TEST BANK for Memmler's The Human Body in Health and Disease, 14th Edition by Barbara Janson Cohen by ACADEMIAMILL

Chapter 1: Organization of the Human Body Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE

A. B.

Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”? dissection C. pathology physiology D. anatomy

ANS: D REF: MCS: 3

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

2. Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts? A. dissection C. pathology B. physiology D. anatomy

ANS: B REF: MCS: 6 3.

A. B.

DIF:

Memorization

Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease? dissection C. pathology physiology D. anatomy

ANS: C REF: MCS: 6 4.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction

Memorization

Cells

A. B.

are more complex than tissues are the first level of organization in the body are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body both B and C

C. D. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization 5.

A. B.

Application

REF: MCS: 8

A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n) molecule C. tissue organ D. organism

ANS: C REF: MCS: 8 6.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

The heart is an example of a(n)

A. B.

organ tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization 7.

A. B. C. D.

C. D. DIF:

organism system Application

REF: MCS: 8

The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are cell chemical organ tissue system tissue cell chemical organ system chemical tissue cell organ system chemical cell tissue organ system

ANS: D REF: MCS: 7

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

8. When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position? A. supine C. lateral B. anatomical D. prone

ANS: B REF: MCS: 9 9.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Anatomical position

Memorization

The supine position

A. B. C. D.

describes the body lying face up is also called anatomical position describes the body lying face down both A and B

ANS: A REF: MCS: 9

10.

A. B. C. D. ANS: C REF: MCS: 9

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position

The prone position describes the body lying face up is also called the anatomical position describes the body lying face down both B and C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position

11.

Because humans walk upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the

term A. B.

inferior posterior

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 9 direction 12.

A. B.

DIF: TOP: Anatomical

DIF:

REF: MCS: 9

posterior medial

The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a C. D.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections

DIF:

coronal transverse Application

REF: MCS: 10

15. The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a section. frontal C. midsagittal sagittal D. transverse

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections 16.

A. B.

17.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 10

A section that divides the body into mirror images is a section. frontal C. midsagittal coronal D. transverse

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections

ventral both B and C

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

frontal sagittal

A. B.

Application

The opposite term for superficial is deep C. inferior D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 10 14. section. A. B.

anterior distal

The opposite term for posterior in humans is superior C. anterior D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 13.

C. D.

DIF:

Application

The two major body cavities are called C. thoracic and abdominal

REF: MCS: 10

dorsal and ventral

thoracic and pelvic

ANS: C REF: MCS: 10 18.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

A. B.

mediastinum and pleural Memorization

The liver can be found in the upper right C. quadrant epigastric region D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Body cavities 19.

DIF:

hypogastric region both A and B Application

The word “leg” correctly describes the area from the hip to C. the foot area from the knee D. to the ankle

ANS: B REF: MCS: 13

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body regions

REF: MCS: 11

area between the hip and the knee femoral area

Memorization

20. The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of A. homeostasis C. an effector B. a positive feedback D. a sensor loop

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 15

21. The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called A. homeostasis C. the sensor B. the effector D. the control center

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 16 of body functions

DIF: TOP: The balance

22. The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called A. homeostasis C. the sensor B. the effector D. the control center

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 15 of body functions

DIF: TOP: The balance

23. The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition to the homeostatic condition the body is trying to maintain is called A. homeostasis C. the sensor B. the effector D. the control center

ANS: D REF: MCS: 15

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions

24. When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the A. sensor C. control center B. effector D. both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 15

25. Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop? A. maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body B. forming a blood clot C. uterine contractions during labor D. both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions 26.

A. B.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 16

The level of organization directly below the organ level is the system C. tissue cellular D. chemical

ANS: C REF: MCS: 7

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

27. Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position? A. dorsal C. supine B. posterior D. both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 9 position 28.

A. B.

DIF: TOP: Anatomical

Which term means toward the head? anterior C. superior D.

superficial ventral

level.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

ANS: B REF: MCS: 9

29.

A. B. C. D.

Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow? The elbow is proximal to the wrist. The elbow is distal to the wrist. The elbow is superficial to the wrist. The elbow is lateral to the wrist.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 30.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

32.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 11

REF: MCS: 9

plane. transverse frontal

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes of body sections

The muscular sheet called the diaphragm divides the right and left pleural cavities thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavities abdominal and pelvic cavities thoracic cavity and mediastinum

ANS: B REF: MCS: 10

A. B. C. D.

Application

A coronal plane or section is another term for a sagittal C. midsagittal D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 10 31.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

Which is not a part of the upper abdominopelvic region? right hypochondriac region epigastric region hypogastric region All of the above are part of the upper abdominopelvic region. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Body cavities

TRUE/FALS E

ANS: T

Anatomy is defined as the study of the structure of an organism. 3

REF: MCS:

P T S : 1 D I F : M e m o r i z a t i o n T O P : I n t r o d u c t i o n

The word “dissection” comes from Greek words meaning “cutting up.”

ANS: F REF: MCS: 3

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction

3. Anatomy deals with the study of structure, whereas physiology deals with the study of function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 3 | MCS: 6 4.

Pathology is the scientific study of disease.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 6 5.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

A protein molecule is considered to be at the cellular level of organization.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization 6.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 7

The cell is the simplest level of organization in the human body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 7

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

7. Cells are considered to be the smallest living unit of structure and function in the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 8

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

8. A group of cells working together to perform a specific function is called an organ.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 8

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

9. A group of several different tissues working together to perform a specific function is called an organ.

ANS: T REF: MCS:

P T S : 1 D I F : M e m o r i z a t i o n T O P : S t r u c t u r a l l e v e l s o f o

rganization

10.

The organ is the highest level of organization in the human body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 7

11. of the body.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization

Anatomical position is the reference position for the directional terms

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical position

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 9

12. If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the supine position.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical position

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 9

13. Doctors recommend putting babies to sleep on their backs to help prevent breathing problems. This is the supine position.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical position

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 9

14. The anatomical position can be described as the body being erect with the arms held at shoulder level with the palms of the hands facing down.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 9 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Anatomical position

The ankle is inferior to the knee.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 16.

Application

REF: MCS: 9

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

The lungs are medial to the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 18.

DIF:

Dorsal and anterior are interchangeable terms when referring to humans.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 9 17.

Memorization

DIF:

The elbow is proximal to the wrist.

Application

REF: MCS: 9

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 19.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 9

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 9

Frontal and coronal sections refer to the same thing. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections

Sagittal and midsagittal sections refer to the same thing.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 10 25.

REF: MCS: 10

The middle toe is medial to the big toe but lateral to the smallest toe.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 10 24.

Application

The knee is distal to the ankle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 23.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 22.

REF: MCS: 9

Proximal and medial are opposite terms.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 9 21.

Application

The skin is superficial to the muscles.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 20.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections

A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a transverse

plane. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 10 body sections 26.

DIF: TOP: Planes or

A plane dividing the body into front and back portions is a sagittal plane.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 10

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections

27.

A midsagittal plane divides the right shoulder from the left shoulder.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections 28.

REF: MCS: 10

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 10

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

The pleural cavities are subdivisions of the thoracic cavity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 10 33.

Application

The mediastinum is a subdivision of the abdominal cavity.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 10 32.

DIF:

The ventral cavity is one of the main cavities of the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 10 31.

REF: MCS: 10

A frontal section divides the eyes from the back of the head.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections 30.

Application

A transverse plane divides the eyes from the back of the head.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections 29.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

The abdominal cavity is inferior to the thoracic cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Body cavities

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 9

34. The abdominal cavity and the pelvic cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 10

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

35. The thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 11

TOP: Body cavities

36. The right hypochondriac region is completely in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Body cavities

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 11

37. The left hypochondriac region is completely in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Body cavities 38.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 11

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

The brain is located in the dorsal cavity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 15 41.

REF: MCS: 11

The dorsal cavity includes the spinal cavity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 11 40.

Application

The right lumbar region is superior to the right iliac region.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Body cavities 39.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities

Memorization

Homeostasis is the relative consistency of the internal environment of the

body. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 15 of body functions

DIF: TOP: The balance

42. One method the body has of maintaining homeostasis is a positive feedback loop.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 15

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions

43. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that compares the actual condition to the controlled condition is called the sensor.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 15

TOP: The balance of body functions

44. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that effects a change in the controlled condition is called the effector.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 15

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions

45. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that detects a change in the controlled condition is called the sensor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 16 of body functions

DIF: TOP: The balance

46. A negative feedback loop stimulates and amplifies a change in the internal environment.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 16 of body functions

DIF: TOP: The balance

47. A negative feedback loop opposes or negates a change in the internal environment.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 16 48.

The body has more positive feedback loops than negative feedback loops.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 16 49.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions

The formation of a blood clot is an example of a negative feedback loop.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 16

50. The pH of the body must remain within a very narrow range. It would more likely be controlled by a negative feedback loop.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions 51.

ANS: T

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 16

Women have one more positive feedback loop than do men. PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 10

TOP: The balance of body functions 52. Both the heart and the blood vessels are considered to be organs in the cardiovascular system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 10

53. An “L” on an anatomical compass rosette can stand for “Left” or “Lateral” depending on what is opposite it.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 10

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

54. An “S” on an anatomical compass rosette can stand for “Superior” or “Supine” depending on what is opposite it.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 10

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

55. When you look at an anatomical compass rosette in the text, the “R” on the rosette is on your right side.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 7

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. chemical level D. organ level B. cellular level E. system level C. tissue level F. organism 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

the smallest “living” part of the body a word used to denote a living thing level that includes atoms and molecules level made up of groups of tissues working together to perform a task level that is the most complex unit that makes up the body level that is made up of a group of cells working together to perform a task

1. REF: MCS: 7 2.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

TOP: Structural levels of organization ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 7 3.

TOP: Structural levels of ANS: organization A

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 7 4.

TOP: Structural levels of ANS: organization D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 7 5.

TOP: Structural levels of ANS: organization E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 7 6.

TOP: Structural levels of ANS: organization C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10

TOP: Structural levels of organization

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. superior F. B. anterior G. C. medial H. D. proximal I. E. superficial J. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

inferior posterior lateral distal deep

nearer to the surface of the body toward the head or above toward the midline of the body away from the trunk or point of origin toward the feet or below toward the back farther away from the surface of the body toward the side toward the front nearest to the trunk or point of origin

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 8.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction A

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 9.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 10.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction I

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 11.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 12.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10 13.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction J

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 14.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 15.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction B

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 9 16.

TOP: Anatomical ANS: direction D

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10

TOP: Anatomical direction

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. frontal plane E. thoracic cavity B. transverse plane F. abdominopelvic cavity C. sagittal plane G. cranial cavity D. diaphragm H. mediastinum 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

a muscular sheet dividing the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities the lower part of the ventral body cavity divides the body into right and left sides part of the dorsal cavity that contains the brain divides the body into upper and lower parts a subdivision of the thoracic cavity divides the body into front and rear parts cavity that is subdivided into pleural cavities

17.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 11 18.

TOP: Body cavities PTS: 1 ANS F :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10 19.

TOP: Body cavities PTS: 1 ANS C :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10 20.

TOP: Planes or body ANS sections G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10 21.

TOP: Body cavities ANS B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10 22.

TOP: Planes or body ANS sections H PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 10 23.

TOP: Body cavities ANS A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 3 24.

TOP: Planes or body ANS sections E PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 7

TOP: Body cavities

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Explain the difference between anatomy and physiology.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction

Memorization

REF: MCS: 9

2. Name and explain the structural levels of organization of the body and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Structural levels of organization 3.

REF: MCS: 9

Describe the anatomical position.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 10 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Anatomical position

REF: MCS:

Define or explain the words “prone” and “supine.”

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 10 TOP: 5.

DIF: Memorization Anatomical position

REF: MCS:

Name and describe the three planes or body sections.

ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization Planes or body cavities

PTS: 1 16 TOP: 6.

REF: MCS:

Name the two major body cavities and describe what is in each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 16 TOP: 7.

DIF: Memorization Body cavities

REF: MCS:

Explain the three parts of a negative feedback loop.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 16 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The balance of body functions

REF: MCS:

8. What is meant by a negative feedback loop? Give an example of a negative feedback loop in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 10 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 9The balance of body functions

9. What is meant by a positive feedback loop? Give an example of a positive feedback loop in the body.

ANS:

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 16 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: The balance of body functions

10. List the anatomical directions and explain each of them. If there are alternate terms for an anatomical direction, give those terms also.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction

REF: MCS: 9

Chapter 2: Chemistry, Matter, and Life Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which subatomic particle has a positive charge? A. proton C. B. neutron D. ANS: A REF: MCS: 27 2.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

electron nucleus

Memorization

electron nucleus

Memorization

electron both A and B

Memorization

Electrons are found

A. B. C.

in the nucleus in orbitals at various distances from the nucleus called energy levels both B and C

D. ANS: D TOP: Atoms 6.

A. B.

DIF:

Which subatomic particle is found in the nucleus? proton C. neutron D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 27 5.

Memorization

Which subatomic particle has a negative charge? proton C. neutron D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 27 4.

DIF:

Which subatomic particle has no charge? proton C. neutron D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 27

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

electron nucleus

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

The atomic number of an atom is the number of protons C. neutrons D.

REF: Pages 27-28

electrons both A and B

ANS: A REF: MCS: 27 7.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

The atomic mass of an atom is the number of protons C. neutrons D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

electrons both A and B

Memorization

8. The subatomic particle that determines how an atom unites with other atoms is the A. proton C. electron B. neutron D. both A and B

ANS: C REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

9. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has an atomic number of A. 20 C. 40 B. 41 D. 61

ANS: A TOP: Atoms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 27

10. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has an atomic mass of A. 20 C. 40 B. 41 D. 61

ANS: B TOP: Atoms 11.

A. B. C. D.

ANS: C TOP: Atoms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 27

An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has a positive charge a negative charge no charge (electrically neutral) not enough information is given to determine its charge PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 27

12. Which of these elements is not one of the four elements that make up most of the human body?

A. B.

carbon nitrogen

ANS: D REF: MCS: 28

13.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

ionic covalent

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 29 14.

A. B. C. D.

organic both B and C

DIF: TOP: Ionic bonds

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Covalent bonds

Memorization

The process of dehydration synthesis uses water to turn large molecules into smaller ones adds a molecule of water to the reactants converts smaller molecules into larger ones by removing water both A and B

ANS: C REF: MCS: 31 16.

C. D.

The bonds formed when electrons are shared are called electrolytes C. covalent bonds ionic bonds D. inorganic bonds

ANS: C REF: MCS: 30 15.

oxygen calcium

Bonds that usually dissociate in water to form electrolytes are

bonds. A. B.

A. B.

C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Water

DIF:

Memorization

The process of hydrolysis

uses water to turn large molecules into smaller ones removes a molecule of water from the reactants converts smaller molecules into larger molecules by removing water both B and C

B. C. D. ANS: A REF: MCS: 31 17.

PTS: 1 TOP: Water

Acids have

DIF:

Memorization

a pH less than 7

more H+ ions than OH– ions

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 18.

A. B.

Bases have a pH less than 7 more H+ ions than

more OH– than H+ ions both A and B

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

C. D.

a pH greater than 7 both A and B

OH– ions ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 19.

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

A solution with a pH of 4

has 100 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2 + has 100 times fewer H ions than a solution with a pH of 2 has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a

solution with a pH of 6 is basic

A. B.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts 20.

A. B.

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 32

The end product of a reaction between a strong acid and a strong base is water C. a weak acid and a weak base a salt D. both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 21.

DIF:

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide? sucrose C. lactose glucose D. glycogen

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 33 Carbohydrates

DIF: TOP:

22.

A. B.

Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? sucrose C. lactose glucose D. glycogen

ANS: D REF: MCS: 33 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Carbohydrates

Triglycerides

A. B.

are steroid lipids have a phosphorus-containing unit on one end have two fatty acids have three fatty acids

C. D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 34 24.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

Phospholipids contain glycerol

contain two fatty acids

ANS: B REF: MCS: 34 25.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

Cholesterol contains three fatty acids contains two fatty acids

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 34-35 TOP: Lipids 26.

A. B.

27.

DIF:

Memorization

contain three fatty acids are steroid lipids

DIF:

Memorization

is a steroid lipid

contains glycerol

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of proteins? C. They have waterrepelling tails. They are made up D. of amino acids.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 34

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins

DIF:

They contain nitrogen. They contain peptide bonds.

Memorization

Which of the following is a structural protein? collagen C.

enzymes

keratin

ANS: D REF: MCS: 35 28.

A. B.

29.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins

DIF:

enzymes both A and B

Memorization

Which of the following substances is not found in a DNA nucleotide? phosphate unit C. nitrogen base glycerol molecule D. a sugar

ANS: B REF: MCS: 34 30.

DIF:

both A and B

Which of the following is a functional protein? collagen C. keratin D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 36

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nucleic acids

Memorization

Which substance is found only in DNA? adenine C. guanine D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 36

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nucleic acids

thymine cytosine

Memorization

31. The nitrogen atom has a total of seven electrons. To have a full outer energy level, it would have to A. add one electron C. add three electrons B. lose one electron D. lose two electrons

ANS: C TOP: Atoms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 27

32. Which type of chemical bond does not result in the formation of a new molecule? A. hydrogen bond B. ionic bond C. covalent bond D. None of the above; all chemical bonds result in the formation of a new molecule.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 30 TRUE/FALS E

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrogen bonds

Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of chemical organization

2. The mass of an atom is determined by the total number of protons and electrons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

3. The two subatomic particles found in the nucleus of the atom are protons and neutrons.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 27 4.

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

A full atomic orbital always contains eight electrons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 28

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

5. The atomic number of an atom is the number of protons plus the number of electrons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 27 6.

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

The closer an orbital is to the nucleus of an atom, the higher its energy

level. ANS: F REF: MCS: 28

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

7. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has an atomic number of 11.

ANS: T TOP: Atoms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 27

8. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has an atomic mass of 21.

ANS: F TOP: Atoms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 27

An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has a +1 charge.

ANS: T TOP: Atoms 10.

PTS: 1

All molecules are not necessarily compounds.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds

DIF:

Memorization

Covalent bonds are formed when atoms share electrons.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 30 16.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Chemical bonding

When an ionic compound is put into water, it dissociates into ions.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 29 15.

REF: MCS: 28

Ionic bonds result from atoms sharing electrons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 29 14.

Application

Chemical bonds form when atoms share, donate, or borrow electrons.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 29 13.

REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds 12.

Application

An element is a substance composed of only one type of atom.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 28 11.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Covalent bonds

Memorization

When a covalent compound is put into water, it dissociates into ions.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 30

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Covalent bonds

Memorization

17. For a compound to be considered an organic compound it must have a C- O or an H-O bond.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 31 18.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 31

TOP: Inorganic chemistry

Water is the most abundant organic compound in the body. PTS: 1 TOP: Water

DIF:

Memorization

19. The process of dehydration synthesis makes bigger molecules from smaller molecules.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 31 20.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 31 21.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 31

PTS: 1 TOP: Water

DIF:

Memorization

The process of dehydration synthesis has water as one of its end products. PTS: 1 TOP: Water

DIF:

Memorization

The process of hydrolysis has water as one of its end products. PTS: 1 TOP: Water

DIF:

Memorization

22. One of the end products of hydrolysis would have one more hydrogen atom than it did at the beginning of the reaction.

ANS: T TOP: Water 23.

PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 31

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

Bases have a higher concentration of OH– ions than H+ ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 25.

Synthesis

Acids have a higher concentration of H+ ions than OH– ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 24.

DIF:

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

A solution with a pH of 8 has more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 4.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 32

26.

A solution with a pH of 5 has more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 7.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 32

27. A solution with a pH of 2 has 10 times the number of H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 3.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts 28.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 32

When a strong acid and a strong base react, one of the end products is

water. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 29.

A weak acid almost completely dissociates in water.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 30.

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

When a strong acid and a strong base react, one of the end products is a

salt. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 32 and salts 31.

DIF: TOP: Acids, bases,

A buffer is a substance that resists a sudden change in

pH. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: 33 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts 32.

The basic unit of a carbohydrate is a monosaccharide.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 33 Carbohydrates 33.

ANS: F

DIF: TOP:

A molecule of glucose is larger than a molecule of sucrose. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 33

TOP: Carbohydrate s

34.

Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 33 35.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Carbohydrates

Memorization

Glycogen and starch are both examples of polysaccharides.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 33

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Carbohydrates

Memorization

36. The process of dehydration synthesis could be used to convert a monosaccharide into a disaccharide.

ANS: T PTS: 1 33 TOP: Water and carbohydrates 37.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

ANS: T

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

Phospholipids are important molecules in the cell membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 34-35 TOP: Lipids 42.

Memorization

Phospholipids contain three fatty acids.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 34 41.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

A triglyceride contains a molecule of glycerol.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 34 40.

DIF:

REF: MCS: 31 | MCS:

A triglyceride contains two fatty acid molecules.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 34 39.

Synthesis

Both fats and oils are lipids.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 34 38.

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

Cholesterol is a steroid lipid. PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 35 43.

Cholesterol contains two fatty acid molecules.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 34 44.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

Enzymes are functional proteins that act as chemical catalysts.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 36 49.

DIF:

Structural proteins include collagen, keratin, and enzymes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 35-36 TOP: Proteins 48.

Memorization

The basic building blocks of protein are held together by peptide bonds.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 35 47.

DIF:

The basic building block of proteins is nucleotides.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 35 46.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

Cholesterol is needed for the formation of several hormones in the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 34 45.

TOP: Lipids

PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins

DIF:

Memorization

The basic building blocks of nucleic acids are nucleotides.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 36

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nucleic acids

Memorization

50. The DNA and RNA molecules are the same except the DNA has thymine and the RNA molecule has uracil.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleic acids

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 36

51. The nitrogen bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine can be found in both RNA and DNA.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 36

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nucleic acids

Memorization

52. One difference between DNA and RNA is the type of sugar found in the nucleotides.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 36 53.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nucleic acids

Memorization

The smallest unit of matter is the electron.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of chemical organization

54. The oxygen atom has a total of eight electrons. That means it has six electrons in its outer energy level.

ANS: T TOP: Atoms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 27

55. The number of electrons in the outer energy level of an atom determines how it behaves chemically.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 27 56.

PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

The formula for glucose is C6H12O6. This indicates that there are

24 atoms in a molecule of glucose. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

Application

REF: MCS: 28

57. The electrolyte most often formed by magnesium (Mg) is Mg This shows that the ion has two more electrons than protons.

ANS: F TOP: Ionic bonds 58.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 31

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 30

Water is the most common solute in the human body. PTS: 1 TOP: Water

DIF:

Memorization

++ .

59.

Both sucrose and lactose are examples of disaccharides.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 33 60.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Carbohydrates

Memorization

Fats tend to be solids at room temperature.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 34

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

DIF:

Memorization

61. Both cholesterol and phospholipids are involved in the structure of the cell membrane.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 34

PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

DIF:

Memorization

62. The lock-and-key model describes how two strands of DNA are able to join so precisely to form a double helix.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 36

PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins

DIF:

Memorization

MATCHING Match each part of the atom with its corresponding description. A. protons C. B. neutrons D.

electrons both protons and neutrons

1. part of the atom that is found in the nucleus 2. part of the atom that is found in orbitals around the nucleus 3. part of the atom that gives an atom its atomic number 4. part of the atom that when combined with the proton gives the atom its atomic mass

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 27 2.

TOP: Atoms ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 27 3.

TOP: Atom ANS s A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 27

TOP: Atoms

ANS: B

REF: MCS: 27

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Atoms

Match each organic compound with its corresponding description. A. carbohydrates E. proteins B. triglycerides F. RNA C. phospholipids G. DNA D. cholesterol 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.

compound whose basic unit is a monosaccharide nucleic acid that contains the nitrogen base uracil lipid that is used to make hormones such as estrogen and testosterone nucleic acid that contains the nitrogen base thymine lipid that is composed of a molecule of glycerol and three fatty acids lipid that has two fatty acids and is important in the cell membrane an enzyme

ANS: A

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 33 6.

TOP: Carbohydrate PTS: 1 ANS s F :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 36 7.

TOP: Nucleic acids PTS: 1 ANS D :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 34 8.

TOP: Lipid ANS s G :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 36 9.

TOP: Nucleic acids PTS: 1 ANS B :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 34 10.

TOP: Lipid ANS s C :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 34 11.

TOP: Lipid ANS s E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 35

TOP: Proteins

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. nucleus G. covalent bonds B. ionic bond H. orbitals

atomic mass

hydrolysis

compound

E. F.

electrolyte atomic number

K. L.

dehydration synthesis acid base

12. part of the atom in which electrons are found 13. equal to the number of protons an atom has 14. molecules that form ions when dissolved in water 15. process by which reactants combine only after hydrogen and oxygen atoms have been removed 16. compound that produces H+ ions 17. part of the atom in which protons are found 18. bond formed by the attraction of atoms or molecules that have opposite charges 19. compound that produces OH– ions 20. equal to the number of protons and neutrons in an atom 21. process by which water is used to make smaller molecules form larger molecules 22. bond that is formed when electrons are shared 23. a molecule that contains more than one type of atom

12.

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 27 13.

TOP: Atoms ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 27 14.

TOP: Atom ANS s E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 30 15.

TOP: Ionic bonds ANS J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 31 16.

TOP: Water ANS K :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 32 17.

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 27 18.

TOP: Atom ANS s B :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 30 19.

TOP: Ionic bonds ANS L :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 32

TOP: Acids, bases, and PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Atoms ANS I :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 31 22.

TOP: Water ANS G :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 30 23.

TOP: Covalent bonds ANS D PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 28

TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

20.

ANS salts C :

REF: MCS: 27 21.

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Name the three parts of the atom and give a description of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 27

Explain how an ionic bond forms.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 30

Explain how a covalent bond forms.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 30 TOP: 4.

DIF: Memorization Covalent bonds

REF: MCS:

Explain the processes of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis.

ANS:

Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization Water

PTS: 1 31 TOP:

REF: MCS:

5. Describe the difference between an acid solution and a base solution in terms of the amount and types of ions in each.

ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization Acids, bases, and salts

PTS: 1 32 TOP:

REF: MCS:

6. Explain the relationship among H+ ion concentration, OH– ion concentration, and pH.

ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization Acids, bases, and salts

PTS: 1 32 TOP: 7.

REF: MCS:

Describe the structure of carbohydrates and explain their use in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 33 TOP: 8.

DIF: Memorization Carbohydrates

REF: MCS:

Describe the three types of lipids and give the function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 34

9. Describe the structure of a protein and give examples of a structural protein and a functional protein.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 35 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Proteins

REF: MCS:

10. Explain the structure of a nucleic acid and list the differences between RNA and DNA.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 36 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nucleic acids

REF: MCS:

Chapter 3: Cells and Their Functions Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not part of the cell? A. plasma membrane B. interstitial fluid C. nucleus D. All of the above are part of the cell. ANS: B REF: MCS: 45 2.

A. B. C. D.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Plasma membrane

Memorization

Tissue typing uses information

A. B. C. D.

stored in the nucleus found on the plasma membrane found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum found in the Golgi apparatus

ANS: B REF: MCS: 46 5.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Plasma membrane

Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane? protein synthesis regulation of what moves into and out of the cell identifying the cell communication between cells

ANS: A REF: MCS: 46 4.

Memorization

Which of the following is not part of the plasma membrane? phospholipids cholesterol triglycerides Neither B nor C is part of the cell membrane.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 45 3.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Parts of the cell

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Plasma membrane

Memorization

Which organelles can be called the “digestive bags” of the cell? ribosomes C. mitochondria

ANS: D REF: MCS: 50 6.

A. B.

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

PTS: 1 TOP: Lysosomes

DIF:

lysosomes

Memorization

What are the protein factories of the cell? mitochondria C. lysosomes D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 47

PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes

DIF:

ribosomes Golgi apparatus

Memorization

7. Which are small fingerlike projections on the plasma membrane that increase the cell’s ability to absorb substances? A. microvilli C. flagella B. cilia D. rough endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: A REF: MCS: 50 8.

A. B.

10.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

Which organelle has a subunit made of RNA? ribosome C. mitochondria D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 47

A. B.

DIF:

Which structure makes new membranes for the cell? Golgi apparatus rough endoplasmic C. reticulum smooth D. mitochondria endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: B REF: MCS: 47 9.

PTS: 1 TOP: Microvilli

PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes

DIF:

Golgi apparatus lysosomes

Memorization

Which of the following are called the “power plants” of the cell? ribosomes C. Golgi apparatus mitochondria D. lysosomes

ANS: B REF: MCS: 49

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mitochondria

Memorization

11.

A. B.

Which are rod-shaped structures that are important in cell division? ribosomes C. Golgi apparatus mitochondria D. centrioles

ANS: D REF: MCS: 48

PTS: 1 TOP: Centrioles

DIF:

Memorization

12. Which structure has ribosomes attached to it and helps transport proteins throughout the cell? A. rough endoplasmic C. Golgi apparatus reticulum B. smooth D. mitochondria endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 48 reticulum

DIF: TOP: Endoplasmic

13. Which organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell? A. ribosome C. Golgi apparatus B. mitochondria D. lysosome

ANS: C REF: MCS: 48 14.

A. B.

A. B. C.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mitochondria

Golgi apparatus mitochondria

Memorization

Which are extremely fine hairlike structures on the surface of the cell? cilia C. flagella microvilli D. rough endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: A REF: MCS: 50 16.

Memorization

Cellular respiration occurs in which organelle? ribosome C. centrioles D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 49 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Golgi apparatus

PTS: 1 TOP: Cilia

DIF:

Memorization

Only about half the population has which of the following organelles? microvilli cilia flagella

D. ANS: C TOP: Flagella

The entire population has all of the above organelles. PTS: 1

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 51

17. What is the process by which substances scatter themselves evenly throughout an available space? A. osmosis C. filtration B. diffusion D. dialysis

ANS: B REF: MCS: 52

PTS: 1 TOP: Diffusion

DIF:

Memorization

18. What is the movement of water from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration through a selectively permeable membrane? A. osmosis C. filtration B. diffusion D. dialysis

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 54 dialysis

DIF: TOP: Osmosis and

19. What is the movement of water and solutes through a membrane because of hydrostatic pressure? A. osmosis C. filtration B. diffusion D. dialysis

ANS: C REF: MCS: 54

PTS: 1 TOP: Filtration

DIF:

Memorization

20. Because of specific base pairing, if one side of the DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence of adenine – guanine – adenine – cytosine – thymine, the other side would be A. adenine – guanine – adenine – cytosine – thymine B. cytosine – thymine – cytosine – adenine – guanine C. thymine – cytosine – thymine – guanine – adenine D. There is no way to determine the other side of the molecule.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 60

21. If the DNA code is adenine – thymine – guanine, the messenger RNA sequence would be

adenine – thymine – guanine thymine – adenine – cytosine

A. B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription

thymine – uracil – cytosine uracil – adenine – cytosine

C. D. DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 59

22. If the messenger RNA code is adenine – uracil – cytosine, the transfer RNA bringing the amino acid would have which code? A. adenine – uracil – C. uracil – thymine – cytosine guanine B. uracil – adenine – D. thymine – adenine guanine – guanine

ANS: B TOP: Translation 23.

A. B.

25.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Anaphase

telophase anaphase

DIF:

REF: MCS: 59

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Metaphase

C. D. DIF:

metaphase prophase Memorization

DNA replication occurs during which phase? telophase C. anaphase D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 60 26.

Synthesis

During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes aligned in the center

ANS: C REF: MCS: 60

A. B.

DIF:

During which phase of mitosis does a cleavage furrow begin to appear? telophase C. metaphase anaphase D. interphase

ANS: A REF: MCS: 60 24. of the cell? A. B.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Cell division

metaphase interphase

Memorization

Chromatin becomes “organized” during which phase of mitosis? telophase C. metaphase anaphase D. prophase

ANS: D REF: MCS: 60

PTS: 1 TOP: Prophase

DIF:

Memorization

27. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cell? A. anaphase C. prophase B. metaphase D. telophase

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 60

DIF: TOP: Anaphase

28. During which phase of mitosis do two nuclei appear and the chromosomes become less distinct? A. anaphase C. interphase B. metaphase D. telophase

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 60-61 TOP: Telophase 29.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleolus

DIF:

Memorization

Which process does not rely on active transport? sodium-potassium C. pump phagocytosis D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 54 32.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mitochondria

Golgi apparatus smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Which structure programs the formation of ribosomes? mitochondria C. nucleolus Golgi apparatus rough endoplasmic D. reticulum

ANS: C REF: MCS: 51 31.

Memorization

Which organelle contains its own DNA molecule? ribosome C. mitochondria D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 49 30.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Active transport

PTS: 1 TOP: Translation

DIF:

filtration

Memorization

A codon consists of which number of nucleotides? one C. two D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 59

pinocytosis

Memorization

three four

33.

A. B.

Which term refers to an increase in cell size? hyperplasia C. hypertrophy D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 61 34.

A. B.

atrophy anaplasia

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

Which term refers to an increase in the number of cells? hyperplasia C. atrophy hypertrophy D. anaplasia

ANS: A REF: MCS: 62

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

TRUE/FALSE 1.

The fluid inside the cell is called interstitial fluid.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 45

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Composition

Memorization

2. Both phospholipids and cholesterol are important parts of the cell membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 45 membrane

DIF: TOP: Plasma

3. One function of the cell membrane is to identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 45

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Plasma membrane

Memorization

4. The term organelle refers to proteins that are embedded in the cell membrane.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 46 5.

PTS: 1 TOP: Cytoplasm

DIF:

Memorization

One of the jobs of the Golgi apparatus is to make new membranes for the

cell. ANS: F REF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

MCS: 48

TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

The “protein factory” is another name for the ribosomes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 47

PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes

DIF:

Memorization

7. The difference between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum is that the rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to it.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 48 8.

Lysosomes are the “digestive bags” of the cell.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 50 9.

PTS: 1 TOP: Lysosomes

DIF:

Memorization

Microvilli are small hairlike structures on the outer surface of the cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 50 10.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

PTS: 1 TOP: Microvilli

DIF:

Memorization

The only cells in humans that have flagella are sperm cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 51

PTS: 1 TOP: Flagella

DIF:

Memorization

11. The Golgi apparatus consists of two small rods that play an important role in cell division.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 48 12.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 49

PTS: 1 TOP: Centrioles

DIF:

Memorization

The nucleus is the only structure in the cell that contains DNA. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mitochondria

Memorization

13. The nucleolus is a structure in the nucleus that programs the formation of ribosomes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 51 14.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleolus

DIF:

Memorization

Both chromatin and chromosomes are made up of DNA.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 51

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromatin and chromosomes

15. The passive transport of material across the cell membrane requires the breakdown of ATP.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 52

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes

16. Diffusion of a substance across a cell membrane is an example of active transport.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 52

PTS: 1 TOP: Diffusion

DIF:

Memorization

17. The simplest definition of dialysis is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 54 18.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Osmosis and dialysis

Osmosis and dialysis are both specialized examples of diffusion.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 54

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Osmosis and dialysis

19. Filtration requires different levels of hydrostatic pressure across a membrane.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 54

PTS: 1 TOP: Filtration

DIF:

Memorization

20. Active transport moves material by a mechanism that is opposite that of diffusion.

ANS: T 55 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Active transport processes

Application

REF: Pages 54-

21. The cell membrane is able to efficiently move material because each ion pump can move a number of different substances.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 55

PTS: 1 TOP: Ion pumps

DIF:

Memorization

22. Both pinocytosis and phagocytosis are examples of active transport mechanisms.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 56 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

Pinocytosis comes from the Greek word meaning “cell eating.”

ANS: F REF: MCS: 56

PTS: 1 TOP: Pinocytosis

DIF:

Memorization

24. Cystic fibrosis is a disease that results from a failure of a passive transport mechanism in the cell membrane.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cell transport and disease

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 56

25. The inability of the cell membrane to control the movement of the chloride ion into and out of the cell is the cause of both cystic fibrosis and cholera.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 56

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell transport and disease

26. The term complementary base pairing refers to the ability of the DNA nucleotide adenine to pair only with the nucleotide cytosine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

Application

REF: MCS: 57

27. If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine – guanine – cytosine – cytosine, the opposite side would be thymine – cytosine – guanine – cytosine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information 28.

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 57

A gene and a nucleotide are the same thing.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 57

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

29. DNA and RNA differ in the number of strands they have, the type of sugar they have, and the types of nitrogen bases they have.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 57

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: RNA molecules and protein synthesis

30.

The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 59

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Transcription

Memorization

31. If the DNA code is adenine – thymine – cytosine, the messenger RNA code would be thymine – adenine – guanine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription 32.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 59

The process of translation occurs in the nucleus.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 59

PTS: 1 TOP: Translation

DIF:

Memorization

33. If the messenger RNA code is uracil – adenine – guanine, the transfer RNA code would be adenine – uracil – cytosine.

ANS: T TOP: Translation

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 59

34. The end product of the process of transcription is a messenger RNA molecule.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription 35. or protein.

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 59

The end product of the process of translation is an amino acid chain

ANS: T TOP: Translation

PTS: 1

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 59

36. If the DNA code is adenine – thymine – guanine, the transfer RNA code that would be called for would be adenine – uracil – guanine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription and translation 37.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 59

DNA replication occurs during prophase of mitosis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 60

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: DNA replication

Memorization

38.

During anaphase, the chromosomes align in the center of the cell.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 60 39.

DIF:

Memorization

Chromatids form during prophase.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 60 40.

PTS: 1 TOP: Metaphase

PTS: 1 TOP: Prophase

DIF:

Memorization

The cleavage furrow begins to appear during telophase.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 60

PTS: 1 TOP: Anaphase

DIF:

Memorization

41. During telophase, two nuclei appear and the chromosomes become less distinct.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 60-61 TOP: Telophase 42.

DIF:

Memorization

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia are interchangeable terms.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 61

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and development

43. The term hypertrophy means that there has been an increase in size of individual cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 61-62 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction 44.

The term hyperplasia means a decrease in the size of individual cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 62 45.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

Atrophy can be defined as a decrease in the size of individual cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 61

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

46. Both hyperplasia and hypertrophy can cause an increase in the size of a tissue or organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 61-62 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction 47.

In anaplasia, cells fail to mature normally and do not differentiate as they

should. ANS: T REF: MCS: 63 reproduction 48.

Atrophy is a characteristic of many neoplasms.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 61 49.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

The terms interstitial fluid and tissue fluid refer to the same thing.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 45 50.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and

PTS: 1 TOP: Cells

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 47 | MCS:

Cellular respiration occurs in the Golgi apparatus.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 49 52.

Memorization

Both mitochondria and ribosomes contain nucleic acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 49 TOP: Ribosomes and mitochondria 51.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mitochondria

Memorization

The lysosome plays an important role in apoptosis (cell suicide).

ANS: F REF: MCS: 50

PTS: 1 TOP: Lysosomes

DIF:

Memorization

53. Flagella are extremely fine hairlike extensions on the exposed surface of certain cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 50

PTS: 1 TOP: Cilia

DIF:

Memorization

54. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of an active transport mechanism.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 55

PTS: 1 TOP: Ion pumps

DIF:

Memorization

55. Genes regulate cellular activity by determining what type of proteins will be made.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 57 information

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA molecule and genetic

MATCHING Match each organelle or cell structure to its corresponding function or description. A. plasma membrane F. rough endoplasmic reticulum B. nucleus G. lysosomes C. ribosomes H. centrioles D. mitochondria I. microvilli E. smooth J. nucleolus endoplasmic reticulum 1. organelles that are called the “protein factories” of the cell 2. structure made up of phospholipids and cholesterol molecules 3. organelles that are called the “digestive bags” of the cell 4. organelle named as such because of the ribosomes attached to it 5. cell structure that controls every organelle in the cytoplasm and contains chromatin 6. small rods that are important in cell division 7. the “power plants” of the cell 8. small fingerlike projections in the plasma membrane that increase the efficiency of absorption of materials into the cell 9. a small structure in the nucleus that programs the formation of ribosomes 10. organelle that produces new membranes for the cell

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 47 2.

TOP: Ribosomes ANS A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 45 3.

TOP: Plasma membrane ANS G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 51 4.

TOP: Lysosomes ANS F :

DIF: Memorization

PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 48 5. REF: MCS: 45 6.

TOP: Endoplasmic ANS reticulum B PTS: 1 : Nucleus TOP: ANS: H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 60 7.

TOP: Centrioles ANS D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 49 8.

TOP: Mitochondria ANS I PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 50 9.

TOP: Microvilli ANS J :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 51 10.

TOP: Nucleolus ANS E :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 48

TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

Match each phase of mitosis to its corresponding description. A. interphase D. B. prophase E. C. metaphase 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

anaphase telophase

chromosomes are pulled to opposite sides of the cell DNA replication occurs the spindle fibers form the chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cells the cleavage furrow completely divides the cell into two parts

11.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 60 12.

TOP: Anaphase ANS A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 60 13.

TOP: Cell division PTS: 1 ANS B :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 60 14.

TOP: Prophas ANS e C :

REF: MCS: 60

TOP: Metaphase

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

15.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization REF: Pages 60-61 TOP: Telophase SHORT ANSWER 1.

Describe the structure and function of the plasma membrane.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 45 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Plasma membrane

REF: MCS:

2. Describe or give the function of the following organelles: ribosomes, smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, lysosomes, centrioles, microvilli, and cilia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Cytoplasm

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 46

3. Explain the structure and function of the nucleus, including the function of the nucleolus. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleus

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 45

4. Define or explain passive transport and active transport and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 45 TOP: 5.

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Movement of substances through cell membranes Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 54 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Osmosis and dialysis

REF: MCS:

6. Explain the process of filtration and give an example of a body process that depends on filtration. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Filtration

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 54

7. Explain the functioning of an ion pump and give an example of one in the plasma membrane. Why are they considered active transport mechanisms? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ion pumps

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 55

Define or explain pinocytosis and phagocytosis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 56 TOP: 9.

DIF: Memorization Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

REF: MCS:

Explain the role of ion pumps in both cystic fibrosis and cholera.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 56 TOP: 10.

DIF: Memorization Cell transport and disease What is meant by specific base pairing?

ANS: Answers will vary.

REF: MCS:

PTS: 1 57 TOP: 11.

DIF: Memorization DNA molecule and genetic information

REF: MCS:

What is a gene?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 57 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization DNA molecule and genetic information

REF: MCS:

Briefly describe the process of transcription.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Transcription 13.

Memorization

REF: MCS: 59

Briefly describe the process of translation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Translation

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 59

14. If one side of a DNA molecule is thymine – cytosine – guanine – adenine, what would the nucleotides on the other side be?

ANS: adenine – guanine – cytosine – thymine PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: MCS: 57 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information 15. If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine – thymine – guanine, what would the messenger RNA nucleotides be if this piece of DNA were transcribed?

ANS: uracil – adenine – cytosine PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: MCS: 57 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

16. If a messenger RNA molecule contains the sequence uracil – adenine – cytosine, what would be the nucleotide sequence for the transfer RNA it would attract?

ANS: adenine – uracil – guanine PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: MCS: 57 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information 17.

List the stages of mitosis and explain what occurs in each phase.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 60 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Cell division

REF: MCS:

18. Define or explain the following terms: hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, neoplasm, anaplasia, benign neoplasm, and malignant neoplasm.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 63 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Changes in cell growth and reproduction

REF: Pages 61-

Chapter 4: Tissues, Glands, and Membranes Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of tissue allows for rapid communication between various parts of the body? A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 82 tissue 2.

Which type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the

body? A. B.

epithelial connective

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 73 tissue 3.

A. B.

muscle nervous

DIF: TOP: Epithelial

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

Which type of tissue specializes in movement of the body? epithelial C. muscle connective D. nervous

ANS: C REF: MCS: 80 5.

C. D.

Which is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body? epithelial C. muscle connective D. nervous

ANS: B REF: MCS: 77 4.

DIF: TOP: Nervous

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Memorization

Which type of tissue can be classified by the shape of its cells? epithelial C. muscle connective D. nervous

ANS: A REF: MCS: 73

PTS: 1 TOP: Shape of cells

DIF:

Memorization

6. Which type of tissue frequently has few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix? A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous

ANS: B REF: MCS: 77 7.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

muscle tissue nervous tissue

Memorization

The ideal body-fat percentage is considered to be: 8% to 12% for men and 12% to 15% for women 12% to 18% for men and 25% to 30% for women 15% to 18% for men and 20% to 22% for women 18% to 24% for both men and women

ANS: C REF: MCS: 82 12.

Memorization

Adipose and areolar tissues are examples of: epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 78 11.

DIF:

muscle tissue nervous tissue

The tissue connected and supported by glia cells is: epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue connective tissue D. nervous tissue

ANS: D REF: MCS: 82 10.

Memorization

Smooth, striated, and cardiac are examples of: epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 80-81 TOP: Tissues 9.

Memorization

Which two types of tissue have the greatest ability to repair themselves? C. epithelial and epithelial and muscle connective connective and D. muscle and nervous muscle

ANS: C REF: MCS: 82

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissues and fitness (Health and Well-Being box)

What type of tissue is simple columnar tissue?

A. B.

epithelial tissue connective tissue

C. D.

muscle tissue nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Tissues 13.

A. B.

What type of tissue is bone tissue? epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 79 14.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

A. B.

Memorization

DIF:

muscle tissue nervous tissue

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

Which tissue forms a continuous sheet of cells with no blood vessels? epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue connective tissue D. nervous tissue

ANS: A REF: MCS: 73 18.

DIF:

muscle tissue nervous tissue

Which tissue covers and lines many parts of the body? epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue connective tissue D. nervous tissue

ANS: A REF: MCS: 73 17.

Memorization

What type of tissue is pseudostratified tissue? epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 76-77 TOP: Tissues 16.

DIF:

What type of tissue is simple squamous tissue? epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 74 15.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

muscle tissue nervous tissue

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

Cells of which tissue have the ability to shorten? epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 80

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

muscle tissue nervous tissue

19. Which tissue contains few cells found in intercellular material called matrix? A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue

ANS: B REF: MCS: 77 20.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

epithelial tissue connective tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 73 21.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

DIF: TOP: Tissues

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

muscle tissue nervous tissue

Memorization

Select the type of connective tissue that has a fluid matrix. areolar C. blood bone D. fibrous connective

ANS: C REF: MCS: 78 24.

muscle tissue nervous tissue

Glands are usually made up of which tissue? epithelial tissue C. connective tissue D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 77 23.

C. D.

Which tissue allows rapid communication between body structures? epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue connective tissue D. nervous tissue

ANS: D REF: MCS: 82 22.

Memorization

Which tissue is subdivided according to the shape and the arrangement of

cells? A. B.

A. B.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

How does cartilage differ from other connective tissues? its matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic its matrix is fluid cartilage has more cells cartilage consists of hematopoietic cells

ANS: A REF: MCS: 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

25.

A. B.

Adipose tissue performs which of the following functions? insulation C. support protection D. all of these are correct

ANS: D REF: MCS: 78 26.

A. B.

matrix: A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

An unusually thick scar that develops in the lower layer of the skin tumor collagen bundle

ANS: C REF: MCS: 82 28.

DIF:

The types of tissues that have the greatest capacity to regenerate are: epithelial and C. connective and nervous nervous D. epithelial and muscular and connective epithelial

ANS: B REF: MCS: 82 27. is called a: A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

keloid neoplasm Memorization

These cartilage cells are located within many tiny spaces throughout the osteons hematopoietic

C. D.

glial chondrocytes

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 82-83 TOP: Tissues 29. Since the bladder can expand and return to its normal size, which type of epithelial tissue might you find lining the wall of the bladder? A. cuboidal C. pseudostratified B. transitional D. simple squamous

ANS: B TOP: Tissues

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 79

30. You examine an epithelial tissue specimen, and it has multiple layers of thin, irregularly shaped cells. What type of tissue is this? A. simple squamous C. stratified columnar B. stratified cuboidal D. stratified squamous

ANS: D TOP: Tissues

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 74

TRUE/FALSE 1. and smooth.

There are three types of muscle tissue in the body: skeletal, voluntary,

ANS: F REF: MCS: 73 2.

Memorization

One type of cell that makes up nerve tissue is a glia cell.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 82 3.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

PTS: 1 TOP: Nerve tissue

DIF:

Memorization

Connective tissue usually contains few cells embedded in an intercellular

matrix. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 77 tissue 4.

DIF: TOP: Connective

Epithelial tissue can be classified based on the shape of the cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 73

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

5. Nervous tissue and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

6. Because of muscle tissue’s ability to repair itself, someone who has survived a heart attack will eventually have cardiac muscle tissue that is fully healed and as good as new.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Tissue repair

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 83

7. It would be expected that squamous epithelial tissue would have a flat and scalelike appearance.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 74

TOP: Epithelial tissue

8. Stratified squamous epithelium often contains goblet cells that produce mucus that helps protect the tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Simple columnar epithelium 9.

Cuboidal epithelium most often can be found in glands.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 77 10.

PTS: 1 TOP: Adipose

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Bone and cartilage

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

Smooth, striated, and cardiac tissues are examples of muscle tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 80-81 TOP: Tissues 16.

DIF: TOP: Cardiac

Glia cells are an example of connective tissue.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 82 15.

Memorization

Connective tissue covers the body and many of its parts.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 73 14.

Memorization

Intercalated disks are found in striated (skeletal muscle) tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 79 muscle tissue 13.

DIF:

Cartilage tissue gets its strength from the osteons that make up its matrix.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 79 12.

Memorization

Alveolar connective tissue specializes in the storage of lipid or fat.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 78 11.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Cuboidal epithelium

DIF:

Memorization

An important part of muscle tissue is the matrix found in between cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 77 17.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

Areolar, blood, bone, and cartilage are all examples of connective tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 77-78 TOP: Tissues 19.

DIF:

Both neurons and glia cells make up nervous tissue.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 82 18.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

Goblet cells are found in squamous epithelial tissue.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 76

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

20. Pseudostratified epithelial tissue looks to be two cell layers thick but is actually only one cell layer thick.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 76-77 TOP: Epithelial tissue 21.

The most abundant tissue in the body is muscle tissue.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 77 22.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

The building block of bone tissue is called an osteon.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 79

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

23. Hematopoietic tissue is a connective tissue responsible for blood cell formation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 78-79 TOP: Connective tissue 24. A nerve cell usually has more axons extending from the cell body than dendrites.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 82 tissue

DIF: TOP: Nervous

25. Because of its structure, substances can readily pass through the simple squamous epithelial tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial tissue 26.

REF: MCS: 74

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

Exocrine glands discharge their products directly into the blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 77 28.

Application

Epithelium is rich with blood supply.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 74 27.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Cuboidal epithelium

Memorization

The terms osteon and Haversian system are synonymous.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Bone tissue

DIF:

Memorization

29. Bones are a storage area for calcium and provide support and protection for the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Bone tissue

DIF:

Memorization

30. Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

31. Transitional epithelium is unique in that it is composed of differing cell shapes in a stratified, or layered, epithelial sheet.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 77 32.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 78

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

33. Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as muscle fibers and are characterized by a high degree of contractility.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle tissue

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 80

34. The structural quality and appearance of the matrix and fibers determine the qualities of each type of connective tissue.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

35. When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 83 36.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

Both axons and dendrites are found in nervous tissue.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous tissue

Memorization

37. Hematopoietic tissue is the bloodlike connective tissue found in the red marrow cavities of bones, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 78-79 TOP: Blood and hematopoietic tissue MATCHING Match each tissue type to its corresponding description or example. A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nerve 1. 2. 3. 4.

tissue that covers the body and many of its parts tissue that contains glia cells tissue that makes up most of the heart tissue that has few cells embedded in the intercellular matrix

1. REF: MCS: 73 2.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Epithelial ANS D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 3.

TOP: Nervous ANS tissue C :

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 81 4.

TOP: Muscle tissue PTS: 1 ANS B :

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 77

TOP: Connective tissue

Match each category of epithelial cells with its corresponding definition. A. simple squamous D. pseudostratified columnar B. simple cuboidal E. stratified squamous C. simple columnar F. transitional 5. single layer of cube-shaped cells 6. multiple layers of cells with flat cells at the outer surface 7. single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not 8. layers of cells that appear cubelike when an organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid 9. single layer of flat, scalelike cells 10. single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet-shaped

5. REF: MCS: 77

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

DIF:

Application

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 7. ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

DIF:

Application

DIF:

Application

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 6. ANS: E PTS: REF: Pages 74-75

REF: MCS: 76 TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 8. ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 77 TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 74

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Simple epithelium Match each term with its corresponding definition.

DIF:

Memorization

A. B. C.

neuron neuroglia 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

D. E. axon

cell body dendrite

the cell body of the neuron supportive cells of nervous tissue cell process that transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body the conducting cells of the nervous system cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body

11.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 12.

TOP: Nervous ANS: tissue B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 13.

TOP: Nervous ANS: tissue C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 14.

TOP: Nervous ANS: tissue A

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 15.

TOP: Nervous ANS: tissue E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82

TOP: Nervous tissue

Match each general tissue type with a corresponding specific tissue. A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nerve 16. 17. 18. 19.

bone and adipose tissue neurons and neuroglia tissue in the heart and the biceps of the arm tissue that lines the stomach and intestines

16.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 17.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 18.

TOP: Nervous tissue PTS: 1 ANS C :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81 19.

TOP: Muscle tissue PTS: 1 ANS A :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 75

TOP: Epithelial tissue

Identify the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding definition A. cardiac muscle C. smooth muscle B. skeletal muscle 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

cylindrical, striated, voluntary cells nonstriated, involuntary, narrow fibers with only one nucleus per cell striated, branching, involuntary cells with intercalated disks responsible for willed body movements also called visceral muscle found in the walls of hollow internal organs

20.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 80 21.

TOP: Skeletal muscle tissue ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81 22.

TOP: Smooth muscle tissue ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81 23.

TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 80 24.

TOP: Skeletal muscle tissue ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81 25.

TOP: Smooth muscle tissue ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81

TOP: Smooth muscle tissue

Match the type of connective tissue with its corresponding definition. A. bone areolar connective D. tissue B. adipose E. cartilage C. blood fibrous connective F. tissue 26. matrix is liquid 27. contains numerous structural building blocks called osteons 28. consists mainly of bundles of strong, white collagen fibers arranged in parallel rows 29. specialized to store lipids

30. 31.

consists of delicate webs of fibers and a variety of cells matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic or a gristlelike gel

26.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 78 27.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 28.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 29.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 78 30.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 78 31.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79

TOP: Connective tissue

Match the term with its corresponding definition. A. collagen D. B. osteons E. C. glands 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

goblet cells scar

dense fibrous mass clusters of tubes of secretory cells structural building blocks of bone tissue strong fibers found in dense fibrous connective tissue specialized cells that produce mucus

32.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 33.

