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(Subsequent Pages) 1. One source of employee value is technical knowledge. This includes which of the following? a. Processes b. Challenging work c. Analytical skills d. Leadership ability 2. The type of organizational asset/capital that is the most difficult to measure is _______. a. human b. physical c. financial d. operational 3. Research conducted by Huselid in the 1990s was one of the first to demonstrate the importance of "high performance work systems" (HPWS). The concept of HPWS refers to ____________. a. comprehensive compensation and benefits practices that enhance employee engagement b. integrated and strategically-focused HR practices that contribute to organizational profitability and market value c. performance management practices including coaching and mentoring that support employee development d. strategic leadership practices that inspire and empower the workforce 4. Based on the HR Value Chain, the foundation for achieving "bottom line" outcomes for an organization is ____________. a. political outcomes b. social outcomes c. operational outcomes d. employee outcomes 5. The vice president of HR at a consumer products company wants to use the HR value chain to help maximize profitability and market value of the firm. Which outcome measure should she focus her time and resources on to achieve this objective? a. Revenues b. Customer satisfaction and loyalty c. Employee engagement d. Expenses 6. Which measure does the HR function at Dow Chemical use to assist in calculating both the current and future contribution of employees for the overall financial success of the company? a. Actual Human Capital Return (AHCR) b. Employee Productivity c. Employee Labor Costs d. Employee Return in Investment https://cnow.apps.ng.cengage.com/ilrn/bca/instr/test-printing/490134491/html-print?sel=490134491
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7. Nordstrom seeks to achieve competitive advantage by focusing on superior customer service. The customer service strategy is supported by which HR practice? a. Employee training b. Flexible work schedules c. Wellness program d. Family-oriented corporate culture 8. Common HR metrics include ____________. a. profitability b. sales c. customer satisfaction d. cost per hire 9. The vice president of HR at a financial services company wants to take a more strategic approach to HR by focusing on a key metric that can be used to show the value created by employees. Which metric should he use in this situation? a. Profit per employee b. Turnover rate c. HR expense factor d. Employee labor costs 10. The president of a major retailer wants to take a more strategic approach to HR by focusing on a key metric that can be used to show the degree of leverage of human capital. Considering the methods we have reviewed in this chapter, which method would be most appropriate? a. Profit per employee b. Employee engagement c. Employee turnover d. HR expense factor 11. The president of a computer manufacturer wants to take a more strategic approach to HR by focusing on a key metric that can be used to show the return on human investments relative to productivity and profitability. Which metric should she use in this situation? a. Turnover rate b. Human capital ROI c. Human capital value added d. HR expense factor 12. Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate HR analytics issue to examine? a. Do specific employee benefit programs impact employee productivity and retention? b. What is the sales growth for the company for the last 5 years? c. What is the customer satisfaction rate for the last 3 years? d. What is the defect rate of the products the company manufactures?
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13. The factors that influence an organization's investment orientation include _______. a. management values b. attitudes toward risk c. utilitarianism d. All of these are correct. 14. Based on the HR Value Chain, the order of factors in the chain occurs in which order? a. employee outcomes, operational outcomes, financial/accounting outcomes, market-based outcomes b. financial/accounting outcomes, market-based outcomes, operational outcomes, employee outcomes c. market-based outcomes, operational outcomes, employee outcomes, financial/accounting outcomes d. operational outcomes, financial/accounting outcomes, market-based outcomes, employee outcomes 15. The HR function at Google is highly effective because it uses a(n) __________ approach. a. investment-focused b. customer-focused c. data-driven d. sustainability-driven
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CHAPTER 2
(Subsequent Pages) 1. In terms of compliance with EEO laws, which of the following is true? a. The impetus is voluntary and internal b. The focus is on understanding c. Elements are usually limited to race, gender, ethnicity d. The key outcome is equality 2. In terms of managing diversity, which of the following is true? a. The focus is on productivity and compliance b. The impetus is mandatory, forced, external c. The company culture is fluid and adaptive d. The time frame is short-term, one shot 3. Global accounting and consulting firm PwC took what critical action in 2003 to support diversity in the company? a. It implemented a formal diversity training program. b. It hosted a major diversity conference. c. It implemented a formal affirmative action program. d. It created a chief diversity officer position. 4. Which of the following statements is true regarding generational diversity? a. The older workforce will stay in the workforce until a later age, but this will actually create jobs for younger workers. b. Information technology is being used to perform functions previously handled by middle managers. c. Baby busters have especially good opportunities for career advancement. d. Fifty percent of the U.S. population will be age 65 or older by the year 2030. 5. Which of the following statements is true regarding generational diversity? a. Generation X expects to be given more self-control, and they are less interested in job security. b. Generation Y brings an especially global and tolerant outlook to work. c. Generation Y is especially entrepreneurial. d. All of these are correct. 6. Which of the following is true regarding the leadership preferences of different generations of workers? a. Traditionalists prefer a positive mentor who is motivating in their leadership. b. Generation X prefers direct, competent, informal, flexible, supportive leadership. c. Baby Boomers prefer fair, consistent, and direct leadership. d. Generation Y prefers equality, democratic, personable, mission-focused leadership.
