitness testimonies, recall inaccuracies in children can be reduced by using a. very specific questions. b. a free-recall format. c. mnemonic strategies. d. a uniformed police officer to conduct all testimonial interviews. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 73. Schneider et al. compared the performance of 10- to 13-year-olds and adults on a task involving memory for the layout of chess pieces on a chessboard. Half of the children and adults were chess experts and half were not. They found that the a. adults outperformed the children, regardless of chess expertise, presumably because of the adults’ larger short-term memory capacity. b. child experts outperformed the adult novices because their knowledge of chess aided memory. c. child experts performed as well as the adult novices, suggesting that knowledge can compensate for memory limitations. d. child experts performed as well as adult novices when there were a few pieces on the board, but when many chess pieces were involved, the adult novices outperformed the children. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge

Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 74. Schneider and colleagues compared memory for the arrangement of chess pieces in experts and novices. Participants were early adolescents and adults. They found that a. the adults in the study remembered less than the early adolescents on other memory tests that did not rely on expertise in chess. b. expertise had no effect on memory performance. c. it seems that experts are less likely to use memory strategies effectively in the area of expertise. d. older age was associated with better performance when chess expertise was not relevant to the task. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 75. Robert, 3 years old and Jack, 6 years old, were both witnesses to a store robbery. Which of the following statements is true? a. Both Robert and Jack will be able to provide very accurate descriptions of the thief b. Jack is most likely to remember more accurate details of the event c. Robert is most likely to remember more accurate details of the event d. Jack is more suggestible to influence than Robert Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 76. By which age has it been demonstrated that infants have some sensitivity to numbers? a. Shortly after birth b. 3 months c. 5 months d. 12 months Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Infants’ Response to Number Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

77. In a series of studies, Wynn used Baillargeon’s possible event-impossible event procedure to study 5-month-old infants’ understanding simple addition and subtraction. Infants’ reactions: a. did not differ between possible and impossible event situations. b. reflected surprise when possible events were depicted, but not when impossible events were depicted. c. suggested that the infants have rudimentary arithmetic ability, but other interpretations of the findings are possible. d. were difficult to interpret, because object permanence was a necessary skill that the 5-montholds did not have yet. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Infants’ Response to Number Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 78. Gallistel and Gelman (1992) have proposed that number skills in infants are due to the existence of a. a preverbal counting mechanism that represents quantity. b. preverbal arithmetic skills of subtraction and addition. c. an unsuitable methodology that has led to the misinterpretation of simple perceptual preferences. d. improvements in long-term memory. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Infants’ Response to Number Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 79. Although many accept that 5-month-old infants have basic number concepts, children do not have an understanding of the underlying number principles until at least a. 6 months of age. b. 12 months of age. c. 18 months of age. d. 36 months of age. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Preschool Developments Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium

80. Bailey, a 4-year-old, always recites numbers in the same order (“1, 3, 4, ….). According to Gelman and Gallistel, which of the following counting principle is applied? a. one-one b. stable-order c. abstraction d. All of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Preschool Developments Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 81. Siegler and colleagues studied children’s use of strategies on arithmetic problems and found that a. children of a given age do not vary much in the strategies they prefer and the skill with which they execute those strategies. b. children at any point in development may employ a number of different strategies, sometimes using one approach and at other times using another. c. with development, there is a progression from less efficient to more efficient strategies, but this is the exception rather than the rule. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 82. Which of the following depicts the min strategy for solving 3 + 5? a. Put up three fingers on one hand and five fingers on the other hand, and count 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. b. Count up from the larger addend (which is 5); say 6, 7, 8. c. Say 3 + 5 is like 4 + 4, so it’s 8. d. Say the answer 8 and explain it by saying, I just knew it was 8. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy

83. Siegler’s overlapping waves model represents the fact that a. different children, each of whom represents a wave, have different but overlapping waves of ability. b. more than one strategy is available to solve arithmetic problems, and each strategy is used to a different degree at different points in one’s development. c. arithmetic ability is distributed like wave, and different age groups will have different crests. d. older children may ebb and flow in their use of higher level arithmetic strategies. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 84. Most children have some grasp of the inversion principle by the time they reach the a. end of infancy. b. beginning of the preoperational period. c. end of the preschool period. d. end of childhood, upon reaching 18. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 85. To determine that a child can apply the inversion principle when solving arithmetic problems, Jeffrey Bisanz a. used the Baillargeon possible event-impossible event procedure. b. compared the length of time it took to solve inversion and standard arithmetic questions. c. had children solve arithmetic problems using blocks rather than numerical symbols. d. allowed children to use blocks of various sizes. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 86. Which response pattern should be evident in the child who uses inversion to solve applicable arithmetic problems? a. The child states out loud that she/he is applying the principle of inversion. b. Greater accuracy on the standard problems

c. A consistency in the application of a rule across problems d. Greater accuracy on the inversion problems Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 87. Jeffrey Bisanz found that, compared to their performances on standard arithmetic problems, preschoolers were when solving the inversion problems. a. faster b. three times less accurate c. only accurate d. slower Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Topic: Arithmetic Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 88. The dimension-change card sort is used to study a. arithmetic ability. b. stereotyped sex differences. c. rule-based reasoning. d. attention. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Topic: The Development of Rules Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 89. Research using the dimension-change card sort has demonstrated that a. 3-year-olds are capable of rule-based problem solving, but with some definite limitations. b. 3-year-olds have a difficult time on this task if the rules are changed the second time the game is played. c. 3-year-olds do not embed simple rules within a more complex rule system. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied.

Topic: The Development of Rules Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 90. Three-year-olds were shown pictures of blue cars, red cars, blue flowers, and red flowers. They were asked to sort the pictures into a stack of blue things and a stack of red things. They performed very well on this task. They were then asked to sort the same cards again, but this time they should make a stack of cars and a stack of flowers. What is the likely outcome? a. Three-year-olds should be able to successfully sort the cards into a stack of cars and a stack of flowers. b. Because of their limited conceptual ability, three-year-olds will not be able to distinguish between cars and flowers, and both stacks will be a mixture of cars and flowers. c. Three-year-olds will probably repeat what they did before; they will sort the cards into blue things and red things. d. Three-year-olds will ignore the directions and will make four stacks (blue cars, red cars, blue flowers, and red flowers). Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Topic: The Development of Rules Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 91. Analogical reasoning a. is a formal operational skill that does not appear until adolescence. b. has been demonstrated in infants less than 18-months-old. c. is also known as hypothetical-deductive reasoning. d. must involve verbal material. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Topic: Reasoning by Analogy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 92. Researchers have shown that most (60% of) infants can engage in analogical reasoning by the time they are a. 5-6 months-old. b. 11-13 months-old. c. 12-18 months-old. d. 24-months-old. Answer: b

Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Topic: Reasoning by Analogy Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 93. Three-year-old children heard a story about a genie who needed to transport some jewels over a wall and into a bottle. The genie solved her problem by rolling up a piece of poster board so that it formed a tube, placing one end of the tube in the mouth of the bottle, and rolling the jewels through the tube and into the bottle. After hearing this story, three-year-old children a. successfully generalized what they learned in this story to a similar story. b. were able to suggest a similar solution to the Easter Bunny, who needed to transport his eggs across a river and into a basket on the other side. c. showed that they could solve analogies. d. were not able to suggest a similar solution to the Easter Bunny, who needed to transport his eggs across a river and into a basket on the other side. However, five-year-olds were able to suggest a similar solution to the Easter Bunny. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Topic: Reasoning by Analogy Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 94. The mechanism of cognitive change that is most closely related to attention is a. encoding. b. automatization. c. strategy construction. d. strategy selection. Answer: a Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Cognitive Change Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 95. The increase in the efficiency with which cognitive operations are executed as a result of practice is known as a. strategy construction. b. encoding. c. activation. d. automatization. Answer: d

Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Cognitive Change Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 96. The mechanism of cognitive change that is most closely related to practice is a. strategy construction. b. encoding. c. activation. d. automatization. Answer: d Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Cognitive Change Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 97. The mechanisms of cognitive change favoured by information processing theorists include a. equilibration and adaptation. b. automatization, strategy construction, and strategy selection. c. assimilation and accommodation. d. imitation, modelling, and reinforcement. Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Cognitive Change Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 98. Jennifer has to remember the grocery list which includes salt, sugar, cumin, milk, yogurt, cheese, apples, celery, and carrots. She remembers condiments, dairy, and produce. This example best illustrates a. automatization. b. encoding. c. strategy construction. d. strategy selection. Answer: c Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Cognitive Change Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

99. Out of the three major approaches to cognitive development, which is the approach that has been most successful at constructing precise models of the cognitive change process? a. Piagetian b. Information processing c. Cognitive testing d. Ethological Answer: b Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Chapter Conclusion Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Essay Questions 100. Compare and contrast the flow chart model, the computer simulation model, and connectionism. Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: The Nature of the Information-Processing Approach Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 101. Compare and contrast the information processing approach with Piaget’s approach. Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: Comparisons with Piaget Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 102. Compare and contrast the information processing approach with the environmental-learning approach. Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied.

Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Discussed throughout chapter Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 103. Why is it difficult to assess recall memory during infancy? Discuss the research that suggests that infants under two years of age do have recall memory. Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Topic: Recall Memory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 104. What are three memory strategies that can be used when recalling a list of items drawn from different categories? What are possible developmental differences in the use of these strategies? Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Strategies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 105. Discuss constructive memory and how it has been assessed. How does what we know about constructive memory have relevance to eyewitness memory? Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: The Role of Knowledge Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 106. Describe how strategy use, metamemory, and knowledge all contribute to developmental improvements in memory. Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: Memory in Older Children Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Hard 107. Discuss the general principles of change proposed by information processing theorists? How do these principles compare to Piaget’s description of cognitive change. Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing.

Learning Objective: 9.2 Explain the information-processing model of memory, and trace developmental changes in the kinds of memory. Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Learning Objective: 9.4 Describe the development in the understanding of number from infancy to school age. Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Discussed throughout chapter Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Hard 108. What is the microgenetic technique, and how does it differ from the longitudinal approach? What five types of information are provided by the microgenetic technique? Learning Objective: 9.1 Define the information-processing approach and describe three methods of studying information processing. Topic: Microgenetic Studies Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 109. Discuss what is meant by encoding, automatization, strategy construction, and strategy selection. Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe the mechanisms that have been proposed to account for cognitive change. Topic: Cognitive Change Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 110. How accurate is child eyewitness testimony? Support your answer with recent research findings and how it can be improved. Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe how memory develops in older children and the tools that contribute to this development of memory. Topic: Children’s Eyewitness Testimony Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 111. Discuss at least 2 different methods of examining executive functions and discuss why it is important to test such functions. What is the everyday application of these functions? Learning Objective: 9.5 Analyze the abilities and skills children use to solve problems, and give examples of how research on problem solving can be applied. Topic: Problem solving

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Hard Chapter 11 Language Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. The argument that language is the product of nature alone is refuted by the following. a. Humans make and understand an infinite number of statements. b. Thousands of languages exist. c. Different languages use different grammatical structures. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Introduction Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 2. According to the textbook, how does human language differ from animal communication? a. Humans can produce and recognize an infinite number of sentences. b. Human language has an inborn component and animal communication does not. c. Human language learning by young children is a long and difficult process. d. Human language consists of one tongue used by all members of the species. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Introduction Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 3. In his book, Verbal Behavior, B. F. Skinner argued that language development can be explained by a. operant conditioning. b. biological maturation. c. innate structures. d. social learning theory. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 4. The first significant challenge to Skinner's theory of verbal learning came from a. Jerome Bruner.

b. Daniel Slobin. c. Noam Chomsky. d. Albert Bandura. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 5. Chomsky’s explanation of language development emphasized a. learning and conditioning principles. b. innate structures and biological mechanisms. c. children’s cognitive abilities. d. the language support system provided by parents. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 6. The fact that young children acquire language so quickly and easily supports the idea that language a. is acquired by means of rewards and punishment. b. depends on cognitive development. c. is acquired through imitation and modeling. d. has a biological basis. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 7. In Chomsky's original model, the hypothetical brain structure that analyzes speech input is known as the a. surface structure. b. deep structure. c. language acquisition device. d. transformational grammar. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy

8. In Chomsky's model, transformational grammar refers to the a. set of rules that translate a language's surface structure to a deep structure the child can innately understand. b. way words and phrases are arranged in spoken languages. c. inborn knowledge humans have about the properties of language. d. brain structure responsible for analyzing speech input. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 9. The fact that deaf children not exposed to either spoken or signed languages still develop “home signs” supports the approach to language development. a. nativist b. environment/learning c. cognitive-developmental d. sociocultural Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 10. In a paper that Noah Chomsky published with Marc Hauser and Tecumseh Fitch in 2002, they proposed that a. the processes that support language are unique to the human species b. most language abilities involve cognitive and perceptual mechanisms shared with other species. c. most language abilities involve cognitive and perceptual mechanisms shared with other psychological abilities. d. both b and c Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Nativist Theory Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard 11. The belief that environmental factors are important in normal language acquisition is supported by evidence that a. adults and older children adopt a clear and simple language style termed infant-directed speech.

b. adults never respond to the grammatical accuracy of a child's statement. c. most of children's acquisition of grammar can be traced to exact copying of statements they have heard others say. d. milestones in vocabulary development are linked to neurological development. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 12. Kyle was born deaf to hearing parents. Neither of his parents learned sign language. He developed a few “home signs”, but actually learned sign language in his educational setting. Given this information, what can be expected of Kyle’s language development? a. He will learn sign language very easily in his educational setting b. He will perform less well in sign language measures than if he had learned sign language earlier c. Since language development is innate, he will have developed his own sign language d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 13. Infant-directed speech consists of a. productivity in language. b. a type of deep structure. c. familiar words, repetition, and short, simple sentences. d. specific training in the grammatical rules of language. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 14. Nativists have argued that parents do not specifically train children in the rules of language. Recent analyses of parent-child interaction indicate that a. it is true that parents do not respond to the grammatical accuracy of their children’s speech. b. parents respond to the grammatical accuracy of their children’s speech when parents are aware that other adults are listening. c. parents respond to the grammatical accuracy of their children’s speech by providing their children with many forms of feedback and instruction. d. parents respond to the grammatical accuracy of their children’s speech, but parents provide very limited forms of feedback and instruction.

Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 15. Use of words such as depend on an understanding of object permanence. a. “all gone.” b. “mama.” c. “more.” d. “nose.” Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Cognitive-Developmental Models Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 16. One cognitive-developmental approach to language development is based on a belief that children use as a means of extracting the rules of language from the speech that they hear. a. attentional strategies b. a language acquisition device c. a language acquisition support system d. early cognitive concepts Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Cognitive-Developmental Models Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 17. Some cognitive-developmental approaches to language development have relied on . a. attentional strategies b. artificial neural networks c. a language acquisition device d. a language acquisition support system Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Cognitive-Developmental Models Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium

18. The model of language development that emphasizes the role of social interaction in language learning is the a. psycholinguistic.model. b. cognitive-developmental model. c. learnability theory. d. sociocultural theory. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 19. According to Jerome Bruner, structured interactive routines such as peek-a-boo and pat-acake aid in language acquisition by allowing the child to a. learn specific language elements by memorizing words and actions in very restricted contexts. b. receive systematic reinforcement for language production. c. practice articulation. d. use words and actions flexibly in constantly changing, unpredictable contexts. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 20. The phrase language acquisition support system (LASS) refers to the a. hypothesized brain mechanism responsible for analyzing speech input. b. variety of neurological, auditory, and vocalization structures responsible for the production and comprehension of language. c. way in which nonverbal modes of communication assist in the production and comprehension of language. d. structured opportunities for language learning offered to infants in their social environments. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 21. Which illustrates Bruner's concept of a format? a. A mother humming a lullaby to her infant b. A mother and baby singing and acting out the words to “Itsy Bitsy Spider” c. Parents engaged in conversation over dinner with the baby seated nearby in a highchair d. A mother using infant-directed speech Answer: b

Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 22. Sociocultural theorists concern themselves with the functional basis for language because a. language helps them achieve goals by communicating with others. b. of the power of the LAD. c. of an innate tendency to construct general rules from concrete examples. d. parents and other adults force them to. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 23. Which of the following is not cited in your text as an example of scaffolding used within formatted interactions (the central components of the LASS) between parent and child? a. Simplified speech b. Punishment for incorrect or inaccurate statements c. Repetition d. Correcting the child’s incorrect or inaccurate statements Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 24. Rachel is starting to use the “r” sound in her speech. She is a. just starting to speak, the “r” sound appears in the first three sounds b. has been speaking for a while, the “r” sound appears later than others c. probably using sentences d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Speech Perception Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 25. Phonology refers to a. the study of speech sounds. b. the ability to detect different phonemes in speech.

c. the social uses of language. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Speech Perception Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 26. The term phoneme refers to a. contrasts of speech sounds that change the meaning of what is heard. b. the basic unit of meaning in a language. c. the different kinds of sounds that can be articulated by our oral musculature. d. prefixes and suffixes that, when added to words, change their meaning. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Speech Perception Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 27. What is the impact of experience on categorical perception? a. Categorical perception is not present in young infants and appears to be entirely dependent upon experience. b. Infants possess an innate ability to discriminate a wide range of sound contrasts, but the environment quickly begins to fine-tune the discriminations, eliminating those that will not be needed and improving the child's ability to use others. c. Categorical perception is present in newborns, and while infants never lose the ability to discriminate phonemic boundaries, they become more skilled at detecting subtle differences between categories based on their experience of hearing a language being spoken. d. Categorical perception is present in newborns and is not modifiable by experience. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Speech Perception Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 28. Japanese adults have difficulty distinguishing between the sounds r and l. How skilled are Japanese infants at discriminating between the two sounds? a. Japanese 6-month-olds exposed to only the Japanese language have as much difficulty discriminating between the sounds r and l as Japanese adults.

b. Japanese 6-month-olds have as much difficulty discriminating between the sounds r and l as Japanese adults, regardless of whether they have been exposed to languages that include the r/l contrast or not. c. Japanese infants are able to discriminate between the sounds r and l as easily as American infants exposed to languages where the r/l contrast is present. d. Neither Japanese infants nor American infants are skilled at discriminating between the sounds r and l. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Speech Perception Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 29. Nine-month-old American babies exposed to English a. prefer listening to words that are accented (stressed) on the first syllable. b. can discriminate between the r sound and the l sound. c. can demonstrate categorical perception. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Listening Preferences Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 30. The fact that infants narrow their phoneme categories around the same time as they begin learning words means that they will a. immediately apply their phoneme perception skills to early word learning. b. not confuse similar sounding words. c. the two skills are caused by one underlying mechanism. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Listening Preferences Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard 31. Five-month-old Reza prefers a. hearing his mother speaking rather than his mother humming. b. hearing his mother use infant-directed speech. c. his mother's voice over another woman's voice.

d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Listening Preferences Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 32. Carrie’s mother speaks both English and French. When she was pregnant with Carrie, she used both languages on a daily basis. Which statement is true? a. Carrie will develop a preference for listening to English b. Carrie will develop a preference for listening to French c. Carrie will develop a preference for both English and French d. Carrie will develop a preference for novel languages, such as Russian Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Listening Preferences Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 33. Deaf mothers of deaf infants a. use an infant-directed speech form of sign language. b. slow down but do not exaggerate their gestures. c. find that their babies are less attentive to an infant-directed speech form of sign language than adult-directed signing. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Listening Preferences Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 34. The one-syllable vowel sounds such as "ah" that babies begin to produce around 2 months of age are known as a. cooing. b. babbling. c. holophrases. d. telegraphic speech. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning.

Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 35. When does reduplicated babbling occur? a. Before cooing b. Around 6 months of age c. Before categorical perception d. After holophrastic speech Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 36. What is the babbling drift hypothesis? a. The more one moves up the evolutionary ladder, the more closely the sounds of animal communication resemble those of human spoken language. b. The sounds produced by babbling infants around the world appear to be drifting toward one universal “language” of babbling. c. The form of an infant's babbling changes steadily over time and eventually resembles the language the infant hears and soon will speak. d. While the sounds produced in early babbling are primarily vowel sounds, the sounds of later babbling include both consonants and vowels. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 37. Which of the following statements about babbling is TRUE? a. The babbling of infants from different language environments is very similar. b. The form of a baby's babbling gradually evolves to resemble the language the baby hears. c. The babbling of deaf babies is different from that of babies who are not hearing impaired. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium

38. At about months of age, the infant strings together several identical sounds such as “bababa.” This is . a. 6; reduplicated babbling b. 2; cooing c. 12; babbling drift d. 18; gestural babbling Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 39. Kylie has started saying “momomo” when she sees Elmo on the television. This type of speech is referred to as a. Cooing b. Reduplicated cooing c. Holophrase d. Duplicate phonology Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 40. How does hearing speech impact on early language development? a. Hearing speech during the babbling stage may be necessary for development of more complex forms of babbling. b. Hearing speech is necessary for the development of cooing. c. Hearing speech is necessary for any babbling to develop. d. Hearing speech is necessary for gestural babbling. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 41. At what point in early language development are the language skills of deaf babies likely to differ from those of their peers who can hear? a. During the stage of cooing

b. During the early stages of babbling c. Toward the end of the babbling stage d. Once children begin to produce their first “real” words Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 42. Hearing babies of deaf parents babble gesturally, demonstrating that a. babbling has a strong biological basis because infants appear to be born with the ability to babble either auditorally or visually. b. exposure to sign language is key to gestural babbling. c. parents are teaching their children to babble. d. both a and b. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Early Sounds Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard 43. Babies first begin to use gestures to communicate to others the desire to play a game or fetch an object at around a. 4 months of age. b. 6 months of age. c. 8 months of age. d. 12 months of age. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Gestures and Non-Verbal Responses Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 44. How would an 8-month-old infant most likely inform her mother that she is interested in playing with a toy placed out of her reach? a. By reaching for the toy while looking back and forth between the toy and the mother b. By calling out her name for the toy (e.g., “ba” for ball) c. By calling out “mama mama” d. An 8-month-old infant is not capable of communicating such intentions. Answer: a

Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Gestures and Non-Verbal Responses Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 45. Babies first develop the ability to use nonverbal gestures a. for communicating requests. b. to show others objects that they want acknowledged. c. as a form of referential communication. d. when interacting with agemates. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Gestures and Non-Verbal Responses Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 46. Gestures are used for a. making requests. b. referential communication. c. symbolizing. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Gestures and Non-Verbal Responses Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 47. Which of the following is true about the development of gestures in deaf children? a. Deaf children do not develop gestures. b. Some deaf children develop a complex gestural system with many of the properties of spoken language. c. Deaf children need to be exposed to sign language to develop a system of gestures. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Gestures and Non-Verbal Responses Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard

48. Which of the following is true concerning infants’ utterance of their first word? a. Out of the blue, around their first birthdays, children will simply utter a word such as “juice.” b. As soon as infants utter their first word, all other forms of communication such as gesturing stop. c. An infant’s first word is preceded by frequent sound combinations (e.g., dee-dee). d. Infants’ first words do not build on earlier babbling skills. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Transition to Words Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 49. The study of the meanings conveyed in language is called a. semantics. b. pragmatics. c. syntax. d. phonetics. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Semantics Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 50. A researcher interested in the process by which children acquire words to refer to states of happiness, sadness, illness, and health would be said to be studying a. semantic development. b. pragmatics. c. phonemics. d. the naming explosion. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Semantics Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 51. At around 18 months of age, a. babies' babbling acquires a “speechy” quality. b. children understand the meaning of about 500 words. c. babies begin to label everything in sight. d. cooing disappears.

Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 52. The naming explosion that occurs in the second year of life is believed to primarily reflect a. maturation of the speech apparatus. b. the child’s emerging ability to categorize objects. c. increased attentional capacity reflected in the ability to sit quietly and look at and talk about picture books. d. understanding that objects continue to exist even if out of sight. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 53. Research on children’s early lexical development suggests that a. children produce many more words than they understand. b. children typically comprehend words before they produce them. c. verbs are spoken and understood earlier than nouns. d. the naming explosion occurs at 12 months of age. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 54. At 20 months, Franklin’s lexicon consists mainly of words such as “bye-bye”, “peek-a-boo,” “pat-a-cake,” and “up.” Franklin’s style of language acquisition is best described as a. expressive. b. referential. c. lexical. d. elaborative. Answer: a L.O. : 11.3 Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

55. At 24 months, Carter’s lexicon includes the names of all the Muppets on Sesame Street, as well as clearly articulated labels for many of her father's tools including “hammer,” “drill,” and “saw.” Carter's lexical style is best described as a. elaborative. b. expressive. c. semantic. d. referential. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 56. Connor is 18 months and is following a typical developmental pattern in all areas. It is expected that his lexicon consists of words and that he can understand words. a. 200, 100 b. 100, 200 c. 500, 200 d. 200, 500 Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 57. Children who have a referential style of vocabulary development are most likely to be a. first borns. b. males. c. from working-class families. d children who play with toy vehicles. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 58. Matthew expresses himself with phrases such as “Lemme see”, “Ooh, what that”. This is referred to as the style. a. cultural style

b. lexicon style c. referential style d. expressive style Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 59. Gender differences in children’s language acquisition most strongly support the idea that language development is influenced by a. only inborn, biological factors. b. characteristics of the parents that elicit reactions on the part of their children. c. the language environments to which they are exposed. d. right brain dominance. Answer: c L.O. : 11.3 Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 60. Cultural differences in children’s language acquisition most strongly support the idea that language development is influenced by a. only inborn, biological factors. b. characteristics of the parents that elicit reactions on the part of their children. c. the language environments to which the children are exposed. d. right brain dominance. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 61. Early language errors in which children use labels they already know for things whose names they do not yet know are known as a. overextensions. b. fast-mappings. c. overregularizations. d. lexical contrast. Answer: a

Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 62. Rebecca refers to all large vehicles including fire trucks, ambulances, and bulldozers as “trucks.” This illustrates the phenomenon known as a. fast-mappings. b. overregularization. c. underextension. d. overextension. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 63. Overextensions probably occur because a. children do not notice differences between objects they refer to with the same name. b. children's definitions of words are too narrow. c. children lack the vocabulary necessary to correctly name the item. d. children produce more than they comprehend. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 64. Jack refers to all creamy foods that are served in a bowl and eaten with a spoon such as yogurt, pudding, and oatmeal as “pudding.” This most likely means that a. Jack cannot yet produce the words “yogurt” and “oatmeal,” although he may comprehend them. b. Jack cannot perceive the difference between pudding, yogurt, and oatmeal. c. if his mother presented him with a bowl of oatmeal and a bowl of pudding, they would taste the same to him. d. Jack underextends the word “pudding.” Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Hard 65. Japanese speakers often say “peh” when they spit something out. Jeffrey, who is JapaneseAmerican, invented the phrase “chew-chew-peh” to refer to bubble gum. This is a. expressive style. b. coining. c. underextension. d. overextension. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 66. The study of overextensions, underextensions, and coining would be most interesting to someone studying a. pragmatics. b. semantics. c. grammar. d. syntax. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 67. You find it odd that your young nephew is constantly labelling the family dog “doggie” yet doesn’t seem to apply this same word to dogs he meets elsewhere. This is an example of a(n) a. overextension. b. holophrase. c. constraint. d. underextension. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 68. The best description of a holophrase is

a. one word used to convey more meaning than that one word. b. one word that is comprehended by only those familiar to the child. c. a phrase that represents holistic speech. d. equivalent to telegraphic speech. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 69. Which best illustrates the concept of a holophrase? a. “Billy go ’rade.” b. “Look at the mans.” c. “Ball.” d. “All-gone cookie.” Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 70. Rebecca says “boots” when she wants her mother to put her boots on for her. This is referred to as a. Overextension b. Underextension c. Coining d. Holophrase Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Early Lexical Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 71. What might be the process by which a child, who does not yet know the meaning of the word “spatula,” successfully infers the meaning of the sentence “give me the spatula”? a. Syntactic bootstrapping b. Semantic bootstrapping c. Fast-mapping d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a

Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 72. Victor is 20 months old. When he is done drinking his milk, he tells his mother “All done bottle”. What type of function would this first-word combination likely serve? a. Nomination b. Recurrence c. Non-existence d. Agent-action Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 73. Syntactic bootstrapping refers to a. a child’s use of syntactic cues to infer the meanings of words. b. a child’s use of syntactic cues to infer the meaning of holophrases. c. a child’s use of word meaning to learn syntax. d. a child’s use of semantics to learn grammar. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 74. The fact that very young children can acquire new words such as “kowabunga” after one demonstration is best explained by the process of a. overextension. b. semantic feature comparison. c. fast-mapping. d. scaffolding. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

75. According to lexical contrast theory, a child who knows what an ocean is will likely interpret the word “sea” to a. be synonymous with ocean. b. have a different meaning than ocean. c. to be a special kind of ocean. d. have a broader meaning than ocean. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 76. The term “constraints” in the context of word learning refers to the fact that children a. quickly map the meaning of a word onto an object. b. automatically make certain assumptions about what a word means. c. tend to underextend the meaning of words. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 77. According to the principle of mutual exclusivity, children are most likely to associate a new word with a. a familiar object. b. objects for which they already possess many labels. c. an unknown object. d. old words that sound the same. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 78. Research by Xu, Cote, and Baker (2005) have shown that the principle of mutual exclusivity applies to a. all languages studied. b. most languages studied.

c. 12-month-old infants when first learning words. d. 18-month-old infants making their first word combinations. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 79. As children get older, a. parents play the “Original Word Game” more. b. the overall percentage of object words in one's lexicon increases. c. word coining decreases as their lexicon grows. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 80. The fact that young children do not tend to label the family dog using multiple terms such as “animal,” “beagle,” and “mammal” illustrates the concept of a. mutual exclusivity. b. fast-mapping. c. syntactic bootstrapping. d. holophrase. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 81. The “Original Word Game” is a process that involves parents’ use of a. telegraphic speech. b. infant-directed speech. c. modeling. d. clarification questions. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 82. Karine was raised in a bilingual home and both of her parents are bilingual. We should expect that a. She should start using phonemes at a slightly later age b. She should start using phonemes at a slightly younger age c. She will present a developmental delay d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Topic: Mechanisms of Semantic Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 83. The grammar of most languages involves three principal devices. Which is NOT one of the three? a. Meaning b. Word order c. Inflections d. Intonation Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Grammar Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 84. Researchers interested in the structural properties of language—including syntax, intonation, and inflection—study a. phonemes. b. pragmatics. c. semantics. d. grammar. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Grammar Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 85. Which is NOT one of the principle devices involved in grammar?

a. Syntax b. Inflection c. Intonation d. Phonetics Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Grammar Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 86. The child’s phrase “Tana ride horsey” illustrates a. a holophrase. b. telegraphic speech. c. scaffolding. d. overregularization. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Development of Grammar Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 87. Telegraphic speech refers to the following: a. Children’s omission of nonessential words during early language learning b. The two-word combinations that children produce c. Speech that only includes nouns d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Development of Grammar Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 88. The statement “I sayed I am not hungry!” illustrates the phenomenon known as a. overregularization. b. underextension. c. telegraphic speech. d. overextension. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically.

Topic: Development of Grammar Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 89. The coined term, “yesternight,” created by a young child in analogy with “yesterday,” illustrates the fact that a. children imitate what they hear. b. adults model language. c. overregularization occurs in semantic development. d. coined terms are usually illogically-based. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Development of Grammar Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 90. Jean Berko’s discovery that young children correctly add inflectional endings to nonsense words (e.g., wugs as the plural form of wug) suggests that children a. acquire general rules that they then apply to even unfamiliar words. b. acquire grammar primarily through imitation and reinforcement. c. correctly apply inflectional rules to unfamiliar words before familiar words. d. invent grammars that seem to fit best with unfamiliar input. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Development of Grammar Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 91. You are interested in your 5-year-old nephew’s language development and so decide to give him a little test. You show him one object and say “This is a wug.” Next, you show him three of these same objects and say “What are these?” You would expect him to say a. “I don’t know.” b. “wug.” c. “wugs.” d. “wuggers.” Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Development of Grammar Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy

92. Daneman and Case (1981) taught children nonsense names of animals such as “wugs” and fips.” They also taught the children verbs (“pum” and “bem”) and forms of the verbs that indicated if the animals were observed by one (i.e., add the suffix “abo”) or a group of animals (i.e., add the prefix “aki”). In this study a. “pumabo” was easier to learn than “akipum.” b. prefixes were easier to learn than suffixes. c. Slobin’s operating principle of “paying attention to the ends of words” was supported. d. children confused the nouns and verbs and could not distinguish prefixes from suffixes. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 93. A researcher studying the competition model of acquiring grammar would be interested in a. language-making capacity. b. cues that are most available, reliable, and in conflict with one another. c. universal structures such as word order that are common to all languages. d. identification of discrete rules for grammar acquisition. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard 94. Adults using infant-directed speech tend to a. distort pronunciation. b. use correct grammar. c. avoid repetition. d. focus on distant or abstract events. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 95. Speech adjustments adults make when talking to young children include all of the following EXCEPT a. clear pronunciation.

b. short sentences. c. repetition. d. overregularization. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 96. The simplified speech known as “infant-directed speech” is used by a. mothers only. b. adults but not children. c. mothers and others. d. female speakers only. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 97. How are the speech adjustments characteristic of infant-directed speech related to children's grammatical development? a. The more skilled a mother is at using infant-directed speech, the more advanced are her infant's grammatical skills. b. The more infant-directed speech a mother addresses to her child, the less advanced her child's grammatical skills are likely to be. c. Infant-directed speech is likely to harm a child's grammatical development unless the child receives other kinds of language input to compensate. d. Researchers have yet to establish a strong link between infant-directed speech and children's grammatical development. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 98. Studies of the role of exact imitation in children's language development suggest that a. the proportion of exact and immediate imitation increases over the first years of language learning. b. children's statements are usually longer and more complex than the speech they are imitating.

c. most children display very little exact imitation. d. imitation does not occur. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 99. Which is NOT true about the way that parents typically respond to the ungrammatical statements of their children? a. Parents rarely point out the grammatical errors. b. Parents respond to the content of the statement rather than the grammar. c. Parents often repeat the child's statement in a corrected or more complete form in response. d. Parents provide a lot of negative evidence but provide no positive evidence. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 100. Repetitions of speech in which errors are corrected and statements are elaborated are known as a. expansions. b. recasts. c. clarification questions. d. infant-directed speech. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 101. A mother is most likely to provide feedback to her 3-year-old’s remark “I feeded Wover!” with a. “Fed. I fed Rover.” b. “Yes! You feeded Rover!” c. “Yes, you fed Rover her milk bone.” d. “Then what did you do?” Answer: c

Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Topic: Mechanisms of Grammar Acquisition Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 102. Pragmatics is the study of the a. social uses of language. b. structural uses of language. c. meaning in language. d. speech sounds in language. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Pragmatics Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 103. Researchers use the term speech acts to refer to a. the basic unit of meaning in a language. b. the variations in sound that transmit meaning in a language. c. any use of speech including book reading, labelling, and conversation. d. speech that serves a social function such as requesting. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Speech Acts Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 104. Which illustrates a speech act? a. A baby is playing peek-a-boo with her daddy and says “more.” b. An infant is lying in her crib softly saying “bababa...bababa.” c. A toddler is looking at a picture book alone, labelling all familiar objects. d. A preschooler “reads” a familiar story to himself. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Speech Acts Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 105. Marla knew that her son knew the “answer obviousness” rule when he

a. gave her the salt after she said, “Can you pass the salt?” b. answered “yes” after she said, “Did you do your homework?” c. described the weather after she said, “Is it going to rain today?” d. said “no” when she asked, “Can you lift 2,000 pounds?” Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Discourse Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 106. The “answer obviousness” rule is not apparent in children until a. after the naming explosion has occurred. b. after the discourse rule of turn taking is used. c. after a child displays telegraphic speech. d. All of the alternatives are correct Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Discourse Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 107. A researcher interested in discourse studies primarily a. the acquisition of grammar. b. conversation. c. vocabulary development. d. written text. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Discourse Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 108. In order to engage in proper discourse, children must a. understand rules of turn-taking. b. learn to repeat what has just been said. c. be able to use language free of articulation and grammatical errors. d. be able to use language that is free of grammatical errors. Answer: a Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use.

Topic: Discourse Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 109. The ability to accurately describe how to do a homework assignment to a friend over the phone requires a. semantic feature analysis. b. fast-mapping. c. scaffolding. d. social referential communication. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Social Referential Communication Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 110. The fact that children as young as 4 simplify their speech when addressing toddlers and infants suggests that even 4-year-olds display a. a form of infant-directed speech. b. some sensitivity to the needs of their listeners. c. social referential communication. d. All of the alternatives are correct Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Social Referential Communication Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 111. Which of the following challenges the “single-system hypothesis” of language learning in bilingual children? a. Bilingual children tend to combine forms from the two languages within the same utterance. b. Bilingual children acquire both languages more slowly than peers who are only learning one language. c. Babies in bilingual homes can differentiate sounds from the two languages to which they are exposed. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Social Referential Communication Type: Factual

Difficulty: Medium 112. Studies of bilingual children suggest that a. bilingualism leads to delayed language development and related cognitive deficits. b. children who learn two languages simultaneously cannot perceptually separate the two languages. c. efforts to teach non-native English speakers in both English and their native language are seriously misguided. d. young children can apparently separate and acquire two languages without significant problems. Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Social Referential Communication Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 113. Which of the following is false about children who have participated in French immersion? a. They show excellent French comprehension skills. b. They show lags throughout the school years in their English reading and spelling skills. c. They report more favourable views of French Canadian language and culture. d. Even if they start immersion later, it is nevertheless beneficial to them. Answer: b Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Social Referential Communication Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 114. Carl has been diagnosed with Williams syndrome. Which of the following would not be a symptom of this syndrome? a. Below average IQ b. Difficulty maintaining attention c. Difficulty with spatial and numerical problem solving d. Hallucinations Answer: d Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: On the Cutting Edge 11.1 Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 115. Williams syndrome has provided support for Chomsky’s nativistic theory, because

a. those with this diagnosis learn language via operant conditioning. b. it is not a genetic disorder. c. those with the disorder have intact language abilities despite intellectual deficits. d. those with the disorder have IQs below those of individuals with Down syndrome. Answer: c Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: On the Cutting Edge 11.1 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium Essay Questions 116. Trace the major milestones in language development in the first two years of life. Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: The Preverbal Period Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 117. Discuss at least three ways in which environmental influences have been shown to impact early language development. What evidence is there for a special inborn language learning device? Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: The Preverbal Period Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 118. Imagine that you had the opportunity to create the “perfect” environment for learning language. What would this environment look like? Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Based on discussion throughout the whole chapter Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium

119. Compare and contrast the nativist theory of language development with the environmental/ learning approach of language development. Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Topic: Theories of Language Development Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 120. Discuss ways that adults adapt their behaviours to meet the communication needs of young listeners. Include examples of feedback provided and the use of infant-directed speech. Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Topic: Listening Preferences Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 121. Discuss why Williams Syndrome is of interest to students of language. What are some of the differences in language development between a child with Williams Syndrome and a typically-developing child? Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: On the Cutting Edge 11.1 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 122. Describe the two theories aimed at explaining how bilingual children learn two different languages. Which theory does the evidence to date support? Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Application 11.1 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 123. If you had a child, would you raise him/her in a bilingual setting if you had the possibility? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of such an environment. Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically.

Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Based on discussion throughout the whole chapter Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 124. Why are French immersion schools gaining in popularity in Canada? Support your answer with recent research as well as language development concepts. Learning Objective: 11.1 Compare and contrast four major theories of language development. Learning Objective: 11.2 Trace the developments in the first year of life that establish the preverbal basis for language learning. Learning Objective: 11.3 Describe the processes by which children first use words and develop vocabulary. Learning Objective: 11.4 Describe the processes by which children learn to communicate grammatically. Learning Objective: 11.5 Describe the means by which children learn the pragmatics of language use. Topic: Based on discussion throughout the whole chapter Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium Chapter 12 Early Social and Emotional Development Multiple Choice Questions 1. Psychologists have come to realize that human social behaviour is transactional, meaning that a. each person’s actions both affect and are affected by the actions of others. b. the evolutionary context of social exchanges must be considered. c. the learning histories of social exchanges must be considered. d. the extent to which individual cognitive processes affect social exchanges must be considered. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Introduction Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 2. Social development during the first 2 years of life is distinctive in that a. social relationships in infancy are merely ones of convenience and do not include an emotional component. b. infants have a much broader social world than older children and adults. c. social relationships take much longer to be established in infancy than they do later in life.

d. the social relationships formed in infancy tend to have greater impact on a child's social and personality development than relationships formed later in life. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Introduction Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 3. Evolutionary perspectives on early social development in humans are based largely on the writings of a. Albert Bandura. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Harry Harlow. d. John Bowlby. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Evolutionary and Biological Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 4. The most effective means babies use to draw their mother near is a. crying. b. sleeping. c. laughing and smiling. d. pretending to be ill or in danger. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Evolutionary and Biological Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 5. In the first 6 months of life, babies encourage their mothers to provide adequate caregiving by a. being incredibly cute and fun. b. making caregiving pleasant for the mother. c. reducing signs of distress in response to attention. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Evolutionary and Biological Approaches

Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 6. According to ethologists, mothers are programmed to a. “read” their infants’ signals and respond with appropriate caregiving behaviour. b. invest more resources in male infants. c. avoid highly demanding infants. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Evolutionary and Biological Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 7. According to ethologists, the purpose of infant crying is to a. release tension. b. exercise the lungs. c. serve as a stimulus to trigger innate caregiving behaviours by the mother. d. stimulate development of the central nervous system and the speech apparatus. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Evolutionary and Biological Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 8. Many contemporary evolutionary psychologists believe that the environment in which humans evolved was not as ideal as John Bowlby theorized. Consequently, they contend that humans are equipped with a. a single attachment system that works in all ecological and social conditions. b. a relatively rigid set of attachment behaviours. c. a flexible behavioural repertoire that allows persons to form bonds that are sensitive to local ecological and social conditions. d. an extremely flexible behavioural repertoire that allows persons to form bonds in any possible conditions. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Evolutionary and Biological Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard

9. The process by which a child’s behaviour is moulded to fit with the society's roles, beliefs, and expectations is known as a. social development. b. social learning. c. socialization. d. social cognition. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 10. Hannah, a newborn, cries and vocalizes a lot. According to the environmental approach of socialization, what does this behaviour encourage? a. It encourages her mother to let her be more autonomous b. It encourages the extinction procedure c. It encourages her mother to remain close to her d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 11. Learning theorists are most interested in explaining the processes by which a. evolution helped shape human social behaviours. b. children's cognitive development influences their social behaviour. c. children's behaviour is moulded to fit societal expectations. d. genes influence social development. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 12. Learning theorists believe that infants cry to bring their mothers near because a. mothers provide reinforcing consequences such as food. b. babies are genetically programmed to draw mothers near. c. infants learn to associate mothers with food through the processes of classical conditioning. d. babies are genetically predisposed to learn most effectively from mothers.

Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 13. According to learning theory, how would caregivers respond to infants who appear disinterested in social interaction, smile little, and dislike physical contact? a. Human caregivers have an innate need to protect the young and would provide equally good care to all infants regardless of how unrewarding the interactions might be. b. Unsociable infants should receive little attention from their caregivers because interacting with unresponsive infants is not reinforcing. c. Unsociable infants should receive a good deal of attention from their caregivers, because they are so undemanding. d. Unsociable infants should receive high amounts of attention from their caregivers, because adult humans are driven to elicit reactions from even the most passive of infants. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 14. When 6-month-old Katie sees her daddy, she smiles, waves her arms, and kicks her little legs vigorously. When Daddy sees Katie, he lets out a loud “Katie-my-baby!” and sweeps her into his arms and swings her in the air. According to learning theory, a. Katie has constructed a “daddy” schema that includes exciting physical play. b. Katie’s excitement at seeing her father reinforces his behaviour, and his actions upon seeing Katie reinforce her smiling, waving, and kicking. c. fathers are genetically predisposed to interact with infants differently than mothers do. d. Katie’s father clearly serves as her primary attachment figure. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Environmental/Learning Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 15. According to theorists, which of the following statements about babies’ internal working models is FALSE? a. Internal working models are a cognitive process unique to the infant.

b. Babies who have an internal working model of the mother as unresponsive and unavailable are likely to be more distressed when left alone than babies who have an internal working model of the mother as responsive and available. c. Internal working models include expectations based on the caregiver’s prior behaviour. d. Babies use the internal working model to interpret events and make predictions, even when the caregiver is absent. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Cognitive-Developmental Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 16. Kylie is 6 months old and her mom, who has always been very responsive to her cries by attending to her, is starting to leave her in her baby crib to take her naps. According to the cognitive developmental model of socialization, which of the following is true? a. Kylie will not respond positively to being left alone in her crib because she has learned that her mom is always there b. Kylie will cry less because she knows her mother is available c. Kylie will most likely present a developmental delay because she has never been left alone. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Cognitive-Developmental Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 17. Several frameworks help organize research on early development in its cultural context. Which is NOT one of these? a. Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model b. Whiting and Whiting’s psychocultural model c. Super and Harkness’ developmental niche d. Bandura’s reciprocal determinism model Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 18. Which model of cultural context provides a framework for thinking about parenting as a culturally constructed interface between the larger environment and the development of children?

(Hint: It is the model that is composed of the physical and social settings, cultural customs of child rearing, and the psychology of caregivers.) a. Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model b. Whiting and Whiting’s psychocultural model c. Super and Harkness’ developmental niche d. Bandura’s reciprocal determinism model Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 19. Darwin believed that crying in newborns evolved as a means of providing the mother with information about a. the environment. b. attachment. c. danger. d. the baby’s state. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Crying Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 20. The communicative function of infant crying is indicated by the fact that a. babies have similar cries for pain, hunger, and fear. b. adult caregivers are unable to discriminate different types of infant cries. c. crying soon comes under the baby’s voluntary control and is used purposefully to summon care and attention. d. crying behaviour is unrelated to parental responsiveness. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Crying Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 21. Bob and Emma have just gotten home with their newborn baby. This is their first child. Suddenly, the baby starts crying. Which of the following statements is more likely to be true? a. Emma will be able to decode her newborn’s cries because it is innate for mothers to be able to do so.

b. Emma and Bob will probably not be able to decode the cries yet, but will learn to do so in time. c. Since newborns cry all the time, they should ignore her and let her “cry it out”. d. The newborn is probably suffering from post partum depression because she is not in the womb anymore. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Crying Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 22. How do newborns indicate interest? a. By smiling b. By vocalizing c. By staring d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 23. Babies are able to indicate a. a full range of emotions at birth. b. guilt and shame very early, by age two months. c. interest and distress at birth. d. sadness and anger only later, by age two or three years. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 24. While her mother’s back was turned, Emiko started plucking the leaves off of a houseplant. When Emiko’s mother discovered what Emiko was up to, she exclaimed, “Emiko!” to which Emiko responded by lowering her eyes and hiding her face in shame. What age is Emiko MOST likely to be? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 10 months

d. 24 months Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 25. George fell and hurt his knee, but he resisted any displays of fear or pain. George is at least old. a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 2 years Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 26. Tommy, who is 3 years old, fell down and badly scrapped his knee, but he did not cry and he told his brother it didn’t hurt. Tommy could be said to be a. affectively mirroring his emotions. b. utilizing cultural display rules. c. exhibiting an easy temperament. d. engaging in interactional synchrony. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 27. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence at which facial expressions take place in infant development? a. Empathy, pleasure, embarrassment b. Distress, pleasure, embarrassment c. Pleasure, distress, embarrassment d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver.

Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 28. Roma is taking 12-month-old Steven for a walk when they encounter a small but frisky dog. Steven is initially uncertain as to how to respond and looks up into Roma’s face to see her reaction to the small pooch. After Roma smiles and says, “Hi little doggy!”, Steven smiles and vocalizes as well. This scenario illustrates the phenomenon known as a. conditioning. b. social referencing. c. mutual regulation. d. display rules. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 29. Social referencing refers to the process by which one a. influences and adjusts to another's behaviour, producing a smoothly running interactive system. b. determines one's social status in a peer group. c. uses information gained from other people’s reactions and emotional expressions to regulate one’s own behaviour. d. adapts one’s behaviour to fit with societal expectations. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 30. Researchers have found that school-age children, when looking at faces, tend to confuse the expression of surprise with a. happiness. b. disgust. c. sadness. d. fear. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System

Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 31. Which of the following statements about children’s ability to recognize emotions is true? a. Happiness, sadness, and anger are generally recognized earlier than disgust, surprise, and fear. b. Disgust, surprise, and fear are generally recognized earlier than happiness, sadness, and anger. c. Guilt and shame are generally recognized earlier than happiness, sadness, and anger. d. Although guilt is recognized earlier than happiness and sadness, shame is not recognized until much later. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Emotions and the Affective System Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 32. Using a video camera to tape faces of both a mother and a child, researchers examine face-toface interactions. This technique is known as a. microgenetic research. b. modal action content analysis. c. microanalysis. d. Strange Situation procedure. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 33. Studies of the early face-to-face interactions of mothers and infants suggest that these interactions are important in establishing a. a pattern of communication between infant and caregiver. b. a baby’s capacity for emotional self-regulation. c. maternal control over infant behaviour. d. infant influence on maternal behaviour. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 34. Babies typically cope with interactions they find to be overly arousing or stimulating by

a. falling asleep. b. physically losing control of their limbs. c. turning away or putting their thumbs in their mouths. d. social referencing. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 35. Devon’s mother read a lot of developmental books during her pregnancy. The books clearly indicated that babies need to be stimulated constantly, either by a parent always being in front of them, or by placing them in front of a television. If Devon, a three-month old, becomes overaroused or over-stimulated, how is he most likely to react? a. By throwing his blanket on the floor b. By telling his mother that there is too many colors c. By turning away d. By displaying affect mirroring Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 36. A mother who establishes interactional synchrony with her infant a. is willing and able to adjust her behaviour to the baby’s cycles. b. maximizes her opportunities to “teach” the infant. c. allows the baby to regulate their interaction. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 37. Babies forced to interact with mothers who are expressionless tend to a. maintain an expressionless state as well. b. show distress. c. be overly expressive as a way to compensate for the flat affect of their partner. d. ignore the mother.

Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 38. The still-face procedure involves a. a mother trying to hide sad emotions from her baby. b. having a mother present her baby with no expression at all. c. a baby becoming habituated to the presence of a facial stimulus. d. a baby becoming dishabituated to the presence of a facial stimulus Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 39. The mother that would probably have the easiest time with affect mirroring is a. a mother who is clinically depressed. b. a mother with a preterm baby. c. a mother who is less attentive to her infant. d. a mother that developed interactional synchrony with her baby. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 40. Babies whose mothers are clinically depressed a. still show strong synchronization with maternal behaviours. b. display distress with nursery school teachers. c. cry frequently. d. monitor mothers more intently than babies whose mothers are not clinically depressed. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium

41. The term refers to the degree to which caregivers gauge their communicative behaviours to respond to input from their infants. a. affect mirroring b. social referencing c. goodness of fit d. turn-taking Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 42. Ellie, a newborn, was born to a sixteen-year old mother. Since her mother gave birth to her, they have been constantly going back to their paediatrician’s office because her mother complains that Ellie cries all the time. The doctor does not find any physical cause for Ellie’s crying, but is quite worried about her mother, who has also been crying a lot and not sleeping well. Given this information, we can conclude that Ellie’s mother has been acting in which way towards her baby? a. She has not been responsive towards her baby b. She is feeding Ellie too much c. She is over stimulating Ellie d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Topic: Face-to-Face Interactions Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 43. Temperament refers to a. the components of personality studied in infants. b. emotional expressiveness and responsiveness to stimulation. c. a baby’s behavioural style. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy

44. Jamie and Jackie, identical six-month-old twins, participated in a study that found that they were similar in levels of irritability and responses to strangers. This study was probably examining the hypothesis that temperament a. is inherited. b. is stable over time. c. emerges early in life. d. is primarily a function of environmental influences. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Defining Temperament Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 45. Studies examining the extent to which a child’s response style is evident early in the child’s life have found that a. temperament does indeed begin in the womb. b. temperamental differences between newborns are still evident years later. c. irritability and negative responses are the only persistent temperamental differences between individual children. d. infant development is so variable evidence can only be inconclusive. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Defining Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 46. While she was pregnant, Victor’s mom used to feel him kick and push around all the time. A few moments after he was born, he started crying uncontrollably and the nurse said “This one is going to be an active boy”. Which of the following statements is true? a. If Victor’s mother plays him classical music early on, this will calm him down b. Victor will probably continue to display a certain amount of activity as he grows up c. Victor is displaying “goodness of fit” d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Defining Temperament Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 47. The original goal of the New York Longitudinal Study (NYLS) was to a. determine the impact of parenting styles on children’s long-term development. b. assess the impact of major life events on personality formation.

c. predict children's long-term psychological adjustment by identifying potential problems early on. d. establish the genetic basis of personality. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 48. The three early behavioural styles identified by Thomas and Chess were a. sanguine, melancholic, choleric. b. easy, difficult, slow-to-warm-up. c. secure, avoidant, ambivalent. d. emotional, sociable, inhibited. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 49. By what procedure are babies assigned to one of the three behavioural styles established by Thomas and Chess? a. Trained raters observe the infant in home and laboratory settings. b. Parents interact with their infants in the Strange Situation procedure. c. Observations of babies in a range of situations are supplemented with physiological measures associated with stress reactions. d. Parents participate in interviews and complete questionnaires about their infants. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 50. At 6 months of age, Alan has a predictable sleep-wake cycle, is generally in a happy mood, and enjoys meeting new people and going to new places. According to the NYLS classification of temperament, Alan is BEST described as a. easy. b. uninhibited. c. slow-to-warm-up. d. unclassifiable. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament

Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 51. Billy, at 12 months, rules his household. Although he does not maintain a predictable schedule himself, he insists everything else in the world remain constant including his bedding, eating utensils, and even the shoes he wears. He reacts violently to new babysitters, and with extreme agitation when doing something he enjoys, such as rough-and-tumble play with his uncle. Based on the NYLS classification scheme, Billy is BEST described as a. easy. b. inhibited. c. slow-to-warm-up. d. difficult. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 52. How do babies classified as “slow-to-warm-up” according to the NLYS criteria differ from those classified as difficult? a. The slow-to-warm-up baby adapts poorly to changing situations. b. The slow-to-warm-up baby tends to be more active. c. The slow-to-warm-up baby tends to react with less intensity. d. The slow-to-warm-up baby enjoys meeting new people. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 53. Of babies who can be classified according to the Thomas and Chess typology, the majority are described as a. easy. b. unclassifiable. c. sanguine. d. slow to warm up. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy

54. Critics contend that parents may not provide accurate reports of their infants’ temperaments because a. parents may report their own reactions to infant behaviours, rather than objectively describe what the infant does. b. parents may report what they believe the researcher wishes to hear. c. parents may not be skilled at observing or describing their infants. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 55. “EAS” in Plomin’s classification of temperament refers to a. emotionality, activity, and sociability. b. excitability, appeasement, and security. c. excitability, arousal, and self-regulation. d. emotionality, arousal, and self-regulation. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 56. The “S” in Plomin’s EAS model refers to a. shyness. b. sociability. c. serenity. d. sloppiness. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 57. Baby Mahina is described by her mother as liking to move all of the time and seeking out vigorous playtimes. Using Plomin’s EAS model, which of the following dimensions is Mahina most likely high on? a. Easiness b. Agreeableness c. Activity d. Energy Answer: c

Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 58. Plomin’s dimension of emotionality is similar to Rothbart’s dimension of a. self-regulation. b. shyness. c. inhibition. d. reactivity. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 59. To measure temperament according to the EAS model, researchers a. use a modified Strange Situation. b. use a modified Thomas and Chess protocol. c. observe mother and infant interacting in a controlled lab setting. d. parents complete a written questionnaire about their child’s behaviour. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 60. Rothbart views temperament as consisting of individual differences in two areas a. sociability and shyness. b. inhibition and disinhibition. c. reactivity and self-regulation. d. emotionality and activity. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 61. In Rothbart’s model of temperament, self-regulation is assumed to be a. inborn and to vary from child to child. b. inborn and stable across most children. c. environmentally-determined and to vary from child to child. d. environmentally-determined and stable across most children.

Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 62. The text discusses temperament and its relationship to what physiological indicator? a. Heart rate b. Respiration rate c. Cortisol level d. GSR Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Conceptualizing Temperament Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 63. When 5-year-old David was an infant, his mother believed that he had a difficult temperament. Based on research presented in the text, it is reasonable to expect that on tests of cognitive problem solving, David will perform a. poorly compared to other 5-year-olds. b. well above average for his age. c. no differently than any average 5-year-old. d. at a level consistent with his IQ. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament and Social Interactions Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 64. Some studies have reported positive correlations between difficult temperament during infancy and reports of behaviour and adjustment problems in later childhood, adolescence, or even adulthood. One possible reason for this positive correlation is that a. frequent crying and irritability increase the chances that a parent will comfort the child more, causing the child to rebel. b. frequent crying and irritability increase the chances that a parent will respond to the child in a negative manner, leading to a poorer parent-child relationship which affects the child negatively. c. the samples in such studies are biased because only a small number of infants are difficult. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament and Behaviour Problems Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium

65. Some studies have reported positive correlations between difficult temperament during infancy and reports of behaviour and adjustment problems in later childhood, adolescence, or even adulthood. One possible reason for this positive correlation is that a. frequent crying and irritability increase the chances that a parent will comfort the child more, causing the child to rebel. b. the parents’ attitudes and expectations cause the parent to both rate their infants as difficult and to later report them as having behaviour problems. c. that the samples in such studies are biased because only a small number of infants are difficult. d. None of the alternatives are correct. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament and Behaviour Problems Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 66. Infants and children who respond to unfamiliar events and people with timidity and fear are currently referred to as a. slow to warm up. b. difficult. c. inhibited. d. melancholic. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament and Behaviour Problems Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 67. Longitudinal studies of inhibited children suggest that a. inhibition is highly stable over childhood. b. extreme inhibition is most likely due to socialization. c. few children identified as highly inhibited at age 2 showed any unusual signs of inhibition in later childhood. d. children identified at age 2 as being inhibited tended to show physiological signs of arousal in new situations in middle childhood. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament and Behaviour Problems Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 68. During Phase 1 of attachment

a. babies do not focus their attention exclusively on their parents and will at times respond positively to anyone. b. babies are most interested in the caregiver and other familiar people and direct their social responses to them. c. babies are wary of strangers and protest separations from their caregiver. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Developmental Course of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 69. Which of the following is true of maternal bonding? a. It seems crucial for attachment to develop. b. Mothers and infants separated by illness during the first few days after birth are unlikely to develop strong attachment relationships. c. It does not appear necessary for the development of strong infant-caregiver attachment relations. d. It develops slowly over the first half year of life. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Developmental Course of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 70. Baby Sebastien is 6 weeks old. His mother is very distressed because he reacts positively to being picked up by anyone who is around the home and does not seem to exhibit different behaviours when it is his mother who picks him up. If you were a developmentalist, what would you tell Baby Sebastien’s mother? a. They need to be bonding more and an attachment therapy would be beneficial for their relationship b. Sebastien might be blind because he does not react differently to different caregivers who should be more significant c. Sebastien is displaying normal behaviours for his age (indiscriminate social responsiveness) d. None of the alternatives are correct Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Developmental Course of Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 71. Which of the following is the best description of a baby who is between 2 and 7 months of age?

a. The baby is indiscriminate and does not focus its attention exclusively on its mother. b. Social referencing is evident. c. Wariness of strangers becomes common. d. Separation protest occurs. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Developmental Course of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 72. Which of the following occurs at the same time as focused attachment? a. Maternal bonding b. Separation protest c. Discriminate social responsiveness d. Adult attachment Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Developmental Course of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 73. Developmental accomplishments that coincide with the emergence of clear attachment behaviours in infancy include a. crawling. b. the infant's first “real” words. c. the social smile. d. pretend play. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Developmental Course of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 74. The Strange Situation is a procedure developed in the 1960s by a. Jerome Kagan. b. John Bowlby. c. Mary Rothbart. d. Mary Ainsworth. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy

75. The Strange Situation consists of a. placing an infant on an elevated table with a shallow and deep end and attempting to get the infant to cross the deep end in order to reach its mother. b. observing the infant’s reactions to a series of structured laboratory episodes involving his or her mother and a stranger. c. presenting the infant with an ambiguous stimulus (like a scary toy) to see whether he or she uses cues provided by others to regulate his or her own reactions to the strange event. d. asking mothers to abruptly present an expressionless face (still-face) to infants after establishing a playful interaction. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 76. Researchers employ the Strange Situation procedure to assess a. mother-infant bonding. b. social referencing. c. face-to-face interaction. d. attachment. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 77. Janie was tested in the Strange Situation. Like most North American babies tested, she was classified as a. securely attached. b. anxious-avoidant. c. anxious-ambivalent. d. disorganized. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 78. When exposed to the Strange Situation procedure, Jan seemed unconcerned. He barely noticed when his mother left the room and preferred to continue playing with the toy truck he found in the toy bin to seeking contact with her when she returned. According to Mary Ainsworth’s attachment classification scheme, Jan’s attachment to his mother would be labelled

a. secure. b. insecure avoidant. c. anxious-ambivalent. d. disorganized. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 79. Samuel, who responded to the Strange Situation procedure with extreme distress, but reacted to his mother’s return with a mixture of relief and anger, would be classified as a. securely attached. b. anxious-avoidant. c. insecure resistant. d. disorganized. Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 80. Insecure—disorganized/disoriented babies a. display an unpredictable, distressed response to separation. b. comprise about 15% of North American children. c. appear to grow out of their problems by school age. d. show little distress at separation. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 81. Sally is a very cooperative baby who has participated in both Strange Situation and Attachment Q Sort studies. As would be predicted, she was a. rated very differently by each assessment. b. classified in very similar ways by both measures. c. classified easily on the Attachment Q Sort, but not easily classified on Strange Situation. d. not classified, since she was thought to be overly responsive to the second measure. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Conceptual

Difficulty: Medium 82. Dr. Peterson used the Attachment Q-Set (AQS) to observe Marge and her son, Bart. What is Marge likely to experience? a. The assessment takes about 20 minutes. b. The assessment involves 8 episodes, with each episode involving separation and/or reunion between Marge and Bart. c. The assessment takes place in a university lab room that has one-way mirrors. d. The assessment involves sorting 90 cards into 9 piles. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 83. Which of the following is an accurate description of a difference between the Strange Situation and the Attachment Q-Set? a. The Strange Situation is a laboratory procedure whereas the AQS takes place at home. b. The mother in the Strange Situation is told how to act, whereas no such direction is given to the mother for the AQS. c. The Strange Situation takes less time than the AQS. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Assessing Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 84. Studies of human infants suggest that babies form attachment relationships a. on the basis of the amount of time they spend with a caregiver. b. with caregivers who share similar personality traits. c. with their mothers, regardless of the amount of time they spend together. d. with caregivers who are sensitive to the infants’ needs and who adjust their behaviour to that of the infants. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 85. What was the research question Harry Harlow addressed in his classic study of attachment? a. Are infants capable of forming multiple attachments? b. Are infants attached to mothers because mothers are entertaining?

c. Are infants attached to their mothers because mothers serve as their primary source of food? d. Are infants biologically predisposed to form attachment bonds with their mothers, regardless of how the mothers behave? Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 86. What factor did Harlow’s classic studies reveal to be most important for the development of attachment in rhesus monkeys? a. The opportunity to feed b. The opportunity for contact comfort c. The presence of multiple caregivers d. The presence of a responsive, caring mother Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 87. When talking about her childhood with interviewers who were using the Adult Attachment Interview, Maria spoke of some very fond memories of times with her mother and other family memories, but she also indicated that there were times that the family experienced considerable stress. The interviewers probably classified Maria as a(n) mother. a. authoritarian b. preoccupied c. autonomous d. dismissing Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Easy 88. Debbie, who is expecting her first baby, participated in an Adult Attachment Interview. Debbie had a difficult time recalling her childhood experiences during this interview, and she appeared to attach little significance to them. The researcher classified Debbie as having a attachment style. a. autonomous b. dismissing c. preoccupied d. unresolved

Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 89. Which is TRUE about the Adult Attachment Interview? a. It is related to attachment with one’s own child. b. It can be assessed during pregnancy and can predict future attachment to one’s child. c. It can be assessed when one’s child is 6 and can retrospectively describe attachment when one’s child was a baby. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 90. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the relationship between infant temperament and the attachment process? a. Despite appearances, researchers are able to easily distinguish between temperament issues and attachment processes. b. Infant temperament may interfere with a valid assessment of attachment. c. Infant temperament may affect the attachment relationship. d. Positive goodness of fit between infant and mother is likely to be reflected in positive attachment. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 91. Some researchers suspect that infants who are temperamentally fearful and inhibited tend frequently to be classified as Pattern in the Strange Situation procedure. a. A b. B c. C d. D Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Determinants of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Hard

92. Secure attachment has been positively related to a. problem solving ability. b. social competence. c. self regulation. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Consequences of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 93. Insecurely attached children are more likely than their securely attached counterparts to a. interpret another’s behaviour as indicating hostility. b. not have formed developed working models. c. have developed an inhibited temperament. d. have grown into the “difficult” child. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Consequences of Attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 94. Critics of research that examines the impact of maternal employment on mother-infant attachment argue that a. the Strange Situation procedure is not a valid measure of attachment for babies who are experienced (and comfortable) with their mothers routinely leaving them with others and returning later to pick them up. b. there is no scientific evidence to support the notion that infants benefit from a close and loving relationship with a single caregiver. c. close and intense mother-infant attachments lead to psychological problems with dependency later in life. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: a Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Daycare Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 95. The NICHD Early Child Care Research Network reported that a child whose mother is more likely to be classified as insecurely attached when 1) the day care center

does not have a high level of care, 2) the child spends a lot of time in day care, or 3) the child has had many different child-care arrangements. a. has a dismissing attachment style b. is low in sensitivity c. is younger than 22-years-old d. has emotional problems Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Daycare Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 96. The research on the effects of daycare shows that a. if there is an effect, boys seem to be more negatively affected than girls. b. negative effects of daycare are more likely if the mother is insensitive. c. daycare may be related to an increase in behaviour problems. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Daycare Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 97. What finding led researchers to provide a 20-hour training program designed to encourage positive interactions between caregivers and children? a. Children who are emotionally close to their teachers during early childhood begin school with better school readiness skills. b. Children who are emotionally close to their teachers during early childhood have better relations with peers. c. Children who are emotionally close to their teachers during early childhood achieve more academically. d. All of the alternatives are correct. Answer: d Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Daycare Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 98. Understimulating maternal care has been associated with physical and emotional neglect, and appears to be a cause of

a. insecure-avoidant attachment b. insecure-resistant attachment c. the slow-to-warm-up temperament d. insecure-melancholic attachment Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Maltreatment on attachment Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy 99. Robin is a marriage and family therapist who suspects that her client is maltreating her infant. Robin would be correct in saying that a. Ainsworth’s attachment style classifications are not useful in these types of cases. b. maltreated infants often display a disorganized pattern of attachment. c. overstimulation has been linked to the insecure-resistant pattern of attachment. d. maltreatment is defined as understimulation (i.e., neglect) rather than overstimulation. Answer: b Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Maltreatment on attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 100. Which of the following is true about persistent crying in infants? a. The infant is consolable after a few minutes b. The amount of crying peaks around 6 months of age c. The crying is part of normal development d. The persistent crier is usually in great distress and needs medical attention Answer: c Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Experience Type: Factual Difficulty: Easy Essay Questions 101. Compare and contrast the three sociocultural models of social and emotional development. Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development.

Topic: Sociocultural Approaches Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 102. Describe the Strange Situation procedure. Discuss whether it is a valid test of attachment, and be sure to include information on cultural differences in your discussion. Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Strange Situation Procedure Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 103. Summarize the research on the effects of daycare on mother-infant attachment. Explain the difficulties in determining the precise effects of daycare on attachment. Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Experience Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 104. Describe Harry Harlow’s work looking at attachment behaviour in Rhesus monkeys. What was the motivation for this research and what were its major findings? Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Research Classic 12.1 Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 105. What is goodness of fit? In what ways could attachment pattern be affected by goodness of fit? In what ways could the effects of daycare be affected by goodness of fit? Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: An Early Approach: Goodness of Fit Type: Factual Difficulty: Medium 106. Describe cross cultural differences in variables associated with early social and emotional development (e.g., face-to-face interactions, attachment). Learning Objective: 12.1 Understand the major theoretical approaches to early social development. Learning Objective: 12.2 Understand the development of early communication between the infant and caregiver. Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development.

Topic: Discussed throughout chapter Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 107. Discuss the importance of attachment, making reference to findings showing cognitive and social benefits associated with secure attachment. Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 108. What have researchers reported concerning the effects of early daycare on attachment? Learning Objective: 12.5 Explain how early experience can affect later social, emotional, and cognitive development. Topic: Effects of Early Experience Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Hard 109. In what ways does a child’s temperament influence the parent’s behaviours? Support your answer with research presented in the chapter. Learning Objective: 12.3 Define temperament and describe its role in child development. Topic: Temperament Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium 110. Describe the difference between the Strange Situation procedure and the AQS (Attachment Q-Set). What are the main advantages and disadvantages of each? Learning Objective: 12.4 Explain the role of attachment in child development. Topic: Attachment Type: Conceptual Difficulty: Medium

CHAPTER 8 INTELLIGENCE MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Compared to Piagetian and information-processing views, the psychometric approach A) is product-oriented and largely concerned with outcomes and results. B) views the child as a passive processor of information rather than an active participant. C) emphasizes the biological bases of cognitive development. D) focuses on the child’s independent efforts in advancing cognitive development through interactions with others. Answer: A Page Ref: 319 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.1

2)

In a study in which laypeople and experts were asked to jot down a list of behaviors that they regarded as typical of highly intelligent people, both groups viewed intelligence as made up of which of the following three attributes? A) recognition of people and objects, alertness, and awareness of environment B) reasoning, learning ability, and creativity C) verbal ability, motor coordination, and curiosity D) verbal ability, problem solving, and social competence Answer: D Page Ref: 320 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

3)

Which of the following events prompted the development of the first intelligence tests? A) an increase in gifted children B) the beginning of universal public education C) the advent of special education classrooms D) an increase in children with special needs Answer: B Page Ref: 320 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

4)

The goal of Binet and Simon’s original intelligence test was to A) compile a battery of tests that could be used to assess infant mental development. B) devise an objective method for assigning pupils to special classes. C) determine the underlying mental abilities associated with intelligence. D) devise a systematic method for assessing classroom disruptiveness. Answer: B Page Ref: 320 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.1

5)

Before Binet and Simon’s test, other researchers tried to assess intelligence using A) experimental hypnosis. B) interviews and observations of behavior. C) measurements of the skull’s physical dimensions. D) simple measures of sensory responsiveness and reaction time. Answer: D Page Ref: 320 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

6)

Binet and Simon’s intelligence test was the first to A) assess the degree of classroom disruptiveness. B) associate items of increasing difficulty with chronological age. C) identify children who were gifted. D) include both verbal and nonverbal items. Answer: B Page Ref: 320 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

7)

In 1916, A) Spearman B) Thurstone C) Terman D) Cattell Answer: C

adapted the Binet intelligence test for use with English-speaking schoolchildren.

Page Ref: 320–321 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

8)

Moses and Arianne are doing research on mental abilities that contribute to successful performance on intelligence tests. Which of the following approaches should they use? A) Use a correlational procedure of factor analysis. B) Compare a test-taker’s score with older children’s scores. C) Calculate the amount of error associated with a test-taker’s score. D) Use simple measures of sensory responsiveness and reaction time. Answer: A Page Ref: 321 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.1

9)

was the first influential factor analyst. A) Louis Thurstone B) Charles Spearman C) Raymond B. Cattell D) John Carroll Answer: B Page Ref: 321 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

10)

Spearman proposed the concept of g after he found that A) test items differed in the extent to which they predicted cognitive performance outside of the testing situation. B) crystallized and fluid intelligence are easy to distinguish in factor analysis. C) all test items he examined correlated with one another. D) separate, unrelated factors, called primary mental abilities, exist. Answer: C Page Ref: 321 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

11)

Thurstone questioned the importance of g because A) boys and girls performed differently on his intelligence test. B) he noticed that children scored similarly on sets of similar test items. C) he noticed that children high in intelligence passed and failed similar test items. D) his factor analysis indicated that separate, unrelated factors exist. Answer: D Page Ref: 321 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.1

12)

According to Thurstone, intelligence consists of A) distinct primary mental abilities. B) a general factor and a specific factor. C) crystallized and fluid intelligence. D) three stratums of abilities. Answer: A Page Ref: 321 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

13)

To reconcile Spearman’s and Thurstone’s views, current theorists and test designers assume that A) a unique s factor is reflected in each of Thurstone’s primary factors. B) at the highest level, g is presumed to be present to some degree in all separate factors. C) at the highest level, s is presumed to be present to some degree in all separate factors. D) g reflects fluid intelligence and s reflects crystallized intelligence. Answer: B Page Ref: 321 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.1

14)

In Cattell’s theory of intelligence, refers to skills that depend on accumulated knowledge and experience, good judgment, and mastery of social customs, whereas depends more heavily on basic informationprocessing skills. A) the s factor; the g factor B) fluid intelligence; crystallized intelligence C) the g factor; the s factor D) crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence Answer: D Page Ref: 321 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

15)

On intelligence tests, vocabulary, general information, and arithmetic problems are examples of items that emphasize intelligence. A) fluid B) specific C) general D) crystallized Answer: D Page Ref: 321 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

16)

Zoe’s reflect(s) her fluid intelligence. A) capacity to store general information B) math skills C) speed with which she can analyze information D) vocabulary Answer: C Page Ref: 321 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.1

17)

Which of the following statements is true regarding crystallized and fluid intelligence? A) Crystallized and fluid intelligence show little relationship when children differ greatly in cultural and educational experiences. B) Tests aimed at reducing cultural bias emphasize crystallized intelligence. C) Fluid intelligence depends more heavily on specific cultural learning experiences than crystallized intelligence. D) Test items measuring crystallized and fluid intelligence do not correlate with one another. Answer: A Page Ref: 322 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.1

18)

Carroll represents the structure of intelligence as A) 180 unique intellectual factors organized along three dimensions. B) a pyramid with g at the top, broad abilities in the second tier, and narrow abilities in the third tier. C) at least eight independent intelligences that are based on distinct sets of processing operations. D) three interacting theories: componential, experiential, and contextual. Answer: B Page Ref: 322 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.1

19)

’s model is the most comprehensive factor-analytic classification of mental abilities to date. A) Spearman B) Thurstone C) Cattell D) Carroll Answer: D Page Ref: 322 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.1

20)

To overcome the limitations of factor analysis, investigators conduct componential analyses to A) look for relationships between aspects of information processing and children’s intelligence test performance. B) determine the extent to which test scores are accurate predictors of future academic achievement. C) compare a child’s test performance with the performance of a specific group of children. D) determine the average score obtained on a test by children of various ages or grade placements. Answer: A Page Ref: 323 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

21)

Componential analyses reveal that test performance over time. A) slow ERPs B) processing speed C) self-efficacy D) cognitive self-regulation Answer: B

is/are moderately related to general intelligence and to gains in mental

Page Ref: 323 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.2

22)

Evaluators, using the componential approach, have found that Maisie is exceptionally intelligent. Which of the following statements best describes how they would explain her high level of intelligence? A) The role of culture and schooling are primary factors in Maisie’s intellectual development. B) Neurological evidence is only slightly correlated to Maisie’s intelligence. C) Maisie’s high level of intelligence is entirely due to causes within her. D) Maisie is highly unusual, and evaluators are at a loss to explain why. Answer: C Page Ref: 323 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.2

23)

Wally is especially good at generating novel solutions when presented with difficult problems. Sternberg’s triarchic theory would rate Wally as high in intelligence. A) practical B) traditional C) analytical D) creative Answer: D Page Ref: 324 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.2

24)

In Sternberg’s theory, individuals who are high in practical intelligence excel at A) generating solutions to novel problems. B) adapting their thinking to fit with the demands of their everyday worlds. C) acquiring task-relevant and metacognitive knowledge. D) tasks assessing nonverbal abilities. Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

25)

Research on Sternberg’s triarchic theory indicates that A) the three intelligences are relatively distinct. B) practical intelligence is especially common in ethnic minority children. C) creative intelligence and high IQ are highly correlated. D) the three intelligences are interrelated. Answer: A Page Ref: 324 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

26)

Sternberg’s triarchic theory helps explain why A) out-of-school, practical forms of intelligence are vital for life success. B) traditional intelligence tests often overestimate children’s mental abilities. C) children with severe impairments in language and communication often show remarkable numerical and spatial skills. D) a lengthy process of education is required to transform inborn abilities into mature intelligence. Answer: A Page Ref: 324 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

27)

Gardner defines intelligence in terms of A) three interacting skills: componential, experiential, and contextual. B) 180 unique intellectual factors organized along three dimensions. C) at least eight independent intelligences that are based on distinct sets of processing operations. D) a pyramid with g at the top, broad abilities in the second tier, and narrow abilities in the third tier. Answer: C Page Ref: 325 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.2

28)

Regan demonstrates high linguistic intelligence. According to Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, she would perform well as a A) composer. B) journalist. C) biologist. D) therapist. Answer: B Page Ref: 325 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.2

29)

Gardner believes that A) each intelligence emerges out of g at different points in development. B) each intelligence has a unique biological basis and a distinct course of development. C) excellence in most fields requires a combination of intelligences. D) crystallized intelligence is more predictive of academic success than fluid intelligence. Answer: B Page Ref: 325 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

30)

The existence of children with autism who excel in numerical and spatial skills provides support for theory of intelligence. A) Sternberg B) Cattell C) Carroll D) Gardner Answer: D

’s

Page Ref: 325 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.2

31)

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences is most consistent with A) the core knowledge perspective. B) Vygotsky’s theory. C) ecological systems theory. D) Piaget’s theory. Answer: A Page Ref: 326 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

32)

Critics of Gardner’s theory point out that A) the unusual skills of people with savant syndrome are mechanical and inflexible because those skills are not aided by other abilities. B) Gardner ignores the role of cultural and educational experiences in intellectual development. C) the theory is at odds with the existence of prodigies who show precocious development in only one area. D) his intelligences are only weakly correlated with a single overarching mental ability. Answer: A Page Ref: 326 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

33)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on social and emotional intelligence? A) Social and emotional intelligence are unrelated to IQ. B) Emotional intelligence is positively associated with self-esteem and life satisfaction. C) Social and emotional intelligence are typically assessed using pencil-and-paper tests. D) Unlike general intelligence, social and emotional intelligence are not made up of specific abilities. Answer: B Page Ref: 327 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Emotional Intelligence Skill: Understand Objective: 8.2

34)

As a teacher, Kris has begun providing lessons to students that teach emotional understanding, respect and caring for others, strategies for regulating emotion, and resistance to unfavorable peer pressure because Kris knows that A) emotional intelligence is the latest psychological buzzword, and administrators are demanding it. B) most students do not acquire emotionally intelligent behavior at home. C) many educators overlook the relationship between cognitive ability and academic achievement. D) providing experiences that meet students’ social and emotional needs can improve their adjustment. Answer: D Page Ref: 327 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Emotional Intelligence Skill: Apply Objective: 8.2

35)

The Stanford-Binet and the Wechsler tests A) are used mainly for instructional planning. B) require very little training to administer and score. C) are most often used to identify highly intelligent children and diagnose those with learning problems. D) fail to take into account the child’s behavior during the administration of the test. Answer: C Page Ref: 327 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.3

36)

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition, measures general intelligence and five intellectual factors: A) verbal comprehension, verbal fluency, verbal reasoning, number sequencing, and spatial visualization. B) fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, knowledge, visual-spatial processing, and working memory. C) reasoning, memory, knowledge, perceptual speed, and spatial visualization. D) language comprehension, vocabulary knowledge, sequential reasoning, abstract/visual reasoning, and quantitative reasoning. Answer: B Page Ref: 327 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.3

37)

The fluid reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working-memory factors of the Stanford-Binet A) emphasize culturally loaded, fact-oriented information. B) measure crystallized abilities, such as pattern analysis and matrices. C) are assumed to be less culturally biased than the other factors. D) are assumed to be more culturally biased than the other factors. Answer: C Page Ref: 328 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.3

38)

The were the first to use samples representing the total population of the United States to devise standards for interpreting test scores. A) Core Knowledge Perspectives B) American College Testing Assessments C) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales D) Wechsler tests Answer: D Page Ref: 328 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.3

39)

The SAT is an test, whereas a college professor’s final exam is a(n) A) achievement; aptitude B) aptitude; intelligence C) aptitude; achievement D) achievement; developmental Answer: C Page Ref: 328 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.3

test.

40)

Which of the following statements is true about measuring intelligence? A) Intelligence tests assess an individual’s potential to learn a specialized activity. B) The differences among intelligence, aptitude, and achievement tests are clear-cut. C) Aptitude tests assess a wider range of skills than intelligence tests. D) Achievement tests assess a narrower range of skills than intelligence and aptitude tests. Answer: D Page Ref: 328 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.3

41)

To compensate for infants’ unpredictable behaviors, some tests A) depend heavily on information supplied by parents. B) require parents and caregivers to administer the items. C) focus solely on the infant’s behavior toward the examiner. D) can only be administered outside of the parent’s presence. Answer: A Page Ref: 329 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.3

42)

Which of the following scales of the Bayley-III depend on parental report? A) the Cognitive Scale B) the Adaptive Behavior Scale C) the Motor Scale D) the Language Scale Answer: B Page Ref: 329 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.3

43)

Infant tests, including previous editions of the Bayley, are A) accurate predictors of later intelligence. B) poor predictors of later intelligence. C) only used to assess gross-motor skills. D) only used to assess fine-motor skills. Answer: B Page Ref: 329 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.3

44)

Because most infant scores do not tap the same dimensions of intelligence assessed in older children, they are labeled rather than IQs. A) Fagan scores B) aptitude scores C) emotional quotients D) developmental quotients Answer: D Page Ref: 329 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.3

45)

Which of the following measures of infant performance best predicts later intelligence? A) infant perceptual and motor responses B) infant memory C) habituation and recovery to visual stimuli D) infant problem solving Answer: C Page Ref: 329 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.3

46)

Derek’s intelligence quotient (IQ) of 100 A) expresses the ratio of his chronological age to his mental age. B) indicates the extent to which his raw score deviates from the typical performance of same-age individuals. C) represents the number of test items he left unanswered as compared to those items he answered correctly. D) is based on the average score from the same test taken at three different ages. Answer: B Page Ref: 330 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.4

47)

Test designers engage in standardization by giving IQ tests to A) a large, representative sample. B) individuals who primarily represent the majority culture. C) individuals who are more diverse than the population for which the test is being normed. D) individuals who have no previous exposure to intelligence tests. Answer: A Page Ref: 330 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.4

48)

Intelligence tests are constructed so that IQ scores A) are an unbiased estimate of the population variance. B) approximate a binomial distribution. C) are distributed according to a normal curve. D) are statistically independent from one another. Answer: C Page Ref: 330 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.4

49)

When intelligence tests are standardized, the mean IQ is set at A) 10. B) 50. C) 75. D) 100. Answer: D Page Ref: 330 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.4

50)

Andre has an IQ of 115. He performed A) better; 15 B) worse; 16 C) better; 50 D) better; 84 Answer: D

than

percent of his agemates.

Page Ref: 330 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.4

51)

Ten-year-old Andrea has an IQ of 130. This means that she A) performed as well as or better than 98 percent of her same-age peers. B) scored higher than 98 percent of all children. C) scored three standard deviations above the mean. D) performed as well as or better than 84 percent of her same-age peers. Answer: A Page Ref: 330 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.4

52)

Correlating Bert’s IQ score at different ages A) is necessary for calculating Bert’s mental and chronological age. B) tells whether Bert, who scored high in comparison to his agemates at one age, continues to do so later. C) compares Bert’s test performance to younger and older children’s scores. D) can determine the percentage of younger and older children who fall above or below Bert’s score. Answer: B Page Ref: 331 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.5

53)

Studies examining the correlational stability of IQ suggest that A) after age 6, IQ scores become more stable. B) IQ scores are not stable until adolescence. C) IQ scores fluctuate widely throughout the school years. D) preschool IQs are good predictors of school-age scores. Answer: A Page Ref: 331 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

54)

Research examining the correlational stability of IQ suggests that A) the younger the child at the time of first testing, the better the prediction of later IQ. B) test scores during infancy predict school-age IQ better than test scores during the preschool years. C) the closer in time two testings are, the stronger the relationship between the scores. D) after age 3, IQ scores are fairly stable throughout the school years. Answer: C Page Ref: 331 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

55)

One reason why preschool IQ test scores predict less well than later scores is that A) preschool tests emphasize abstract problem-solving skills, whereas later tests focus on concrete knowledge. B) IQ tests get increasingly easier for children as they get older. C) with age, test items focus less on problem-solving skills and more on concrete knowledge. D) with age, test items focus less on concrete knowledge and more on problem-solving skills. Answer: D Page Ref: 331 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

56)

Longitudinal research reveals that the IQ scores of most children A) fluctuate 10 to 20 points B) increase by about 35 points C) vary by about 50 points D) remain stable Answer: A

during childhood and adolescence.

Page Ref: 331 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.5

57)

Marco, who has taken IQ tests at two different time periods, has declined in IQ. Research indicates that children like Marco often have parents who A) use either very severe or very lax discipline. B) overstimulate them with extracurricular activities. C) apply great pressure to succeed. D) are overinvolved in their children’s lives. Answer: A Page Ref: 331 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.5

58)

According to the environmental cumulative deficit hypothesis, A) the effects of underprivileged rearing conditions on IQ tend to improve in middle childhood. B) most poor children are resilient to the effects of living in an underprivileged environment and are average in intelligence. C) the more economically disadvantaged the child, the more often the IQ test must be administered to obtain a stable score. D) the negative effects of underprivileged rearing conditions on IQ increase the longer the child remains in those conditions. Answer: D Page Ref: 331 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

59)

In thousands of studies, correlations between IQ and achievement test scores typically fall between A) .40 and .50. B) .50 and .60. C) .60 and .70. D) .70 and .80. Answer: B Page Ref: 331 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.5

60)

If Shayla’s scholastic achievement is related to her IQ, how do some researchers explain this correlation? A) IQ and achievement depend on the same abstract reasoning processes that underlie g. B) The culturally specific information that predicts scholastic achievement is dependent on IQ. C) Achievement is more closely related to fluid intelligence, whereas IQ is a closer measure of crystallized intelligence. D) Shayla’s scholastic achievements seem to be relatively unrelated to her experiences. Answer: A Page Ref: 332 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.5

61)

Longitudinal research shows that by second grade, children with the highest IQs are more likely to A) score higher in fluid intelligence than crystallized intelligence. B) experience gradual but steady declines. C) enter prestigious professions in adulthood. D) demonstrate significant IQ fluctuations from middle childhood to late adolescence. Answer: C Page Ref: 332 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

62)

Which of the following statements is true regarding IQ and occupational success? A) IQ is a stronger predictor than practical intelligence of on-the-job performance. B) Educational attainment is a stronger predictor than IQ of occupational success and income. C) Home background is more important than IQ in predicting occupational success. D) High-IQ individuals are no more likely than those with lower IQs to have high-status occupations. Answer: B Page Ref: 332 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

63)

Practical intelligence A) has not been reliably assessed through research. B) taps the same skills as g. C) predicts on-the-job performance as well as IQ. D) is unrelated to academic achievement. Answer: C Page Ref: 332 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

64)

Which of the following statements is true regarding IQ and practical intelligence? A) Unlike IQ, practical intelligence does not vary with ethnicity. B) IQ predicts on-the-job performance better than practical intelligence. C) Both IQ and practical intelligence are moderately correlated with emotional and social adjustment. D) Current evidence indicates that having practical intelligence is a strong predictor of having a high IQ. Answer: A Page Ref: 333 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

65)

Higher-IQ children and adolescents tend to A) have authoritarian parents. B) struggle with anxiety and depression. C) be bored at school. D) be better-liked by their agemates. Answer: D Page Ref: 333 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

66)

Research has shown that persistently aggressive children and adolescents A) score, on average, 8 points lower in IQ than nonaggressive children and adolescents. B) score lower in crystallized intelligence than fluid intelligence. C) are especially deficient in verbal ability. D) are highly verbal but lack practical problem-solving skills. Answer: C Page Ref: 333 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.5

67)

Professor Elgin is interested in how a family’s socioeconomic status (SES) affects children’s well-being. When measuring SES, which of the following variables will Professor Elgin consider? A) years of education, the prestige of one’s job and the skill it requires, and income B) race, years of education, and number of dependent children in the family C) amount of debt a family has, income, and social status within the community D) years of education, net worth, and family size Answer: A Page Ref: 334 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.6

68)

Which of the following statements is supported by current research on ethnic differences in general intelligence among children? A) American black children score, on average, 10 to 12 IQ points below American white children. B) Asian-American children score, on average, 15 IQ points above their white counterparts. C) Hispanic-American children score, on average, 12 to 14 IQ points below American black children. D) Hispanic-American children score, on average, 15 IQ points above their white counterparts. Answer: A Page Ref: 334 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.6

69)

Research on ethnic differences in IQ shows that A) the black–white IQ gap disappears when parental education and income are held constant. B) both Hispanic-American and African-American children score, on average, 10 IQ points below American white children. C) no ethnic differences in mental test scores exist during the first few years of life. D) ethnicity and SES account for only about one-fourth of the total variation in IQ. Answer: D Page Ref: 334 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.6

70)

Jensen’s article, “How Much Can We Boost IQ and Scholastic Achievement?” was controversial because he argued that A) IQ has little influence on academic achievement. B) heredity is largely responsible for individual, ethnic, and SES differences in IQ. C) the contribution of the environment to individual, ethnic, and SES differences in IQ is substantial. D) there are no significant individual, ethnic, or SES differences in IQ. Answer: B Page Ref: 334–335 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.6

71)

According to Herrnstein and Murray’s book, The Bell Curve, A) IQ variations are largely determined by environmental differences. B) ethnic and social class differences in IQ are unfounded. C) the relative role of heredity and environment in the black–white IQ gap remains unsolved. D) heredity plays a sizable role in the black–white IQ gap. Answer: D Page Ref: 335 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.6

72)

Heritability estimates are computed by comparing the IQ correlations of A) the same group of individuals at various points in time. B) individuals from different ethnic and SES groups. C) children of different ages. D) twins and other relatives. Answer: D Page Ref: 335 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

73)

Jack and Jake are fraternal twins who were reared together. Tom and Tim are identical twins who were reared apart. Based on prior research, one would expect the IQ correlation to be A) higher for Jack and Jake than for Tom and Tim. B) higher for Tom and Tim than for Jack and Jake. C) negative for Tom and Tim and positive for Jack and Jake. D) positive for Tom and Tim and negative for Jack and Jake. Answer: B Page Ref: 335–336 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.7

74)

The fact that IQ correlations increase with age for identical twins, but decrease with age for fraternal twins, suggests that A) the genetic likeness of identical twins causes them to seek out similar niches in adolescence and adulthood. B) the influence of rearing conditions on IQ is stronger for identical twins than fraternal twins. C) rearing experiences play a larger role early in life, whereas genetic influences play a larger role later in life. D) the contribution of heredity to IQ decreases with age. Answer: A Page Ref: 336 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.7

75)

Studies of IQ correlations between twins and other relatives show that the average correlation for A) identical and fraternal twins decreases into adulthood. B) fraternal twins living together is stronger than the average correlation for identical twins living apart. C) twin and nontwin siblings living together is stronger than the average correlation for those living apart. D) fraternal twins living apart is stronger than the average correlation for nontwin siblings living together. Answer: C Page Ref: 336 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

76)

When the range of environments to which twins are exposed is restricted, heritability estimates A) fail to take into account that twins reared apart often live in disadvantaged adoptive and foster families. B) underestimate the role of environment and overestimate the role of heredity. C) overestimate the role of environment and underestimate the role of heredity. D) grant an equal role to heredity and environment. . Answer: B Page Ref: 336 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.7

77)

Studies of heritability and SES variations in IQ show that A) factors associated with low income and poverty prevent children from attaining their genetic potential. B) heritability estimates provide strong evidence that ethnic differences in IQ have a genetic basis. C) the heritability of IQ is higher under low-SES than high-SES rearing conditions. D) heritability estimates can be used to account for between-group differences. Answer: A Page Ref: 336 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

78)

Heritability estimates computed within black and white populations provide A) direct evidence on what accounts for between-group differences in both black and white populations. B) direct evidence on what accounts for between-group differences in black populations but not in white populations. C) direct evidence on what accounts for between-group differences in white populations but not in black populations. D) no direct evidence on what accounts for between-group differences. Answer: D Page Ref: 337 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.7

79)

Adoption research has shown that A) adopted children show a decreasing resemblance in IQ to their biological mothers as they grow older. B) children of low-IQ biological mothers do as well as children of high-IQ biological mothers when placed in similar adoptive families. C) children of low-IQ biological mothers scored above average in IQ during the school years when adopted at birth by high-IQ parents. D) correlations between the IQ scores of adoptive relatives are higher than those of biological relatives. Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

80)

The Texas Adoption Project and other similar investigations confirm that A) both environment and heredity contribute to IQ. B) environment plays a greater role than heredity in IQ. C) heredity plays a greater role than environment in IQ. D) children adopted before age 6 score 10 to 15 IQ points below the mean. Answer: A Page Ref: 337 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

81)

Valerie, a child of a low-IQ biological mother, was adopted into a middle-SES family at a young age. Based on prior research, one would expect that A) Valerie would have a higher IQ than her adoptive parents’ biological children. B) Valerie would have a lower IQ than her adoptive parents’ biological children. C) Valerie would have about the same IQ as her adoptive parents’ biological children. D) Valerie’s IQ would be more strongly correlated with her adoptive than her biological relatives. Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.7

82)

Marita is an African-American child who was adopted into an economically well-off white family when she was a baby. Findings from several adoption studies predict that Marita will A) have an IQ considerably below that of white children growing up in similar families. B) attain a mean IQ 20 to 30 points higher than the typical scores of children growing up in low-income black communities. C) experience a 20- to 30-point drop in IQ between early childhood and adolescence. D) remain below the national average in IQ throughout childhood and adolescence. Answer: B Page Ref: 337 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.7

83)

Research on the Flynn effect indicates that the largest generational IQ gains have occurred on A) items strongly correlated with Spearman’s g. B) items emphasizing short-term and rote memory. C) items emphasizing crystallized intelligence. D) fluid-ability tests of spatial reasoning. Answer: D Page Ref: 338 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The Flynn Effect: Massive Generational Gains in IQ Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

84)

Between 1932 and 2002, IQ A) decreased by a total of 14 points. B) increased by a total of 22 points. C) showed little fluctuation. D) increased for black children and decreased for white children. Answer: B Page Ref: 338 Box: CUTLURAL INFLUENCES: The Flynn Effect: Massive Generational Gains in IQ Skill: Apply Objective: 8.7

85)

Which of the following factors accelerate the Flynn effect among specific children of a given generation? A) decreased test-taking motivation B) improved education C) college-educated mothers D) college-educated fathers Answer: C Page Ref: 338 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The Flynn Effect: Massive Generational Gains in IQ Skill: Understand Objective: 8.7

86)

Research on the Flynn effect indicates that A) IQ gains between generations are probably due to easier test items. B) IQ gains between generations present a major challenge to the assumption that ethnic variations in IQ are mostly genetic. C) this phenomenon is not evident in developing nations. D) the black–white gap in IQ is larger than the generational gain in fluid intelligence. Answer: B Page Ref: 338 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The Flynn Effect: Massive Generational Gains in IQ Skill: Remember Objective: 8.7

87)

Research on race and ethnicity indicates that A) DNA variation is greater within races than between races. B) ethnic and racial designations are more pronounced in the U.S. than in European nations. C) ethnic and racial designations have not changed over time. D) DNA variation is greater between races than within races. Answer: A Page Ref: 339 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

88)

Although not all experts agree, some maintain that IQ tests are fair to both majority and minority children because A) IQ tests are the only available between-race comparisons of mental ability. B) any biases against one group are offset by comparable biases against the other group. C) IQ tests predict academic achievement equally well for both groups. D) IQ tests are far less biased than other ability measures, such as dynamic assessment. Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

89)

Which off the following statements contributes to IQ test bias against ethnic minorities? A) Negative stereotypes about the test-taker’s ethnic group can undermine children’s IQ performance. B) Ethnic minority children often grow up in “object-oriented” rather than “people-oriented” homes. C) Ethnic minority parents do not promote complex verbal skills, such as storytelling. D) Ethnic minority children are less concerned with pleasing their teachers than white children. Answer: A Page Ref: 339 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

90)

Compared to low-SES black parents, middle-SES white parents are more likely to ask their children A) story-starter questions. B) questions that have a “right” answer. C) questions to which they themselves do not know the answer. D) analogy questions. Answer: B Page Ref: 339–340 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.8

91)

Misty, an African-American child, lives in a home where the adults use a topic-associating style. Misty’s narratives are most likely to A) have little resemblance to real-life experiences. B) follow a hierarchical style of communication. C) recount events in consecutive order. D) blend several similar experiences. Answer: D Page Ref: 340 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.8

92)

Alonzo and Rita are ethnic minority parents without extensive schooling. When they are involved in completing tasks with their children, they are most likely to prefer a(n) style of communication. A) collaborative B) hierarchical C) authoritarian D) uninvolved Answer: A Page Ref: 340 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.8

93)

While learning to do long division, Tevon did not receive any feedback as to whether he was on the right track. As a result, Tevon began giving the first answer that came into his head. Tevon’s reaction in this situation is known as A) mental rotation. B) culturally distinctive disorganization. C) stereotype threat. D) disruptive apprehension. Answer: D Page Ref: 340 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.8

94)

Researchers assessing black and white community college students’ familiarity with vocabulary taken from items on an intelligence test found that the A) blacks were not as capable as whites at learning new words. B) two groups did not differ. C) whites had considerably more knowledge. D) blacks had considerably more knowledge. Answer: C Page Ref: 340–341 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.8

95)

In comparisons of children who are the same age but in different grades, A) black and white children score the same when verbal, fact-oriented items are eliminated from tests. B) performance on crystallized test items, but not on fluid test items, depends on prior learning opportunities. C) those who play video games perform poorly on fluid test items. D) those who have been in school longer score higher on intelligence tests. Answer: D Page Ref: 341 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.8

96)

Which of the following statements is true regarding stereotype threat and test performance? A) If aware of ethnic stereotypes, African-American and Hispanic children perform far worse in “test” conditions than in “not a test” conditions. B) If aware of ethnic stereotypes, African-American and Hispanic children perform far worse in “not a test” conditions than in “test” conditions. C) Mounting evidence confirms that stereotype threat does not affect test performance in children or adults. D) Stereotype threat only affects test performance when examiners are poorly trained. Answer: A Page Ref: 341 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

97)

Ella is African American. As she goes through middle childhood, she will A) become less conscious of ethnic stereotypes. B) become increasingly conscious of ethnic stereotypes. C) be immediately assigned to remedial classes when she performs poorly on an IQ test. D) be indifferent to ethnic stereotypes. Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.8

98)

Dynamic assessment is consistent with A) Piaget’s theory. B) the information-processing perspective. C) behaviorism. D) Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development. Answer: D Page Ref: 342 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.8

99)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on dynamic testing? A) Dynamic testing is a better measure of academic achievement than traditional intelligence tests. B) Most ethnic minority children perform less competently following adult assistance. C) Children’s capacity to transfer what they have learned to novel problems adds considerably to the prediction of future test performance. D) Dynamic testing is efficient because it requires very little training and can be completed in the classroom. Answer: C Page Ref: 342 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

100)

In his 6th grade classroom, Mr. Kellerman individualizes instruction to each child’s needs to help the child move beyond her current level of development. Mr. Kellerman is most likely using A) traditional teaching methods. B) dynamic assessment. C) a universal curriculum designed for use in public schools. D) a combination of aptitude and achievement tests. Answer: B Page Ref: 342 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.8

101)

Studies of standardized testing provide evidence that A) dynamic assessment is more efficient and less time-consuming than traditional tests. B) static assessment frequently overestimates how well children do on test items after receiving adult assistance. C) dynamic assessment is more effective than traditional tests in predicting academic achievement. D) U.S. education is placing greater emphasis on traditional test scores. Answer: D Page Ref: 342 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

102)

Because the main goal of high-stakes testing is to upgrade the performance of poorly achieving students, low-income and ethnic minority children are A) especially likely to be exposed to narrowly focused, regimented teaching. B) protected from being trapped in poor-performing schools. C) dropping out of school in fewer numbers. D) more likely to experience teachers who emphasize deeper understanding of material. Answer: A Page Ref: 343 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: High-Stakes Testing Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

103)

Research on school achievement suggests that A) high-stakes testing improves educational quality in most public schools. B) most achievement tests were designed to measure the specific skills covered in the classroom. C) many students who get passing grades fail high-stakes exams because a time-limited test taps only certain skills. D) achievement test scores are a better measure of a child’s true abilities than teacher-assigned grades. Answer: C Page Ref: 343 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: High-Stakes Testing Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

104)

Students most likely to score poorly on high-stakes exams are A) children with a high IQ. B) children with a low IQ. C) children who did not attend an early intervention program such as Head Start. D) minority youths living in poverty. Answer: D Page Ref: 343 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: High-Stakes Testing Skill: Understand Objective: 8.8

105)

Which of the following nonshared environmental influences would make Dani and Tami, who are sisters, different from one another? A) the availability of video games in the home B) having a family pet C) unique treatment by their parents D) parental modeling of cognitively challenging activities Answer: C Page Ref: 344 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.9

106)

Evidence on Home Observation for Measurement of the Environment (HOME) confirms that A) stimulation provided by parents is moderately linked to mental development. B) the black–white disparity in preschoolers’ IQ decreases with age. C) the extent to which parents talk to infants and toddlers contributes strongly to early spatial reasoning skills. D) little can be done to increase the mental development of poverty-stricken children. Answer: A Page Ref: 344 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.9

107)

Research using the HOME checklist has shown that A) when researchers control for SES, the black–white disparity in preschoolers’ IQ increases by a few points. B) the HOME–IQ relationship declines in middle childhood. C) HOME scores do not predict IQ beyond the effects of maternal education and intelligence. D) the HOME–IQ correlation is stronger for adopted children than biological children. Answer: B Page Ref: 345 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.9

108)

Research has shown that family living conditions, such as those measured by HOME, A) predict children’s IQ beyond the contribution of parental IQ and education. B) show equally strong correlations with IQ for both adopted and biological children. C) are not associated with IQ for low-SES ethnic minority children. D) predict children’s school performance better than IQ scores. Answer: A Page Ref: 345 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.9

109)

Kinship research suggests that A) nonshared environmental factors are more powerful than shared influences on IQ. B) in adolescence, the IQ resemblance between fraternal twins increases. C) the impact of nonshared environmental influences is greatest in childhood. D) shared environmental factors are more powerful than nonshared influences on IQ. Answer: A Page Ref: 346 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.9

110)

Longitudinal research shows that A) the impact of shared environmental influences is greatest in adolescence. B) birth order and spacing are strong predictors of IQ. C) in adolescence, the IQ resemblance between fraternal twins increases. D) the IQs of unrelated siblings are no longer correlated at adolescence. Answer: D Page Ref: 346 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.9

111) Research on Head Start programs has shown that A) improvements in IQ and school achievement last well into adolescence. B) one year’s intervention is not a sufficient amount of time to boost children’s IQ scores. C) its benefits in IQ and academic achievement often disappear during the first two to three years of elementary school. D) improvements in IQ test scores decline more rapidly for Mexican-American children than for African-American children. Answer: C Page Ref: 347 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.10

112)

Rami comes from a poverty-stricken family and attends Head Start. Which of the following statements is true about Rami? A) Rami will show academic benefits throughout his school years. B) Rami is less likely to be placed in special education or retained in grade. C) Rami is unlikely to experience any lasting benefits in attitudes and motivation. D) Rami is unlikely to show any benefits in IQ or achievement tests scores once he enters kindergarten. Answer: B Page Ref: 347 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.10

113)

Which of the following statements is true about graduates of the Carolina Abecedarian Project? A) Treatment children sustained their IQ advantage until last tested at age 21. B) Graduates of the school-age intervention maintained an IQ advantage only through middle school. C) Interventions during infancy were not especially effective in boosting graduates’ mental development. D) Treatment children lost their IQ advantage during adolescence. Answer: A Page Ref: 348 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.10