TOP: Tissue repair ANS C PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 77 34.

TOP: Epithelial tissue PTS: 1 ANS B :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 35.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 36.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: D PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 76

TOP: Epithelial tissue

Match the type of epithelial tissue with its location. A. skin D. B. wall of the urinary E. bladder C. kidney tubules F. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.

DIF:

Memorization

trachea air sacs in lungs inner surface of the large intestine

transitional simple cuboidal pseudostratified stratified squamous simple squamous simple columnar

37.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 77 38.

TOP: Epithelial tissue ANS C PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 77 39.

TOP: Epithelial tissue ANS D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 76-77 TOP: Epithelial tissue ANS A 40. PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 74-75 TOP: Epithelial tissue ANS E 41. PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 74 42.

TOP: Epithelial tissue ANS F PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Epithelial tissue Match the type of connective tissue with its location. A. areolar C.

hematopoietic tissue fibrous connective tissue

B. 43. 44.

red marrow cavities of bones most widely distributed

45.

tendons

43.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 44.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 78 45.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79

TOP: Connective tissue

Match the term with its corresponding description. A. regeneration D. B. keloid E. C. glia 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

chondrocyte matrix

intracellular material found between cells cartilage cell growth of new tissue thick scar that develops in lower layer of the skin supporting nervous tissue cell

46.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 77 47.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 79 48.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 49.

TOP: Tissue repair ANS B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 50.

TOP: Tissue repair ANS C PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82

TOP: Nervous tissue

Match the general tissue type with its corresponding description. A. epithelial tissue C. B. connective tissue D. 51.

high degree of contractibility

muscle tissue nervous tissue

52.

exists in more varied forms than any of the other tissue types

53. 54.

function is rapid communication covers the body and many of its parts

51.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 80 52.

TOP: Muscle tissue PTS: 1 ANS B :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 83 53.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 82 54.

TOP: Nervous ANS tissue A :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 73

TOP: Epithelial tissue

PTS: 1

Match the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding location. A. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle tissue tissue B. smooth muscle tissue 55. 56. 57.

heart attached to bones helps form the walls of blood vessels

55.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81 56.

TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue ANS A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 80 57.

TOP: Skeletal muscle tissue ANS B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 81

TOP: Smooth muscle tissue

SHORT ANSWER 1. Name and describe the four types of tissues in the body. Give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 73

TOP: Tissues 2. Describe how capable each tissue is in its ability to regenerate. Include an explanation of a keloid. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

REF: Pages 82-83

Memorization

Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 tissue

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Pages 74-77 TOP: Epithelial

Explain why body composition is a good indicator of health and fitness.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Health and well-being 5.

REF: MCS: 82

Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 79

TOP: Blood tissue

6. Describe the three types of muscle tissue and give a location and function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 7.

body.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 80-82 TOP: Muscle tissue

Briefly describe the connective tissue types and give their location in the

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 80 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Connective tissue

REF: Pages 78-

8. Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her doctor advised her that she is over-fat. What might be the explanation for this assessment?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Health and well-being 9.

REF: MCS: 82

List at least three functions of epithelial tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 73 TOP: 10.

DIF: Memorization Epithelial tissue

REF: MCS:

What are the three basic shapes of epithelial cells?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 73 TOP: 11.

DIF: Memorization Epithelial tissue

REF: MCS:

How do exocrine glands secrete their products?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 77 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Simple cuboidal epithelium

REF: MCS:

12. Name the two types of involuntary muscle tissue. Where is each found in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 81 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization Muscle tissue

REF: MCS:

Classify epithelium according to the arrangement of the cells.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 73 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization Epithelial tissue

REF: MCS:

List the types of simple and stratified epithelium and give examples of

each. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 77 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Epithelial tissue

REF: Pages 74-

Discuss the microscopic structure of bone tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 16.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 79

TOP: Bone tissue

Identify the two basic types of cells in nervous tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 82 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nervous tissue

REF: MCS:

17. Summarize the structural characteristics of epithelial tissues that enable them to perform their specific functions.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 tissue

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Pages 73-77 TOP: Epithelial

18. is rejected.

Explain tissue typing and describe what occurs when a donated tissue

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 80 TOP: 19.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Clinical application Explain the importance of measuring body composition.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 82 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Health and well-being

20. Many athletes work to reduce their body fat to the lowest possible percentage. What would happen if too little body fat were present?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Health and well-being

REF: MCS: 82

21. Explain why epithelial and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 22.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 82

TOP: Tissue repair

Describe the different types of matrix found within connective tissue cells.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 tissue

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 77

TOP: Connective

Chapter 5: Disease and Disease-Producing Organisms Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The body’s heaviest organ is the A. liver C. B. brain D. ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 2.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

ANS: B

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system

The skeletal system includes all but which of the following? bones cartilage ligaments All of the above are included in the skeletal system.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 94

A. B.

DIF: TOP:

The primary function of the skin is protection temperature regulation acting as the main sense organ the synthesis of important chemicals

ANS: A REF: MCS: 93 4.

DIF: TOP:

Which of the following is not considered an appendix of the skin? the nails C. sweat-producing glands the tongue D. sensory cells that respond to pain

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 3.

large intestine skin

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Skeletal system

Memorization

Muscle is connected to bone by ligaments C. tendons D. PTS: 1

DIF:

cartilage squamous epithelial tissue Memorization

REF: MCS: 94 6.

A. B.

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach? skeletal C. smooth voluntary D. cardiac

ANS: C REF: MCS: 94 7.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

smooth cardiac

Memorization

Signals generated by the nervous system are called stimuli C. sense organs nerve impulses D. nerves

ANS: B REF: MCS: 94 9.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the heart? skeletal C. voluntary D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 94 8.

TOP: Muscular system

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous system

Memorization

Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system? thyroid C. hypothalamus pituitary D. salivary

ANS: D REF: MCS: 95

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine system

Memorization

10. Which of the following substances is not carried by the cardiovascular system? A. lymph C. carbon dioxide B. hormones D. nutrients

ANS: A REF: MCS: 96 11.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

The thymus gland is part of the digestive C. lymphatic D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 96

system. endocrine nervous

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

12. Which part of the respiratory system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide?

A. B.

pharynx bronchi

ANS: C REF: MCS: 97 13.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Digestive system

Memorization

Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system? liver C. esophagus pancreas D. both A and C

ANS: C REF: MCS: 98 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory system

alveoli trachea

Which of these organs is an accessory organ of the digestive system? stomach C. esophagus liver D. small intestine

ANS: B REF: MCS: 98 14.

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Digestive system

Memorization

Immunosuppressive drugs are given after cochlear implants C.

organ transplants

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Organ transplants

DIF:

Application

hip replacement surgery all of the above procedures REF: MCS: 104

16. Which of the following is not considered part of the central nervous system? A. the brain B. the spinal cord C. the cranial nerves D. All of the above are part of the central nervous system.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 94 17.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous system

Memorization

Which structure is not part of the lymphatic system? tonsils C. thymus gland spleen D. pancreas

ANS: D REF: MCS: 96

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

TRUE/FALSE 1.

Organs are the largest and most complex structural units in the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 91 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ systems of the body

The skin accounts for almost 10% of the body’s weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 3.

The skin is the body’s heaviest organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Skeletal system

Memorization

Cartilage, tendons, and ligaments are also part of the skeletal system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 9.

DIF: TOP:

The skeletal system is composed only of bones.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 8.

DIF: TOP:

One important function of intact skin is to keep out harmful bacteria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 7.

DIF: TOP:

The primary function of the integumentary system is protection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 6.

DIF: TOP:

Sweat glands are part of the integumentary system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 93 Integumentary system 5.

DIF: TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Skeletal system

Memorization

The skeletal system provides a place for the formation of blood cells.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 94

TOP: Skeletal system

10. The bones of the skeletal system are used to store calcium and sodium needed by the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 11.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

Memorization

Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 16.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

The stomach is composed mostly of smooth muscle.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 94 15.

Memorization

The skeletal muscles are also called smooth muscles.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Skeletal system

Tendons are part of the muscular system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 94 13.

Memorization

Bones are considered the main organs of the skeletal system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 94 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Skeletal system

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

Memorization

The heart is composed of cardiac muscle.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 94

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

Memorization

17. The muscular system is composed of four types of muscle tissue: voluntary, smooth, skeletal, and cardiac.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 18.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscular system

Memorization

The organs of the nervous system include the brain, spinal cord, and

nerves. ANS: T REF: MCS: 94

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous system

Memorization

19. The function of the nervous system is accomplished by special signals called stimuli.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 94 20.

Memorization

The sense organs of the body are part of the nervous system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 94 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous system

Memorization

The endocrine and nervous systems perform the same general function.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 95

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine system

Memorization

22. The hormones in the endocrine system perform the same general function as a nerve impulse does in the nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine system and nervous system 23.

Application

REF: Pages 94-95

Hormones are produced by the ductless glands of the endocrine system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 95

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine system

Memorization

24. The functioning of the endocrine system causes a rapid but shortterm effect on the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 95 25.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine system

Memorization

The thymus gland and thyroid gland are located in the neck.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 95

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine system

Memorization

26. The pituitary gland and the hypothalamus gland are endocrine glands that are located in the skull.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 95

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Endocrine glands

Memorization

27. The cardiovascular system contains the heart, arteries, veins, and capillaries.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 96 28.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

Antibodies are white blood cells that fight infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 96

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

29. The primary function of the cardiovascular system is the transport of material from one part of the body to another.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 96

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

30. The lymphatic system circulates lymph the way the circulatory system circulates blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 96 31.

The thymus gland is part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 96 32.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

The lymphatic system eventually returns lymph back to the bloodstream.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 96

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

33. Antibodies and complements are protein compounds that are important in the immune system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 96 34.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

The respiratory system includes the pharynx, trachea, and esophagus.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 97

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory system

Memorization

35. The part of the respiratory system where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged is called the alveoli.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 97 36.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory system

One function of the respiratory system is to help balance the body’s pH.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Respiratory system 37.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 97

Absorption, as well as digestion, is a function of the digestive system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Digestive system 38.

Memorization

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 98

The esophagus is an accessory organ of the digestive system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 98

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Digestive system

Memorization

39. The primary organs of the digestive system form a tube that is called the gastrointestinal tract.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 98 40.

ANS: F 98

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Digestive system

Memorization

The urinary system is composed of the kidney, bladder, ureters,

ANS: T REF: MCS: 98 42.

Memorization

The liver is an accessory organ of the digestive system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 98 41. and urethra.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Digestive system

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Urinary system

Memorization

The male urethra is the only organ in the body that is part of two systems. PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 96 | MCS:

TOP: Urinary system and lymphatic and immune systems 43.

The urinary system plays a role in regulating the body’s pH.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Urinary system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 98

44. In the male reproductive system, the gonads are the testes; in the female, the gonads are the ovaries.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 99

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive system

45. The prostate gland and the scrotum are classified as accessory organs of the male reproductive system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 99

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

46. The vas deferens is a gland that adds fluids to the sperm as they pass through the reproductive system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 99

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

47. The uterus and fallopian tubes are accessory organs of the female reproductive gland.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 99 48.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The reproductive cells produced by the ovaries are called ova.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 99

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

49. An artificial organ that is used to replace a nonfunctioning organ is called a prosthesis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 100 50.

ANS: T

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Artificial organs

Memorization

A cochlear implant is a device that aids in hearing. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 102 51.

TOP: Artificial organs

A hemopump filters the blood if a person suffers kidney failure.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 102

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Artificial organs

Memorization

52. In a kidney transplant, the diseased kidney is removed and the transplanted kidney is put in its place.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 103

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ transplantation

53. Immunosuppressive drugs are given after transplant surgery to prevent the body from rejecting the newly transplanted organ.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 103

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ transplantation

54. Because the function of an organ is so specific, it can be part of only one organ system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 91 55.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ systems of the body

The thoracic duct helps return lymph back to the cardiovascular system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 96

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

56. One function of lymph nodes is to help filter the blood and remove bacterial cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 96 and immune systems

DIF: TOP: Lymphatic

MATCHING Match each organ system with its corresponding function or description. A. D. nervous system integumentary system B. skeletal system E. endocrine system C. muscular system F. cardiovascular system

1. system that contains the body’s heaviest organ 2. system that has the main function of transporting materials from one part of the body to another 3. system that contains three types of organs: skeletal, smooth, and cardiac 4. system that has a secondary function of storing calcium and phosphorus for the body 5. system that regulates body functions rapidly but its effects last for a short duration 6. system that regulates body functions slowly but its effects are long lasting

ANS: A

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 93 2.

TOP: Integumentary system ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 96

TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 94 4.

TOP: Muscular system ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 94 5.

TOP: Skeletal system ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 94 6.

TOP: Nervous system ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 96

TOP: Endocrine system

Match each organ system with its corresponding function or description. A. lymphatic and D. urinary system immune systems B. respiratory system E. male reproductive system C. digestive system F. female reproductive system

bod y

7. 8. 9. 10.

the urethra is part of only this one system in the female system in which the liver is an accessory organ system that produces ova system that, along with the urinary system, helps regulate the pH of the

11.

a system other than the urinary system that includes the male urethra

12.

system that helps move fat-related nutrients from the digestive system

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 98 8.

TOP: Urinary system ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 98 9.

TOP: Digestive system ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 99 10.

TOP: Female syste ANS: reproductive B m1 PTS:

REF: MCS: 97 11.

TOP: Respiratory system ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 99 12.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 96

TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

DIF: Memorization

SHORT ANSWER 1. Give a brief description of the integumentary system and explain its functions.

ANS: Answers will vary PTS: 1 93 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Integumentary system

REF: MCS:

2. List the types of tissues found in the skeletal system and explain the function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 94 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Skeletal system

REF: MCS:

3. Name and explain the function of the three types of muscles in the muscular system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 94 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Muscular system

REF: MCS:

4. List the organs and functions of the nervous system and explain how it functions differently than the endocrine system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 94 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nervous system

REF: MCS:

5. List the organs of the endocrine system and explain how it functions differently than the nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 95 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Endocrine system

REF: MCS:

6. Explain how nerve impulses and hormones have similar functions in their respective systems.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 95 TOP: 7.

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 94Nervous system and endocrine system List the structures and explain the function of the lymphatic system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 96 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Lymphatic and immune systems

REF: MCS:

8. What is the function of the body’s immune system? What proteins are involved in the functioning of the immune system?

ANS:

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 96 TOP: 9.

DIF: Memorization Lymphatic and immune systems

REF: MCS:

List the structures and explain the functions of the respiratory system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 97 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Respiratory system

REF: MCS:

10. List the primary and accessory organs of the digestive system and explain the functions of the digestive system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 98 TOP: 11.

DIF: Memorization Digestive system

REF: MCS:

List the structures and explain the functions of the urinary system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 98 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Urinary system

REF: MCS:

How is the reproductive system different from other systems in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 99 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Reproductive system

REF: MCS:

13. List the structures and explain the functioning of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 99

TOP: Male reproductive system 14. List the structures and explain the functioning of the female reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 100 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system

REF: Pages 99-

15. Name three “artificial organs.” Explain how they function to replace the damaged organ.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 102 TOP: 16.

DIF: Memorization Artificial organs

REF: MCS:

What is organ transplantation? List several rejection problems.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 103 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Organ transplantation

REF: Pages 102-

17. Explain how stem cells can help solve the problem of too few organ donors. What are other possible uses for stem cells?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 103 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Organ transplantation

REF: MCS:

Chapter 6: Mechanisms of Disease Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

A. B.

Which of the following is a sign? a red rash C. a headache D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology 2.

A. B.

Application

Which of the following is a symptom? a red rash C. a headache D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology 3.

DIF:

a pain in the chest both B and C

DIF:

REF: MCS: 114

a pain in your chest both B and C

Application

REF: MCS: 114

Another name for the latent stage in an infectious disease is the

stage. A. B.

etiology communicable

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 114 terminology

C. D.

incubation pathogenic

DIF: TOP: Disease

4. An infectious disease that affects a large number of people worldwide is described as A. endemic C. epidemic B. pandemic D. idiopathic

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 114-115 Patterns of disease 5.

A. B.

Another term for the word neoplasm is tumor C. parasite D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 116 6.

A. B.

TOP:

inflammation degeneration

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease

Which of these factors is not a mechanism of disease? degeneration C. infection inflammation D. malnutrition

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 116-117 of disease 7.

A. B.

Which of these factors is not a risk factor? autoimmunity C. lifestyle D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 117 8.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

DIF:

stress preexisting condition

Memorization

protozoa all of the above

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Which of the following pathogens are considered nonliving? protozoa viruses bacteria All of the above are considered living.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 118 10.

PTS: 1 TOP: Risk factors

Organisms that are called microbes include fungi C. bacteria D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 118 9.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Mad cow disease is caused by a bacterium C. virus D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 120

prion protozoon

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

11. Which type of pathogen can be classified by whether it has RNA or DNA as its nucleic acid? A. bacterium C. prion B. virus D. protozoon

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 118 organisms and particles

DIF: TOP: Pathogenic

12. Which type of pathogen is a microscopic living organism that does not have a nucleus? A. bacterium C. prion B. virus D. protozoon

ANS: A REF: MCS: 120 13.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Which type of pathogen can be classified based on its reaction to Gram

stain? A. B.

bacterium virus

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 120 organisms and particles 14.

A. B.

16.

A. B.

protozoon fungus

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pathogenic animals

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

DIF:

Memorization

An example of a benign tumor that arises from connective tissue is osteoma C. adenoma melanoma D. lymphoma

ANS: A REF: MCS: 128 19.

C. D.

An example of a benign tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is osteoma C. adenoma melanoma D. lymphoma

ANS: C REF: MCS: 128 18.

bacilli rickettsia

The pathogenic animal most likely to be a vector is a(n) arthropod C. roundworm nematode D. flatworm

ANS: A REF: MCS: 124 17.

DIF: TOP: Pathogenic

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Athlete’s foot is caused by a bacterium virus

ANS: D REF: MCS: 122

A. B.

prion protozoon

Bacteria that are rod-shaped are called cocci C. spiral D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 120 15.

C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

DIF:

Memorization

An example of a malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is

A. B.

osteoma melanoma

ANS: B REF: MCS: 129 20.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

hyperplasia anaplasia

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 129 cancer

A. B.

DIF:

Memorization

C. D.

metastasis edema

DIF: TOP: Causes of

Which of these is not a diagnostic imaging method used to detect cancer? radiography C. laser therapy magnetic resonance D. computed imaging tomography

ANS: C REF: MCS: 132 23.

Memorization

Abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells are often produced by a process

called A. B.

22.

DIF:

adenoma lymphoma

An example of a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is osteoma C. adenoma melanoma D. lymphoma

ANS: D REF: MCS: 129 21.

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

Inflammation mediators include all of the following except antibodies C. prostaglandins histamines D. kinins

ANS: A REF: MCS: 133

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response

24. The movement of white blood cells in response to a chemical attractant released during the inflammatory response is called A. edema C. chemotaxis B. inflammatory D. phagocytosis exudate

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 134 response 25.

DIF: TOP: Inflammatory

Which of the following is not an example of a chronic

inflammatory disease?

A. B. C. D.

arthritis asthma chronic bronchitis All of the above are examples of chronic inflammatory disease.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 134 26.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory disease

A syndrome is a

A. B. C. D.

collection of signs and symptoms disease that lasts for a long time disease that lasts for a short time set of subjective abnormalities that are felt only by the patient

ANS: A REF: MCS: 114 27.

A. B.

HIV cannot be spread by sharing drinking fountains sexual contact

ANS: A REF: MCS: 119 28.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses

the birth process

All of the above can spread HIV.

DIF:

Memorization

The mosquito is necessary for the spread of HIV West Nile virus severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) mad cow disease

ANS: B REF: MCS: 119 29.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology

PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses

DIF:

Memorization

Which of these bacteria are considered obligate intracellular parasites? streptococci C. Escherichia coli staphylococci D. chlamydia

ANS: D REF: MCS: 120 TRUE/FALSE

PTS: 1 TOP: Bacteria

DIF:

Memorization

1. A symptom is an objective abnormality that can be seen or measured by someone else.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 114 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology

One sign of measles is the rash that it sometimes causes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology 3.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 114

One sign of the flu is that the patient feels tired all the time he or she has

it. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology 4.

A disease with an undetermined etiology is called idiopathic. Application

REF: MCS: 114

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology

The terms endemic and epidemic mean the same thing.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 115 8.

DIF:

In infectious diseases, the latent stage is also called the incubation period.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 114 7.

REF: MCS: 114

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology 6.

Application

A collection of signs and symptoms of a disease can be called a syndrome.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 114 5.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Patterns of disease

Memorization

An epidemic usually involves more people than a pandemic.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 115

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Patterns of disease

Memorization

9. Pathophysiology is the organized study of the physiological process associated with disease.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 116

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease

10. The fungus that causes athlete’s foot is a parasite, and the person who has the condition is the host.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of disease 11.

PTS: 1 TOP: Risk factors

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 117

Viruses and prions are considered nonliving.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 118 15.

DIF:

With effort, all risk factors for a disease can be avoided.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Risk factors 14.

REF: MCS: 123

Increasing age is a risk factor in all diseases.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 117 13.

Application

Risk factors increase the likelihood of contracting a disease.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 117 12.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

The transmission of West Nile virus requires a vector.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 119

16. One of the unique characteristics of viruses is their use of only RNA as a nucleic acid.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 118 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

One of the unique characteristics of bacteria is their lack of a nucleus.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 120

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

18.

Gram staining is used as a method to classify viruses.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 120 19.

Bacilli are round bacteria that can be found singly, in pairs, or in strings.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 120 20.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Rickettsia is an example of a small bacterium.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 120

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

21. A number of human diseases are caused by a special type of microbe called archaea.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 118 22.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Fungal infections are also called mycotic infections.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 122-123 23.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Both yeasts and molds are considered fungi.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 122

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

24. Flagellates, sporozoa, and nematodes are examples of protists that cause disease.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 123 25.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

A fluke is a type of flatworm.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 124

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

26. The spread of Lyme disease by a tick is an example of a disease spread by an arthropod vector.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Application

REF: MCS: 126

27. Streptomycin, penicillin, and acyclovir are examples of antibiotics used to fight bacterial infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 127 28.

Another word for a neoplasm is a tumor.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 128 29.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

DIF:

Memorization

A lymphoma is more likely to spread than a lipoma.

ANS: T TOP: Neoplasms 32.

DIF:

The spread of a tumor to another part of the body is called metastasis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 128 31.

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

Malignant tumors are less likely to spread than benign tumors.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 128 30.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and control

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 128

An osteoma is more likely to spread than an osteosarcoma.

ANS: F TOP: Neoplasms

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 128-129

33. A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is usually called a carcinoma.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 129 34. a sarcoma.

ANS: T

PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

DIF:

Memorization

A malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is usually called

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 129 35.

A melanoma is an example of a sarcoma.

ANS: F TOP: Neoplasms 36.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 129

Carcinogens are substances that affect genetic activity in some way.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 130 37.

TOP: Neoplasms

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Causes of cancer

Memorization

The risk of contracting all cancers increases with increasing age.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 130

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Causes of cancer

Memorization

38. A biopsy is the removal of a piece of the neoplasm to determine whether it is benign or malignant.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 132 39.

A prognosis is a statement regarding the likely outcome of a disease.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 132 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

For a cancer patient, cachexia is a positive prognostic sign.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 132

41. The inflammatory response has four primary signs: redness, heat, swelling, and pain.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 133

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response

42. Histamines and prostaglandins are two examples of inflammation mediators.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 133

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response

43. The decrease in permeability in the blood vessel walls allows white blood cells and water to more easily leave the bloodstream.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 133

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response

44. An increase in inflammatory exudate being carried through the lymphatic system causes the lymph nodes to enlarge.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 134

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response

45. An increased amount of chemotaxis can lead to an increased amount of pus in an area of inflammation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Inflammatory response

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 134

46. Fever is detrimental to the body’s immune system and should be treated aggressively to return the body to a more normal temperature.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 134

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory disease

47. The difference between an acute and chronic disease is the length of time the disease lasts.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 114 48.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology

The terms etiology and pathogenesis are interchangeable.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 114

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology

49. Because of the advances in medicine, pandemics are less common than they once were.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 114

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Patterns of disease

Memorization

50. A disease can be described as a fluctuation in the homeostasis of the body that goes beyond what is considered a normal fluctuation.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 116 51.

TOP: Mechanisms of disease

A broken leg would be considered a traumatic mechanism of disease.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 116

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease

52. Both autoimmune disorders and degenerative disorders are considered inflammatory disorders.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 118

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease

53. One characteristic of viral diseases is their rapid onset after the initial infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 119

PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses

DIF:

Memorization

54. To prevent the spread of HIV, persons who are HIV positive should have their own bathroom and drinking glasses.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 119 55.

PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses

DIF:

Memorization

Spores allow some viruses to survive adverse environmental conditions.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 120

PTS: 1 TOP: Bacteria

DIF:

Memorization

56. Organisms that cause opportunistic infections require specific environmental conditions before they can become infectious.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 126 57.

Oncogenes are cancer-causing genes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 129 58.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and control

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Causes of cancer

Memorization

Edema occurs when water leaves the blood vessels and enters the tissues.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 133

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation. A. sign F. pathogenesis B. symptoms G. latent stage C. syndrome H. endemic D. etiology I. epidemic E. idiopathic J. pandemic 1. 2.

eviden t 3.

actual pattern of a disease’s development the “hidden” period of a disease before signs and symptoms become objective abnormalities caused by a disease that can be seen or measured

by someone other than the patient 4. a disease that is native to a local region 5. the study of all factors involved in causing a disease 6. the spread of a disease to many people in a more limited geographical area 7. a disease with an undetermined cause 8. subjective conditions of a disease that are felt only by the patient 9. the spread of a disease to a very large number of people in a large or worldwide geographical area 10. a collection of different signs and symptoms that provides a clear picture of a pathological condition 1.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 114 2.

TOP: Disease 1 ANS: terminology G PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 114 3.

TOP: Disease 1 ANS: terminology A PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 114 4.

TOP: Disease 1 ANS: terminology H PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 115 5.

TOP: Patters of disease ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 114 6.

TOP: Disease ANS: terminology I PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 115 7.

TOP: Patters of disease PTS: 1 ANS: E

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 114 8.

TOP: Disease 1 ANS: terminology B PTS:

REF: MCS: 114 9.

TOP: Disease ANS: terminology J PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 115 10.

TOP: Patters of disease ANS: C PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 114

TOP: Disease terminology

DIF: Memorization

Match each disease-causing agent to its corresponding definition or characteristic. A. virus E. protozoan B. prion F. nematode C. bacterium G. platyhelminth D. fungus H. arthropod group that includes flatworms and an organism that causes schistosomiasis 12. group of agents that can be classified according to whether it contains RNA or DNA as its nucleic acid 13. group that includes yeast and mold and includes the organism responsible for athlete’s foot 14. group that includes “nonliving” pathogenic protein particles 15. group that includes large parasites known as roundworms 16. group that includes small organisms without nuclei that can be classified by their response to Gram stain 17. group that includes small organisms with nuclei that can be classified by their means of locomotion 18. group that includes ticks and fleas that are frequently vectors for other pathogens 11.

11.

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

12.

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 118 13.

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and ANS: particles D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 122 14.

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and ANS: particles B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 119

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: MCS: 124

15.

ANS: F

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 18. ANS: H PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 124 16. REF: MCS: 120 particles 17.

PTS: 1

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and ANS: E

REF: MCS: 123

REF: MCS: 124

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. neoplasm D. metastasis B. benign E. carcinoma C. malignant F. sarcoma 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

usually refers to malignant tumors arising from epithelial tissue another term for a tumor that actually means “new matter” a tumor that remains localized in the tissue from which it arose refers to the spreading process of a tumor refers to a type of tumor that spreads to other parts of the body term that usually denotes a malignant tumor that arises from connective

tissue 19.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 129 20.

TOP: Neoplasms ANS A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 128 21.

TOP: Neoplasms ANS B :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 128 22.

TOP: Neoplasms ANS D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 129 23.

TOP: Neoplasms ANS C :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

ANS: F

TOP Neoplasms : 1 PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 128129 24.

REF: MCS: 129

TOP: Neoplasms

SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the difference between a symptom and a sign and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 114 TOP: 2.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Disease terminology Define or explain the following terms: endemic, epidemic, and pandemic.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 115 TOP: 3.

DIF: Memorization Patterns of disease

REF: MCS:

List and explain the eight mechanisms of disease discussed in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 117 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of disease

REF: Pages 116-

4. List and explain the risk factors of disease discussed in this chapter. Which risk factors are capable of being avoided?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 117

TOP: Risk factors

5. Describe a virus and list the ways in which a virus can be classified. Name a disease that is caused by a virus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 119 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: Pages 118-

Describe a prion. Name a disease that is caused by a virus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 120 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: Pages 119-

7. Describe a bacterium and list the ways in which a bacterium can be classified.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 121 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: Pages 120-

8. Explain why bacteria that form spores are potentially more dangerous than bacteria that don’t form spores.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 121 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Pathogenic organisms and particles

9. Describe a fungus. Name a disease caused by a fungus and list the two forms that fungi can take.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 123 TOP: 10. the chapter.

DIF: Memorization Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: Pages 122-

List and briefly describe the four classes of protozoa described in

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 123 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: MCS:

11. List and briefly describe the three pathogenic animals discussed in the chapter. Which of these groups is most likely to be a vector?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 124 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pathogenic organisms and particles

REF: Pages 123-

12. List and briefly describe the four methods of disease prevention and control discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 128 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Prevention and control

REF: Pages 124-

13. Define or explain the following terms: neoplasm, benign, malignant, metastasis, carcinoma, and sarcoma. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 128-129

14. Give an example of a benign tumor and a malignant tumor that arise from epithelial tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 128 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Neoplasms

REF: MCS:

15. Give an example of a benign tumor and a malignant tumor that arise from connective tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 129 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Neoplasms

REF: Pages 128-

16.

List and briefly explain the causes of cancer discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 130 TOP: 17.

DIF: Memorization Causes of cancer

REF: Pages 129-

Explain the means of cancer detection discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 132 TOP: 18.

DIF: Memorization Pathogenesis of cancer

REF: Pages 130-

Explain the treatment methods for cancer discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 131 TOP: 19.

DIF: Memorization Pathogenesis of cancer

REF: MCS:

What are the four primary signs of inflammation?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 133 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Inflammatory response

REF: MCS:

20. Explain why it is helpful in the inflammatory response to dilate the blood vessels and make the vessel walls more permeable. Include a definition of chemotaxis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Inflammatory response

REF: MCS: 133

21. What causes fever and what advantage does fever give the body in fighting disease?

ANS:

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 134 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Inflammatory disease

REF: MCS:

Chapter 6: The Integumentary System a Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE

A. B.

Which of the following is not an epithelial membrane? cutaneous C. synovial mucous D. serous

ANS: C REF: MCS: 144 2.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not a connective tissue membrane? cutaneous mucous synovial Neither A nor B is a connective tissue membrane.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 145 3.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes

The pleura in the thoracic cavity is an example of a membrane. mucous C. cutaneous serous D. synovial

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 145 membranes 4.

A. B.

The skin is an example of a mucous serous

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 144 membranes 5.

A. B.

membrane. C. D.

cutaneous synovial

DIF: TOP: Epithelial

The lining of the mouth is an example of a mucous C. serous D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes 6.

DIF: TOP: Epithelial

DIF:

Application

membrane. cutaneous synovial REF: MCS: 145

Which type of membrane contains connective tissue? a mucous C. a synovial membrane membrane

a serous membrane

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Classification of body membranes 7.

A. B.

The visceral peritoneum covers the wall; chest C. organs; abdominal D.

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 144 membranes 8.

cutaneous membrane mucous membrane

ANS: C REF: MCS: 145

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

of the

cavity. wall; abdominal organs; chest

DIF: TOP: Epithelial

synovial membrane

epithelial membrane

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structure of the skin

Memorization

Which statement is not true of the dermis? It is a cutaneous membrane. It is composed mostly of connective tissue. It contains the stratum germinativum. All of the above are true of the dermis.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 146 11.

REF: Pages 144-145

Which statement is not true of the epidermis? It is a cutaneous membrane. It is composed mostly of connective tissue. It is the outermost layer of skin. It contains the stratum germinativum.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 146 10.

Application

Which type of membrane lines the space between bones in joints that

move? A.

all of the above

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structure of the skin

Memorization

The stratum corneum is composed mostly of dead cells is the innermost layer of the epidermis

contains melanocytes that give the skin color Both B and C describe the stratum corneum.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 146 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structure of the skin

Memorization

The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the

in the stratum

. A.

keratin; germinativum melanin; germinativum

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of the skin 13.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

melanin; corneum

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 146-147

DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structure of the skin

Memorization

Hair growth begins from a small cup-shaped cluster of cells called the hair follicle C. hair papilla lanugo D. hair shaft

ANS: C REF: MCS: 151 16.

Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin? collagen connective tissue nerve endings melanocytes, which give the skin color sweat glands

ANS: C REF: MCS: 146 15.

keratin; corneum

A blister forms at the junction of the dermis and epidermis stratum corneum and stratum germinativum dermis and the subcutaneous tissue both A and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 147-148 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

The arrector pili muscle causes alopecia C.

lanugo

goose pimples

ANS: B REF: MCS: 152 17.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

Which of the following is not an example of an eccrine gland? sweat gland C. sebaceous gland sudoriferous gland D. perspiration gland

ANS: C REF: MCS: 154 19.

male pattern baldness

The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail is called the nail body C. lunula cuticle D. nail bed

ANS: D REF: MCS: 153 18.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

Which type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair? sebaceous gland C. eccrine gland sudoriferous gland D. apocrine gland

ANS: A REF: MCS: 154

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

20. Burns that are characterized by blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as degree burns. A. first C. third B. second D. fourth

ANS: B REF: MCS: 157 21.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

DIF:

Memorization

The rule of nines is used to determine the depth of burns degree of burns body surface area that has been burned both A and B

ANS: C REF: MCS: 158 22.

PTS: 1 TOP: Burns

DIF:

Memorization

The general name given to mycotic skin infections is tinea C. warts impetigo D. scabies

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 158 infections 23.

A. B.

Which skin infection is also called furuncles? tinea C. impetigo D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 159 infections 24.

A. B.

25.

A. B.

28.

urticaria decubitus

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

Which is the most common type of skin cancer? C. squamous cell carcinoma basal cell D. carcinoma

ANS: A REF: MCS: 161

mole? A.

DIF: TOP: Skin

Which skin disorder results from an autoimmune disease? decubitus C. urticaria scleroderma D. eczema

ANS: B REF: MCS: 160 27.

DIF: TOP: Skin

What is another term for a pressure sore? plaque C. scleroderma D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 159 26.

warts boils

Which skin infection is caused by a papillomavirus? tinea C. warts impetigo D. boils

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 159 infections

A. B.

DIF: TOP: Skin

PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer

DIF:

melanoma Kaposi sarcoma

Memorization

Which is the most serious form of skin cancer that can develop from a squamous cell carcinoma

melanoma

basal cell carcinoma

Kaposi sarcoma

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 161-162 29.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following membranes do not contain epithelial tissue? mucous serous synovial All of the above membranes contain epithelial tissue.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 144 30.

A. B.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin cancer

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of the body membranes

The parietal pleura covers the of the wall; chest C. organs; chest D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 144

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Serous membranes

cavity. wall; abdominal organs; abdominal

Memorization

31. A membrane that lines a body surface that opens to the exterior of the body is most likely a membrane. A. synovial C. mucous B. serous D. serous or mucous

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 145 membranes 32. membrane. A. B.

A membrane that lines a closed body cavity is most likely a synovial serous

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 144-145 33.

A. B.

C. D.

mucous serous or mucous

DIF: Memorization TOP: Serous membranes

The crescent-shaped white area near the root of the nail is called the cuticle C. lunula nail bed D. nail body

ANS: C REF: MCS: 153 34.

DIF: TOP: Mucous

PTS: 1 TOP: Nails

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of apocrine glands? They are skin glands. They are sweat glands.

They are found primarily in the axilla and genital area. They are found distributed over most of the body surface.

D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 154 35.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) glands

Which of the following is not a function of the hypodermis? helps insulate the body contains receptors for deep pressure touch can be used as an energy source helps protect the underlying tissue

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 151 the skin

DIF: TOP: Structure of

TRUE/FALSE 1.

Epithelial membranes contain both epithelial and connective tissue.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 144 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of body membranes

Connective tissue membranes contain both epithelial and connective

tissue. ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 144 of body membranes 3.

The skin is considered to be a cutaneous epithelial membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 144 membranes 4.

DIF: TOP: Epithelial

The lungs are covered by the parietal pleura.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes 5.

DIF: TOP: Classification

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 145

The stomach and intestines are covered by the visceral pleura.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 145

6. The membranes lining the thoracic and abdominal cavities are both parietal serous membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 144

7. Both pleurisy and peritonitis are inflammations of parietal serous membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes 8.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 144-145

Serous membranes line the digestive and respiratory tracts.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 145 membranes

DIF: TOP: Epithelial

9. Mucocutaneous junctions are the meeting place of two epithelial membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes 10.

Application

REF: MCS: 145

The skin is made up of two layers: the epidermis and the dermis. DIF: Memorization TOP: The skin

The hypodermis is another term for the epidermis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 146 14.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 145-146 13.

REF: MCS: 145

Synovial membranes are connective tissue membranes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 145 12.

Application

The bursae contain both epithelial and connective tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Connective tissue membranes 11.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

The stratum germinativum allows injury to the skin to heal rapidly.

ANS: T TOP: The skin

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 146

15. The protein keratin gives the dermis the strength and toughness to protect the tissues underneath the skin.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 146

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

16. The ability of the skin to tan depends on the functioning of the melanocytes.

ANS: T TOP: The skin 17.

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 147

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

The dermis contains more connective tissue than the epidermis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 146 22.

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

A separation of the dermis from the subcutaneous tissue results in a blister.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 150 21.

REF: Pages 146-147

Albinism and vitiligo occur because of the same direct cause.

ANS: T TOP: The skin 20.

Application

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by a loss of melanocytes.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 147 19.

DIF:

The loss of melanocytes leads to a condition called vitiligo.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 147 18.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

The dermis is thicker than the epidermis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 146

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

23. The arrangement of the dermal papillae can be used as a method of identification.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 150 24.

DIF:

Memorization

Port-wine stain birthmarks usually disappear by age 7 with no treatment.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 151 25.

PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

Lanugo is the fine hair that a newborn begins to grow at about 3 months of

age.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 151 of the skin 26. hair follicle.

The cap-shaped cluster of cells where hair growth begins is called the

ANS: F REF: MCS: 151 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

The part of the hair that we see is called the hair shaft.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 151 28.

DIF: TOP: Appendages

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

Male pattern baldness is a type of alopecia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 152

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

29. The contraction of the arrector pili muscle causes the skin to recoil back if it is pulled away from the underlying tissue.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 152 30.

The visible part of the nail is called the nail bed.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 153 31.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

The nail root is hidden because it is covered by a fold of skin called the

lunula. ANS: F REF: MCS: 153

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

32. The fingernails can be used to evaluate whether the blood is carrying enough oxygen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Appendages of the skin 33.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 153

Sweat glands of the body include two varieties: eccrine and apocrine

glands. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 153 of the skin 34.

Apocrine glands greatly outnumber the eccrine glands.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 153 35.

DIF: TOP: Appendages

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

Eccrine glands contribute to the temperature regulating function of the

skin. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 154 of the skin 36.

DIF: TOP: Appendages

Antiperspirants are used to suppress the functioning of the apocrine

glands. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Appendages of the skin 37.

Application

REF: MCS: 154

Sebaceous glands produce an oil-like substance called sebum.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 154 38.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

One of the causes of acne is the overproduction of oil from the apocrine

glands. ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 154

DIF: TOP: Appendages

of the skin

39.

The topical application of Accutane is a treatment of acne.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 154 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin

Both keratin and melanin assist the skin in its function of protection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of the skin

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 155

41. The temperature regulating function of the skin can only be accomplished by a high concentration of blood vessels in the skin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 155-156

DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skin

42. The skin more effectively cools the body on drier days than on days with high humidity.

ANS: T 156 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Functions of the skin

Synthesis

REF: Pages 155-

43. One of the most damaging effects of a major burn is its effect on fluid and electrolyte balance of the body.

ANS: T TOP: Burns 44.

PTS: 1

Application

REF: MCS: 157

A typical sunburn causes a second-degree burn.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 157 45.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Burns

DIF:

Memorization

Blisters, severe pain, and swelling are characteristics of a third-degree

burn. ANS: F REF: MCS: 157

PTS: 1 TOP: Burns

DIF:

Memorization

46. The “rule of nines” divides the body into nine areas to estimate body surface area.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 158

PTS: 1 TOP: Burns

DIF:

Memorization

47.

Impetigo is caused by the papillomavirus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 158 infections 48.

Tinea is a general term for a mycotic infection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 158 infections 49.

DIF: TOP: Skin

Lying in one position too long can cause a pressure sore called a decubitus

ulcer. ANS: T REF: MCS: 159 disorders 50.

Wheals are a characteristic sign of scleroderma.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 160 51.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

Melanoma is a serious form of skin cancer that can develop from a mole.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 161

PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer

DIF:

Memorization

52. Many pathophysiologists believe that exposure to the sun’s UV rays is a contributing cause of skin cancer.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 162 53.

PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Serous membranes

Memorization

Mucous membranes line the respiratory and digestive tracts of the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 145 55.

Memorization

Mucous membranes are found only in the closed cavities of the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 144 54.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mucous membranes

Memorization

One function of the hypodermis is to store energy.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 151 56.

TOP: Structure of the skin

The upper layer of the stratum corneum is made up mostly of dead cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 146

PTS: 1 TOP: Epidermis

DIF:

Memorization

57. The hereditary condition that is characterized by a total or partial lack of melanin is called vitiligo.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 147

PTS: 1 TOP: Epidermis

DIF:

Memorization

58. Most of the skin covering the body is thick skin; thin skin is found only on the face and on the fingertips.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 146 59.

PTS: 1 TOP: Hair

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Receptors

DIF:

Memorization

Pacini corpuscles are also called tactile corpuscles.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 152 62.

Memorization

The Meissner corpuscle detects pressure deep in the dermis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 152 61.

DIF:

Hair follicles are necessary for hair to grow.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 151 60.

PTS: 1 TOP: Dermis

PTS: 1 TOP: Receptors

DIF:

Memorization

Both vitamin A acid and Accutane are used to treat acne.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 154

PTS: 1 TOP: Acne

DIF:

Memorization

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. cutaneous E. parietal peritoneum membrane

B. C. D.

visceral pleura F. parietal pleura G. visceral peritoneum H. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

mucous membrane synovial membrane bursae

membrane that lines the spaces between bones in joints membrane that lines the walls of the chest cavity membrane that lines the tubes of respiratory and digestive systems small cushionlike sacs that are lined with synovial membrane membrane that lines the walls of the abdominal cavity tissue that covers the organs in the chest cavity membrane of which the skin is made tissue that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 145 2.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: membranes C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 144 3.

TOP: Epithelial membranes ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 145 4.

TOP: Epithelial membranes ANS: H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 145 5.

TOP: Connective tissue ANS: membranes E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 144 6.

TOP: Epithelial membranes ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 144 7.

TOP: Epithelial membranes ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 144 8.

TOP: Epithelial membranes ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 144

TOP: Epithelial membranes

Match each skin disease with its corresponding symptoms or cause. A. impetigo G. decubitus ulcer B. acne H. squamous cell carcinoma C. tinea I. scleroderma D. warts J. psoriasis

E. F.

boils scabies

K. L.

melanoma Kaposi sarcoma

9. an autoimmune disease that affects blood vessels and connective tissues in the skin 10. condition caused by a papillomavirus 11. virulent skin cancer that can develop from a mole 12. condition that usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 19 and results from a fivefold increase in production of sebum 13. another term for a pressure sore 14. a common chronic skin disease that is characterized by silvery white scalelike plaques 15. a highly contagious skin infection that occurs most often in young children 16. the most common form of skin cancer; a slow-growing cancer of the epidermis 17. infections of the hair follicle that are also called furuncles 18. a skin condition caused by itch mites 19. skin cancer most commonly seen in people with immune deficiencies 20. a general term used to describe fungal infections of the skin

9. REF: MCS: 160 10.

ANS: I

PTS: 1

TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization disorders DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 159 11.

TOP: Skin infections PTS: 1 ANS K :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 161 12.

TOP: Skin cancer ANS B :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 154 13.

TOP: Appendages of the ANS skin G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 159 14.

TOP: Vascular and inflammatory ANS skin J PTS: 1 :

disorders DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 160 15.

TOP: Vascular and inflammatory ANS skin A PTS: 1 :

disorders DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 158 16.

TOP: Skin infections PTS: 1 ANS H

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 161

TOP: Skin cancer

17.

ANS: E

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 159 18.

TOP: Skin ANS infections F :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 159 19.

TOP: Skin ANS infections L PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 162 20.

TOP: Skin cancer ANS C :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 158

TOP: Skin infections

PTS: 0

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. hypodermis H. eccrine gland B. hair papilla I. stratum germinativum C. dermal papillae J. arrector pili D. Meissner corpuscle K. sebaceous gland E. stratum corneum L. lunula F. lanugo M. apocrine gland G. melanin N. Pacini corpuscle 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.

outer layer of the epidermis made mostly of dead cells muscle attached to the side of the hair follicle small cuplike cluster of cells from which hair growth begins skin receptor that detects light touch layer of fat below the dermis; also called subcutaneous tissue parallel rows of peglike projections in the dermis sweat glands that are found only in the axillae and around the genitals crescent-shaped white area of the nail pigment that gives the skin its color skin gland that secretes an oil called sebum inner layer of the epidermis that is in constant mitosis sweat gland that is the most numerous soft, fine hair that is found on newborn infants skin receptor that detects pressure deep in the dermis

21. REF: MCS: 146 22.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Epidermis ANS J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 152

TOP: Hair

23.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 151 24.

TOP: Hair ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 152 25.

TOP: Receptors ANS A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 151 26.

TOP: Structure of the skin PTS: 1 ANS C :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 150 27.

TOP: Dermis ANS M :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 154 28.

TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) ANS glands L PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 153 29.

TOP: Nails ANS G :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 146 30.

TOP: Epidermis ANS K :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 145 31.

TOP: Sebaceous glands PTS: 0 ANS I :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 146 32.

TOP: Epidermis ANS H :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 153 33.

TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) ANS glands F PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 151 34.

TOP: Hair ANS N :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 152

TOP: Receptors

PTS: 0

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Describe and give the location of the epithelial membranes of the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 145 TOP: 2.

DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes

REF: Pages 144-

Describe the connective tissue membranes of the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 145 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Connective tissue membranes

REF: MCS:

3. Describe the epidermis of the skin. Explain how the epidermis contributes to the protective function of the skin.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 146

TOP: The skin

Describe the dermis of the skin.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 146

5. Describe the three types of birthmarks discussed in the chapter and the likelihood of each resolving without treatment. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The skin

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 150-151

Describe the structure of hair.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 152 TOP: 7.

DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin Describe the different types of alopecia.

REF: Pages 151-

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 152 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin

Describe the structure of nails.

REF: MCS:

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 153 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin

REF: MCS:

9. Describe the two different types of sweat glands in terms of their location and the type of fluid they secrete.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 154 TOP: 10.

DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin

REF: Pages 153-

Describe the location and secretions of the sebaceous glands.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 154 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin

REF: MCS:

11. Explain the causes of acne and give some possible treatments for the condition.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 154 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin

REF: MCS:

Explain the role of the skin in the body’s temperature regulation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 156 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Functions of the skin

REF: Pages 155-

13. Explain why the skin has more difficulty regulating body temperature on humid days than on dry days.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 156 TOP: 14.

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 155Functions of the skin Explain the differences among first-, second-, third-, and fourth-degree

burns. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 157 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Burns

REF: MCS:

15. If a person was burned on the front and back of both legs, about what percentage of the body surface area would be burned?

ANS: About 36% PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 158

TOP: Burns

16. List the characteristics and causes of the five skin infections discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 158 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Skin infections

REF: Pages 158-

17. Pressure sores are a problem for people who are bedridden and debilitated. Explain why you would expect this to be the case.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: MCS: 159 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders 18.

Briefly describe the disorders hives, scleroderma, psoriasis, and eczema.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 161 TOP: 19.

DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 159Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders Describe the four types of skin cancer identified in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer

20.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 161-162

List the “ABCD” rule of self-examination for melanoma.

ANS: Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter PTS: 1 162 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Skin cancer

REF: MCS:

Chapter 7: The Skeletal System Bones and Joints Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The skeletal system function of hematopoiesis refers to the A. storage of calcium for the body B. process of blood cell formation C. attachment of muscles for movement D. ability of the skeleton to protect the more delicate structures of the body ANS: B REF: MCS: 172 2.

A. B.

Which term refers to the shaft of a long bone? epiphysis C. periosteum D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 172 3.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones

diaphysis endosteum

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones

Which membrane lines the medullary cavity? epiphysis C. periosteum D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 173

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones

Which term refers to the ends of a long bone? epiphyses C. periosteum D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 173 5.

diaphysis endosteum

Which is the strong fibrous membrane covering most of the long bone? epiphysis C. diaphysis periosteum D. endosteum

ANS: B REF: MCS: 173 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

diaphysis endosteum

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones

Which is the location in the long bone where hematopoiesis occurs? epiphysis C. diaphysis periosteum D. medullary cavity

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones 7.

A. B.

REF: MCS: 173

osteon trabecula

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

The needlelike threads of spongy bone are called lamellae C. canaliculi D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 173 9.

Synthesis

The structural unit of compact bone is called the lamella C. canaliculus D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 173 8.

DIF:

osteons trabeculae

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

The rings of calcified matrix that make up the haversian system are called lamellae C. osteon canaliculi D. trabeculae

ANS: A REF: MCS: 173

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

10. Which structures allow nutrients to reach the osteocytes through the haversian system? A. lamellae C. osteons B. canaliculi D. trabeculae

ANS: B REF: MCS: 173 11.

A. B.

Bone-building cells are called osteoblasts C. osteoclasts D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 173 12.

A. B. ANS: D

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

osteocytes chondrocytes

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth

Which of the following are cartilage cells? osteoblasts C. osteoclasts D. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

osteocytes chondrocytes

REF: MCS: 174

13.

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

Which of these are bone-resorbing cells?

A. B.

osteoblasts osteoclasts

ANS: B REF: MCS: 175 14.

A. B.

The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the haversian system C. epiphyseal plate diaphysis D. chondrocytes

A. B.

17.

A. B.

There are 12 14

A. B.

sphenoid ethmoid

DIF: TOP: Axial

pairs of true ribs. C. D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 184 skeleton 19.

REF: MCS: 176

An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called lordosis C. scoliosis kyphosis D. convexities

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 184 skeleton 18.

Application

How many bones are in the adult vertebral column? 12 C. 24 19 D. 26

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 181 skeleton

A. B.

DIF:

Which bone of the skull does not contain sinuses? zygomatic C. frontal D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 179 skeleton 16.

osteocytes chondrocytes

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Bone formation and growth 15.

C. D.

5 7

DIF: TOP: Axial

The sutures are an example of which type of joint? diarthroses C. amphiarthroses synarthroses D. none of the above

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations)

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 191

20.

A. B.

Which type of joint uses cartilage to connect bones? diarthroses C. amphiarthroses synarthroses D. none of the above

ANS: C REF: MCS: 191 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Diarthrotic joints

make up the vast majority of joints in the body allow the least amount of movement are surrounded by a joint capsule both A and C

B. C. D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 191 22.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

23.

Memorization

A synovial membrane would most likely be found in the suture of the skull a hinge joint at the symphysis pubis All of the above joints would have a synovial membrane.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations)

A. B.

Memorization

DIF:

Analysis

REF: MCS: 191

Which joints permit the widest range of movement? hinge C. saddle pivot D. ball-and-socket

ANS: D REF: MCS: 192

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

24. Which bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies? A. rickets C. osteoporosis B. osteomalacia D. Paget disease

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 196 bone disease

DIF: TOP: Metabolic

25. Ensuring that young children have a sufficient amount of vitamin D in their diet will prevent A. rickets C. osteoporosis

osteomalacia

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

D. DIF:

Paget disease Application

REF: MCS: 196

26. People with what condition go through episodes of “frenzied” bone resorption and bone growth? A. rickets C. osteoporosis B. osteomalacia D. Paget disease

ANS: D REF: MCS: 197 27.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease

Another name for a compound fracture is a(n) open C. closed D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 199 fractures 28.

A. B.

29.

A. B.

A. B. C.

avulsion fracture dislocation

DIF: TOP: Joint

Which of the following is not a form of inflammatory arthritis? rheumatoid arthritis C. gouty arthritis osteoarthritis D. infectious arthritis

ANS: B TOP: Joint disorders 31.

DIF: TOP: Joint

Subluxation is another term for sprain C. strain D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 200 disorders 30.

DIF: TOP: Bone

Bouchard nodes are a common sign of which of the following conditions? sprain C. osteoarthritis strain D. dislocation

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 200 disorders

A. B.

fracture. comminuted impacted

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 199

The storage function of the skeletal system refers to the storage of the red marrow for the process of blood cell formation mineral sodium for the body mineral calcium for the body

both B and C

ANS: C REF: MCS: 172 32.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

The humerus is an example of a(n) long C. short D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 172 bones 33.

A. B.

DIF: TOP: Types of

What is the name of the spongy bone found inside flat bone? trabecula C. cancellous diploë D. osteon

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 173 flat bones 35.

flat irregular

The frontal bone of the skull is an example of a(n) bone. long C. flat short D. irregular

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 173 bones 34.

bone.

DIF: TOP: Structure of

The parietal bones form which suture with the frontal bone? fontanel C. squamous lambdoidal D. coronal

ANS: D REF: MCS: 181

PTS: 1 TOP: Skull

DIF:

Memorization

36. The region of the vertebral column that contains the largest number of bones is the A. cervical C. lumbar B. thoracic D. sacrum

ANS: B REF: MCS: 182 37.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

The hole in the center of the vertebrae is called the vertebral foramen C. spinous process foramen magnum D. transverse process

ANS: A REF: MCS: 181

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

38.