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7. Based on the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which of the following would be unlawful regarding the treatment of LGBT applicants or employees? a. Failing to hire an applicant because she is a transgender woman. b. Firing an employee because he/she is planning or has made a gender transition. c. Denying an employee promotion because he is gay or straight. d. All of these are correct. 8. Walgreen's took which action to demonstrate its commitment to hiring workers with disabilities? a. It redesigned all jobs at its corporate headquarters to accommodate workers with disabilities. b. It increased its presence at job fairs for disabled workers. c. It increased its training budget for workers with disabilities. d. It built a distribution facility that was specifically designed to employ workers with disabilities. 9. The lack of workforce diversity in leading firms in Silicon Valley is attributed to _________. a. the unappealing geographic location of these firms b. the emphasis on recruiting from elite universities that have diversity problems of their own c. the lack of tuition reimbursement as a benefit at these firms d. the high cost of living in this part of the country 10. You have been hired as a diversity consultant by the management team at a major telecommunications firm that wants to create affinity groups for various dimensions of diversity (e.g., race, gender, disabilities, LGBT) in the company. Management has expressed a strong desire that these affinity groups be successful and sustainable in the future. Given this, what would be a key recommendation you would offer management? a. Assign individual contributors as leaders of affinity groups. b. Make sure that the affinity groups are linked to the overall diversity strategy of the company and that they are not allowed to operate in isolation. c. Make sure that there are at least ten affinity groups. d. Assign first-line supervisors as leaders of affinity groups. 11. Individual dimensions of diversity include __________. a. employment status b. marital status c. experience d. All of these are correct. 12. You have been hired as an HR consultant by the CEO of a major hotel chain. In response to recent lawsuits against the company, senior management has decided that it wants to create and implement a formal ethics in business initiative. Part of this initiative involves creating a code of ethics for all members of the company. Based on this situation, what would you recommend to the CEO in terms of the types of statements that should be included in the code of ethics? a. There should be a statement about the ethical use of company assets. b. There should be a statement about the organization's relationship with the environment. c. There should be a statement about how employees are to be treated. d. All of these are correct.
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13. Which of the following statements is true regarding business ethics in organizations? a. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 discourages workers from reporting incidents of unethical behavior in organizations. b. A company's ethics training programs should be kept separate from its mission and overall strategy. c. History has shown that the majority of organizations undertake ethics awareness and training initiatives to create a more positive environment for workers. d. Ethics training programs should be mandatory for all employees. 14. A positive link between environmental and economic performance for organizations is more likely for differentiating products when __________. a. there is no additional cost to the product features that reflect a concern for the environment b. there is credible information about the environmental features of the product c. there are no barriers to other firms offering a product with the same environment-friendly features d. the product features are enhanced in terms of general functionality, but they do not reflect a concern for the environment 15. The Global Reporting Initiatives that pertain to Human Resource Management include _________. a. total workforce by employment type, employment contract, and region b. average hours of training per year per employee c. coverage of the organization's defined benefit plan obligations d. All of these are correct.
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CHAPTER 3
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the industrial organization model of strategy? a. Research supports both the industrial organization and resource-based models of strategy. b. It argues that the primary determinant of an organization's strategy should be its external environment. c. It sees the external environment as providing opportunities and threats to an organization. d. All of these are correct. 2. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the resource-based model of strategy? a. It argues that the primary determinant of an organization's strategy should be its external environment. b. It says that organizations achieve competitive advantage when they acquire resources and they create value. c. Research supports this model over the industrial organization model of strategy. d. All of these are correct. 3. Sarasota Memorial Hospital is able to motivate, engage, and retain its employees based on its strategic plan that emphasizes __________. a. diversity and inclusion b. the five pillars of excellence c. employee empowerment d. fun and family orientation 4. The first step in the strategic management process focuses on addressing which factor? a. Goals and objectives b. Environmental analysis c. Mission statement d. Organization self-assessment 5. The environmental analysis part of the strategic management process involves looking at _________. a. regulations b. technology c. market trends d. All of these are correct. 6. The management systems that are analyzed as part of the organizational self-assessment phase of the strategic management process include __________. a. mission statement b. economic Trends c. regulations d. culture
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7. The role of HR in supporting step 1, understanding the planning legacy, of the strategic planning process is to _________. a. ensure that all performance measures are clearly understood in the organization b. conduct research regarding what has been done regarding the planning process in the past c. determine what resources exist in the organization versus what resources need to be acquired from outside the organization d. develop plans and programs to enhance employee engagement and commitment 8. The role of HR in supporting step 5, develop alternative performance options, of the strategic planning process is to _________. a. ensure that all performance measures are clearly understood in the organization b. determine what resources exist in the organization versus what resources need to be acquired from outside the organization c. conduct research regarding what has been done regarding the planning process in the past d. develop plans and programs to enhance employee engagement and commitment 9. The role of HR in supporting step 6, measuring progress, of the strategic planning process is to _________. a. determine what resources exist in the organization versus what resources need to be acquired from outside the organization b. develop plans and programs to enhance employee engagement and commitment c. conduct research regarding what has been done regarding the planning process in the past d. ensure that all performance measures are clearly understood in the organization 10. The role of HR in supporting step 7, deploying the strategic plan, of the strategic planning process is to _________. a. conduct research regarding what has been done regarding the planning process in the past b. develop plans and programs to enhance employee engagement and commitment c. determine what resources exist in the organization versus what resources need to be acquired from outside the organization d. ensure that all performance measures are clearly understood in the organization 11. The HR challenges of merging dissimilar HR systems from different organizations and the dismissal of employees are associated with which corporate strategy? a. Stability b. External growth c. Retrenchment/turnaround d. Internal growth 12. The HR challenge of not being able to provide employees with many opportunities is associated with which corporate strategy? a. External growth b. Differentiation c. Stability d. Internal growth 13. The HR challenge of cost cutting targeted at payroll expenses is associated with which corporate strategy? a. Retrenchment b. Internal growth c. External growth d. Differentiation https://cnow.apps.ng.cengage.com/ilrn/bca/instr/test-printing/812921494/html-print?sel=812921494