114)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on Head Start? A) The lifetime return to society is estimated to be more than $300,000 on an investment of $17,000 per preschool child. B) Children show gains in school adjustment only if intervention is continued throughout the elementary school years. C) In the United States, almost all children who are eligible for early intervention receive services. D) Gains in IQ often dissolve quickly in the early elementary school years because Head Start has little effect on children’s motivation and attitudes about school. Answer: A Page Ref: 349 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.10

115)

One factor that contributes to the enduring impact of high-quality early intervention programs is an emphasis on A) parent responsibility for payment of services. B) parent involvement, education, and support. C) rote and drill of basic reading and math facts. D) services for children with special needs like autism and cerebral palsy. Answer: B Page Ref: 349 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.10

116)

In the Head Start REDI enrichment program, which of the following activities would foster children’s social skills? A) teachers reinforcing new vocabulary words with pictures B) parents receiving one-on-one mentoring from coaches C) teachers using puppet characters and role-play demonstrations D) specially designed learning centers promoting phonological awareness Answer: C Page Ref: 351 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: The Head Start REDI Program: Strengthening School Readiness in Economically Disadvantaged Preschoolers Skill: Understand Objective: 8.10

117)

Convergent thinking contrasts with divergent thinking because it involves A) a form of intelligence that emphasizes the ability to see relationships among stimuli. B) the type of cognition emphasized on intelligence tests. C) mental abilities apparent in the real world but not in testing situations. D) abstract reasoning and problem-solving abilities. Answer: B Page Ref: 350 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.11

118)

Which of the following tasks measures divergent thinking? A) taking a true/false quiz B) mentally rotating abstract figures C) repeating strings of letters and numbers D) naming uses for common objects, such as a newspaper Answer: D Page Ref: 350 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.11

119)

Tests of divergent thinking A) are known as the psychometric approach to creativity. B) do not allow scores to be compared to standardization samples. C) are good predictors of creative accomplishment in everyday life. D) are better measures of mental ability than traditional IQ tests. Answer: A Page Ref: 352 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.11

120)

According to Sternberg’s and Lubart’s investment theory of creativity, A) high intelligence is the main determinant of creativity. B) people are born with greater or lesser creativity potential. C) only a small minority of people have the genetic potential to be highly creative. D) creativity depends on a person’s cognitive, personality, motivational, and environmental resources. Answer: D Page Ref: 352 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.11

121)

According to the investment theory of creativity, which of the following children exhibits an essential characteristic of creativity? A) Polly is intolerant of ambiguity. B) Swen alternates between fluid and crystallized thinking. C) Yasmin has the ability to find problems. D) Tanner has a high IQ. Answer: C Page Ref: 352 Skill: Apply Objective: 8.11

122)

Research on creativity demonstrates that A) creativity involves alternating between divergent and convergent thinking. B) extensive knowledge is not necessary to make a creative contribution to a field. C) IQ and creativity are highly correlated. D) creative people tend to have little patience and persistence in the face of obstacles. Answer: A Page Ref: 353 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.11

123)

Task-focused motivation A) focuses on extrinsic rewards like grades or prizes. B) is necessary for creativity. C) often impairs performance. D) is detrimental to creativity. Answer: B Page Ref: 353 Skill: Remember Objective: 8.11

124)

Gifted children and adolescents A) report more emotional and social difficulties than their ordinary agemates. B) learn best in classes that stress knowledge acquisition above all else. C) are more likely than their average-achieving peers to drop out of school and engage in antisocial behavior. D) flourish in classrooms where analytical skills are emphasized over generating new ideas. Answer: A Page Ref: 354 Skill: Understand Objective: 8.11

ESSAY 125)

Describe factors that led to the development of the first intelligence tests, and explain Binet’s and Simon’s contribution to the intelligence testing movement. Answer: The social and educational climate of the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries led to the development of the first intelligence tests. With the beginning of universal public education in Europe and North America— allowing all children, not just society’s privileged, to enroll in school—educators sought methods to identify students who were unable to benefit from regular classroom instruction. The first successful intelligence test, constructed by French psychologist Alfred Binet and his colleague Theodore Simon in 1905, responded to this need. The French Ministry of Instruction asked Binet to devise an objective method for assigning pupils to special classes—one based on mental ability, not classroom disruptiveness. Binet believed that test items should tap complex mental activities involved in intelligent behavior, such as memory and reasoning. Consequently, Binet and Simon devised a test of general ability that included a variety of verbal and nonverbal items, each requiring thought and judgment. Their test was also the first to associate items of increasing difficulty with chronological age. This enabled Binet and Simon to estimate how much a child was behind or ahead of his or her agemates in intellectual development. The Binet test was so successful in predicting school performance that it became the basis for new intelligence tests. The English version has been known as the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Page Ref: 320–321

126)

Explain Cattell’s theory of intelligence, including how it relates to children with different cultural and educational backgrounds. Answer: According to Cattell, in addition to Spearman’s g, intelligence consists of two broad factors. Crystallized intelligence refers to skills that depend on accumulated knowledge and experience, good judgment, and mastery of social customs—abilities acquired because they are valued by the individual’s culture. On intelligence tests, vocabulary, general information, and arithmetic problems are examples of items that emphasize crystallized intelligence. In contrast, fluid intelligence depends more heavily on basic informationprocessing skills—the ability to detect relationships among stimuli, the speed with which the individual can analyze information, and the capacity of working memory. Fluid intelligence, which is assumed to be influenced more by conditions in the brain and less by culture, often works with crystallized intelligence to support effective reasoning, abstraction, and problem solving. Among children with similar cultural and educational backgrounds, crystallized and fluid intelligence are highly correlated and difficult to distinguish in factor analyses, probably because children high in fluid intelligence acquire information more easily. But in children differing greatly in cultural and educational experiences, the two abilities show little relationship; children with the same fluid capacity may perform quite differently on crystallized tasks. As these findings suggest, Cattell’s theory has important implications for the issue of cultural bias in intelligence testing. Tests aimed at reducing culturally specific content usually emphasize fluid over crystallized items. Page Ref: 321–322

127)

Describe Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences and its similarity to the core knowledge perspective (discussed in Chapter 6). Answer: Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences defines intelligence in terms of distinct sets of processing operations that permit individuals to solve problems, create products, and discover new knowledge in a wide range of culturally valued activities. Dismissing the idea of general intelligence, Gardner proposes at least eight independent intelligences: linguistic, logico-mathematical, musical, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, naturalist, interpersonal, and intrapersonal. Gardner believes that each intelligence has a unique biological basis, a distinct course of development, and different expert, or “end-state,” performances. At the same time, he emphasizes that a lengthy process of education is required to transform any raw potential into a mature social role. Cultural values and learning opportunities affect the extent to which a child’s strengths are realized and the way they are expressed. Gardner finds neurological support for the separateness of these abilities particularly compelling. The existence of people with unusual profiles of intelligence also fits with Gardner’s belief in distinct abilities. Gardner’s theory holds similarities to the core knowledge perspective. Indeed, he accepts the existence of innately specified, core domains of thought, present at birth or emerging early in life. Then, as children respond to the demands of their culture, they transform those intelligences to fit the activities they are called on to perform. Gardner’s work has been especially helpful in efforts to understand and nurture children’s special talents Page Ref: 325–326

128)

How stable are IQ scores, and how well do they predict academic achievement, occupational attainment, and psychological adjustment? Answer: Preschool scores predict less well than later scores because, with age, test items focus less on concrete knowledge and more on complex reasoning and problem solving, which require different skills. Another explanation is that during periods of rapid development, children frequently change places in a distribution. One child may spurt ahead and reach a plateau; a second child, progressing slowly and steadily, may eventually overtake the first. Finally, IQ may become more stable after schooling is under way because daily classroom activities and test items become increasingly similar. Then, variations among children in quality of school experiences and in mastery of those experiences may help sustain individual differences in IQ. Students with higher IQs also get better grades and stay in school longer. Beginning at age 7, IQ is moderately correlated with adult educational attainment. Some researchers support the view that an intelligence test is, in fact, partly an achievement test, and a child’s past experiences affect performance on both measures. Others favor the idea that heredity contributes strongly to individual differences in IQ. Research indicates that childhood IQ predicts adult occupational attainment just about as well as it correlates with academic achievement. By second grade, children with the highest IQs are more likely, as adults, to enter prestigious professions, such as engineering, law, medicine, and science. Educational attainment is actually a stronger predictor than IQ of occupational success and income. IQ is moderately correlated with emotional and social adjustment. Higher-IQ children and adolescents tend to be better-liked by their agemates. Besides IQ, good peer relations are linked to patient but firm childrearing practices and an even-tempered, sociable personality, both of which are positively correlated with IQ. In sum, IQ predicts diverse life success indicators, but does so imperfectly. These findings provide strong justification for not relying on IQ alone when forecasting a child’s future or making important educational placement decisions. Page Ref: 331–333

129)

What do adoption studies reveal about the effects of heredity and environment on IQ? Answer: In adoption studies, researchers gather two types of information: (1) correlations of the IQs of adopted children with those of their biological and adoptive parents, for insight into genetic and environmental influences; and (2) changes in the absolute value of IQ as a result of growing up in an advantaged adoptive family, for evidence on the power of the environment. Findings consistently reveal that when young children are adopted into caring, stimulating homes, their IQs rise substantially compared with the IQs of nonadopted children who remain in economically deprived families. But adopted children benefit to varying degrees. In one investigation, children of two extreme groups of biological mothers—those with IQs below 95 and those with IQs above 120—were adopted at birth by parents who were well above average in income and education. During the school years, the children of the low-IQ biological mothers scored above average in IQ but did less well than the children of high-IQ biological mothers placed in similar adoptive families. Parent–child correlations revealed that as the children grew older, they became more similar in IQ to their biological mothers and less similar to their adoptive parents. Other investigations confirm that both environment and heredity contribute to IQ. In fact, children adopted in the early years attain IQs that, on average, match the scores of their adoptive parents’ biological children and the scores of nonadopted peers in their schools and communities. These outcomes suggest a sizable role for environment in explaining SES variations in mental test scores. At the same time, adoption studies repeatedly reveal stronger correlations between the IQ scores of biological relatives than between those of adoptive relatives—clear evidence for a genetic contribution. Page Ref: 337

130)

Describe and evaluate current views on divergent and convergent thinking, including the psychometric approach and the investment theory of creativity. Answer: Until recently, a purely cognitive perspective dominated research on creativity. Commonly used tests tapped divergent thinking—the generation of multiple and unusual possibilities when faced with a task or problem. Divergent thinking contrasts with convergent thinking, which involves arriving at a single correct answer and is emphasized on intelligence tests. Tests of divergent thinking are known as the psychometric approach to creativity because they permit scores to be compared to the performance of standardization samples. Yet critics note that these measures are poor predictors of creative accomplishment in everyday life because they tap only one of the complex cognitive contributions to creativity. And they say nothing about personality traits, motivation, and environmental circumstances that foster creative potential. Still, divergent-thinking tests do tap relevant skills, have been the major focus of research on creativity in children, and have enhanced our understanding of the development of creativity. Recent theories agree that many elements must converge for creativity to occur. One influential multifaceted approach is Sternberg’s and Lubart’s investment theory of creativity. According to Sternberg and Lubart, pursuing a novel project (one not being tackled by others) increases the chances of arriving at a creative, highly valued product. But whether a person invests in novelty depends on that person’s cognitive, personality, motivational, and environmental resources. Divergent thinking is essential for generating novel solutions to problems. But the successful creator must also choose the best responses, setting aside fruitless options. Therefore, creativity involves alternating between divergent and convergent thinking. Page Ref: 350, 352–353

CHAPTER 9 LANGUAGE DEVELOPMENT MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Valerie is a college student studying to become a speech/language pathologist. In one of her classes, she is learning about the rules that govern the structure and sequencing of speech sounds. Valerie is studying A) phonology. B) semantics. C) grammar. D) pragmatics. Answer: A Page Ref: 360 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.1

2)

Reuben is a young child with a language impairment. He has difficulty expressing concepts using words and word combinations. Reuben has problems with A) grammar. B) pragmatics. C) semantics. D) phonology. Answer: C Page Ref: 360 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.1

3)

Before children can combine words and modify them in meaningful ways, they must A) have begun the mastery of vocabulary. B) master their culture’s narrative mode. C) understand the guidelines for effective conversation. D) figure out how gestures, tone of voice, and context clarify meaning. Answer: A Page Ref: 360 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.1

4)

is the aspect of grammar that provides the rules by which words are arranged into sentences. A) Phonology B) Morphology C) Syntax D) Semantics Answer: C Page Ref: 360 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.1

5)

Three-year-old Giselle says, “I swimmed like a fish, Mommy!” Giselle’s addition of the -ed ending, although incorrect, shows her growing awareness of A) syntax. B) semantics. C) phonology. D) morphology. Answer: D Page Ref: 360 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.1

6)

When 14-year-old Tatiana’s friends call her name, she responds with, “What?!” When her teacher calls her name, she responds by saying, “Yes, ma’am?” Tatiana’s responses indicate her understanding of A) grammar. B) syntax. C) semantics. D) pragmatics. Answer: D Page Ref: 360 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.1

7)

Children typically say their first word at about grammatical constructions by years. A) 6; 2 to 3 B) 9; 3 to 4 C) 12; 4 to 5 D) 18; 5 to 6 Answer: C

months and have mastered a large vocabulary and most

Page Ref: 360 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

8)

Professor Chan believes that language is a unique human accomplishment that children acquire naturally due to the structure of the brain. Professor Chan supports the perspective of language development. A) nativist B) behaviorist C) interactionist D) sociocultural Answer: A Page Ref: 360 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.2

9)

Noam Chomsky reasoned that A) in early childhood, rewards and punishments support language development. B) young children are unable to assume much responsibility for their own language learning. C) the rules for sentence organization are too complex to be directly taught to cognitively sophisticated young children. D) language, like any other behavior, is acquired through imitation and operant conditioning. Answer: C Page Ref: 360 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

10)

Chomsky’s language acquisition device (LAD) refers to A) instructional techniques for children with speech and language delays. B) speech programs that parents can use to teach their children grammatical rules. C) computer programs that attempt to generate the linguistic rules that are needed for language acquisition. D) an innate system that permits children to combine words into grammatically consistent, novel utterances. Answer: D Page Ref: 360 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

11)

Based on her experience with young infants, Maria, a child-care worker, wonders if children are born with a built-in storehouse of rules that are common to all human languages. Maria is pondering the concept of A) linguistic expansions. B) infant-directed speech. C) private speech. D) universal grammar. Answer: D Page Ref: 361 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.2

12)

According to the nativist perspective, children master the structure of language A) only with deliberate training from parents. B) spontaneously, with only limited language exposure. C) at different rates, depending on their native language. D) quickly, but only in its simplest forms; more complicated forms come much later. Answer: B Page Ref: 361 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

13)

With extensive training, dolphins and parrots can acquire a vocabulary and respond to short, novel sentences, A) although they do so less consistently than a preschool child. B) but only chimps can be taught to produce strings of three or more symbols that conform to a rule-based structure. C) showing that they follow the same grammatical rules as humans in their own “language.” D) and are highly attuned to recognize human intentions that motivate use of language. Answer: A Page Ref: 361 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

14)

Common chimps, the species studied most often, have been A) able to consistently predict others’ goals. B) shown to have a broad understanding of others’ mental states. C) taught artificial languages and American Sign Language. D) taught to produce strings of three or more symbols that conform to a rule-based structure. Answer: C Page Ref: 361 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

15)

Research conducted with Kanzi, a bonobo chimp, A) shows that bonobos are capable of conversation that includes asking questions and sharing information. B) produced no definitive results about Kanzi’s linguistic achievements. C) proves that chimps are capable of communicating basic needs, but nothing else. D) indicates that chimps are better at communicating through the use of written, rather than visual, symbols. Answer: B Page Ref: 361 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

16)

Research on language acquisition in animals A) supports Chomsky’s assumption of a uniquely human capacity for an elaborate grammar. B) shows that animals can produce complex and novel sentences. C) shows that not even the brightest animals can comprehend language. D) shows that chimps are intelligent enough to comprehend and produce elaborate, human-like sentences. Answer: A Page Ref: 361 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

17)

In one study, deaf toddlers and preschoolers whose parents discouraged manual signing and addressed them verbally A) spontaneously produced a gestural communication system. B) reached language milestones at the same time as their hearing agemates. C) did not develop stable vocabularies or systematic grammatical rules. D) generated a communication system that was limited to writing. Answer: A Page Ref: 362 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Deaf Children Invent Language Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

18)

Which of the following statements is true regarding homesign? A) Children who use homesign reach language milestones at the same rate as hearing children. B) Children typically pick up the homesign gesture system from their parents. C) Homesign does not follow any basic grammatical rules. D) Homesign is used for the same diverse purposes as any language. Answer: D Page Ref: 362 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Deaf Children Invent Language Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

19)

In American Sign Language (ASL), accurately expressing motion requires A) at least some ability to hear low tones. B) well-developed fine-motor skills. C) up to seven grammatical markers. D) an understanding of pragmatic communication. Answer: C Page Ref: 363 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Deaf Children Invent Language Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

20)

Wernicke’s area, located in the left temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex, plays a role in A) comprehending word meaning. B) supporting grammatical processing. C) communicating with motor areas involved in speaking. D) supporting language production. Answer: A Page Ref: 363 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

21)

Research has shown that Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas of the brain A) are not solely responsible for specific language functions. B) are solely responsible for language comprehension. C) cease functioning when the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex sustains damage. D) help to support language plasticity in the cerebral cortex. Answer: A Page Ref: 363 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

22)

Sean was not wearing a helmet when he flipped his ATV and subsequently suffered damage to his brain’s frontal lobe. We can anticipate that Sean will A) have difficulty producing language. B) be unable to understand spoken language. C) be unable to understand written language. D) experience spatial reasoning problems. Answer: A Page Ref: 363 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.2

23)

Physiological research on Chomsky’s notion of a brain prepared to process language indicates that A) electrical activity is distributed across both hemispheres of the cerebral cortex. B) the broad association of language functions is right-hemispheric. C) electrical activity becomes increasingly concentrated in the right-hemispheric region. D) the broad association of language functions is left-hemispheric. Answer: D Page Ref: 363 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

24)

Language areas in the cerebral cortex A) are found exclusively in the left hemisphere. B) are fully lateralized at birth. C) develop as children acquire language. D) are not fully functional until adulthood. Answer: C Page Ref: 363 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

25)

In studies of adults who had damage to their left hemisphere, abilities. A) phonological; semantic B) pragmatic; grammatical C) grammatical; semantic D) semantic; phonological Answer: C

abilities suffered much more than

Page Ref: 364 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

26)

Mr. Li is a 50-year-old college graduate from China who just immigrated to the United States and is learning English. Jet is 3 years of age and just immigrated to the United States from China and is also learning English. Jet will complete high school, but not college. What can we ascertain about the second-language acquisition of these two individuals? A) Jet will have greater English proficiency than Mr. Li only if he is raised in a non-Chinese-speaking household. B) By the time Jet is an adult, he and Mr. Li will have comparable English-speaking skills. C) Mr. Li will have greater English proficiency than Jet. D) Jet will have greater English proficiency than Mr. Li. Answer: D Page Ref: 364 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.2

27)

ERP and fMRI measures of brain activity indicate that second-language processing is A) more lateralized, and also overlaps more with brain areas devoted to first-language processing, in older than in younger learners. B) less lateralized, and also overlaps less with brain areas devoted to first-language processing, in older than in younger learners. C) better developed in adults who take language classes than in young children who immigrated to the United States in infancy. D) shared between the left and right hemispheres of the brain, whereas first-language processing is primarily located in the right hemisphere. Answer: B Page Ref: 365 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

28)

Which of the following factors underlie the younger-age language-learning advantage? A) neural networks becoming dedicated to processing native-language sounds B) sensitivity to sound variations in languages not regularly heard C) complete lateralization of the language function to the left hemisphere D) an ability to hear sound variations across all languages Answer: A Page Ref: 365 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

29)

The more “committed” the brain is to native-language patterns, the A) better children’s mastery of their native language. B) more effectively children acquire foreign language. C) more difficult it is for children to acquire reading skills. D) greater the chance the child is ambidextrous. Answer: A Page Ref: 365 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

30)

The absence of a complete description of abstract grammatical structures A) supports the existence of Chomsky’s LAD. B) casts doubt that one set of rules can account for the multiplicity of grammatical forms. C) provides clear evidence that children are naturally skilled at linking grammatical rules with strings of words. D) supports the behaviorist perspective of language development. Answer: B Page Ref: 365 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

31)

Which of the following findings raises doubt about Chomsky’s assumption that grammatical knowledge is innately determined? A) Adults and adolescents have more difficulty acquiring a second language than young children. B) Complete mastery of some grammatical forms is not achieved until well into middle childhood. C) Chimpanzees learn to communicate through sign language and symbols. D) As children acquire language, the brain becomes increasingly specialized for language processing. Answer: B Page Ref: 365 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

32)

Which of the following statements is a limitation of Chomsky’s nativist perspective? A) Chomsky’s theory cannot explain how children weave statements together into connected discourse and sustain meaningful conversations. B) Chomsky’s theory is inconsistent with research on efforts to teach language to nonhuman primates. C) Chomsky’s theory overemphasizes the role of social experience in language development. D) Chomsky’s theory ignores the existence of specialized regions in the brain that support language skills. Answer: A Page Ref: 365 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

33)

Jadzia is a young child with Williams syndrome. Recent evidence indicates that Jadzia will A) have less complex sentence production than a child with Down syndrome. B) depend on rule learning to acquire language skills. C) probably learn language by capitalizing on her social strengths. D) have a limited vocabulary and rarely speak in full sentences. Answer: C Page Ref: 366 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Language Development in Children with Williams Syndrome Skill: Apply Objective: 9.2

34)

The language abilities of individuals with Williams syndrome A) are evidence that language is controlled by an innate LAD. B) are not impaired in any significant ways. C) indicate that language is not separate from other human mental abilities. D) are very weakly correlated with working-memory capacity. Answer: C Page Ref: 366 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Language Development in Children with Williams Syndrome Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

35)

Dr. Bean believes that language development is a product of inner capacities and environmental influences. Dr. Bean’s belief is consistent with the perspective. A) behaviorist B) nativist C) interactionist D) dynamic systems Answer: C Page Ref: 366 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.2

36)

The most influential information-processing theories of language development are derived from research with A) adopted infants. B) connectionist, or artificial neural network, models. C) toddlers who use ASL. D) low-income and poverty-stricken children. Answer: B Page Ref: 366 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

37)

Currently, statistical learning theorists are investigating how might combine with other general-cognitive and language-specific processing abilities to explain children’s acquisition of increasingly complex language structures. A) sensitivity to statistical regularities B) learning American Sign Language C) becoming bilingual D) sensitivity to nonspeech sounds Answer: A Page Ref: 367 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

38)

Recent research shows that Wernicke’s area A) controls tongue movements required for speech production. B) is unrelated to language production or comprehension. C) controls speech comprehension. D) is more strongly associated with comprehension of nonverbal than of verbal sound. Answer: D Page Ref: 367 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

39)

According to the social interactionist perspective, , , and combine to help children discover the functions and regularities of language. A) positive social interactions; a strong sense of self; an understanding of abstract concepts B) cognitive ability; physical ability; enthusiasm for learning C) native capacity; a strong desire to understand others and be understood by them; a rich language environment D) the ability to imitate; recognize rules; recognize patterns Answer: C Page Ref: 367 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.2

40)

Social interactionists believe that children’s language development. A) built-in LAD is solely responsible for B) native language dictates the pace of C) social competencies and language experiences greatly affect D) neural processing speed determines Answer: C Page Ref: 367 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.2

41)

During the first year, sensitivity to language, cognitive and social skills, and environmental supports pave the way for the onset of A) social gesturing. B) spatial strategizing. C) theoretical reasoning. D) verbal communication. Answer: D Page Ref: 368 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.3

42)

Which of the following statements may explain why newborns are especially sensitive to their mother’s voice and their native tongue? A) Beginning at birth, infants are reinforced more for interacting with their mothers than their fathers. B) They are born with a LAD. C) They are repeatedly exposed to their mother speaking during pregnancy. D) They interact primarily with their mother after birth, which biases them toward her voice and language. Answer: C Page Ref: 368 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

43)

To distinguish between sounds such as “la” and “ra,” adults A) analyze the speech stream into phonemes. B) carefully follow morphological rules. C) rely on universal language markers. D) rely on their LAD. Answer: A Page Ref: 368 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.3

44)

Baby Rosalita, born to English-speaking parents, is able to differentiate between the soft “p” and sharp “p” phonemes used to distinguish meaning in the Thai language. Her parents perceive both sounds as identical. Rosalita’s parents are exhibiting A) categorical speech perception. B) semantic bootstrapping. C) referential communication. D) overregularization. Answer: A Page Ref: 368 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.3

45)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on categorical speech perception? A) A preference for the overall sound pattern of one’s native language to that of a different language emerges during the second half of the first year. B) Young infants are sensitive to a much wider range of speech categories than exists in their own language. C) At birth, infants organize speech into the phonemic categories of their own language. D) The emergence of categorical speech perception in the first few days after birth is largely due to adult interaction. Answer: B Page Ref: 368 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

46)

Which of the following statements is true regarding learning native-language sound categories and patterns? A) Findings indicate that categorical perception is unique to linguistic input. B) Phonemes tend to be similar across all contemporary languages. C) Compared to young infants, adults are sensitive to a much wider range of categories than exists in their own language. D) Between 6 and 8 months, infants start to organize speech into the phonemic categories of their own language. Answer: D Page Ref: 368 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

47)

According to research on language development, when do children begin to detect the internal structure of sentences and words? A) almost immediately after birth B) by the time they are 7 months old C) in the second half of the first year D) when they are between 12 and 14 months old Answer: C Page Ref: 369 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.3

48)

Research suggests that infants first use statistical learning abilities to A) learn a foreign language. B) locate words in speech. C) establish joint attention with caregivers. D) produce short sentences. Answer: B Page Ref: 369 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

49)

Ms. Lipscomb talks to her 4-month-old son using short sentences with distinct pauses between speech segments. She uses a high-pitched voice and exaggerated expressions, clearly pronouncing her words. Ms. Lipscomb is demonstrating A) infant-directed speech. B) baby talk. C) cooing. D) babbling. Answer: A Page Ref: 369 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.3

50)

Mothers’ exaggerated pronunciation in infant-directed speech is strongly associated with A) mild language delays in toddlerhood. B) advanced false-belief understanding in preschoolers. C) 6- to 12-month-olds’ increasing sensitivity to the phonemic categories of foreign languages. D) 6- to 12-month-olds’ increasing sensitivity to the phonemic categories of their native language. Answer: D Page Ref: 369 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

51)

Which of the following statements is true about infant-directed speech? A) Parents who use infant-directed speech are deliberately trying to teach infants to talk. B) Infants are more easily bored by infant-directed speech than other forms of communication. C) Most researchers advise parents to avoid using infant-directed speech, as it has been linked to language delays in early childhood. D) Toddlers’ first words and phrases are usually ones they hear often in their caregivers’ infant-directed speech. Answer: D Page Ref: 369 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

52)

Cooing in infancy refers to A) strings of different speech sounds. B) repeated consonant–vowel combinations. C) vowel-like noises. D) strings of several identical sounds. Answer: C Page Ref: 370 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.3

53)

Which of the following is the best example of babbling? A) “oooo” B) “mommy” C) “go car” D) “dadadadadada” Answer: D Page Ref: 370 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.3

54)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on babbling? A) Babies only begin babbling if they consistently hear human speech. B) Females typically begin babbling before males. C) Babies have a limited repertoire of babbled sounds, depending on their IQ. D) Deaf infants not exposed to sign language will stop babbling entirely. Answer: D Page Ref: 370 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

55)

Eight-month-old Thea and her mother watch a grasshopper in their yard. Her mother labels the grasshopper and describes what it is doing. Thea and her mother are engaged in A) telegraphic speech. B) referential communication. C) syntactic bootstrapping. D) joint attention. Answer: D Page Ref: 371 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.3

56)

Games like pat-a-cake and peekaboo A) tend to confuse children and may actually delay pragmatic development. B) hinder the transition from preverbal to verbal communication. C) foster infants’ understanding of the turn-taking pattern of human conversation. D) facilitate children’s understanding of illocutionary intent. Answer: C Page Ref: 371 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.3

57)

Baby Juan holds up his stuffed panda and points to it, making sure his father notices it. Juan is engaging in a gesture. A) protoimperative B) sociolinguistic C) protodeclarative D) manipulative Answer: C Page Ref: 371 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.3

58)

When baby Madeline drops her teddy bear out of her crib, she reaches toward it and whimpers, prompting her mother to pick up the bear and hand it to her. This is an example of a gesture. A) protoimperative B) sociolinguistic C) protodeclarative D) manipulative Answer: A Page Ref: 371 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.3

59)

In some cultures, such as the Kaluli of Papua New Guinea, adults rarely communicate with young children and never play social games with them, yet their children acquire language within the normal time frame. This suggests that A) social interactionists’ theories about language development are invalid. B) adult molding of communication during the first year is not essential. C) other individuals, such as older peers, mold early communication skills in these cultures. D) gesturing is more important than verbalization. Answer: B Page Ref: 371–372 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

60)

of all deaf children have hearing parents who are not fluent in sign language. A) Very few B) One-third C) Half D) The vast majority Answer: D Page Ref: 372 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Parent–Child Interaction: Impact on Language and Cognitive Development of Deaf Children. Skill: Remember Objective: 9.3

61)

In middle childhood, many deaf children of hearing parents achieve poorly in school, are deficient in social skills, and display impulse-control problems. Meanwhile, deaf children of deaf parents escape these difficulties. This is likely because hearing parents A) lack experience with visual communication. B) often become frustrated and give up on exerting any control over their deaf children. C) usually do not benefit from social support and training in how to interact with their nonhearing children. D) do not have access to medical services for children with special needs. Answer: A Page Ref: 372 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Parent–Child Interaction: Impact on Language and Cognitive Development of Deaf Children. Skill: Understand Objective: 9.3

62)

Fourteen-month-old Reese points to a picture of a dog in his book when prompted by his family. When his 3-year-old cousin asks him to “find the goggie,” Reese points to the dog. Reese’s actions indicate that he A) understands how the word “dog” is supposed to sound. B) does not really grasp the concept of the word “dog.” C) has strong word–object-association skills. D) may display speech problems when he is older. Answer: A Page Ref: 374 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.4

63)

Replacing is a common phonological strategy used by young children to simplify pronunciation of adult words. A) an ending vowel syllable with a consonant B) glides with liquid sounds C) individual sounds with unstressed syllables D) fricatives with stop consonant sounds Answer: D Page Ref: 375 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.4

64)

Three-year-old Kailyn says “dawbuddies” when referring to strawberries. Her father repeatedly corrects her mistake, but A) his attempts are unsuccessful because she will not learn the correct pronunciation until she matures. B) his attempts are unsuccessful because the word “strawberries” has too many syllables for a 3-year-old to pronounce clearly. C) it will take 1 to 2 weeks of constant practice until she can pronounce the word correctly. D) his attempts are unsuccessful because this type of mispronunciation is symptomatic of a speech disorder. Answer: A Page Ref: 375 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.4

65)

Phonological development is largely complete by age A) 3. B) 5. C) 7. D) 8. Answer: B Page Ref: 375 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.4

66)

When 6-month-olds listen to the words “Mommy” and “Daddy” while looking at side-by-side videos of their parents, they A) always look longer at their mother. B) always look longer at their father. C) look longer at the video of the named parent. D) look longer at the parent who feeds them most often. Answer: C Page Ref: 376 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.5

67)

As 3-year-old Settje acquires language, A) association; recognition B) recall; comprehension C) production; reception D) comprehension; production Answer: D

will develop ahead of

.

Page Ref: 376 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.5

68)

The speed and accuracy of toddlers’ A) comprehension B) seriation C) recognition D) production Answer: A

of spoken language increases dramatically over the second year.

Page Ref: 376 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.5

69)

Which of the following words is most likely to be among a toddler’s first spoken words? A) “skip” B) “ball” C) “tree” D) “chair” Answer: B Page Ref: 376 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.5

70)

are more often produced by Chinese than U.S. babies as their first words. A) Sound effects B) Animals C) Common objects D) Action words Answer: C Page Ref: 376 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.5

71)

Recent evidence indicates that most children A) do not experience a significant vocabulary spurt until they enter kindergarten, when vocabulary increases by 50 to 100 words per week. B) experience a vocabulary spurt during the toddler years, learning as many as 5 to 10 new words per day. C) experience a vocabulary spurt between ages 7 and 8, learning between 50 and 100 new words per day. D) show a steady, continuous increase in rate of word learning throughout the preschool years, adding as many as nine new words per day. Answer: D Page Ref: 377 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.5

72)

Mr. Chidie chases his 2-year-old son, Fana, saying, “I’m going to geech you!” When he catches Fana, he tickles him. Fana replies, “Geech, Daddy, geech!” in an attempt to receive another tickle. Fana’s connection of the term “geech” with tickling is an example of A) fast-mapping. B) shading. C) syntactic bootstrapping. D) semantic bootstrapping. Answer: A Page Ref: 377 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.5

73)

Which of the following toddlers would you expect to have the most advanced vocabulary? A) Claire, a shy girl B) Clarisse, an outgoing girl C) Carlton, a shy boy D) Carter, an outgoing boy Answer: B Page Ref: 377–378 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.5

74)

-style toddlers think words are for naming things, whereas talking about people’s feelings and needs. A) Referential; expressive B) Objective; social C) Receptive; expressive D) Expressive; referential Answer: A Page Ref: 378 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.6

-style toddlers believe words are for

75)

Research on styles of early language learning suggests that referential-style children often A) have parents who use verbal routines designed to support social relationships. B) have highly sociable personalities. C) have an especially active interest in exploring objects. D) spend a lot of time watching people. Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.6

76)

Cross-cultural research on semantic development shows that A) English-speaking toddlers are more likely than Asian toddlers to acquire action words in their beginning vocabularies. B) children in many cultures have more object words than action words in their beginning vocabularies. C) Asian toddlers are more likely than English-speaking toddlers to use object words. D) toddlers more readily understand extensions of action words to new contexts than extensions of object words. Answer: B Page Ref: 379 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.6

77)

Which state-word distinction is most likely to appear first in a child’s vocabulary? A) “today–tomorrow” B) “big–small” C) “wide–narrow” D) “now–then” Answer: B Page Ref: 379 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.6

78)

One-year-old Alex uses the word “hat” to refer only to his favorite blue baseball cap. Alex is demonstrating an error. A) overextension B) overregularization C) underregularization D) underextension Answer: D Page Ref: 379–380 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.6

79)

Two-year-old Nerea uses the word “ball” for anything round, including the moon, a globe, and a light fixture. She is making an error. A) overextension B) overregularization C) underregularization D) underextension Answer: A Page Ref: 380 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.6

80)

Three-year-old Serena refers to a squirrel as a “rabbit,” but points correctly to a squirrel when given the word squirrel in a comprehension task. Serena probably has A) difficulty discriminating between squirrels and rabbits. B) difficulty recognizing squirrels. C) difficulty pronouncing the word squirrel. D) a hearing disability. Answer: C Page Ref: 380 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.6

81)

During the elementary school years, vocabulary increases words. A) twofold; 25,000 B) threefold; 30,000 C) threefold; 60,000 D) fourfold; 40,000 Answer: D

, eventually exceeding comprehension of

Page Ref: 380 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.6

82)

Preschoolers do not understand why puns are funny because they have not yet developed the ability to A) handle unconventional word meanings. B) extend language meanings through metaphor. C) deal with word meanings on an entirely verbal plane. D) appreciate the multiple meanings of words. Answer: D Page Ref: 381 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.6

83)

As he prepares for college, 17-year-old Dylan wants to improve his vocabulary and understanding of figurative language. Dylan should A) read a wide variety of adult literary works. B) work with a study group. C) engage in extensive conversations with adults. D) enroll in a foreign-language class. Answer: A Page Ref: 381 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.6

84)

Research suggests that a child with good phonological memory A) had a better chance of transferring new words to long-term memory. B) does not use working memory for word recognition. C) bases most word recognition on visual cues. D) is typically slow at word recall. Answer: A Page Ref: 381 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.6

85)

Research on strategies for word learning indicates that young children A) learn to speak grammatically because these types of statements will effectively communicate their desires and needs. B) use different syntactic structures to associate vocabulary words with objects. C) develop specialized linguistic processing skills that enable them to analyze speech and detect semantic relationships. D) figure out the meanings of words by contrasting them with words they already know and assigning the new label to a gap in their vocabulary. Answer: D Page Ref: 382 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.6

86)

According to the principle of mutual exclusivity bias, children A) assume that objects have multiple labels. B) ignore the shapes of objects and focus instead on color distinctions. C) assume that words refer to nonoverlapping categories. D) discover the structure of sentences by relying on the meanings of words. Answer: C Page Ref: 382 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.6

87)

Ms. Varria holds up a particularly curly French fry and says, “Wow! This is a corkscrew fry!” Four-year-old Danita points to a little girl with curly hair and says, “Corkscrew hair!” Danita is using to decipher the meaning of corkscrew. A) fast-mapping B) syntactic bootstrapping C) the principle of mutual exclusivity D) telegraphic speech Answer: B Page Ref: 382 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.6

88)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on early word learning? A) The principle of mutual exclusivity sufficiently explains early vocabulary growth. B) Most word learning strategies are innate. C) Children’s first several hundred nouns refer mostly to objects well-organized by shape. D) Young children assume that all words refer to entirely separate categories. Answer: C Page Ref: 382 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.6

89)

According to the emergentist coalition model, infants rely solely on attend to cues until language develops further and A) perceptual; social; linguistic B) intonation; linguistic; social C) visual; verbal; social D) syntax; intonation; pitch Answer: A Page Ref: 383 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.6

cues, while toddlers increasingly cues play larger roles.

90)

Which of the following provides the best example of telegraphic speech? A) Two-year-old Robbie says, “I go to the store with you.” B) Baby Clara says, “Babababa,” while holding her bottle. C) Two-year-old Venla asks, “Daddy home?” D) One-year-old Tobias yells, “NO!” when his mother gets out her coat. Answer: C Page Ref: 384 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.7

91)

Two-year-old Jenna is taught nonsense words for a noun (pling for a soft, cuddly puppet) and a verb (dass for a rocking motion). Jenna is likely to A) easily combine the new noun with words she knows well. B) confuse the new noun with the new verb. C) produce novel word combinations with the new verb. D) understand both new words, but is unlikely to use them in spontaneous speech. Answer: A Page Ref: 385 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.7

92)

Most children are first able to produce a subject–verb–object word order A) by age 2. B) in the third year. C) upon entering kindergarten. D) by the end of elementary school. Answer: B Page Ref: 385 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.7

93)

Once children form three-word sentences, they add A) protoimperatives B) grammatical morphemes C) phonological stores D) protodeclarative gestures Answer: B

that change the meaning of sentences.

Page Ref: 386 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.7

94)

The sequence of acquiring grammatical morphemes depends on and A) overregularization; adult modeling of correct grammar B) development of the cerebral cortex; the language spoken in the home C) semantic bootstrapping; the existence of overextensions D) structural complexity; semantic complexity Answer: D Page Ref: 386 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.7

.

95)

Two-year-old Calvin said, “My cup falled,” when his cup fell off the table. Calvin’s error is known as an A) underregularization. B) underextension. C) overregularization. D) overextension. Answer: C Page Ref: 386 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.7

96)

Two-year-old Jacqueline says, “Mommy dancing,” rather than her usual “Mommy dance,” when her mother starts dancing. The -ing ending is known as a A) grammatical phoneme. B) grammatical morpheme. C) protodeclarative. D) recast. Answer: B Page Ref: 386–387 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.7

97)

Which of the following grammatical morphemes is acquired earliest by English-speaking children? A) noun possessive (Mary’s cat) B) verb present progressive ending (Laura jumping) C) noun plural (Boys) D) verb regular past tense ending (She spilled) Answer: A Page Ref: 387 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.7

98)

Four children all say, “No cookie.” Aneel means that he has eaten his cookie. Aria means she doesn’t want a cookie. Alex means he can’t find his cookie. Aveen means the cookie is not his. Which child uses the words “No cookie” as a rejection? A) Aneel B) Aria C) Alex D) Aveen Answer: B Page Ref: 387 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.7

99)

Which of the following questions is most likely to appear first in a young child’s speech? A) “Where Mommy hiding?” B) “Why is Sally sad?” C) “Daddy go work?” D) “What you are eating?” Answer: C Page Ref: 387 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.7

100)

Which of the following appears first as children’s speech matures? A) embedded sentences B) tag questions C) passive sentences D) verb phrases Answer: D Page Ref: 388 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.7

101)

Some experts have concluded that grammar is a product of general cognitive development and A) is modeled by experiential passives in everyday conversation. B) is learned primarily through semantic bootstrapping and syntax. C) occurs when regular verb forms are acquired before irregular forms. D) is explained by children’s tendency to search for consistencies and patterns of all sorts. Answer: D Page Ref: 388–389 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.8

102)

Tyrone groups words with agent qualities as subjects and words with action qualities as verbs. He then merges these categories into sentences. Tyrone is demonstrating A) semantic bootstrapping. B) syntactic bootstrapping. C) telegraphic speech. D) semantic complexity. Answer: A Page Ref: 389 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.8

103)

Among the theories of how grammatical development takes place, one holds that children have a special languagemaking capacity A) based on innate knowledge of grammatical categories. B) that determines much of a child’s cognitive development. C) directed by illocutionary intent. D) that supports the discovery of grammatical regularities. Answer: D Page Ref: 389 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.8

104)

Many adult reformulations inform children about grammar through which of the following two techniques, often used in combination? A) turnabout and shading B) overregularization and shading C) recasts and expansions D) semantic bootstrapping and infant-directed speech Answer: C Page Ref: 389 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.8

105)

Gina said, “My toy breaked,” and her mother replied, “Yes, you broke your toy.” Her mother’s response is an example of A) shading. B) recasting. C) turnabout. D) overregularization. Answer: B Page Ref: 389 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.8

106)

Research on the extent to which adult communication helps children correct errors and take the next grammatical step forward shows that such techniques A) are actually negative in outcome because children become overly frustrated. B) make no demonstrable difference in grammar development. C) are inconclusive in their impact. D) are dramatic in effect across cultures. Answer: C Page Ref: 390 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.8

107)

Enrique tells Jimmy that soccer is his favorite sport. Jimmy responds, “I like soccer, too. What’s your favorite position?” Jimmy’s response is an example of A) shading. B) a turnabout. C) an expansion. D) recasting. Answer: B Page Ref: 390 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

108)

When Latisha said, “I’m cold,” Mary shared her blanket with her. Mary’s actions reflect her understanding of A) illocutionary intent. B) turnabout. C) shading. D) referential communication. Answer: A Page Ref: 390–391 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

109)

exposes children to great breadth of language knowledge, and is especially helpful in modeling how to communicate in a clear, coherent narrative style. A) Independent exploration of picture books B) Dialogue with caregivers about storybooks C) Reading aloud with same-age peers D) Observing adults’ conversations Answer: B Page Ref: 391 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.9

110)

Which of the following children will probably have enhanced conversational skills? A) a first-born child who spends a lot of time playing with other first-born children B) a younger sibling who often plays with an older brother or cousin C) a younger sibling who usually plays with a parent D) a low-SES child who is the youngest in a large family Answer: B Page Ref: 391 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.9

111) To communicate effectively, 9-year-old Arpita must use her , through which she produces clear verbal messages and recognizes when messages she receives are unclear so she can ask for more information. A) referential communication skills B) illocutionary intent C) narrative skills D) sociolinguistic understanding Answer: A Page Ref: 391 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

112)

When 3-year-old Melissa was talking to her father on the phone, she asked, “What’s that?” as she pointed to a bug on the window. Melissa’s question demonstrates her lack of A) illocutionary intent. B) metalinguistic awareness. C) speech registers. D) referential communication skills. Answer: D Page Ref: 391 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

113)

Young children’s conversations appear A) more mature in highly demanding situations in which they cannot see their listeners’ reactions or rely on typical conversational aids. B) less mature in highly demanding situations in which they cannot see their listeners’ reactions or rely on typical conversational aids. C) egocentric and immature in face-to-face situations with unfamiliar adults or peers. D) adultlike in situations with familiar adults, such as parents, grandparents, or child-care workers. Answer: B Page Ref: 391 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.9

114)

What is the typical developmental pattern of young children’s narratives? A) classic, chronological, leapfrog B) evaluation, classic, leapfrog C) leapfrog, chronological, classic D) chronological, evaluation, classic Answer: B Page Ref: 392 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.9

115)

Preschoolers’ is/are partly responsible for their restricted narratives. A) egocentric thinking B) poor perspective-taking skills C) limited false-belief understanding D) limited working memories Answer: D Page Ref: 392 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.9

116)

Child M uses a topic-associating style of narrative, blending several similar anecdotes into a longer and more complex narrative than that of many other children. Child M is probably A) African American. B) an American white child. C) Japanese. D) Mexican American. Answer: A Page Ref: 393 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

117)

Mr. and Mrs. Manet’s children have advanced oral narrative skills. The Manets probably A) avoid using recasts and expansions with their children. B) eat meals together with their children. C) engage in authoritarian child rearing. D) communicate in English and a nonnative language. Answer: B Page Ref: 393 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

118)

Sara always says “please” and “thank you” in front of her grandmother, but not always when she is with her friends. This represents Sara’s sensitivity to A) speech registers. B) phonology. C) illocutionary intent. D) categorical speech perception. Answer: A Page Ref: 393 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.9

119)

Four-year-old Lacy asks her mother, “What’s that?” Her mother replies, “It’s an ice-cream maker.” Lacy says, “No, you’re the ice-cream maker and that’s an ice-cream make.” Lacy’s remarks illustrate A) illocutionary intent. B) referential communication skills. C) categorical speech perception. D) metalinguistic awareness. Answer: D Page Ref: 394 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.10

120)

strongly predict(s) reading progress in young children. A) Phonological awareness B) Telegraphic speech C) Illocutionary content D) Referential communication skills Answer: A Page Ref: 394 Skill: Remember Objective: 9.10

121)

Bilingual preschoolers A) are usually delayed in one or both languages. B) often have poor phonological processing skills. C) rarely mix the two languages in their everyday speech. D) can acquire good-to-native ability in a second language, depending on their exposure to it. Answer: D Page Ref: 396 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.11

122)

Nicholas is a bilingual child who sometimes produces an utterance in one language that contains one or more “guest” words from the other. Nicholas is engaging in A) code switching. B) semantic bootstrapping. C) overregularization. D) telegraphic speech. Answer: A Page Ref: 396 Skill: Apply Objective: 9.11

123)

Research shows that children who become fluent in two languages A) often receive support for their native language in school. B) are advanced in cognitive development. C) can acquire normal native ability in only one language. D) often show serious metalinguistic deficits. Answer: B Page Ref: 396 Skill: Understand Objective: 9.11

124)

Madelina speaks Spanish at home and has been placed in an English-only classroom in school. Madelina A) is at risk of school failure and dropout. B) will become proficient in English within 6 months. C) must teach her family to speak English at home so that they can continue to communicate with her. D) will excel at school and graduate with honors. Answer: A Page Ref: 397 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Two Approaches to Bilingual Education: Canada and the United States Skill: Apply Objective: 9.11

125)

In classrooms where children’s native language and English are integrated into the curriculum, minority children tend to A) exhibit more frustration, boredom, and withdrawal. B) experience serious academic difficulties. C) revert to using only their native language. D) acquire reading and speaking skills in the second language more easily. Answer: D Page Ref: 397 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Two Approaches to Bilingual Education: Canada and the United States Skill: Understand Objective: 9.11

ESSAY 126)

Describe the nativist and interactionist perspectives of language development. Answer: Linguist Noam Chomsky proposed a nativist theory that regards language as a uniquely human accomplishment, etched into the structure of the brain. Focusing on grammar, Chomsky reasoned that the rules for sentence organization are too complex to be directly taught to or discovered by even a cognitively sophisticated young child. Rather, Chomsky proposed that all children have a language acquisition device (LAD)—an innate system that permits them, once they have acquired sufficient vocabulary, to combine words into grammatically consistent, novel utterances and to understand the meaning of sentences they hear. Recent ideas about language development emphasize interactions between inner capacities and environmental influences. One type of interactionist theory applies the information-processing perspective to language development. The most influential information-processing accounts are devised from research with connectionist, or artificial neural network, models. Connectionist researchers design computer systems to simulate the multilayered networks of neural connections in the brain and program them with basic learning procedures. Other theorists blend Chomsky’s nativist perspective with the information-processing proposal that the human brain is extraordinarily skilled at detecting patterns. According to the social interactionist perspective, native capacity, a strong desire to understand others and to be understood by them, and a rich language environment combine to help children discover the functions and regularities of language. Children’s social competencies and language experiences greatly affect language development. In reality, native endowment, cognitive-processing strategies, and social experience may operate in different balances with respect to each component of language. Page Ref: 360, 366–367

127)

Describe early speech sounds, including the acquisition of communication skills during infancy and toddlerhood. Answer: Around 2 months, babies begin to make vowel-like noises, called cooing because of their pleasant “oo” quality. Gradually, consonants are added, and around 6 months babbling appears, in which infants repeat consonant– vowel combinations. Babies everywhere start babbling at about the same age and produce a similar range of early sounds. But for babbling to develop further, infants must hear human speech. Babies initially produce a limited number of sounds and then expand to a much broader range. Around 7 months, babbling includes consonant–vowel syllables common in spoken languages. And as caregivers respond contingently to infant babbles, infants modify their babbling to include sound patterns like those in the adult’s speech. Joint attention, in which the child attends to the same object or event as the caregiver, contributes greatly to early language development. Between 4 and 6 months, interactions between caregivers and babies begin to include give-and-take, as in pat-a-cake and peekaboo games. Around the first birthday, babies extend their joint attention and social interaction skills: They point toward an object or location while looking back toward the caregiver, in an effort to direct the adult’s attention and influence their behavior. Infant pointing leads to two communicative gestures. The first is the protodeclarative, in which the baby points to, touches, or holds up an object while looking at others to make sure they notice. In the second, the protoimperative, the baby gets another person to do something by reaching, pointing, and often making sounds at the same time. Over time, some of these gestures become explicitly symbolic. Soon toddlers integrate words with gestures, using the gesture to expand their verbal message. Toddlers’ use of preverbal gestures predicts faster early vocabulary growth in the second and third years.