Which of the following bones is not part of the arm?

A. B.

humerus scapula

ANS: B REF: MCS: 185 39.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Upper extremity

ilium acetabulum

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 185-186 40.

ulna radius Memorization

Which of the following is not one of the bones that makes up the hip

bone? A. B.

A. B.

C. D.

ischium pubis

DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower extremity

Which of the following is the longest bone of the body? humerus C. tibia fibula D. femur

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 186 extremity

DIF: TOP: Lower

TRUE/FALSE 1.

A function of the skeletal system is to act as a storage area for calcium.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 172 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeleton

The skeletal system supplies a place for the formation of blood cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 172

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeleton

3. The medullary cavity is the site for blood cell formation in the adult skeleton.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones 4.

Application

REF: MCS: 172

The periosteum is deep to the endosteum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones 5.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 173

Long bones have one diaphysis and two epiphyses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones 6.

The medullary cavity is deep to the periosteum. DIF:

Application

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

Unlike osteocytes, chondrocytes are located in lacunae.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 174 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

Cartilage cells are called chondrocytes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 174 13.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

Nutrients needed by the osteocytes are carried through the canaliculi.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 173 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

Osteocytes live in the canaliculi of the osteon.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 173 11.

REF: MCS: 173

The lamellae of the osteon surround the central canal.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 173 10.

REF: MCS: 173

Trabeculae and osteons have similar functions in the two types of bone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage 9.

REF: Pages 172-173

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones 8.

Application

Yellow marrow is stored in the medullary cavity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 173 7.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts have opposite functions in bone formation and

growth. ANS: T REF: MCS: 175 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth

The repair of a broken bone increases the activity of osteoblasts.

ANS: T 176 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Bone formation and growth

REF: Pages 175-

16. If the body requires more calcium in the blood, the activity of osteoclasts will increase.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Bone formation and growth

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 175

17. Growth of a bone can only continue if there is cartilage in the center of the diaphysis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 175 18.

Growth of a bone occurs at the epiphyseal plates.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 175 19.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth

There are more than 20 bones in the skull.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 179 skeleton 20.

The skull contains eight sinuses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 179 skeleton 21.

ANS: T

DIF: TOP: Axial

An infection of a sinus is called mastoiditis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 180 skeleton 22.

DIF: TOP: Axial

The soft spots on a baby’s skull are called fontanels. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 181

TOP: Axial skeleton

23. The joining point of the temporal and occipital bones of the skull forms the lambdoidal suture.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 181 skeleton 24.

In the vertebral column, the coccyx is inferior to the sacrum.

ANS: T TOP: Axial skeleton 25.

PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 182

DIF: TOP: Axial

Floating ribs join the costal cartilage of the seventh rib.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 184 skeleton 28.

Application

Scoliosis results from an exaggerated lumbar curve.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 184 skeleton 27.

DIF:

The sacral and cervical parts of the vertebral column form convex curves.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 183 skeleton 26.

DIF: TOP: Axial

Floating ribs are named “floating” because they are not joined to any other

bone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 184 skeleton 29.

The scapula and clavicle form the pectoral girdle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 185 skeleton 30.

DIF: TOP: Axial

DIF: TOP: Appendicular

The most important functional difference between the male and the

female skeleton is the size. ANS: F REF: MCS: 190

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Differences between a man's and woman's skeleton

31. The most important functional difference between the male and the female skeleton is related to its role in reproduction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Differences between a man's and woman's skeleton 32.

The hyoid bone forms both a diarthrotic and a synarthrotic joint.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations) 33.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 191

Nonmoving joints are called diarthrotic joints.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 191 34.

REF: MCS: 190

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

The symphysis pubis is an example of an amphiarthrotic joint.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 191

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

35. A skeleton composed of nothing but synarthrotic joints would have virtually no movement.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 191 36.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

A slipped disk damages a diarthrotic joint.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations) 37.

Memorization

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 191

All diarthrotic joints have joint capsules.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 191

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

38. Ligaments are strong bands of connective tissue that connect bones to other bones.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 192

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

39. The articular cartilage has two functions: to act as a shock absorber and to reduce friction in the joint.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 192 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

The hip joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 192 42.

Memorization

Flexion is a characteristic movement of a pivot joint.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 192 41.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

Extension is a characteristic movement of a hinge joint.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 194

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Joints (articulations)

Memorization

43. Osteosarcoma is a very aggressive cancer that usually affects men between the ages of 50 and 70.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 195 44.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage

Chondrosarcoma is a cancer of cartilage tissue.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 196

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage

45. An adequate amount of vitamin D in a child’s diet can prevent Paget disease.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 196 46.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease

One of the signs of osteoporosis is “dowager’s hump.”

ANS: T REF: MCS: 196

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease

47. Osteomyelitis is more likely to result from a closed fracture than from an open fracture.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 197-198

TOP: Bone infection and bone fractures 48.

A sprain involves ligaments and a strain usually involves muscle tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 200 disorders 49.

Uric acid is the usual cause of infectious arthritis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 201 disorders 50.

DIF: TOP: Types of

The patella is an example of a sesamoid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 172 bones 53.

DIF: TOP: Joint

The patella is an example of a flat bone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 172 bones 52.

DIF: TOP: Joint

Lyme disease or Lyme arthritis is an example of infectious arthritis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 201 disorders 51.

DIF: TOP: Joint

DIF: TOP: Types of

The diploë are the bony portions of spongy bone that surround the open

spaces. ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 173 the flat bone 54.

DIF: TOP: Structure of

All bones begin as cartilage.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 174

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth

55. Because of the continuous wear and stress on the bones of athletes, their bones tend to be weaker than the bones of less active people.

ANS: F REF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

MCS: 176 56.

TOP: Bone formation and growth The skull, vertebrae, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle make up the axial

skeleton. ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 179-183 57.

There are more bones in the facial part of the skull than in the cranium.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 179 58.

PTS: 1 TOP: Skull

DIF:

Memorization

Mastoiditis occurs in the temporal bone.

ANS: T TOP: Skull 59.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the skeleton

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 180

There are four fontanels in the skull of a newborn.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 181

PTS: 1 TOP: Skull

DIF:

Memorization

60. The cervical region of the vertebral column contains more bones than any other region.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 181 61.

The hole in the center of the vertebrae is called the vertebral foramen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 181 62.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

The first seven ribs are called true ribs.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 184 63.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

PTS: 1 TOP: Thorax

DIF:

Memorization

The olecranon process is found in the skeleton of the upper extremity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 185

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Upper extremity

Memorization

64.

There are 28 phalanges in the human skeleton.

ANS: T 186 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Upper extremity and lower extremity

REF: Pages 185-

65.

The acetabulum is part of the hip bone.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 186

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lower extremity

Memorization

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation. A. hematopoiesis F. osteocytes B. diaphysis G. osteoclasts C. epiphyses H. osteoblasts D. periosteum I. osteon E. endosteum J. trabeculae 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

main structural unit of compact bone process of blood cell formation tough connective tissue covering of the bone bone resorbing cells ends of a long bone bone-building cells support structures in spongy bone shaft of the long bone bone cells that live in the haversian system layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity

1. REF: MCS: 173 2.

ANS: I

PTS: 1

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization cartilage DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 172 3.

TOP: Functions of the skeletal ANS: system D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 173 4.

TOP: Structure of long ANS: bones G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 175 5.

TOP: Bone formation and ANS: growth C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 176 6.

TOP: Structure of long ANS: bones H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 175

TOP: Structure of long bones

ANS: J

REF: MCS: 173 8.

Memorization

TOP: Structure of long bones PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage ANS: E PTS: 0 DIF:

Memorization REF: MCS: 173

TOP: Structure of long bones

Match each bone with its corresponding description or location. A. femur G. B. radius H. C. carpals I. D. ischium J. E. metacarpals K. F. scapula L. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

DIF:

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 172-173 9. ANS: F REF: MCS: 173 10.

PTS: 1

tarsals patella humerus phalanges tibia metatarsals

ankle bones bone that joins with the clavicle to make up the shoulder girdle thigh bone wrist bones one of the bones that joins with two others to form the hip bone of the upper arm bones of the foot one of the bones of the forearm bones of the fingers bones of the hand shinbone kneecap

11.

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 189 12.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178 13.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178 14.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 187 15.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 185 16.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 185 17.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: L PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 187 18.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178 19.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: J PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178 20.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: E PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178 21.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: K PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178 22.

TOP: Appendicular skeleton ANS: H PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 178

TOP: Appendicular skeleton

Match each bone disorder with its corresponding description. A. osteoarthritis F. B. osteosarcoma G. C. Paget disease H. D. rickets I. E. osteoporosis J. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.

osteomyelitis chondrosarcoma sprain strain rheumatoid arthritis

an injury to a ligament around a joint a disease that has “frenzied” bone growth and resorption cancer of the bone an infection of the bone occurs in children as a result of a vitamin D deficiency can be caused by overstretching a muscle the most common noninflammatory joint disease cartilage cancer an autoimmune disease type of arthritis a bone condition usually found in postmenopausal women resulting from

calcium deficiency 23.

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 200 24.

TOP: Joint disorders ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 197 25.

TOP: Metabolic bone disease ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 195 26.

TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 197-198 27. ANS: D

TOP: Bone infection PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 196 28.

TOP: Metabolic bone disease ANS: I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 200 29.

TOP: Joint disorders ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 200 30.

TOP: Joint disorders ANS: G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 196 31.

TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage ANS: J PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 200-201 32. ANS: E REF: MCS: 196

TOP: Joint disorders PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Metabolic bone disease

SHORT ANSWER 1.

List and explain the five functions of the skeletal system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 172 TOP: 2.

DIF: Memorization Functions of the skeletal system

REF: MCS:

List and define the six structures of the long bone discussed in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 173 TOP: 3.

DIF: Memorization Structure of long bones

REF: Pages 172-

Describe the structure of the osteon.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 173 TOP: 4.

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage Describe the structure of cartilage.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 174 TOP: 5.

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage Explain why bone heals better than cartilage.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 174 TOP: cartilage 6.

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 173Microscopic structure of bone and

Explain the process of endochondral ossification.

ANS: Answers will vary PTS: 1 176 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Bone formation and growth

REF: MCS:

7. A teenager wants to be given growth hormone to increase his height. The doctor took an x-ray of his wrist to determine whether treatment could be started. Explain what the doctor was looking for.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 177 TOP:

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 176Bone formation and growth

8. How is the difference in the role of reproduction reflected in the difference between the male skeleton and female skeleton?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: MCS: 190 TOP: Differences between a man's and woman's skeleton 9.

Explain synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints and give an example of

each. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 191 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Joints (articulations)

REF: MCS:

10. Explain the structure of a diarthrotic joint and give three examples of diarthrotic joints.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 192 TOP: 11. the chapter.

DIF: Memorization Joints (articulations)

REF: Pages 191-

Name and explain the types of metabolic bone diseases discussed in

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 197 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Metabolic bone disease

REF: Pages 196-

12. Explain the joint disorder osteoarthritis. Include signs of the condition and risk factors for the condition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 200 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Joint disorders

REF: MCS:

13. Name and describe the three types of inflammatory arthritis discussed in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 202 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Joint disease

REF: Pages 200-

Chapter 8: The Muscular System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

A. B.

Another name for a voluntary muscle is striated C. cardiac D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 212 2.

A. B.

Intercalated disks are found in striated C. cardiac D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 212 3.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

A. B. C. D.

smooth all of the above Memorization

smooth muscle both A and B

Memorization

muscle. smooth striated

DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue

In the bending of the elbow, the triceps brachii is the synergist biceps brachii is the prime mover biceps brachii is the antagonist brachialis is the prime mover

ANS: B REF: MCS: 216 6.

muscle.

Another name for visceral muscle is cardiac C. voluntary D.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 212-213 5.

Memorization

Which type of muscle tissue contains striations? voluntary muscle C. cardiac muscle D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 212 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

muscle. skeletal both A and C

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

In extending the elbow, the triceps brachii is the C. prime mover

brachialis is the prime mover

biceps brachii is the D. prime mover

ANS: A REF: MCS: 216 7.

A. B. C. D.

triceps brachii is the antagonist

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii are synergistic for each other both have their origin in the forearm are antagonist to each other both have their insertions in the shoulder

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: MCS: 216 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle | Functions of skeletal muscle 8.

Tonic contractions

A. B. C. D.

help maintain posture cause an oxygen debt in the body produce large amounts of lactic acid both B and C

ANS: A REF: MCS: 216 9.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

During strenuous exercise

A. B. C.

an oxygen debt can occur lactic acid can be created in the muscle almost all the contractions are tonic contractions both A and B

D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 217 10.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

Which of the following does not happen when a muscle contracts? A motor neuron stimulates a muscle cell. The muscle cells partially contract based on the amount of resistance. The impulse crosses the neuromuscular junction. The stimulus rises above threshold.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle stimulus 11.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 218

Lifting a book off the desk is an example of what type of contraction?

A. B.

isometric twitch

C. D.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction

isotonic both A and B Application

REF: MCS: 219

12. Trying to lift a 500-pound weight would result in what type of muscle contraction? A. isometric C. isotonic B. twitch D. both A and B

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction 13.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 219-220

Muscle hypertrophy

A. B. C. D.

results from long periods of disuse results from endurance training is an increase in muscle size results from an increase in blood vessels to a muscle

ANS: C REF: MCS: 220 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

Endurance training results in

A. B. C. D.

muscle atrophy an increase in blood vessels to a muscle muscle hypertrophy an increase in muscle fibers

ANS: B REF: MCS: 220 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

Strength training causes

A. B. C. D. ANS: C REF: MCS: 220

muscle atrophy an increase in blood vessels to a muscle muscle hypertrophy an increase in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

16. If the muscles of a weightlifter and a marathon runner were compared, the marathon runner would have A. more mitochondria in each muscle cell

B. C. D.

larger muscle cells more muscle cells both A and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

Application

REF: MCS: 220

17. If the muscles of a weightlifter and a marathon runner were compared, the weightlifter would have A. more mitochondria in each muscle cell B. larger muscle cells C. more muscles D. both B and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles 18.

A. B.

The movement that is opposite of flexion is abduction C. rotation D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 221 19.

A. B.

Application

REF: MCS: 220

extension supination

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

Shaking your head “no” is what type of movement? supination C. abduction rotation D. dorsiflexion

ANS: B REF: MCS: 222

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

20. The autoimmune muscle condition that is characterized by muscle weakness, especially in the face and throat, is called A. fibromyositis C. myasthenia gravis B. myalgia D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 230 muscular disorders

DIF: TOP: Major

21. Which type of muscle is characterized by cells with tapered ends and a single nucleus? A. cardiac C. striated B. smooth D. voluntary

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 212

DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

22.

A. B.

Which type of muscle tissue specializes in contraction or shortening? cardiac C. striated smooth D. all of the above

ANS: D REF: MCS: 213 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Memorization

The origin of a muscle is the

A. B. C.

attachment to the more movable bone attachment to the more stationary bone muscle most responsible for a specific movement both A and C

D. ANS: B REF: MCS: 213 24.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

The insertion of a muscle is the attachment to the more movable muscle attachment to the more stationary muscle muscle most responsible for a specific movement both B and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 213 skeletal muscle

DIF: TOP: Structure of

25. The “head” that forms the cross bridge when the muscle cell contracts is part of which protein? A. actin C. myosin B. the thin filament D. both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 213 structure and function

DIF: TOP: Microscopic

26. Which substance is stored in the muscle’s endoplasmic reticulum and then released when a nerve signal stimulates a muscle fiber? A. myoglobin C. ATP B. calcium ions D. sarcomeres

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 215 structure and function 27.

DIF: TOP: Microscopic

Which of the following is not a primary function of the muscular system?

protection of internal organs not protected by bone movement maintaining posture producing heat for the body

B. C. D. ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 216 skeletal muscle

DIF: TOP: Functions of

28. Which type of contraction can be seen in an isolated muscle but plays a minimal role in normal muscle activity? A. isometric C. isotonic B. twitch D. tectonic

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 218-219 29.

A. B.

Moving a body part away from the midline of the body is called abduction C. rotation pronation D. adduction

ANS: A REF: MCS: 221 30.

A. B.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

Damage to a ligament results in which type of injury? strain C. cramps myalgia D. sprain

ANS: D REF: MCS: 227

PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle injury

DIF:

Memorization

TRUE/FALSE 1.

Both smooth muscles and cardiac muscles have striations.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 212 2.

ANS: F

Memorization

Both skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles have striations.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 212 3.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Memorization

Both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscles have intercalated disks. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 212 4.

Unlike skeletal muscles, smooth muscle cells have only one nucleus.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 212 5.

TOP: Muscle tissue

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Skeletal muscles are also called striated or visceral muscles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 212-213 6.

ANS: F

Application

REF: MCS: 213

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

The basic functional unit of a skeletal muscle is a myofilament.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 213 12.

DIF:

Tendons attach muscle to bone at both the origin and insertion sites.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 213 11.

REF: MCS: 213

Bursae and tendon sheaths perform the same function.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 213 10.

Application

Tendons attach bone to bone.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 213 9.

DIF:

In bending the elbow, the insertion is at the shoulder.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle 8.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue

In bending the elbow, the insertion is in the forearm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle 7.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

The thick myofilaments in a skeletal muscle are composed of actin. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 213 13.

The thin myofilaments in a skeletal muscle are composed of actin.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 213 14.

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

Another name for a muscle cell is a muscle fiber.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 213

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

15. The model that is used to explain how a muscle contracts is called the sliding filament model.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 215 skeletal muscle

DIF: TOP: Structure of

16. Sarcomeres are separated from each other by dark bands called myofilaments.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 213 skeletal muscle

DIF: TOP: Structure of

17. During a muscle contraction, the Z lines of that muscle come closer together.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle 18.

REF: MCS: 213

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

Both calcium and ATP are needed for a muscle to contract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle 20.

Application

ATP is produced by muscle contraction.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 215 19.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 215

When the elbow is bent, the biceps brachii is the prime mover.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 216

21.

When the elbow is bent, the triceps brachii is the prime mover.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 216

22. When the elbow is straightened, the triceps brachii becomes the antagonistic muscle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 216

23. A muscle can be a prime mover or an antagonist, depending on the movement of the joint.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle 24.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 216

Muscle tone maintains posture.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 216

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

25. Shivering helps a person with hypothermia because muscle contractions produce heat.

ANS: T 217 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Functions of skeletal muscle

REF: Pages 216-

26. Almost all of the ATP energy used in muscle contraction is released in the form of heat.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 216

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

27. When a muscle cannot be supplied with enough oxygen, lactic acid is used to produce ATP.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 216-217

DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

28. The production of lactic acid is a result of energy release without a sufficient amount of oxygen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 217

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

29. The continued heavy breathing after strenuous exercise is an attempt by the body to “repay” the oxygen debt.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 217

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

30. All the motor neurons that stimulate a single muscle are referred to as a motor unit.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 218

PTS: 1 TOP: Motor unit

DIF:

Memorization

31. Chemicals are released at the neuromuscular junction that stimulates the muscle to contract.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 218

PTS: 1 TOP: Motor unit

DIF:

Memorization

32. The least amount of stimulus required for a muscle to contract is called the threshold stimulus.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 218

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle stimulus

Memorization

33. The muscle cells will contract slightly for a small stimulus and much more forcefully for a stronger stimulus.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 218

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle stimulus

Memorization

34. When a person picks up a 5-pound weight, muscle cells contract less forcefully than when a person picks up a 20-pound weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle stimulus

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 218

35. The difference between picking up a 5-pound weight and picking up a 20- pound weight is the number of motor units stimulating the muscle to contract.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 218

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle stimulus

Memorization

36. Twitch contractions are the normal muscle contraction used in most actions.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 219 37.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction

In an isotonic contraction, the origin point moves toward the insertion

point. ANS: F REF: MCS: 219 38.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle itself actually shortens.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 219

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction

39. In an isometric contraction, the muscle does not shorten, so there is no tension on the muscle.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 219 40.

The main effect of strength training is muscle atrophy.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 220 41.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contraction

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

The main effect of endurance training is muscle hypertrophy.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 220

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

42. The main effect of endurance training is an increase in the number of blood vessels in a muscle.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 220

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

43. A football lineman exercises to develop hypertrophy and a marathon runner exercises to increase blood supply to a muscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles 44.

Application

REF: MCS: 220

If a prime mover caused extension, the antagonist would cause flexion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: MCS: 221 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions and functions 45.

Abduction moves a body part toward the midline of the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 221 46.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

In the anatomical position, the hands are in the supinated position.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 222

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

47. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion refer to movements of the ankle that change the position of the foot.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 222 48.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

A strain is usually a muscle injury, and a sprain is usually a ligament

injury. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 227 muscular disorders 49. the kidneys.

A severe muscle injury can have a negative effect on functioning of

ANS: T REF: MCS: 228 50.

DIF: TOP: Major

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders

Muscular dystrophy is a muscle disorder caused by a viral infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 228

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders

51. A full family history would be most helpful in determining the risk for myasthenia gravis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Major muscular disorders

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 230

52. Due to its cause, girls are more likely to have Duchenne muscular dystrophy than are boys.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Major muscular disorders

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 228

53. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by the body’s inability to make the protein dystrophin.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 228 54.

Myasthenia gravis is a condition that is carried on the X chromosome.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 230 55.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 230 56.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders

Bursae and tendon sheaths are lined with synovial membrane.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 213

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

57. The “heads” that form cross bridges during muscle contraction are part of the actin molecule.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 213 58.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure and function

When a muscle contracts, its insertion bone moves toward its origin bone.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 216

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

59. Antagonist muscles and synergist muscles act to oppose the movement of the prime mover.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 216

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

A. B. C. D. E.

voluntary muscle visceral muscle intercalated disks origin sarcomere 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

F. G. H. I. J.

insertion actin Z line bursae myosin

protein that makes up the thick myofilament another name for smooth muscle structures that are found only in cardiac muscle structures that separate one sarcomere from another protein that makes up the thin myofilament usually the nonmoving attachment point of a muscle another term for skeletal muscle usually the moving attachment point of a muscle a small fluid-filled sac that lies between some tendons and bones functional unit of contraction of a skeletal muscle

ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 213 2.

TOP: Structure of skeletal ANS muscle B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 213 3.

TOP: Muscle tissue ANS C PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 212 4.

TOP: Muscle tissue ANS H PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 213 5.

TOP: Structure of skeletal ANS muscle G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 215 6.

TOP: Structure of skeletal ANS muscle D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 213 7.

TOP: Structure of skeletal ANS muscle A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 212 8.

TOP: Muscle tissue ANS F PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 213 9.

TOP: Structure of skeletal ANS muscle I PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 213

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

10.

ANS: E

Memorization REF: MCS: 213

PTS: 0

DIF:

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

Match each muscle with its corresponding description or location. A. triceps brachii E. zygomaticus B. pectoralis major F. deltoid C. masseter G. biceps brachii D. sternocleidomastoid H. latissimus dorsi 11. one of the muscles used to close the jaw 12. muscle that forms the thick rounded prominence over the shoulder and upper arm 13. can be referred to as the “smiling muscle” 14. muscle on the front of the upper arm responsible for flexion of the elbow 15. large fan-shaped muscle that covers the upper chest 16. pair of muscles that allow a person to flex the head to the chest 17. large muscle on the lower back 18. muscle on the back of the upper arm that is responsible for elbow extension

11.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 223 12.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226 13.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 223 14.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226 15.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226 16.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 223 17.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226 18.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226

TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

Match each muscle to its corresponding location or description. A. external oblique E. B. gastrocnemius F. C. quadriceps G. D. intercostal muscles H. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

tibialis anterior hamstring muscles gluteus maximus rectus abdominis

muscle that makes up much of the substance of the buttock primary calf muscle muscles that are located between the ribs group of muscles that includes the biceps femoris one of the three layered muscles on the side of the abdominal wall muscle group made up of the rectus femoris and the three vastus muscles strap-shaped muscle that runs down the center of the abdomen muscle located on the front surface of the lower leg

19.

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 227 20.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 227 21.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 227 22.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 227 23.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226 24.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 227 25.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 226 26.

TOP: Skeletal muscle ANS: groups E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 227

TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. flexion F. pronation

B. C. D. E.

extension abduction adduction

27. 28. 29. smalle 30.

G. H. I. supination

rotation plantar flexion dorsiflexion

moving part of the body toward the midline of the body turning the hand so the palm is facing anteriorly moving part of the body away from the midline of the body the movement that makes the angle between two bones at their joint

31. movement around a longitudinal axis 32. movement that directs the bottom of the foot downward so you are standing on your toes 33. turning the hand so the palm is facing posteriorly 34. movement that makes the angle between two bones at their joint larger 35. movement that elevates the top of the foot so the toes are pointing upward

27.

REF: MCS: 221 28.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 222 29.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS C :

REF: MCS: 221 30.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions ANS A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization :

REF: MCS: 221 31.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS G :

REF: MCS: 221 32.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS H :

REF: MCS: 222 33.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS F :

REF: MCS: 222 34.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS B :

REF: MCS: 221 35.

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions ANS I PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 222

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Describe the three types of muscle tissue and explain where each is found.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 213 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Muscle tissue

REF: Pages 212-

2. Explain how the intercalated disks allow the heart to contract more efficiently.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 212

TOP: Muscle tissue

3. Explain why bursae and tendon sheaths are said to perform similar functions.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 213 TOP: 4.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Structure of skeletal muscle Explain the microscopic structure of the skeletal muscle.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 215 TOP: 5.

DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle

REF: Pages 213-

Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 215 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle

REF: MCS:

6. Explain the roles of the prime mover, the synergist, and the antagonist in muscle contraction.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 216 TOP: 7.

DIF: Memorization Functions of skeletal muscle

REF: MCS:

Explain muscle fatigue, the oxygen debt, and how the oxygen debt is

“paid.” ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 217 TOP: 8.

DIF: Memorization Functions of skeletal muscle

REF: MCS:

What makes up a motor unit and what is the neuromuscular junction?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Motor unit

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 218

Define isotonic and isometric contractions and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 220 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 219Types of skeletal muscle contraction

10. Explain the different effects that strength training and endurance training have on a muscle.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 220 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

REF: MCS:

11. Give an example of a sport or activity that benefits from strength exercise. Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 200 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

12. Give an example of a sport or activity that benefits from endurance exercise. Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 220 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

13. Name and explain the movements produced by skeletal muscle contraction.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 220 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 218Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions Explain the differences among a sprain, a strain, and a cramp.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 228 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Major muscular disorders

REF: Pages 227-

Explain how a severe muscle injury can lead to kidney damage.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 228 TOP: 16.

DIF: Memorization Major muscular disorders

REF: MCS:

Describe the progression of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 228 TOP: 17.

DIF: Memorization Major muscular disorders

REF: MCS:

Explain why Duchenne muscular dystrophy usually affects boys.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 228 TOP: 18.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Major muscular disorders Explain the progression of myasthenia gravis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 230 TOP: 19.

DIF: Memorization Major muscular disorders

REF: MCS:

Explain the cause of myasthenia gravis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 230 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Major muscular disorders

REF: MCS:

Chapter 9: The Nervous System: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves Test Bank 1. The eye is considered part of the MULTIPLE CHOICE A. central C. B. peripheral D.

nervous system.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system 2. system. A. B.

central sympathetic

C. D.

nervous

peripheral parasympathetic

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system

Axons

A. B. C.

are usually highly branched carry nerve impulses toward the cell body carry nerve impulses away from the cell body both A and B

D. ANS: C REF: MCS: 243 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

Dendrites

A. B. C. D.

are usually highly branched carry impulses away from the cell body are usually surrounded by myelin all of the above

ANS: A REF: MCS: 243 5.

A. B.

REF: MCS: 242

The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the

ANS: C REF: MCS: 242

autonomic sympathetic

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

Sensory neurons are also called interneurons C. efferent neurons D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 243

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

afferent neurons glia cells

A. B.

Motor neurons are also called interneurons C. efferent neurons D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 243 7.

A. B.

tissue? A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

Which type of glia cell turns into a microbe-eating cell in inflamed brain microglia oligodendrocyte

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 244 nervous system 10.

A. B. C. D.

11.

C. D.

astroglia neurolemma

DIF: TOP: Cells of the

Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis? It is considered a myelin disorder. Oligodendrocyte injury or death occurs. The disease is most common in women between the ages of 20 and 40. It is usually the result of a neuroma.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 244-245

A. B.

motor neurons afferent neurons

Which type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain? microglia C. astrocytes oligodendrocytes D. neurolemma

ANS: B REF: MCS: 244 9.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

Another name for connecting neurons is interneurons C. efferent neurons D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 243

afferent neurons glia cells

DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous tissue

Which of the following statements is not true of nervous system tumors? Most tumors develop from neurons. Neuroma is a general name for a nervous system tumor. Multiple neurofibromatosis is an example of a nervous system tumor.

Most tumors in the nervous system result from the metastasis of other types of tumors.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 245 12.

A. B.

The outermost covering of a nerve is called the epineurium C. endoneurium D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 246 13.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs

DIF:

perineurium fascicles

Memorization

The most simple nervous system pathway is a single neuron C. pathway is a two-neuron D. pathway

ANS: B REF: MCS: 246 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous system

is a three-neuron pathway contains at least one interneuron

Memorization

During a nerve impulse

the interior of the neuron becomes more negative sodium ions are pumped out of the neuron sodium ions are allowed into the neuron the entire neuron becomes positively charged

B. C. D. ANS: C REF: MCS: 247 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nerve impulses

Memorization

Saltatory conduction is called “saltatory” because it is caused by sodium chloride is much slower than nonsaltatory conduction occurs only in the dendrites occurs only in the axons

A. B. C. D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 249 16.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nerve impulses

Memorization

Which of the following structures is not part of a synapse?

A. B. C. D.

synaptic knob synaptic cleft neurotransmitter plasma membrane of the postsynaptic cell

ANS: C REF: MCS: 249

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

17. Which of the following neurotransmitters is not considered a catecholamine? A. norepinephrine C. dopamine B. acetylcholine D. serotonin

ANS: B REF: MCS: 249 18.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

spinal cord midbrain

Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? produces antidiuretic hormone helps regulate body temperature plays a part in the so-called arousal or alerting mechanism helps regulate water balance DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

Which of the following is not a function of the thalamus? controls appetite relays impulses to the cerebral cortex from sense organs associates sensations with emotions plays a part in the so-called arousal or alerting mechanism

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 253-254 21.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 252-253 20.

DIF:

The vital centers are located in the medulla oblongata C. pons D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 252 19.

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum? It is the second largest part of the brain.

It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum. It is responsible for muscle coordination. It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.

C. D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 252 22.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following statements is not true of the spinal cord? It is the primary reflex center. It contains both gray and white matter. It extends from the occipital bone to the third sacral vertebra. It transmits impulses to and from the brain.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 252 23.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

The outermost layer of the meninges is the pia mater C. choroid plexus D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 261 24.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the skull and the dura mater dura mater and the arachnoid mater arachnoid mater and the pia mater pia mater and the brain

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 261-262 25.

A. B.

have A.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

Another name for tic douloureux is sciatica C. shingles D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 266 26.

arachnoid mater dura mater

Bell palsy trigeminal neuralgia

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nerve disorders

If a person never had chickenpox, it is less likely that he or she will ever sciatica

Bell palsy

shingles

ANS: B 267 TOP: 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: Peripheral nerve disorders

cardiac muscle tissue skeletal muscles

B. ANS: B REF: MCS: 268

Application

REF: Pages 266-

smooth muscles

all of the above

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic nervous system

Somatic motor neurons

connect the spinal cord to the effector organ with only one neuron produce epinephrine as their neurotransmitter synapse at the collateral ganglion both A and B

B. C. D. ANS: A REF: MCS: 269 29.

A. B. C. D.

30.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters

Which of the following neurons is classified as an adrenergic fiber? parasympathetic preganglionic neuron sympathetic preganglionic neuron sympathetic postganglionic neuron both A and B

ANS: C REF: MCS: 271 31.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic nervous system

Which of the following neurons is classified as a cholinergic fiber? parasympathetic preganglionic neuron sympathetic preganglionic neuron sympathetic postganglionic neuron both A and B

ANS: D REF: MCS: 271

A. B.

trigeminal neuralgia

The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal

cord to A.

28.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters

The outer membrane of a Schwann cell is called the neurolemma C. node of Ranvier myelin D. glia

ANS: A REF: MCS: 244 32.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons

A nerve is also called a tract

a group of peripheral axons

ANS: B REF: MCS: 245 34.

DIF:

Memorization

The indentations between Schwann cells are called neurolemmas C. the nodes of Ranvier myelin D. glias

ANS: C REF: MCS: 244 33.

PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons

PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

DIF:

Memorization

considered gray matter both A and C

DIF:

Memorization

The perineurium is

a tough, fibrous sheath covering the whole nerve another name for a fascicle a thin wrapping of fibrous tissue around each axon a thin fibrous tissue surrounding a group of axons

B. C. D. ANS: D REF: MCS: 246 35.

A. B. C. D.

36.

ANS: A

DIF:

Memorization

A reflex arc may not have which of the following? a sensory neuron an interneuron a motor neuron All reflex arcs must have all of the above.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 246

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is an example of a morphinelike neurotransmitter? enkephalin C. dopamine acetylcholine D. serotonin PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 249

TOP: Neurotransmitters

37. Parkinson disease is a nervous disorder resulting from a deficiency of which neurotransmitter? A. acetylcholine C. serotonin B. enkephalin D. dopamine

ANS: D REF: MCS: 250 38.

A. B.

39.

Memorization

Which of the following is not considered part of the brainstem? medulla oblongata C. pons cerebellum D. midbrain

ANS: B REF: MCS: 252

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Neurotransmitters

PTS: 1 TOP: Brainstem

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system? cranial nerves spinal nerves the autonomic nervous system All of the above are part of the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 263

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

TRUE/FALS E

1. The endocrine system and the nervous system both help regulate body function.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 239

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

2. The autonomic nervous system is considered a subdivision of the central nervous system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 242 3.

ANS: T

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system

Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes share a common function. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 243-

244 TOP:

Cells of the nervous system

4. The axon of a sensory neuron usually transmits an impulse to an interneuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system 5.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 243

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 243

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 244

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

The “star cells” produce myelin for axons of the central nervous system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 244 11.

REF: MCS: 243

Myelin surrounds the dendrites of both afferent and efferent neurons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 243 10.

Application

Nodes of Ranvier are found only on dendrites.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system 9.

DIF:

The dendrite of a motor neuron receives impulses from an interneuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system 8.

REF: MCS: 243

The dendrite of a sensory neuron receives impulses from an interneuron.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system 7.

Application

The axon of a motor neuron usually transmits an impulse to a muscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system 6.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

An inflammation of the brain tissue increases the activity of microglia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 243

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system

12. Multiple sclerosis is a disease resulting from disorders in the functioning of oligodendrocytes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 244-245

DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous tissue

13. Because gliomas are usually benign tumors, they are never life threatening.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 245

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous system

14. The cause of multiple neurofibromatosis is an autoimmune response or a viral infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 245 15.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 245 16.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 246

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the nervous system

Nerves are composed mostly of dendrites. PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

DIF:

Memorization

Gray matter is gray because it doesn’t have myelin. PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

DIF:

Memorization

17. Each axon in a nerve is surrounded by a thin sheet of fibrous connective tissue called the perineurium.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 246

PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

DIF:

Memorization

18. The endoneurium is deep to the perineurium, which is deep to the epineurium.

ANS: T TOP: Nerves

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 246

19. The difference between a two- and a three-neuron reflex is that a three- neuron reflex contains an interneuron.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 247

PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs

DIF:

Memorization

20. The knee-jerk reflex goes from receptor neuron to interneuron to effector neuron.

ANS: F TOP: Reflex arcs 21.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 246

The effector organ of the knee-jerk reflex is the muscle that extends the

knee. ANS: T TOP: Reflex arcs 22.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 247

All interneurons are entirely within the gray matter.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 247 23.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs

DIF:

Memorization

The resting neuron has a more positive charge inside than outside.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 247

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nerve impulses

Memorization

24. The interior of a neuron that is carrying a nerve impulse has more sodium ions in it than the interior of a neuron that isn’t carrying a nerve impulse.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nerve impulses 25.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 247

Only myelinated axons have saltatory conduction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 245-246

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve impulses

26. The synaptic knob is the small space separating the pre- and postsynaptic neurons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 249

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

27. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that attach to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 249

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

28. The function of most neurotransmitters is to cause the interior of the neuron to become more positively charged.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 249

29. Neurotransmitters are inactivated by being broken down by enzymes or reabsorbed by the presynaptic neuron.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 249

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

30. Serotonin and dopamine are morphinelike neurotransmitters that lessen the sensation of pain.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 249

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

31. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine both belong to a group of compounds called catecholamines.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 249 32.

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

Parkinson disease can be considered a neurotransmitter deficiency disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse 34.

DIF:

Viagra can be considered a man-made nitric oxide.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 249 33.

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 250

Parkinson disease is treated by trying to get more dopamine into the brain.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 250

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

35. Dopamine and levodopa are equally effective in treating Parkinson disease because they are both able to enter the brain.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 250 36.

PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

Memorization

The medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain make up the brainstem.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 252 37.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

The vital centers of the brainstem are located in the midbrain.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 252

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

38. Because of its function, the hypothalamus could also be considered part of the endocrine system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Central nervous system 39.

Application

REF: MCS: 252

Ridges on the surface of the cerebrum are called sulci.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 254 40.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

Fissures are deep sulci.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 254

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

41. The basal ganglia in the brain is an island of white matter found in the gray matter in the brain.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 254

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

42. The right half of the brain “talks” to the left half of the brain through the corpus callosum.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 254

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system

43. If a stroke made a person unable to see, the stroke would have damaged the person’s temporal lobe.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Central nervous system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 254

44. The cause of both a stroke and cerebral palsy could be a lack of oxygen getting to the neurons of the brain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Brain disorders 45.

Application

REF: MCS: 256

Alzheimer disease is a type of dementia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 256 46.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Brain disorders

Memorization

Both Alzheimer disease and Huntington disease have no known cause.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 256-257

DIF: Memorization TOP: Brain disorders

47. A family history of the disease is a more important risk factor for Alzheimer disease than it is for Huntington disease.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Brain disorders 48.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 256-257

Epilepsy is considered a seizure disorder.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 257

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Brain disorders

Memorization

49. Although the cause of some epilepsy is unknown, it is usually an inherited disorder.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 257 50.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Brain disorders

Memorization

The spinal cord consists of both white and gray matter.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 259

PTS: 1 TOP: Spinal cord

DIF:

Memorization

51. The spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the level of the third sacral vertebra.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 259 52.

PTS: 1 TOP: Spinal cord

DIF:

Memorization

The dura mater is deep to both the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord

REF: MCS: 261

53. The pia mater, the arachnoid mater, and the dura mater are part of the meninges.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 261 54.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord

The ventricles of the brain produce cerebrospinal fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 261-262 TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord 55.

Blood vessels produce and reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 261-262 TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord 56. Even though the cranial nerves come from the brain, they are considered part of the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 263 57.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

Most of the cranial nerves come from the frontal and parietal lobes of the

brain. ANS: F REF: MCS: 263

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

58. Even though there are only seven cervical vertebrae, eight spinal nerves have the “C” designation.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 266

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

59. Sometimes nerve fibers from several spinal nerves are reorganized to form a single peripheral nerve. This reorganization occurs in a structure called a spinal tract.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 266

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

60. Skin surfaces that are supplied by a single spinal nerve are called dermatomes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 266

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

61. The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 268

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

62. The only adrenergic fibers in the autonomic nervous system are the postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 271

63. Most of the neurons in the autonomic nervous system produce acetylcholine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 271

64. The stress disorders that are linked to the autonomic nervous system are usually caused by the activity of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nervous system 65.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system

PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons

DIF:

Memorization

Axons carry nerve impulses away from the cell body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 243 68.

REF: MCS: 272

The highly branched projections of the neuron are called axons.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 243 67.

Application

Neuroblastoma is an inherited disorder of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 272 66.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons

DIF:

Memorization

Only cells with myelin have nodes of Ranvier.

ANS: T TOP: Neurons 69.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 244

Multiple neurofibromatosis is a malignant tumor of the nervous system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 245

PTS: 1 TOP: Tumors

DIF:

Memorization

70. The process of axon repolarization returns the negative charge to the interior of the axon.

ANS: T 248 TOP:

PTS: 1 Nerve impulses

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 247-

71. Functions of the hypothalamus include assisting in maintaining proper body temperature and playing an important role in the arousal or alerting mechanism of the brain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 252 Hypothalamus 72.

One function of the thalamus is associating sensations with emotions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 253-254 73.

PTS: 1 TOP: Cerebellum

DIF:

Memorization

Spinal tracts are composed of gray matter.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 259 75.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Thalamus

The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 252 74.

DIF: TOP:

PTS: 1 TOP: Spinal cord

DIF:

Memorization

The sympathetic nervous system is also called the cerebrosacral system.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 270

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic nervous system

76. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the “fight-orflight” response.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 270

TOP: Sympathetic nervous system

77. Responses to the parasympathetic nervous system are much more localized than the responses to the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 270 Parasympathetic nervous system

DIF: TOP:

MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description. A. microglia F. astrocytes B. axon G. efferent neuron C. dendrites H. interneurons D. oligodendrocyte I. nodes of Ranvier E. afferent neuron J. Schwann cells 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. in the brain 8. 9. 10.

another term for a sensory neuron cells that produce myelin for cells outside of the central nervous system numerous branching projections of the neuron cells that can become “microbe eating” cells in the brain neurons that can also be called “connecting” neurons another term for motor neuron star-shaped cells that hold neurons and blood vessels close to each other usually a single elongated projection of a neuron indentations between adjacent Schwann cells cells that produce myelin for the neurons in the central nervous system

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 243 2.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 243 3.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 243 4.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 244 5.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 243

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 243 7.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 244 8.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 243 9.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system I PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 244 10.

TOP: Cells of the nervous ANS: system D PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 244

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

Match each part of the central nervous system with its corresponding description or function. A. midbrain G. sulcus B. spinal cord H. corpus callosum C. medulla oblongata I. cerebrum D. thalamus J. gyrus E. hypothalamus K. basal ganglia F. cerebellum 11. connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum 12. the most superior part of the brainstem 13. the main reflex center of the central nervous system 14. structure that is part of the central nervous system but also produces hormones for the endocrine system 15. lies just below the occipital lobe of the cerebrum and is responsible for muscle coordination 16. a shallow groove in the outer surface of the cerebrum 17. islands of gray matter in the white matter of the cerebrum 18. brain structure that associates sensations with emotions 19. a ridge on the surface of the cerebrum 20. part of the brainstem that contains the “vital centers” 21. the largest and uppermost part of the brain 11.

ANS: H

Memorization REF: MCS: 254 12. ANS: A REF: MCS: 252

PTS: 1

DIF:

TOP: Central nervous system PTS: 1 DIF: Application

TOP: Central nervous system 13. ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 259 14.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 252 15.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 252 16.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: G PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 254 17.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: K PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 254 18.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 253-254 19. ANS: J

TOP: Central nervous system PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 254 20.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: C PTS: 0

DIF:

REF: MCS: 252 21.

TOP: Central nervous system ANS: I PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization REF: MCS: 254

Memorization

TOP: Central nervous system

SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the functions of efferent neurons, afferent neurons, and interneurons.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 244 TOP: 2.

DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system

REF: MCS:

Name and explain the function of the three types of glia cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 244 TOP: 3.

DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system

REF: MCS:

Explain the role of oligodendrocytes in multiple sclerosis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 245 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 244Disorders of the nervous system

4. Explain how usually benign gliomas can still be a lifethreatening condition.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 245 TOP: 5.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Disorders of the nervous system Explain the structure of a nerve.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves

DIF:

REF: Pages 245-246

Memorization

Explain the structure and functioning of a reflex arc.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs

DIF:

REF: MCS: 246

Memorization

What is the efferent organ for the knee-jerk reflex?

ANS: The efferent organ for the knee-jerk reflex is the muscle of the upper leg, the muscle that extends the knee. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 246

TOP: Reflex arcs

Explain a nerve impulse. What is saltatory conduction?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 249 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nerve impulses

REF: Pages 247-

9. Explain a synapse between two neurons. Include the methods by which neurotransmitters are inactivated. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse

DIF:

REF: MCS: 249

Memorization

10. A class of antidepressant drugs called SSRIs works by preventing the removal of the neurotransmitter serotonin from the synapse. Explain how that would affect the postsynaptic neuron.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 11.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 249

TOP: The synapse

Describe and give the function of the brainstem.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 252 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: MCS:

Describe the structure, location, and functions of the hypothalamus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 253 TOP: 13.

ANS:

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: Pages 252-

Describe the structure, location, and functions of the thalamus.

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 252 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: MCS:

Describe the structure, location, and function of the cerebellum.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 254 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: MCS:

Explain the structure and function of the cerebrum.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 256 TOP: 16.

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: MCS:

Describe cerebral palsy and list its possible causes.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 258 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: Pages 257-

17. In some severe cases of epilepsy that are unresponsive to medication, doctors will cut the corpus callosum to try to limit the effects of the seizures. Explain why this procedure works.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Central nervous system 18.

REF: MCS: 259

Explain the structure and function of the spinal cord.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 260-261

TOP: Central nervous system 19.

Name and describe the three layers of the meninges.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 263 TOP: 20.

DIF: Memorization Central nervous system

REF: MCS:

Describe the structure and function of spinal nerves.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 266 TOP: 21.

DIF: Memorization Peripheral nervous system

REF: MCS:

Explain the symptoms and causes of trigeminal neuralgia and Bell palsy.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 271 TOP: 22.

DIF: Memorization Peripheral nervous system

REF: Pages 270-

Explain the structure and function of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 271 TOP: 23.

DIF: Memorization Autonomic nervous system

REF: Pages 269-

Explain the structure and function of the parasympathetic nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 270 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Autonomic nervous system

REF: MCS:

24. Why is it necessary for both the parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system to function properly to maintain normal body function?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 271 TOP: 25.

DIF: Application REF: Pages 268Autonomic nervous system Explain the effect that stress has on the function of the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 271 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Autonomic nervous system

REF: Pages 268-

Chapter 10 The Nervous System: The Brain and Cranial Nerves MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is teaching a client who experiences migraine headaches and is prescribed a beta blocker. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Take this drug only when you have prodromal symptoms indicating the onset of a migraine headache. b. Take this drug as ordered, even when feeling well, to prevent vascular changes associated with migraine headaches. c. This drug will relieve the pain during the aura phase soon after a headache has started. d. This medication will have no effect on your heart rate or blood pressure because you are taking it for migraines. ANS: B Beta blockers are prescribed as prophylactic treatment to prevent the vascular changes that initiate migraine headaches. Heart rate and blood pressure will also be affected, and the client should monitor these side effects. The other responses do not discuss appropriate uses of the medication. 2. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of migraines. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse identify as an early sign of a migraine with aura? a. Vertigo b. Lethargy c. Visual disturbances d. Numbness of the tongue ANS: C Early warning of impending migraine with aura usually consists of visual changes, flashing lights, or diplopia. The other manifestations are not associated with an impending migraine with aura. 3. A nurse obtains a health history on a client prior to administering prescribed sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex) for migraine headaches. Which condition should alert the nurse to hold the medication and contact the health care provider? a. Bronchial asthma b. Prinzmetals angina c. Diabetes mellitus d. Chronic kidney disease ANS: B Sumatriptan succinate effectively reduces pain and other associated symptoms of migraine headache by binding to serotonin receptors and triggering cranial vasoconstriction. Vasoconstrictive effects are not confined to the cranium and can cause coronary vasospasm in clients with Prinzmetals angina. The other conditions would not affect the clients treatment. 4. A nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How should the nurse document this activity? a. Atonic seizure b. Tonic-clonic seizure c. Myoclonic seizure d. Absence seizure ANS: B

Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment. 5. A nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. Which action should the nurse take? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Turn the clients head to the side. c. Administer IV push diazepam. d. Prepare to intubate the client. ANS: B The nurse should turn the clients head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and should be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam. 6. A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lisinopril (Prinivil) ANS: B Initially, intravenous lorazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These medications are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure. 7. After teaching a client who is diagnosed with new-onset status epilepticus and prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. To prevent complications, I will drink at least 2 liters of water daily. b. This medication will stop me from getting an aura before a seizure. c. I will not drive a motor vehicle while taking this medication. d. Even when my seizures stop, I will continue to take this drug. ANS: D Discontinuing antiepileptic drugs can lead to the recurrence of seizures or status epilepticus. The client does not need to drink more water and can drive while taking this medication. The medication will not stop an aura before a seizure. 8. After teaching a client newly diagnosed with epilepsy, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I will wear my medical alert bracelet at all times. b. While taking my epilepsy medications, I will not drink any alcoholic beverages. c. I will tell my doctor about my prescription and over-the-counter medications. d. If I am nauseated, I will not take my epilepsy medication. ANS: D The nurse must emphasize that antiepileptic drugs must be taken even if the client is nauseous. Discontinuing the medication can predispose the client to seizure activity and

status epilepticus. The client should not drink alcohol while taking seizure medications. The client should wear a medical alert bracelet and should make the doctor aware of all medications to prevent complications of polypharmacy. 9. A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which question should the nurse ask? a. Do you live in a crowded residence? b. When was your last tetanus vaccination? c. Have you had any viral infections recently? d. Have you traveled out of the country in the last month? ANS: A Meningococcal meningitis tends to occur in multiple outbreaks. It is most likely to occur in areas of high-density population, such as college dormitories, prisons, and military barracks. A tetanus vaccination would not place the client at increased risk for meningitis or protect the client from meningitis. A viral infection would not lead to bacterial meningitis but could lead to viral meningitis. Simply knowing if the client traveled out of the country does not provide enough information. The nurse should ask about travel to specific countries in which the disease is common, for example, sub-Saharan Africa. 10. After teaching the wife of a client who has Parkinson disease, the nurse assesses the wifes understanding. Which statement by the clients wife indicates she correctly understands changes associated with this disease? a. His masklike face makes it difficult to communicate, so I will use a white board. b. He should not socialize outside of the house due to uncontrollable drooling. c. This disease is associated with anxiety causing increased perspiration. d. He may have trouble chewing, so I will offer bite-sized portions. ANS: D Because chewing and swallowing can be problematic, small frequent meals and a supplement are better for meeting the clients nutritional needs. A masklike face and drooling are common in clients with Parkinson disease. The client should be encouraged to continue to socialize and communicate as normally as possible. The wife should understand that the clients masklike face can be misinterpreted and additional time may be needed for the client to communicate with her or others. Excessive perspiration is also common in clients with Parkinson disease and is associated with the autonomic nervous systems response. 11. A nurse plans care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Ambulate the client in the hallway twice a day. b. Ensure a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day. c. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques. d. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees or greater. ANS: D Elevation of the head of the bed will help prevent aspiration. The other options will not prevent aspiration, which is the greatest respiratory complication of Parkinson disease, nor do these interventions address any of the complications of Parkinson disease. Ambulation in the hallway is usually implemented to prevent venous thrombosis. Increased fluid intake flushes out toxins from the clients blood. Pursed-lip breathing increases exhalation of carbon dioxide. 12. A nurse is teaching the daughter of a client who has Alzheimers disease. The daughter asks, Will the medication my mother is taking improve her dementia? How should the

nurse respond? a. It will allow your mother to live independently for several more years. b. It is used to halt the advancement of Alzheimers disease but will not cure it. c. It will not improve her dementia but can help control emotional responses. d. It is used to improve short-term memory but will not improve problem solving. ANS: C Drug therapy is not effective for treating dementia or halting the advancement of Alzheimers disease. However, certain drugs may help suppress emotional disturbances and psychiatric manifestations. Medication therapy may not allow the client to safely live independently. 13. A nurse assesses a client with Alzheimers disease who is recently admitted to the hospital. Which psychosocial assessment should the nurse complete? a. Assess religious and spiritual needs while in the hospital. b. Identify the clients ability to perform self-care activities. c. Evaluate the clients reaction to a change of environment. d. Ask the client about relationships with family members. ANS: C As Alzheimers disease progresses, the client experiences changes in emotional and behavioral affect. The nurse should be alert to the clients reaction to a change in environment, such as being hospitalized, because the client may exhibit an exaggerated response, such as aggression, to the event. The other assessments should be completed but are not as important as assessing the clients reaction to environmental change. 14. A nurse witnesses a client with late-stage Alzheimers disease eat breakfast. Afterward the client states, I am hungry and want breakfast. How should the nurse respond? a. I see you are still hungry. I will get you some toast. b. You ate your breakfast 30 minutes ago. c. It appears you are confused this morning. d. Your family will be here soon. Lets get you dressed. ANS: A Use of validation therapy with clients who have Alzheimers disease involves acknowledgment of the clients feelings and concerns. This technique has proved more effective in later stages of the disease, when using reality orientation only increases agitation. Telling the client that he or she already ate breakfast may agitate the client. The other statements do not validate the clients concerns. 15. A nurse assesses a client after administering prescribed levetiracetam (Keppra). Which laboratory tests should the nurse monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication? a. Serum electrolyte levels b. Kidney function tests c. Complete blood cell count d. Antinuclear antibodies ANS: B Adverse effects of levetiracetam include coordination problems and renal toxicity. The other laboratory tests are not affected by levetiracetam. 16. A nurse cares for a client with advanced Alzheimers disease. The clients caregiver states, She is always wandering off. What can I do to manage this restless behavior? How should the nurse respond? a. This is a sign of fatigue. The client would benefit from a daily nap. b. Engage the client in scheduled activities throughout the day.

c. It sounds like this is difficult for you. I will consult the social worker. d. The provider can prescribe a mild sedative for restlessness. ANS: B Several strategies may be used to cope with restlessness and wandering. One strategy is to engage the client in structured activities. Another is to take the client for frequent walks. Daily naps and a mild sedative will not be as effective in the management of restless behavior. Consulting the social worker does not address the caregivers concern. 17. A nurse prepares to discharge a client with Alzheimers disease. Which statement should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this clients caregiver? a. Allow the client to rest most of the day. b. Place a padded throw rug at the bedside. c. Install deadbolt locks on all outside doors. d. Provide a high-calorie and high-protein diet. ANS: C Clients with Alzheimers disease have a tendency to wander, especially at night. If possible, alarms should be installed on all outside doors to alert family members if the client leaves. At a minimum, all outside doors should have deadbolt locks installed to prevent the client from going outdoors unsupervised. The client should be allowed to exercise within his or her limits. Throw rugs are a slip and fall hazard and should be removed. The client should eat a well-balanced diet. There is no need for a high-calorie or high-protein diet. 18. A nurse assesses a client with Huntington disease. Which motor changes should the nurse monitor for in this client? a. Shuffling gait b. Jerky hand movements c. Continuous chewing motions d. Tremors of the hands ANS: B An imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters leads to uninhibited motor movements, such as brisk, jerky, purposeless movements of the hands, face, tongue, and legs. Shuffling gait, continuous chewing motions, and tremors are associated with Parkinson disease. Chapter 11: The Sensory System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The eye can be considered a A. general sense B. special sense ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs 2.