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14. The HR challenge that emphasizes that employees know what makes their market unique is associated with which corporate strategy? a. Differentiation b. Internal growth c. Focus d. Stability 15. The HR challenge that emphasizes incentives and rewards for worker creativity is associated with which corporate strategy? a. Differentiation b. Stability c. Internal growth d. Focus
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CHAPTER 4
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences between traditional vs. strategic HR management? a. Strategic HR is also called personnel management. b. Strategic HR focuses more on compensation and staffing as opposed to other HR activities. c. Traditional HR focuses more on transactional, recordkeeping activities. d. Traditional HR should focus on being a champion of employees. 2. According to the Ulrich HR Roles framework, the role that HR needs to play to maximize its contribution to the success of an organization that involves a strategic and systems focus is called a(n) ________. a. administrative expert b. strategic partner c. employee champion d. change agent 3. According to the Ulrich HR Roles framework, the role that HR needs to play to maximize its contribution to the success of an organization that involves a strategic and people focus is called a(n) ________. a. administrative expert b. change agent c. employee champion d. strategic partner 4. The Lengnick-Hall and Lengnick-Hall model of strategic HR says that HR must enhance its strategic credibility by playing which of the following roles? a. Human capital steward b. Knowledge facilitator c. Relationship builder d. All of these are correct. 5. Senior management at a high tech firm based in Silicon Valley is concerned with how to build the capacity of its workforce to adapt to rapid changes in the firm's external environment. In particular, the firm needs work systems to be able to take advantage of opportunities, and to avoid or overcome threats in the external environment of the firm. Based on the Lengnick-Hall Model, HR needs to focus on playing which role in this situation? a. Relationship builder b. Rapid deployment specialist c. Human capital steward d. Knowledge facilitator
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6. Senior management at a high end retailer based in Chicago is concerned with how to foster a work environment and system that will engage the workers and enable them to thrive in terms of the work they perform for the company. Based on the Lengnick-Hall Model, HR needs to focus on playing which role in this situation? a. Relationship builder b. Knowledge facilitator c. Rapid deployment specialist d. Human capital steward 7. HR practices that represent a strategic approach at Southwest Airlines include a(n)________. a. leadership development training program for all employees b. selection process that is very rigorous c. corporate culture that emphasizes efficiency and getting results d. pay policy that is based on 100% incentive-based pay 8. Which of the following statements is true regarding a strategic approach to HRM? a. The role of HR is transformational change leader and initiator. b. The time horizon is short-term. c. Responsibility for HR falls on staff specialists. d. The focus is on employee relations. 9. The Lepak and Snell framework is based on research that found which of the following? a. As the strategic value of human capital, it is more likely that an organization will implement it externally. b. The more unique an organization's human capital, the greater the likelihood that it would be a source of competitive advantage. c. Low uniqueness and strategic value are associated with alliances/partnerships and collaborative-based HR. d. All of these are correct. 10. Which of the following is a barrier to the implementation of a strategic approach to HRM? a. Organizations that spend too much time on a short-term mentality and current performance b. HR managers who do not think strategically c. Senior managers who do not see the value of HR or what it can contribute to the success of an organization d. All of these are correct. 11. The antecedents of employee engagement include which of the following factors? a. Innovation b. Trust c. Performance d. Commitment
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12. Dimensions of employee trust include which of the following factors? a. Communication b. Consistency c. Receptivity d. All of these are correct. 13. Most of the barriers to implementing change in an organization are rooted in its ________. a. culture b. processes c. structure d. strategy 14. Strategic outcomes of HR include: a. Employee and customer satisfaction b. Enhanced shareholder value c. Increased performance d. All of these are correct. 15. Based on the Strategic HRM Model, HR strategy is composed of: a. corporate strategy b. external environment c. design of jobs and work systems d. business strategy
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CHAPTER 5
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Part of Proctor and Gamble's strategy for workforce planning is that: a. the company has a Build from Outside program for attracting high quality talent. b. each of the organization's top 50 jobs has one internal replacement candidate lined up and ready to assume responsibility. c. it is able to fill any position internally within one hour. d. the vice president of HR takes primary responsibility for the development of the company's top managers. 2. Workforce planning should occur across which planning horizon(s)? a. tactical b. operational c. strategic d. All of these are correct. 3. An organization's overall HR strategy is composed of which two elements? a. strategic workforce planning and design of work systems b. business processes and key performance indicators c. corporate strategic planning and corporate culture d. organizational structure and organizational design 4. The key objectives of strategic workforce planning include: a. preventing overstaffing, but not understaffing. b. providing direction and coherence to all HR activities and systems. c. uniting the perspectives of line managers and their direct reports. d. ensuring that an organization possesses the financial resources it needs to achieve its strategic plan. 5. Which of the following is a key element of Costco and Xerox Europe's strategy for developing its employees? a. They both pay 20% above the market rate for management positions. b. They both use a promotion from within policy. c. They both use flexible work schedules to motivate their managers. d. All of these are correct. 6. The type of planning that involves the anticipation of needs for groups of employees in lower-level positions is called: a. operational planning b. strategic planning c. succession planning d. aggregate planning
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7. Aggregate planning assesses the supply of labor in an organization using what type of analysis? a. Regression analysis b. Markov analysis c. SWOT analysis d. Correlation analysis 8. In a Markov analysis, if the current year's retention rate for 100 retail sales associates is 70%, then the forecasted number of sales associates that will be retained next year will be: a. 30 b. 70 c. 80 d. 100 9. Which of the following is true regarding strategies for managing employee shortages and surpluses? a. Across the board pay cuts is a strategy for managing employee surpluses. b. Subcontracting work out is a strategy for managing employee shortages. c. Switching to a variable pay plan is a strategy for managing employee surpluses. d. All of these are correct. 10. Which of the following is true regarding succession planning in organizations? a. They use replacement charts as the basis for planning. b. They apply to all jobs in an organization. c. They are easy to implement in practice. d. All of these are correct. 11. You have been hired as an HR consultant by a company that needs guidance in formulating succession plans. Based on this situation, what would you recommend to senior management about this issue? a. Ensure decentralized control over the process. b. Only engage and involve managers at the senior-level in the process. c. Ensure that all HR functions that impact succession planning are iterated and working in tandem. d. Keep the process separate from the overall company's strategic plan. 12. Which of the following is true regarding the advantages and disadvantages of disclosing a company's succession plans? a. An advantage of telling is that it supports the company's retention strategy. b. An advantage of not telling is that it gives the company flexibility as its business needs change. c. A disadvantage of telling is that it may create unrealistic expectations and implied contracts among employees. d. All of these are correct.
