TEST BANK for Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition by Braswell, McCarthy, Bernard

Page 1


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 1: Ethics, Crime, and Justice: An Introductory Note to Students 1. The ____________ context is the first (innermost circle) for understanding justice, crime, and ethics. a. b. c. d.

criminal justice personal social community

ANS: b 2. The study of ____________ is an endeavor in which many of your beliefs and assumptions will be challenged. a. b. c. d.

politics society ethics all of the above

ANS: c 3. According to Braswell, which of the following is one of the goals for exploring ethics? a. b. c. d.

becoming more aware and open to moral and ethical issues developing critical thinking and analytical skills becoming more personally responsible all of the above

ANS: d 4. According to Braswell, the fifth goal of ethics exploration is to: a. b. c. d.

always be honest do community service develop wholesight develop relationships

ANS: c 5. Which of the following is not one of the contexts for understanding ethics? a. social

Information Classification: General


1-2 b. psychological c. personal d. criminal justice ANS: b 6. Asking the question “ ____” is an important aspect of developing critical thinking skills. a. b. c. d.

how why when where

ANS: a 7. A goal of our ethics education is to understand how criminal justice is engaged in a process of _________. a. b. c. d.

racism sexism coercion impartiality

ANS: c 8. Developing___________ involves exploring ethical issues not only with your mind, but with your heart. a. b. c. d.

connectedness wholesight critical thinking skills responsibility

ANS: b 9. Asking meaningful questions require us to develop: a. b. c. d.

critical thinking skills analytical skills maturity both a and b

ANS: d 10. According to the test, which goal for exploring ethics is likely to give us hope for the

Information Classification: General


1-3 future? a. b. c. d.

developing wholesight understanding that the criminal justice system is involved in coercion becoming more personally responsible becoming more aware and open to ethical issues

ANS: c 11. Criminal justice is the study of right and wrong, good and evil. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. Braswell suggests that as we grow older we learn to become wiser. a. True b. False ANS: b 13. According to the text, to become more responsible, we must increase our response time. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. According to Braswell, the study of justice, of good and evil, involves a sense of politics. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. According to the text, the study of ethics, crime, and justice will challenge your personal beliefs and assumptions. a. True b. False ANS: a

Information Classification: General


1-4

16. Ethical acts involve not only the commission of wrongdoing, but omission of wrongdoing as well. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. According to the text, there are often differences between appearances and reality in the study of ethics. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Ethics is the scientific study of morality. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. The three contexts for understanding justice, crime, and ethics are community, social, and economic. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. According to the text, wholesight creates a vision in which our minds and hearts, our thinking and feeling, work together for a common good. a. True b. False ANS: a

Information Classification: General


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 2: Utilitarian and Deontological Approaches to Criminal Justice Ethics 1. Mill’s higher order of pleasures includes: a. b. c. d.

sexual gratification fine foods poetry none of the above

ANS: c 2. Deontologists have argued that human beings sometimes have to make right decisions based upon nothing more than: a. b. c. d.

positive consequences a sense of duty avoiding pain all of the above

ANS: b 3. Factors relevant in calculating the amount of pleasure and pain produced by an action consist of these three things: a. b. c. d.

duration, intensity, probability probability, proximity, pleasure proximity, duration, probability none of the above

ANS: a 4. Justice theories address broad social issues, including human rights, distribution of wealth, and: a. b. c. d.

leadership education equality all of the above

ANS: c 5. The utilitarian holds that we evaluate the ____________ of an action in terms of the results or outcomes of that action.

Information Classification: General


2-2 a. b. c. d.

legality validity viability morality

ANS: d 6. ____________ is one of the central ethical issues concerning criminal justice. a. b. c. d.

Deception Force Interrogation none of the above

ANS: b 7. The most famous deontologist was ____________. a. b. c. d.

John Mill Immanuel Kant Jeremy Bentham none of the above

ANS: b 8. ____________ believed one had a duty to make right choices regardless of the consequences. a. b. c. d.

Kohlberg Mill Kant Bentham

ANS: c 9. ____________ holds that the morality of an action is determined by the consequences produced by the action. a. b. c. d.

Bentham Functionalism Consequentialism a and c

ANS: d 10. When evaluating specific justice-related issues (such as how much power is given to

Information Classification: General


2-3 police officers), which theory has a weakness of being too simplistic? a. b. c. d.

utilitarianism deontology both neither

ANS: c 11. Bentham holds that only actions that are done for the sake of duty have moral worth. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. According to deontologists, the fundamental principle of morality is the “categorical imperative.” a. True b. False ANS: a 13. The utilitarian holds that we should not judge the morality of an action in terms of the consequences or results of that action. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Theories of justice address broad social issues, including human rights, equality, and distribution of wealth. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. Mill (1979) considered pleasures such as drinking and playing video games to be superior to “lower order” pleasures such as poetry and reading. a. True b. False

Information Classification: General


2-4 ANS: b 16. Utilitarianism is classified as a consequentialist ethical theory. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Deontologists would agree that justice involves the maximizing of pleasure for the majority, sometimes at the expense of the minority. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. The use of force is a central criminal justice ethical issue unique to the profession. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. A normative ethical theorist tries to discover basic, fundamental principles of right and wrong a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Interest in professional ethics has decreased steadily over the last 15 to 20 years. a. True b. False ANS: b 21. Utilitarianism is closely associated with deterrence theory. a. True b. False ANS: a

Information Classification: General


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 3: Justice, Ethics, and Peacemaking 1. A(n) ____________ may perceive danger in advocating ethical rules and principles because they may replace natural caring. a. b. c. d.

Christian rehabilitationist Taoist Indian

ANS: c 2. Nel Noddings advocates a ____________ approach to ethics. a. b. c. d.

feminine masculine mindful none of the above

ANS: a 3. ____________ may be explained as experiencing a more transcendent sense of awareness. a. b. c. d.

Mindfulness Wholesight Caring Connectedness

ANS: a 4. _________ relates to promoting societal growth through personal practice regardless of one’s spiritual perspective. a. b. c. d.

Christianity spirituality humanism folklore

ANS: c

Information Classification: General


3-2 5. Which of the following is not one of the themes of peacemaking? a. b. c. d.

connectedness mindfulness caring virtue

ANS: d 6. The metaphor of “mother earth” best represents which theme of peacemaking? a. b. c. d.

Connectedness Care Mindfulness Duty

ANS: a 7. According to Braswell and McDowell, contemporary prisons are typically ____________ institutions that tend to perpetuate rather than diminish violence. a. b. c. d.

traditional violent punitive none of the above

ANS: b 8. ____________ has been said to be contemporary from a justice and criminology perspective, although its roots are grounded in ancient religious traditions. a. b. c. d.

Peacemaking Caring Mindfulness none of the above

ANS: a 9. ____________ reasoning is the mind-set that draws distinctions and discriminations between right and wrong. a. b. c. d.

Retributive Legal Moral all of the above

Information Classification: General


3-3 ANS: c 10. According to Palmer (1983), ____________ includes both the heart and the head in one’s decision making. a. b. c. d.

meditation caring wholesight mindfulness ANS: c

11. ____________ is an important aspect of looking within and taking more personal responsibility for the relationships of which we are a part. a. b. c. d.

Rationalization Connectedness Caring none of the above ANS: b

12. ____________ traditions are often associated with the value and usefulness of suffering and service. a. b. c. d.

Justice Ancient New-age none of the above ANS: b

13. A criminal justice professional who is considerate of both the current situation as well as future impacts of his/her actions is exemplifying: a. b. c. d.