A. B.

C. D. DIF:

chemoreceptor both B and C Application

The sense of smell can be considered a general sense C. special sense D.

REF: MCS: 283

chemoreceptor both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs 3.

A. B.

DIF:

Application

The sense of touch can be considered a general sense C. special sense D.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 283-284

chemoreceptor both B and C REF: MCS: 283

4. The part of the body that is least able to distinguish a one-point stimulus from a two-point stimulus is the A. fingertip B. palm of the hand C. back D. All areas of the body do equally well.

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs 5.

A. B.

DIF:

Application

Muscle spindles can be considered a special sense C. chemoreceptor D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 285

REF: MCS: 285

thermoreceptor proprioceptor

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs

6. Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball? A. conjunctiva C. choroid

sclera

ANS: A REF: MCS: 286

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

D. DIF:

retina Memorization

7. Which of the following is an involuntary muscle that makes up the front part of the choroid? A. the iris C. the ciliary muscle B. the pupil D. both A and C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 286 8.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not associated with the retina? rods C. cones lens D. macula

ANS: B REF: MCS: 286

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

9. Light passes through all of the following structures to get to the retina except the A. pupil C. palpebral fissure B. lens D. cornea

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 287-288 10.

A. B.

DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

If the eyeball is elongated, it causes which of the following conditions? myopia C. nearsightedness hyperopia D. both A and C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 290

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

11. If the eyeball is too short from front to back, it causes which of the following conditions? A. myopia C. nearsightedness B. hyperopia D. both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 290 12.

A. B.

DIF: TOP: The eye

Which of the following is not a refraction disorder? glaucoma C. hyperopia myopia D. astigmatism

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 290-291 13.

A. B.

The leading cause of permanent blindness in the elderly is cataract C. macular degeneration glaucoma D. retinal detachment

ANS: C REF: MCS: 293 14.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 295

A. B.

16.

DIF:

Memorization

tympanic membrane

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

external auditory canal tragus

Memorization

Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear? cochlea C. incus stapes D. malleus

ANS: A REF: MCS: 295

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

The external ear ends at the auricle

15.

DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing? bony labyrinth C. vestibule semicircular canal D. organ of Corti

ANS: D REF: MCS: 297

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

17. Which of the following is not a hearing loss caused by nerve impairment or damage? A. Ménière disease B. presbycusis C. otitis media D. All of the above are caused by nerve impairment or damage.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 298

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

18. Which of the following is a progressive hearing loss usually associated with aging?

A. B. ANS: B REF: MCS: 298 19.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The taste receptors

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The smell receptors

22.

C. D.

Memorization

Which of the following is not a classification of sense organs? sound receptor (audioreceptor) chemical receptor (chemoreceptor) light receptor (photoreceptor) All of the above are classifications of sense organs.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 283-284

A. B.

otitis otosclerosis

Which of the following is untrue about the sense of smell? It is a chemoreceptor. The olfactory receptors are very sensitive. The olfactory receptors maintain their sensitivity for a long period of time. All of the above are true about the sense of smell.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 299 21.

C. D.

Which of the following is untrue about the sense of taste? It is a chemoreceptor. The sense of taste is generated by cells in the taste buds called gustatory cells. There are four primary tastes. All of the above are true about the sense of taste.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 299 20.

tinnitus presbycusis

DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of sense organs

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a general sense organ? Receptors are scattered all over the body. Receptors are most concentrated in the skin. Receptors include proprioceptors. All of the above are characteristics of a general sense organ.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 285 23.

A. B.

Which of the following is the “white” of the eye? cornea C. sclera D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 286 24.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

conjunctiva pupil

Memorization

Which of the following is sometimes called the “window” of the eye? cornea C. conjunctiva sclera D. pupil

ANS: A REF: MCS: 286 25.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

Which is not a type of cone found in the retina? red C. blue D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 288

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

yellow green

Memorization

26. Which disorder of the eye is caused by an abnormal accumulation of aqueous humor in the eye? A. macular C. cataracts degeneration B. glaucoma D. nyctalopia

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 289 the retina 27.

A. B.

Which condition is also called “night blindness”? macular C. degeneration glaucoma D.

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 293 the retina 28.

A. B.

DIF: TOP: Disorders of

cataracts nyctalopia

DIF: TOP: Disorders of

Which structure is important to your sense of balance and equilibrium? cochlea C. crista ampullaris organ of Corti D. tragus

ANS: C REF: MCS: 297

PTS: 1 TOP: Inner ear

DIF:

Memorization

TRUE/FALSE 1. A general sense organ can respond to many different stimuli; a special sense organ can respond to only one.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 283-284 2.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of sense organs

There are more chemoreceptor special senses than photoreceptor special

senses. ANS: T 285 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Classification of sense organs

REF: Pages 283-

3. One of the main functions of a sense receptor is to convert some physical stimulus into a nerve impulse.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 285 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Converting a stimulus into a sensation

The skin has the highest concentration of special senses.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 285

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs

5. If a two-point discrimination test uses 2 needles 5 mm apart, a person could probably feel them on the fingertips and the palms of the hands but not on the back.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 285

6. Proprioceptors respond to stimuli from inside the body rather than from outside the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs 7.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 285

You are able to touch your nose because of the proprioceptors in your

body. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 285

The “white” of the eye is the sclera.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 286 9.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

If the palpebral fissure were closed, a person could not see.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 286 11.

DIF:

If a person has brown eyes, it is because the cornea is brown.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 286 10.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

The lacrimal gland produces the aqueous fluid for the eye.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 286

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

12. The mucous membrane that covers the inside of the eyelid and also covers the front of the sclera is called the conjunctiva.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 286 13.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

Memorization

The pupil is not really a structure but is the lack of a structure.

ANS: T TOP: The eye 14.

DIF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 286

The circular fibers of the iris would be more likely to contract in dim light.

ANS: F TOP: The eye

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 286

15. As outside light progresses from day to night, our vision switches from rod vision to cone vision.

ANS: F TOP: The eye 16.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 287-288

Cones have their highest concentration in the fovea of the retina. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 288 17.

Rods have their highest concentration in the optic disk.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 288 18.

TOP: The eye

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

The vitreous body is found in the posterior chamber of the eye.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 289

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

19. Aqueous humor is found in the anterior chamber of the eye and is constantly replenished by the lacrimal gland.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 289 20.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

The first refractory structure light passes through as it enters the eye is the

lens. ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 286 21.

The photoreceptors of the eye are the rods and cones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 287-288 22.

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

An elongated eye can cause myopia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 290 25.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

Another name for nearsightedness is hyperopia.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 290 24.

DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

The last part of the visual pathway exists in the brain, not in the eye.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 289 23.

DIF: TOP: The eye

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

An irregularity in the cornea or lens is called presbyopia.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 290 26. by glasses.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

Astigmatism, myopia, hyperopia, and presbyopia can all be corrected

ANS: T TOP: The eye

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 290

27. People with cataracts have corneas that are so cloudy that they have trouble with their night vision.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 290 28.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

“Pinkeye” is an infection of the sclera.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 290

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

29. Newborns are given antibiotic eye drops because there can be infection- causing organisms in the birth canal.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 290

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

30. People with vision in only one eye would have difficulty driving because of the loss of depth perception.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 291

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

31. Increasing the internal pressure of the eye is a treatment for retinal detachment.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 292 32.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 292 33.

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

Glaucoma is a condition caused by increased internal pressure of the eye. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

One of the late symptoms of glaucoma is the loss of vision in the center of

the visual field, which then progresses out toward the edge of the visual field. ANS: F REF: MCS: 292

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

34. People with glaucoma may have a lesser risk of retinal detachment than people without glaucoma.

ANS: T TOP: The eye 35.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 292

Glaucoma is the leading cause of permanent blindness in the elderly.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 290

PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

36. Because color blindness is an inherited trait carried on the X chromosome, it is more common in women because they have two X chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 293-294

DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

37. Brain injuries that damage the temporal lobe can result in what is called acquired cortical blindness.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 290-291 38.

DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

The ear can be considered a special sense that is a mechanoreceptor.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 294

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

39. The external ear consists of three parts: the auricle, the external auditory canal, and the tophi.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 294 40.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 295 41.

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

The three bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and stapes. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

The head of the stapes rests on the tympanic membrane and moves when

the tympanic membrane vibrates. ANS: T REF: MCS: 295 42.

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

The oval window separates the outer from the middle ear.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 295-296

DIF: Memorization TOP: The ear

43. The membrane covering the oval window vibrates in response to pressure applied by the stapes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 295-296 44.

DIF: Memorization TOP: The ear

The auditory tube has no direct role in hearing.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 296

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

45. If the auditory tube were clogged, it might make a plane ride uncomfortable.

ANS: T TOP: The ear 46. the cochlea.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 296

The inner ear consists of the vestibule, the semicircular canal, and

ANS: T REF: MCS: 296

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

47. Two of the three parts of the inner ear deal with balance rather than hearing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 296-297

DIF: Memorization TOP: The ear

48. If you feel dizzy when you come off of an amusement park ride, it is because your semicircular canals are doing their job.

ANS: T TOP: The ear

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 297

49.

The organ of Corti is the organ of hearing.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 297

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

50. The organ of Corti is surrounded by a bony structure called the semicircular canals.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 297 51.

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

Memorization

Another name for “ringing in the ear” is otitis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 298 52.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

Presbycusis is a progressive hearing loss associated with aging.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 298

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

53. As people age, they lose the ability to hear mid-frequency sounds first, which is why they have such difficulty hearing quiet conversations.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 298 54.

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

Memorization

The senses of taste and smell are both considered chemoreceptors.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 299 55.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors and the smell receptors

The receptors for the sense of taste are called papillae.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 299

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The taste receptors

Memorization

56. There are three primary tastes to which the sense of taste can respond, but more are likely to be discovered.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 299 57.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The taste receptors

Memorization

Much of the sense of taste is actually the sense of smell.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 299 58.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors and the smell receptors

The olfactory receptors are responsible for the sense of smell.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 299

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The smell receptors

Memorization

59. Because of the route of the olfactory pathway, there is a close link between odor and emotion.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 299 60.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The smell receptors

The sense organ that responds to light is a special sense organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs 61.

Application

REF: MCS: 284

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 283

General sense organs tend to be more localized than special sense organs.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 285 63.

DIF:

A sense organ that responds to touch is most likely a special sense organ.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs 62.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs

The back is one of the least sensitive areas of the body for the sense of

touch. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 285 sense organs 64.

DIF: TOP: General

The temporal lobe interprets two-point discrimination in the skin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 285-286

DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs

65. Chemoreceptors in the aorta can detect changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 285

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs

66.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 286 67.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 286 68.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 289

There are more rods in the eye than cones. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

The fovea is a small depression in the macula. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

Aqueous humor is found in the posterior cavity of the eye. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

69. The incus presses against a membrane that covers the oval window of the inner ear.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 295

PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

70. Both the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth are part of the inner ear.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 295-296

DIF: Memorization TOP: The ear

MATCHING Match each structure of the eye with its corresponding description or function. A. rod F. choroid B. sclera G. iris C. lens H. fovea D. pupil I. cornea E. cone J. optic disc 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

contains the highest concentration of cones the “white” of the eye the clear part of the sclera, sometimes called the “window of the eye” receptor that responds in dim light and is used for night vision a hole in the eye that lets in light the blind spot; where the optic nerve leaves the eye receptor that responds in bright light and is able to distinguish colors

8. 9. 10.

the colored part of the eye; able to constrict or dilate the pupil the middle layer of the eyeball that contains dark pigment structure directly behind the pupil; used to focus light

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 288 2.

TOP: The eye ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 286 3.

TOP: The ANS eye I :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 286 4.

TOP: The ANS eye A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 288 5.

TOP: The ANS eye D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 286 6.

TOP: The ANS eye J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 289 7.

TOP: The ANS eye E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 288 8.

TOP: The ANS eye G :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 286 9.

TOP: The ANS eye F :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 286 10.

TOP: The ANS eye C :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 286

TOP: The eye

Match each structure of the ear to its corresponding function or description. A. organ of Corti F. cochlea B. tympanic G. malleus membrane C. eustachian tube H. auricle D. stapes I. perilymph E. semicircular canal J. endolymph

11.

part of the inner ear that is responsible for the sense of balance

12. appendage on the side of the head; also called the pinna 13. connects the middle ear and the throat and helps regulate pressure on the eardrum 14. ossicle that comes into contact with the oval window 15. the thick fluid that fills the membranous labyrinth 16. structure that separates the outer ear from the middle ear; also called the “eardrum” 17. snail-shaped structure that contains the organ of Corti 18. watery fluid that fills the bony labyrinth 19. ossicle that attaches to the inside of the tympanic membrane 20. the organ of hearing

11.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 296 12.

TOP: The ear ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 294 13.

TOP: The ANS ear C :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 296 14.

TOP: The ANS ear D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 295 15.

TOP: The ANS ear J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 296 16.

TOP: The ANS ear B :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 295 17.

TOP: The ANS ear F :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 297 18.

TOP: The ANS ear I :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 296 19.

TOP: The ANS ear G :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 295 20.

TOP: The ANS ear A :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 297

TOP: The ear

Match each of the following disorders of the eye or ear with its corresponding definition

or description. A. B. C. D. E. F. G.

glaucoma tinnitus cataracts

H. I. J.

nyctalopia otosclerosis presbyopia

K. L. M. astigmatism

otitis myopia macular degeneration Ménière disease hyperopia conjunctivitis

21. also called “night blindness” 22. the leading cause of blindness in the elderly 23. caused by irregularities in the cornea or lens of the eye 24. a structural irregularity of the stapes that impairs conduction 25. caused by excessive intraocular pressure 26. a chronic ear disease of unknown cause that is characterized by nerve deafness and vertigo 27. refers to an ear infection 28. another term for “pinkeye” 29. another term for “farsightedness” 30. refers to ringing in the ear 31. “old sightedness” 32. “nearsightedness” 33. caused by cloudy spots in the lens of the eye

21.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 293 22.

TOP: Disorders of the retina ANS: J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 293 23.

TOP: Disorders of the retina ANS: G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 290 24.

TOP: Refraction disorders ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 298 25.

TOP: Hearing disorders ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 292 26.

TOP: Disorders of the retina ANS: K PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 298 27.

TOP: Hearing disorders ANS: H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 298 28.

TOP: Hearing disorders ANS: M PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 290 29.

TOP: Refraction ANS: disorders L

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 290 30.

TOP: Refraction ANS: disorders B

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 298 31.

TOP: Hearing disorders ANS: F PTS:

REF: MCS: 287 32.

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Refraction ANS: disorders I

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 290 33.

TOP: Refraction ANS: disorders C

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 290

TOP: Refraction disorders

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Distinguish between a general sense organ and a special sense organ.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 284 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Classification of sense organs

REF: Pages 283-

2. Give an example of a photoreceptor, a chemoreceptor, a pain receptor, and a mechanoreceptor.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 286 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 284Classification of sense organs

3. What parts of the body are most and least sensitive to twopoint discrimination? Explain your answer.

ANS:

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 285 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: General sense organs

4. Give the location and function of the muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon receptors.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 285 TOP:

DIF: Memorization General sense organs

REF: MCS:

5. Explain what would happen to the iris and the pupil and list the types of receptors stimulated if you went from a sunny day into a darkened theater.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 287 TOP:

DIF: Synthesis The eye

REF: Pages 286-

6. Explain why looking directly at something in a very dark room makes what you are looking at more difficult to see.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 288 TOP: 7.

DIF: Synthesis The eye

REF: Pages 287-

Describe the visual pathway.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 289 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The eye

REF: Pages 288-

8. Explain myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism and what means are used to correct these vision disorders.

ANS: Answers will vary.

REF: MCS: 290

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye 9.

Why are newborns given antibiotic eye drops?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 10.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 290

TOP: The eye

Explain the two types of strabismus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

REF: MCS: 291

11. What are possible treatments for a detached retina? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The eye

12.

REF: MCS: 292

What is glaucoma and what are some of its signs or symptoms?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 292-293

13. What is macular degeneration and what are some risk factors for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 293

14.

Explain why males are more likely to be color blind than females.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye

15.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 293-294

Describe the structure of the external ear.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 294-295

16. Explain how sound is transmitted through the middle ear. Why is the ear called a mechanoreceptor?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 295-296

17. Describe the inner ear. Which parts of the inner ear are involved in the sense of balance and which parts are involved in the sense of hearing? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 296-297

18. Explain why an infection that clogs the eustachian tube makes flying in an airplane more uncomfortable.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear

19.

tastes.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 296-297

Explain the functioning of the sense of taste and list the four primary

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 299 TOP: 20.

DIF: Memorization The taste receptors

REF: MCS:

Explain the function of the sense of smell.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 299 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The smell receptors

REF: MCS:

21. Explain why when you first enter a newly painted room, the smell of paint seems very strong, but the longer you are there the less you smell the paint.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 299 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: The smell receptors

22. What about the pathway for the sense of smell explains why the smell of a traditional Thanksgiving dinner can generate such strong emotional memories?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 299 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: The smell receptors

Chapter 12: The Endocrine System: Glands and Hormones Test Bank 1. Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system? MULTIPLE CHOICE A. The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body. B. All organs in the endocrine system are glands. C. Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities. D. Endocrine glands produce hormones.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 307 2.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid hormones

Which of the following is true of a steroid hormone? Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell. It requires a second messenger. It converts ATP into cyclic AMP. All of the above are true of steroid hormones.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 311 4.

DIF:

Which of the following is not true of a nonsteroid hormone? It is carried through the blood to the target organ cell. Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell. It requires a second messenger. All of the above are true of nonsteroid hormones.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 310 3.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Steroid hormones

Memorization

Which of the following statements is not true of prostaglandins? They can also be called tissue hormones. They function like nonsteroid hormones because they cause the production of cyclic AMP.

They function like steroid hormones because they stimulate protein synthesis. They travel a much shorter distance than most hormones.

D. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 315-316 5.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not true of luteinizing hormone? It is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Its target organ cells are in the ovaries. It stimulates ovulation. All of the above are true of luteinizing hormone.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 316 6.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Prostaglandins

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

ACTH

causes the ovary to begin forming an egg follicle stimulates the production of adrenal cortex hormone stimulates the release of adrenaline has target organ cells in the thyroid gland

B. C. D. ANS: B REF: MCS: 316 7.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

Acromegaly is caused by

A. B. C. D.

hypersecretion of ACTH hyposecretion of ACTH hypersecretion of growth hormone hyposecretion of growth hormone

ANS: C REF: MCS: 316 8.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Dwarfism can be caused by

A. B. C. D. ANS: D

Memorization

hypersecretion of ACTH hyposecretion of ACTH hypersecretion of growth hormone hyposecretion of growth hormone PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 317 9.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not true of oxytocin? It is produced in the posterior pituitary gland. It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor. It is one of the few hormones that are regulated by a positive feedback loop. It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 317 10.

TOP: Pituitary gland

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

The hypothalamus

is composed of a glandular portion and a nerve portion produces ADH releases ADH is located in the sella turcica

B. C. D. ANS: B REF: MCS: 317 11.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus

Memorization

Thyroxine

has fewer iodine atoms than triiodothyronine stimulates the release of thyroidstimulating hormone has more target cells than ADH All of the above are true of thyroxine.

B. C. D. ANS: C TOP: Thyroid gland 12.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 319

Calcitonin

A. B. C. D. ANS: B REF: MCS: 319

is released by the parathyroid gland prevents hypercalcemia increases the calcium level in the blood can cause Graves disease if it is hypersecreted PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland

Memorization

13.

A. B.

An inadequate intake of iodine in the diet can lead to C. hyperthyroidism D. cause Graves disease

ANS: D REF: MCS: 320 14.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Parathyroid gland

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands

17.

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of the adrenal medulla? It responds to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system. It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response. It releases epinephrine. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 322-323

A. B.

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of glucocorticoids? They are produced in the adrenal cortex. They help regulate the blood sodium and potassium level. They increase the amount of glucose in the blood through gluconeogenesis. They have an antiallergy effect.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 321 16.

cause a goiter

Which of the following is true of parathyroid hormone? It is made in the thyroid gland. It decreases the amount of calcium in the blood. It increases the amount of calcium in the blood. It stimulates the formation of bone.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 320 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland

cause exophthalmos

DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal glands

Which of these is not a symptom of Cushing syndrome? moon face buffalo hump

C. D.

virilization in women All of the above are symptoms of Cushing syndrome.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 323-324 18.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following statements is true? The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete insulin. Hypersecretion of insulin causes diabetes mellitus. Insulin causes an increase in the blood sugar level. Glucagon and insulin are antagonists of each other.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 324 19.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland? It is located in the brain. It produces melatonin. It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.” All of the above are true of the pineal gland.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 327 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets

Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland? It is located in the neck. It is composed of a cortex and a medulla. It produces thymosin. It is important in the body’s immune system.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 327 20.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal glands

PTS: 1 TOP: Pineal gland

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of the pituitary gland? It is composed of two endocrine glands. Its posterior portion is called the adenohypophysis.

It is located in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. All of the above are true of the pituitary gland.

D. ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 316 gland 22.

A. B.

Which of the following is not considered a tropic hormone? thyroid-stimulating C. antidiuretic hormone hormone adrenocorticotropic D. follicle-stimulating hormone hormone

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 316 gland 23.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C. D. ANS: A REF: MCS: 327

DIF: TOP: Pituitary

Which of the following is not true of the adrenal medulla? It is the inner portion of the adrenal gland. It secretes epinephrine. It is the target organ for ACTH. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 322-323 24.

DIF: TOP: Pituitary

DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal medulla

Which of the following is not true of the ovaries? The ovarian follicle secretes both estrogen and progesterone. The corpus luteum secretes both estrogen and progesterone. Each ovary contains two types of glandular structures. All of the above are true of ovaries. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female sex glands

TRUE/FALS E

1. The endocrine system and the nervous system perform the same general function, but the activity of the endocrine system is slower and more longlasting.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 307

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

ANS: F REF: MCS: 307 3.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 307

The endocrine system is made up of both endocrine and exocrine glands. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

A target organ cell has a receptor for a particular hormone. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

4. Because nonsteroid hormones are unable to pass through the cell membrane, a second messenger is needed.

ANS: T 311 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Mechanisms of hormone action

REF: Pages 310-

5. Cyclic AMP is the second messenger for some nonsteroid hormones. The first messenger is the hormone itself.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 310-311 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of hormone action

6. If a hormone receptor is on the cell membrane, it is a receptor for a nonsteroid hormone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 310

7. If a hormone receptor is in the nucleus, it is a receptor for a steroid hormone.

ANS: F 311 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Mechanisms of hormone action

REF: Pages 310-

8. The result of the interaction between a nonsteroid hormone and a target cell is the formation of a new protein.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 311

9. The first action of some nonsteroid hormones after they attach to their receptors is to cause a change in the cell’s ATP.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 310

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action 10. In order to function, some steroid hormones must penetrate two membranes in a cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 311

11. Most nonsteroid hormones are regulated by a positive feedback mechanism.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 314

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

12. The negative feedback mechanism of hormone regulation helps maintain the body’s homeostasis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion 13.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 314

The term tissue hormone is another name given to prostaglandins.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 315

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prostaglandins

Memorization

14. Most prostaglandins have a mechanism similar to that of steroid hormones.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Prostaglandins

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 315

15. One of the main differences between a hormone and a prostaglandin is the distance traveled to the target cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Prostaglandin s 16.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 315

Part of the pituitary gland is not really a gland at all.

ANS: T TOP: Pituitary gland

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 316

17. The follicle-stimulating hormone and the luteinizing hormone both have target cells in the ovaries.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 316

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

18. Because follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone have target cells in the ovaries, neither is produced in males.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 316

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

19. The pituitary gland is protected by a depression in the sphenoid bone called the “Turkish saddle.”

ANS: T REF: MCS: 316

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

20. A hypersecretion of growth hormone has the same effect on the body as the hypersecretion of insulin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Pituitary gland

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 316

21. The hypersecretion of growth hormone can produce a condition called acromegaly.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 316 gland 22.

Oxytocin is also called the lactogenic hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 317 gland 23.

DIF: TOP: Pituitary

Both ADH and oxytocin are produced in the posterior pituitary gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 317 gland

DIF: TOP: Pituitary

24. The action of ADH is to increase the production of urine to help eliminate toxins in the blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 317

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

25. Oxytocin is one of the few hormones in the body that is regulated by a positive feedback mechanism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Pituitary gland

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 314

26. Both oxytocin and prolactin have a role in the production of milk for a nursing mother.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 317-318 27.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Pituitary gland

A hypersecretion of ADH can cause a condition called diabetes insipidus.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 317

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

28. The posterior pituitary gland releases oxytocin and ADH, but they are made in the hypothalamus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 317 Hypothalamus 29.

Thyroxine contains more iodine than triiodothyronine.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 319 30.

DIF: TOP:

PTS: 1 TOP: Thyroid gland

DIF:

Memorization

Of the two thyroid hormones, T3 is more abundant but T4 is more potent.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 319

PTS: 1 TOP: Thyroid gland

DIF:

Memorization

31. The thyroid stimulating hormone has a greater number of target cells than thyroxine.

ANS: F TOP: Thyroid gland 32.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 319

Calcitonin is produced in the thyroid gland.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 319

PTS: 1 TOP: Thyroid gland

DIF:

Memorization

33. If someone had a great deal of milk and dairy products in his or her diet (foods high in calcium), you would expect a low level of calcitonin in his or

her blood.

ANS: F TOP: Thyroid gland 34.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 319

Graves disease is one possible result of hypothyroidism.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 319

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland

Memorization

35. Graves disease and myxedema have the same cause; it just depends on when in life the deficiency occurs.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 319-320 36.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Thyroid gland

Most salt sold in the United States is iodized salt; that is, a small amount

is Na+ rather than NaCl. One benefit of this is a reduction in the number of goiters. ANS: T TOP: Thyroid gland 37.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 320

The parathyroid glands are found in the neck.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Parathyroid gland

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 320

38. The parathyroid hormone acts with calcitonin to increase the level of calcium in the blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 320

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Parathyroid gland

Memorization

39. A hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone might cause the bones to become weak and fragile.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Parathyroid hormone 40.

Application

REF: Pages 320-321

ADH and aldosterone perform opposite functions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 318 | MCS: 321 41.

DIF:

DIF: Application TOP: Adrenal glands

A high level of aldosterone causes a high level of sodium to be excreted in

the urine. ANS: F REF: MCS: 321

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands

Memorization

42. Glucocorticoids increase the amount of glucose in the blood and act as antiinflammatory agents.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 321-322

DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal glands

43. The adrenal medulla functions like a large postganglionic fiber of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T 323 TOP:

PTS: 1 Adrenal glands

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Pages 322-

44. Cushing syndrome, virilization of women, and Addison disease can all be the results of hypersecretion of the adrenal gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 323-324 45.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal glands

Cushing syndrome and Addison disease have opposite causes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 323-324

DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal glands

46. The gland that contains the pancreatic islet cells that produce hormones is an exocrine gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreatic islets

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 324

47. In a healthy person, an increase in blood sugar stimulates the activity of the alpha cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreatic islets 48.

DIF:

Application

Glucagon and insulin are antagonistic hormones.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 324

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets

Memorization

REF: MCS: 324

49. Glycosuria might indicate a failure in the production of insulin or a lack of functioning receptors for insulin on cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreatic islets

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 324

50. Type 1 diabetes is a pancreatic problem; type 2 diabetes is a cellular problem.

ANS: T 325 TOP:

PTS: 1 Pancreatic islets

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 324-

51. The ovary secretes three hormones: estrogen, progesterone, and follicle- stimulating hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 327 glands

DIF: TOP: Female sex

52. The thymus is found in the center of the chest and produces the hormone thymosin.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 327 53.

PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus

DIF:

Memorization

The main function of thymosin is to help regulate the body’s biological

clock. ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 327 54.

The thymus plays an important role in the immune system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 327 55.

PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus

DIF:

Memorization

The hormone used to detect pregnancy is released by the ovaries.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 327 56.

DIF: TOP: Thymus

PTS: 1 TOP: Placenta

DIF:

Memorization

The pineal gland is found in the brain.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 327

PTS: 1 TOP: Pineal gland

DIF:

Memorization

57. The pineal gland hormone, melatonin, is affected by the amount of light to which a person is exposed.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 327 58.

PTS: 1 TOP: Pineal gland

DIF:

Memorization

The hyposecretion of melatonin is linked to depression.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 327

PTS: 1 TOP: Pineal gland

DIF:

Memorization

59. One of the functions of the heart is to produce a hormone that regulates body fat.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 328

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Other endocrine structures

60. Atrial natriuretic hormone and aldosterone have opposite effects on both blood sodium level and the amount of water retained by the kidney.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 328 61.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Other endocrine structures

The function of the nerve impulse is similar in function to a hormone.

ANS: T TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 307

62. Exocrine glands pass their secretions through ducts to reach a body cavity or the body surface.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 307

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

63. If the end result of a hormone is the production of a new protein in the cell, the hormone was most likely a nonsteroid hormone.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 311 64.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Steroid hormones

Memorization

Diabetes mellitus is caused by a hypersecretion of insulin.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 315

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of endocrine disease

65. The two parts of the pituitary gland are the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 316 66.

Memorization

Tropic hormones stimulate other endocrine glands.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 316 67.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

Follicle-stimulating hormone is also called the ovulating hormone.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 316

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland

Memorization

68. The releasing and inhibiting hormones released by the hypothalamus regulate hormone release by the posterior pituitary gland.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 318

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus

Memorization

69. The thyroid gland is unusual because it is able to store a considerable amount of its hormone.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 319

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland

Memorization

70. The outer zone of the adrenal cortex secretes the mineralocorticoid aldosterone.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 321

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal cortex

Memorization

71. Hormones produced and released by the adrenal cortex help reinforce the “fight-or-flight” response.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 323

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal medulla

Memorization

72. Glycosuria is the result of a hypersecretion of the hormone insulin by the pancreas.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 324

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets

Memorization

73.

The corpus luteum in the ovary secretes both estrogen and progesterone.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 327

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Female sex glands

Memorization

74. Thymosin released by the thymus gland is actually a group of hormones with similar functions.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 327 75.

PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus

DIF:

Memorization

Both ANH and leptin help regulate appetite and food intake.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 328

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Other endocrine structures

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. endocrine gland F. B. negative feedback G. C. target organ cell H. D. steroid hormone I. E. prostaglandin

cavit y

exocrine gland nonsteroid hormone cyclic AMP positive feedback

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

a second messenger for some hormones can be called a “tissue hormone” releases hormones into the interstitial fluid or the blood hormone that requires a second messenger has a receptor for a specific hormone hormone regulating system that tries to return the body to homeostasis releases its products into ducts leading to the body surface or a body

8. 9.

receptor site for this type of hormone is inside the nucleus of the cell hormone regulation that moves the body farther away from homeostasis

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 311 2.

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone PTS: 1 ANS action E :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 315 3.

TOP: Prostaglandins PTS: 1 ANS A :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 307 4.

TOP: Introduction PTS: 1 ANS: G

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 310 5.

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 307 6.

TOP: Introduction PTS: 1 ANS B :

REF: MCS: 314 7.

TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion ANS: F PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 307 8.

TOP: Introduction PTS: 1 ANS D :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 311 9.

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone ANS: action I PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 314

TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

DIF: Memorization

Match each hormone with its corresponding function or description. A. glucocorticoid I. epinephrine B. insulin follicle-stimulating J. hormone C. calcitonin K. growth hormone D. triiodothyronine L. parathyroid hormone E. ADH M. thymosin F. aldosterone N. glucagon G. luteinizing hormone O. melatonin H. oxytocin P. ACTH

syste m

10. 11. 12.

reduces the level of calcium in the blood hypersecretion of this hormone causes acromegaly plays an important role in the development and functioning of the immune

13.

released by the posterior pituitary and increases water retention in the

14.

released by the adrenal cortex, increases the glucose level of the blood,

body

and is an antiinflammatory 15. an increase in the level of this hormone causes ovulation

16. 17.

made in the pineal gland and affects the biological clock released by the adrenal medulla and reinforces the effects of the

sympathetic nervous system 18. produced in the pituitary gland and stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex 19. stimulates muscle contraction in the pregnant uterus and brings about labor 20. thyroid hormone that contains three atoms of iodine 21. increases the level of calcium in the blood 22. released by the pancreatic islet cells and increases the level of glucose in the blood 23. begins the development of an egg in the ovary 24. an example of a mineralocorticoid 25. released by the pancreatic islets and causes a drop in the blood sugar level 10.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 319 11.

TOP: Thyroid gland ANS K PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 316 12.

TOP: Pituitary gland ANS M PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 327 13.

TOP: Thymus ANS E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 317 14.

TOP: Pituitary gland ANS A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 321 15.

TOP: Adrenal glands ANS G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 316 16.

TOP: Pituitary gland ANS O PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 327 17.

TOP: Pineal gland ANS I PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 322 18.

TOP: Adrenal glands ANS P PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 316 19.

TOP: Pituitary gland ANS H PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 317 20.

TOP: Pituitary gland ANS D PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 319 21.

TOP: Thyroid gland ANS: L PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 320 22.

TOP: Parathyroid gland ANS: N PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 324 23.

TOP: Pancreatic islets ANS: B PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 316 24.

TOP: Pituitary gland ANS: F PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 321 25.

TOP: Adrenal glands ANS: J PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 324

TOP: Pancreatic islets

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Explain the difference between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction

Memorization

REF: MCS: 307

Explain the functioning of a nonsteroid hormone.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 311 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of hormone action

REF: Pages 310-

3. Explain the functioning of a steroid hormone. Why is a second messenger not necessary in a steroid hormone?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 311 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Mechanisms of hormone action

4. a hormone.

Explain and give an example of a negative feedback regulation of

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 314 TOP: 5. a hormone.

DIF: Memorization Regulation of hormone secretion

REF: MCS:

Explain and give an example of a positive feedback regulation of

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 314 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Regulation of hormone secretion

REF: MCS:

6. What is a prostaglandin? How are prostaglandins different from hormones?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 315 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Prostaglandins

REF: MCS:

7. List and explain the functions of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 316 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pituitary gland

REF: MCS:

8. If a person was working hard on a hot day and drank very little water, would the blood concentration of ADH be high or low? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 316

TOP: Pituitary gland

9. this chapter.

Explain why the hypothalamus, a brain structure, is included in

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 318

TOP: Hypothalamus

10. Explain the function of thyroxine and triiodothyronine. Explain what happens if there is a hypersecretion or a hyposecretion of these hormones.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 319 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Thyroid gland

REF: MCS:

11. Explain how calcitonin and parathyroid hormone work together to regulate blood calcium levels. What effect would each hormone have on bone density? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 320 TOP: 12.

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 319Thyroid gland and parathyroid glands Explain the function of mineralocorticoids.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 321 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization Adrenal glands

REF: MCS:

Explain the functions of glucocorticoids.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 322 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Adrenal glands

REF: Pages 321-

14. Describe the symptoms and causes of Cushing syndrome and Addison disease.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 324 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Adrenal glands

REF: Pages 323-

15. Explain how insulin and glucagon work together to regulate the blood sugar level.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Pancreatic islets 16.

Application

REF: MCS: 324

TOP:

Explain the difference between type 1 diabetes and type 2 diabetes.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 324 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Pancreatic islets

REF: MCS:

17. Give the location of the thymus gland, what hormone it produces, and the function of that hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 327

18. Give the location of the pineal gland, what hormone it produces, and the function of that hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Pineal gland

19.

ANS:

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 327

Explain the role ghrelin and leptin may have in regulating body weight.

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 328 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Other endocrine structures

20. A doctor found that a patient had a low level of thyroid hormone in the blood. A test was given to determine the level of TSH in the blood. Explain where the problem would lie if the TSH level were high. Explain where the problem would lie if the TSH level were low.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 318 TOP:

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 316Pituitary gland and thyroid gland

Chapter 13: The Blood Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If a person’s body contained 5 liters of blood, about liters would be plasma and liter(s) would be formed elements. A. 4; 1 B. 2.6; 2.4 C. 2.4; 2.6 D. There is no way to determine the proportion of plasma to formed elements.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 340 2.

A. B.

The pH of blood must stay slightly acid neutral

ANS: C REF: MCS: 340 3.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

anti-B antibodies both B and C Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

B antigens both A and B Memorization

A person with type O blood has anti-A antibodies C. anti-B antibodies D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 346 6.

slightly basic moderately acid

A person with type AB blood has anti-A antibodies C. anti-B antibodies D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 346 5.

C. D.

A person with type A blood has anti-A antibodies C. A antigens D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 346

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

A antigens both A and B Memorization

The blood type considered the universal donor is type A C. O

ANS: C REF: MCS: 346 7.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

D. DIF:

AB Memorization

The blood type considered the universal recipient is type A C. O B D. AB

ANS: D REF: MCS: 346

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

Memorization

8. An Rh-positive mother should be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis under which circumstance? A. If the father is Rh-negative, the Rhpositive mother should be concerned. B. If this is her second child and she has not taken RhoGAM, Rh-positive mother should be concerned. C. She should not be at all concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis. D. Both A and B are correct.

ANS: C TOP: Blood types 9.

A. B. C. D.

10.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma

Application

REF: MCS: 347

Memorization

Which of the following substances is not found in plasma? albumin globulins serum All of the above are found in plasma.

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Blood plasma 11.

DIF:

Which of the following substances is not found in plasma? hormones food oxygen All of the above are found in plasma.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 340

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

Which of the following is not a white blood cell? neutrophil

REF: MCS: 341

B. C. D.

thrombocyte lymphocyte All of the above are white blood cells.

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 341 elements

DIF: TOP: Formed

12. What is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter of blood? A. 1 million C. 5 million B. 3 million D. 7 million

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 341 elements

DIF: TOP: Formed

13. One sign of infection in the body is an increase in the number of white blood cells. A doctor would be concerned about an infection if the white blood cell numbers were which of the following? A. 1000/mm3 B. 4000/mm3 C. 7000/mm3 D. None of these values indicate an infection.

ANS: D 342 TOP:

PTS: 1 Formed elements

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 341-

14. A red blood cell that is smaller than normal and has less hemoglobin than normal would be called A. microcytic and C. microcytic and hypochromic hyperchromic B. macrocytic and D. macrocytic and hypochromic hyperchromic

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) 15.

A. B.

Application

REF: MCS: 343

The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to carry oxygen C. hormones carbon dioxide D. both A and B

ANS: D REF: MCS: 344 16.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

Blood loss anemia is also known as aplastic C. pernicious D.

anemia. hemorrhagic hemolytic

ANS: C REF: MCS: 349 17.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

Injections of vitamin B12 are used successfully to treat anemia. aplastic C. hemorrhagic pernicious D. hemolytic

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 349-350 18.

A. B.

Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are examples of anemia. aplastic C. hemorrhagic pernicious D. hemolytic

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 350-351 19.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

Which of the following is not a granulocyte? monocyte C. neutrophil D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 351 20.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

basophil eosinophil

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

Which of the following is not an agranulocyte? eosinophil lymphocyte thrombocyte Neither A nor C is an agranulocyte.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 351

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

21. Which of the following is a cancer of the plasma cells and is one of the most common and most deadly of the blood cancers? A. chronic C. acute lymphocytic lymphocytic leukemia leukemia B. multiple myeloma D. chronic myeloid leukemia

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 353 cell disorders

DIF: TOP: White blood

22. Which of the following is the most common form of blood cancer in children between the ages of 3 and 7?

chronic lymphocytic leukemia multiple myeloma

ANS: C REF: MCS: 354 23.

A. B.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 356

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

heparin warfarin

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders

Memorization

Which combination of parents might have a child with erythroblastosis

fetalis? A. B. C.

Both parents are Rh positive. Both parents are Rh negative. The mother is Rh positive; the father is Rh negative. The mother is Rh negative; the father is Rh positive.

ANS: D TOP: Rh system 27.

occur?

C. D.

Which clotting disorder is an inherited X-linked disorder? thrombosis C. hemophilia thrombocytopenia D. embolism

ANS: C REF: MCS: 357 26.

chronic myeloid leukemia

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

vitamin K tissue plasminogen activator

A. B.

Which of the following substances is given to patients to dissolve blood

clots? A. B.

25.

acute lymphocytic leukemia

The final product in the process of blood clot formation is thromboplastin C. fibrinogen thrombin D. fibrin

ANS: D REF: MCS: 355 24.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 347

Which of the following plasma proteins is necessary for blood clotting to

albumin

B. C. D.

globulin fibrinogen Both A and C are necessary for blood clotting to occur.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 355 28.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma

Memorization

Which of the following tissues is not involved in blood cell formation? myeloid tissue lymphatic tissue red bone marrow All of the above tissues are involved in blood cell formation.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 341

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements

Memorization

29. Which of the following nutrients is not needed for the manufacture of hemoglobin? A. iron B. calcium C. folate D. All of the above nutrients are needed for hemoglobin formation.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 343

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

30. Which of the following is not a method used to transport carbon dioxide in the blood? A. carbon dioxide carried by hemoglobin B. carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma C. carbon dioxide carried as the bicarbonate ion D. All of the above are methods used to transport carbon dioxide.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 344

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

31. If whole blood is spun down in a centrifuge tube, the layers of blood components from top to bottom would be A. plasma—buffy coat—red blood cells B. buffy coat—plasma—red blood cells C. plasma—red blood cells—buffy coat

red blood cells—plasma—buffy coat

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 343 cells (erythrocytes)

DIF: TOP: Red blood

32. Which type of anemia is related to high-dose exposure to toxic chemicals and radiation? A. aplastic anemia C. hemorrhagic anemia B. pernicious anemia D. hemolytic anemia

ANS: A REF: MCS: 349 33.

A. B.

Which agranulocyte can produce antibodies? monocyte C. lymphocyte D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 351 34.

A. B.

36.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

Which granulocyte secretes the chemical histamine? monocyte C. neutrophil eosinophil D. basophil

ANS: D REF: MCS: 352

A. B.

neutrophil basophil

Which granulocyte is the most numerous phagocyte? monocyte C. neutrophil lymphocyte D. basophil

ANS: C REF: MCS: 352 35.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

Which granulocyte helps protect against infections caused by parasites? monocytes C. neutrophil eosinophil D. basophil

ANS: B REF: MCS: 352

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

37. Which substance must be present at all times in the blood for the blood to clot properly? A. thrombin B. fibrin C. calcium

All of the above substances must be present at all times for the blood to clot properly.

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 355

TRUE/FALSE 1.

Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 340 2. of plasma.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume

In whole blood, there is a greater volume of formed elements than

ANS: F REF: MCS: 340

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume

3. Even when a person has a condition of blood acidosis, the pH of the blood is still above 7.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 340 composition and volume

DIF: TOP: Blood

4. Blood clot formation and blood agglutination are two terms for the same process.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types 5.

Application

REF: MCS: 341

Type B blood has A antigen and anti-B antibody.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 346 6.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

Memorization

Type AB blood has both A and B antigens and no antibodies.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 346

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

Memorization

7. Type O blood is considered the universal donor blood type because it has no antibodies.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 346 8.

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types

DIF:

Memorization

A person with B antigen and A antibodies would have type A blood.

ANS: F TOP: Blood types

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 346

9. Only women who are Rh-negative need to be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis.

ANS: T TOP: Blood types

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 347

10. Even women who are Rh-negative rarely have a problem with erythroblastosis fetalis with their first child.

ANS: T TOP: Blood types

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 347

11. Blood plasma is able to carry small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 341 12.

DIF:

Memorization

Blood plasma with the albumin and globulins removed is called serum.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 341

13.

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood plasma

DIF:

Memorization

Lymphocytes and monocytes are both considered formed elements of the

blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 341 elements 14.

Lymphocytes and monocytes are granulocytes.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 341 15.

DIF: TOP: Formed

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements

Memorization

In a 1-mm3 sample of blood, there are more platelets than red blood cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 341

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements

Memorization

16. Lymphatic tissue and myeloid tissue each have the function of hematopoiesis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 341

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements

Memorization

17. A bone marrow transplant can restore the blood-forming function of lymphatic tissue.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 342

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of blood diseases

18. Red blood cells are able to replicate so rapidly because their nucleus is larger than the nuclei of other cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 343

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

19. A normocytic, hypochromic red blood cell is smaller and has less hemoglobin than a usual red blood cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 344

20. A macrocytic, hyperchromic red blood cell is larger and has more hemoglobin than a usual red blood cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 345

21. Oxyhemoglobin and carbaminohemoglobin are names given to hemoglobin when it is transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide, respectively.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 344

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

22. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in a blood sample.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 343

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

23. The buffy coat is found at the very bottom of a test tube of blood that has been “spun down.”

ANS: F REF: MCS: 343

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

24. The buffy coat in a test tube of blood that has been “spun down” is composed of white blood cells and platelets.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 343 25.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by blood loss.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 349

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

26. Exposure to high doses of radiation or toxic chemicals such as mercury can cause pernicious anemia.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 349 27.

Adding iron to the diet is a successful way to treat pernicious anemia.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 350 28.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

Injecting vitamin B12 is a successful way to treat pernicious anemia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 350 29.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

Jaundice can be a symptom of aplastic anemia.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 350

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

30. Sickle cell anemia has a milder form called sickle cell trait and a more severe form.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 350

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

31.

Both sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are inherited diseases.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 350-351

DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

32. Like sickle cell anemia, thalassemia is inherited; but unlike sickle cell anemia, it does not have a milder form.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 350-351 33.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders

Leukopenia almost always indicates an infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 351

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

34. A white blood cell count of 5000 to 7000/mm3 of blood usually indicates an infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes) 35.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 351

Neutrophils are phagocytic granulocytes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 352

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

36. Someone taking antihistamines is blocking the effects of histamine, which can be released by eosinophils.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 352

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

37. A person who is infected by a parasitic worm is likely to have an increased level of eosinophils.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 352 38.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

Basophils release heparin, which helps the blood clot.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 352

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

39. of the body.

Monocytes and macrophages are actually the same cell in different parts

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 352-353 40.

There are two types of lymphocytes: B and T.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 353 41.

DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

Multiple myeloma is a cancer of mature T lymphocytes.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 353

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

42. The common symptom of all leukemias is the drop in the number of white blood cells in the blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 353

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

43. Leukemia can be classified as either acute or chronic and either lymphocytic or myeloid.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 353

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

44. A person with chronic lymphocytic leukemia is likely to be between the ages of 3 and 7.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: White blood cell disorders 45.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 353

Most adult leukemia is acute myeloid leukemia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 354

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

A person with mononucleosis can have a white blood cell count as high 3 as 18,000/mm of blood. 46.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 355

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

47.

Both prothrombin and fibrin are found in normal, non-clotted blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 355 48.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

The function of fibrin is to convert prothrombin into thrombin.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 355

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

49. A person with a severe calcium deficiency has many problems, one of which is that his or her blood has a slower than normal clotting time.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 356

50. Vitamin K is used to stimulate the cells of the spleen to increase their production of prothrombin.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 355

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

51. Heparin, warfarin, and tissue plasminogen activator all function in the same way to prevent blood clot formation.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 356

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

52. In INR, as the number gets larger, the amount of time it takes for the blood to clot gets longer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting 53. is moving.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 356

The difference between a thrombus and an embolus is whether it

ANS: T REF: MCS: 357

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders

Memorization

54. If a person has a thrombus, heparin or tissue plasminogen activator works equally well in getting rid of the clot.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 356-357

TOP: Clotting disorders and Platelets and blood clotting 55. Because of the way hemophilia is inherited, a father must have hemophilia to pass it on to his children.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 357-358

DIF: Memorization TOP: Clotting disorders

56. Because hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome, women are twice as likely to have it as men.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Clotting disorders 57.

Application

REF: MCS: 357

Clotting factor VIII is used to treat hemophilia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 358 58.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders

Memorization

Thrombocytopenia is the hereditary low level of platelets.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 358

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders

Memorization

59. Thrombocytopenia can be caused by something as simple as a side effect of aspirin.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 358 60.

Memorization

The removal of the spleen is one possible treatment for thrombocytopenia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 358 61.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders

Memorization

Most adults have between 4 and 6 liters of blood.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 340

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume

62. In type A blood, the A antigen is in the blood plasma and the anti-B antibody is on the red blood cell.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 346

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: ABO system

Memorization

63. The group of plasma proteins called albumins include antibodies that help the body fight infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 341 64.

DIF:

Memorization

Myeloid tissue is also called red bone marrow.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 341 65.

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood plasma

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements

Memorization

Iron, vitamin B12, and folate are all needed for the manufacture

of hemoglobin. ANS: T REF: MCS: 344 66.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

Mature T cells produce antibodies that help the body fight infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 351 Agranulocytes 67.

DIF: TOP:

Infectious mononucleosis is usually caused by a virus.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 355

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders

MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its corresponding description or definition. A. hemoglobin F. monocyte B. buffy coat G. thrombocyte C. plasma H. erythrocyte D. eosinophil I. serum E. basophil J. fibrin 1. an agranulocyte that becomes a macrophage as it moves into tissue 2. the layer of white blood cells and platelets between the plasma and red blood cells in “spun down” blood 3. the liquid part of the blood that contains all of the functional proteins of the blood 4. another name for a red blood cell 5. the liquid part of the blood with the clotting factors removed

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

another name for platelets white blood cell that protects against parasitic worms the specialized red pigment found in red blood cells an important protein in blood clot formation white blood cell that produces heparin and histamine

ANS: F

REF: Pages 352-353 2. ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF:

TOP: White blood PTS: 1

cells (leukocytes) DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 343 3.

TOP: Red blood cells ANS: (erythrocytes) C 1

REF: MCS: 340 4.

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Blood composition and ANS: volume H PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 341 5.

TOP: Formed elements ANS: I PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 341 6.

TOP: Blood plasma ANS: G PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 341 7.

TOP: Formed elements ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 351 8.

TOP: White blood cells ANS: (leukocytes) A 1

PTS:

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 344 9.

TOP: Red blood cells ANS: (erythrocytes) J 0

PTS:

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 355 10.

TOP: Platelets and blood ANS: clotting E PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 352

TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

PTS:

Match each blood disorder to its description or symptoms. A. hemophilia F. B. acute lymphocytic G. leukemia C. polycythemia H. D. I. hemorrhagic anemia

pernicious anemia sickle cell anemia multiple myeloma erythroblastosis fetalis

acute myeloid leukemia 11.

thalassemia

condition caused by a lack of vitamin B12

baby 12.

can be caused by an Rh-negative mother carrying her second Rh-positive

13.

most common form of blood cancer in children between the ages of 3 and

14.

an inherited blood clotting disorder that can be treated with the

replacement of clotting factor VIII 15. a type of anemia caused by severe bleeding 16. a type of inherited anemia that has major and minor forms and is usually found in people of Mediterranean descent 17. the most common form of acute leukemia in adults 18. a common and very serious cancer of plasma cells 19. inherited anemia caused by the presence of an abnormal type of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S 20. blood disorder characterized by a dramatic increase in the number of red blood cells 11.

ANS: F

REF: Pages 349-350 12. ANS: I

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Red blood cell disorders PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 347 13.

TOP: Red blood cell disorders ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 354 14.

TOP: White blood cell disorders ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 357 15.

TOP: Clotting disorders ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 349 16.

TOP: Red blood cell disorders ANS: J PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 350-351 17. ANS: E

TOP: Red blood cell disorders PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 354 18.

TOP: White blood cell disorders ANS: H PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 353

TOP: White blood cell disorders

DIF:

Memorization

19.

ANS: G

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 350 20.

TOP: Red blood cell ANS: disorders C PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 348

TOP: Red blood cell disorders

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Why is blood acidosis not really acidic?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 340 TOP:

DIF: Application Blood composition

REF: MCS:

2. List the four major blood types and explain the types of antigen and antibodies in each type.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood types

Memorization

REF: Pages 346-347

3. Many emergency rooms have a ready supply of type O blood. Explain why this is so.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 346

TOP: Blood types

4. A woman who is pregnant with her second child is concerned about her baby developing erythroblastosis fetalis. She is Rh-positive, her husband is Rhnegative, and she did not receive RhoGAM after her first baby. What can you tell her that would make her less concerned?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 347

TOP: Blood types

What are the major proteins found in plasma and what is the function of

each? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 341 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Blood plasma

REF: Pages 340-

6. Describe the structure of the red blood cell and explain how its structure assists in accomplishing its function.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 343 TOP: 7.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) Describe a microcytic, hyperchromic red blood cell.

ANS: Smaller than normal, more hemoglobin than normal PTS: 1 345 TOP: 8.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) What is polycythemia and what are some possible treatments?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 348 TOP: 9.

DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders

REF: MCS:

Explain the treatments for pernicious and iron deficiency anemia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 350 TOP: 10.

ANS:

DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders Describe sickle cell anemia.

REF: Pages 349-

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 350 TOP: 11.

DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders

REF: MCS:

Describe thalassemia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 351 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders

REF: Pages 350-

Name and explain the function of the three granulocytes.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 351 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization White blood cells (leukocytes)

REF: MCS:

What are the functions of the B and T lymphocytes?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 353 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization White blood cells (leukocytes)

REF: MCS:

What is multiple myeloma?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 353 TOP: 15. the chapter.

DIF: Memorization White blood cell disorders

REF: MCS:

List and briefly describe the four types of leukemia discussed in

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 354 TOP:

DIF: Memorization White blood cell disorders

REF: Pages 353-

16.