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13. Which of the following is part of General Electric's succession planning process for its executives? a. All executives are required to earn their MBA from an elite business school. b. Managers and executives are rotated every two to three years to build skills and experience. c. Managers and executives are paired with coaches from an elite management consulting firm to help them develop their skills. d. The program focuses on recruiting external candidates to bring appropriate talent into the company. 14. An effective mentoring program should be based on a consideration of: a. needs of mentees b. needs of the organization c. background of mentors d. All of these are correct. 15. The mentoring program at Raytheon Vision System focuses on which practice? a. Replacement charts b. Workforce planning c. Knowledge sharing d. Markov analysis
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CHAPTER 6
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Based on the Model for the Designs of Work Systems, a work system should be designed based on a consideration of: a. what customers want b. what management likes c. what workers do d. what competitors need 2. One of the most popular training methods for the development of HR professionals into strategic business partners is: a. job rotation b. job enlargement c. job specialization d. job enrichment 3. The design of a retail sales associate job was modified so that the job includes a number of additional non-selling activities such as doing inventory and product display management. This is an example of the application of which job design principle? a. Job specialization b. Job autonomy c. Job enlargement d. Job enrichment 4. A business analyst's job is redesigned so that it now has more formal authority and responsibility for project management and supervising project teams. This is an example of the application of which job design principle? a. Job identity b. Job enlargement c. Job enrichment d. Job specialization 5. Competency models can be developed within any organization around which levels of assessment? a. Organization-wide b. Division-based c. Role-based d. All of these are correct. 6. A production worker's job is designed so that it performs all of the steps required to assemble a pair of headphones from beginning to end. Based on job characteristics theory, this job possesses a high degree of: a. autonomy b. task significance c. task identity d. skill variety https://cnow.apps.ng.cengage.com/ilrn/bca/instr/test-printing/1661251832/html-print?sel=1661251832
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7. A merchandising analyst job is redesigned so that now it requires the worker to use planning, organizing, coordination, and interpersonal skills. Based on job characteristics theory, this job possesses a high degree of: a. task identity b. autonomy c. skill variety d. task significance 8. A production worker's job is redesigned so that the worker understands that the job being performed has an important impact on others. Based on job characteristics theory, this job possesses a high degree of: a. task identity b. autonomy c. task significance d. skill variety 9. A production worker possesses a moderate degree of motivation to perform his job, but he prefers to work on tasks that are simple and easy. Based on job characteristics theory, this worker would not be an ideal match for a job that possesses: a. high task identity b. high task significance c. high feedback d. All of these are correct. 10. A computer hardware manufacturer is facing the challenge of remaining responsive to changes in its external environment (industry) with the need to control operating costs. Given this, what type of organizational structure would be most effective? a. Functional b. Divisional c. Global d. Matrix 11. Based on the employee life cycle model, a worker is most likely going to be in which stage after being on a job for 6–12 months? a. Orientation b. Settled In c. Competent Performance d. All of these are correct. 12. Based on the employee life cycle model, a worker is most likely going to be in which stage after being on a job for 3–7 years of hire? a. Monotony b. Settled In c. Competent Performance d. All of these are correct.
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13. Based on the outsourcing matrix, when the role of outsourcing is complementary and the strategic importance to the organization is "core," this is referred to as: a. efficiency b. synergy and legitimacy c. core enhancing d. productivity 14. HR's role of aligning rewards with organizational needs is associated with which stage of a merger/acquisition? a. implementation b. due diligence c. pre-deal d. integration planning 15. The reasons for employee resistance to organizational change include: a. concerns about real or perceived costs or change b. failure to perceive the benefits of change c. risk and uncertainty associated with change d. All of these are correct.
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CHAPTER 7
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Most workers in the United States actually have limited protection against unfair treatment at work due to: a. unions b. Title VII c. employment at will d. affirmative action 2. Which of the following is (are) an exception to employment-at-will? a. Conditions specified in a collective bargaining agreement b. Written contracts between an employer and employee c. Terms of implied contracts between an employer and employee d. All of these are correct. 3. What is the federal law that prohibits wage discrimination based on sex or gender for jobs that require equal skill, effort, and responsibility performed under similar working conditions? a. Civil Rights Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Equal Pay Act d. Rehabilitation Act 4. Which federal employment law led to the creation of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)? a. Civil Rights Act b. Equal Rights Act c. Americans with Disabilities Act d. Patriot Act 5. The concepts of "otherwise qualified" and "reasonable accommodations" are major considerations under which federal employment law? a. Americans with Disabilities Act b. Civil Rights Act c. Age Discrimination Act d. Affirmative Action 6. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the Family and Medical Leave Act? a. It requires employers to provide up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave for the birth, adoption, or serious illness of a child, family member, or the person, for a 12 month period. b. It covers organizations with 50 or more employees. c. Employees with salaries among the top 10% of an employer's workforce do not receive FMLA protection. d. All of these are correct.
