Cognitive Psychology and Its Implications, 9th Edition by John Anderson TEST BANK by ACADEMIAMILL

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Chap 01_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A current successful application of cognitive psychology is its contributions to our understanding of brain disorders that reflect abnormal functioning, such as schizophrenia. a. True b. False 2. Information-processing analysis breaks a cognitive task down into a set of steps. a. True b. False 3. There is a great deal of growth of new neurons and new synapses in the adult brain. a. True b. False 4. From an information-processing point of view, the MOST important components of the nervous system are the neurons. a. True b. False 5. The terminal boutons of one neuron touch the dendrite of another. a. True b. False 6. Artificial intelligence researchers have created a program that matches human intelligence. a. True b. False 7. In the two decades between 1950 and 1970, cognitive psychology developed as a field by embracing behaviorism. a. True b. False 8. Gestalt psychologists believe that the activity of the mind is more than the sum of its parts. a. True b. False 9. Cognitive neuroscience is the study of how cognition is realized in the brain. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_9e 10. Coarse coding, an aspect of neural information processing, implies that single neurons seem to respond to only specific events. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. An axon's _____ of firing determine(s) how it will affect nearby cells to which it synapses. a. intensity b. pattern c. rate d. intensity, pattern, and rate 12. Cognitive science does NOT integrate research efforts from which field? a. physics b. linguistics c. neuroscience d. philosophy 13. The body sends more blood to more active areas of the brain. This is referred to as the: a. hemodynamic response. b. hemoglobin response. c. MRI effect. d. PET effect. 14. The claims of Gestalt psychologists, that the activity of the brain and the mind was more than the sum of its parts, conflicted with the _____ program that tried to analyze conscious thoughts into its parts. a. behaviorist b. introspectionist c. functionalist d. psychoanalytic 15. Why wasn't cognitive psychology a field of focus before the 19th century? a. Before the 19th century, most sciences remained largely undeveloped. b. It was believed that the human mind could not be scientifically studied. c. Questions about the human mind were not asked before the 19th century. d. The equipment needed to conduct research had not yet been invented.

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Chap 01_9e 16. Brodmann (1909/1960) identified _____ distinct regions of the human cortex based on differences in the cell types in various regions. a. 18 b. 25 c. 37 d. 52 17. Damage to the _____ results in amnesia. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. thalamus 18. _____ records the electrical potentials that are present on the scalp. a. EEG b. fMRI c. MRI d. PET 19. Spatial processing occurs in the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 20. Who established the first psychology laboratory? a. James b. Thorndike c. Watson d. Wundt 21. The main body of the neuron is called the: a. axon. b. dendrite. c. soma. d. synapse.

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Chap 01_9e 22. A bulge in the cortex is called a(n): a. aphasia. b. gyrus. c. sulcus. d. synapse. 23. _____ form the fixed pathways by which neurons transmit action potentials. a. Axons b. Dendrites c. Somas d. Muscles 24. The main function of _____ is thought to be supportive of the neurons. a. motor neurons b. sensory neurons c. inter-neurons d. glial cells 25. Developments in which field did NOT influence the emergence of cognitive psychology? a. artificial intelligence (AI) b. Internet technology c. information theory d. linguistics 26. Cells of the nervous system communicate by releasing chemicals called: a. dendrites. b. hormones. c. neurotransmitters. d. syno-transmitters. 27. The primary visual areas are contained in the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal

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Chap 01_9e 28. A crease passing between gyri is called a(n): a. aphasia. b. gyrus. c. sulcus. d. synapse. 29. _____ refers to reporting the contents of one's own consciousness under carefully controlled conditions. a. Behaviorism b. Gestalt psychology c. Introspection d. Relativism 30. Hemispheric specialization of the brain: a. occurs in all species. b. occurs in all primates. c. occurs only in humans. d. has been studied only in humans. 31. Higher-level processes, such as planning, are controlled by the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 32. In _____, a radioactive tracer is injected into the bloodstream. a. EEG b. fMRI c. MEG d. PET 33. Components of the neuron include the: a. axon, dendrite, and ganglia. b. axon, dendrite, and soma. c. axon, ganglia, and soma. d. dendrite, ganglia, and soma.

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Chap 01_9e 34. The _____ portion of the brain is disproportionately larger in primates than in most mammals. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 35. What term describes experimental results reported with p-values below 0.05 that are not replicated when the experiments are repeated? a. replicability rejection b. replicability mismatch c. replicability dilemma d. replicability crisis 36. Victor is a neuroscientist. The imaging technique that he is using has very good temporal resolution but isn't very useful at identifying the location in the brain that is producing neural activity. This technique is called: a. ERP. b. fMRI. c. MRI. d. PET. 37. The left hemisphere is associated with _____ processing. I. analytic II. linguistic III. perceptual IV. spatial a. II b. IV c. I and II d. II and IV 38. The hemodynamic response to a neural activity reaches a peak about: a. 4 to 5 s before the event. b. 4 to 5 s after the event. c. simultaneously with the event. d. 10 s after the event.

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Chap 01_9e 39. Transcranial magnetic stimulation is used to: a. generate the magnetic fields read by MRIs. b. permanently incapacitate an overactive brain region. c. temporarily incapacitate a normal-functioning brain region. d. reactivate a brain region that has suffered mild damage. 40. The field of cognitive neuroscience focuses on how cognition is realized in the: a. brain. b. neurons. c. glial cells. d. peripheral nervous system. 41. Nobel Prize winner, Herbert Simon, found that many of the basic cognitive processes studied in cognitive psychology are _____. a. to do with memory b. to do with linguistics c. to do with problem solving d. devoid of any biological components 42. Which of these lobes is NOT cortical? a. arterial b. frontal c. parietal d. temporal 43. The dominant approach to studying human cognition is the: a. information-processing approach. b. phonological-loop approach. c. information-stage approach. d. information-analysis approach. 44. According to _____, psychologists should NOT try to analyze the working of the mind. a. behaviorism b. empiricism c. Gestalt psychology d. nativism

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Chap 01_9e 45. The cerebellar Purkinje cell is a variety of: a. motor neurons. b. sensory neurons. c. neurons. d. glial cells. 46. Much social science has developed without grounding in cognitive psychology because: a. there was no interest in the field of cognitive psychology. b. research in this area is very cumbersome. c. the field of cognitive psychology really only began in the 1950s. d. there was a lack of research funding in this field. 47. _____ is BEST at detecting activity in the sulci of the cortex and is less sensitive to activity in the gyri or activity deep in the brain. a. EEG b. fMRI c. MEG d. PET 48. The right hemisphere is associated with _____ processing. I. analytic II. linguistic III. perceptual IV. spatial a. I b. IV c. I and III d. III and IV 49. Excitatory synapses: a. decrease the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. b. increase the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. c. do not change the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. d. can either increase or decrease the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. 50. According to _____, children come into the world with a great deal of innate knowledge. a. empiricism b. horizontality c. nativism d. relativism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_9e 51. The _____ appears to be critical for human memory. a. frontal lobe b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. prefrontal cortex 52. The text recommends the PQ4R study technique for better retention of material, where the acronym PQ4R means: a. Peruse, Question, Recognize, Retrieve, Reflect, Review b. Practice, Quiz, Recognize, Retrieve, Reflect, Review c. Preview, Question, Read, Reflect, Recite, Review d. Persevere, Quiz, Read, Reflect, Recite, Review 53. The left hemisphere and the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are connected by the: a. amygdala. b. basal ganglia. c. corpus callosum. d. medulla oblongata. 54. The _____ lobe is involved in object recognition. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 55. Jesse is a researcher working with split-brain patients. He presents a complex command to one patient in the right ear (the right-ear patient) and presents the same complex command to another patient in the left ear (the left-ear patient). Jesse finds that: a. the left-ear patient displays full comprehension, while the right-ear patient does not. b. the right-ear patient displays full comprehension, while the left-ear patient does not. c. both patients display full comprehension. d. neither patient displays full comprehension. 56. Inhibitory synapses: a. decrease the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. b. increase the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. c. do not change the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron. d. can increase or decrease the potential difference between the inside and the outside of a neuron.

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Chap 01_9e 57. According to _____, all knowledge comes from experience. a. empiricism b. nativism c. relativism d. verticality 58. A synapse is the: a. point at which an axon from one neuron touches the dendrite of another. b. point at which a dendrite from one neuron touches the dendrite of another. c. space shared by an axon from one neuron and a dendrite from another. d. space shared by a dendrite from one neuron and a dendrite from another. 59. Billy and Mac were in a car accident. Oddly, Billy suffered damage to Broca's area, while Mac suffered damage to Wernicke's area. As a result: a. Billy suffered from language deficits, while Mac suffered from visual deficits. b. Billy suffered from visual deficits, while Mac suffered from language deficits. c. both suffered from language deficits. d. both suffered from visual deficits. 60. Nick speaks in short, ungrammatical sentences. He might have _____ aphasia. a. Basal's b. Broca's c. Sternberg's d. Wernicke's 61. More research in psychology is now aimed at trying to understand: a. the function of a particular brain structure. b. the function of neurotransmitters. c. the function of hormones in determining behavior. d. the function of drugs on the brain. 62. Which structure or structures is/are involved in motor functioning? I. the basal ganglia II. the cerebellum III. the frontal lobe a. II b. I and II c. II and III d. I, II, and III

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Chap 01_9e 63. Sharon speaks in fairly grammatical sentences that are almost devoid of meaning. She might have _____ aphasia. a. Basal's b. Broca's c. Sternberg's d. Wernicke's 64. _____ relies on the fact that there is more oxygenated hemoglobin in regions of greater neural activity. a. EEG b. fMRI c. MEG d. PET 65. The ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle believed that the mind was contained in the: a. brain. b. heart. c. lungs. d. stomach. 66. What is a synapse?

67. Why did introspection fall out of favor among psychologists?

68. How does Sternberg's theory exemplify a classical abstract information-processing account?

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Chap 01_9e 69. Why has social science developed without grounding in cognitive psychology?

70. Why is the hemodynamic response to a neural activity delayed?

71. How did American introspection differ from German introspection?

72. Describe the specializations of each hemisphere of the brain.

73. Describe the functions of the four lobes of the brain.

74. Why was cognitive psychology ignored as a subject of scientific inquiry for so many years?

75. Why is the human cortex convoluted?

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Chap 01_9e 76. Differentiate between cognitive psychology and cognitive science.

77. Describe the methods used in cognitive neuroscience. In other words, how does one explore the neural basis of cognition?

78. What is a replicability crisis, and why does it happen?

79. Select and describe two brain-imaging techniques. What are the benefits of each? What are the limitations of each?

80. Where in the brain are the amygdala and hippocampus located, and what are their functions?

81. How do neurons represent information?

82. Differentiate between Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.

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Chap 01_9e 83. What are split-brain patients, and what have we learned from research on them?

84. Describe the conflict among introspectionists, behaviorists, and Gestalt psychologists.

85. Differentiate between empiricism and nativism.

86. What is the function of the spinal cord?

87. Why should scientists in other fields study cognitive psychology?

88. Describe Thorndike's view on introspection.

89. What are the practical applications of cognitive psychology? Give specific examples.

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Chap 01_9e 90. What influences account for the modern development of cognitive psychology?

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Chap 01_9e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_9e 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_9e 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. d 64. b 65. b 66. A gap separates the terminal bouton of a neuron and the dendrite of the receiving/receptor neuron and is typically in the range of 10 to 50 nanometers (nm). This near contact between axon and dendrite is called a synapse. 67. -

The German version (of introspection) was an intense process that involved having highly trained observers report the contents of their own consciousness under tightly controlled conditions, which led to controversy regarding whether or not conscious thought could be studied, since observers sometimes had a difficult time articulating their conscious experiences. - The American version (of introspection) was implemented in a relatively more casual and reflective manner— not an intense analytic process—so different laboratories would report different results of introspection. Results were highly reflective of the laboratory members' own theory, suggesting that the introspective process was somehow subjective or tainted. - The American intellectual climate was also focused on the need for an "action oriented" psychology that would have practical applications, particularly for education. It did not lend itself well to American receptivity toward intense studies of consciousness.

68. According to the textbook, there are four main ways in which Sternberg's theory exemplifies the informationprocessing approach: 1. Information processing is discussed without reference to the brain and its structures. 2. The processing of the information has a highly symbolic character. 3. The processing of information can be compared with the way in which computers process information. 4. The information processing is conceived as occurring in discrete stages (represented by a flowchart), with certain stages taking a certain amount of time. 69. Two main reasons are given in the text. The first reason is that the field of cognitive psychology is not that advanced yet. The second reason is that researchers in other areas of social science have found other explanations for phenomena they study (apart from the potential explanatory contributions of cognitive psychology). Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_9e 70. The hemodynamic response to a neural activity is delayed because it takes time for the oxygenated blood to arrive at the corresponding location in the brain. The hemodynamic response reaches a peak about 4 to 5 s after the event. Thus, the point of maximum activity reflects events that were happening about 4 to 5 s previously. 71. German introspection involved an intense analysis of the contents of the human mind. This analysis was conducted by highly trained observers reporting the contents of their own consciousness under carefully controlled conditions. American introspection differed, however, in that it was not implemented as intensely. It involved a relatively more casual and reflective process of observing one's thoughts and consciousness. As a result, various laboratories in America were reporting different results from introspection with results tending to reflect the theory of that particular laboratory. 72. In general, the left hemisphere is associated with linguistic and analytic processing, while the right hemisphere is associated with perceptual and spatial processing. 73. The occipital lobe contains the primary visual areas, and its main function is vision. The parietal lobe's functions include some perceptual functions (including spatial processing and representations of the body) and control of attention. The temporal lobe receives input from the occipital lobe, and it is involved in object recognition as well as language processing. The frontal lobe has two major functions: motor functions and higher-level processes, such as planning (these higher-level processes are localized specifically in the prefrontal cortex). 74. -

People did not believe that the human mind could be subjected to scientific analysis. - In the time of the ancient Greeks, philosophical debates would sometimes touch upon aspects of human cognition, but during this time other sciences developed, while cognitive psychology did not. - It was not until the end of the 19th century that the scientific method was utilized to study human cognition. - There were no technological or conceptual barriers to studying the mind scientifically prior to the end of the 19th century, but people were confused regarding how the human mind could possibly study itself.

75. The human cortex can be thought of as a rather thin neural sheet with a surface area of about 2,500 cm2. Its convolutions, the large amount of folding and wrinkling, allow it to fit into the skull. 76. The fields of cognitive psychology and cognitive science overlap, though they also have their differences. Cognitive psychology relies heavily on experimental techniques for studying behavior that grew out of the behaviorist era. Cognitive science makes greater use of such methods as logical analysis and the computer simulation of cognitive processes. 77. Historically: - Animal studies involving surgical removal of part of an animal's brain to observe the resulting functional deficits or measurement of neural activity in particular regions (limited generalizability to humans) - Patient populations (e.g., patients with localized brain damage, split-brain patients, etc.) More recently, new methods have developed in the study of cognitive neuroscience, primarily involving noninvasive brain-imaging techniques: - Electroencephalography (EEG—recording electrical potentials on the scalp) - Magnetoencephalography (MEG—recording magnetic fields produced by the brain's electrical activity) - Positron emission tomography (PET—measuring metabolic rate or blood flow in brain regions) - Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI—also measuring metabolic rate or blood flow in brain regions) - Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS—briefly incapacitating a region of the brain to study its function) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_9e 78. - Psychology has developed statistical standards for determining if apparent effects in average data from an experiment are likely to be found reliable if the experiment were repeated. It is common to estimate what is called a p-value, the probability that the result would be obtained by chance: a typical threshold for believing an effect is that it has a p-value of less than .05, meaning that there is a 95% chance that the effect is real. - A replicability crisis means that experimental results reported with p-values below .05 are not replicated when the experiments are repeated. - Reasons given in the textbook: It is often impossible to reproduce the exact conditions of the original experiment and the same population of participants. There is also a bias in which papers get published; experiments that fail to find effects considered not so important are not published. 79. The brain-imaging techniques described in the text include: - Electroencephalography (EEG—recording electrical potentials on the scalp) - Magnetoencephalography (MEG—recording magnetic fields produced by the brain's electrical activity) - Positron emission tomography (PET—measuring metabolic rate or blood flow in brain regions) - Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI—also measuring metabolic rate or blood flow in brain regions) - Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS—briefly incapacitating a region of the brain to study its function). Each technique also has benefits and limitations: - EEG yields good temporal resolution with event-related potentials, but it is difficult to determine the location(s) of the brain structures involved in scalp activity. - MEG provides better spatial resolution than EEG and is good at detecting activity in the sulci (creases) of the cortex, but it is less sensitive to activity in the gyri (bumps) or deep-brain activity. - PET and fMRI both provide good information about the location of neural activity but poor information about the timing of that activity. - fMRI offers better spatial resolution than PET and is less intrusive. - TMS is relatively safe and has no lasting effect, and it can help determine causal relationships between brain structures and functions. 80. The amygdala and the hippocampus are located inside the temporal lobe in each hemisphere. The amygdala is involved in emotional responses, and the hippocampus appears to be critical to human memory. Damage to these structures results in deficits of their functions. 81. Evidence suggests that individual neurons respond to specific features of a stimulus. For instance, some neurons are most active when there is a line in the visual field at a particular angle, while other neurons respond to more complex sets of features. 82. People suffering from Broca's aphasia typically have damage to Broca's area (in the left cortex of the brain). They have a form of aphasia that results in their speaking in short, ungrammatical sentences. People with Wernicke's aphasia typically have damage to Wernicke's area (also in the left cortex of the brain). They have a form of aphasia that results in their speaking in fairly grammatical sentences that are almost devoid of meaning. They usually have difficulty with vocabulary and generate "empty" speech.

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Chap 01_9e 83. Split-brain patients have undergone surgery to sever their corpus callosum (the part of the brain connecting the right and left hemispheres). This surgery is sometimes done to prevent severe epileptic seizures, for example. Research on split-brain patients has taught us a lot about the functional differences between the right and left hemispheres: - If a word was flashed on the left side of a screen that a split-brain patient was viewing, it would be received by the right, nonlanguage hemisphere. The patient would be able to pick up an object that the word described but would not be able to say the word. - The right hemisphere can only process simple linguistic commands, while the left hemisphere demonstrates full linguistic comprehension. - The right hemisphere can much more adeptly perform basic manual tasks (with the left hand) compared with the left hemisphere (with the right hand). 84. Introspectionists, behaviorists, and Gestalt psychologists had conflicts regarding how human behavior and/or cognition should be studied. Introspectionists used a method of inquiry called "introspection" that involved highly trained observers reporting the contents of their own consciousness under carefully controlled conditions. An underlying assumption of this method was that the workings of the human mind should be open to self-observation. Behaviorists strongly disagreed with this view, as they rejected introspection as a worthwhile method. To the contrary, they believed that psychology should only study external, observable behavior rather than the inner workings of the mind. Gestalt psychologists claimed that the activity of the brain and the mind was more than the sum of its parts. Thus, they were criticized by behaviorists for studying thought and consciousness at all. They also differed from introspectionists in that they sought to study the brain and mind holistically rather than analyzing the parts of conscious thought. 85. Empiricism and nativism are both philosophical positions that have potential implications for the study of human cognition. Empiricism is the view that all knowledge comes from experience. Nativism is the view that children are born into the world with a great deal of innate knowledge. 86. The main function of the spinal cord is to carry motor messages from the brain to the muscles and sensory messages from the body to the brain. 87. Reasons given in the textbook: - The basic mechanisms of human thought are important in understanding the types of behavior studied by other social sciences. - Cognitive psychology is analogous to physics, in the sense that it is foundational to the other social sciences (in the same way that physics is foundational to the physical sciences). Examples given in the textbook—Cognitive psychology is important in understanding: - Psychopathology and its treatment (clinical psychology) - How people behave with other individuals or in groups (social psychology) - How persuasion works (political science) - How people make economic decisions (economics) - How groups can be organized (sociology) - The features of language (linguistics) 88. Thorndike ignored introspection, as he believed that conscious experience "was just excess baggage that could be largely ignored." Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_9e 89. One general point from the textbook: - We could greatly improve humans' intellectual training and performance by better understanding intelligence and the acquisition of intellectual skills. Other specific examples given in the textbook: - Research regarding eyewitness testimony reliability, which led to the formation of guidelines for law enforcement personnel - The design of computer-based devices, such as modern flight management systems on modern aircraft - Advances in reading instruction and computerized mathematics instruction (education) Given these examples, many more practical examples are possible in the future. 90. Cognitive psychology developed primarily between 1950 and 1970, and the main influences identified in the textbook as contributing to its development are: - Research on human performance, which was a result of World War II - Governments' practical wartime issues—such as helping soldiers use complicated equipment and training them to attend and perform under stress - Broadbent and other psychologists of his time integrating research on human performance with new ideas from an area of study called information theory, which led to new developments in understanding perception and attention but also led to other analyses pervading all aspects of cognitive psychology

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Chap 02_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The template-matching theory of pattern recognition proposes that objects are broken down into units for analysis. a. True b. False 2. The upper part of the visual field is represented in the lower part of the visual cortex. a. True b. False 3. Ganglion cells generally fire at some spontaneous rate, even when the eyes are not receiving any light. a. True b. False 4. Livingstone and Hubel (1988) have proposed that the visual system processes different visual features (form, color, movement, and so forth) together. a. True b. False 5. Top-down processing includes such things as general world knowledge. a. True b. False 6. The right half of the right eye is connected to the right hemisphere. a. True b. False 7. Phonemes are the basic units for speech recognition. a. True b. False 8. Voicing and the place of articulation are features of morphemes. a. True b. False 9. The receptive fields of visual cortical cells are circular, much like the receptive fields of the on-off cells. a. True b. False 10. Our recognition of speech relies only on contextual information. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Nearer objects move across the retinal field faster than more distant objects due to: a. convergence. b. motion parallax. c. texture gradient. d. rotational nystagmus. 12. Some sounds are produced by closing the lips, while other sounds are produced by pressing the tongue against the teeth. These are differences in the: a. voicing effect. b. phonemic segmentation effect. c. place of articulation. d. consonantal effect. 13. The strong view of categorical perception is that people: a. can discriminate stimuli within a category only when those stimuli have salient distinguishing features. b. cannot discriminate among stimuli within a category. c. experience stimuli as coming from distinct categories. d. are very good at discriminating among stimuli both within and between categories. 14. Patients with damage to the left temporal lobe lose their ability to: a. recognize speech and speak. b. recognize speech, but they can still speak. c. speak, but they can still recognize speech. d. recognize any sounds, spoken or otherwise. 15. Which statement is NOT an example of top-down processing? a. We fail to detect a missing phoneme in a word. b. Faces are more readily recognized in a coherent context. c. An angular letter is more difficult to detect among other angular letters. d. Letters are easier to recognize in the context of words. 16. Light coming through the eye falls onto the light-sensitive layer of the eye called the: a. retina. b. ganglial layer. c. bipolar layer. d. receptive field.

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Chap 02_9e 17. The text conveyed the experience of a soldier who was not blind, but he: a. was unable to recognize visual objects. b. could not recognize or draw simple shapes. c. could not recognize or draw complex shapes. d. could draw, but not recognize, complex shapes. 18. How do template-matching models compare with human pattern recognition? a. Template-matching models are more rigid than human pattern recognition. b. Template-matching models are more flexible than human pattern recognition. c. Template-matching models are accurate compared with human pattern recognition. d. Template-matching models account for most human pattern recognition, except for complex figures. 19. The fact that each eye receives a slightly different view of the world is referred to as _____, a process that aids in _____. a. convergence; retinal focus b. stereopsis; object recognition c. convergence; detail discrimination d. stereopsis; depth perception 20. The notion of template matching in pattern recognition can be likened to: a. having stored mental blueprints against which to compare objects. b. using an internal "best example" against which to compare objects. c. checking specific features of the object against a checklist of important features. d. accessing neural cell assemblies that physically resemble the external object. 21. A person looks at an object and thinks, "The object is red, shiny, round, and has a stem. The object must be an apple." This is an example of: a. bottom-up processing. b. top-down processing. c. the FLMP model. d. context recognition. 22. Raj, a manager at a car dealership, is likely to show high activity in his _____ when he makes judgments about cars. a. entire temporal lobe b. inferior temporal lobe c. visual cortex d. fusiform gyrus

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Chap 02_9e 23. Within a phonemic category, listeners: a. can only differentiate between phonemes in the same category. b. can only differentiate between phonemes in different categories. c. can differentiate between phonemes, regardless of category. d. cannot differentiate between phonemes, unless they are embedded in words. 24. According to _____, patterns are recognized by the combination of their elemental features. a. the feature-matching theory b. feature analysis c. recognition-by-feature theory d. the prototype model 25. In addition to the retinal layer, the eye has other cells to help in processing visual information. These cells are called the: a. receptor cells and optic neurons. b. bipolar and ganglion cells. c. ganglion cells and feature detectors. d. edge detectors and bar detectors. 26. The fovea is a spot in the retina where: a. cones and rods are equally distributed for best all-around vision. b. rods are most densely packed, and night vision is best. c. rods are very densely packed to allow for color vision. d. cones are most densely packed, and fine detail vision occurs. 27. Object recognition is similar to feature analysis in that: a. the same edge and bar detectors that serve feature analysis also serve object recognition. b. the object is segmented and re-synthesized into a gestalt whole before recognition occurs. c. objects can be viewed as configurations of simpler elements. d. mental blueprints probably exist for objects at a more complex level. 28. In the cat's visual cortex, bar detectors: a. are general receptors that respond without regard to the width of the bar. b. are specific to the position of the bar but respond without regard to orientation. c. respond positively to light in the center and negatively to light at the periphery, or vice versa. d. respond only to very specific bar orientations, but without regard to width.

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Chap 02_9e 29. Categorical perception refers to the: a. use of inflexible category boundaries in visual perception. b. perception of many variations between stimuli in a category. c. perception that stimuli belong in distinct categories. d. use of flexible category boundaries in speech perception. 30. The gestalt principles of organization refer to: a. our tendency to organize objects into units according to certain rules. b. hierarchical principles of organization in neural structures. c. the way in which optic nerves are arranged to send information to the brain. d. the way in which a 3-D representation is organized from a 2-D image. 31. When Warren (1970) asked subjects to listen to a sentence in which a letter was replaced by a tone, very few subjects even knew that the letter was missing. This phenomenon is called the _____ effect. a. phoneme-restoration b. word superiority c. sentence-context d. stimulus-driven 32. Subjects are most likely to confuse consonants that vary in only one feature. This evidence supports the idea that: a. phonemes are compared with exemplars before recognition occurs. b. phoneme recognition is essentially a template-matching process. c. phonemes are recognized by their features. d. phonemes must be segmented and analyzed before recognition occurs. 33. Which gestalt principle accounts for our tendency to see groups of stars as constellations? a. closure b. proximity c. whole-part segregation d. similarity 34. The words superiority effect is an example of: a. Biederman's recognition-by-components theory. b. the template-matching theory. c. bottom-up processing. d. top-down processing.

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Chap 02_9e 35. The analysis by synthesis theory of categorical perception of speech asserts that: a. we recognize speech sounds by consciously determining how consonants are spoken. b. we recognize speech sounds in terms of the generation process. c. we recognize speech sounds automatically. d. we recognize speech sounds in terms of lip movements. 36. Recently, Mr. Kim cannot recognize his grandchildren, or even his own children, when they visit him; however, when his children begin to speak, he can recognize them. Mr. Kim might suffer from: a. prosopagnosia. b. visual neglect. c. dementia. d. apperceptive agnosia. 37. A phenomenon, known as _____, describes the vocal cords producing one sound of a word and moving forward to produce the subsequent sound(s) of that word. a. articulation b. forward articulation c. coarticulation d. connected articulation 38. Behavioral data supporting the feature-analysis model show that people: a. confuse letters that have several features in common. b. use highly salient exemplars of a class with which to compare new objects. c. use detailed mental blueprints with which to compare new instances. d. compare features present in the object with a mental checklist of important features. 39. The correct order of visual information processing is: a. photoreceptor cells -> ganglion cells -> bipolar cells -> optic nerve b. photoreceptor cells -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells -> optic nerve c. ganglion cells -> photoreceptor cells -> bipolar cells -> optic nerve d. bipolar cells -> ganglion cells -> photoreceptor cells -> optic nerve 40. Patients with _____ agnosia are generally believed to have problems with _____ processing of information in the visual system. a. apperceptive; late b. associative; late c. apperceptive; early d. associative; early

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Chap 02_9e 41. Hubel and Wiesel discovered cells in the cat's visual cortex that respond positively to light on one side of a line and negatively to light on the other side. These cells are called: a. bar receptors. b. edge detectors. c. ganglion cells. d. feature detectors. 42. Cones are to _____ as rods are to _____. a. light-sensitive vision; color acuity b. black-and-white vision; light-sensitive vision c. detail and resolution; color vision d. color vision; night vision 43. The visual system analyzes a stimulus into many independent features in specific locations called a: a. feature analyzer. b. consonantal feature. c. feature detector. d. feature map. 44. When presented in an upside-down orientation, people have an increased reaction time when recognizing: a. houses. b. geometrical shapes. c. cars. d. faces. 45. When we listen to a foreign language, the flow of speech sounds like a continuous stream. This illustrates: a. that oral speech cannot be segmented into constituent parts like a visual stimulus. b. the absence of clear boundaries or markers for spoken words. c. that the adult brain is not amenable to learning new languages. d. how the extended phrase structure determines recognition, not word segments. 46. In the primary visual cortex, the _____ part of the visual field is represented in the lower part of the visual cortex, and the _____ part is represented in the upper region. a. lower; lower b. upper; upper c. upper; lower d. lower; upper

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Chap 02_9e 47. Subjects can better discriminate between two letters when the letters are embedded in words than when the letters stand alone. This phenomenon is called the _____ effect. a. phoneme-restoration wording b. stimulus-driven c. word superiority d. phoneme-segmentation 48. According to Massaro's FLMP model: a. context is relatively more powerful than features in pattern recognition. b. features are relatively more powerful than context in pattern recognition. c. only features are necessary for pattern recognition; context is irrelevant. d. context and features combine to determine pattern recognition. 49. Compared with template matching, the feature-analysis model: a. is not as compatible with the existence of bar and edge detectors. b. reduces the number of patterns required for recognition. c. cannot distinguish relationships among features involved in pattern recognition. d. has less behavioral evidence to support the key aspects of its model. 50. Someone who suffers from associative agnosia: a. cannot recognize simple objects. b. cannot recognize, but can copy drawings of, simple objects. c. cannot recognize, but can copy drawings of, complex objects. d. cannot recognize, and cannot copy drawings of, complex objects. 51. Bottom-up processing is to _____ as top-down processing is to _____. a. context constrained; stimulus constrained b. segment determined; stimulus constrained c. context determined; component determined d. stimulus constrained; context constrained 52. To convert a 2-D retinal image to a 3-D neural representation, the visual system uses cues such as: a. ganglion, bipolar, and hypercolumn cues. b. closure, proximity, and similarity cues. c. retinal, foveal, and ganglion cues. d. stereopsis, texture gradient, and motion parallax.

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Chap 02_9e 53. Speech recognition presents a major problem because: a. there are no specialized neural feature detectors for speech as there are for vision. b. it is difficult to identify what the mental templates may be for verbal recognition. c. speech is a much more rigidly structured stimulus than is a visual stimulus. d. speech does not have the discrete boundaries that exist in printed material. 54. With regards to speech perception, the McGurk effect illustrates: a. that listeners can clearly separate an acoustic stimulus from its context. b. when listeners perceive an acoustic stimulus, they ignore the context. c. when listeners are focused on the context, they ignore the acoustic stimulus. d. listeners merge perception of an acoustic stimulus with the context cues provided by the lips. 55. The words "sip" and "zip" differ in which feature of speech? a. the consonantal feature b. coarticulation c. the place of articulation d. voicing 56. Segments of the primary visual cortex, hypercolumns, represent: a. the orientation of lines. b. color vision. c. vision for movement. d. the regions of the visual field. 57. Damage to the _____ lobe in humans can result in a deficit in which people have selective difficulties in recognizing faces. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 58. The gestalt principle of _____ accounts for objects that look alike being grouped together. a. similarity b. contrast c. proximity d. closure

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Chap 02_9e 59. The "_____" visual pathway goes to regions of the temporal cortex that are specialized for identifying objects. The "_____" visual pathway goes to parietal regions of the brain that are specialized for representing spatial information and for coordinating vision with action. a. what; which b. which; where c. where; what d. what; where 60. The basic units of speech are called: a. morphemes. b. phonologies. c. consonantal features. d. phonemes. 61. The optic chiasma is a point where the: a. bipolar cell axons from the insides of the retinas cross over and go to the opposite side of the brain. b. axons from the outsides of the retinas continue to the opposite side of the brain as the eye from which they emanate. c. optic nerves from both the eyes join to become one. d. optic nerves from both eyes meet. 62. Our tendency to perceive elements close together as a group supports the Gestalt principle of: a. closure. b. contiguity. c. proximity. d. continuation. 63. Based on the work of Kuffler, we know that when light strikes ganglion cells: a. some cells increase their rate of firing, while others decrease their rate of firing. b. they immediately turn on and fire at a steady rate. c. they immediately turn off and do not come back on for a brief period. d. most of them will decrease their rate of firing below the level of spontaneous firing. 64. Cassie cannot recognize simple shapes nor can she copy drawings. She might have: a. anosognosia. b. apperceptive agnosia. c. associative agnosia. d. autotopagnosia.

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Chap 02_9e 65. Voice-onset time refers to: a. the delay between opening of closed lips and vibration of vocal cords. b. how long one waits before responding to a question. c. the time delay before changing from a vowel to a voiced consonant. d. the difference in length between a "b" and a "p." 66. How do edge detectors differ from bar detectors?

67. What is change blindness, and when will it occur?

68. Explain how texture gradient, stereopsis, and motion parallax contribute to our visual system's ability to form a 3-D representation of the world.

69. In speech segmentation, what is meant by the segmentation problem?

70. What is the difference between the early phase of visual perception and the later phase?

71. Describe some of the gestalt principles of organization that are discussed in the text.

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Chap 02_9e 72. According to Marr, how does one arrive at a 3-D representation of the world?

73. Evaluate the role of the fusiform gyrus in object recognition.

74. Analyze the word superiority effect and its importance to the study of pattern recognition.

75. Explain the template-matching model and the feature-analysis approach to visual pattern recognition. Which does the BEST job of accounting for human behavior?

76. What distinguishes a template-matching model from a feature-analysis model?

77. Compare and contrast the strong and weak views of categorical perception.

78. Describe Massaro's FLMP model of pattern recognition.

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Chap 02_9e 79. Describe the neural pathways from the eyes to the brain.

80. Describe the evidence supporting the use of features in pattern recognition.

81. How does Massaro's FLMP model of perception account for pattern recognition? To what extent has his model been seen as successful or unsuccessful in understanding pattern recognition?

82. What is the phoneme-restoration effect, and why is it important to our understanding of the perception of speech?

83. Why might speech recognition be more difficult than recognizing printed text?

84. What are the shortcomings of template-matching models?

85. Why do computers have difficulty with CAPTCHAs, whereas humans do not?

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Chap 02_9e 86. Assess the evidence supporting the claim that the processing of faces is special.

87. Explain the role of context in speech recognition.

88. What happens when an image is kept on the exact same position of the retina?

89. What are the gestalt principles of organization? Assess how grouping elements helps determine object boundaries.

90. Differentiate between apperceptive agnosia and associative agnosia.

91. Explain what Pritchard's (1961) experiment helped us understand about how objects stabilized on the retina disappear. Why was this result considered important?

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Chap 02_9e 92. According to the text, what are three key features of phonemes that help us to distinguish them from each other? Identify and describe each feature.

93. Describe the flow of neural information in the brain after it reaches the primary visual cortex.

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Chap 02_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_9e 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. d 52. d 53. d 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_9e 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. a 59. d 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. Edge detectors respond positively to light on one side of a line and negatively to light on the other side. Bar detectors respond positively to light in the center and negatively to light at the periphery. 67. Change blindness refers to one's inability to detect changes in a complex visual scene; it occurs when some retinal disturbance (eye movement, scene cut, etc.) happens at the same time as the elements of a visual scene change. 68. -

Texture gradient: the tendency of evenly spaced elements to appear more closely packed together as the distance from the viewer increases; change in the texture gives the appearance of distance, even though the texture itself is technically rendered as flat (2-D). - Stereopsis: the ability to perceive 3-D depth since everyone's left eye and right eye perceive slightly different information; similar to 3-D glasses for watching a 3-D movie or exhibit. - Motion parallax: provides information about 3-D structure when a person and/or objects in a scene are in motion; more distant objects move across the retina more slowly than nearer objects. - (Optional): Marr (1982) proposed that texture gradient, stereopsis, and motion parallax work together to create a "2½-D sketch" that is then converted into an actual 3-D perception of the 3-D world.

69. Speech is not broken into discrete units the way that written text is; when we listen to the sound of speech, there are not actually well-defined gaps in between words, or even within a single word. The gaps that we may perceive between words, or even within a word, tend to be an illusion. Within a given word, we can identify the phonemes that comprise its speech sounds, but English as a spoken language does not have perfect letter-to-phoneme correspondence. Also, different people will pronounce words differently, which leads to further difficulty segmenting speech and identifying phonemes. 70. Early phase: Shapes and objects are extracted from the visual scene (light is processed by the lens of the eye, the retina, the optic nerve, then the brain). Later phase: Shapes and objects are recognized (e.g., through object recognition, feature analysis, face recognition).