Connectedness Mindfulness Care Hedonistic calculus ANS: b

14. There is often a sense of disconnectedness, inconsistency, and neglect regarding relationships in unhealthy and abusive families. a. True

Information Classification: General


3-4 b. False ANS: a 15. Peacemaking as a justice and criminology perspective has been considered a contemporary, traditional phenomenon. a. True b. False ANS: b 16. Peacemaking has failed to include the possibility of mercy and compassion within the framework of justice. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. According to Braswell and McDowell, wholesight allows us to experience a more transcendent sense of awareness. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. According to Braswell and McDowell, once we accept connectedness, it becomes clear that our actions do not take place in a vacuum but within a complex web of interconnected people and things. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. As explained by Nel Noddings, ethical caring is ultimately grounded in natural caring, a. True b. False ANS: a 20. According to the text, acting violently, cruelly, and unjustly will fill the world with

Information Classification: General


3-5 violence, cruelty, and injustice. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. The idea of karma is that the earth is a collection of natural resources. a. True b. False ANS: b 22. Nonviolence is a fundamental concept in Hinduism and Buddhism. a. True b. False ANS: a 23. The number of prison programs on mediation and conflict resolution have been decreasing in recent years. a. True b. False ANS: b

Information Classification: General


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 4: Learning Police Ethics: Sources, Content, and Implications 1. The idea that individuals bring with them into their police officer role an identifiable set of broader societal values in the organization is referred to as: a. b. c. d.

value system value-predisposition values-learned value-creation

ANS: b 2. The concept that police values are the result of socialization and culturalization within a particular police agency is referred to as: a. b. c. d.

value system value-predisposition values-learned value-creation

ANS: c 3. Which is not an example of a value-predisposition? a. b. c. d.

conservatism conformity commitment to the noble cause war stories

ANS: d 4. A moral predisposition by those seeking careers in law enforcement to make the world a safer place in which to live is a/an: a. b. c. d.

noble cause utilitarian principle crime fighting none of these

ANS: a 5. The correct order of a police officer’s occupational stages is: a. choice, training, encounter, metamorphosis


4-2 b. training, choice, encounter, metamorphosis c. training, encounter, choice, metamorphosis d. encounter, training, choice, metamorphosis ANS: a 6. A unique group within a larger social group is referred to as a: a. b. c. d.

subculture culture society none of the above

ANS: a 7. A value that represents the preferred means to achieve an end-state is a(n): a. b. c. d.

terminal value instrumental value idealistic value value predisposition

ANS: b 8. The main (overt) message of a war story is considered: a. b. c. d.

black swans latent content manifest content reflexivity

ANS: c 9. At which stage of officer socialization do recruits learn how to perform “real” police work? a. b. c. d.

training choice encounter metamorphosis

ANS: c 10. During the _______ stage, police work can often become mundane, tedious, and mechanical.


4-3 a. b. c. d.

training choice encounter metamorphosis

ANS: d 11. The acknowledgement that the media shapes public consciousness of policing ethics by amplifying both the symbolic connection of the police to the law as well as misconduct committed by the police is called: a. socialization b. symbolic interactionism c. reflexivity d. Ferguson effect ANS: c 12. The theory that widely publicized incidents of police force has ultimately resulted in an increase in homicide is called the: a. marginalization theory b. Ferguson effect c. militarism of police d. Black Lives Matter effect ANS: b 13. Veteran status among police officers has recently been linked to increased likelihood of: a. improved community relations b. war stories c. being involved in a police shooting d. black swans ANS: c 14. The consequence of negative media images on officer behavior and attitudes includes: a. decreased morale b. increased reluctance to enforce the law c. declining trust in citizen partnerships d. all of the above


4-4 ANS: d 15. The idea that individuals bring with them into their police officer role an identifiable set of broader societal values in the organization is referred to as the value-predisposition perspective. a. True b. False ANS: a 16. The concept that police values are learned through the process of socialization and culturalization within a particular police agency is referred to as the values-learned perspective. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. War stories are an example of a value-predisposition. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. A noble cause is an example of a value-predisposition. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. The socialization model of police ethics or the values-learned perspective argues that professionalization creates the police officer. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. The moral career defined by Sherman consists of distinct aspects that threaten to move officers from positive values to the adoption of behaviors that are contrary to ethical standards.


4-5

a. True b. False ANS: a 21. According to the text, the stages of a police officer’s moral career are contingencies, moral experiences, apologia, and stages. a. True b. False ANS: a 22. “Symbolic assailants” typically take on characteristics of marginalized segments of society. a. True b. False ANS: a 23. A subculture is a set of differences among beliefs, laws, morals, and customs that sets large groups apart. a. True b. False ANS: b 24. According to the text, one of the primary goals of police personnel systems is to identify and retain individuals who are conservative and conformist. a. True b. False ANS: a 25. The Ferguson effect hypothesizes that a deliberate depolicing effort has undermined the perceived legitimacy of police. a. True b. False ANS: a


4-6 26. Individuals with prior military experience not usually attracted to police work due to their distrust of the chain of command. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 5: Using Ethical Dilemmas in Training Police 1. In terms of discretion, according to the text, ethics class participants very often identify the _____________ as problematic. a. b. c. d.

riot family dispute accident whistle-blowing

ANS: b 2. Whistle-blowing is most associated with what type of ethical dilemma? a. b. c. d.

discretion loyalty honesty gratuities

ANS: b 3. According to the text, while teaching ethics to police officers, it is useful to weigh all of the following except: a. b. c. d.

requirements of the law requirements of the department personal ethics public opinion

ANS: d 4. _________ dilemmas may involve situations in which the officer knows that the job requires a particular action, but feels that action is a waste of time. a. b. c. d.

Duty Service Discretion Loyalty

ANS: a 5. The phenomenon of police officers lying about the facts of a case is often called: a. misconduct


6-2 b. discretion c. testilying d. loyalty ANS: c 6. Mounting evidence shows that _________ is the best methodology for teaching police ethics a. b. c. d.

role playing scenario-based lecture online

ANS: b 7. Many officers are never faced with issues of police ____________ because they are in patrol and not in criminal investigation. a. b. c. d.

deception discretion detection none of the above

ANS: a 8. A gratuity is something given to all police as a policy. A ____________ is something given to an individual in return for a specific action. a. b. c. d.

gift vacation bonus none of the above

ANS: a 9. According to the text, which of the following methods of ethics training do police officers prefer? a. b. c. d.

pedagogical approach small groups role playing case studies

ANS: d


6-3 10. Whether a police officer should enforce a relatively minor law due to situational elements such as the age or poverty of an offender would be an example of: a. b. c. d.

discretion duty honesty loyalty

ANS: a 11. Supervisors such as sergeants and lieutenants are the most often overlooked groups for ethics instruction. a. True b. False ANS: a 12. According to the text, the traditional pedagogical approach is the most appropriate method to teach ethics to police recruits and officers. a. True b. False ANS: b 13. Many officers are never faced with issues of police discretion in their daily duties. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Discretion can be defined as the power to make a choice among alternatives. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. Police training often spends the most time on activities that officers are least likely to encounter on the job. a. True b. False


6-4 ANS: a 16. Ethics instruction is best implemented as a single training block during the academy. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. Many police officers feel that it is ethically acceptable to receive gratuities. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Personalizing course content may help police officers to recognize ethical issues and resolve them. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. Police officers are always forced to present ethical rationales for their decisions. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. According to the text, ethical practice for police is primarily a matter of knowing and following a set of rules. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 6: Deception in Police Interrogations: Ethical Issues and Dilemmas 1. Which of the following values has not been a focus of the courts in determining voluntariness? a. b. c. d.

reliability freewill fairness honesty

ANS: d 2. The first case in which the Court ruled that confessions had to be voluntary, not forced, was in _ , in which three defendants were beaten until they confessed. a. b. c. d.

Miranda v. Arizona Ashcraft v. Tennessee King v. City of Los Angeles Brown v. Mississippi

ANS: d 3. Which of the following police interrogation techniques is not presumptively coercive? a. b. c. d.

taking on role of counselor promise of leniency sleep deprivation lengthy interrogations

ANS: a 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of a coerced-internalized false confession? a. b. c. d.

suspect desires notoriety suspect concerned with maximizing short-term gains suspect comes to believe he/she committed the crime suspect seeks to self-punish

ANS: c 5. Which of the following is not an example of fabricated evidence? a. telling the suspect that an accomplice has identified him or her b. telling the suspect that an eyewitness has identified him or her


5-2 c. staging a line-up in which a coached witness identifies the suspect d. having an officer pretend to be someone else ANS: d 6. The good cop/bad cop technique is associated with what type of police interrogation? a. b. c. d.

fabricated evidence role playing minimization of crime misrepresenting identity

ANS: b 7. Miranda warnings must be given whenever there is a: a. b. c. d.

custodial interrogation noncustodial interrogation custodial interview noncustodial interview

ANS: a 8. In which case did the Supreme Court uphold confession evidence obtained through the use of a “jail plant”? a. b. c. d.

Frazier v. Cupp Ward v. State Brown v. Mississippi Illinois v. Perkins

ANS: d 9. In which case was physical coercion first ruled impermissible? a. b. c. d.