Page Ref: 370–371

128)

Cite evidence that suggests that young children’s underextensions and overextensions are purposeful. Answer: When young children first learn words, they often do not use them just as adults do. They may apply words too narrowly, an error called underextension. For example, a young child may use the word “bear” to refer only to a special teddy bear to which he or she has become attached. A more common error between 1 and 2½ years is overextension—applying a word to a wider collection of objects and events than is appropriate. For example, a toddler might use the word “car” for buses, trains, trucks, and fire engines. Toddlers’ overextensions reflect their remarkable sensitivity to categorical relations. They apply a new word to a group of similar experiences, such as “dog” for any furry, four-legged animal or “open” to mean opening a door, peeling fruit, and untying shoe laces. Furthermore, the toddler who refers to trucks, trains, and bikes as “cars” is likely to point to these objects correctly when given their names in comprehension tasks. This suggests that children often overextend deliberately because they have difficulty recalling or have not acquired a suitable word. And when a word is hard to pronounce, toddlers frequently substitute a related one they can say. As vocabulary and pronunciation improve, overextensions disappear. Page Ref: 379–380

129)

Describe two accounts of how semantic development takes place. Answer: Young children’s fast-mapping is supported by a special part of short-term memory, a phonological store that permits us to retain speech-based information. The faster preschoolers can recall a just-presented sequence of nonsense words (a measure of phonological memory skill), the larger their current vocabulary and the greater their vocabulary growth over the following year. This suggests that a child with good phonological memory has a better chance of transferring new words to long-term memory and linking them with relevant concepts. By the end of the second year, phonological working memory is so good that toddlers can recognize familiar words on the basis of their initial sounds. Being able to identify a word rapidly on the basis of initial sounds has clear advantages: It frees working memory for other language tasks, such as comprehending longer and more complex strings of words. Young children figure out the meanings of words by contrasting them with words they already know and assigning the new label to a gap in their vocabulary. Over time, they refine the word’s meaning, striving to match its conventional use in their language community. Early in vocabulary growth, children adopt a mutual exclusivity bias—the assumption that words refer to entirely separate (nonoverlapping) categories. Once toddlers have acquired about 75 words, a shape bias is clearly evident: Previous learning of nouns based on shape heightens attention to the shape properties of additional objects. As a result, toddlers readily master additional names of objects, and vocabulary accelerates. Preschoolers discover many word meanings by observing how words are used in syntax, or the structure of sentences—a hypothesis called syntactic bootstrapping. Young children also take advantage of the rich social information that adults frequently provide when they introduce new words. An alternative perspective is that vocabulary growth is governed by the same cognitive strategies that children apply to nonlinguistic stimuli. A recent account, called the emergentist coalition model, proposes that word-learning strategies emerge out of children’s efforts to decipher language. Children draw on a coalition of cues—perceptual, social, and linguistic—which shift in importance with age. Page Ref: 381–383

130)

Summarize current theoretical views on how children acquire grammar. Answer: Evidence that grammatical development is an extended, learned process, beginning with knowledge of specific instances and building toward general categories and rules, has raised questions about Chomsky’s nativist account. Some experts have concluded that grammar is a product of general cognitive development—children’s tendency to search for consistencies and patterns of all sorts. According to one view, young children rely on other properties of language to detect basic grammatical regularities. In semantic bootstrapping, for example, they use word meanings to figure out sentence structure. In some languages, however, semantic categories and basic grammatical structures do not match up—a major problem for semantic bootstrapping. Other theorists believe that children master grammar through direct observation of the structure of language: They notice which words appear in the same positions in sentences, take the same morphological endings, and are similarly combined with other words. Over time, from exposure to many instances, they group words into grammatical categories and use them appropriately in sentences. Still, other theorists agree with the essence of Chomsky’s position. One idea accepts semantic bootstrapping but proposes that the grammatical categories into which children group word meanings are innate—present at the outset. Another theory holds that children do not start with innate knowledge but have a special language-making capacity—a set of procedures for analyzing the language they hear that supports the discovery of grammatical irregularities. Research on children learning more than 40 different languages reveals common patterns, consistent with a basic set of strategies. Yet controversy persists over whether a universal language-processing device exists or whether children who hear different languages devise unique strategies. In sum, virtually all investigators agree that young children are amazing processors of linguistic structure. But the extent to which adult education helps children correct errors and take the next grammatical step forward remains a contested issue in child language research. Page Ref: 388–390

131)

Describe pragmatic development, including factors that support early communication skills. Answer: Children must learn to use language effectively in social contexts—by taking turns, staying on the same topic, stating their messages clearly, and conforming to cultural rules for interaction. Additional conversational strategies include the turnabout (commenting on what has just been said and then adding a request to get the partner to respond), shading (changing the topic gradually by modifying the focus of discussion), and understanding illocutionary intent (what a speaker means to say even if the form of the utterance is not perfectly consistent with it). To communicate effectively, we must produce clear verbal messages and recognize when messages we receive are unclear so we can ask for more information. These aspects of language are called referential communication skills. Children’s ability to evaluate the adequacy of messages they receive also improves with age. Conversations with adults about past experiences contribute to dramatic gains in children’s ability to produce well-organized, detailed, expressive narratives. The ability to generate clear oral narratives contributes to literacy development, enhancing reading comprehension. The importance of adapting language to social expectations, known as speech registers, is evident in how often parents teach social routines, such as politeness. Greater skill at reflecting on the features of language and engaging in cognitive self-regulation also supports effective use of speech registers. Page Ref: 390–393

132)

Summarize the advantages of bilingualism, and describe a current approach to bilingual education in the United States. Answer: A large body of research shows that children who become fluent in two languages are advanced in cognitive development. Bilingual children outperform others on tests of selective attention, inhibition of irrelevant information, analytical reasoning, concept formation, and cognitive flexibility. They are also advanced in certain aspects of metalinguistic awareness, such as detection of errors in grammar, meaning, and conventions of conversation. The advantages of bilingualism provide strong justification for bilingual education programs in schools. Currently, some schools are trying a new approach—two-way bilingual programs, in which children with limited proficiency in English who speak a common native language and children who are fluent in English are assigned in equal numbers to the same classroom. Teaching is aimed at helping all children become fluent in both languages and at increasing cross-cultural understanding. The goal is to foster the linguistic, cognitive, and cultural enrichment of the entire nation. Page Ref: 396

CHAPTER 10 EMOTIONAL DEVELOPMENT MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

As Toshio approaches any situation, he rapidly appraises its personal significance, which prepares him for action. What does Toshio’s appraisal represent? A) emotion B) theory C) attitude D) temperament Answer: A Page Ref: 401 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.1

2)

The emphasizes that the broad function of goals. A) ethological theory of attachment; reasoning B) synchronist approach; language C) goodness-of-fit model; cognition D) functionalist approach; emotions Answer: D

is to energize behavior aimed at attaining personal

Page Ref: 401 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

3)

In the years since her mother’s death from breast cancer, Jeannine has participated in the local 5K run for cancer. When thinking about the run, Jeannine vacillates between pride and sadness. For Jeannine, this event has become A) personally relevant. B) a threat to her attachment security. C) an internal working model of anxiety and stress. D) a secure base. Answer: A Page Ref: 402 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.1

4)

Which of the following statements is true about emotions? A) Emotions are learned behaviors. B) Young children are unable to experience more than one emotion at a time. C) Authoritative parents tend to discourage emotional expression in their children. D) Emotional reactions can lead to learning that is essential for survival. Answer: D Page Ref: 402 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.1

5)

Which of the following four babies who went to the doctor for the same vaccination will most likely remember it better? A) Juan, who remained alert throughout the appointment B) Mari, who smiled and cooed at the doctor C) Wyatt, who was startled by the injection, but did not cry D) Bina, who was highly upset by the injection Answer: D Page Ref: 402 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.1

6)

The dynamic interplay between emotion and cognition begins A) in early infancy. B) in toddlerhood. C) during the preschool years. D) during the elementary school years. Answer: A Page Ref: 402 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

7)

In a study, researchers taught 2- to 8-month-olds to pull a string to activate pleasurable sights and sounds, to which the infants responded with interest, happiness, and surprise. Then, for a short period, pulling the string no longer turned on the attractive stimuli, and the babies’ emotional reactions changed to anger and sadness. Once the contingency was restored, the sad babies A) showed renewed interest. B) showed renewed enjoyment. C) turned away. D) reacted with high anxiety. Answer: C Page Ref: 402 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

8)

A baby coos and pats his mother’s face, but she does not respond. The baby makes repeated attempts through facial expressions, vocalizations, and body movements to gain her attention, all to no avail. The baby is now likely to A) coo at a toy. B) adopt a still-faced expression. C) engage in self-comfort strategies. D) turn away and cry. Answer: D Page Ref: 402 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.1

9)

The still-face reaction A) occurs when communication is between an infant and a still-faced doll. B) does not occur in nonindustrialized countries. C) occurs only when natural human communication is disrupted. D) is a learned response to a caregiver’s ambiguous communication. Answer: C Page Ref: 402 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

10)

By the end of the first year, babies become increasingly skilled at A) establishing an internal working model. B) joint attention. C) social smiling. D) labeling their feelings. Answer: B Page Ref: 403 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

11)

When her newborn brother cried, two-year-old Melly watched her mother’s reactions. On a later occasion when her brother cried, Melly patted him and spoke softly to him. This is an example of A) joint attention. B) self-efficacy. C) social referencing. D) emotional self-regulation. Answer: C Page Ref: 403 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.1

12)

Elevated heart rate and blood pressure, a depressed immune response, and reduced digestive activity are all outcomes of A) social referencing. B) an avoidant attachment. C) joint attention. D) psychological stress. Answer: D Page Ref: 403 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

13)

In a study of children reared in extremely depleted Romanian orphanages, the longer they remained in the orphanages, the A) higher their IQ scores. B) more resilient they became to environmental stressors. C) higher their cortisol levels. D) lower their cortisol levels. Answer: C Page Ref: 403 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

14)

About percent of women experience mild to severe feelings of sadness, distress, and withdrawal that continue for months or years. A) 1 to 3 B) 4 to 7 C) 8 to 10 D) 11 to 15 Answer: C Page Ref: 404 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Parental Depression and Child Development Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

15)

Which of the following statements is true about postpartum depression? A) About 3 to 5 percent of fathers report symptoms after the birth of a child. B) It subsides as the new mother adjusts to hormonal changes in her body. C) It subsides as the new mother gains confidence in caring for her baby. D) It is common and does not interfere with children’s development. Answer: A Page Ref: 404 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Parental Depression and Child Development Skill: Understand Objective: 10.1

16)

Infants of depressed mothers A) often turn to their fathers for caretaking needs. B) have abnormally low cortisol levels. C) quickly learn to sooth themselves. D) are less attentive to their surroundings. Answer: D Page Ref: 404 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Parental Depression and Child Development Skill: Remember Objective: 10.1

17)

Which of the following statements is true regarding paternal depression? A) At younger ages, paternal depression is linked to frequent father–child conflict. B) Children of depressed fathers tend to become overprotective parents. C) Persistent paternal depression is a strong predictor of child behavior problems. D) Over time, children exposed to paternal depression develop a positive worldview. Answer: C Page Ref: 404 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Parental Depression and Child Development Skill: Understand Objective: 10.1

18)

Three-month-old Tara displays excitement when she first reaches for and grabs a rattle. This excitement shows that Tara is developing A) fine-motor skills. B) self-conscious emotions. C) a sense of self-efficacy. D) basic emotions. Answer: C Page Ref: 405 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.1

19)

Cross-cultural evidence reveals that people around the world A) associate photographs of different facial expressions with emotions in the same way. B) use the same responses to express a particular emotion. C) become freer and more open about emotional expression with age. D) exhibit similar levels of stranger anxiety in infancy. Answer: A Page Ref: 405 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.2

20)

Which of the following is an example of a basic emotion? A) shame B) fear C) embarrassment D) guilt Answer: B Page Ref: 406 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.2

21)

According to the dynamic systems perspective, A) children coordinate separate skills into more effective, emotionally expressive systems as the central nervous system develops. B) children’s goals and experiences have only a minimal impact on emotional development. C) emotions become clear, well-organized signals by adolescence. D) infants come into the world with a repertoire of basic and self-conscious emotions. Answer: A Page Ref: 406 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.2

22)

Seven-week-old LaDonna breaks into a broad grin at the sight of her father’s face. LaDonna is displaying A) a social smile. B) a sense of humor. C) subtle laughter. D) a self-conscious emotion. Answer: A Page Ref: 406 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.2

23)

reflects faster processing of information than smiling. A) Anger B) Withdrawal C) Crying D) Laughter Answer: D Page Ref: 407 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.2

24)

Ten-month-old Annette is displaying a “mouth-open” smile. This reaction is probably a response to A) stimulating play. B) a parent’s greeting. C) a friendly stranger. D) a startling sound. Answer: A Page Ref: 407 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.2

25)

Which of the following children is likely to display the most intense anger reaction? A) a hungry newborn B) a bored 6-month-old C) a 12-month-old who has just had a toy taken away by a playmate D) an 18-month-old who has been put down for an unwanted nap Answer: D Page Ref: 407 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.2

26)

The most frequent expression of fear is A) stranger anxiety. B) the fear of falling. C) the fear of unfamiliar objects and toys. D) separation anxiety. Answer: A Page Ref: 407 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.2

27)

At the park, 13-month-old Felix wanders toward other toddlers, returns to his father, interacts briefly with a preschooler, and then returns to his father. Felix is demonstrating the concept of A) stranger anxiety. B) secure base. C) self-efficacy. D) emotional self-regulation. Answer: B Page Ref: 408 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.2

28)

Which of the following is an example of a self-conscious emotion? A) pride B) happiness C) sadness D) anger Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.3

29)

Self-conscious emotions A) appear in the middle of the first year. B) are universal in humans and other primates. C) involve injury to or enhancement of our sense of self. D) predict academic achievement during adolescence. Answer: C Page Ref: 408 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.3

30)

Three-year-old Kaylee wet her bed one night. In the morning, her mother said, “Wetting the bed is bad. I thought you were a good girl.” Kaylee’s self-evaluation is most strongly influenced by her A) mother’s feedback. B) maturity level. C) culture. D) gender. Answer: A Page Ref: 409 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

31)

Emotional self-regulation requires A) an understanding of basic emotions. B) voluntary, effortful management of emotions. C) a sense of self-efficacy. D) an easygoing temperament. Answer: B Page Ref: 409 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.3

32)

As a preschooler, Virgil experiences negative emotion intensely and has great difficulty inhibiting his feelings. When frustrated, Virgil is likely to A) react angrily or aggressively. B) withdraw into a make-believe world. C) stand by helplessly and watch classmates participate in activities without him. D) cry inconsolably and blame others for his situation. Answer: A Page Ref: 409 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

33)

Baby Hugo readily turns away from a highly stimulating novel event and engages in self-soothing. Hugo is probably A) more likely to feel shame after failure. B) more likely to feel pride after success. C) less prone to distress. D) highly distractible. Answer: C Page Ref: 410 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

34)

Baby Brenda is an anxious, emotionally reactive child with a reduced capacity for regulating emotion. Brenda’s inability to learn to calm herself may be a result of parents who A) do not intervene when she is agitated, but rather let her “tough it out” on her own. B) wait to intervene until she has become extremely agitated. C) read and respond contingently and sympathetically to her emotional cues. D) attempt to intervene before she becomes agitated in any way. Answer: B Page Ref: 410 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

35)

Gains in during the second year lead to new ways of regulating emotion. A) social skills B) motor development C) language D) visual acuity Answer: C Page Ref: 410 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.3

36)

Temper tantrums tend to occur because toddlers A) frequently compete with siblings for desired toys. B) are easily overwhelmed and often have a difficult temperament. C) recall that crying as an infant got them immediate adult attention. D) cannot control the intense anger that often arises when an adult rejects their demands. Answer: D Page Ref: 410 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.3

37)

Donna’s young daughter, Cali, is terribly afraid of cats. Donna can help Cali manage her fear by A) encouraging daily contact with kittens to alleviate her fear. B) showing Cali how small a cat is compared to humans, and tell her she should not be afraid of something so small. C) letting Cali approach cats at her own pace, showing her that cats can be friendly when treated gently. D) accepting her fear and helping her to avoid cats whenever possible. Answer: C Page Ref: 411 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

38)

You wonder if your son’s fear of birds has become a phobia. One indication that it has would be if A) his fear has persisted for over a week. B) his fear interferes with daily activities. C) he has begun to make jokes about birds in an attempt to overcome his fear. D) he is only afraid of birds in specific situations, such as when playing soccer outside. Answer: B Page Ref: 411 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

39)

Common fears during the school years include A) monsters and ghosts. B) acts of nature, such as thunder and lightning. C) family finances and college selection. D) poor academic performance and the possibility of personal harm. Answer: D Page Ref: 412 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.3

40)

Bao, a 10-year-old growing up in China, is more likely to list United States. A) adult criticism B) the possibility of war C) the possibility of natural disasters D) threats to parental health Answer: A

as a fear than children of a similar age in the

Page Ref: 412 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

41)

To manage her emotion, 12-year-old Britney appraises the situation as changeable, identifies the difficulty, and decides what to do about it. Britney is using A) a secure base. B) problem-centered coping. C) emotional self-efficacy. D) emotion-centered coping. Answer: B Page Ref: 412 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

42)

When emotional self-regulation has developed well, young people acquire a sense of A) entitlement. B) regulated self-expression. C) emotional self-efficacy. D) attachment. Answer: C Page Ref: 412 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.3

43)

By age 3, capacity for self-regulation predicts A) children’s skill at portraying an emotion they do not feel. B) empathy. C) anger and hostility toward peers. D) gender differences in make-believe play. Answer: A Page Ref: 413 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.3

44)

Which of the following children would be upset upon hearing her parents argue, but would most likely try to hide her emotions from them? A) Mira, who is a Buddhist B) Suddhira, who is a Hindu C) Christina, who is a Catholic D) Pearl, who is an atheist Answer: B Page Ref: 413 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.3

45)

Some researchers claim that young babies respond in kind to others’ emotions through a built-in, automatic process of A) emotional contagion. B) habituation and recovery. C) operant conditioning. D) social referencing. Answer: A Page Ref: 414 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.4

46)

As an unfamiliar adult starts to talk to three-year-old Rose, she becomes anxious and looks at her father, who smiles calmly at her. Reassured, Rose relaxes and responds to the new adult. Rose is demonstrating the use of A) sympathy. B) social referencing. C) empathy. D) emotional display rules. Answer: B Page Ref: 414 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.4

47)

Which of the following is the most effective method for a caregiver to encourage a wary 18-month old child to play with an unfamiliar toy? A) Quietly place the toy near the child. B) Engage the child in eye contact, smile, and point to the toy. C) Carry the child to the toy and silently put the child down. D) Use vocal encouragement, either alone or with a positive facial expression. Answer: D Page Ref: 414 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.4

48)

Miss Kennelly shows 14- and 18-month-olds broccoli and crackers. She acts delighted with the taste of the broccoli but disgusted with the taste of the crackers. When asked to share the food, which of the following is the most likely to occur? A) Fourteen-month-old Reese, who prefers crackers to broccoli, will offer Miss Kennelly broccoli. B) Fourteen-month-old Jake, who prefers broccoli to crackers, will offer Miss Kennelly crackers. C) Eighteen-month-old Gina, who prefers crackers to broccoli, will offer Miss Kennelly broccoli. D) Eighteen-month-old Samuel, who prefers crackers to broccoli, will offer Miss Kennelly crackers. Answer: C Page Ref: 414–415 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.4

49)

Four-year-old Clarissa realizes that when the class talks about fish during circle time, her friend Amy feels sad because her fish died recently. Clarissa puts her arm around Amy’s shoulders and pats her. Clarissa has reached a stage of cognitive development where A) she uses social referencing to comfort Amy. B) she realizes that thinking and feeling are interconnected. C) she becomes overwhelmed by others’ distress. D) internal explanations for emotional reactions are emphasized more than external explanations. Answer: B Page Ref: 415 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.4

50)

An appreciation of mixed emotions helps school-age children realize that A) people’s expressions may not reflect their true feelings. B) pride elicits the same emotion as happiness and surprise. C) basic emotions are more complex than self-conscious emotions. D) two emotions cannot really occur at once. Answer: A Page Ref: 416 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.4

51)

Which of the following mothers is more likely to have a child who is better at understanding emotions? A) Beth, who has four children and works full-time B) Betty, who has a secure attachment bond with her child C) Bev, who does not frequently talk about feelings or emotions with her child D) Bettina, who refuses to disagree with her husband in front of her children Answer: B Page Ref: 416 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.4

52)

Which of the following situations would be considered an excellent context for early learning about emotions? A) parallel play with a peer B) make-believe play with siblings C) solitary play D) functional play with a new playmate Answer: B Page Ref: 416 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.4

53)

Beginning in the preschool years, A) fear B) empathy C) social referencing D) emotional contagion Answer: B

is an important motivator of prosocial, or altruistic, behavior.

Page Ref: 417 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.5

54)

Which of the following describes the probable reaction of a 3-month-old who hears another infant crying? A) cries in response to the infant’s crying B) attempts to pat and comfort the other infant C) watches the other infant with a sense of curiosity D) cries louder than the other infant to gain a caregiver’s attention Answer: A Page Ref: 417 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.5

55)

During , advances in perspective taking permit an empathic response not just to people’s immediate distress, but also to their general life condition. A) infancy and toddlerhood B) early childhood C) middle childhood D) late childhood and adolescence Answer: D Page Ref: 417 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.5

56)

Twin studies reveal that empathy is A) rarely B) slightly C) moderately D) highly Answer: C

heritable.

Page Ref: 417 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.5

57)

Obert shows a sharp increase in EEG brain-wave activity in the right hemisphere after seeing a classmate crying. Obert is displaying A) a lack of empathy for another’s emotional needs. B) a strong sense of sympathy. C) an ability to self-regulate his own emotions. D) delayed social-referencing skills. Answer: A Page Ref: 418 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.5

58)

Mr. and Mrs. Yoto want to know how they can support the development of sympathetic concern in their 5-year-old son, Raj. Based on research, which of the following suggestions would you give the Yoto’s? A) Provide opportunities for community service activities. B) Avoid having disagreements in front of Raj. C) Allow Raj to independently work through conflicts with peers. D) Limit unstructured social activities until Raj is older. Answer: A Page Ref: 418 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.5

59)

When responding to a peer’s distress, children engage in physical attacks. A) of permissive parents B) of divorced parents C) who have been physically abused D) of authoritative parents Answer: C Page Ref: 418 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.5

rarely express concern and frequently display fear, anger, or

60)

At what age do children begin to engage in social referencing? A) 1 to 6 months B) 7 to 12 months C) 1 to 2 years D) 3 to 6 years Answer: B Page Ref: 419 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.5

61)

Between ages 3 and 6, A) anger and fear increase in frequency and intensity. B) children begin to use language to assist with emotional self-regulation. C) self-conscious emotions are integrated with inner standards of excellence and good behavior. D) self-conscious emotions are clearly linked to self-evaluation. Answer: D Page Ref: 419 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.5

62)

Dr. Padin refers to one of his patients in terms of early-appearing, stable individual differences in reactivity and selfregulation. Dr. Padin is referring to his patient’s A) temperament. B) maturity level. C) personality. D) attachment. Answer: A Page Ref: 418 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.6

63)

The psychological traits that make up temperament are believed to form the cornerstone of A) adult maturity. B) the adult personality. C) relationship stability. D) attachment security. Answer: B Page Ref: 419 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.6

64)

Alexandar Thomas and Stella Chess discovered that A) diet and exercise B) operant conditioning C) parenting practices D) sibling relationships Answer: C Page Ref: 419 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.6

can modify children’s temperament considerably.

65)

Jorge is slow to accept new experiences, tends to react negatively and intensely, and has irregular daily routines. Jorge’s temperament is classified as A) a combination of easy, difficult, and slow to warm up. B) difficult. C) easy. D) slow to warm up. Answer: B Page Ref: 420 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.6

66)

Thirty-five percent of children do not fit into any of the Thomas and Chess temperament categories. Instead, they A) show temperamental characteristics that researchers have not yet classified. B) have temperamental characteristics that change frequently, depending on social and family influences. C) show unique blends of temperamental characteristics. D) display no identifiable temperamental characteristics. Answer: C Page Ref: 420 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.6

67)

Accordingly to Thomas and Chess, which dimension of temperament reflects the amount of friendly, joyful behavior as opposed to unpleasant, unfriendly behavior? A) intensity of reaction B) quality of mood C) adaptability D) rhythmicity Answer: B Page Ref: 420 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.6

68)

According to Mary Rothbart’s model of temperament, which dimension measures an individual’s distress level when desires are frustrated? A) rhythmicity B) attention span/persistence C) fearful distress D) irritable distress Answer: D Page Ref: 420 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.6

69)

Dr. Petty is researching preschoolers’ capacity to voluntarily suppress a dominant response in order to plan and execute a more adaptive response. She is focusing on variations in how effectively a child can focus and shift attention, inhibit impulses, and manage negative emotions. Dr. Petty is studying A) attention span and persistence. B) positive affect. C) effortful control. D) threshold of responsiveness. Answer: C Page Ref: 421 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.6

70)

One criticism of parental reports of temperament is that A) most parents do not understand the measures used in temperament research. B) they are inconvenient for researchers to administer. C) depressed mothers perceive their babies as less difficult than they really are. D) information from parents is biased. Answer: D Page Ref: 421 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.6

71)

One criticism of home research observations of temperament is that A) the results are often too subjective. B) observers find it hard to capture all relevant information. C) fearful children may be unwilling to be observed. D) the researchers are often biased. Answer: B Page Ref: 421 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.6

72)

Most neurobiological research has focused on children who fall at opposite extremes of the dimensions of temperament. A) positive-affect; fearful-distress B) activity-level; attention-span C) attention-span; irritable-distress D) activity-level; fearful-distress Answer: A

and

Page Ref: 421 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.6

73)

Jerome Kagan’s longitudinal research on several hundred Caucasian infants found that about 40 percent of 4-month-old babies A) were easily upset by novelty. B) retained their temperamental styles as they got older. C) were comfortable, even delighted, with new experiences. D) became more extreme in disposition over time. Answer: C Page Ref: 422 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Development of Shyness and Sociability Skill: Remember Objective: 10.6

74)

Benny is a shy baby. What can his parents do to help Benny from becoming a fearful child? A) Protect him from minor stresses and teach him to retreat from unfamiliar situations. B) Expose him to fear-inducing situations so he can learn to regulate his anxiety. C) Avoid authoritative child-rearing practices and encourage independence. D) Provide warm, supportive care and make appropriate demands when approaching new experiences. Answer: D Page Ref: 422 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Development of Shyness and Sociability Skill: Apply Objective: 10.6

75)

The overall stability of temperament is years on. A) moderate; high B) low; moderate C) low; high D) high; moderate Answer: B

in infancy and toddlerhood and

from the preschool

Page Ref: 423 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.7

76)

Long-term prediction from early temperament is best achieved A) during early infancy. B) before the first birthday. C) during the second year of life. D) after age 3. Answer: D Page Ref: 423 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.7

77)

Preschoolers who were highly fearful as 2-year-olds score slightly olds. A) better than; effortful control B) below; effortful control C) better than; positive affect D) below; fearful distress Answer: A

their agemates in

as 4-year-

Page Ref: 423 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

78)

Heritability estimates are for expressions of A) lower; negative emotion; positive emotion B) higher; negative emotion; positive emotion C) lower; irritability; agreeability D) higher; positive emotion; negative emotion Answer: B

than for

.

Page Ref: 424 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

79)

The powerful effects of on temperament indicate that reactivity in children. A) the environment; persistent nutritional and emotional deprivation B) heredity; large family size C) SES; limited resources D) birth order and gender; having four or more children Answer: A Page Ref: 424 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

is/are linked to maladaptive emotional

80)

Compared with North American Caucasian infants, Chinese and Japanese babies A) take longer to soothe themselves when upset. B) display less anxiety when interacting with a stranger. C) smile, laugh, and cry more frequently. D) tend to be less active, irritable, and vocal, and better at quieting themselves. Answer: D Page Ref: 424 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

81)

Which of the following explains the marked differences in temperament between Asian and Caucasian-American babies? A) cultural variations in infant feeding B) heredity C) different beliefs about harsh discipline D) different cultural beliefs and practices Answer: D Page Ref: 424 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.7

82)

When parents of multiple children are asked to describe their children’s personalities, they often A) regard siblings as more distinct than other observers do. B) emphasize similarities between siblings. C) regard their children as more alike than other observers do. D) rate their children as moderately similar. Answer: A Page Ref: 424 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

83)

One-year-old Dominic demonstrates a high level of persistence. This temperamental characteristic correlates with A) frustration and overreaction. B) infant mental test scores and preschool IQ. C) poor social skills. D) strong interpersonal skills. Answer: B Page Ref: 425 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.7

84)

Colin is a highly active preschooler. Colin probably tends to be A) less sociable with peers B) less aggressive C) involved in more conflict D) a higher achiever Answer: C Page Ref: 425 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.7

than his agemates.

85)

Which of the following children is at greatest risk for aggressive and antisocial conduct? A) Ralph, an irritable and impulsive child B) Raja, a sociable and assertive child C) Rhett, a shy and fearful child D) Rufus, an only child Answer: A Page Ref: 425 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.7

86)

Mr. and Mrs. Yen know that their young son is aggressive and impulsive. As a result, they change their child-rearing style to counteract their son’s maladaptive behavior. Mr. and Mrs. Yen are using A) positive reinforcement. B) a goodness-of-fit model. C) interactional synchrony. D) a functionalist approach. Answer: B Page Ref: 426 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.7

87)

In a 2003 comparison of the temperaments of Russian and U.S. babies, Russian infants were A) more emotionally positive. B) more upset when frustrated. C) less fearful. D) less irritable. Answer: B Page Ref: 427 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

88)

In 1990, shyness in Chinese children was economy expanded and the valuing of A) positively; collectivist values B) negatively; collectivist values C) negatively; assertiveness D) positively; sociability Answer: D

associated with being well-adjusted. But as China’s market increased, the direction of the correlations shifted.

Page Ref: 427 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.7

89)

When June’s father enters the room at her child-care center, June breaks into a broad, friendly smile. When he picks her up, June pats his face, explores his hair, and snuggles against him. June is exhibiting A) attachment. B) empathy. C) temperament. D) compliance. Answer: A Page Ref: 428 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.8

90)

Which of the following statements is true about attachment? A) Contemporary research indicates that an infant’s emotional tie to the mother is the foundation of all later relationships. B) Because feeding is an important context for building a relationship, attachment depends on hunger satisfaction. C) Although the parent–infant bond is vitally important, later development is influenced not just by early attachment experiences but also by the continuing quality of the parent–child relationship. D) Rhesus monkeys reared with terry-cloth and wire-mesh “surrogate mothers” clung to whichever mothersubstitute held their bottle and fed them, regardless of the substitute’s softness. Answer: C Page Ref: 428 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.8

91)

Toddlers in Western cultures who sleep alone and experience frequent daytime separations from their parents A) rarely form secure attachments to their parents. B) sometimes develop strong emotional ties to cuddly objects. C) usually form a secure attachment with the caregiver who feeds them. D) do not experience separation anxiety when separated from their parents. Answer: B Page Ref: 428 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.8

92)

theory of attachment recognizes the infant’s emotional tie to the caregiver as an evolved response that promotes survival. A) Ecological systems B) Sociocultural C) Behaviorist D) Ethological Answer: D Page Ref: 428 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.8

93)

John Bowlby’s theory of attachment was inspired by studies of A) imprinting. B) drive reduction. C) scaffolding. D) social referencing. Answer: A Page Ref: 429 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.8

94)

Baby Winnie recognizes her mother’s smell, voice, and face, but does not mind being left with an unfamiliar adult. According to Bowlby’s theory of attachment, Winnie is in the phase. A) preattachment B) “attachment-in-the-making” C) “clear-cut” attachment D) reciprocal relationship Answer: A Page Ref: 429 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.8

95)

During Bowlby’s “attachment-in-the-making” phase, A) built-in signals help bring newborns into close contact with other humans. B) infants respond differently to a familiar caregiver than to a stranger. C) separation anxiety is evident. D) separation protests decline. Answer: B Page Ref: 429 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.8

96)

Two-year-old Jonathan asks his father to read him a story before leaving him with a babysitter. According to Bowlby’s theory of attachment, Jonathan is in the phase. A) preattachment B) “attachment-in-the-making” C) “clear-cut” attachment D) reciprocal relationship Answer: D Page Ref: 429 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.8

97)

Hobie has developed a set of expectations about the availability of attachment figures, their likelihood of providing support during times of stress, and his interaction with those figures. Hobie has a(n) A) avoidant attachment. B) resistant attachment. C) internal working model of attachment. D) slow-to-warm-up temperamental style. Answer: C Page Ref: 430 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.8

98)

The Strange Situation measures A) the quality of attachment. B) Bowlby’s phases of attachment. C) infant temperament. D) the stability of attachment. Answer: A Page Ref: 430 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

99)

In the Strange Situation, Marcus is not distressed when his father leaves. He reacts to the stranger in much the same way as to his father. During reunion, Marcus is slow to greet his father. Marcus is displaying characteristics of attachment. A) secure B) avoidant C) resistant D) disorganized/disoriented Answer: B Page Ref: 430 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.9

100)

In the Strange Situation, Helena clings to her mother and fails to explore. When her mother leaves, Helena is distressed. When her mother returns, she clings to her mother, but hits and pushes her. Helena is displaying characteristics of attachment. A) secure B) avoidant C) resistant D) disorganized/disoriented Answer: C Page Ref: 431 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.9

101)

Which of the following statements is true about the Attachment Q-Sort? A) It taps only a small number of attachment-related behaviors. B) Results cannot be used to determine real-life interventions for insecure children. C) It taps a wider array of attachment-related behaviors than the Strange Situation. D) It is efficient because the nonparent informant spends just a few minutes observing the child. Answer: C Page Ref: 431 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.9

102)

Infant Doris has an attachment quality that changes from one insecure pattern to another. Doris is probably A) from a middle-SES family with strong attachments to several caregivers. B) being raised by a single mother who has strong social support. C) growing up in a low-SES family with many daily stresses. D) from a high-SES family with many children. Answer: C Page Ref: 432 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.9

103)

Which of the following insecure attachment classifications is as stable as secure attachment? A) social B) disorganized/disoriented C) avoidant D) resistant Answer: B Page Ref: 432 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

104)

German babies are more likely than American babies to display a(n) A) resistant B) avoidant C) secure D) disorganized/disoriented Answer: B Page Ref: 432 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

attachment style.

105)

mothers spend much time in physical contact with their babies and rarely leave them in others’ care. A) Dogon B) Israeli kibbutz C) German D) Japanese Answer: D Page Ref: 432–433 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

106)

Although strong cultural variations exist, the most common attachment quality in all societies is A) avoidant. B) resistant. C) disorganized/disoriented. D) secure. Answer: D Page Ref: 433 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

107)

Marisol was placed in a large ward in an orphanage at the age of 8 months. Marisol shares a nurse–caregiver with ten other infants. As a result, Marisol will probably A) develop a secure attachment to the nurse–caregiver. B) become increasingly self-sufficient with age. C) become withdrawn, lose weight, and have difficulty sleeping. D) actively seek a close relationship with another baby in the ward. Answer: C Page Ref: 433 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.9

108)

Mr. and Mrs. Paxton are adopting Aina, a 5-year-old who has lived in a large orphanage her whole life. Which of the following can the Paxtons expect to experience? A) Aina will never develop deep ties to them. B) Aina may fail to check back with them in anxiety-arousing situations. C) After six or eight months, Aina will display few, if any, attachment difficulties. D) Aina will probably shy away from adult attention. Answer: B Page Ref: 433 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.9

109)

In adopted children with longer institutional stays, the volume of the A) amygdala; large B) corpus callosum; large C) amygdala; small D) corpus callosum; small Answer: A Page Ref: 433 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

is atypically

.

110)

Attachment security in both biological and adoptive mother–infant pairs is moderately related to A) less physical contact. B) sensitive caregiving. C) parental temperament. D) parental IQ. Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

111) A special form of communication called A) interactional synchrony B) harmonious rhythm C) goodness-of-fit D) the maternal waltz Answer: A

separates the experiences of secure from insecure babies.

Page Ref: 434 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

112)

Research indicates that attachment security is more likely when the interactional synchrony between adult and infant reflects coordination. A) constant B) tight C) minimal D) moderate Answer: D Page Ref: 434 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.9

113)

Compared with infants who display A) secure; resistant B) avoidant; securely attached C) secure; avoidant D) resistant; disorganized/disoriented Answer: C

attachment,

babies tend to receive overstimulating care.

Page Ref: 434 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.9

114)

Donna appears to have a disorganized/disoriented attachment style. It is likely that A) she is overstimulated by her mother. B) her mother is depressed or has experienced a traumatic event. C) she suffered anoxia at birth. D) her mother is overly permissive. Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Skill: Apply Objective: 10.9

115)

In one study, the combination of and months. A) preterm birth; maternal age B) preterm birth; maternal depression C) low marital satisfaction; maternal anxiety D) maternal age; maternal depression Answer: B

increased the likelihood of insecure attachment at 12

Page Ref: 435 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

116)

Twin comparisons reveal that the heritability of attachment is A) virtually nil. B) low to moderate. C) moderate to high. D) very high. Answer: A Page Ref: 435 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

117)

Parents with a(n) internal working model of attachment tend to idealize their own parents without being able to recall specific experiences. What they do recall is discussed intellectually, with little emotion. A) autonomous/secure B) dismissing C) preoccupied D) unresolved Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.9

118)

About 19 percent of North American mothers and 15 percent of fathers without psychological disturbance have a(n) internal working model. A) autonomous/secure B) dismissive C) preoccupied D) unresolved Answer: C Page Ref: 436 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.9

119)

Which of the following statements is true regarding fathers and attachment security? A) Unlike mothers’, fathers’ interactional synchrony with infants does not predict attachment security. B) Fathers in many cultures, including Australia, Germany, and Japan, devote more time to physical care and expressing affection than to playful interaction. C) Fathers tend to engage in highly arousing physical play with bursts of excitement and surprise that increase as play progresses. D) Fathers and mothers in Western nations tend to play in similar ways with their children, providing toys and playing gentle conventional games. Answer: C Page Ref: 437 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.10

120)

Paternal availability to children is fairly similar across SES and ethnic groups, with one exception: spend more time engaged. A) Hispanic B) Caucasian C) Asian D) African-American Answer: A

fathers

Page Ref: 438 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.10

121)

In a German study, fathers’ middle childhood and adolescence. A) physical caregiving B) sustained affection C) expressions of love D) play sensitivity Answer: D

predicted children’s secure internal working models of attachment during

Page Ref: 439 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The Powerful Role of Parental Warmth in Development Skill: Remember Objective: 10.10

122)

Research on the Aka of Central Africa reveals that a strong father–infant relationship is due in great part to a(n) A) unusually cooperative and intimate bond between husband and wife. B) lack of respect for women within the tribe. C) lack of respect for men within the tribe. D) strong division of male and female duties in the tribe. Answer: A Page Ref: 439 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The Powerful Role of Parental Warmth in Development Skill: Understand Objective: 10.10

123)

Which of the following statements is true about attachment security and later development? A) Children with mixed histories of attachment and maternal sensitivity tend to be physically and cognitively delayed. B) Children with disorganized/disoriented attachment tend to become securely attached to at least one caregiver by middle childhood. C) Mounting evidence indicates that continuity of caregiving determines whether attachment security is linked to later development. D) A secure father–child relationship is less important for long-term adjustment than a secure mother–child relationship. Answer: C Page Ref: 440 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.10

124)

A secure attachment in infancy A) guarantees continued good parenting. B) launches the parent–child relationship on a positive path that is likely to continue. C) causes improved cognitive, emotional, and social competence in later years. D) is weakly linked to poor adjustment in adolescence. Answer: B Page Ref: 440 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.10

125)

Today, more than A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60 Answer: D

percent of U.S. mothers with a child under age 2 are employed.

Page Ref: 441 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.11

126)

Studies of child-care quality in the United States found that percent of child-care centers and family childcare settings provide infants and toddlers with sufficiently positive, stimulating experiences to promote healthy psychological development. A) 5 to 10 B) 20 to 25 C) 35 to 40 D) 50 to 60 Answer: B Page Ref: 441 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.11

127)

U.S. child-care settings providing the very worst care tend to serve A) low-SES B) middle-SES C) high-SES D) ethnic minority Answer: B

families.

Page Ref: 441 Skill: Remember Objective: 10.11

128)

Some studies suggest that babies placed in full-time child care before insecure attachment in the Strange Situation. A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 18 months D) 2 years Answer: B

of age are more likely to display

Page Ref: 442 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Does Child Care Threaten Infant Attachment Security and Later Adjustment? Skill: Understand Objective: 10.11

129)

In Australia, infants who spend full days in government-funded child-care centers A) show a mild decrease in saliva concentrations of cortisol across the day. B) have a higher rate of secure attachment than infants informally cared for by relatives, friends, and babysitters. C) have a lower rate of secure attachment than infants informally cared for by relatives, friends, and babysitters. D) exhibit defiance and disobedience in middle childhood. Answer: B Page Ref: 442 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Does Child Care Threaten Attachment Security and Later Adjustment? Skill: Understand Objective: 10.11

130)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality of child care in the United States? A) It is affected by a macrosystem of collectivist values and strict government regulation. B) Many parents think that their children’s child-care experiences are higher in quality than they really are. C) Federal and state subsidies meet the needs for the provision of high-quality child-care in most areas. D) About 80 to 85 percent of U.S. child-care centers meet standards for developmentally appropriate practice. Answer: B Page Ref: 443 Skill: Understand Objective: 10.11

ESSAY 131)

Discuss paternal depression. How common is it? How does it interfere with children’s development? Answer: Parental depression can interfere with effective parenting and seriously impair children’s development. Although it is less recognized and studied, fathers, too, experience chronic depression. About 3 to 5 percent of fathers report symptoms after the birth of a child. Paternal depression is linked to dissatisfaction with marriage and family life after childbirth and to other life stressors, including job loss and divorce. Persistent paternal depression, like maternal depression, is a strong predictor of child behavior problems—especially overactivity, defiance, and aggression in boys. Paternal depression is also linked to frequent father–child conflict as children grow older. Over time, children subjected to parental negativity develop a pessimistic worldview— one in which they lack self-confidence and perceive their parents and other people as threatening. Children who constantly feel in danger are especially likely to become overly aroused in stressful situations, easily losing control in the face of cognitive and social challenges. Although children of depressed parents may inherit a tendency to develop emotional and behavior problems, quality of parenting is a major factor in their adjustment. Page Ref: 404

132)

Discuss the concept of stranger anxiety. Answer: The most frequent expression of fear is to unfamiliar adults, a response called stranger anxiety. Many infants and toddlers are quite wary of strangers, although the reaction does not always occur. It depends on several factors: temperament (some babies are generally more fearful), past experiences with strangers, and the current situation. When an unfamiliar adult picks up the infant in a new setting, stranger anxiety is likely. But if the adult sits still while the baby moves around and a parent remains nearby, infants often show positive and curious behavior. The stranger’s style of interaction—expressing warmth, holding out an attractive toy, playing a familiar game, and approaching slowly rather than abruptly—reduces the baby’s fear. The rise in fear after age 6 months keeps newly mobile babies’ enthusiasm for exploration in check. Once wariness develops, infants use the familiar caregiver as a secure base, or point from which to explore, venturing into the environment and then returning for emotional support. As part of this adaptive system, encounters with strangers lead to two conflicting tendencies: approach (indicated by interest and friendliness) and avoidance (indicated by fear). The infant’s behavior is a balance between the two. Eventually, as cognitive development permits toddlers to discriminate more effectively between threatening and nonthreatening people and situations, stranger anxiety and other fears of the first two years decline. This change is adaptive because adults other than caregivers will soon be important in children’s development. Cross-cultural research reveals that infant-rearing practices can modify stranger anxiety. Page Ref: 407–408

133)

Five-year-old John is afraid of dogs. His grandparents have two small dogs, and his parents ask your advice on how to help John manage his fear. What advice can you give them? Answer: Do not force John to approach the dogs. Let him move at his own pace. Demonstrate how to hold and pet the dogs, showing John that when treated gently, dogs are friendly. Emphasize to John that he is so much bigger than the dogs that they are probably more afraid of him. Page Ref: 411

134)

Name and describe the three types of children Thomas and Chess identified in their groundbreaking longitudinal study of temperament. In what category did 35 percent of the children in the sample fit? Answer: When detailed descriptions of infants’ and children’s behavior obtained from parent interviews were rated on nine dimensions of temperament, certain characteristics clustered together, yielding three types of children: – The easy child (40 percent of the sample) quickly establishes regular routines in infancy, is generally cheerful, and adapts easily to new experiences. – The difficult child (10 percent of the sample) has irregular daily routines, is slow to accept new experiences, and tends to react negatively and intensely. – The slow-to-warm-up child (15 percent of the sample) is inactive, shows mild, low-key reactions to environmental stimuli, is negative in mood, and adjusts slowly to new experiences. The remaining 35 percent of the children did not fit any of these categories. Instead, they showed unique blends of temperamental characteristics. Page Ref: 420

135)

Describe the Strange Situation. Identify and describe secure attachment and the three patterns of insecure attachment. Answer: The Strange Situation is a widely used laboratory technique designed by Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues for assessing the quality of attachment between 1 and 2 years of age. The Strange Situation takes a baby through eight short episodes in which brief separations from and reunions with the caregiver occur. Although separation anxiety varies among the groups, the baby’s reunion responses define attachment quality. – Secure attachment. These infants use the parent as a secure base. When separated they may or may not cry, but if they do, it is because the parent is absent and they prefer her to the stranger. When the parent returns, they actively seek contact, and their crying is reduced immediately. – Avoidant attachment. These infants seem unresponsive to the parent when she is present. When she leaves, they usually are not distressed, and they react to the stranger in much the same way as to the parent. During reunion, they avoid or are slow to greet the parent, and when picked up, they often fail to cling. – Resistant attachment. Before separation, these infants seek closeness to the parent and often fail to explore. When the parent leaves, they are usually distressed, and on her return they combine clinginess with angry, resistive behavior, struggling when held and sometimes hitting and pushing. Many continue to cry and cling after being picked up and cannot be comforted easily. – Disorganized/disoriented attachment. This pattern reflects the greatest insecurity. At reunion, these infants show confused, contradictory behaviors—for example, looking away while the parent is holding them or approaching the parent with flat, depressed emotion. Most display a dazed facial expression, and a few cry out unexpectedly after having calmed down or display odd, frozen postures. Page Ref: 430–431

136)

Discuss attachment security in skipped-generation families. Answer: About 4 to 5 percent of U.S. children live with their grandparents but apart from parents, in so-called skippedgeneration families. Grandparents generally step in when parents’ troubled lives threaten children’s wellbeing. As a result, grandparents tend to assume the parenting role under highly stressful life circumstances. Unfavorable child-rearing experiences have left their mark on children, who show high rates of learning difficulties, depression, and antisocial behavior. Absent parents’ adjustment difficulties strain family relationships. Many grandparent caregivers report feeling emotionally drained, depressed, and worried about what will happen to the children if their own health fails.

Nevertheless, because they provide physical and emotional care for an extended time and are invested in the child’s well-being, grandparent caregivers forge significant attachment relationships with their grandchildren. Warm grandparent–grandchild bonds help protect children from worsening adjustment problems, even under conditions of great hardship. Interviews reveal that children often feel loved, cared for, and optimistic about their futures. Still, grandparent caregivers have a tremendous need for social and financial support and intervention services for their at-risk grandchildren. Page Ref: 438–439

CHAPTER 11 SELF AND SOCIAL UNDERSTANDING MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Dr. Arbus is interested in learning how children come to understand their multifaceted world. In her research, she asks questions like: When do infants discover that they are separate beings, distinct from other people and objects? Dr. Arbus is studying A) social cognition. B) the inner self. C) self-concept. D) personality development. Answer: A Page Ref: 447 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.1

2)

As children integrate separate behaviors into an appreciation of their own and others’ personalities and identities, social cognition A) moves away from a metacognitive level of understanding. B) changes from abstract to concrete. C) becomes better organized with age. D) develops more slowly than nonsocial cognition. Answer: C Page Ref: 447 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.1

3)

Dr. Zoglin explains to his students how much easier it is to predict the motion of a physical object, such as a rolling ball, than the actions of a person. Dr. Zoglin is describing A) differences between the I-self and the me-self. B) differences between social and nonsocial cognition. C) the development of self-awareness. D) metacognitive understanding. Answer: B Page Ref: 447 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.1

4)

Five-year-old Jamari observes his friend Liam fall while ice skating. Instead of crying, Liam starts to laugh, and Jamari imagines what Liam’s thoughts and feelings might be. Jamari is using to understand Liam’s actions. A) self-regulation B) social comparison C) belief–desire theory of mind D) perspective taking Answer: D Page Ref: 448 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.1

5)

Newborns’ remarkable capacity for A) intermodal perception B) attribution training C) empathetic responding D) social cognition Answer: A

supports the beginnings of self-awareness.

Page Ref: 448 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.1

6)

At what age will infants first look longer at a video image of a peer than at a video image of themselves? A) 1 month B) 4 months C) 6 months D) 9 months Answer: B Page Ref: 448–449 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.1

7)

Research indicates that infants who look and smile more at video images of others than at video images of themselves A) have not yet developed self-awareness. B) are viewing another person as a potential social partner. C) have a limited self-conceptualization. D) cannot yet distinguish strangers from familiar caregivers. Answer: B Page Ref: 448–449 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.1

8)

Two-year-old Isabella has a red dot on her nose. When she looks into a mirror, she tries to rub off the dot. This behavior indicates that Isabella is developing A) self-recognition. B) self-reflection. C) emotional contagion. D) a secure identity. Answer: A Page Ref: 449 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.1

9)

When visiting her grandmother’s house, 2-year-old Marta sees a new family photo on the wall, points to it, and says, “See Marta,” to her grandmother. Marta’s behavior indicates that she A) is aware of self-reflection. B) is aware of her inner self. C) has developed self-recognition. D) has not yet established self-awareness. Answer: C Page Ref: 449 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.1

10)

During the first year, as infants act on the environment, they A) are self-involved and cannot focus on objects. B) cannot distinguish between self and others. C) notice effects that help them sort out self, other people, and objects. D) are unable to separate objects from the surrounding world. Answer: C Page Ref: 449 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.1

11)

Cross-cultural research shows that German and Greek caregivers use a(n) in cultures that value independence, while Nso caregivers use a(n) that value interdependence. A) authoritarian; permissive B) permissive; uninvolved C) distal; proximal D) proximal; distal Answer: C

parenting style common parenting style typical in cultures

Page Ref: 450 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.1

12)

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between toddlers’ sense of self and possessiveness? A) Toddlers with a weak sense of self are likely to argue loudly in a dispute over an object. B) The stronger toddlers’ self-definition, the more possessive they tend to be. C) The weaker toddlers’ self-definition, the more possessive they tend to be. D) Toddlers must develop a sense of ownership before they can develop a sense of self-recognition. Answer: B Page Ref: 450 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.1

13)

is considered a powerful tool in self-development because it permits children to represent and express the self more clearly. A) A large social network B) Movement C) Language D) Recursive thought Answer: C Page Ref: 450 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.2

14)

Three-year-old Athena says, “Daddy’s a man. Mommy’s a woman.” These statements suggest that Athena has developed a A) categorical self. B) large vocabulary. C) social self. D) remembered self. Answer: A Page Ref: 450 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.2

15)

The development of memory is linked with the emergence of the A) recognition; social B) working; enduring C) semantic; categorical D) autobiographical; remembered Answer: D

self.