Explain the process of blood clot formation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 356 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Platelets and blood clotting

REF: Pages 355-

17. A patient was being treated for a heart attack caused by a blood clot. Both heparin and tissue plasminogen activator were administered to the patient during the 4- day hospital stay. When were each of these drugs used and what is the function of each?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 356 TOP: 18.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Platelets and blood clotting What is the INR and what is its use?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 356 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Platelets and blood clotting

REF: MCS:

19. What is hemophilia, what is its cause, what is the traditional treatment, and why are new treatments being explored?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 358 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Clotting disorders

REF: Pages 357-

20. What is thrombocytopenia and what are some treatments for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 358 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Clotting disorders

REF: MCS:

21. Explain the difference between agglutination resulting from blood type incompatibility and a blood clot formed as the result of an injury.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 356 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: 346 | Pages 355ABO system and Platelets and blood clotting

Chapter 14: The Heart and Heart Disease Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The apex of the heart lies A. just below the clavicle; right B. touching the diaphragm; left ANS: B REF: MCS: 370 2.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle that opens from the right ventricle into the artery between the right atrium and right ventricle that opens from the left ventricle into the artery

ANS: A REF: MCS: 373 3.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

The aortic semilunar valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle that opens from the right ventricle into the artery between the right atrium and right ventricle that opens from the left ventricle into the artery

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 373 | MCS: 374 4.

A. B. C.

, pointing toward the lung. C. just below the clavicle; left D. touching the diaphragm; right

DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

The pulmonary semilunar valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle that opens from the right ventricle into the artery between the right atrium and right ventricle

that opens from the left ventricle into the artery

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 373 | MCS: 374

A. B. C. D.

The tricuspid valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle that opens from the right ventricle into the artery between the right atrium and right ventricle that opens from the left ventricle into the artery

ANS: C REF: MCS: 373 6.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

The first heart sound is caused by the closing of the valve(s). mitral C. tricuspid semilunar D. both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Heart sounds 7.

A. B.

A. B. ANS: B

Application

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart sounds

REF: MCS: 374

Memorization

Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is angina pectoris C. D. myocardial infarction

ANS: C REF: MCS: 376 9.

DIF:

The second heart sound is caused by the closing of the valve(s). mitral C. tricuspid semilunar D. both A and C

ANS: B REF: MCS: 374 8.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

atherosclerosis embolism

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

Which structure is known as the “pacemaker” of the heart? Purkinje fibers C. atrioventricular node sinoatrial node D. bundle of His PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 379

TOP: Conduction system of the heart

10. Which structure is the part of the conduction system that actually makes the ventricles contract? A. Purkinje fibers C. atrioventricular node B. sinoatrial node D. bundle of His

ANS: A REF: MCS: 379 11.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

The T wave in an electrocardiogram results from depolarization of C. the ventricles depolarization of D. the atria

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 379-380 12.

A. B.

13.

A. B.

14.

A. B.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Electrocardiography

Memorization

A heartbeat that is less than 60 beats per minute is called tachycardia C. sinus dysrhythmia bradycardia D. fibrillation

ANS: B REF: MCS: 380 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Electrocardiography

repolarization of the ventricles repolarization of the atria

The QRS complex in an electrocardiogram results from C. depolarization of repolarization of the ventricles the ventricles D. depolarization of repolarization of the atria the atria

ANS: A REF: MCS: 379

A. B.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography

The P wave in an electrocardiogram results from depolarization of C. the ventricles depolarization of D. the atria

ANS: B REF: MCS: 379

repolarization of the ventricles repolarization of the atria

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

Which of the following is not a cause of heart failure? valve disorder cardiomyopathy

C. D.

cor pulmonale All of the above can cause heart failure.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 383 16.

A. B. C. D.

A. B. C.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart chambers

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of ventricles? They are the lower chambers of the heart. They are called the discharging chambers of the heart. They have thicker walls than the atria. All of the above are true of ventricles.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 371 18.

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of atria? They are the upper chambers of the heart. They are called the discharging chambers. They have thinner walls than the ventricles. All of the above are true of atria.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 371 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart chambers

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of the pericardium? The parietal pericardium is also called the epicardium. The pericardium is made up of two layers of fibrous tissue. The fluid between the two layers of the pericardium helps reduce the friction caused by the beating heart. All of the above are true of the pericardium.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 371

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The pericardium and pericarditis

19. Blood passing through the tricuspid valve has just left which heart chamber? A. left atrium C. right atrium B. left ventricle D. right ventricle

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 20.

A. B.

Blood entering an artery has just left which heart chamber? left ventricle C. right ventricle left atrium D. either A or C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 374 21.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart

Blood leaving the superior vena cava enters which heart chamber? left atrium C. right ventricle left ventricle D. right atrium

ANS: D REF: MCS: 374 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart

Blood returning from the lung enters which heart chamber? left atrium C. right ventricle left ventricle D. right atrium

ANS: A REF: MCS: 374 22.

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart

The sequence of an impulse moving through the conduction system of the

heart is A.

sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers, bundles of His atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers, bundles of His, sinoatrial node sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, bundles of His, Purkinje fibers sinoatrial node, bundles of His, atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers

B. C. D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 379

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

TRUE/FALS E

The heart is located in the mediastinum.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 369

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

The apex of the heart is the most superior part of the heart located

just below the clavicle.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 370

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

3. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is successful because of the heart’s location in the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart 4.

REF: MCS: 370

The myocardium is the working part of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomy of the heart 5.

Application

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 371

The ventricles are the receiving chambers of the heart.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 371

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart

6. The thin layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart is called the visceral pericardium.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 371 7.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart

Another name for the parietal pericardium is the epicardium.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 371

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart

8. There is always a small amount of fluid between the visceral and parietal pericardium, but if too much fluid accumulates, the accumulation can lead to a serious condition called cardiac tamponade.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 371 9.

The heart is doing the most work during systole.

ANS: T TOP: Heart action 10.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart

PTS: 1

DIF:

The heart rests during systole.

Application

REF: MCS: 373

ANS: F REF: MCS: 373 11.

The semilunar valves separate the atria from the ventricles.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 373 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

The tricuspid valve is part of the left side of the heart.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 373 13.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

An incompetent mitral valve allows blood to flow back to the right atrium.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 373

14. A stenosed pulmonary semilunar valve slows the blood moving into the artery that leads to the lung.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders 15.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 373

A mitral valve prolapse is an example of an incompetent atrioventricular

valve. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 373

16. The two heart sounds are caused by the closing of the semilunar and atrioventricular valves.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 374 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart sounds

A mitral valve prolapse might cause an unusual first sound of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Heart sounds 18.

Memorization

DIF:

Application

Both the superior and inferior venae cavae enter the left atrium of the

heart. ANS: F

REF: MCS: 374

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 19. in oxygen.

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

Like most arteries, the pulmonary arteries carry blood that is rich

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart 20.

REF: MCS: 374

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 374

Unlike most veins, the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart 22.

Application

Like most arteries, the aorta carries blood that is rich in oxygen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart 21.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 374

The force that pushes the blood through pulmonary circulation is the right

atrium. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart 23.

Application

REF: MCS: 374

The right and left coronary arteries are the first branch of the aorta.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 374 24.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

An embolism in the coronary arteries can lead to a myocardial infarction.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 376

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

25. Atherosclerosis or “hardening of the arteries” is mostly caused by hereditary factors.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 377

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

26. Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by the heart’s inability to obtain enough oxygen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 377

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

27.

Stroke volume is usually larger than cardiac output.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac cycle 28.

Application

REF: MCS: 377

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 382

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Cardiac cycle

Memorization

The atrioventricular node is sometimes called the pacemaker for the heart.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 379 32.

DIF:

The average cardiac output for a resting adult is about 2 L of blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 382 31.

REF: MCS: 382

The cardiac output is always larger than the stroke volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac cycle 30.

Application

It takes about 72 cardiac cycles to determine the cardiac output.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac cycle 29.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

The sinoatrial node initiates contraction in the atria.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 379

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

33. The bundle of His conducts impulses from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 379 34.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

The Purkinje fibers directly cause the contraction of the ventricles of the

heart. ANS: T REF: MCS: 379

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

35. The structures of the heart cells called the intercalated disks make the conduction of impulses through the heart much more efficient.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 379 36.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart

The T wave of an electrocardiogram occurs with the depolarization of the

atria. ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 379-380

DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography

37. The T wave of an electrocardiogram occurs with the repolarization of the ventricles.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 379

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Electrocardiography

Memorization

38. The QRS complex of an electrocardiogram occurs with the depolarization of the ventricles.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 379

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Electrocardiography

Memorization

39. The repolarization of the atria does not have a specific deflection on an electrocardiogram because the repolarization is hidden by the T wave of the ventricles.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 380

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Electrocardiography

Memorization

40. If damage to the heart caused an unusual deflection of the P wave, the damage probably occurred in one of the atria of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Electrocardiography

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 380

41. AV node heart block can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a large distance between the QRS complex and the T wave.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 380

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

42. In AV node heart block, there is no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex in an electrocardiogram.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 380

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

43. If an electrocardiogram shows no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex, an artificial pacemaker might be implanted to treat the condition.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 380

44. If a patient has an AV node block, the electrocardiogram will show that the ventricles are beating at a faster rate than the atria.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia 45.

Application

REF: MCS: 380

A heart rate less than 55 beats per minute indicates bradycardia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 380 46.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

A heart rate of 110 beats per minute indicates tachycardia.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 380

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

47. A person with sinus dysrhythmia should be treated with an implanted artificial pacemaker.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 380

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

48. A premature contraction can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a longer than normal time between the T wave and the next P wave.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 380

49. A person with bradycardia has more QRS complexes per minute on an electrocardiogram than a person with tachycardia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 381

50. Fibrillation occurs when the heart muscles lose coordination and beat out of step with each other.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 380

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

51. Because the atria set the pace for the heartbeat, atrial fibrillation is much more life threatening than ventricular fibrillation.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 380 52.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

Both electric shock and medication are used to treat fibrillation.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 381

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

53. An automatic external defibrillator requires training as an EMT or a paramedic for it to be effective.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 381 dysrhythmia

DIF: TOP: Cardiac

54. Cor pulmonale is a type of heart failure that is actually caused by a lung problem.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 383 55.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure

Memorization

Congestive heart failure is another term for left-sided heart failure.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 383 57.

Memorization

Right-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary edema.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 383 56.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure

Memorization

The chordae tendineae attach the semilunar valves to the wall of the heart.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 373

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

visceral pericardium systole atria stroke volume diastole

B. C. D. E. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

cardiac output

G. H. I. J.

ventricles parietal pericardium sinoatrial node endocardium

a loose-fitting sac around the heart the receiving chambers of the heart the volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during each beat a thin layer of smooth tissue that lines the chambers of the heart part of the conduction system of the heart called the pacemaker another term for the epicardium term that describes contraction of the heart the discharging chambers of the heart the volume of blood pumped by one ventricle per minute the resting time of the heart between beats

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 371 2.

TOP: Anatomy of the heart ANS C PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 371 3.

TOP: Anatomy of the heart ANS D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 382 4.

TOP: Cardiac cycle ANS J PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 371 5.

TOP: Anatomy of the heart ANS I PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 379 6.

TOP: Conduction system of the ANS heart A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 379 7.

TOP: Anatomy of the heart ANS B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 8.

TOP: Heart action ANS G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 371 9.

TOP: Anatomy of the heart PTS: 0 ANS F :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 382 10.

TOP: Cardiac cycle PTS: 0 ANS: E

REF: MCS: 373

TOP: Heart action

DIF:

Memorization

Match each structure in the heart with its corresponding description or function. A. right atrium G. tricuspid valve B. left atrium H. mitral valve C. right ventricle I. aorta D. left ventricle J. pulmonary artery E. aortic semilunar K. pulmonary vein valve F. pulmonary L. superior vena cava semilunar valve 11. valve that keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle 12. chamber into which blood from the inferior vena cava drains 13. blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart from the lungs 14. valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium 15. heart chamber that pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve 16. blood vessel into which blood that has flowed from the right ventricle and passed through a valve enters next 17. heart chamber into which blood returning from the lungs enters 18. valve through which blood leaving the right ventricle passes on its way to the lung 19. blood vessel that blood from the left ventricle enters after passing through a blood vessel that empties into the right atrium valve 20. 21. heart chamber that blood enters after passing through the tricuspid valve 22. valve that prevents blood from backing up into the right atrium

11.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 12.

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 13.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart K PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 14.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 15.

TOP: Heart valves and valve ANS: disorders D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 16.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 17.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 18.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 19.

TOP: Heart valves and valve ANS: disorders I PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 20.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart L PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 21.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart C PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 374 22.

TOP: Blood flow through the ANS: heart G PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

Match each disorder of the circulatory system with its definition or description. A. H. incompetent heart stenosed heart valve valve B. angina pectoris I. congestive heart failure C. pericarditis J. cardiac tamponade D. dysrhythmia K. tachycardia E. atherosclerosis L. bradycardia F. myocardial M. cor pulmonale infarction G. fibrillation 23. a serious compression of the heart caused by too much fluid between the layers of the pericardium 24. a slow heart rhythm 25. a type of hardening of the arteries 26. a heart valve that is narrower than normal 27. inflammation of the pericardium 28. condition in which the cardiac muscle fibers contract out of step with each other

29. left-sided heart failure 30. any abnormality of heart rhythm 31. medical term for a heart attack 32. caused by lung disorders that obstruct blood flow through the lung, which overloads the right side of the heart 33. a leaky heart valve 34. a rapid heart rhythm 35. severe chest pain that occurs when the myocardium is deprived of adequate oxygen

23.

ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 24.

TOP: The pericardium and ANS: pericarditis L PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 380 25.

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 376 26.

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 27.

TOP: Heart valves and valve ANS: disorders C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 372 28.

TOP: The pericardium and ANS: pericarditis G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 380 29.

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia PTS: 1 ANS: I

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 383 30.

TOP: Heart failure PTS: 1 ANS: D

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 380 31.

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia PTS: 0 ANS: F

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 376 32.

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization ANS M :

REF: MCS: 383 33.

TOP: Heart failure PTS: 0 ANS A :

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 373 34.

TOP: Heart valves and heart valve disease ANS K PTS: 0 DIF: :

Memorization

REF: MCS: 380 35.

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia ANS: B PTS: 0

REF: MCS: 377

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

DIF:

Memorization

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Describe the location, size, and position of the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 370 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Location, size, and position of the heart

REF: Pages 369-

2. Explain how the location of the heart allows for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 370 TOP: heart

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Location, size, and position of the

3. What is the myocardium? What is the endocardium? Describe the structure of the pericardium.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 371 TOP: 4.

DIF: Memorization Anatomy of the heart

REF: MCS:

What is cardiac tamponade? How does it occur?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 373 TOP: 5.

DIF: Memorization Anatomy of the heart

REF: MCS:

Name the four valves of the heart and give the function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 373 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Heart valves and valve disorders

REF: MCS:

6. Explain the difference between an incompetent heart valve and a stenosed heart valve.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 373 TOP: 7.

DIF: Memorization Heart valves and valve disorders

REF: MCS:

Briefly describe rheumatic heart disease and mitral valve prolapse.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 373 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Heart valves and valve disorders

REF: MCS:

8. If a heart murmur were discovered during the first heart sound, what heart valve may be defective? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: MCS: 373 | MCS: 374 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders | Heart sounds 9. Trace a drop of blood from the superior vena cava to the aorta. Include all the heart chambers, valves, and blood vessels that the blood passes through.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 374 TOP: 10.

DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart

REF: MCS:

Explain how the heart muscle is supplied with blood.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 374 TOP:

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

11. Explain why extreme tachycardia might prevent the heart muscle from getting the blood supply that it needs.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: MCS: 380 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease 12.

What is atherosclerosis and what are some risk factors for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 376 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease What is angina pectoris and what are some treatments for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 377 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease Explain the conduction system of the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 379 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Conduction system of the heart

REF: MCS:

Explain the deflections of an electrocardiogram.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 380 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Electrocardiography

REF: Pages 379-

16. If a person has an abnormality in the QRS complex, what part of the heart might not be functioning correctly? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 380 TOP: 17.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Electrocardiography Define or explain bradycardia, tachycardia, and sinus dysrhythmia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 380 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Cardiac dysrhythmia

REF: MCS:

18. What is ventricular fibrillation? What is atrial fibrillation? Explain what is meant by defibrillation and explain how it can be accomplished.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 381 TOP: 19.

DIF: Memorization Cardiac dysrhythmia

REF: Pages 380-

What is cor pulmonale and what is its cause?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure

20.

Memorization

REF: MCS: 383

What is congestive heart failure and what is pulmonary edema?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure

Memorization

REF: Pages 383-384

Chapter 15: Blood Vessels and Blood Circulation Test Bank 1. Blood moves through blood vessels in which of the following sequences, MULTIPLE CHOICE starting from the heart? A. arteries arterioles venules capillaries veins B. arterioles arteries capillaries vein s venules C. arteries arterioles capillaries venules veins D. arteries capillaries veins arterioles venules

ANS: C REF: MCS: 393

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

tunica media tunica intima

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 394

A. B.

tunica externa endothelium

DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

Which layer of the blood vessel is made of tough connective tissue? tunica media C. tunica intima tunica externa D. endothelium

ANS: B REF: MCS: 394 5.

C. D.

Which of the following is the smooth inner layer of the blood vessels? tunica media C. endothelium tunica intima D. both B and C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 394 4.

Memorization

Which blood vessel muscle layer is usually thicker in the arteries than in

veins? A. B.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of arteries? The endothelium has one-way valves. They have a thicker tunica media than veins.

C. D.

They carry blood away from the heart. They carry blood to arterioles.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 393-394 6.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not true of veins? The endothelium has one-way valves. They have a thinner tunica media than arteries. They carry blood away from the heart. They receive blood from venules.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 394 7.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of capillaries? They are made up only of endothelium. The endothelium has one-way valves. They receive blood from arterioles. They are where material is exchanged with the cells.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 394 8.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood vessels

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

A large area of necrosis that has progressed to decay is called an aneurysm C. gangrene ischemia D. phlebitis

ANS: C REF: MCS: 397

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

9. What is a condition in which an artery has become abnormally widened because of a weakness in the arterial wall? A. aneurysm C. gangrene B. ischemia D. phlebitis

ANS: A REF: MCS: 397 10.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

Which of the following is an inflammation of a vein? an aneurysm C. varicose veins phlebitis D. gangrene

ANS: B REF: MCS: 398

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

11. Which of the following is a condition in which blood pools in the veins because the valves have become incompetent? A. an aneurysm C. varicose veins B. phlebitis D. gangrene

ANS: C REF: MCS: 397 12.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

The first blood vessel of systemic circulation is the pulmonary artery C. superior vena cava aorta D. inferior vena cava

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood 13.

A. B.

C. D.

15.

REF: MCS: 399

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 399

Which of the following is not true of hepatic portal circulation? It collects blood from digestive organs and sends that blood to the liver. The blood in the liver from the hepatic portal system has already passed through one set of capillaries. It is important in maintaining blood homeostasis. All of the above are true of hepatic portal circulation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood

A. B.

Application

The first blood vessel of pulmonary circulation is the pulmonary artery C. superior vena cava aorta D. pulmonary vein

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood 14.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 400-401

Which structure in the fetus allows blood to bypass the immature liver? foramen ovale C. ductus arteriosus ductus venosus D. umbilical vein

ANS: B REF: MCS: 402

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

16. Which structure in the fetus allows blood to be shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium?

A. B.

foramen ovale ductus venosus

ANS: A REF: MCS: 402 17.

A. B.

21.

Memorization

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

ductus arteriosus ductus venosus Memorization

Blood pressure is highest in the capillaries C. large veins D. PTS: 1

DIF:

large arteries small veins Application

Blood pressure is lowest in the capillaries C. large veins D.

ANS: B TOP: Blood pressure

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

umbilical vein umbilical artery

ANS: C TOP: Blood pressure 20.

Memorization

Which structure in the fetus carries oxygen-rich blood from the mother

ANS: A REF: MCS: 401 19.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

ductus arteriosus umbilical vein

Which structure in the fetus connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery? umbilical vein C. ductus arteriosus umbilical artery D. ductus venosus

ANS: C REF: MCS: 402 18. to the baby? A. B.

C. D.

PTS: 1

DIF:

large arteries small arteries Application

What is the direct cause of blood pressure? blood volume C. strength of the heart D. contraction

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 403 pressure

REF: MCS: 402

heart rate blood viscosity

DIF: TOP: Blood

22. An increase in which of the following can actually decrease blood pressure? A. blood volume C. heart rate

strength of the heart D. contraction

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 404 pressure

blood viscosity

DIF: TOP: Blood

23. Polycythemia has a direct effect on which of the following factors that influence blood pressure? A. blood volume C. heart rate B. blood viscosity strength of the heart D. contraction

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 405 pressure

DIF: TOP: Blood

24. Which of the following is not a location at which the pulse can be felt in the upper limb? A. popliteal artery C. axillary artery B. radial artery D. brachial artery

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 407

DIF: TOP: Pulse

25. Which of the following is not a location at which the pulse can be felt in the lower limb? A. popliteal artery C. dorsalis pedis artery B. femoral artery D. brachial artery

ANS: D REF: MCS: 407 26.

A. B.

DIF:

Memorization

Which type of shock results from blood loss? cardiogenic shock C. hypovolemic shock D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 408 27.

PTS: 1 TOP: Pulse

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

anaphylactic shock septic shock

Memorization

Which type of shock results from an acute type of allergic reaction? cardiogenic shock C. anaphylactic shock hypovolemic shock D. septic shock

ANS: C REF: MCS: 409

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

Memorization

28. Which type of shock results from the effects of infectious agents, such as bacteria, releasing toxins in the blood?

A. B.

cardiogenic shock neurogenic shock

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 409 shock

C. D.

anaphylactic shock septic shock

DIF: TOP: Circulatory

29. Which type of shock results from a loss of sympathetic impulses sent to the smooth muscles of the blood vessels? A. cardiogenic shock C. anaphylactic shock B. neurogenic shock D. septic shock

ANS: B REF: MCS: 408 30.

A. B.

31.

32.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

Memorization

Which blood vessel carries blood away from the capillaries? arteries C. venules arterioles D. both A and B

ANS: C REF: MCS: 393

A. B.

Memorization

Which type of shock results from any type of heart failure? cardiogenic shock C. anaphylactic shock neurogenic shock D. septic shock

ANS: A REF: MCS: 408

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

Which blood vessel carries blood toward the capillaries? arteries C. venules arterioles D. both A and B

ANS: D REF: MCS: 393

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

33. Which term refers to a decrease in blood supply to a tissue, leading to gradual cell death? A. an aneurysm C. gangrene B. ischemia D. phlebitis

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 397 arteries 34.

DIF: TOP: Disorders of

Another term for a cerebrovascular accident is a stroke C.

a varix

an aneurysm

phlebitis

ANS: A REF: MCS: 397 35.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Disorders of arteries

Memorization

Which factor influences resistance to blood flow? blood viscosity blood volume tension of the muscles in the wall of the blood vessels both A and C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 405

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure

Memorization

36. Which of the following does not increase the risk of developing hypertension? A. genetics B. being female C. being African American D. All of the above increase the risk of developing hypertension.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 408

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypertension

TRUE/FALS E

Capillaries empty into arterioles.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 393

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

2. The tunica externa is much thicker in the arteries, which enables them to deal with the higher blood pressure.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 394

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

3. The tunica media in the arteries helps maintain blood pressure and blood distribution in the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 394 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

The tunica intima is also called the endothelium.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 394

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

5. The tunica intima of both veins and arteries has one-way valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 394

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

6. Although capillaries have no tunica media, both the tunica intima and tunica externa are about the same thickness as they are in arterioles and venules.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 394

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

7. The precapillary sphincter regulates the amount of blood that flows into a capillary bed.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 394 8.

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 397

Ischemia can lead to necrosis and gangrene.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels 11.

Memorization

Arteriosclerosis can lead to ischemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels 10.

DIF:

Veins serve as the blood reservoirs for the body.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 394 9.

PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 397

A varix is a section of an artery that has become abnormally wide.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 397

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

12. A saclike extension in an arterial wall that developed because of weakness in the wall is called an aneurysm.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 397 13.

Incompetent valves in veins cause varices.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 398 14.

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

The term phlebitis refers to an inflammation of a vein.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 398

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

15. A thrombus (blood clot) is more likely to form in an artery than in a vein because of the greater blood flow through the artery.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 398

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

16. The two characteristics true of all arteries are (1) they carry blood away from the heart and (2) they carry blood that is rich in oxygen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 399

17. The two characteristics true of all veins are (1) they carry blood back to the heart and (2) they carry blood that is oxygen-poor.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 399

18. In systemic circulation, arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. In pulmonary circulation, arteries carry oxygen-poor blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 399

19. Blood that drains into the liver from the hepatic portal system has already been through one set of capillaries.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 400

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

20. Blood leaving the hepatic portal system has been detoxified and has the homeostatic level of glucose. It drains into the abdominal aorta so it can be distributed throughout the rest of the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 401 21. to the fetus.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

The two umbilical arteries carry nutrients and oxygen from the mother

ANS: F REF: MCS: 401

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

22. The single umbilical vein carries metabolic waste and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the mother.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 401 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

The ductus arteriosus acts as a shunt for blood around the immature fetal

liver. ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 402 of blood 24.

DIF: TOP: Circulation

The ductus arteriosus connects the aorta and the pulmonary vein.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 402

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

25. The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right ventricle into the left ventricle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 402 of blood

DIF: TOP: Circulation

26. If the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus remain functioning after birth, the blood may bypass the lungs and the baby won’t receive the proper amount of oxygen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 402 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulation of blood

Memorization

Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in capillaries.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 402

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure

Memorization

28.

The blood pressure in the inferior and superior venae cavae is essentially

zero. ANS: T REF: MCS: 402 29. to the body.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure

Very high blood pressure and very low blood pressure can be damaging

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 403 pressure 30.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 403

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 404

As cardiac output goes up, blood pressure goes up.

ANS: T TOP: Blood pressure 33.

PTS: 1

As stroke volume goes up, blood pressure goes up.

ANS: T TOP: Blood pressure 32.

DIF: TOP: Blood

Blood pressure and blood volume are inversely related.

ANS: F TOP: Blood pressure 31.

Memorization

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 404

An increase in heart rate always increases blood pressure.

ANS: F TOP: Blood pressure

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 404

34. An increase in heart rate increases blood pressure only if there is no change in stroke volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood pressure

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 404

35. All other factors being equal, a person with polycythemia has higher blood pressure than someone without that condition.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood pressure 36.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 405

A person with heart failure can have a dangerously low central venous

pressure. ANS: F REF: MCS: 406

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure

Memorization

37. A strong heartbeat and normal arterial blood pressure assist in getting venous blood back to the heart.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 406 38.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure

Memorization

Incompetent valves in veins can make it difficult for blood to return to the

heart. ANS: T REF: MCS: 406

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure

Memorization

39. Because of the expansion of the lungs, deep breathing hinders the return of blood to the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 406 pressure 40.

The presence of a pulse depends on the beating of the heart.

ANS: T TOP: Pulse 41.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 406

A pulse can be found in the head and neck, the arms, and the legs.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 407 42.

DIF: TOP: Blood

PTS: 1 TOP: Pulse

DIF:

Memorization

The most distal pulse can be found in the popliteal artery behind the knee.

ANS: F TOP: Pulse

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 407

43. Circulatory shock can be defined as the failure of the circulatory system to deliver an adequate amount of oxygen to the tissues.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 408 44.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

Memorization

A person who has suffered a serious loss of blood would be most at risk

for cardiogenic shock. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Circulatory shock

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 408

45. A person who has suffered a severe heart attack would be most at risk of cardiogenic shock.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 408

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

Memorization

46. If a person has a severe allergy to bee stings, one possible result of a bee sting might be neurogenic shock.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Circulatory shock

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 408

47. If a person has a severe allergy to bee stings, one possible result of a bee sting might be anaphylactic shock.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Circulatory shock 48.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 409

A person with septicemia is at risk for septic shock.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Circulatory shock

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 409

49. A failure of the sympathetic nervous system to maintain proper muscle tone in the arteries can lead to hypovolemic shock.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 408

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock

Memorization

50. All types of circulatory shock have one thing in common: a drop in blood pressure.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Circulatory shock 51.

DIF:

Synthesis

Venules receive blood from capillaries.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 393

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

REF: Pages 408-409

52. Blood passes through blood vessels in this sequence: arteries capillaries veins venules.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 393

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

arterioles

Memorization

53. Arteries and arterioles both distribute blood from the heart to the capillaries.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 393 54.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels

Memorization

Necrosis that has progressed to tissue decay is called gangrene.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 397

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Disorders of arteries

Memorization

55. The ductus venosus shunts blood around the immature inferior vena cava to the heart.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 402

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Fetal circulation

Memorization

56. Blood with high viscosity increases the peripheral resistance of the circulatory system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 405 57.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Resistance to blood flow

Hypertension exists when the blood pressure exceeds 130/75.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 407

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypertension

Memorization

58. Older age, being African-American, and being female are risk factors for hypertension.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 408

DIF: TOP: Hypertension

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. ductus arteriosus F. capillary

B. C.

artery ductus venosus

G. H.

D. E.

vein tunica media

I. J.

liver

1. 2.

tunica externa hepatic portal system tunica intima foramen ovale

blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart carries blood from the digestive system to another set of capillaries in the

3. structure in the fetus that allows blood to bypass the immature liver 4. blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart 5. the outermost layer of the blood vessel 6. a structure in the fetus that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta 7. layer of the blood vessel also called the endothelium 8. blood vessel in which the exchange of material between the blood and the body occurs 9. structure in the fetus that is an opening or hole in the atrium that allows the shunting of the blood from right to left 10. the muscle layer of the blood vessel

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 393 2.

TOP: Blood vessels PTS: 1 ANS H :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 400 3.

TOP: Circulation of bloo 1 ANS C d : PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 402 4.

TOP: Circulation of bloo 1 ANS B d : PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 393 5.

TOP: Blood vessels PTS: 1 ANS G :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Pages 393394 6.

ANS: D

ANS: A

TOP Blood vessels DIF: Memorization 1 : PTS:

REF: MCS: 402 7.

TOP: Circulation of bloo 1 ANS I d : PTS:

REF: MCS: 394 8.

TOP: Blood vessels PTS: 1 ANS F

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 393

TOP: Blood vessels

ANS: J

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 402 10.

TOP: Circulation ANS of E :

blood PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 394

TOP: Blood vessels

Match each disorder or condition with its corresponding description or definition. A. gangrene F. phlebitis B. aneurysm G. septic shock C. cardiogenic shock H. varicose veins D. arteriosclerosis I. hypovolemic shock E. anaphylactic shock J. neurogenic shock condition that occludes arteries and weakens the arterial wall type of shock that can occur as a complication of septicemia disorder caused by incompetent valves in the veins condition caused by necrosis that has progressed to the point of decay type of shock that is a direct result of some type of heart failure an inflammation of a vein type of shock that results from blood loss type of shock that results from a severe allergic reaction an abnormal widening of the artery caused by weakness of the arterial wall 20. type of shock that results from a loss of sympathetic tone to the muscles of the blood vessels 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

11.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 394 12.

TOP: Disorders of blood ANS: vessels G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 409 13.

TOP: Circulatory shock ANS: H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 397 14.

TOP: Disorders of blood ANS: vessels A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 397 15.

TOP: Disorders of blood ANS: vessels C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 408 16.

TOP: Circulatory shock ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 398

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

17.

ANS: I

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 408 18.

TOP: Circulatory shock ANS: E PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 409 19.

TOP: Circulatory shock ANS: B PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 397 20.

TOP: Disorders of blood ANS: vessels J PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 408

TOP: Circulatory shock

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Describe the structure of the blood vessels.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Blood vessels

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 393-394

2. Explain the differences in the structure of the blood vessels in terms of the function of each type of blood vessel.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 394

TOP: Blood vessels

3. In terms of the function of the circulatory system, explain why the capillaries are the most important of the blood vessels.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 394

TOP: Blood vessels

4. What is arteriosclerosis, what are its risk factors, and what are some treatments for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: 394 | MCS: 397 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels 5.

What is an aneurysm?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 397 TOP: 6.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels

REF: MCS:

What are varicose veins and what is their cause?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 398 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels

REF: Pages 397-

7. What is phlebitis and why is the formation of a thrombus more likely in a vein than in an artery?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 398 TOP: 8.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels

REF: MCS:

Describe systemic circulation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 399 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Circulation of blood

REF: MCS:

9. Describe pulmonary circulation. What is the difference between the blood in the pulmonary arteries and veins compared with the blood in the systemic arteries and veins?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 399

TOP: Circulation of blood 10. Many medications are inactivated by the enzymes in the liver. These medications are almost always given intravenously or by injection into a muscle, not orally. Explain why these medications must be given this way.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Circulation of blood

REF: MCS: 408

11. Describe the ductus venosus, the ductus arteriosus, and the foramen ovale. How do these structures make fetal circulation more efficient?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 402 TOP: 12. be as it is?

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Circulation of blood Explain the blood pressure gradient in the body. Why must the gradient

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 402

TOP: Blood pressure

13. List and briefly explain the four factors that influence blood pressure and explain what would happen to blood pressure if each of them increased.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 405 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Blood pressure

REF: Pages 403-

14. What is pulse? Name two places in the head and neck and two places on the upper and lower extremities where a pulse can be felt.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 406-407

TOP: Pulse 15. Explain the five mechanisms that the body uses to assist blood in the veins to return to the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 406 TOP: 16. the chapter.

DIF: Memorization Blood pressure

REF: MCS:

Name and explain the five types of circulatory shock described in

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 409 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Circulatory shock

REF: Pages 408-

Chapter 16: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Tissue Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Blood capillaries and lymph capillaries have all the following in common except A. they are microscopic B. the fluid in them continues to recirculate through the same vessels C. they are made of endothelial tissue D. All of the above are true of both blood capillaries and lymph capillaries. ANS: B REF: MCS: 417

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

2. Veins in the circulatory system and veins in the lymphatic system have all of the following in common except they A. carry fluid back toward the heart B. have one-way valves C. drain into the thoracic duct D. All of the above are true of both veins of the circulatory system and veins of the lymphatic system.

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 418 lymphatic system

DIF: TOP: The

3. Which of the following is not part of the system that helps return lymph to the blood? A. lacteals C. thoracic duct B. cisterna chyli D. right lymphatic duct

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 418 lymphatic system

DIF: TOP: The

4. The condition in which tissues exhibit swelling because of an accumulation of lymph is called A. lymphadenitis C. lymphoma B. lymphedema D. Hodgkin disease

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 419 lymphatic system

DIF: TOP: The

5. Which lymphatic system structure in the mediastinum helps T lymphocytes mature? A. pharyngeal tonsils C. palatine tonsils B. spleen D. thymus

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 422 lymphatic system 6.

A. B.

Which abdominal structure is the largest of the lymphatic organs? pharyngeal tonsils C. palatine tonsils spleen D. thymus

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 423 lymphatic system 7.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

Which of the following is not part of nonspecific immunity? tears plasma cells phagocytic white blood cells the mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 423-424 9. immunity. A. B.

DIF: TOP: The

Which structures are also referred to as adenoids? pharyngeal tonsils lingual tonsils palatine tonsils None of the above structures are referred to as adenoids.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 422 8.

DIF: TOP: The

DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system

Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of natural passive natural active

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

C. D. DIF:

artificial active artificial passive Application

REF: MCS: 425

10. The fetus receives antibodies from the mother that last several weeks after birth. This is an example of immunity. A. natural passive C. artificial active

natural active

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

D. DIF:

artificial passive Application

REF: MCS: 425

11. If you have had the chickenpox once, you will not get chickenpox again. This is an example of immunity. A. natural passive C. artificial active B. natural active D. artificial passive

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 425

12. If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of immunity. A. natural passive C. artificial active B. natural active D. artificial passive

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system 13.

A. B. C. D.

14.

B. C. D.

Application

REF: MCS: 425

Which of the following is not true of antibodies? They are specific to an antigen. They release histamine to assist in the inflammation process. They stimulate the complement cascade. All of the above are true of antibodies.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 425-427

DIF:

DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

Which of the following is not true of complement? The complement cascade can be stimulated by antibodies. Complement proteins bore holes in the foreign cells. Complement allows the phagocytes to function more efficiently. All of the above are true of complement.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 427

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

15. What cells are called monocytes when they move out of the circulatory system and into the tissues? A. neutrophils C. plasma cells

lymphocytes

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 428 system cells

monocytes

DIF: TOP: Immune

16. B lymphocytes that have been exposed to an antigen develop into cells that produce antibodies called cells. A. plasma C. bursa B. memory D. Kupffer

ANS: A REF: MCS: 429 17.

A. B.

After birth, B cells change from stem cells to immature B cells in bursa cells C. bone marrow memory cells D. thymus gland

ANS: C REF: MCS: 429 18.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

Stem cells seed which structure that helps develop T cells? the bursa cells C. the spleen the liver D. the thymus gland

ANS: D REF: MCS: 430 19.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

Poison ivy reactions are an example of a(n) autoimmune C. isoimmune D.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system 20.

A. B.

ANS: A

Application

REF: MCS: 432

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of a(n) condition. autoimmune C. T cell–mediated isoimmune D. B cell–mediated

ANS: A REF: MCS: 432 21. condition. A. B.

condition. allergic phagocytic

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

The rejection of a transplanted organ is an example of a(n) autoimmune isoimmune PTS: 1

C. D. DIF:

T cell–mediated B cell–mediated Memorization

REF: MCS: 433 22.

A. B.

HIV damages the immune system by invading B C. plasma D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 435 23.

A. B. C. D.

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency

Which of the following is not usually found in lymph? excess fluid protein molecules platelets All of the above are found in lymph.

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 417 lymphatic system 24.

A. B.

26.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymphedema

lymphedema cisterna chyli

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes? The lymph node filters the lymph to remove bacteria. There are more afferent vessels bringing lymph into the node than efferent vessels carrying lymph away from the node. There are more efferent vessels carrying lymph away from the node than afferent vessels bringing lymph to the node. Lymph passes through spaces called sinuses.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 420

A. B. C. D.

DIF: TOP: The

The inflammation of a lymph vessel is called lymphangitis C. elephantiasis D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 419 25.

cells. T memory

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymph nodes

Memorization

Which of the following is not a characteristic sign of inflammation? heat redness swelling All of the above are characteristic signs of inflammation.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 424 27.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonspecific immunity

Which of the following is not true of antibodies? They can neutralize toxins. They must mature in the thymus gland. They can stimulate the complement cascade. They can agglutinate “enemy” cells.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 425-427 28.

A. B. C. D.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Antibodies

Which of the following is not considered an antigen-presenting cell? macrophages plasma cells dendritic cells Neither B nor C is an antigen-presenting cell. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

ANS: B REF: MCS: 428 TRUE/FALS E

The source of lymph is blood plasma.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The lymphatic system 2.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 417

Interstitial fluid that enters the lymphatic system is called lymph.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 417

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

3. Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made up of loosefitting endothelium cells to allow material to move in and out easily.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 417 4.

ANS: T

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made of endothelium. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 417

TOP: The lymphatic system

5. The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct each carry about 50% of the lymph back to the blood.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 418

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

6. Both the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into arteries in the neck region.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 418 lymphatic system 7.

DIF: TOP: The

The cisterna chyli is a storage area for lymph moving through the thoracic

duct. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 418 lymphatic system 8.

The lacteals are special lymph capillaries found in the liver.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 418 lymphatic system 9.

DIF: TOP: The

Lymphedema is an abnormal swelling of tissue due to an accumulation of

lymph. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 419 lymphatic system 10.

DIF: TOP: The

In rare situations, a parasitic worm can cause lymphedema.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 419 lymphatic system

DIF: TOP: The

11. Lymph from the efferent lymph vessel is filtered in the lymph node, and damaged cells and bacteria are removed.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 420

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

12. One of the main functions of the lymph node is to filter the blood and remove damaged cells and bacteria.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 419

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

13. The structure of lymph veins is similar to that of veins carrying blood in that they both have valves that allow the fluid in the vein to move in only one direction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The lymphatic system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 418

14. Lymph in the efferent vessels is “cleaner” than the lymph in the afferent vessels.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The lymphatic system 15.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 420

Special clusters of lymph nodes in the intestine are called lacteals.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 418 lymphatic system

DIF: TOP: The

16. Inflammation, tenderness, and swelling of a lymph node is called a lymphoma.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 422 lymphatic system 17.

DIF: TOP: The

One of the functions of the lymph node is to trap and destroy cancer cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 421 lymphatic system

DIF: TOP: The

18. Because of the extensive lymphatic system in the body, it can be the source of the spread of cancer from one area of the body to another.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 421

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

19. Lymphomas are tumors of the lymphatic system. Although they are fairly common, they are almost always benign.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422 20.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

Two types of malignant lymphoma are Hodgkin disease and non-

Hodgkin lymphoma.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 422 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

The thymus gland is the largest of the lymphatic organs.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

22. The thymus is located in the neck and is important in the development of B cells after birth.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

23. The thymus is located in the chest and is important in the development of T cells after birth.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 422 24.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

The thymus reaches its maximum size and function in later middle age.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

25. The thymus can also be considered an endocrine gland because it releases the hormone thyroxine.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

26. There are three sets of tonsils: the palatine on each side of the throat, the lingual at the base of the tongue, and the pharyngeal near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 422 27.

The palatine tonsils are also known as the adenoids.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422 28.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

The spleen is the largest of the lymphatic organs.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 423

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

29. The spleen has a number of functions including being a reservoir for blood and salvaging iron from the hemoglobin or worn-out red blood cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 423

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

30. A serious infection such as scarlet fever can cause the spleen to shrink, making it difficult for the body to fight off the infection.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 423

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system

31. Tears and the mucous membrane of the respiratory system can function as part of the body’s nonspecific immune system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 423 32.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The immune system

Memorization

A person cannot get Dutch elm disease because of an inherited immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 423

33. A baby getting antibodies from mother’s milk is an example of active artificial immunity.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 425

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The immune system

Memorization

34. Being protected from polio because of a polio vaccine is an example of artificial active immunity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 425

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The immune system

Memorization

35. Being immune from mumps because you had them as a child is an example of artificial active immunity.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 425

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The immune system

Memorization

36. A person with a severe immune system deficiency would not be able to develop natural or artificial active immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 425

37. A person who received an injection of antibodies made by another person would have artificial active immunity.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 425

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The immune system

Memorization

38. The main difference between active and passive immunity is the location in which the antibodies are formed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 425

39. Both natural and artificial active immunity require a functioning immune system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 425

40. Both natural and artificial passive immunity require a functioning immune system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 425

41. “Lifelong” immunity would most likely be natural or artificial active immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 425

42. Antibodies and complement are both protein molecules that are important in the immune system.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 425 43.

ANS: F

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

The combining sites on an antibody are uniquely shaped convex regions. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 425

TOP: Immune system molecules

44. Antibodies fit a specific antigen because the shape of the antigen occupies a unique site on the antibody.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 425

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

45. One of the ways an antibody helps destroy an antigen is by combining with a number of them and causing them to agglutinate in a process that is just like the formation of a blood clot.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 426

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

46. An antibody cannot stimulate the complement cascade unless it is attached to an antigen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 427

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

47. Complement destroys foreign cells by poking holes in them and causing them to “bleed” to death.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 427 48.

Macrophages and dendritic cells are considered antigen-presenting cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 428 49.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

The primary function of macrophages and neutrophils is phagocytosis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 428 50.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

B cells reach maturity in the thymus gland.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 429

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

51. When a B cell comes into contact with an antigen, it develops into a plasma cell or a memory cell.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 429

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

52. Once a B cell is transformed into a plasma cell, it can release as many as 50,000 antibodies an hour.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 429

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

53. One way that a person acquires lifelong immunity to a particular illness is through the process of memory cells developing from the B cell that was originally exposed to the disease antigen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 429 54.

T cells go through a maturation process in the thymus gland.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 430 55.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

T cells and B cells are activated by the attachment of a specific antigen.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 430

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

56. T cells and B cells release about the same number of antibodies after they have been stimulated by an antigen.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 430 57. the antigen.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

T cells kill foreign cells by releasing toxic chemicals in the area of

ANS: T REF: MCS: 430

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

58. B cells and T cells leave the lymph node and move to the tissues to destroy the antigen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 429-430 59.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells

The first bee sting a person experiences is not likely to generate an allergic

reaction. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

Application

REF: MCS: 432

60. An anaphylactic reaction is most likely caused by the release of antibodies by B cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

Application

REF: MCS: 432

61. An allergic response caused by T cells occurs more rapidly than an allergic response caused by B cells.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 432

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

62. In an organ transplant, the autoimmune response of the recipient must be suppressed or the organ will be rejected.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 433

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

63. Graft-versus-host rejection occurs only if the transplanted tissue contains viable immune or stem cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

Application

REF: MCS: 433

64. An identical twin can donate an organ to his or her twin without fear of it being rejected because their human lymphocyte antigens match.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

Application

REF: MCS: 434

65. Severe combined immune deficiency is an example of an acquired immune deficiency.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 434

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency

66. The only proven cause of an acquired immune deficiency is a viral infection.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 435 67.

TOP: Immune system deficiency

The immune cell most affected by HIV is the T cell.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 435

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency

68. A person who has had an organ transplant is more likely to be considered immune deficient than a person who has not had a transplant.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Immune system deficiency 69.

DIF: TOP: The

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymphedema

Memorization

After puberty, the thymus continues to enlarge but at a much slower rate.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 422 72.

REF: MCS: 434

Lymphatic vessel inflammation is called elephantiasis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 419 71.

Application

Excess fluid and protein molecules are returned to the blood as lymph.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 417 lymphatic system 70.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus

DIF:

Memorization

Nonspecific immunity is also called humoral immunity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 423 immunity

DIF: TOP: Nonspecific

73. Heat, redness, pain, and swelling are the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 424 74.

Specific immunity is sometimes called adaptive immunity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 424 75.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonspecific immunity

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Specific immunity

Memorization

When neutrophils leave the blood and enter the tissue, they are called

macrophages. ANS: F REF: MCS: 428

PTS: 1 TOP: Phagocytes

DIF:

Memorization

76. Dendritic cells are produced in the bone marrow and can be found in the blood, skin, or lining of the digestive tract.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 428 77.

PTS: 1 TOP: Phagocytes

DIF:

Memorization

The most numerous cells of the immune system are the macrophages.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 429

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymphocytes

Memorization

78. A contact dermatitis such as the response to poison ivy is caused by the action of T cells.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 432

PTS: 1 TOP: Allergy

DIF:

Memorization

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. lacteals F. B. Hodgkin disease G. C. thymus H. D. right lymphatic I. duct E. lymph node J.

bloo d

thoracic duct spleen lymphadenitis pharyngeal tonsil cisterna chyli

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

largest organ of the lymphatic system, which is found in the abdomen small filtering structures to which afferent lymph vessels carry lymph lymphatic capillaries in the walls of the small intestine also called adenoids structure that carries most of the lymph from the body back to the blood name given to swelling and tenderness of lymph nodes structure that is necessary for the maturation process of T cells a type of malignant lymphoma structure that returns about 25% of the lymph from the body back to the

10.

part of the thoracic duct; serves as a storage area for lymph

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 423 2.

TOP: The lymphatic ANS: system E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 419 3.

TOP: The lymphatic PTS: 1 ANS: system A

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 418 4.

TOP: The lymphatic ANS: system I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 422 5.

TOP: The lymphatic ANS: system F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 418 6.

TOP: The lymphatic ANS: system H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 420 7.

TOP: The lymphatic ANS: system C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 422 8.

TOP: The lymphatic PTS: 1 ANS: system B

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 422 9.

TOP: The lymphatic PTS: 0 ANS: system D

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 418 10.

TOP: The lymphatic ANS: system J PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 418

TOP: The lymphatic system

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. F. natural active immunity B. T cell G. C. antigen H. D. artificial active I. immunity E. macrophage J.

natural passive immunity B cell complement artificial passive immunity antibody

11. one of the major phagocytic cells of the immune system 12. usually a foreign protein that stimulates the formation of an antibody 13. immunity conferred by a mother passing on antibodies to her baby through breast milk

cells

14.

a group of proteins (activated by B cells) that can drill holes in foreign

15.

immunity conferred by getting the measles and subsequently being

immune to ever getting the disease again 16. lymphocytes that go through a maturation process in the thymus gland 17. proteins, produced in great numbers by the immune system, that attach to antigens and help destroy them 18. immunity conferred by getting a polio vaccine that provides you with immunity to polio 19. lymphocytes that can become plasma cells when activated by an antigen 20. immunity conferred by getting a shot of hepatitis A antibodies after being exposed to hepatitis A 11.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 428 12.

TOP: Immune system cells ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 425 13. REF: MCS: 425

TOP: Immune system molecules ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Application

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 430 17.

TOP: Immune system cells PTS: 1 ANS: J

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 425 18. REF: MCS: 425

TOP: Immune system molecules ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 429 20.

TOP: Immune system cells PTS: 0 ANS: I

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 425

TOP: The immune system

TOP: The immunesystem 14. ANS: H REF: MCS: 427 15. REF: MCS: 425

PTS: 1

TOP: Immune system molecules ANS: A PTS: 1

TOP: The immunesystem 16. ANS: B

TOP: The immunesystem 19. ANS: G

Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description. A. autoimmunity B. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome C. lymphedema D. isoimmunity E. anaphylactic shock F. elephantiasis G. systemic lupus erythematosus H. urticaria I. contact dermatitis J. lymphangitis 21. a life-threatening allergic reaction caused by an antigen-antibody reaction 22. an inappropriate response to self-antigens 23. inflammation of a lymphatic vessel 24. a condition caused by the HIV retrovirus 25. swelling in the lymphatic system that results from a parasitic worm infestation 26. a delayed allergic reaction such as the reaction to poison ivy, triggered by T cells 27. an excessive reaction of the immune system to antigens from a different individual of the same species 28. an abnormal condition in which tissue exhibits swelling due to an accumulation of lymph 29. a common autoimmune disease named for the rash that often develops on the face 30. another term for hives

21.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 432 22.

TOP: Allerg ANS y A :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 432 23.

TOP: Autoimmunit PTS: 1 ANS y J :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 419 24.

TOP: Lymphedem PTS: 1 ANS a B :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 435 25.

TOP: Acquired immune ANS deficiency F PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 419

TOP: Lymphedema

26.

ANS I

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 432 27.

TOP: Allerg ANS y D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 433 28.

TOP: Isoimmunit ANS y C :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 419 29.

TOP: Lymphedem PTS: 0 ANS a G :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 432 30.

TOP: Autoimmunit PTS: 0 ANS y H :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 432

TOP: Allergy

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Explain how lymph is formed and how it returns to the blood.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 417 TOP: 2. similar.

DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system

REF: MCS:

Explain the ways in which blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 417 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system

REF: MCS:

3. Explain how blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are different. How is this difference important to the function of the lymph system?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 418 TOP: 4.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: The lymphatic system Explain the functioning of the lymph node. Explain its role in both

fighting and spreading cancer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 421 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 420The lymphatic system

5. Explain the two types of lymphoma, and list the signs and symptoms of lymphoma.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 422 TOP: 6.

DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system

REF: MCS:

Explain the location and function of the thymus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 422 TOP: 7.

DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system

REF: MCS:

Explain the location and function of the tonsils.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 423 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system

REF: Pages 422-

8. Explain the location and function of the spleen. Describe and give the cause of splenomegaly.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 423 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system

REF: MCS:

9. Briefly describe the inflammatory response. Explain the causes of the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response and how this response assists the immune system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 424 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The immune system

REF: MCS:

10. Describe and give examples of natural active, natural passive, artificial active, and artificial passive immunity.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 425 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: The immune system

11. Describe the functioning of antibodies. How do they activate the complement cascade?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 427 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Immune system molecules

REF: Pages 425-

Explain the functioning of the complement proteins in the immune system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 427 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization Immune system molecules

REF: MCS:

Explain the functioning of macrophages in the immune system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 428 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization Immune system cells

REF: MCS:

Explain the development and functioning of B cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 430 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Immune system cells

REF: Pages 429-

Explain how memory cells can confer lifelong immunity against a disease.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 429 TOP: 16.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Immune system cells Explain the development and functioning of T cells.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 431 TOP: 17. an allergen.

DIF: Memorization Immune system cells

REF: Pages 430-

Explain why an allergic reaction is unlikely after the first exposure to

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 432 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 431Hypersensitivity of the immune system

18. Explain the difference in an allergic reaction caused by B cells and an allergic reaction caused by T cells.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 432 TOP: system 19.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Hypersensitivity of the immune

What is autoimmunity? Give an example of an autoimmune disease.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 432 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Hypersensitivity of the immune system

REF: MCS:

20.

What is isoimmunity?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 433 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Hypersensitivity of the immune system

REF: MCS:

21. Explain the difference between graft-versus-host rejection and host- versus-graft rejection.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 433 TOP: 22.

DIF: Memorization Hypersensitivity of the immune system

REF: MCS:

What can be done to prevent the rejection of transplanted tissue?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 434 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Hypersensitivity of the immune system

REF: Pages 433-

23. If an identical twin donates an organ to his or her twin, why is rejection unlikely?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 434 TOP: system 24.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Hypersensitivity of the immune

Give an example of a congenital immune deficiency.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 434 TOP: 25.

DIF: Memorization Immune system deficiency Describe HIV and explain its effect on a cell.

REF: MCS:

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 435 TOP: 26.

DIF: Memorization Immune system deficiency

REF: MCS:

How is HIV spread?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 435 TOP: 27.

DIF: Memorization Immune system deficiency

REF: MCS:

What can be done to treat an HIV infection?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 435 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Immune system deficiency

REF: MCS:

Chapter 17: Immunity MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient in early labor says to the nurse, I will pass on protection from diseases, and the baby will not ever need any shots. What is the best response by the nurse? a. Babies are born with innate (natural) immunity at birth. b. Babies are born with immunoglobulin E (IgE), an antibody that crosses the placenta, but it only briefly protects the baby. c. Yes, immediate antibody immunity from the mother is the first line of defense against disease for babies. d. Yes, the mother passes on cell-mediated immunity. ANS: B Infants acquire antibodies from the mother, but they only last a few months. 2. A school nurse starts a clean-up campaign at a local elementary school in an effort to combat allergens. What is the most common allergic response disorder? a. Anaphylaxis b. Asthma c. Contact dermatitis d. Urticaria ANS: B Fungi are principle allergens that can trigger respiratory allergic responses such as asthma. 3. A nurse is discussing the bodys first and second lines of defense against infection with a community group. What does the bodys first line of defense include? a. Teeth b. Sweat c. White blood cells d. T lymphocytes ANS: B The sweat glands excrete an antimicrobial enzyme. 4. A nurse explains that a medication given to a patient with a severe inflammatory response mimics a hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex. To what hormone is the nurse referring? a. Aldosterone b. Testosterone c. Histamine d. Cortisol ANS: D Cortisol slows the release of antihistamine and stabilizes lysosomal membranes. 5. With the exposure to an antigen, a nurse explains that the initiator of the inflammatory response is the presence of histamine. What is responsible for releasing histamine? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Basophils d. Monocytes ANS: C Basophils release histamine.