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Chap 02_9e 71. Possible answers: - Proximity: Elements close together tend to organize into units. - Similarity: Objects that look alike tend to be grouped together. - Continuation: When there is an intersection between two or more objects, each object tends to be perceived as a single, uninterrupted object (e.g., two curving lines that intersect). - Closure: Incomplete or partially hidden figures will be perceived as complete (e.g., seeing two circles, even though one occludes another). - Good form: Elements tend to be grouped together into a pattern that is as simple, orderly, balanced, unified, coherent, regular, and so on, as possible (e.g., seeing the occluded part of a circle as a circle, even though it is hidden). 72. This process involves the following steps: - Light energy from the external environment is transformed by receptors into neural information. - Early sensory processing results in features that are extracted to yield the "primal sketch." - Depth information is combined with these features to form a representation of the location of surfaces in space (2.5-D sketch). - Then the gestalt principles of organization are applied in order to segment the elements into objects (3-D model). - The features and context are combined to create recognition of the objects. 73. The fusiform gyrus is a particular region of the temporal lobe that responds when faces are present in the visual field. Although the fusiform gyrus seems to be specially attuned for face recognition, some researchers also present evidence that it is involved in making fine-grained distinctions generally. The research implies that we are good at making fine-grained distinctions about faces because of our great familiarity with them, but similar effects can be found with other stimuli with which we have had a lot of experience. For example, people who are bird experts or car experts show high activation in the fusiform gyrus when they make judgments about birds or cars (Gauthier, Skudlarski, Gore, and Anderson, 2000). 74. -

Word superiority refers to the fact that stimulus discrimination is better in context than out of context. Study participants (Reicher, 1969; Wheeler, 1970) were 10% more accurate when recognizing a four-letter word that had been presented in context rather than recognizing a single letter that had been presented without context, even though they had to process four letters instead of one. - Word superiority is important in the study of pattern recognition because it highlights how context can be used by humans to unconsciously infer missing information; word context can be used to infer feature information.

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Chap 02_9e 75. -

Template-matching: This model proposes that a retinal image of an object is transmitted to the brain, and then the brain attempts to compare the image directly with stored templates (stored patterns); when perceiving a letter, for example, the perceptual system compares the perceived image of the letter with templates it has for each letter and then reports the template that produces the best match; this model results in varying degrees of successful and unsuccessful template matching. - Feature analysis: Stimuli are thought of as combinations of elemental features; features include straight lines, curves, intersections, redundancy, and discontinuity; for example, the letter "A" is considered in terms of a horizontal line, two diagonal lines in opposite directions, a line intersection, symmetry, and vertical discontinuity. - Feature analysis seems to most accurately account for human behavior and has a number of advantages over the template-matching model—the features are simpler, it is easier to specify important relationships among the features, and the use of features reduces the number of "templates" that need to be stored. There is also a fair amount of behavioral evidence suggesting that humans may perceive features.

76. Template-matching model: - This model proposes that a retinal image of an object is transmitted to the brain, which then compares the whole image directly with various stored patterns (templates). - The image is compared with stored templates, and then the template that gives the best match is reported. Feature-analysis model: - This model proposes that stimuli are combinations of elemental features, such as line strokes. - Since the features are simpler than templates, this model could correct for matching failures faced by the template-matching model. - Since it recognizes relationships between features, it can emphasize those relationships that are most important. - The use of features rather than templates reduces the number of stored "templates" needed. 77. Weaker view: - We experience stimuli as coming from distinct categories. Stronger view: - We cannot discriminate among stimuli within a category. - There is increased discriminability between categories (acquired distinctiveness) and decreased discriminability within categories (acquired equivalence). 78. FLMP stands for "fuzzy logical model of perception." It proposes that contextual information combines independently with stimulus information in order to inform perception.

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Chap 02_9e 79. -

Upon leaving the eyes, the optic nerves from the left and right eyes meet at the optic chiasma. - At the optic chiasma, the ganglion cell axons from the insides of the retinas (the sides nearest the nose) cross over and go to the opposite side of the brain (axons from the inside of the left eye go to the right side of the brain, and axons from the inside of the right eye go to the left side of the brain); information about the left side of the visual field goes to the right brain, and information about the right side of the visual field goes to the left brain. - The axons from the outsides of the retinas continue to the same side of the brain as the eye from which they emanate. Hence, the right halves of both eyes are connected to the right hemisphere and the left halves to the left hemisphere. - Optic nerve fibers synapse onto cells in subcortical structures, such as the lateral geniculate nucleus and superior colliculus. - Both structures are connected to the visual cortex.

80. Evidence mentioned in the textbook: - If letters have many features in common (e.g., C and G), people will tend to confuse them (Kinney, Marsetta, and Showman, 1966). - When images are stabilized on the exact same position of the retina, the stabilized image begins to disappear by having different portions drop out over time (Pritchard, 1961). It seems that whole features drop out, and the remaining stimuli tend to form complete letter or number patterns; these phenomena imply feature-extraction and feature-combination processes. 81. FLMP stands for "fuzzy logical model of perception" and proposes that contextual information combines independently with stimulus information in order to inform perception. Massaro was able to generate probabilistic predictions based on stimulus value and orthographic context, and he's considered to have done a very good job of accounting for contextual and stimulus information in pattern recognition (successful). 82. The phoneme-restoration effect refers to participants' reported audio perception of a phoneme that was actually replaced by a tone: - It was exemplified in Warren (1970), wherein 19 of 20 participants did not detect that the middle "s" in "legislatures" had been replaced by a tone when they heard the word in the context of a sentence about government. One participant could detect the tone but not identify its location. - It is important to our understanding of the perception of speech because it highlights the importance of context in speech perception. 83. Speech is not broken into discrete units the way printed text is. Apparent gaps between spoken words are often just an illusion. The actual physical speech signal often consists of undiminished sound energy at word boundaries—it's a constant stream of sound. This is more obvious when we listen to someone speaking an unfamiliar foreign language. It is our own familiarity with our language that leads us to perceive illusory word boundaries. These segmentation issues between words can also exist within a single word, making it more difficult to recognize whole words or parts of words (e.g., phonemes). 84. Template-matching models can be limited or ineffective when an image falls on the wrong part of the retina, is the wrong size, is in a wrong orientation, or is somehow unique (e.g., a nonstandard form of a letter). These can all lead to difficulty or failure in successfully "matching" an image to a stored template. Although template-matching models are used by computers to recognize patterns, there are limitations in how successfully computers can utilize these models as well. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_9e 85. Template-based computerized approaches may fail to distinguish the figures depicted in CAPTCHAs, but humans can usually read them. When CAPTCHAs are made more difficult so that sophisticated feature-based character recognition algorithms are necessary for computers to read them, humans also have a harder time reading them. 86. There are multiple pieces of evidence suggesting that the processing of faces is special: - Damage to the temporal lobe in humans can result in prosopagnosia (difficulty recognizing faces). - fMRI studies have found that the fusiform gyrus (in the temporal lobe) responds when faces are present in the visual field; also, fMRI response in the fusiform gyrus is somewhat reduced when the faces are inverted. - People are much better at recognizing faces when they are presented in their upright orientation rather than upside down, which is not necessarily the case for other objects (Yin, 1969). - Humans are much better at recognizing parts of a face (e.g., a nose) when they are presented in context, which is not necessarily the case for other objects (Tanaka and Farah, 1993). 87. Context seems to be very important in speech recognition. Examples mentioned in the text include: - Warren (1970): Participants were unable to identify and locate a tone that replaced the middle "s" in "legislatures" when listening to a sentence pertaining to government. - Warren and Warren (1970): The * in the statement "It was found that the *eel was on the…" was perceived differently by participants depending on the last word of the sentence. For example, they reported that the * word was "wheel" when the last word of the sentence was "axle," even though the * was a phoneme replaced by nonspeech. 88. Parts of the object start to disappear from perception, with different portions of the object dropping out over time; if the same position is used constantly, the retina and its neural pathways become fatigued and stop responding. 89. The gestalt principles of organization are a set of principles that describe how we organize or group visually perceived objects into units. These principles are significant because they can be accurately applied to completely novel stimuli, and they explain how the brain segments visual scenes into objects by creating boundaries. The principles explained in the textbook are: - Proximity: Elements that are close together tend to organize into units. - Similarity: Objects that look alike tend to be grouped together. - Continuation: When there is an intersection between two or more objects, each object tends to be perceived as a single, uninterrupted object (e.g., two curving lines that intersect). - Closure: Incomplete or partially hidden figures will be perceived as complete (e.g., seeing two circles, even though one occludes another). - Good form: Elements tend to be grouped together into a pattern that is as simple, orderly, balanced, unified, coherent, regular, etc., as possible (e.g., seeing the occluded part of a circle as a circle, even though it is hidden). 90. Apperceptive agnosia: - Patients are unable to recognize simple shapes or draw shapes they are shown. - It is caused by problems with early processing in the brain's visual system. Associative agnosia: - Patients are able to recognize simple shapes and copy drawings, but they are unable to recognize complex objects, even after copying drawings of them. - It is caused by problems with difficulties with pattern recognition (but probably intact early visual processing). Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_9e 91. An object does not simply fade out or disappear all at once. Parts of the object start to disappear from perception, with different portions of the object dropping out over time. This is important because specific features seem to be lost, which implies that features are the important units in perception. Also important is the fact that the stimuli that remained tended to constitute complete letter or number patterns, implying that the remaining features are combined into recognizable patterns. Thus, though features seem to be the important units in perception, it also appears that we actually perceive patterns composed from these features. 92. The three features listed in the text are: - Consonantal feature: the consonant-like quality of a phoneme (rather than vowel-like) - Voicing: the feature of a phoneme produced by vibration of the vocal cords - Place of articulation: the location at which the vocal tract is closed or constricted when producing the phoneme 93. -

From the primary visual cortex, information tends to follow two pathways, a "what" pathway and a "where" pathway. - The "what" visual pathway goes to regions of the temporal cortex that are specialized for identifying objects. - The "where" visual pathway goes to parietal regions of the brain that are specialized for representing spatial information and for coordinating vision with action. - Research has shown that monkeys with lesions in the "what" pathway have difficulty learning to identify objects, whereas monkeys with lesions in the "where" pathway have difficulty learning to identify specific locations (Pohl, 1973; Ungerleider and Brody, 1977).

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Chap 03_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Subjects can focus their attention on a few degrees of area in their visual field and move their focus of attention over their visual field to process a meaningful event. a. True b. False 2. Damage to the left parietal lobe leads to the inability to focus attention on objects, while damage to the right parietal lobe leads to the inability to focus attention on locations. a. True b. False 3. Treisman's feature-integration theory of attention was developed as an attempt to answer the binding problem. a. True b. False 4. Unilateral visual neglect occurs only in patients with damage to the right hemisphere. a. True b. False 5. The focus of visual attention is NOT always directed to the part of the visual field being processed by the fovea. a. True b. False 6. The Stroop effect shows how automatic processes can be difficult to stop from executing. a. True b. False 7. Broadbent's filter theory is BEST described as a late-selection theory. a. True b. False 8. According to feature-integration theory, a stimulus must be in the focus of attention for its features to be synthesized into a pattern. a. True b. False 9. Deutsch and Deutsch (1963) proposed a modification of Broadbent's model of attention. This modification was known as the attenuation theory. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_9e 10. An experiment where a subject is asked to listen to two simultaneous messages is called a dichotic listening task. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Processing a complex visual scene is MOST analogous to: a. ignoring an auditory signal. b. hearing a single sound. c. experiencing tactile input. d. shadowing a conversation. 12. When subjects are asked to name the color of ink in which a word is printed and the word itself is the name of a different color, subjects typically: a. are about as fast as when they name the color for a word of the same color. b. experience such conflict that their reading process breaks down immediately. c. show little interference because physical traits of stimuli override contextual traits. d. are much slower than when naming the color for a word of the same color. 13. In the study of attention, automaticity refers to the: a. forced or automatic attention that is given to certain powerful stimuli. b. performance of a skill that has been practiced repeatedly with little or no direct attention. c. automatic feature extraction that occurs because of specialized neural receptors. d. routine segmentation of complex stimuli that occurs to extract salient features. 14. Patients with right-hemisphere parietal damage were asked to copy a picture. They: a. could not copy the picture. b. could copy specific components of the picture, but not the spatial configuration. c. could copy the spatial configuration of the picture, but not the specific components. d. copied the picture successfully, unlike patients with left-hemisphere parietal damage. 15. In the MacLeod and Dunbar study of geometric shapes and colors, the authors discovered that: a. shape naming has little in common with color naming and does not respond to practice. b. with practice, shape naming becomes more automatic than color naming. c. practice improves shape naming, but it remains a controlled process. d. practice influences speed of shape naming but does not produce the Stroop effect.

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Chap 03_9e 16. Damage to the _____ lobe is likely to cause deficits in visual attention. a. sensory-motor b. frontal c. temporal d. parietal 17. While giving a patient a vision test, Dr. Smith notices the patient is not able to see any stimuli that are presented in the right half of the visual field. This disorder is MOST likely due to damage to which area of the brain? a. temporal b. frontal c. parietal d. occipital 18. You can probably carry on a conversation and drive a car at the same time because driving the car: a. has become an automatic process requiring little direct attention. b. is largely based on conditioned responses that are controlled in the lower brain centers. c. is different enough from conversing that the two do not interfere with each other. d. is almost entirely a bottom-up skill. 19. In Treisman's attenuation theory of attention, the notion is that: a. messages may be attenuated on the basis of physical properties, but semantic selection criteria apply to all messages. b. weak semantic content attenuates the strength of a message, thus leading to it being filtered out. c. weak physical traits attenuate semantic evaluation, resulting in the message being filtered out. d. messages may be attenuated on the basis of semantic traits, but physical selection criteria apply to all messages. 20. If we have looked at a particular region of space, we find it harder to return our attention to that region of space. This phenomenon is called: a. inhibition of return. b. return of cue utilization. c. object-based return. d. stimulus onset asynchrony (SOA).

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Chap 03_9e 21. When Treisman and Schmidt presented combination stimuli outside the focus of attention, they observed a phenomenon called: a. pattern segmentation. b. icon decomposition. c. iconic overwriting. d. illusory conjunction. 22. Danny is replicating the attenuation theory in the laboratory. If this theory is to be proven correct, what part of the brain should show an enhancement in processing after stimulus onset? a. anterior cingulate b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. primary auditory cortex d. parietal cortex 23. What is the term used by cognitive psychologists studying perception to describe the difficulty of how the brain puts together various features in the visual field? a. conjunction mystery b. perceptual combination riddle c. binding problem d. feature/configural conundrum 24. Which answer choice is an example of endogenous control? a. a fire alarm sounding in the hallway b. a flickering light above a sculpture c. a loud argument at the gift shop d. arrows pointing to a section of the gallery 25. The phenomenon of illusory conjunction refers to: a. reports of strong sensory illusions in complex figures. b. the tendency to report combinations of features that had not appeared together in the original display. c. a combination of sensory illusions based on distorted features in the original display. d. the impression that stimuli in the nonattended field have features in common with the attended stimuli. 26. In the clinical condition called unilateral visual neglect, patients: a. ignore information in the visual field on the same side as the brain damage. b. appear to lose significant visual detail only if there is damage to the right spatial side of the brain. c. ignore information in either visual field only if there is damage to the right spatial brain. d. ignore information in the visual field on the opposite side as the brain damage.

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Chap 03_9e 27. The task that requires subjects to name the color in which a word is printed is called the: a. Sperling paradigm. b. LaBerge task. c. Stroop task. d. Schneider task. 28. Which statement demonstrates the results of Woldorff et al.'s (1993) neuroscience study of dichotic listening? a. Activity levels are higher for brain regions associated with the unattended ear. b. Activity levels for brain regions associated with both ears are dependent on the type of stimulus presented. c. The primary auditory cortex is very active for the unattended ear, but the primary auditory cortex and the surrounding language areas are very active for the attended ear. d. Activity levels are higher for brain regions associated with the attended ear. 29. In her feature-integration theory, Treisman proposed that people: a. must segment objects into elements before they shift attention. b. must focus attention on a stimulus before they can synthesize its features into a pattern. c. use many contextual cues and top-down processing to extract salient features. d. use mostly physical cues of the stimulus to guide feature extraction for later integration. 30. Some evidence for object-based attention involves the phenomenon of: a. attenuation. b. partial report. c. inhibition of return. d. neglect of visual field. 31. In Neisser and Becklen's experiment with superimposed video scenarios, what is a likely explanation of the outcome? a. Subjects must be able to use both content and physical cues to guide their eyes to the critical detail. b. Subjects must depend largely on content and context to be able to monitor one scenario in preference to the other. c. Subjects must depend largely on physical traits of the stimuli to be able to monitor one scenario in preference to the other. d. Subjects must use a complex segmentation and cognitive resynthesis to monitor one scenario while filtering out the other.

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Chap 03_9e 32. In a study, subjects listened to two different sentences played at the same time in opposite ears. In the right ear, the subjects heard, "Jack went shopping for some fruit in the grocery store" in a woman's voice; in the left ear, the subjects heard, "Sally jumped up from her seat to get the phone call" in a man's voice. The subjects were asked to repeat what they heard in the left ear. When asked about the message in the right ear, all the subjects could remember was that the message was in a woman's voice. Therefore, researchers conclude that, although both messages were perceived, subjects were not able to attend to both messages. This is evidence: a. of a deficit in attention. b. supporting a central bottleneck. c. supporting automaticity d. of the binding problem. 33. Professor Woods projects a diagram of the brain on the screen and asks her students to label different structures within the brain with provided labels. What structure should be labeled when Dr. Woods asks the students to mark an area that processes visual information? a. anterior cingulate b. motor cortex c. extrastriate cortex d. parietal cortex 34. What is a major distinction between the filter theory and the late-selection theory? a. Filter theory assumes that selection criteria are mostly semantic, while late-selection theory assumes they are mostly physical. b. Filter theory assumes that people can readily attend to multiple meaningful messages, while lateselection theory assumes multiple messages are processed only in terms of physical traits. c. Filter theory assumes a limited channel capacity, while late-selection theory assumes that any capacity limits must come later in processing. d. None of these statements distinguishes these theories. 35. Studies of visual neglect provide evidence for: a. agnosia. b. bottleneck theories of attention. c. object-based attention. d. feature integration. 36. You are at a museum. Which answer choice is an example of exogenous control? a. a brightly colored painting against a white wall b. a description of the painting's key features c. a tour guide's description of a sculpture d. arrows pointing to a section of the gallery

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Chap 03_9e 37. The points at which it is no longer possible to continue processing all information in parallel are referred to as: a. parallel bottlenecks. b. parallel conjunctions. c. serial bottlenecks. d. serial conjunctions. 38. In studies of dichotic listening, psychologists have found that the subjects could: a. identify some semantic meaning of the message heard in the nonattended ear. b. identify only the physical characteristics of the message (speech vs. noise) heard in the nonattended ear. c. identify fairly accurately the semantic content of the message heard in the nonattended ear. d. not only identify semantic content, but also tell which language was being spoken in the nonattended ear. 39. Detecting one set of letters (B, C, F, G, H, J, K, L) in the presence of another set of letters (Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z): a. is as hard as detecting letters in the presence of numbers. b. is not affected by the number of letters in the display. c. is more accurate but takes less time compared with detecting letters in the presence of numbers. d. becomes automatic with enough practice. 40. Broadbent's filter theory assumed that: a. people use physical traits of stimuli to choose what gets through the attention bottleneck. b. attending is largely a volitional process that opens and closes gates on information flow. c. recognition of the stimulus must occur before filtering can occur. d. the attender uses mostly semantic information to decide what gets through and what does not get through. 41. Using a hands-free headset while driving is: a. similar to using a cell phone. b. similar to having a conversation with a passenger. c. safer than using a cell phone. d. safer than having a conversation with a passenger. 42. In an experiment, a subject is asked to put on headphones and repeat the message that is played in the right ear while another message plays simultaneously in the left ear. After the task is completed, the experimenter asks what played in the left ear. The subject is MOST likely able to remember: a. whether the voice was male or female. b. what the topic of the message was. c. most of the words in the message. d. the emotional tone of voice that was used. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_9e 43. Based on Treisman and Gelade's study of features and attention, we know it would be easiest for subjects to detect a T among a display of: a. Y's and I's. b. Z's and I's. c. F's and E's. d. H's and E's. 44. Which statement concerning divided-attention (e.g., shadowing) experiments is NOT true? a. Subjects use meaning as a criterion for shadowing, even when the message switches from ear to ear. b. Subjects often cannot recall anything about the content of the unattended message. c. The process of shadowing one message is automatic for most subjects. d. All the information from an attended message can be processed. 45. Imagine that you are at a party with many conversations going on around you. Your attention is "grabbed" by a conversation that includes your name. This event suggests that: a. people are not able to concentrate attention very easily when they are bombarded with stimuli. b. the meaning of a message is more important than the physical characteristics of the message. c. background noise can interfere significantly with attending processes. d. people can simultaneously process many different messages, as long as they are rich with meaning. 46. A common error in the Stroop task is reading the word itself instead of saying the color in which the word is printed. This is probably because: a. reading is a highly automated process. b. reading is a highly controlled process. c. attentional processes, being data-driven, have focused exclusively on letter features. d. the attentional system cannot decide between top-down or bottom-up processing. 47. Underwood's case study of Moray showed that: a. the task of shadowing is difficult enough that it requires continuous directed attention, even with much practice. b. only relatively simple tasks ever become truly automatic. c. even the difficult task of shadowing can become automated enough to allow resources for monitoring the unattended channel. d. Moray's ability to report details from the unattended channel depended largely on the physical characteristics of the stimulus.

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Chap 03_9e 48. When subjects were asked to look at two superimposed visual stimuli, they: a. could not filter out one of the scenarios and thus retained little information about either. b. could filter out one of the scenarios and retain most of the content of the attended to scenario. c. could filter out one of the scenarios but could not retain much content. d. tended to focus largely on context in both scenarios and ignore physical traits. 49. Neda was so immersed in her painting that she did not notice her sister coming into her room and opening her closet, putting items in it, and then sitting in a corner to read a book. What phenomenon did Neda experience? a. space-based attention b. stimulus-driven attention c. inattentional blindness d. binding problem 50. In a visual array, subjects must identify the location of the target letter O. This should be MOST difficult when the distracters are: a. C's and G's. b. C's and I's. c. G's and X's. d. I's and X's. 51. In the dichotic listening task, subjects are asked to: a. "shadow" a message in one ear while hearing another stimulus in the other ear. b. provide information on an oral message that has been segmented in an atypical way. c. accurately monitor disparate information that is coming in from both auditory channels. d. listen to two competing oral messages presented on the same soundtrack. 52. Patients with parietal lobe injury generally have difficulty disengaging attention from visual information: a. presented to the undamaged side. b. presented to the damaged side. c. only if several other lower brain areas are also damaged. d. only if other crucial higher brain centers are also damaged.

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Chap 03_9e 53. Treisman and Geffen compared the attenuation theory with the late-selection theory. They asked subjects to indicate when they heard a target word, but the word could occur either in the shadowed or unattended ear. Their results suggest that: a. the attenuation theory is supported since most subjects detected the shadowed, but not the unattended, target words. b. the late-selection theory is more accurate since subjects detected the targets equally often in both ears. c. the attenuation theory must be inaccurate since subjects detected more unattended than attended targets. d. both the attenuation and late-selection theories do an equally good job of explaining attention. 54. Research presenting simultaneous visual and auditory stimuli to subjects suggests that subjects: a. can process multiple perceptual modalities at once. b. cannot process multiple perceptual modalities at once. c. can process automatically. d. can process multiple perceptual modalities but rarely do so. 55. Professor Allan has instated a policy requiring students not to use electronic devices during class. What does experimental evidence suggest when such restrictions are instated? a. Students benefit from such restrictions. b. Such restrictions have a positive effect on student attention and note-taking in class. c. Some experiments have failed to find a benefit of such restrictions. d. Students are very restless and distracted in class when they are not allowed to use electronic devices. 56. The strong tendency for words to command processing is known as the: a. MacLeod phenomenon. b. Stroop effect. c. Sperling effect. d. Underwood process. 57. In O'Craven, Downing, and Kanwisher's (1999) study, participants viewed a series of pictures consisting of faces superimposed on houses. Which statement BEST summarizes the results of the study? a. Only the parahippocampal place area became active, regardless of the participant's focus. b. Only the fusiform face area became active, regardless of the participant's focus. c. The parahippocampal place area and the fusiform face area both always became active. d. The active region varied, depending on whether the participant attended to faces or houses.

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Chap 03_9e 58. When visual stimuli are presented off the foveal fixation point, subjects: a. are faster shifting attention to an expected point than to an unexpected point. b. are equally fast shifting attention to expected and unexpected points. c. are generally unable to shift attention fast enough to see the stimulus. d. can shift attention rapidly to an expected point, but they are very inaccurate in identifying the stimulus. 59. Damage to the prefrontal regions results in deficits of: a. executive control. b. motor control. c. motor attention. d. perceptual attention. 60. Patients with left-hemisphere parietal damage were asked to copy a picture. They: a. could not copy the picture. b. could copy specific components of the picture, but not the spatial configuration. c. could copy the spatial configuration of the picture, but not the specific components. d. copied the picture successfully, unlike patients with right-hemisphere parietal damage. 61. In a visual array, subjects must identify the location of the target letter O. This should be EASIEST when the distracters are: a. C's and G's. b. C's and I's. c. G's and X's. d. I's and X's. 62. Unilateral visual neglect is due to damage to this lobe of the brain. a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal 63. When stimuli are presented off the foveal fixation point, it becomes clear that: a. eye movement to a new fixation point occurs prior to the shift in attention. b. shifting eye fixation to a new point is an automated routine independent of attention processes. c. a shift in attention precedes and guides the eye movement to the nonfoveal region. d. shifting eye fixation is largely a volitional top-down process that has little to do with attention.

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Chap 03_9e 64. Taylor has misplaced her keys and is finding it problematic to look for them in areas she has already searched. What is this difficulty in returning her attention to already searched areas known as? a. return of space-based attention b. return of object-based attention c. return of attention d. inhibition of return 65. Patients with damage to the prefrontal regions of the brain are: a. much better at the Stroop task than individuals without this damage. b. somewhat better at the Stroop task than individuals without this damage. c. similar in Stroop task performance to individuals without this damage. d. much worse at the Stroop task than individuals without this damage. 66. What is central attention? Describe the experimental evidence that indicates when central bottlenecks occur and when they do not.

67. Describe the difference between Treisman's attenuation theory and Deutsch and Deutsch's late-selection theory.

68. What does Mangun, Hillyard, and Luck's (1993) ERP study tell us about neural activation during visual attention?

69. Explain the cocktail party analogy as it relates to the dichotic listening task.

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Chap 03_9e 70. Describe Broadbent's filter model, Treisman's attenuation model, and Deutsch and Deutsch's late-selection model of auditory attention. Summarize the neuroscience evidence that relates to these theories. What conclusion can be reached regarding the veracity of these theories?

71. What is the Stroop effect, and what does it tell us about automatic processes?

72. Describe the methods by which auditory attention is studied in the laboratory.

73. Describe the evidence that supports the feature-integration theory proposed by Treisman.

74. What is automaticity? Provide examples of tasks that may become automated with practice.

75. How are goal-directed attention and stimulus-driven attention behaviorally different? How are they neurologically different? Give two examples of each type of attention.

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Chap 03_9e 76. How does Treisman's attenuation theory account for the limitations of Broadbent's theory?

77. According to Treisman (Treisman and Gelade, 1980), how do people recognize patterns in a visual field?

78. What information have shadowing experiments provided about auditory attention?

79. What is the evidence that points to limits of parallelism?

80. What is the function of the fusiform and parahippocampal regions of the temporal cortex?

81. Compare and contrast early-selection and late-selection theories.

82. What is the binding problem?

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Chap 03_9e 83. What are some strengths and weaknesses of Broadbent's filter theory?

84. What is inattentional blindness?

85. Compare the implications of talking to a passenger while driving to talking on a cell phone while driving.

86. Explain the Stroop effect and how it pertains to automaticity.

87. Compare and contrast Broadbent's filter model and Treisman's attenuation model.

88. How is endogenous control different from exogenous control? Give one example of each.

89. Why is it difficult to pat your head while rubbing your stomach?

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Chap 03_9e 90. How does unilateral visual neglect affect attention?

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Chap 03_9e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_9e 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_9e 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. d 66. -

Central attention refers to the process by which people select which "lines of thought" to pursue after stimuli have been attended to and encoded in the visual and auditory modalities; it is the process by which people allocate attention to competing lines of thought. - One study by Byrne and Anderson (2001) required participants to perform an addition task and a multiplication task at the same time. Results revealed that it took participants much longer to do both simultaneously than the sum time of doing each task individually. They were not able to overlap the addition and multiplication tasks at all, ostensibly due to a central bottleneck. - Another study by Schumacher et al. (2001) required participants to do much simpler tasks, either individually or simultaneously (responding to seeing a single letter on a screen and hearing a tone). Participants' times to complete the tasks seemed almost unaffected by their having to do them simultaneously. They displayed almost perfect "time-sharing" and therefore seemed to not experience a central bottleneck. It also seemed to be the case that five days of practicing reduced the amount of time devoted to central cognition.

67. Treisman's theory posits that an early-selection perceptual filter attenuates an unattended message before analysis of verbal content occurs; Deutsch and Deutsch's late-selection theory posits that filtering occurs after analysis of verbal content but before selection/organization of responses. The former proposes a perceptual filter, while the latter proposes a response filter (with all messages being perceived and processed, but not necessarily reported). 68. Results were consistent with the topographical organization of the visual cortex, with each visual field represented in the opposite cerebral hemisphere; there was greatest neural activation on the side of the scalp that was opposite the side of the visual field where the object appeared. 69. The cocktail party analogy refers to how, at a party, a guest engaging in conversation will "tune in" to one message (their current conversation) and filter out others. This is similar to the dichotic listening task in that the task requires the participant to "tune in" to a message (the "attended" message) and tune out others (the "unattended" message).

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Chap 03_9e 70. -

Broadbent's filter model is an early-selection theory that proposes that an unattended message is entirely filtered out before analysis of verbal content occurs such that only the message being attended to is actually processed. This suggests that the person selects one ear to listen with on the basis of physical characteristics of the message(s), such as pitch. This seems to make neurophysiological sense in that messages heard in each ear are carried on different nerves; perhaps the brain selects which nerve to "pay attention to." However, Broadbent's theory does not account for people's ability to switch which ear they are listening to on the basis of semantic content. - Treisman's theory posits that an early-selection perceptual filter attenuates an unattended message before analysis of verbal content occurs. This theory accounts for research results indicating that, when people are attending to a meaningful message in one ear, they sometimes switch their attention to their other ear when the meaningful message switches to that other ear. They can switch their attention on the basis of semantic criteria of the message. - Deutsch and Deutsch's late-selection theory posits that a response filter filters responses after analysis of verbal content but before selection/organization of responses (with all messages being perceived and processed but not necessarily reported). They hypothesized that the capacity limitation was in the response system, not the perceptual system. Treisman and Geffen (1967) used a dichotic listening task to test the attenuation theory and Deutsch and Deutsch's late-selection theory. The results were much more consistent with Treisman's early-selection theory since participants detected a target word much more in their attended ear rather than their unattended ear.

71. The Stroop task involves having participants view words that are the names of colors (e.g., red, green, blue, yellow) but printed in a different color (e.g., the word "red" is printed in green ink). Participants are asked to say the ink color in which each word is printed, rather than saying the word itself. This relates to automaticity because reading is an automatic process and most participants are inclined to read the word itself rather than the ink color in which it is printed. The difficulty of this task indicates the automaticity of reading that has been developed through practice over time. 72. A primary method is the dichotic listening task, in which a participant wears headphones and hears a different message in each ear simultaneously; they are asked to "shadow" only one of the messages and repeat back what they heard in that ear. Researchers have been interested in how much the participant remembers about the attended message versus the unattended message, including differences with variations in meaningfulness, physical characteristics, etc., of the message. 73. Treisman and Schmidt (1982) found that participants reported illusory conjunctions (combinations of features that did not occur together) when describing objects that were in areas of the visual field other than the area of focus. This implies that an object must be focused upon in order for its features to be integrated/synthesized. 74. It refers to the way in which a task can become almost automatic after being practiced many times; it occurs when one has practiced the central cognitive component(s) of a given task so many times that the task requires little or no thought (a matter of degree). Examples given in the text: driving; auditory shadowing of messages; reading and writing; typing; many other examples possible.

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Chap 03_9e 75. They are behaviorally different in that goal-directed attention is driven by endogenous control, wherein a person will intentionally direct their attention to a stimulus, whereas stimulus-driven attention is driven by exogenous control, wherein the nature or design of the stimulus itself is redirecting a person's attention. According to neuroimaging evidence, goal-directed attention is more left lateralized, while stimulus-driven attention is more right lateralized. Examples: goal-directed attention (having someone point to a distant object and asking you to look at it; searching for a word or number in a given list); stimulus-driven attention (having your attention "grabbed" by a loud ambulance siren or a flashing light). 76. It accounts for the fact that participants can switch to the unattended message based on semantic criteria (because the unattended message was theoretically attenuated, not filtered out entirely). 77. Treisman's feature-integration theory: - People must focus their attention on a stimulus before they can synthesize its features into a pattern (e.g., a red vertical bar and then a green horizontal bar). - People must search through an array when they need to synthesize features to recognize an object (e.g., recognizing a K by perceiving one vertical line and two diagonal lines). 78. In general, shadowing experiments have revealed that people process very little information regarding the unattended message. Participants can report whether the unattended voice was human or a noise, male or female, and whether the sex of the speaker changed during the message; they cannot tell what language was spoken or remember any specific words, usually, even if one word was repeated many times. The results of shadowing experiments (e.g., the dichotic listening task) have also given rise to theories that attempt to explain these studies' results—including Broadbent's filter theory, Treisman's attenuation theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch's late-selection theory. 79. Evidence for the limitations of parallelism stems from how motor systems tend to work in the human body. The limitations of motor systems point to the fact that there are serial bottlenecks in human information processing such that it is no longer possible to continue processing everything in parallel past a certain point. Although different motor systems of the human body are capable of performing different actions simultaneously, it is very difficult for one motor system (e.g., hands) to perform different actions simultaneously (e.g., patting one's head while simultaneously rubbing one's stomach). 80. The fusiform gyrus is a region of the temporal cortex and is also known as the fusiform face area; it becomes more active when people are observing faces. The parahippocampal place area is another area within the temporal cortex that becomes more active when people are observing places. 81. Early-selection and late-selection theories are similar in that they both assume that there is some filter or bottleneck in processing; they differ in the type of filter and in the order of filtering they propose. Early-selection theories propose that there is a perceptual filter that either entirely filters out an unattended message or attenuates it prior to analysis of verbal content; late-selection theories propose that both attended and unattended messages are perceived and processed, but there is a response filter that determines which message is reported or responded to. 82. It refers to the question of how the brain puts together various features in the visual field.

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Chap 03_9e 83. Strengths include that Broadbent's theory offered an early explanation of dichotic listening task results, made neurophysiological sense, and emphasized the importance of physical characteristics of an auditory message; weaknesses include that people may attend based on other aspects of a message (e.g., meaningfulness) and that people can potentially switch which ear they're attending to based on changes in the unattended message. 84. Inattentional blindness refers to the phenomenon that we are often unaware of what is in our direct field of view if we are not paying attention to it. The frequency of such attentional failures depends on the difficulty of the task being performed at that moment. 85. According to Strayer and Drews (2007), talking on a cell phone while driving can pose more of a risk of distraction because the person on the other end of the cell phone may say something and then expect an immediate response from the driver while being unaware of the current driving conditions. Talking to a passenger in the car while driving may be relatively less distracting because the passenger will adjust the conversation to driving demands and may even point out potential dangers to the driver. Overall, however, the demands of engaging in conversation place more requirements on central cognition than tasks like listening to music or audio books. 86. The Stroop task requires participants to say the ink color in which words are printed, rather than saying the word itself; it is difficult for participants because they have developed automaticity for reading the word itself since this is what reading usually entails. 87. Similarities: Both are considered early-selection theories in that they propose that a perceptual filter affects an incoming auditory message before analysis of verbal content occurs; also, both propose that auditory messages can be attended to or not attended to based on their physical characteristics. Differences: Broadbent's filter model proposes that the unattended message is entirely filtered out and not processed at all, while Treisman's attenuation model proposes that the unattended message is attenuated and still processed somewhat; Treisman's model accounts for the fact that people can switch ears to attend to an unattended stimulus on the basis of semantic criteria, while Broadbent's model does not account for this. 88. Endogenous control is goal-directed (usually initiating within the person and their intention to direct their attention), while exogenous control is stimulus-driven (something about the stimulus "grabs" someone's attention); an example of endogenous control is looking at a stimulus in another direction that someone points out to you; an example of exogenous control is paying attention to a passing ambulance with a loud siren that demands attention. 89. Due to serial bottlenecks, it is difficult to get any one motor "system" of the human body (like the hands) to perform two actions simultaneously (like patting and rubbing); both hands will tend to do the same thing. 90. Unilateral visual neglect is an attentional disorder. In this condition, patients with damage to the parietal region in the right hemisphere completely ignore the left side of the visual field, and patients with damage to the parietal region in the left hemisphere ignore the right side of the visual field.

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Chap 04_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Evidence suggests that it is easier to process an imagined picture than a real picture. a. True b. False 2. When subjects try to discriminate between two objects on the basis of size, the time it takes for them to do so increases as the difference in size between the two objects increases. a. True b. False 3. Given a choice, people will almost always choose to process an actual picture rather than imagine it. a. True b. False 4. Verbal information and visual information are processed by different parts of the brain in different ways. a. True b. False 5. A survey map is a path that indicates specific places but contains no 2-D information. a. True b. False 6. In mental rotation tasks, the reaction time increases as the amount of rotation increases. a. True b. False 7. Shepard and Metzler (1971) demonstrated that people rotate objects equally quickly, regardless of the orientation in which the objects are presented. a. True b. False 8. For mental imagery, there is evidence that the parietal lobe supports the visual aspects and the temporal lobe supports the spatial aspects. a. True b. False 9. Spatial features are NOT a component of mental images. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_9e 10. Verbal descriptions are quite difficult to convert into cognitive maps. a. True b. False 11. The terms visual and spatial imagery can be used interchangeably. a. True b. False 12. One region of the temporal cortex responds preferentially to pictures of locations. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13. The combined results of Brook's (1968) study and Baddeley's (1976) study suggest that the interference that occurs when scanning an image while also processing spatial information is: a. a spatial conflict, not visual. b. a visual conflict, not spatial. c. due to an interaction between visual and spatial details that conflict. d. due to a conflict between feature detectors and location detectors. 14. Ahmad has been a cab driver for over 20 years in the city of London. Ahmad's brain is different from a noncab driver's brain as: a. it has more volume in the frontal lobe. b. there are more synapses in the visual cortex. c. the parietal lobe is enlarged. d. the hippocampal region has more volume. 15. Roland and Friberg's study showed that: a. the brain had elevated electrical activity across all regions whether the subject imagined a verbal jingle or a spatial route. b. neural response increased in Broca's area during the spatial-route task but increased in the occipital area during the verbal-jingle task. c. increased blood flow differed from one brain region to another depending on whether subjects imagined a verbal jingle or a spatial route. d. the brain had increased blood flow across all brain regions whether the subject imagined a verbal jingle or a spatial route.