Page Ref: 450 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.2

16)

Research examining the storytelling practices between adults and 2½-year-olds in Irish-American and Chinese families reveals that A) Irish-American families tend to discuss holidays and family trips more than Chinese families. B) Irish-Americans tend to downplay story transgressions by attributing them to the child’s spunk and assertiveness. C) parents in both cultures are equally likely to teach proper behavior at a story’s conclusion. D) Chinese parents are more likely than Irish-American parents to emphasize the child’s autonomy. Answer: B Page Ref: 451 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Cultural Variations in Personal Storytelling: Implications for Early Self-Concept Skill: Understand Objective: 11.2

17)

Chinese parents integrate Confucian traditions of strict discipline and social obligations into their personal stories to A) teach children the importance of autonomy and independent decision making. B) reinforce children’s spunk and assertiveness. C) affirm the importance of not disgracing the family. D) illustrate how children from other cultures behave. Answer: C Page Ref: 451 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Cultural Variations in Personal Storytelling: Implications for Early Self-Concept Skill: Understand Objective: 11.2

18)

Most North Americans regard favorable self-esteem as generally see it as . A) crucial; unimportant or even negative B) unimportant or even negative; crucial C) somewhat important; maladaptive and harmful D) somewhat important; crucial Answer: A

for healthy development, whereas Chinese adults

Page Ref: 451 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Cultural Variations in Personal Storytelling: Implications for Early Self-Concept Skill: Remember Objective: 11.2

19)

Not until age still “me.” A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Page Ref: 451 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.2

are children certain that a video image of themselves replayed a few minutes after it was filmed is

20)

During the evening drive home, Mr. Cruz looks at his 4-year-old daughter in the rearview mirror and asks what she is doing. She responds, “I’m thinking inside.” Her response indicates an awareness of the self. A) categorical B) enduring C) inner D) remembered Answer: C Page Ref: 452 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

21)

is crucial for a wide variety of social–cognitive achievements, including understanding others’ emotions, referential communication skills, and self-concept and self-esteem. A) Metacognition B) Making social comparisons C) Understanding of moral imperatives D) Perspective taking Answer: D Page Ref: 452 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.3

22)

When studying development of early mental states, researchers found that as early as 6 months, infants A) expect people to talk to other people, rather than to inanimate objects. B) understand that people are intentional beings who share and influence another’s mental state. C) are aware that others’ perspectives differ from their own. D) can determine if an object inside a box is desirable or undesirable. Answer: A Page Ref: 452 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.3

23)

Mr. Mach states that he does not like milk, but drinks it to keep his bones healthy. His young daughter, who has a desire theory of mind, hears him say this and watches him drink the milk. She A) understands that he does not like milk, but drinks it anyway to stay healthy. B) understands that he does not like milk, and is confused as to why he drinks it anyway. C) believes that he drinks the milk because he likes it, or because he is thirsty. D) tells him not to drink the milk if he does not like it. Answer: C Page Ref: 452 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

24)

Research on theory of mind and perspective taking indicates that preschoolers A) are capable of understanding what another person is thinking and feeling. B) understand that two people can interpret the same ambiguous information differently. C) think that people always act in ways consistent with their desires and do not realize beliefs also affect behavior. D) realize that prior knowledge and experience affects an individual’s interpretation of new information. Answer: C Page Ref: 452 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.3

25)

Five-year-old Serena ate a cupcake that she knew she was not supposed to have until after dinner. To avoid punishment, Serena told her mother that the dog ate the cupcake. Serena’s attempt to alter her mother’s belief demonstrates A) learned helplessness. B) an entity view of ability. C) antisocial behavior. D) belief–desire theory of mind. Answer: D Page Ref: 452 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

26)

In one study, researchers said to children, “Sam can’t find his dog. Sam’s dog is really in the kitchen, but Sam thinks his dog is in the bedroom. Where will Sam look for his dog?” Children who stated that Sam would look in the kitchen do not yet understand A) false beliefs. B) the I-self. C) metaphors. D) proximity. Answer: A Page Ref: 452–453 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

27)

Mastery of false belief signals a change in representation—the ability to view beliefs as A) scale errors. B) desires existing in a person’s inner states. C) mental inferences. D) interpretations, not just reflections, of reality. Answer: D Page Ref: 453 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.3

28)

Appreciation of enables children to pinpoint the reasons that another person arrived at a certain belief. A) first-order false belief B) second-order false belief C) pragmatics D) empathy Answer: B Page Ref: 453 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.3

29)

Appreciation of second-order false belief requires , a form of perspective taking that involves the ability to reason simultaneously about what two or more people are thinking. A) making mental inferences B) identity diffusion C) self-recognition D) recursive thought Answer: D Page Ref: 453 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.3

30)

Which of the following statements is an example of recursive thought? A) “Mommy is mad because I hit my sister.” B) “My teacher is always happy.” C) “If she doesn’t give me the book, I’m going to tell the teacher.” D) “I thought you would think I was just kidding when I said that.” Answer: D Page Ref: 453 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

31)

False-belief understanding is linked to gains in young children’s capacity to A) discuss thoughts and feelings in conversations with friends. B) correctly identify risky social situations. C) understand that people always act consistently with their desires. D) avoid making scale errors. Answer: A Page Ref: 454 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.3

32)

Children who pass false-belief tasks have more accurate eyewitness memories because A) their autobiographical memory, which is built upon a false-belief base, is highly developed. B) they are less likely to be confused or distracted by the actions of other people at the scene and can accurately focus on the observed incident. C) they realize that one person can present misinformation to another, which can affect the second individual’s beliefs. D) they are able to integrate multiple sources of information, such as sights, sounds, and images of people at the scene, at once. Answer: C Page Ref: 454 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.3

33)

Gains in cognitive inhibition predict responses. A) false-belief understanding; irrelevant B) high self-esteem; immature C) theory of mind; false-belief D) self-awareness; egocentric Answer: A

particularly strongly, perhaps because children must suppress

Page Ref: 455 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

34)

Parents can foster children’s understanding of their own and others’ mental lives by A) providing commentary about mental states. B) purposefully mislabeling emotions to teach them to identify mismatches. C) exposing them to highly stressful situations and then talking about what the children observed. D) encouraging them to work out problems on their own. Answer: A Page Ref: 455 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.3

35)

Preschoolers Bob and Bill engage in more make-believe play than Deb and Dawn. Studies have shown that A) Deb and Dawn will exhibit more advanced theory-of-mind skills than Bob and Bill. B) Bob and Bill are more advanced in understanding false belief than Deb and Dawn. C) Bob and Bill will have more difficulty resolving conflicts with their peers than Deb and Dawn. D) Deb and Dawn probably come from large families with many older siblings. Answer: B Page Ref: 455 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

36)

Which of the following preschoolers will demonstrate greater awareness of false belief? A) Gwen, who is an only child B) Helena, who has two younger siblings C) Rakita, who has a twin sister D) Louisa, who has three older siblings Answer: D Page Ref: 456 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

37)

Trevor has limited ability to engage in nonverbal communicative behaviors, and his language tends to be imitative. He pays little attention to the people around him, preferring to sit and play intensely in activities requiring repetitive motions. Trevor is displaying qualities that are characteristic of A) bipolar disorder. B) a learning disability. C) mental retardation. D) autism. Answer: D Page Ref: 457 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: “Mindblindness” and Autism Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

38)

fMRI studies on the brains of children with autism show A) smaller than average brains due to high levels of synaptic pruning. B) reduced activity in areas of the cerebral cortex involved in processing emotional and social information. C) reduced blood flow to the frontal lobe areas responsible for the ability to self-regulate behavior. D) recognizable impairments in all areas of the brain. Answer: B Page Ref: 457 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: “Mindblindness” and Autism Skill: Understand Objective: 11.3

39)

Which of the following characteristics is Justin, who has autism, likely to exhibit? A) the use of frequent nonsensical expressions B) a strong capacity for establishing joint attention C) good social referencing skills D) the use of eye contact to gain someone’s attention Answer: A Page Ref: 457 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: “Mindblindness” and Autism Skill: Apply Objective: 11.3

40)

Colin says, “I’m Colin. I’m 6 years old and have two older brothers. I’m good at running and football. I’m not very good at wrestling, and I don’t like doing my chores. Sometimes I get mad at my brothers.” Colin is constructing his A) remembered self. B) autobiographical narrative. C) self-concept. D) theory of mind. Answer: C Page Ref: 456 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.4

41)

If you ask 4-year-old Mariah to describe herself, she will most likely mention A) personality traits. B) special competencies. C) social virtues. D) observable characteristics. Answer: D Page Ref: 456 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.4

42)

By age 4, children typically A) infer appropriate motives and feelings when given a trait label. B) include both positive and negative attributes in their self-descriptions. C) realize that psychological qualities often change from one situation to the next. D) are preoccupied with being liked by adults and peers. Answer: A Page Ref: 456 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.4

43)

Beginning in , self-descriptions emphasize positive and negative traits. A) early childhood B) middle childhood C) early adolescence D) late adolescence Answer: B Page Ref: 458 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.4

44)

Ethan tells his mother that he is not good at math because he got seven questions wrong on his math test and his friend Jack got only one question wrong. Ethan’s conclusion that he is “not good at math” demonstrates the concept of A) achievement motivation. B) false belief. C) social comparison. D) perspective taking. Answer: C Page Ref: 458 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.4

45)

As school-age children judge their own appearance, abilities, and behavior in relation to those of others, A) their self-descriptions become more evaluative. B) they become less adept at incorporating the messages of others into their self-definition. C) their self-descriptions become more general and neutral in evaluation. D) their self-esteem temporarily declines. Answer: A Page Ref: 458 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.4

46)

From middle to late adolescence, cognitive changes enable teenagers to A) stop using abstract descriptors. B) combine their traits into an organized system. C) compare their own performance to that of a single peer. D) create an entirely new set of attributes. Answer: B Page Ref: 458 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.4

47)

Research on the self-concept shows that, compared with school-age children, older adolescents place more emphasis on A) observable characteristics. B) special competencies. C) personality traits. D) personal and moral values. Answer: D Page Ref: 458 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.4

48)

As school-age children internalize others’ expectations, they form an . A) internal state; self-definition B) extroverted ego; categorical self C) inner self; self-esteem D) ideal self; real self Answer: D

that they use to evaluate their

Page Ref: 459 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.4

49)

Which of the following statements is true regarding influences on self-concept? A) Formal operational thought transforms toddlers’ self-vision into an internally consistent picture. B) Parental support contributes vitally to the clarity and optimism of children’s self-concepts. C) Authoritarian parents tend to foster a realistic and positive self-concept in their children. D) School-age children with a history of elaborative parent–child conversations form incomplete self-concepts. Answer: B Page Ref: 459 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.4

50)

Which of the following children will most likely describe himself in terms of individualistic traits, such as personal preferences, interests, skills, and opinions? A) Guang, who lives in China B) Galeno, who lives in Puerto Rico C) Gibson, who lives in the United States D) Goro, who lives in Japan Answer: C Page Ref: 459 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.4

51)

Between ages 6 and 10, children A) form a self-concept consisting of observable characteristics and typical emotions and attitudes. B) make social comparisons among multiple individuals. C) combine traits making up self-concept into an organized system. D) only emphasize positive attributes in their self-concept. Answer: B Page Ref: 460 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.4

52)

Amina realistically evaluates her characteristics and competencies, and also has an attitude of self-acceptance and selfrespect. Amina has self-esteem. A) high B) low C) average D) unrealistic Answer: A Page Ref: 461 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.5

53)

Which of the following broad self-evaluations do children in diverse Western cultures form around age 6 to 7? A) inner self, categorical self, remembered self, and generalized other B) academic competence, social competence, physical/athletic competence, and physical appearance C) familial, parental, peer, and teacher D) foreclosure, diffusion, moratorium, and achievement Answer: B Page Ref: 461 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.5

54)

During childhood and adolescence, perceived other self-esteem factor. A) physical/athletic ability B) academic competence C) physical appearance D) social competence Answer: C Page Ref: 461 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.5

correlates more strongly with global self-esteem than any

55)

The arrival of adolescence adds A) physical/athletic ability B) self-respect C) popularity D) close friendship Answer: D

as a new dimension of self-esteem.

Page Ref: 461 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.5

56)

Five-year-old Johan has very high self-esteem. His parents wonder whether this will change once he enters elementary school. Most likely, Johan’s self-esteem will A) continue to rise, as long as he does not engage in social comparison with his peers. B) maintain its current level, but will slowly decline in the areas of peer relationships and athletic competence. C) continue to rise until he makes the transition from elementary to middle school. D) decline over the first few years of elementary school, but will likely rise after fourth grade. Answer: D Page Ref: 462 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.5

57)

Children with high social self-esteem A) are often disliked by peers. B) perceive themselves as less socially competent than they really are. C) are consistently better-liked by their peers. D) tend to have low academic self-esteem. Answer: C Page Ref: 463 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.5

58)

Fifteen-year-old LaRon feels highly dissatisfied with his parental relationships. Research suggests that LaRon is likely to be A) anxious and unfocused. B) aggressive and antisocial. C) anxious and depressed. D) socially popular but engages in risky behaviors. Answer: B Page Ref: 463 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.5

59)

Despite their higher academic achievement, Chinese and Japanese children score lower in self-esteem than U.S. children. Research suggests that this difference may be partly due to among Chinese and Japanese children. A) a strong emphasis on social comparison B) conditional parental support C) low achievement motivation D) high levels of anxiety and depression Answer: A Page Ref: 463 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.5

60)

Because of the effect of gender-stereotyped expectations, A) boys feel less confident than girls about their athletic abilities. B) girls feel more confident than boys about their physical appearance. C) girls exceed boys in self-esteem dimensions of close friendship and social acceptance. D) boys are somewhat advantaged in the area of academic self-esteem. Answer: C Page Ref: 463 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.5

61)

Research on self-esteem indicates that. A) children benefit from frequent compliments, regardless of whether they are based on actual attainment. B) the self-esteem of U.S. youths dropped sharply from the 1970s to the 1990s. C) children do not benefit from compliments that have no basis in real attainment. D) overly tolerant, indulgent parenting is linked to low self-esteem. Answer: C Page Ref: 464 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.5

62)

Narcissistic children with unrealistically high self-esteem because of overly tolerant, indulgent parenting A) tend to be oblivious to what peers and others think of them. B) rarely display any forms of meanness or aggression. C) tend to lash out at peers who express disapproval. D) are vulnerable to temporary, sharp peaks in self-esteem when their overblown self-images are challenged. Answer: C Page Ref: 464 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.5

63)

The best way to foster a positive, secure self-image is to A) encourage children to strive for worthwhile goals. B) compliment children whenever possible. C) have children compete in a sport in which they can excel. D) emphasize the importance of academic achievement. Answer: A Page Ref: 464 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.5

64)

Attributions such as, “Why did I or another person do that?” are related to A) a blend of what we imagine important people in our lives think of us. B) judgments of one’s own abilities and behavior in relation to those of others. C) our common, everyday explanations for the causes of behavior. D) global self-esteem and self-recognition. Answer: C Page Ref: 464 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

65)

People group the causes of their own and others’ behavior into which of the following two broad categories? A) automatic and deliberate B) achievement and social C) innate and conditional D) environmental and psychological Answer: D Page Ref: 464 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

66)

Kiaser has average intelligence, persists at challenging tasks, and displays initiative in the face of challenges. Kiaser is demonstrating A) a social comparison. B) average self-esteem. C) identity achievement. D) achievement motivation. Answer: D Page Ref: 465 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

67)

Which of the following groups of children tends to rate their ability very high, often underestimates task difficulty, and holds positive expectancies of success? A) preschoolers B) elementary school children C) middle schoolers D) adolescents Answer: A Page Ref: 465 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.6

68)

Preschoolers tend to make overly optimistic attributions because they A) rarely receive negative feedback. B) cannot yet distinguish the precise causes of their successes and failures. C) do not yet turn to adults for evaluations of their accomplishments. D) seldom face difficult tasks. Answer: B Page Ref: 465 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

69)

Four-year-old Alicia gives up easily when faced with challenging tasks. Research shows which of the following factors most likely applies to Alicia? A) She has parents who provide generous praise regardless of task success or failure. B) She bases her self-worth entirely on inner standards. C) She has parents who are highly critical of her worth and performance. D) She attributes her failures to external causes and successes to internal causes. Answer: C Page Ref: 465 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

70)

Because 4-year-old Damon is a nonpersister, his self-esteem is most likely A) unrealistically high. B) based entirely on others’ judgments. C) unaffected by adult feedback. D) based entirely on inner standards. Answer: B Page Ref: 465 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

71)

Aubrey is high in achievement motivation. She credits her school success to ability and hard work. Aubrey A) is displaying learned helplessness. B) emphasizes performance goals over learning goals. C) is making mastery-oriented attributions. D) holds an entity view of ability. Answer: C Page Ref: 465 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

72)

Children who possess an incremental view of ability A) attribute task failure to insufficient ability. B) tend to give up easily when faced with a challenging task. C) credit task success to genetics. D) believe that ability can be increased through effort. Answer: D Page Ref: 465 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

73)

When Vince receives a high test grade, he attributes it to luck; when he receives a low test grade, he attributes it to not being smart. Vince has developed A) an incremental view of ability. B) learned helplessness. C) a mastery-oriented attribution. D) conditional achievement motivation. Answer: B Page Ref: 465 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

74)

Shae does not believe that her successes or failures in school can be changed, or that her effort will make a difference in her grades. Shae A) holds an entity view of ability. B) comes from a middle-SES household. C) has an incremental view of ability. D) lacks a belief–desire theory of mind. Answer: A Page Ref: 465 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

75)

Mastery-oriented children focus on A) learning; performance B) general; specific C) long-term; short-term D) academic; social Answer: A

goals, whereas learned-helpless children focus on

goals.

Page Ref: 465–466 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.6

76)

Children whose parents believe that they are not very capable and must work harder than others to succeed are likely to A) have a learned-helpless attributional style. B) have an incremental view of ability. C) develop a mastery-oriented attributional style by early adolescence. D) work harder to win their parents’ approval. Answer: A Page Ref: 466 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

77)

Which of the following statements is true regarding achievement-related attributions? A) Boys tend to receive messages from teachers and parents that their ability is at fault when they do not do well. B) Positive trait statements encourage children to adopt an incremental view of ability. C) Despite their higher achievement, girls more often than boys attribute poor performance to lack of ability. D) Low-SES, ethnic-minority children often receive more favorable feedback from teachers when assigned to homogeneous groups of poorly achieving students. Answer: C Page Ref: 467 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

78)

Which of the following statements is supported by research on cultural differences in learned helplessness? A) When their children fail, Chinese mothers offer praise and focus on the child’s effort. B) Compared with American parents, Asian parents believe that success in school depends much more on ability than effort. C) Americans focus less on success than on happiness because happiness enhances self-esteem. D) Asians attend more to failure than to success because failure indicates where corrective action is needed. Answer: D Page Ref: 467 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

79)

Atim displays learned helplessness. His teacher addresses this by giving him tasks in which he experiences failure, followed by feedback such as, “You can do this if you try harder.” Atim is A) receiving attribution retraining. B) experiencing identity confusion. C) likely to resent the teacher’s efforts to make him work harder. D) learning the importance of attributing success to external factors. Answer: A Page Ref: 467 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

80)

Attributional retraining is most effective when A) parents engage in authoritarian child rearing. B) begun early, before children’s views of themselves become hard to change. C) children are presented with simple tasks that require little effort. D) low-effort students are encouraged to focus more on grades and less on mastering a task for its own sake. Answer: B Page Ref: 467 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.6

81)

In Ms. Ceyner’s class, she encourages students to focus on mastering a task for its own sake and she praises individual performance improvement rather than comparisons to other classmates. By doing this, Ms. Ceyner is A) reducing failures by pointing out where corrective action is needed. B) showering her students with compliments in order to make them feel better about themselves. C) emphasizing ability over effort. D) fostering a mastery-oriented approach. Answer: D Page Ref: 467 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.6

82)

Denison is an adolescent who has begun to define who he is, what he values, and what direction he chooses to pursue in life. Denison is A) creating a self-persona. B) forming an identity. C) improving his self-esteem. D) developing his superego. Answer: B Page Ref: 468–469 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

83)

For most young people, identity development A) involves a major crisis. B) is complete by age 13. C) emerges spontaneously, with little time devoted to exploration. D) is a process of exploration followed by commitment. Answer: D Page Ref: 469 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

84)

Fourteen-year-old Farica volunteers at a local animal shelter to help her decide whether to become a veterinarian. Farica is demonstrating identity A) moratorium. B) achievement. C) foreclosure. D) diffusion. Answer: A Page Ref: 470 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

85)

When asked whether he ever had doubts about his religious beliefs, Pedro said, “Yes, I just don’t see how there can be a God and yet so much evil in the world.” Pedro is experiencing identity A) foreclosure. B) achievement. C) diffusion. D) moratorium. Answer: D Page Ref: 470 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

86)

Because her mother and grandmother were teachers, Melissa has decided to become a teacher. Melissa is demonstrating identity A) moratorium. B) achievement. C) foreclosure. D) diffusion. Answer: C Page Ref: 470 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

87)

Which of the following statements is true about identity development? A) Most young people remain in one identity status throughout their lifespan. B) Identity development follows many paths. C) Identity development is complete by age 14 or 15. D) High school students make more progress toward formulating an identity than college students. Answer: B Page Ref: 470 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

88)

Young people who go to work immediately after high school graduation often A) experience a major identity crisis in their early twenties. B) settle on a self-definition earlier than agemates who attend college. C) settle on a self-definition later than agemates who attend college. D) become anxious and depressed and never really settle on a self-definition. Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.7

89)

Which of the following young adults is at risk for long-term identity foreclosure or diffusion? A) Vintrea, a college graduate who switches majors B) Coulter, an aspiring chef who has no opportunity for culinary training C) Lindsay, a young woman with several possible vocational choices D) Susannah, a Peace Corps volunteer Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

90)

According to identity theorists, individuals who move away from identity build a well-structured identity that integrates various domains. A) achievement and foreclosure; moratorium and diffusion B) moratorium and diffusion; achievement and foreclosure C) achievement and diffusion; foreclosure and moratorium D) foreclosure and diffusion; moratorium and achievement Answer: D

toward identity

Page Ref: 471 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

91)

Between the mid-1960s and the mid-1990s, the rate of adolescent suicide Canada. A) doubled B) tripled C) quadrupled D) remained the same Answer: B

in both the United States and

Page Ref: 472 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Suicide: Annihilation of the Self Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

92)

Which of the following adolescents would most likely attempt suicide? A) Krista, who lives in the United States B) Rachel, who lives in Singapore C) Francesco, who lives in Italy D) Cooper, who lives in Australia Answer: B Page Ref: 472 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Suicide: Annihilation of the Self Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

93)

Research on adolescent suicide indicates that compared to boys, girls A) are twice as likely to kill themselves. B) make more unsuccessful suicide attempts. C) tend to choose techniques that lead to instant death. D) are more likely to blame their parents for their suicide attempts. Answer: B Page Ref: 472 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Suicide: Annihilation of the Self Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

94)

Recently, suicide has risen among ; the current rate approaches that of A) African-American females; African-American males B) African-American males; Caucasian-American males C) Native-American males; Hispanic males D) Hispanic males; Hispanic females Answer: D Page Ref: 472 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH Adolescent Suicide: Annihilation of the Self Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

.

95)

Which of the following factors is linked to increased suicide in adolescence? A) the onset of puberty B) moving away from identity foreclosure toward identity moratorium C) immaturity and the need for attention D) teenagers’ improved ability to plan ahead Answer: D Page Ref: 473 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Suicide: Annihilation of the Self Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

96)

Which of the following adolescents is most likely to be in a state of identity moratorium or achievement? A) Adam, who is curious and open-minded B) Noah, who is self-indulgent and doubtful C) Daniel, who assumes that absolute truth is always attainable D) Gabriel, who is conformist and obedient Answer: A Page Ref: 472 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.7

97)

Research on identity development has shown that A) diffused young people report the lowest levels of parental support and warm, open communication. B) young people who lack confidence in the prospect of ever knowing anything with certainty tend to be foreclosed. C) young people in moratorium usually have close bonds with parents, but lack opportunities for healthy separation. D) young people in moratorium assume that absolute truth is always attainable. Answer: A Page Ref: 473 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.7

98)

Under what circumstances are minority youths likely to rebel, rejecting aspects of their ethnic background? A) when they attend racially diverse schools B) when immigrant parents who fear assimilation tightly restrict their teenagers C) when they progress from identity diffusion to identity achievement D) when they overcome acculturative stress Answer: B Page Ref: 475 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents Skill: Understand Objective: 11.7

99)

A large survey of high school students found that part-black biracial teenagers A) report as much discrimination as their black monoracial counterparts. B) are almost always identity achieved. C) have a stronger sense of ethnic identity than their monoracial black peers. D) usually select the identity that most closely matches their physical appearance. Answer: A Page Ref: 475 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents Skill: Understand Objective: 11.7

100)

Adolescents whose family members typically surmount the threat that discrimination poses to a favorable ethnic identity. A) encourage them to let go of tradition and merge with the majority cultural identity B) encourage them to disprove ethnic stereotypes of low achievement or antisocial behavior C) tightly restrict access to the majority culture out of fear of assimilation D) teach them to ignore negative stereotypes and to avoid any who hold those ideas Answer: B Page Ref: 475 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents Skill: Understand Objective: 11.7

101)

In which of the following ways can society help minority adolescents resolve identity conflicts? A) Discourage young people from developing a bicultural identity. B) Encourage non-English-speaking students to abandon their native language. C) Foster contact with peers of the same ethnicity. D) Discourage contact with peers of the same ethnicity. Answer: C Page Ref: 475 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents Skill: Understand Objective: 11.7

102)

Adolescents cope more effectively with stress, show better achievement in school, and have fewer emotional and behavior problems. A) with a biracial identity who attend monoracial schools B) with a positive connection to their ethnic group C) who avoid developing an ethnic identity D) who are frequently exposed to racial discrimination Answer: B Page Ref: 475 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents Skill: Remember Objective: 11.7

103)

A researcher studying person perception might ask which of the following questions? A) “What is your favorite subject in school?” B) “What do you want to do when you grow up?” C) “Tell me about yourself.” D) “Can you tell me what kind of person is?” Answer: D Page Ref: 476 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.8

104)

Before age 8, children’s descriptions of others focus on A) concrete activities, behaviors, and commonly experienced emotions and attitudes. B) inferences about personality, which are drawn together into organized character sketches. C) sharp trait descriptions like “honest,” “trustworthy,” “polite,” and “selfish.” D) their misdeeds and character flaws. Answer: A Page Ref: 476 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.8

105)

Eight-year-old Oren has just begun describing other people’s personalities. He is most likely to describe someone as A) “boring and dull.” B) “always fighting with people.” C) “tall and thin.” D) “angry and sad.” Answer: B Page Ref: 476 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.8

106)

By the early school years, children associate power and privilege with . A) white people; people of color B) people of color; white people C) white males; white females D) black males; black females Answer: A

and poverty and inferior status with

Page Ref: 476 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.8

107)

Sami is a 5-year-old African-American girl. She is likely to A) associate positive characteristics to both African-American and white children. B) display in-group favoritism by assigning positive characteristics to African-American children and negative characteristics to white children. C) be completely unaware of prejudice because ethnic awareness does not emerge until middle childhood. D) display out-group favoritism by assigning positive characteristics to white children and negative characteristics to African-American children. Answer: D Page Ref: 477 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.8

108)

After age 7 or 8, A) white children’s prejudice against out-group members strengthens. B) majority children, but not minority children, express in-group favoritism. C) both majority and minority children express in-group favoritism. D) both majority and minority children express out-group favoritism. Answer: C Page Ref: 477–478 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.8

109)

Research confirms that an effective way to reduce prejudice—in children and adults alike—is through A) therapy. B) educational classes. C) open communication. D) intergroup contact. Answer: D Page Ref: 479 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.8

110)

Cayden volunteers to serve meals to the homeless in a predominantly ethnic minority neighborhood. As a result of this experience, Cayden A) may have fewer prejudicial feelings, and will appreciate the social conditions that lead to disadvantage. B) may decide that certain ethnic groups are too lazy to work, which is why they are homeless. C) may become confused as to why certain groups of people have a higher chance of living in poverty. D) is likely to develop a fixed negative view of others. Answer: A Page Ref: 479 Skill: Apply Objective: 11.8

111) In the United States, A) black B) Hispanic C) white D) Asian Answer: C

students are the most isolated group.

Page Ref: 479 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.8

112)

Many studies indicate that attending integrated classrooms leads to A) poor self-esteem among ethnic minority students. B) lower academic achievement, educational attainment, and occupational aspirations among ethnic minority students. C) higher academic achievement, educational attainment, and occupational aspirations among ethnic minority students. D) identity confusion among biracial students. Answer: C Page Ref: 479 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.8

113)

From the preschool to the school years, conflicts shift from A) material concerns; relationship issues B) psychological issues; material concerns C) social issues; psychological issues D) material concerns; social issues Answer: D Page Ref: 480 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.9

114)

Children with peer difficulties A) are often popular with younger children. B) often hold biased social expectations. C) are liked by teachers but ignored by classmates. D) tend to come from one-child families. Answer: B Page Ref: 480 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.9

to

.

115)

Research on social problem solving shows that A) without adult intervention, quarrels among preschoolers often result in physical violence. B) social conflicts have a negative impact on children’s problem-solving skills. C) children who get along well with agemates tend to hold biased social expectations. D) children with peer difficulties often misinterpret others’ behaviors. Answer: D Page Ref: 480–481 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.9

116)

Children improve greatly in social problem solving over the preschool and early school years, largely as a result of gains in A) false-belief understanding. B) attribution retraining. C) recursive thought. D) self-esteem. Answer: C Page Ref: 481 Skill: Remember Objective: 11.9

117)

Instead of grabbing, hitting, or insisting that another child obey, 5- to 7-year-olds tend to A) tattle on the child since they are unable to resolve disagreements without adult intervention. B) verbally threaten the child and later exclude the child from play groups. C) rely on friendly persuasion and compromise, to think of alternative strategies when one does not work, and to resolve disagreements without adult intervention. D) first bribe the child, and if that strategy fails, they seek adult intervention. Answer: C Page Ref: 481 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.9

118)

As an intervention, the Promoting Alternative Thinking Strategies (PATHS) curriculum for preschool children teaches skills such as A) using no-intervention controls. B) attending selectively to social cues. C) satisfying an impulse. D) detecting others’ thoughts and feelings. Answer: D Page Ref: 481 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.9

119)

Intervening with children who have weak social problem-solving skills can enhance development by A) giving children a sense of mastery in the face of stressful life events. B) permitting children to represent and express the self more clearly. C) increasing children’s self-esteem. D) increasing children’s awareness of others’ feelings. Answer: A Page Ref: 481 Skill: Understand Objective: 11.9

ESSAY 120)

Describe the beginnings of self-awareness in infancy, citing examples of this development. Answer: At birth, infants sense that they are physically distinct from their surroundings. For example, newborns display a stronger rooting reflex in response to external stimulation (an adult’s finger touching their cheek) than to self-stimulation (their own hand contacting their cheek). Newborns’ remarkable capacity for intermodal perception supports the beginnings of self-awareness. As they feel their own touch, feel and watch their limbs move, and feel and hear themselves cry, babies experience intermodal matches that differentiate their own body from surrounding bodies and objects. Over the first few months, infants distinguish their own visual image from other stimuli, but selfawareness is still limited—expressed only in perception and action. When shown two side-by-side video images of their kicking legs—one from their own perspective (camera behind the baby) and one from an observer’s perspective (camera in front of the baby)—3-month-olds looked longer at the observer’s view. In another video-image comparison, they looked longer at a reversal of their leg positions than at a normal view. By 4 months, infants look and smile more at video images of others than at video images of themselves, indicating that they view another person (as opposed to the self) as a potential social partner. Page Ref: 448–449

121)

How do children use their categorical self in the development of their self-awareness? Answer: Language permits children to represent and express the self more clearly, which greatly enhances selfawareness. Between 18 and 30 months, children construct a categorical self as they classify themselves and others on the basis of perceptually distinct attributes and behaviors—age (“baby,” “boy,” or “man”), gender (“boy” or “girl”), and physical characteristics (“big,” “strong”). They also start to refer to the self’s goodness and badness (“I good girl.” “Tommy mean!”) and competencies (“Did it!” “I can’t”). Page Ref: 450

122)

Describe factors that contribute to the development of theory of mind during the first three years of life. Answer: Over the first year of life, infants build an implicit appreciation of people as animate beings whose behavior is governed by intentions, desires, and feelings. This sets the stage for the verbalized mental understandings that blossom in early childhood. Three-month-olds smile more at people than at objects and become upset when a person poses a still face and fails to communicate. By 6 months, when infants see people talk, they expect the talk to be directed at other people, not at inanimate objects. At the end of the first year, babies view people as intentional beings who can share and influence one another’s mental states, a milestone that opens the door to new forms of communication—joint attention, social referencing, preverbal gestures, and language. These early milestones serve as the foundation for later mental understandings. At the end of the second and continuing over the third year, children display a clearer grasp of people’s emotions and desires, evident in their increasing mental-state vocabulary, capacity to empathize, and realization that people often differ from one another and from themselves in likes, dislikes, wants, needs, and wishes. But although 2- to 3-year-olds have started to integrate mental states, their understanding is limited to a simplistic desire theory of mind: They think that people always act in ways consistent with their desires and do not understand that less obvious, more interpretive mental states, such as beliefs, also affect behavior. Page Ref: 452

123)

Describe how children grapple with false beliefs as they develop a theory of mind. Answer: Dramatic evidence for preschoolers’ belief–desire reasoning comes from games that test whether they realize that false beliefs—ones that do not represent reality accurately—can guide people’s behavior. For example, most 18-month-olds—after witnessing an object moved from one box to another while an adult was not looking—helped the adult, when he tried to open the original box, locate the object in the new box. Among children of diverse cultural and SES backgrounds, false-belief understanding strengthens gradually after age 3½, becoming more secure between ages 4 and 6. Mastery of false belief signals a change in representation— the ability to view beliefs as interpretations, not just reflections, of reality. With the realization that people can increase their knowledge by making mental inferences, school-age children extend false-belief understanding further. Page Ref: 452–453

124)

Describe the development of self-concept from early childhood to adolescence. Answer: As children develop an appreciation of their inner mental world, they think more intently about themselves. During early childhood, knowledge and evaluation of the self’s characteristics expand. Children begin to construct a self-concept, the set of attributes, abilities, attitudes, and values that an individual believes defines who he or she is. Preschoolers’ self-concepts largely consist of observable characteristics, such as their name, physical appearance, possessions, and everyday behaviors. By age 3½, children also describe themselves in terms of typical emotions and attitudes, suggesting a beginning understanding of their unique psychological characteristics. As further support for this emerging grasp of personality, when given a trait label, 4-year-olds infer appropriate motives and feelings. Direct references to personality traits must wait for greater cognitive maturity. Over time, children organize their observations of typical behaviors and internal states into general dispositions, with a major change occurring between ages 8 and 11. Older school-age children are far less likely than younger children to describe themselves in extreme, all-or-none ways. A major reason for these evaluative self-descriptions is that school-age children often make social comparisons—judgments of their own appearance, abilities, and behavior in relation to those of others. Whereas 4- to 6-year-olds can compare their own performance to that of a single peer, older children can compare multiple individuals, including themselves. In early adolescence, the self differentiates further. Teenagers mention a wider array of traits, which vary with social context. Generalizations about the self are not interconnected and are often contradictory. These disparities result from expansion of the adolescent’s social world, which creates pressure to display different selves in different relationships. As their awareness of these inconsistencies grows, adolescents frequently agonize over “which is the real me.” From middle to late adolescence, cognitive changes enable teenagers to combine their traits into an organized system. Their use of qualifiers reveals their increased acceptance of situational variables in psychological qualities. Older adolescents add integrating principles, which make sense of formerly troublesome contradictions. Compared with school-age children, teenagers place more emphasis on social virtues, such as being friendly, considerate, kind, and cooperative—traits that reflect adolescents’ increasing concern with being viewed positively by others. Among older adolescents, personal and moral values also emerge as key themes. Page Ref: 456, 458

125)

Explain how cultural factors and gender contribute to the development of self-esteem. Answer: Cultural forces profoundly affect self-esteem. An especially strong emphasis on social comparison in school may underlie the finding that despite their higher academic achievement, Chinese and Japanese children score lower than U.S. children in self-esteem—a difference that widens with age. Because Asian cultures value modesty and social harmony, Asian children rely less on social comparisons to promote their own self-esteem. Rather, they tend to be reserved about judging themselves positively but generous in their praise of others. Gender-stereotyped expectations also affect self-esteem. By adolescence, girls feel less confident than boys about their physical appearance and athletic abilities. Academically, girls score higher in language arts selfesteem, whereas boys have higher math, science, and physical/athletic self-esteem—even when children of equal skill levels are compared. Although only a slight difference exists between boys and girls in overall selfesteem, a widely held assumption is that boys’ overall sense of self-worth is much higher than girls’. Girls may think less well of themselves because they internalize this negative cultural message. Page Ref: 463

126)

Describe the four identity statuses and their influence on psychological well-being. Answer: The four identity statuses are: (1) identity achievement, commitment to values, beliefs, and goals following a period of exploration; (2) identity moratorium, exploration without having reached commitment; (3) identity foreclosure, commitment in the absence of exploration; and (4) identity diffusion, an apathetic state characterized by lack of both exploration and commitment. According to identity theorists, individuals who move away from foreclosure and diffusion toward moratorium and achievement build a well-structured identity that integrates various domains. As a result, they experience a gratifying sense of personal continuity and social connection—of being the same person across time and contexts and of becoming a capable, respected member of the adult community. A wealth of research supports the conclusion that identity achievement and moratorium are psychologically healthy routes to a mature self-definition, whereas long-term foreclosure and diffusion are maladaptive. Page Ref: 470–471

127)

Describe the differences between in-group and out-group biases, including how such biases contribute to the development of prejudice. Answer: Studies in diverse Western nations confirm that by age 5 to 6, white children generally evaluate their own racial group favorably and other racial groups less favorably or negatively—biases that also characterize many adults. In-group favoritism emerges first; children simply prefer their own group, generalizing from self to similar others. Out-group prejudice requires a more challenging social comparison between in-group and outgroup. But it does not take long for white children to acquire negative attitudes toward ethnic minority outgroups, especially when such attitudes are encouraged by circumstances in their environments. With age, children pay more attention to inner traits. The capacity to classify the social world in multiple ways enables school-age children to understand that people can be both “the same” and “different”—those who look different need not think, feel, or act differently. Consequently, voicing of negative attitudes toward minorities declines. After age 7 to 8, both majority and minority children express in-group favoritism, and white children’s prejudice against out-group members often weakens. Most school-age children and adolescents are also quick to verbalize that it is wrong to exclude others from peer-group and learning activities on the basis of skin color—discrimination they evaluate as unfair. Page Ref: 477–478

CHAPTER 12 MORAL DEVELOPMENT MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Morality has its roots in which three major aspects of our psychological makeup? A) biological, ethological, and conceptual components B) social experiences, self-control, and inner standards C) self-awareness, representational capacities, and social learning D) emotional, cognitive, and behavioral components Answer: D Page Ref: 485 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.1

2)

Dr. Moussai observes that bees sacrifice their lives to protect the hive, and a dog cowers in the corner after wetting the carpet. Dr. Moussai concludes that many morally relevant behaviors have evolutionary roots, which coincides with theory(ies) of human social behavior. A) Piaget’s B) social learning C) biological D) Kohlberg’s Answer: C Page Ref: 486 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.1

3)

Two chimpanzees embrace and groom each other after a physical fight in an apparent effort to restore their long-term relationship. This behavior is consistent with perspective of morality. A) the biological B) the psychoanalytic C) the social learning D) Kohlberg’s Answer: A Page Ref: 486 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.1

4)

Although a variety of built-in bases for morality have been posited, importance. A) protection; charity B) empathy; self-sacrifice C) reproduction; competition D) compassion; obedience Answer: B Page Ref: 486 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.1

and

are of prime

5)

Evolutionary theorists speculate that our unique capacity to act prosocially toward genetic strangers originated A) when man began walking upright. B) several million years ago. C) about 500 years ago. D) during the Reformation. Answer: B Page Ref: 486 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.1

6)

Researchers who favor the biological perspective of morality believe that development of prosocial behaviors. A) synaptic pruning B) innate reflexes C) brain lateralization D) prewired emotional reactions Answer: D

is/are involved in the

Page Ref: 487 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.1

7)

Which of the following statements supports the biological theory of morality? A) Newborns cry when they hear another baby cry. B) Researchers have recently discovered the “moral gene.” C) Infants are skilled at regulating emotion, which leads to internalization of moral rules. D) Reciprocal exchanges are far more common, varied, and highly developed in primates than in humans. Answer: A Page Ref: 487 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.1

8)

As a child, Rico suffered damage to the ventromedial area of his prefrontal cortex. As an adult, Rico will A) have difficulty with language-dependent activities. B) rarely react with empathy to others’ distress. C) be overwhelmed by others’ distress. D) be especially prosocial and empathetic toward others. Answer: B Page Ref: 487 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.1

9)

The fact that pride, guilt, empathy, and sympathy require strong caregiving supports to develop indicates that A) these emotions are present in all species. B) morality is fully explained by its biological foundations. C) morality cannot be fully explained by its biological foundations. D) these are basic emotions. Answer: C Page Ref: 488 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.1

10)

According to psychoanalytical theory, Denzel will adopt his society’s standards of moral behavior through the process of A) choice. B) motivation. C) biological necessity. D) internalization. Answer: D Page Ref: 488 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.2

11)

Although physical violence is condoned in 10-year-old Jalila’s household, she agrees with society that fighting is unacceptable and subsequently acts according to her personal standards. Jalila is demonstrating evidence of A) internalization. B) induction. C) construction. D) realism. Answer: A Page Ref: 488 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.2

12)

According to Freud, moral development is largely complete by age A) 3 to 4. B) 4 to 5. C) 5 to 6. D) 7 to 8. Answer: C Page Ref: 488 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.2

13)

Which of the following statements reflects Freud’s view of guilt? A) Guilt does not emerge until middle childhood. B) Guilt is a hostile impulse redirected toward the self. C) Guilt is controlled by the id. D) Guilt is a hostile impulse directed toward others. Answer: B Page Ref: 488 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.2

14)

Which of the following situations challenges Freud’s view of conscience development? A) Although Mia has been told that violating codes of conduct is wrong, her conscience is too strong to experience guilt. B) Mia’s parents frequently use disciplinary techniques, such as threats, commands, and physical force, yet she violates rules often with little guilt. C) Because her parents often use threats, commands, or physical force, Mia feels extreme guilt after violating rules or codes of conduct. D) Although her parents withhold attention and love when she misbehaves, Mia compensates for this through attention from teachers and peers. Answer: B Page Ref: 488 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.2

15)

Induction points out the effects of A) unacceptable behavior, but does not lead to internalization of moral norms. B) harsh punishment on moral development. C) the child’s prosocial behavior on adults and peers. D) the child’s misbehavior on others and makes it clear that the child caused it. Answer: D Page Ref: 489 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.2

16)

Three-year-old Ally throws a block at her sister, who starts to cry. Her mother says, “Your sister is crying because you hurt her.” Ally’s mother is using as a form of discipline. A) induction B) reverse psychology C) punishment D) construction Answer: A Page Ref: 489 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.2

17)

Research on induction shows that it A) encourages empathy and sympathetic concern. B) encourages anger and hostility toward peers. C) should not be used with children under the age of 10. D) is less effective than corporal punishment. Answer: A Page Ref: 489 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.2

18)

Diane’s mother threatens to punish her or gives her the silent treatment when Diane does something wrong. This approach A) is more effective than induction, particularly when used with younger children. B) makes Diane feel anxious and unable to think clearly enough to figure out what she should do. C) promotes Diane’s compliance and prosocial behavior. D) helps Diane learn to internalize moral norms. Answer: B Page Ref: 489 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.2

19)

Jinelle is an anxious, fearful preschooler. What can her parents do to foster guilt reactions and conscience development? A) Focus more on misbehavior than prosocial behavior. B) Engage in power assertions. C) Avoid using mild, patient tactics, as these will reinforce anxious behavior. D) Use mild patient tactics, such as requests, suggestions, and explanations. Answer: D Page Ref: 490 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.2

20)

Parents of impulsive children can foster conscience development by A) combining firm correction of misbehavior with induction. B) using harsh discipline when it is necessary to change behavior. C) using gentle discipline, reinforced by mild suggestions. D) limiting positive reinforcement until the child’s behavior improves. Answer: A Page Ref: 490 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.2

21)

Empathy-based guilt reactions are associated with A) anger, hostility, and future antisocial behavior. B) stopping harmful actions and repairing damage caused by misdeeds. C) fearful behavior, particularly toward adults. D) prosocial behavior in girls and antisocial behavior in boys. Answer: B Page Ref: 490 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.2

22)

When inducing empathy-based guilt, parents must help children A) deal with guilt feelings constructively by guiding them to make up for immoral behavior. B) understand why harsh punishment is sometimes necessary to correct misbehavior. C) understand why adults are always right and that their goal is to protect children. D) understand that people sometimes behave inappropriately. Answer: A Page Ref: 490 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.2

23)

Dr. Milo believes that moral behavior is acquired through reinforcement and modeling. Dr. Milo’s view is consistent with A) the biological perspective. B) psychoanalytic theory. C) the social learning perspective. D) Piaget’s theory of moral development. Answer: C Page Ref: 490 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.3

24)

According to social learning theorists, operant conditioning is not enough for young children to acquire moral responses because A) prosocial behaviors do not increase with positive reinforcement. B) parents rarely provide reinforcement following a prosocial act. C) many prosocial acts occur so rarely at first that reinforcement cannot explain their rapid development. D) negative reinforcement does not decrease the likelihood of antisocial behavior. Answer: C Page Ref: 490 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.3

25)

Warmth and responsiveness, competence and power, and consistency between assertions and behavior are all A) characteristics that affect children’s willingness to imitate a model’s behavior. B) less likely to promote moral development than spankings and threats. C) evident in primates, reinforcing the biological perspective of morality. D) traits that develop around age 2 as precursors to moral development. Answer: A Page Ref: 491 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.3

26)

Models of effective behavior are especially influential A) in the early years. B) in middle childhood. C) in adolescence. D) if they combine harsh punishment with frequent time outs. Answer: A Page Ref: 491 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.3

27)

Which of the following is a side effect of harsh punishment? A) It models aggression. B) It helps children distinguish between prosocial and antisocial behaviors. C) It permanently stops children’s misbehavior. D) It encourages children to seek closeness with adults. Answer: A Page Ref: 491 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.3

28)

Harshly treated children react with resentment and a chronic sense of being personally threatened, which prompts A) timid, but more social, behavior. B) a strong internalization of moral rules. C) a focus on the self’s distress rather than a sympathetic orientation to others’ needs. D) increased genetic risk for aggression. Answer: C Page Ref: 491 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.3

29)

Ethnographic evidence indicates that corporal punishment increases in societies with A) a collectivist orientation. B) an individualistic orientation. C) autocratic political decision making. D) low rates of poverty. Answer: C Page Ref: 492 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.3

30)

An alarming spanked or hit. A) 25 to 35 B) 35 to 40 C) 35 to 50 D) 50 to 60 Answer: C

percent of U.S. infants—who are not yet capable of complying with adult directives—get

Page Ref: 492 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.3

31)

More than onebelt. A) fifth B) fourth C) third D) half Answer: B

of physically punishing U.S. parents report having used a hard object, such as a brush or a

Page Ref: 492 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.3

32)

Jelena had a temper tantrum, so she was sent to her room until she was ready to act appropriately. This technique is known as A) time out. B) withdrawal of privileges. C) induction. D) withdrawal of love. Answer: A Page Ref: 493 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.3

33)

Mr. and Mrs. Briggs, Caucasian-American parents, regularly use physical punishment with their son Max. Max will probably A) develop respect for adults. B) avoid delinquent peers. C) show a decrease in aggressive behavior. D) engage in aggressive and antisocial behavior. Answer: D Page Ref: 493 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Ethnic Differences in the Consequences of Physical Punishment Skill: Apply Objective: 12.3

34)

Longitudinal research shows that spanking is associated with a A) high level of respect toward adults and other authority figures. B) rise in behavior problems if parents are cold and rejecting. C) decrease in behavior problems if parents deliver it when they are highly agitated. D) decrease in antisocial behavior in girls but not boys. Answer: B Page Ref: 493 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Ethnic Differences in the Consequences of Physical Punishment Skill: Understand Objective: 12.3

35)

Ursula has developed a firm conscience, displays empathy, behaves responsibly, plays fairly in games, and is exceptionally considerate of other’s welfare. Ursula’s mother probably used as her primary form of discipline. A) positive discipline B) time out C) corporal punishment D) withdrawal of privileges Answer: A Page Ref: 494 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.3

36)

A major criticism of theories that regard morality as entirely a matter of internalization of societal norms is that A) the role of emotion is disregarded in the development of prosocial behavior. B) they do not consider cultural influences on moral development. C) they overemphasize biological contributions to morality. D) prevailing standards sometimes may be at odds with important ethical principles and humanitarian goals. Answer: D Page Ref: 494 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.4

37)

Dr. Kalpoe is a cognitive-developmental theorist. As such, Dr. Kalpoe probably believes that the major means by which children become moral is through A) specific teaching by parents and caregivers. B) modeling and reinforcement. C) identification with parents. D) construction. Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.4

38)

Viewing the child as a thinking moral being who wonders about right and wrong and searches for moral truth is the approach endorsed by A) social learning theorists. B) reinforcement theorists. C) behaviorists. D) cognitive-developmental theorists. Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.4

39)

Children’s earliest moral understanding can be described as A) an inner propensity to adhere to socially agreed-upon principles. B) an understanding of intentions. C) a superficial orientation to physical power and external consequences. D) extensive moral imperatives. Answer: C Page Ref: 496 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.5

40)

Children in Piaget’s heteronomous morality stage A) want to maintain the affection and approval of others by being a “good person.” B) view rules as unchangeable and requiring strict obedience. C) base their moral understanding on reward, punishment, and the power of authority figures. D) view the “right” action as what satisfies their needs or otherwise results in personal advantage. Answer: B Page Ref: 496 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.5

41)

According to Piaget, two factors that limit children’s moral understanding are A) a limited understanding of conservation; egocentrism B) animistic thinking; a lack of concern for others C) the power of adults to insist that children comply; cognitive immaturity D) an underdeveloped ego; poor perspective-taking skills Answer: C

and

.

Page Ref: 496 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.5

42)

Satish is a young child whose moral understanding is characterized by the belief that rules are fixed external features of reality. Satish’s moral understanding reflects A) induction. B) moral self-relevance. C) realism. D) compliance. Answer: C Page Ref: 496 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.5

43)

Lamis likes to play “Go Fish.” One day when her older brother suggests changing the rules, she adamantly insists that the rules cannot be changed. Lamis has not yet made the transition to A) heteronomous morality. B) a punishment and obedience orientation. C) an instrumental purpose orientation. D) morality of cooperation. Answer: D Page Ref: 497 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.5

44)

Piaget regarded peer disagreements as especially facilitating in the development of A) morality of cooperation. B) realism. C) heteronomous morality. D) inductive discipline. Answer: A Page Ref: 497 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.5

45)

According to Piaget, older children in the morality of cooperation stage understand realize that rules can be reinterpreted and revised. A) ideal reciprocity B) realism C) a moral dilemma D) induction Answer: A

, which helps them

Page Ref: 497 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.5

46)

By what age do children clearly recognize the difference between truthfulness and lying? A) 2 years B) 4 years C) 8 years D) 10 years Answer: B Page Ref: 497 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.5

47)

Children certain types of truthfulness—for example, blunt statements, particularly when made in public contexts where they are especially likely to have negative social consequences. A) cannot separate the harm from the intentions in B) see only ill intentions in C) are unable to recognize D) evaluate negatively Answer: D Page Ref: 497 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.5

48)

Canadian children are more likely than Chinese children to favor lying A) when the intention is modesty. B) to support the individual at the expense of the group. C) to support the group at the expense of the individual. D) when the intention is prosocial. Answer: B Page Ref: 497 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.5

49)

Preschoolers more often than older children evaluate lies A) as always wrong. B) as sometimes necessary. C) in a positive manner. D) based on the situation. Answer: A Page Ref: 498 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.5

50)

Follow-up research on Piaget’s theory indicates that children A) regard adults with unquestioning respect. B) do not regard adults with unquestioning respect. C) cannot discriminate between truthfulness and lying until the end of elementary school. D) do not develop differential notions about the legitimacy of authority figures until the age of 10. Answer: B Page Ref: 498 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.5

51)

Eight-year-old Carlos and 9-year-old Theresa are arguing over a bag of candy. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects their probable response to intervention? A) They will stop fighting if an adult threatens to spank them or put them in time out. B) They will stop fighting in an adult’s presence but will resume the argument once the adult leaves the room. C) They will view a directive to stop fighting and share as right, regardless of who states it. D) They will not listen to anyone because candy involves a primary motivator, and their desire for it is too strong to control their actions. Answer: C Page Ref: 498 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.5

52)

Both Piaget and Kohlberg used a(n) A) cross-sectional B) structured observation C) clinical interviewing D) ecological Answer: C

procedure to study moral development.