Ashcraft v. Tennessee Arizona v. Fulminante Lisenba v. California Brown v. Mississippi

ANS: d 10. The decision in Miranda holds that: a. police must advise a suspect of his or her right to remain silent b. police must advise a suspect of his or her right to an attorney


5-3 c. police must advise a suspect of his or her right of noncompliance d. a and b only ANS: d 11. Investigator response bias occurs when an interrogator: a. misrepresents their identity b. promises benefits to a suspect to obtain a confession c. is generally suspicious of the suspect’s likelihood of deception d. all of the above ANS: c 12. Failure to question suspects without issuing the Miranda warning allows for the exclusion of: a. statements given by the accused b. physical evidence obtained as a result of statements given c. both a and b d. neither a or b ANS: c 13. Individuals who subscribe to the due process model emphasize safeguards that protect the innocent. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. The Miranda court decision specifically outlined what interrogation techniques were legal. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. Behavior analysis has been shown to be an effective determination of guilt or innocence. a. True b. False


5-4 ANS: b 16. A confession has a more compelling influence on jurors than eyewitness testimony. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. The “slippery slope” argument connects lying at the interrogatory stage of policing to other stages of policing. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Misrepresenting the nature or seriousness of an offense is an illegal tactic no longer used by police. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. According to the text, the use of vague and indefinite promises in obtaining confessions still continues to be permitted by the courts. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Direct promises of leniency in exchange for confessions have been deemed unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. Coerced-compliant false confessions are those in which an innocent person comes to believe that they have committed the crime. a. True b. False


5-5

ANS: b 22. Through a process known as mirroring, interrogators interview multiple potential suspects. a. True b. False ANS: b 23. Police interrogators generally tend to believe suspects who they are interrogating. a. True b. False ANS: b 24. The Reid technique is the most popular and frequently used interrogation style. a. True b. False ANS: a 25. It has been estimated that adults falsely confess at higher rates compared to juveniles. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 7: Police Ethics, Legal Proselytism, and the Social Order: Paving the Path to Misconduct 1. Police officers often view themselves as ____________ , which may justify an unethical means of achieving a good or just end. a. b. c. d.

morally corrupt moral agents unethical all of the above

ANS: b 2. ____________ is the belief that the potential for real injury caused by conduct is due to forces outside the individual and beyond his or her control. a. b. c. d.

Denial of duty Denial of injury Denial of responsibility Denial of victim

ANS: c 3. A police officer commits perjury to justify an illegal search of a drug dealer. The officer believe he is justified in this action because he did, in fact, have drugs when the search was conducted and the officer does not feel that the dealer should be acquitted based on a technicality. What technique of neutralization is being used by this officer? a. b. c. d.

denial of duty denial of injury denial of responsibility condemnation of condemners

ANS: b 4. A police officer attempts to pull over a vehicle when the vehicle increases their speed in an attempt to avoid arrest. At the conclusion of the pursuit, the driver abandons the vehicle and begins to run. After telling the driver to stop, the officer shoots and kills the driver. When questioned, the officer insists that the use of deadly force was justified due to the circumstances and the officer’s fear that the driver would get away. What technique of neutralization is the officer providing? a. denial of duty

Information Classification: General


7-2 b. denial of injury c. denial of responsibility d. denial of victim ANS: d 5. ____________involves a police officer shifting the focus of attention from his or her own deviant act to the misdeeds, motives, and behaviors of those who disapprove of his or her unethical conduct. a. b. c. d.

Denial of victim Condemnation of condemners Denial of responsibility Denial of injury

ANS: b 6. Protecting a fellow officer is expected and considered noble, not criminal. What technique of neutralization would allow an officer to perjure himself or herself in order to protect a partner who brutalized a citizen? a. b. c. d.

condemnation of condemners appeal to higher loyalties denial of responsibility denial of duty

ANS: b 7. According to the text, which of the following statements are true regarding police training? a. b. c. d.

Police academies provide more legal training than ethics training. Police academies provide more ethics training than legal training. Police academies devote roughly equal time to ethics and legal training. Police academies rely on real-life experiences and field training officers to provide ethical guidance.

ANS: a 8. The thin blue line refers to: a. b. c. d.

the decision of whether to use force in a situation the decision making process of whether an action is ethical the view of police as standing between anarchy and order the line between ethics and legality

Information Classification: General


7-3 ANS: c 9. Which of the following is not a reason noted in the text for police officers to choose their profession? a. b. c. d.

Officers see police work as an adventure. Officers see the opportunity to do work that is important for the good of society. Applicants see police work as a chance to work outside of an office environment. Applicants want to be the toughest guy on the block.

ANS: d 10. Police officers who begin to question the goodness of the profession often_____ a. b. c. d.

leave the profession begin to advocate for legal change attempt to advance to supervisory roles begin to view themselves as unethical

ANS: a 11. Police contact and intervention cannot change our course of life nor interfere with our right to self-determination. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. The path to unethical police conduct begins with a way of thinking, not actions by the police. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. Some police may not view unethical conduct as bad or wrong if it results in positive and constructive ends. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. The idea of a brotherhood or the “thin blue line” in policing has no impact on

Information Classification: General


7-4 deciding ethical behavior. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. Police recruits generally receive equal amounts of training in ethical and legal standards. a. True b. False ANS: b 16. Police recruits are usually encouraged to discuss the distinctions between legal and ethical standards in police training. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. Manipulation and situational application of the laws in order to achieve law enforcement objectives are often seen as acceptable police work rather than unethical conduct. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Sykes and Matza’s techniques of neutralization are justifications that are utilized in order to rationalize one’s unethical behavior. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. The media play no role in constructing the public’s perception of police. a. True b. False ANS: b

Information Classification: General


7-5

20. Police who complain that the public is unable to understand the realities of police work and the dangerousness of criminals are engaging in condemnation of the condemners. a. True b. False ANS: a

Information Classification: General


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 8: What Ever Happened to Atticus Finch? Lawyers as Legal Advocates and Moral Agents 1. According to the legal advocate perspective, attorneys should follow what moral or ethical guidance in regard to the attorney-client relationship? a. b. c. d.

ABA model rules religious teachings their own set of ethical standards the mores of society

ANS: a 2. According to the text, the client can be persuaded not to engage in unethical or immoral practices when the lawyer plays the ____________ role. a. b. c. d.

hired gun guru/godfather client-centered/friend none of the above

ANS: c 3. ____________ have been more likely to believe that the client was too “unsophisticated” or ignorant to make good decisions. a. b. c. d.

Prosecutors Corporate attorneys Public defenders all of the above

ANS: c 4. The ____________ center on morality as tied to relationships and the understanding of connectedness. a. b. c. d.

ethics of rights ethics of wholesight ethics of care both a and c

ANS: c 5. Which of the following is a consideration that must be made when determining


8-2 whether a lawyer should engage in moral arguments with clients? a. b. c. d.

the seriousness of the issue the client’s intellectual capacity to make decisions the existence of any conflicts of interest all of the above

ANS: d 6. In England, what type of attorney’s primary responsibility is to appear in court and present legal cases? a. b. c. d.

advocate solicitor counselor barrister

ANS: d 7. A ___________imposes a personal view of morality on his or her activities. a. b. c. d.

legal agent moral agent hired gun guru/godfather

ANS: b 8. According to the text, the most common complaint lodged against attorneys is: a. b. c. d.

being a hired gun being a moral agent being a legal agent being incompetent

ANS: d 9. What do the current Model Rules of Professional Conduct demand regarding the relationship between attorney and client? a. b. c. d.

The attorney has full discretion to make decisions he/she feels are best for the case. The client has absolute authority over decisions regarding the case. The client’s participation is encouraged in all decision making. The client’s participation is discouraged in all decision making.