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Chap 04_9e 16. Mental maps have a _____ structure. a. parallel b. linear c. hierarchical d. serial 17. The _____ responds preferentially to faces. a. LGN b. LLA c. PPA d. FFA 18. What part of the brain is important in supporting egocentric representations? a. the thalamus b. the hippocampus c. the parietal lobe d. the basal ganglia 19. Georgopoulos et al (1989) studied the neural activation patterns in monkeys who were required to rotate a handle the number of degrees required by a stimulus. These investigators found evidence that: a. the spatial mapping region in the monkey's brain was in a different location compared with human subjects. b. the primitive monkey brain does not have a spatial area equivalent to the human brain. c. different cells in the motor cortex tend to fire for different movements. d. the occipital cortex of the monkey has orientation but not location detectors. 20. Brooks (1968) asked subjects to point, tap, or verbalize responses to diagrams or sentences. What statement BEST explains the outcome? a. Subjects took longer to classify sentences in the verbal condition than they did to classify diagrams in the pointing condition. b. Subjects could classify sentences in the verbal condition as rapidly as they could classify diagrams in the pointing condition. c. Subjects were fastest at classifying diagrams by pointing, but their accuracy rate was low. d. Subjects took longest to classify diagrams in the pointing condition than in any other condition.

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Chap 04_9e 21. Our knowledge of our environment can be represented in either _____ maps that emphasize spatial information or _____ maps that emphasize action information. a. survey; route b. survey; contour c. contour; route d. route; survey 22. Kosslyn, DiGirolamo, Thompson, and Alpert (1998) found that imagining the rotation of one's hand produced activation in the: a. parietal region. b. temporal regions. c. sensory cortex. d. motor cortex. 23. How do physical maps differ from cognitive maps? a. Cognitive maps show the effects of orientation. b. Physical maps show the effects of orientation. c. Cognitive maps are often distorted. d. Physical maps are often distorted. 24. A map that acts like a spatial image of the environment is referred to as a _____ map. a. distorted b. Metzler c. route d. survey 25. When people judge relative locations of cities based on mental images, they tend to: a. rely on abstract facts about relative locations. b. use fairly complex and detailed mental maps. c. segment the region into subsections, with increasing detail as the subsections get smaller. d. anchor to the north/south axis first, then the east/west axis, to precisely fix locations. 26. In the Chambers and Reisberg (1985) study, subjects asked to look at reversible figures and form an interpretation were: a. able to find multiple interpretations, whether looking at the figure or imagining the figure. b. able to find more interpretations for the mental image than the physical figure. c. unable to find an alternate interpretation for the physical figure. d. unable to find a second interpretation for the mental image of the figure, but able to form a different interpretation when drawing the figure.

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Chap 04_9e 27. Which brain structure has been strongly implicated in the ability to navigate through the environment using a map? a. the thalamus b. the hippocampus c. the parietal lobe d. the basal ganglia 28. With regards to visual and spatial tasks: a. damage to the temporal lobe interferes with spatial processing, but not visual detail. b. spatial judgments and visual detail are both occipital lobe functions. c. spatial judgments are mediated by the temporal lobe, but visual detail is mediated by the occipital lobe. d. different areas of the brain appear to be involved in processing spatial information as opposed to visual information. 29. Roland and Friberg used a(n) _____ measurement technique to map brain activity with visual and verbal stimuli. a. electroencephalograph b. blood flow c. magnetic resonance imagery d. evoked response potential 30. When O'Craven and Kanwisher asked participants either to view faces and scenes or to imagine faces and scenes, what did they find? a. The same brain areas were active when the participants were viewing as when they were imagining. b. Different brain areas were active when the participants were viewing as when they were imagining. c. Brain areas in the left side were active when the participants were women. d. Brain areas in the right side were active when the participants were men. 31. When Stevens and Coupe (1978) presented congruent or incongruent maps to people and asked them to make judgments about the location of cities, they found that: a. most subjects were able to ignore regional incongruence and still report city location accurately. b. subjects tend to use larger areas to locate smaller units like cities. c. subjects were unable to correct for incongruence, and judgments broke down completely. d. people generally depend on feature-level detail rather than higher-order data in making judgments. 32. What area of Kitty's brain is stimulated as she tries to recognize the faces of her childhood friends? a. FFA b. PPA c. frontal cortex d. visual cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_9e 33. Neda is imagining how her sculpture will look from different perspectives. Neda is engaging in: a. allocentric representation. b. egocentric representation. c. mental rotation. d. mental imagery. 34. Kosslyn, DiGirolamo, Thompson, and Alpert (1998) found that imagining the rotation of one's hand produced activation in the: a. somatosensory cortex. b. motor cortex. c. hippocampus. d. frontal cortex. 35. Research on mental rotation and scanning seems to suggest that: a. mental imagery may appear subjectively real to the person, but the processes bear little relationship to the physical events. b. the brain is furnished with very powerful specialized neurons that can rotate objects just as one would physically rotate them. c. the mental processes people go through in such tasks seem to be analogous to the physical process of rotating or scanning. d. scanning functions are very tightly localized in just one area of the brain. 36. Which question would subjects take the SHORTEST time to answer? a. Which is larger, a cat or a mouse? b. Which is larger, a worm or a centipede? c. Which is larger, a deer or a bear? d. Which is larger, a sparrow or an ostrich? 37. When asked to estimate the size of two animals, subjects generally: a. took longer to estimate size when the difference was small. b. took longer to estimate size as the difference increased. c. were very inaccurate in estimating as the absolute size of the animals decreased. d. were unable to estimate size accurately as the difference increased. 38. When subjects were asked to judge which of two animals was larger, Moyer (1973) found that subjects were influenced by: a. differences in animal type. b. differences in animal size. c. familiarity with the animals. d. degree of attachment to animals. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_9e 39. What part of the brain is important in supporting allocentric representations? a. the thalamus b. the hippocampus c. the parietal lobe d. the basal ganglia 40. Little Tommy Jones tries to give Mr. Smith directions to the grocery store over the phone. Mr. Smith is not able to understand the directions because Tommy explained how to get to the store from his house instead of from Mr. Smith's house. This is an example of: a. allocentric representation. b. a spatial deficit. c. egocentric representation. d. a map distortion. 41. With regard to navigation, cognitive psychologists differentiate between representing space as we see it (_____ representation) and representing space free of any particular viewpoint (_____ representation). a. subjective; objective b. 2-D; 3-D c. egocentric; allocentric d. viewer-specific; viewer-independent 42. Which question would subjects take the LONGEST time to answer? a. Which is larger, a cat or a mouse? b. Which is larger, a worm or a centipede? c. Which is larger, a deer or a bear? d. Which is larger, a sparrow or an ostrich? 43. In their study of a person with bilateral inferior temporal damage, Levine, Warach, and Farah (1985) provided evidence that: a. the temporal lobe seems to mediate imagery tasks that require access to visual detail and not those that require spatial judgments. b. visual and spatial processing both occur in the temporal lobe. c. the temporal lobe mediates spatial judgment tasks, but not visual detail tasks. d. the temporal lobe remains the primary auditory processing system with no involvement in spatial or visual tasks.

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Chap 04_9e 44. It is clear from Roland and Friberg's study that: a. verbal information is processed in a brain region that is distinct from the region where visual information is processed. b. the brain processes visual and verbal information in the same region of the brain. c. cognitive functions are highly localized, if not compartmentalized. d. cognitive processes are widely distributed across global neural calculational arrays. 45. Research on mental imagery suggests that there is/are: a. just one type of mental imagery tied to the visual modality. b. two types of mental imagery, one that preserves visual detail and one not tied to the visual modality. c. one type of mental imagery that encodes spatial information and is not tied to the visual modality. d. two types of mental imagery, one tied to the visual modality and one to the verbal. 46. Which piece of evidence has NOT been used to infer that visual images are similar to visual perception? a. Rotation of mental images takes about the same time as rotation of the real object. b. Subjects can imagine transformations of images as though they are composite images. c. Imaging studies show that perceptual regions of the brain are active when participants engage in mental imagery and establish that these regions are actually critical to imagery. d. Different parts of the brain appear to be involved in processing visual images and spatial information. 47. What evidence supports the notion that, in mental rotation tasks, subjects rotate one object until it is congruent with the other? a. Subjects are much faster when they rotate simple letters than when they rotate complex figures. b. There is little difference between rotating objects in the picture plane versus the depth plane. c. Subjects find it hard to recognize that one object is larger than the other. d. Judgment time is a linear function of the number of degrees of rotation required to complete the rotation. 48. In their study of a person with bilateral parietal-occipital damage, Levine, Warach, and Farah (1985) provided evidence that: a. the parietal lobe seems to mediate imagery tasks that require access to visual detail and not those that require spatial judgments. b. visual and spatial processing both occur in the parietal lobe. c. the parietal lobe mediates spatial-judgment tasks, but not visual-detail tasks. d. the parietal lobe remains the primary auditory processing system with no involvement in spatial or visual tasks.

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Chap 04_9e 49. Ben is invited to a picnic at one of his favorite parks. What part of his brain is activated as he imagines the location of the upcoming picnic? a. FFA b. PPA c. frontal cortex d. visual cortex 50. A subject participates in a study in which he has to first identify the object and then mentally rotate the object 180 degrees. The subject is unable to correctly rotate the object 180 degrees. This subject probably has damage to the _____ region of the brain. a. parietal b. temporal c. frontal d. occipital 51. In the Shepard and Metzler's task, subjects are asked to: a. mentally rotate the hands on a clock to the same degree of angle as a standard clock. b. mentally compare the size of a rabbit to a fly. c. mentally rotate two-dimensional test cubes to decide if they were the same as 3-D cubes. d. rehearse and then imagine they were reciting a verbal jingle. 52. The imaginal representations that we have of our world are often referred to as: a. mental images. b. cognitive maps. c. survey maps. d. All of these answers are correct. 53. Amy has to choose between processing a real picture or imagining it. What will Amy MOST likely prefer to do? a. view an actual picture b. imagine the picture c. she has no preference d. imagine the picture in half its size 54. A mental experience that does NOT have any functional role in information processing is referred to as a(n): a. epiphenomenon. b. distortion. c. image. d. Ponzo illusion.

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Chap 04_9e 55. Philosopher Daniel Dennett (1969) argued that mental images are: a. real perceptual experiences. b. functional. c. epiphenomenal. d. allocentric. 56. A path that indicates specific places but contains no spatial information is called a _____ map. a. distorted b. Metzler c. route d. survey 57. Comparing very similar mental images takes longer than comparing very different mental images. This phenomenon suggests that: a. feature detectors produce conflicting signals for similar images, leading to confusion and longer reaction times. b. large differences provide much more detail to guide the comparison process, thus reducing reaction time. c. mental comparison processes cause discrimination problems similar to those encountered when making perceptual discriminations. d. small differences are feature-poor and require that the person make more inferences before reacting. 58. Kozhevnikov, Blazhenkova, and Becker (2010) found that students specializing in the visual arts tend to score _____ on object visualization and _____ on spatial visualization. a. high; high b. low; low c. high; low d. low; high 59. Mental images are: a. neural cells activated in a spatial pattern that literally recreate external scenes in the head. b. patterned responses in the brain's feature detectors that result in illusory content. c. produced by segmenting scenes into geons that coincide with key object features. d. the mind's representation of external scenes or objects that makes it seem as though one is seeing the object being envisioned.

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Chap 04_9e 60. In Santa's study of verbal and visual processing, the results revealed that subjects were faster to verify: a. linear ordering for both words and geometric figures. b. linear ordering for words and spatial configuration for geometric figures. c. spatial configuration for words and linear ordering for geometric figures. d. spatial configuration for both words and geometric figures. 61. The hippocampal region of the brain is: a. inside the frontal lobe. b. inside the parietal lobe. c. inside the temporal lobe. d. inside the occipital lobe. 62. Santa presented an array of three geometric objects and then tested subjects with either the same configuration or a linear rearrangement of the objects. The results showed that: a. subjects were faster when the test array preserved the original spatial information. b. subjects were faster when the test array was presented in linear form. c. there was no difference between the spatial and the linear presentations. d. subjects were more accurate in the linear configuration but faster in the spatial configuration. 63. Santa presented an array of three words arranged in a spatial configuration and then tested subjects with either a spatial configuration or a linear arrangement of the words. The results showed that: a. subjects were faster when the spatial arrangement of the words was preserved. b. subjects were more accurate in the linear configuration but faster in the spatial arrangement. c. subjects were faster when the arrangement of words was linear. d. there were no differences between the spatial and the linear presentations. 64. Route maps are to _____ as survey maps are to _____. a. action plans; visual images b. visual images; action plans c. 2-D representations; 3-D representations d. 3-D representations; 2-D representations 65. In an experiment, subjects were asked to remember a map and then judge which of two cities was farther north or which of two cities was farther east. Which detail would probably affect the time it takes the subjects to make these judgments? a. whether the city is on a river b. whether the subject's location is more north/south versus east/west c. whether there is a state border between the two cities d. whether the map is bordered

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Chap 04_9e 66. Kozhevnikov, Blazhenkova, and Becker (2010) found that students specializing in science tend to score _____ on object visualization and _____ on spatial visualization. a. high; high b. low; low c. high; low d. low; high 67. Roland and Friberg found that engaging in a verbal-jingle task will activate brain regions near _____ area. a. Broca's b. Dennett's c. Posner's d. Wundt's 68. What regions of the brain are implicated when cognitive maps are being used?

69. What do studies of visual comparison of magnitudes imply about the similarity between visual perception and visual imagery? Include the work of Johnson (1939) and Moyer (1973) in your response.

70. What have brain-imaging studies revealed about visual imagery and brain areas?

71. What brain regions are involved in visual imagery and visual perception?

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Chap 04_9e 72. What has research with monkeys taught us about mental rotation?

73. Your path from location A to location B is blocked. What will happen if you are using a route map? What will happen if you are using a survey map?

74. Describe the study by Stevens and Coupe (1978). What does this study teach us about mental imagery?

75. What is the relationship between spatial ability and success in learning STEM disciplines?

76. What is the relationship between an individual's vivid experience of visual imagery of a task and performance on the actual task?

77. What evidence suggests that it is more difficult to process an image than a real perception?

78. Why are mental maps sometimes distorted?

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Chap 04_9e 79. What is a route map? What is a survey map?

80. What conclusions can be drawn from Brook's research on visual scanning?

81. What regions of the brain are activated during mental imagery?

82. What conclusions can be drawn from Moyer's research on visual comparison of magnitudes?

83. How do physical maps differ from cognitive maps?

84. Describe the evidence that suggests visual images are like visual perception.

85. Describe the evidence that links the hippocampus to humans' ability to navigate through their world.

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Chap 04_9e 86. How are visual perceptions different from visual images? Include the study of Chambers and Reisberg (1985) in your response.

87. What is mental rotation? Describe the seminal work on mental rotation. How does mental rotation relate to the larger topic of mental imagery?

88. Why did London taxi drivers lobby against Uber drivers regaining their license to operate in London?

89. According to Santa's research, how are verbal processing and visual processing different?

90. What is the relationship between mental rotation and reaction time?

91. What does the acronym STEM stand for?

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Chap 04_9e 92. Discuss the two components of imagery studied by Farah and colleagues. Based on neuropsychological research, which brain area seems to support each component?

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Chap 04_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. a 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_9e 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_9e 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. In the way-finding task, research participants show greater activation in the parietal cortex and the hippocampus, a region that has been implicated in navigation in many species. In contrast, in the route-following task research participants show greater activation in more anterior regions and motor regions. It would seem that the survey map is more like a visual image and the route map is more like an action plan. This is a distinction that is supported in other fMRI studies of route maps versus survey maps. 69. -

In Moyer (1973), participants were asked to discriminate between two animals on the basis of size. The time it took them to do so decreased as the difference in size between the two objects increased. In other words, the greater the difference in size between the animals, the more quickly participants were able to respond with their judgments. This result seems analogous to visual perceptions in that it is harder to make judgments about the relative size of perceived objects that are closer in physical size. - In a study by Johnson (1939), participants were asked to judge which of two simultaneously perceived lines was longer. Analogous to the results found in Moyer's (1973) study, there was a linear relationship between the participants' judgment time and the difference in line length. Similarly, this makes sense: It is reasonable to assume that more similar lengths will be more difficult to distinguish between (thus, taking more time) compared with more distinct lengths. - Considering these two studies together, it would seem that similar functions are obtained when mental objects or physical objects are compared; this implies that making mental comparisons involves the same processes as those involved in perceptual comparisons.

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Chap 04_9e 70. A number of studies provide neuropsychological evidence about imagery, indicating that the same brain regions are involved in perception as in mental imagery: - O'Craven and Kanwisher (2000) asked participants either to view faces and scenes or to imagine faces and scenes. The same areas were active when the participants were seeing as when they were imagining. Every time the participants viewed or imagined a face, there was increased activation in the FFA, and this activation went away when they viewed or imagined a scene. Conversely, when they viewed or imagined scenes, there was activation in the PPA that went away when they processed faces. The responses during imagery were very similar to the responses during perception, although a little weaker. - However, activation has not always been found in the primary visual cortex. Research results regarding activation in early visual areas has been mixed. Kosslyn and Thompson (2003) reviewed 59 brain-imaging studies that looked for activation in early visual areas. About half of these studies find activation in early visual areas and half do not. Their analysis suggests that the studies that find activation in these early visual areas tend to emphasize high-resolution details of the images and tend to focus on shape judgments. - When transcranial magnetic stimulation is applied to participants while they are performing a task related to a mental image, they take significantly longer to answer questions related to the mental image (Kosslyn et al., 1999). This implies that these visual regions do play a causal role in mental imagery since temporarily deactivating them results in impaired information processing. 71. In O'Craven and Kanwisher's (2000) study of brain activation during mental imagery, participants alternately perceived (or imagined) faces and places, and brain activation was correspondingly seen in the fusiform face area (FFA) or the parahippocampal place area (PPA). These results show that visual images are processed in the same way as actual perceptions and by many of the same neural structures. 72. Georgopoulos, Lurito, Petrides, Schwartz, and Massey (1989) studied monkeys' neural representation during mental rotation involving hand movements. They found that, when monkeys completed the mental rotation task involving motor response, there were gradual shifts in firing of different cells—from cells that encoded the initial stimulus to cells that encoded the final response. 73. With a route map, you would only be given specific turn-by-turn directions, so you would have no idea where location B is located, and you would be unable to construct a detour. With a survey map, you would have a spatial image of the environment, so you would be able to see an alternative path from location A to location B if your original path was blocked. 74. Mental maps are sometimes distorted because we organize them according to a hierarchical structure, with smaller regions located inside larger regions. This is why, for example, people often make errors when consulting a mental map to answer questions about North American geography. Stevens and Coupe (1978) were able to demonstrate such confusions with experimenter-created maps. Different groups of participants learned the maps, and afterward they were asked a series of questions about the locations of cities on the maps. Participants were using information about the locations of the counties to help them remember the city locations, and their reliance on higher-order information led them to make errors, just as similar reasoning can lead to errors in answering questions about North American geography.

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Chap 04_9e 75. Spatial training programs, such as training on drawing engineering designs can have a large impact on measures of spatial skills. Uttal et al (2013). suggest that systematic training might increase success and broaden participation in STEM fields. However, they note the possibility that training-related improvements in spatial skills would not be accompanied by improvements in STEM performance. A recent study (Sorby, Veurink, and Streiner, 2018) found that training in spatial skills correlated with improved grades of first-year engineering students with weak spatial skills (the improvement averaged about half a grade point on a 4.0 GPA scale). 76. Suggested Answer: Research shows that there does not seem to be a positive relationship between performance on tests of spatial ability and vividness of visual imagery. Kozhevnikov, Kosslyn, and Shephard (2005) showed participants who score high on vividness of visual imagery actually do worse at this task than those who report less vivid imagery. 77. In a study by Chambers and Reisberg (1985), participants were asked to look briefly at a reversible figure, but they were only given enough time to form one interpretation of the figure before it was removed. Participants were then asked to try to find a second interpretation, but they were not able to do so. When they drew the image, however, they were able to reinterpret it. This suggests that mental images may be more difficult to process than real perceptions. 78. Mental maps are sometimes distorted because we organize them according to a hierarchical structure, with smaller regions located inside larger regions. This is why, for example, people often make errors when consulting a mental map to answer questions about North American geography. 79. A route map provides turn-by-turn directions describing how to get from one location to another. A survey map provides a spatial image of the environment, like a visual map. 80. Participants took much longer to respond to diagrams when responding via pointing, rather than saying yes/no or tapping their right/left hand. This was not the case when participants were instead working with sentences, indicating that there is a spatial conflict because scanning a physical visual array conflicted with scanning a mental array. This result strongly reinforces the conclusion that, when people are scanning a mental array, they are scanning a representation that is analogous to a physical picture. 81. Roland and Friberg's (1985) study of brain activation patterns during mental imagery revealed that regions of the left cortex showed increased blood flow when participants imagined a jingle (verbal imagery) or a route (visual imagery). 82. When people were asked to discriminate between two animals on the basis of size, the time it took them to do so decreased as the difference in size between the two objects increased. 83. Physical maps show the effects of orientation, and cognitive maps do not. For example, imagine yourself standing against various walls of your bedroom and pointing to the location of the front door of your home or apartment. Most people can do this equally well no matter which position they take. In contrast, when people are given a physical map—like an allocentric representation—they find it much easier to point to various objects on the map if they are oriented in the same way the map is.

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Chap 04_9e 84. In a study by Finke, Pinker, and Farah (1989), participants were asked to create mental images and then engage in a series of transformations to those mental images. The results indicated that participants were able to recognize their transformed images, just as if they had been presented to them on a screen, indicating that mental imagery allows us to construct new objects in our minds and inspect them—similar to how we can inspect and transform objects we perceive visually. 85. -

Brain-imaging studies show high activation in the hippocampus when people are navigating their environment (Maguire et al., 1998). - In a study by Maguire et al. (2000), the hippocampal volume of London taxi drivers was greater than that of people who didn't drive taxis; the longer they had been taxi drivers, the greater their hippocampal volume. - The amount of activation in hippocampal structures has also been shown to correlate with age-related differences in navigation skills (Pine et al., 2002) and may relate to gender differences in navigational ability (Gron, Wunderlich, Spitzer, Tomczak, and Riepe, 2000).

86. In a study by Chambers and Reisberg (1985), participants were asked to look briefly at a reversible figure, but they were only given enough time to form one interpretation of the figure before it was removed. Participants were then asked to try to find a second interpretation, but they were not able to do so. When they drew the image, however, they were able to reinterpret it. This result suggests that mental images differ from pictures in that one can interpret visual images only in one way, and it is not possible to find an alternative interpretation of the image. This suggests that mental images may be more difficult to process than real perceptions. 87. Mental rotation refers to the mind's ability to mentally rotate visual imagery. Shepard and Metzler (1971) found that there was a linear relationship between mental rotation and reaction time. When they asked participants to determine whether two objects were identical, except for orientation, participants mentally rotated one of the objects in each pair until it was congruent with the other object. Reaction time increased incrementally as the amount of rotation increased (thus, there was a linear relationship). A great deal of subsequent research has examined the mental rotation of many different objects, typically finding that the time required to complete a rotation varies with the angle of disparity. The study of mental rotation relates to the larger topic of mental imagery in that the results of this research shed light on how similar (or dissimilar) mental imagery and mental transformations are when considered analogous to physical objects and their physical transformation. The greater the angle of disparity between the two objects, the longer participants took to complete the mental rotation. Although the participants were obviously not actually rotating a real object in their heads, the mental process appears to be analogous to physical rotation. 88. In 2018, Uber regained its license to operate in London. Traditional cabbies had lobbied against this decision, arguing that they have better knowledge of the streets of London than what GPS systems provide Uber drivers (German, 2018).

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Chap 04_9e 89. In Santa's (1977) experiment, participants studied an array with either three geometric shapes on it or three words on it. The array was then removed, and participants had to hold its information in memory. They were then shown one of several test arrays and asked whether it contained the same shapes or the same words (even if in a different order). For the geometric array condition, participants responded the most quickly when the shapes were in the same spatial configuration as the original array; for the verbal condition, participants responded quickest when the words were in a linear configuration (different from the original array). This implies that verbal and visual information are processed differently. This makes sense, given that we are accustomed to processing verbal information in a linear configuration (but this is not necessarily how we are accustomed to processing visual information). 90. Shepard and Metzler (1971) found that there was a linear relationship between mental rotation and reaction time. When they asked participants to determine whether two objects were identical except for orientation, participants mentally rotated one of the objects in each pair until it was congruent with the other object. Reaction time increased incrementally as the amount of rotation increased (thus, there was a linear relationship). 91. STEM signifies the disciplines of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics. 92. The two components of imagery studied by Farah and colleagues were spatial and visual components. Spatial components are similar to the "where" of objects (e.g., their position in space), while visual components are similar to the "what" of objects (e.g., identifying an object's color or other specific characteristics). Their neuropsychological research with patients suffering from brain damage found that a patient with parietal damage could not describe locations of familiar objects from memory, but he could describe the appearance of objects; a patient with temporal damage had an impaired ability to describe the appearance of objects but could not describe their locations. Overall, neuropsychological evidence seems to indicate that imagery of spatial information is supported by parietal structures and that imagery of objects and their visual properties is supported by temporal structures.

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Chap 05_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Mirror neurons are active only when an animal sees another animal perform a task. a. True b. False 2. After processing a linguistic message, people normally remember its exact wording. a. True b. False 3. Schemas represent concepts in terms of supersets, parts, and other slot-value pairs. a. True b. False 4. A proposition is the smallest unit one can meaningfully judge as true or false. a. True b. False 5. According to the amodal symbol system, all information is represented in terms that are specific to a particular perceptual modality. a. True b. False 6. Carey (1985) has demonstrated that children come to learn that all members of a biological category have the same parts and that all members of an artifact category have the same function. a. True b. False 7. According to the prototype theories, we store only specific instances, with the more general inferences emerging from these instances. a. True b. False 8. People do not remember details of a picture because they do not pay attention to details that are not important. a. True b. False 9. In Kintsch's (1974) propositional representation, each proposition is represented as a list containing a relation followed by an ordered list of schemas. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_9e 10. Posterior regions of the brain are associated with representing concepts. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. For Quillian (1966), all subordinate items in categories are linked to superordinate category headings by: a. isa links. b. categorical links. c. membership links. d. schematic links. 12. Which statement is a distinction between propositions and schemas? a. Propositions are linearly structured; schemas are hierarchically structured. b. Propositions encode abstract meaning; schemas encode visual detail. c. Propositions encode precise assertions; schemas encode general features of objects and events. d. Propositions are readily forgotten; schemas are retained indefinitely. 13. Converting the syllable DAX to Dad is an example of: a. the keyword method of learning. b. perception ignoring detail. c. bottom-up processing. d. attaching meaning to information. 14. _____ emphasizes the contribution of motor action and how it connects us to the environment. a. Amodal symbol hypothesis b. Embodied cognition c. Motor theory d. Perceptual symbol hypothesis 15. A subject is shown a photograph of several different fruits. After the photograph is removed, the subject is asked to recall the fruits in the picture. Which fruit will the subject be LEAST likely to recall? a. the apple b. the mango c. the tomato d. the kiwi

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Chap 05_9e 16. Which statement is FALSE? a. People have good memory for propositions, but not for combinations of propositions. b. People recall the meaning of primitive propositions, but not the exact wording. c. People are very good at distinguishing sentences that can be composed of propositions heard earlier. d. People are fairly accurate in detecting sentences that cannot be constructed from propositions heard earlier. 17. When Shepard compared subjects' memory for sentences versus memory for pictures, he found that the subjects: a. had a higher rate of errors in the picture condition than in the sentence condition. b. had the same number of errors in the picture condition as in the sentence condition. c. were able to remember not only the gist of the pictures, but the verbatim record of the sentences. d. had a higher rate of errors in the sentence condition than in the picture condition. 18. Which statement is NOT true of propositions? a. A proposition preserves the detail of linguistic information. b. Propositions provide an analytic tool for understanding meaningful information. c. Propositions represent meaningful structures in language. d. A proposition is the smallest unit of knowledge that can stand as a separate assertion. 19. In Wanner's study of warned subjects versus unwarned subjects, the: a. warned subjects retained significantly better memory for meaning but were actually worse on style compared with the unwarned subjects. b. unwarned subjects could recall style changes, but not meaning changes. c. subjects had similar recall for meaning, whether they had been warned or not. d. warned subjects retained significantly more meaning than did the unwarned subjects. 20. Which type of memory structure was hypothesized in Barsalou's (1999) article? a. perceptual symbol system b. auxiliary working memory c. consolidated long-term memory d. elaborative sensory register 21. Exemplar theories hold that we store: a. a general representation of a category and judge instances by degree of similarity. b. several different instances of a category but abstract a general model for comparison purposes. c. a general representation of a category, but when it comes time to judge, we generate specific instances for comparison. d. a number of different instances of a category and judge new instances by degree of similarity.

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Chap 05_9e 22. Barsalou (1999) refers to all propositional representations as _____. This term is meant to denote the fact that all elements of representation are inherently nonperceptual. a. aperceptual symbol assemblages b. sensory agnostic networks c. amodal symbol systems d. higher-level information routines 23. We can expect the ______ to be activated when individuals are presented with categorical (conceptual) information. a. prefrontal cortex b. temporal cortex c. parietal regions d. occipital regions 24. Which statement is NOT true about verifying facts (e.g., robins have skin)? a. The more frequently a fact is encountered about robin, the more quickly it will be verified. b. It is easier to verify this general fact than a specific fact, such as robins eat worms. c. If the fact is not directly stored with robin, it will take longer to verify. d. If the fact is frequently encountered about robin, it will be directly stored with robin. 25. Suppose you were shown a picture from the scene of an accident you had witnessed several days earlier. Your memory for the scene would probably: a. be highly accurate for meaning, as well as for minute detail. b. sense immediately that the picture was reversed, even if the gist of events was fuzzy. c. be inaccurate for both minute detail and meaning. d. preserve the general meaning of the scene but miss the fact that the picture was in reverse orientation. 26. According to the text, patients with damage to their temporal lobe suffer deficits in their knowledge about: a. biological categories, such as animals, fruits, and vegetables. b. mnemonic strategies. c. schematic representations. d. natural categories, such as colors and shapes. 27. Suppose that after either a short or long delay, you were shown two sentences that differed in form but had the same meaning as a sentence you had seen earlier. Most likely, you would: a. recall the correct form regardless of the length of delay. b. not recall the correct form, even after a very short delay. c. not recall the correct form after a long delay. d. not recall the correct form, regardless of the length of delay.

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Chap 05_9e 28. Which statement is NOT true of semantic networks? a. All properties relevant to a concept are stored directly at that concept's node. b. Facts that are true of higher-level categories are also true of lower-level categories. c. Recalling properties of a concept generally takes longer the more links one has to go through to get to the property. d. Facts that are encountered frequently with a concept are stored directly with that concept. 29. Hauk, Johnsrude, and Pulvermiller (2004) found that listening to the verbs lick and kick results in the activation of the: a. amygdala. b. hypothalamus. c. motor cortex. d. thalamus. 30. In the Brewer and Treyens' office study, most subjects recalled seeing: a. a skull that was present in the office. b. a skull that was not present in the office. c. books that were present in the office. d. books that were not present in the office. 31. Wanner warned some subjects, but not others, that they would have to recall a set of instructions. The results of the study showed that: a. warned subjects retained a nearly verbatim copy of the instructions, while unwarned subjects had very poor memory. b. unwarned subjects could not retain either the detail or the gist of the instructions. c. memory is better for changes in wording that affect meaning than for changes that affect style. d. memory for changes in wording is equally good, whether the changes affect meaning or style. 32. Mandler and Johnson (1976) used pictures of scenes (such as classroom scenes) to study picture memory. They found that subjects rejected changes in: a. token distracters more often than type distracters, demonstrating that detail was more important than meaning. b. type distracters more often than token distracters, demonstrating that detail was more important than meaning. c. type distracters more often than token distracters, demonstrating that meaning was more important than detail. d. both token distracters and type distracters, demonstrating that detail and meaning were equally important.

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Chap 05_9e 33. In comparing memory for pictures with memory for sentences, we can say that subjects remember the: a. gist of a picture, but not the minute details of a sentence. b. gist of a sentence, but not the minute details of a picture. c. gist, but not the minute details, of both pictures and sentences. d. minute details, but not the gist, of both pictures and sentences. 34. What type of information was shown to aid individuals' memory performance for droodles stimuli in the Bower, Karlin, and Dueck's (1975) study? a. meaning b. acoustic information c. physical variables d. semantically related information 35. Methods to assist or improve memory are called: a. propositional networks. b. mnemonic techniques. c. encoding analogs. d. decoding strategies. 36. Imagine that you serve as a consultant to a firm marketing a new daily-use product. The manager argues that a picture is worth a thousand words, so the instructions should be in picture form. Your advice to the manager would be: a. to proceed since people tend to have high recall for the physical detail of pictures. b. to revert to completely written instructions since recall of meaning is significantly higher in written than in pictorial form. c. to use exclusively pictorial representation since people do not recall much of either form or meaning from written instructions. d. that people will only remember the gist of the picture just as they only remember the gist of verbal instructions. 37. What regions of Andy's brain are activated as Andy processes verbal and visual information? a. prefrontal regions b. temporal regions c. parietal regions d. occipital regions

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Chap 05_9e 38. Which pair lists two different perspectives on how representations are stored? a. allocentric, egocentric b. template, exemplar c. declarative, semantic d. multimodal, amodal 39. Mirror neurons in a monkey become active: a. only when the monkey performs an action. b. only when the monkey sees another perform an action. c. when the monkey performs an action or sees another perform an action. d. Monkeys do not have mirror neurons. 40. When Bower, Black, and Turner asked subjects to judge whether various statements came from an earlier story containing some script events, they found that: a. most subjects persisted in reporting story detail and ignored the general outline. b. some subjects recalled items that were part of an event script, even though they had not been presented as part of the story. c. very few subjects reported the script events, preferring instead to stick with the main theme of the story. d. subjects were very inaccurate for the story detail but very accurate for script events. 41. The major portion of memory for events probably works by: a. encoding a graphic duplicate of the event. b. storing only the significant aspects of the event. c. encoding a linear but hierarchical representation of the sequence of events. d. mentally representing the event in terms of its feature-rich detail. 42. When subjects were asked to recall pictures where the vertical orientation was reversed, they: a. lost accuracy for both orientation and meaning. b. quickly lost accuracy for orientation but retained high accuracy for meaning. c. retained high accuracy for orientation, but quickly lost accuracy for meaning. d. retained high accuracy for both orientation and meaning.

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Chap 05_9e 43. Your friend has just participated in a memory experiment and tells you about it. In this experiment, your friend had to look at a number of sentences and a number of pictures. After studying the sentences and pictures, your friend was shown pairs of two pictures or two sentences and then asked to point to which picture or sentence she remembered seeing before. Which test is your friend likely to do better on? a. She will perform better on the verbal test because memory for verbal information is better than memory for visual information. b. She will perform better on the visual test because memory for visual information is better than memory for verbal information. c. She will perform similarly on both tests because memory for both visual and verbal information is similar. d. She will perform really poorly on the verbal test because the visual information will interfere too much with her memory for the verbal information. 44. When people see a picture, they tend to remember best those aspects that _____. a. are unusual b. they consider meaningful c. are detailed d. most brightly colored 45. Prototype theories hold that we store: a. a number of different instances of a category and judge new instances by degree of similarity. b. several different instances of a category, but abstract a general model for comparison purposes. c. a general representation of a category, but when it comes time to judge, we generate specific instances for comparison. d. a general representation of a category and judge instances by degree of similarity. 46. Statements about a university such as "A university has professors," "A university has classrooms," and "A university has students" represent: a. a series of arguments related to university. b. a semantic network for university. c. links related to university. d. a schema for university. 47. Which concept is NOT an example of a schema? a. our concept of the order of letters in the alphabet b. our concept of what a particular ethnic group is like c. our concept of what is involved in going to a restaurant d. our concept of what a game is

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Chap 05_9e 48. In Mandler and Johnson's study using pictures of scenes (such as classroom scenes), the token distracter can be regarded as a difference in _____, while the type distracter can be regarded as a difference in _____. a. meaning; style b. detail; style c. style; meaning d. meaning; context 49. Bransford and Franks showed subjects sentences such as "The rock rolled down the mountain and crushed the tiny hut" and "The rock crushed the tiny hut by the woods." Later, their subjects thought they had heard "The rock rolled down the mountain and crushed the hut beside the woods." What does this experiment show? a. Subjects' memory for a sentence should be modeled as a schema rather than a network. b. Subjects' memory for a sentence should be modeled as a network rather than a linear propositional representation. c. Subjects remembered the words, but not their combination. d. Subjects remembered the propositional units, but not their combination. 50. Evidence from studies of picture memory suggests that people: a. encode feature-rich detail at first, but then quickly segment the picture into subsegments and store only loosely collected fragments. b. encode virtually all the perceptual detail of the picture and retain it for many months. c. encode many of the perceptual details at the beginning, but tend to forget this information quickly. d. encode only small amounts of perceptual detail at the beginning and then use inferential processes to fill in the gaps later. 51. Which statement is evidence for propositional representations in complex sentences? a. Each separate element of a propositional representation corresponds to a unit of the meaning of a complex sentence. b. Each separate element of a propositional representation need not correspond to a unit of the meaning of the sentence. c. Each separate element of a propositional representation is insufficient to represent the complex idea of the sentence. d. In the Bransford and Franks experiment, people cannot remember exactly what propositions they heard. 52. In a propositional network, we can think of the nodes as _____ and the links between nodes as _____. a. ideas; associations b. meaning; detail c. neural warehouses; neural pathways d. content; form Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_9e 53. Although an ostrich cannot fly, we still recognize it as a bird. This illustrates the fact that schemas: a. may be inaccurate and undependable in certain situations. b. can accommodate exceptions to general rules. c. focus on visual detail as opposed to general features. d. encode both general information and specific features in the same slot. 54. The _____ prefrontal region is involved in processing verbal information. a. left b. right c. anterior d. posterior 55. The experiment conducted by Brewer and Treyens looked at memory for things in an office. What object in the office did subjects recall LEAST often? a. a chair b. a desk c. a wall d. a skull 56. Scripts are schemas that encode: a. an imaginal representation of an event. b. our knowledge of a movie. c. our knowledge of stereotypical sequences of actions. d. amodal instances of a scheme. 57. You are invited to a wedding. Script theory predicts that you will: a. scan a propositional representation of weddings, looking for relevant detail. b. immediately begin to plan what to wear, and remind yourself of the rules of etiquette and the sequence of events that will occur at the wedding. c. construct a linear ordering of statements about weddings. d. reconstruct a visual image of weddings based on encoded visual-spatial information. 58. Which statement is NOT a primitive proposition in this sentence: "The ants in the kitchen ate the sweet jelly on the table"? a. The ants ate the jelly. b. The jelly was sweet. c. The table was in the kitchen. d. The ants were in the kitchen.