Page Ref: 499 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.6

53)

To study moral development, Kohlberg A) observed people in naturally occurring situations requiring moral reasoning. B) used an ethnographic approach to assess moral reasoning. C) studied moral reasoning in institutionalized children and adolescents. D) presented people with hypothetical moral dilemmas. Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.6

54)

Kohlberg emphasized that it is the , not the that determines moral judgment maturity when presented with the Heinz dilemma. A) way an individual reasons about the dilemma; content of the response B) content of the response; way an individual reasons about the dilemma C) final outcome; way in which that outcome was achieved D) emotional reaction to the dilemma; justification of the response Answer: A Page Ref: 499 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

55)

According to Kohlberg, given a choice between obeying the law and preserving individual rights, the most advanced moral thinkers will A) follow the law. B) first advocate for reinterpretation of the law. C) break the law to support individual rights. D) break the law only with prior permission from an authority figure. Answer: C Page Ref: 499 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

56)

Dr. Miller wants to assess the moral reasoning of young children with a short-answer questionnaire that allows for efficient gathering and scoring of information. Dr. Miller will most likely use the A) Wechsler Inventory of Social-Conventional Reasoning. B) Woodcock-Johnson Assessment of Moral Reasoning. C) Moral Judgment Interview. D) Sociomoral Reflection Measure–Short Form. Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.6

57)

In Kohlberg’s theory, at the consquences. A) principled B) preconventional C) conventional D) postconventional Answer: B

level, children accept the rules of authority figures and judge actions by their

Page Ref: 500 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.6

58)

In response to the Heinz dilemma, Bill says, “You shouldn’t steal the drug because you’ll be caught and sent to jail if you do. If you do get away, the police would catch up with you any minute.” Bill is most likely in the stage. A) punishment and obedience orientation B) social-order-maintaining orientation C) morality of interpersonal cooperation D) instrumental purpose orientation Answer: A Page Ref: 500 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.6

59)

If Tatum is in Kohlberg’s stage of instrumental purpose orientation, which of the following statements would describe how she looks at moral dilemmas? A) “Don’t do that because you’ll be in trouble if you do.” B) “Helping people is more important than following rules.” C) “If you can’t do the time, don’t do the crime.” D) “You do this for me, and I’ll do that for you.” Answer: D Page Ref: 500 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.6

60)

At Kohlberg’s conventional level, moral understanding is based on A) rewards, punishment, and the power of authority figures. B) abstract principles and values that apply to all situations and societies. C) actively maintaining the current social system to ensure positive human relationships and societal order. D) the degree to which morality is central to self-concept. Answer: C Page Ref: 501 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

61)

In response to the Heinz dilemma, David says, “It’s a natural thing for Heinz to want to save his wife, but it’s still his duty as a citizen to obey the law.” David is most likely in the stage of orientation. A) social-order-maintaining B) instrumental purpose C) “good boy–good girl” D) social-contract Answer: A Page Ref: 501 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.6

62)

In response to the Heinz dilemma, Dana says, “Respect for human life and personality is absolute; people have a duty to save one another from dying.” Dana is most likely in the stage of orientation. A) social-contract B) universal ethical principle C) instrumental purpose D) social-order-maintaining Answer: B Page Ref: 502 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.6

63)

With few exceptions, individuals move through Kohlberg’s first four stages in A) reverse order. B) a random order. C) a rapid manner. D) the predicted order. Answer: D Page Ref: 502 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.6

64)

The existence of postconventional morality is a matter of speculation because A) it is so rare that no clear evidence exists that Stage 6 actually follows Stage 5. B) researchers disagree about how to assess it. C) Kohlberg himself was unclear about moral reasoning at that stage. D) it tends to emerge spontaneously in collectivist societies. Answer: A Page Ref: 502 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

65)

Moral maturity is positively correlated with A) popularity. B) egocentrism. C) IQ. D) political aspirations. Answer: C Page Ref: 502 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.6

66)

What is Gilligan’s primary criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning? A) Kohlberg’s theory does not fully explain moral reasoning at Stages 4 and 5. B) Kohlberg’s theory is at odds with Piaget’s theory and little research has been conducted on its validity. C) Kohlberg’s theory does not account for language differences between males and females. D) Kohlberg’s theory, originally based on interviews with males, does not adequately represent morality of girls and women. Answer: B Page Ref: 503 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

67)

Gilligan believes that feminine morality emphasizes a(n) A) earlier shift from Stage 2 to Stage 3 reasoning than in Kohlberg’s system. B) an absence of justice and caring, unlike Kohlberg’s system. C) focus on impersonal rights. D) ethic of care. Answer: D Page Ref: 503 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

68)

Many studies have tested Gilligan’s claim that Kohlberg’s approach underestimates the moral maturity of females, and A) most support it. B) most do not support it. C) the results are divided. D) none support it. Answer: B Page Ref: 503 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.6

69)

Some evidence indicates that although the morality of males and females includes both orientations, females tend to stress , whereas males stress . A) justice; empathetic perspective taking B) empathetic perspective taking; care C) care; justice D) justice; care Answer: C Page Ref: 503 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.6

70)

Personality, child-rearing practices, peer interaction, schooling, and aspects of culture affect maturity of moral reasoning A) in older adolescents and emerging adults but not children. B) by presenting cognitive challenges, which stimulate young people to think about moral problems in more complex ways. C) in individualistic but not collectivist societies, where moral reasoning tends to be delayed. D) by teaching individuals to follow their intuition instead of simply abiding by what adults tell them. Answer: B Page Ref: 504 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.7

71)

Vamsee is a flexible and open-minded individual. He will most likely A) be socially skilled and have many opportunities for social participation. B) be uninterested in others’ moral ideas and justifications. C) have difficulty adapting to new experiences. D) put his own thoughts and preferences aside and adopt the perspectives of others. Answer: A Page Ref: 504 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.7

72)

Suze wants to foster moral maturity in her children. How should Suze interact with her children to accomplish this? A) Maintain a high level of power assertion and a low level of decision making. B) Always intervene when the children argue since sibling arguments often escalate to physical aggression. C) Engage in moral discussions and encourage prosocial behavior. D) Use either permissive or authoritarian child rearing. Answer: C Page Ref: 504 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.7

73)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the influence of schooling on fostering mature moral reasoning? A) Higher education introduces young people to social issues that extend beyond personal relationships to entire political or cultural groups. B) Moral reasoning is explicitly taught in college and university settings. C) When young people do not attend school, they often engage in deviant behavior, which has a negative impact on moral reasoning. D) Students who attend college must have advanced moral reasoning in order to be successful in a competitive environment. Answer: A Page Ref: 505 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.7

74)

Adolescents who are advanced in moral reasoning. A) base social life on authority relations B) interact with peers who have the same viewpoints C) more often participate in conversations with their friends D) like to engage in debate with their peers Answer: C Page Ref: 505 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.7

75)

Research on collectivist cultures has shown that A) Kohlberg’s highest stages are limited to Western societies that emphasize individual rights. B) moral statements portray the individual as disconnected from the social group. C) individuals in individualistic and collectivist societies reason in much the same way. D) their responses to moral dilemmas are often more other-directed than in individualistic societies. Answer: D Page Ref: 505 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.7

76)

The connection between mature moral reasoning and action is , due to the . A) weak; impact of personal relationships on the decision-making process B) strong; realization that behavior reflects thinking and judgments C) modest; influence of empathy, sympathy, and guilt D) nonexistent; fact that theoretical morality and real-life morality are based on different constructs Answer: C Page Ref: 506 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.7

77)

At age 3, Heike shows great concern when her mother injures her finger while gardening. Given her empathy in this situation, which of the following will be true of Heike at age 5? A) She is likely to ignore social convention in her moral behaviors. B) She will show strong moral self-perceptions. C) She will understand and act on moral imperatives. D) Her empathy does not predict tendencies in moral identity or action. Answer: B Page Ref: 506 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.7

78)

As part of a school project, Pritindra gathers food donations for the poor and homeless. What is the likely result of Pritindra’s participation in this project? A) a belief that personal factors, such as low intelligence or addiction problems, are the cause of an individual’s plight B) a commitment to future community service and a gain further in moral maturity C) a distaste for community service that is forced upon him by those in positions of authority D) a sense of sympathy, but not empathy, for those in need Answer: B Page Ref: 508 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Development of Civic Responsibility Skill: Apply Objective: 12.7

79)

Sasha’s parents bring up controversial issues at home and encourage her to form opinions. Her school fosters a democratic climate in which teachers promote discussion of controversial issues while insisting that students listen to and respect one another. This environment will A) enhance Sasha’s sense of civic responsibility. B) decrease Sasha’s sense of civic responsibility. C) cause Sasha to become self-absorbed and materialistic. D) inhibit Sasha’s ability to develop sympathy or empathy. Answer: A Page Ref: 508 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Development of Civic Responsibility Skill: Apply Objective: 12.7

80)

is associated with civic commitment that persists into adulthood. A) Participation in nonsport extracurricular activities at school B) Reading about social injustice in other countries C) Attending youth rallies D) Watching movies that have a strong social message Answer: A Page Ref: 508 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Development of Civic Responsibility Skill: Remember Objective: 12.7

81)

Which of the following individuals would most likely actively practice religion? A) Barbara, who lives in the United States B) Sophia, who lives in Italy C) William, who lives in Great Britain D) Simon, who lives in Canada Answer: A Page Ref: 507 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.7

82)

Increased autonomy and efforts to construct a personally meaningful religious identity coincides with A) increased spirituality during adolescence. B) an increase in church attendance during early adulthood. C) a drop in formal religious involvement during adolescence. D) the questioning of one’s religious beliefs during early childhood. Answer: C Page Ref: 507 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.7

83)

A key controversy about Kohlberg’s theory is A) that there is not much research-validated support for his work. B) with his belief that moral maturity is not achieved until the postconventional level. C) that his stages focus solely on moral reasoning during early and middle childhood. D) that cross-cultural studies do not support the progression from one stage to the next. Answer: B Page Ref: 509 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.8

84)

According to Krebs and Denton, everyday moral judgments A) often focus on money matters. B) overlap with Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning. C) are practical tools that people use to achieve their goals. D) are often irrational and immature. Answer: C Page Ref: 509 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.8

85)

After seeing two little boys taunt another child on the playground, Najai tells the teacher that they should make playground rules that protect other people’s rights and welfare. Najai is requesting a common set of A) moral imperatives. B) social conventions. C) matters of personal choice. D) moral ideals. Answer: A Page Ref: 510 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.9

86)

Which of the following is an example of a social convention? A) a couple’s decision to not have any children B) a rule that forbids pets in a city zoo C) the right to free speech that is guaranteed by the U.S. Constitution D) placing a napkin on your lap at meals Answer: D Page Ref: 510 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.9

87)

do not violate rights and are up to the individual. A) Moral imperatives B) Social conventions C) Immoral beliefs D) Matters of personal choice Answer: D Page Ref: 510 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.9

88)

Three-year-old Noelle is shown two pictures: one shows a child stealing an orange and the other shows a child eating spaghetti with her fingers. Noelle is most likely to view A) both actions as equally wrong. B) both actions as okay if an adult did not see them. C) the stealing as more wrong than the bad table manners. D) the bad table manners as more wrong than the stealing. Answer: C Page Ref: 510 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.9

89)

As children’s understanding of morality becomes more complex, they regard violations of purposeful conventions A) as dependent on individuals’ intentions. B) as closer to moral transgressions. C) to be less important than random convention transgressions. D) as the linkage to immoral beliefs. Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.9

90)

Which of the following actions would school-age children consider to be worse in a moral sense? A) purposefully burning a flag in public B) accidentally burning a flag in public C) burning a flag to protest the unfair treatment of a country’s citizens D) purposefully burning a flag in private Answer: A Page Ref: 511 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.9

91)

Disagreements between adolescents and parents are most often A) due to different moral imperatives. B) related to social conventions. C) disputes over personal issues. D) related to drug use and antisocial behavior. Answer: C Page Ref: 511 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.9

92)

When asked if it is OK to exclude a child from friendship or peer group on the basis of race or gender, Sam, a fourth grader, would say that A) exclusion is fair under some conditions. B) exclusion is always unfair. C) exclusion is always fair. D) it depends on who the person is. Answer: B Page Ref: 512 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.9

93)

Cross-cultural research on moral behavior shows that A) children in Western cultures demonstrate greater moral maturity than children in non-Western cultures. B) Chinese and Japanese young people say that adults always have the right to interfere in their personal matters. C) American young people say that adults always have the right to interfere in their personal matters. D) children and adolescents in diverse Western and non-Western cultures use similar criteria to reason about moral, social-conventional, and personal concerns. Answer: D Page Ref: 512 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.9

94)

In order for Adrian to be able to behave in a self-controlled fashion, he must A) be taught how to sit still and be quiet, particularly in structured settings. B) have some ability to think of himself as a separate, autonomous being who can direct his own actions. C) be able to obey simple requests and commands. D) learn how to distinguish and coordinate moral imperatives. Answer: B Page Ref: 514 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.10

95)

Two-year-old Kanye is able to show clear awareness of his mother’s wishes and expectations, and obeys her simple requests and commands. Kanye is demonstrating A) effortful control. B) self-control. C) compliance. D) reciprocity. Answer: C Page Ref: 514 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.10

96)

According to Vygotsky, children cannot guide their own behavior until they have integrated standards represented in adult–child dialogues into their own A) self-directed speech. B) intersubjectivity. C) cooperative dialogue. D) zone of proximal development. Answer: A Page Ref: 514 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.10

97)

Which of the following children will be most successful in dealing with delay of gratification? A) a frustrated child B) an immature child C) an angry child D) an inhibited child Answer: D Page Ref: 514 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.10

98)

Mischel’s research shows that diverting attention is especially important in teaching children to A) monitor temptation. B) resist temptation. C) transform stimuli in ways that emphasize arousing qualities. D) be able to plan effectively. Answer: B Page Ref: 515 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.10

99)

Avery is able to monitor her own conduct, constantly adjusting it as circumstances present opportunities to violate inner standards. Avery has developed the capacity for A) moral self-regulation. B) postconventional thought. C) induction. D) ideal reciprocity. Answer: A Page Ref: 515 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.10

100)

Which of the following characteristics is present in Mischel’s “hot” processing system? A) cognitive B) slow and reflective development C) self-control D) stimulus control Answer: D Page Ref: 516 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.10

101)

With age, the emotional, reactive hot system is increasingly subordinated to the cognitive, reflective cool system, as a result of A) diffusion of executive function. B) improved functioning of the prefrontal cortex. C) temperaments subjected to inconsistent discipline. D) decreases in self-control. Answer: B Page Ref: 516 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.10

102)

Between the ages of 6 and 11, A) proactive, or instrumental, aggression declines. B) physical aggression declines, while verbal aggression increases. C) girls’ relational aggression becomes increasingly indirect. D) teacher- and peer-reported aggression declines. Answer: C Page Ref: 517 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.10

103)

In his rush to be first in line, 5-year-old Corey knocks down a classmate. Corey has just engaged in aggression. A) proactive B) reactive C) relational D) verbal Answer: A Page Ref: 517 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.11

104)

Research shows that between ages 3 and 6, increases. A) physical; verbal B) overt; hostile C) relational; proactive D) reactive; relational Answer: A Page Ref: 518 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

aggression decreases, whereas

aggression

105)

declines as preschoolers’ improved capacity to delay gratification enables them to resist grabbing others’ possessions. A) Reactive aggression B) Relational aggression C) Proactive aggression D) Malicious intention Answer: C Page Ref: 518 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

106)

U.S. 12- to 17-year-olds account for A) 8 B) 14 C) 21 D) 33 Answer: B

percent of police arrests.

Page Ref: 518 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

107)

contribute(s) to an increase in antisocial behavior among teenagers. A) The desire for autonomy B) A decreased capacity for moral self-regulation C) Changes in the brain’s emotional/social network at puberty D) A strict adherence to gender stereotypes Answer: C Page Ref: 519 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

108)

Assuming the following four boys will eventually engage in various forms of adolescent delinquency, which child is likely to engage in less violent forms, such as theft? A) Mark, who has high levels of oppositional behavior B) Matt, who has high levels of physical aggression C) Mike, who has low levels of oppositional behavior D) Max, who has medium levels of physical aggression Answer: A Page Ref: 519 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.11

109)

For both boys and girls, persistently high physical or relational aggression A) predicts later externalizing problems but not internalizing problems. B) predicts involvement in aggressive sports like hockey and rugby. C) is associated with peer admiration and respect. D) predicts later internalizing and externalizing difficulties and social skills deficits. Answer: D Page Ref: 519–520 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

110)

Which of the following statements is true about adolescent delinquency? A) The late-onset type is far more likely to lead to a life-course pattern of aggression and criminality than the earlyonset type. B) Most research on adolescent delinquency has focused on boys from middle- and upper-SES families. C) Early-onset youngsters seem to inherit traits that predispose them to aggressiveness and also show subtle deficits in cognitive functioning. D) The longer antisocial young people spend in prison, the less likely they are to sustain a life of crime. Answer: C Page Ref: 520 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

111) Fourteen-year-old Shaq demonstrated a difficult and fearless temperamental style as a young child and often physically attacked his parents and siblings. When he was 12, Shaq was arrested for breaking into houses. He is now a regular drug user and rarely attends school. Which of the following statements about Shaq is probably true? A) Shaq will most likely grow out of this behavior once he understands the consequences of his actions. B) Shaq’s parents need to use corporal punishment to correct his antisocial behavior. C) Shaq is at-risk for high school dropout, unemployment, and future arrests. D) Shaq is engaging in normal adolescent behavior. Answer: C Page Ref: 520 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency Skill: Apply Objective: 12.11

112)

Research on adolescent aggression shows that late-onset youths A) first display antisocial behavior around the time of puberty, gradually increasing their involvement. B) commit more serious crimes and spend more time in prison than early-onset youths. C) often have deficits in cognitive functioning, as well as a diagnosis of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. D) first display antisocial behavior in late adolescence, which then peaks in the mid-twenties. Answer: A Page Ref: 520 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

113)

Which of the following parenting behaviors is linked to aggression from early childhood through adolescence in diverse cultures? A) reinforcement of prosocial modeling B) inductive discipline C) consistent discipline D) power assertion Answer: D Page Ref: 520 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

114)

Compared with siblings in typical families, preschool siblings who have critical, punitive parents A) are more passive toward one another. B) are more aggressive toward one another. C) display characteristics of an inhibited temperament. D) recognize hostile intent only when it is specifically directed at them. Answer: B Page Ref: 521 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

115)

Which of the following is a biased social-cognitive attribution of proactively aggressive children? A) extremely low self-esteem B) overly high self-esteem C) high rates of empathy D) advanced moral reasoning Answer: B Page Ref: 522 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

116)

Which of the following statements is true about antisocial adolescents? A) They are delayed in maturity of moral judgment. B) They tend to view aggression as within the moral domain. C) They score high in moral identity. D) They have low self-esteem. Answer: A Page Ref: 523 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

117)

In schools located in areas with high poverty, their large classes, weak instruction, rigid rules, and reduced academic expectations and opportunities A) lead to extremely low self-esteem. B) heighten the capacity for delayed gratification. C) are associated with higher rates of lawbreaking. D) foster a fanatical adherence to social conventions and moral norms. Answer: C Page Ref: 523 Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

118)

In the past decade, wars have left A) 1; 6 B) 2; 8 C) 3; 10 D) 6; 20 Answer: D

million children physically disabled and

million homeless.

Page Ref: 524 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Impact of Ethnic and Political Violence on Children Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

119)

A loss of a sense of safety, desensitization to violence, and a pessimistic view of the future are characteristics of A) late-onset adolescent delinquents. B) inner-city children. C) children of war. D) children who grow up in large, single-parent families. Answer: C Page Ref: 524 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Impact of Ethnic and Political Violence on Children Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

120)

For children who experience ethnic or political violence, problems. A) parental affection and reassurance B) permissive child rearing C) extensive therapy and extracurricular involvement D) psychotropic medication Answer: A

is/are the best protection against lasting

Page Ref: 524 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Impact of Ethnic and Political Violence on Children Skill: Understand Objective: 12.11

121)

Fourteen-year-old Brady is in a program where he is taught to attend to relevant, nonhostile behaviors, to seek additional information before acting, and to evaluate the likely effectiveness of potential responses. Brady is participating in a intervention. A) home-based B) psychodynamic C) social-cognitive D) cognitive-developmental Answer: C Page Ref: 525 Skill: Apply Objective: 12.11

122)

refers to an adult-guided but adolescent-conducted small-group approach aimed at creating a prosocial climate. A) Moral self-relevance B) Positive peer culture C) Multisystemic therapy D) Community justice Answer: B Page Ref: 525 Skill: Remember Objective: 12.11

ESSAY 123)

Describe the biological bases for morality. Answer: Although a variety of built-in bases for morality have been posited, empathy or caring and self-sacrifice are of prime importance. Humans are biased to aid family members—helping that strengthens as genetic relatedness increases and that is particularly strong in life-and-death situations. But humans also have an unmatched capacity to make sacrifices for nonrelatives—by investing time and effort in helping the needy in their communities, donating generously to charities, aiding others in emergencies, and giving their lives for their country in wartime. Evolutionary theorists speculate that our unique capacity to act prosocially toward genetic strangers originated several million years ago, in the small hunting-and-gathering bands. To limit selfishness, humans developed informal systems of social exchange, in which they acted benevolently toward others with the expectation that others might do the same for them in the future. The willingness of many members of a group to aid others and engage in self-sacrifice ensures that the majority will survive and reproduce. Researchers have identified areas within the prefrontal cortex that are vital for emotional responsiveness to the suffering of others and to one’s own misdeeds. Functioning of the prefrontal cortex improves over the first two years, preceding children’s increased empathic concern. The biological perspective reminds us of morality’s adaptive value. Because of the necessity for group living, humans have evolved an elaborate brain-based moral substrate that counteracts self-centered motives and promotes concern for others.

Page Ref: 486–488

124)

What is moral identity, and why is it important to identify its origins? Answer: A child’s moral identity consists of moral values—such as kindness, fairness, and generosity—that are central to a child’s self-concept and to subsequent behaviors. Researchers have begun to identify the origins of moral identity in hopes of capitalizing on it to promote moral commitment. For example, child-rearing practices—inductive discipline and clearly conveyed moral expectations—augment adolescents’ moral identity. Strengthening moral self-perceptions at an early age may be a powerful way to increase the chances that moral cognitions are realized in behavior. In longitudinal research, firm conscience development (as measured by internalization of parents’ rules) and empathic concern to mother’s distress (a hurt finger) during the preschool years predicted strong moral self-perceptions at age 5, which—in turn—positively predicted children’s competent, prosocial, rule-abiding behavior at age 6½. Parenting strategies that launch conscience development and empathy on an early, favorable path may contribute vitally, in the long term, to moral identity and action. Page Ref: 489, 506

125)

When adults use punishment with children, what factors can increase its effectiveness? Answer: When parents decide to use punishment, they can increase its effectiveness in three ways: (1) Consistency. Permitting children to act inappropriately on some occasions but scolding them on others confuses them, and the unacceptable act persists. (2) A warm parent–child relationship. Children of involved, caring parents find the interruption in parental affection that accompanies punishment especially unpleasant. They want to regain parental warmth and approval as quickly as possible. (3) Explanations. Providing reasons for mild punishment helps children relate the misdeed to expectations for future behavior. This approach leads to a far greater reduction in misbehavior than using punishment alone. Page Ref: 494

126)

Explain why positive discipline is effective and reduces the need for punishment. Answer: The most effective forms of discipline encourage good conduct—by building a mutually respectful bond with the child, letting the child know ahead of time how to act, and praising mature behavior. When sensitivity, cooperation, and shared positive emotion are evident in joint activities between parents and their toddlers or preschoolers, children show firmer conscience development—expressing empathy after transgressions, behaving responsibly, playing fairly in games, and considering others’ welfare. An early, mutually responsive, pleasurable parent–child tie continues to predict a firmer conscience into the early school years. Parent–child closeness leads children to heed parental demands because the child feels a sense of commitment to the relationship. Parents who use these strategies focus on long-term social and life skills—cooperation, problem solving, and consideration for others. As a result, they greatly reduce the need for punishment. Page Ref: 494

127)

Describe and evaluate Gilligan’s claim that Kohlberg’s approach to moral development underestimates the moral maturity of females. Answer: According to Carol Gilligan, Kohlberg’s theory—originally formulated on the basis of interviews with males —does not adequately represent the morality of girls and women. Gilligan believes that feminine morality emphasizes an “ethic of care” that Kohlberg’s system devalues. Gilligan adds that a concern for others is a different but no less valid basis for moral judgment than a focus on impersonal rights. Many studies have tested Gilligan’s claim that Kohlberg’s approach underestimates the moral maturity of females, and most do not support it. On hypothetical dilemmas, everyday moral problems, and the Sociomoral Reflection Measure–Short Form (SRM–SF), adolescent and adult females display reasoning at the same stage as their male counterparts and often at a higher stage. Themes of justice and caring appear in the responses of both sexes, and when girls do raise interpersonal concerns, they are not downgraded in Kohlberg’s system. Rather, many studies report that girls shift from Stage 2 to Stage 3 reasoning earlier than boys. These findings suggest that although Kohlberg emphasized justice rather than caring as the highest of moral ideals, his theory taps both sets of values. Nevertheless, some evidence indicates that although the morality of males and females includes both orientations, females do tend to stress care, or empathic perspective taking, whereas males either stress justice or focus equally on justice and care. This difference in emphasis, which appears more often in real-life than in hypothetical dilemmas, may reflect women’s greater involvement in daily activities involving care and concern for others. Page Ref: 503

128)

Discuss how children separate moral imperatives from social conventions, and explain how they learn to distinguish between these moral domains. Answer: The domain approach to moral understanding focuses on children’s developing capacity to distinguish and coordinate moral imperatives, which protect people’s rights and welfare, from two other types of social rules and expectations: social conventions, customs determined solely by consensus, such as table manners and rituals of social interaction; and matters of personal choice, such as choice of friends, hairstyle, and leisure activities, which do not violate rights and are up to the individual. According to domain theorists, children construct these systems of social knowledge out of their experiences with three types of regularities in their social world. And research reveals that children arrive at these distinctions early, displaying more advanced moral reasoning than assumed by the externally controlled vision of Kohlberg’s preconventional morality. As children construct a flexible appreciation of moral rules, they clarify and link moral imperatives and social conventions. Gradually their understanding becomes more complex, taking into account an increasing number of variables, including the purpose of the rule; people’s intentions, knowledge, and beliefs; and the context of people’s behavior. School-age children, for example, distinguish social conventions with a clear purpose from ones with no obvious justification. They regard violations of purposeful conventions as closer to moral transgressions. With age, they also realize that people’s intentions and the context of their actions affect the moral implications of violating a social convention. Page Ref: 510–511

129)

Describe the development of aggression, including individual differences in aggressive behavior. Answer: In the second half of the first year, infants develop the cognitive capacity to identify sources of anger and frustration and the motor skills to lash out at them. By the second year, aggressive acts with two distinct purposes emerge. Initially, the most common is proactive (or instrumental) aggression, in which children act to fulfill a need or desire—obtain an object, privilege, space, or social reward, such as adult attention or (in older children) peer admiration—and unemotionally attack a person to achieve their goal. The other type, reactive (or hostile) aggression, is an angry, defensive response to a provocation or a blocked goal and is meant to hurt another person. Proactive and reactive regression come in three forms, which are the focus of the majority of research: (1) Physical aggression harms others through physical injury—pushing, hitting, kicking, or punching others, or destroying another’s property. (2) Verbal aggression harms others through threats of physical aggression, name-calling, or hostile teasing. (3) Relational aggression damages another’s peer relationships through social exclusion, malicious gossip, or friendship manipulation. Between ages 3 and 6, physical aggression decreases, whereas verbal aggression increases. Rapid language development contributes to this change, but it is also due to adults’ and peers’ strong negative reactions to physical attacks. Furthermore, proactive aggression declines as preschoolers’ improved capacity to delay gratification enables them to resist grabbing others’ possessions. But reactive aggression in verbal and relational forms tends to rise over early and middle childhood. Older children are better able to detect malicious intentions and, as a result, more often respond in hostile ways. Beginning in the preschool years, girls concentrate most of their aggressive acts in the relational category. Boys inflict harm in more variable ways and, therefore, display overall rates of aggression that are much higher than girls’. At the same time, girls more often use indirect relational tactics that—in disrupting intimate bonds especially important to girls—can be particularly mean. Whereas physical attacks are usually brief, acts of indirect relational aggression may extend for hours, weeks, or even months. In adolescence, the gender gap in physical aggression widens. Although girls account for about one in five adolescent arrests for violence, their offenses are largely limited to simple assault (such as pushing and spitting), the least serious category. Serious violent crime, however, continues to be mostly the domain of boys. SES and ethnicity are strong predictors of arrests but only mildly related to teenagers’ self-reports of antisocial acts. Page Ref: 517–519

CHAPTER 13 DEVELOPMENT OF SEX DIFFERENCES AND GENDER ROLES MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Which of the following terms refers to the public face of gender in society? A) gender stereotypes and gender roles B) gender stereotypes and gender identity C) gender roles and gender identity D) gender identity and gender typing Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.1

2)

People in Country A hold a widely shared set of beliefs about characteristics deemed appropriate for males and females. They believe that females are passive and males are aggressive. Country A’s beliefs represent gender A) identities. B) roles. C) stereotypes. D) types. Answer: C Page Ref: 530 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.1

3)

Dean associates certain activities, roles, and traits as being typical for either males or females. His associations conform to cultural stereotypes and encompass many gender-linked responses. This is an example of gender A) atypicality. B) roles. C) typing. D) identity. Answer: C Page Ref: 530 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.1

4)

Competence, rationality, and assertiveness are examples of . A) expressive; feminine B) expressive; masculine C) instrumental; feminine D) instrumental; masculine Answer: D Page Ref: 530 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.2

traits that are typically considered to be

5)

Which of the following traits is considered instrumental? A) emotional B) self-confident C) needs approval D) considerate Answer: B Page Ref: 530 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.2

6)

Which of the following traits is considered expressive? A) excitable in a major crisis B) takes a stand C) not easily influenced D) holds up well under pressure Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.2

7)

Gender stereotypes tend to A) cast men in a generally positive light and women in a negative light. B) imply that expressive traits are more desirable than instrumental traits. C) cast women in a generally positive light and men in a negative light. D) strengthen in middle childhood and peak in adolescence. Answer: A Page Ref: 531 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

8)

In a study in which 20- to 40-year-olds were shown photos of children and adults and asked to rate each on “masculine,” “feminine,” and “neutral” personality traits, adults A) differentiated men from women more sharply than they did boys from girls. B) differentiated girls from women more sharply than they did boys from men. C) differentiated boys from girls more sharply than they did men from women. D) had great difficulty assigning gender-stereotyped traits based on photos. Answer: C Page Ref: 531 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.2

9)

During early childhood, gender-stereotyped beliefs A) weaken. B) first emerge. C) strengthen. D) disappear. Answer: C Page Ref: 531 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.2

10)

The association of toys, articles of clothing, tools, household items, games, occupations, colors, and behaviors with one sex or the other occurs A) when children lack access to androgynous role models. B) in elementary school. C) earlier for girls than for boys. D) by the preschool years. Answer: D Page Ref: 531 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

11)

Reflecting the gender stereotypes of his age group, 4-year-old Youssef is likely to say that A) it is OK for boys to dress up in skirts or jewelry. B) girls cannot be doctors or police officers. C) girls can grow up to be anything they want to be. D) it is OK if boys want to play with dolls. Answer: B Page Ref: 531–532 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.2

12)

Because older children realize that gender-stereotypic attributes are associated—but not defining—features of gender, their beliefs about possible male and female characteristics and capacities A) do not yet encompass conflicting information. B) tend to be one-sided judgments. C) rely on gender labels. D) become more flexible. Answer: D Page Ref: 532 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

13)

Research in many countries reveals that stereotyping of personality traits becomes adultlike around age A) 3 B) 6 C) 11 D) 15 Answer: C Page Ref: 532 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.2

14)

Children’s knowledge of personality trait stereotypes is first acquired through A) in-group favoritism. B) out-group favoritism C) interactions with other-sex peers. D) interactions with same-sex siblings. Answer: A Page Ref: 532 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

.

15)

Which of the following academic subjects does 9-year-old Sabra most likely view as “feminine”? A) mathematics B) social studies C) science D) reading Answer: D Page Ref: 532 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.2

16)

In both Asian and Western nations, A) boys and girls feel equally competent at math, science, and language arts. B) although girls outperform boys at language arts, they feel less competent about their performance in these subjects. C) although boys outperform girls at math and science, they feel less competent about their performance in these subjects. D) boys tend to feel more competent than girls at math, science, and athletics, and girls feel more competent than boys at language arts. Answer: D Page Ref: 532 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

17)

In several recent investigations carried out in Canada, France, and the United States, a majority of elementary and secondary school students A) believed that boys are better at language arts than girls. B) continued to view math as a “feminine” subject. C) disagreed with the idea that math is a “masculine” subject. D) perceived girls as able to do better in math than in language arts. Answer: C Page Ref: 532 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

18)

Dimitri believes that girls can be firefighters and boys can be caregivers for their children. Dimitri’s beliefs illustrate A) androgyny. B) gender-stereotype flexibility. C) gender constancy. D) gender stability. Answer: B Page Ref: 533 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.2

19)

Gender-stereotype flexibility rises as children develop A) an understanding that males and females have different abilities and preferences. B) noticeable physical and pubertal changes. C) social skills that enable them to work and play with members of the other sex. D) the cognitive capacity to integrate conflicting social cues. Answer: D Page Ref: 533 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

20)

By the end of the school years, most children view gender-typed behavior A) as inborn and fixed. B) as socially influenced. C) as unaffected by home rearing environments. D) in mostly the same manner as they did at age 5. Answer: B Page Ref: 533 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

21)

Which of the following statements is true about gender-stereotype flexibility? A) Acknowledging that boys and girls can cross gender lines does not mean that children always approve of doing so. B) Western children are especially tolerant when boys engage in “cross-gender” acts. C) Boys are more likely than girls to engage in “cross-gender” acts. D) Once children are old enough to acknowledge that boys and girls can cross gender lines, they always approve of doing so. Answer: A Page Ref: 533 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.2

22)

Which of the following children would be judged most harshly by other children? A) Monica, who does not like to play with dolls B) Kate, who likes to play football C) Roger, who likes to play with dolls D) Eric, who does not like to play with younger children Answer: C Page Ref: 533 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.2

23)

In adolescence and adulthood, higher-SES individuals tend to hold more their lower-SES counterparts. A) flexible B) rigid C) favorable D) unfavorable Answer: A

gender-stereotyped views than

Page Ref: 534 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.3

24)

Gordon, an African-American male, is used to seeing the women in his family going to work every day. As a result, Gordon will most likely A) believe that women should stay at home and take care of children. B) expect to be a stay-at-home father when he becomes an adult. C) hold rigid stereotypes of males and females. D) hold less stereotyped views of females than do Caucasian-American children. Answer: D Page Ref: 534 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.3

25)

In a study examining 18-month-old girls’ and boys’ looking times at vehicles and dolls, researchers found that A) boys looked longer than girls at the dolls, whereas girls looked longer than boys at the vehicles. B) boys and girls spent equal amounts of time looking at the dolls and the vehicles. C) both boys and girls looked longer at the vehicles than the dolls. D) girls looked longer than boys at the dolls, whereas boys looked longer than girls at the vehicles. Answer: D Page Ref: 534 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.3

26)

According to an evolutionary perspective, the adult life of our male ancestors was largely oriented toward A) competing for mates. B) hunting for food. C) protecting the clan. D) child rearing. Answer: A Page Ref: 535 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

27)

Cross-cultural findings reveal that most societies promote A) the genetically primed dominance of females. B) instrumental traits in males and expressive traits in females. C) the competition for mates among females. D) greater androgynous behavior among males than females. Answer: B Page Ref: 535 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.4

28)

Girls in the Nyansongo settlement in Kenya are afforded more freedom and independence than most cultures, which leads them to score higher than A) boys of other tribal and village cultures in dominance, assertiveness, and playful roughhousing. B) boys in caregiving responsibilities and emotional support. C) girls of other tribal and village cultures in dominance, assertiveness, and playful roughhousing. D) girls of other tribal and village cultures in androgyny. Answer: C Page Ref: 535 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.4

29)

According to the Swedish “equal roles family model,” A) husbands should be more responsible for housework and child care than wives. B) wives should be more responsible for housework than husbands, while husbands should be more responsible for children than wives. C) stay-at-home wives and mothers should earn a salary for their child-care and household responsibilities. D) husband and wife should have the same opportunity to pursue a career and should be equally responsible for housework and child care. Answer: D Page Ref: 536 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Sweden’s Commitment to Gender Equality Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

30)

To encourage fathers to take more responsibility for child rearing, Sweden has instituted A) “daddy day care.” B) “daddy leave.” C) “daddy-months.” D) “daddy time.” Answer: C Page Ref: 536 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Sweden’s Commitment to Gender Equality Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

31)

Peter is a Swedish adolescent. He is likely to view gender roles as a A) development of inborn traits. B) set of rights or duties of each sex. C) set of highly fluid, ill-defined concepts. D) matter of learned tasks and domain of expertise. Answer: D Page Ref: 536 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: Sweden’s Commitment to Gender Equality Skill: Apply Objective: 13.4

32)

Because cross-cultural findings on the reversals of traditional gender roles are inconclusive, a more direct test of the importance of biology on gender typing could be achieved by A) testing the impact of sex hormones on gender typing. B) studying adolescent boys and girls in tribal villages. C) observing infant behavioral preferences immediately after birth. D) observing other-sex play in children who score high in androgyny. Answer: A Page Ref: 536 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.4

33)

Animal research shows that increase(s) active play in both male and female mammals. A) prenatally administered estrogen B) limited exposure to females C) encouragement of cross-gender socialization D) prenatally administered androgens Answer: D Page Ref: 537 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

34)

Androgens are administered prenatally to a female cat. What outcome could be expected? A) a decrease in active play B) a decrease in aggression C) suppression of maternal caregiving D) an increase in nesting behavior Answer: C Page Ref: 537 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.4

35)

Throughout the school years, children show a strong preference for A) same-sex peers. B) large-group play. C) quiet activities involving cooperative roles. D) other-sex peers. Answer: A Page Ref: 537 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

36)

In one study, prenatal levels of the androgen hormone testosterone, A) contributed to the tendency to evaluate members of one’s own sex more negatively during adolescence. B) showed little or no correlation to gender-stereotypical behavior of either gender during the school years. C) positively predicted “masculine”-style play in both boys and girls when they were followed up during middle childhood. D) predicted which males would withdraw from other males who initiated rough, physical play. Answer: C Page Ref: 537 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.4

37)

causes the adrenal system to produce unusually high levels of onward. A) Diabetes; blood sugar B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia; androgens C) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia; estrogen D) Anoxia at birth; androgens Answer: B

from the prenatal period

Page Ref: 537 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

38)

Natalie is a girl with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. She will most likely A) show lower activity levels than other girls. B) prefer girls as playmates more than boys. C) experience an insecure gender identity. D) prefer cars, trucks, and blocks more than dolls. Answer: D Page Ref: 538 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.4

39)

In , the testes produce normal levels of androgens, but androgen receptors in body cells are partially or completely impaired. A) congenital adrenal hyperplasia B) androgen insensitivity syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) androgen deficiency syndrome Answer: B Page Ref: 538 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.4

40)

Twenty-year-old Neil is asked to observe an infant wearing only a diaper, and is told the baby is a girl when in fact it is a boy. What traits will Neil most likely use to describe the baby? A) firm, strong B) well-coordinated, hardy C) delicate, with fine features D) very alert, perceptive Answer: C Page Ref: 538 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

41)

When asked about attitudes toward “cross-gender” behavior, parents of preschoolers responded A) more negatively to the idea of girls than of boys crossing gender lines. B) positively to the idea of girls crossing gender lines. C) equally negatively to the idea of boys and girls crossing gender lines. D) more negatively to the idea of boys than of girls crossing gender lines. Answer: D Page Ref: 539 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

42)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between parenting and gender roles? A) Differences in the way parents socialize boys and girls are very large. B) Younger children receive more direct training in gender roles than do older children. C) In infancy and early childhood, parents tend to discourage gender-specific play activities and behaviors. D) During childhood and adolescence, parents hold similar perceptions and expectations of their sons and daughters. Answer: B Page Ref: 539 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

43)

Which of the following children most likely receives more direct training in gender roles? A) Carole, age 4 B) Cindy, age 8 C) Jan, age 12 D) Marcia, age 16 Answer: A Page Ref: 539 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

44)

Parents actively reinforce in boys and A) supportive talk; demands for attention B) independence; dependency C) closeness; emotionality D) emotional sensitivity; emotional restraint Answer: B Page Ref: 539 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

in girls.

45)

Parents who give their sons toys that stress action and competition A) encourage aggression and antisocial behavior in their children. B) also provide their daughters with toys that stress action and competition. C) encourage gender-specific play activities and behaviors. D) promote gender-typing more strongly during middle childhood than preschool. Answer: C Page Ref: 539 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

46)

Research findings suggest that language is A) a powerful indirect means to B) the only method to C) the primary means through which parents D) not a factor in the way that parents Answer: A

teach children about gender stereotypes and gender roles.

Page Ref: 539 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

47)

When mothers label gender, either with nouns or with pronouns, these statements A) prevent the use of generics in children’s language. B) promote gender-neutral thinking in children. C) can confuse children about what it means to be male versus female. D) encourage toddlers to sort their social world into gender categories. Answer: D Page Ref: 540 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Children Learn About Gender Through Mother–Child Conversations Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

48)

Statements like “Boys can be firefighters” and “Most girls don’t like playing football” are examples of A) observational learning. B) generic utterances. C) expressive traits. D) gender schemas. Answer: B Page Ref: 540–541 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Children Learn About Gender Through Mother–Child Conversations Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

49)

In a study of mother–child conversations, mothers who overwhelmingly believed in gender equality A) had children who displayed fewer generic utterances than mothers who were gender stereotyped. B) purposely worked to instill those ideas in their children while reading storybooks. C) frequently affirmed children’s stereotypical comments about gender. D) had children who displayed fewer gender-stereotyped comments in conversations with their peers. Answer: C Page Ref: 541 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Children Learn About Gender Through Mother–Child Conversations Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

50)

Observations of mothers and fathers interacting with their youngsters in teaching situations reveal that parents continue to A) demand greater independence from girls than boys. B) demand greater independence from boys than girls. C) emphasize emotions and feelings with boys more so than with girls. D) emphasize emotions and feelings with girls more so than with boys. Answer: B Page Ref: 539 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

51)

In longitudinal research, mothers rated first-grade regardless of their child’s actual performance. A) daughters; sons; science B) sons; daughters; language arts C) daughters; sons; math D) sons; daughters; math Answer: D

as more competent than

at

,

Page Ref: 541 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

52)

Mrs. Hung believes that her daughter Yuri is very competent at math. Mrs. Hopper believes that her daughter Shayla lacks competence at math. Which of the following statements about Yuri and Shayla is probably true? A) Neither Yuri nor Shayla will perceive herself as competent at math. B) Shayla will work harder than Yuri to improve her math performance. C) Yuri is more likely than Shayla to choose a physical science career. D) Shayla is more likely than Yuri to choose a physical science career. Answer: C Page Ref: 541 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

53)

In one study, investigators had 10- and 13-year-olds and their mothers and fathers choose courses for the children to take when they reached secondary school. Results showed that parents selected more courses for daughters and more courses for sons. A) language arts; science B) math; science C) science; social studies D) language arts; math Answer: A Page Ref: 541 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

54)

A parent who uses imperatives and specific suggestions in everyday life is most likely the parent of a A) son. B) teenager. C) daughter. D) son and a daughter. Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

55)

Mr. and Mrs. Merkle have a daughter and a son. They are most likely to A) work hard to assign “cross-gender” chores to their children to avoid gender stereotyping. B) assign their son chores that keep him close to home but allow their daughter to engage in activities that take her further into the community. C) pair control with autonomy for their daughter and engage in restrictive parenting with their son. D) use more directive speech with their daughter and grant their son more autonomy. Answer: D Page Ref: 542 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

56)

Eight-year-old Jasmine’s parents grant her little autonomy. This could cause Jasmine to A) feel very safe, secure, and protected. B) become rebellious and defiant. C) develop feelings of incompetence. D) have an overly inflated ego. Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

57)

Which of the following chore assignments gives greater freedom? A) Jim’s daily job is to pick up milk from the store on his way home from school. B) Jeff earns extra money by caring for his siblings when his parents work late. C) Valerie does laundry for the entire family without assistance. D) Deb helps her mother cook dinner every night. Answer: A Page Ref: 542 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

58)

In homes where fathers devote as much or more time to child care as mothers, A) the result is feminine behavior in boys and masculine behavior in girls. B) children tend to be more gender-typed in emotional expression. C) sons tend to be more emotionally sensitive and daughters more self-confident. D) daughters are likely to judge themselves as less competent. Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

59)

Which of the following statements is true about differential treatment of sons and daughters by parents? A) Fathers more than mothers encourage “gender-appropriate” behavior. B) Mothers more than fathers encourage “gender-appropriate” behavior. C) Mothers more than fathers place more pressure to achieve on sons than on daughters. D) Both mothers and fathers place more pressure to achieve on sons than on daughters. Answer: A Page Ref: 542 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

60)

Parents tend to be especially committed to ensuring the gender typing of A) sons more so than daughters. B) children of the other sex from themselves. C) children of their own sex. D) daughters more so than sons. Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

61)

Preschool and elementary school teachers tend to reinforce A) “masculine” behavior in boys and “feminine” behavior in girls. B) assertive behavior in the classroom, particularly between other-sex peers. C) children of both sexes for “masculine” rather than “feminine” behavior. D) children of both sexes for “feminine” rather than “masculine” behavior. Answer: D Page Ref: 542 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

62)

In classrooms, men and women teachers alike value obedience and discourage assertiveness. This is referred to as A) gender congruence. B) a “masculine bias.” C) a “feminine bias.” D) gender typicality. Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

63)

Which of the following statements is true regarding differential treatment of boys and girls by teachers? A) Teachers give more overall attention to boys than to girls. B) Teachers tend to praise girls more for their academic knowledge. C) Teachers discourage unruliness more frequently and forcefully with girls. D) When boys misbehave, teachers are more likely to negotiate. Answer: A Page Ref: 543 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

64)

In a study in which researchers presented school-age children, adolescents, and college-age students with visual and verbal descriptions of various occupations, males of all ages were especially attracted to jobs depicted as , and females were attracted to jobs . A) conforming to traditional gender roles; seen as more novel B) highly paid; high in altruism C) science-based; power-based D) gender congruent; gender incongruent Answer: B Page Ref: 543 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

65)

Rochelle’s favorite television shows have families where the mothers do not work. She also notices that most of the teachers in her elementary school are female. Rochelle is developing gender-typed beliefs A) through observational learning. B) through direct instruction by teachers and the media. C) that are biased against males. D) that will help her interact more effectively with the other sex. Answer: A Page Ref: 543 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

66)

Gender stereotypes are especially prevalent in A) countries like Sweden where an “equal roles family model” is emphasized. B) dual-earner families. C) middle- and high-SES households. D) cartoons, music television, TV commercials, and video games. Answer: D Page Ref: 543 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.5

67)

Zara has a career-oriented mother. Compared to other girls, Zara is more likely to A) view her mother as distant and unavailable. B) have higher educational aspirations. C) have lower educational aspirations. D) have lower self-esteem and achieve poorly in school. Answer: B Page Ref: 544 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

68)

Six-year-old Qualo frequently crosses gender lines, preferring to play with dolls than cars or trucks. How will Qualo’s peers likely respond to his behavior? A) Girls will be more critical of Qualo’s behavior than boys. B) Boys will try to find common interests with Qualo so everyone can play together. C) Even if Qualo does engage in “masculine” activities, he will be ostracized by other boys. D) Boys will defend Qualo’s right to play with dolls instead of cars or trucks. Answer: C Page Ref: 544 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

69)

Jill most likely uses and A) commands; threats B) physical force; coercion C) pleading; whining D) polite requests; persuasion Answer: D Page Ref: 544 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

to get her way with her classmate Jack.

70)

Mr. Donnelly wants to reduce gender stereotyping in his classroom and has decided to form mixed-sex activity groups. To be successful, however, A) a token system of reward and punishment must be established. B) interventions may have to modify the styles of social influence typically learned in same-sex peer relations. C) he must delegate specific activities to boys and girls. D) boys and girls must learn how to behave like the other sex. Answer: B Page Ref: 544 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

71)

Why is it difficult for adults to modify gender stereotyping that occurs within children’s peer groups? A) Gender-typed remarks are inevitable in both boys and girls. B) Biological sex is a legitimate basis for limiting individual roles and behaviors within peer groups. C) Children’s sexist statements often occur out of adults’ earshot. D) Children are too confused by behaviors that fall outside of traditional gender roles. Answer: C Page Ref: 545 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Teaching Children to Challenge Peers’ Sexist Remarks Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

72)

In experiments that tested how best to help children confront peers who made sexist remarks, which of the following approaches was most successful? A) teaching children appropriate retorts to sexist remarks and then having them actively practice with peers B) modeling gender-equitable interactions for the children C) reading stories of examples of appropriate responses to sexist remarks, followed by a discussion of the behaviors and responses D) instructing children how to use polite requests and persuasion Answer: A Page Ref: 545 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Teaching Children to Challenge Peers’ Sexist Remarks Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

73)

A six-month follow-up of children who received active intervention in teaching them to challenge peer sexist comments showed that girls were more likely to A) confront boy peers who made comments than their girl peers. B) use physical force against a peer who made a sexist remark than girls who had not received active intervention. C) attain a gender-stereotype flexibility that extended beyond behavior to their attitudes. D) fail to confront peers who made sexist remarks. Answer: C Page Ref: 545 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Teaching Children to Challenge Peers’ Sexist Remarks Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

74)

Which of the following statements is true about sibling influences on gender typing? A) Younger siblings tend to have a significant and lasting impact on older siblings’ gender typing. B) Sibling effects on gender typing are more complex than peer influences because they depend on birth order and family size. C) Contrary to popular belief, birth order and family size have little, if any, impact on children’s gender typing. D) Children with same-sex siblings are less gender-typed than children with no siblings. Answer: B Page Ref: 546 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.5

75)

According to a British study on siblings and gender typing, which of the following children is likely to be the most gender-typed? A) David, who has an older brother B) Devon, who has no siblings C) Debbie, who has an older brother D) Daniel, who has an older sister Answer: A Page Ref: 546 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.5

76)

Researchers can measure gender identity during dispositions over concrete behaviors. A) toddlerhood B) early childhood C) middle childhood D) adolescence Answer: C

because self-concepts begin to emphasize psychological

Page Ref: 547 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.6

77)

Haruko scores high on both masculine and feminine personality characteristics. Haruko is displaying A) a gender stereotype. B) gender-atypicality. C) gender congruence. D) androgyny. Answer: D Page Ref: 547 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.6

78)

“Masculine” and androgynous children and adults A) are less self-confident B) tend to be more affectionate and cheerful C) experience more emotional difficulties D) have higher self-esteem Answer: D

than “feminine” individuals.

Page Ref: 547 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.6

79)

According to social learning theory, A) behavior; self-perception B) behavior; gender labeling C) self-perception; behavior D) gender constancy; gender disposition Answer: A Page Ref: 548 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.6

comes before

in the development of gender identity.

80)

Deena understands that a person’s sex remains the same even if clothing, hairstyle, and activities change. Deena is demonstrating an understanding of gender A) labeling. B) constancy. C) stability. D) consistency. Answer: B Page Ref: 548 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.6

81)

Three-year-old Amanda is asked whether she can be a boy if she wants to. She answers, “Yes.” Amanda is in which stage of gender-constancy development? A) androgyny B) gender consistency C) gender stability D) gender labeling Answer: D Page Ref: 548 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.6

82)

At age 6, Edda understands that a person’s sex remains constant, even if that person dresses in “cross-gender” clothes or engages in nontraditional activities. Edda is in which stage of gender-constancy development? A) androgyny B) gender stability C) gender consistency D) gender labeling Answer: C Page Ref: 548 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.6

83)

Mastery of gender A) typing B) equality C) constancy D) stereotyping Answer: C

is associated with the attainment of conservation.