6. A nurse is bathing a patient who is immunodeficient and has a Cryptococcus infestation. What is the classification of this organism? a. Bacterium b. Virus c. Fungus d. Protozoa ANS: C Cryptococcus fungal infections can be life threatening. 7. A mosquito or a fly carries an organism that infects another living organism. What is this mode of transmission of infection? a. Common vehicle b. Direct excretion c. Ingestion d. Vector ANS: D Vector-borne diseases are carried from one host to another. Part of the life cycle of the pathogen occurs in the body of the fly, mosquito, or tick. 8. What is the most effective method to control the spread of communicable disease? a. Isolate the infected person from all contact with noninfected persons. b. Vigorously petition the community health department to increase spraying. c. Administer prophylactic antibiotics to the rest of the family. d. Demonstrate and monitor a return demonstration of a good hand washing technique by the family. ANS: D Good hand washing is the cornerstone of infection control. 9. An air conditioner duct cleaning is recommended by a home health nurse. What should this precaution prevent the spread of in the patients home? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Fungi d. Protozoa ANS: C Air blowing into a room may be the mode of transfer of fungi spores that have remained dormant in the duct during nonuse. 10. A school nurse cautions a group of parents about children playing barefoot on dirt. To what infectious agents can this action expose the children? a. Helminthes b. Protozoa c. Rickettsiae d. Mycoplasmas ANS: A Worms in the dirt seek entry through the foot skin and into the blood circulation, where they are carried to the lungs; coughed up into the mouth; and swallowed into the gastrointestinal tract, where they cause serious infections. Barefooted children who do not have proper hygiene are at risk for these worm infections. 11. A large, heavy, and older adult patient has a stroke and develops an infected decubitus ulcer on the sacrum during the hospital stay. Approximately 2 weeks after the patient has gone home, the patient returns to the hospital with pneumonia. What is the distinction

between these two infections? a. The decubitus ulcer infection was transmitted from other patients on the unit, but the pneumonia was transmitted from a neighbor visiting when the patient was at home. b. The decubitus ulcer and pneumonia are caused by the same host. c. The decubitus ulcer is termed a health careassociated infection, and pneumonia is termed a community-acquired infection. d. The decubitus ulcer is considered to be caused by protozoa, but the pneumonia is considered unpreventable because of the size of the patient. ANS: C Because the decubitus ulcer developed during the stay in a health care facility, it is classified as a health careassociated infection. Because the patient did not have pneumonia when he left the facility, it is classified as a community-acquired infection. 12. On a visit to administer the fifth in a series of 10 antibiotic doses, a home health nurse is told that the patient is now complaining about a bothersome vaginal discharge. The nurse communicates the problem and arranges for medication. What is the most likely cause of the vaginal discharge? a. Poor genital hygienenot changing underwear often enough b. Allergy to the soap or soap products used in the genital area c. Superinfection response to the antibiotic medication d. Sexual contact with another infected person ANS: C Antibiotics frequently wipe out good bacteria and cause other bacteria to overgrow, causing vaginitis. 13. Which patient diagnosis is most likely related to acquiring a health careassociated infection? a. Abdominal abscess after a ruptured appendix b. Lice and nits that have come from the emergency department c. Urinary infection after the insertion of a Foley catheter d. Two-day, postoperative foot fungus after a hip replacement ANS: C Iatrogenic or health careassociated infections are those acquired during the hospital stay. Urinary catheters are frequently the source of such infections. Abscesses frequently follow a ruptured appendix; lice and athletes foot are long-term conditions not caused by hospital interventions. 14. A community picnic is held. A number of the attendees become ill after the picnic. How was the pathogen acquired? a. Indirect contact b. Common vehicle c. Airborne transmission d. Vector transmission ANS: B Food at the picnic that was shared in common became the vehicle for transmission. 15. A nurse caring for a patient who is immunosuppressed is diligent about protecting the patient from infection. When visitors come in, in addition to having them put on isolation attire, what should the nurse also prohibit? a. Battery-operated DVD player b. Book c. Potted plant

d. Box of candy ANS: C The soil in the flowerpot is a reservoir for bacteria and fungi. 16. A nurse explains that although some drugs reduce inflammation, they also hinder the bodys immune response. What are examples of such drugs? a. Antihistamines and salicylates b. Bronchodilators and corticosteroids c. Cardiotonic and anticholinergics d. Diuretics and sedatives ANS: B The immune response is dampened by corticosteroids. 17. A patient has had several increasingly severe allergic reactions during last years pollen season. This year, the patient comes regularly to the office to receive some antigen injections. What education will the nurse provide regarding these injections? a. They will combat infection brought on by the allergic response. b. They will act as a steroid to lessen the allergic response. c. They will increase tolerance to the antigen. d. They will decrease the production of the antibodies. ANS: C Injections of increasing amounts of minute doses of the antigen will desensitize the body against the antigen. 18. A patient who is receiving daily steroids for the control of a condition calls the nurse to ask advice about whether a small child who has been exposed to influenza should come and visit because she has not had any symptoms. What is the most appropriate response by the office nurse? a. Yes, let the child visit. There is no reason not to visit because this child is not sick. b. No, the child should not visit. Infectious diseases are often most communicable in the short period before the child actually becomes ill. c. It would be up to the patient. Plan not to get overtired with a small child running and bouncing around. d. Take the child who is not sick to her own physician and ask this question first. ANS: B Children, especially those who have been exposed to a contagious disease but are not yet symptomatic, are still very contagious, especially to an immunocompromised patient. 19. A patient with the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile infection asks what has caused the diarrhea. What is the best response by the nurse? a. It is caused by a protozoal infection. b. It is caused by a fecaloral contamination. c. It is caused by an inflammatory response. d. It is caused by a long-term antibiotic therapy. ANS: D Superinfections such as Clostridium difficile infections are caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, which kills all the natural flora of the bowel and causes diarrhea. 20. A patient receiving a large intramuscular dose of antibiotic was asked to please wait 20 to 30 minutes before checking out. What is the reason for this request? a. The office staff needs to make sure that the right medicine was administered before the patient leaves. b. The nurse always forgets to ask the patient about allergies before administering the

antibiotic. c. Antibiotics are a common source of severe allergic reactions within the first few minutes after an injection. d. The staff wants to make sure that the patient has time to pay for the services delivered that day. ANS: C Antibiotic administration is a common cause of anaphylaxis. The patient is asked to wait to allow medical personnel to reverse the condition should it occur within minutes after an injection. 21. After receiving an injection of penicillin, a patient undergoes an anaphylactic reaction. What should the nurse do first? a. Administer oxygen. b. Prepare fluids to combat shock. c. Notify the charge nurse. d. Cover with several blankets. ANS: A The first intervention should be to supply oxygen. Notification of the charge nurse and the administration of fluids to combat hypovolemia will come afterward. Covering with blankets would increase the vasodilation and increase the shock.

Chapter 18: The Respiratory System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

A. B.

Which of the following is not a respiratory organ? larynx C. diaphragm D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 446

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structural plan

bronchi nose

Memorization

2. Which of the following does not directly assist in the exchange of gases between blood and the air? A. thin walls of the alveoli B. thin walls of the capillaries in the lung C. viscosity of the respiratory mucosa D. alveolar surface area

ANS: C TOP: Structural plan 3.

A. B.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 447

Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract? trachea C. pharynx larynx D. nose

ANS: A REF: MCS: 447

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory tracts

Memorization

A. B.

Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract? trachea C. bronchi larynx D. lungs

ANS: B REF: MCS: 447 5.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory tracts

Memorization

One of the functions of the respiratory mucosa is to help trap contaminants found in inspired air act as a thin barrier between the blood capillaries and alveoli help humidify inspired air both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 448

A. B.

Another term for nostrils is nasal cavities nasal septum

ANS: C REF: MCS: 448 7.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx? tracheopharynx C. oropharynx nasopharynx D. laryngopharynx

ANS: A REF: MCS: 449 10.

Memorization

Which structure does not drain into the nasal cavity? ethmoid sinus C. frontal sinus eustachian tube D. lacrimal sacs

ANS: B REF: MCS: 449

A. B.

DIF:

external nares internal nares

Which of the following bones does not contain a paranasal sinus? ethmoid C. maxilla mandible D. frontal

ANS: B REF: MCS: 449 8.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

Which structure is not a part of the larynx? thyroid cartilage C. vocal cords D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 451

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

DIF:

epiglottis eustachian tube

Memorization

11. The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue that inspired air passes through are A. primary bronchi C. bronchioles B. secondary bronchi D. alveolar ducts

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 454 bronchioles, and alveoli 12.

DIF: TOP: Bronchi,

The movement of air into and out of the lung is called cellular respiration C. internal respiration

external respiration

ANS: D REF: MCS: 457 13.

A. B.

15.

A. B. C. D.

ANS: D

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

internal respiration pulmonary ventilation

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

Pulmonary ventilation has two phases; they are inspiration and expiration external respiration and internal respiration external respiration and cellular respiration internal respiration and cellular respiration

ANS: A REF: MCS: 457 17. than in the A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

The exchange of gases between the lung and the blood is called cellular respiration C. internal respiration external respiration D. pulmonary ventilation

ANS: B REF: MCS: 457 16.

Memorization

The use of oxygen for cell metabolism is called cellular respiration C. external respiration D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 457

A. B.

DIF:

pulmonary ventilation

The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called cellular respiration C. internal respiration external respiration D. pulmonary ventilation

ANS: C REF: MCS: 457 14.

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

External respiration requires a higher oxygen concentration in the . blood; lungs C. cells; blood blood; cells D. lungs; blood PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 457

TOP: Respiration 18. than in the A. B.

Internal respiration requires a higher oxygen concentration in the . blood; lungs C. cells; blood blood; cells D. lungs; blood

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Breathing patterns

called A. B.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 458

19. The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is volume. tidal C. inspiratory reserve residual D. expiratory reserve

ANS: C REF: MCS: 462 20.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Breathing patterns

Memorization

Which volume of air is not included in the vital capacity? tidal volume C. inspiratory reserve volume residual volume D. expiratory reserve volume

ANS: B REF: MCS: 462

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

21. The two most important respiratory control centers for regulating breathing are located in which part of the brain? A. medulla C. cerebral cortex B. pons D. cerebellum

ANS: A REF: MCS: 462 22.

A. B.

Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found in the medulla oblongata C. aorta carotid artery D. both B and C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 463 23.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration

Normal breathing is referred to as apnea C. dyspnea D.

eupnea Cheyne-Stokes respiration

ANS: C REF: MCS: 463 24.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Types of breathing

Memorization

Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as apnea C. dyspnea D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 463

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Types of breathing

eupnea Cheyne-Stokes respiration

Memorization

25. The type of respiration that is an alternation of hyperventilation and a stoppage in breathing that usually occurs in critically ill people is referred to as A. apnea C. eupnea B. dyspnea D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

ANS: D REF: MCS: 464 26.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Types of breathing

Memorization

Besides air distribution and gas exchange, the respiratory organs assist in C. the sense of warming the air we olfaction breathe filtering the air we D. all of the above breathe

ANS: D REF: MCS: 443

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

27. The total surface area of all the alveoli in the lungs would be about square meters. A. 50 C. 250 B. 100 D. 500

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 447 plan 28.

called A. B.

The shelflike structures that protrude into the nasal cavity on each side are nasal septa conchae

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 449 29.

DIF: TOP: Structural

C. D.

turbinates both B and C

DIF: TOP: Nose

The vocal cords are found in the larynx C.

laryngopharynx

B. ANS: A REF: MCS: 451 30.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

32.

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

DIF:

A. B.

Memorization

C. D.

laryngitis epiglottitis

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper respiratory infections

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

The last part of the respiratory tree is the bronchioles C. alveoli D.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli 33.

trachea

All of the following are true of the trachea except it is lined with a respiratory membrane to trap impurities in the air its framework is made of 15 to 20 Cshaped cartilage rings it is also called the windpipe All of the above are true of the trachea.

ANS: A TOP: Trachea

A. B.

Croup is a type of rhinitis pharyngitis

ANS: C REF: MCS: 452 31.

oropharynx

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 453

alveolar sacs alveolar ducts REF: MCS: 454

An incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung for any reason is called pneumothorax C. atelectasis hemothorax D. pleurisy

ANS: C REF: MCS: 456

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lungs and pleura

Memorization

34. Which is a broad term to describe conditions of progressive, irreversible obstruction of expiratory airflow? A. asthma B. emphysema C. bronchitis D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: D REF: MCS: 466

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Obstructive pulmonary disorders

TRUE/FALSE 1. The two major functions of the respiratory system are gas exchange and air distribution.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 443

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

2. One of the reasons for the efficiency of the respiratory system is the thin layer of tissue between the alveoli and the blood capillary. This layer is called the respiratory mucosa.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 447

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structural plan

Memorization

3. The total area for gas exchange in the lung is about 10 square meters, larger than the entire surface of the body.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 447 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Structural plan

Memorization

The upper respiratory tract refers to structures that are outside the chest

cavity. ANS: T REF: MCS: 447

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory tracts

Memorization

5. The mucous blanket covers all of the structures of the respiratory system except the epiglottis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 448

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory mucosa

Memorization

6. One of the functions of the mucous blanket is the removal of contaminants from the air that is inhaled.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 448

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory mucosa

Memorization

7. The function of the cilia of the lower part of the respiratory system is to push contaminated mucus up to the pharynx.

ANS: T

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 448

TOP: Respiratory mucosa

8. Irritants such as cigarette smoke cause more mucus to be produced and the cilia to work more rapidly to clear the respiratory tract.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 448 9.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

The nasal septum divides the right and left paranasal sinuses.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 449 11.

Memorization

External nares is another name for nostrils.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 448 10.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Respiratory mucosa

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

The paranasal sinuses drain into the pharynx.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 449

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

12. Because the bones of the paranasal sinuses are so thin, it is possible for a sinus infection to erode the bone and infect the brain.

ANS: T TOP: Nose 13.

PTS: 1

Application

REF: MCS: 449

Application

REF: MCS: 449

Tears drain into the nasal cavity.

ANS: T TOP: Nose 14.

DIF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

The functions of the conchae include warming and humidifying inspired

air. ANS: T REF: MCS: 449

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

15. When a person is winded and breathing through the mouth, the inspired air has a higher level of humidity because of the higher amount of moisture in the mouth.

ANS: F TOP: Nose

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 449

16. A person with severe respiratory problems may be put on a ventilator and have oxygen supplied through a tube in the trachea. The oxygen must be “bubbled” through water to replace one of the functions of the upper respiratory tract.

ANS: T TOP: Nose 17.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 449

The pharynx may also be called the throat.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 449

PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

18. From superior to inferior, the parts of the pharynx are oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx.

ANS: F TOP: Pharynx 19.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 449

The pharynx is actually part of two body systems.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 449 20.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

The auditory tubes connect the middle ear and the oropharynx.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 449

PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

21. If the auditory tubes were blocked, it could make an airplane flight very uncomfortable.

ANS: T TOP: Pharynx 22.

DIF:

Application

The pharynx contains tonsils.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 449 23.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

Larynx is another name for pharynx.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 451

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 449

24.

The “Adam’s apple” is part of the larynx.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 451 25.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

DIF:

Memorization

The space between the vocal cords is called the epiglottis.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 451 27.

DIF:

The vocal cords are found in the larynx.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 451 26.

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

DIF:

Memorization

The epiglottis is made of cartilage.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 451

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

DIF:

Memorization

28. When a person swallows, the epiglottis closes to prevent food from entering the esophagus.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 451 29.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

Pharyngitis is another name for a sore throat.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 452 32.

Memorization

Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same symptoms.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 451 31.

DIF:

Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same cause.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 451 30.

PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

Laryngitis can be caused by either bacteria or a virus.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 452

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

33. Croup is the most serious form of laryngitis and is frequently life threatening.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 452

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

34. Epiglottitis is the most serious form of laryngitis and usually occurs in the early teens.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 452

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

35. A deviated septum results from the nasal septum being significantly “deviated” from the midsagittal plane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract 36.

REF: MCS: 452

Hemostasis is another name for a nosebleed.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 453 37.

Application

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

The trachea, or windpipe, connects the larynx and the bronchi.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 453

PTS: 1 TOP: Trachea

DIF:

Memorization

38. In order to keep the trachea open in any position, the trachea is made of O- shaped cartilage stacked one on top of the other.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 453 39.

PTS: 1 TOP: Trachea

Memorization

There are two primary bronchi, one entering each lung.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 453 40.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

The primary and secondary bronchi have similar structures.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 454

41.

Bronchioles are the smallest of the air distribution tubes.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 454 42.

Bronchioles do not contain cartilage.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 454 43.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

The gas exchange function of the respiratory system occurs in the alveoli.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 454

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

44. Surfactant is a substance that helps increase the surface tension in the alveoli to keep them from collapsing during expiration.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 454

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

45. Both infant and adult respiratory distress syndrome have a similar cause: the lack of surfactant.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 455 46.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

There are four lobes of the lung: two on the right lung and two on the left

lung. ANS: F REF: MCS: 455 47.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lungs and pleura

Memorization

The visceral pleura is deep to the parietal pleura.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Lungs and pleura

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 456

48. Pleurisy is a condition in which part of the lung cannot completely expand or has collapsed.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 456 49.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lungs and pleura

Memorization

Both a pneumothorax and a hemothorax can cause a portion of the lung to

collapse. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Lungs and pleura 50.

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 457

Internal respiration and cellular respiration refer to the same thing.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 457 53.

REF: MCS: 456

Neither internal respiration nor cellular respiration occurs in the lung.

ANS: T TOP: Respiration 52.

Application

Pulmonary ventilation and external respiration refer to the same thing.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 457 51.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

The contraction of the diaphragm increases the size of the thoracic cavity.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 457

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

54. For inspiration to occur, the interior of the chest cavity must be below atmospheric pressure.

ANS: T TOP: Respiration

PTS: 1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 457

55. For normal, quiet breathing, only the abdominal muscles are needed for respiration.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 457

PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

56. To ensure all of the birthday candles would be blown out, a person would use the abdominal muscle and the internal intercostals.

ANS: T TOP: Respiration

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 457

57. For gas exchange to occur in the lung, the alveoli must have a higher oxygen content than the blood and a lower carbon dioxide content than the blood.

ANS: T TOP: Respiration

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 458

58. If external respiration is working properly, the blood leaving the lung will have more oxyhemoglobin and less carbaminohemoglobin than the blood entering the lung.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 460

59. Most of the oxygen in the blood is carried as oxyhemoglobin and most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as carbaminohemoglobin.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 460

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood transportation of gases

60. If internal respiration is working properly, the blood leaving the tissues will have less oxyhemoglobin and more carbaminohemoglobin than the blood entering the tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 460

61. The amount of air moved into and out of the lungs during normal, quiet breathing is called tidal volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 461-462

DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns

62. The sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume is equal to the residual volume.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 462 63.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Breathing patterns

Memorization

Residual volume is considered part of expiratory reserve volume.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 462

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Breathing patterns

Memorization

64. If you have exercised very vigorously and are breathing very hard, your tidal volume has increased, but your inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume has decreased.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Breathing patterns

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 462

65. The body responds in two ways if the cells need more oxygen: the rate and depth of breathing increases and the heart rate increases.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 462

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration

66. The two most important respiratory control centers in the body are in the cerebral cortex.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 462 67.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration

The brainstem has the most important role in the control of the respiration.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 462

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration

68. A rise in the pH will stimulate the chemoreceptors of the carotid artery and aorta and cause an increase in breathing rate.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Regulation of respiration

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 462

69. The pulmonary stretch receptors act to inhibit inspiration so the lungs do not become overinflated.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 463 70.

Restrictive pulmonary disorders inhibit inspiration.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 466 71.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 443 72.

ANS: F

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

The respiratory system assists in the sense of olfaction. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

The trachea is part of the upper respiratory tract. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 447

TOP: Respiratory tracts

73. The four paranasal sinuses are found in the frontal, maxillary, mandibular, and sphenoid bones.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 449 74.

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

Memorization

Conchae and turbinates are the same structures.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 449 75.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Nose

DIF:

Memorization

The palatine tonsils are also called adenoids.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 449

PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

76. The trachea is lined with the respiratory membrane to trap dust and pollen in the air.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: MCS: 448 | MCS: 453

DIF: Application TOP: Trachea

77. Atelectasis is defined as the incomplete expansion or collapse of the lung for any reason.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 456 78.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lungs and pleura

Memorization

Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 463

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Breathing patterns

Memorization

79. Dyspnea that is relieved by moving to an upright or sitting position is called apnea.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 463

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Breathing patterns

Memorization

MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description.

A. B. C. D. E.

pharynx bronchi alveoli respiratory mucosa respiratory membrane

F. G. H. I. J.

bronchioles lung trachea pleura larynx

1. structure, also known as the windpipe, that connects the larynx and bronchi 2. a thin layer of tissue that separates the air in the lungs and the blood in the lung capillaries 3. structures in which gas exchange between the blood and air in the lungs takes place 4. structure to which the auditory tubes from the middle ear lead; also called the throat 5. tubes that branch from the trachea and contain cartilage as part of their structure 6. a thin membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs 7. a membrane that lines most of the tubes of the air distribution system 8. structure that the primary bronchi enter 9. structure that contains the vocal cords 10. small air distribution tubes that have walls without cartilage

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 453 2.

TOP: Trachea ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 447 3.

TOP: Structural plan ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 454 4.

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and ANS: alveoli A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 449 5.

TOP: Pharynx ANS: B

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 454 6.

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and ANS: alveoli I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 456 7.

TOP: Lungs and pleura ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 448

TOP: Respiratory mucosa

PTS: 1

ANS: G

Memorization REF: MCS: 453 9. ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF:

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 451 10.

TOP: Larynx ANS: F

REF: MCS: 454

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

PTS:

DIF:

Memorization

Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description. A. oxyhemoglobin F. external respiration B. vital capacity G. bicarbonate ion C. pulmonary H. residual volume ventilation D. chemoreceptors I. internal respiration E. tidal volume J. pulmonary stretch receptors 11. the amount of air moved in and out of the lung during normal breathing 12. the movement of air into and out of the lungs 13. how most of the oxygen is carried in the blood 14. prevent damage to the lung from overinflation by inhibiting inspiration 15. the sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume 16. how most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood 17. the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lung 18. the amount of air left in the lungs after the most forceful expiration 19. the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the tissues 20. structures that stimulate an increase in breathing when there is too little oxygen in the blood, too much carbon dioxide in the blood, or a drop in pH in the blood

11.

ANS: E

Memorization REF: 12. ANS: C transportation of gases REF: MCS: 457 TOP: Respiration 13. ANS: A

PTS: 1

DIF:

Pages 461-462 PTS: 1

TOP: Blood DIF: Memorization

PTS:

DIF:

Memorization

PTS:

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 460 14.

TOP: Respiration ANS: J

REF: MCS: 463

TOP: Regulation of respiration

15. REF: MCS: 462 16.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Blood transportation of gases ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 460 17.

TOP: Respiration ANS F :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 457 18.

TOP: Respiration ANS H :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 462 19.

TOP: Blood transportation of ANS gases I PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 457 20.

TOP: Respiration ANS D :

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 463

TOP: Regulation of respiration

PTS: 0

Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description. A. epistaxis B. atelectasis C. rhinitis D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease E. infant respiratory distress syndrome F. pharyngitis G. hemothorax H. asthma I. chronic bronchitis J. epiglottitis 21. inflammation or swelling of the nasal mucosa 22. a life-threatening condition caused by a lack of surfactant in the lung that affects premature infants 23. a broad term used to describe conditions of progressive, irreversible obstruction of expiratory airflow 24. a life-threatening upper respiratory infection caused by an Hib infection that often struck children between the ages of 3 and 7 25. a chronic inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles 26. an incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung for any reason 27. another term for a sore throat 28. an obstructive disorder characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscle of the walls of the bronchial air passages 29. another term for a nosebleed

30.

refers to blood in the pleural space

21.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 451 22.

TOP: Upper respiratory infections ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 455 23.

TOP: Respiratory distress ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 466 24.

TOP: Obstructive pulmonary ANS: disorders J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 452 25.

TOP: Upper respiratory ANS: infections I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 467 26.

TOP: Obstructive pulmonary ANS: disorders B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 456 27.

TOP: Lungs and pleura ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 452 28.

TOP: Upper respiratory ANS: infections H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 467 29.

TOP: Obstructive pulmonary ANS: disorders A PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 453 30.

TOP: Anatomical disorders ANS: G PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 456

TOP: Lungs and pleura

SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the respiratory membrane? Why is it so important to the efficiency of the respiratory system that this membrane be thin?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 447

TOP: Structural plan

What structures are included in the upper respiratory tract? In the lower

respiratory tract? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 447 TOP: 3.

DIF: Memorization Respiratory tracts

REF: MCS:

What is the respiratory mucosa?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 448 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Respiratory mucosa

REF: MCS:

4. Explain the function of the cilia that line the respiratory air distribution system. Explain the effect of cigarette smoke on the cilia and why the smoke is particularly harmful to the smoker.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 448 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Respiratory mucosa

5. Briefly describe the structure of the nose. Describe the paranasal sinuses and their function.

ANS: Answers will vary. DIF: Memorization Nose

PTS: 1 449 TOP:

REF: Pages 448-

6. Describe the structure of the pharynx. Explain its role in equalizing the pressure across the eardrum.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 7.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 449

TOP: Pharynx

Explain why the number of tonsillectomies has dropped in recent years.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 450

Describe the structure of the larynx. What is the function of the epiglottis?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Larynx

REF:

MCS: 451

REF:

MCS: 451

Describe rhinitis. What are some of its causes?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract 10.

What is pharyngitis?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 452 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

REF: MCS:

11. What is laryngitis? What is epiglottitis? Who is most at risk for these and what are the symptoms?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 452 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

REF: MCS:

Describe the structure of the trachea.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 453

TOP: Trachea 13. Describe the structure and location of the primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, and bronchioles.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 454 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

REF: Pages 453-

14. When a person has a severe asthma attack, his or her bronchioles narrow but the bronchi do not narrow nearly as much. Explain why you would expect this to be the case.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 454 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

15. Explain how the structure of the alveoli increases the efficiency of gas exchange in the lung.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 454 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

16. What is the cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome? Who is most at risk and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 455 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Respiratory distress

REF: MCS:

17. Air passing through the upper respiratory tract must overcome some resistance to get to the lung. If an injury caused an opening in the chest wall, what mechanisms would lead to a possible pneumothorax?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Lungs and pleura | Respiration 18.

REF: MCS: 456

Explain the process of normal inspiration.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

19.

DIF:

REF: MCS: 457

Memorization

Explain the process of normal expiration.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

REF: MCS: 457

Memorization

20. Explain the difference between normal inspiration and expiration and the type of inspiration and expiration that would be needed to blow up a balloon in as few breaths as possible.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 21.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 457

TOP: Respiration

Explain the process of gas exchange in the lung.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

22.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 457-458

Explain the process of gas exchange in the tissues.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 458-459

23. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for hemoglobin than does oxygen. Why does this make exposure to carbon dioxide so dangerous?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 460 TOP: 24.

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Blood transportation of gases List and explain the volumes in pulmonary ventilation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 462 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Blood transportation of gases

REF: Pages 461-

25. Explain the role of the medulla oblongata and the pons in regulating respiration.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 462 TOP: 26.

DIF: Memorization Regulation of respiration

REF: MCS:

Explain the role of the cerebral cortex in regulating respiration.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 462 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Regulation of respiration

REF: MCS:

27. Explain the role of the chemoreceptors and the pulmonary stretch receptors in regulating respiration.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 463 TOP: 28.

DIF: Memorization Regulation of respiration

REF: MCS:

Name and explain four types of breathing explained in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 464 TOP: 29.

DIF: Memorization Breathing patterns

REF: Pages 463-

Explain the symptoms and causes of pneumonia and tuberculosis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 464 TOP: 30.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

REF: MCS:

Define and give an example of a restrictive pulmonary disorder.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 466 TOP: 31.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

REF: MCS:

Explain the symptoms and causes of chronic bronchitis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 467 TOP: 32.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

REF: MCS:

Describe the conditions of emphysema and asthma.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 467 TOP: 33. be treated?

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

REF: MCS:

Describe lung cancer. What is the most common cause and how can it

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 467

TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

Chapter 19: The Digestive System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following types of food processing occurs only in the digestive system? A. metabolism C. digestion B. absorption D. both B and C

ANS: D REF: MCS: 475 2.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

The cone-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the frenulum C. uvula papillae D. palatine tonsil

ANS: C REF: MCS: 479

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

DIF:

Memorization

3. Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities when a person swallows? A. the frenulum C. the hard palate B. the uvula D. both B and C

ANS: B REF: MCS: 479 4.

A. B. C. D.

DIF:

Memorization

Which bone is not part of the hard palate? mandibular bone maxillary bone palatine bone All of the above bones are part of the hard palate.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 479 5. crown? A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

DIF:

Memorization

Which substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the cementum enamel

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 481

C. D. DIF: TOP: Teeth

dentin pulp

6. Which substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the neck and root? A. cementum C. dentin B. enamel D. pulp

ANS: A REF: MCS: 481 7.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

DIF:

Memorization

Most of the shell of the tooth is made of what substance? cementum C. dentin enamel D. pulp

ANS: C REF: MCS: 481

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

DIF:

Memorization

8. Which is one of the most common diseases of the mouth and teeth in the developed world? A. periodontitis C. gingivitis B. dental caries D. thrush

ANS: B REF: MCS: 482 9.

A. B.

Which condition results from an infection by a yeastlike fungal organism? periodontitis C. gingivitis dental caries D. thrush

ANS: D REF: MCS: 483 10.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

Which of the following is not a salivary gland? sublingual gland C. D. submandibular gland

ANS: C REF: MCS: 484

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands

submaxillary gland parotid gland

Memorization

11. Which enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates? A. salivary amylase C. salivary sucrase B. salivary maltase D. salivary lactase

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 484 glands 12.

DIF: TOP: Salivary

Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for peristalsis?

A. B.

serosa submucosa

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 486 digestive tract

C. D.

muscularis mucosa

DIF: TOP: Wall of the

13. In the abdominal cavity, which part of the wall of the digestive tract is made of the visceral peritoneum? A. serosa C. muscularis B. submucosa D. mucosa

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 486 digestive tract 14. and nerves? A. B.

DIF: TOP: Wall of the

Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract contains blood vessels serosa submucosa

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 486 digestive tract

C. D.

muscularis mucosa

DIF: TOP: Wall of the

15. If you have eaten a big meal, which part of the stomach may prevent the diaphragm from moving downward and possibly cause you to have trouble taking a deep breath? A. body C. fundus B. pylorus D. rugae

ANS: C TOP: Stomach

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 488

16. The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following? A. ileum, jejunum, C. jejunum, duodenum duodenum, ileum B. duodenum, ileum, D. duodenum, jejunum jejunum, ileum

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 490 intestine

DIF: TOP: Small

17. Which structure does not increase the surface area of the lining of the small intestine? A. microvilli C. villi B. lacteals D. plicae

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 490

TOP: Small intestine

18. Which of the following structures would bile produced by the liver not have to pass through to get to the small intestine? A. cystic duct B. hepatic duct C. common bile duct D. Bile would have to pass through all of these structures.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Liver and gallbladder 19.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

21.

A. B. C. D.

DIF: TOP: Liver and

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest carbohydrates C. fats D.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 495 22.

REF: MCS: 493

One of the effects of untreated gallstones that block the bile ducts could be hepatitis A C. hepatitis B jaundice D. cirrhosis

ANS: B REF: MCS: 493

A. B.

Application

The effect of cholecystokinin is to stimulate the liver to produce bile stimulate the liver to release bile cause contraction of the gallbladder to release bile inhibit the production of bile in the liver

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 493 gallbladder 20.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas

DIF:

proteins all of the above

Memorization

The order in which material passes through the large intestine is descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 496 intestine 23.

A. B.

The splenic flexure joins the colon to the ascending; C. descending D. ascending; transverse

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 496 intestine 24.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

27.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum

DIF:

Memorization

The process of carbohydrate digestion primarily takes place in the mouth C. small intestine stomach D. large intestine

ANS: C TOP: Digestion

A. B.

DIF: TOP: Large

Which of the following is not an important extension of the peritoneum? greater omentum mesentery fundus All of the above are extensions of the peritoneum.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 499 26.

colon. transverse; descending descending; sigmoid

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease of the digestive system? Crohn disease diverticulitis dysentery None of the above are autoimmune diseases.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 498 25.

DIF: TOP: Large

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 501

Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion? fatty acids C. simple sugars glycerol D. amino acids

ANS: D REF: MCS: 501

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

28.

A. B.

Protein digestion begins in the mouth C. stomach D.

ANS: B REF: MCS: 501 29.

A. B.

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion? amino acids C. simple sugars glycerol D. both A and B

ANS: B REF: MCS: 501 30.

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

small intestine large intestine

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

Fat digestion begins in the mouth stomach

ANS: C REF: MCS: 501

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

C. D. DIF:

small intestine large intestine Memorization

31. Which of the following is a general term for inflammation or infection of the gums? A. periodontitis C. caries B. gingivitis D. candidiasis

ANS: B REF: MCS: 482 32.

A. B.

The largest of the salivary glands is the sublingual C. submaxillary D.

ANS: C REF: MCS: 484 33.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands

gland. parotid submandibular

Memorization

Mumps is a viral infection of which salivary gland? sublingual gland C. submandibular gland parotid gland D. submaxillary gland

ANS: B REF: MCS: 484 34.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands

Memorization

The stomach wall has how many layers of muscle? one C. three two D. four

ANS: C REF: MCS: 488 35.

PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach

DIF:

Memorization

Pyloric stenosis is

an obstructive narrowing of the pyloric sphincter a condition in which the pyloric sphincter muscles do not relax, so food cannot leave the stomach caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori both A and C

C. D. ANS: A REF: MCS: 489 36.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach

Which of the following are lymph capillaries in the small intestine? plicae C. villi lacteals D. duodenal papillae

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 490 intestine 37.

A. B.

Which duct drains bile from the gallbladder? hepatic duct C. common bile duct D.

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 493 gallbladder 38.

A. B. C. D.

DIF: TOP: Small

cystic duct papillary duct

DIF: TOP: Liver and

Which of the following is not true of the pancreas? It is an endocrine gland. It is an exocrine gland. It secretes enzymes that help digest the three major kinds of food. All of the above are true of the pancreas.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 494-495

DIF: Memorization TOP: Pancreas

TRUE/FALSE 1.

ANS: T

Another name for the gastrointestinal tract is the alimentary canal. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 475

TOP: Introduction

2. Digestion and metabolism occur only in the digestive system, whereas absorption occurs in every cell in the body.

ANS: F REF: Page 475 3.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

The soft and hard palates make up the roof of the mouth.

ANS: T REF: Page 479

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

DIF:

Memorization

4. The soft palate and the frenulum prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing.

ANS: F REF: Page 479

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

All teeth have cusps.

ANS: F TOP: Teeth

PTS: 1

Application

REF: Pages 480-481

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 481

Most of the shell of the neck and root of the tooth is made of cementum. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 481

Most of the shell of the tooth is made of dentin.

ANS: T REF: Page 481 10.

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

PTS: 1

ANS: F TOP: Teeth 9.

DIF:

Most of the shell of the crown of the tooth is made of enamel.

ANS: F TOP: Teeth 8.

Memorization

By the age of 2, most children have 20 teeth, their full set of baby teeth.

ANS: T REF: Page 481 7.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

DIF:

Memorization

Leukoplakia, primarily caused by tobacco use, can develop into cancer.

ANS: T REF: Page 482

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

11. Dental caries is one of the most common diseases of underdeveloped countries.

ANS: F REF: Page 482 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

Untreated periodontitis can lead to gingivitis.

ANS: F REF: Page 483

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

13. People who have had organ transplants and are taking immunosuppressive drugs have an increased risk of thrush.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth 14.

Application

REF: Page 483

The salivary glands begin the process of chemical digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Salivary glands 15.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 484

The largest of the salivary glands is the submandibular gland.

ANS: F REF: Page 484

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands

Memorization

16. The muscularis layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for moving food though the digestive tract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 486

17. In the abdominal cavity, the submucosa is composed of the visceral peritoneum.

ANS: F REF: Page 486 18.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

The lower esophageal sphincter separates the stomach and the esophagus.

ANS: T REF: Page 486 19.

DIF:

Memorization

An ineffective lower esophageal sphincter could lead to Barrett esophagus.

ANS: T TOP: Esophagus 20.

PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 487

In a hiatal hernia, the esophagus passes through the diaphragm muscle.

ANS: F REF: Page 487

PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus

DIF:

Memorization

21. The gastric glands secrete gastric juices and hydrochloric acid to raise the pH of the stomach.

ANS: F TOP: Stomach 22. the pylorus.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 488

The stomach is divided into three parts: the body, the fundus, and

ANS: T REF: Page 488

PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach

DIF:

Memorization

23. With a hiatal hernia, it is most likely the fundus that passes through the opening of the diaphragm.

ANS: T TOP: Stomach

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 490

24. The pyloric sphincter prevents food and gastric juice from backing up into the esophagus.

ANS: F REF: Page 489

PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach

DIF:

Memorization

25. A pylorospasm, a fairly common condition in infants, can prevent food from leaving the stomach and moving into the small intestine.

ANS: T REF: Page 489 26.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach

Spicy foods and smoking are the primary causes of ulcers.

ANS: F REF: Page 489

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach

27. Chewing tobacco, consuming excessive alcohol, and eating smoked or preserved foods are risk factors in developing stomach cancer.

ANS: T REF: Page 490

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach

28. Microvilli, villi, and lacteals add surface area to the inner layer of the small intestine.

ANS: F REF: Page 490

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine

Memorization

29. Microvilli, villi, and lacteals assist in the absorptive function of the small intestine.

ANS: T REF: Page 491

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine

Memorization

30. The perfectly smooth walls of the small intestine ensure food moves through it more efficiently.

ANS: F REF: Page 492

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine

Memorization

31. Products from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas empty into the duodenum of the small intestine.

ANS: T REF: Page 491

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine

Memorization

32. People who are lactose intolerant do not have enough lactase to digest lactose sugar. This is a type of malabsorption syndrome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of the small intestine 33.

Application

REF: Page 492

The liver produces bile.

ANS: T REF: Page 492 34.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver and gallbladder

All bile going to the small intestine must pass through the cystic duct, the

hepatic duct, and the common bile duct. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 493

35. The end result of cholecystokinin release is more fat emulsification in the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Liver and gallbladder 36.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland.

ANS: T TOP: Pancreas 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cirrhosis are all liver conditions caused

ANS: F REF: Page 494 39.

REF: Page 493

Rapid weight loss greatly reduces the risk of gallstones.

ANS: F REF: Page 493 38. by viruses.

Application

Gallstones that block the common bile duct can lead to jaundice.

ANS: T REF: Page 493 37.

DIF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 494-495

Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that can digest all three types of food.

ANS: T REF: Page 495

PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas

DIF:

Memorization

41. The ileocecal valve separates the ileum of the small intestine from the cecum of the large intestine.

ANS: T REF: Page 496

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine

Memorization

42. Because the large intestine is important in the absorption of water, salts, and vitamins, the walls of the large intestine are covered with villi, just like the walls of

the small intestine. ANS: F REF: Page 496

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine

Memorization

43. Materials moving through the large intestine will pass through the splenic flexure before they pass through the hepatic flexure.

ANS: F TOP: Large intestine 44.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 496-497

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

The parietal peritoneum is deep to the visceral peritoneum.

ANS: F TOP: Peritoneum 47.

REF: Page 496

People with colonic polyps have an increased risk of colon cancer.

ANS: T REF: Page 498 46.

Application

Both diarrhea and constipation are peristalsis problems.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine 45.

DIF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 499

The stomach is covered by the visceral peritoneum.

ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 499

48. An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space is called peritonitis.

ANS: F REF: Page 499

PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum

DIF:

Memorization

49. The greater omentum and the mesentery are the two most prominent extensions of the peritoneum.

ANS: T REF: Page 499 50.

PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum

DIF:

Memorization

Amylase breaks down starch to glucose.

ANS: F REF: Page 501 51.

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

The process of protein digestion begins in the stomach.

ANS: T REF: Page 501 54.

Memorization

Simple sugars are the end product of carbohydrate digestion.

ANS: T REF: Page 501 53.

DIF:

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.

ANS: F REF: Page 501 52.

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

Pepsinogen and trypsin are enzymes that digest protein.

ANS: F TOP: Digestion

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

55. Protein digestion begins in the stomach but is completed in the small intestine.

ANS: T REF: Page 501 56.

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

Fat digestion begins and ends in the small intestine.

ANS: T REF: Page 501 59.

Memorization

Carbohydrate digestion begins and ends in the small intestine.

ANS: F TOP: Digestion 58.

DIF:

Amino acids are the end product of fat digestion.

ANS: F REF: Page 501 57.

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

Bile and lipase are the enzymes involved in the chemical digestion of fat.

ANS: F TOP: Digestion 60.

Application

REF: Page 501

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and glycerol.

ANS: T REF: Page 501 62.

DIF:

Bile causes mechanical rather than chemical digestion of fat.

ANS: T TOP: Digestion 61.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

Trypsin would be considered a protease.

ANS: T TOP: Digestion

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

63. Digestion is necessary only because the food molecules cannot be absorbed as ingested.

ANS: T TOP: Absorption

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

64. Because the concentration of digested food is much higher in the small intestine than it is in the blood, absorption occurs by diffusion.

ANS: F REF: Page 502 65.

ANS: F

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Absorption

DIF:

Memorization

The digestion of food includes both mechanical and chemical digestion.

ANS: T REF: Page 475 67.

DIF:

Lacteals are lymphatic vessels that are important in the absorption of fats.

ANS: T REF: Page 502 66.

PTS: 1 TOP: Absorption

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

Bacteria in the large intestine make vitamin B12 for the body. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 479 68.

The hard palate is made up of two bones, the maxillary and the sphenoid.

ANS: F REF: Page 479 69.

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

DIF:

Memorization

Taste buds are located on the side of papillae.

ANS: T REF: Page 480 71.

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

The word deglutition means swallowing.

ANS: T REF: Page 479 70.

TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

DIF:

Memorization

The word mastication means chewing.

ANS: T REF: Page 480

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

DIF:

Memorization

72. It is considered normal for adults to have either 32 or 36 teeth depending on the presence of wisdom teeth.

ANS: F REF: Page 481 73.

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

DIF:

Memorization

Mumps is a viral infection of the submandibular salivary gland.

ANS: F REF: Page 484

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands

Memorization

74. Although the mouth is considered part of the digestive system, only mechanical digestion takes place there.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Salivary glands 75.

Application

REF: Page 484

The hollow space in a tube is called the lumen.

ANS: T REF: Page 486 76.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

The mesentery anchors the loops of the digestive tract to the posterior wall

of the abdominal cavity. ANS: T REF: Page 486 77.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

The semisolid mixture of food and gastric juice in the stomach is called

chyme. ANS: T REF: Page 488 78.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach

DIF:

Memorization

The upper right border of the stomach is known as the greater curvature.

ANS: F REF: Page 489 80. H. pylori.

DIF:

Rugae in the stomach are seen only when the stomach is full.

ANS: F REF: Page 488 79.

PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach

DIF:

Memorization

Most gastric and duodenal ulcers result from infection with the bacterium

ANS: T REF: Page 489

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach

81. The pancreatic duct enters the small intestine about 3 cm proximal to the entry of the common bile duct.

ANS: F REF: Page 495

PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas

DIF:

Memorization

82. Colitis is an inflammation of abnormal saclike outpouchings of the intestinal wall.

ANS: F REF: Page 498 83.

The vermiform appendix was named as such because it looks like a worm.

ANS: T REF: Page 498 84.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendix and appendicitis

As a person ages, the likelihood of developing appendicitis increases.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 498-499 85.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendix and appendicitis

Peritonitis is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space.

ANS: F REF: Page 499

PTS: 1 TOP: Ascites

DIF:

Memorization

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding function or description. A. large intestine F. B. pancreas G. C. liver H. D. stomach I. E. esophagus J.

salivary gland gallbladder mouth pharynx small intestine

1. structure through which food enters the digestive tract 2. structure that concentrates and stores bile 3. absorbs water, salts, and some vitamins 4. produces amylase, which begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates 5. produces bile 6. contains sections called the body, the pylorus, and the fundus 7. tubelike structure that connects the mouth and esophagus 8. structure that has villi and microvilli lining its interior walls to assist in absorption 9. a collapsible tube that carries food to the stomach 10. produces a digestive juice containing enzymes that digest all three types of food

1. REF: Page 479 2. REF: Page 493

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Large intestine ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

DIF:

Memorization

TOP: Mouth ANS G PTS: 1 : Liver and gallbladder TOP:

3. REF: Page 496 4. REF: Page 484

ANS: A

TOP: Salivary glands 5. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Page 492 6.

TOP: Liver and ANS gallbladder D PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 488 7.

TOP: Stomach ANS I :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 485 8.

TOP: Pharynx ANS J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 490 9.

TOP: Small intestine ANS E PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 486 10.

TOP: Esophagus ANS B :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 495

TOP: Pancreas

PTS: 1

Match each term with its corresponding description or function. A. enamel F. B. muscularis layer G. C. villi H. D. hard palate I. E. splenic flexure J. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

common bile duct cementum submucosa mesentery hepatic flexure

increases the surface area of the interior wall of the small intestine covers the shell of a tooth in the neck and root regions forms by the joining of the cystic and hepatic ducts covers the shell of a tooth in the crown area layer of the wall of the digestive tract that generates peristalsis one of the extensions of the peritoneum part of the large intestine that joins the ascending and transverse colon part of the large intestine that joins the transverse and descending colon forms the roof of the mouth layer of the wall of the digestive tract that contains nerves and blood

vessels

11. REF: Page 490 12.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Small ANS: intestine G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 481 13.

Teeth TOP: ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 493 14.

TOP: Liver and gallbladder ANS: A PTS: 1

REF: Page 481 15.

TOP: Teeth ANS B :

REF: Page 486 16.

TOP: Wall of the digestive tract ANS: I PTS: 1

REF: Page 499 17.

TOP: Peritoneum ANS J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 496 18.

TOP: Large ANS intestine E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 496 19.

TOP: Large ANS intestine D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 479 20.

TOP: Mout ANS h H :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 486

TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description. A. ulcer G. leukoplakia B. cholelithiasis H. Crohn disease C. mumps I. gingivitis D. hepatitis J. peritonitis E. caries K. ascites F. gastroenteritis L. diverticulitis 21. of the teeth 22. 23. 24. 25. pylor 26. i 27. 28. 29.

one of the most common diseases of the enamel, dentin, and cementum condition of having gallstones white patches in the mouth that can develop in users of smokeless tobacco an inflammation of abnormal saclike outpouchings of the intestinal wall a craterlike sore in the stomach or duodenum frequently caused by H. a viral infection of the parotid salivary gland inflammation of the peritoneum a general term for infection or inflammation of the gums inflammation of both the stomach and small intestine

30.

a g e n e r a l t e r m r e f e r r i n g t o i n f l a m m a t i o n o f t h e l i v e r

31. 32.

an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space a type of autoimmune colitis

21.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 482 22.

TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth ANS: B PTS: 1

REF: Page 493 23.

TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 482 24.

TOP: Disorders of the mouth and ANS: teeth L PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 498 25.

TOP: Disorders of the large ANS: intestine A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 489 26.

TOP: Disorders of the ANS: stomach C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 484 27.

TOP: Salivary glands ANS: J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 499 28.

TOP: Peritoneum ANS: I

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 482 29.

TOP: Disorders of the mouth and ANS: teeth F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 492 30.

TOP: Disorders of the small ANS: intestine D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 494 31.

TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 500 32.

TOP: Peritoneum ANS: H

REF: Page 498

TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Why can material in the digestive tract be considered outside the body?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 475

2. List the three kinds of processing that food undergoes in the body and explain where each occurs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

REF: Page 475

Memorization

3. Explain the structure of the mouth. What is the uvula? What is the frenulum? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth

DIF:

REF: Pages 479-480

Memorization

List and describe the four types of teeth.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth

DIF:

REF: Pages 480-481

Memorization

5. Why would fewer Asians than Americans need to have their wisdom teeth (third molars) removed?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 6.

DIF:

Application

Describe the typical tooth.

ANS: Answers will vary.

REF: Page 481

TOP: Teeth

PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth 7.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 481

Describe two disorders of the mouth and teeth.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 483 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the mouth and teeth

REF: Pages 482-

8. Name and describe the salivary glands, including where each gland drains into the mouth. What is the contribution of the salivary glands to chemical digestion?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 9.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 484

TOP: Salivary glands

What is the name of the infection of the parotid salivary gland?

ANS: Mumps PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands 10.

Memorization

REF: Page 484

Name and describe the four layers of the wall of the digestive tract.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract 11.

REF: Page 486

Describe the structure of the esophagus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 486

12. What is GERD? How is it treated, and what are some serious consequences of untreated GERD?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 487

13. Describe the structure of the stomach. What is the role of hydrochloric acid in the chemical digestion of protein?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 489 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: Pages 487Stomach | Digestion

14. What is an ulcer? List some possible causes of ulcers and explain what is meant by triple therapy.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach

REF: Page 489

15. Describe the small intestine. What structures in the small intestine assist in its function of absorption?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 490

TOP: Small intestine

16. Describe the role of the liver and gallbladder in digestion. What is the function of cholecystokinin?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver and gallbladder

REF: Page 493

17. What are gallstones? What are possible consequences of untreated gallstones? How can gallstones be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

REF: Page 493

18. What is hepatitis and what are some possible causes? What is cirrhosis and what are some possible causes?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder 19.

REF: Page 494

Describe the pancreas and explain its role in digestion.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas

DIF:

REF: Page 495

Memorization

20. Describe the large intestine. What things are absorbed in the large intestine?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine

Memorization

REF: Page 496

21. Explain why a person on long-term antibiotic therapy might develop blood clotting problems.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 22.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 496

TOP: Large intestine

Name and explain two disorders of the large intestine.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 498 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Disorders of the large intestine

REF: Pages 496-

23. Describe the peritoneum. What are the two major extensions of the peritoneum? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum

24.

DIF:

REF: Page 499

Memorization

What is peritonitis? What are ascites?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum

25.

DIF:

REF: Pages 499-500

Memorization

Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Digestion | Absorption

REF: Page 501

26. Fully explain the process of carbohydrate digestion. Include the enzymes used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 501

27. Fully explain the process of protein digestion. Include the enzymes used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 501

28. Fully explain the process of fat digestion. Include the substances used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. How is bile different from the other substances used in the digestion of foods?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

TOP: Digestion

29. People who are lactose intolerant (unable to digest lactose) are treated by ingesting an enzyme before a meal containing dairy food. Which enzyme are they given?

ANS: Lactase PTS: 1 30.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 501

Explain the process of absorption. Why is this process so important?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 502 TOP:

TOP: Digestion

DIF: Application Absorption

REF: Pages 501-

Chapter 20: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Body Temperature Test Bank 1. Which of the following is not considered part of metabolism? MULTIPLE CHOICE A. assimilation B. catabolism C. anabolism D. All of the above are part of metabolism.

ANS: A REF: Page 511 2.

A. B. C.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

A. B. C. D.

Memorization

Which of the following is not a function of the liver? producing plasma proteins producing bile for the chemical digestion of fat helping maintain the proper blood glucose level All of the above are functions of the liver.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver 3.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 513

Which of the following is not a function of the liver? detoxifying bacterial toxins detoxifying certain drugs storing iron All of the above are functions of the liver.

ANS: D REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

4. Which of the following proteins produced by the liver is not involved in blood clot formation? A. fibrinogen B. prothrombin C. albumin D. All of the above proteins are involved in blood clot formation.

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 513 functions of the liver

DIF: TOP: Metabolic

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not true of the process of glycolysis? It is the first step in carbohydrate metabolism. It occurs in the mitochondria. Its end product is pyruvic acid. It does not require oxygen.

ANS: B REF: Page 513 6.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Which of the following is not true of the citric acid cycle? It is the last step in carbohydrate metabolism. It occurs in the mitochondria. One of its end products is carbon dioxide. It requires oxygen.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Pages 513-514 7.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not true of the electron transport chain? It occurs in the mitochondria. It takes the high-energy electrons and converts them to energy in ADP. It is the third step in carbohydrate metabolism. All of the above are true of the electron transport chain.

ANS: B REF: Page 514 8.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Glycogenesis

A. B. C. D.

is also called glucose anabolism can occur in liver cells can occur in muscle cells All of the above are true of glycogenesis.

ANS: D REF: Page 515 9.

A. B. ANS: C

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Which is the only hormone that can reverse hyperglycemia? glucagon C. insulin growth hormone D. hydrocortisone PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 515

TOP: Nutrient metabolism 10.

A. B.

Which hormone raises blood sugar levels? glucagon C. growth hormone D.

ANS: D REF: Page 515 11.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Which of the following is not true of fat metabolism? Fat metabolism is used as a source of energy. It is catabolized by the process of glycolysis. Anabolized fat is stored in adipose tissue. All of the above are true of fat metabolism.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 515-516 12.

B. C. D.

A. B. C. D.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Which is not true of protein metabolism? In a healthy person, protein anabolism occurs more often than protein catabolism. In a healthy person, protein catabolism occurs more often than protein anabolism. Nonessential amino acids are needed in the formation of proteins. Amino acids can be built into complex proteins.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism 13.

insulin both A and B

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 516

Which of the following is not true of vitamins? They are inorganic molecules. They attach to enzymes to help them function. They can act as antioxidants. Too little or too much of a vitamin can be harmful.

ANS: A REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

14.

A. B.

The body is unable to store which of the following vitamins? vitamin A C. vitamin D vitamin C D. vitamin K

ANS: B REF: Page 517 15.