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Chap 05_9e 59. Subjects given a verbal explanation for a type of picture called a droodle: a. found it more difficult to recall the pictures because the verbal code conflicted with the imagery code. b. were better able to recall the pictures than those who did not get a verbal explanation. c. had more difficulty recalling the pictures because the gist of the picture was not the same as the meaning of the verbal explanation. d. could recall the pictures better than those who did not receive a verbal explanation, but only at a much longer latency. 60. Subjects are asked to read a series of statements such as "customer pays bill," "customer orders food," "customer picks up menu," and "customer looks for table." When asked to recall these items later, most subjects would probably: a. put about half of the events back in the order of a stereotypical restaurant script. b. recall the items precisely in the order first presented. c. put the items back in partially accurate script order, but only if asked explicitly to do so. d. recall only the gist of the items without regard for the order. 61. Suppose you went to a university workshop on how to apply for financial aid and were given a short set of explicit instructions at the end. After handing out aid forms, the instructor then asked you to report how much of the verbatim instructions you recall. Which statement indicates what you probably would recall from the instructions? a. I would probably recall the instructions verbatim. b. I would probably recall the gist of the instructions. c. I would probably recall both meaning and sentence structure. d. I would probably recall the style of the message, but not the meaning. 62. Farah and McClelland (1991) have shown that the dissociation between _____ and _____ in memory is due to the different features that define the two categories. a. animals; vegetables b. nouns; verbs c. living things; artifacts d. places; objects 63. Which statement is NOT evidence for propositional representations in memory? a. Learning a second fact about a concept interferes with an ability to remember the first fact. b. Having studied "The man who was angry hit the policeman" and "The man hit the big policeman," subjects will accept "The angry man hit the policeman who was big" as one they studied. c. For subjects having studied "Children who are slow eat bread that is cold," slow is a better clue for recall of children than it is for recall of bread. d. Subjects can recall the meaning, but not the wording, of a sentence.

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Chap 05_9e 64. Dr. Brooks is interested in studying memory for pictures. He shows participants a picture of a woman in a flowered apron putting a roast into the oven. Then, after a delay, he shows them two new pictures and asks them to identify which one they have seen. Which picture are participants more likely to mistake for the original picture? a. a picture of the same woman putting a cake in the oven because this is a token change b. a picture of the same woman putting a cake in the oven because this is a type change c. a picture of the same women dressed differently putting a roast in the oven because this is a token change d. a picture of the same women dressed differently putting a roast in the oven because this is a type change 65. Which statement is NOT true of conceptual knowledge? a. Concepts involve categorizing properties of a class of experiences. b. Verifying facts about a concept takes the same amount of time, even when they must be inferred. c. Concepts are categorical representations of external reality. d. Frequently encountered facts are stored with the related concept. 66. The _____ prefrontal region is involved in processing visual information. a. left b. right c. anterior d. posterior 67. What were the results and implications of the Brewer and Treyens' (1981) office study?

68. How are natural and artifact categories represented in the brain?

69. What is meant by embodied cognition?

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Chap 05_9e 70. Explain Paivio's dual-code theory.

71. What is the keyword method? Give an example of how it might be used.

72. What has past research taught us about the organization of facts in semantic memory?

73. What were the results of Hauk et al.'s (2004) research on embodied cognition?

74. In cognitive psychology, what is a proposition? Explain what is meant by propositional representation according to Kintsch (1974).

75. What does the cognitive system gain through categorization?

76. What brain regions are engaged in judging instances of concepts that are represented by rules rather than exemplars?

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Chap 05_9e 77. Differentiate between an amodal hypothesis and a multimodal hypothesis.

78. What has research shown about our memory of everyday experiences?

79. What are the implications of Wanner's (1968) experiment regarding memory for verbal information?

80. How are mirror neurons related to the concept of embodied cognition?

81. Would it be ideal if we had the capacity to remember everything? Why or why not?

82. What is an isa link?

83. Wanner (1968) compared memory for exact wording with memory for meaning. Compare the results of warned participants to the results of unwarned participants.

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Chap 05_9e 84. In what ways can schemas and scripts influence our recall of events and experiences?

85. What is a schema? What is a script?

86. What are the potential costs of using the keyword method?

87. Do we have better memory of verbal or visual tasks/stimuli?

88. In what ways is memory for verbal information similar to and different from memory for visual information?

89. Differentiate between an amodal symbol system and a perceptual symbol system.

90. How are biological and artifact categories represented differently in the brain?

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Chap 05_9e 91. What are prototype theories? What are exemplar theories?

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Chap 05_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_9e 27. c 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_9e 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. Brewer and Treyens' (1981) office study revealed that participants recalled very well items that were default values of an office schema, recalled much less well items that were not default values of an office schema, and falsely recalled items that are default values of an office schema but were not in their study's office. The implications of this speak of the powerful effects of schemas on recall memory. The results imply that people's memory for the properties of a location are strongly influenced by their default assumptions about what is typically found in that location. These default assumptions are encoded as schemas. 68. Patients who have damage to the temporal lobes show deficits in their knowledge about biological categories such as animals, fruits, and vegetables (Saffran and Schwartz, 1994; Warrington and Shallice, 1984). These patients are unable to recognize such objects as ducks. However, knowledge about artifacts such as tools and furniture is relatively unaffected in these patients. In contrast, patients with frontoparietal lesions show deficits in their knowledge about artifact categories but are unaffected in their knowledge of biological categories. 69. -

Embodied cognition refers to the notion that our cognitive processes are impacted by our motor action and how that action connects us to the environment. - The text also quotes Thelen (2000, p. 5): "To say that cognition is embodied means that it arises from bodily interactions with the world and is continually meshed with them. From this point of view, therefore, cognition depends on the kinds of experiences that come from having a body with particular perceptual and motor capabilities that are inseparably linked and that together form the matrix within which reasoning, memory, emotion, language and all other aspects of mental life are embedded."

70. Paivio's dual-code theory proposes that we represent information in combined verbal and visual codes. For example, when we hear a sentence, we also develop a visual image of what it describes; when we see a picture, we also describe to ourselves its significant features. This theory was developed as an attempt to explain why we remember the meaning of stimuli, but not their exact details. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_9e 71. The keyword method is a memorization technique for remembering vocabulary words when learning a foreign language. The first step is to convert the foreign word into a sound-alike word or phrase from one's familiar language. For example, to learn the Italian word formaggio (which means "cheese"), we might convert it into "for much dough." The second step is to create a meaningful connection between the sound-alike word/phrase and the foreign word's actual meaning. In the formaggio example, we might imagine expensive cheese being sold for much money or "for much dough." Making these connections can contribute to foreign language vocabulary learning. 72. Three main research findings are listed in the text: - If a fact about a concept is frequently encountered, it will be associated with that concept, even if it could be inferred from a higher-order concept. - The more frequently a fact about a concept is encountered, the more strongly that fact will be associated with the concept. The more strongly facts are associated with concepts, the more rapidly they are verified. - Inferring facts that are not directly associated with a concept takes a relatively long time. 73. In this study, the researchers recorded brain activation while people listened to verbs that involved face, arm, or leg actions (e.g., to lick, pick, or kick). They monitored brain activity along the motor cortex in separate regions associated with the face, arm, and leg. The results revealed that there was greater activation in the part of the motor cortex that would produce that action, even though participants were only listening to each word and not physically producing the action. 74. A proposition is the smallest unit of knowledge that can stand as a separate assertion. It is the smallest unit one can meaningfully judge as true or false. Propositional representation refers to how meaning is encoded in an abstract way. The propositional representation proposed by Kintsch (1974) represents the meaning of each sentence as a list containing a relation that is followed by an ordered list of arguments. 75. Categorization gives us the ability to predict. If we know that something fits a certain category, we can predict what to expect in terms of its characteristics or attributes. This gives us great economy in representation and communication. 76. Patalano, Smith, Jonides, and Koeppe (2001) observed very different patterns of brain activation when participants classified the stimuli represented by rules or exemplars. Regions in the prefrontal cortex tended to be activated in the participants who used the rule, whereas regions in the occipital visual areas and the cerebellum were activated in the participants who memorized instances (exemplars). 77. The amodal hypothesis and multimodal hypothesis are alternative explanations as to why people tend to remember the meaning of information, but not its exact details. The amodal hypothesis maintains that we have systems for converting any type of perceptual or motor representation into an abstract representation of its meaning, while the multimodal hypothesis proposes that we convert information from the modality of the original presentation into some other modality. 78. Yim, Garrett, Baker, and Dennis (2018) had participants wear a camera during waking hours from Monday to Friday for two weeks while they went about their everyday lives (the cameras were timed to shoot a photo every 5 minutes). When asked to indicate when the experiences in the photos occurred, participants were much more accurate at judging the time of events that they considered important, consistent with the idea that the significance of an event is a main determinant of whether the event is represented in detail in memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_9e 79. One implication is that memory is better for changes in wording that result in changes of meaning than for changes in wording that result just in changes of style (not meaning). It appears that people ordinarily extract the meaning of a verbal message without remembering its exact wording, and their memory for meaning is equally good whether they are warned or not about needing to remember the message. The second implication is that, although we do not ordinarily retain much information about the exact wording of a message, we can do so when we are cued to pay attention to such information. 80. Mirror neurons are one link that explains how our perceptual and motor systems are interconnected, and these interconnections are necessarily part of the concept of embodied cognition. Mirror neurons have been found to be activated in the motor cortex of monkeys when they rip a piece of paper or when they hear the experimenter rip the paper without actually seeing the action take place (Rizzolatti and Craighero, 2004). Brain-imaging studies have also found that humans display increased brain activity in their motor cortex when they observe actions, particularly with the intention to mimic the action (Iacoboni et al., 1999). Thus, mirror neurons demonstrate how motor and perceptual systems are interconnected, even when no physical action is occurring. 81. According to case studies cited in the textbook, it might not be ideal to have the capacity to remember everything. Examples are given of people who have extraordinary memories for details of their personal lives, but they perform no better than average on standard laboratory tests of memory. It seems as though their memories are "bogged down" with too many facts and details without an ability to sift through what is most meaningful or critical. 82. In a semantic network, isa links link together nodes for two categories. This allows for representation of a hierarchy of true categorical facts (e.g., that a canary is a bird and a bird is an animal). 83. One result of this study was that participants' memory was better for changes in wording that result in changes of meaning than for changes in wording that result just in changes of style (not meaning), regardless of whether they were warned or not. It appears that people ordinarily extract the meaning of a verbal message without remembering its exact wording, and their memory for meaning is equally good whether they are warned or not about needing to remember the message. The second implication of this study was that, although we do not ordinarily retain much information about the exact wording of a message, we can do so when we are cued to pay attention to such information. Warned participants were more able to remember the exact wording of the message. 84. Schemas and scripts can have a powerful effect on how memories are encoded and recalled. Although schemas and scripts can serve a useful purpose in helping to "fill in" missing information from a memory or recalled story, they can also lead people to insert details from a schema or script that were not in the original event or story. Participants tend to report or recognize parts of a script that are not part of an original story (Bower et al., 1979). In another study by the same researchers, participants tended to chronologically rearrange events in a story when recalling it, such that the order of events became more consistent with an event script. 85. A schema is a structure that represents categorical knowledge according to a slot structure, in which slots are attributes that members of a category possess, and each slot is filled with one or more values, or specific instances, of that attribute. A script is an event schema that details stereotypic sequences of actions for that specific event (e.g., going to see a movie in the theater).

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Chap 05_9e 86. Potential costs: - Retrieval times are slower since one has to remember an intermediate keyword and this slows down the speed of translation. - Intermediate keywords have been shown to result in poorer long-term retention. - The method may be helpful in passing an immediate vocabulary test, but performance on a delayed test that wasn't studied for can be poorer. 87. Shepard (1967) performed one of the early experiments comparing memory for pictures with memory for verbal material. Participants made errors on the verbal task 11.8% of the time but only 1.5% of the time on the visual task, showing that memory for verbal information was quite good, but memory for visual information was virtually perfect. Many subsequent experiments have demonstrated our high capacity for remembering pictures. 88. Memory for verbal information is similar to memory for visual information in that people are much more sensitive to meaning-significant changes when remembering both types of information. In general, people will notice changes in an auditory or visual stimulus that changes its meaning but not as likely to notice a change in details that are unrelated to meaning. Memory for verbal information is different from memory for visual information in that memory for visual information often seems much better than memory for verbal information. For example, Shepard's (1967) study revealed that participants were much more likely to make an error when recognizing sentences they had studied compared with pictures they had studied. Memory for verbal information was quite good, but memory for visual information was almost perfect. 89. The elements within an amodal symbol system are inherently nonperceptual. Once an individual perceives a stimulus, the representation is abstracted away from the original verbal or visual modality. Thus, the individual would be unable to remember the exact words they heard or the exact image they saw. Barsalou (1999) proposed a hypothesis called the perceptual symbol system, which claimed that all information is represented in terms that are specific to a particular perceptual modality (auditory, visual, etc.). 90. Cognitive neuroscience data suggest that biological and artifact categories are represented differently in the brain, where damage to different regions show different deficits. Dementia patients who have damage to the temporal lobes show deficits in their knowledge about biological categories such as animals, fruits, and vegetables (Saffran and Schwartz, 1994; Warrington and Shallice, 1984). However, knowledge about artifacts such as tools and furniture is relatively unaffected in these patients. In contrast, patients with frontoparietal lesions show deficits in their knowledge about artifact categories but are unaffected in their knowledge of biological categories. 91. These theories are attempts to discriminate between general ways of capturing conceptual knowledge. Prototype theories hold that we store a single prototype of what a member of a category is like and we classify specific objects or events in terms of their similarity to that prototype. Exemplar theories maintain that we only store specific instances and then infer the general properties from these specific instances.

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Chap 06_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Spreading activation is a term used in memory research to describe the synchronous nature of sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. a. True b. False 2. Elaborative processing involves connecting to-be-remembered material with additional information. a. True b. False 3. The power law of learning suggests that memory performance improves as a function of practice. a. True b. False 4. Activation determines both the probability and the speed of access to memory. a. True b. False 5. Individuals with hippocampal damage show different patterns of activity in their prefrontal cortex compared with healthy individuals. a. True b. False 6. Long-term potentiation is one form of learning that does NOT appear to follow a power law. a. True b. False 7. Different areas of the prefrontal cortex appear to be responsible for maintaining different types of information in working memory. a. True b. False 8. Depth of processing refers to the importance of passive rehearsal in memory. a. True b. False 9. Patients with anterograde amnesia cannot recall events that occurred prior to the development of the amnesia. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_9e 10. The terms activation and strength are used interchangeably in memory research. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. In Atkinson and Shiffrin's view of memory: a. functional processes, such as deep level processing, are more important than the storehouses of memory. b. short-term memory serves as an intermediate store between sensory memory and long-term memory. c. information is stored in propositional networks that retain the meaning, but not the detail, of the perceptual experience. d. information is stored in distributed neural calculational arrays. 12. Imagine meeting someone at a party who you really want to see again. You get his phone number, but with no paper and pencil to write it down, you convert it to the abbreviation CALL HIM. The strength of the memory trace will be much stronger because you have used: a. parallel processing. b. maintenance rehearsal. c. rote memorization. d. elaborative processing. 13. Meyer and Schvaneveldt's (1971) study of reaction time to paired words, such as bread/butter or nurse/butter, was an examination of which memory phenomenon? a. working memory b. spreading activation c. flashbulb memory d. levels-of-activation 14. Participants in the Meyer and Schvaneveldt study were faster at making judgments about positive word pairs, such as: a. nurse and butter. b. bread and butter. c. plame and wine. d. wine and plame.

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Chap 06_9e 15. If you were asked to recall a five-item list of two-syllable words and then a five-item list of five-syllable words, what would be the likely outcome? a. The outcome cannot be predicted since neither list length nor word length influence recall. b. You would recall an equal number of words from each list since it is the absolute number of items that determines span. c. You would recall more of the longer words. d. You would recall fewer longer words. 16. In Baddeley's theory of working memory, which systems are "slaves" of the central executive system? a. visuospatial sketchpad and phonological store b. visuospatial sketchpad and phonological loop c. articulatory process and visuospatial sketchpad d. phonological loop and phonological store 17. Kahn and Wagner (2002) demonstrated that, with practice, the hippocampus and the prefrontal cortex become less active when engaging in which activity? a. memory encoding b. memory consolidation c. rehearsal functions d. memory retrieval 18. One brain region in animals implicated in working memory is: a. the temporal cortex. b. Wernicke's area. c. the frontal cortex. d. the sensory cortex. 19. What is NOT a similarity between working memory and long-term memory? a. Access to items takes time in both memories. b. Information can be lost from both memories. c. The contents of both memories can contain propositional information. d. Working memory and long-term memory both decay rapidly. 20. Sperling's experiments suggested that _____ memory exists. a. auditory sensory b. visual sensory c. echoic d. ideoconic

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Chap 06_9e 21. One possible explanation for the power law of learning is the: a. improved transfer of material from short-term memory to the centralized long-term store. b. long-term potentiation of neurons. c. extinction of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials that interfere with retrieval. d. activation of frontal lobe areas that organize the material in meaningful wholes. 22. Recent experimental evidence has demonstrated a lateralization of memory functions. It appears that _____ is carried out by the left prefrontal cortex, while _____ is carried out by the right prefrontal cortex. a. memory for words; memory for pictures b. visual memory; auditory memory c. memory encoding; memory retrieval d. sensory memory; short-term memory 23. Kris wants to score well on an upcoming exam. What should Kris's study strategy be to achieve high scores? a. study the material at long delays b. study the material at short delays c. study the material much before the exam d. study the material close to the exam 24. _____ memory lasts longer than _____ memory. a. Iconic; echoic b. Echoic; iconic c. Iconic; visual sensory d. Visual sensory; iconic 25. The _____ structures of the brain are involved in the permanent storage of memories. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 26. In the Hyde-Jenkins paradigm, some subjects were told that they would be tested for recall, while other subjects were misled about the purpose of the study. This experiment is a classic example of: a. deep versus shallow processing. b. exhaustive versus self-terminating search. c. intentional versus incidental learning. d. parallel versus serial processing.

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Chap 06_9e 27. Which statement is NOT supported by research on intentional learning versus incidental learning? a. Intentional learning leads to better performance than incidental learning. b. If the person uses similar processes, the results will be the same whether the learning was intentional or incidental. c. There is little difference between intentional learning and incidental learning in memory strength. d. The issue is not whether learning is intentional or incidental, but how the material was processed. 28. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin, information coming in from the environment follows which path? a. sensory store > short-term memory > long-term memory b. sensory store > working memory > long-term memory c. short-term memory > sensory store > long-term memory d. working memory > sensory store > long-term memory 29. What determines the amount of material remembered? a. whether it was incidental b. whether it was intentional c. the type of processing d. personal motivation 30. The _____ structures of the brain are involved in the creation of memories. a. prefrontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 31. Material processed elaborately involves _____ brain regions as material processed _____. a. the same; shallowly b. the same; auditorily c. different; shallowly d. different; auditorily 32. Which of the following cognitive psychologists gave the theory of short-term memory its most systematic development? a. Broadbent b. Atkinson and Shiffrin c. Waugh and Norman d. Sperling

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Chap 06_9e 33. In Goldman-Rakic's work with monkeys, she suggests that: a. the prefrontal cortex may be divided into small sections responsible for retaining different types of information. b. the frontal cortex appears to deal primarily with abstract information, not visuospatial information. c. areas of the frontal cortex may correspond closely to the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive. d. the prefrontal cortex is primarily a personality center not involved in memory. 34. Auditory sensory store is also called: a. acoustic memory. b. cochlear memory. c. echoic memory. d. echolocation. 35. Which statement is NOT evidence for the role of the frontal cortex in working memory? a. Human infants are unable to perform a delayed match-to-sample task until their frontal cortices develop. b. Neurons in the frontal cortex appear to fire only during the delay period. c. Removal of small amounts of frontal lobe tissue interferes with image formation in the visuospatial sketchpad. d. Damage to the frontal cortex interferes with a monkey's ability to perform the delayed match-to-sample task. 36. According to the Adaptive Control of Thought (ACT) theory, what determines the probability that some given piece of information will be retrieved from long-term memory and the speed with which that retrieval will be accomplished? a. the stimulus words b. the associated concepts c. the level of activation d. the extra associations 37. Evidence for the role of the brain in working memory comes from studies that show: a. interference with central executive control prevents access to long-term memory. b. damage to the frontal cortex interferes with a monkey's ability to perform the delayed match-to-sample task. c. damage to the occipital cortex interferes with the formation of images in the visuospatial sketchpad. d. removal of a small amount of tissue in the temporal lobe destroys working memory.

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Chap 06_9e 38. Craik and Lockhart argued that what is critical is: a. creating a novel image of what you want to remember. b. processing material in a deep and meaningful way. c. rehearsing material long enough in short-term memory to get it to transfer to long-term memory. d. attending because it determines what transfers from sensory memory to short-term memory. 39. The _____ structures of the brain are involved in the retrieval of memories. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 40. Which was NOT an assumption of the classical short-term memory theory espoused by Atkinson and Shiffrin? a. Short-term memory has limited capacity. b. Short-term memory works only with attended information. c. Short-term memory constructs an analog of the external experience to transfer to the long-term store. d. Short-term memory transfers information to the long-term store through some type of rehearsal process. 41. If you carried out a simple memory-span experiment, you would find that your subjects could typically remember about: a. 3 to 4 items at the most. b. 7 to 8 items at the most. c. 12 to 14 items at the most. d. as many items as they could visually attend to in several seconds. 42. Based on the core notion of the PQ4R method, you should: a. formulate and answer questions while reading new material. b. increase by fourfold the amount of time devoted to reviewing. c. reread the material by scanning to optimize learning. d. ask instructors for prompt questions before you begin reading the text. 43. Chris and Danielle are participating in a memory study. Both are given identical word lists and are asked to count the number of vowels in each word. However, only Chris is told that there will be a memory test later. When the memory test is given, who will perform better? a. Both will perform poorly due to the vowel-counting technique. b. Chris. He knew to learn the words for the recall task. c. Danielle. She was not pressured to learn the words for the recall task. d. They will perform equally well. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_9e 44. The power law of learning refers to the fact that: a. the associative strength of items in a propositional network increases linearly with increased practice. b. speed of responding in working memory is a power function of recency of presentation. c. overlearning leads to a linear, nonasymptotic increase in power of the memory trace. d. memory performance improves as a function of practice. 45. When studying for your cognitive psychology test, you go over an important term in your notes and make up an example for that term. Which concept BEST explains why making up the examples will help you remember the terms? a. elaborative processing b. maintenance rehearsal c. rote memorization d. nonintentional learning 46. Which statement is NOT evidence for the articulatory loop? a. Subjects have more difficulty recalling a list of words with two syllables compared with a list of words with one syllable. b. Subjects have more difficulty recalling a letter string that rhymes compared with a string that does not rhyme. c. Subjects are more confused when trying to remember a letter string such as BCTHVZ compared with HBKLMW. d. When subjects cannot recall a stimulus from a list, they tend to reconstruct an image of the list to help recall. 47. Which statement is NOT an appropriate interpretation of the Stein and Bransford study of self-generated elaborations? a. Externally supplied precise elaborations are more helpful than self-generated imprecise elaborations. b. Externally generated elaborations to aid memory generally work much better than self-generated elaborations. c. The issue is not self-generated versus other-generated elaborations, but the precision of the elaborations. d. Recall will be inferior if the elaborations are imprecise. 48. The PQ4R method is most effective when studying: a. literary material. b. mathematics. c. physical sciences. d. social sciences.

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Chap 06_9e 49. How does short-term memory differ from the phonological loop? a. Short-term memory is a small-capacity system; the phonological loop is a large-capacity system. b. Short-term memory is relatively disorganized; the phonological loop is highly organized. c. Information does not have to spend time in the phonological loop to get into long-term memory. d. Short-term memory is largely imagery-analog based; the phonological loop is entirely acoustic. 50. _____ refer(s) to a mnemonic technique that relies on spatial relationships. a. Acrostics b. Chunking c. Method of loci d. Peg-word method 51. What is the role of the central executive in working memory? a. The central executive controls how information flows from sensory memory to short-term memory. b. The central executive controls how short-term memory can access long-term memory. c. The central executive controls how the phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad are used. d. The central executive controls how information flows from long-term memory to the phonological loop. 52. The hippocampus is in the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 53. Which region of the brain shows greater activation during deep processing? a. right temporal region b. left temporal region c. right prefrontal region d. left prefrontal region 54. The visual sensory store is also known as: a. photographic memory. b. iconic memory. c. flashbulb memory. d. retinal memory.

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Chap 06_9e 55. A patient who CANNOT form new long-term memories has _____ amnesia. a. anterograde b. posterograde c. retrograde d. temporograde 56. People are able to recall and have vivid memories of traumatic events that happened long ago. This is called: a. egocentric bias memory. b. self-reference memory. c. the self-serving bias. d. flashbulb memory. 57. What is a likely explanation for the effectiveness of the PQ4R method? a. It dramatically increases the number of practice trials. b. It provides specific mnemonic strategies that aid encoding and retrieval. c. It provides guides for faster reading of material. d. It promotes elaborative rehearsal. 58. Which is NOT a component of Baddeley's working memory model? a. the phonological loop b. the central executive c. the neural-array activator d. the visuospatial sketchpad 59. The notion of long-term potentiation (LTP) is that: a. there is increased sensitivity of stimulated cells as measured by increased excitatory postsynaptic potential. b. the long-term power of the memory trace increases as a linear function with practice. c. neural presynaptic messengers required for synaptic transmission are energized with increased practice. d. inhibitory postsynaptic potentials that interfere with membrane depolarization are extinguished with practice. 60. Participants in the Meyer and Schvaneveldt study were faster at making judgments about negative word pairs, such as: a. nurse and butter. b. bread and butter. c. plame and wine. d. wine and plame.

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Chap 06_9e 61. Which is NOT a component of the PQ4R method? a. question b. recite c. review d. rote rehearse 62. Conway et al. studied memory for Margaret Thatcher's resignation as prime minister of the United Kingdom. They found that: a. 90% of the participants from the United Kingdom showed perfect memory for the events surrounding the resignation. b. 60% of the participants from the United Kingdom showed perfect memory for the events surrounding the resignation. c. 60% of the participants from Denmark showed perfect memory for the events surrounding the resignation. d. 90% of the participants from the United Kingdom and 60% of the participants from Denmark both showed perfect memory for the events surrounding the resignation. 63. _____ processing evokes higher levels of activation during recall than _____ processing. a. Auditory; elaborative b. Auditory; shallow c. Elaborative; shallow d. Shallow; elaborative 64. Auditory sensory memory can last up to: a. 1 second. b. 5 seconds. c. 10 seconds. d. 15 seconds. 65. Rita's grandfather remembers every detail from when he watched man's first landing on the moon, including the clothes he was wearing and dinner that day. This clear and vivid recall is known as: a. photographic memory. b. flashbulb memory. c. long-term potentiation. d. emotional memory.

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Chap 06_9e 66. What is the partial-report procedure? How was it an improvement to the whole-report procedure?

67. What is a flashbulb memory? When do these memories occur?

68. Describe the results of Meyer and Schvaneveldt (1971). What does this study suggest?

69. What are the two critical factors in the Adaptive Control of Thought (ACT) theory activation equation?

70. What is long-term potentiation (LTP)?

71. What is working memory, and what are its characteristics?

72. What is depth of processing, and what brain regions are activated by deep processing?

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Chap 06_9e 73. With regards to memory, what is strength?

74. What is "spreading activation"?

75. What are the overall important findings from the research on incidental versus intentional learning?

76. What is iconic memory? What is echoic memory?

77. What does brain research tell us about the power law of learning?

78. Briefly describe the phases of the PQ4R method.

79. What is the word-length effect?

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Chap 06_9e 80. How and when does rehearsal improve memory?

81. What brain structures are involved in the creation, storage, and retrieval of memories?

82. What are the two principles that underlie the effectiveness of the method of loci?

83. What did Craik and Lockhart (1972) claim?

84. Explain a basic model of how memory works.

85. Describe the results of Bower (1973). What does this study suggest?

86. What are the effects of practice on memory?

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Chap 06_9e 87. You have an exam in cognitive psychology next week. What are the BEST approaches to learning the material?

88. What evidence suggests that the articulatory loop involves speech?

89. What is short-term memory, and what are its characteristics?

90. In what way are the hippocampus and the prefrontal regions involved in memory?

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Chap 06_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_9e 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. d 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_9e 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. Sperling (1960) introduced the partial-report procedure. In this study, participants viewed arrays consisting of three rows of four letters each. When the stimulus was removed, participants were cued to attend to just one row of the display and report the letters of that display only. This represented a partial-report procedure because participants were cued to report only one row, as opposed to a whole-report method, which would have prompted them to report all of the original rows. In his study, this was an improvement over the whole-report method because, when participants were cued right after the stimulus was removed, they were able to attend to one row and report the four letters in that row. In a whole-report procedure, participants were not cued regarding which row to attend to, so they could not report more items because they had faded from memory before participants could attend to them. 67. Flashbulb memories refer to memories for events that seem so important that they seem to "burn" themselves into a person's memory forever. These memories tend to occur during events that are especially traumatic, especially on a public scale (e.g., 9/11). 68. The results of Meyer and Schvaneveldt (1971) indicated that participants were faster in determining whether or not the two components in a pair of items were both words when the words in the pair were related. These results suggest that spreading-activation analysis might be an important factor in participants' faster judgment times for related words. Theoretically, when participants read the first word in the related pair, activation would then spread to the second word in the pair, rendering that word easier to judge. The implication is that the associative spreading of information activation through memory can decrease the rate at which words are read. 69. The two critical factors are the baseline activation (which sets a starting activation for the idea) and the activation received through the associations (which adjusts this baseline activation to reflect the current context). 70. Long-term potentiation is a form of neural change that occurs when cells along the neural pathway are stimulated with a high-frequency electrical current, and then cells along that pathway display increased sensitivity to further stimulation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_9e 71. Working memory is a system for holding information that we need to perform a task. Baddeley (1986) proposed that it is comprised of a visuospatial sketchpad and a phonological loop, both of which are coordinated by a central executive system. Working memory allows information to be manipulated and transformed. The central executive system can retrieve information from the visuospatial sketchpad and phonological loop, put information into them, or translate information between them. 72. Craik and Lockhart (1972) argued that what was critical was not how long information is rehearsed, but rather the depth to which it is processed. Their theory, called depth of processing, held that rehearsal improves memory only if the material is rehearsed in a deep way that involves assigning meaning to the material. Kapur et al. (1994) did a PET study of the difference between brain correlates of the deep and shallow processing of words and found that there was greater activation during deep processing in the left prefrontal region. A number of subsequent studies have also shown that this region of the brain is more active during deep processing (Wagner, Bunge, and Badre, 2004). 73. The quantity that determines an inherent availability of a memory is sometimes referred to as its strength. Each time we recall a memory, it increases a little in strength. The strength of a memory determines in part how active it can become and hence how accessible it will be. 74. Spreading activation is the term often used to refer to the process by which currently attended items can make associated memories more available. The spreading of activation through associations can increase the rate at which words are read, enabling us to read material that has a strong associative coherence more rapidly than we can read incoherent material where the words seem unrelated. 75. Overall, whether a person intends to learn or not really does not matter; what matters is how the person processes the material during its presentation. If a person engages in identical mental activities when processing material, they will produce identical memory performance, whether they are intending to learn the material or not. People tend to show better memory when they intend to learn simply because they engage in more activities that promote memorization, such as rehearsal and elaborative processing. 76. Iconic memory is a brief visual sensory store. Echoic memory is a brief auditory sensory store. Both forms of sensory memory hold information briefly in cortical sensory memories so that it can be processed. 77. Brain research suggests that the power law of learning may be related to basic changes at the neural level that occur in response to learning. Long-term potentiation is one kind of neural change that may be occurring. This involves a neural pathway being stimulated with a high-frequency electric current, then cells along that pathway showing increased sensitivity to further stimulation. It seems that neural activation changes with practice such that activation increases more and more slowly, whereas recognition time decreases more and more slowly. As the strength of a memory increases, the performance measures improve. 78. The PQ4R method involves these six steps: preview (survey the chapter to determine the general topics to be discussed); questions (make up questions about each section); read (read each section and try to answer the questions you made); reflect (reflect and elaborate upon the text as you are reading it); recite (try to recall information that you read); and review (recall main points of the text).

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Chap 06_9e 79. The word length effect refers to a result from a study by Baddeley, Thomson, and Buchanan (1975). They found that participants were able to read five one-syllable words and then repeat them back, but they struggled much more to read five five-syllable words and repeat them back. This result was interpreted as compelling evidence for the existence of the articulatory loop. 80. According to the depth-of-processing theory, rehearsal improves memory only if the material is rehearsed in a deep and meaningful way. Shallow rehearsal seems to result in little improvement in memory performance. What seems to be important in memory is not the amount of time spent rehearsing, but the extent to which rehearsal involves deep and meaningful processing of the material. This results in information being transferred from short-term memory into more permanent long-term memory. 81. Prefrontal regions are responsible for the creation and retrieval of memories. The hippocampus and surrounding structures in the temporal cortex are responsible for the permanent storage of memories. 82. The first principle is that the method of loci imposes organization on an otherwise unorganized list, guaranteeing that the "mental path" will lead to recall of all items for which associations were formed. The second principle is that imaging connections between the locations and the items forces meaningful and elaborative processing by way of visual imagery. 83. Craik and Lockhart (1972) argued that what was critical was not how long information is rehearsed, but rather the depth to which it is processed. Their theory, called depth of processing, held that rehearsal improves memory only if the material is rehearsed in a deep way that involves assigning meaning to the material. 84. Information coming in from the environment is briefly held in a sensory store. Attended information goes into an intermediate short-term memory with a limited capacity to hold information (unattended information in the sensory store is lost). Information in short-term memory must be rehearsed before it can move into a relatively permanent long-term memory. 85. The results of Bower (1973) revealed that participants who just studied an original sentence about a doctor hating a lawyer were able to recall 57% of the sentence's objects, but those participants who generated elaborations for the sentence were able to recall 72%. This study suggested that the redundancy created by the elaboration was important in facilitating participants' recall for the sentence. More elaborative processing results in better memory. 86. The strength of a memory trace can be gradually increased through practice. The power law of learning explains how memory trace can be strengthened with practice, but it also demonstrates how rate of improvement will decrease with more practice. In other words, increasing practice has diminishing returns. Retrieval time for memory can be decreased with practice, however, as the memory trace is gradually strengthened over time. 87. One of the best approaches is the PQ4R method, which involves the following steps: preview (survey the chapter to determine the general topics to be discussed), questions (make up questions about each section), read (read each section and try to answer the questions you made), reflect (reflect and elaborate on the text as you are reading it), recite (try to recall information that you read), and review (recall main points of the text). 88. Conrad (1964) found that participants had a much more difficult time trying to remember spans that had a high proportion of rhyming letters compared with spans that did not. There is also evidence for activation in Broca's area, part of the left prefrontal cortex, during the rehearsal of memories that would involve the articulatory loop. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_9e 89. When information coming in from the environment is held in transient sensory stores, it is lost unless it is attended to. If it is attended to, it can go into an intermediate short-term memory system for further attention or manipulation. If the information is rehearsed, it can go into a relatively permanent long-term memory store. Short-term memory has a limited capacity to hold information, which is believed to be determined by one's short-term memory span. It appears that depth of processing is an important factor in whether or not information will be transferred from shortterm memory to long-term memory. 90. The hippocampus and surrounding structures play an important role in the storage of new memories. Prefrontal brain regions are strongly associated both with the encoding of new memories and the retrieval of old memories.