Page Ref: 548 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.6

84)

, not social experience, is largely responsible for young children’s difficulty grasping the permanence of sex. A) Language development B) Cognitive immaturity C) Parenting style D) Exposure to formal education Answer: B Page Ref: 549 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.6

85)

Which of the following statements is true regarding gender identity in middle childhood? A) Boys are more likely than girls to describe themselves as having “other-gender” characteristics. B) Boys are more likely than girls to rate “masculine” occupations as having higher status than “feminine” occupations. C) Girls strengthen their identification with “feminine” characteristics, while boys’ identification with “masculine” characteristics declines. D) Girls are more likely than boys to consider future work roles stereotyped for the other gender. Answer: D Page Ref: 549 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.7

86)

When asked to self-evaluate her gender identity, Lulu says she feels similar to other girls. Lulu can be described as a genderchild. A) contented B) typical C) stereotyped D) atypical Answer: B Page Ref: 550 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.7

87)

Manisha reports feeling satisfied with being a girl. Manisha can be considered A) a gender-contented child. B) a gender-typical child. C) gender-discontented. D) an adolescent. Answer: A Page Ref: 550 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.7

88)

Abu is a gender-atypical child who feels intense pressure to conform to his gender role. Abu is likely to display A) gains in self-esteem during middle childhood. B) “feminine” behavior at home and “masculine” behavior with his peers. C) aggressive, acting-out behaviors. D) characteristics such as withdrawal, sadness, and anxiety. Answer: D Page Ref: 550 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.7

89)

Although Kyra was considered a “tomboy” in early and middle childhood, by high school, she became interested in wearing makeup and feminine clothes. Kyra’s situation is an example of gender A) intensification. B) consistency. C) stability. D) endurance. Answer: A Page Ref: 550 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.7

90)

Gender schema theory A) separates the effects of gender stereotyping, gender identity, and gender-role adoption on children’s behavior. B) highlights the importance of androgyny for psychological well-being across the lifespan. C) integrates gender stereotyping, gender identity, and gender-role adoption into a unified picture of how masculine and feminine orientations emerge. D) maintains that gender stereotyping and gender-role adoption are most influential in adolescence and emerging adulthood. Answer: C Page Ref: 551 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.8

91)

At an early age, children pick up gender-stereotyped preferences and behaviors from others and organize these experiences into that they use to interpret their world. A) gender-appropriate beliefs B) gender schemas C) gender intensification D) gender-typical beliefs Answer: B Page Ref: 551 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.8

92)

When Kayla sees a truck on the floor she wonders, “Should girls play with trucks?” She decides to leave the truck on the floor and looks for a different toy. Kayla is A) not using a gender-salience filter. B) using an interest filter to determine with what to play. C) a gender-aschematic child. D) a gender-schematic child. Answer: D Page Ref: 552 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.8

93)

If 9-year-old Carlos is a gender-aschematic child, he will A) always view the world in gender-linked terms. B) prefer “feminine” toys over “masculine” toys. C) prefer “masculine” toys over “feminine” toys. D) seldom view the world in gender-linked terms. Answer: D Page Ref: 552 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.8

94)

Two preschool-age girls are playing with a train set. An older child walks by and tells them that the train set is a “boy’s toy.” According to gender schema theory, the A) comment will have no effect on the girls’ interest in the train set. B) girls’ desire to play with the train set will probably diminish. C) girls’ desire to play with the train set will probably increase. D) comment will confuse the girls, as they have not yet developed gender-typed interests. Answer: B Page Ref: 552 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.8

95)

Gender-schematic thinking is so powerful that when children see others behaving in “gender-inconsistent” ways, they A) experience a crisis of gender labeling that disrupts peer interactions. B) become more pronounced in their gender segregation as well as gender-role conformity. C) often cannot remember the behavior or distort their memory to make it “gender-consistent.” D) object and tell that person not to behave in such a way. Answer: C Page Ref: 552 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.8

96)

Which of the following examples shows how children attend to schema-inconsistent information? A) Alison sees a picture of a female firefighter but recalls the firefighter as a male. B) Connor plays with highly attractive toys, even when they are labeled for the opposite gender. C) When given a doll, Isabelle is more likely to explore and learn more about it. D) When given a doll, Robert is more likely to play with it if no one is watching. Answer: A Page Ref: 552 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.8

97)

Gender-schematic thinking reveals a forceful restriction of knowledge and learning opportunities because A) it develops during infancy and impacts a child’s choices much longer than other forces. B) children are exposed to a wide variety of gender-linked associations in society. C) it contributes to gender-atypicality, particularly in boys. D) it is closely tied to genetic factors, which are difficult to modify. Answer: B Page Ref: 552 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.8

98)

Between ages 6 and 11 years, A) “feminine” gender identity strengthens among boys; girls’ gender identity becomes more androgynous. B) gender-role conformity increases and gender segregation becomes less pronounced. C) “masculine” gender identity strengthens among boys, while girls’ gender identity becomes more androgynous. D) gender stereotyping of activities, occupations, and behaviors expands. Answer: D Page Ref: 553 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

99)

One advantage of using meta-analysis to study sex differences is that it A) allows conclusions based on single studies. B) calculates conclusions using small samples. C) provides an estimate of the size of the sex differences. D) requires little data, yet provides precise information. Answer: D Page Ref: 553 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

100)

By late childhood and early adolescence, A) boys outperform girls on math achievement tests. B) girls outperform boys on math achievement tests. C) boys and girls perform similarly on math achievement tests. D) girls are slightly advantaged in counting and arithmetic computation. Answer: A Page Ref: 554 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

101)

Research shows that sex differences in mental abilities and personality traits A) usually account for no more than 5 to 10 percent of individual differences. B) account for 50 to 60 percent of individual differences. C) are more pronounced in high-SES individuals than low-SES individuals. D) are primarily influenced by genetic factors. Answer: A Page Ref: 553 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

102)

Which of the following is believed to be a major contributor to a widening gender gap in college enrollments? A) differences in male and female science skills B) later maturity of females’ cerebral cortex C) differences in male and female literacy skills D) advances in female mathematical abilities Answer: C Page Ref: 554–555 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

103)

One possible explanation for girls being ahead of boys in language progress is A) that parents use more child-directed speech with their infant daughters than their infant sons. B) a biological advantage in earlier development of the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. C) that female infants initiate more “conversations” with caregivers than male infants. D) that adults reinforce female infants more than male infants when they begin to coo and babble. Answer: B Page Ref: 555 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

104)

Two 15-year-olds, Jeremy and Jennifer, take a mathematics test. Jeremy will probably perform significantly better than Jennifer on which subtest? A) complex reasoning B) basic math knowledge C) computational skills D) mathematical calculation Answer: A Page Ref: 555 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.9

105)

Accumulating evidence suggests that the gender gap in mathematics is related to A) achievement motivation. B) early parental interactions. C) faster development of the right cerebral cortex in boys than in girls. D) boys’ superior spatial reasoning skills. Answer: D Page Ref: 556 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

106)

The gender gap in complex mathematical reasoning is particularly large and favors males in differences in tasks are weak or nonexistent. A) mental rotation; spatial visualization B) mental rotation; spatial perception C) spatial perception; mental rotation D) spatial visualization; mental rotation Answer: A

tasks, but

Page Ref: 556 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

107)

Girls and women whose prenatal androgen levels were abnormally high show A) below-average performance on B) superior performance on C) little interest in D) an inability to comprehend Answer: B

spatial rotation tasks.

Page Ref: 557 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

108)

Which of the following consequences results from the greater amounts of time that boys spend playing action video games? A) Speed of thinking is enhanced, but mental rotation is sacrificed in the process. B) The development of cognitive processes outside of spatial skills is arrested. C) Language skills are greatly reduced. D) Cognitive processes important for spatial skills are enhanced. Answer: D Page Ref: 557 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

109)

causes girls to do worse than their abilities allow on difficult math problems. A) Peer pressure B) Stereotype threat C) Inferior spatial reasoning D) Lack of high-quality instruction Answer: B Page Ref: 557 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

110)

is the only emotion that males express more freely than females in everyday interaction. A) Sorrow B) Anger C) Embarrassment D) Envy Answer: B Page Ref: 558 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

111) When they are observed for behavioral signs of prosocial responding, girls show A) no measurable advantage over boys. B) greater self-confidence and assertiveness in helping behaviors. C) a significant advantage over boys, especially in helping behaviors. D) a slight advantage that is mostly evident in kindness and considerateness. Answer: D Page Ref: 558 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

112)

The gender gap in emotional sensitivity seems to come primarily from. A) exposure to androgens prenatally. B) parenting styles that downplay gender stereotypes. C) cultural expectations that girls be warm and expressive and boys be distant and self-controlled. D) reinforcement from teachers for quiet and self-controlled behavior. Answer: C Page Ref: 559 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

113)

During the preschool years, both fathers and mothers attend more to A) girls’ than boys’ sadness and anxiety. B) boys’ than girls’ excitement and curiosity. C) reinforcing gender-stereotypical emotions with boys than with girls. D) being affectionate and nurturing with boys than with girls. Answer: A Page Ref: 559 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

114)

Among U.S. teenagers, A) 10 to 25 B) 20 to 50 C) 30 to 40 D) 40 to 75 Answer: B Page Ref: 559 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

percent experience mild to moderate feelings of depression.

115)

Symptoms of depression A) in children are easily detected by adults. B) occur twice as often in teenage girls as boys. C) are similar for teenage boys and girls. D) are more obvious in boys than in girls. Answer: B Page Ref: 559 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

116)

Which of the following events is likely to spark depression in 15-year-old Danica? A) the onset of puberty B) getting a C on a pop quiz C) not being in the same Spanish class as her best friend D) transitioning to a new school Answer: D Page Ref: 560 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.9

117)

girls are especially prone to depression, particularly when they face other stressful life events. A) Low-SES B) Early-maturing C) Later-maturing D) African-American Answer: B Page Ref: 560 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.9

118)

Findings on the use of relational aggression among girls reveal that A) they tend to use physical aggression first, and follow up with a relational approach. B) unlike physical aggression, it is rarely hurtful to the victim. C) they may use it to protect their status in the social hierarchy. D) girls with high levels of prenatal androgens engage in higher levels of relational aggression. Answer: C Page Ref: 560 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

119)

Children with congenital adrenal hyperplasia, who were exposed prenatally to abnormally high androgen levels, A) are not consistently more aggressive. B) are consistently more aggressive. C) have more frequent displays of excitement, anger, or anxiety. D) show high levels of relational aggression. Answer: A Page Ref: 561 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

120)

By middle childhood, girls’ relational aggression is A) more malicious than boys’. B) displayed more frequently. C) more likely to be directed at same-sex peers. D) more likely to be directed at other-sex peers. Answer: A Page Ref: 562 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.9

121)

reveal(s) that most aspects of gender typing are not built into human nature. A) Growing numbers of children who score high in androgyny B) Physiological research with humans and primates C) Observations of infants and toddlers D) Substantial revisions in gender roles Answer: D Page Ref: 562 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.10

122)

Because preschoolers’ cognitive limitations lead them to assume that cultural practices determine gender, Sandra Bem suggests that parents and teachers A) encourage children to pursue gender-typed interests and activities. B) make a concerted effort to delay young children’s learning of gender-stereotyped messages. C) make a concerted effort to speed up young children’s learning of gender-stereotyped messages. D) expose young children to a variety of traditional and nontraditional gender roles and let them decide which models to emulate. Answer: B Page Ref: 562 Skill: Remember Objective: 13.10

123)

Mr. and Mrs. Finis want to reduce gender stereotyping in their 5-year-old twins, Emma and Erik. Mr. and Mrs. Finis should A) punish Emma and Erik whenever they engage in gender-stereotyped behavior. B) force Emma to play with cars and trucks and force Erik to play with dolls and pretend kitchen toys. C) take turns making dinner, bathing Emma and Erik, and driving the family car and provide both Emma and Erik with trucks and dolls. D) realize that biological factors are largely responsible for gender stereotyping and accept their children’s gendertyped behavior and preferences. Answer: C Page Ref: 562 Skill: Apply Objective: 13.10

124)

Research shows that school-age children who hold flexible beliefs about what boys and girls can do A) are extremely critical of peers who engage in traditionally “masculine” or “feminine” activities. B) may disagree with instances of gender discrimination, but will feel uncomfortable making changes in the situation. C) are more likely to notice instances of gender discrimination. D) have mothers who engage in traditionally “feminine” household duties, such as cooking and cleaning. Answer: C Page Ref: 563 Skill: Understand Objective: 13.10

ESSAY 125)

Describe instrumental traits and expressive traits, including how they contribute to our views about what is “feminine” and “masculine.” Answer: When asked what personality characteristics they consider typical of men and women, people show widespread agreement in that they listed instrumental traits that reflect competence, rationality, and assertiveness (e.g., adventurous, ambitious, dominant, and self-confident) as masculine, whereas expressive traits emphasizing warmth, caring, and sensitivity (e.g., considerate, emotional, gentle, kind, and understanding of others) were viewed as feminine. Despite intense political activism promoting gender equality in the 1970s and 1980s, these stereotypes remain essentially unchanged. The variety of attributes consistently identified as masculine or feminine, their broad acceptance, and their stability over time suggest that gender stereotypes are deeply ingrained patterns of thinking. What’s more, they cast men in a generally positive light and women in a generally negative light. The traits, activities, and roles associated with the male gender are more numerous, diverse, and desirable than those associated with the female gender. Page Ref: 530–531

126)

What is gender-stereotype flexibility, and why does it increase dramatically during middle childhood? Answer: Gender-stereotype flexibility refers to overlap in the characteristics of males and females—the extent to which children believe that both genders can display a personality trait or activity. It increases dramatically from age 7 on, regardless of the strength of children’s gender-stereotype rigidity in early childhood. Gender-stereotype flexibility rises as children develop the cognitive capacity to integrate conflicting social cues. As they realize that a person’s sex is not a certain predictor of his or her personality traits, activities, and behavior, they no longer view gender-typed behavior as inborn and fixed. Rather, they see it as socially influenced—affected by home rearing environments. Page Ref: 533

127)

Describe the ways in which observational learning affects how children view gender roles. Answer: Numerous gender-typed models are available in children’s environments, and children continue to encounter many people in their schools and communities who conform to traditional gender roles—women as elementary school teachers, nurses, and librarians; men as school principals, computer experts, and airline pilots. In one study, participants of all ages expressed greater interest in occupations held by workers of their own sex than identical jobs held by workers of the other sex, confirming that merely observing sex differences in occupations affects interest in those fields. Males of all ages were especially attracted to jobs depicted as highly paid, females to jobs high in altruism—values that likely contribute to the gender sorting typically seen in the workforce. When children are exposed to nonstereotyped models, they are less traditional in their beliefs and behaviors. Children who often see their parents cross traditional gender lines—mothers who are employed or who do “masculine” household tasks (repairing appliances, washing the car), fathers who do “feminine” household tasks (ironing, cooking, child care)—less often endorse gender stereotypes. Girls with careeroriented mothers show special benefits. They are more likely to engage in typically masculine activities, have higher educational aspirations, and hold nontraditional career goals. Furthermore, among children of divorced parents, boys in father-absent homes and girls in mother-absent homes are less gender-typed, perhaps because they have fewer opportunities to observe traditional gender roles than in a two-parent household. Page Ref: 543–544

128)

Describe the development of gender constancy. Answer: According to Lawrence Kohlberg, children move through three stages of gender constancy: (1) Gender labeling. By the early preschool years, children can label their own sex and that of others correctly. But when asked such questions as “When you [a girl] grow up, could you ever be a daddy?” or “Could you be a boy if you wanted to?” young children freely answer yes. And when shown a doll whose hairstyle and clothing are transformed before their eyes, children indicate that the doll’s sex has changed. (2) Gender stability. Slightly older preschoolers have a partial understanding of the permanence of sex, in that they grasp its stability over time. But even though they know that male and female babies will eventually become boys and girls, and then men and women, they continue to insist that changing hairstyle, clothing, or “gender-appropriate” activities will also change a person’s sex. (3) Gender consistency. During the late preschool and early school years, children understand that sex is biologically based and remains the same even if a person dresses in “cross-gender” clothes or engages in nontraditional activities. Page Ref: 548

129)

Explain the observed differences in the emotional sensitivity of girls and boys. Answer: Females are more emotional sensitive than males, a difference that appears early. Beginning in the preschool years, girls perform slightly better when asked to infer others’ emotional states and the causes of those states. Relative to boys, girls are especially adept at understanding the more complex, self-conscious emotions—an advantage that extends into adulthood. Except for anger, girls also express their feelings more freely and intensely in everyday interaction. And girls are better at identifying their feelings. When children are observed for behavioral signs, however, the gender difference in emotional sensitivity is less consistent. Girls show a slight advantage in prosocial responding that is mostly evident in kindness and considerateness, less apparent in helping behavior. Prosocial acts that require self-confidence and assertiveness are especially common among boys, including helping others develop skills (giving tips on how to play basketball), providing physical assistance (volunteering to mow a neighbor’s lawn), and confronting others for harmful or otherwise inappropriate behavior. As with other attributes, both biological and environmental explanations for sex differences in emotional sensitivity exist. Yet research suggests that girls are not naturally more nurturant. Cultural expectations that girls be warm and expressive and boys be distant and self-controlled seem largely responsible for the gender gap in emotional sensitivity. Page Ref: 558–559

130)

Cite at least five ways to reduce children’s gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity. Answer: Strategies for reducing gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity include: (1) Permit children to choose among diverse toys and activities. (2) Avoid transmitting gender stereotypes of achievement areas; point out that high effort improves competence in all areas. (3) Teach children to appreciate differences among individuals. (4) Avoid unnecessary references to gender and gender stereotypes in your language. (5) Provide non-gender-stereotyped models. (6) Stress the complexity of gender groups. (7) Arrange for mixed-sex interaction. (8) Discuss gender biases with children. Page Ref: 563

CHAPTER 14 THE FAMILY MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

Compared with other species, human children A) develop faster. B) are more attached to their family. C) are more independent. D) develop slowly. Answer: D Page Ref: 567 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.1

2)

Which of the following descriptions defines the family in its most common form? A) a group of people, related by blood, who divide responsibilities, such as child rearing, food provision, and protection B) a commitment between two adults who pledge faithfulness to each other C) a mother giving birth to her children and providing food and shelter until the age of 18 D) an enduring commitment between a man and woman who feed, shelter, and nurture their children until they reach maturity Answer: D Page Ref: 568 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.1

3)

To provide protection against starvation at times when game was scarce, the human family pattern of our evolutionary past A) developed into a female-dominated subculture whose sole purpose was continued existence of the species. B) purposely limited the number of children within each family unit in order to make food supplies last as long as possible. C) enhanced survival by ensuring a relatively even balance of male hunters and female gatherers within a social group. D) developed expanded kinship groups that were willing to sacrifice themselves for individual members. Answer: C Page Ref: 568 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.1

4)

From an evolutionary perspective, an extended relationship between a man and a woman increased male certainty that her baby was actually his offspring, which A) motivated him to care and provide for mother and child. B) ensured consistent sexual activity, which increased chances of survival. C) proved to the tribal elders that the couple was committed to child rearing. D) decreased male competition for mates among tribal groups. Answer: A Page Ref: 568 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.1

5)

Which function of the family unit of our evolutionary ancestors was responsible for training the young to become competent, participating group members? A) reproduction B) socialization C) economic services D) social order Answer: B Page Ref: 568 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.1

6)

Why have the functions of the family changed over time? A) Most household functions were replaced with technology when both parents began working outside of the home. B) As societies became more complex, the demands placed on the family became too much for it to sustain alone, so other institutions developed to assist with certain functions. C) As family size decreased, children had to take on more adult responsibility. D) The discovery of electricity allowed families more time together in the evening, which increased the need for family communication and emotional understanding. Answer: B Page Ref: 568 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.1

7)

Societal order responsibilities that were once a function of the family are now assumed by A) schools. B) political and legal institutions. C) farms and stores. D) churches. Answer: B Page Ref: 568 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.2

8)

Professor Kinship views the family as a complex set of interacting relationships influenced by the larger social context. Professor Kinship endorses the perspective of family. A) ethological B) dynamic systems C) social systems D) behaviorist Answer: C Page Ref: 568 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

9)

Mr. Garcia is often impatient and uses harsh discipline with his 4-year-old son, Liam. Liam, in turn, is aggressive and rebellious. This example illustrates a(n) influence on development. A) direct B) indirect C) third-party D) temporal Answer: A Page Ref: 569 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

10)

When parents engage in effective coparenting, they tend to have A) spoiled children who try to pit one parent against the other. B) children with exceptionally high IQs. C) secure attachment relationships with their children. D) large families with four or more children. Answer: C Page Ref: 569 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.2

11)

Research shows that a husband’s affection, expression of “we-ness,” and awareness of his wife’s daily life predict childbirth. A) a better adjustment for mothers who had active careers before B) a drop in mother’s satisfaction with parenting after C) a sharp decrease in marital satisfaction after D) stable or increasing marital satisfaction after Answer: D Page Ref: 570 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Transition to Parenthood Skill: Understand Objective: 14.2

12)

Regina is a low-SES mother whose husband has taken on considerable child-care responsibilities after the birth of their son. Regina is likely to A) report a higher level of distress due to her husband’s actions. B) engage in high-quality mother–child interactions with her newborn. C) feel a dependent emotional connection to her spouse. D) slowly give up larger portions of child-rearing activities in favor of spending more hours at work. Answer: A Page Ref: 570 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Transition to Parenthood Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

13)

In a study of well-educated mothers, those who had recently given birth to their second child reported A) less stress than after they had their first child. B) just as much stress as first-time mothers. C) more stress than after they had their first child. D) an increase of postpartum depression. Answer: B Page Ref: 570 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: The Transition to Parenthood Skill: Understand Objective: 14.2

14)

Don and Flo have a tense, hostile marriage. They are likely to deal with their children A) with general indifference, regardless of their children’s behavior. B) by ignoring positive behaviors and blaming negative behaviors on the other parent. C) by seeking outside assistance from a mental health agency. D) with criticism, anger, and punishment. Answer: D Page Ref: 571 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

15)

Crystal is chronically exposed to her parents’ angry, unresolved conflict. Which of the following is Crystal likely to experience? A) a decrease in her performance at school B) a close secure relationship with one parent, but not with the other C) problems related to emotional self-regulation D) her parents’ overprotective hovering and obsessive monitoring of her activities Answer: C Page Ref: 571 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

16)

Ricardo’s parents are often angry at each other and fail to resolve their conflicts successfully. Ricardo is likely to A) blame himself and display aggression. B) avoid his parents and join after-school activities. C) concentrate more on his schoolwork than his family life. D) blame others for his problems and engage in self-harm. Answer: A Page Ref: 571 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

17)

The mild increase in parent–child conflict that often occurs in early adolescence A) affects teenagers more strongly than it does parents. B) is due to adolescents pressing for greater autonomy and parents pressing for more aggressiveness. C) affects parents more strongly than it does teenagers. D) usually causes a long-lasting strain in parent–child relationships. Answer: B Page Ref: 571 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.2

18)

Valencia’s neighbor, Anna, is a single parent who works two jobs to make ends meet. Valencia often stops by Anna’s house, listening to her concerns. Valencia is providing A) direct assistance with child rearing. B) social support that leads to parental self-worth. C) access to valuable information and services for Anna. D) a crutch for Anna, which will compromise her child-rearing skills. Answer: B Page Ref: 572 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

19)

Veda is an out-of-work parent whose child-care needs must be addressed before she can job hunt. She is in need of A) parental self-worth. B) parental access to valuable information and services. C) child-rearing controls and role models. D) direct assistance with child rearing. Answer: B Page Ref: 572 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.2

20)

Which of the following types of neighborhood resources has been shown to improve school performance and family functioning for children in low-income neighborhoods? A) the National Merit Scholars program, which recognizes academic talent B) DARE, a police-sponsored program aimed at preventing drug use among children C) the Better Beginnings, Better Futures Project, which pairs enrichment programs with home visits D) the Best Buddy program, which pairs inner-city children with children of affluent families for weekend excursions Answer: C Page Ref: 572 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.2

21)

Parents start to socialize their children in earnest during A) the first year, when babies can interact socially. B) the second year, when toddlers are first able to comply with their directives. C) the preschool years, when children start formal schooling. D) early adolescence, when peer pressure is strongest. Answer: B Page Ref: 573 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

22)

are combinations of that occur over a wide range of situations, creating an enduring childrearing climate. A) Child-rearing styles; parenting behaviors B) Social systems; peer group influences C) Public policies; government regulations D) Support groups; educational techniques Answer: A Page Ref: 573 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

23)

Which of the following features did Baumrind find that consistently differentiated effective child-rearing styles from less effective ones? A) type of discipline, rewards and punishment, and parental warmth B) parental age, child age, and parental income C) parent educational level, parent literacy level, and presence of extended family D) acceptance and involvement, behavioral control, and autonomy granting Answer: D Page Ref: 573 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

24)

Which of the following best describes a parent who uses an uninvolved child-rearing style? A) rarely listens to the child’s point of view B) is indifferent to the child’s decision making C) is warm but overindulgent or inattentive D) is cold and rejecting Answer: B Page Ref: 574 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

25)

Nikhil and Simon exhibit high self-esteem, social maturity, task persistence, and are usually in an upbeat mood. What type of child-rearing style does their parents most likely use? A) authoritative B) authoritarian C) permissive D) uninvolved Answer: A Page Ref: 574 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

26)

Gina is dependent, lacks interest in exploration, and is overwhelmed by challenging tasks. She is exhibiting characteristics consistent with girls raised by parents. A) authoritative B) authoritarian C) permissive D) uninvolved Answer: B Page Ref: 574 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

27)

Wanda’s parents engage in behaviors that intrude on and manipulate her verbal expressions and individuality. Wanda’s parents engage in A) permissive parenting techniques. B) autonomy granting. C) coregulation. D) psychological control. Answer: D Page Ref: 574–575 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

28)

The Smiths tend to overindulge their children, allowing the children to make many decisions before they are ready. The Smiths are using a(n) child-rearing style. A) authoritative B) authoritarian C) permissive D) uninvolved Answer: C Page Ref: 575 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

29)

Five-year-old Fabiano is allowed to stay up late watching television, has poor manners, and is overly demanding with his parents. Fabiano displays characteristics of a child raised by parents. A) permissive B) uninvolved C) authoritative D) authoritarian Answer: A Page Ref: 575 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

30)

Seven-year-old Tim is allowed to eat meals and go to bed whenever he wants, does not participate in any household chores, and makes most of his own decisions. We can anticipate that as an adolescent, Tim will most likely A) show high levels of self-efficacy in school. B) be highly competitive in both academics and sports activities. C) be impulsive, disobedient, and rebellious. D) be independent and responsible, as he was forced to mature at an early age. Answer: C Page Ref: 575 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

31)

At its extreme, uninvolved parenting is A) beneficial to children, as it forces them to grow up. B) more harmful to boys’ development than girls’ development. C) a form of child maltreatment called neglect. D) associated with high levels of psychological control. Answer: C Page Ref: 575 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

32)

Newell is fearful and inhibited. Newell will benefit most if his parents A) adopt an authoritarian child-rearing style. B) take over and help him solve social problems. C) become overprotective and restrict his activities. D) provide extra encouragement to be assertive and express his autonomy. Answer: D Page Ref: 575 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

33)

Longitudinal evidence indicates that among children of diverse temperaments, authoritative child rearing in the preschool years predicts a decade later in adolescence, whereas authoritarian child rearing predicts . A) maturity; adjustment difficulties B) immaturity; high self-esteem C) high self-esteem; low self-esteem D) adjustment; poor academic achievement Answer: A Page Ref: 576 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

34)

Over time, the relationship between parenting and children’s attributes becomes increasingly A) authoritarian as children require greater oversight and strict parental monitoring. B) distant as children become more autonomous and parents spend less time providing direct care. C) bidirectional as each participant modifies the actions of the other. D) intense as each participant has to renegotiate the parent–child relationship at each stage of development. Answer: C Page Ref: 576 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

35)

Research shows that child rearing becomes style during the early years. A) easier; permissive B) harder; authoritative C) easier; authoritative D) harder; uninvolved Answer: C

in middle childhood for those parents who established a(n)

Page Ref: 576 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

36)

In

, the amount of time children spend with parents A) early childhood; declines steadily B) middle childhood; declines dramatically C) adolescence; fluctuates D) middle childhood; rises dramatically Answer: B

.

Page Ref: 577 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

37)

In an effort to gradually shift responsibilities to their teenage daughter, Mr. and Mrs. Yan exercise supervision in the form of general oversight, but let her make moment-by-moment decisions. The Yans are engaging in A) joint decision making. B) feigned disinterest. C) bidirectional autonomy. D) coregulation. Answer: D Page Ref: 577 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

38)

Sixteen-year-old Bonita strives to develop a sense of herself as a separate, self-governing individual. Bonita is developing A) maturation. B) autonomy. C) coregulation. D) individuality. Answer: B Page Ref: 577 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

39)

When Aiden needs to make a decision, he carefully weighs his own judgment and the suggestions of others to arrive at a well-reasoned course of action. This is the component of autonomy. A) behavioral B) emotional C) identity D) idealized Answer: A Page Ref: 577–578 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

40)

Researchers who claim that siblings reared in the same family show little resemblance in parent-rated temperament also assert that A) peers are a more powerful influence on children’s behavior than parents. B) parenting influences cannot be measured easily. C) parenting has different effects on different children. D) the effects of parenting overshadow any impact of the child’s genetic makeup or the peer culture. Answer: A Page Ref: 578 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Does Parenting Really Matter? Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

41)

Most research shows that parents A) are the sole influence in children’s development. B) are less influential in children’s development than teachers and siblings. C) are not the sole influence in children’s development, although they exert a profound impact. D) do not perceive themselves as having much of an impact on their children’s development. Answer: C Page Ref: 578 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Does Parenting Really Matter? Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

42)

The most powerful evidence that parents matter comes from A) adoption studies. B) twin research. C) intervention experiments. D) studies of single parenthood. Answer: C Page Ref: 578 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Does Parenting Really Matter? Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

43)

An improved ability to reason about social relationships leads adolescents to A) resent B) admire C) deidealize D) seek separation from Answer: C

their parents.

Page Ref: 579 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

44)

Effective parenting of adolescents strikes a balance between A) discipline; psychological control B) connection; separation C) friendship; discipline D) autonomy; acceptance Answer: B Page Ref: 579 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

and

.

45)

Kris and Kayla are the parents of two teenage boys. Which of the following statements are Kris and Kayla likely to make? A) “Living with teenagers is stressful.” B) “Living with teenagers is easy.” C) “Boys are easier to raise than girls.” D) “Strict discipline is essential for raising well-adjusted children.” Answer: A Page Ref: 579 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.3

46)

The rapid physical and psychological changes of adolescence trigger A) parents’ balanced use of psychological controls. B) significant agreement within parent–child relationships. C) conflicting expectations in parent–child relationships. D) adolescents’ reluctance to take on independence and autonomous decision making. Answer: C Page Ref: 579 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

47)

Throughout adolescence, the is the single most consistent predictor of mental health. A) development of a friendship between parent and child B) use of coregulation C) level of autonomy achieved D) quality of the parent–child relationship Answer: D Page Ref: 579 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

48)

The mild conflict that typically arises in the parent–child relationship A) often escalates once the young adult moves out of the family home. B) facilitates adolescent identity and autonomy by helping family members learn to express and tolerate disagreement. C) escalates as adolescents begin spending more time away from home and often leads to a breakdown in communication. D) can be reduced if parents maintain strict guidelines, implemented in an authoritarian atmosphere. Answer: B Page Ref: 580 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

49)

The reduced time that Western teenagers spend with their families is mostly due to A) parent–child conflict. B) rebellion against their parents. C) the large amount of unstructured time available to them. D) the large amount of time they spend on cell phones and the Internet. Answer: C Page Ref: 580 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.3

50)

Which of the following statements is true about teenagers who live in risky neighborhoods? A) They adjust more favorably when their parents allow them greater autonomy. B) They tend to have more trusting relationships with parents. C) They seem to interpret more measured granting of autonomy as a sign of parental control. D) They tend to have more strained relationships with parents. Answer: B Page Ref: 580 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.3

51)

Which of the following personal qualities do higher-SES parents tend to emphasize they desire for their children? A) obedience, politeness, neatness, and cleanliness B) autonomy, assertiveness, a strong work ethic, and ethnic pride C) curiosity, happiness, self-direction, and cognitive and social maturity D) assertiveness, insight, stubbornness, and strong leadership skills Answer: A Page Ref: 580 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.4

52)

Mr. Hernandez is a lawyer and Mrs. Hernandez is an accountant. Which of the following traits are they likely to desire in their children? A) obedience, politeness, neatness, and cleanliness B) autonomy, assertiveness, a strong work ethic, and ethnic pride C) curiosity, happiness, self-direction, and cognitive and social maturity D) assertiveness, insight, stubbornness, and strong leadership skills Answer: C Page Ref: 580 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.4

53)

High levels of stress sparked by economic insecurity contribute to A) high-SES parents’ teaching of independent decision-making skills to their children. B) low-SES parents’ greater use of coercive discipline. C) middle-SES parents’ preference for an uninvolved child-rearing style. D) low-SES parents’ use of a permissive child-rearing style. Answer: B Page Ref: 581 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

54)

In the case study of Zinnia Mae, being cut off from family and community ties and being overwhelmed by financial strain and feelings of helplessness resulted in A) her preoccupation with finding her children’s father. B) the abandonment of her children at a local church. C) a depleted home learning environment for her children. D) her eventual suicide at age 25. Answer: A Page Ref: 581 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

55)

often become depressed, irritable, and distracted, resulting in an increase in hostile interactions with other family members. A) High-SES parents with demanding, time-consuming jobs B) First-generation immigrant parents C) Single mothers with two or more children D) Low-SES parents who deal with crises on a daily basis Answer: D Page Ref: 581 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.4

56)

Which of the following teenagers is more likely to use cigarettes, alcohol, hard drugs, or marijuana to self-medicate for anxiety and depression? A) Nicole, a middle-SES female who lives in a rural area B) Natalie, a low-SES female who lives in an inner-city neighborhood C) Nathan, a low-SES male who lives in an inner-city neighborhood D) Nick, a high-SES male who lives in the suburbs Answer: D Page Ref: 581 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.4

57)

Compared to low- or middle-SES parents, affluent parents A) are nearly as physically and emotionally unavailable to their children as parents coping with serious financial strain. B) make very few educational demands of their children. C) are better at preventing substance abuse in their teenagers. D) are more likely to provide after-school supervision and emotional support to their teenagers. Answer: A Page Ref: 582 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

58)

What is one simple intervention that both low-SES and high-SES parents can implement to reduce adjustment difficulties in their children? A) Attend school-sponsored activities together. B) Eat dinner with their children. C) Engage in community-sponsored counseling sessions. D) Work with their children on a volunteer service project. Answer: B Page Ref: 582 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

59)

Chen and Lian, like most other Chinese parents, typically describe their parenting as A) based on reasoning-oriented discipline, never physical punishment. B) less warm and more controlling. C) more open and high in warmth. D) nurturing and communicative. Answer: B Page Ref: 582 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.4

60)

When an authoritarian child-rearing style high in psychological or coercive control becomes excessive, the child will A) display anxiety, depression, and aggressive behavior. B) show respect only for adults who are in positions of authority. C) become a socially competent and independent adult, but will have unhappy childhood memories. D) become a passive, submissive teenager who is unable to make independent decisions. Answer: A Page Ref: 582 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

61)

Mr. and Mrs. Baca are Mexican-American parents who have not assimilated to U.S. culture. What child-rearing behaviors will they most likely use? A) They will expect immediate obedience and use very controlling strategies to enforce their rules. B) Mrs. Baca will use a combination of parental warmth and loose control, while Mr. Baca will be uninvolved. C) They will use high parental warmth paired with strict, even somewhat harsh, control. D) They will use authoritative child rearing with their oldest child, who will then be responsible for raising his or her siblings in a similar fashion. Answer: C Page Ref: 582 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.4

62)

Low-SES African-American mothers tend to use strict control and expect immediate obedience from their children A) because they are modeling the behaviors of their peers. B) to protect them from becoming victims of crime. C) because they are unaware of other child-rearing techniques. D) to foster a community-wide approach toward child rearing. Answer: B Page Ref: 583 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

63)

A history of physical punishment is associated with among African-American adolescents and among Caucasian-American adolescents. A) a reduction in antisocial behavior; an increase in antisocial behavior B) an increase in antisocial behavior; greater academic motivation C) closer ties to parents who combine punishment with warmth; alienation from parents D) less cognitive and social competence; increased antisocial involvement Answer: C Page Ref: 583 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.4

64)

The African-American extended family A) can be traced to the African heritage of most black Americans, in which newly married couples live with their family who helps with all aspects of daily life. B) evolved as a result of slavery, when many families were forced to live together under one roof. C) emerged from the need to take over the role of absent fathers. D) emerged due to the high rates of pregnancies in African-American teens. Answer: A Page Ref: 583 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The African-American Extended Family Skill: Remember Objective: 14.4

65)

is/are an especially common way in which African-American youths acquire a strong sense of their roots. A) Making family trees B) Church revivals C) Family reunions D) Storytelling Answer: C Page Ref: 583 Box: CULTURAL INFLUENCES: The African-American Extended Family Skill: Remember Objective: 14.4

66)

Mr. and Mrs. Dismuke live with their two children, Mrs. Dismuke’s parents, and Mr. Dismuke’s uncle. All of these people make up A) a stepfamily. B) a blended family. C) the nuclear family unit. D) an extended-family household. Answer: D Page Ref: 583 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.4

67)

Since the 1960s, family size in the United States has A) remained constant. B) decreased. C) increased slightly. D) increased significantly. Answer: B Page Ref: 584 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.5

68)

In addition to more effective birth control, a major reason for the decline in family size is A) increasing unemployment rates. B) reduced access to welfare services. C) a woman’s decision to divide her energies between family and work. D) increasing infertility rates among older couples. Answer: C Page Ref: 584 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.5

69)

Today’s new parents in the United States will spend about A) $150,000 B) $220,000 C) $280,000 D) $370,000 Answer: C Page Ref: 584 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.5

to rear a child from birth to age 18.

70)

Family A has one child and Family B has four children. Based on findings from the U.S. National Longitudinal Survey of Youth, what can we infer about the IQs of the children in these families? A) The oldest child in Family B will have the lowest IQ of any of the siblings. B) The youngest child in Family B will have the lowest IQ of any of the siblings. C) The child in Family A will have a higher IQ than any of the children in Family B. D) There is not enough information to make any predictions about IQ in either family. Answer: C Page Ref: 585 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.5

71)

Research indicates that the link between family size and children’s IQ can be explained by the A) Flynn effect. B) strong trend for mothers lower in intelligence to give birth to more children. C) strong trend for mothers higher in intelligence to give birth to more children. D) growing use of birth control techniques. Answer: B Page Ref: 585 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.5

72)

percent of North American and European children grow up with at least one sibling. A) Twenty B) Forty C) Sixty D) Eighty Answer: D Page Ref: 585 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.5

73)

The skills acquired during contribute to the understanding of emotions and other mental states, perspective taking, moral maturity, and competence in relating to other children. A) story reading with parents B) parallel play with peers C) sibling interactions D) independent reading Answer: C Page Ref: 586 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.5

74)

When preschooler P.J. grabs a book out of his 2-year-old brother’s hands, their mother responds with harsh criticism and then leaves them alone while she returns to her housework. Based on this scenario, you can anticipate that P.J. and his brother are likely to A) be independent and responsible. B) have an antagonistic sibling relationship. C) develop a caring relationship based upon trust. D) avoid each other as much as possible. Answer: B Page Ref: 586 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.5

75)

Sibling rivalry tends to A) increase in early childhood. B) decrease in middle childhood. C) increase in middle childhood. D) peak in adolescence. Answer: C Page Ref: 586 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.5

76)

When parents make frequent comparisons between same-sex siblings who are close in age, A) children strive harder to develop independent personality traits. B) siblings make gains in perspective-taking skills. C) sibling rivalry tends to increase, particularly during toddlerhood and the preschool years. D) it results in more quarreling and antagonism for the children. Answer: D Page Ref: 586 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.5

77)

As adolescents establish autonomy and independence from the family, they A) invest less time and energy in their sibling relationships. B) spend more time and energy with their extended-family members. C) remain heavily involved with their younger siblings. D) begin to deidealize their siblings and often resent their constant presence. Answer: A Page Ref: 587 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.5

78)

Which of the following statements is true regarding only children? A) They tend to be spoiled and self-centered. B) They tend to experience high levels of anxiety due to extreme parental pressures to succeed. C) They tend to be less well-accepted in their peer group, because they have not had opportunities to learn effective conflict-resolution strategies. D) They tend to have low self-esteem and perform poorly in school. Answer: C Page Ref: 587 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.5

79)

Compared with agemates who have siblings, Chinese only children feel more emotionally secure because A) government disapproval promotes tension in families with more than one child. B) Chinese culture is overly focused on the firstborn child. C) families with two or more children are often stressed by financial hardship. D) they do not have to contend with sibling rivalry. Answer: A Page Ref: 587–588 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.5

80)

Adoption agencies try to ensure a good fit by A) placing children in affluent homes. B) seeking parents of the same ethnic and religious background of the child. C) allowing the biological parents to select an adoptive family for their child. D) seeking parents with at least two biological children. Answer: B Page Ref: 588 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.6

81)

Adopted children and adolescents A) are no more likely than biological children to have learning or emotional difficulties. B) tend to have more learning and emotional difficulties than other children. C) rarely develop a secure attachment to any adult. D) often have higher IQs than other children. Answer: B Page Ref: 588 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.6

82)

Children of gay and lesbian parents A) are more likely to be homosexual than children raised by heterosexual parents. B) do not experiment with partners of both sexes, despite encouragement from their parents to do so C) do not differ from the children of heterosexuals in mental health, peer relations, or gender-role identity. D) get along better with same-sex peers than children of heterosexual parents. Answer: C Page Ref: 588 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.6

83)

According to recent estimates, about parents. A) 5 to 15; 20 to 35 B) 10 to 25; 5 to 15 C) 20 to 35; 5 to 15 D) 25 to 30; 10 to 15 Answer: C

percent of lesbian couples and

percent of gay couples are

Page Ref: 589 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.6

84)

Overall, children of gay and lesbian parents can be distinguished from other children mainly by A) the amount of harassment they receive from peers. B) their tendency to associate only with same-sex peers. C) issues related to living in a nonsupportive society. D) the psychological stigma of their parents’ sexuality. Answer: C Page Ref: 590 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.6

85)

In the United States, A) Caucasian B) Mexican-American C) Asian-American D) African-American Answer: D

young women make up the largest group of never-married parents.

Page Ref: 590 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.6

86)

has/have contributed to the number of African-American never-married, single-mother families. A) Greater equality for women and more income-earning opportunities B) Traditions dating back to the slave era C) The consequent inability of many black men to support a family D) The widespread availability and generous benefits of child-welfare services Answer: C Page Ref: 590 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.6

87)

has the highest divorce rate in the world. A) Canada B) New Zealand C) Italy D) The United States Answer: D Page Ref: 590–591 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.7

88)

Children of divorce spend an average of A) two B) five C) eight D) ten Answer: B

years in a single-parent home.

Page Ref: 591 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.7

89)

Following divorce, A) father-headed households typically experience a sharp rise in income. B) mother-headed households typically experience a sharp drop in income. C) daily routines, such as meals, bedtimes, and household chores, become more predictable. D) girls are at greater risk than boys for academic, emotional, and behavioral problems. Answer: B Page Ref: 591 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.7

90)

After his parents’ divorce, if Cade’s noncustodial father is permissive and indulgent with him, how will this behavior affect Cade’s relationship with his mother? A) It makes his mother’s task of managing Cade even more difficult. B) It makes his mother’s task of managing Cade easier. C) It helps Cade to understand how stressful child rearing can be for his mother. D) It has no impact on Cade’s relationship with his mother. Answer: A Page Ref: 591 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.7

91)

Young children who become anxious, fearful, and angry after their parents divorce sometimes A) require coercive discipline. B) show early signs of emotional instability. C) feel that both parents may abandon them. D) need to live with the father rather than the mother. Answer: C Page Ref: 591 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.7

92)

Which of the following children will probably display poorer academic achievement and more serious adjustment problems following a divorce? A) Sam, who lives with his father B) Sue, who lives with her father C) Jan, who lives with her mother D) Jim, who lives with his mother Answer: D Page Ref: 592 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.7

93)

Ariel’s parents just divorced. They should be aware that a unhappy romantic involvements. A) few sessions of family therapy B) good father–child relationship C) good mother–child relationship D) strong self-concept and sense of autonomy Answer: B

will protect Ariel from early sexual activity and

Page Ref: 592 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.7

94)

Research shows that more parents today are divorcing because they are A) moderately (rather than extremely) dissatisfied with the relationship. B) extremely (rather than moderately) dissatisfied with the relationship. C) frustrated with their child-rearing responsibilities. D) overwhelmed with family–work conflict. Answer: A Page Ref: 593 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.7

95)

Belle and Greg are divorcing and attend a series of meetings with a trained professional aimed at reducing family conflict. Belle and Greg are A) causing even more stress for their children. B) seeking joint custody of their children. C) going through divorce mediation. D) unrealistically trying to save their marriage. Answer: C Page Ref: 593 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.7

96)

Tara and Tom are divorcing. The court grants both of them equal say in important decisions about their daughter’s upbringing. Tara and Tom A) have joint custody of their daughter. B) divorced under amicable conditions. C) are going through divorce mediation. D) are a reconstituted family. Answer: A Page Ref: 593 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.7

97)

A blended, or reconstituted, family is one in which A) divorced parents remarry each other. B) children live with grandparents instead of their parents. C) adopted or foster children live together. D) cohabitation or remarriage results in a parent, a stepparent, and children. Answer: D Page Ref: 594 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.7

98)

The most common form of blended family is a(n) A) mother–stepfather B) father–stepmother C) grandparent–grandchild D) aunt–uncle Answer: A

arrangement.

Page Ref: 594 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.7

99)

Lorraine, who has a son and a daughter, remarries. Which of the following is most likely to occur? A) Lorraine’s daughter will have a harder time adjusting to the remarriage than her son. B) Lorraine’s son will have a harder time adjusting to the remarriage than her daughter. C) Lorraine’s son will have adjustment problems as long as he tries to maintain a relationship with his biological father. D) Both children will ask to go live with their father. Answer: A Page Ref: 594–595 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.7

100)

Blended-family relationships work best when A) stepparents move into their new roles quickly in order to affirm their position in the family. B) stepparents move into their new roles gradually by first building a warm relationship with the child. C) the biological parent relinquishes all disciplinary responsibilities to the stepparent. D) the stepparent does not become involved in disciplinary issues with the stepchild. Answer: B Page Ref: 595 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.7

101)

Adjustment difficulties increase dramatically for children in blended families when A) the stepparent has at least one other child. B) the stepparent attempts to discipline his or her stepchildren. C) a new baby is born. D) children are exposed to repeated marital transitions. Answer: D Page Ref: 595 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.7

102)

Children of show favorable adjustment, such as higher self-esteem, positive peer relations, less genderstereotyped beliefs, and better grades. A) stay-at-home mothers B) mothers who enjoy their work and remain committed to parenting C) single parents D) father-headed households Answer: B Page Ref: 596 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.8

103)

Employed mothers who value their parenting role A) generally favor a permissive style of parenting. B) are more likely to use authoritative child rearing and coregulation. C) still have less-well-adjusted children than stay-at-home mothers. D) tend to experience more fatigue, distress, and low energy in both roles. Answer: B Page Ref: 596 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.8

104)

Paternal involvement with children in dual-earner households is associated with A) low self-esteem and high school dropout in girls but not boys. B) high levels of competitive, aggressive behavior in school. C) high intelligence and achievement and gender-stereotype flexibility in adolescence. D) average intelligence, athletic competence, and gender typicality in adolescence. Answer: C Page Ref: 596 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.8

105)

Violet’s mother works long hours at a low-paying job. Her workplace maintains a hostile atmosphere. Research suggests that A) Violet will work harder to gain her teacher’s approval and attention because her mother is unavailable to her. B) Violet’s mother will engage in permissive child rearing. C) Violet’s mother is at risk for maternal depression. D) Violet will display aggressive and antisocial behavior toward her mother. Answer: C Page Ref: 596 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.8

106)

In dual-earner families, the father’s is crucial to the emotional health of the mother. A) earning potential B) attitude toward career-oriented women C) work schedule D) willingness to share child-care responsibilities Answer: D Page Ref: 596 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.8

107)

Over the past several decades, the number of young children in child care in the United States has steadily increased to more than percent. A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80 Answer: B Page Ref: 596 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.9

108)

When child-care centers provide favorable characteristics, such as small group sizes and educated caregivers, A) they are able to pay salaries at or above minimum wage. B) the adults are more verbally stimulating and sensitive to children’s needs. C) children’s IQ scores increase by 7 to 10 points. D) children from high-SES families reap greater benefits than children from low-SES families. Answer: B Page Ref: 597 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.9

109)

For U.S. families with just one preschooler, child care consumes, on average, single mother and percent of the earnings of a two-parent family. A) 10; 7 B) 29; 10 C) 33; 19 D) 45; 15 Answer: B Page Ref: 597 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.9

percent of the typical earnings of a

110)

Because the United States does not have affordability of child care. A) universal health care B) collectivist values C) national child-care policies D) grants for low-income parents Answer: C

, it lags behind other industrialized nations in supply, quantity, and

Page Ref: 597 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.9

111) Research on self-care children indicates that the more hours younger school-age children spend at home, the more A) likely they are to have adjustment difficulties. B) responsible and independent they are. C) likely they are to join after-school activities to prevent loneliness. . D) they turn to peers for advice about day-to-day problems. Answer: A Page Ref: 598 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.9

112)

As children become old enough to look after themselves, those who A) have a history of authoritative child rearing B) are not required to perform household tasks C) are left to their own devices D) are given the responsibility of caring for younger siblings Answer: A

appear responsible and well-adjusted.

Page Ref: 598 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.9

113)

Yuhui’s parents use ridicule, humiliation, intimidation, and terrorizing as disciplinary techniques. Yuhui is a victim of A) verbal abuse. B) neglect. C) corporal punishment. D) emotional abuse. Answer: D Page Ref: 599 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.10

114)

Which of the following forms of child maltreatment is most commonly reported? A) physical abuse B) neglect C) sexual abuse D) emotional abuse Answer: B Page Ref: 599 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

115)

Cassidy has been sexually abused. Who is most likely to have abused her? A) her father B) her sister C) a stranger D) a classmate Answer: A Page Ref: 600 Skill: Apply Objective: 14.10

116)

The only country with a national, school-based prevention program targeting sexual abuse is A) the United States. B) Sweden. C) New Zealand. D) China. Answer: C Page Ref: 601 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Child Sexual Abuse Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

117)

Once child abuse begins, A) it is fairly easy to reverse the behavior. B) parents respond with extreme guilt, which motivates them to seek outside help. C) children typically feel empathy for the parent. D) it quickly becomes part of a self-sustaining relationship. Answer: D Page Ref: 600 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.10

118)

is strongly associated with maltreatment of children. A) Unmanageable parental stress B) Authoritative child rearing C) Lack of quality child care D) School truancy Answer: A Page Ref: 600 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

119)

About 66,000 cases of child sexual abuse were confirmed in 2010. This number A) greatly underestimates the extent of sexual abuse, since many victims remain silent. B) overestimates the number of cases because of children’s unreliable reporting. C) represents about 30,000 cases perpetrated by women and about 36,000 by men. D) consists mostly of abuse by a stranger. Answer: A Page Ref: 601 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Child Sexual Abuse Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

120)

Many sexual offenders often blame the abuse on the willing participation of a seductive youngster, thus verifying A) the child’s role in the abusive situation. B) the presence of psychological disorders among abusers. C) that they have no control over their impulses. D) their own childhood history of abuse. Answer: B Page Ref: 601 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Child Sexual Abuse Skill: Understand Objective: 14.10

121)

Repeated sexual abuse is associated with A) central nervous system damage. B) excessively low levels of cortisol production. C) significant declines in IQ. D) peer rejection. Answer: A Page Ref: 601 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Child Sexual Abuse Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

122)

Over time, the massive trauma of persistent abuse seems to A) drive most abused children to report the abuse eventually. B) blunt children’s normal physiological response to stress. C) provoke a counter-reaction in children in which their empathy and tendency to act as mediator grow. D) diminish, making adults who were abused as children similar in psychological responses to those not abused. Answer: B Page Ref: 602 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.10

123)

Which of the following is the most important factor in preventing mothers with childhood histories of abuse from repeating the cycle with their own youngsters? A) being able to effectively cope with stress B) a trusting relationship with another person C) cognitive-behavioral therapy D) learning how to use an authoritarian child-rearing style Answer: B Page Ref: 603 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

124)

The attachment of maltreated children and their parents and the view that children are parental property A) are inaccurate perceptions that many child advocacy organizations are trying to eradicate. B) result in the reluctance of the U.S. legal system to intervene with court-ordered protection. C) prove that removing the child from the home is the only justifiable course of action. D) are valid reasons for keeping abused children with their parents. Answer: B Page Ref: 603 Skill: Understand Objective: 14.10

125)

Most of the 1,700 U.S. children who die from maltreatment each year A) are infants and preschoolers. B) are adolescents. C) leave siblings behind who remain with the abusive parent. D) had been referred to the social services system, but their case had not yet been investigated. Answer: A Page Ref: 604 Skill: Remember Objective: 14.10

ESSAY 126)

List and briefly describe the five vital services for society that were performed by the family unit of our evolutionary ancestors. Answer: In addition to promoting survival of its members, the family unit of our evolutionary ancestors performed the following vital services for society:

– –

Reproduction. Replacing dying members. Economic

–

services. Producing and distributing goods and services. Social

– –

order. Devising procedures for reducing conflict and maintaining order.