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7. Based on the EEOC Complaint Process, a worker has how many days to file a charge with a state/local EEO agency or the EEOC after a discriminatory act has occurred at work? a. 90 b. 60 c. 30 d. 180 8. Based on the EEOC Complaint Process, if the EEOC is unable to reach an agreement with the parties involved in a discrimination case, what happens next? a. The EEOC transfers the case to a private lawyer to handle the case. b. The EEOC transfers the case to the local EEO agency from where the complaint was filed. c. The EEOC terminates the process and the issue goes unresolved. d. The EEOC decides to not file suit and issues a "right to sue" letter to the complainant. 9. The fundamental goal of an affirmative action program is to: a. address underutilization of individuals from certain protected classes. b. impose strict quotas on hiring women and minorities. c. develop the leadership skills of women and minorities. d. All of these are correct. 10. Although affirmative action programs are controversial, the one point on which supporters and critics do agree on is that: a. there is a long history of discrimination against members of certain protected classes. b. affirmative action programs are not supported by top management of major corporations. c. affirmative action is nothing more than a quota system. d. affirmative action programs are simply too costly to implement and sustain in the long-term. 11. A manager tells his female administrative assistant that he will give her a huge pay increase if she has dinner with him and engages in sexual activity afterwards. This is an example of which type of sexual harassment? a. Reasonable woman b. Quid pro quo c. Tit for tat d. Hostile work environment 12. In order to determine whether a hostile work environment exists in a given case of sexual harassment, the standard that is used is called: a. fairness and equity rule b. reasonable woman c. quid pro quo d. tit for tat
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13. Strategies that can be used to address the problem of workers being unaware of a sexual harassment policy or know there is a policy but not what it says include: a. providing training for workers centering on sexual harassment policies and procedures b. supporting workers filing allegations c. creating a climate of trust d. creating a climate of respect 14. Strategies that can be used to address the problem of fear of reporting sexual harassment include: a. creating a culture of trust b. conducting an investigation using an objective, outside source c. supporting those filing allegations d. All of these are correct. 15. One of the trends in employee litigation today is a shift away from blatant to more subtle type of discrimination in the workplace referred to as: a. systemic discrimination b. micro-inequities c. double standard behaviors d. cultural discrimination
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY 3276b28d-b9b8-4d7f-9524-18f1a1eb645a
1c 2d 3c 4a 5a 6d 7d 8d 9a 10 a 11 b 12 b 13 a 14 d 15 b ANSWER KEY - Page 1
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CHAPTER 8
(Subsequent Pages) 1. If an organization decides that it wants to hire permanent employees, the first critical question that it needs to address is: a. projecting the number of positions that need to be filled. b. whether to recruit internally or externally. c. how to update the job descriptions for the jobs that need to be filled d. determining the size of the budget for the recruiting process. 2. The advantages of internal recruiting methods include: a. fresh ideas and perspectives b. expansion of the knowledge base c. less training/socialization time d. All of these are correct. 3. The disadvantages of external recruiting methods include: a. candidates are unknown entities. b. it can be detrimental to internal hires. c. it can be expensive. d. All of these are correct. 4. One caveat regarding the use of recruiting pyramids is that: a. managers and employees have trouble understanding how to use them. b. they lead to inaccurate forecasts so they can be misleading. c. they are extremely difficult to design. d. they may need to be adjusted if labor market conditions change dramatically. 5. The main reason why employers use the Internet for recruiting is to attract: a. qualified job candidates. b. active job candidates. c. non-traditional job candidates. d. passive job candidates. 6. The reasons why executive search firms continue to be in demand include: a. Search firms are usually faster and better than an organization's in-house recruiters in locating talent. b. Search firms can keep the identity of the employer confidential during the recruiting and prescreening process. c. Search firms will often provide anti-raiding agreements where they agree not to contact the employees of a client organization for searches related to the searches for other clients for a specified period of time. d. All of these are correct.
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7. One of the most effective strategies that employers use to address some of the challenges associated with on-campus recruiting is to: a. offer scholarships at colleges and universities for students in targeted majors. b. invest in developing stronger brands with students from targeted backgrounds. c. offer co-op and internship programs. d. offer special professional development workshops to prospective job candidates to help them eliminate knowledge and skill gaps. 8. The interview process for evaluating job candidates for a leadership development program only asks questions about each candidate's analytical ability. This is an example of which type of error in assessment? a. Contamination b. Stereotyping c. Bias d. Deficiency 9. If an employer wants to demonstrate the usefulness of a selection test/method, it should focus on showing that the test/method possesses: a. reliability b. criterion-related validity c. content validity d. accuracy 10. The first step in using behavioral interviewing is to: a. examine existing interview questions for the job. b. conduct a job analysis . c. train the interviewer on behavioral interviewing. d. determine the most important behavioral characteristics associated with performance of the job. 11. The most useful types of selection tests are generally considered to be: a. unstructured interviews b. reference checks c. work sample and trainability tests d. personality tests 12. The dimension of the Big Five Personality test that is associated with the characteristics of being intellectual, imaginative, curious, and original is: a. Socialability b. Intellectual openness c. Emotional stability d. Agreeableness 13. The use of personality tests for making selection decisions is problematic for two reasons because: a. developing personality tests is very time consuming. b. they are tedious to administer and score. c. their use can have a negative impact on members of protected classes. d. their use is extremely costly. https://cnow.apps.ng.cengage.com/ilrn/bca/instr/test-printing/855467977/html-print?sel=855467977
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14. Which of the following is(are) true regarding reference and background checks? a. One advantage of reference checks is that they possess very high criterion-related validity. b. One limitation of reference checks is that many employers will not provide any information at all about their former employees. c. One limitation of reference checks is that they are extremely difficult to conduct. d. One advantage of reference checks is that they always possess high reliability. 15. Contemporary trends in staffing include: a. employers focusing more on building strong brands for themselves in relation to targeted members of the labor market. b. an emphasis on using a customer relationship management approach with prospective employees. c. a heightened awareness of the importance of applicant and an organization's culture. d. All of these are correct.
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY 79cd1af1-c746-4b32-b2dd-802c1d7fa912
1b 2c 3d 4d 5d 6d 7c 8d 9b 10 d 11 c 12 b 13 c 14 b 15 d
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CHAPTER 9
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Reasons why training and development is becoming a strategic issue for organizations include: a. Rapid changes in technology are making skills obsolescent more quickly. b. The redesign of work into jobs is forcing workers to assume broader responsibilities that require a greater range of skills. c. Mergers and acquisitions are increasing in frequency, requiring new skills from the workforce. d. All of these are correct. 2. The first step of the training process involves: a. delivering the training. b. conducting a formal needs assessment. c. designing the training. d. setting the objectives and measures of success for the training. 3. A training needs assessment involves an analysis of work issues at which level(s)? a. Organizational b. Task c. Individual d. All of these are correct. 4. After a training needs assessment is conducted, the next step in the training process is to: a. deliver the training program. b. evaluate the training program. c. develop training objectives. d. design the training program. 5. When designing a training program, critical issues that need to be considered include: a. interference and transfer. b. short-term and long-term success. c. internal vs. external organizational factors. d. reliability and validity. 6. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the benefits and drawbacks of online computer training? a. One advantage is that it is self-paced and customizable. b. One disadvantage is that it requires trainees to be self-motivated. c. One disadvantage is that the online learning environment may not be a good fit for the learning styles of some trainees. d. All of these are correct.
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7. A customer service training program is evaluated by administering a survey of participants to ask them if they liked the training. This is an example of which type of training evaluation? a. Learning b. Reactions c. Results d. Behavior 8. A data analytics training program is evaluated by administering a test to participants to determine if they learned the content of the training program. This is an example of which type of training evaluation? a. Results b. Learning c. Reactions d. Behavior 9. A project management training program is evaluated by assessing the degree to which participants changed the way they managed their projects on the job after the training. This is an example of which type of training evaluation? a. Results b. Learning c. Reactions d. Behavior 10. A strategic planning training program is evaluated by assessing the degree to which the company was successful in achieving its vision, mission, and strategic objectives. This is an example of which type of training evaluation? a. Results b. Reactions c. Learning d. Behavior 11. Based on the stages of corporate university development, the focus stage involves an operational focus on: a. competitive advantage. b. consolidation of existing training activities. c. development of targeted programs to address specific needs. d. efficiency. 12. Based on the stages of corporate university development, during the goal stage the tactical focus should be on: a. a random and reactive perspective. b. knowledge management, development, and retention. c. alignment of the university with organizational needs. d. a strategic partnership.
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13. Based on the stages of corporate university development, the man activity stage should have a strategic focus on: a. matching activities to organizational strategy. b. competitive advantage. c. developing a strategic partnership. d. centralizing training functions and activities. 14. In order for training to be impactful and effective, the training and development function must be integrated with which processes? a. Labor Relations and Unions b. Recruiting and Selection c. Performance Management and Compensation d. Job Analysis: and Job Evaluation
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY eafe8b25-090d-43ac-9a7b-f388ec4d2f61
1d 2b 3d 4c 5a 6d 7b 8b 9d 10 a 11 b 12 a,b,c 13 c 14 c
ANSWER KEY - Page 1
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CHAPTER 10
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Differences between performance feedback and performance appraisal include: a. Performance feedback is past, present, and future-oriented whereas performance appraisal is past-oriented. b. Performance feedback involves active participation whereas performance appraisal involves passive participation. c. With performance feedback, the role of the supervisor is to be a coach, motivator, and partner, whereas with performance appraisal, the supervisor is an authority figure. d. All of these are correct. 2. Based on the strategic choice in performance management systems model, strategic decisions for the overall system include: a. how the system will be used. b. who will conduct the evaluations. c. what will be evaluated as part of the process. d. All of these are correct. 3. A manager gives an average performing direct report excellent ratings across all performance dimensions because the direct report possesses a graduate degree from an elite university. This is an example of which rating error in the performance appraisal process? a. Severity bias b. Contrast error c. Halo error d. Leniency bias 4. A manager gives a low performing direct report excellent ratings across all performance dimensions because he does not want to deal with the backlash from any direct report who is unhappy with his/her ratings. This is an example of which rating error in the performance appraisal process? a. Contrast error b. Leniency bias c. Severity bias d. Halo error 5. A manager gives an average performing direct report excellent ratings because another direct report who was evaluated earlier was an especially weak performer. This is an example of which rating error in the performance appraisal process? a. Central tendency error b. Contrast error c. Halo error d. Stereotype
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6. The bases for determining what to evaluate in a performance appraisal process include: a. traits b. behaviors c. results d. All of these are correct. 7. In addition to traits, behaviors, and results, an additional basis for evaluating performance that is emerging is: a. biometric data. b. competencies. c. attitudes. d. physical abilities. 8. Forced ranking systems for performance appraisal are most compatible with organizations that possess: a. high pressure, results-driven cultures. b. a low cost corporate strategy. c. centralized organizational structures. d. an aggressive corporate growth strategy. 9. If an organization needs a performance appraisal system that is easy to design, use, and update to job requirements, it should use a(n): a. behavior observation scale. b. forced distribution system. c. 360 degree feedback system. d. graphic rating scale. 10. A large financial services firm has used a traditional graphic rating scale for its performance appraisal process in the past. Management would like to use a new system that can help to overcome the subjectivity and biases associated with the current system. Based on this situation, which system should management use in the future? a. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) b. Forced Distribution Scale c. Weighted checklist d. Management by Objectives (MBO) 11. A large health care firm has used a traditional graphic rating scale for its performance appraisal process in the past. Management would like to use a new system that recognizes that the various performance criteria are not equally important for different jobs. Based on this situation, which system should management use in the future? a. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) b. Weighted checklist c. Forced Distribution Scale d. Critical Incidents Method
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12. A large health care firm has used a traditional graphic rating scale for its performance appraisal process in the past. Management would like to use a new system that focuses on motivating workers to demonstrate high levels of performance in specific situations that workers will likely experience for various jobs. Based on this situation, which system should management use in the future? a. Weighted checklist b. Forced distribution scale c. Graphic rating scale d. Critical incidents method 13. In an objectives-based performance management system, employee motivation is enhanced because: a. huge incentives are linked to the achievement of goals under this system. b. they are given the opportunity to provide input regarding their responsibilities. c. extensive formal training is always provided to support achievement of the objectives. d. All of these are correct. 14. The reasons why managers resist or ignore performance management include: a. the process being too complicated. b. possible legal challenges. c. lack of control over the process. d. All of these are correct. 15. Strategies for improving a performance management system include: a. involving the manager in the design of the system. b. setting clear expectations for performance. c. holding managers accountable for the performance and development of their subordinates. d. All of these are correct.
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY 75e8cab2-2fb6-4de5-88ae-51be97c135dd
1d 2d 3c 4b 5b 6d 7b 8a 9d 10 a 11 b 12 d 13 b 14 d 15 d https://cnow.apps.ng.cengage.com/ilrn/bca/instr/test-printing/447869992/html-print?sel=447869992
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ANSWER KEY - Page 1
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CHAPTER 11
(Subsequent Pages) 1. An equitable and effective compensation system should possess: a. internal equity. b. individual equity. c. external equity. d. All of these are correct. 2. Which of the following is(are) true regarding compensation systems? a. Legally required benefits include retirement/pension plans b. Indirect compensation includes base pay and incentive pay c. Direct compensation includes legally required and optional benefits d. Stock options are a type of incentive pay 3. According to equity theory, a worker will perceive inequity when which of the following exists? a. outcomes/inputs for self < outcomes/inputs for others b. outcomes/inputs for others = outcomes/inputs for others c. outcomes for self < outcomes for others d. outcomes/inputs for self = outcomes/inputs for self 4. Equity and work-related outcomes include: a. motivation. b. commitment. c. performance. d. All of these are correct. 5. The most appropriate job evaluation method to use when there is a large organization that is looking for an easy to understand approach is: a. job classification. b. job ranking. c. point method. d. Hay method. 6. The best job evaluation method to use when a small organization only needs a simple, nonquantitative approach is: a. Hay method. b. job classification. c. point method. d. job ranking.
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7. The best job evaluation method to use when a large organization needs a quantitative, rigorous approach is: a. point method. b. job ranking. c. Hay method. d. job classification. 8. The best job evaluation method to use when a large organization needs a quantitative approach that is appropriate for managerial and administrative jobs is: a. Hay method. b. job classification. c. job ranking. d. point method. 9. What is the best job evaluation method to use with an organization that is stable, and the jobs in the organization do not change much in terms of content or responsibilities? a. Hay method b. Factor comparison method c. Point method d. Job ranking method 10. The best market pay strategy for an organization to use when an organization wants to become an "employer of choice" is: a. benchmark. b. match. c. lead. d. lag. 11. Factors that may serve as barriers to the effective implementation of performance-based pay systems include: a. organizational structure. b. organizational and national cultures. c. organizational procedures. d. organizational processes. 12. In order for a team-based pay system to be effective, it must be implemented in an organization that possesses a: a. culture that values integrity. b. growth-oriented corporate strategy. c. centralized decision making system. d. decentralized decision making system.
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13. The concept that may represent the best chance of closing the gender gap in pay in the United States is: a. affirmative action. b. job analysis. c. comparable worth. d. job evaluation. 14. Based on the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), the main determinant of whether an individual is an employee or an independent contractor is: a. degree of control over one's work activities. b. job scope. c. job depth. d. educational qualifications for the job. 15. The law that was passed in the early 2000s in response to the slew of corporate scandals was: a. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act b. Patriot Act c. Title VII d. Family and Medical Leave Act
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY 8f032a15-cc44-4d90-802c-43d23a975306
1d 2d 3a 4d 5a 6d 7a 8a 9b 10 c 11 b 12 d 13 c 14 a 15 a
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CHAPTER 12
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Which of the following is (are) true regarding union membership in the United States? a. In 1970, approximately 30 percent of the private U.S. workforce was unionized. b. By 1999, approximately 13.9 percent of the U.S. workforce was unionized. c. By 2016, 10.7 percent of the U.S. workforce was unionized. d. All of these are correct. 2. The decline in union membership can be attributed to: a. many workers have become disenfranchised with their unions. b. corrupt union leadership. c. union members' perception that cost of membership outweighs the benefits. d. All of these are correct. 3. The reasons why unions are important include: a. Membership in unions is making a huge comeback due to changes in the law. b. The National Labor Relations Act gave all workers certain rights that employers and manager need to understand. c. New laws on union striking give more power to unions. d. All of these are correct. 4. The reasons why employees unionize include: a. To obtain better wages b. To obtain greater job security c. To obtain improved working conditions d. All of these are correct. 5. The law that gave workers the fundamental right to organize and to regulate union and management relations is: a. Occupational Safety and Health Act b. Title VII c. The National Labor Relations Act d. Civil Rights Act 6. Employees who are dissatisfied with their union can take which action? a. File a complaint with the NLRB b. File a complaint with the EEOC c. Decertify the union d. All of these are correct.
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7. During the collective bargaining process, mandatory bargaining issues include: a. base wages. b. overtime. c. layoff procedures. d. All of these are correct. 8. During the collective bargaining process, illegal bargaining issues include: a. wage concessions. b. benefits for retirees. c. discrimination in hiring. d. management rights clauses. 9. The union security clause that requires new hires to join a union after a specified amount of time is: a. agency shop. b. featherbedding. c. open shop. d. union shop. 10. The union security clause that does not require employees to join the union, but does require nonunion members who are part of the bargaining unit to pay a representation fee, is called a(n): a. agency shop. b. closed shop. c. featherbedding. d. open shop. 11. The type of union security clause that is now illegal is the: a. closed shop. b. union shop. c. agency shop. d. open shop. 12. In an economic strike, employees must be reinstated at the end of the strike provided that: a. their jobs still exist and permanent replacement workers have not been hired. b. the workers have at least 12 months of tenure in their jobs. c. at least half of the timeframe covered by the collective bargaining agreement still remains. d. All of these are correct.
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13. The type of strike that involves workers deciding not to honor the terms of a collective bargaining agreement and walking out in violation of their obligations to their employer under the agreement is called a(n): a. unfair labor practice strike. b. right to work strike. c. wildcat strike. d. economic strike. 14. One of the strategies that unions are using to maintain their viability in an era of declining membership is to: a. lower membership dues. b. recruit in organizations and industries in which they have no previous affiliation. c. organize workers in developing countries. d. form strategic alliances with special interest groups.
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY ba6db592-2b4c-45b6-8b9d-5a649edaf685
1d 2d 3b 4d 5c 6c 7d 8c 9d 10 a 11 a 12 a 13 c 14 b
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CHAPTER 13
(Subsequent Pages) 1. Key reasons why employers are forced to reduce the size of their workforces include: a. inefficiency. b. lack of adaptability in the marketplace. c. weakened competitive position in the industry. d. All of these are correct. 2. The federal law that regulates employer actions taken as part of reductions in force is the: a. Worker Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act (WARN). b. Americans with Disabilities Act. c. Title VII. d. Patriot Act. 3. Exceptions to the provisions of the Worker Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act (WARN) include a(n): a. faltering company that is seeking capital to retain its scope of operations. b. unforeseeable circumstance. c. natural disaster. d. All of these are correct. 4. Short-run strategies for managing employee surpluses and avoiding layoffs include: a. hiring freezes. b. cross-training of employees. c. attrition. d. re-deploying employees. 5. Long-run strategies for managing employee surpluses and avoiding layoffs include: a. hiring freezes. b. early retirement incentives. c. cross-training of employees. d. All of these are correct. 6. Policy strategies for managing employee surpluses and avoiding layoffs include: a. early retirement incentives. b. making a greater percentage of compensation based on performance. c. cross-training of employees. d. re-deploying employees.