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Chap 07_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Individuals make inferences at the time of recall without being aware of it. a. True b. False 2. Learning additional associations to an item can cause old associations to be forgotten. a. True b. False 3. The context in which a memory was formed can become a cue for that memory. a. True b. False 4. Patients with hippocampal damage experience retrograde amnesia only. a. True b. False 5. It is easier to remember sad events when one is in a happy state. a. True b. False 6. Forgetting results from decay in memory strength alone. a. True b. False 7. Amnesic patients display implicit memory. a. True b. False 8. Eyewitnesses are often very accurate in the testimony they give. a. True b. False 9. Forgotten memories are still stored, even though we cannot retrieve them. a. True b. False 10. The hippocampus responds to false memories and true memories with the same activation level. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Interference occurs only when one is learning multiple pieces of information that: a. pieces of information are of the same length. b. pieces of information are meaningfully related. c. have an intrinsic relationship to one another. d. have no intrinsic relationship to one another. 12. Knowledge that we cannot consciously recall but that nonetheless manifests itself in our improved performance on some task is referred to as _____ memory. a. episodic b. explicit c. implicit d. semantic 13. Godden and Baddeley (1975) found that participants recalled: a. more words if tested in the same environment in which the words were learned. b. fewer words if tested in the same environment in which the words were learned. c. more words if the words were learned on shore. d. more words if the words were learned under water. 14. In _____ paradigm, participants study lists of words. a. the Loftus-Tulving-Schacter b. the Deese-Roediger-McDermott c. Korsakoff's d. Wickelgren's 15. Time needed to recognize a concept will increase if the number of its associated items increases. This is the: a. fact effect. b. fan effect. c. network effect. d. priming effect. 16. Patients with damage to the hippocampal formation often suffer from _____ amnesia. a. anterograde b. retrograde c. both anterograde and retrograde d. both anterograde and procedural

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Chap 07_9e 17. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation from Wixted and Wells (2017) for best practices in conducting a lineup that some jurisdictions have begun to adopt such practices? a. Include only one actual suspect per lineup. b. Make sure that the suspect stands out in the lineup. c. Caution the eyewitness that the offender might not be in the lineup. d. Use double-blind testing (i.e., neither the eyewitness nor those conducting the lineup should know who the suspect is in the lineup). 18. You have memorized a handful of statements. Which should take the LEAST time to recognize? a. The fish ate the apple. b. The mouse ate the orange. c. The cat ate the apple. d. The cat ate the cherries. 19. It is thought that the _____ is particularly important in creating new memories. a. basal ganglia b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. hippocampal formation 20. Learning related material _____ retrieval of a target memory. a. does not interfere with b. interferes with c. slows d. delays 21. When participants elaborate on material while studying it, they tend to recall: a. more of what was studied and recall their own inferences. b. more of what was studied but recall none of their own inferences. c. less of what was studied but recall their own inferences. d. less of what was studied and recall none of their own inferences. 22. Encephalitis is a type of: a. dementia. b. amnesia. c. brain disease. d. brain infection.

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Chap 07_9e 23. The idea that forgetting occurs with the passage of time is known as the: a. decay theory of forgetting. b. dementia theory. c. interference theory of forgetting. d. time theory of forgetting. 24. LTP mirrors which power law? a. the power law of learning b. the power law of forgetting c. the power law of recollection d. the power law of retention 25. A brain disorder sometimes caused by chronic alcoholism is called _____ syndrome. a. Bahrick b. Korsakoff c. Penfield d. Wickelgren 26. _____ memories reflect general knowledge of the world. a. Episodic b. Implicit c. Procedural d. Semantic 27. Reder and Ross (1983) compared exact versus plausible judgments after participants had studied sentences and found that people will often judge what _____ might be true rather than try to retrieve exact facts. a. possibly b. plausibly remote c. plausibly d. imaginably 28. Wickelgren's measure of memory strength is known as: a. a-prime. b. b-prime. c. c-prime. d. d-prime.

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Chap 07_9e 29. Knowledge that we can consciously recall is referred to as _____ memory. a. episodic b. explicit c. implicit d. semantic 30. Neuroimaging studies suggest that implicit memories are stored in the: a. cerebellum. b. cortex. c. medulla. d. reticular formation. 31. Which statement is TRUE of Nelson's experiments on forgotten memories? a. His experiments indicate that everything is remembered. b. His experiments indicate that recall is superior to recognition. c. His experiments indicate that forgotten memories are stored in the temporal cortex. d. His experiments indicate that some forgotten memories are still stored. 32. Which statement is TRUE of forgetting? a. Only decay has an effect on forgetting. b. Only interference has an effect on forgetting. c. Both decay and interference affect forgetting. d. Both decay and interference affect forgetting, but the effects are minimal. 33. What study strategy should students adopt for better recall of material? a. group study b. test-retest oneself c. elaborate on the material d. rote learning the material 34. It is easier to remember happy memories when _____ and sad memories when _____. a. happy; happy b. happy; sad c. sad; happy d. sad; sad

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Chap 07_9e 35. Loss of memory for events that occurred before a head injury is called _____ amnesia. a. anterograde b. episodic c. procedural d. retrograde 36. What are the two types of declarative memory? a. explicit memory and implicit memory b. episodic memory and semantic memory c. implicit memory and procedural memory d. priming memory and procedural memory 37. In Reder and Ross's (1983) experiment, they found that, in the exact recall condition, participants' response times: a. increased when they had studied more facts. b. increased when they had studied fewer facts. c. were not influenced by the number of facts they had studied. d. increased as the experiment progressed. 38. Events just prior to a head injury are susceptible to _____ amnesia. a. anterograde b. episodic c. procedural d. retrograde 39. Playing a piano is an example of _____ knowledge. a. declarative b. episodic c. procedural d. semantic 40. Huntington's disease is characterized by: a. an inability to form new memories due to brain infection. b. an inability to recall memories due to brain infection. c. uncontrolled muscle movements. d. uncontrolled verbal outbursts.

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Chap 07_9e 41. Retention functions show _____ with delay. a. diminishing gain b. diminishing loss c. increasing gain d. increasing loss 42. Memory loss is: a. positively accelerated—the rate of change gets larger as the delay increases. b. positively decelerated—the rate of change gets larger as the delay decreases. c. negatively accelerated—the rate of change gets smaller as the delay increases. d. negatively decelerated—the rate of change gets smaller as the delay decreases. 43. Wixted, Mickes, and Fisher (2018) argue that care should be taken to preserve memories, just as major precautions need to be taken not to contaminate: a. food. b. water. c. DNA. d. blood samples. 44. You have memorized a handful of statements. Which should take the MOST time to recognize? a. The fish ate the apple. b. The mouse ate the orange. c. The cat ate the apple. d. The cat ate the cherries. 45. Some adults who remember instances of sexual abuse from their childhood may be mistaken about the accuracy of their memory. This is known as: a. a flashbulb memory. b. false-memory syndrome. c. false-abuse syndrome. d. implanted-memory syndrome. 46. Procedural memory is another type of _____ memory. a. episodic b. explicit c. implicit d. semantic

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Chap 07_9e 47. Remembering where you parked is an example of _____ memory. a. episodic b. implicit c. procedural d. semantic 48. _____ memories include information about where and when they were learned. a. Episodic b. Implicit c. Procedural d. Semantic 49. The hippocampus: a. can discriminate between what was experienced and what was imagined. b. can sometimes discriminate between what was experienced and what was imagined. c. fails to discriminate between what was experienced and what was imagined. d. does not respond to what was experienced or to what was imagined. 50. _____ memory refers to factual memories we can explicitly recall. a. Declarative b. Implicit c. Priming d. Procedural 51. Stevens, Marewski, Schooler, and Gilby, (2016) suggest that the human forgetting function may have been shaped through a long history of evolutionary adaptations, consistent with what we see with respect to: a. infantile amnesia. b. memory decay. c. memory interference. d. long-term potentiation. 52. New explicit memories are: a. formed and remain in the cortex. b. formed in the cortex but, with experience, are transferred to the hippocampus. c. formed and remain in the hippocampus. d. formed in the hippocampus but, with experience, are transferred to the cortex.

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Chap 07_9e 53. When Snyder, Ashitaka, Shimada, Ulrich, and Logan, (2014) asked proficient typists (explicit memory) to recall the arrangement of keys on a keyboard (implicit memory), they were unable to. This contrast between explicit and implicit memories is known as a: a. dissociation. b. memory conflict. c. memory dissonance. d. recall dissonance. 54. According to the Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm, subjects should recall the word _____ when giving a list containing the words bed, dream, night, pillow, and slumber. a. anger b. distrust c. sleep d. whimsy 55. In Reder and Ross's (1983) experiment, they found that, in the plausible retrieval condition, participants' response times: a. increased when they had studied more facts. b. decreased when they had studied more facts. c. were not influenced by the number of facts they had studied. d. increased as the experiment progressed. 56. It is thought that old memories are maintained in the: a. basal ganglia. b. cerebellum. c. cerebral cortex. d. hippocampus 57. The hippocampus responds to false memories: a. with higher activation than it responds to true memories. b. with lower activation than it responds to true memories. c. with as high activation as it responds to true memories. d. The hippocampus does not respond to false memories. 58. An inability to store new things in memory is called _____ amnesia. a. anterograde b. episodic c. procedural d. retrograde

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Chap 07_9e 59. According to _____, memory for a word can depend on how well the test context matches the original study context.. a. the encoding-specificity principle b. the fan effect c. the priming effect d. state-dependent learning 60. In a typical interference experiment, which group performs the POOREST? a. A-B group b. A-C group c. A-D group d. C-D group 61. In Reder and Ross's (1983) experiment, the outcome for which condition replicated the fan effect? a. the outcome of the exact recall condition b. the outcome of the plausible retrieval condition c. the outcomes for both conditions d. the outcomes for neither condition 62. Procedural memory is supported by the: a. basal ganglia. b. cerebral cortex. c. hippocampal formation. d. parietal cortex. 63. Knowing what a chair is would be considered an example of _____ memory. a. episodic b. implicit c. procedural d. semantic 64. The _____ cortex plays a major role in the retention of memory. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal

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Chap 07_9e 65. Material learned in the lab: a. can interfere with material learned outside the lab. b. can interfere with material learned outside the lab, but only in recall studies. c. can interfere with material learned outside the lab, but only in recognition studies. d. cannot interfere with material learned outside the lab. 66. What is the decay theory of forgetting?

67. What were Penfield's findings? Why were his experiments discounted by memory researchers?

68. What is the interference theory of forgetting?

69. What is the encoding-specificity principle?

70. Why is the accuracy of eyewitness testimony oftentimes low?

71. What is retrograde amnesia? What is anterograde amnesia?

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Chap 07_9e 72. What did Cabeza, Rao, Wagner, Mayer, and Schacter (2001) find from their research on activation patterns produced in the cortex in response to true and false words?

73. What evidence suggests that forgotten memories are still stored?

74. When do interference effects occur?

75. What is the power law of forgetting?

76. What evidence suggests that people will use what they can remember to infer what else they might have studied?

77. Describe a study that suggests that information unrelated to target facts protects against interference.

78. What is semantic memory? Provide an example.

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Chap 07_9e 79. What is implicit memory? Give an example.

80. What is meant by state-dependent learning?

81. Describe the Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm.

82. What is false-memory syndrome?

83. Why does hippocampal damage NOT eliminate old memories formed before the damage?

84. Explain the basic idea behind spreading activation.

85. Describe a study that suggests that material learned in the lab can interfere with material learned outside the lab.

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Chap 07_9e 86. What is meant by mood congruence?

87. What are dissociations? Describe the dissociations between implicit and explicit memory.

88. What is episodic memory? Provide an example.

89. What is explicit memory? Give an example.

90. Describe the Anderson (1974) study on spreading activation. What were the results?

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Chap 07_9e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. d 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_9e 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. d 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_9e 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. a 66. The decay theory of forgetting holds that memory traces simply decay in strength over time. Data on long-term potentiation (LTP) suggest that this strength decay involves changes in the strength of connections between synapses. Thus, there may be a direct relationship between the concept of strength defined at the behavioral level and strength defined at the neural level. 67. Penfield stimulated portions of patients' brains, and he found that stimulation of the temporal lobes led patients to report memories that they were unable to report in normal recall, such as events in childhood. His experiments were discounted by memory researchers because there was no way to verify the accuracy of memories reported. 68. The interference theory of forgetting holds that learning new material can interfere with remembering old material. 69. The encoding-specificity principle refers to the idea that the probability of recalling an item at test depends on the similarity of its encoding at test to its original encoding at study. 70. The accuracy of eyewitness testimony is oftentimes low because people confuse what they actually observed about an incident with what they learned from other sources. Our ability to make inferences usually leads to a more coherent and accurate understanding of the world, but at the same time it can be difficult to distinguish between what we actually experienced versus our inferences. 71. Retrograde amnesia refers to loss of memory for events that occurred before an injury. Anterograde amnesia refers to an inability to store new things (after an injury).

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Chap 07_9e 72. Cabeza, Rao, Wagner, Mayer, and Schacter (2001) found that in the hippocampus proper, true words and false words produced almost identical fMRI responses, which were stronger than the responses produced by the new words. However, in the parahippocampal gyrus, an area just adjacent to the hippocampus, both false and new words produced weaker responses than the true words. The researchers suggested that the parahippocampus retains the original sensory experience of seeing the word, whereas the hippocampus maintains a more abstract representation, which would explain why true words produce a larger hemodynamic response in the parahippocampus. 73. Some evidence that forgotten memories are still stored: - Penfield (1959) stimulated the brains of patients and found that when he stimulated their temporal lobes, they reported memories that they couldn't normally recall (such as childhood events). - Nelson (1971) found that participants were more likely to remember paired associates that they had previously learned but forgotten, compared with newly changed pairs. This suggested that they retained some memory of the original paired associates, even if they had been unable to initially recall them. - The results of J. D. Johnson, McDuff, Rugg, and Norman's (2009) brain-imaging study suggest that, even if we don't consciously remember something, aspects of how we experienced it may be retained in our brains. 74. Interference effects occur when we learn new associations for concepts for which we also have old associations. 75. In a review of research on forgetting, Wixted and Ebbesen (1991) concluded that retention functions are generally power functions. This relationship is called the power law of forgetting. The retention functions associated with the power law of forgetting show diminishing loss with delay. 76. -

Bransford, Barclay, and Franks (1972) had participants study one of two sentences regarding turtles, a floating log, and a fish. They later presented participants with one of two sentences, one of which could be inferred from their studied sentence and one of which could not be inferred from their studied sentence. Participants were much more likely to say that they had studied the sentence that could be inferred. These participants thought that they had actually studied that sentence, when it fact it was just implied by the sentence they originally studied. - Sulin and Dooling (1974) asked participants to read a paragraph about a Gerald Martin's Seizure of Power. A second group of participants read the same passage, except that the name Adolf Hitler was substituted for Gerald Martin. A week after reading the passage, participants were given a recognition test in which they were presented with a sentence and asked to judge whether it had occurred in the passage they read originally. One of the critical test sentences was: He hated the Jews particularly and so persecuted them. Only 5% of participants who read the Gerald Martin passage accepted this sentence, but a full 50% of the participants who read the Adolf Hitler version thought they had read the sentence. The second group of participants had elaborated the story with facts they knew about Adolf Hitler. Thus, it seemed reasonable to them at test that this sentence had appeared in the studied material, but in this case their inference was wrong.

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Chap 07_9e 77. Bradshaw and Anderson (1982) looked at participants' ability to learn some little-known information about famous people under three conditions: single, unrelated, and related. In one condition, participants studied just one fact about a famous person ("Newton became emotionally unstable and insecure as a child."). In the unrelated condition, they had participants learn a target fact about the individual ("Locke was unhappy as a student at Westminster.") plus two unrelated facts ("Locke felt fruits were unwholesome for children. Locke had a long history of back trouble."). In the related condition, participants learned a target fact ("Mozart made a long journey from Munich to Paris.") plus two additional facts that were causally related to the target fact ("Mozart wanted to leave Munich to avoid a romantic entanglement. Mozart was intrigued by musical developments coming out of Paris.") Participants were then tested for their ability to recall the target facts immediately after studying them and after a week's delay. In each test, they were presented with names such as Newton, Mozart, and Locke and asked to recall what they had studied. Comparing the unrelated condition with the single condition shows the standard interference effect. Recall was worse when there were more facts to be learned about an item. However, the result is quite different when we compare the related condition to the single condition. Here, particularly after a week's delay, recall was better when there were more facts to be learned, presumably because the additional facts were causally related to the target facts. The results suggest that the redundancy of the relevant facts protected against interference, while more interference occurred through memorizing irrelevant facts. 78. Semantic memory reflects general knowledge of the world, such as what ice cream is or what popcorn is. 79. Implicit memory is a form of memory that we remember only in our actions and skills, for example, a skilled typist typing without looking at the keyboard. 80. State-dependent learning refers to the notion that people find it easier to recall information if they can return to the same emotional and physical state they were in when they learned the information. 81. In the Deese-Roediger-McDermott paradigm, participants study lists of words. Later, participants are shown words that are true (part of the original list), false (not part of the original list but strongly related to it), and new (not part of the original list and unrelated to it). Participants must decide whether each word was part of the original list. They tend to accept most of the true items and reject most of the new ones, but they also mistakenly accept most (~80%) of the false items. 82. False-memory syndrome is a controversy relating to individuals claiming that they recovered memories of childhood sexual abuse that they had suppressed. 83. New explicit memories are formed in the hippocampus, but, with experience, this information is transferred to the cortex. Hippocampal damage does not eliminate old memories formed before the damage because the permanent knowledge is deposited in the cortex. 84. The basic idea behind spreading activation is that when people are presented with a stimulus concept (e.g., "cat"), activation will spread from that source stimulus to all of its associated memory structures. The total amount of activation that can spread is limited, however, so less activation will spread to structures if there are many associated memory structures.

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Chap 07_9e 85. Results from Lewis and Anderson (1976) suggested that material learned in the lab can interfere with material learned outside the lab. Participants learned fantasy facts about public figures, and then they proceeded to a recognition test phase in which they saw (1) statements they had studied in the experiment, (2) true facts about the public figures, and (3) statements about the public figures that were false in the real world and had not been studied. Results indicated that participants responded more quickly to actual facts than to experimental facts, but their response time to actual facts increased with the number (or fan) for all types of facts. The results suggest that the experimental facts interfered with pre-experimental material. 86. Mood congruence refers to the fact that it is easier to remember happy memories when one is in a happy mood, easier to remember sad memories when one is in a sad mood, etc. 87. Dissociations are contrasts between explicit and implicit memory. An example given in the textbook relates to typists —typists have excellent implicit memory for the locations of keys on keyboards, but they may not have explicit memory for key locations except by imagining themselves typing. If we tested their key-location knowledge by having them type, they'd score almost perfectly; but if we tested their key-location knowledge by having them write down each key location, we might think they had no knowledge of the keyboard. 88. Episodic memory is a form of declarative (factual) memory that includes information about where and when the memory was learned, for example, a memory of a vacation. 89. Explicit memory is a form of memory that we can consciously recall, for example, recalling what you had for dinner the previous night. 90. The Anderson (1974) study involved asking participants to memorize 26 sentences of the form a-person-is-in-alocation. Some people were paired with only one location, some locations were paired with only one person, and some people and locations were paired more than once. Participants studied the sentences until they knew them well, and then they were presented with test sentences and had to identify those that were part of the original sentences. The results indicated that recognition time increased as a function of the sum of the number of studied sentences associated with the person and with the location in the test. In other words, the more a person or location was associated with a studied sentence, the longer the recognition time.

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Chap 08_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The Tower of Hanoi problem is solved by adopting a backup avoidance strategy. a. True b. False 2. Chimpanzees have the ability to solve problems using analogies. a. True b. False 3. Discovery is the ONLY method that most creatures possess to learn new operators. a. True b. False 4. Only humans engage in difference reduction. a. True b. False 5. Due to set effects, you might NOT see a coin as a screwdriver. a. True b. False 6. Participants do not know when they are close to the solution of an insight problem. a. True b. False 7. Analogical problem solving is supported by the lateral geniculate nucleus. a. True b. False 8. Humans CANNOT acquire new operators just by being told about them. a. True b. False 9. Only humans are capable of advanced problem solving. a. True b. False 10. The prefrontal cortex plays a critical role in maintaining goal structures. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. One of the major prerequisites to developing complex goal structures is the ability to maintain these goal structures in _____ memory. a. prefrontal b. long-term c. short-term d. working 12. According to Halford (1992), what is the hallmark of human cognition? a. analogical reasoning b. communication c. concept of self d. theory of mind 13. What did British physicist Ernest Rutherford demonstrate the validity of by using the solar system as a model for the structure of the atom, in which electrons revolve around the nucleus of the atom in the same way as the planets revolve around the sun? a. analogy b. imitation c. discovery d. example 14. Difference reduction is sometimes called: a. backup avoidance. b. hill climbing. c. means-ends analysis. d. search. 15. What area(s) of Ravi's brain will be activated as he studies a verbal explanation with an example of a mathematical concept? a. visual regions of the occipital lobes b. parietal lobes c. frontal lobes d. parietal and frontal lobes

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Chap 08_9e 16. _____ prefrontal structures tend to be more involved in the organization of behavior. a. Left-hemisphere b. Bilateral c. Posterior d. Ventral 17. _____ describes the creation of a new subgoal to enable an operator to apply. a. Backup avoidance b. Difference reduction c. Hill climbing d. Means-ends analysis 18. People have trouble solving a problem at points where the correct solution involves increasing the difference between the current state and the: a. start state. b. initial state. c. intermediary state. d. goal state. 19. A(n) _____ problem is one in which individuals are not aware that they are close to a solution. a. incubation b. insight c. non-insight d. set 20. Linda is baking cookies and just realized that she lent her cookie cutters to a friend. What is Linda a victim of when she thinks that cookies can be cut from the dough only with a cookie cutter? a. incubation effect b. insight problem c. functional fixedness d. Einstellung effect 21. Children under the age of 5 experience difficulty solving analogical reasoning problems because their _____ cortices have not yet matured. a. temporal b. sensorimotor c. parietal d. frontal

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Chap 08_9e 22. The BEST explanation for incubation effects relates them to: a. atmosphere effects. b. functional fixedness. c. insight effects. d. set effects. 23. Failure to see a hammer as a paperweight is an example of: a. Einstellung effects. b. functional fixedness. c. incubation effects. d. set effects. 24. Humans tend to select the operator that MOST reduces the difference between the current state and the goal. This is referred to as: a. backup difference. b. difference reduction. c. means-ends analysis. d. difference search. 25. What kind of problem did Whitaker, Vendetti, Wendelken, and Bunge (2018) ask their research participants when presenting them with visual stimuli such as "dress is to closet as milk carton is to what"? a. analogy b. imitation c. discovery d. example 26. Problem solving depends on the: a. cerebellum. b. parietal cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. temporal cortex. 27. Kotovsky and colleagues (1985) studied the way individuals approach the Tower of Hanoi problem. They found that participants: a. adopted the backup-avoidance strategy. b. adopted the difference-reduction strategy. c. initially adopted the backup-avoidance strategy, then switched to a means–ends strategy. d. initially adopted the difference-reduction strategy, then switched to a means–ends strategy.

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Chap 08_9e 28. Patients with _____ damage have difficulty inhibiting a predominant response. a. cerebellum b. prefrontal c. parietal d. temporal 29. _____ trees visually represent the various problem states. a. Goal b. Problem c. Search d. State 30. Which method do humans NOT use to guide their selection of operators? a. backup avoidance b. difference reduction c. means-ends analysis d. search 31. A(n) _____ is a representation of the problem in some degree of solution. a. intermediate goal space b. intermediate problem space c. intermediate search d. state 32. What do problem-solving operators generate, through which the problem solver must search to find a path to the goal? a. states b. goals c. intermediaries d. choices 33. When solving a problem, the problem solver is engaged in a: a. goal search. b. problem search. c. search. d. state search.

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Chap 08_9e 34. _____ refers to the tendency to see objects as serving only conventional functions. a. Functional fixedness b. Incubation effects c. Functional effects d. Einstellung effects 35. Problem solving by _____ involves identifying a past problem solution that is relevant to a current problem and then mapping the elements from that solution to produce an operator for the current problem. a. analogy b. imitation c. discovery d. example 36. According to Daw and colleagues (2005), one basis for learning operators involves the _____, where a mental model of how the operators work is built. a. basal ganglia b. parietal cortex c. prefrontal cortex d. temporal cortex 37. What is the major advantage of means-ends analysis over difference reduction? a. Means-ends analysis will abandon an operator if it cannot be applied immediately. b. Means-ends analysis will not abandon an operator if it cannot be applied immediately. c. Means-ends analysis tries to eliminate the differences between the current state and the goal state. d. Means-ends analysis does not try to eliminate the differences between the current state and the goal state. 38. Novel tool building is an instance of: a. backup avoidance. b. hill climbing. c. difference reduction. d. operator subgoaling. 39. Buser and Yuan (2016) found women were more likely to give up than men when faced with failure in a mathematics contest. This phenomenon is known as: a. self-serving bias. b. stereotype threat. c. cognitive dissonance. d. fundamental attribution error.

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Chap 08_9e 40. When Gick and Holyoak (1980) read participants the story about the general and the dictator, and then gave them Duncker's (1945) ray problem, what did they find was essential for participants to achieve success? a. Many participants immediately noticed the relevance of the first story to the second. b. Participants had to be explicitly told to use the first story as an analogy for the second. c. Even with direction, many participants did not connect the first story to the second. d. Many participants immediately realized that the two stories were unrelated. 41. _____ subgoal refers to a subgoal whose purpose is to unblock the application of an operator. a. Applicator b. Means-ends operating c. Operator d. Operator release 42. Problem solving is described in terms of searching a _____. a. goal b. problem space c. problem search d. problem state 43. The capacity to solve analogical problems is: a. only found in humans. b. almost uniquely found in humans. c. only found in primates. d. only found in mammals. 44. We can become biased by our experiences to prefer certain operators when solving a problem. This is referred to as a(n) _____ effect. a. analogy b. incubation c. insight d. set 45. What is the ONLY method of acquiring new operators that most other creatures have? a. discovery b. insight c. observation d. direct instruction

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Chap 08_9e 46. Metcalfe and Wiebe (1987) found that 15 seconds before solving a non-insight problem, participants: a. were very confident that they were close to a solution. b. were fairly confident that they were close to a solution. c. had little idea that they were close to a solution. d. reported absolutely no knowledge of the solution. 47. The situation in which a problem is solved is referred to as the _____ state. a. goal b. end c. start d. intermediate 48. How did Sarah, Premack's chimpanzee, perform on analogy-solving tasks? a. Sarah solved these problems more often than chance, but she was more prone to error than human participants. b. Sarah solved these problems more often than they would have been by chance, and she was less prone to error than human participants. c. Sarah solved these problems less often than they would have been by chance, and she was more prone to error than human participants. d. Sarah solved these problems less often than they would have been by chance, but she was less prone to error than human participants. 49. _____ biases the solver against any operator that undoes the effect of the previous operators. a. Backup avoidance b. Difference reduction c. Hill climbing d. Means-ends analysis 50. Metcalfe and Wiebe (1987) found that 15 seconds before solving an insight problem, participants: a. were very confident that they were close to a solution. b. were fairly confident that they were close to a solution. c. had little idea that they were close to a solution. d. reported absolutely no knowledge of the solution. 51. When solving an insight problem, the solution comes: a. in a single moment. b. almost immediately. c. only to some people. d. little by little.

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Chap 08_9e 52. Which is NOT a feature of problem solving? a. goal directedness b. goal-space search c. operator application d. subgoal decomposition 53. _____ refers to an action that will transform the problem state into another problem state. a. Goal state b. Operator c. Search d. State 54. In comparison to other species, _____ cortical structures have evolved the MOST in the human brain. a. prefrontal b. dorsal c. posterior d. ventral 55. Analogical problem solving depends on the: a. basal ganglia. b. parietal cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. temporal cortex. 56. The _____ cortex plays a major role in the overall organization of behavior. a. parietal b. prefrontal c. sensorimotor d. temporal 57. What region of the brain did Gazzaniga, Ivry, and Mangun (1998) find was activated during many tasks that involve organizing novel and complex behavior? a. basal ganglia b. cerebellum c. nucleus accumbens d. prefrontal cortex

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Chap 08_9e 58. _____ is/are better for learning problem-solving operators. a. Abstract instruction b. Direct instruction c. Verbal instruction with examples d. Either abstract instruction or direct instruction 59. Lucas and Nordgren (2015) found that in many situations, people _____ how much they could achieve. a. overestimate b. are unsure of c. underestimate d. are unaware of 60. The _____ plays a critical role in maintaining goal structures. a. basal ganglia b. cerebellum c. nucleus accumbens d. prefrontal cortex 61. According to Daw and colleagues (2005), one basis for learning operators involves the _____, where simple associations are gradually reinforced. a. basal ganglia b. parietal cortex c. prefrontal cortex d. temporal cortex 62. _____ is the process by which the solver uses the operators of one problem to solve another. a. Analogy b. Discovery c. Insight d. Observation 63. The Tower of Hanoi problem is solved by adopting a _____ strategy. a. backup-avoidance b. difference-reduction c. hill-climbing d. means-ends

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Chap 08_9e 64. Which of the following is NOT a way to acquire new problem-solving operators? a. discovery b. insight c. by example d. direct instruction 65. The capacity of nonhuman primates for learning by imitation has often been: a. overestimated. b. underestimated. c. accurately estimated. d. It depends on the nonhuman primate. 66. What did Jung-Beeman et al. (2004) find when they conducted studies of brain activity while people tried to solve problems?

67. What regions of the brain are activated in analogical reasoning?

68. What is an analogy?

69. How is means–ends analysis like difference reduction?

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Chap 08_9e 70. With regard to difference reduction, at what points do people have trouble solving a problem?

71. What is an insight problem?

72. When do people give up on problem solving?

73. Only humans are capable of advanced problem solving. Why?

74. Why do young children have difficulty with analogy problems?

75. What is difference reduction? What is its potential flaw?

76. Describe, with examples, the three ways to acquire new problem-solving operators.

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Chap 08_9e 77. Describe the three criteria that humans use to select operators.

78. List three ways to acquire new problem-solving operators.

79. What are set effects? What is the Einstellung effect?

80. How did Sarah, Premack's chimpanzee, respond to analogies?

81. List the three features of problem solving.

82. What is functional fixedness?

83. Why does the best learning occur when students have access to verbal instruction and examples?

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Chap 08_9e 84. What part of the brain plays a critical role in maintaining goal structures?

85. Describe the problem-solving process.

86. What are the three features of problem solving?

87. What are incubation effects?

88. What is an operator subgoal?

89. What is the BEST explanation for incubation effects?

90. Do other species have the capacity for analogical reasoning?

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Chap 08_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_9e 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_9e 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. Activity in the left prefrontal region increases as the search for a solution progresses, reflecting increasing effort as the search goes on. However, when the search is successful, there is an abrupt drop in activity after the insight. Other regions of the brain, such as the motor region, show a rise in activity at this point, associated with the generation of the response. Thus, the drop in activity in the prefrontal cortex, reflecting the end to the search for the solution, is strikingly different from the rise in activity in other brain regions. 67. Whitaker, Vendetti, Wendelken, and Bunge (2018) found that an increase in activity in a left anterior prefrontal region predicted successful completion of the analogy in trials across all participants aged 6–19 after correcting the effects of age. 68. An analogy is a process by which a problem solver extracts the operators used to solve one problem and maps them onto a solution for another problem. 69. Means–ends analysis is like difference reduction in that it tries to eliminate the differences between the current state and the goal state. 70. People have trouble in solving a problem at points where the correct solution involves increasing the difference between the current state and the goal state. 71. An insight problem is one in which people are not aware that they are close to a solution. 72. Judgments about when to give up on solving a problem are based on properties of the problem, the person's history of past success at solving such problems, and perceptions of one's ability to solve such problems. 73. Humans have a much larger prefrontal cortex than other species, and this plays a crucial role in a number of higherlevel cognitive functions.

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Chap 08_9e 74. Children under the age of five struggle to solve analogical reasoning problems because their frontal cortex has not yet matured. Also, Wendelken, O'Hare, Whitaker, Ferrer, and Bunge (2011) found in their brain-imaging study that activity in children's right anterior prefrontal cortex does not vary appropriately with the difficulty of the task. 75. By reducing the difference between the goal and the current state, the problem solver is taking a step "higher" toward the goal when using difference reduction. The potential flaw of hill climbing is that it only considers whether the next step is an improvement, not whether the larger plan will work, so we might reach the top of a hill that is lower than the highest point (the goal). 76. New problem-solving operators can be acquired by: - Discovery—for example, discovering how a new microwave oven works by playing with it and so learning a new operator for preparing food; discovering a new drug that kills bacteria and so inventing a new operator for combating infections - Being told about them—for example, having another person tell you about an effective operator they used to solve a problem - Observing someone else use them—for example, seeing a worked example of an algebra problem 77. Three criteria are: - Backup avoidance—biases the problem solver against any operator that undoes the effect of the previous operators - Difference reduction—selecting the operator that most reduces the difference between the current state and the goal - Means-ends analysis—the creation of new subgoals (end) to enable operator (means) to apply 78. The three ways to acquire new problem-solving operators are: by discovery, by being told about them, and by example (i.e., by observing someone else use them). 79. Set effects occur when people are biased in their preference for certain operators when solving a problem. The Einstellung effect refers to mechanization of thought, in which people can have a powerful bias toward solving a problem in a specific way. 80. Sarah was able to solve verbal analogies, but she was much more prone to error than human beings would be. 81. The three features of problem solving are goal directedness, subgoal decomposition, and operator application. 82. Functional fixedness is when people become fixed on representing an object according to its conventional function and fail to represent it as having a novel function. 83. Many studies have been performed comparing the effectiveness of worked examples and verbal instructions in learning mathematical problem-solving skills (Lee and Anderson, 2013). Real mathematics instruction typically involves a mix of these two types of instruction. A large number of studies have also investigated how much verbal instruction adds to worked examples. Verbal instruction is particularly helpful with examples that are obscure or suggest incorrect conclusions..

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Chap 08_9e 84. The process of handling complex goal structures with subgoals is performed by the prefrontal cortex that is much larger in the higher primates than in most other mammals and is larger in humans than in apes. The prefrontal cortex facilitates holding information in working memory. One of the major prerequisites to developing complex goal structures is the ability to maintain these goal structures in working memory. 85. The problem-solving process progresses from the start state (the initial situation of the problem), through intermediate states, and then to the goal state. This progression involves finding some possible sequence of operators in the problem space that leads from the start state to the goal state. Solving a problem is similar to engaging in a search, as the problem solver must find an appropriate path through a maze of states. 86. The three features of problem solving are: - Goal directedness: The behavior is clearly organized toward achieving a goal. - Subgoal decomposition: The problem solution requires that the original goal be decomposed into subtasks (subgoals). - Operator application: Operators (actions that transform the problem state into another problem state) are used sequentially to achieve subgoals. 87. Incubation effects refer to the phenomenon of people putting a problem aside for hours, days, or weeks and then, when they return to it, they solve it quickly. 88. An operator subgoal is a subgoal whose purpose is to eliminate a difference that is blocking the application of an operator. 89. Incubation effects refer to the phenomenon of people putting a problem aside for hours, days, or weeks and then, when they return to it, solving it quickly. The best explanation for incubation effects likens them to set effects— people set themselves to think about a problem a certain way when they initially try to solve it but having time away from it allows those inappropriate strategies or knowledge structures to dissipate so that a fresh approach can be tried. Thus, the person "forgets" inappropriate or ineffective ways of solving the problem. 90. Analogical problem solving appears to be a capability nearly unique to humans and depends on the advanced development of the prefrontal cortex.

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Chap 09_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. As a person becomes more proficient at a task, he uses more of his mental energy to perform that task. a. True b. False 2. The transition from novices to experts entails the same changes in strategy in all domains. a. True b. False 3. Computers achieve expertise differently than humans. a. True b. False 4. As participants learn to read transformed text, activity in the hippocampus decreases. a. True b. False 5. A tactic is a method of accomplishing a particular goal. a. True b. False 6. Adults do not grow new neurons. a. True b. False 7. A great deal of deliberate practice is necessary to develop expertise in any field. a. True b. False 8. The performance of a cognitive skill severely declines over long retention intervals. a. True b. False 9. As expertise develops, reliance on procedural knowledge increases. a. True b. False 10. Transfer is tied to the identity of surface elements. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which area of the brain is involved in the control of cognition? a. the parietal cortex b. the prefrontal cortex c. the anterior cingulate cortex d. the temporal cortex 12. The benefit of further practice: a. slowly diminishes. b. slowly increases. c. rapidly diminishes. d. rapidly increases. 13. Using PET, Jenkins et al. (1994) found that there was: a. comparable activation early versus late in the hippocampus. b. more activation in the hippocampus early in learning than late in learning. c. more activation in the hippocampus late in learning than early in learning. d. no activation in the hippocampus at any time. 14. According to the _____, the transfer of skills will span domains that have no content in common. a. doctrine of formal discipline b. power law of learning c. theory of identical elements d. theory of negative transfer 15. Chris can type quickly, without looking at the keyboard. He is in the _____ stage. a. acquisition b. associative c. autonomous d. cognitive 16. Using PET, Jenkins et al. (1994) found that there was: a. comparable activation early versus late in the frontal areas. b. more activation in the frontal areas early in learning than late in learning. c. more activation in the frontal areas late in learning than early in learning. d. no activation in the frontal areas at any time.

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Chap 09_9e 17. According to the _____, the mind is NOT composed of general faculties. a. doctrine of formal discipline b. power law of learning c. theory of identical elements d. theory of negative transfer 18. There _____ seems to be negative transfer of skills. a. always b. sometimes c. rarely d. never 19. Which area of the brain is involved in representing a problem internally? a. the parietal cortex b. the prefrontal cortex c. the anterior cingulate cortex d. the temporal cortex 20. According to Hayes (1985), no one reaches genius level without at least _____ years of practice. a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10 21. Chris is learning how to type. He first learns the locations of the keys. He is in the _____ stage. a. acquisition b. associative c. autonomous d. cognitive 22. According to Skoyles (1999), what ability allowed humans to spread throughout the world? a. the ability to communicate b. the ability to acquire expertise in novel environments c. the ability to form societal institutions d. the ability to adapt to the environment

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Chap 09_9e 23. Anderson (2007) found that after 5 days of practice with math problems, there was: a. comparable activation for motor movements and cognitive control in the ACC after practice. b. more activation in the ACC early in practice than late in practice. c. more activation in the ACC late in practice than early in practice. d. no activation of the ACC at any time. 24. In the _____ stage of skill acquisition, the individual develops a declarative encoding of the skill. a. acquisition b. associative acquisition c. autonomous acquisition d. cognitive acquisition 25. As participants learn to read transformed text, activity in the _____ decreases. a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. motor cortex d. prefrontal cortex 26. Bediou et al. (2018) suggest that failure to find transfer of skills in well-controlled studies of video games occurred because those studies: a. used spaced practice. b. used massed practice. c. were conducted on boys only. d. were conducted on teenagers only. 27. _____ is difficult because it requires setting and keeping track of goals and subgoals. a. Reasoning b. Reasoning backward c. Reasoning forward d. Tactical learning 28. By providing feedback on learning, intelligent tutors: a. help students' mastery of complex skills. b. hinder students' mastery of complex skills. c. neither help nor hinder students' mastery of complex skills. d. never provide feedback.