Socialization. Training the young to become competent, participating members of society. Emotional support. Helping others surmount emotional crises and fostering in each person a sense of commitment and purpose.

Page Ref: 568

127)

Name and describe the most successful approach to child rearing, noting the benefits of this approach. Answer: The authoritative child-rearing style involves high acceptance and involvement, adaptive control techniques, and appropriate autonomy granting. Authoritative parents are warm, attentive, and sensitive to their child’s needs. They establish an enjoyable, emotionally fulfilling parent–child relationship that draws the child into close connection. At the same time, authoritative parents exercise firm, reasonable control: They insist on appropriate maturity, give reasons for their expectations, use disciplinary encounters as “teaching moments” to promote the child’s self-regulation, and monitor their child’s whereabouts and activities. Finally, authoritative parents engage in gradual, appropriate autonomy granting, allowing the child to make decisions in areas where he or she is ready to make choices. They also place a premium on communication, encouraging the child to express his or her thoughts, feelings, and desires. And when parent and child disagree, authoritative parents engage in joint decision making when possible. Their willingness to accommodate to the child’s perspective increases the likelihood that the child will listen to their perspective in situations where compliance is vital. Throughout childhood and adolescence, authoritative parenting is linked to many aspects of competence —an upbeat mood, self-control, task persistence, academic achievement, cooperativeness, high self-esteem, responsiveness to parents’ views, and social and moral maturity. Page Ref: 573–574

128)

Explain why many affluent youths are at risk for poor adjustment. Answer: Despite their advanced education and greater material wealth, affluent parents—those in prestigious occupations with six-figure annual incomes—too often fail to engage in family interaction and parenting that promote favorable development. In several studies, researchers tracked youths growing up in high-SES suburbs. By seventh grade, many showed serious problems that worsened in high school. Their school grades were poor, and they were more likely than low-SES youths to engage in alcohol and drug use and to report high levels of anxiety and depression. Furthermore, among affluent (but not low-SES) teenagers, substance use was correlated with anxiety and depression, suggesting that wealthy youths took drugs to self-medicate—a practice that predicts persistent abuse. Compared to their better-adjusted counterparts, poorly adjusted affluent young people report less emotional closeness and supervision from their parents, who lead professionally and socially demanding lives. As a group, wealthy parents are nearly as physically and emotionally unavailable to their youngsters as parents coping with serious financial strain. At the same time, these parents often make excessive demands for achievement. Adolescents whose parents value their accomplishments more than their character and emotional well-being are more likely to have academic and emotional problems. For both affluent and low-SES youths, a simple routine—eating dinner with parents—is associated with a reduction in adjustment difficulties, even after many other aspects of parenting are controlled. Interventions that make wealthy parents aware of the high costs of a competitive, overscheduled lifestyle and minimal family time are badly needed. Page Ref: 581–582

129)

Explain the main reasons for the decline in family size (number of children per couple) and what effects fewer siblings have on a child’s development. Answer: In 1960, the average number of children per American woman of childbearing age was 3.1. Currently, it is 2.1 in the United States, 1.9 in the United Kingdom, 1.8 in Australia, 1.7 in Sweden, 1.6 in Canada, 1.4 in Germany, and 1.3 in Italy and Japan. In addition to more effective birth control, a major reason for this decline is that a family size of one or two children is more compatible with a woman’s decision to divide her energies between family and work. The tendency of many couples to delay having children until they are well-established professionally and secure economically also contributes to smaller family size. Furthermore, marital instability plays a role: More couples today get divorced before their childbearing plans are complete. Finally, caring for children and providing them with opportunities is expensive—yet another contributing factor to a smaller family size. According to a conservative estimate, today’s new parents in the United States will spend about $280,000 to rear a child from birth to age 18, and many will incur substantial additional expense for higher education. According to the U.S. National Longitudinal Survey of Youth (NLSY), children’s mental test performance did not decline with later birth order—a finding that contradicts the belief that having more children depresses their intellectual ability. At the same time, the larger the family, the lower the scores of all siblings. The researchers also found that the link between family size and children’s IQ can be explained by a strong trend for mothers who score lower in intelligence to give birth to more children. Siblings influence development both directly, through relationships with one another, and indirectly, through the impact of an additional child on parents’ behavior. Sibling interactions are unique contexts in which social competence expands. Siblings who are close in age relate to one another on a more equal footing than parents and children. They often engage in joint pretend, talk about feelings, tease, deceive, and—when conflicts arise—call attention to their own wants and needs. The skills acquired through these experiences contribute to understanding of emotions and other mental states, perspective taking, moral maturity, and competence in relating to peers. Page Ref: 584–586

130)

A few U.S. states ban gay and lesbian couples from adopting children. Using research to support your answer, describe the development of children raised by gay or lesbian parents. Answer: Although most research on homosexual families is limited to volunteer samples, findings indicate that gay and lesbian parents are as committed to and effective at child rearing as heterosexual parents and sometimes more so. Also, whether born to or adopted by their parents or conceived through donor insemination, the children of homosexuals did not differ from the children of heterosexuals in mental health, peer relations, or gender-role behavior. Furthermore, children of gay and lesbian parents are similar to other children in sexual orientation: The large majority are heterosexual. But some evidence suggests that more adolescents from homosexual families experiment for a time with partners of both sexes, perhaps as a result of being reared in families and communities especially tolerant of nonconformity and difference. A major concern of gay and lesbian parents is that their children will be stigmatized by their parents’ sexual orientation. Most studies indicate that incidents of teasing and bullying are rare because parents and children carefully manage the information they reveal to others. Overall, children of gay and lesbian parents can be distinguished from other children mainly by issues related to living in a nonsupportive society. Page Ref: 589–590

131)

Discuss how children typically respond to being raised in a blended family. Answer: About 60 percent of divorced parents remarry within a few years. Parent, stepparent, and children form a blended, or reconstituted, family. For some children, this expanded family network is positive, bringing greater adult attention. But most have more adjustment problems than children in stable, first-marriage families. How well they adapt is, again, related to the overall quality of family functioning, which depends on which parent forms a new relationship, the child’s age and sex, and the complexity of blended-family relationships. Because mothers generally retain custody of children, the most common form of blended family is a mother–stepfather arrangement. Boys tend to adjust quickly, welcoming a stepfather who is warm, who refrains from exerting his authority too quickly, and who offers relief from coercive cycles of mother–son interaction. Girls, however, often have difficulty with their custodial mother’s remarriage. Stepfathers disrupt the close ties many girls have established with their mothers, and girls often react with sulky, resistant behavior. Remarriage of noncustodial fathers often leads to reduced contact with their biological children, especially when fathers remarry quickly before they have established postdivorce parent–child routines. When fathers have custody, children typically react negatively to remarriage. Girls, especially, have a hard time getting along with their stepmothers, either because the remarriage threatens the girl’s bond with her father or because she becomes entangled in loyalty conflicts between the two mother figures. But the longer children live in father–stepmother households, the closer they feel to their stepmothers and the more positive their interaction with them becomes. With time and patience, children of both genders benefit from the support of a second mother figure. Page Ref: 594–595

132)

List and give examples of the four forms of child maltreatment. Who is most likely to commit each form of child maltreatment? Answer: Child maltreatment takes the following forms:

–

Physical

– – –

abuse. Assaults, such as kicking, biting, shaking, punching, or stabbing, that inflict physical injury Sexual abuse. Fondling, intercourse, exhibitionism, commercial exploitation through prostitution or production of pornography, and other forms of sexual exploitation Neglect. Failure to meet a child’s basic needs for food, clothing, medical attention, education, or supervision

Emotional abuse. Acts that could cause serious mental or behavioral disorders, including social isolation, repeated unreasonable demands, ridicule, humiliation, intimidation, or terrorizing Parents commit more than 80 percent of abusive incidents. Other relatives account for about 5 percent. The remainder are perpetrated by parents’ unmarried partners, school officials, camp counselors, and other adults. Mothers engage in neglect more often than fathers, whereas fathers engage in sexual abuse more often than mothers. Maternal and paternal rates of physical and emotional abuse are fairly similar. And in an especially heartrending 18 percent of cases, parents jointly commit the abusive acts. Infants and young preschoolers are at greatest risk for neglect, preschool and school-age children for physical, emotional, and sexual abuse. But each type occurs at every age. Page Ref: 599–600

CHAPTER 15 PEERS, MEDIA, AND SCHOOLING MULTIPLE CHOICE 1)

grants children the confidence, social-cognition understandings, and social skills they need to enter the world and form gratifying peer relationships. A) A secure attachment bond B) Authoritarian parenting C) Emotional support D) Coregulation Answer: A Page Ref: 607–608 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

2)

When pairs of infants are brought together in a laboratory, A) peer-directed smiles and babbles B) looking accompanied by occasional touching C) reciprocal exchanges and imitation of behavior D) viewing one another as playmates Answer: B

is/are present at 3 to 4 months.

Page Ref: 608 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

3)

Which of the following types of peer sociability develops first? A) coordinated interaction in the form of mutual imitation, such as jumping, chasing, or banging a toy B) an occasional reciprocal exchange with a grin, gesture, or imitation of a playmate’s behavior C) using words and gestures to influence a peer’s behavior D) imitative, turn-taking gestures and body movement Answer: B Page Ref: 608 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

4)

and are especially frequent in toddlers’ interactions with familiar agemates. A) Hostility; competition B) Power assertion; negative emotion C) Cooperative play; peer collaboration D) Reciprocal play; positive emotion Answer: D Page Ref: 608 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

5)

Which of the following children is most likely to engage in more extended peer exchanges and display more socially competent behavior during the preschool years? A) Ariel, who was raised in a warm, supportive environment B) Eric, who was raised in an authoritarian environment C) Sebastian, who was raised in a permissive environment D) Melody, who was adopted from a Romanian orphanage Answer: A Page Ref: 608 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

6)

Eva plays near other children with similar materials, but does not try to influence their behavior. She is involved in A) nonsocial activity. B) associative play. C) parallel play. D) cooperative play. Answer: C Page Ref: 608 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

7)

As two preschoolers play “school,” one pretends to be the teacher and the other pretends to be the student. The children are engaged in play. A) functional B) constructive C) parallel D) cooperative Answer: D Page Ref: 608 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

8)

Although declines with age, it is still the most frequent form among 3- to 4-year-olds. A) nonsocial activity B) parallel play C) associative play D) cooperative play Answer: A Page Ref: 609 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

9)

It is the , not the A) amount; type B) type; amount C) amount; context D) theme; context Answer: B Page Ref: 609 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

, of solitary and parallel play that changes during early childhood.

10)

Which of the following types of nonsocial activity are cause for concern? A) putting together a puzzle and building with blocks B) drawing a picture and reading a book C) playing on the computer and talking to an imaginary companion D) aimless wandering and hovering near peers Answer: D Page Ref: 609 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

11)

Five-year-old Juan notices that a peer is having difficulty carrying a stack of books to her desk. Juan is likely to A) move right in and give assistance, regardless of whether it is desired. B) ignore the peer and reject her request for help. C) laugh at the peer as she struggles to carry the books. D) offer assistance and demand a reward for helping. Answer: A Page Ref: 610 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

12)

While playing at the park, Sam and Carlos run after one another, wrestle, and pretend to fight. The boys are engaged in A) functional play. B) a hostile interaction. C) rough-and-tumble play. D) repetitive motor action. Answer: C Page Ref: 610 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

13)

Researchers hypothesize that A) rough-and-tumble B) parallel C) associative D) cooperative Answer: A

play may help children establish a dominance hierarchy.

Page Ref: 610 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

14)

Once a dominance hierarchy is established, A) hostility is rare. B) hostility increases. C) antisocial behavior emerges. D) cliques begin to form. Answer: A Page Ref: 610 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

15)

Although rough-and-tumble play declines in adolescence, when it does occur A) its meaning is linked to aggression. B) it is used to reconcile a disagreement. C) it is often between members of the other sex. D) it is often accompanied by antisocial behavior. Answer: A Page Ref: 610 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

16)

How are peer relationships in mid-adolescence different from those of middle childhood? A) The amount of peer interaction declines as adolescents become moodier and more independent. B) Peer interactions decrease, and adolescents spend more time with parents, siblings, and extended-family members. C) Adolescents spend more time with peers than with any other social partners. D) Peer relationships become increasingly competitive and hostile. Answer: C Page Ref: 611 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

17)

Children first acquire skills for interacting with peers A) from cartoon characters. B) from child-care workers. C) when they begin formal schooling. D) within the family. Answer: D Page Ref: 611 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

18)

Nathan is not especially good at disclosing information to his parents. Which of the following is most likely true for Nathan? A) His parents use an authoritative parenting style. B) His parents will have difficulty in successfully monitoring Nathan’s activities. C) His parents have established a healthy dominance hierarchy within the family. D) His parents have been influential in Nathan’s prosocial behaviors. Answer: B Page Ref: 611 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

19)

seem(s) to be a particularly effective context for promoting peer interaction skills. A) Child care B) Preschool C) Parent–child play D) Cartoon characters Answer: C Page Ref: 611 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.1

20)

In which of the following situations is the adolescent more likely to exhibit better school achievement and lower levels of antisocial behavior? A) Terri’s social network and her parents’ social network overlap. B) Barry maintains a distinct division between his own and his parents’ social networks. C) Diego’s parents provide extensive and frequent guidance on how to manage conflict and discourage teasing. D) Kalpana’s parents’ social network includes Kalpana’s teachers and other adults in the school community. Answer: A Page Ref: 612 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.1

21)

Among preschoolers, younger children’s play is A) more cognitively and socially mature in single-age classrooms than in mixed-aged classrooms. B) more cognitively and socially mature in mixed-age classrooms than in single-age classrooms. C) often characterized by competition and object assertion. D) often immature and functional, particularly for boys. Answer: B Page Ref: 612 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

22)

Compared to American preschoolers, Chinese preschoolers are A) more likely to reject reticent classmates. B) more aggressive during make-believe play. C) encouraged to be independent and assertive. D) more likely to include a quiet, reserved child in play. Answer: D Page Ref: 612 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

23)

Observations from the Mayan culture indicate that A) children who spend little time in pretend play are socially delayed. B) sociodramatic play is not a critical component of social development in most societies. C) sociodramatic play is only critical for social development in nonindustrialized cultures. D) sociodramatic play may be less crucial in cultures where children participate in adult activities from an early age. Answer: D Page Ref: 613 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

24)

American teenagers spend considerably more of their free time with peers than do Asian adolescents. What cultural factor accounts for this difference? A) American parents’ encouragement of extracurricular activities B) less demanding academic standards in the United States C) the different roles of peer interaction in industrialized versus nonindustrialized nations D) greater access to activities and organizations designed specifically for teenagers in the United States Answer: B Page Ref: 613 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.1

25)

Ben and Frank have a close companionship where each enjoys and wants to be with the other. Their relationship can be classified as a A) dominance hierarchy. B) peer group. C) friendship. D) clique. Answer: C Page Ref: 613 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.2

26)

When their teacher asks them what a friend is, Bonita and the other preschoolers in her class will most likely say that a friend is someone A) “who likes you.” B) “who makes me laugh when I am depressed.” C) like “my mommy.” D) “I can tell my thoughts to.” Answer: A Page Ref: 614 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.2

27)

If Natalie and Jenna are in the Friendship as Mutual Trust and Assistance stage of friendship, which of the following descriptions would apply? A) Their relationship has become more complex and psychologically based. B) Their friendship does not have any type of enduring quality. C) A rift in their friendship would not require an apology or explanation. D) Only an extreme falling out can terminate their friendship. Answer: A Page Ref: 614 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.2

28)

Research indicates that by age 10, the most important aspect of friendship is usually A) mutual interests. B) trust. C) loyalty. D) intimacy. Answer: B Page Ref: 614 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.2

29)

When asked about the meaning of friendship, teenagers stress which of the following three characteristics? A) popularity, intimacy, and enjoyable interactions B) similar interests, family values, and trust C) intimacy, mutual understanding, and loyalty D) similar moral values, a common peer group, and enjoyable interactions Answer: C Page Ref: 614 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.2

30)

As mutual trust and loyalty increase in importance, school-age children’s friendships become more A) complex. B) intimate. C) unstable. D) selective. Answer: D Page Ref: 615 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.2

31)

Close friends behave more prosocially toward each other A) when they are rewarded for helping and sharing. B) when other people are observing them. C) but they also disagree and compete with each other more than nonfriends. D) but have difficulty expressing hurt feelings during conflict. Answer: C Page Ref: 615 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.2

32)

When aggressive children make friends, A) their aggressive behavior declines and prosocial behavior increases. B) they often seek playmates of the other sex. C) the relationship is often riddled with hostile interaction. D) they develop age-appropriate outlets for their aggressive behavior. Answer: C Page Ref: 616 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.2

33)

Twelve-year-old Luca comes from a middle-class Italian-American family. With which of the following individuals is Luca most likely to be friends? A) 10-year-old Frank, who lives near Luca’s cousin B) 12-year-old Sam, a low-SES Italian immigrant C) 13-year-old Aiden, who also comes from a middle-class Italian-American family D) 14-year-old Hannah, a popular Hispanic girl who plays softball with Luca’s older sister Answer: C Page Ref: 616 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.2

34)

Early adolescents of both sexes are attracted to behavior. A) high-status, aggressive boys B) low-status, aggressive boys C) highly influential, older peers D) popular boys and girls Answer: A Page Ref: 616 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.2

as friends, a trend that contributes to a rise in antisocial

35)

Discussions that focus on recognition and mastery issues are typical of A) boys. B) girls. C) teenagers. D) young adults. Answer: A Page Ref: 617 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.2

36)

Among without same-sex friends, having an other-sex friend is associated with A) girls; corumination B) girls; feelings of competence C) boys; less positive well-being D) boys; feelings of competence Answer: D

.

Page Ref: 617 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.2

37)

Tarah and her friends frequently engage in conversations about sexuality and romance. This aspect of close friendship A) provides opportunities to explore the self. B) provides a foundation for future intimate relationships. C) helps young people deal with the stresses of everyday life. D) improves attitudes toward and involvement in school. Answer: B Page Ref: 617 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.2

38)

Children who have no friends usually have A) undesirable personalities. B) overprotective parents. C) an androgynous gender identity. D) close relationships with siblings. Answer: A Page Ref: 618 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.2

39)

To assess peer acceptance, researchers usually use self-reports that measure A) social prominence; social adjustment B) social preferences; social prominence C) positive correspondence; negative correspondence D) social preferences; social adjustment Answer: B Page Ref: 618 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.3

and

.

40)

When Mario leans in to take his turn at marbles, his knee repeatedly knocks the marbles askew. Talbot says, “It’s frustrating when you do that. Try kneeling over here so that you don’t mess up the game.” Talbot’s statement is reflective of a child. A) popular-prosocial B) rejected-aggressive C) rejected-withdrawn D) popular-antisocial Answer: A Page Ref: 619 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.3

41)

Compared with popular-aggressive children, rejected-aggressive children are A) more socially skilled. B) more antagonistic. C) less antagonistic. D) more likely to be identified as controversial. Answer: B Page Ref: 619 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.3

42)

Research on neglected children indicates that they A) display a blend of positive and negative social behaviors. B) often report feeling lonely and unhappy. C) are deficient in social understanding and regulation of negative emotion. D) are usually well-adjusted. Answer: D Page Ref: 620 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.3

43)

Many rejected-aggressive children A) are actually well-adjusted and eventually develop favorable peer relationships. B) are unaware of their poor social skills. C) take responsibility for their social failures. D) are only children who had few opportunities to learn appropriate social skills before starting school. Answer: B Page Ref: 620 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.3

44)

A small group of fifth-grade boys frequently picks on Dan, calling him names, hitting and tripping him, and taking his lunch money. Dan is experiencing A) peer victimization. B) a dominance hierarchy. C) gender harassment. D) typical male aggression. Answer: A Page Ref: 621 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Bullies and Their Victims Skill: Apply Objective: 15.3

45)

Bullying occurs more often in schools A) in low-SES communities. B) that have more boys than girls. C) that have no school code against bullying. D) where teachers are viewed as unfair. Answer: D Page Ref: 621 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Bullies and Their Victims Skill: Understand Objective: 15.3

46)

Chronic victims of bullying tend to A) require therapy later in life. B) have parents who use an uninvolved or permissive child-rearing style. C) be passive and have overprotecting mothers. D) be relationally aggressive with peers and adults alike. Answer: C Page Ref: 621 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Bullies and Their Victims Skill: Understand Objective: 15.3

47)

Which of the following interventions is most effective for changing the behavior of victimized children? A) Use tutors who specialize in social skills. B) Change victims’ negative opinions of themselves. C) Move aggressive children to an alternative school. D) Develop a school code against bullying. Answer: B Page Ref: 621 Box: BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT: Bullies and Their Victims Skill: Understand Objective: 15.3

48)

Rejected children’s socially incompetent behaviors often originate in A) child-care settings. B) classrooms with poorly trained teachers. C) a poor fit between the child’s temperament and parenting practices. D) early adolescence. Answer: C Page Ref: 622 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.3

49)

Teenagers who utilize a specialized vocabulary, have their own dress code, and “hang out” during leisure hours in specific places are involved in a A) clique. B) gang. C) peer group. D) club. Answer: C Page Ref: 622 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.4

50)

Bella belongs to a peer group that includes many swim team members. Bella may be ousted from the group if she A) lacks skills to swim competitively. B) wears swimsuits that differ from the rest of the group. C) is unable to spend time with the group on weekends because of family responsibilities. D) does not have a cell phone or instant messaging capabilities. Answer: A Page Ref: 623 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.4

51)

If Ebony is excluded from her peer group, she A) will probably concentrate more on her schoolwork. B) may turn to a more popular group for acceptance and support. C) will easily find another peer group with interests similar to her own. D) may find it difficult to join other groups if her previous behavior toward them was hostile. Answer: D Page Ref: 623 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.4

52)

The main difference between a clique and a crowd is that A) clique membership is based on reputation and stereotype. B) a crowd is a more loosely organized group. C) crowd membership predicts academic and social competence. D) crowd membership is more important to girls than to boys. Answer: B Page Ref: 623 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.4

53)

Teenage boys who are “partyers” and “burnouts” tend to have parents who are A) authoritative. B) uninvolved. C) permissive. D) authoritarian. Answer: C Page Ref: 624 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.4

54)

Kareem is a high risk taker, engages in unprotected sex, and claims that he will “do anything on a dare.” Kareem is most likely a member of which of the following groups? A) nonconformists B) jocks C) partyers D) normals Answer: A Page Ref: 624 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.4

55)

Which of the following functions do mixed-sex cliques serve during the teenage years? A) They provide boys and girls with models for how to interact with the other sex and a chance to do so without having to be intimate. B) They offer the security of a permanent identity as teenagers separate from the family and begin to construct a coherent sense of self. C) They offer security based on the notion of “safety in numbers,” particularly for teenagers in urban locations. D) They provide warmth, support, and structure that many teenagers lack in their home environment. Answer: A Page Ref: 624 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.4

56)

Selina is a 13-year-old who has just started dating. Selina probably dates A) to rebel against her parents. B) for recreation and peer status. C) to achieve psychological intimacy. D) for companionship and affection. Answer: B Page Ref: 624 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.4

57)

As Aria begins dating, the security of her romantic relationships will be affected by A) peer pressure to have sex. B) her comfort with her own sexuality. C) the intensity of her emotional attachment to her boyfriend. D) the level and security of her attachment to her parents. Answer: D Page Ref: 625 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.4

58)

About A) 5 to 10 B) 10 to 20 C) 20 to 30 D) 30 to 40 Answer: B

percent of adolescents are physically or sexually abused by dating partners.

Page Ref: 625 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.4

59)

If Evita has a history of drug use, delinquency, and aggression in peer relationships, the likelihood that she will A) engage in unhealthy weight control tactics decreases. B) experience a satisfying, long-term relationship increases. C) experience dating violence increases. D) engage in risky sexual behavior decreases. Answer: C Page Ref: 625 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.4

60)

Research shows that adolescents feel greatest pressure to conform to A) engaging in antisocial acts. B) having sex. C) participating in social activities. D) using alcohol or drugs. Answer: C Page Ref: 626 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.5

61)

By tenth grade, drug. A) 10; 22 B) 25; 14 C) 46; 40 D) 59; 38 Answer: D

percent of young people have tried drinking and

percent have tried at least one illegal

Page Ref: 626 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Substance Use and Abuse Skill: Remember Objective: 15.5

62)

and use is somewhat greater among European than among U.S. adolescents. A) Tobacco; alcohol B) Alcohol; marijuana C) Tobacco; marijuana D) Marijuana; other illegal drug Answer: A Page Ref: 626 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Substance Use and Abuse Skill: Remember Objective: 15.5

63)

One treatment recommendation for adolescent drug abuse is to A) place the adolescent in a residential treatment facility as soon as drug use is suspected. B) start treatment gradually, through support group sessions that focus on reducing drug taking. C) implement legal procedures, such as arrest and jail time, to deter further drug use. D) utilize a “wait and see” approach, as most adolescent drug use is experimental and usually fades over time. Answer: B Page Ref: 626 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: HEALTH: Adolescent Substance Use and Abuse Skill: Understand Objective: 15.5

64)

Taylor is under pressure from his peers to experiment with drugs. He is most likely to resist this pressure if his parents use a(n) parenting style. A) neglectful B) permissive C) authoritative D) authoritarian Answer: C Page Ref: 627 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.5

65)

is the current dominant form of youth media, although time consumed by catch up. A) Cell-phone usage; computer usage B) Watching television; cell-phone usage C) Listening to music; watching television D) Computer usage; listening to music Answer: B

may eventually

Page Ref: 629 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.6

66)

Which of the following children probably watches the most TV? A) Bonita, who comes from a low-SES family B) Brynn, whose parents only watch the news C) Brandi, who comes from a small family D) Brenda, who comes from a high-SES family Answer: A Page Ref: 630 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.6

67)

Parents with are more likely to engage in practices that heighten TV viewing, including eating family meals in front of the set and failing to limit children’s TV access. A) higher incomes B) limited education C) more than one child D) authoritative child-rearing styles Answer: B Page Ref: 630 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.6

68)

Hunter watches a lot of violence on television. As a result, when confronted with aggression in real life, Hunter will likely A) be confused when no protagonist shows up to resolve the situation for him. B) react passively and try to avoid confrontation. C) display relationally aggressive behavior. D) indicate that he does not feel threatened. Answer: C Page Ref: 630 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.6

69)

In nonaggressive children, violent TV A) sparks hostile thoughts and behavior. B) has little or no effect on their behavior. C) increases their intolerance of aggression in others. D) actually promotes greater warmth in healthy parent–child relationships. Answer: A Page Ref: 630–631 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.6

70)

When ethnic minorities appear on TV, they are usually depicted A) as the hero or heroine of action-adventure-type shows. B) positively and humorously. C) in secondary or lower-status roles. D) accurately. Answer: C Page Ref: 631 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.6

71)

Gender stereotypes are especially prevalent in A) late night television. B) talk shows. C) cartoons and music television. D) the news and educational programs. Answer: C Page Ref: 631 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.6

72)

Children under the age of help viewers. A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 18 Answer: A

seldom grasp the selling purpose of commercials and believe that they are meant to

Page Ref: 631 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.6

73)

Prosocial TV programs promote children’s kind and helpful acts A) up to several years later. B) when shown in conjunction with violent programs. C) only in real-life situations that imitate the TV programs. D) only when they are free of violent content. Answer: D Page Ref: 632 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.6

74)

Sesame Street has modified its format by A) showing more leisurely episodes with a clear story line rather than presenting quick, disconnected bits of information. B) increasing the pace to maintain children’s interest and undivided attention. C) focusing more on basic decoding and grammar skills rather than on letter and number recognition. D) focusing more on social/emotional issues, such as friendship and self-esteem, rather than academic skills. Answer: A Page Ref: 632 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.6

75)

Not until age do children acquire an adult-level understanding of the technical complexity of the Internet as a networklike system linking a computing center with many computers. A) 7 or 8 B) 10 or 11 C) 13 or 15 D) 16 or 17 Answer: B Page Ref: 633 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.7

76)

Children in a preschool classroom are more likely to work in small groups and collaborate when other pursuits. A) trying to read a story without a teacher’s assistance B) working on computer activities C) playing with technology, such as iPods or iPads, D) playing in the “home living” area of the classroom Answer: B Page Ref: 633 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.7

77)

Cho is just beginning to learn to read and write. If she uses the computer for word processing, A) the ability to revise her text’s meaning and style will cause her to worry less about making mistakes. B) she will become easily frustrated because her typing skills are slower than writing with a pencil. C) she will not learn to spell correctly, as she will rely on the computer to correct her mistakes. D) her attention will be sustained longer, but the quality of her work will be poor. Answer: A Page Ref: 633 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.7

78)

Which of the following statements is true regarding boys’ and girls’ use of computers? A) Girls more often than boys connect to the Internet to download music. B) Girls more often than boys use spreadsheets and graphics programs. C) By the end of elementary school, girls spend more time with computers than boys. D) More boys than girls rate their computer skills as “excellent.” Answer: D Page Ref: 633 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.7

79)

Playing speed-and-action video games fosters A) spatial skills in boys, but not in girls. B) selective attention in boys and girls alike. C) greater selective attention in girls, but not in boys. D) greater school performance for boys and girls alike. Answer: B Page Ref: 634 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.7

than in

80)

An increasing number of studies show that playing violent video games A) is like watching violent TV and increases hostility and aggression. B) fosters selective attention and spatial abilities. C) teaches children about the negative consequences of hostility and aggression. D) is less harmful to children than watching violent TV. Answer: A Page Ref: 634 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.7

81)

A study of instant messaging use among young people showed that A) it enhances social skills and is a safe way to experiment with online dating. B) it accounts for a small percentage of the time that young people spend at the computer. C) the more instant messaging young people engage in, the more detached they become from their wider circle of family and friends. D) as the amount of instant messaging between preexisting friends increases, so do young people’s perceptions of intimacy in the relationship. Answer: D Page Ref: 634 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.7

82)

Angelina is a teenager with high levels of conflict with her parents. When asked by an online friend to meet in person, Angelina is more likely than her peers to A) end the online friendship without ever meeting the person face-to-face. B) ask a sibling or friend to attend the meeting with her. C) attend the meeting without telling her parents. D) maintain the online friendship but avoid meeting the person. Answer: C Page Ref: 635 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.7

83)

Which of the following has hampered efforts to regulate TV broadcasting in the United States? A) lack of funding B) intense pressure from parents C) successful lobbying by television and film studios D) the First Amendment right to free speech Answer: D Page Ref: 635 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.7

84)

If Stewart and Merrie want to regulate their children’s TV and computer use, one helpful strategy is to A) allow their children only 30 minutes of unsupervised TV viewing or computer use per day. B) allow their children to only be able to do one or the other each day of the week. C) avoid using TV or computer time as a reward. D) permit their children to watch TV and play on the computer only in their bedrooms. Answer: C Page Ref: 636 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.7

85)

According to the large field experiment involving more than 6,000 kindergartners, what is the optimal class size? A) 10 to 12 students B) 13 to 17 students C) 18 to 24 students D) 25 to 30 students Answer: B Page Ref: 637 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.8

86)

Which of the following predicted substantially higher achievement for students from fourth through ninth grades? A) experiencing small classes from kindergarten through third grade B) placing teachers’ aides in classrooms C) participating in extracurricular activities D) a focus on teaching social skills as well as academics Answer: A Page Ref: 637 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.8

87)

are especially likely to profit from extracurricular pursuits that require them to take on meaningful roles and responsibilities. A) Overweight adolescents B) Adolescents with physical limitations C) Adolescents with academic, emotional, and social problems D) Popular-prosocial adolescents Answer: C Page Ref: 638 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.8

88)

Mr. Pegel does most of the talking in his classroom. His students are relatively passive and respond when called upon. Mr. Pegel most likely teaches in a classroom. A) high-stakes B) traditional C) standardized D) constructivist Answer: B Page Ref: 638 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.8

89)

The U.S. No Child Left Behind Act, signed into law in 2001, resulted in A) greater attention to student-chosen areas of study. B) a move toward enhanced constructivist classrooms. C) a “back to basics” movement in which classrooms returned to traditional instruction. D) a wider focus to foster development beyond academic instruction. Answer: C Page Ref: 638 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.8

90)

Today, A) 2 B) 7 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B

percent of U.S. schools no longer provide recess to students as young as second grade.

Page Ref: 639 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: School Recess—A Time to Play, a Time to Learn Skill: Remember Objective: 15.8

91)

Research shows that school recess A) subtracts from classroom learning. B) offers few benefits to children over the age of 8. C) boosts classroom learning. D) only benefits students who are in good physical shape. Answer: C Page Ref: 639 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: School Recess—A Time to Play, a Time to Learn Skill: Remember Objective: 15.8

92)

Research shows that kindergarteners’ and first graders’ engagement in peer conversation and games during recess A) resulted in an increase of incidents of children being excluded. B) predicted gains in academic achievement. C) led to an increase in prosocial behaviors. D) led to increased incidence of disruptive classroom behaviors. Answer: B Page Ref: 639 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: School Recess—A Time to Play, a Time to Learn Skill: Understand Objective: 15.8

93)

If Lydia goes to a constructivist classroom, which of the following outcomes will most likely occur? A) She will show a slight edge in achievement test scores over children in traditional classrooms. B) She will show gains in critical thinking and moral maturity. C) She will show gains in cognitive development and creativity. D) She will display a decrease in behavioral problems during high school. Answer: B Page Ref: 639 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.8

94)

Kadin attends a school that includes multiage classrooms, teaching materials specially designed to promote exploration and discovery, long time periods for individual and small-group learning in child-chosen activities, and equal emphasis on academic and social development. Kadin attends a A) private preschool. B) Head Start program. C) Montessori preschool. D) boarding school. Answer: C Page Ref: 639 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.8

95)

Cameron and Cooper are both 5 years old. Cameron has spent the last two years in a Montessori preschool. Cooper has been at home with his mother and younger siblings. When the boys enter kindergarten, research suggests that A) Cooper will have lower rates of behavior problems than Cameron. B) Cameron will outperform Cooper in cognitive flexibility. C) Cooper will probably be placed in a transition class after kindergarten. D) Cameron will show anxiety and disruptiveness throughout elementary school. Answer: B Page Ref: 640 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.8

96)

In Mr. Yi’s classroom, students participate in a wide range of challenging activities with teachers and peers, with whom they jointly construct understandings. Mr. Yi most likely teaches in a classroom. A) philosophical B) traditional C) social-constructivist D) Montessori Answer: C Page Ref: 640 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.8

97)

In the Vygotsky-based innovation, made between adult and child contributors. A) Montessori education B) homogeneous grouping C) transitional education D) communities of learners Answer: D

, teachers guide the overall process of learning but no other distinction is

Page Ref: 640 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.8

98)

Because social maturity in early childhood contributes to later academic performance, a growing number of experts propose that A) readiness for kindergarten be assessed in terms of not just academic skills but also social skills. B) preschool education be made mandatory for children. C) kindergarten teaching focus almost exclusively on social skills rather than academic instruction. D) temperamentally shy, impulsive, and emotionally negative children be taught separately from their prosocial agemates. Answer: A Page Ref: 641 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.9

99)

Research reveals that with each school change (from elementary to middle or junior high and then to high school), A) adolescents’ grades increase. B) adolescents’ grades decline. C) satisfaction with school increases. D) adolescents’ peer networks expand. Answer: B Page Ref: 641 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.9

100)

Which of the following reasons best explains why girls fare less well than boys when transitioning to middle school? A) They tend to take school successes and failures more personally. B) Movement to junior high coincides with other life changes, such as the onset of puberty and dating. C) They typically find school transitions more confusing and disorienting. D) They are more likely to be affected by negative self-fulfilling prophecies. Answer: B Page Ref: 641 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.9

101)

Which of the following approaches is most beneficial in helping adolescents adjust to school transition? A) forming larger homerooms to encourage closer relations between teachers and students B) having alumni speak to new students about their own experiences with school transition C) assigning students to classes with several familiar peers D) assigning students to classes with all new peers with similar interests Answer: C Page Ref: 642 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.9

102)

Elementary and secondary school students describe good teachers as A) fun; easy graders; positive role models B) laid back; not too serious; funny C) caring; helpful; stimulating D) authoritarian; professional; challenging Answer: C

,

, and

.

Page Ref: 643 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.10

103)

Paolo is a low-SES Hispanic male who is unruly in class. Paolo most likely A) receives more encouragement and praise from his teachers than his higher-SES peers. B) receives more criticism from his teachers than his higher-achieving peers. C) has a close, sensitive, and supportive relationship with his teachers. D) receives more criticism from his peers than his teachers. Answer: B Page Ref: 643 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.10

104)

Ms. Weems believes that Donny is a slow learner and poor reader. He begins having reading difficulties and does poorly in class. Donny is showing evidence of A) an educational self-fulfilling prophecy. B) learned helplessness. C) passive learning. D) teacher neglect and bias. Answer: A Page Ref: 643 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.10

105)

Teacher expectations A) have a greater impact on girls than boys. B) are most effective when they emphasize competition and publicly compare children. C) are usually slanted in a positive direction. D) have a greater impact on low-achieving than high-achieving students. Answer: D Page Ref: 643 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.10

106)

Karina has just been placed in a “low-ability” reading group. What is a probable outcome of this placement? A) Karina will view herself as more intelligent than others in the group. B) Karina will exhibit a drop in academic self-esteem. C) Karina will exhibit an increase in academic motivation. D) Karina’s reading achievement will quickly improve, which will increase her self-esteem. Answer: B Page Ref: 643–644 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.10

107)

A decrease in competition and increased harmony are two positive outcomes of A) traditional classrooms. B) homogeneous grouping arrangements. C) multigrade classrooms. D) mainstreaming. Answer: C Page Ref: 644 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.10

108)

For collaboration between heterogeneous peers to succeed, teachers need to A) provide the children with extensive guidance. B) provide repetitive drill and practice activities. C) hire formal tutors for students. D) develop a tracking system to measure individual and group progress. Answer: A Page Ref: 644 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.10

109)

Since the 1954 U.S. Supreme Court Brown v. Board of Education decision ordering schools to desegregate, school integration has A) been detrimental to both majority and minority student achievement. B) been successfully achieved in most school districts in the United States. C) receded since the late 1980s. D) mostly eliminated the racial divide in U.S. education. Answer: C Page Ref: 645 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Magnet Schools: Equal Access to High-Quality Education Skill: Remember Objective: 15.10

110)

Magnet schools offer A) education to ethnically diverse students, although achievement results remain similar to more segregated schools. B) more exclusive education to high-SES students who are able to afford it. C) the usual curriculum, plus an emphasis on a specific area of interest. D) education in a specific area of interest to select groups of homogeneous students. Answer: C Page Ref: 645 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Magnet Schools: Equal Access to High-Quality Education Skill: Understand Objective: 15.10

111) Which of the following statements is true about magnet schools? A) They are often located in well-to-do neighborhoods in larger cities. B) They typically utilize a constructivist classroom. C) Research on the effectiveness of magnet schools has been inconclusive. D) Many students are admitted to magnet schools on a lottery basis. Answer: D Page Ref: 645 Box: SOCIAL ISSUES: EDUCATION: Magnet Schools: Equal Access to High-Quality Education Skill: Understand Objective: 15.10

112)

In China, Japan, and most Western European countries, high school track placement is determined by A) family reputation. B) teacher recommendations. C) ancestry and lineage. D) a national exam. Answer: D Page Ref: 645 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.10

113)

Maddox has mild mental retardation and receives all of his special education services in a regular classroom. Maddox is experiencing A) mainstreaming. B) full inclusion. C) transitional learning. D) an overly restrictive environment. Answer: B Page Ref: 646 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.11

114)

Ephraim has an above-average IQ, but has extreme difficulty in reading. Ephraim most likely A) has mild mental retardation. B) has a learning disability. C) has a hearing impairment. D) is an underachiever. Answer: B Page Ref: 646 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.11

115)

Achievement gains for children in inclusive classrooms depend on A) both the severity of the disability and the support services available. B) the qualifications of the general education teacher. C) whether or not they have access to mentors. D) how they view the nature of their disability. Answer: A Page Ref: 646 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.11

116)

Which of the following options is best for Sally, a child with an above-average IQ who is experiencing extreme difficulty in math? A) Keep her in a regular classroom and assign extra math homework. B) Place her in a special education class instead of a regular classroom. C) Place her in a resource room for math and in a regular classroom for the rest of the day. D) Tell her to study harder or she will be placed in a special education class. Answer: C Page Ref: 646 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.11

117)

Mr. and Mrs. Behru live in a low-income, high-risk neighborhood. They have little involvement with their child’s school because they A) have no need for school support. B) feel resentful toward the school for its demands on their time. C) are disinterested in education. D) face daily stresses that reduce their energy for school involvement. Answer: D Page Ref: 647 Skill: Apply Objective: 15.12

118)

On an international scale, reading, math, and science performance of U.S. students is A) higher than that of Japan or Korea. B) at a high-performing level. C) the lowest of all industrialized nations. D) at or below average. Answer: D Page Ref: 647 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.12

119)

Which of the following reasons best explains why U.S. students fall behind in academic accomplishments compared to their international peers? A) Instruction in the United States is less challenging than in other countries. B) U.S. teachers assign less homework than teachers in other countries. C) U.S. parents tend to be disinterested in their children’s education. D) U.S. students have language deficits that compound reading and math problems. Answer: A Page Ref: 647 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.12

120)

Whereas American parents and teachers tend to regard as the key to academic success, Japanese, Korean, and Taiwanese parents and teachers believe that . A) native ability; all children can succeed academically as long as they try hard B) social forces; repetitive drills lead to greater math understanding C) stimulating, academically demanding classrooms; native ability determines success D) student motivation and parental guidance; work outside the classroom is essential Answer: A Page Ref: 648 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.12

121)

One advantage that teachers in Japan, Korea, and Taiwan have over their Western counterparts is that they A) are usually bilingual or trilingual. B) work with students who start school with much higher skills. C) are paid higher teacher salaries. D) vary more in their training. Answer: C Page Ref: 648 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.12

122)

American employers regard recent high school graduates as A) spoiled and selfish, lacking a solid work ethic. B) well-prepared for skilled business and industrialized occupations and manual trades. C) poorly prepared for skilled business and industrialized occupations and manual trades. D) particularly well-suited for positions in upper management. Answer: C Page Ref: 649 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.12

123)

Which of the following statements is true regarding adolescent job commitments? A) The responsibility required for after-school jobs often translates into a student taking greater responsibility for household chores and schoolwork. B) Students who have part-time jobs are more likely to finish high school and attend college. C) The more hours students work, the poorer their school attendance, the lower their grades, and the more likely they are to drop out. D) The more hours students work, the greater their school attendance, the higher their grades, and the less likely they are to drop out. Answer: C Page Ref: 649 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.12

124)

In , adolescents who do not go to a college-preparatory high school have access to one of the world’s most successful work–study apprenticeship systems for entering business and industry. A) Canada B) Japan C) Sweden D) Germany Answer: D Page Ref: 649 Skill: Remember Objective: 15.12

125)

Which of the following poses a major challenge to implementing a national apprenticeship program? A) Research does not indicate any long-term benefits associated with apprenticeship programs. B) Only low-SES youths would have access to such a program. C) Low-SES youths may become concentrated in the lowest-skilled apprenticeship placements. D) The cost of apprenticeship programs far outweighs the benefits. Answer: C Page Ref: 650 Skill: Understand Objective: 15.12

ESSAY 126)

Describe ways in which parents indirectly influence their children’s peer relations. Answer: Inductive discipline and authoritative parenting offer a firm foundation for competence in relating to agemates. In contrast, coercive behavioral control, including harsh physical punishment, and psychological control engender poor social skills and aggressive behavior. Furthermore, secure attachments to parents are linked to more responsive, harmonious peer interactions, larger peer networks, and warmer, more supportive friendships throughout childhood and adolescence. The sensitive, emotionally expressive parental communication that contributes to attachment security may be responsible. Highly involved, emotionally positive, and cooperative play between parents and preschoolers is associated with more positive peer relations. And perhaps because parents play more with children of their own sex, mothers’ play is more strongly linked to daughters’ competence, fathers’ play to sons’ competence. Finally, the quality of parents’ social networks is associated with children’s social competence. In one study, parents who reported high-quality friendships had school-age children who interacted more favorably with friends. This relationship was stronger for girls, perhaps because girls spend more time near parents and have more opportunity to observe their parents’ friends. Furthermore, overlap between parents’ and adolescents’ social networks—frequent contact among teenagers’ friends, their parents, and their parents’ friends—is related to better school achievement and low levels of antisocial behavior. Under these conditions, other adults in parents’ networks may promote parents’ values and goals and monitor teenagers in their parents’ absence. Page Ref: 611–612

127)

Describe the three-stage sequence of children’s understanding of friendship. Answer: Children’s changing ideas about friendship follow a three-stage sequence, confirmed by both longitudinal and cross-sectional research: (1) Friendship as a Handy Playmate (about 4 to 7 years). Preschoolers understand something about the uniqueness of friendship. They say that a friend is someone “who likes you,” with whom you spend a lot of time playing, and with whom you share toys. But friendship does not yet have a long-term, enduring quality. Children at this stage say that a friendship can dissolve when one partner refuses to share, hits, or is not available to play. (2) Friendship as Mutual Trust and Assistance (about 8 to 10 years). In middle childhood, friendship becomes more complex and psychologically based. Friendship is a mutually agreed-on relationship in which children like each other’s personal qualities and respond to each other’s needs and desires. Once a friendship forms, trust becomes its defining feature. School-age children state that a good friendship is based on acts of kindness signifying that each person can be counted on to support the other. Consequently, older children regard violations of trust, such as not helping a friend who needs help, breaking promises, and gossiping behind a friend’s back, as serious breaches of friendship. And rifts cannot be patched up simply by playing nicely after a conflict, as preschoolers and young school-age children do. Instead, apologies and explanations are necessary. (3) Friendship as Intimacy, Mutual Understanding, and Loyalty (11 to 15 years and older). When asked about the meaning of friendship, teenagers stress three characteristics. The most important is intimacy, or psychological closeness, which is supported by mutual understanding of each other’s values, beliefs, and feelings. In addition, more than younger children, teenagers want their friends to be loyal—to stick up for them and not to leave them for somebody else. As friendship takes on these deeper features, adolescents regard it as formed over time by “getting to know someone.” In addition, they view friends as important in relieving psychological distress, such as loneliness, sadness, and fear. Because true mutual understanding implies forgiveness, only an extreme falling out can terminate a friendship. Page Ref: 614

128)

Describe the differences between cliques and crowds, and how they develop. Answer: In early adolescence, peer groups become increasingly common and more tightly structured. They are organized into cliques, groups of about five to eight members who are friends and, therefore, usually resemble one another in family background, attitudes, values, and interests. At first, cliques are limited to same-sex members. Among girls but not boys, being in a clique predicts academic and social competence. Clique membership is more important to girls, who use it as a context for expressing emotional closeness. By midadolescence, mixed-sex cliques become common. Among Western adolescents attending high schools with complex social structures, often several cliques with similar values form a larger, more loosely organized group called a crowd. Unlike the more intimate clique, membership in a crowd is based on reputation and stereotype, granting the adolescent an identity within the larger social structure of the school. Crowds in a typical high school might include “brains” (nonathletes who enjoy academics), “jocks” (who are very involved in sports), “populars” (class leaders who are highly social and involved in activities), “partyers” (who value socializing but care little about schoolwork), “nonconformists” (who like unconventional clothing and music), “burnouts” (who cut school and get into trouble), and “normals” (average to good students who get along with most other peers). Crowd affiliations are linked to strengths in adolescents’ self-concepts, which reflect their abilities and interests. Ethnicity also plays a role. As interest in dating increases, boys’ and girls’ cliques come together. Mixed-sex cliques provide boys and girls with models for how to interact with the other sex and a chance to do so without having to be intimate. Page Ref: 623–624

129)

Describe the relationship between television violence and aggression. Answer: Reviewers of thousands of studies—using a wide variety of research designs, methods, and participants from diverse cultures—have concluded that TV violence increases the likelihood of hostile thoughts and emotions and of verbally, physically, and relationally aggressive behavior. Although young people of all ages are susceptible, preschool and young school-age children are especially likely to imitate TV violence because they believe that much TV fiction is real and accept what they see uncritically. Violent programming not only creates short-term difficulties in parent and peer relations but also has lasting negative consequences. In several longitudinal studies, time spent watching TV in childhood and early adolescence predicted aggressive behavior (including seriously violent acts) in later adolescence and adulthood, after other factors linked to TV viewing (such as prior child and parent aggression, IQ, parent education, family income, and neighborhood crime) were controlled. Aggressive children and adolescents have a greater appetite for TV and other media violence. And boys devote more time to violent media than girls, in part because of male-oriented themes of conquest and adventure and use of males as lead characters. Even in nonaggressive children, violent TV sparks hostile thoughts and behavior; its impact is simply less intense. Page Ref: 630–631

130)

Describe features of social-constructivist classrooms, including the three educational themes used in these settings. Answer: New approaches to education, grounded in Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory, capitalize on the rich social context of the classroom to spur children’s learning. In these social-constructivist classrooms, children participate in a wide range of challenging activities with teachers and peers, with whom they jointly construct understandings. As children appropriate the knowledge and strategies generated from working together, they become competent, contributing members of their classroom community and advance in cognitive and social development. Vygotsky’s emphasis on the social origins of higher cognitive processes has inspired the following educational themes:

–

Teachers

–

–

and children as partners in learning. A classroom rich in both teacher–child and child–child collaboration transfers culturally valued ways of thinking to children.

Experience with many types of symbolic communication in meaningful activities. As children master reading, writing, and mathematics, they become aware of their culture’s communication systems, reflect on their own thinking, and bring it under voluntary control. Teaching adapted to each child’s zone of proximal development. Assistance that both responds to current understandings and encourages children to take the next step helps ensure that each student will make the best progress possible.

Page Ref: 640

131)

Define educational self-fulfilling prophecies, and discuss how teacher bias affects students. Answer: Educational self-fulfilling prophecies are the effects of teachers’ positive or negative views on the level of students’ achievements. Teachers do not interact in the same way with all children. Well-behaved, highachieving students typically get more encouragement and praise, whereas unruly students have more conflicts with teachers and receive more criticism from them. Once teachers’ attitudes toward students are established, they can become more extreme than is warranted by students’ behavior. As early as first grade, teachers’ beliefs in children’s ability to learn predict students’ year-end achievement progress after controlling for students’ beginning-of-year performance. This effect is particularly strong when teachers emphasize competition and publicly compare children, regularly favoring the best students. Teacher expectations have a greater impact on low-achieving than high-achieving students. When a teacher is critical, high achievers can fall back on their history of success. Low-achieving students’ sensitivity to self-fulfilling prophecies can be beneficial when teachers believe in them. But biased teacher judgments are usually slanted in a negative direction. In one study, African-American and Hispanic elementary school

students taught by high-bias teachers (who expected them to do poorly) showed substantially lower end-of-year achievement than their counterparts taught by low-bias teachers. Page Ref: 643