ANS: c


8-3

10. Under what circumstances can an attorney reveal information about the client that the attorney obtained during the representation of that client? a. b. c. d.

under no circumstance under any circumstance with consent of the client with consent of the client with certain exceptions

ANS: d 11. Legal advocates are those persons with an individual contribution of morality into his or her activities for the client. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. Memory and Rose (2002) suggest that morality is subjective. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. According to Pollock, law school ethics classes help future lawyers answer questions on being moral agents or legal advocates. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. “Hired guns” is a term referring to lawyers who act like moral agents. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. Defense attorneys and prosecutors share some vision of what is fair and the system operates to enforce this vision. a. True b. False


8-4

ANS: a 16. Most complaints result in serious sanctions taken against attorneys. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. An attorney who is playing a passive role would disclose the information to the court after his or her client committed perjury. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. According to Pollock, prosecutors are supposed to be advocates for justice. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. A lawyer following the guru/godfather role tells the client what should be done. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. According to the moral agent perspective, attorneys should follow the ABA model rules. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 9: Ethical Challenges for Prosecutors 1. Which of the following is not a form of prosecutorial misconduct? a. b. c. d.

deceitfulness confidentiality denial of due process bias ANS: b

2. According to Kania, the interest of the prosecutor is not that he or she shall win a case, but that: a. b. c. d.

the case be disposed of quickly as many cases as possible will be won justice will be done all of the above ANS: c

3. There are three common failures involved in a prosecutor’s neglect of one’s duties. They are: a. b. c. d.

nonfeasance, misfeasance, and malfeasance profeasance, malfeasance, and nonfeasance misfeasance, profeasance, and nonfeasance malfeasance, misfeasance, and profeasance ANS: a

4. Examples of _____________ by prosecutors include taking bribes, using the office to promote personal aims, and harboring excessive ambition. a. b. c. d.

bias wrongful pursuit of personal gain denial of due process abuse of power ANS: b

5. Prosecutors have control over certain legal processes that can be used unethically. An example of these processes would be:


9-2 a. b. c. d.

nolle prosequi plea bargaining merging charges all of the above ANS: d

6. Which of the following ethics rules were broken by the prosecutor in the Duke Lacrosse case? a. b. c. d.

neglect of duties denial of due process personal gain all of the above ANS: d

7. Failures related to _________include ignoring civil rights and constitutional guarantees. a. b. c. d.

flawed personal life deceitfulness denial of due process abuse of power ANS: c

8. Nolle prosequi refers to: a. b. c. d.

terminating the prosecution merging charges proceeding with prosecution plea bargaining ANS: a

9. Who is responsible for recommending plea bargains? a. b. c. d.

the prosecutor the defense attorney the judge the probation officer ANS: a

10. _________ occurs when officials use their offices to place their own values over


9-3 those of the public they serve. a. b. c. d.

Denial of due process Deceitfulness Abuse of power Personal gain ANS: c

11. The local police and prosecutor declined to arrest and prosecutor George Zimmerman, resulting in the appointment of a special prosecutor. a. True b. False ANS: a 12. According to the text, prosecutors have the same ethical obligations as defense attorneys. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. The prosecutor has no obligation to reveal evidence when it may undermine his or her case. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Most prosecutors would agree that the opening statement is not of great importance. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. There are several unique ethical failings that are distinctly associated with the mission of the office of public prosecutor. a. True b. False


9-4 ANS: a 16. Prosecutors are attorneys first, and as such are obligated to conform to the ethical codes of the legal profession. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. In England and Wales, most criminal prosecutors are elected to their positions a. True b. False ANS: b 18. Most state prosecutors are appointed to their positions. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. Complaints against prosecutors are common. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. According to the text, prosecutors are expected to abstain from membership in controversial organizations. a. True b. False ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 10: Balancing Harms: The Ethics and Purposes of Criminal Sentencing 1. Deterrence is based on the assumption that human beings are_______. a. b. c. d.

Motivated by monetary gain Impacted by their peers Rational and guided by pleasure Antisocial ANS: c

2. General deterrence: a. b. c. d.

convinces the particular offender not to commit crime in the future convinces the particular offender not to get caught again refers to punishing offenders so that others will be afraid to commit crimes refers to punishing offenders so that others will take greater steps not to get caught committing crimes ANS: c

3. Another name for desert is: a. b. c. d.

retaliation rehabilitation retribution a piece of pie ANS: c

4. Which of the following justifications for punishment does not seek to reduce future crime? a. b. c. d.

desert treatment incapacitation deterrence ANS: a

5. An offender who does actually pose a danger of future crime may be erroneously predicted to be “safe.” This is known as a ____________ . a. false positive


10-2 b. false negative c. true positive d. true negative ANS: b 6. The ethically acceptable factors that predict future crime and explain sentence severity include all except: a. b. c. d.

prior record offense seriousness place of residence criminal justice history ANS: c

7. Which of the following is not typical of restorative justice? a. b. c. d.

face-to-face meetings among victims and offenders focus on repairing harm done by offender used mostly on minor crimes completed through the official criminal justice system ANS: d

8. Which of the following justifications of punishment prevents offenders from having the chance to commit a new crime? a. b. c. d.

deterrence incapacitation treatment restoration ANS: b

9. Which of the following statements regarding treatment is true? a. b. c. d.

Treatment has not been shown to be effective. Treatment has typically been effective. Treatment has been effective with some types of offenders. none of the above ANS: c

10. Which rationale for punishment does not emphasize a utilitarian perspective?


10-3 a. b. c. d.

deterrence incapacitation restoration desert ANS: d

11. Susan committed a bank robbery where she stole more than $500, and was later convicted at trial. However, the conviction was overturned by an appeals court who ruled that the judge’s instructions to the jury before jury deliberation were incorrect. This case is an example of: a. loopholes b. technical innocence c. factual innocence d. legal innocence ANS: d 12. The Fair Sentencing Act (2010) reduced the disparity of punishments for crack versus powder cocaine to: a. 100:1 b. 46:1 c. 18:1 d. 1:1 ANS: c 13. Desert does not seek to reduce future crime. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. Utility means the benefit or the “good” expected as a result of punishment. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. Modified just deserts argues that desert does not justify the imposition of a penalty and does not set the outer limits of the punishment.


10-4 a. True b. False ANS: b 16. The “truth in sentencing” movement ensures that violent offenders serve at least 65 percent of the prison terms they receive in court. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. An offender who does not pose a risk of future crime may be erroneously predicted to be dangerous. This is known as a false positive. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Offenses involving crack cocaine have been treated more severely than those offenses involving powder cocaine. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. In the past three to four decades, sentencing structures have moved toward more determinate sentencing. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Restorative justice punishments reflect an attempt to balance the needs of the victims, communities, and offenders. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. Determinate sentencing structures leave some discretion in the hands of a paroling


10-5 authority. a. True b. False ANS: b 22. The purpose of general deterrence is to deter the general public from crime. a. True b. False ANS: a 23. Criminal justice professionals generally feel that high percentages of offenders are wrongfully convicted. a. True b. False ANS: b 24. The majority of those who have been wrongfully convicted and later exonerated have been African American. a. True b. False ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 11: Punishment, Crime, and Ethics 1. ____________ views the purpose of punishment in terms of whether it has beneficial effects on society. a. b. c. d.

Deontology Peacemaking Utilitarianism none of the above ANS: c

2. Deontology is most compatible with which purpose of criminal punishment? a. b. c. d.

rehabilitation deterrence incapacitation retribution ANS: d

3. ____________ suggests that society punishes wrongdoers because they deserve it. a. b. c. d.

Incapacitation Rehabilitation Retribution Deterrence ANS: c

4. In the 1980s, Boston developed Operation Ceasefire, which was meant to clearly describe the consequences of criminal activity to a targeted group of high risk repeat offenders. This type of program best represents which purpose of punishment? a. b. c. d.

Incapacitation Retribution General deterrence Specific deterrence ANS: d

5. Indeterminate sentencing became popular as a method to: a. Rehabilitate


11-2 b. Deter c. Incarcerate d. Pay back the offender for their wrongdoing ANS: a 6. ____________ characterizes the offender as being sick and in need of treatment. a. b. c. d.

Retribution Deterrence Rehabilitation Incapacitation ANS: c

7. Which of the following is not an example of a dynamic risk factor? a. b. c. d.

age lack of parental support substance abuse poor school performance ANS: a

8. The ____________ process. a. b. c. d.

perspective views crime as a result of a decision making

retribution deterrence rehabilitation incapacitation ANS: b

9. ____________ seeks to influence the future behavior of a particular offender by making the punishment outweigh the benefit of the crime. a. b. c. d.

General deterrence Specific deterrence Incapacitation none of the above ANS: b

10. Which of the following has been an unintended consequence of eliminating parole?


11-3 a. b. c. d.

Increased recidivism Increased sentencing disparity Increased prisoner misconduct All of the above ANS: c

11. Which country is estimated to carry out more forms of corporal punishment than any other nation in the world? a. United States b. Iraq c. Iran d. Saudi Arabia ANS: d 12. Scared straight programs have been proven to be effective deterring criminal behavior. a. True b. False ANS: b 13. Great disparity resulted from determinate sentences, and sentencing reforms were initiated due to these sentences. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. The “three strikes” laws has been most widely used in California a. True b. False ANS: a 15. Retribution seeks to decrease crime by modifying an offender’s future behavior. a. True b. False ANS: b


11-4 16. Stop and frisk policies are an attempt at achieving specific deterrence a. True b. False ANS: b 17. Since 2007, correctional populations in the United States began to decline slightly. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. The rate of communicable diseases such as TB is higher in prison populations compared to the general public. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. Evidence shows that private prisons are able to operate more efficiently than government owned prisons, while maintaining the same level of security and inmate programs. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. The U.S. currently has more people under correctional supervision than any other western, industrialized nation. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. The Supreme Court has recently ruled lethal injection to be cruel and unusual punishment. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 12: To Die or Not to Die: Morality, Ethics, and the Death Penalty 1. ____________ constitute the greatest percentage of individuals on death row. a. b. c. d.