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Chap 09_9e 29. As one becomes more practiced at a task, brain activation shifts from the: a. basal ganglia to the prefrontal cortex. b. basal ganglia to more posterior areas of the cortex. c. prefrontal cortex to the basal ganglia. d. prefrontal cortex to more posterior areas of the cortex. 30. After joining a cigar rolling factory, Andy's speed in rolling cigars gradually went up and then plateaued. Why did Andy reach a plateau after even more years of practice? a. Andy was bored of the repetitive work. b. Andy had reached his maximum skill output. c. Andy was experiencing a cognitive decline with more years at the factory. d. His speed approached the limit imposed by the cigar-making machinery. 31. What has been observed in the activation of the fusiform area when novice and expert chess players are presented with random or normal chess positions? Activation in the fusiform area was: a. considerably higher for experts than for novices. b. considerably higher for novices than for experts. c. the same for experts and for novices. d. random for experts and for novices. 32. In the _____ stage of skill acquisition, errors in initial understanding are detected and eliminated. a. learning b. associative c. autonomous d. cognitive 33. What did Carraher et al. (1985) discover about Brazilian children who worked as street vendors? a. The children solved more math problems in the situated context than the lab context. b. The children solved less math problems in the situated context than the lab context. c. The children solved an equal number of math problems in both the situated and lab contexts. d. The children could not solve math problems in the lab context. 34. _____ eliminates the need to keep track of subgoals. a. Reasoning b. Reasoning backward c. Reasoning forward d. Tactical learning

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Chap 09_9e 35. Private human tutoring is: a. very ineffective. b. somewhat ineffective. c. somewhat effective. d. very effective. 36. The process of converting declarative knowledge into procedural knowledge is called: a. conversion. b. procedural implicitization. c. pattern-driven application. d. proceduralization. 37. When Chase and Simon (1973) used a chessboard-reproduction task to examine the nature of the patterns, or "chunks," used by chess masters, they found: a. the participants arranged the black pieces first. b. the participants arranged the white pieces first. c. chunks tended to define meaningful game relations among the pieces. d. the pawns were placed in chunks last of all. 38. Humans are the only species that are driven by the need to quickly learn how to exploit the novel features of the new environments by: a. acquiring skills. b. communication. c. displaying advanced behavioral plasticity. d. using tools. 39. Approaches to instruction that begin with an analysis of the elements to be taught are called: a. componential analyses. b. intelligent tutoring systems. c. strategic learning analyses. d. tactical learning analyses. 40. The process by which people switch from explicit use of declarative knowledge to direct application of procedural knowledge that enables them to perform a task without thinking about it is known as: a. proceduralization. b. tactical learning. c. strategic learning. d. procedural learning.

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Chap 09_9e 41. According to the _____, studying esoteric subjects serves to discipline the mind. a. doctrine of formal discipline b. power law of learning c. theory of identical disciplines d. theory of negative transfer 42. The MOST extensive use of componential analysis is for: a. intelligent tutoring systems. b. private human tutoring. c. strategic learning analysis. d. tactical learning analysis. 43. Anderson (2007) found that after 5 days of practice with math problems, there was: a. comparable activation in the parietal cortex early in practice and late in practice. b. more activation in the parietal cortex early in practice than late in practice. c. more activation in the parietal cortex late in practice than early in practice. d. no activation of the parietal cortex at any time. 44. Anderson (2007) found that after 5 days of practice with math problems, there was: a. comparable activation in the prefrontal cortex early in practice and late in practice. b. more activation in the prefrontal cortex early in practice than late in practice. c. more activation in the prefrontal cortex late in practice than early in practice. d. no activation of the prefrontal cortex at any time. 45. Performance of a cognitive skill improves as a power function of: a. acquisition. b. practice. c. proceduralization. d. retention. 46. As participants learn to read transformed text, activity in the _____ increases. a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. motor cortex d. prefrontal cortex

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Chap 09_9e 47. Experts seem to display a special enhanced memory for: a. all knowledge. b. knowledge in their domains of expertise. c. expert explicit knowledge. d. expert implicit knowledge. 48. In deliberate practice, people are motivated to: a. learn. b. just perform. c. practice. d. perform and practice. 49. When chess players are presented with random chessboard configurations: a. duffers remember the random configurations better than do masters. b. masters remember the random configurations better than do duffers. c. masters remember the random configurations no better than do duffers. d. duffers recall random configurations while masters falsely recall actual configurations. 50. As individuals become more proficient at a task, they seem to use _____ of their brains to perform that task. a. less b. more c. much more d. the same quantity 51. In the _____ stage of skill acquisition, the procedure becomes more and more automated and rapid. a. transformational b. associative c. autonomous d. cognitive 52. Learning one skill makes a person worse at learning another skill. This phenomenon is referred to as: a. positive interference. b. negative interference. c. positive transfer. d. negative transfer.

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Chap 09_9e 53. Performance of a cognitive skill shows _____ declines over _____ retention intervals. a. modest; short b. large; short c. modest; long d. large; long 54. _____ is the process by which one learns specific procedures for solving specific problems. a. Learning b. Proceduralization c. Tactical learning d. Strategic learning 55. After Chris learns the locations of the keyboard keys, he learns to use the Shift and Control keys. He is in the _____ stage. a. acquisition b. associative c. autonomous d. cognitive 56. The theory of identical elements was _____ in its predictions. a. accurate b. too broad c. too narrow d. similar to the doctrine of formal discipline 57. In the _____ stage of skill acquisition, connections among the elements required for successful performance are strengthened. a. transformational b. associative c. autonomous d. cognitive 58. Which area of the brain is involved in retrieving task instructions? a. the parietal cortex b. the prefrontal cortex c. the anterior cingulate cortex d. the temporal cortex

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Chap 09_9e 59. _____ refers to a process by which individuals learn to organize their problem solving. a. Learning b. Proceduralization c. Tactical learning d. Strategic learning 60. _____ practice can drive neural growth in the adult brain. a. A little b. Some c. Extensive d. No amount of 61. The doctrine of formal discipline was _____ in its predictions. a. accurate b. too broad c. too narrow d. similar to the theory of identical elements 62. Chase and Ericsson (1982) hypothesized that part of what underlies the development of expertise in other domains, such as chess, is the development of _____ that allows superior recall for past patterns. a. acquisition structures b. associative structures c. attentive structures d. retrieval structures 63. Neil is an expert in physics. When solving problems, Neil can apply approaches successful in: a. all domains. b. all science domains. c. all advanced domains except physics. d. primarily physics. 64. The level of achievement for a task is determined by: a. genetic factors. b. practice. c. motivation. d. genetic factors and practice.

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Chap 09_9e 65. According to Skoyles (1999), what drove the expansion of the human brain? a. the need to acquire expertise in novel environments b. the need to create mediums for personal expression c. the need to develop spoken language d. the need to form societal institutions 66. What is proceduralization?

67. How can intelligent tutors help students to develop expertise?

68. What is the role of deliberate practice in the development of expertise?

69. How is educational instruction improved?

70. How do computers achieve expertise compared to humans?

71. Compare pattern learning of experts with that of novices, as shown by chess players.

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Chap 09_9e 72. What is negative transfer?

73. How do expert problem solvers perceive problems?

74. Compare the doctrine of formal discipline with the theory of identical elements.

75. What advantage do experts have with regards to their memories?

76. What is "minimum machine cycle time"?

77. What has supported the evolution of human civilization?

78. Explain the doctrine of formal discipline.

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Chap 09_9e 79. What changes will Ryan's brain undergo after a few days of practicing mathematical problems?

80. What is tactical learning?

81. What is strategic learning?

82. What were the findings of Poldrack and Gabrieli's (2001) study and Poldrack et al.'s (1999) study? How do these results relate to the stages of skill acquisition?

83. Describe Carraher et al.'s (1985) study on transfer of skill. What was the outcome?

84. In which phase of skill acquisition does the procedure become more and more automatic?

85. According to de Groot (1965, 1966), what separated master chess players from weaker chess players?

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Chap 09_9e 86. As one becomes more proficient at a task, what brain change occurs?

87. When is there transfer between skills?

88. Compare long-term memory of experts with that of novices.

89. What is the disadvantage of reasoning backward and of reasoning forward?

90. Describe the three phases of skill acquisition.

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Chap 09_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. d 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. b 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_9e 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. c 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_9e 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. a 66. Proceduralization refers to the process by which people switch from explicit use of declarative knowledge to direct application of procedural knowledge that enables them to perform the task without thinking about it. 67. They can help by carefully monitoring individual components of a skill and providing feedback on learning. 68. A great deal of deliberate practice is necessary to develop expertise in any field. 69. Educational instruction is improved by utilizing approaches that identify the underlying knowledge components and ensuring that students master them all. 70. Computers achieve expertise differently. In the case of chess expertise, artificial intelligence algorithms have been developed that are successful at all sorts of problem-solving applications, including playing chess. This has led to a style of chess-playing software program that is very different from human chess play that relies much more on pattern recognition 71. In studies of chess novices and experts, chess experts seem to have stored the solutions to many problems due to their experience playing chess, while novices must solve these problems as though they were novel. Novices have to analyze many different configurations, trying to figure out their consequences and acting accordingly. Chess masters have this information already stored in memory, which results in their making fewer errors and being able to focus their problem-solving efforts on more sophisticated aspects and strategies of chess. Their expert pattern learning and better memory for board positions is a part of their tactical learning. This is a major advantage that points to the fact that humans are relatively good at pattern recognition but relatively poor at tasks like mentally searching through a possible sequence of moves. 72. Negative transfer is the phenomenon in which learning one skill makes a person worse at learning another skill.

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Chap 09_9e 73. As they acquire expertise, problem solvers learn to perceive problems in ways that enable more effective problemsolving procedures to apply. This dimension of learning can be nicely demonstrated in the domain of physics, an intellectually deep subject where the principles for solving a problem are typically not explicitly represented in the statement of the problem. Experts learn to see these implicit principles and represent problems in terms of them. Experts map the surface features of a problem onto deeper principles. This ability is very useful because the deeper principles are more predictive of the method of solution. 74. Doctrine of formal discipline: - The doctrine of formal discipline held that studying esoteric subjects like Latin and geometry was significantly valuable because it served to discipline the mind, as though it were a muscle that could be exercised. - This "faculty view" held that the mind is composed of a collection of general faculties, such as observation, attention, discrimination, and reasoning. - The mind could be exercised through high levels of exertion (like Latin or geometry). - It was believed that the transfer of skill was broad and took place at a general level, sometimes spanning domains that have no content in common. Theory of identical elements: - The theory of identical elements proposed that the mind is not composed of general faculties, but rather of specific habits and associations that provide a person with a variety of narrow responses to very specific stimuli. - The mind was regarded as just a convenient way to describe countless special operations or functions. - Training in one kind of activity would transfer skill to another only if the activities had situation-response elements in common. 75. As people become more expert in a domain, they develop a better ability to store problem information in long-term memory and to retrieve it. 76. The performance of complex skills, requiring the coordination of many simple associations improves according to a power law. The improvement in performance goes up initially, followed by no further improvement. This is called "minimum machine cycle time" that places a limit on how much improvement can be achieved, determined by the equipment, the person's age and physical condition, and so on. 77. High levels of expertise in novel domains has supported the evolution of human civilization. 78. -

The doctrine of formal discipline held that studying esoteric subjects like Latin and geometry was significantly valuable because it served to discipline the mind, as though it were a muscle that could be exercised. - This "faculty view" held that the mind is composed of a collection of general faculties, such as observation, attention, discrimination, and reasoning. - The mind could be exercised through high levels of exertion (like Latin or geometry). - It was believed that the transfer of skill was broad and took place at a general level, sometimes spanning domains that have no content in common.

79. The activation for motor movements and for cognitive control (in the ACC) does not change much after practice. There is some reduction in activation in the parietal region, suggesting that the representational demands may decrease a bit after practice. However, the dramatic change is in activation in the prefrontal region, where a major decrease after practice indicates that task instructions are no longer being retrieved; rather, knowledge of the task instructions is being directly applied. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_9e 80. Tactical learning is the process of learning to execute a sequence of actions to solve a problem or parts of a problem. 81. Strategic learning involves learning how to organize one's problem solving to capitalize on the general structure of a class of problems. 82. -

Poldrack and Gabrieli (2001): This fMRI brain-imaging study revealed increased activity in the basal ganglia and decreased activity in the hippocampus as participants learned to read transformed text - Poldrack et al. (1999): This was also a skill-acquisition task that required the classification of stimuli. As participants developed the skill, they appeared to make progress toward a direct recognition of the stimuli. - Overall, results of brain-imaging research suggest brain changes that are consistent with the switch between the cognitive and associative stages.

83. -

This study involved researchers investigating the mathematical strategies used by Brazilian schoolchildren who also worked as street vendors. The children were able to use quite sophisticated strategies for calculating the total cost of orders consisting of different numbers of different objects. They could also perform these calculations in their heads. - Children were able to correctly solve problems 98% of the time in the real-world context but only 37% of the time in the laboratory context. If the problems were stated as word problems, however, their performance improved to 74% correct.

84. The third phase in the standard analysis of skill acquisition is the autonomous phase, in which the procedure becomes more and more automatic and rapid. Complex skills gradually evolve in the direction of requiring fewer processing resources. 85. de Groot presented chess masters and chess duffers with chess positions (i.e., chessboards with pieces in a configuration that could occur in a game) for just 5 seconds and then removed the chess pieces. The chess masters were able to accurately reconstruct the positions of more than 20 pieces after just 5 seconds of study, while the chess duffers could reconstruct the positions of only 4 or 5 pieces. 86. As people become more proficient at a task, they use less of their mental energy (metabolic expenditure) to perform that task. 87. Transfer only occurs when the skills have the same abstract knowledge elements. 88. -

Chess experts have an increased capacity to store information about the domain (chess) long term. However, chess experts and novices showed the same poor memory for three-letter trigrams (not in the domain of chess). Thus, their long-term memory advantage is only for their domain of expertise. - Compared with novices, chess experts also appear to be able to remember more chessboard patterns as well as larger patterns.

89. -

Reasoning backward: It is hard because it requires setting goals and subgoals and continuously tracking them; it requires a great deal of working memory and can lead to errors. - Reasoning forward: In order to do so, one must know which of the many possible forward inferences are relevant to the final solution (usually only experts know this); this can be much more difficult for novices in specific problem-solving situations.

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Chap 09_9e 90. The three phases of skill acquisition are: - Cognitive phase: People develop a declarative encoding of the skill; they commit to memory a set of facts relevant to the skill. - Associative phase: Errors in the initial understanding are gradually detected and eliminated; connections are strengthened among the various elements required for successful performance. - Autonomous phase: The procedure becomes more and more automated and rapid.

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Chap 10_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Individuals are generally bad at recognizing valid syllogisms when these are stated with neutral content. a. True b. False 2. Conjunctive concepts are easiest to discover. a. True b. False 3. There are different interpretations of the logical connective if. a. True b. False 4. All, no, and some are universal statements. a. True b. False 5. Participants perform better on the Wason card-selection task when they take the perspective of detecting whether a social rule has been violated. a. True b. False 6. Okada and Simon found that individuals were more successful than pairs at completing a task. a. True b. False 7. Modus ponens inferences and modus tollens inferences are frequently accepted. a. True b. False 8. Reasoning about problems with meaningful content activates the left ventral-prefrontal and left temporalparietal brain regions. a. True b. False 9. Affirmation of the consequent is an example of a valid inference. a. True b. False 10. The atmosphere hypothesis tries to predict what conclusions individuals will accept. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. According to Bruner et al.'s (1956) _____ concept, a stimulus is an instance of the concept if either of the features is present. a. conjunctive b. disjunctive c. relational d. distant 12. A rule about a social norm is called a: a. norm rule. b. permission interpretation. c. permission rule. d. permission schema. 13. In the Wason task, participants select those cards that will be informative under a(n) _____ model. a. induction b. logical c. permission d. probabilistic 14. According to Bruner et al.'s (1956) _____ concept, a stimulus is an instance of the concept only if certain features are in a specified relationship. a. conjunctive b. disjunctive c. relational d. distant relational 15. When judging content-free material, _____ regions of the brain are active. a. parietal b. left-prefrontal c. temporal-parietal d. left-prefrontal regions and temporal-parietal 16. Which is an invalid inference? a. modus ponens b. modus ponens and modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent d. affirmation of the consequent and denial of the antecedent

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Chap 10_9e 17. A(n) _____ is an assertion. a. antecedent b. consequent c. conditional statement d. syllogism 18. What type of reasoning processes are slow and deliberate and make heavy demands on working memory? a. Type 1 processes b. Type 2 processes c. Type 3 processes d. Type 4 processes 19. Which is NOT a logical quantifier? a. "all" b. "some" c. "no" d. "maybe" 20. Which is a particular statement? a. All balloons are red. b. Some balloons are red. c. No balloons are red. d. Each statement is a particular statement. 21. Craig and Delia are married. Delia is the mother of Jane. That Delia is older than Jane is a(n) _____ inference. a. deductive b. inductive c. antecedent d. consequent 22. According to Johnson-Laird (1983), individuals make errors in reasoning because: a. they overlook possible explanations of the conclusion. b. they overlook possible explanations of the premises. c. the mental models they create are lacking. d. the situation models they create are lacking.

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Chap 10_9e 23. A is the antecedent, and B is the consequent. Given that A is true, infer that B is true. Which rule of inference is this? a. modus ponens b. modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent d. denial of the antecedent 24. Which is NOT a universal statement? a. All rabbits are furry. b. Some rabbits are furry. c. No rabbits are furry. d. All and no rabbits are furry. 25. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? All men are humans. No humans are women. a. All men are women. b. Some men are women. c. No men are women. d. All women are men. 26. Deductive reasoning is localized in the: a. left hemisphere. b. right hemisphere. c. anterior portions of the brain. d. posterior portions of the brain. 27. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? Some men are humans. Some humans are women. a. All men are women. b. Some men are women. c. No men are women. d. Some women are men.

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Chap 10_9e 28. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. You ate uncooked food. Therefore, you became sick. This is an example of: a. modus ponens. b. modus tollens. c. affirmation of the consequent. d. denial of the antecedent. 29. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. The if part (you eat uncooked food) is the: a. antecedent. b. consequent. c. conditional statement. d. syllogism. 30. Training in logic _____ in better performance on the original Wason card-selection task. a. results b. does not result c. does not necessarily result d. usually results 31. Interpreting a conditional statement as the antecedent specifying the situations in which the consequent is permitted is known as the: a. permission value. b. permission specification. c. permission antecedent. d. permission schema. 32. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? All men are humans. All humans are women. a. All men are women. b. Some men are women. c. No men are women. d. All women are men.

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Chap 10_9e 33. According to what rule would you interpret the statement "If he is driving a car, then he must be 16 years of age"? a. norm rule. b. permission interpretation. c. permission rule. d. permission schema. 34. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. You didn't eat uncooked food. Therefore, you didn't become sick. This is an example of: a. modus ponens. b. modus tollens. c. affirmation of the consequent. d. denial of the antecedent. 35. Craig and Delia are married. Delia is the mother of Jane. That Craig is the father of Jane is a(n) _____ inference. a. deductive b. inductive c. antecedent d. consequent 36. Modus ponens allows us to infer: a. the antecedent from the consequent. b. the consequent from the antecedent. c. that the antecedent is false if the consequent is false. d. that the consequent is false if the antecedent is false. 37. According to Bruner et al.'s (1956) _____ concept, two or more features must be present for the stimulus to be an instance of the concept. a. conjunctive b. disjunctive c. relational d. distant

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Chap 10_9e 38. An argument consisting of two premises and a conclusion is called a(n): a. deduction. b. induction. c. logical syllogism. d. logical fallacy. 39. _____ reasoning is concerned with conclusions that follow with certainty from the premises. a. Deductive b. Inductive c. Logical d. Syllogistic 40. Quantifiers used in premises predispose us to accept conclusions having the same quantifiers. This is the _____ hypothesis. a. atmosphere b. categorical c. deductive d. syllogistic 41. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. The then part (you will become sick) is the: a. antecedent. b. consequent. c. conditional statement. d. syllogism. 42. When participants take the perspective of someone interested in detecting whether a social rule has been violated, they make a large proportion of logically correct choices in tasks that are formally identical to the: a. Wason selection task. b. Bayesian inference network. c. concept identification task. d. Raven's matrices tasks. 43. Inductive reasoning is localized in the: a. left hemisphere. b. right hemisphere. c. anterior portions of the brain. d. posterior portions of the brain.

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Chap 10_9e 44. Which region of Anne's brain will be activated as she sees some inconsistent evidence of a research study she participated in? a. right-prefrontal b. left-prefrontal c. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) d. left-prefrontal regions and temporal-parietal 45. When judging meaningful content, _____ regions of the brain are active. a. parietal b. left-prefrontal c. temporal-parietal d. both left ventral-prefrontal and left temporal-parietal 46. Which is NOT an example of probabilistic reasoning? a. diagnosing a disease b. forming a hypothesis c. solving a mystery d. solving an equation 47. Modus tollens allows us to infer: a. the antecedent from the inconsequent. b. the consequent from the antecedent. c. that the antecedent is false if the consequent is false. d. that the consequent is false if the antecedent is false. 48. Which is/are a form(s) of valid inference in the logic of unconditional statements? a. modus ponens b. modus ponens and modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent and denial of the antecedent d. None of the answers is correct. 49. Which is/are a valid rule(s) of inference? a. modus acumens b. modus ponens and modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent d. affirmation of the consequent and denial of the antecedent

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Chap 10_9e 50. Individuals typically find _____ concepts easiest to discover. a. conjunctive b. disjunctive c. relational d. distant 51. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? No men are humans. No humans are women. a. All men are women. b. Some men are women. c. No men are women. d. No women are men. 52. Which is/are an invalid inference(s)? a. modus ponens b. modus ponens and modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent and denial of the antecedent d. None of the answers is correct. 53. People show high levels of logical reasoning with: a. modus ponens and modus tollens. b. neither modus ponens nor modus tollens. c. modus ponens only. d. modus tollens only. 54. When conducting research, Dr. Philip uses the strategy of testing only instances that are consistent with the hypothesis. What is such a strategy called? a. hypothetical bias b. confirmation bias c. research bias d. disconfirmation bias 55. A is the antecedent, and B is the consequent. Given that B is false, infer that A is false. Which rule of inference is this? a. modus ponens b. modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent d. denial of the antecedent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e 56. A statement containing two premises, a conclusion, and quantifiers is called a(n): a. induction. b. deduction. c. categorical syllogism. d. syllogism. 57. According to Johnson-Laird (1983), individuals judge whether a conclusion is possible by creating a(n) _____ model. a. inductive b. deductive c. mental d. situation 58. _____ reasoning is concerned with conclusions that probabilistically follow from the premises. a. Deductive b. Inductive c. Logical d. Syllogistic 59. Participants are _____ the atmosphere hypothesis would predict. a. more accurate than b. less accurate than c. only slightly less accurate than d. as accurate as 60. Based on what you know of the atmosphere hypothesis and given the following premises, which conclusion should participants select? All men are humans. Some humans are women. a. All men are women. b. Some men are women. c. No men are women. d. Some women are men. 61. A is the antecedent, and B is the consequent. Given that A is false, infer that B is false. Which rule of inference is this? a. modus ponens b. modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent d. denial of the antecedent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e 62. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. You became sick. Therefore, you ate uncooked food. This is an example of: a. modus ponens. b. modus tollens. c. affirmation of the consequent. d. denial of the antecedent. 63. In testing a hypothesis, individuals often focus on instances that are _____ with their hypothesis. This can cause difficulties if their hypothesis is too _____. a. consistent; broad b. consistent; narrow c. inconsistent; broad d. inconsistent; narrow 64. A is the antecedent, and B is the consequent. Given that B is true, infer that A is true. Which rule of inference is this? a. modus ponens b. modus tollens c. affirmation of the consequent d. denial of the antecedent 65. If you eat uncooked food, then you will become sick. You didn't become sick. Therefore, you didn't eat uncooked food. This is an example of: a. modus ponens. b. modus tollens. c. affirmation of the consequent. d. denial of the antecedent. 66. Describe the Wason card-selection task. What is the typical outcome and what does it signify?

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Chap 10_9e 67. Explain the weakness of Oaksford and Chater's explanation of Wason card-selection task errors.

68. How do Type 1 and Type 2 processes differ?

69. What region of the brain is activated when participants are presented with inconsistent data?

70. What two patterns of inference are invalid?

71. What is categorical syllogism?

72. What neurological evidence supports the mental model explanation?

73. How does the scientific community protect against confirmation bias?

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Chap 10_9e 74. What is a syllogism?

75. How are Type 1 and Type 2 processes influenced by timing?

76. What brain regions are activated when people reason about problems with meaningful content versus when people reason about problems without content?

77. Compare human reasoning with artificial intelligence (AI) systems.

78. How do deductive reasoning and inductive reasoning differ?

79. Which brain areas are involved in reasoning?

80. According to the dual-process theory proposed by Evans (2007) and Stanovich (2011), what processes govern human reasoning?

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Chap 10_9e 81. What is confirmation bias?

82. How do the frequency with which people accept valid inferences and the frequency with which people accept invalid inferences compare?

83. What is the atmosphere hypothesis?

84. What is meant by affirmation of the consequent? What is meant by denial of the antecedent?

85. What is the mental model theory?

86. What is attribute identification? What is rule learning?

87. What are the limitations of the atmosphere hypothesis?

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Chap 10_9e 88. What was different about Griggs and Cox's (1982) version of the Wason card-selection task? What was the outcome?

89. How can behavior in the Wason card-selection task be explained?

90. Describe some explanations of the thought processes that lead to correct or incorrect conclusions.

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Chap 10_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. d 53. c 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. In the Wason card-selection task: - Four cards are placed in front of participants, showing the symbols E K 4 7. - Participants are told that a letter appears on one side of each card and a number on the other. - Their task is to judge the validity of the rule "If a card has a vowel on one side, then it has an even number on the other side." - They are asked to turn over only those cards that are necessary for judging the correctness of the rule. - About 90% of participants select E, which is logically correct because an odd number on the other side would disconfirm the rule; 60% choose to turn over the 4, which is not logically informative; only 25% select the 7, which is logically informative because a vowel behind it would have falsified the rule; only 15% select the K, which would not be logically informative. 67. They argued that people would be considering events that are rare in a probabilistic model, but in the Wason experiment, participants were reasoning about even numbers (of which there are just as many as odd numbers). 68. Type 1 processes are rapid and automatic, relying on associations between situations and actions, while type 2 processes are slow and deliberative. 69. The anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) is highly active when participants are engaged in a task that requires strong cognitive control. These same basic brain mechanisms seem to be invoked when participants must deal with inconsistent data in a scientific context, suggesting that scientific reasoning evokes basic cognitive processes. 70. The first is affirmation of the consequent that asserts, if a conditional statement is true and if the consequent is true, then the antecedent must also be true. The second invalid pattern is denial of the antecedent that asserts, if a conditional statement is true and if the antecedent is false, then the consequent must also be false. 71. Categorical syllogism is a simpler and older kind of deduction that includes statements with quantifiers such as some, all, no, and some…not. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e 72. -

Patients with right-hemisphere damage are more impaired in reasoning tasks than patients with left-hemisphere damage, and the right hemisphere tends to take part in spatial processing of mental images. - Kroger, Nystrom, Cohen, and Johnson-Laird (2008) found that the right frontal cortex was more active than the left in processing such syllogisms but that the opposite was true when people engaged in arithmetic calculations. - Parsons and Osherson (2001) reported a similar finding with deductive reasoning being right localized and probabilistic reasoning being left localized.

73. -

Individual scientists are often strongly motivated to find problems with the theories of other scientists (Nickerson, 1998). - There is also considerable variation in how individual scientists practice. Michael Faraday, a famous nineteenth-century chemist, made his discoveries by focusing on collecting confirmatory evidence early on and then switching to focusing on disconfirmatory evidence (Tweney, 1989).

74. A syllogism is an argument consisting of two premises and a conclusion. 75. When people respond quickly, they tend to produce responses consistent with Type 1 processes, whereas when they take longer, their answers tend to correspond more with Type 2 processes. 76. When reasoning about meaningful content, left ventral-prefrontal and temporal-parietal areas associated with language are activated; when reasoning about problems without content, parietal regions are activated. 77. -

Human intelligence is generally considered to be superior, but most psychological research on reasoning and decision making that has compared human reasoning with prescriptions from logic and mathematics have found humans deficient compared with these standards. - Early AI attempts to model human reasoning proved very frustrating for researchers because these systems lacked common sense and would do stupid things that no human would do. - Paradoxically, human reasoning is judged as deficient when compared against standards of logic and mathematics, but AI systems built on these standards are judged deficient when compared with humans. - The real problem seems to be the way in which logic and mathematics have been applied; situations faced by people are more complex than often assumed, so we need to include these complexities in our understanding of human reasoning and behavior.

78. In deductive reasoning, logical rules allow one to infer conclusions from premises with certainty; in inductive reasoning, the conclusions do not necessarily follow from the premises. 79. Faced with logical problems, people can engage either brain regions associated with the processing of meaningful content or regions associated with the processing of more abstract information. Reasoning about material with meaningful content activates left ventral prefrontal and left temporal–parietal regions (regions associated with language processing), whereas reasoning about content-free material activates parietal regions (regions activated when solving algebraic equations).

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Chap 10_9e 80. Evans (2007) and Stanovich (2011) have argued that human reasoning is governed by two different processes that sometimes lead to the same conclusions and sometimes lead to different conclusions. Type 1 processes are rapid and automatic, relying on associations between situations and actions (for instance, that people tend to accept a conclusion having the same quantifiers used in the premises). In contrast, type 2 processes, which are slow and deliberative, may follow normative prescriptions. Type 2 processes are often considered to have arisen later in the course of evolution and to make heavy demands on working memory. 81. Confirmation bias is the strategy of selecting only instances that are consistent with a hypothesis (or a bias). 82. People rarely fail to accept a modus ponens inference, but the frequency with which they accept the valid modus tollens is only slightly greater than the frequencies with which they accept the invalid inferences. 83. -

That the logical quantifiers (some, all, no, and some–not) used in the premises of a syllogism create an "atmosphere" that predisposes participants to accept conclusions having the same quantifiers. - That participants tend to accept a positive conclusion to positive premises and a negative conclusion to negative premises. - Participants will tend to accept a universal conclusion if the premises are universal. They will tend to accept a particular conclusion if the premises are particular.

84. -

Affirmation of the consequent is an invalid deduction; given that B is true, infer that A is true. - Denial of the antecedent is an invalid deduction; given that A is false, infer that B is false.

85. It is a theory in which participants judge whether a conclusion is possible by creating a mental model of a world that satisfies the premises of the syllogism and inspecting that model to see whether the conclusion is satisfied. 86. In forming a hypothesis: - Attribute identification involves determining which features are relevant. - Rule learning involves discovering the kind of rule that connects the features. 87. -

It tells us little about what the participants are actually thinking or why; it merely tries to predict what conclusions they will accept. - It offers no explanation for why the content of a syllogism can have a strong effect on judgments of validity. - Its characterization of participant behavior is also not always correct for content-free syllogisms. - It fails to predict the effects that the form of a syllogism will have on participants' validity judgments. - It does not explain what participants do in the presence of two negatives.

88. Griggs and Cox's (1982) version of the Wason card-selection task involved a real-world situation: - Participants were told to imagine that they were police officers responsible for ensuring that this rule was followed: "If a person is drinking beer, then the person must be over 19." - They were presented with four cards that represented people sitting around a table, with one side of each card having a person's age and the other side having the beverage they were drinking. - Similar to the Wason card-selection task, participants were asked to identify which cards they needed to turn over to evaluate whether the drinking law was being followed. - 74% of the participants selected the logically correct cards. 89. People tend to interpret these statements not as strict logical statements, but rather as probabilistic statements about the world. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_9e 90. -

One class of explanations is that participants choose not to do what the experimenters think they are doing. For instance, it has been argued that it is not natural for people to judge the logical validity of a syllogism. Rather, people tend to judge the truth of the conclusion in the real world. - It is also argued that many people really do not understand what it means for an argument to be valid and simply judge whether a conclusion is possible given the premises. Participants seem to have a hard time distinguishing between when a conclusion is necessarily true versus possibly true. - Johnson-Laird (1983) and Johnson-Laird and Steedman (1978) proposed that participants judge whether a conclusion is possible by creating a mental model of a world that satisfies the premises of the syllogism and inspecting that model to see whether the conclusion is satisfied. Participants have considerable difficulty developing alternative models and tend to accept a syllogism if its conclusion is correct in the first mental model they come up with.

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Chap 11_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Individuals often ignore the accumulation of evidence when making probability judgments. a. True b. False 2. Adolescents perceive themselves to be invulnerable more so than do older adults. a. True b. False 3. Individuals often ignore base rates when making probability judgments. a. True b. False 4. Individuals sometimes ignore posterior probabilities. This is referred to as base-rate neglect. a. True b. False 5. Participants' behavior based on experience often does not correspond to Bayes's theorem. a. True b. False 6. Choosing among alternative options in proportion to the success of previous choices is called probability matching. a. True b. False 7. German students do better than American students in judging the population of American cities. a. True b. False 8. The way in which a problem is framed can influence decision making. a. True b. False 9. Phineas Gage died shortly after his head injury. a. True b. False 10. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex plays an important role in solving complex problems. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Greene et al. (2001) found that the _____ is activated when one considers an impersonal dilemma. a. hippocampus b. nucleus accumbens c. parietal cortex d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex 12. A(n) _____ probability is the probability that a hypothesis is true before consideration of the evidence. a. anterior b. conditional c. posterior d. prior 13. Generally, participants _____ the frequency with which words begin with various letters. a. accurately estimate b. overestimate c. underestimate d. can approximate 14. Someone might prefer a 4% chance at $200 than a 2% chance at $400. This is an example of: a. base-rate neglect. b. framing effects. c. subjective probability. d. subjective utility. 15. Mr. Gee is under the impression that aliens exist. As evidence, he cites the several thousand individuals who claim to have been abducted by aliens. Yet he ignores that there are billions of individuals who do not claim abduction. This is an example of: a. base-rate neglect. b. conservatism. c. the gambler's fallacy. d. the law of averages. 16. Tversky and Kahneman (1974) found that participants: a. accurately judged that there are more words that begin with k than have k in the third position. b. accurately judged that there are more words that have k in the third position than begin with k. c. inaccurately judged that there are more words that begin with k than have k in the third position. d. inaccurately judged that there are more words that have k in the third position than begin with k.

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Chap 11_9e 17. Given the following table, what is the prior probability that a hypothesis is true before consideration of the evidence? A Not A Sums B Not B

Sums

a. .75 b. .55 c. .4 d. .15 18. The difference between $15 and $10 seems greater than the difference between $125 and $120. This is an example of: a. base-rate neglect. b. framing effects. c. subjective probability. d. subjective utility. 19. Shafir (1993) asked participants to play the role of the judge in a divorce case in which both parents are seeking custody. Parent A has an average income, average health, average working hours, reasonable rapport with the child, and a relatively stable social life. Parent B has an above-average income, minor health problems, lots of work-related travel, a very close relation with the child, and an extremely active social life. To whom were the participants more likely to award custody? a. Parent A b. Parent B c. Females were more likely to vote for parent A; males were more likely to vote for parent B. d. No significant trends were found. 20. Greene et al. (2001) found that the _____ is activated when one considers an impersonal dilemma. a. hippocampus b. nucleus accumbens c. parietal cortex d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex

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Chap 11_9e 21. In the Iowa gambling task, participants with ventromedial prefrontal cortex damage: a. continue to select cards from the high-paying decks (in the text, decks A and B). b. eventually learn to select cards from the low-paying decks (in the text, decks C and D). c. equally select from the four decks. d. only select from decks B and D. 22. Which of the following correlations is NOT a part of the results that Goldstein and Gigerenzer (1999, 2002) found in their study of judging relative size of cities? a. correlation of size and frequency of mention in newspapers/media b. correlation of frequency of mention in newspapers/media and recognition of city by name c. correlation of size and recognition of city by name d. correlation of size and famous athletes from the city 23. In the Iowa gambling task, participants with ventromedial prefrontal cortex damage: a. seem more emotionally engaged in card selection than do normal individuals. b. are not emotionally engaged in card selection than do normal individuals. c. respond faster, but with greater inaccuracy compared with normal individuals. d. respond slower, but with greater inaccuracy compared with normal individuals. 24. In using what heuristic do individuals believe that the recognized item has a higher value than an unrecognized item with respect to specified criterion? a. recall heuristic b. recognition heuristic c. unrecognition heuristic d. criterion heuristic 25. Which sequence of 10 coin tosses is MOST likely (H denotes heads and T denotes tails)? (1) H T H T H T H T H T (2) H H T H T H T T T H (3) T T T T T T T T T T a. Sequence 1 is most likely. b. Sequence 2 is most likely. c. Sequence 3 is most likely. d. Each sequence is equally likely. 26. Which statement is NOT true of Gluck and Bower's (1988) study on Bayesian behavior? a. The proportion of the participants' choices was very close to the true probabilities. b. Participants consistently overestimated the frequency of the rare disease. c. Their judgments show no influence of base rate. d. Participants implicitly used Bayesian behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_9e 27. A model that specifies how people actually behave is known as a(n) _____ model. a. approximation b. conservative c. descriptive d. prescriptive 28. The medial portion of the anterior prefrontal region is important to: a. emotional regulation only. b. emotional regulation and motivation only. c. emotional regulation and social sensitivity only. d. emotional regulation, motivation, and social sensitivity. 29. In a study of medical diagnosis, Weber et al. (1993) found that doctors: a. were sensitive to the evidence provided by the symptoms, but not to base rates. b. were sensitive to base rates only when they ignored the evidence provided by the symptoms. c. were sensitive both to base rates and to the evidence provided by the symptoms. d. ignored base rates, treating each symptom-supported disease as equally possible. 30. The probability of a reward is represented in the activity of the: a. cerebellum. b. lateral geniculate nucleus. c. nucleus accumbens. d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. 31. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex is: a. absent in apes. b. larger in apes than in humans. c. smaller in apes than in humans. d. of equal size in apes and in humans. 32. Cocaine increases the level of _____ in the basal ganglia region of the brain. a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. epinephrine d. serotonin

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Chap 11_9e 33. _____ have the dopamine reward system described in the text. a. All mammals b. Only primates c. Only great apes and humans d. Only humans 34. Evidence suggests that individuals rely on: a. probabilities to make judgments. b. relative frequencies to make judgments. c. both probabilities and relative frequencies to make judgments. d. relative frequencies only when probabilities yield incorrect judgments. 35. The dopamine system provides mammals with a basic ability to: a. seek things that are rewarding and avoid things that are harmful. b. avoid things that are harmful and reflect on their circumstances. c. reflect on their circumstances and self-regulate. d. self-regulate and seek things that are rewarding. 36. The tendency to underestimate the full force of available evidence is termed: a. posterior probability. b. conditional probability. c. conservatism. d. probability. 37. Bayes's theorem is based on: a. conjecture. b. experimental evidence. c. logical syllogisms. d. probability. 38. Which of the following is NOT a strategy employed by professional fact checkers? a. Reading laterally b. Making smarter selections from the results that come back from a Google search c. Using Wikipedia wisely d. Using information from YouTube

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Chap 11_9e 39. Given the following table, what is the conditional probability that a particular type of evidence is true if a particular hypothesis is true? A Not A Sums B Not B

125

Sums

200

a. .8 b. .75 c. .3 d. .25 40. Given the following table, what is the conditional probability that a particular type of evidence is true if a particular hypothesis is true? A Not A Sums B

Not B

Sums a. .6 b. .5 c. .4 d. .3 41. According to Goldstein and Gigerenzer (1999, 2002), which group should perform best at judging relative sizes of cities? a. American students judging American cities b. German students judging German cities c. German students judging American cities d. American students judging American cities and German students judging German cities 42. In the Iowa gambling task, normal participants learn to: a. avoid the high-paying decks (in the text, decks A and B). b. avoid the low-paying decks (in the text, decks C and D). c. equally select from the four decks. d. only select from decks A and C.

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Chap 11_9e 43. Bayes's theorem is a: a. descriptive model because it specifies the means of evaluating the probability of a hypothesis. b. descriptive model because it specifies what people actually do. c. prescriptive model because it specifies the means of evaluating the probability of a hypothesis. d. prescriptive model because it specifies what people actually do. 44. Greene et al. (2001) found that the _____ is activated when one considers a personal dilemma. a. hippocampus b. nucleus accumbens c. parietal cortex d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex 45. When McGrew, Ortega, Breakstone, and Wineburg (2017) showed high school students screen shots of information on climate change, content from which source was selected to be more reliable? a. National Geographic magazine b. Science magazine c. Information sponsored by an oil company d. Information sponsored by a company that cleaned the oil spill 46. How accurate are individuals when they try to judge proportions? a. They are reasonably accurate at making these judgments when they rely on memory. b. They are reasonably accurate at making these judgments when they do not rely on memory. c. They are very accurate at making these judgments when they rely on memory. d. They are very accurate at making these judgments when they do not rely on memory. 47. You are the mayor of a city. You have received word of an imminent attack that has the potential to destroy the entire town. Your best architect builds a shelter, but he cannot gather enough supplies. He tells you that the shelter cannot accommodate 600 of the town's 800 citizens. However, if you allow all 800 citizens into the shelter, there is a one-fourth probability that nobody will die, but a three-fourths probability that the supplies will run out and everyone will die. You decide to hold an emergency town meeting to have the townspeople vote on what to do. Based on what you know about framing effects, how should they vote? a. They will vote to shelter 200 of the 800 citizens. b. They will vote to shelter all 800 citizens. c. The options are mathematically equivalent; both options will be voted for equally. d. Framing effects will not influence their vote.

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Chap 11_9e 48. Recognition heuristic leads people to believe that the _____ item has a higher value than the _____ item with respect to a specified criterion. a. unselected; selected b. recognized; unrecognized c. unrecognized; recognized d. selected; unselected 49. The value we place on money is not always the same as the face value of the money. This is referred to as: a. framing effects. b. probability matching. c. subjective probability. d. subjective utility. 50. The magnitude of a reward is represented in the activity of the: a. cerebellum. b. lateral geniculate nucleus. c. nucleus accumbens. d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex. 51. If one of two objects is recognized and the other is not, you might infer that the recognized object has the higher value with respect to the criterion. This is known as the _____ heuristic. a. availability b. recognition judgment c. proximity d. recognition 52. Compared with older adults, adolescents often perceive _____ danger from risky behaviors. a. more b. less c. an equal amount of d. no 53. A model that specifies the means of evaluating the probability of a hypothesis is known as a(n) _____ model. a. approximation b. conservative c. descriptive d. prescriptive

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Chap 11_9e 54. Research suggests that the ventromedial prefrontal cortex might play an important role in: a. emotional stability. b. involuntary reflexes. c. motor coordination. d. self-regulation. 55. What would increase the believability of the claim "Eating kale is good for your health"? a. quoting studies that show benefits of kale b. giving examples of people whose health has improved by adding kale to their diets c. including a photograph of a bunch of kale d. a nutritionist's view on the benefits of including kale in the diet 56. Choosing among alternatives in proportion to the success of previous choices is called: a. framing effects. b. probability matching. c. subjective probability. d. subjective utility. 57. Damage to this area of the brain led to personality changes in Phineas Gage. a. the hippocampus b. the ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. the nucleus accumbens d. the lateral temporal cortex 58. Base-rate neglect decreases if events are stated in terms of: a. conditionals instead of probabilities. b. frequencies instead of conditionals. c. frequencies instead of probabilities. d. probabilities instead of frequencies.

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Chap 11_9e 59. Given the following table, what is the prior probability that a hypothesis is true before consideration of the evidence? A Not A Sums B Not B

125

Sums

200

a. .8 b. .75 c. .3 d. .25 60. Which refers to one's personal judgment of an event that is not identical with the objective probability? a. framing effects b. probability matching c. subjective probability d. subjective utility 61. Given the following table, what is the prior probability that a hypothesis is true before consideration of evidence? A Not A Sums B

Not B

Sums a. .6 b. .5 c. .4 d. .3 62. Bayes's theorem specifies how to: a. combine the prior probability with the conditional probabilities to determine the posterior probability. b. combine the prior probability with the posterior probability to determine the conditional probabilities. c. combine the conditional probabilities with the posterior probability to determine the prior probabilities. d. derive the posterior probability and the prior probability from the conditional probabilities.

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Chap 11_9e 63. Given the following table, what is the conditional probability that a particular type of evidence is true if a particular hypothesis is true? A Not A Sums B Not B

Sums

a. .75 b. .55 c. .4 d. .15 64. You are the mayor of a city. You have received word of an imminent attack that has the potential to destroy the entire town. Your best architect builds a shelter, but he cannot gather enough supplies. He tells you that the shelter can safely accommodate 200 of the town's 800 citizens. If you allow all 800 citizens into the shelter, there is a one-fourth probability that all will be saved, but a three-fourths probability that the supplies will run out and no one will be saved. You decide to hold an emergency town meeting to have the townspeople vote on what to do. Based on what you know about framing effects, how will they vote? a. They will vote to shelter 200 of the 800 citizens. b. They will vote to shelter all 800 citizens. c. The options are mathematically equivalent; both options will be voted for equally. d. Framing effects will not influence their vote. 65. When people make different choices among equivalent alternatives depending on how the alternatives are stated, it is referred to as: a. framing effects. b. probability matching. c. subjective probability. d. subjective utility. 66. What are framing effects?

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Chap 11_9e 67. Why are adolescents more likely to engage in risky behaviors compared with adults?

68. What is meant by conditional probability? By posterior probability? By prior probability?

69. What is meant by conservatism?

70. How can framing of a problem influence decisions people make?

71. What is meant by probability matching?

72. How are the dopamine system and the ventromedial prefrontal cortex involved in decision making?

73. How are humans different from other mammals in their decision-making abilities?

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Chap 11_9e 74. Describe the methods and findings of the Goldstein and Gigerenzer (1999, 2002) studies on the recognition heuristic.

75. What is the recognition heuristic? Give an example of when it might be used.

76. What do we learn from the case of Phineas Gage (1848)?

77. What is meant by base-rate neglect?

78. Describe the methods and findings of the Kahneman and Tversky (1973) study on base-rate neglect.

79. What factors lead to biases in probability estimates?

80. What are two explanations as to why adolescents might engage in risky behavior?

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Chap 11_9e 81. Describe the methods and findings of the Gluck and Bower (1988) study on implicit Bayesian behavior.

82. What is satisficing?

83. Why might someone prefer a 1% chance to win $500 than a 2% chance to win $250?

84. What is the role of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex?

85. What is the gambler's fallacy? How do casino operators count on this fallacy to help them make money?

86. Describe the methods and findings of the Edwards (1968) study on conservatism.

87. What is Bayes's theorem, and what is it used for? How does the behavior of human participants compare with the theorem's predictions?

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Chap 11_9e 88. What is a descriptive model? A prescriptive model?

89. You have flipped a coin nine times. Each time you flipped the coin, the outcome was Heads. Your friend Jimmy thinks that the tenth outcome is more likely to be Tails. Is he correct? Explain your answer.

90. When compared to other mammals, what advantage do humans have because of their larger prefrontal cortices?

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Chap 11_9e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_9e 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. d 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_9e 55. c 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. Framing effects whereby people make different choices among equivalent alternatives depending on how the alternatives are stated (i.e., how the alternatives are framed). 67. -

Adolescents may lack some of the knowledge and experience that adults possess. Therefore, they may not understand how to avoid risk in certain situations. - Adolescents have different values and situations that they face. They may be more likely to engage in a risky behavior if it has benefits in terms of social acceptance or if it promotes independence and a sense of personal competence.

68. -

Conditional probability: the probability that a particular type of evidence is true if a particular hypothesis is true - Posterior probability: the probability that a hypothesis is true after consideration of the evidence - Prior probability: the probability that a hypothesis is true before consideration of the evidence

69. Conservatism refers to the tendency of people to not weigh evidence heavily enough, particularly as evidence pointing to a conclusion accumulates. 70. A real-world example of how the framing of a problem can influence decisions concerns the difference between optin and opt-out choices in contexts such as organ donation, enrollment in retirement plans, and immunization. 71. Probability matching means choosing among alternatives in proportion to the success of previous choices. 72. -

Dopamine activity in the nucleus accumbens reflects the magnitude of reward. - The human ventromedial prefrontal cortex is involved in integrating probabilities with reward.

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Chap 11_9e 73. -

All mammals have the dopamine system, which gives them an ability to seek things that are rewarding and avoid things that are harmful. - However, humans have a greatly expanded prefrontal cortex compared with other mammals, so they have an enhanced capacity to reflect on their circumstances and to select actions other than what their more primitive brain systems would urge them to do. - The ventromedial portion of the human prefrontal cortex, which is proportionally much larger than the same region in the genetically similar apes, might play a particularly important role in such regulation (e.g., diet plans).

74. -

The recognition heuristic applies in cases where people recognize one thing and not another, and they believe that the recognized item is bigger and more important than the unrecognized one. - In the Goldstein and Gigerenzer (1999, 2002) studies, participants were asked to judge which of two named cities was bigger. When they asked college students in Chicago to determine which of two German cities was bigger, students tended to assume that the one they had heard of was bigger. The researchers actually found that the students were more accurate when using the recognition heuristic in situations where they had heard of one city but not the other. They were less accurate when they had heard of both cities because they could not then use the recognition heuristic. - The researchers also found that German students were more accurate in judging American cities, and American students were more accurate in judging German cities. When students were asked to judge the comparative size of cities in their own country, they were less accurate because they could not then use the recognition heuristic.

75. -

The recognition heuristic applies in cases where people recognize one thing and not another, and they believe that the recognized item is bigger and more important than the unrecognized one. - This might be used when people are considering which city is bigger, given the names of two cities. If they have heard of one city but not the other, they are likely to assume that the one of which they have heard is bigger and more important.

76. -

In 1848, Phineas Gage, a railroad worker in Vermont, suffered a bizarre accident in which gunpowder that he was packing with a metal rod went flying through his head. The rod tore through the center of the very front of the brain, a region called the ventromedial prefrontal cortex. Although he survived this accident, his personality had undergone major changes. Before his injury he had been polite, respectful, popular, and reliable, and generally displayed the ideal behavior for an American man of that time. Afterward he became just the opposite "fitful, irreverent, indulging at times in the grossest profanity (which was not previously his custom), manifesting but little deference for his fellows, impatient of restraint or advice when it conflicts with his desires." - Gage is the classic case demonstrating the importance of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex to human personality. Subsequently, a number of other patients with similar damage have been described, and they all show the same sorts of personality disorders. - The ventromedial prefrontal cortex plays an important role in achieving the motivational balance and social sensitivity that is key to making successful judgments.

77. Base-rate neglect refers to the tendency of people to ignore prior probabilities in assessing the posterior probability of a hypothesis.

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Chap 11_9e 78. -

Kahneman and Tversky (1973) told one group of participants that a person had been chosen at random from a set of 100 people consisting of 70 engineers and 30 lawyers. This was called the engineer-high group. A second group was told that the person came from a set of 30 engineers and 70 lawyers. This was called the engineer-low group. When each group was asked to determine the probability that the person chosen at random was an engineer, they were able to respond with the right prior probabilities. - Then participants were told that another person (Jack) had been chosen from the population, and they were given a specific description of his demographic information and personality. Both groups gave a .90 probability estimate that the person was an engineer, but this should not have been the case according to Bayes's theorem (the engineer-high group should have had a higher posterior probability). - Then participants were told that another person (Dick) had been chosen from the population. After reading about his demographic information and personality, both groups estimated that the probability was .50 that he was an engineer. However, both groups erred in allowing a completely uninformative piece of information to change their probabilities. - Overall, participants were shown to be completely unable to use prior probabilities in assessing the posterior probability of a hypothesis.

79. -

When participants cannot see events and must recall them from memory, their judgments may be distorted if they recall too many of one kind from memory. - A person's estimate of the probability of an event will be biased by other events that are similar to it. For example, people sometimes erroneously make predictions other than .50 when estimating the probability of a coin toss being Heads/Tails, simply because there were other preceding coin tosses with specific results. - Sometimes people are subject to the gambler's fallacy—the belief that, if an event has not occurred for a while, then it is more likely by the "law of averages" to occur in the near future. However, this is not true.

80. -

81. -

Gluck and Bower (1988) presented participants with records of fictitious patients who could display from one to four symptoms and asked them to make discriminative diagnoses about which of two hypothetical diseases the patients had. One of the diseases had a base rate three times that of the other. Participants were not told directly about these base rates or conditional probabilities. They merely looked at a series of 256 patient records, chose the disease they thought the patient had, and were given feedback on the correctness of their judgments. The participants experienced the base probabilities and conditional probabilities implicitly in terms of the frequencies of symptom–disease combinations. - Results showed that the proportion of the participants' choices in diagnosing the rarer disease were very close to the true probabilities. They tended to choose among alternatives in proportion to their success (otherwise known as probability matching). - Afterwards, the researchers asked the participants how frequently the rare disease had appeared with each symptom. Participants showed some neglect of the base rate in that they consistently overestimated the frequency of the rare disease. However, their judgments did show some influence of the base rate because their average estimated probability for the rare disease was below 50%.

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Chap 11_9e 82. Satisficing is a process that people fall back on for making decisions, where only a few attributes judged as important are considered. 83. People tend to make these judgments using subjective utilities and subjective probabilities. According to subjective probabilities, someone might prefer the 1% chance because it is not represented as half of 2%. In other words, the probabilities are so close together anyway that they may as well aim for the greater gain ($500). 84. It plays an important role in achieving the motivational balance and social sensitivity that is key to making successful judgments. 85. -

The gambler's fallacy reflects the belief that the likelihood of an event increases with the amount of time since the event last occurred by the "law of averages." This phenomenon can be demonstrated in an experimental setting— for instance, one in which participants see a sequence of coin tosses and must guess whether each toss will be a head or a tail. If they see a string of heads, they become more and more prone to guess that tails will come up on the next trial. - Casino operators count on this fallacy to help them make money. Players who have had a string of losses at a table will keep playing, assuming that the "law of averages" will lead to a compensating string of wins. However, the dice, cards, and roulette wheel do not know or care whether a gambler has had a string of losses. The consequence is that players tend to lose more as they try to recoup their losses. There is no such thing as the "law of averages," and the game is set in favor of the house.

86. -

Edwards (1968) presented participants with two bags, each containing 100 poker chips. They were shown that one of the bags contained 70 red chips and 30 blue chips, while the other contained 70 blue chips and 30 red chips. The experimenter chose one of the bags at random and asked participants to decide which bag had been chosen. The participants also sampled chips at random from the bag to obtain further information. - The findings revealed that participants did not use the full force of available evidence but instead underestimated. Edwards (1968) referred to this tendency as conservatism and estimated that we use between one-fifth and one-half of the evidence available to us in situations like this experiment.

87. -

Bayes's theorem is a prescriptive model that is based on a mathematical analysis of the nature of probability. - It specifies how to combine the prior probability of a hypothesis with the conditional probabilities of the evidence to determine the posterior probability of a hypothesis. - Research has revealed that human participants do not match up with the prescriptions of Bayes's theorem.

88. -

A descriptive model specifies what people actually do. A prescriptive model specifies the means of evaluating the probability of a hypothesis.

89. No, he is not correct. A Heads or a Tails is still equally probable for the tenth flip. He is committing the gambler's fallacy—believing that, if an event has not occurred for a while, then it is more likely, by the "law of averages," to occur in the near future. 90. Humans, by virtue of their greatly expanded prefrontal cortex, have a highly developed capacity to reflect on their circumstances and select actions. Research suggests that the ventromedial portion of the human prefrontal cortex, which is proportionally much larger than the same region in the genetically similar apes, might play a particularly important role in self-regulation.

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Chap 12_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Kanzi, the bonobo, spontaneously started to use lexigrams. a. True b. False 2. The child first learns to speak some kinds of sentences perfectly, then learns to speak other kinds of sentences perfectly, and so on. a. True b. False 3. In some cultures, parents hardly speak to their children at all. a. True b. False 4. Younger children are better at mastering the finer points of language than older children. a. True b. False 5. Different cultures cut up the color space differently. a. True b. False 6. According to Chomsky, there is no such thing as internal mental activity. a. True b. False 7. Young children who suffer left-brain damage may still develop language. a. True b. False 8. Language learning continues into adulthood. a. True b. False 9. Speakers often generate sentences one word at a time. a. True b. False 10. There are no universal constraints on the kinds of languages that humans can learn. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. In human language, the relation between signs and meanings is: a. not arbitrary. b. arbitrary. c. arbitrary in reading. d. arbitrary in sign language. 12. Speakers tend to produce sentences _____ at a time. a. one word b. two words c. one phrase d. two phrases 13. _____ concerns the sound structure of sentences. a. Grammar b. Phonology c. Semantics d. Syntax 14. _____ ambiguities arise when an entire phase or sentence has two or more meanings. a. Lexical b. Productive c. Regular d. Structural 15. Wernicke's area is located in the _____ region of the brain. a. parietal b. prefrontal c. occipital d. temporal 16. Young children who suffer left-hemispheric damage: a. never develop language. b. develop only rudimentary language skills in the left hemisphere. c. develop only rudimentary language skills in the right hemisphere. d. may develop language in the right hemisphere.

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Chap 12_9e 17. What kind of speech do parents and caregivers use when speaking to children in simple, clear, short sentences with exaggerated intonation? a. telegraphic speech b. motherese c. overgeneralization d. overextension 18. Broca's area is located in the _____ region of the brain. a. parietal b. prefrontal c. occipital d. temporal 19. Some patients with Broca's aphasia: a. generate meaningful but ungrammatical speech. b. generate grammatical but meaningless speech. c. generate ungrammatical and meaningless speech. d. suffer difficulty in repeating speech. 20. In Chomsky's (1965) view, what must children possess innate knowledge of, that limit the possible characteristics of a natural language? a. language mechanisms b. language specifics c. language universals d. language regularity 21. _____ study the structure of natural languages. a. Sociologists b. Linguists c. Psycholinguists d. Psychologists 22. Rosch (1973) compared Dani and English speakers' ability to learn nonsense names for colors. What did she find? a. Only Dani speakers find it easier to learn nonsense names for focal colors than for nonfocal colors. b. Only English speakers find it easier to learn nonsense names for focal colors than for nonfocal colors. c. Both Dani speakers and English speakers find it easier to learn nonsense names for focal colors than for nonfocal colors. d. Neither Dani speakers nor English speakers find it easier to learn nonsense names for focal colors than for nonfocal colors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_9e 23. How many hours may a 6-year-old have spent in the language-acquisition process? a. 2,000 hours b. 5,000 hours c. 8,000 hours d. 10,000 hours 24. Some patients with Broca's aphasia: a. can comprehend but not generate speech. b. can generate but not comprehend speech. c. can comprehend and generate speech. d. cannot comprehend or generate speech. 25. Compared with the right hemisphere of the brain, the left hemisphere of the brain is: a. strongly associated with language in most humans. b. larger. c. smaller. d. larger in the language processing regions. 26. _____ concerns inflection and word order. a. Grammar b. Phonology c. Semantics d. Syntax 27. Which is NOT a feature of human language? a. semanticity and arbitrariness of units b. displacement in time and space c. discreteness and productivity d. not used in isolated communities 28. _____ refers to the fact that an infinite number of sentences are possible in any language. a. Generatability b. Productivity c. Regularity d. Systematicity

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Chap 12_9e 29. PET-imaging data of Jaeger et al. (1996), who studied the processing of past-tense forms by normal adults, found activation in _____ during the processing of regular forms and found activation of _____ during the processing of irregular forms. a. Broca's area; temporal region b. temporal region; Broca's area c. Wernicke's area; parietal region d. parietal region; Wernicke's area 30. According to Chomsky, the psychologist's task is to develop a theory of linguistic: a. competence. b. performance. c. productivity. d. regularity. 31. By the age of 5.5, Kanzi's comprehension of spoken English was equivalent to that of a _____-year-old human. a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 12 32. _____ concerns the meaning of sentences. a. Grammar b. Phonology c. Semantics d. Syntax 33. According to Chomsky, the linguist's task is to develop a theory of linguistic: a. competence. b. performance. c. productivity. d. regularity. 34. Rules that account for the productivity and the regularity of a language are referred to as: a. grammar. b. phonology. c. semantics. d. syntax.

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Chap 12_9e 35. Children might use the word dog to refer to any furry four-legged animal. This is an example of: a. approximation. b. categorization. c. generalization. d. overextension. 36. _____ move(s) elements from their normal positions in the phrase structure of a sentence. a. Rephrasing b. Repositioning c. Substitutions d. Transformations 37. Which sentence is MOST likely to be produced? a. I speak [pause] tonight for the dignity [pause] of man and the destiny of democracy. b. I speak tonight [pause] for the dignity of man [pause] and the destiny of democracy. c. I speak tonight for [pause] the dignity of man and the [pause] destiny of democracy. d. I speak tonight for the [pause] dignity of man and the destiny of [pause] democracy. 38. Garrett's functional level word errors correspond to: a. a single phrase. b. multiple phrases. c. a full clause. d. a sentence consisting of multiple phrases. 39. According to _____, language strongly influences the way that a person perceives the world. a. Chomsky b. Skinner c. Thorndike d. Whorf 40. Which is NOT a feature of honeybee communication? a. semanticity and arbitrariness of units b. displacement in time and space c. discreteness and productivity d. arbitrariness and displacement

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Chap 12_9e 41. Some patients with Wernicke's aphasia: a. can comprehend but not generate speech. b. can generate but not comprehend speech. c. can comprehend and generate speech. d. cannot comprehend or generate speech. 42. Some patients with Wernicke's aphasia: a. generate meaningful but ungrammatical speech. b. generate grammatical but meaningless speech. c. generate ungrammatical and meaningless speech. d. suffer difficulty in repeating speech. 43. _____ errors occur at the positional level. a. Phrase b. Sentence c. Sound d. Word 44. Across the entire globe, _____ speak a language. a. all people b. most people c. all people, except those in isolated communities, d. all people, except those in primitive cultures, 45. _____ refers to the fact that the sentences of a language are systematically structured in many ways. a. Generatability b. Productivity c. Regularity d. Systematicity 46. According to linguists, a grammar: a. needs only to be able to prescribe all acceptable utterances in the language. b. needs only to be able to reject all unacceptable utterances in the language. c. needs to be able to prescribe all acceptable utterances and reject all unacceptable utterances. d. should help to regularize the language.

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Chap 12_9e 47. Which spoonerisms are participants MORE likely to produce in a laboratory situation? a. Past Time to Tast Pime b. Pold Gipe to Gold Pipe c. Vule Pake to Pule Vake d. Zald Tead to Tald Zead 48. _____ plays a key role in the generation of sentences. a. Syntactic formalism b. Phrase structure c. Pause structure d. Tree structure 49. Linguistic intuition is an example of _____ knowledge. a. declarative b. episodic c. implicit d. semantic 50. How do young children inflect the word sing to indicate past tense? a. Young children use sang. b. Young children use singed until corrected. c. Young children use singed then sanged then sang. d. Young children use sang then singed then sang. 51. What is the preferred order for the English language? a. object (O), subject (S), verb (V) b. verb (V), subject (s), object (O) c. object (O), verb (V), subject (S) d. subject (S), verb (V), object (O) 52. Garrett's positional level corresponds to: a. a single phrase. b. multiple phrases. c. a full clause. d. a full sentence.

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Chap 12_9e 53. The _____ period when learning a language is easiest, is from about _____ years of age. a. acquisition; 5 to 10 b. critical; 2 to 12 c. crucial; 6 to 12 d. sensitive; 2 to 6 54. An aphasia is a loss of: a. hearing function. b. language function. c. visual function. d. the ability to recognize objects. 55. A person's abstract knowledge of her language is referred to as linguistic: a. competence. b. performance. c. productivity. d. regularity. 56. _____ errors occur at the functional level. a. Phrase b. Sentence c. Sound d. Word 57. All the possible sentences in any language are constructed from a _____ number of components. a. all b. most c. about half d. very restricted 58. When speakers correct themselves, they tend to correct: a. only the incorrect word. b. the entire phrase. c. the entire clause. d. the entire sentence.

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Chap 12_9e 59. For MOST individuals, language is lateralized in the: a. left hemisphere. b. right hemisphere. c. anterior portions of the brain. d. posterior portions of the brain. 60. What theory proposed by Chomsky (1980), and Fodor (1983) argues that language and thought might be independent of each other? a. linguistic determinism b. linguistic intuition c. modularity d. parameter setting 61. The sentence "They are stewing meats" is an example of a _____ ambiguity. a. lexical b. productive c. regular d. structural 62. Which feature(s) allow(s) the elements of language to be combined into complex hierarchical structures such as sentences? a. semanticity and arbitrariness of units b. displacement in time and space c. discreteness and productivity d. arbitrary association of sign and meaning 63. _____ ambiguities arise when a word has two or more distinct meanings. a. Lexical b. Productive c. Regular d. Structural 64. The application of linguistic knowledge in speaking or listening is referred to as linguistic: a. competence. b. performance. c. productivity. d. regularity.

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Chap 12_9e 65. The sentence "He is very interested in cranes" is an example of a _____ ambiguity. a. lexical b. productive c. regular d. structural 66. What are three possible relationships between thought and language (not mutually exclusive)?

67. Why should researchers NOT bother to teach apes to speak? What are the alternative options?

68. What are the two hypotheses about why humans are intellectually different from other species?

69. Describe each stage of language acquisition.

70. What is a spoonerism? Why are spoonerisms interesting?

71. Why is children's speech sometimes referred to as telegraphic?

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Chap 12_9e 72. What evidence suggests that grammar seems to be sensitive to a critical period?

73. Do bilinguals show a cognitive advantage over monolinguals?

74. What is babbling?

75. What regions of the brain are involved in language?

76. Explain the modularity position.

77. What is motherese?

78. How are first-language acquisition and typical second-language acquisition different?

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Chap 12_9e 79. What three types of rules make up a grammar?

80. What is the goal of linguistics?

81. What purpose does grammar serve?

82. Describe the features that are considered critical to human language.

83. What evidence suggests that language depends on thought?

84. What is linguistic determinism?

85. What is meant by parameter setting?

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Chap 12_9e 86. What evidence suggests a critical period for the acquisition of phonological knowledge?

87. What was Watson's view of cognitive activity? What evidence supported his claim? What evidence detracted from his claim?

88. What evidence suggests that sentences are produced a phrase at a time?

89. What are Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia?

90. What evidence suggests that infants are born with linguistic behavior that they later discard?

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Chap 12_9e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_9e 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_9e 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. 1. Thought depends in various ways on language. 2. Language depends in various ways on thought. 3. Language and thought are two largely independent systems. 67. Although early attempts to teach apes to speak failed miserably, we now know that the human vocal apparatus has undergone special evolutionary adaptations to enable speech, so it was a hopeless goal to try to teach chimps to speak. However, apes have considerable manual dexterity and, more recently, there have been some wellpublicized attempts to teach chimpanzees and other apes manual languages. 68. -

One hypothesis is that our enlarged prefrontal cortex gives us unmatched abilities to solve problems and reason about our world. - Another hypothesis is that humans are special because they alone possess language.

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Chap 12_9e 69. -

At first, there is little variety in infants' speech. Their vocalizations consist almost totally of an ah sound. In the months following birth, a child's vocal apparatus matures. - At about 6 months, a change takes place in children's utterances. They begin to engage in what is called babbling, which consists of generating a rich variety of speech sounds with interesting intonation patterns. However, the sounds are generally totally meaningless. - When a child is about a year old, the first words appear. These are apparent only to adults familiar with the child, but soon they develop a repertoire of one-word statements that are recognizable to others and effectively used to make requests and descriptions. This is the one-word stage, and the words used tend to be concrete and refer to the here and now. - After about six months in the one-word stage, children develop the ability to put two words together. All their statements at this stage are one or two words; after they can put together more than two words, they are capable of sentences of many different lengths. - By the time children are 6 years old, they have mastered most of their language, although they continue to pick up details at least until the age of 10. In that time, they have learned tens of thousands of special case rules and tens of thousands of words.

70. -

A spoonerism consists of erratic exchanges of sound between words, which are sometimes humorous or clever. - Garrett (1990) distinguished between errors in sounds and errors in whole words. Sound errors occur at what he called the positional level, which basically corresponds to a single phrase, whereas word errors occur at what he called the functional level, which corresponds to a larger unit of speech such as a sentence consisting of multiple phrases.

71. It is sometimes referred to as telegraphic because younger children speak somewhat as people used to write in telegrams, omitting less important function words such as the and is. 72. Weber-Fox and Neville (1996) used ERP measurement of sensitivity to syntactic violations, and they found that: - Adults who had learned English in their first 3 years of life showed strong left lateralization, like those who learn English as a first language. If they were delayed in their acquisition to ages between 11 and 13, they showed almost no lateralization. Those who had acquired English at an intermediate age showed an intermediate amount of lateralization. - There was no such critical period for lexical or semantic violations, in terms of ERP measurements. Thus, given this lateralization pattern in response to syntactic violations, the results suggested that grammar may be more sensitive to a critical period. 73. A bilingual person is substantially fluent in two languages. Early in the twentieth century, the general opinion was that bilingualism was harmful to a child's intellectual development (Antoniou, 2019). Since the 1960s there has been a great deal of research on the cognitive effects of being bilingual that rejects these conclusions. By the end of the twentieth century, the dominant view was that bilingualism conferred a cognitive advantage: Bialystok, Craik, Green, and Gollan (2009) reviewed research showing that bilingual children perform better on general and nonverbal intelligence tests. There is also evidence that bilinguals are protected against dementia and that bilingual older adults with probable Alzheimer's disease (as indicated by a CT scan) showed slower progression of their disease than did monolingual adults (Schweizer, Ware, Fischer, Craik, and Bialystok, 2012) as they age.

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Chap 12_9e 74. In the months following birth, the child's vocal apparatus matures, and at about 6 months children begin to engage in what is called babbling, which consists of generating a rich variety of speech sounds with interesting intonation patterns. However, the sounds are generally totally meaningless. 75. Language is preferentially localized in the left hemisphere in prefrontal regions (Broca's area), temporal regions (Wernicke's area), and parietal regions (supramarginal and angular gyri). 76. The modularity position maintains that language and thought might be independent. This position holds that important language processes function independently from the rest of cognition. The position doesn't deny that the linguistic module may have been shaped to communicate thought, but it argues that it operates according to different principles than those governing cognition and that it cannot be influenced by general cognition. The essence of this position is that language's communication with other mental processes consists only of passing its products to general cognition and receiving products from it. 77. Some parents and caregivers are careful to make their utterances to children simple and clear, using short sentences with exaggerated intonation, in a kind of speech called motherese (Snow & Ferguson, 1977). 78. -

When learning a first language, children receive little if any direct instruction in acquiring it. Thus, they induce the structure of natural language from listening to parents, caretakers, and older children. - When learning a second language, people are often told when they are making errors of syntax, which does not usually occur when learning a first language.

79. A grammar consists of rules in three domains—syntax, semantics, and phonology. 80. The goal of linguistics is to discover a set of rules that captures the structural regularities in a language. 81. Grammar is a set of rules that will account for both the productivity and the regularity of natural language. It should be able to prescribe or generate all the acceptable utterances of a language and be able to reject all the nonsentences in the language. 82. -

Semanticity and arbitrariness of units: There is arbitrary meaning assigned to our language. For example, there is no reason why "good dog" and "bad dog" should mean what they do, based solely on their sounds. - Displacement in time and space: Human language can be used to communicate over time and distance. - Discreteness and productivity: Human language has discrete units, that enables the elements of the language to be combined into the complex hierarchical structures that constitute sentences. All people in the world, even those in isolated communities, speak a language; no other species spontaneously uses a communication system anything like human language.

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Chap 12_9e 83. -

Since humans' ability to think seems to have evolved earlier evolutionarily and occurs sooner developmentally than their ability to use language, it seems natural to suppose that language developed as a tool whose function was to communicate thought. - Rosch's research on focal colors revealed that languages have special, short, high-frequency words with which to designate the colors to which the human visual system is maximally sensitive. Thus, the visual system has determined how our language represents color. - Greenberg (1963) studied the world's languages and found that only four of the six possible orders of subject, verb, and object are used in natural languages (and one of the four is rare). A striking result of this is that the subject almost always precedes the object in natural languages. This makes sense considering cognition since we usually think of a subject first and then what action that subject is taking to affect an object.

84. Linguistic determinism (or linguistic relativity) is the claim that language determines or strongly influences the way that a person thinks, including how the person perceives the world. 85. Parameter setting is a theory of language acquisition that maintains that much of the variability among natural languages can be described in terms of different settings of 100 or so parameters and that a major part of learning a language is learning the settings of these parameters. 86. -

Flege, Yeni-Komshian, and Liu (1999) looked at the performance of 240 Korean immigrants in the United States. For measures of both foreign accent and knowledge of grammar, there was a steady decrease in performance with age of arrival in the United States. - Even when Flege et al. created two matched groups from the original 240 participants who reported equal use of English, the two groups did not differ on measures of syntax, but the later-arriving group still showed a stronger accent.

87. -

Watson was considered "the father of behaviorism," and his view was that there was no such thing as internal mental activity at all. He argued that all humans do is emit responses that have been conditioned to various stimuli. Watson proposed that thinking was just subvocal speech. - Evidence supporting his claim: When a participant is engaged in thought, it is possible to get recordings of subvocal speech activity. Watson also claimed that we can think with our whole bodies (for instance, with our arms). He cited the evidence that deaf mutes actually make signs while asleep. - Evidence detracting from his claim: S. M. Smith, Brown, Toman, and Goodman (1947) used a curare derivative that paralyzes the entire voluntary musculature, and they temporarily paralyzed Smith's musculature to conduct the experiment. It was impossible for him to engage in subvocal speech or any other body movement. Even under curare, however, Smith was able to make observations, comprehend speech, remember events, and think about them. This demonstrated that thinking was possible in the absence of any muscle activity. Other evidence detracting from Watson's claim comes from people who have no apparent speech whatsoever but can demonstrate thinking.

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Chap 12_9e 88. -

When people produce a sentence, they tend to generate it a phrase at a time, pausing at the boundaries between large phrase units. - Abundant evidence supports the idea that phrase structures play a key role in the generation of sentences. - Boomer (1965) analyzed examples of spontaneous speech and found that pauses occurred more frequently at junctures between major phrases and that these pauses were longer than pauses at other locations. - Cooper and Paccia-Cooper (1980) and Grosjean, Grosjean, and Lane (1979) looked at participants producing prepared sentences rather than spontaneous speech. The pauses of such participants tend to be much shorter, but the same pattern holds, with longer pauses at the major phrase boundaries.