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7. Based on the conceptual framework of cost reduction stages, hiring freezes and reduced workweeks are HR practices associated with which stage of the process? a. Long-term cost adjustments b. Short-range cost adjustments c. Medium-range cost adjustments d. Strategic cost adjustments 8. Based on the conceptual framework of cost reduction stages, exit incentives and voluntary sabbaticals are HR practices associated with which stage of the process? a. Short-range cost adjustments b. Long-term cost adjustments c. Medium-range cost adjustments d. Strategic cost adjustments 9. The ideal strategy for managing employee turnover is to: a. use a match pay strategy. b. use a 360 degree feedback system. c. enhance the employer's brand. d. keep high performers rewarded while using HR planning to minimize the use of labor to perform jobs. 10. Based on the performance-revocability strategy matrix, the most effective strategy for managing an employee who is a high performer and difficult to replace is: a. invest in the development of the employee. b. use job enlargement. c. provide performance incentives to enhance retention of the employee. d. work to enhance their performance. 11. Based on the performance-revocability strategy matrix, the most effective strategy for managing an employee who is a low performer but difficult to replace is to: a. provide performance incentives to enhance retention of the employee. b. invest in the development of the employee. c. develop backups. d. provide leadership development training. 12. Based on the strategic management of turnover and retention model, which of the following is(are) true? a. The two key dimensions that need to be considered are the performance of the employee and how easy it would be to replace that employee. b. Management should work to increase the performance of low performing employees. c. Management should work to develop backup options for average and high performing employees. d. All of these are correct.
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13. One of the best tools that can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of an employee retention strategy is a(n): a. exit survey. b. employee engagement survey. c. 360 degree feedback process. d. employee onboarding process. 14. Older workers will become more important in the future because: a. employers cannot set mandatory retirement ages for their employees. b. there will be a large number of older workers in the workforce in the future. c. employers will need to ensure that their employment practices do not discriminate against older workers protected by the law. d. All of these are correct. 15. A growing number of employers are connecting with their former employees to maintain contact and to enhance their brands. This is called: a. employee outreach b. networking c. customer relationship management d. employee prospecting
PAGE 1 (First Page) PAGE 1 (Subsequent Pages) ANSWER KEY b1fc4432-78b5-46ff-acbb-9f3c67dc0573
1d 2a 3d 4d 5d 6b 7b 8c 9d 10 a 11 c 12 d 13 a 14 d 15 a
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CHAPTER 14
(Subsequent Pages) 1. How is global human resource management different from domestic HRM? a. Global HRM has to focus more on various financial issues such as taxes, currencies, and exchange rates. b. Global HRM requires more contact and coordination with members of the family of the employee who will be working abroad. c. Global HRM requires different systems for different countries. d. All of these are correct. 2. Based on the Hofstede cultural framework, the degree to which a society is hierarchical with an uneven distribution of power across its members is known as: a. masculinity-femininity. b. individualism-collectivism. c. power distance. d. quantity of life. 3. Based on the Hofstede cultural framework, the degree to which a country is more aggressive, assertive, and achievement-oriented is known as: a. individualism-collectivism. b. quantity of life. c. masculinity-femininity. d. power distance. 4. The Hall model of cultural differences describes culture in terms of the "languages" of: a. time. b. space. c. friendships. d. All of these are correct. 5. When taking a strategic approach to global assignments, the first step in the process is: a. interviewing candidates for the assignment. b. defining a purpose for the assignment. c. conducting a SWOT analysis. d. conducting a training needs assessment. 6. Based on the Strategic HR Issues in Global Assignments model, after the purpose of the expatriation has been determined, the next step in the process is to: a. develop an orientation program. b. assess the national culture of the placement location for the employee. c. develop a global business strategy. d. select the employee for the assignment.
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7. If a U.S.-based corporation wants to pay one of its executives who is going to be leaving for an international assignment in Bangladesh the same amount she has been making in her current job, then she should use a(n) _______________ pay system. a. international approach general standard b. localization approach c. balance sheet approach d. average of home vs. host approach 8. A U.S.-based corporation wants to pay one of its executives from Sri Lanka to take an international assignment in Tokyo, Japan. In order to compensate the executive from Sri Lanka fairly, which approach for international compensation would be most appropriate? a. International approach general standard b. Localization approach c. Balance sheet approach d. Better of home vs. host approach 9. A multinational corporation sends executives and managers from many different countries to work at key regional headquarters in the company. Management wants to be fair to all executives from different countries, so it decided to offer everyone the same salary and benefits paid to local executives at the locations to which international executives were being transferred. Based on this situation, which global compensation system would you recommend? a. Commission-based b. Headquarters c. Localization d. Flat rate 10. Based on the four approaches to International HRM (IHRM), standard setting, evaluation, and control are handled by coordination across countries in a region for which IHRM approach? a. Regiocentric b. Polycentric c. Geocentric d. Ethnocentric 11. Based on the four approaches to International HRM (IHRM), communication and coordination are handled by the headquarters to the local subsidiary for which IHRM approach? a. Geocentric b. Ethnocentric c. Regiocentric d. Polycentric 12. Based on the four approaches to International HRM (IHRM), staffing is handled by host country managers for which IHRM approach? a. Polycentric b. Ethnocentric c. Geocentric d. Regiocentric
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13. Issues that need to be covered as part of the repatriation process include: a. career anxiety. b. loss of autonomy. c. adaptation to change. d. All of these are correct. 14. One of the issues with graduates of Chinese universities is that: a. they are lacking in teamwork skills, language, and literacy. b. they have no interest in working for Western multinational corporations. c. their interpersonal skills are strong, but their technical skills are weak. d. they are not in abundance—fewer than 500,000 graduate per year. 15. One of the biggest challenges of doing business in India is: a. weather and natural disasters. b. social and cultural factors. c. the political system. d. the legal system.
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1d 2c 3c 4d 5b 6d 7c 8d 9c 10 a 11 b 12 a 13 d 14 a 15 d
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