African Americans Whites Mexicans Latinos ANS: b

2. Which of the following trends is true regarding the number of executions and death sentences over the past several years? a. The number of death sentences has increased but the number of executions has declined b. The number of executions has increased but the number of death sentences has declined c. Both the number of death sentences and executions has declined d. Both the number of death sentences and executions has increased ANS: c 3. Which of the following states have the most offenders on death row? a. b. c. d.

Texas Georgia Tennessee California ANS: d

4. Individuals who suggest it is society’s duty to punish the most serious crimes with the most severe penalty are using what frame of ethical theory? a. b. c. d.

utilitarianism peacemaking deontology “eye for an eye” ANS: c

5. Which of the following is true regarding the empirical evidence of a deterrent effect from the death penalty?


12-2

a. b. c. d.

Studies show a substantial general deterrent effect . Studies show a substantial specific deterrent effect. Studies show that the death penalty is not an effective deterrent. The death penalty is not effective as we practice it today. However, returning to past execution practices would have a deterrent effect. ANS: c

6. The average stay on death row is: a. b. c. d.

2 years 5 years 10 years 20 years ANS: c

7. Which statement is true regarding the success of murderers on parole? a. b. c. d.

Murderers have a higher recidivism rate than any other type of parolees. Murderers have a lower recidivism rate than any other type of parolees. Murderers have approximately the same recidivism rate as other parolees. The research is inconclusive as to how successful murderers are on parole. ANS: b

8. The death belt refers to nine states in which part of the country? a. b. c. d.

South Northeast West Midwest ANS: a

9. The “white male dominance effect” refers to the fact that: a. white males are disproportionately incarcerated compared to other groups b. white males are executed more than any other group c. the presence of white males on juries has significantly impacted the probability of a death sentence d. none of the above ANS: c


12-3 10. Death row conditions that allow prisoners to spend some time outside of their cells for work or recreation represent: a. b. c. d.

traditional death row unreformed death row reformed death row long-term death row ANS: c

11. Among states that have the death penalty as a sentencing option, the biggest current controversy involves: a. Death qualification b. Deterrence impact c. Lethal injection protocol d. Whether victim families should be able to view the execution ANS: c 12. Administration of the death penalty can have negative consequences on correctional staff. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. The death penalty is often argued from the point of view of one’s religious affiliation. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. Opponents of the death penalty argue that life without parole fulfills a societal duty. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. Utilitarians argue that the death penalty has negative consequences such as deterrence and incapacitation. a. True b. False


12-4

ANS: b 16. The “death belt” refers to nine Southern states who utilize the death penalty frequently. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Proportionality reviews are used as an effort to increase the number of individuals who receive the death penalty. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. The public sentiment is that convicted murders should be either executed or locked up permanently. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. According to the text, Texas has more offenders on death row than any other state. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. Most studies suggest that the death penalty is an effective deterrent. a. True b. False ANS: b 21. Death row is disproportionately populated by African Americans. a. True b. False


12-5 ANS: a 22. Approximately 2/3rd of jurisdictions in the United States no longer authorize the use of capital punishment. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 13: Ethical Issues in Probation, Parole, and Community Corrections 1. Approximately one-third of parolees are under supervision for what type of offenses? a. b. c. d.

Violent crime Property crime Drug crime Sex crime ANS: c

2. Which of the following statements is true regarding intensive probation supervision? a. intensive supervision is more expensive than prison b. intensive supervision diverts a large number of offenders away from prison c. intensive supervision has significantly better outcomes compared to regular supervision d. treatment-oriented intensive supervision has significantly better outcomes compared to supervision-oriented intensive supervision ANS: d 3. Which type of fees are charged to all probationers to pay for the cost of supervision? a. b. c. d.

service fees punitive fees program fees restitution ANS: c

4. From 1980 to 2009, the rate of arrest for _______ increased at more than twice the rate for women than men. a. b. c. d.

Violent crimes Property crimes Drug crimes Sex crimes ANS: c

5. Which of the following have been traditional missions of probation and parole? a. service and surveillance


13-2 b. treatment and security c. assistance and control d. all of the above ANS: d 6. With which of the following is the restorative justice model in probation and parole concerned? a. b. c. d.

peace and justice for the community remorse and accountability of offenders reparation and involvement of the victim all of the above ANS: d

7. Which theory of criminal behavior emphasizes free will and accountability? a. b. c. d.

conflict perspective neo-classical perspective positivist perspective none of the above ANS: b

8. Which theory of criminal behavior is more congruent with programs to assist offenders in prison and in the community? a. b. c. d.

neo-classical perspective deterrence positivist perspective none of the above ANS: c

9. The main argument for privatization of probation involves which of the following? a. b. c. d.

better services for inmates reduced operating costs better pay for correctional officers all of the above ANS: b

10. Which of the following represents what is meant by community responsibility for crime control and the need for order and safety in the community?


13-3

a. b. c. d.

macro dimension micro dimension quasi dimension all of the above ANS: a

11. A peacemaking perspective suggests that all of us have a responsibility to the offender. a. True b. False ANS: a 12. According to the text, privatization of probation appears to be growing. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. Overall, research suggests that the public tends to support harsh punishments, even for nonviolent, nonserious offenses. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Sex offender supervision programs are generally ineffective in preventing recidivism. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. The ethical question “What duty does society have to help offenders?” is a deontological approach to the issue. a. True b. False ANS: a


13-4 16. Acceptable penal content is the idea that a sanction should be devised so that its intended penal deprivations are those that can be administered in a manner that is clearly consistent with the offender’s dignity. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Studies have shown that many offenders prefer prison instead of intensive supervision. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. According to the text, more than half of probationers either are discharged early or complete their term successfully. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. Positivist theories of crime emphasize biological, psychological, and sociological factors that help explain criminal behavior. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Research on correctional treatment shows that programs are almost universally ineffective at reducing recidivism. a. True b. False ANS: b 21. Juveniles are more than twice as likely to be sentenced to probation than detention. a. True b. False


13-5 ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 14: Restorative Justice and Ethics: Real-World Applications 1. Which of the following is the last step in the restorative justice circular process? a. b. c. d.

forgiveness resolution restoration reintegration ANS: c

2. In ________________, the victim and offender meet face-to-face with a mediator present to discuss the transgression at hand. a. b. c. d.

family group conferencing victim-offender reconciliation programs sentencing circles victim-offender boards ANS: b

3. With ______________, the victim is provided an opportunity to speak with a group of offenders who have committed a crime that the victim has experienced. a. b. c. d.

family group conferencing victim-offender reconciliation programs sentencing circles victim-offender panels ANS: d

4. In ____________________, the community members, the victim, the offender, and court officials each have the ability to speak and jointly create a solution regarding the outcome of the criminal action at hand. a. b. c. d.

family group conferencing victim-offender reconciliation programs sentencing circles reintegrative shaming ANS: c

5. In ______________ the offender, victim, family members, community members, and professionals meet to discuss the wrongdoing and create a plan regarding the most


14-2 appropriate method of reintegration for both the offender and victim. a. b. c. d.

family group conferencing victim-offender reconciliation programs sentencing circles victim-offender boards ANS: a

6. Approximately _____ percent of criminal cases in Finland are processed through a mediation process. a. b. c. d.

20 40 60 80 ANS: a

7. _______________ occurs when the addition of a restorative justice program involves juveniles who would otherwise have received only a warning if the program were not in place. a. b. c. d.

Inefficiency Cost savings Net-widening Increased effectiveness ANS: c

8. Which population group does the COVER program in San Francisco seek to help by housing similar inmates together? a. b. c. d.

females sex offenders nonviolent offenders military veterans ANS: d

9. Which of the following is used as a symbolic tool with inmates in the restorative justice program located in Green Bay, Wisconsin? a. Native American feather b. broken ball c. leaf


14-3 d. book ANS: b 10. Which of the following has been found to be an important advantage of allowing convicted felons to serve on jury duty? a. b. c. d.

providing a source of income giving the offenders a better understanding of the justice system created a more positive self-image all of the above ANS: c

11. Restorative justice practices include a reactive role in the justice process. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. Restorative justice has been used to mediate both misdemeanor and felony offenses. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. Restorative justice programs can offer a cost savings when compared to other approaches. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. Restorative justice practices are typically mandatory for applicable offenses. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. The use of restorative justice programs has expanded into cases of sexual violations. a. True


14-4 b. False ANS: a 16. Reparative boards can be used even in cases where there is no direct victim or when the victim is unknown. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Restorative justice programs began to take shape in the 1970s. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. Victim-offender boards bring the victims and offenders together with a trained mediator. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. Drug courts use swift, certain, and severe punishments to successfully deter drug offenders. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. Forgiveness is individualistic in nature; it occurs at different points in time for different people. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. Preliminary research suggests that victims of white collar crime would be supportive of restorative justice processes.