89. Two of the classic aphasias, known as Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia, are associated with damage to Broca's and Wernicke's regions of the brain. Depending on the severity of damage to Broca's and Wernicke's areas in the brain, patients with Broca's aphasia are unable to generate almost any speech, while patients with Wernicke's aphasia, in addition to having problems with comprehension, sometimes produce grammatical but meaningless speech. 90. An interesting feature of early-childhood linguistic behavior is that children produce sounds that do not occur in the particular language that is being spoken by the people around them and that they will themselves acquire. Moreover, they can apparently discriminate among sounds that do not occur in that language. For instance, Japanese-learning infants can discriminate between /l/ and /r/, a discrimination that Japanese adults cannot make (Tsushima et al., 1994). Similarly, English-learning infants can discriminate among variations of the /t/ sound that are important in Hindi and that English-speaking adults cannot discriminate (Werker and Tees, 1999). It is as if children enter the world with speech and perceptual capabilities that are like a block of marble out of which will be carved their particular language, discarding what is not necessary for that language.

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Chap 13_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The P600 is an indicant of difficulty in semantic processing. a. True b. False 2. Bridging inferences are made automatically. a. True b. False 3. Listeners process a negative by first processing the negation of a supposition and then the embedded affirmative supposition. a. True b. False 4. Processing involved in determining pronoun reference lasts beyond the reading of the pronoun itself. a. True b. False 5. Broca's area is usually more active when dealing with less complex sentence structures. a. True b. False 6. The N400 is an indicant of difficulty in syntactic processing. a. True b. False 7. The more difficult a sentence, the more time participants take to detect a target phoneme. a. True b. False 8. Participants have the best memory for the first major constituent. a. True b. False 9. There are no limits on how many elaborative inferences can be made. a. True b. False 10. Activity in Broca's area increases when participants encounter a permanent ambiguity. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The basic units of a sentence are called: a. words. b. linguistic structures. c. clauses. d. constituents. 12. When an ambiguous word is presented, readers select a meaning within: a. 70 msec. b. 200 msec. c. 700 msec. d. 7 sec. 13. According to the modularity position: a. there is an initial phase in which we only process semantics. b. there is an initial phase in which we only process syntax. c. there is an initial phase in which we process both semantics and syntax. d. semantics and syntax are combined at all levels of processing. 14. According to Zwaan and Radvansky (1998), which of the following is NOT a dimension of information for the situation model? a. space b. time c. protagonists d. antagonists 15. In the sentence "The cat the dog chased was orange," "the dog chased" is an example of a: a. center-embedded sentence. b. complex constituent. c. parsing referent. d. utilization referent. 16. In Clark and Chase's (1972; 1974) experiments on the verification of negatives, participants first _____, and then _____. a. checked the supposition; processed the negation b. processed the negation; checked the supposition c. checked the negation; processed the supposition d. processed the supposition; checked the negation

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Chap 13_9e 17. Which of the following is NOT a base for resolving the reference of pronouns, as noted by Just and Carpenter (1987)? a. Number and gender cues b. Syntactic cues c. Recency effect d. Primacy effect 18. What should Professor Willy do to help his students learn better? a. use gestures when teaching b. not distracting students with gestures c. speak loudly in a high tone d. speak in a moderate voice and low tone 19. A participant reads "Lena gave the kitten Vick." The researcher should expect to see _____ recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. a. an N400 b. a P600 c. both an N400 and a P600 d. neither an N400 nor a P600 20. Garden-path sentences are an example of a _____ ambiguity. a. parsing b. permanent c. transient d. utilization 21. According to the interactive processing position, semantics and syntax are combined: a. at all levels of processing. b. at the lower levels of processing. c. at the higher levels of processing. d. during the initial phase of language processing. 22. A participant reads "Lena clapped the kitten to Vick." The researcher should expect to see _____ recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. a. an N400 b. a P600 c. both an N400 and a P600 d. neither an N400 nor a P600

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Chap 13_9e 23. _____ are made automatically when reading a text. a. Direct statements b. Bridging inferences c. Elaborative inferences d. Forward inferences 24. When semantic and syntactic information conflict, comprehenders _____ rely on the plausible semantic interpretation of the sentence. a. always b. sometimes c. rarely d. never 25. A participant reads "Lena clapped the kitten Vick." The researcher should expect to see a(n) _____ recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. a. N600 b. P400 c. R800 d. N400 and a P600 26. Individuals often need extra time at a _____ boundary to complete semantic processing. a. word b. constituent c. clause d. sentence 27. Gina is looking at the bus schedule. She needs to go to the mall to buy a dress to wear to the prom. The sentence "Gina is going to take the bus to the mall" corresponds to Kintsch's: a. surface level. b. propositional level. c. situational level. d. unambiguous level. 28. One clause is embedded in another clause in ____ sentences. a. garden-path b. ambiguous c. center-embedded d. elaborative-inferential

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Chap 13_9e 29. The _____ is an indicant of difficulty in syntactic processing as recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. a. N400 b. N600 c. P400 d. P600 30. Difficulty in both semantic and syntactic processing are indicated by a(n) _____ recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. a. N600 b. P400 c. R800 d. N400 and a P600 31. Gina is looking at the bus schedule. She needs to go to the mall to buy a dress to wear to the prom. The sentence "Gina is looking at the bus schedule" corresponds to Kintsch's: a. surface level. b. propositional level. c. situational model. d. unambiguous level. 32. Young children rely: a. more on semantic patterns than on syntactic patterns. b. more on syntactic patterns than on semantic patterns. c. only on syntactic patterns. d. equally on semantic and syntactic patterns. 33. The presentation of an ambiguous word, such as bank: a. immediately activates the more common meaning of the word. b. immediately activates the less common meaning of the word. c. immediately activates both meanings of the word. d. activates neither meaning of the word. Meaning is selected only after context is provided. 34. Comprehenders consider: a. only one candidate for the referent of a pronoun. b. only one candidate for the referent of a pronoun and use gender cues to select a referent. c. only one candidate for the referent of a pronoun and use syntactic cues to select a referent. d. multiple candidates for the referent of a pronoun and use semantic and syntactic cues to select a referent.

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Chap 13_9e 35. What should Annie do to remember her lessons better? a. use gestures when studying b. not getting distracted with the use of gestures c. study in a secluded spot d. write down thoughts when studying 36. It takes _____ to program an eye movement. a. 20 msec b. 200 msec c. 2000 msec d. 20 sec 37. _____ is one in which a listener integrates a current utterance with his own world knowledge. a. A direct statement b. A backward inference c. A bridging inference d. An elaborative inference 38. ERP recordings indicate that semantic and syntactic violations elicit: a. different responses in different locations in the brain. b. different responses in the same locations in the brain. c. the same responses in different locations in the brain. d. the same responses in the same locations in the brain. 39. _____ refers to encoding the spoken or written message. a. Comprehension b. Perception c. Parsing d. Utilization 40. Loftus and Zanni (1975) had participants watch a film of an automobile accident. They found that participants were more likely to report a broken headlight when asked: a. "Did you see a broken headlight?" b. "Did you see her broken headlight?" c. "Did you see his broken headlight?" d. "Did you see the broken headlight?"

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Chap 13_9e 41. Given "The splinter was removed quickly. Shelly liked the new tweezers," the sentence "Shelly's mom removed the splinter" is an example of a(n): a. direct statement. b. backward inference. c. bridging inference. d. elaborative inference. 42. According to the principle of immediacy of interpretation, we immediately interpret _____ as we encounter them. a. words b. verbs c. nouns d. concrete nouns 43. The sentence "The old fly for less" is an example of a _____ ambiguity. a. parsing b. permanent c. transient d. utilization 44. The order of the three stages of language comprehension is: a. parsing, perceptual processes, utilization. b. parsing, utilization, perceptual processes. c. perceptual processes, parsing, utilization. d. utilization, parsing, perceptual processes. 45. Given "The splinter was removed quickly. Shelly's mom used new tweezers," the sentence "Shelly's mom removed the splinter" is an example of a(n): a. direct statement. b. bridging inference. c. elaborative inference. d. forward inference. 46. In addition to word order, we also get syntactical cues from _____ structure. a. sentence b. contextual c. grammatical d. inflectional

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Chap 13_9e 47. The meaning of a sentence is defined in terms of the _____ structure. a. word b. constituent c. clause d. sentence 48. The sentence "The bass is a dull gray" is an example of a _____ ambiguity. a. parsing b. permanent c. transient d. utilization 49. The _____ is an indicant of difficulty in semantic processing as recorded in event-related potentials (ERPs) from the brain. a. N400 b. N600 c. P400 d. P600 50. Language comprehension involves: a. much of the brain. b. only the left hemisphere. c. only the right hemisphere. d. only Broca's and Wernicke's areas. 51. _____ is one in which a listener connects a current utterance to preceding utterances. a. A direct statement b. A bridging inference c. An elaborative inference d. A forward inference 52. Gina is looking at the bus schedule. She needs to go to the mall to buy a dress to wear to the prom. The sentence "Gina is going to buy a dress" corresponds to Kintsch's: a. surface level. b. propositional level. c. situational model. d. unambiguous level.

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Chap 13_9e 53. _____ refers to the stage in which the comprehender uses the mental representation of the sentence's meaning. a. Comprehension b. Perception c. Parsing d. Utilization 54. _____ refers to transforming the linguistic input into a mental representation. a. Comprehension b. Perception c. Parsing d. Utilization 55. Broca's area is usually found to be more active when individuals deal with: a. simple sentence structures. b. complex sentence structures. c. semantic ambiguities. d. syntactic ambiguities. 56. Comprehenders have the best memory for _____ constituent(s) of a sentence. a. the first b. the last c. both the first and last d. Comprehenders have equal memory for every constituent of a sentence. 57. A _____ level consists of the major points of the story. a. propositional b. situational c. story d. surface 58. It is optional whether people will make _____ when reading text. a. direct statements b. backward inferences c. bridging inferences d. elaborative inferences

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Chap 13_9e 59. Caplan et al. (2000) found greater activation in _____ with center-embedded sentences. a. Broca's area b. Wernicke's area c. Brodmann area 10 d. Brodmann area 17 60. Strohner and Nelson (1974) had 2- and 3-year-olds use toys to act out the following sentences: (1) The cat chased the mouse. (2) The mouse chased the cat. How were these sentences interpreted? a. The children interpreted both sentences to mean that the cat chased the mouse. b. The children interpreted both sentences to mean that the mouse chased the cat. c. The children interpreted the correct meaning for each sentence. d. The children interpreted the opposite meaning for each sentence. 61. Loftus and Zanni (1975) found that: a. choice of article affects listeners' beliefs. b. choice of article does not affect listeners' beliefs. c. using the article, a affects listeners' beliefs. d. using the article, an affects listeners' beliefs. 62. The dominant syntactic cue in English is: a. inflection. b. word order. c. phrase order. d. clause order. 63. Unambiguous sentences result in _____ activation of Broca's area (compared with ambiguous sentences). a. greater b. less c. equal d. no 64. Comprehenders process a negative by: a. first processing the negation, then the embedded supposition, and then the negation again. b. first processing its negation and then the embedded supposition. c. first processing its embedded supposition and then the negation. d. processing the embedded supposition and the negation together.

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Chap 13_9e 65. While reading, readers fixate on: a. every word. b. almost every word. c. familiar words only. d. unfamiliar words only. 66. Describe each stage of language comprehension.

67. What is the principle of minimal attachment?

68. How are phrases processed?

69. Compare the modularity and interactive-processing positions. Which position is correct? Why?

70. Why are we aware that we reinterpret some ambiguous sentences, but not others?

71. What is a bridging inference? What is an elaborative inference?

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Chap 13_9e 72. Distinguish between transient ambiguity and permanent ambiguity.

73. What is the significance of gesturing in classroom learning?

74. What factors contribute to the judgments about the emotional mood of a speaker?

75. Why are elaborative inferences more problematic than bridging inferences?

76. How do English speakers and German speakers differ in their use of syntactic cues?

77. What evidence suggests that the syntactic and semantic processes are separable?

78. What is lexical ambiguity?

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Chap 13_9e 79. What are true, false, affirmative, and negative in sentences?

80. What are the two basic sources of syntactic information that guide us in parsing sentences?

81. What are the multiple levels proposed by Kintsch (1998) at which text is represented?

82. Describe the bases for resolving pronominal reference.

83. Describe the Graf and Torrey (1966) experiment on parsing. What do the findings suggest?

84. What evidence suggests that we combine semantics and syntax when interpreting a sentence?

85. What is a garden-path sentence?

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Chap 13_9e 86. What is the principle of immediacy of interpretation?

87. What evidence suggests that we begin to interpret a sentence before we encounter the main verb?

88. What is a situation model? How are situation models organized?

89. What is a center-embedded sentence? Provide two examples.

90. What evidence suggests that the identification of constituent structure is important to parsing?

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Chap 13_9e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_9e 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. d 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_9e 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. Comprehension consists of a perceptual stage, a parsing stage, and a utilization stage, in that order: - Perceptual stage: The spoken (acoustic) or written message is encoded. - Parsing stage: The words in the message are transformed into a mental representation of the combined meaning of the words. - Utilization stage: Comprehenders use the mental representation of the sentence's meaning. 67. It is a principle stating that people prefer to interpret a sentence in a way that causes minimal complication of its phrase structure. 68. Research shows that participants process the meaning of a sentence one phrase at a time and maintain access to a constituent only while processing its meaning. 69. -

The modularity position maintains that there is an initial phase in which we only process syntax, and only later do we bring semantic factors into account. Since syntax is part of a language-specific module that can operate quickly by itself, it is believed to be readily available for disambiguation. By contrast, semantics requires the use of all of one's world knowledge, which is not as readily available. - The interactive processing position maintains that syntax and semantics are combined at all levels of processing. - Overall, research indicates that people do seem to be able to select a correct interpretation when it is not semantically possible to interpret the noun as an agent of the verb, indicating that syntactic decisions are not made without reference to semantic factors. Participants appear to be able to use semantic information immediately to guide syntactic decisions. This supports the interactive-processing position.

70. If a syntactic ambiguity is resolved quickly after we encounter it, we seem to be unaware of ever considering two interpretations. Only if resolution is postponed substantially beyond the ambiguous phrase, are we aware of the need to reinterpret it (Ferreira and Clifton, 1986).

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Chap 13_9e 71. A bridging inference reaches back in the text to make connections with earlier parts of the text. An elaborative inference adds new information to the interpretation of the text and often predicts what will be coming up in the text. 72. Transient ambiguity refers to ambiguity in a sentence that is resolved by the end of the sentence; permanent ambiguity refers to ambiguity that is not resolved by the end of a sentence. 73. Gesturing is important in classroom learning—students learn better when teachers gesture while giving verbal instructions than when teachers do not gesture (e.g., Novack, Wakefield, Congdon, Franconeri, and GoldinMeadow, 2016). Students also learn better when they themselves gesture during study. 74. Many studies have shown that judgments about the emotional mood of a speaker are determined more by factors such as posture, facial expression, and tone of voice than by what the person actually says (Burgoon, Guerrero, and Floyd, 2016). 75. The problem with elaborative inferences is that there are no bounds on how many inferences can be made, so people can make a lot of assumptions that are either accurate or inaccurate. This is not as much of a problem with bridging inferences. 76. English speakers are not accustomed to seeing sentence structure with the main verb at the end (it is unusual), while it is not unusual for German speakers. Listeners of German and other such languages develop strong expectations about the sentence before seeing the verb. 77. Ainsworth et al. used the fact that each process—syntactic and semantic—affects a different brain region to argue that the syntactic and semantic processes are separable. Researchers have found two indicants of sentence processing in event-related potentials (ERPs) recorded from the brain: - The N400 is an indicant of difficulty in semantic processing. - The P600 occurs in response to syntactic anomalies. 78. In lexical ambiguity, a single word has two meanings, and there is often no structural difference in the two interpretations of a sentence. 79. The terms true and false refer to whether the sentence is a true assertion about the narrative, and the terms affirmative and negative refer to the absence or presence of the negative not in the sentence. 80. There are two basic sources of syntactic information that can guide us in parsing sentences: word order and inflectional structure.

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Chap 13_9e 81. Kintsch (1998, 2013) has argued that a text is represented at three levels: surface, propositional, and situational. "Nick decided to go to the movies. He looked at a newspaper to see what was playing" is an example from Kintsch to illustrate the levels. 1. The surface level of representation consists of representations of the exact sentences. Memory for representations at this level can be tested by comparing people's ability to remember the exact sentences versus a paraphrase such as "Nick studied the newspaper to see what was playing." 2. The propositional level consists of representations of the propositions implied by these sentences. Memory for representations at this level can be tested by seeing whether people remember that Nick read the newspaper at all. 3. The situational level consists of representations of the major points of the story. Memory for representations at this level can be tested by seeing whether people remember that Nick wanted to see a movie—something not said in the story but strongly implied. 82. Just and Carpenter (1987) noted a number of bases for resolving pronominal reference: - Number and gender cues are used. - There is a syntactic cue that pronouns tend to refer to objects in the same grammatical role. - There is also a strong recency effect such that the most recent candidate referent is preferred. - People can use their knowledge of the world to determine reference. 83. -

Graf and Torrey (1966) presented sentences to participants a line at a time. The passages were either presented in a line form that corresponded to major constituent boundaries or a form in which there was no such correspondence. - Findings suggested that participants were better able to comprehend a sentence that was broken into lines according to its clearly identifiable constituent structure compared to a sentence that was not. - This suggests that the identification of constituent structure is important to the parsing of a sentence.

84. -

Tyler and Marslen-Wilson (1977) asked participants to try to continue sentence fragments, and they found that syntactic constraints determined a specific meaning for an ambiguous phrase ("landing planes are"). The context of the first fragment was consistent with this specific meaning, while the prior context of the second fragment was not. Participants were able to more quickly continue the first fragment, which suggests that they were using both the semantics of the context as well as the syntax of the phrase to disambiguate the phrase. - Bates, McNew, MacWhinney, Devescovi, and Smith (1982) had participants interpret word strings, and they found that American speakers preferred to go with the syntactic interpretation but would sometimes adopt the semantic interpretation.

85. A garden-path sentence is one in which people give one interpretation up to the last word, and then, after hearing or reading the last word, they struggle to give it a different interpretation. 86. It is a principle stating that people try to extract meaning out of each word as it arrives and do not wait until the end of a sentence, or even the end of a phrase, to decide how to interpret a word.

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Chap 13_9e 87. Our immediacy of interpretation implies that we will begin to interpret a sentence even before we encounter the main verb. - Some evidence is provided by Just and Carpenter (1980), who studied the eye movements of participants as they read a sentence. - Other evidence is provided by studies of the comprehension of spoken language using eye movements (Allopenna, Magnuson, and Tanenhaus, 1998). 88. A situation model is a representation of the overall structure of a narrative that we are reading. According to Zwaan and Radvansky (1998), situation models are organized according to five dimensions: space, time, causation, protagonists, and goals. 1. Space: As comprehenders process a story, they keep track of where the actors and objects are, just as if they were actually in the situation in the story, looking at the various objects and people. 2. Time: Comprehenders need to keep track of when events take place relative to each other. 3. Causation: Comprehenders also need to keep track of the causal relationships among the events in a story. 4. Protagonists: Protagonists are the most important elements of a situation model, and people keep track of what is happening to them. 5. Goals: The goals of the protagonists in a story are a critical aspect of the narrative, so comprehenders keep track of them. 89. A center-embedded sentence is one in which one clause is embedded within another clause. Examples: - The boy the girl liked was sick. - The boy whom the girl liked was sick. 90. Graf and Torrey (1966) found that participants were better able to comprehend a sentence that was broken into lines according to its clearly identifiable constituent structure compared to a sentence that was not.

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Chap 14_9e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Average IQ scores appear to have risen about 3 points per decade. a. True b. False 2. The majority of human neural development is not complete until age 15. a. True b. False 3. Hippocampal cells grow to compensate for the age-related deaths of other hippocampal cells. a. True b. False 4. The number of synapses in the brain reaches its peak at about age 2, after which it declines. a. True b. False 5. At birth, a child's brain has more neurons than an adult brain has. a. True b. False 6. The twenties tend to be the time of peak intellectual performance. a. True b. False 7. Fraternal twins raised together have more similar IQs than identical twins raised apart. a. True b. False 8. Children do worse than adults on almost every memory task. a. True b. False 9. Faster processing is associated with greater metabolic expenditure. a. True b. False 10. The Wechsler test has separate scales for children and adults. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_9e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. One's brain is at its best physically during one's: a. twenties. b. thirties. c. forties. d. sixties. 12. A researcher shows a child two rows of coins. Then, the researcher compresses one row; no coins are added, no coins are taken away. After that, the researcher asks the child which row has more coins. Assume that the child is in Piaget's concrete-operational stage. How will he respond? a. The compressed row has more coins. b. The uncompressed row has more coins. c. Both rows have equal amounts of coins. d. Children in this stage may or may not be able to provide the correct response. 13. If there was no relationship between how individuals did on one test and how they did on another, the correlation would be: a. –1. b. 0. c. 1. d. 100. 14. Individuals with high verbal ability have large: a. working memories. b. working memories for verbal information. c. short-term memories. d. short-term memories for verbal information. 15. 10-year-old Raj understands that the same ball of play-doh can be transformed into different shapes. Piaget would say that Raj has accomplished: a. object permanence. b. conservation. c. abstract thinking. d. creative thinking.

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Chap 14_9e 16. According to Case (1978), _____ memory capacity is the key to the developmental sequence. a. implicit b. long-term c. short-term d. working 17. Which sentence might lead to better memory performance? a. The women have wind chimes. b. The man has many apples. c. The girl had a closet. d. The boy drove the car. 18. The Stanford-Binet and Wechsler are: a. tests of performance ability. b. tests of verbal ability. c. tests of specialized abilities. d. general intelligence tests. 19. Young children are: a. better at drawing inferences. b. poorer at drawing inferences. c. better at drawing backward inferences but poorer at drawing forward inferences. d. poorer at drawing backward inferences but better at drawing forward inferences. 20. Why is much of human neural development postponed until after birth? a. Neural development depends on experience. b. Neural development depends on the postpartum nutrition. c. The human birth canal is expanded to its limits. d. The human pelvis is lengthened to its limits. 21. _____ increases the speed of signal transmission in the axon. a. Dendrification b. Glialization c. Myelination d. Sheathing

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Chap 14_9e 22. Individuals in many professions tend to produce their best work in their: a. twenties. b. thirties. c. forties. d. sixties. 23. A child in Piaget's _____ stage can engage in internal thought, but these thoughts are not systematic. a. concrete-operational b. formal-operational c. preoperational d. sensory-motor 24. During the first 2 years, the number of neurons _____ and the number of synapses _____. a. increases; increases as well b. increases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. decreases; decreases as well 25. Performance on the verbal component of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R): a. increases dramatically with age. b. increases somewhat with age. c. decreases dramatically with age. d. changes little as people age. 26. Performance on the performance component of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R): a. increases dramatically with age. b. increases somewhat with age. c. decreases dramatically with age. d. maintains itself quite constantly through the years. 27. The _____ option holds that children's basic cognitive processes become better. a. know-better b. know-more c. think-better d. think-more

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Chap 14_9e 28. A child with a chronological age of 6 and a mental age of 9 has an IQ of: a. 150. b. 120. c. 135. d. 67. 29. _____ refers to the ability to reason. a. Crystallized intelligence b. Fluid intelligence c. Factor analysis d. Meta-analysis 30. At 2, the brain has reached _____ of its adult size. a. 20% b. 50% c. 60% d. 80% 31. At the age of 2, the number of synapses: a. begins to decrease. b. begins to increase. c. reaches its peak, after which it decreases. d. reaches its peak, after which it levels off. 32. _____ refers to the ability to solve problems in novel domains. a. Crystallized intelligence b. Fluid intelligence c. Factor analysis d. Meta-analysis 33. _____ myelinate axons. a. Dendrites b. Glial cells c. Myoepithelial cells d. Neurons

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Chap 14_9e 34. How is the birth of human babies physically possible? a. The birth canal of the human female is small. b. The pelvis of the human female is long. c. The skull of the human infant is small. d. The birth canal of the human female is large, and the skull of the human infant is pliable. 35. With age, the ability to hold information in working memory: a. decreases. b. increases. c. remains the same. d. depends on the individual. 36. During the first year of life, the volume of the human brain: a. increases in size by 50%. b. doubles in size. c. triples in size. d. remains the same size. 37. _____ argue that humans enter the world with genetically programmed knowledge. a. Empiricists b. Geneticists c. Nativists d. Naturalists 38. Goriounova and Mansvelder's (2019) research indicates a _____ correlation between the amount of myelination and intelligence, and a _____ correlation between synaptic connections and intelligence. a. positive; positive b. negative; negative c. positive; negative d. negative; positive 39. What statistical tool do researchers use to make sense of correlational patterns between different test items? a. standard deviation b. coefficient of correlation c. factor analysis d. Chi-square

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Chap 14_9e 40. Humans have _____ brains in relation to their body size. a. very large b. somewhat large c. somewhat small d. very small 41. The majority of human neural development is complete by age: a. 2. b. 5. c. 15. d. 21. 42. Degree of myelination: a. decreases with age. b. increases with age. c. remains the same. d. cycles. 43. The Stanford-Binet and Wechsler produce measures that are called: a. adjusted scores. b. intelligence quotients. c. psychometric scores. d. raw scores. 44. Individuals with _____ verbal ability make rapid judgments about pairs of words and have _____ working memories for verbal information. a. high; small b. high; large c. small; small d. small; large 45. Children do: a. better than adults on almost every memory task. b. somewhat better than adults on almost every memory task. c. worse than adults on almost every memory task. d. somewhat worse than adults on almost every memory task.

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Chap 14_9e 46. The _____ option holds that children learn better methods and more facts as they get older. a. know-better b. know-more c. think-better d. think-more 47. A child in Piaget's _____ stage can now treat the physical world in a systematic way. a. concrete-operational b. formal-operational c. preoperational d. sensory-motor 48. If all of the individuals who did well on one test did proportionally poorly on another, the correlation between the two tests would be: a. –1. b. 0. c. 1. d. 0.5. 49. _____ argue that all knowledge comes from experience with the environment. a. Empiricists b. Geneticists c. Nativists d. Naturalists 50. A child in Piaget's _____ stage develops schemes for thinking about the physical world. a. concrete-operational b. formal-operational c. preoperational d. sensory-motor 51. Typically, correlations between tests are _____ correlations. a. perfect positive b. positive (but not perfect) c. perfect negative d. negative (but not perfect)

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Chap 14_9e 52. The concept of number is represented in the _____ cortex. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal 53. Keeney et al. (1967) found that 5-year-olds: a. almost always verbally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. b. seldom verbally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. c. almost always mentally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. d. seldom verbally or mentally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. 54. Keeney et al. (1967) found that 10-year-olds: a. almost always verbally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. b. seldom verbally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. c. almost always mentally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. d. seldom verbally or mentally rehearse a set of objects to be remembered. 55. The _____ loses about 5% of its cells every decade. a. hippocampus b. hypothalamus c. parietal cortex d. prefrontal cortex 56. If all of the individuals who did well on one test did proportionally well on another, the correlation between the two tests would be: a. –1. b. 0. c. 1. d. 100. 57. A child in Piaget's _____ stage is capable of scientific reasoning. a. concrete-operational b. formal-operational c. preoperational d. sensory-motor

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Chap 14_9e 58. Rick has very high spatial ability. What type of a task will he choose to do if given a choice between performing a task spatially, or verbally? a. spatially b. verbally c. he would not mind doing the task spatially or verbally d. he would not be able to decide 59. According to Siegler, developmental changes during the first 2 years are the result of _____ changes. a. experiential b. hormonal c. neural d. nutritional 60. Burns' (2010) research indicates that the increase in intelligence across childhood is associated with _____, whereas its weakening in adulthood is more associated with a _____. a. neural changes; neural deterioration b. experience; sedentary lifestyle c. increased processing speed; decline in working memory d. confidence; low self-esteem 61. IQ scores appear to have risen about 3 points per decade over the previous century. This is referred to as the _____ effect. a. Cannizzo b. Flavell c. Flynn d. Keeney 62. The human birth process is _____ that of other mammals. a. more difficult than b. less difficult than c. similar to d. is dependent on the woman giving birth. 63. A researcher shows a child two rows of coins. Then, the researcher compresses one row; no coins are added, no coins are taken away. After that, the researcher asks the child which row has more coins. Assume that the child is in Piaget's preoperational stage. What will be his response? a. The compressed row has more coins. b. The uncompressed row has more coins. c. Both rows have equal amounts of coins. d. Children in this stage may or may not be able to provide the correct response. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_9e 64. _____ refers to acquired knowledge. a. Crystallized intelligence b. Fluid intelligence c. Factor analysis d. Meta-analysis 65. What concept of intelligence, proposed by Robert Sternberg (2006, 2007), is defined as the ability to solve concrete problems in real life? a. analytical b. creative c. practical d. fluid 66. What two major general intelligence tests are in use in the United States today?

67. How do individuals with high verbal ability compare with individuals with low verbal ability?

68. Why do children do worse on memory tasks than adults?

69. Why is human childhood prolonged?

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Chap 14_9e 70. What are the ways of explaining why children perform better on intellectual tasks as they age?

71. What is object permanence?

72. What is conservation?

73. What are psychometric tests?

74. What is the relationship between a child's intellectual development and neural development?

75. Why might older adults do worse on IQ tests than younger adults?

76. Considering that the distribution of IQ scores is normal for a given population, how are population clusters distributed on a normal curve?

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Chap 14_9e 77. What are neo-Piagetian theories of development?

78. What is a factor analysis?

79. What age-related declines in brain function contribute to poorer cognitive performance?

80. What benefits do people with high verbal ability have?

81. Why was the original definition of IQ unsuitable?

82. Describe each of Piaget's stages of development.

83. Why is there a proliferation followed by pruning of neurons and synaptic connections in an infant's brain?

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Chap 14_9e 84. How does an understanding of conservation develop as the child moves through Piaget's stages?

85. What is crystallized intelligence? What is fluid intelligence?

86. Provide evidence for each side of the empiricist-nativist debate.

87. What is meant by "know-better"? What is meant by "think-better"?

88. What is the Flynn effect?

89. Why is much of human neural development postponed until after birth?

90. According to Case (1985), what controls the growth in working memory?

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Chap 14_9e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_9e 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_9e 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. c 66. The Stanford-Binet test and the Wechsler test, which has separate scales for children and adults, are the two major general intelligence tests used in the United States today. 67. -

Goldberg, Schwartz, and Stewart (1977) compared people with high verbal ability and those with low verbal ability with regard to their ability to make word judgments. Different participant groups were asked whether two given words were identical, whether they sounded alike, or whether they were in the same category. Participants with high verbal ability had a slight advantage when asked if words were identical, but they had much larger advantages when asked if words sounded alike or meant the same thing. The researchers concluded that people with high verbal ability have a major advantage in the speed at which they can go from a linguistic stimulus to information about it. - Daneman and Carpenter (1980) tested individual differences in working-memory capacity using a series of unrelated sentences, asking participants to name the last word of the sentence that they saw or heard. They found that the "reading span" of participants was strongly related to their scores on reading comprehension tests and on tests of verbal ability. They argued that a larger reading and listening span indicates the ability to store a larger part of the text during comprehension.

68. According to research by Chi (1978), children do worse on memory tasks because they know less of (have less experience with) what they are being asked to remember; when the memory of skilled 10-year-old chess players was compared with adults who were novice chess players, children did better at remembering chess pieces but adults did better at remembering digits; it is suggested that this result occurred because children had more experience with the chess pieces and so could remember them better, whereas adults had more experience with digits. 69. According to Bjorklund and Bering (2003), childhood is prolonged in order to develop large brains. It has been speculated that the function of slow physical development is to maintain children's dependency on adults (de Beer, 1959). A child has much to learn in order to become a competent adult and staying a child for so long provides enough time to acquire that knowledge. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_9e 70. There are two main ways of explaining this: - That they "think better," meaning that their basic cognitive processes become better - That they "know better," meaning that they have learned more facts and better methods as they age 71. Object permanence is the ability to understand that objects continue to exist over transformations in time and space; Piaget considered it one of the major intellectual developments in the sensory-motor stage. 72. Conservation most generally refers to knowledge of the properties of the world that are preserved under various transformations. A child's understanding of conservation develops as the child progresses through the Piagetian stages of cognitive development. 73. Psychometric tests are psychological measures of an individual's performance on specific tasks. Using psychometric tests, researchers measure people's performances on a number of different tasks and then look at the way in which these performance measures correlate across tasks. This research has established that there is not a single dimension of "intelligence" on which people vary but rather that individual differences in cognition are much more complex. 74. Siegler (1998) argued that many of the developmental changes that take place in the first 2 years are to be understood in relation to neural changes, which are considerable over that period. The number of neurons in a child's brain decreases over the first two years. However, the number of synaptic connections increases tenfold, reaching a peak at about age 2, after which the number of synapses declines. The earlier pruning of neurons and the later pruning of synaptic connections can be thought of as a process by which the brain fine-tunes itself. Unused neurons and synapses, which have been proved unnecessary, wither away (Huttenlocher, 1994). After age 2, there is not much further growth of neurons or their synaptic connections, but the brain continues to grow because of the proliferation of other cells. The number of glial cells increases, including those that provide myelinated sheaths around the axons of neurons, thus increasing the speed of signal transmission in the axon. 75. -

IQ tests are typically given rapidly, and older adults do better on slower tests. - IQ tests tend to be like school tests, and younger adults have more recent experience with these types of tests. - There may be generational differences (education, nutrition, etc.) that are unrelated to age-related factors. - There are genuine and substantial age-related declines in brain function; brain cells gradually die, and some areas (like the hippocampus) are particularly susceptible to cell death. - Some older adults will suffer from intellectual deficits associated with various brain-related disorders.

76. When scores are adjusted to vary around an average of 100, they tend to distribute symmetrically in a normal distribution. About 2% of the population are in the highest and lowest ranges (above 130 and below 70), and about 68% of the population clusters between 85 and 115. 77. A number of developmental theories propose that there are basic cognitive capacities that increase from birth through the teenage years (Case, 1985; Fischer, 1980; Halford, 1982; Pascual-Leone, 1980). These theories are often called neo-Piagetian theories of development. 78. A factor analysis is a method for trying to make sense of correlational patterns; it involves arranging tests in a multidimensional space such that the distances between the tests correspond to their correlation.

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Chap 14_9e 79. Brain cells gradually die, and some areas are particularly susceptible to cell death. The hippocampus, which is particularly important to memory, loses about 5% of its cells every decade (Selkoe, 1992). Other hippocampal cells, although they might not die, have been observed to shrink and atrophy. One of the most common brainrelated disorders leading to intellectual deficits is Alzheimer's disease, which is associated with substantial impairment of brain function, particularly in the temporal region including the hippocampus. 80. People with high verbal ability are able to make rapid judgments about pairs of words and have large working memories for verbal information. 81. It was unsuitable because it could not extend into measurement of adult intelligence due to the fact that performance on intelligence tests starts to level off in the late teens and declines in later years. 82. -

Sensory-motor stage (birth–2yo): Children develop schemes for thinking about the physical world. - Preoperational stage (2–7yo): Children in this stage can engage in internal thought about the world, but their thoughts are intuitive and lack systematicity. - Concrete-operational stage (7–11yo): Children develop a set of mental operations that allow them to treat the physical world in a systematic way; they still have major limitations on their capacity to reason formally about the world, however. - Formal-operational stage (11yo+): Children have become an adult cognitively and are capable of scientific reasoning; Piaget saw this as a sign of mature intellectual functioning.

83. The initial overproduction (proliferation) guarantees that there will be enough neurons and synapses for the required information processing. Later, unused neurons and synapses, which have been proved unnecessary, wither away (pruned). 84. Conservation refers to knowledge of the properties of the world that are preserved under various transformations. It develops through the Piagetian stages: - Sensory-motor stage: In this stage, children come to understand that objects continue to exist over transformations in time and space (object permanence); this develops slowly and is considered one of the major intellectual developments in this stage. - Preoperational and concrete-operational stages: Many important advances in conservation occur around the age of six, which is the transition point between these two stages; children develop conservation of number (or quantity or amount) as well as conservation of weight and height of solid objects. - Formal-operational stage: Children in this stage are able to understand conservation at new levels of abstraction; they can understand scientific concepts like the conservation of energy and the conservation of motion. 85. Crystallized intelligence refers to acquired knowledge, while fluid intelligence refers to the ability to reason or to solve problems in novel domains.

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Chap 14_9e 86. The nativists argue that the most important aspects of our knowledge about the world appear as part of our genetically programmed development (nature), whereas the empiricists argue that virtually all knowledge comes from experience with the environment (nurture). - Evidence for empiricism: There is a very large genetic overlap between chimpanzees and humans (Chimpanzee Sequencing and Analysis Consortium, 2005), so it seems that there is not much genetic room for encoding the rich knowledge that only humans possess; also, advanced mathematical capability cannot be something that we developed through evolution; modern algebra achieved its modern form only 500 years ago and written number systems are only a few thousand years old; there are "secondary" mathematics that require special learning—so we cannot be born with that particular knowledge. - Evidence for nativism: Some researchers have found that infants are able to distinguish one object from two and two objects from three; there is evidence that they may also have a rudimentary ability to add and subtract; the fact that humans have specific neurons that respond to numbers is interpreted as evidence of innate knowledge of numbers. 87. There are two main ways of explaining why children perform better on intellectual tasks as they age: - That they "think better," meaning that their basic cognitive processes become better - That they "know better," meaning that they have learned more facts and better methods as they age 88. The Flynn effect refers to average IQ scores appearing to have risen about 3 points per decade over the previous century (Flynn, 2007). 89. -

The human birth canal has been expanded to its limits. - At birth, a child's brain has more neurons than an adult brain has, but those neurons are immature and still need to grow, develop synapses, and develop supporting structures like glial cells. - Compared with many other species, human brains will develop much more after birth. - A human brain occupies a volume of about 350 cubic cm at birth and doubles to 700 cubic cm in the first year of life; before a human being reaches puberty, brain size doubles again.

90. According to Case (1985): - Increased speed of neural function is a major factor in the increase of working memory. - Practice plays a significant role as well.

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