A. B.

The condition scurvy results from a lack of vitamin A C. C E D. K

ANS: C REF: Page 517 16.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

Which statement about minerals is untrue? They are inorganic substances. They are as important as vitamins. They assist in the function of enzymes. Unlike vitamins, large amounts of minerals are not harmful.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 517-518

DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

17. Which of the following conditions is not considered part of basal conditions? A. not digesting a meal B. being asleep C. being in a comfortably warm room D. All of the above are basal conditions.

ANS: B REF: Page 518 18.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates

Memorization

Which of the following statements is true? The BMR must be lower than the TMR. The TMR must be lower than the BMR. Consistent caloric intake above the BMR will cause a gain in weight. Both A and C are true.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic rates

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 518

19. The condition that results from a diet that is sufficient in calories but deficient in protein is called

A. B.

anorexia nervosa marasmus

ANS: C REF: Page 521 20.

A. B.

kwashiorkor bulimia

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

Which type of heat loss is the flow of heat waves away from the body? evaporation C. convection radiation D. conduction

ANS: B REF: Page 522 21.

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

Which type of heat loss occurs when liquid water turns to water vapor? evaporation C. convection radiation D. conduction

ANS: A REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

22. Which type of heat loss occurs when body heat is used to heat the air flowing away from the skin? A. evaporation C. convection B. radiation D. conduction

ANS: C REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

23. Which of the following is a method used by the body to conserve or generate heat? A. reducing blood flow to the skin B. shivering C. increasing the level or metabolismstimulating hormone D. All of the above are methods to conserve heat.

ANS: D REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

24. Which of the following is a rise in body temperature that is used to help the immune system fight a pathogen? A. malignant C. fever hyperthermia B. heat exhaustion D. hypothermia

ANS: C

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 522

TOP: Body temperature

25. Which is an inherited condition that causes a rise in body temperature in response to some types of anesthesia? A. malignant C. fever hyperthermia B. heat exhaustion D. hypothermia

ANS: A REF: Page 523 26.

A. B. C. D.

28.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of anabolism? Anabolism releases energy. It is part of metabolism. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules. All of the above are true of anabolism.

ANS: A REF: Page 513

A. B. C.

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of catabolism? Catabolism releases energy. It is part of metabolism. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules. All of the above are true of catabolism.

ANS: C REF: Page 511 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not true of ATP? It contains an adenosine group. It stores energy for the body. It can be used by the cell directly for energy. All of the above are true of ATP.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 513-515

DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

TRUE/FALSE 1.

The way the body uses food is one definition for metabolism.

ANS: T REF: Page 511

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

2. The end products of catabolism are simpler molecules than the starting substances.

ANS: T TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 511

3. The end products of anabolism are simpler molecules than the starting substances.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction 4.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 511

Bile is made in the liver and breaks down fat to glycerol and fatty acids.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

5. The liver makes the plasma proteins albumin and fibrinogen, both of which are important in blood clot formation.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 513 functions of the liver

DIF: TOP: Metabolic

6. The liver makes the plasma protein albumin, which helps maintain blood volume.

ANS: T REF: Page 513 7.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

The liver is able to store the fat-soluble vitamins A and E.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 513 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver 8. Glucose catabolism occurs in three reactions in this order: glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 513 metabolism

DIF: TOP: Nutrient

9. Glucose is the cell’s first choice of energy because it can be used directly by the cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 513 metabolism

DIF: TOP: Nutrient

10. The starting substance for glycolysis is glucose; the end product is carbon dioxide.

ANS: F REF: Page 513 11.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

The end product of glycolysis is the starting substance of the citric acid

cycle. ANS: T 513 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Nutrient metabolism

Application

REF: Page

12. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis does not occur in the mitochondria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 513-514

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

13. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis requires oxygen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 513-514

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

14. In most people, glucose catabolism occurs more often than glucose anabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism 15.

REF: Page 515

DIF:

Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

The ATP molecule is used by the direct source of energy.

ANS: T REF: Page 514 17.

Application

One of the end products of the electron transport system is

ATP. ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 513-514 16.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

ADP has fewer phosphates than ATP, but it contains more energy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism 18.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 514

Glycogenesis is an anabolic process for glucose.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 515

19. The main function of the electron transport chain is to supply energy for the reattachment of the third phosphate onto ADP.

ANS: T 514 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Nutrient metabolism

Synthesis

REF: Page

20. Insulin, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that reduces the level of glucose in the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 515 metabolism

DIF: TOP: Nutrient

21. Glucagon, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that increases the level of glucose in the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 515 22.

The primary function of fat in the body is to be catabolized for energy.

ANS: T REF: Page 515 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Adipose tissue results from the anabolism of fat.

ANS: T REF: Page 516

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

24. In most people, protein anabolism occurs at a greater rate than protein catabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 516 metabolism

DIF: TOP: Nutrient

25. Nonessential amino acids are not needed by the body because they are not used to build human proteins.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 516 metabolism

DIF: TOP: Nutrient

26. The reason nonessential amino acids do not need to be in the diet is because other substances can be converted to the nonessential amino acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 516 metabolism

DIF: TOP: Nutrient

27. Nonessential amino acids are needed by the body as much as essential amino acids.

ANS: T 516 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Nutrient metabolism

Application

REF: Page

28. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins are organic compounds and minerals are inorganic compounds.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 517 minerals

DIF: TOP: Vitamins and

29. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins attach to enzymes and minerals attach to cell membrane receptors.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 517 minerals 30.

DIF: TOP: Vitamins and

The body can store the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and

K. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 517 TOP: Vitamins and minerals 31.

Scurvy results from a lack of vitamin K.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 517 minerals

TOP: Vitamins and

32. Minerals are helpful in maintaining good health, but they are not as necessary as vitamins.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 517

DIF: TOP: Vitamins and

minerals 33.

The basal condition assumes that a person is awake, has not just eaten, and

is in an environment with a comfortable temperature. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 518 rates

DIF: TOP: Metabolic

34. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is always less than the total metabolic rate (TMR).

ANS: T 518 TOP:

PTS: 1 Metabolic rates

DIF:

Application

REF: Page

35. A person who consistently has a caloric intake greater than his or her BMR will gain weight.

ANS: F 518 TOP:

PTS: 1 Metabolic rates

DIF:

Application

REF: Page

36. Both too little thyroid hormone and too much thyroid hormone have a profound impact on a person’s BMR.

ANS: T 520 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Application Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page

37. Both marasmus and kwashiorkor result from an insufficient number of calories in the diet.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 521 and eating disorders

DIF: TOP: Metabolic

38. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from kwashiorkor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 521 and eating disorders

DIF: TOP: Metabolic

39. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from marasmus.

ANS: F REF: Page 521 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

About 40% of the energy released from food is converted to heat.

ANS: F REF: Page 521

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

41.

The flow of heat waves away from the body defines conduction.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 522 temperature

DIF: TOP: Body

42. The transfer of heat energy to the air that is flowing away from the body defines convection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 522 temperature

DIF: TOP: Body

43. An environment that has very high humidity would have the biggest effect on the body’s use of evaporation to cool itself.

ANS: T 522 TOP:

PTS: 1 Body temperature

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page

44. Fever is always harmful to the body, and every effort should be made to reduce the fever to normal body temperature as soon as possible.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 523 temperature

DIF: TOP: Body

45. A person who has never had surgery has a low risk of malignant hyperthermia.

ANS: T 523 TOP:

PTS: 1 Body temperature

DIF:

Application

REF: Page

46. Even though they are not used for energy or structure, vitamins and minerals are required for proper nutrition.

ANS: T REF: Page 511 47.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

One end product of the anabolic process is energy.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

48. Assimilation occurs when food moves out of the digestive tract, usually the small intestine, and into the blood.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 511

TOP: Introduction

49. The function of bile is mechanical digestion rather than chemical digestion.

ANS: T REF: Page 513 50.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

Blood going to the liver has already been through one capillary bed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver 51.

Application

REF: Page 513

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm.

ANS: T REF: Page 513 52.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

Most of the energy released by the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 513 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism 53.

One function of ATP is to store energy for the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 514-515 54.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

Glucose anabolism is called glycolysis.

ANS: F REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

55. The hypersecretion of insulin by the pancreas can lead to diabetes mellitus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism 56.

Application

REF: Page 515

The secretion of too little insulin can lead to hyperglycemia.

ANS: T REF: Page 515 57.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

If a person had a blood glucose level of 95 mg/100 ml of blood, it would

indicate that too little insulin was being secreted by the pancreas. ANS: F 515 TOP:

PTS: 1 DIF: Carbohydrate metabolism

Application

REF: Page

58. Hypervitaminosis is much more likely to occur with fat-soluble vitamins than with water-soluble vitamins.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Vitamins and minerals 59.

Application

REF: Page 517

Both anorexia nervosa and bulimia are classified as behavioral disorders.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 520-521 60.

DIF:

DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

Heatstroke and heat exhaustion are equally severe conditions.

ANS: F REF: Page 523

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

61. The condition in which damage to tissue results from the formation of ice crystals is called hyperthermia.

ANS: F REF: Page 523

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. glycolysis H. B. glycogenesis I. C. catabolism J. D. mineral K. E. F. G.

ATP assimilation

L. M. TMR

citric acid cycle anabolism glucose electron transport chain BMR vitamin

1. the second process of glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and uses oxygen 2. the number of calories needed per hour to keep the body alive, awake, and comfortable 3. the food the cell would prefer to use for energy

4. the process of glucose anabolism 5. term that refers to food entering the cell and undergoing many chemical changes 6. an inorganic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function 7. the last process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and produces ATP 8. substance the body uses as its source of immediate energy 9. an organic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function 10. the first process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the cytoplasm and does not use oxygen 11. process used to release energy from food 12. the total amount of energy used by the body per day 13. process that builds simple food molecules into more complex compounds

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 513 2.

TOP: Nutrient metabolism ANS: L PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 3.

TOP: Metabolic rates PTS: 1 ANS J :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 513 4.

TOP: Nutrient ANS metabolism B PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 515 5.

TOP: Nutrient ANS metabolism F PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 511 6.

TOP: Introduction PTS: 1 ANS D :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 517 7.

TOP: Vitamins and ANS minerals K PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 514 8.

TOP: Nutrient ANS metabolism E PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 514 9.

TOP: Nutrient 0 ANS metabolism M : PTS:

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 517 10.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: A PTS: 0

DIF:

Metabolism REF: TOP: Nutrient metabolism

Page 513

11.

ANS: C

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 511 12.

TOP: Introduction ANS G PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 13.

TOP: Metabolic rates ANS I PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 511

TOP: Introduction

Match each of the following vitamins with its function. A. vitamin D E. (calciferol) B. vitamin A F. C.

vitamin B12

D. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

vitamin B3

vitamin C (ascorbic acid) G. vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) vitamin E (tocopherol)

helps in the manufacture of collagen fibers helps maintain epithelial tissue and produces visual pigments protects cell membranes from being catabolized aids in calcium absorption involved in blood production and other processes helps enzymes in the citric acid cycle helps enzymes that catabolize amino acids

14.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 15.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 16.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 17.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 18.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 19.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 518 20.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: G PTS: 1

REF: Page 518

TOP: Vitamins and minerals

DIF:

Memorization

Match each disorder with its corresponding definition or description. A. malignant F. heatstroke hyperthermia B. heat exhaustion G. bulimia C. hyperthermia H. fever D. scurvy I. kwashiorkor E. marasmus J. anorexia nervosa 21. a serious condition in which the body is unable to maintain normal body temperature in a very warm environment; body temperature can rise to dangerous levels 22. results from too little vitamin C 23. results from a diet that has enough calories but too little protein 24. an inherited condition that causes an increase in body temperature in response to certain anesthetics 25. a behavioral disorder characterized by a chronic refusal to eat, often because of an abnormal fear of becoming obese 26. condition that occurs when the body loses a large amount of fluid resulting from heat-loss mechanisms in warm conditions; normal body temperature is usually maintained 27. results from an insufficient intake of both protein and calories 28. the inability to maintain normal body temperatures in very cold environmental conditions; characterized by a body temperature lower than 95° F 29. a behavioral disorder characterized by insatiable craving for food followed by periods of self-deprivation 30. an abnormally high body temperature brought about by a systemic inflammation response

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 523 22.

TOP: Body temperature ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 517 23.

TOP: Vitamins and minerals ANS: I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 521 24.

TOP: Metabolic and eating ANS: disorders A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 523

TOP: Body temperature

21.

ANS: F

25.

ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 520 26.

TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 523 27.

TOP: Body temperature ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 521 28.

TOP: Metabolic and eating ANS: disorders C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 523 29.

TOP: Body temperature ANS: G PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 521 30.

TOP: Metabolic and eating ANS: disorders H PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 522

TOP: Body temperature

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Define and give examples of the processes of anabolism and catabolism.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 511

TOP: Introduction

2. List the functions of the liver. Which of these are specifically related to nutrition and metabolism?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 513 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Metabolic functions of the liver

REF: Page

3. Explain the role of the hepatic portal system in helping to maintain a constant source of nutrients for the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 513

TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver 4. Explain the process of glycolysis. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 513 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page

5. Explain the citric acid cycle. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 513 TOP: 6.

DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page

What occurs in the electron transport chain?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 514 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page

7. Defend the statement that the catabolism of all food substances has the goal of reattaching a phosphate group to ADP.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 515 TOP: 8.

DIF: Synthesis REF: Pages 514Nutrient metabolism Explain the process of glucose anabolism. Where does it occur?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 515 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page

What is the result of fat anabolism?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 516 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page

10. Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid. How can nonessential amino acids be obtained?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 516 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page

11. Explain how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of fat in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 516 TOP: 12.

DIF: Application REF: Pages 515Nutrient metabolism What are vitamins and what is their function in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 517 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals

REF: Page

Name and give the function of four vitamins needed by the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 518 TOP: 14.

ANS:

DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals

REF: Page

What are minerals and what is their function in the body?

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 518 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals

REF: Pages 517-

Name and give the function of four minerals needed by the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 519 TOP: 16.

DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals

REF: Page

What is the BMR? What is meant by basal conditions?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 518 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Metabolic rates

REF: Page

17. If a person’s TMR is 2400 calories, would the BMR be more or less than this? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 18.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 518

TOP: Metabolic rates

Describe anorexia nervosa. Who is most at risk and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 521 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Pages 520-

19. Explain the cycle of bulimia. What harmful consequences can result from bulimia?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 521 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page

20.

What is obesity? List the conditions for which obesity is a risk factor.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 521 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page

21. Explain the protein-calorie malnutrition conditions marasmus and kwashiorkor.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 521 TOP: 22.

DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page

List and explain the four ways that heat is lost from the skin.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 522 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Body temperature

REF: Page

23. Why is sweating an inefficient way of cooling the body in a humid environment?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 temperature

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 522

TOP: Body

24. Explain the four conditions that occur when body temperature rises or there is a problem associated with the heat-loss mechanisms.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 523 TOP: 25.

DIF: Memorization Body temperature

REF: Pages 522-

Explain the two conditions that occur when the body is unable to keep

itself sufficiently warm. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 523 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Body temperature

REF: Pages 522-

Chapter 21: The Urinary System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? removing waste products from the blood maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood maintaining the proper pH level of the blood All of the above are functions of the urinary system.

ANS: D TOP: Introduction 2.

B. C. D.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 529

Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys? The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney. The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity. The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat. All of the above are true statements.

ANS: A REF: Page 531

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

3. To properly clean the blood, the kidneys must receive how much of the blood pumped by the heart? A. 10% C. 30% B. 20% D. 40%

ANS: B REF: Page 532 4.

A. B.

DIF:

Memorization

The outermost layer of the kidney is called the renal pelvis C. renal medulla D.

ANS: C REF: Page 532 5.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

The inner portion of the kidney is called the

renal cortex calyx

A. B. ANS: B REF: Page 532

renal pelvis renal medulla

C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

renal cortex calyx Memorization

6. Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter? A. renal pelvis C. renal cortex B. renal medulla D. calyx

ANS: A REF: Page 532

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

7. The papilla of the renal pyramids opens into which of the following structures? A. renal pelvis C. renal cortex B. renal medulla D. calyx

ANS: D REF: Page 533 8.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is one of the structures in the renal corpuscle? Bowman capsule C. distal convoluted tubule proximal D. loop of Henle convoluted tubule

ANS: A REF: Page 534

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

9. Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules? A. glomerulus C. distal convoluted tubule B. proximal D. collecting duct convoluted tubule

ANS: B REF: Page 534 10.

A. B.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following structures drains into the collecting duct? glomerulus C. distal convoluted tubule proximal D. loop of Henle convoluted tubule

ANS: C REF: Page 534

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

11. Which structure is included in the discussion of the urinary system even though it is part of the circulatory system? A. glomerulus C. Bowman capsule B. D. loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubule

ANS: A TOP: Kidneys 12.

A. B. C. D.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 534

The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release an enzyme called antidiuretic hormone that dilates blood vessels that constricts blood vessels that increases the absorption of sodium from the filtrate

ANS C Page 535 : REF: 13.

PTS: 1

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Renal physiology

Memorization

Glycosuria is a failure in

A. ABN.S B

filtration reSs:orp1tion PT

C. D DIF.:

Application

secretion riatigoen 541 REmFic:tuP

Formation of urine : TOP:

14.

Blood plasma moving from the glomerulus to the Bowman capsule is

called A. B.

filtration resorption

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine

C. D. DIF:

secretion micturition Application

REF: Page 541

15. Substances are added to the urine in the distal and collecting tubules through what process? A. filtration C. secretion B. resorption D. micturition

ANS: C REF: Page 541

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Memorization

16. The process by which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called

A. B.

filtration resorption

ANS: B REF: Page 541 17.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

A. B.

22.

REF: Page 542

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra

DIF:

Memorization

The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called urination C. micturition voiding D. all of the above

ANS: D REF: Page 538

A. B.

Application

The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the urethra C. trigone collecting tube D. ureter

ANS: A REF: Page 537 21.

DIF:

The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the urethra C. ureter collecting tube D. bladder

ANS: C REF: Page 536 20.

Memorization

Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced? C. antidiuretic atrial natriuretic hormone hormone aldosterone D. both A and B

ANS: C REF: Page 542 19.

secretion micturition

Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced? antidiuretic C. atrial natriuretic hormone hormone aldosterone D. both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 18.

C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

DIF:

Memorization

Which condition occurs when the kidneys are no longer producing urine? urinary retention C. incontinence urinary suppression D. enuresis

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 538-539

DIF: Memorization TOP: Micturition

23. What condition occurs when the kidneys produce urine but the bladder cannot empty the urine? A. urinary retention C. incontinence B. urinary suppression D. enuresis

ANS: A REF: Page 538

PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

DIF:

Memorization

24. Which of the following conditions can be treated by the insertion of a urinary catheter? A. urinary retention C. incontinence B. urinary suppression D. enuresis

ANS: A TOP: Micturition

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 538

25. Which of the following is considered an obstructive disorder of the urinary system? A. cystitis C. renal calculi B. pyelonephritis D. urethritis

ANS: C REF: Page 545 26.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

Which condition refers to an inflammation of the bladder? cystitis C. urethritis pyelonephritis D. renal calculi

ANS: A REF: Page 546

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

27. Which of the following are extensions of the cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids? A. renal columns C. renal pelvis B. renal papillae D. calyces

ANS: A REF: Page 532 28.

A. B. ANS: B

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

Which structure is between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules? Bowman capsule C. glomerulus loop of Henle D. renal corpuscle PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 534 29.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not true of erythropoietin? It is secreted by the kidneys. It stimulates the formation of red blood cells. It acts on the blood-forming tissue of the spleen. All of the above are true of erythropoietin.

ANS: C REF: Page 536 30.

A. B.

TOP: Kidneys

PTS: 1 TOP: Function

Filtration occurs in the renal corpuscle the loop of Henle

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 31.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

Memorization

C. D.

DIF:

the collecting duct all parts of the kidney Application

The hormone ADH is released from the kidney C. hypothalamus D.

ANS: D REF: Page 542 32.

DIF:

REF: Page 539

adrenal cortex pituitary gland

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume

Which of the following is not true of RAAS? It is initiated by the kidney. It stimulates the secretion of aldosterone. It causes constriction of blood vessels. All of the above are true of RAAS.

ANS: D REF: Page 542

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume

TRUE/FALSE 1.

The regulation of blood pH is an important function of the urinary system.

ANS: T TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 529

2. The kidneys are protected by the lower part of the rib cage and the muscles of the back.

ANS: T REF: Page 531 3.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

The kidneys are protected by the parietal peritoneum and a heavy layer of

fat. ANS: F REF: Page 531

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

4. Because of the location of the kidneys, there is less risk of peritonitis after surgery on the kidney than there is after surgery on the stomach.

ANS: T TOP: Kidneys 5.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 531

The outer layer of the kidney is called the renal medulla.

ANS: F REF: Page 532

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

6. Even though they are often considered to be part of the structure of the kidney, the renal pyramids are actually part of the ureters.

ANS: F REF: Page 532 7. kidney.

ANS: T TOP: Kidneys

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

The calyces drain urine from the renal pyramids into the pelvis of the

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 533

8. The order in which filtrate flows through the nephron is the Bowman capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and the collecting tubule.

ANS: F TOP: Kidneys

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 534

9. Even though it is included as part of the nephron, the glomerulus is actually part of the circulatory system.

ANS: T TOP: Kidneys

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 534

10.

The loop of Henle separates the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting

duct. ANS: F REF: Page 534 11.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

Both the glomerulus and the loop of Henle make up the renal corpuscle.

ANS: F REF: Page 534

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

12. The collecting tubules of most nephrons stay in the cortex of the kidney, but the collecting tubules of juxtamedullary nephrons go deep into the medulla of the kidney.

ANS: F REF: Page 534

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

13. The catabolism of carbohydrates can cause nitrogen wastes to accumulate in the blood. If the kidneys do not clear these wastes, they can quickly reach toxic levels.

ANS: F REF: Page 535

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

14. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases a hormone that helps the body regulate the pH of the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 535

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

15. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict and blood pressure to rise.

ANS: T REF: Page 535 16.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

ANS: T

Memorization

Filtration occurs only in the renal corpuscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 17.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 539

Resorption and secretion occur only in the tubules of the nephron. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 540 | Page 541

TOP: Formation of urine

18. The amount of fluid resorbed is only slightly less than the amount of fluid filtered.

ANS: T REF: Page 540

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Memorization

19. The function of resorption is to move the filtrate back to the peritubular capillaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 20.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 541

A failure in resorption causes glycosuria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 539-541

21. Both active and passive mechanisms are used to move materials from the nephron back to the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 22.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 540

The amount of filtrate can never be more than the amount resorbed.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Page 540 | Page 541

DIF: Application TOP: Formation of urine

23. The processes of filtration and secretion both move material into the nephron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Page 539 | Page 541 24.

DIF: Application TOP: Formation of urine

Both ADH and aldosterone tend to reduce the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T REF: Page 542

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Memorization

25. Both ADH and aldosterone tend to decrease the amount of material resorbed back into the blood.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 542

TOP: Formation of urine 26.

ADH and ANH have opposite effects on the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

34.

Application

REF: Page 543

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

Renal colic results from a streptococcal infection of the urinary tract.

ANS: F REF: Page 537

urine.

DIF:

Gravity moves urine through the ureters.

ANS: F REF: Page 537 33.

Memorization

Ureters are tubes connecting the kidney and the urinary bladder.

ANS: T REF: Page 536 32.

Memorization

Someone with polyuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 31.

Memorization

Someone with anuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria.

ANS: F REF: Page 543 30.

REF: Page 542

ANH is a unique hormone because it is produced by the heart.

ANS: T REF: Page 542 29.

Application

The adrenal gland produces both ADH and aldosterone.

ANS: F REF: Page 542 28.

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

Urinalysis is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of

ANS: T REF: Page 543 35.

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

Chemical analysis is used to determine whether there are casts in the

urine. ANS: F REF: Page 543 36.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

Urinalysis can be used to help diagnose diabetes mellitus.

ANS: T TOP: Ureters 38.

DIF:

Urinalysis can sometimes be used to detect inborn errors of metabolism.

ANS: T REF: Page 543 37.

PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 543

A full bladder contains folds in its wall called rugae.

ANS: F REF: Page 537

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Urinary bladder

Memorization

39. The trigone consists of three openings: two leaving the bladder and one entering the bladder.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Urinary bladder 40.

Application

REF: Page 537

The urethra is the last part of the urinary system.

ANS: T TOP: Urethra 41.

DIF:

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 537

The urethra in the female is about half as long as the urethra in the male.

ANS: F REF: Page 537

PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra

DIF:

Memorization

42. In the male, the urethra is part of two systems: the urinary system and the reproductive system.

ANS: T REF: Page 537

PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra

DIF:

Memorization

43.

Micturition and voiding mean the same thing.

ANS: T REF: Page 538

PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

DIF:

Memorization

44. Two sphincter muscles regulate urination: the internal urethral sphincter, which is voluntary, and the external urethral sphincter, which is involuntary.

ANS: F REF: Page 538 45.

PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

DIF:

Memorization

The adult bladder can hold more than 300 ml of urine.

ANS: T REF: Page 538

PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

DIF:

Memorization

46. Urinary suppression is a kidney problem, whereas urinary retention is more of a bladder problem.

ANS: T 539 TOP:

PTS: 1 Micturition

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 538-

47. The bladder emptying reflex causes contraction of the muscle of the bladder and relaxation of the two sphincter muscles.

ANS: F REF: Page 538 48.

Renal calculi can cause both renal colic and hydronephrosis. DIF:

Application

REF: Page 546

Bladder cancer is much more common than kidney cancer.

ANS: F REF: Page 546 51.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders 50.

DIF:

Renal calculi are considered an obstructive disorder.

ANS: T REF: Page 545 49.

PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

Tumors in the kidney are very rare and are almost always benign.

ANS: F REF: Page 546

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

52. Pyelonephritis is a general term referring to kidney disease, especially inflammatory conditions.

ANS: F REF: Page 547

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

53. All the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome are caused by the loss of protein in the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 547

54. Glomerulonephritis usually occurs several weeks after a systemic viral infection and is caused by a delayed immune response.

ANS: F REF: Page 547 55.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

In chronic renal failure, the first two stages have no symptoms.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 547-548

DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

56. The urinary system consists of two kidneys, two urethras, one bladder, and one ureter.

ANS: F REF: Page 529 57.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney.

ANS: T REF: Page 531

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

58. Normally, more than 30% of the total blood pumped by the heart each minute enters the kidneys.

ANS: F REF: Page 532 59.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

Extensions of cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the

renal pyramids are called the renal papillae. ANS: F REF: Page 532 60.

DIF:

Memorization

The calyces are the narrow, innermost ends of the pyramids.

ANS: F REF: Page 533 61.

PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Memorization

The renal corpuscle is made up of two structures.

ANS: T REF: Page 533

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure

62. Besides the excretion of waste products, the kidneys help regulate blood levels of chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate.

ANS: T REF: Page 534

PTS: 1 TOP: Function

DIF:

Memorization

63. One function of erythropoietin is to help reduce the amount of oxygen carried by the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 536 64.

PTS: 1 TOP: Function

DIF:

Memorization

Erythropoietin stimulates red bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

ANS: T REF: Page 536

PTS: 1 TOP: Function

DIF:

Memorization

65. Secretion can be defined as the movement of water and dissolved substances out of the blood and into the Bowman capsule.

ANS: F REF: Page 541 66.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Reabsorption and secretion move material in opposite directions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Formation of urine 67.

RAAS.

Memorization

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 541

The juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme angiotensin to initiate the

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 542 urine volume

DIF: TOP: Control of

68. The end result of the RAAS is constriction of blood vessels and the secretion of aldosterone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 542 urine volume

DIF: TOP: Control of

MATCHING Match each of the structures of the urinary system with its corresponding function or description. A. calyx I. ureters B. urinary bladder J. renal pyramids C. Bowman capsule K. juxtaglomerular apparatus D. loop of Henle L. glomerulus E. renal cortex M. urethra F. collecting tubule N. distal convoluted tubule G. proximal O. renal pelvis convoluted tubule H. renal medulla 1. tubes that connect the kidney and the urinary bladder 2. a cup-shaped structure that catches the filtrate in the nephron 3. formed by the tubules of a number of different nephrons; the last tubule in the nephron 4. the inner portion of the kidney 5. the outer portion of the kidney 6. triangular-shaped structures in the inner portion of the kidney 7. part of the nephron that lies between the distal and proximal convoluted tubule s 8. the blood vessel in the Bowman capsule 9. a muscular sac that stores urine until it is released from the body 10. an extension of the ureters into the kidney 11. the first of the tubules in the nephron 12. tube that carries urine out of the body 13. tube that drains into the collecting tubule 14. structure into which the papilla of the pyramids of the kidney open 15. structure that releases hormones that can cause constriction of blood vessels and raise blood pressure

ANS: I

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 536 2.

TOP: Ureter ANS s C :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 534 3.

TOP: Kidney ANS s F :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 534 4.

TOP: Kidney ANS s H :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 532 5.

TOP: Kidney ANS s E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 532 6.

TOP: Kidney ANS s J :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 532 7.

TOP: Kidney ANS s D :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 534 8.

TOP: Kidney ANS s L :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 534 9.

TOP: Kidney ANS s B :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 537 10.

TOP: Urinary bladder PTS: 0 ANS O :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 532 11.

TOP: Kidneys ANS G :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 534 12.

TOP: Kidneys ANS M :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 537 13.

TOP: Urethra ANS N :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 534 14.

TOP: Kidneys ANS A :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 533 15.

TOP: Kidneys ANS K :

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 542

TOP: Kidneys

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. secretion F. B. polyuria G. C. filtration H. D. ADH I. E. oliguria 16.

uremia ANH resorption micturition

actions of this hormone result in the production of a smaller volume of

urin e

17. refers to the production of a large amount of urine 18. the movement of material from the blood to the urine in the distal convoluted or collecting tubules 19. the production of a small amount of urine 20. another term for urination or voiding 21. moves water and dissolved substances out of the blood and into the Bowman capsule 22. the accumulation of toxic substances in the blood from the catabolism of food; functioning kidneys prevent this from happening 23. actions of this hormone result is an increase in the amount of urine 24. the moving of substances out of the tubules of the nephron back into the blood

16.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 542 17.

TOP: Formation of urine ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 543 18.

TOP: Formation of urine ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 541 19.

TOP: Formation of urine ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 543 20.

TOP: Formation of urine ANS: I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 538 21.

TOP: Micturition ANS: C

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 539 22.

TOP: Formation of urine ANS: F PTS:

PTS: 1 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 529 23.

TOP: Introduction PTS: 1 ANS G :

REF: Page 542 24.

TOP: Formation of urine ANS: H PTS: 0

REF: Page 540

TOP: Formation of urine

DIF: Memorization

Match each disorder to its corresponding description or definition. A. renal calculi F. hydronephrosis B. nephrotic syndrome G. urinary suppression C. cystitis H. glomerulonephritis D. urinary retention I. incontinence E. glycosuria J. nephritis 25. symptoms of this condition result from the loss of protein from the blood 26. refers to kidney disease, especially inflammatory conditions 27. refers to the lack of production of urine by the kidney 28. occurs when there is glucose in the urine; a sign of diabetes mellitus 29. describes a bladder infection 30. results from damage to the glomerular-capsular membrane; can be caused by an immune mechanism, heredity, or a bacterial infection 31. another term for kidney stones 32. describes pathological swelling or enlargement of the renal pelvis and calyces caused by blockage of the urine outflow 33. occurs when the kidneys produce urine but the bladder is unable to release it 34. refers to the involuntary voiding or loss of urine in an older child or adult

25.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 547 26.

TOP: Renal and urinary disorders ANS: J PTS: 1

REF: Page 547 27.

TOP: Renal and urinary ANS disorders G PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 539 28.

TOP: Micturition ANS E :

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 541 29.

TOP: Formation of urine PTS: 1 ANS C

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 546 30.

TOP: Renal and urinary ANS disorders H PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 547 31.

TOP: Renal and urinary ANS disorders A PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 545 32.

TOP: Renal and urinary ANS disorders F PTS: 1 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 545 33.

TOP: Renal and urinary ANS disorders D PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 538 34.

TOP: Micturition ANS I :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 539

TOP: Micturition

PTS: 0

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Define uremia and explain how it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction

Memorization

REF: Page 529

2. Describe the location of the kidneys and explain the ways in which the kidneys are protected.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 532 TOP:

DIF: Application Kidneys

REF: Pages 531-

3. Explain why surgery to the kidney is less likely to cause peritonitis than is surgery on the stomach or intestines.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 531-532

List and describe the internal structures of the kidney.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

REF: Pages 532-533

Memorization

5. List and describe the microscopic structures of the nephron. Which structures make up the renal corpuscle? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

REF: Pages 533-534

Memorization

6. What are the physical and functional differences between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 534

TOP: Kidneys

7. Explain the function of the kidney. What substance do the kidneys help regulate? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys

DIF:

REF: Pages 534-536

Memorization

8. Explain how the juxtaglomerular apparatus helps maintain proper blood flow to the kidney.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 536 TOP: 9.

DIF: Synthesis Kidneys

REF: Pages 535-

Explain the process of filtration in the nephron. What parts of the nephron

are involved in filtration? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Application

REF: Page 539

10. Explain the process of resorption in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in resorption?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Application

REF: Page 540

11. Explain the process of secretion in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in secretion?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Application

REF: Page 541

12. Name the hormones that affect urine production. Give their function and their source.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine

Memorization

REF: Page 541

13. If a person is becoming dehydrated, which hormone would you expect to find in high concentration in the blood: ADH or ANH? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine 14.

Application

REF: Page 542

Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 536-537

15. What is urinalysis? What conditions can be detected by the physical examination of urine, the chemical examination of urine, and the microscopic examination of urine? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters

16.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 543

Describe the structure and function of the urinary bladder.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Urinary bladder

Memorization

REF: Page 537

17. Describe the structure and function of the urethra. Explain the differences between the male and female urethra. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra

18.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 537

Explain the process of micturition.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 538

19. Explain why the insertion of a urinary catheter would be an ineffective treatment for urinary suppression.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

20.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 538-539

Define incontinence. Name and explain three types of incontinence.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition

21.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 539

What is hydronephrosis and what are some of its causes?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

REF: Page 545

22. What is cystitis? Explain how a person’s gender affects the risk of developing cystitis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

REF: Page 546

23. What is pyelonephritis? Explain the difference between the acute and chronic condition.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

REF: Page 547

24. Explain the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. How are all of these symptoms related to the loss of protein from the blood?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Renal and urinary disorders 25.

REF: Page 547

What is glomerulonephritis?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders 26.

REF: Page 547

Describe the three stages in chronic renal failure.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 550 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders

REF: Pages 549-

27. What is erythropoietin? What stimulates its release and what effect does it have on the body?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys 28.

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 536

What is RAAS? Explain how it functions.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume

REF: Page 542

Chapter 22: Body Fluids Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which group of people has the highest percentage of body water? A. young adult males C. babies B. D. the elderly young adult females ANS: C REF: Page 559 2.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

A. B.

Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

DIF: Memorization TOP: Body fluids

The largest volume of water in the body is found in which type of fluid? lymph C. interstitial fluid intracellular fluid D. blood plasma

ANS: B REF: Page 560 6.

DIF:

Which of the following is not considered part of the extracellular fluid? interstitial fluid plasma lymph All of the above are considered extracellular fluid.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 559-560 5.

Memorization

Which type of body tissue contains the least amount of water? adipose tissue C. muscle tissue bone tissue D. nerve tissue

ANS: A REF: Page 559 4.

DIF:

Which group of people has the lowest percentage of body water? young adult C. babies females young adult males D. the elderly

ANS: D REF: Page 559 3.

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

Which of the following is not a source of water for the body?

A. B.

food ingested liquids

ANS: C REF: Page 561

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

The negatively charged ion with the greatest concentration in the blood is protein C. chloride bicarbonate D. phosphate

ANS: C REF: Page 564 11.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

The positively charged ion with the greatest concentration in the blood is calcium C. magnesium sodium D. potassium

ANS: B REF: Page 564 10.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Which of the following hormones does not play a role in fluid regulation? ADH C. ACTH aldosterone D. ANH

ANS: C REF: Page 561 9.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

The hormone aldosterone causes the loss of sodium ions C. loss of water

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 12.

anabolism of food catabolism of food

Which of the following is not a source of water loss for the body? catabolism of food C. the kidneys the lungs D. the skin

ANS: A REF: Page 561 8.

C. D.

by the kidneys. resorption of sodium ions both A and B

Application

REF: Page 561

The hormone aldosterone causes a(n) the kidneys. resorption of chloride ions by

B. C. D.

resorption of sodium ions by increase in the resorption of water in both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 13.

A. B.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following increases interstitial fluid volume? a drop in capillary blood pressure a drop in blood protein levels an increase in capillary blood pressure both B and C Application

Application

An increase in blood protein levels C. increases blood plasma increases interstitial D. fluid

volume.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

A. B.

17.

A. B.

REF: Page 563

Which of the following decreases interstitial fluid volume? a drop in capillary blood pressure a drop in blood protein levels an increase in capillary blood pressure both B and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 16.

cerebrospinal fluid intracellular fluid

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 15.

REF: Page 561

The volume of which fluid is the most variable? interstitial fluid C. blood plasma D.

ANS: A REF: Page 564 14.

Application

decreases interstitial fluid both A and C

An increase in capillary blood pressure increases blood C. plasma increases interstitial D. fluid

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

REF: Page 563

volume.

Application

decreases interstitial fluid both B and C

REF: Page 563

18.

A. B.

Loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign of edema C. dehydration D.

ANS: B REF: Page 563 19.

A. B.

Hyperkalemia is a(n) above; sodium below; sodium

ANS: D REF: Page 567 20.

A. B.

in the blood. above; calcium above; potassium

-normal level of C. D.

in the blood. below; calcium below; potassium

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

carbohydrates none of the above

Memorization

In a newborn, water can account for as much as 40 C. 60 D.

ANS: C REF: Page 559 23.

-normal level of C. D.

The most abundant compound in the body is protein C. lipids D.

ANS: D REF: Page 558 22.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

Hyponatremia is a(n) above; sodium below; sodium

ANS: B REF: Page 566 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Fluid imbalances

overhydration hypersecretion of aldosterone

% of body weight. 80 50

Memorization

Which of the following organs do not contribute to fluid output? skeletal muscles C. skin kidneys D. lungs

ANS: A REF: Page 561

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

24. Which of the following is not considered a major factor for controlling plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid? A. the concentration of electrolytes in extracellular fluid

B. C.

the concentration of protein in the blood the absorption of fluid by the small intestine All of the above are major factors for controlling plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid.

ANS: C REF: Page 561 balance

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

TRUE/FALSE 1. Fluid balance means that the total volume and distribution of water in the body remain relatively constant and within normal limits.

ANS: T REF: Page 557 2.

Memorization

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

Babies tend to have a higher percentage of body water than the elderly do.

ANS: T REF: Page 559 4.

DIF:

Women tend to have a higher percentage of body water than do men.

ANS: F REF: Page 559 3.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

Muscle tissue has the least amount of water compared with any other body

tissue. ANS: F REF: Page 559

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

5. Obese people tend to have a lower percentage of body water than more slender people do.

ANS: T REF: Page 559

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

6. Because muscle tissue has less water than adipose tissue, a person who is overweight has a higher percentage of body water than does a person in better physical condition.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 559

TOP: Body fluids 7.

There is more fluid inside the cells of the body than outside the cells of the

body.

ANS: T TOP: Body fluids 8.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 560

Blood plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, and lymph are all considered interstitial

fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 559-560

DIF: Memorization TOP: Body fluids

9. Blood plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, and lymph are all considered extracellular fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 559-560

DIF: Memorization TOP: Body fluids

10. The kidneys, the lungs, and the catabolism of food all contribute to water loss in the body.

ANS: F REF: Page 561 balance

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

11. The food that we eat, the fluids we drink, and the catabolism of food all contribute to an input of water to the body.

ANS: T REF: Page 561 balance

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

12. The chief mechanism used by the body to maintain fluid balance is adjusting fluid intake.

ANS: F REF: Page 561 balance

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

13. The hormone ADH is produced by the adrenal cortex and acts to reduce the amount of urine produced.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 561 balance 14.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

The hormone ANH is produced by the heart and acts to increase the

amount of urine produced. ANS: T REF: Page 561 balance

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

15. Because there are hormones in the body that can prevent the kidneys from producing urine, in a condition of severe dehydration, the body’s fluid loss can be reduced to zero.

ANS: F REF: Page 562

16.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

No matter how dehydrated a person becomes, fluid will still be lost by the

lungs. ANS: T REF: Page 562 balance 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

Table salt (NaCl) is an electrolyte.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 564

18. Because glucose dissociates into ions when it is dissolved in water, it is called an electrolyte.

ANS: F REF: Page 564 19.

When NaCl is dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions.

ANS: T REF: Page 564 20.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Sodium has the highest concentration of any negative ion in the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 564 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Potassium has the highest concentration of any positive ion in the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 564

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

22.

Aldosterone increases the absorption of sodium from the kidneys and

thereby increases the amount of urine produced. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 23.

REF: Page 561

If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid, the volume of blood increases.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 24.

Application

REF: Page 564

If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid, edema could result.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 564

25. If sodium were in high concentration in the blood, the volume of blood would increase.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 564

26. Salt must constantly be taken in by the diet because there is a loss of about 1000 mEq per day through the digestive system.

ANS: F REF: Page 565 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of fluid in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 28.

REF: Page 563

An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of interstitial fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 29.

Application

REF: Page 563

An increase in capillary blood pressure increases the volume of interstitial

fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 563

30. An increase in capillary blood pressure and an increase in blood protein have opposite effects on the interstitial fluid volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 563

31. An increase in capillary blood pressure and a decrease in blood protein have opposite effects on the interstitial fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 563

32. A decrease in capillary blood pressure and an increase in blood protein have the same effect on interstitial fluid volume: an increase in the volume.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Application

REF: Page 563

33. Because they have the lowest percentage of body water, the elderly are most at risk for severe dehydration resulting from vomiting or diarrhea than any other age-group.

ANS: F REF: Page 559

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Fluid imbalances

Memorization

34. Because they have the smallest amount of water in their body, babies are most at risk for severe dehydration resulting from vomiting or diarrhea than any other age-group.

ANS: T REF: Page 559 35.

Memorization

Blood plasma is the body fluid that varies the most.

ANS: F REF: Page 563 36.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Fluid imbalances

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

Interstitial fluid is the body fluid that varies the most.

ANS: T REF: Page 563

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

37. Giving intravenous fluids too rapidly can cause overhydration, which can put a heavy burden on the kidneys.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 563-564

DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances

38.

One of the organs that is most stressed from overhydration is the heart.

ANS: T REF: Page 564 39.

Memorization

An overdose of vitamin D can cause hyperkalemia.

ANS: F REF: Page 567 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Fluid imbalances

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

Having enough table salt in the diet can prevent hyponatremia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 566

41. To maintain proper homeostasis, all body fluids must have the same level and types of electrolytes.

ANS: F REF: Page 557 42.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

The most abundant compound in the human body is water.

ANS: T REF: Page 558

PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

43. Through diet and exercise, Jane lost more than 50 pounds. This means she also reduced her percentage of body water.

ANS: F TOP: Body fluids

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 559

44. Drugs frequently are less effective in the elderly than they are in younger people because the elderly have a higher percent of body water, which overdilutes the drug.

ANS: F TOP: Body fluids 45.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 559

Both aldosterone and ADH reduce the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T REF: Page 561

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

46. When a person becomes dehydrated, both the volume of the extracellular fluid and the electrolyte concentration of the extracellular fluid are reduced.

ANS: F REF: Page 561

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of fluid intake

47. When a person starts to become dehydrated, signals from the hypothalamus cause a reduction in the amount of saliva produced, which makes a person feel thirsty.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 561-562 48.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of fluid intake

Nonelectrolytes do not generate ions.

ANS: T REF: Page 564

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Importance of electrolytes in body fluids

49. Both too much and too little potassium can cause muscle weakness and heart problems.

ANS: T REF: Page 567

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Potassium imbalance

50. Too little calcium can decrease neuromuscular irritability resulting in fatigue, muscle weakness, and diminished reflexes.

ANS: T REF: Page 567

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Calcium imbalance

Memorization

MATCHING

Match each term or phrase with its corresponding description or definition. A. ion B. dehydration C. intracellular fluid D. hypokalemia E. ADH F. decrease in capillary blood pressure G. ANH H. hypocalcemia I. drop in blood protein levels J. electrolyte K. hyponatremia

L. M. N. O.

overhydration aldosterone interstitial fluid edema

1. substance that dissociates into ions when it dissolves in water 2. a fluid-regulating hormone that is released by the pituitary gland 3. condition in which the blood sodium level is below normal 4. an atom or molecule with a positive or negative charge 5. condition of which loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign 6. type of fluid that is the most variable of the body fluids 7. one mechanism that can cause an increase in the interstitial fluid volume 8. condition caused by a lower-than-normal blood concentration of potassium 9. one of the two major fluid compartments in the body 10. a fluid-regulating hormone that is produced by the heart 11. one mechanism that causes a decrease in the interstitial fluid volume 12. condition that can be caused by the rapid infusion of intravenous fluid 13. a fluid-regulating hormone that is produced by the adrenal cortex 14. condition caused by a lower-than-normal blood level of calcium 15. condition caused by an abnormal increase in interstitial fluid causing swelling in parts of the body, frequently the lower limbs

1. REF: Page 558 2.

ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 561 3.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS: K

REF: Page 566 4.

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances PTS: 1 ANS: A

REF: Page 564 5.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 563 6.

TOP: Fluid imbalances ANS: N PTS: 1

REF: Page 563 7.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS: I

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 563

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 567 9.

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances ANS: C PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 560 10.

TOP: Body fluids ANS G :

REF: Page 561 11.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain ANS fluid F PTS: 0 :

balance DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 563 12.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain ANS fluid L PTS: 0 :

balance DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 563 13.

TOP: Fluid imbalances PTS: 0 ANS M :

REF: Page 561 14.

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain ANS fluid H PTS: 0 :

REF: Page 567 15.

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances ANS O PTS: 0 :

REF: Page 564

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid

PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

DIF: Memorization balance DIF: Memorization

DIF: Memorization balance

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Explain the term fluid balance.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 557

Explain what variables affect the percentage of body water a person might

have. ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 559

TOP: Body fluids

What types of fluid make up the extracellular fluid compartment?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 559

4. List the sources of water for the body and the ways in which water can be lost from the body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

REF: Page 561

5. List the names and the sources of the hormones that play a role in fluid regulation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 6.

REF: Page 561

Explain the mechanism that regulates fluid intake.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 562 TOP: 7.

DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

REF: Pages 561-

Define and give an example of an electrolyte and a non-electrolyte.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 564 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 8. If a person is diagnosed with hypertension (high blood pressure), one of the first recommendations a health care provider makes is for the person to reduce the amount of salt in the diet. Explain why following this recommendation will reduce blood

pressure. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Page 566 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 9. What is edema? Explain the cause of edema. What are some organs that might be affected?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 565 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

REF: Pages 564-

10. Explain the mechanism by which aldosterone helps maintain fluid homeostasis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

REF: Page 561

11. Certain kidney diseases allow large amounts of protein to be passed out of the body in urine. One result of this condition is edema. Explain the mechanism that causes the edema.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: Page 565 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 12. Would a drop in capillary blood pressure or an increase in capillary blood pressure be more likely to cause edema? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 565 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

13. Explain why prolonged diarrhea is more likely to lead to serious dehydration in a baby than in an adult even though the baby has a higher percentage of body water than an adult does.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 imbalances

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 563

TOP: Fluid

14. What is overhydration? Give one possible cause of overhydration. What organ is stressed by overhydration?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 564 TOP: 15.

DIF: Memorization Fluid imbalances

REF: Pages 563-

List the normal concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium in the

blood. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 567 TOP: 16.

DIF: Memorization Electrolyte imbalances

REF: Pages 566-

List the causes of hypernatremia and hyponatremia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances 17.

REF: Page 566

What are the symptoms of sodium imbalance?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances 18.

REF: Page 566

List the causes of hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 568 TOP: 19.

DIF: Memorization Electrolyte imbalances

REF: Pages 567-

What are the symptoms of calcium imbalance?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

REF: Page 567

20. Some diuretics cause the body to excrete large amounts of potassium. If a person is taking such a diuretic, what symptoms of potassium deficiency might the doctor look for?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

REF: Page 567

Chapter 23: The Male and Female Reproductive Systems Test Bank 1. The reproductive cells are called MULTIPLE CHOICE A. ovum C. B. sperm D.

ANS: D REF: Page 592 2.

A. B. C. D.

A. B.

A. B. C. D. ANS: B

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis is testosterone C. follicle-stimulating D. hormone

ANS: B REF: Page 596 5.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

Each testis is surrounded by a tough, whitish membrane called the scrotum C. tunica albuginea seminiferous tubule D. interstitial cells

ANS: C REF: Page 593

A. B.

Memorization

The essential organ of the male reproductive system is the testis prostate gland penis All of the above are essential organs.

ANS: A REF: Page 593 3.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Sexual reproduction

gametes all of the above

luteinizing hormone androgenic hormone

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The function of the acrosome in the sperm is to store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23 propel the sperm PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 597 6.

A. B. C. D.

The function of the midpiece of the sperm is to store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23 propel the sperm

ANS: A REF: Page 597 7.

A. B. C. D.

TOP: Male reproductive system

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The function of testosterone is to masculinize the male promote and maintain the development of the male accessory organs stimulate protein anabolism All of the above are functions of testosterone.

ANS: D REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

8. Which is a comma-shaped coiled tube structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis? A. seminiferous tubule C. ejaculatory duct B. ductus deferens D. epididymis

ANS: D REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

9. Which tube is found in the lobes of the testis and makes up most of the mass of testicular tissue? A. seminiferous C. ejaculatory duct tubules B. ductus deferens D. epididymis

ANS: A REF: Page 593 10.

cord? A.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

Which tube permits sperm to exit the scrotum and is part of the spermatic seminiferous tubules

ejaculatory duct

ductus deferens

ANS: B REF: Page 597

epididymis

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

11. Which gland lies just below the bladder and produces a thin milkcolored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid? A. seminal vesicle C. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland D. ejaculatory gland

ANS: B REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

12. Which gland produces a thick, yellowish fluid that contains fructose and makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid? A. seminal vesicle C. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland D. ejaculatory gland

ANS: A REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

13. Which gland is also called the Cowper gland and supplies only about 5% of the seminal fluid? A. seminal vesicle C. bulbourethral gland B. prostate gland D. ejaculatory gland

ANS: C REF: Page 598 14.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive gland

Which of the following is not true of the corpus spongiosum? It is erectile tissue in the penis. It surrounds the urethra. There are two columns of corpus spongiosum in the penis. All of the above are true of the corpus spongiosum.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Pages 598-599 15.

A. B. C. D. ANS: D

DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

Which of the following is not found in the scrotum? testis epididymis lower part of the ductus deferens All of the above are found in the scrotum. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 599 16.

TOP: Male reproductive system

Oligospermia can cause

A. B. C. D.

sterility cryptorchidism infertility All of the above conditions can be caused by oligospermia.

ANS: C REF: Page 599 17.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

The condition in which the testes fail to descend into the scrotum is called oligospermia C. benign prostatic hypertrophy cryptorchidism D. hypospadias

ANS: B REF: Page 599

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

18. Which of the following is a condition in which the opening of the urethral meatus is on the dorsal surface of the gland or penile shaft? A. cryptorchidism C. hypospadias B. benign prostatic D. epispadias hypertrophy

ANS: D REF: Page 601 19.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

Viagra would have its greatest effect on the number of sperm cells produced corpus spongiosum and cavernosum amount of testosterone in the blood quantity of seminal fluid produced

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 601 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system | Male reproductive system 20.

A. B.

The gonads include the in the ova; female; sperm; C. male penis; male; vulva; D. female

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Page 593 | Page 602

DIF:

and the

Memorization

in the . testes; male; ovaries; female both A and C

TOP: Male reproductive system | Female reproductive system 21.

A. B.

A mature ovum in its sac is sometimes called a(n) oocyte C. primary follicle D.

ANS: C REF: Page 603

graafian follicle ovarian follicle

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

22. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone- secreting structure called the A. corpus luteum C. graafian follicle B. antrum D. granulose cells

ANS: A REF: Page 603 23.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that in oogenesis cells with only 23 chromosomes are formed there is only one functional gamete produced there are four functional gametes produced both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Female reproductive system | Male reproductive system 24.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following is not a function of estrogen? development and maturation of the female reproductive organs initiation of the first menstrual cycle appearance of pubic hair and breast development All of the above are functions of estrogen.

ANS: D REF: Page 603 25.

A. B. C.

REF: Page 603

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The hormone progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum causes the development of the secondary sex characteristics is responsible for the development of the female body contours

All of the above are true of progesterone.

ANS: A REF: Page 603 26.

A. B.

The muscular layer of the uterus is called the endometrium C. fundus D.

ANS: D REF: Page 604 27.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

cervix myometrium

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Which of the following is not another name for the uterine tubes? oviduct fimbriae fallopian tubes All of the above are alternate names for the uterine tubes.

ANS: B REF: Page 604

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

28. The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the A. body C. fundus B. cervix D. myometrium

ANS: C REF: Page 604 29.

A. B.

The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the body C. cervix D.

ANS: B REF: Page 604 30.

A. B. C. D.

fundus myometrium

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Which of the following is not true of the vagina? It is part of the female external genitalia. It receives sperm during intercourse. It is the last part of the birth canal. All of the above are true of the vagina.

ANS: A REF: Page 605 31.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Which of the following structures in the female external genitalia is

composed of erectile tissue? A. labia majora B. labia minora ANS: C REF: Page 607 32.

A. B.

clitoris mons pubis

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly follows ovulation is called the secretory phase C. menses D. menarche the proliferative phase

ANS: A REF: Page 608 33.

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called the secretory phase C. menses the proliferative D. menarche phase

ANS: B REF: Page 608

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

34. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing? A. estrogen C. follicle-stimulating hormone B. progesterone D. luteinizing hormone

ANS: C REF: Page 609 35.

A. B.

Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation? estrogen C. follicle-stimulating hormone progesterone D. luteinizing hormone

ANS: D REF: Page 609 36.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

A sharp drop in which of the following hormones causes menstruation? estrogen C. follicle-stimulating hormone progesterone D. both A and B

ANS: D REF: Page 609

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

37.