14-5 a. True b. False ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 15: Prison Corruption 1. Corruption that is small scale where officials will accept opportunities that may arise but do not seek them out are called: a. b. c. d.

nonfeasance malfeasance grass eaters meat eaters ANS: c

2. Which of the following does not constitute malfeasance? a. b. c. d.

protection rackets overlooking a rule infraction theft embezzlement ANS: b

3. Which theory of corruption assumes that the government employee makes a rational choice to be corrupt? a. b. c. d.

Bad apple model Public choice model Organizational culture model Moral value model ANS: b

4. Malfeasance, misfeasance, and nonfeasance are three forms of ____________ . a. b. c. d.

authoritative control discretionary misconduct opportunities for misconduct all of the above ANS: b

5. When selected inmates are provided with access to restricted information, what kind of accommodations occur? a. status


15-2 b. material c. power d. none of the above ANS: c 6. Failure to enforce regulations is a form of ____________ . a. b. c. d.

nonfeasance misfeasance malfeasance none of the above ANS: a

7. Sue has been working at a correctional institution for 10 years. She began the job as a good, ethical person but her job has transformed her into a cruel, corrupt officer who often disrespects and shames inmates for pleasure. This transformation is called the a. b. c. d.

Prison effect Whistleblower effect Grass eater effect Lucifer effect ANS: d

8. Corruption through ____________ occurs as an indirect consequence of the exchange relations that develop between inmates and staff. a. b. c. d.

accommodation default reciprocity friendship ANS: c

9. ____________ refers to direct misconduct or wrongful conduct by a public official or employee. a. b. c. d.

Malfeasance Misfeasance Nonfeasance both a and c ANS: a


15-3

10. The process of civilian gang members with no prior criminal history being recruited to apply to become correctional officers is called: a. b. c. d.

testing active recruiting downing a duck empathy ANS: b

11. Corrupt practices in prison range from simple acts of theft to large-scale criminal conspiracies. a. True b. False ANS: a 12. Prison officials who use their position to engage in drug trafficking constitutes malfeasance. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. All forms of corruption involve the misuse of money, to some extent, by public employees. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Correctional institutions are influenced by the power of politics. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. Misuse or misappropriation of institutional resources is an act of malfeasance. a. True b. False


15-4

ANS: b 16. Corruption through default occurs when staff members begin to rely on inmates to assist them with their duties. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. The prison system is mostly hidden from public view. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Approximately 25% of sexual victimization in state prisons involve staff members. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. Consensual sexual contact between inmates and prison staff is still considered sexual misconduct. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. The Prison Rape Elimination Act of 2003 established an annual survey of prison sexual victimization. a. True b. False ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 16: Ethics and Prison: Selected Issues 1. Which of the following are among the proposed benefits of private prisons? a. b. c. d.

budgetary savings more efficient government agencies more accountable civil service workers both a and c ANS: a

2. According to Sykes (1958), which of the following are painful features of prison? a. b. c. d.

deprivation of possessions deprivation of heterosexual contact deprivation of autonomy all of the above ANS: d

3. According to the text, which of the following is true regarding the effectiveness of faith-based programming for prisoners? a. Inmates attending faith-based programming are the least motivated offenders in prison. b. Research has conclusively shown a reduction in recidivism. c. Research has shown a reduction in misconduct while still in prison. d. All of the above ANS: c 4. Official statistics show that approximately ____ percent of inmates are victims of sexual violence. a. b. c. d.

four thirty sixty seventy-five ANS: a

5. According to the text, in what regard are female prisons tougher than male prisons? a. greater racial tension


16-2 b. greater enforcement of rules against arguing c. greater occurrence of sexual assault d. none of the above ANS: b 6. Which of the following is true of restrictive housing? a. b. c. d.

over half of inmates spend at least time time each year in restrictive housing conclusive evidence shows that restrictive housing increases recidivism inmates with mental health issues are more likely to spend time in restrictive housing restrictive housing is most common for elderly inmates ANS: c

7. Which of the following are characteristics of a “Spartan-like” prison? a. b. c. d.

no frills, such as television drug rehabilitation services psychological counseling educational opportunities ANS: a

8. Which of the following are sources of informal deprivations associated with prison life as suggested by Guenther? a. b. c. d.

children holidays weekends all of the above ANS: d

9. Which of the following are rationales for treatment or rehabilitation programs? a. b. c. d. e.

Many prisoners have employable skills Many prisoners have alcohol or other drug problems The principle of least eligibility The nature of the prison environment is most often conducive to treatment All of the above ANS: b

10. According to the authors, what incentives are there for keeping elderly prisoners incarcerated?


16-3

a. b. c. d.

Concerns for recidivism rehabilitation programs available cost savings for the government elderly prisoners might not have a support system or income outside of prison ANS: d

11. The Prison Litigation Reform Act: a. resulted in a decrease in inmate lawsuits b. resulted in an increase in inmate lawsuits c. did not impact the number of inmate lawsuits d. no study has yet been conducted to determine the impact on inmate lawsuits ANS: a 12. There are virtually no differences between female prisons and male prisons. a. True b. False ANS: b 13. Although African Americans are a minority in the United States, they comprise the majority of all prisoners. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. According to proponents, competition and the free market economy will supposedly make private prisons more efficient, effective, and accountable. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. The elderly is the fastest growing segment of the federal prison system. a. True b. False ANS: a


16-4

16. Research shows that offenders who received treatment in a correctional setting were less likely to commit crime than offenders who did not receive treatment. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. According to the text, more than one half of prisoners in state prisons are in prison for a drug crime. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. There appears to be growing global support for providing inmates with educational opportunities. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. According to the text, the black imprisonment rate is decreasing. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Deprivation of autonomy refers to the removal of an inmate’s choices. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. According to the text, most studies on faith-based prison programs have shown a reduction in recidivism. a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 17: Crime and Justice Myths 1. Which of the following statements is an example of a factual claim? a. b. c. d.

Crime is out of control We must crack down on crime We must increase the use of rehabilitation The reason crime is out of control is due to the lack of quality parenting ANS: a

2. Why do some scholars say that the criminal justice system is designed to fail? a. Officers can never catch all criminals. b. The criminal justice system will never have enough money to combat crime in effective ways. c. For budgetary reasons, the criminal justice system must not stop all crime to prove it needs more money. d. Corruption runs rampant in all of the criminal justice system and keeps effective crime control strategies from working. ANS: c 3. Which is not one of Bohm’s reasons for how the general public contributes to crime mythology? a. b. c. d.

apathy a lack of consciousness relying on atypical information relying on inaccurate communication ANS: a

4. Which of the following crime control policies that have been created from myth has/have actually reduced crime? a. b. c. d.

three-strikes laws the war on drugs increased juvenile incarceration None of these policies have reduced crime. ANS: d

5. According to the text, approximately ________ of inmates in the nation’s prisons and


17-2 jails are not there for their first time. a. b. c. d.

10 percent 25 percent 50 percent 70 percent ANS: d

6. ________ refers to the process of events and information being repeatedly cycled through media and culture, often reemerging in new contexts. a. recycling b. reconditioning c. looping d. fake news ANS: c 7. According to the text, which of the following news sources has the greatest impact on influencing crime myths? a. b. c. d.

national television news local television news newspapers internet news ANS: b

8. Crime news programs tend to exaggerate the proportion of: a. b. c. d.

male victims black victims Hispanic victims female victims ANS: d

9. Discrepancies in local television news programs result in the perception that: a. b. c. d.

most crime is committed by minorities crime is more common in low-crime areas crime rates are higher than they actually are all of the above ANS: d


17-3

10. Unethical practices by pharmaceutical companies contribute to more than _____deaths annually. a. b. c. d.

5,000 10,000 50,000 100,000 ANS: d

11. The belief that the law is an unbiased regulator of right and wrong represents the _________view of society. a. b. c. d.

conflict consensus common critical ANS: b

12. Which of the following types of media allows false news to be spread the farthest? a. b. c. d.

newspapers social media radio television ANS: b

13. Myths are socially constructed phenomena. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. National news media portray crime more frequently than the local news media do. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. The media often reinforce the perception that minorities pose more of a threat to the white majority than actually exists.


17-4

a. True b. False ANS: a 16. The criminal justice system is designed to fail for budgetary reasons, meaning that crime rates must be up for them to receive more money. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Apathy is one of the ways Bohm says the general public contributes to the creation of crime myths. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. According to the text, most crime control policies created from myths (e.g., the war on drugs and three-strikes laws) are not effective forms of crime control. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. Seeking asylum at a legal port of entry is a crime. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. The characteristics of crime, criminals, and victims represented in the media are in many respects the opposite of the pattern suggested by official crime statistics. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. Research has shown that newspapers have a strong influence on fear of crime.


17-5

a. True b. False ANS: b 22. According to the text, most news organizations take an objective approach to criminal justice issues. a. True b. False ANS: b 23. The number of border crossings significantly declined from the 1990s to the 2010s. a. True b. False ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 18: Juvenile Justice Ethical Issues: How Should We Treat Juveniles? 1. Beginning in the 1990s, juvenile offenders: a. b. c. d.

were increasingly engaged in violent crime committed crime at younger ages were increasingly being transferred to adult court all of the above ANS: c

2. According to the text, which of the following programs are effective at reducing juvenile crime? a. b. c. d.

boot camps shock incarceration education programs all of the above ANS: c

3. Which of the following groups have the highest rate of suicide in jail? a. b. c. d.

elderly youths men women ANS: b

4. The Supreme Court ruled the death penalty was unconstitutional for juveniles in the decision: a. b. c. d.

Graham v. Florida Roper v. Simmons Miller v. Alabama State v. Stewart ANS: b

5. Which of the following sentences would be constitutional? a. a sentence of death for a juvenile who killed an elderly man b. a sentence of life without parole for a juvenile convicted of drug smuggling


18-2 c. an automatic sentence of life without parole for a juvenile who killed his best friend d. a discretionary sentence of life without parole for a juvenile who killed his mother ANS: d 6. Which of the following statements would most likely be attributed to a deontologist? a. The justice system has a duty to protect juvenile offenders who are a vulnerable population within the adult correctional system b. Retaining a juvenile justice system founded on the principle of parens patriae and expanding an ethic of care are preferable outcomes. c. The justice system should strive to become more fully aware of the “bigger picture” in terms of the broad range of possible solutions to juvenile crime. d. Juveniles should be punished harshly because of the pain caused to the victim. ANS: a 7. ________ethics can be used to argue that the “get tough” philosophy of processing juvenile offenders should be abandoned. a. b. c. d.

Utilitarian Peacemaking Religious all of the above ANS: d

8. The juvenile concept of parens patriae would suggest that the ultimate goal of punishment would be to: a. b. c. d.

reconcile with the child punish the child as an adult give the child no punishment at all respect the victim by keeping the child incarcerated ANS: a

9. Media coverage of youth crime tends to________. a. b. c. d.

focus on stories of gang violence and murder focus on stories related to the offender’s background focus on stories regarding youth status offenses focus on the rehabilitative promise of juvenile offenders ANS: a


18-3 10. Miller v. Alabama (2012) ruled that: a. the death penalty was unconstitutional for juveniles b. juveniles cannot receive a life without parole sentence for a nonhomicide offense c. mandatory life without parole sentences for juveniles are unconstitutional d. juveniles who are housed in adult facilities must be segregated from the adult offenders ANS: c 11. Studies show that the public largely favors differential treatment of juvenile and adult offenders. a. True b. False ANS: a 12. Every state currently has a mechanism in place to process juvenile offenders as adults. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. Juveniles transferred to adult court are less likely to recidivate than those that are processed by the juvenile court. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Jails tend to offer more rehabilitation programs than prisons. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. Juveniles housed in adult correctional facilities are required to be segregated from adults. a. True b. False


18-4 ANS: a 16. Youth arrests for violent crimes are relatively rare. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. According to the text, there seems to be a growing trend to house juveniles in adult prisons. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. Suicide rates by juveniles are greater among juveniles housed in adult jails rather than a juvenile detention center. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. The United States is the only country in the world that permits life without parole sentenced for juveniles. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Most murderers who are released from prison commit new felonies within three years of release. a. True b. False ANS: b 21. Life without parole sentences are unconstitutional for juvenile offenders a. True b. False


18-5 ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 19: Corporate Misconduct and Ethics 1. Who is credited by most criminologists with developing the concept of white- collar crime? a. b. c. d.

Bernard Madoff Arthur Anderson Edwin Sutherland Jeremy Bentham ANS: c

2. Enron hid massive amounts of debt by: a. b. c. d.

underpaying its employees creating special-purpose entities not including executive compensation data in quarterly estimates all of the above ANS: b

3. Unscrupulous banking practices such as not requiring income verification is known as: a. b. c. d.

subprime lending criminal behavior malfeasance mortgage fraud ANS: a

4. The most common financial settlement between the federal government and corporate offenders is in which type of industry? a. b. c. d.

mortgage student loan health care automobile ANS: c

5. The most prevalent type of health care fraud is: a. fraudulent billing


19-2 b. pharmaceutical fraud c. doctor shopping d. unnecessary medical testing ANS: b 6. _________ are a type of compensation that gives the owner the right to buy a number of shares of a company at a predetermined price at any time in the future until a pre-set expiration date. a. b. c. d.

Stock quotes Performance evaluations Golden parachutes Stock options ANS: d

7. Current or former employees with direct knowledge of fraud are called: a. b. c. d.

fraud exposers traitors whistleblowers DPA’s ANS: c

8. The False Claims Act provides anyone with inside knowledge of fraud an incentive of up to ______ of any funds recovered to come forward with that information. a. b. c. d.

$10,000 $500,000 30 percent 50 percent ANS: c

9. Which of the following statements are true regarding deferred prosecution agreements? a. Deferred prosecution agreements are attractive to prosecutors. b. Deferred prosecution agreements are attractive to corporations. c. Deferred prosecution agreements most often require the corporation to institute internal compliance procedures. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: d


19-3

10. Over two-thirds of drug overdose deaths involve which type of drug? a. b. c. d.

marijuana stimulants opioids hallucinogens ANS: c

11. Many for-profit educational institutions are aggressively recruiting ________ in an attempt to take advantage of a loophole and to stay under the maximum threshold of revenue that can originate from federal aid funds. a. minorities b. veterans c. first generation students d. students from lower socio-economic status ANS: b 12. According to the text, Americans view white-collar crimes more seriously than they have in the past. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. Since 1980, the wage gap between executives and average employees has declined. a. True b. False ANS: b 14. Media coverage can have a strong impact on the public opinion and prosecution of corporate offenders. a. True b. False ANS: a 15. According to the text, prosecutors have increasingly become sympathetic to corporate crime.


19-4

a. True b. False ANS: b 16. Criminal prosecutions of corporations are relatively rare. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Approximately 2% of Americans were a victim of a corporate crime in 2019. a. True b. False ANS: b 18. Approximately 80 percent of healthcare fraud is due to dishonest individuals who lie to the government to obtain public benefits. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. A fee-for-service healthcare model encourages more comprehensive treatment. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. The Affordable Health Care Act passed in 2010 imposed strict requirements for providers who seek permission to bill Medicare. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. The opioid-related overdose deaths since 2013 have largely been driven by the overprescribing of pain medication


19-5 a. True b. False ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 20: Ethics and Criminal Justice Research 1. Humphreys was able to interview his subjects at a later time because he: a. b. c. d.

obtained their phone numbers obtained their tag numbers followed them home none of the above ANS: b

2. Which of the following is not a function of institutional review boards (IRBs)? a. b. c. d.

ensure that the faculty follows acceptable procedures protect themselves from liability provide direct supervision of the research project provide ethical guidance ANS: c

3. Informed consent requires that subjects fully know: a. b. c. d.

the uses to be made of the data collected the possible effects of the experiment the nature of the results all of the above ANS: d

4. One of the ethical issues involved with implementing a classical research design is that:: a. b. c. d.

potential benefits are withheld from participants in the control group informed consent is not possible coercion is inevitable all of the above ANS: a

5. Which of the following is one of the 10 potential ethical dilemmas involving work with human subjects? a. coercing people to participate b. withholding from the participant the true nature of the research


20-2 c. deceiving the research participant d. all of the above ANS: d 6. According to the text, which of the following statements regarding deception is not correct? a. Deception can be viewed as an affront to individual autonomy. b. Deception can be viewed as a legitimate means to be used in service of a higher value. c. One alternative to is to offer full disclosure after the research has been completed. d. All forms of deception are equal. ANS: d 7. Which of the following statements regarding Haney, Banks, and Zimbardo’s (1973) prison experiment is not true? a. b. c. d.

The prisoners began to experience a loss of self-identity. The experiment was terminated after only 14 days. The experiment selected subjects to become prison guards and prisoners. All of the above are true. ANS: b

8. When considering confidentiality, a researcher must remember: a. never to obtain information that can identify a subject by the responses b. researchers cannot be called upon to provide information to the courts c. it is important to prepare your presentation of the research in a manner that ensures that particular responses cannot be discerned d. all of the above ANS: c 9. A project studying the effectiveness of prison rehabilitation programs is a(n) __________ study and carries with it additional ethical considerations. a. b. c. d.

applied basic classical scientific ANS: a


20-3 10. Which popular company was criticized after agreeing to conduct an experiment on its users without the users’ knowledge or consent? a. YouTube b. Facebook c. Twitter d. Google ANS: b 11. People who are being observed often act the same in most cases as they would if they were not being observed. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. Humphreys’s tearoom trade study is an example of one of the most ethical research studies conducted in the social sciences. a. True b. False ANS: b 13. Institutional review boards scrutinize each research project prior to implementation. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. According to the text, it is not ethically necessary for researchers to prepare their presentation of research findings in a way that ensures that individual subjects and participants will not be revealed. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. The pressure for “grantsmanship” and publications can often be a catalyst for unethical research. a. True


20-4 b. False ANS: a 16. Randomization does produce winners and losers. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. Randomization is acceptable by law, because its use is reasonably related to a governmental objective. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Ethical topics such as plagiarism, fabrication of data, and authorship rank are most often included in instructions to criminal justice audiences. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. Follow-up research of Milgram’s obedience study revealed that participants suffered significant emotional disturbances because of their participation. a. True b. False ANS: b 20. Research participants are most likely to participate in a study if their responses are kept anonymous. a. True b. False ANS: a


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 21: Ethical Issues in Confronting Terrorism 1. The USA PATRIOT Act: a. b. c. d.

enhanced the ability of law enforcement to investigate terror-related acts increased sharing of information among law enforcement agencies expanded ability to investigate money laundering all of the above ANS: d

2. Which of the following was not a result of the Military Commissions Act of 2009? a. b. c. d.

established procedures for handling classified information limited tribunal use to alien unlawful combatants outlawed the use of tribunals for any terror suspect said that U.S. citizens would not be tried in military tribunals ANS: c

3. According to the text, the conviction rate for terrorists charged in the federal criminal justice system is: a. b. c. d.

22% 54% 87% 100% ANS: c

4. Which of the following best represents the authorization to fight the Taliban after the September 11 attacks? a. b. c. d.

No authorization was passed by Congress. Congress passed an open-ended authorization to use military force against terrorists. Congress passed a formal declaration of war against the Taliban. none of the above ANS: b

5. The 2006 Hamdan v Rumsfeld Supreme Court case ruled: a. water boarding is illegal b. detainees should be the responsibility of the Secretary of State


21-2 c. military tribunals were illegal d. the Afghanistan war was illegal ANS: c 6. The Abu Ghraib allegations referenced which type of abuse? a. b. c. d.

sexual physical psychological all of the above ANS: d

7. According to the text, which television show was frequently shown using extralegal means to interrogate subjects? a. b. c. d.

24 CSI Law and Order COPS ANS: a

8. Which of the following Trump administration approaches to terrorism differs from the Obama administration approach? a. b. c. d.

strengthen security at ports of entry protecting critical infrastructure travel ban on residents from certain Muslim countries each of these Trump approaches differ from Obama approaches ANS: c

9. According to the text, which of the following is not an advantage to using the federal criminal court approach? a. b. c. d.

certainty incentives for cooperation sentencing proof requirements ANS: d

10. Those who argue in favor of the use of harsh interrogation techniques or torture are usually viewing the issue from a ________ perspective


21-3

a. utilitarian b. deontological c. peacemaking d. religious ANS: a 11. Congress formally declared war against the Taliban following 9/11. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. More terrorists have been convicted using the criminal justice system since 9/11 than using the military system. a. True b. False ANS: a 13. Targeted killings of individuals outside the government’s custody has been legally justified if the targeted individual poses a continued and imminent threat of violence to other Americans. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. President Trump resisted calls to close the detention facility in Guantanamo Bay, Cuba. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. The military commissions have tougher sentencing guidelines than the federal criminal law system. a. True b. False


21-4 ANS: b 16. The Military Commissions Act of 2009 effectively excluded evidence collected through torture. a. True b. False ANS: a 17. The Military Commission Act of 2009 specified that U.S. citizens would not be tried in military courts. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. Federal courts have consistently upheld the need to deny due process rights to prevent terrorism. a. True b. False ANS: b 19. The open-ended authorization to use military force against terrorists is still in force today. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. Military commission trials have a greater ability to protect classified information compared to civilian courts. a. True b. False ANS: a 21. Worldwide, the number of terrorism attacks peaked in 2017. a. True b. False


21-5

ANS: b


Justice, Crime, and Ethics, 10th Edition Chapter 22: Criminal Justice: An Ethic for the Future 1. The authors contend that we can develop an ethic for the future of criminal justice by becoming more _________. a. b. c. d.

ordered mindful stratified self-conscious ANS: b

2. According to the text, the search for justice can be subverted to a search for _________. a. b. c. d.

order peace justice none of the above ANS: a

3. According to the text, the way we _________laws can enhance or diminish our opportunities for more peaceful and orderly communities. a. b. c. d.

define create enforce both a and c ANS: a

4. If we are to have a hopeful view rather than a cynical view of the future of criminal justice, then we must seek _________. a. b. c. d.

fresh possibilities creative alternatives new perspectives all of the above ANS: d

5. According to the text, it seems to be in our best interest to recognize and encourage an attitude of_________


22-2

a. b. c. d.

personal responsibility personal empowerment love vengeance ANS: b

6. Which of the following is not true of the offender in prison under the peacemaking viewpoint? a. b. c. d.

The person is placed in prison for the good of the community. The prisoner and community are connected in a number of ways. Most prisoners will return to our communities. all of the above ANS: d

7. According to Quinney: a. b. c. d.

we must first create a good society we must first make ourselves better we must work on creating a good society and making ourselves better simultaneously peacemaking is impractical ANS: c

8. Which of the following is not a myth mentioned by Braswell, Burgason, and England? a. b. c. d.

Punishment can fit the crime. Laws can never make people behave. The rich and the poor are equal before the law. White-collar crime is always nonviolent. ANS: b

9. According to the text, one possible solution to the strain created by many recent police shootings is ______________. a. b. c. d.

community policing problem-oriented policing reactive policing professional policing ANS: a


22-3

10. Which segment of the criminal justice system addressed the “least of the community”? a. b. c. d.

policing law corrections rehabilitation ANS: c

11. According to the text, our search for justice can be subverted to a search for peace. a. True b. False ANS: b 12. With more minorities and women entering police work, policing is likely to encounter greater difficulty with openness with respect to the definition of police roles. a. True b. False ANS: b 13. Braswell, Burgason, and England believe that those in criminal justice must seek out fresh possibilities rather than defend traditional certainties. a. True b. False ANS: a 14. Quinney contends that becoming more mindful is the key ingredient to developing an ethic for the future of criminal justice. a. True b. False ANS: b 15. Most jails are operated by law enforcement agencies that are more inclined toward enforcement and order-maintenance strategies than correctional intervention with offenders.


22-4 a. True b. False ANS: a 16. A community working under the peacemaking philosophies would never decide to remove an offender from society through incarceration. a. True b. False ANS: b 17. Peacemaking represents a larger vision than order-keeping. a. True b. False ANS: a 18. According to the text, legal statutes and the criminal justice system can make up for our lack of community. a. True b. False ANS: a 19. From the peacemaking viewpoint, adequate health care is as important as an efficient criminal justice system. a. True b. False ANS: a 20. According to the text, the rich and poor are equal before the law. a. True b. False ANS: b 21. Illegal immigrants commit crimes at higher rates than native-born Americans. a. True


22-5 b. False ANS: b


Turn static files into dynamic content formats.

Create a flipbook
Issuu converts static files into: digital portfolios, online yearbooks, online catalogs, digital photo albums and more. Sign up and create your flipbook.