The absence of normal menstruation is called dysmenorrhea C.

amenorrhea

ANS: B REF: Page 610 38.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

An inflammation of the uterine tubes is called salpingitis C. oophoritis D.

ANS: A REF: Page 611

dysfunctional uterine bleeding endometriosis

vaginitis endometriosis

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

39. Which statement does not describe a characteristic of asexual reproduction? A. It requires only one parent. B. It produces offspring with greater variability. C. It produces offspring that age genetically like the parent. D. All of the above are true of asexual reproduction.

ANS: B REF: Page 592

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Sexual reproduction

Memorization

40. Which of the statements below is not descriptive of the accessory structures of the male reproductive system? A. They produce spermatozoa. B. They are passageways that carry sperm to the exterior. C. They are the external reproductive organs. D. All of the above statements describe accessory structures of the male reproductive system.

ANS: A REF: Page 593 41.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

Testosterone is secreted by the tunica albuginea C. seminiferous D. tubules

interstitial cells prostate gland

ANS: C REF: Page 593 42.

A. B.

The sperm precursor cell or stem cell is called the spermatogonia C. D. primary spermatocyte

ANS: A REF: Page 595 43.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

PTS: 1 TOP: Testes

A. B. C. D.

45.

46.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands

Which of the following is not true of the corpus cavernosum? It is erectile tissue. It surrounds the urethra. There are two columns of corpus cavernosum in the penis. All of the above are true of the corpus cavernosum.

ANS: B REF: Page 599

A. B. C.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Testes

Which of the following is not true of seminal fluid? It contains secretions of accessory glands. It contains gametes. It is slightly acidic. All of the above are true of seminal fluid.

ANS: C REF: Page 598

A. B. C.

Memorization

Which of the following is not part of a sperm cell? the head of the sperm that contains the nucleus the acrosome that contains enzymes the midpiece that generates energy the cilia, which allow the sperm to swim

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 596-597 44.

DIF:

spermatid spermatozoa

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: External genitals

Memorization

Which is not a cause of swelling of the scrotum? hydrocele BHP inguinal hernia

All of the above are causes of swelling of the scrotum.

ANS: B REF: Page 601

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the penis and scrotum

47. Which of the following does not describe an accessory structure of the female reproductive system? A. ducts that extend from near the ovary to the exterior B. external genitals C. produce ova D. All of the above describe accessory structures of the female reproductive system.

ANS: C REF: Page 602 48.

A. B.

At birth, a baby girl has about 1 million ovarian C. primary D.

ANS: A REF: Page 602 49.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

PTS: 1 TOP: Ovaries

DIF:

follicles. secondary graafian

Memorization

Inflammation of the ovaries is called pelvic C. inflammatory disease oophoritis D.

ANS: B REF: Page 611

salpingitis

candidiasis

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Infection and inflammation

TRUE/FALSE 1.

Both the ova and sperm are considered gametes.

ANS: T REF: Page 592 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Sexual reproduction

Memorization

The union of gametes produces a zygote.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Sexual reproduction

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 592

Zygotes are only produced by organisms that reproduce sexually.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Sexual reproduction 4.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 592

The penis is the essential organ of the male reproductive system.

ANS: F REF: Page 593

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

5. The main reason that the testes are located in the scrotum is to ensure that the increased temperature needed for sperm development can be maintained.

ANS: F REF: Page 593

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

6. The tough, whitish membrane that surrounds each testis is called the tunica albuginea.

ANS: T REF: Page 593 7.

Sperm cells mature within the interstitial cells.

ANS: F REF: Page 597 8.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The stem cells for spermatogenesis are the primary spermatocytes.

ANS: F REF: Page 593 11.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The interstitial cells produce testosterone.

ANS: T REF: Page 593 10.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The seminiferous tubules make up the bulk of the tissue of the testes.

ANS: T REF: Page 593 9.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The primary spermatocyte contains 23 chromosomes.

ANS: F REF: Page 596 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The spermatids contain 23 chromosomes.

ANS: T REF: Page 596

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

13. It is important for human gametes to have only 23 chromosomes so that the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Male reproductive system 14.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 595

The sperm cell is one of the largest and most specialized cells in the male

body. ANS: F REF: Page 596 15.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The acrosome stores mitochondria that provide energy for the sperm.

ANS: F REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

16. The mitochondria in the sperm’s midpiece supply energy by breaking down ATP.

ANS: T REF: Page 597 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The function of the acrosomes of the sperm is digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Male reproductive system

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 597

18. One function of testosterone is the promotion and maintenance of the male accessory organs.

ANS: T REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

19. Chemically, testosterone is a steroid and because of its function, it can be called an anabolic steroid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Male reproductive system 20.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 597

Sperm cells develop in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.

ANS: T REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

21. The epididymis carries sperm out of the scrotum and becomes part of the spermatic cord.

ANS: F REF: Page 597 22.

The epididymis is contained completely within the scrotum.

ANS: T REF: Page 597 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The ductus deferens and the vas deferens are the same structure.

ANS: T REF: Page 597 24.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The ductus deferens is contained completely within the scrotum.

ANS: F REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

25. The ductus deferens carries sperm out of the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord.

ANS: T REF: Page 597

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

26. The prostate gland produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid.

ANS: F REF: Page 598 27.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

Each 3 to 5 ml of seminal fluid contains up to 10 million sperm.

ANS: F REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

28. The seminal vesicles produce a yellowish fluid that contains fructose and makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid.

ANS: F REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

29. The bulbourethral gland produces a lubricating secretion that makes up about 5% of the seminal fluid.

ANS: T REF: Page 598 30.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

The corpus spongiosum and cavernosum are erectile tissue in the penis.

ANS: T REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

31. There are two columns of the corpus spongiosum and one column of the corpus cavernosum.

ANS: F REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

32. The scrotum contains the testes, the epididymis, and part of the ductus deferens.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Page 593 | Page 597 33.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

Oligospermia causes sterility.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 34.

Oligospermia causes infertility.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 35.

REF: Page 599

A baby born with undescended testes has the condition of cryptorchidism.

ANS: T REF: Page 599

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

36. Testes will not function properly in the abdominal cavity because the body temperature is too high.

ANS: T REF: Page 599 37.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

Testicular cancer is most common in men between the ages of 50 and 70.

ANS: F REF: Page 600

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

38. A major concern with benign prostatic hypertrophy is the constriction of urine flow through the urethra.

ANS: T REF: Page 600

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

39. Both hypospadias and epispadias are conditions in which the urethral meatus opens in an abnormal location.

ANS: T REF: Page 601 40.

A hydrocele is a condition in which fluid has accumulated in the scrotum.

ANS: T REF: Page 601 41.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

Most cases of erectile dysfunction have a psychological cause.

ANS: F REF: Page 601

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

42. Medical treatment of erectile dysfunction focuses on the functioning of the corpus cavernosum and spongiosum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

REF: Page 601

43. An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine pushes through the abdominal wall into the scrotum.

ANS: T REF: Page 601

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

44.

The gonads of the female are the ovaries.

ANS: T REF: Page 602 45.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Unlike the gonads of the male, the gonads of the female are in the pelvic

cavity. ANS: T REF: Page 602 46.

There are more primary follicles than there are ovarian follicles.

ANS: F REF: Page 602 47.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

A mature ovum in its sac is sometimes called a graafian follicle.

ANS: T REF: Page 603

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

48. The hollow chamber called the antrum and the ovum together make up a structure called the corpus luteum.

ANS: F REF: Page 603

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

49. The outcome of oogenesis is one large egg containing 23 chromosomes and three polar bodies.

ANS: T REF: Page 603 50.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The egg is one of the largest cells in the body.

ANS: T REF: Page 603

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

51. The main function of the polar bodies is to help reduce the chromosome number to 23 for the egg.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system 52.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 603

The hormone estrogen is produced in the anterior pituitary gland and

stimulates the development and maturation of the female reproductive organs. ANS: F REF: Page 603 53.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

One of the functions of estrogen is to help in the initiation of menarche.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system 54.

Application

REF: Page 603

Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum.

ANS: T REF: Page 604 55.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The uterine tubes, oviducts, and fallopian tubes are all the same structure.

ANS: T REF: Page 604

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

56. The oviducts are attached to the ovaries by special structures called fimbriae.

ANS: F REF: Page 604 57.

Fertilization usually occurs in the uterus.

ANS: F REF: Page 604 58.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The fundus is located below the body of the uterus, but above the cervix.

ANS: F REF: Page 604 60.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The muscular layer of the uterus is called the myometrium.

ANS: T REF: Page 604 59.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The lower part of the uterus is called the cervix.

ANS: T REF: Page 604

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

61.

The fundus is the area of the uterus above the attachment of the oviducts.

ANS: T REF: Page 604 62.

The vagina acts as the last part of the birth canal.

ANS: T REF: Page 605 63.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The amount of milk produced is directly related to the size of the breasts.

ANS: F REF: Page 605 64.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Another name for the female external genitalia is the vulva.

ANS: T REF: Page 606

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

65. The labia minora is the part of the female external genitalia that is composed of erectile tissue.

ANS: F REF: Page 607 66.

The first menses is called menarche.

ANS: T REF: Page 607 67.

ANS: F

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The secretory phase is the phase between ovulation and menses.

ANS: T REF: Page 608 69.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The proliferative phase is the phase between menses and ovulation.

ANS: T REF: Page 608 68.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The proliferative phase is always longer than the secretory phase. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 608

TOP: Female reproductive system 70.

The secretory phase is always longer than the proliferative phase.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 608

71. Although the proliferative phase can be of a variety of lengths, the secretory phase is almost always 14 days long.

ANS: T REF: Page 608

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

72. Both follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are secreted by the pituitary gland.

ANS: T REF: Page 609

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

73. The hormone most responsible for ovulation is folliclestimulating hormone.

ANS: F REF: Page 609

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

74. The function of follicle-stimulating hormone is to stimulate the growth of immature ovarian follicles.

ANS: T REF: Page 609 75.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

Amenorrhea is a term used to describe painful periods.

ANS: F REF: Page 610

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

76. Salpingitis is the inflammation of the oviducts, and oophoritis is the inflammation of the ovaries.

ANS: T REF: Page 611 77.

ANS: F

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

Uterine myoma is another term for uterine cancer. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 611 78.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

An ovarian cyst is the first stage of ovarian cancer.

ANS: F REF: Page 612

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

79. Cervical cancer can be detected by a screening test called a Papanicolaou test, or Pap test.

ANS: T REF: Page 613 80.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

The terms infertility and sterility mean the same thing.

ANS: F REF: Page 613

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

81. The granulose cells in the female and the interstitial cells in the male both produce sex hormones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 614 TOP: The male reproductive system | The female reproductive system 82. Sexually transmitted diseases and venereal diseases refer to the same types of diseases.

ANS: T REF: Page 614

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexually transmitted diseases

83. The function of the reproductive system is very different from any other system because it does not deal with the survival of the individual.

ANS: T REF: Page 589

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

84. The primary function of the male and female reproductive systems is transferring genes to the next generation of offspring.

ANS: T REF: Page 589

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

85. The siblings produced by sexual reproduction are more alike than siblings produced by asexual reproduction.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Sexual reproduction 86.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 592

Spermatozoa are the gonads of the male.

ANS: F REF: Page 593

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

87. Follicle-stimulating hormone causes a spermatogonium to undergo spermatogenesis.

ANS: T REF: Page 596 88.

Memorization

Seminal fluid contains gametes and secretions from accessory glands.

ANS: T REF: Page 598 89.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Spermatogenesis

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands

Another name for the seminal vesicles is the Cowper glands.

ANS: F REF: Page 598

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands

90. Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system.

ANS: T REF: Page 602 91.

The corpus luteum secretes a hormone that stimulates ovulation.

ANS: F REF: Page 603 92.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

PTS: 1 TOP: Ovaries

DIF:

Memorization

Progesterone stimulates proliferation and vascularization of the uterine

lining. ANS: T REF: Page 604 93.

ANS: F

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The part of the uterine tube that enters the uterus is called the fimbriae. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 604

TOP: Reproductive ducts

94. The uterus plays an important role in three functions: menstruation, pregnancy, and labor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 604-605 95.

The lesser vestibular glands are also called the Bartholin glands.

ANS: F REF: Page 605 96.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: External genitals

Memorization

The most frequent cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)

ANS: F REF: Page 610 98.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

The area between the vaginal opening and the anus is called the perineum.

ANS: T REF: Page 607 97. is infection.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Uterus

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hormonal and menstrual disorders

One possible symptom of vaginitis is leukorrhea.

ANS: T REF: Page 611

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Infection and inflammation

99. The presence of functional endometrial tissue outside of the uterus is called myometriosis.

ANS: F REF: Page 612

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tumor and related conditions

100. The terms sexually transmitted disease and sexually transmitted infection mean the same thing.

ANS: F REF: Page 614

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexually transmitted diseases

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

seminiferous tubules seminal vesicles interstitial cells scrotum testes

B. C. D. E. F.

prostate gland

H. I. J. K. ductus deferens

sperm cell epididymis tunica albuginea corpus spongiosum

1. a column of erectile tissue in the penis 2. the male gonads 3. the tube that carries sperm cells out of the scrotum and forms part of the spermatic cord 4. part of the testes that produces testosterone 5. produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid 6. the male gamete 7. structures in which sperm cells develop 8. a tough, whitish membrane that surrounds each testis 9. a saclike structure that contains the testes 10. produces a yellowish fluid that is rich in fructose and that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid 11. a tightly coiled, comma-shaped tube that lies along the top of and behind the testes

ANS: K

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 598 2.

TOP: Male reproductive system ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 593 3.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 597 4.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 597 5.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 598 6.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 592 7.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 597 8.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 593 9.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system D PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 593 10.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system B PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 598 11.

TOP: Male reproductive ANS: system I PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 597

TOP: Male reproductive system

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. impotence F. B. oligospermia G. C. epispadias H. D. sterility I. E. cryptorchidism J.

hydrocele infertility hypospadias inguinal hernia phimosis

12. causes scrotal swelling due to an accumulation of fluid 13. a decrease in sperm production 14. an abnormally low ability to reproduce 15. condition that occurs when the foreskin fits so tightly over the glans that it cannot be retracted 16. condition that occurs when the testes do not descend from the abdominal cavity to the scrotum 17. condition that occurs when there is a failure to achieve an erection of the penis adequate to permit sexual intercourse 18. the opening of the urethral meatus on the underside of the glans 19. the opening of the urethral meatus on the dorsal or top surface of the glans 20. the complete inability to reproduce 21. a swelling of the scrotum caused by part of the intestine that has pushed through the abdominal wall into the scrotum

12. REF: Page 601

13. REF: Page 599 14.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization ANS: system G

REF: Page 599 15.

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive ANS: system J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 598 16.

TOP: Male reproductive system ANS: E PTS: 1

REF: Page 599 17.

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive ANS: system A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 601 18.

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive ANS: system H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 601 19.

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive ANS: system C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 601 20.

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive ANS: system D PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 599 21.

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive ANS: system I PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 601

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

DIF: Memorization

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. follicle-stimulating I. hormone B. fimbriae J. C. cervix K. D. vulva L. E. graafian follicle M. F. proliferative phase N. G. oviduct O. H. ovaries 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

luteinizing hormone corpus luteum vagina ova secretory phase fundus menarche

part of the menstrual cycle that begins at ovulation and ends at menses the part of the fallopian tube that catches the ova at ovulation the female gonads carries the ova from the ovaries to the uterus another term for the female external genitalia the female gametes produces the hormone progesterone after ovulation a mature ovum in its sac lower part of the uterus phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between menses and ovulation

32. part of the uterus that is above the entrance of the fallopian tubes 33. structure that receives sperm during intercourse and is the last part of the birth canal 34. the first menses 35. main hormone responsible for ovulation 36. hormone that causes several immature ovarian follicles to start growing

22.

ANS: M

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 608 23.

TOP: Female reproductive system ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 604 24.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 602 25.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 604 26.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 606 27.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system L PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 592 28.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system J PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 603 29.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 603 30.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system C PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 604 31.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system F PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 608 32.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system N PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 604 33.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system K PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 605 34.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS: system O PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 607 35.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS system I PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 609 36.

TOP: Female reproductive ANS system A PTS: 0 :

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 609

TOP: Female reproductive system

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. salpingitis F. dysfunctional uterine bleeding B. oophoritis G. dysmenorrhea C. amenorrhea H. premenstrual syndrome D. ovarian cysts I. endometriosis E. uterine myoma 37. benign enlargements on one or both ovaries 38. involves a collection of symptoms that regularly occur in some women during the secretory phase of their reproductive cycle 39. painful periods 40. an inflammation of the uterine tubes 41. the absence of normal menstruation 42. irregular or excessive uterine bleeding that most often results from a hormonal imbalance 43. the presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus 44. benign tumors of the uterine fibrous or smooth muscle tissue 45. an inflammation of the ovaries

37. REF: Page 612

38.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorizatio n

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 611 39.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system G PTS: 1 DIF: :

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 609 40.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system A PTS: 1 DIF: :

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 611 41.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system C PTS: 1 DIF:

Memorizatio

REF: Page 610 42.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system F PTS: 1 DIF: :

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 610 43.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system I PTS: 1 DIF: :

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 612 44.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system E PTS: 1 DIF: :

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 611 45.

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive ANS system B PTS: 0 DIF: :

Memorizatio n

REF: Page 611

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Explain the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Sexual reproduction

Memorization

REF: Page 592

2. Explain the different roles that the male and female reproductive systems have in reproduction.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 593 TOP: Common structural and functional characteristics between the sexes 3.

List the essential and accessory organs of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system 4.

ANS:

Describe the structure and location of the testes.

REF: Page 593

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system 5.

REF: Page 593

Explain the process of spermatogenesis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

REF: Page 595

6. Explain why it is necessary that gametes have only 23 chromosomes rather than the normal 46.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Male reproductive system

REF: Page 595

7. Describe the structure of the spermatozoa. Include the function of the acrosome and the midpiece.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 597 TOP: 8.

DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system

REF: Pages 596-

List and explain the functions of testosterone.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system

REF: Page 597

9. Many steroids that are illegal for athletes are testosterone-based. Which of the functions of testosterone would help an athlete perform better?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Male reproductive system

REF: Page 597

10. List, describe, and explain the functions of the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 598 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system

REF: Pages 597-

11. List, describe, and explain the functions of the accessory or supportive sex glands of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system 12.

REF: Page 598

Describe the male external genitalia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 599 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system

REF: Pages 598-

Explain the difference between infertility and sterility.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 14.

REF: Page 599

What is cryptorchidism and how can it be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

REF: Page 599

15. What is benign prostatic hypertrophy? How can it lead to urinary retention?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 600 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 16.

What are some treatments for cancer of the prostate?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 17.

REF: Page 600

What is hypospadias? What is epispadias?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 18.

REF: Page 601

What is impotence? How can it be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

REF: Page 601

19. What are the essential organs of the female reproductive system? What are the accessory organs of the female reproductive system?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system 20.

ANS:

REF: Page 602

Explain the steps in the formation and release of an ovum.

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

REF: Page 603

21. Explain the process of oogenesis. How is it different than spermatogenesis? What is the function of the polar bodies?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Female reproductive system 22.

REF: Page 603

Explain the functions of estrogen and progesterone.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 604 TOP: 23.

DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system

REF: Pages 603-

Describe and give the function of the uterine tubes.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

REF: Page 604

24. How can the structure of the female reproductive system increase the risk of abdominal infection?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system 25.

REF: Page 604

Describe the structure of the uterus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 604

TOP: Female reproductive system 26.

Describe the vagina. What are its functions?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system

REF: Page 605

27. Describe the structure of the breast. Explain how the size of the breast affects the ability to produce milk.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system 28.

REF: Page 605

Describe the female external genitalia.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 607 TOP: 29.

DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system

REF: Pages 606-

Explain the menstrual cycle including the role of all hormones involved.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 609 TOP: 30.

DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system

REF: Pages 607-

Explain dysmenorrhea and amenorrhea.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Page 609 | Page 610 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system 31.

What is dysfunctional uterine bleeding and how can it be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system 32.

REF: Page 610

Name and explain the two types of ovarian cysts.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system 33.

REF: Page 612

Explain the various treatments for breast cancer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system 34.

REF: Page 612

What are the risk factors of ovarian cancer and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

REF: Page 612

35. What are the two types of cancer of the uterus? Explain who would be most at risk for each type.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 613 TOP:

DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 612Disorders of the female reproductive system

36. Give the name, pathogen, and description of three sexually transmitted diseases.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

REF: Page 615

Chapter 24: Development and Birth Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

A. B.

Which of the following terms refers to a fertilized ovum? blastocyst C. zygote embryo D. morula

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 625 period

DIF: TOP: Prenatal

2. Which structure is a solid ball of cells that forms about 3 days after fertilization? A. blastocyst C. zygote B. embryo D. morula

ANS: D PTS: 1 Memorization REF: Page 626 period

DIF: TOP: Prenatal

3. Which structure is a hollow ball of cells that develops and implants into the uterus? A. blastocyst C. zygote B. embryo D. morula

ANS: A REF: Page 626 4.

A. B. C. D.

B. C. D.

Memorization

Fertilization usually occurs in the uterus outer third of the oviduct near the ovary inner third of the oviduct near the uterus ovarian follicle

ANS: B REF: Page 625

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

The function of the yolk sac is to provide food until the blastocyst implants in the uterus develop into a protective structure called the “bag of waters” help in the production of blood cells All of the above are functions of the yolk sac.

ANS: C REF: Page 627 6.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Because of the rapid cell division, the blastocyst is

egg. A.

about twice as large C.

about four times as large

ANS: D REF: Page 626 7.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

DIF: Memorization TOP: Prenatal period

Which of the following is not formed by the mesoderm? dermis of the skin C. bladder kidneys D. muscles

ANS: C REF: Page 629 10.

Memorization

The sequence of development for the fertilized egg is fertilization, zygote, morula, implantation, and blastocyst fertilization, zygote, morula, blastocyst, and implantation fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, morula, and implantation fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, implantation, and morula

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Pages 625-627

A. B.

almost eight times as large the same size

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

as the fertilized

Which of the following is not a function of the placenta? acting as the nutrient bridge between mother and baby acting as an excretory organ acting as an endocrine organ All of the above are functions of the placenta.

ANS: D REF: Page 627

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

Which of the following is not formed by the endoderm? lining of the lungs C. thymus gland

nasal bones

ANS: B REF: Page 629 11.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

tonsils Memorization

Which of the following is not formed by the ectoderm? dermis of the skin C. brain epidermis of the D. spinal cord skin

ANS: A REF: Page 629

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

12. The time from maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina is the stage of labor. A. first C. third B. second D. fourth

ANS: B REF: Page 630

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

13. The time from the onset of uterine contractions to the complete dilation of the cervix is the stage of labor. A. first C. third B. second D. fourth

ANS: A REF: Page 630 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

The process of the expulsion of the placenta occurs in the

labor. A. B.

first second

ANS: C REF: Page 630 15.

A. B. C. D. ANS: A

Memorization

C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

stage of

third fourth Memorization

Blood type is an inherited trait; therefore identical twins must have the same blood type fraternal twins must have the same blood type identical twins may have the same blood type, but don’t have to both A and B PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 632

TOP: Birth or parturition 16.

Identical twins

A. B. C. D.

are the result of a single fertilized egg usually share an umbilical cord usually share a placenta both A and C

ANS: D REF: Page 632 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

Fraternal twins

A. B. C. D.

are the result of two fertilized eggs must be of the same sex must have the same blood type All of the above are true.

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Birth or parturition 18.

A. B.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 632

The implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called placenta previa C. ectopic pregnancy abruptio placentae D. preeclampsia

ANS: C REF: Page 633

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

19. If a blastocyst implants too close to the cervical opening, which of the following conditions can develop? A. placenta previa C. ectopic pregnancy B. abruptio placentae D. preeclampsia

ANS: A REF: Page 633

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

20. Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall after 20 weeks’ gestation is a condition called A. placenta previa C. ectopic pregnancy B. abruptio placentae D. preeclampsia

ANS: B REF: Page 633 21.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

Another term for which condition is toxemia of pregnancy? placenta previa C. ectopic pregnancy abruptio placentae D. preeclampsia

ANS: D REF: Page 633 22.

A. B.

Which of the following is not a teratogenic cause of birth defects? alcohol C. radiation genes D. infection

ANS: B REF: Page 634 23.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

The period of infancy occurs for 4 weeks after birth C. a year D.

ANS: C REF: Page 636 24.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

18 months 2 years Memorization

Childhood

A. B. C. D.

occurs from infancy to age 10 occurs from infancy to sexual maturity is usually longer in boys than girls both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Postnatal period 25.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 637

Adolescence is

generally considered to be the teenage years characterized by the completion of the deciduous teeth characterized by the full closure of the bone growth plates All of the above are true of adolescence.

B. C. D. ANS: A REF: Page 637

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

26. Which of the following is true of the embryo after 35 days of development? A. The heart is C. The limb buds are beating. visible. B. D. The eyes are All of the above are visible. true.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 628 27.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following does not contribute to a newborn’s Apgar score? weight of the baby at birth heart rate muscle tone All of the above contribute to the Apgar score.

ANS: A REF: Page 632 28.

A. B. C. D.

TOP: Periods of development

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

Which of the following is considered a postpartum disorder? abruptio placentae puerperal fever preeclampsia Both A and B are considered postpartum disorders.

ANS: B REF: Page 634

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Postpartum disorders

TRUE/FALSE 1.

The event that divides the prenatal and postnatal periods is birth.

ANS: T REF: Page 623 2.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

After ovulation, the ovum immediately enters the fallopian tube.

ANS: F REF: Page 625 4.

DIF:

The union of the sperm and egg creates a zygote.

ANS: T REF: Page 625 3.

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

Fertilization usually occurs at the segment of the oviduct nearest the

uterus. ANS: F REF: Page 625

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

The morula is larger and has more cells than the zygote.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Prenatal period 6.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 626

The blastocyst implants into the uterine wall.

ANS: T REF: Page 626

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

7. One of the reasons the egg cell is so large is to supply food for the zygote until it implants in the uterus.

ANS: T REF: Page 626

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

8. One of the primary functions of the yolk sac is to provide food for the blastocyst until it implants in the uterine wall.

ANS: F REF: Page 627

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

9. The chorionic villi allow the blood of the mother to mix with the blood of the baby so there can be an exchange of material.

ANS: F REF: Page 627 10.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

One of the functions of the placenta is to act as an endocrine gland.

ANS: T REF: Page 627

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

11. One of the most important functions of the placenta is to act as a barrier to keep potentially harmful materials such as alcohol or viruses from hurting the baby.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Prenatal period 12.

Application

REF: Page 627

The length of the pregnancy is referred to as the gestation period.

ANS: T REF: Page 628 13.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

The developing baby is called a fetus for the last 3 months of pregnancy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Prenatal period 14.

Application

REF: Page 628

By day 35 of gestation, the embryo has a beating heart.

ANS: T REF: Page 628 15.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

By 4 months of gestation, all of the organ systems are complete and in

place. ANS: T REF: Page 628

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

16. The primary germ layers of the body produce the gametes that join to form the zygote.

ANS: F REF: Page 628 17.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

Histogenesis must precede organogenesis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Prenatal period 21.

Memorization

The endoderm forms the brain and spinal cord.

ANS: F REF: Page 629 20.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

The ectoderm forms the dermis and epidermis of the skin.

ANS: F REF: Page 629 19.

Memorization

The mesoderm forms the muscles of the body.

ANS: T REF: Page 629 18.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

DIF:

Application

Organogenesis must precede histogenesis.

ANS: F REF: Page 629

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

REF: Page 629

22.

Another term for birth is parturition.

ANS: T REF: Page 630 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

Stage two of labor is usually the longest of the three stages.

ANS: F REF: Page 630 29.

Memorization

Stage three of labor ends with the expulsion of the placenta.

ANS: T REF: Page 630 28.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Stage three of labor ends with the birth of the baby.

ANS: F REF: Page 630 27.

Memorization

Stage two of labor ends with the birth of the baby.

ANS: T REF: Page 630 26.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Stage one of labor ends when the cervix is fully dilated.

ANS: T REF: Page 630 25.

Memorization

Stage three of labor starts when the cervix is fully dilated.

ANS: F REF: Page 630 24.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

Stage three of labor is usually the shortest.

ANS: T REF: Page 630

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

30. A woman who delivers her baby by cesarean section cannot go through any of the three stages of labor.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 630

TOP: Birth or parturition 31.

Identical twins must have the same color eyes and hair.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Birth or parturition 32.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

Application

REF: Page 633

Memorization

Identical twins come from one fertilized egg. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

Fertility drugs increase the likelihood of having identical twins.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Birth or parturition 38.

REF: Page 632

Fraternal twins can have different biological fathers.

ANS: T REF: Page 632 37.

Application

Fraternal twins can be of different sexes.

ANS: T REF: Page 633 36.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Birth or parturition 35.

REF: Page 632

Identical twins usually share one umbilical cord and one placenta.

ANS: F REF: Page 632 34.

Application

It is possible for identical twins to have different biological fathers.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Birth or parturition 33.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 633

If the fimbriae do not catch the ovum, an ectopic pregnancy could occur.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 633

39. Ectopic pregnancies are always fatal to the embryo and are usually life threatening to the mother.

ANS: F REF: Page 633 40.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

A tubal pregnancy is considered an ectopic pregnancy.

ANS: T REF: Page 633

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

41. If the blastocyst implants too close to the cervix, a condition called placenta previa can occur.

ANS: T REF: Page 633

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

42. Placenta previa has the highest risk for mother and baby during the first trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: F REF: Page 633 43.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta pulls away from the uterine

wall. ANS: T REF: Page 633 44.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include high blood pressure and

edema. ANS: T REF: Page 633

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

45. Preeclampsia can develop into eclampsia, which can be fatal to both mother and baby.

ANS: T REF: Page 633 46.

Birth defects can result from genetic or environmental causes.

ANS: T REF: Page 634 47.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

All teratogens are also mutagens.

ANS: F REF: Page 634

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

48. Mutagens cause a change in the genetic code in the cells of the developing embryo.

ANS: T REF: Page 634

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

49. Teratogens are most damaging to the fetus during the last trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: F REF: Page 634 50.

Infancy begins at birth and lasts about 18 months.

ANS: T REF: Page 636 51.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

The first 4 months after birth are referred to as the neonatal period.

ANS: F REF: Page 636

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

52. The stimulus for a baby’s first breath is the lack of oxygen coming through the umbilical cord.

ANS: F REF: Page 636

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

53. Two systems that undergo very rapid development during infancy are the muscular system and the nervous system.

ANS: T REF: Page 637 54.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

The deciduous (baby) teeth both appear and are lost during childhood.

ANS: F REF: Page 637

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

55. One of the most important changes during adolescence is the completion of the development of the secondary sex characteristics.

ANS: T REF: Page 637

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

56. The full closure of the growth plates of the skeletal system occurs during early adulthood.

ANS: T REF: Page 638

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

57. The number of nephrons in the kidney decreases by 25% between the ages of 30 and 75.

ANS: F REF: Page 641

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging

Memorization

58. As a person ages, the rib cage becomes fixed and less able to expand and contract. This causes a condition called “barrel chest,” which actually adds to the efficiency of breathing.

ANS: F REF: Page 641

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging

Memorization

59. The loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti causes a decline in the hearing ability in older adults.

ANS: T REF: Page 640 60.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging

Memorization

Only about 40% of the taste buds present at age 30 remain in a person at

age 75. ANS: T REF: Page 641

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging

Memorization

61. The science of the development of the individual before birth is called neonatology.

ANS: F REF: Page 625 62.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period

Memorization

The fimbriae are the part of the oviducts that are nearest the ovary.

ANS: T REF: Page 625

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertilization to implantation

63.

The placenta contains tissue from both mother and baby.

ANS: T REF: Page 627

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertilization to implantation

64. A woman who delivered a baby after 35 weeks of gestation would have had a full-term pregnancy.

ANS: F REF: Page 628 65.

The morula would be made exclusively of stem cells.

ANS: T TOP: Stem cells 66.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of development

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 626

Because the adult body has fully differentiated cells, it contains no stem

cells. ANS: F REF: Page 628

PTS: 1 TOP: Stem cells

DIF:

Memorization

67. If a fetus presents in the breech position, a cesarean section may be necessary.

ANS: T REF: Page 630 68.

Memorization

Five criteria are used to determine an Apgar score.

ANS: T REF: Page 632 69.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

An Apgar score of a completely healthy baby would be 5.

ANS: F REF: Page 632

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

70. If all other criteria for the Apgar score were equal, a baby who is underweight would have a lower score than a baby of normal weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Birth or parturition 71.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 632

Puerperal fever is considered a postpartum disorder.

ANS: T REF: Page 634

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Postpartum disorders

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. yolk sac F. identical twins B. fraternal twins G. morula C. zygote H. primary germ layers D. histogenesis I. blastocyst E. amniotic cavity J. placenta 1. the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm 2. structure that becomes a fluid-filled, shock-absorbing structure sometimes called the “bag of waters” 3. the newly fertilized egg 4. the formation of tissues 5. the hollow ball of cells that implants in the uterus 6. structure that supplies food for the embryo in some creatures, but in humans it functions in the formation of blood cells 7. structure that anchors the embryo to the uterus and exchanges material between the mother and baby 8. the solid ball of cells that develops from the fertilized egg 9. twins that develop from one fertilized egg and are genetically identical 10. twins that develop from two fertilized eggs and are no more alike than other siblings

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 629 2.

TOP: Prenatal period ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 627 3.

TOP: Prenatal period ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 628 4.

TOP: Prenatal period ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 629 5.

TOP: Prenatal period ANS: I PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 626

TOP: Prenatal period

ANS: A

REF: Pages 626-627 7. ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Prenata period PTS: l 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 627 8.

TOP: Prenatal period ANS: G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 626 9.

TOP: Prenatal period ANS: F PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 632 10.

TOP: Birth or parturition ANS: B PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 633

TOP: Birth or parturition

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. placenta previa E. B. abruptio placentae F. C. eclampsia G. D. ectopic pregnancy H.

teratogen preeclampsia mastitis puerperal fever

11. an inflammation of the breast that can cause problems in lactation 12. condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus 13. an environmental cause of birth defects 14. condition that can occur when the fertilized egg implants too near the cervix of the uterus 15. condition that occurs in about 1 in 20 pregnancies; characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema 16. a condition in which the placenta has pulled away from the uterine wall 17. a syndrome of postpartum mothers characterized by bacterial infection that progresses to septicemia 18. a life-threatening form of toxemia that causes severe convulsions, coma, and kidney failure and is potentially fatal to mother and baby

11.

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 634 12.

TOP: Disorders of pregnancy ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 633 13.

TOP: Disorders of ANS: pregnancy E PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 634

TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

14. REF: Page 633 15.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

TOP: Disorders of pregnancy ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 633 16.

TOP: Disorders of ANS: pregnancy B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 633 17.

TOP: Disorders of ANS: pregnancy H PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 634 18.

TOP: Disorders of ANS: pregnancy C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 633

TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. A. glaucoma E. lipping B. osteoarthritis F. cataract C. menopause G. presbyopia D. atherosclerosis 19. condition that occurs when old bones develop shaggy-appearing margins with spurs 20. condition that occurs when fatty deposits build up in blood vessel walls and narrow the passageway for blood 21. condition that means “old eye” and is caused by a loss of elasticity in the lenses of the eye 22. the cessation of reproductive cycling in women 23. causes an increase in pressure within the eyeball 24. condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy and significantly impairs vision 25. a common degenerative joint disease in elderly adults

19.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 640 20.

TOP: Effects of aging ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 641 21.

TOP: Effects of aging ANS: G PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 640 22.

TOP: Effects of aging ANS: C PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 641 23.

TOP: Effects of aging ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 640 24.

TOP: Effects of aging ANS: F PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 640 25.

TOP: Effects of aging ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: Page 640

TOP: Effects of aging

SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the events from fertilization to the implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterus.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 627 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Prenatal period

REF: Pages 625-

2. Explain the function of the yolk sac, amniotic sac, chorionic villi, and the placenta.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 627 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Prenatal period

REF: Pages 626-

3. Name the three primary germ layers and name two organs or organ systems that develop from each.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period 4.

ANS:

Memorization

REF: Page 629

Describe the events that occur in the three stages of labor.

Answers will vary. PTS: 1 630 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Birth or parturition

REF: Page

5. Bob and his sister Betty are twins. Are they fraternal twins or identical twins? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 633 TOP:

DIF: Application Birth or parturition

REF: Page

6. Explain how the use of fertility drugs can increase the frequency of multiple births. If twins result from fertility drugs, are they likely to be identical or fraternal? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 633 TOP: 7.

DIF: Application Birth or parturition

REF: Page

Name and explain three types of implantation disorders.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 633 TOP: 8.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy

REF: Page

What is preeclampsia? What is eclampsia?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 633 TOP: 9.

DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy Define and give three examples of a teratogen.

ANS: Answers will vary.

REF: Page

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

REF: Page 634

10. When is infancy? What changes or developmental events occur during infancy?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 637 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Postnatal period

REF: Pages 636-

11. When is childhood and what changes or developmental events occur during childhood?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

REF: Page 637

12. When is adolescence and what changes or developmental events occur during adolescence?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period 13.

Memorization

REF: Page 637

What changes or developmental events occur during adulthood?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period 14.

Memorization

REF: Page 638

Explain two theories of aging.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period

Memorization

REF: Page 638

15.

Select four body systems and explain the effects of aging on each system.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 642 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Postnatal period

REF: Pages 640-

16. What are stem cells? Where can they be found in the embryo? Where can they be found in an adult?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Stem cells

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 628

17. What are Apgar scores used for? What criteria are used to determine the Apgar score?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition

Memorization

REF: Page 632

Chapter 25: Heredity and Hereditary Diseases Test Bank 1. During cell division, each strand of chromatin coils to form a MULTIPLE CHOICE A. gene C. chromosome B. messenger RNA D. both A and C

ANS: C REF: MCS: 651 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The final product of a gene is a chromatin strand C.

protein

ANS: B REF: MCS: 651

messenger RNA molecule chromosome

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

3. The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called the A. genome C. chromosomes B. karyotype D. both B and C

ANS: A REF: MCS: 651 4.

A. B.

The human genome contains about how many genes? 100,000 C. 50,000 75,000 D. 25,000

ANS: D REF: MCS: 651 5.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The shorter segment of a chromosome is called the -arm. l C. q p D. s

ANS: B REF: MCS: 652

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The longer segment of a chromosome is called the -arm. l C. q p D. s

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 652 Chromosomes and genes

DIF: TOP:

7. The structure that divides the chromosome into longer and shorter segments is called the A. centromere C. mitochondria B. genome D. centrioles

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 652

8. The process by which gametes have their chromosome number reduced by half is called A. mitosis C. meiosis B. crossing-over D. linkage

ANS: C REF: MCS: 652 9.

A. B. C. D.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

A mechanism that helps ensure genetic variation is sperm cells not sharing the same genome egg cells not sharing the same genome crossing-over all of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 653

10. If both the mother and father are carriers for albinism, the probability that their offspring will be albino is A. 0% C. 50% B. 25% D. 100%

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: MCS: 654 TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 11. The mother is a carrier for albinism and the father has two dominant genes for normal skin color. The probability that their offspring will be albino is A. 0% C. 50% B. 25% D. 100%

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: MCS: 654 TOP: Gene expression |Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 12. If both the mother and father are albino, the probability that their offspring will be albino is

A. B.

0% 25%

ANS: D 654 TOP: diseases

C. D.

50% 100%

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic

13. A mother who is a carrier for red-green color-blindness and a father with normal vision will produce which of the following offspring? A. 25% of their daughters will be color-blind B. 50% of their daughters will be color-blind C. 25% of their sons will be color-blind D. 50% of their sons will be color-blind

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 655

14. A mother with normal vision (not a carrier for color-blindness) and a father who is color-blind will produce which of the following offspring? A. 100% of the sons will be color-blind B. 50% of the sons will be color-blind C. 100% of the daughters will be carriers for color-blindness D. 50% of the daughters will be carriers for color-blindness

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: MCS: 655 TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 15.

A. B. C. D.

Which of the following can be a genetic mutagen? radiation virus chemicals All of the above can be genetic mutagens.

ANS: D REF: MCS: 655 16.

A. B.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression

A person with trisomy has 45 46

ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Genetic diseases 17.

Memorization

chromosomes. C. D. DIF:

Application

A person with monosomy has chromosomes. 45 C.

47 48 REF: MCS: 657

ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Genetic diseases 18.

A. B.

DIF:

48 Application

REF: MCS: 657

Which of the following conditions results from trisomy? Down syndrome C. Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome D. both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Genetic diseases 19.

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 659-660

Which of the following conditions results from monosomy? Down syndrome C. Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome D. both A and C above

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Genetic diseases

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 660

20. Which of the following is a photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted onto a chart and used to detect chromosomal disorders? A. pedigree C. Punnett square B. karyotype D. plasmid

ANS: B REF: MCS: 662

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

21. Which of the following is a grid used to determine the probability of inheriting a genetic trait? A. pedigree C. Punnett square B. karyotype D. plasmid

ANS: C REF: MCS: 661

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

22. Which of the following is a chart that illustrates the genetic relationship in a family over several generations? A. pedigree C. Punnett square B. karyotype D. plasmid

ANS: A REF: MCS: 661 23.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

Which of the following does not describe a gene? a sequence of DNA nucleotide bases

used to transcribe a specific mRNA molecule used to determine the structure of regulatory enzymes for the cell All of the above describe a gene.

C. D. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 651-652 24.

A. B.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

What percent of DNA carries functional genes? 1% C. 5% D.

ANS: A REF: MCS: 651

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The human genome

10% 25%

Memorization

25. Which term describes a non-coding part of DNA that may be a fragmented or nonfunctional gene? A. genome C. genomic B. pseudogene D. proteome

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 651 genome

DIF: TOP: The human

26. Which genetic disease results from a recessive gene that fails to produce an enzyme needed to convert an amino acid into tyrosine? A. Tay-Sachs disease C. phenylketonuria B. cystic fibrosis D. Turner syndrome

ANS: C PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 658 diseases

DIF: TOP: Single-gene

27. Which genetic disease is caused by a recessive gene that causes impairment of chloride ion transport across the cell membrane? A. Tay-Sachs disease C. phenylketonuria B. cystic fibrosis D. Turner syndrome

ANS: B PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 657 diseases

DIF: TOP: Single-gene

28. Which genetic disease is caused by a recessive gene that fails to make an essential lipid-processing enzyme? A. Tay-Sachs disease C. phenylketonuria B. cystic fibrosis D. Turner syndrome

ANS: A PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 658

DIF: TOP: Single-gene

diseases

29.

A. B. C. D.

Which would be most useful in detecting Turner syndrome? a pedigree a Punnett square a karyotype Both A and B would be useful in detecting Turner syndrome.

ANS: C TOP: Karyotype

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 661

TRUE/FALSE 1.

The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 649 2.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetics and human disease

Another term for a chromatin strand is a gene.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 651

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

3. The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete independent units called genes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 651 4.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The first step in gene expression is the formation of a molecule of mRNA.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: 651 TOP: Chromosomes and genes 5.

All DNA in a human cell is found in the nucleus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes 6.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 651

The entire collection of genetic material in a cell is called the genome.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 651

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The final step in gene expression is frequently an enzyme.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 651 8.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The human genome contains about 100,000 genes.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 651

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

9. Only slightly more than 25% of the genetic material contains functional genes; the other 75% is filler.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 651 Chromosomes and genes

DIF: TOP:

10. The study of the proteins that are made by the human genome is called proteomics.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 651 11.

An ideogram is a drawing of a chromosome.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 652 12.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The q-arm is the long segment of the chromosome.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 652 14.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The p-arm is the long segment of the chromosome.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 652 13.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

The p-arm and q-arm are determined by the location of the centromere.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes 15.

ANS: T

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 652

A gene can be reduced to a sequence of DNA nucleotides. PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 652

TOP: Chromosomes and genes 16. Sperm from the same father will always carry the same set of chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 652 Chromosomes and genes

DIF: TOP:

17. Ova from the same mother will always carry the same set of chromosomes.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 652 18.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

Human gametes contain 23 chromosomes each.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 652

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

19. The exchange of genetic material between pairs of autosomes is called crossing-over.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 653 Chromosomes and genes

DIF: TOP:

20. The process of crossing-over helps prevent genetic variation in the offspring.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 653 21.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

Two genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be linked.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 653

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

22. The human genome contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 652 23.

ANS: T

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes

A dominant gene will prevent the recessive gene from being expressed. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 653

TOP: Gene expression

24. A recessive trait on an autosome will be expressed only if both chromosomes have a recessive gene.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression 25.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

Two albino parents will have all albino children.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

26. An albino father and a mother with normal skin color who carries the gene for albinism have the probability of having 25% of their offspring be albino.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

27. A father and mother who both have normal skin color but carry the gene for albinism will have only offspring with normal skin color.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

28. A person with one dominant gene for normal skin color and one gene for albinism will look the same as a person with two dominant genes for normal skin color.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

29. Because sickle cell anemia is a co-dominant trait, people who have one gene for sickle cell anemia are different from people with two genes for normal blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

30. Because the father has both X and Y chromosomes, it is his gamete rather than the mother’s that determines the sex of the offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

31. A recessive trait carried on the X chromosome acts like a dominant trait in a male offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 655

32. A color-blind mother and a normal vision father will have both sons and daughters who are color-blind.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 655

33. A color-blind father and a normal vision mother who did not carry the gene for color-blindness will have 50% of the sons color-blind and 100% of the daughters as carriers for color-blindness.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 655

34. A mother who is a carrier of the color-blind trait and a father with normal color vision will pass on color-blindness to 50% of their sons.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Gene expression 35.

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression

Memorization

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression

Memorization

A mutagen is an agent that causes a mutation.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 655 39. for disease.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression

All mutations are harmful to the organism.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 656 38.

REF: MCS: 655

A genetic mutation is a change in the DNA code.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 655 37.

Application

The terms sex-linked and X-linked trait mean the same thing.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 654 36.

DIF:

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression

Memorization

Monosomy and trisomy are considered a genetic predisposition

ANS: F REF: MCS: 657 40.

Memorization

Both monosomy and trisomy result from nondisjunction.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 657 41.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

The term genetic disease means the same thing as genetic predisposition.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 657

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

42. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a dominant gene that prevents the proper movement of sodium into and out of the cell.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 657 43.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

PKU can be managed by careful dietary restrictions of certain amino

acids. ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 658 diseases

DIF: TOP: Genetic

44. Down syndrome results from nondisjunction of the twentyfirst chromosome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 Memorization REF: MCS: 659 diseases

DIF: TOP: Genetic

45. People with Down syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 659-660

DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic diseases

46. People with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Pages 659-660 47.

DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetic diseases

A photograph of chromosomes that have been cut out and pasted onto a

chart in pairs according to size is called a pedigree. ANS: F REF: MCS: 661

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

48. A chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations is called a pedigree.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 661

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

49. A grid used to determine the probability of inheriting a genetic trait is called a pedigree.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 661 50.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

A karyotype can be used to detect Down syndrome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

REF: MCS: 661

51. A Punnett square can be used to determine the probability of two carriers of albinism having an albino offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

REF: MCS: 661

52. Viruses and bacterial plasmids have been used to get genetic material into the cell to treat genetic diseases.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 664

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

53. Adenosine deaminase deficiency and cystic fibrosis have been successfully cured with gene therapy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 664-665 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 54.

A person can inherit genetic diseases and genetic risk factors.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 651

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetics and human disease

55.

When DNA is in its chromosome form, transcription cannot occur.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes 56.

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 651

Fragments of formerly functioning genes in the DNA are called genomics.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 651

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: The human genome

Memorization

57. If a creature normally has 32 chromosomes in its cells, the gametes it produces would have 16 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Distribution of chromosomes to offspring

Application

REF: MCS: 652

58. If both parents have sickle cell trait, none of their offspring can have sickle cell anemia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Hereditary traits

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

59. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood, none of their offspring can have sickle cell anemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Hereditary traits

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

60. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood, all of their offspring will have sickle cell trait.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Hereditary traits

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 654

61. Because mutations occur at the chemical level, they can never be seen under the microscope.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 656 62.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic mutations

Memorization

Viruses and bacteria can be mutagens.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 655

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic mutations

Memorization

63.

Nondisjunction can produce gametes with 22 and 24 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Genetic diseases

DIF:

Application

REF: MCS: 657

64. Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a failure to make an enzyme that converts an amino acid into tyrosine.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 658

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

65. People who are carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher than normal resistance to tuberculosis.

ANS: T REF: MCS: 658

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

66. A woman younger than 19 has a higher likelihood of producing a child with Down syndrome than a woman older than 20.

ANS: F REF: MCS: 659

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. proteome I. B. crossing-over J. C. dominant gene K. D. gene L. E. p-arm M. F. trisomy N. G. genetics O. H. recessive gene

genome q-arm sex-linked trait genetic mutation monosomy autosome nondisjunction

1. gene that does not get expressed in an individual who is a carrier 2. the shorter segment of a chromosome 3. the scientific study of genetic inheritance 4. the entire collection of genetic material in each cell in the human body 5. the group of proteins encoded by the genes of the human cell 6. a condition in which a cell has only one member of a chromosome pair 7. the discrete unit of DNA that is passed from parent to offspring and carries a genetic trait

8. gene that expresses itself whenever it is in a cell 9. a process in which parts of chromosomes are exchanged between chromosome pairs during meiosis 10. the longer segment of the chromosome 11. a non-sex chromosome 12. a trait found on the X chromosome 13. occurs during meiosis and can lead to monosomy or trisomy 14. a change in the genetic material 15. a condition in which a cell has three members of a chromosome pair

1. ANS: H REF: MCS: 653 TOP: Gene expression 2. ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF:

Application

PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 652 3.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes G PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 649 4.

TOP: Genetics and human ANS: disease I PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 651 5.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes A PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 651 6.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes M PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 657 7.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: D PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 651 8.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes C PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 653 9.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes B PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 653 10.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes J PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 652 11.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes N PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 652 12.

TOP: Chromosomes and ANS: genes K PTS: 0

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 654 13.

TOP: Gene expression ANS: O PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 657 14.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: L PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 655 15.

TOP: Gene expression ANS: F PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 657

TOP: Genetic diseases

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. A. Turner syndrome F. Klinefelter syndrome B. cystic fibrosis G. karyotype C. Down syndrome H. genetic predisposition D. pedigree I. PKU E. single-gene disease J. Punnett square 16. the condition of having a gene that makes it more likely that you will develop a disease 17. condition that causes the presence of an extra twenty-first chromosome 18. condition caused by having a gene that makes a faulty protein that prevents the movement of sodium ions into and out of the cell 19. a chart that illustrates the genetic relationship in a family over several generations 20. a grid used to determine the probability of inheriting genetic traits 21. a photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted on a chart in pairs according to size 22. disease that occurs because of the presence of a single gene 23. condition of people with only a single X chromosome (XO) 24. condition of people who are missing an enzyme that should convert one amino acid into another 25. condition of people with XXY chromosomes

16.

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 657 17.

TOP: Genetic diseases PTS: 1 ANS: C

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 659 18.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: B PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 657 19.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: D PTS: 1

REF: MCS: 661 20.

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 661 21.

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Pages 661-662 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 22. ANS: E PTS: 1

DIF:

REF: MCS: 656 23.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: A PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 660 24.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: I PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 658 25.

TOP: Genetic diseases ANS: F PTS: 0

DIF: Memorization

REF: MCS: 660

TOP: Genetic diseases

Memorization

SHORT ANSWER 1.

Explain how genes control the activity of a cell.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 651 TOP: 2.

DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes

Draw an ideogram of a hypothetical chromosome and label the p-arm and

q-arm. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 652 TOP:

REF: MCS:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Chromosomes and genes

3. Explain the ways in which genetic variation is increased when passing genetic information on to the next generation.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 653 TOP:

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Chromosomes and genes

4. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of albinism in offspring from a mother who has normal skin color but carries the albinism trait and a father who is an albino.

ANS: Fifty percent of the children will be albino; 50% of the children will have normal skin color. PTS: 1 expression

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 661

TOP: Gene

5. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of sickle cell disease in offspring from a mother and father who both have sickle cell trait.

ANS: 25% normal blood cells, 50% sickle cell trait, 25% sickle cell anemia PTS: 1 expression

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 661

TOP: Gene

6. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of color-blindness in offspring from a mother who is a carrier for color-blindness and a color-blind father.

ANS: 25% color-blind female, 25% color-blind male, 25% carrier female, 25% normal vision male PTS: 1 expression 7.

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 661

TOP: Gene

What is a genetic mutation? List three possible genetic mutagens.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: MCS: 655

TOP: Gene expression 8. Which is more likely to stay in a population: a helpful mutation or a harmful mutation? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 656 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Gene expression

REF: MCS:

9. Explain the difference between a genetic disease and a genetic predisposition.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 657 TOP: 10.

DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases

REF: Pages 656-

Explain the cause and symptoms of cystic fibrosis.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 658 TOP: 11.

DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases

REF: Pages 657-

Explain the cause of and treatment for PKU.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 658 TOP: 12.

DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases

REF: MCS:

Explain the cause and symptoms of Down syndrome.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 659 TOP: 13.

DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases

REF: MCS:

Explain the cause and symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 660 TOP: 14.

DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases

REF: MCS:

Explain the cause and symptoms of Turner syndrome.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 660 TOP:

DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases

REF: MCS:

15. Turner syndrome is caused by monosomy of the sex chromosomes XO. Why is there no corresponding condition for monosomy of the sex chromosome YO?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 expression

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: MCS: 660

TOP: Gene

16. What is a pedigree? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 661 TOP: diseases

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Prevention and treatment of genetic

17. What is a Punnett square? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 661 TOP: diseases

DIF: Application REF: MCS: Prevention and treatment of genetic

18. What is a karyotype? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 662 TOP: diseases

DIF: Application REF: Pages 661Prevention and treatment of genetic

19. Explain the difference between gene replacement therapy and gene augmentation therapy.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 664 TOP:

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

20. Explain the methods used by gene therapists to insert genetic material into a patient’s body.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 665 TOP: 21.

DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 664Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases Evaluate the success of gene therapy up to this point.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 665 TOP: 22.

DIF: Memorization REF: MCS: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases Define or describe what is meant by a pseudogene.

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 651 TOP:

DIF: Memorization The human genome

REF: MCS: