1.
Which of the following groups would be best served by the development of a scientific base for nursing practice?
A) Nursing administrators
B) Practicing nurses
C) Nurses' clients
D) Health care policymakers
2. An especially important goal for the nursing profession is to:
A) Conduct research to better understand the context of nursing practice
B) Establish a base of evidence for practice through disciplined research
C) Document the role nursing serves in society
D) Establish research priorities
3.
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Which of the following would not be a current priority for clinical nursing research?
A) Pain management
B) Health promotion
C) Nurses' personalities
D) Prevention of illness
4. Most nursing studies before 1950 focused on:
A)
Client satisfaction
B) Clinical interventions
C) Health promotion
D) Nursing education
5. To those espousing a naturalistic paradigm, a fundamental belief is that:
A) A fixed reality exists in nature for humans to understand
B) The nature of reality has changed over time
C) Reality is multiply constructed and
multiply interpreted by humans
D) Reality cannot be studied empirically
6. To those espousing a positivist paradigm, a fundamental belief is that:
A) The researcher is objective and independent of those being studied.
B) The researcher cannot interact with those being studied.
C) The researcher instructs those being studied to be objective in providing information.
D)
7.
The distance between the researcher and those being researched is minimized to enhance the interactive process.
The traditional scientific method is not characterized by which of the following attributes?
A) Control over external factors
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B) Systematic measurement and observation of natural phenomena
C) Testing of hunches deduced from theory or prior research
D) Emphasis on a holistic view of a phenomenon, studied in a rich context
8. Empiricism refers to:
A) Making generalizations from specific observations
B) Deducing specific predictions from generalizations
C) Gathering evidence about real-world phenomena through the senses
D) Verifying the assumptions on which the study was based
9. A hallmark of the scientific method is that it is:
A) Rigorous
B) Holistic
C) Systematic
D) Flexible
10.
Which of the following limits the power of the scientific method to answer questions about human life?
A)
The necessity of departing from traditional beliefs
B) The difficulty of accurately measuring complex human traits
C) The difficulty of gaining the cooperation of humans as study participants
D)
The shortage of theories about human behavior
11. The classic scientific method has its intellectual roots in:
A) Positivism
B) Determinism
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C) Constructivism
D) Empiricism
12. One of the criticisms of the scientific method is that it is overly:
A) Logical
B) Deterministic
C) Empirical
D) Reductionist
13. Naturalistic qualitative research typically:
A) Involves deductive processes
B) Attempts to control the research context to better understand the phenomenon being studied
C) Involves gathering narrative, subjective materials
D) Focuses on the idiosyncrasies of those being studied
14. Quantitative and qualitative research do not share which of the following features?
A) A desire to understand the true state of human affairs
B) Roots in the 19th century thought of such philosophers as Newton and Locke
C) A reliance on external evidence collected through the senses
D) Utility to the nursing profession
15. A descriptive question that a qualitative researcher might ask is:
A)
B)
C)
D)
What are the dimensions of this phenomenon?
What is the average intensity of this phenomenon?
How frequently does this phenomenon occur?
What is the average duration of this phenomenon?
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16.
A researcher wants to investigate the effect of patients' body position on blood pressure. The study would most likely be:
A) Qualitative
B) Quantitative
C)
Either quantitative or qualitative (researcher preference)
D) Insufficient information to determine
A researcher wants to study the process by which people make decisions about seeking treatment for infertility. The researcher's paradigmatic orientation most likely is: A) Positivism B) Determinism C) Empiricism D) Naturalism
17.
18.
A researcher is studying the effect of massage on the alleviation of pain in cancer patients. The study would be described as:
A) Descriptive
B) Exploratory
C) Applied
D) Basic
19. Which of the following EBP-related purposes would not be addressed through cause-probing research?
A) Intervention/treatment
B) Prognosis
C) Harm and etiology
D) Diagnosis and assessment
20.
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Over a 20-year period, Wallace and colleagues conducted a series of studies on children's pain and nurses' pain management. This is an example of:
A) A research program
B) The scientific method
C) Positivist research
D) Basic research
21.
Nurses have fully achieved an evidence-based practice, in that decisions are almost always based on solid research findings.
A) True
B) False
22. Journal clubs involve meetings to discuss and critically evaluate research studies.
A) True B) False
23. Nursing research did not begin to achieve
important breakthroughs until the 1990s.
True B) False 24. Throughout the history of nursing research, most studies have focused on clinical problems.
True
False 25. Most people would agree that nursing research began with Florence Nightingale.
False 26. The journal Nursing Research began publication during the 1950s.
True
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False 27. The federal agency in the United States that currently offers support for nursing research is the National Center for Nursing Research.
True
False 28. The movement for evidence-based medicine originated in a Canadian university.
True
False 29. There are currently five or six journals that publish the results of nursing studies.
30. Nurse researchers work almost exclusively in universities and schools of nursing.
31. The annual NINR budget currently exceeds $100 million.
32. The trial-and-error approach to developing knowledge is an empirical one.
33. Benchmarking data is at the pinnacle of the evidence hierarchy.
A paradigm is a general perspective on the nature of the real world.
According to the positivist paradigm, there is an objective reality that can be understood by researchers.
36. The naturalistic paradigm is associated with structured, quantitative research.
Naturalistic researchers attempt to understand rather than control the context of the phenomena being studied.
Nursing leaders currently are suggesting that in-depth, process-oriented studies are more important than controlled quantitative studies for nursing practice.
evidence is information derived from introspective analysis of real-world phenomena.
The scientific method assumes that all phenomena have antecedent causes.
Quantitative researchers are more likely than qualitative researchers to pursue research with prediction and control as a purpose.
43. Applied research is designed to solve immediate problems. A) True
44. The question, “How prevalent is this phenomenon?” would be asked in a quantitative descriptive study.
45. The question “What is the meaning of this phenomenon?” would be asked by qualitative researchers.
Answer Key
1. Research utilization is a process that begins with which of the following?
A) A clinical problem that needs to be solved
B) A problem-focused trigger
C) A knowledge-focused trigger or research finding
D) A well-worded clinical question
2. Which of the following is an example of a systematic review?
A) An RCT study published in the journal Nursing Research
B) A meta-analysis from the Cochrane database
C) A synopsis published in Evidence-Based Nursing
D) A clinical practice guideline from the National Guideline Clearinghouse
3. Most evidence hierarchies put which of the following at the pinnacle?
A) Randomized clinical trials (RCTs)
B) Systematic reviews of multiple studies
C) Quality improvement projects
D) It depends on the research question
4. Which of the following can be used to critically appraise clinical practice guidelines?
A) A systematic review from the Cochrane Collaboration
B) The Iowa model
C) The AGREE instrument
D) An evidence hierarchy
5. Which of the following models was explicitly developed with the idea that individual nurses could engage in RU-type activities?
A) Iowa Model
B) Johns Hopkins Model
C) Cochrane Model
D) Stetler Model
6. In the following clinical question, what is the Outcome (O component): What is the effect of relaxation therapy versus biofeedback on the functional ability of patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Functional ability
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Biofeedback
D) Relaxation therapy
7. In the following clinical question, what is the Intervention/influence/exposure (I component): Does taking antidepressants affect the risk of suicide in cognitively impaired adolescents?
A) Adolescence
B) Suicide
C) Antidepressant use
D) Cognitive impairment
8. In the following clinical question, what is the Population (P component): Do stress and depression affect dyspnea in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A) Patients who are stressed
B) Patients who are depressed
C) Patients who experience dyspnea
D) Patients with COPD
9. In the following clinical question, what is the Comparison (C component): Does chronic stress affect inflammatory responses in older men with atherosclerotic disease?
A) Chronic stress
B) Inflammatory response
C) Atherosclerotic disease
D) There is no “C” component
10. In which of the following clinical questions is fatigue the “I” component?
A) Does fatigue affect agitation in cognitively impaired elders?
B) Does a physical activity intervention affect fatigue in patients undergoing cardiac rehabilitation?
C) What is the meaning of fatigue among patients with sleep apnea?
D) Does the level of depression of patients suffering from chronic fatigue improve by participating in an exercise intervention?
11. Which of the following is a question that would be asked as part of the process of appraising research evidence?
A) What are the P, I, and O components?
B) How rigorous and reliable is the evidence?
C) What type of trigger should I use?
D) Is a relevant systematic review available?
12. Which of the following activities is part of an organizational—but not an individual—EBP endeavor?
A) Asking a good question/identifying a problem
B) Searching for evidence
C) Assessing implementation potential
D) Synthesizing and appraising evidence
13. Asking a clinical question is the first step in evidence-based practice. What are the four components of a PICO clinical question?
A) Population, implication, comparison, outcome
B) Population, intervention, clinical, outcome
C) Population, intervention, comparison, outcome
D) Population, implication, clinical, outcome
14. Which following level of evidence includes systematic reviews of multiple studies?
A) Level IV
B) Level III
C) Level II
D) Level I
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15. A nurse in the United States is scheduled to care for a child with an ostomy. Which of the following resource would best assist the nurse with specific guidelines for evidence-based decision making for this patient?
A) MEDLINE
B) TRIP
C) www.guidelines.gov
D) www.rnao.org/bestpractices
16. Which of following study types is a systematic review used for integration of statistical quantitative research findings?
A) Meta-synthesis
B) Meta-analysis
C) Randomized controlled trial
D) Quasi-experiment
17. The best-known early research utilization (RU) project sought to bridge the gap between research and practice. Which following is the name of that well-known project?
A) Cochrane Collaboration
B) Stetler Model of Research Utilization
C) Conduct and Utilization of Research in Nursing (CURN) Project
D) Promoting Action on Research Implementation in Health Services
18. The Iowa Model identifies problem-focused triggers for implementing an EBP project. Which of the following is a problem-focused trigger in the Iowa Model?
A) A finding published recently in a nursing journal
B) A new clinical guideline issued by a federal agency
C) An increase in latex allergy among emergency room nurses
D) Questions from hospital committee
19. As a nurse, you must understand the difference between research utilization and evidence-based nursing practice. Which of the following best defines evidence-based practice?
A) Begins with research itself, clinical expertise, and patient preference
B) Uses new evidence and translates research findings into real-world applications
C) Uses findings from disciplined research in practical application unrelated to original research
D) Integrates best research evidence, with clinical expertise, patient preference, and a particular clinical situation
20. Some EBP models recommend a formal assessment of organizational “fit,” known as implementation potential, when an organization is considering undertaking an EBP project. Which following issue is of particular importance to address to determine the implementation potential of the EBP project for the organization?
A) Effectiveness of the innovation
B) Nurses' attitude toward the innovation
C) Patient benefit of the innovation
D) Transferability of the innovation
21. A nurse is observing how the time of feeding impacts an inpatient's gastric reflux. In which of the following steps of the EBP process would the nurse determine whether a specific feeding time alleviated the patient's gastric reflux symptoms?
A) Searching for and collecting evidence that addresses the question
B) Appraising and synthesizing the evidence
C) Integrating the evidence with own clinical expertise, patient preferences, and local context
D) Assessing the effectiveness of the decision, intervention, or advice
22. After an institutional project has been developed, the next step is to conduct a pilot study (a trial study). Based on the Iowa Model, which step would identify the success or failure of a pilot study?
A) Developing an evaluation plan
B) Measuring client outcomes prior to implementation
C) Training relevant staff in the use of the new guideline
D) Evaluating the project in terms of both the process and the outcomes
23. A narrative integrated review of qualitative studies focuses on interpretation of the studies. Which of the following study types would be considered an systematic integrated review of qualitative studies?
A) Meta-synthesis
B) Meta-analysis
C) Randomized controlled trial
D) Quasi-experiment
24. The Iowa Model identifies several knowledge-focused triggers for implementing an EBP project. Which following statement is considered a knowledge-focused trigger in the Iowa Model?
A) A report in the New England Journal of Medicine regarding a potential flu epidemic
B) Readmission rate of heart failure patients
C) Poor patient survey results
D) Increase in pediatric falls
25. Which of the following is the best resource to use when beginning the search for evidence necessary for an individual EBP project?
A) Hayat, M. (2010). Understanding statistical significance. Nursing Research, 59(3), 219-223.
B) Durbin, C. R., Fish, A. F., Bachman, J. A., & Smith, K. V. (2010). Systematic review of education intervention for improving advanced directive completion. Journal of Nursing Scholarship, 42, 234-241.
C) Polit, D. R., & Beck, C. T. (2014). Essentials of Nursing Research: Appraising Evidence for Nursing Practice (8th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer| Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
D) Aggarwal, B., Liao, M., & Mosca, L. (2010). Predictors of physical activity at 1 year in a randomized controlled trial of family members of patients with cardiovascular disease. Journal of Cardiovascular Nursing, 29(6), 444-449.
1. Which of the following terms would likely be used only by qualitative researchers, as opposed to quantitative researchers, to refer to people who participate in a study?
A) Informants
B) Study participants
C) Subjects
D) Investigators
2. Which of the following terms is used by both qualitative and quantitative researchers to refer to the abstractions under study?
A) Concept
B) Theory
C) Phenomenon
D) Variable
3. Which of the following would be most likely called a construct?
A) Gender
B) Body temperature
C) Self-care
D) Blood type
4. "Male" is which of the following?
A) Not a variable
B) An independent variable
C) A dependent variable
D) An outcome variable
5. The dependent (outcome) variable in the research question, "Is the quality of life of nursing home residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which of the following?
A) Quality of life
B) Functional ability
C) Hearing acuity
D) Residence in a nursing home
6. The independent variable in the research question, "What is the effect of noise levels on postoperative pain and blood pressure fluctuations in ICU patients?" is which of the following?
A) Blood pressure
B) ICU patients
C) Noise levels
D) Postoperative pain
7. In the question, "Do Baccalaureate degree–prepared nurses practice more rehabilitative nursing procedures on a client in an ICU than associate degree–prepared nurses?" the independent variable is which of the following?
A) Associate degree–prepared nurses
B) Baccalaureate degree–prepared nurses
C) Rehabilitative nursing measures
D) Type of educational background of nurse
8. The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the following?
A) Assign numeric values to variables
B) Specify how a variable will be measured
C) State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation
D) Designate the conceptual underpinnings of the variable
9. Which of the following is a datum from a quantitative study of the labor and delivery experiences of women over age 40?
A) Length of time in labor
B) 107 oz
C) “I practically slept through the whole thing!”
D) Vaginal versus cesarean delivery
10. Which of the following is a datum from a qualitative research study on the labor and delivery experiences of women over age 40?
A) 14.6 hours in labor
B) 60-minute interviews one day after delivery
C) "It was a nightmare—much more painful than I ever imagined."
D) 15 women with a vaginal delivery
11. In quantitative studies, the most basic distinction is between which of the following?
A) Grounded theory and phenomenological research
B) Empirical and nonempirical research
C) Experimental and nonexperimental research
D) Population-based and sample-based research
12. Which of the following is the least likely research tradition to be used by qualitative nurse researchers?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
13. The research tradition that focuses on understanding phenomena within a cultural context is which of the following?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
14. The research tradition that is an approach to understanding people's experiences as they are lived is which of the following?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
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15. A researcher's expectations about the relationships between variables in a quantitative study are generally formulated as which of the following?
A) Hypotheses
B) Frameworks
C) Research questions
D) Conceptual definitions
16. The overall plan for answering a research question—the architectural backbone of a study—is called which of the following?
A) Sampling plan
B) Proposal
C) Hypothesis
D) Research design
17. The aggregate of those to whom a researcher wishes to generalize study results is which of the following?
A) Gatekeepers
B) Population
C) Sample
D) Sampling plan
18. Gaining entrée in a qualitative project usually requires negotiation with one or more of which of the following?
A) Gatekeeper
B) Researcher
C) Informant
D) Consultant
19. Research design in qualitative studies is often described as:
A) Experimental
B) Narrative
C) Interpretive
D) Emergent
20. At what point does a qualitative researcher typically make a lot of decisions about data collection and sampling?
A) While reviewing the literature
B) During the development of a research report
C) While the study is in progress in the field
D) After developing an intervention protocol
21. In a qualitative study, the people cooperating in the study are called which of the following?
A) Subjects
B) Investigators
C) Researchers
D) Informants
22. In qualitative research, theory is which of the following?
A) A method to test hypotheses
B) A tool to direct the research project
C) A product of the research
D) A way to test relationships between two different groups
23. The dependent variable in the research question, “Is the quality of life of nursing home residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which of the following?
A) Quality of life
B) Functional ability
C) Hearing acuity
D) Residence in a nursing home
24. The independent variable in the research question, “What is the effect of noise levels on postoperative pain in ICU patients?” is which of the following?
A) Surgery
B) ICU patients
C) Noise levels
D) Postoperative pain
25. The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the following?
A) Assign numeric values to variables
B) Specify how a variable will be measured
C) State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation
D) Designate the conceptual underpinnings of a variable
26. A researcher conceptualizes pain as “the subject's statement of intensity of pain.” What operational definition is consistent with this conceptualization?
A) Measurement of subject's pulse and blood pressure
B) Nurse's observation of subject's pain behavior
C) Subject's score on self-reported pain rating scale
D) Frequency of subject's use of pain medication
27. For which of the following pairs of variables is there most likely to be a relationship that could be described as causal?
A) Degree of physical activity and heart rate
B) Stress and coping style
C) Age and health beliefs
D) Gender and depression
28. In quantitative studies a basic distinction is between which of the following?
A) Grounded theory and phenomenological research
B) Empirical and nonempirical research
C) Experimental and nonexperimental research
D) Population-based and sample-based research
29. Which of the following is true of an experimental study? Select all that apply.
A) It includes an intervention or treatment.
B) It is a type of qualitative research.
C) It can be called a clinical trial.
D) It tests causal relationships.
30. The conceptual phase of the research process involves which of the following activities?
A) Formulating the problem and reviewing the related literature
B) Selecting an appropriate research design for the study
C) Finalizing and reviewing the research plan
D) Interpreting the results of data analysis of key variables
31. The purpose of ethnographic research is to do which of the following?
A) Study situations to aid in theory development
B) Describe experiences as they are lived
C) Observe and document interactions within a culture
D) Examine events of the past
32. In qualitative research, saturation indicates which of the following?
A) There are too many subjects
B) Themes in the data are repeating
C) Too many variables are included in a study
D) The quality of the data is excellent
33. Putting evidence into practice is in which phase of the quantitative research process?
A) Dissemination
B) Analytic
C) Empirical
D) Conceptual
1.
Nurses are most likely to encounter research results in which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Poster sessions
B) Journal articles
C) Textbooks
D) Dissertations
2. When a research report undergoes a “blind” review for a journal, it means which of the following?
A) The journal editors do not know who submitted the report.
B) The authors of the report do not know who the editor of the journal is.
C) The report is published without indicating the authors' names.
D) The reviewers making recommendations about publication are not told who the authors are.
3. In a quantitative research article, a review of prior research on the problem under study is most likely to be found in which section?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
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4. In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: “The study sample consisted of 135 mother-infant dyads from an inner-city neighborhood”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
5. In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: “The results may have been influenced by the patients' desire to please the researchers and the hospital staff”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
6. When a finding is statistically reliable, it means which of the following?
A) The finding is very important
B) The same results are likely to occur with a new sample of subjects
C) The researcher's hypothesis is correct
D) Changes in nursing procedures are needed
7. In which section of a research report would the following sentence most likely appear: “Patients who coughed were significantly more likely to have spontaneous dislodgement of small-bore nasogastric tubes than patients who did not”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
8. In a qualitative research article, the thematic analysis of the data would be presented in which section?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion section
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9. In a research report, limitations of the study are normally discussed in which section?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion section
10. The criterion used by quantitative researchers involving the soundness of the evidence is which of the following?
A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Credibility
D) Generalizability
11. Which of the following is an aspect of trustworthiness used in evaluating the strength of evidence in a qualitative study?
A) Triangulation
B) Reflexivity
C) Reliability
D) Credibility
12. A nurse researcher compared men's and women's level of stress following cardiac surgery and made sure that both groups were comparable with regard to length of stay in hospital. Length of stay in hospital is which of the following?
A) Independent variable
B) Dependent variable
C) Mediating variable
D) Confounding variable
13. In which section of the research report might the research problem be stated?
A) Abstract
B) Introduction
C) Methods section
D) Results section
14. Key variables and the population of the study are most likely to be communicated in which of the following?
A) Title
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Methods
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15. Questions such as “What were the research questions?” and “What were the findings?” and “What methods were used to address those questions?” can all be answered in which of the following sections?
A) Discussion
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Results
16. The discussion of the central phenomena or variables of a study, along with the theoretical or conceptual framework of the study, is found in which section of the study?
A) Discussion
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Results
17. The statement “the results of this study are statistically significant” means which of the following regarding the findings?
A) Passed a Chi test
B) Are clinically important
C) Are the strength of the study
D) Are probably true and replicable
18. The level of significance of the findings in a research study can be found in which section?
A) Discussion
B) Introduction
C) Methods
D) Results
19. An objective assessment of a research study's strengths and limitations is called which of the following?
A) Evidenced-based practice
B) Peer review process
C) Research critique
D) Literature review
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20. A conclusion drawn from evidence presented in a study is called which of the following?
A) Statistically significant
B) Valid
C) Inference
D) Credible
21. Research findings that are organized by categories or labels can be found in which type of study?
A) Clinical trial
B) Qualitative
C) Quantitative
D) Quasi-Experimental
22. The presentation of the study's conclusions and implications for further study are found in which section?
A) Discussion
B) Introduction
C) Methods
D) Results
23. The accuracy and consistency of information that is obtained from a study is which of the following?
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Trustworthiness
24. The soundness of the evidence collected and the relationship between the variables is known as which of the following?
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Trustworthiness
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25. The use of multiple data collection methods to draw conclusions about the area being studied is called which of the following?
A) Bias
B) Statistical test
C) Research control
D) Triangulation
1. Based on what we know from this chapter, the Tuskegee Syphilis Study violated which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Freedom from harm
B) Right to self-determination
C) Right to fair treatment
D) Privacy rule
2. The regulations affecting the ethical conduct of research sponsored by the U.S. federal government were based on which of the following?
A) Nuremberg Code
B) Declaration of Helsinki
C) Belmont Report
D) Code of Ethics of the American Nurses Association
3. Debriefing sessions are which of the following?
A) Discussions with prospective participants to obtain informed consent
B) Discussions with participants after a study to explain various aspects of the study and provide a forum for questioning
C) Discussions with a human subjects committee before a study to obtain permission to proceed
D) Recruitment discussions with prospective participants
4. Which of the following are potential benefits from participating in a study? Select all that apply.
A) Monetary gains
B) Access to a new and potentially beneficial treatment
C) Opportunity to discuss personal feelings and experiences with an objective listener
D) Opportunity to help determine the research question that the study is based on
5. Which of the following comprise the three primary ethical principles articulated by the Belmont Report? Select all that apply.
A) Beneficence
B) Respect for human dignity
C) Anonymity
D) Justice
6. If a researcher unobtrusively studies interactions among patients in a psychiatric hospital, what might this be called?
A) Research misconduct
B) Breach of confidentiality
C) Covert data collection
D) Deception
7. The safeguard mechanism by which even the researcher cannot link the participant with the information provided is called which of the following?
A) Confidentiality
B) Anonymity
C) Informed consent
D) Right to privacy
8. Confidentiality of study participants can be most effectively protected by which of the following?
A) Avoiding the collection of any identifying information
B) Performing a risk/benefit assessment
C) Placing all identifying information on computer files rather than manual files
D) Obtaining informed consent from participants before the study
9. Vulnerable study participants would include which of the following?
A) Women hospitalized for a mastectomy
B) Members of a senior citizens group
C) People who do not speak English
D) Pediatric patients
10. In what situation is informed consent not needed?
A) The researcher pays the participants a stipend
B) The risk/benefit ratio is low
C) A Certificate of Confidentiality has been obtained
D) Informed consent is always needed
11. In a qualitative study that involves multiple contacts between the researcher and study participants, the researcher may negotiate which of the following?
A) Implied consent
B) Stipend
C) Process consent
D) Risk/benefit ratio
12. Which of the following is an example of research misconduct?
A) Fabrication of data
B) Concealed observation
C) IRB rejection
D) A high monetary incentive to study participants
13. Who may sign the informed consent for a child to participate in a study? Select all that apply.
A) Grandmother with legal guardianship
B) Parent
C) Sibling over 18 years of age
D) Child over 7 years old
14. Vulnerable groups include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Prisoners
B) Pregnant women
C) Young adults between 19 and 24 years of age
D) Infants and toddlers
15. In a qualitative study, process consent is used for which of the following reasons?
A) The researcher may need to renegotiate consent to gather more data.
B) The researcher needs consent for each of the surveys to be answered.
C) The participant may divulge private information and then regret it.
D) The participant may forget the risks involved in a study after being initially informed.
16. Which of the following best describes an assent form?
A) The assent form allows a child to agree to be part of a research study.
B) The assent form is read by the researcher for those who do not speak or read English.
C) The assent form protects study participants from discrimination due to cultural diversity.
D) The assent form allows the child over 7 years of age to give informed consent to participate in a study.
17. The nurse researcher protects study participants by which of the following?
A) Performing a risk/benefit assessment to evaluate the cost compared with the benefit of participation.
B) Keeping painful procedure information from the study participant until the study is completed.
C) Preventing psychological discomfort during and after the study.
D) Proposing a study that ultimately benefits society despite the risk to the participants.
18. Which of the following statements is true of confidentiality and anonymity?
A) Confidentiality is implemented when a researcher cannot guarantee anonymity.
B) Confidentiality of participant information may occur during a research study whereas anonymity is required.
C) Confidentiality is a sign of respect for the participant by the researcher but anonymity is a legal issue.
D) Confidentiality procedures require a researcher to disclose illegal behavior whereas anonymity protects the researcher from disclosing a participant's illegal behavior.
19. In a legal case, a participant is protected if a Certificate of Confidentiality was issued by which of the following?
A) The National Institutes of Health to prevent forced disclosure
B) The Internal Review Board of the institution to protect the participant
C) The principle researcher to avoid a breach of confidentiality
D) The court to protect a member of a vulnerable group
20. In both qualitative and quantitative studies, researchers use debriefing to do which of the following?
A) Allow participants to ask questions and give feedback to the researcher
B) Allow the researcher to assess the participant before they leave the study site
C) Explain to the participant what information they can tell others
D) Describe the purpose of the study and the consent form
21. Which of the following is an ethical principle cited by the Belmont Report as a standard for research?
A) Beneficence
B) Philanthropy
C) Duty
D) Morality
22. Offering prisoners a $50.00 payment for participation in a clinical trial for toothpaste violates which of the following?
A) The right to self-determination
B) The right to full disclosure
C) The right to protection from exploitation
D) The right to privacy
23. To protect the right to fair treatment, the researcher who seeks federal grant funding for research is required to do which of the following?
A) Include minority populations in their research study
B) Disclose the benefits of the research to participants
C) Offer participants a stipend for participation in the study
D) Obtain informed consent from participants
1. The research question, “What is the decision-making process among intensive care unit nurses who decide to discuss spiritual issues with patients?” is which of the following?
A) Most likely to be addressed using a quantitative approach
B) Most likely to be addressed using a qualitative approach
C) Not researchable
D) Not appropriately worded
2. Which of the following is a major source of ideas for research problems? Select all that apply.
A) Theories or conceptual frameworks
B) Personal nursing experience
C) Nursing code of ethics
D) Nursing literature
3. "Does maternal stress during the first trimester of a pregnancy affect the infant's birth weight?" is which of the following?
A) A research question
B) A portion of a problem statement
C) A statement of purpose
D) A hypothesis
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4. "This study aimed to explore the meaning of the experience of living with a colostomy” is which of the following?
A) A research question
B) A portion of a problem statement
C) A statement of purpose
D) A hypothesis
5. In a research report, the statement of purpose is normally found where?
A) In the abstract
B) In the first paragraph of the report
C) At the end of the introduction
D) At the beginning of the method section
6. In a statement of purpose, the researcher often communicates information beyond the substantive content through which of the following?
A) The specification of the population to be studied
B) The operational definition of the research variables
C) The prediction of anticipated relationships among variables
D) The choice of verbs that suggest the state of knowledge on the topic or the approach to be used
7. A research hypothesis indicates the expected relationship between which of the following?
A) The functional and causal nature of the variables
B) The statement of purpose and the research questions
C) The independent variable and the dependent variable
D) Statistical testing and the null hypothesis
8. The hypothesis, "Women who jog regularly are more likely than those who do not to have amenorrhea" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
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9. The hypothesis, "A person's emotional status is not affected by a relocation to a nursing home" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
10. The hypothesis, "Women who live in rural areas are unlikely to practice breast self-examination" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
11. A researcher includes a statement of purpose that indicates that the goal of the study is to understand the lived experiences of family members caring for a terminally ill child with cancer. What type of research design would most likely be used?
A) Ethnography
B) Grounded theory
C) Phenomenology
D) Quasi-experimental
12. A researcher wants to explore the ways in which gender issues are evident in the day-to-day interactions between male and female nurses and their patients in an acute-care inpatient unit. The purpose statement of her research study indicates that she wants to study whether and how gender issues influence the culture and behaviors of nurses as they interact with patients. Of the following, which type of study design would be most appropriate to use?
A) Qualitative ethnography
B) Qualitative phenomenology
C) Quantitative descriptive
D) Quantitative Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
13. Select the best description for the following: “Is there a relationship between elective labor induction and an unintended cesarean delivery?”
A) It is a directional hypothesis
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B) It is a directional research question
C) It is a non-directional hypothesis
D) It is a non-directional research question
14. Select the best description for the following: “Children who watch an average of 2 or more hours of television per day will have higher BMIs than children who watch less than 2 hours of TV per day.”
A) It is a directional hypothesis
B) It is a directional research question
C) It is a non-directional hypothesis
D) It is a non-directional research question
15. Which of the following statements, if used in a hypothesis, is not readily testable by empirical means?
A) Less than
B) Meaning of
C) More than
D) Related to
16. A hypothesis that states there is no relationship between the independent variable(s) and the dependent variable(s) is called which of the following?
A) Non-directional hypothesis
B) Null hypothesis
C) Research hypothesis
D) Simple hypothesis
17. Which of the following statements made by a new nurse researcher indicate that he correctly understands the purpose of using statistical analysis in quantitative research? Select all that apply.
A) “Statistical analysis allows the formal testing of hypotheses.”
B) “Statistical analysis might lead a researcher to reject a hypothesis.”
C) “Statistical analysis provides proof of the relationships between variables.”
D) “Statistical analysis supports inferences that a hypothesis is most likely correct (or most likely not correct).”
18. Which of the following components are usually included in a well-structured problem statement for nursing research? Select all that apply.
A) Knowledge gap (what information do we currently know and what is lacking?)
B) Problem identification (what is the overall problem? What is not working in the current situation?)
C) Proposed solution (how will information gained from the proposed study contribute to the solution of this problem?)
D) Sustainability (how long will we be able to sustain any changes made to the current status quo?)
19. Identify the independent variable(s) from the following research question: “What is the effect of acetaminophen and ibuprofen on liver function in female adolescents with hepatitis?” Select all that apply.
A) acetaminophen
B) female adolescents with hepatitis
C) ibuprofen
D) liver function
20. Which of the following is the dependent variable (DV) in the research question, “Are serial 12-lead ECGs more accurate in diagnosing acute myocardial infarctions (MI) than a single initial 12-lead ECG?”
A) Accuracy in diagnosing an MI
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Serial 12-lead ECGs
D) Single initial 12-lead ECG
21. Which of the following statements of purpose is most likely to be from a qualitative study?
A) Explore lived experiences of refugee women and children from Afghanistan living in the United States
B) Investigate the effectiveness of music therapy for decreasing pain in post-operative adolescents
C) Compare the effectiveness of effleurage to therapeutic touch in decreasing maternal anxiety during an un-medicated vaginal birth
D) Evaluate the relationship between insurance status and number of emergency department (ED) visits
22. If the problem statement from a proposed research study indicates the need to generate a theory relating to social processes (e.g., how persons within a social group interact with one another), the study design will most likely be which of the following?
A) Quantitative study
B) Ethnography
C) Grounded theory
D) Phenomenology
23. Which of the following statements of purpose is least likely to demonstrate a bias on the part of the researcher?
A) Demonstrate
B) Compare
C) Prove
D) Show
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24. Which of the following are true statements regarding the function of hypotheses in quantitative research? Select all that apply.
A) They emerge from a theory.
B) They offer direction and suggest explanations for relationships.
C) They prove relationships between variables.
D) They facilitate the interpretation of data.
Answer Key
1. Which of the following would be a primary source for a research literature review?
A) A meta-analysis appearing in the Cochrane Reviews
B) A metasynthesis published in the journal Qualitative Health Research
C) An experimental study published in the journal Research in Nursing & Health
D) A systematic review published in the journal Nursing Research
2. Which of the following is an important characteristic of a high-quality literature review?
A) Restricted to articles written in nursing journals
B) Restricted to recent studies
C) Full of opinions
D) Reproducible, with justifiable decision rules
3. In conducting a subject search in an electronic database, you would most likely initiate the search by typing in which of the following?
A) An author's name
B) Restrictions to the search
C) A topic or keyword
D) An ancestor or descendant
4. In an electronic literature search, the searcher does not necessarily have to know the database's subject headings for retrieving information on a topic because of the capability known as which of the following?
A) Searching
B) Mapping
C) Restricting focus
D) Copying
5. The electronic database that focuses on the nursing and allied health literature is:
A) CINAHL
B) EMBASE
C) Web of Knowledge
D) MEDLINE
6. When doing a computerized search for quantitative studies on a topic, which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) The best place to begin is to use a search engine such as Yahoo or Google
B) The primary keyword to use in the search typically would be the population
C) The keywords to start the search typically would be the independent and dependent variables
D) The specific subject headings used in each bibliographic database would have to be learned
7. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The CINAHL database includes only journals
B) The CINAHL database includes about 15 million records
C) The CINAHL database uses the controlled vocabulary called MeSH to index entries
D) Subject headings in CINAHL include substantive and methodologic topics
8. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The MEDLINE database can only be accessed through subscriptions with a commercial vendor
B) PubMed provides access to MEDLINE free of charge
C) PubMed does not allow users to find “related citations” for a previously identified record in MEDLINE
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D) A search in MEDLINE and CINAHL for a given keyword would yield identical results
9. In the following CINAHL citation, to what does the “6” refer? Nursing Research 2012 Nov/Dec; 61(6): 405-411.
A) Journal volume
B) Journal issue in a given year
C) Month of issue
D) A page number
10. Which of the following is an appropriately worded sentence for a research review?
A) Five recent studies have proved that men are less well able to cope with the loss of a spouse than women.
B) The HIV-epidemic has been the cause of considerable anxiety in the gay community.
C) Nurses and physicians struggle with the decision about whether to work in environments where abortion services are offered.
D) Research has consistently found that infant's sleeping position is related to the risk of sudden infant death syndrome.
11. What is the primary purpose of the review of literature in a research report?
A) Reporting on the state of the current evidence about the problem under study
B) Demonstrating the research capabilities of the authors
C) Focusing on the gaps in research related to the problem under study
D) Making recommendations about future study designs
12. At what point in the research process do grounded theory qualitative researchers conduct a literature review?
A) Prior to data collection
B) After beginning to collect data
C) At the conclusion of the study
D) Prior to sample selection
13. What is the most important type of information that should be included in a literature review?
A) Clinical anecdotes
B) Opinion articles
C) Case reports from applicable clinical settings
D) Findings from prior studies
14. What term is used to describe accounts of research in the literature prepared by someone other than the researchers who conducted the study?
A) Primary sources
B) Secondary sources
C) Ghost writer studies
D) Literature reviews
15. What is the first step in writing a review of literature?
A) Determine the question to be addressed
B) Select the bibliographic database to use
C) Specify the medical subject headings to use
D) Conduct an Internet search engine search
16. Which search strategy selects an important early study and locates subsequent citations in the literature?
A) Ancestry approach
B) Database search
C) Descendancy approach
D) Footnote chasing
17. Which electronic database would you first use to access nursing and allied health literature?
A) CINAHL
B) MeSH
C) Google
D) MEDLINE
18. What term is given to unique symbols that expand search results and allow for a simultaneous search of numerous words of the same root within an electronic database?
A) Textword search
B) Keywords
C) Wildcard characters
D) Expanders
19. What mechanism does the MEDLINE database use to provide consistency in information retrieval?
A) Textwords
B) MeSH terminology
C) Boolean operators
D) Scopus reviews
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20. You have identified 66 potential references through electronic database searches for your review of literature. Which action in the screening process would be the most appropriate next step in identifying the most useful articles?
A) Comparing databases for duplicate-referenced reports
B) Evaluating the heading terms
C) Reading each article in detail
D) Reviewing the abstracts
21. What is the primary purpose in documenting the literature retrieval process?
A) Ensuring approval by the Institutional Review Board (IRB)
B) Preventing duplication of located references
C) Providing a history of useful search words
D) Simplifying preparation of the reference list
22. What is the primary question that should be addressed when evaluating published research reports in a literature review?
A) To what extent do the findings reflect the truth (the true state of affairs)?
B) Have the authors conducted an adequate literature review in their research report?
C) Did the authors cite appropriately from the previously published literature related to the problem under study?
D) Was the research question appropriate considering the available evidence at the time of the study?
23. Identifying patterns, regularities, and irregularities in the published literature about the problem under study when constructing a literature review is a process called which of the following?
A) Structuring
B) Sorting
C) Content organizing
D) Thematic analysis
24. Which statement accurately reflects a characteristic of a well-written literature review?
A) Only a few key reports by the same author should be included if that author has published extensively on the topic under study.
B) The review should primarily contain reports supportive of your general hypothesis about the problem under study.
C) The review should include reports that both support and contradict your own ideas.
D) The review should clearly identify points that have been proven by previous research.
25. Which verbiage is most likely found in a well-written research review?
A) “The hypothesis in this study was supported by the research findings.”
B) “Results from this study proved that nursing actions were instrumental to improved patient outcomes.”
C) “All of these studies verify that levels of understanding cannot be changed easily.”
D) “It is clear that the presence of nurses improves the health status of patients in the clinical setting.”
1. A set of logically interrelated propositions is associated with which of the following?
A) Schematic model
B) Conceptual model
C) Classical theory
D) Descriptive theory
2. The power of theories lies in their ability to do which of the following?
A) Explain large segments of human experience
B) Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems
C) Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenomena studied
D) Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
3. The building blocks of theory are which of the following?
A) Frameworks
B) Relationships
C) Concepts
D) Hypotheses
4. Every study has which of the following?
A) Theory
B) Schematic model
C) Framework
D) Conceptual model
5. Which of the following is true of both theories and conceptual models?
A) They are invented or created, not discovered.
B) They need to be borrowed from other disciplines for nursing studies.
C) They contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.
D) They are different words for exactly the same thing.
6. The Health Promotion Model would best be described as which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
B) Borrowed theory
C) Grounded theory
D) Middle-range theory
7. Which of the following are central concepts in conceptual models of nursing? Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
B) Social support
C) Health
D) Environment
8. The nurse-theorist Roy developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Model
B) Health Promotion Model
C) Adaptation Model
D) Theory of Stress and Coping
9. The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of the following?
A) Adaptation Model
B) Social Cognitive Theory
C) Health Belief Model
D) Health Promotion Model
10. The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Theory
B) Health Promotion Model
C) Adaptation Model
D) Transtheoretical Model
11. The Theory of Stress and Coping is an example of which of the following?
A) A nursing model
B) A grand theory
C) A borrowed theory
D) A grounded theory
12. Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that was originally developed within which of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B) The Health Promotion Model
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
13. Stages of change is a construct that was developed within which of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B) The Transtheoretical Model
C) Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
14. A grounded theory often has as a theoretical underpinning which of the following?
A) An ideational theory
B) Symbolic interactionism
C) Phenomenology
D) The Theory of Human Becoming
15. The belief that a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder will learn appropriate behaviors from continued positive reinforcement of acceptable behavior patterns can generate a research hypothesis. This generalization of the relationship between phenomena is known as which of the following?
A) Null Hypothesis
B) Theory
C) Model
D) Framework
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16. The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured approach not directly linking them in a logically deductive manner is which of the following?
A) Middle range theory
B) Theoretical framework
C) Conceptual model
D) Research question
17. Identify the type of research that often fails to formally acknowledge the conceptual underpinnings or framework of the study since it is not necessarily part of the research tradition.
A) Quantitative research
B) Qualitative research
C) Pilot study
D) Mixed method research
18. Which of the following concepts are central to nursing models? Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
B) Environment
C) Health
D) Nutrition
19. Research on the recovery process of young adults following post-traumatic amputation of a lower extremity would best be furthered by using which of the following conceptual models of nursing?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model
C) Becker's Health Belief Model
D) Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model
20. Which of the following is a non-nursing conceptual model frequently used in nursing research and can be considered a shared theory?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Pender's Health Promotion Model
C) Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
D) Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
21. Which of the following are overall objectives of the use of theories in research? Select all that apply.
A) To provide a mechanism for deducing hypotheses
B) To stimulate new research
C) To explain relationships among phenomena
D) To determine the research design and methods of data collection
22. Conceptual models of nursing are used by nurse researchers as an inspiration in formulating research questions and directing research hypotheses. Some of the concepts that form these models include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Health promotion
B) Unified whole
C) Adaptation
D) Self-efficacy
23. Theories are created and invented as opposed to being discovered. Theories are built inductively from which of the following?
A) Observations
B) Correlations
C) Research questions
D) Research problems
24. Visual representation of the relationships among phenomena used in both quantitative and qualitative research is known as which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Conceptual map
25. The five stages of change of the Transtheoretical Model include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Precontemplation
B) Action
C) Evaluation
D) Maintenance
26. Which of the following theories are usually adopted by ethnographers in the conduction of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Ideational theories
B) Materialistic theories
C) Substantive theories
D) Preexisting theories
27. Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping has been used in nursing research to correlate the relationship between stress and anxiety in primary caregivers of patients with dementia. This is an example of which of the following?
A) Conceptual model
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Grounded theory
28. Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and set out to explain a smaller focus of the human experience are known as which of the following?
A) Grand theories
B) Middle-range theories
C) Classical theories
D) Propositions
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Answer Key
1. The research design for a quantitative study involves decisions with regard to which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Which conceptual framework to use
B) Whether there will be an intervention
C) What types of comparisons will be made
D) How many times data will be collected
2. Which of the following are key criteria for making causal inferences about the relationship between two variables? Select all that apply.
A) Lack of temporal ambiguity about which variable occurred first
B) Statistical confirmation that a relationship between the two exists
C) The ability to randomly assign study participants to groups
D) The ability to rule out other factors as potential causes of the outcome
3. An important function of a rigorous research design in a quantitative study is to have control over which of the following?
A) Outcome variables
B) Mediating variables
C) Carryover variables
D) Confounding variables
4. A true experiment requires which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Control
B) Intervention
C) Blinding
D) Randomization
5. The use of a random numbers table for assigning subjects to groups eliminates which of the following?
A) Selection threat
B) Intervention fidelity
C) Attrition
D) Carryover effects
6. Which of the following is invariably present in quasi-experimental research?
A) A control group
B) An intervention
C) Matching of subjects
D) Randomization
7. A one-group pretest-posttest design is an example of which of the following?
A) A crossover design
B) A true experimental design
C) A quasi-experimental design
D) A retrospective design
8. A pretest is to a posttest as which of the following?
A) The placebo effect is to the Hawthorne effect
B) A baseline measure is to a final outcome measure
C) Blinding is to matching
D) Attrition is to a mortality threat
9. One weakness associated with cause-probing correlational research is which of the following?
A) Artificiality of the settings in which it occurs
B) Difficulty in linking the research to a theoretical framework
C) Problem of self-selection into groups
D) Inability to generalize the findings beyond the sample
10. Which of the following research designs is weakest in terms of the researcher's ability to establish causality?
A) Experimental
B) Retrospective case-control
C) Prospective cohort
D) Quasi-experimental
11. If a researcher wanted to describe the relationship between women's age and frequency of performing breast self-examination, the study would be classified as which of the following?
A) Descriptive correlational
B) Quasi-experimental
C) Longitudinal
D) Experimental
12. Studies that collect data at one point in time are called which of the following?
A) Time series
B) Cross-sectional studies
C) Longitudinal studies
D) Crossover studies
13. A study that followed, over a 20-year period, 500 users and 500 non-users of oral contraceptives to determine if there were any long-term side effects would be which of the following?
A) Time series
B) Retrospective study
C) Prospective study
D) Crossover study
14. Constancy of conditions is often enhanced through which of the following?
A) Collect data at the same time every day
B) Using a crossover design
C) Maximizing the external validity of the study
D) Avoiding carryover effects
15. Using homogeneity as a strategy for controlling confounding variables can reduce which of the following?
A) Construct validity
B) External validity
C) Intervention fidelity
D) Internal validity
16. Which of the following is the most effective method for controlling participant factors?
A) Using a homogeneous sample
B) Statistical control
C) Matching subjects
D) Randomization
17. In a case-control design, a frequently used method of controlling confounding variables is which of the following?
A) Using participants as their own controls
B) Matching of cases and controls on confounding variables
C) Randomization to groups
D) Homogeneity of the sample
18. The researcher does not have to know in advance which confounding variables have to be controlled for which of the following procedures?
A) Matching
B) Randomization
C) Statistical control
D) Homogeneity
19. The threat to internal validity that occurs when external co-occurring events or conditions affect outcomes is the threat known as which of the following?
A) Maturation
B) Selection
C) Testing
D) History
20. In a nonequivalent control group design, the most serious threat to internal validity is which of the following?
A) Testing
B) Selection
C) Maturation
D) History
21. In an RCT, the most serious threat to internal validity typically is which of the following?
A) Mortality
B) Selection
C) Maturation
D) History
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22. A study is internally valid to the extent that which of the following has taken place?
A) All alternative explanations to the independent variable as the cause of outcomes can be ruled out
B) A true experimental design was used
C) Intervention fidelity was maintained
D) A strong counterfactual was established
23. The use of a diverse sample of study participants in multiple sites might affect which of the following?
A) Replicability of the study
B) The ability to use randomization
C) The ability to use blinding as a strategy
D) The study's external validity
24. When participants' behaviors are affected not by the treatment per se but by their knowledge of participating in a study, interpretation of the findings is complicated by the influence of which of the following?
A) Treatment effect
B) History threat
C) Hawthorne effect
D) Selection threat
25. Which of the following can reduce the statistical conclusion validity of a study?
A) Low attrition
B) Low power
C) Low generalizability
D) Low maturation
26. The nurse is designing a research study to assess the effectiveness of two wound healing dressings. What key design feature will be most important to address in this type of study?
A) Intervention
B) Comparisons
C) Blinding
D) Location
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27. When addressing control of confounding variables, which of the following best describes the question to be answered by the researcher?
A) Who needs to know sensitive information about the research details?
B) When will the data on the variables be collected?
C) What other variables may influence the results?
D) Where will data collection occur?
28. Which of the following statements best illustrates causality?
A) Individuals who have suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) are at higher risk for a second MI within the next 5 years.
B) Prolonged sun exposure is associated with higher rates of skin cancer.
C) Hiatal hernias are diagnosed more frequently in elderly individuals.
D) Taking time away from work leads to fewer stress-related illnesses.
29. Which of the statements below best illustrates the temporal criterion needed for a causal relationship?
A) Skin cancer occurs because of genetic predisposition.
B) Kidney disease develops as a result of pesticide exposure.
C) Hepatitis C occurs in populations with substance abuse histories.
D) Following vaccination for varicella, rates of varicella infection are lower.
30. Which of the following are distinctive characteristics of a true experimental design? Select all that apply.
A) Intervention
B) Control
C) Randomization
D) Correlation
31. Applying your knowledge of random assignment, which statement is correct?
A) Random assignment is accomplished with random sampling.
B) Grouping participants with similar features together is the best way to achieve random assignment.
C) Random assignment ensures that the study is a true experiment.
D) Recruiting participants from significantly different neighborhoods results in random assignment.
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32. Which of the graphic representations illustrates a randomized experimental interventional design with pre- and posttest?
A) R X O X
B) R O R X
C) R X O O
D) R O X O
33. Which statement infers the advantage to using cross-over designs for quantitative research?
A) Enhances equivalence among participants exposed to different interventions.
B) Different levels of the intervention are easily compared.
C) Delaying the intervention highlights the effects of persuasion.
D) Allows all participants to choose the intervention they will receive.
34. Quasi-experimental research designs lack what feature found in true experimental research?
A) Control groups
B) Pretests
C) Randomization
D) Placebos
35. Use of nonexperimental designs in research fulfills what purpose?
A) Describing
B) Predicting
C) Controlling
D) Blinding
36. The nurse plans a study comparing the occurrence of anxiety disorders in military personnel deployed overseas with those who served strictly within the borders of the United States. What research design should be selected for this study?
A) Experimental
B) Quasi-Experimental
C) Cohort
D) Nonexperimental
37. Cross-sectional designs work best under what research conditions?
A) Data collection over an extended period
B) Multiple points of data collection
C) Describing phenomena at a fixed point
D) For follow-up studies
38. The nurse wishes to study the opinions of high school students concerning the availability of health care services at XYZ High School during the past school year. What research design best fits with the study objective?
A) Trend study
B) Cross-sectional study
C) Longitudinal study
D) Follow-up study
39. Which of the following situations illustrates control over an external confounding variable?
A) Using a script to relay information about the study.
B) Randomizing assignment to control treatment groups.
C) Allowing for maximum flexibility over where data is collected.
D) Choosing a heterogeneous sample of subjects.
40. What is the strongest method of controlling for intrinsic (subject) factors?
A) Statistical control
B) Randomization
C) Matching
D) Homogeneity
41. What study design flaw may lead to a failure to achieve statistical significance?
A) Variables precisely defined
B) Adequate exposure to the intervention
C) Small sample size
D) Cross-sectional data collection
42. Using your knowledge of threats to internal validity, which research design will be most susceptible?
A) Pretest-Posttest
B) Cross-over
C) Correlational
D) Factorial
43. Which situation best reflects “attrition” in quantitative research?
A) Control and intervention groups are very different in age ranges.
B) Subjects receive promotional materials about the benefits of the intervention.
C) Adolescent subjects improve in body hygiene practices over 4 years.
D) Control group subjects drop out of the study when their disease process does not improve.
44. Which quantitative research design will most strongly support evidence-based practice?
A) Factorial Design
B) Randomized Control Trial Design
C) Correlational Design
D) Time-Series Design
45. A review of research reveals two articles that have conflicting results. A national randomized controlled trial found that annual brain scans will allow early detection and treatment of brain cancers, reducing mortality by 65%. An international quasi-experimental trial reported no significant reduction in mortality with annual scans. Based on your review, propose the best recommendation.
A) Recommendations from the national study should be followed.
B) Recommendations from the international study should be followed.
C) There is no rigorous research that can support a recommendation.
D) Recommendations should be stratified according to where the research was conducted.
46. A research proposal states that the objective is to, “explore the incidence of homeopathic health practices on Iowa Native Reserves in Oklahoma.” In describing the design to be used for conducting the study, the researchers plan to use a nonexperimental design. What can you conclude from this proposal?
A) The choice of a nonexperimental design is appropriate for the research objective.
B) Researchers should consider using a quasi-experimental design to meet their objective.
C) This research may not be answered completely if a quantitative design is used.
D) The population to be studied needs to be expanded to include all Native Americans in Oklahoma to avoid a small sample size.
47. To study the effects of Healing Touch; what is the best choice to minimize confounding variables?
A) Offer a small payment for participants' time.
B) Offer all participants a Healing Touch session when data collection is completed
C) Offer to enroll only individuals who do not have any medical conditions.
D) Offer another activity that gives similar time and attention to control group participants.
Answer Key
1. Sampling may be defined as which of the following?
A) Selection of an accessible population for a study
B) Selection of a subset of a population to represent the entire population
C) Assignment of study participants to treatment groups
D) Technique for ensuring that every element in the population has an equal chance of being included in the study
2. Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to which of the following?
A) Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of interest
B) Sample selection using nonprobability-type sampling methods
C) The margin of error in the data obtained from samples
D) Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute vis-a-vis the population
3. Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following sampling approaches?
A) Systematic
B) Purposive
C) Quota
D) Consecutive
4. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Systematic sampling
C) Consecutive sampling
D) Quota sampling
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5. The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a representative sample is which of the following?
A) Consecutive
B) Convenience
C) Purposive
D) Quota
6. Which of the following types of sample is considered to be the weakest for quantitative studies?
A) Convenience
B) Quota
C) Purposive
D) Systematic
7. A researcher used a systematic sampling plan. The sample size was 200. The sampling interval was 250. The first element drawn was 196. The second element would be:
A) 396 B) 45
C) 446
D) 646
8. Which of the following is the most widely used data collection method by nurse researchers?
A) Records
B) Self-reports
C) Observation
D) Biophysiologic measures
9. A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do which of the following?
A) Are easy to construct
B) Are analyzed in a straightforward manner
C) Encourage in-depth responses
D) Are not subject to response biases
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10. Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of which of the following?
A) They are less expensive
B) They yield data that are easier to analyze
C) The quality of the data tends to be higher
D) They require less training of research personnel
11. Questionnaires have the advantage of which of the following?
A) Offering the possibility of anonymity
B) Having high response rates
C) Reducing the possibility of response set biases
D) Being suitable for all types of study participants
12. On a five-point Likert scale, a person who strongly agreed with a statement would be scored as which of the following?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) Cannot be determined
13. On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range of possible scores is which of the following?
A) 0 to 100
B) 20 to 80
C) 20 to 100
D) 0 to 50
14. A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue is which of the following?
A) Observation
B) In vivo measurements
C) Visual analog scales
D) Likert scales
15. The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a problem on scales incorporated into which of the following?
A) Mailed anonymous questionnaires
B) Face-to-face interviews
C) Telephone interviews
D) All options are equally susceptible
16. A person who marked “strongly agree” to all or most items on a Likert scale would best be described as which of the following?
A) Socially desirable respondent
B) Biased participant
C) Nay-sayer
D) Yea-sayer
17. When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased because of which of the following?
A) Reactivity
B) Ethical problems
C) Lack of mobility
D) Acquiescence response set bias
18. Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic measures in nursing studies? Select all that apply.
A) They are relatively accurate and precise
B) They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue
C) They are objective, requiring minimal inference
D) They are typically cost effective because they are available for clinical purposes
19. Which of the following statements describes a population?
A) All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care unit during January 2012
B) Four hundred nurses selected from a membership list of American Nurses' Association (ANA) members
C) Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery
D) A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently smoke
20. Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small?
A) Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two groups
B) Lack of control over extraneous variables
C) Limits to random sampling
D) A weak questionnaire survey tool
21. Which procedure describes a probability sampling method?
A) Identification of community organizations and churches in an urban setting and recruiting participants
B) Identification of individuals demonstrating the variable(s) of interest to the researcher and recruiting participants
C) Identification of the accessible population and selecting study participants based upon the researcher's belief that the participant is representative of the accessible population
D) Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population, writing element names on paper, placing the written names in a bowl, and drawing a select number of names from the bowl
22. Which statement regarding sampling error and sampling bias is accurate?
A) Sampling bias may be defined as the difference between data obtained from a simple random sample and the data that would be obtained if an entire population were measured.
B) Sampling bias occurs by chance.
C) Sampling error and sampling bias are synonymous.
D) Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when the most careful random sampling procedure has been used to obtain the sample.
23. Which group represents a convenience sample?
A) The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in February
B) One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study subjects who are currently in leadership roles
C) Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of the accessible population
D) Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for a study on gender differences
24. Which sampling method would be most practical and provide the most reliable data to study the medication errors by registered nurses who work in city, county, and federal prisons?
A) Purposive sampling
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Quota sampling
D) Simple random sampling
25. If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the researcher seeks a systematic random sample of 50, the sampling interval would be which of the following?
A) 116
B) 600
C) 212
D) 53
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26. When is a small sample size appropriate for a research study?
A) Many uncontrolled variables are present.
B) The population is very homogenous.
C) Large differences are expected in members of the population on the variable of interest.
D) The population must be divided into subgroups.
27. A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following statement: “The overall hospital experience that I received during my hospital stay considered my needs as an individual.” They were asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of which scale?
A) Social scale
B) Likert scale
C) Visual analog scale
D) Differential scale
28. The nurse researcher is conducting a study on a nonpharmacologic nursing intervention for the treatment of pain. Which data collection instrument would provide the most sensitive measurement of pain?
A) Differential scale
B) Physiologic measures
C) Likert scale
D) Visual analog scale
29. Which of the following is an advantage of observation as a method of data collection in a study?
A) Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed.
B) Respondents can remain anonymous.
C) It is less time consuming than a questionnaire.
D) It directly captures an event and behaviors.
30. Which of the following are advantages to biophysiologic measures?
A) Biophysiologic measurements are subjective and accurate.
B) Patients cannot distort the measurements and have objective measures.
C) Biophysiologic measurements are self-reported.
D) Biophysiologic measurements effectively indicate pain levels.
1. The term emergent design in qualitative inquiry refers to a research design that emerges at which of the following times?
A) During the conduct of a literature review
B) While the researcher develops a conceptual framework
C) Before the study is begun
D) While the researcher is in the field collecting data
2. Which of the following is an issue that a qualitative researcher attends to in planning a study? Select all that apply.
A) Selecting a site
B) Identifying needed equipment for field work
C) Selecting research instruments
D) Determining the maximum amount of time available for field work
3. Which of the following design features can apply to both a qualitative and quantitative study?
A) Manipulation of the independent variable
B) Cross-sectional versus longitudinal data collection
C) Control over confounding variables
D) Random assignment of study participants
4. Hermeneutics is closely allied with which research tradition?
A) Ethnography
B) Phenomenology
C) Grounded theory
D) Symbolic Interaction
5. Ethnographers strive to do which of the following?
A) Understand human cultures
B) Develop an etic perspective
C) Link the etic and emic perspectives into a unified whole
D) Understand the essence of a phenomenon
6. An ethnographic study of a clinic that specialized in abortion services by someone from outside that culture would most likely be an example of which of the following?
A) An auto-ethnography
B) A critical ethnography
C) A microethnography
D) A macroethnography
7. Which of the following is a step in descriptive phenomenology? Select all that apply.
A) Bracketing
B) Inferring
C) Analyzing
D) Describing
8. A study that focused on the meaning of sacrifice among wounded military personnel during war time would likely use which of the following?
A) A descriptive phenomenological approach
B) A grounded theory approach
C) An ethnography
D) A hermeneutic approach
9. Participant observation is a data collection strategy used in almost all of which of the following?
A) Ethnographic studies
B) Case studies
C) Phenomenological studies
D) Descriptive qualitative studies
10. Which of the following approaches involves the use of a procedure known as constant comparison?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Historical
11. The question, “What is the essence of men's experiences of chemotherapy treatment for prostate cancer?” is an example of a research question within which of the following traditions?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Qualitative description
12. The question, “What are the basic social processes women use to maintain balance through their menopausal transition?” is an example of a research question within which of the following traditions?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Qualitative description
13. Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.
A) Reflexive journals can be used in the bracketing process.
B) Hermeneutics focuses on interpreting the meaning of experiences.
C) Descriptive phenomenology aims at understanding tacit knowledge.
D) Interpretive phenomenologists often supplement in-depth interviews with an analysis of texts (e.g., novels, poetry).
14. Which of the following names does not belong with the others?
A) Heidegger
B) Corbin
C) Strauss
D) Glaser
15. Which of the following is most likely to be at “center stage” in a case study?
A) A phenomenon such as attempted suicide
B) The culture within an organization such as a diabetic clinic
C) A person, such as a person who repeatedly self-harms
D) A story, such as the life story about chronic health problems of political refugees
16. A researcher who used Burke's pentadic dramatism approach would be undertaking which of the following?
A) Historical research
B) Qualitative description
C) A case study
D) A narrative analysis
17. Which of the following is a type of research with an ideological perspective? Select all that apply.
A) Critical ethnography
B) Symbolic interaction
C) Participatory action research
D) Feminist research
18. Critical research differs from traditional qualitative research in which of the following?
A) Its goal to be transformative
B) Its use of interviews as a data source
C) Its use of reflexivity
D) Its desire to gain an in-depth understanding of phenomena
19. Emergent design is used in qualitative research and is described as a research design that does which of the following?
A) Is specified before data is collected
B) Tends to be reductionistic
C) Evolves during the study
D) Involves a short period of time to collect data
20. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
A) It is capable of adjusting to what is being learned during data collection.
B) It depends on the robust nature of statistical analysis.
C) It does not have to obtain Institutional Review Board approval before conducting the study.
D) It involves survey research design.
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21. When considering the evidence that men in nursing had an important role in the evolution of nursing as a profession, what qualitative research design is appropriate to study this phenomenon of interest?
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded theory
C) Ethnography
D) Historical
22. Which of the following characteristics refers to qualitative nursing research design? Select all that apply.
A) The focus is to develop a rich understanding of a phenomenon.
B) Researchers strive to eliminate extraneous variables.
C) It is critical to maintain constancy of conditions.
D) Most studies are retrospective.
23. Which characteristic of qualitative research design is similar to quantitative research design?
A) Use of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs to observe the evolution of a phenomenon
B) Generalizing the finding of a study
C) Use of power analysis for determining sample size
D) Avoidance of using field notes during the data collection process, to prevent bias
24. Ethnographers seek to learn from members of a cultural group to understand their world view. Ethnographic researchers refer to which of the following two perspectives?
A) Ying and yang
B) Emic and etic
C) Data saturation and generalization
D) Significant and nonsignificant
25. The qualitative method that uses an inductive approach using a systematic set of procedures to create a theory about social processes is known which of the following?
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded Theory
C) Ethnography
D) Historical Method
26. In a qualitative study, the researcher becomes involved with the research process and must ensure that his or her own preconceived beliefs and opinions do not influence the data that is emerging from the study. The way the researcher does this is by which of the following?
A) Bracketing
B) Hermeneutics
C) Narrative analysis
D) Pentadic dramatism
27. Ethnographers use a very specific strategy for making observations of the culture under study while being involved in activities. This is referred to as which of the following?
A) Surveys
B) Participant observation
C) Hermeneutics
D) Bracketing
28. Grounded theory tries to account for people's actions from the perspective of those involved. It seeks to discover this main concern or problem and the behavior that is designed to resolve it. The manner in which people resolve this main concern is known as which of the following?
A) Participatory action research
B) Constant comparison
C) The core variable
D) A single entity
29. The focus of case study design is which of the following?
A) Understanding why an individual thinks or behaves in a particular manner
B) Focusing on a story as the object of inquiry
C) Emergence of content analysis
D) Presentation of pentadic dramatism
30. A critical researcher is concerned with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) A critique of society and envisioning new possibilities
B) An aim to make people aware of contradictions and disparities in beliefs and social practices
C) Understanding how individuals construct and narrate stories to make sense of their world
D) Fostering enlightened self-knowledge
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31. Participatory action research aims to produce which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Knowledge
B) Action
C) Empowerment
D) Stability
1. A critical concern for qualitative researchers in their sampling decisions is which of the following?
A) Obtaining a sample that is representative of the population under study
B) Accessing information-rich sources of data
C) Recruiting a sample that can facilitate saturation quickly and efficiently
D) Obtaining a sample with high potential for generalizability
2. Which of the following statements about sampling in qualitative research is true?
A) Convenience sampling is considered the most appropriate method of selecting sample members.
B) Larger samples are considered more rigorous than smaller samples.
C) Using randomness in the sampling process is desirable.
D) The type of sampling approach can change and evolve over the course of data collection.
3. Theoretical sampling is most likely to be used by which of the following?
A) Ethnographers
B) Grounded theory researchers
C) Phenomenologists
D) Qualitative descriptive researchers
4. Which of the following is a type of purposive sampling? Select all that apply.
A) Extreme case sampling
B) Maximum variation sampling
C) Snowball sampling
D) Typical case sampling
5. Near the end of data collection, qualitative researchers may employ the technique of sampling which of the following?
A) Criterion cases
B) Deviant cases
C) Typical cases
D) Disconfirming cases
6. Which of the following statements about sampling is true?
A) Convenience sampling is used by both qualitative and quantitative researchers.
B) Quantitative researchers establish eligibility criteria, but qualitative researchers do not.
C) Extreme case sampling is a type of theoretical sampling.
D) Focus groups would not be used in qualitative descriptive studies.
7. Samples of ten or fewer study participants would be most likely to be found in which of the following?
A) Phenomenological study
B) Grounded theory study
C) Ethnography
D) Participatory action study
8. In which of the following types of studies would the principle of data saturation be used? Select all that apply.
A) Grounded theory study
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenological study
D) Clinical trial
9. Which of the following data collection approaches is conducted with a group of 5 to 10 people simultaneously?
A) Photo elicitation interview
B) Focused interview
C) Critical incidents interview
D) Focus group interview
10. Which of the following data collection approaches is most likely to use a topic guide?
A) A completely unstructured interview
B) A focus group interview
C) A critical incidents interview
D) Participant observation
11. A grand tour question is most likely to be used at which time?
A) At the beginning of a focus group session
B) At the end of a critical incident interview
C) At the beginning of an unstructured interview
D) At the end of a photo elicitation study
12. Which of the following statements about data collection in qualitative research is true? Select all that apply.
A) When interviewing participants, qualitative researchers do not tend to ask their questions in any predetermined order.
B) Unstructured observational data are often gathered in field settings through participant observation.
C) Ethnographers usually gather their data using both observation and self-reports.
D) The data for an unstructured interview are most likely to be in the form of field notes that the researcher records immediately after the interview has been completed.
13. Which of the following statements about participant observation is true?
A) Participant observers must maintain the same level of participation throughout the study.
B) In a participant observation study, participants are observed but not questioned.
C) Participant observers may use single, multiple, or mobile positioning.
D) Participant observers most commonly record their observations by videotaping all events and transactions that they observe.
14. Which of the following are types of notes maintained by a participant observer? Select all that apply.
A) Descriptive notes
B) Participatory action notes
C) Reflective notes
D) Methodologic notes
15. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Uncovering multiple realities
B) Finding meaning in an experience
C) Generalizing results to a target population
D) Using non-random sampling
16. Which of the following is true regarding qualitative and quantitative research?
A) Quantitative research and qualitative research both develop eligibility criteria before consenting study participants.
B) Quantitative research and qualitative research both use random samples whenever possible, to enhance the ability to predict within a wider population.
C) Quantitative research and qualitative research both determine sample size in the same manner.
D) Quantitative research and qualitative research both prefer a large sample to a small one, because it produces stronger statistical results.
17. A difficulty identified with convenience sampling is which of the following?
A) The participants do not meet the conceptual needs of the study
B) It is not economical
C) It is not efficient
D) The participants may not produce the depth of information needed
18. Qualitative researchers often count on recruiting by referral, which is called which of the following?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Snowball sampling
C) Volunteer sampling
D) Purposive sampling
19. A qualitative researcher who is attempting to provide findings from multiple diverse viewpoints on a phenomenon would most likely subscribe to which of the following?
A) Deviant case sampling
B) Typical case sampling
C) Criterion case sampling
D) Confirming case sampling
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20. A qualitative researcher identifies trends in the phenomenon being studied, yet several new cases received through a snowball sampling effort have divergent views of the phenomenon. These new cases are referred to as which of the following?
A) Confirming cases
B) Disconfirming cases
C) Purposive cases
D) Typical cases
21. When developing a theory, a nurse researcher uses theoretical sampling to do which of the following?
A) To find cases that meet a predetermined criterion of importance
B) To learn from the most unusual and extreme informants
C) To gain new informants via referrals from other informants
D) To choose sampling groups that will further the emerging conceptualization
22. Data saturation occurs when which of the following happens?
A) Researchers can find no new participants that fit the criteria
B) All the research questions are answered
C) No new information is obtained and redundancy is achieved
D) Participants are describing new concepts
23. What is the purpose of choosing key informants in ethnographic research studies? Select all that apply.
A) To facilitate recruiting more participants to the study
B) To guide the researcher culturally
C) To identify important events
D) To provide a knowledgeable link to the culture
24. Which of the following are key principles that guide the selection of a sample for a phenomenological study? Select all that apply.
A) The participant must be able to articulate what it was like to have lived the experience.
B) The participant must have considerable knowledge of the phenomenon being studied.
C) The participant must be someone who is closely associated with someone who has experienced the phenomenon.
D) The participant must have experienced the phenomenon being studied.
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25. Which of the following would be the most appropriate reason to adjust the sampling method in a grounded theory study as it unfolds?
A) To better evaluate emerging conceptualizations
B) To support past descriptions of the phenomenon
C) To increase the availability of participants
D) To postpone data saturation
26. When collecting data through interviews, qualitative researchers rely primarily on which of the following?
A) A priori ideas
B) Structured questions
C) Supplemental physiological data
D) Self-report
27. A phenomenological researcher is interviewing a participant who has lived through a hurricane. Which of the following is the best example of a grand tour question appropriate to ask this participant?
A) Why did you not evacuate the area when instructed to do so?
B) What kind of damage did your home sustain?
C) What was it like to live through a hurricane?
D) How many fatalities occurred in your state due to the hurricane?
Answer Key
1. The use of both of qualitative and quantitative data in a study or cluster of studies serves the important purpose of which of the following?
A) Providing researchers with different skills an opportunity to collaborate
B) Enhancing the study's validity
C) Allowing participants to select an unstructured or structured method of responding
D) Enhancing the likelihood that the study will be published
2. The integration of qualitative and quantitative approaches in a single study constitutes a form of which of the following?
A) Hypothesis testing
B) Theory generation
C) Triangulation
D) Methodologic research
3. Which of the following is true about the notation QUAL → quan?
A) The qualitative component is dominant
B) The quantitative component is dominant
C) The data would be collected in a single phase
D) The design is an embedded design
4. Which of the following is true about the notation QUAL + QUAN?
A) The qualitative component is dominant
B) The quantitative component is dominant
C) The data would be collected in a single phase
D) The design is an embedded design
5. The phase of a clinical trial that typically uses a full experimental design is which of the following?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
6. An effectiveness study is associated with which phase of a clinical trial?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
7. If a researcher wanted to assess how well an evidence-based protocol for encouraging adolescent mothers to breastfeed was meeting its objectives, the research would be which of the following?
A) Survey
B) Evaluation
C) Methodologic research
D) Secondary analysis
8. A phase III clinical trial most closely resembles which of the following in terms of objectives and design?
A) An impact analysis
B) An economic analysis
C) A process analysis
D) A secondary analysis
9. What type of study would address the following question: What barriers did the nursing staff face in implementing the fall prevention program?
A) Impact analysis
B) Outcomes study
C) Process analysis
D) Economic analysis
10. An issue that is distinctive in nursing intervention research is which of the following?
A) The development of an intervention theory
B) The generation of data amenable for use in secondary analyses
C) The inclusion of a methodological research component
D) The use of a structure/process/outcomes framework
11. The type of research designed to document the effectiveness of health care and nursing services in a broad sense is called which of the following?
A) A process analysis
B) Outcomes research
C) An impact analysis
D) Methodological research
12. Suppose a nurse researcher were interested in learning whether a self-administered health history questionnaire yielded data of comparable quality to a personal interview health history. The researcher would be doing which of the following?
A) Secondary analysis
B) Clinical trial
C) Methodologic study
D) Survey
13. A nurse researcher gathered data from a national sample of nurses regarding fatigue and burnout by means of an Internet questionnaire. This is an example of which of the following?
A) A survey
B) An evaluation
C) A case study
D) A secondary analysis
14. If a researcher used U.S. census data to examine the relationship between women's employment and childbearing, this would be an example of which of the following?
A) A survey
B) An outcomes study
C) A secondary analysis
D) A methodological study
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15. Which of the following could involve either qualitative or quantitative data? Select all that apply.
A) A secondary analysis
B) An evaluation
C) A methodologic study
D) An ethnographic study
16. The use of mixed methods research is best characterized by which of the following?
A) Decreasing
B) Increasing
C) Confusing
D) Being called into question
17. Which of the following is the key factor for determining the design and method a researcher will use?
A) The researchers' preference
B) The financial resources available
C) The research question
D) Sample size
18. Which of the following is most likely the strongest argument for mixed method research?
A) Pragmatism
B) Incrementality
C) Enhanced validity
D) Complementarity
19. Sequencing and prioritization are important when reporting research. Which of the following is the correct notation for a convergent parallel design study?.
A) QUAL + QUAN
B) QUAL → QUAN
C) QUAL(quan)
D) QUAN → qual
20. Nested sampling is a preferred sampling technique used by many researchers for which of the following reasons?
A) It reduces costs related to recruiting participants.
B) It decreases the risk for bias.
C) Using overlapping samples can be advantageous.
D) Only one group of people has to be recruited for both qualitative and quantitative strands.
21. Evaluation research looks at the effectiveness of a program, policy, or procedure to impact decision-making. Which of the following lists the three analysis components of an evaluation?
A) Process, Impact, and Outcome analyses
B) Structure, Impact, and Outcome analyses
C) Impact, Process, and Economic analyses
D) Process, Efficacy, and Economic analyses
22. Which of the following most accurately describes the triangulation design in mixed methods research?
A) A design that uses multiple approaches in a research study to offset limitations with strengths
B) A design that features a dominant component and a supportive component with concurrent data collection
C) A sequential design in which quantitative data are collected in the first phase and qualitative in the second phase
D) A sequential design in which qualitative data are collected in the first phase and quantitative in the second phase
23. Process analysis is the best choice for research when the researcher would like to do which of the following?
A) Assess a clinical intervention
B) Describe program implementation
C) Identify a net impact
D) Weigh a program's benefits against its monetary costs
24. Which of the following statements most accurately describes methodologic research?
A) A distinctive process of planning, developing, testing, and disseminating interventions.
B) Systematic analysis of data from a previous study to gain new knowledge of a given phenomena
C) Investigation of new instrument development necessitated by the need for reliable outcome measures
D) Research that obtains quantitative information about the prevalence, distribution, and interrelations of variables within a population
25. Nursing intervention research involves phases for complex interventions. Which of the following indicates the correct order of these phases?
A) Effectiveness research, basic developmental research, pilot research, efficacy research
B) Basic developmental research, effectiveness research, pilot research, efficacy research
C) Pilot research, effectiveness research, basic developmental research, efficacy research
D) Basic developmental research, pilot research, efficacy research, effectiveness research
26. Which of the following are characteristic of methodologic research? Select all that apply.
A) Methodologic research addresses the development, validation, and evaluation of research tools or methods.
B) Methodologic research focuses on development of new instruments.
C) Methodologic research has piqued the interest of nurse researchers.
D) Methodologic research obtains quantitative information about the prevalence, distribution, and interrelations of variables within a population.
27. Which of the following are true of the mixed methods research design? Select all that apply.
A) Qualitative and quantitative methods are complementary and avoid limitations of a single approach to research.
B) A mix of qualitative and quantitative research should be used in all research studies.
C) Complexity of the subject may require the use of both paradigms to ensure rigorous research.
D) Triangulation allows the researcher to the alternative interpretations of the data which help shape the result.
1. A parameter is a characteristic of which of the following?
A) Population
B) Frequency distribution
C) Sample
D) Normal curve
2. If the bulk of scores on a test occurred at the upper end of the distribution, the distribution could be described as which of the following?
A) Normal
B) Bimodal
C) Positively skewed
D) Negatively skewed
3. The mean is usually the statistic reported for which type or types of measure? Select all that apply.
A) Nominal measures
B) Ordinal measures
C) Interval measures
D) Ratio measures
4. The mode is an index of which of the following?
A) Bivariate relationships
B) Central tendency
C) Risk
D) Variability
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5. The measure of central tendency that is most stable is which of the following?
A) Mode
B) Median
C) Mean
D) They are all equivalent
6. The measure of variability that takes into account all score values is which of the following?
A) Range
B) Median
C) Mean
D) Standard deviation
7. A group of 100 students took a test. The mean was 85, the standard deviation was 5, and the scores were normally distributed. About how many of the 100 scores fell between 80 and 90?
A) 34
B) 68
C) 95
D) Impossible to determine
8. One of the characteristics of a normal distribution is which of the following?
A) It is bimodal
B) 95% of the values are within two standard deviations above and below the mean
C) The values are positively skewed
D) The mean is 100
9. Which of the following signifies the strongest relationship?
A) r = -.64
B) M = .99
C) t = 1.44
D) r = .57
10. The symbol X represents which of the following?
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A) An effect size
B) A mean
C) Total sample size
D) An individual score
11. A widely used index of risk used among practitioners of evidence-based practice is which of the following?
A) The t statistic
B) The F ratio
C) The odds ratio
D) Pearson's r
12. The use of inferential statistics permits a researcher to do which of the following?
A) Draw conclusions about a population based on information gathered from a sample
B) Describe information obtained from empirical observation
C) Interpret descriptive statistics
D) Estimate risk and relative risk
13. The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is called which of the following?
A) Sampling error
B) Standard error of the mean
C) Variance
D) Parameter
14. The SEM gets smaller as which of the following occurs?
A) The mean gets smaller
B) The sample size gets smaller
C) The mean gets larger
D) The sample size gets larger
15. In the following statement, what would the number 50 be called: 95% CI for the mean of 60 = 50 to 70?
A) The probability value
B) The point estimate
C) The lower confidence limit
D) The effect size
16. In the following statement, what would the number 60 be called: 95% CI for the mean of 60 = 50 to 70?
A) The probability value
B) The point estimate
C) The lower confidence limit
D) The effect size
17. A 95% CI, in parameter estimation, corresponds, in a hypothesis testing framework, to which of the following?
A) An alpha of .95
B) An alpha of .05
C) A beta of .95
D) A beta of .05
18. The steps involved in using test statistics include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Determining the appropriate statistic to be used
B) Selecting a level of significance
C) Calculating the degrees of freedom
D) Calculating the theoretical distribution for the test statistic
19. For which of the following levels of significance is the risk of making a Type I error lowest?
A) .10
B) .05
C) .01
D) .001
20. If the power for an analysis was .50, which of the following would be true?
A) There would be a 50% risk of a Type II error
B) The odds ratio would be equal to .50
C) The 95% CI would have a range of 50 points
D) There would be a 50% risk of a Type I error
21. If a researcher calculated a t-statistic to be –2.5 and the theoretical t value (for df = 60 and alpha = .05) is 2.0, the researcher would do which of the following?
A) Conclude that a Type II error had been made
B) Accept the null hypothesis
C) Reject the null hypothesis
D) Use a different level of significance
22. A researcher compared the mean anxiety levels of patients in a soothing music group, a massage group, or a control group. The statistical procedure that was likely used to test group differences is which of the following?
A) t-test
B) ANOVA
C) MANOVA
D) Chi-squared test
23. If a researcher wanted to assess whether an experimental group differed significantly from a control group in terms of proportion with a post-discharge readmission, the test statistic would be which of the following?
A) t
B) r
C) F
D) χ2
24. When both the independent and outcome variables are measured on a ratio scale, the appropriate bivariate test statistic is which of the following?
A) t
B) r
C) F
D) χ2
25. Which of the following is an effect size index? Select all that apply.
A) t
B) r
C) d
D) OR
26. A researcher wanted to predict whether nursing home residents would or would not experience a fall based on 10 characteristics (e.g., age, presence of absence of dementia, etc.). The analysis would involve which of the following?
A) Multiple regression
B) ANCOVA
C) Logistic regression
D) MANOVA
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27. A researcher wanted to compare male and female oncology patients in terms of satisfaction with nursing care, controlling for age and severity of illness. The analysis would involve which of the following?
A) Multiple regression
B) ANCOVA
C) Logistic regression
D) MANCOVA
28. Suppose a researcher found a multiple correlation of .40 (R = .40) between candy intake, age, income on the one hand and dental caries on the other. The amount of variability that could be accounted for in dental caries by candy intake, age, and income is which of the following?
A) 4% B) 16%
C) 40% D) Cannot be determined
29. In analysis of covariance, a covariate is generally which of the following?
A) An independent variable
B) The outcome variable
C) Either an independent or dependent variable
D) A confounding variable
30. In reporting the results of a statistical test in a research article, which of the following would be reported? Select all that apply.
A) The computed value of the test statistic
B) The theoretical value of the test statistic
C) Degrees of freedom
D) The probability (p) value
31. Which measure of central tendency is the most stable?
A) Mode
B) Median
C) Mean
D) Average
32. The alpha level of significance refers to the probability of which of the following?
A) A Type I error
B) A Type II error
C) A null hypothesis
D) Multiple regression
33. Statistically significant means which of the following?
A) The study findings are important.
B) The study results are meaningful.
C) It is unlikelihood that the results are due to chance.
D) The hypothesis has been proven.
34. A frequency distribution for height would most likely be represented by which of the following?
A) A symmetric distribution
B) A positive skew
C) A negative skew
D) A normal distribution
35. The d statistic approximates effect size by measuring the difference between the experimental group mean and the control group mean, normed to the standard deviation. If the effect size is moderate, which of the following values of d would one expect to calculate?
A) d = 0
B) d = .20
C) d = .50
D) d = .80
36. When testing multiple independent variables, the proportion of variability in the outcome variable that is explained by the predictors is measured as which of the following?
A) Paired t-test
B) The product-moment correlation coefficient
C) R
D) R2
37. The shape of a distribution with three values of high frequency is which of the following?
A) Unimodal
B) Bimodal
C) Multimodal
D) A bell-shaped curve
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38. In a normal distribution, 95% of scores fall within approximately how many standard deviations (SDs) from the mean?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
39. To test mean differences among related groups over time with at least three different points of data collection, you would use which of the following?
A) Paired t-test
B) Chi-squared test
C) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
D) Repeated measures ANOVA
40. Which correlation coefficient shows the strongest relationship between two variables?
A) –0.821
B) –0.653
C) 0
D) 0.759
41. Testing the significance of difference in two group means is done with which of the following?
A) Independent groups t-test
B) Paired t-test
C) Dependent groups t-test
D) Chi-squared test
42. To test the significance of differences between the means of two or more groups on two or more outcome variables simultaneously, without controlling for covariates, one would use which of the following?
A) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
C) Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
D) Multivariate analysis of covariance (MANCOVA)
43. A researcher would like to test the significance of differences in the means of three age groups of baseball pitchers for the outcome variables of speed and accuracy. She realizes that she will need to control for the potential confounding variable of base skill of the individual subjects in all three groups. Which type of analysis should she use?
A) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
C) Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
D) Multivariate analysis of covariance (MANCOVA)
44. In an experiment testing a smoking cessation technique with two groups of smokers, one control and one experimental, what index would measure the proportion of individuals in the control group who may have avoided the undesirable outcome of continued smoking had they been chosen for the experimental group?
A) Absolute risk
B) Absolute risk reduction
C) Odds ratio
D) Risk ratio
45. In an analysis of variance (ANOVA), which of the following contrasts variation between groups with variation within groups?
A) F ratio
B) Post hoc tests
C) Chi-squared statistic
D) Pearson's r
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1. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The results of statistical testing have direct meaning.
B) Evaluating the credibility of a study typically involves a careful assessment of methodologic decisions.
C) Support of a researcher's hypothesis through statistical testing offers proof of its veracity.
D) A correlation between two variables indicates that the independent variable caused the dependent variable.
2. Information about the precision of results typically is communication in the form of which of the following?
A) Significance levels
B) Effect size estimates
C) Correlation coefficients
D) Confidence intervals
3. Information about the magnitude or importance of results typically takes the form of which of the following?
A) Significance levels
B) Effect size estimates
C) Correlation coefficients
D) Confidence intervals
4. Which of the following is an aspect or dimension of the interpretive task? Select all that apply.
A) The accuracy or credibility of the results
B) The meaning of the results
C) The vigor of the results
D) The implications of the results
5. When a researcher makes a Type II error (concludes that no relationship between the independent and dependent variable exists when in fact it does), this could occur because of which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) An anomalous sample
B) Unreliable data collection instruments
C) Problems with adequately implementing the intervention
D) A large sample size
6. When a researcher obtains significant results that are opposite to what was originally hypothesized, it is likely that this occurred because of which of the following?
A) Inadequate sample size
B) Unreliable data collection instruments
C) A flawed statistical analysis
D) Faulty reasoning
7. The Results section of a research article summarizes results of which of the following?
A) Study conclusions
B) Statistical analyses
C) Inferences
D) Interpretation of study findings
8. It is important that researchers design rigorous study methods to prevent which of the following?
A) Making inferences
B) Biases
C) Rejection of null hypothesis
D) Internal audit
9. A study is investigating the rate of immunization at a community-based clinic. Selection bias is most likely to be present in which of the following samples?
A) Random sample of clients accessing an urgent care clinic
B) Random sample of records of school clinic vaccination rates
C) Convenience sample of mothers who bring children to clinic for vaccinations
D) Convenience sample of high school students who have received required vaccinations
10. A main purpose of the Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials (CONSORT) flow diagram is which of the following?
A) Track the progress of study participants
B) Present accurate statistical analyses
C) Compare and contrast current study findings
D) Summarize previous study findings
11. The purpose of evaluating the evidence that emanates from research articles is to do which of the following?
A) Maintain licensure as a professional nurse
B) Implement protocols already established in one's clinical area
C) Improve one's clinical assessment skills
D) Decide whether recommendations might be implemented
12. A researcher must select a sample that is representative of the population. Which of the following venues would be most practical for recruitment of patients with primary hypertension?
A) Prenatal clinic
B) High school clinic
C) Primary care clinic
D) Acute care hospital
13. A researcher plans to use a proxy variable to measure the concept of patient outcome. Which of the following would be an appropriate variable to use?
A) Length of stay in hospital
B) Medicare eligibility
C) Falls risk
D) Staffing ratios
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14. Researchers conducting an exercise intervention study with overweight adults recruited a sample of 250 adults from a primary care clinic. Of the 250 adults, 82 participants completed the study. The 82 participants represent what type of sample?
A) Target population
B) Accessible population
C) Recruited sample
D) Actual sample
15. The term validity refers to which of the following?
A) Truth of an inference
B) Honesty of the report
C) Accuracy of the measurement
D) Preparation of the researcher
16. A study reports a 60% rate of attrition among the participants. This finding suggests which of the following?
A) A threat to internal validity
B) Lack of recruitment
C) Appropriate compensation/incentives
D) Invalid measurements
17. A p-value is a measure of the likelihood that the statistical results were obtained in error. A confidence interval, on the other hand, provides which of the following?
A) The range of the measured values in the sample reported in the research report
B) The probability that similar results will be obtained in error, in the future
C) The range of probable values of the variable in the population
D) The likelihood that the results will be useful in practice
18. The fact that research study findings are statistically significant indicates which of the following?
A) Intervention was effective
B) Methods were valid
C) Results were unlikely due to chance
D) Sample size was adequate
Answer Key
1. The first major step that a researcher must undertake in a qualitative analysis is which of the following?
A) A search for major themes
B) A search for appropriate metaphors
C) The use of quasi-statistics
D) Developing a system for organizing and indexing the data
2. Before the advent of computer software for qualitative analysis, the main procedure for managing qualitative data was the development of which of the following?
A) Conceptual files
B) Core categories
C) Memos
D) Themes
3. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Narrative materials tend to be linear, which simplifies the coding process.
B) Qualitative researchers typically develop a category scheme before they collect their data.
C) CAQDAS is available for coding, organizing, and retrieving qualitative data.
D) Content analysis is the analytic method used in phenomenologic studies.
4. Steps generally employed in the management and analysis of qualitative data include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Testing hypotheses
B) Searching for recurrent themes and patterns
C) Validating themes and patterns
D) Developing a category scheme
5. Quasi-statistics are essentially a method of which of the following?
A) Statistical analysis
B) Validation
C) Thematic generation
D) Constant comparison
6. Spradley's method includes which type of data analysis? Select all that apply.
A) Domain analysis
B) Taxonomic analysis
C) Componential analysis
D) Statistical analysis
7. Validation of themes by conferring with study participants was specifically considered inappropriate by whom?
A) Colaizzi
B) Giorgi
C) Glaser
D) Strauss
8. An alternative to Spradley's approach to produce and analyze ethnographic data was developed by whom?
A) Leininger
B) Van Manen
C) Colaizzi
D) Giorgi
9. Diekelmann and colleagues proposed a 7-stage process of hermeneutic analysis that includes the identification of which of the following?
A) An appropriate metaphor
B) A constitutive pattern
C) A hermeneutic circle
D) An exemplar
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10. The process referred to as constant comparison involves which of the following?
A) Comparing two researchers' interpretation of the data
B) Comparing the researchers' interpretation of the data against study participants' interpretation
C) Comparing elements present in one data source with those in another
D) Comparing data from the study with data and categories from other similar studies
11. In the Strauss and Corbin approach to grounded theory, the initial process of breaking down, categorizing, and coding the data is often referred to as which of the following?
A) Axial coding
B) Core coding
C) Open coding
D) Selective coding
12. Level III codes, in the Glaser and Strauss approach to grounded theory, are which of the following?
A) Axial codes
B) In vivo codes
C) Open codes
D) Theoretical constructs
13. Selective coding in Glaserian approach to grounded theory studies begins when which of the following occurs?
A) Constant comparison has ended
B) Data saturation has occurred
C) Memos have been prepared
D) A core category has been identified
14. Constructivist grounded theory is an approach developed by whom?
A) Charmaz
B) Glaser
C) Strauss
D) Corbin
15. Which of the following is a significant challenge in qualitative analysis?
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A) Mastering the standard procedures for analyzing qualitative data
B) Lack of narrative materials to analyze
C) Reducing data for reporting purposes
D) Deducing particulars from a universal
16. Which of the following best describes the purpose of constant comparison?
A) To identify commonalities among elements present in one data source with those in another
B) To describe the essential nature of an experience
C) To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants
D) To fit concepts with the incidents they are representing
17. In qualitative data analysis, which element can be used as an analytic strategy?
A) Management
B) Metaphors
C) Conceptualization
D) Constructivism
18. Which of the following is an activity involved in qualitative content analysis? Select all that apply.
A) Breaking down data into smaller units
B) Coding and naming units according to the content they represent
C) Collecting information on participants
D) Grouping coded material based on shared concepts
19. Phenomenology most fundamentally involves a search for which of the following?
A) A core category from open coding
B) Intersubjective agreement among judges
C) Thematic descriptions from artistic sources
D) Common patterns shared by particular instances
20. The Duquesne School of Phenomenology is based on the philosophy of which of the following?
A) Colaizzi
B) Van Kaam
C) Husserl
D) Giorgi
21. Which of the following is the first stage of Diekelmann, Allen, and Tanner's (1989) process of data analysis in hermeneutics?
A) Interpretive summaries of each interview are written.
B) A team of researchers analyzes selected transcribed interviews or texts.
C) All the interviews or texts are read for an overall understanding.
D) Common meanings and shared practices are identified by comparing and contrasting the text.
22. What is the primary outcome of Strauss and Corbin's (2008) approach to grounded theory?
A) A theory of how a social problem is processed
B) A full conceptual description
C) A central category
D) A core category
23. Which of the following accurately describes a task that computer-assisted qualitative data analysis software can accomplish? Select all that apply.
A) Code interview portions and observational records
B) Facilitate examination of relationships between codes
C) Inform the researcher of how best to analyze the data
D) Allow retrieval of portions of text corresponding to specified codes for analysis
24. The primary goal of ethnography is which of the following?
A) To identify and categorize descriptors
B) To abstract major themes
C) To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants
D) To collect, describe, and record data
25. Which of the following is the final phase of Leininger and McFarland's (2006) ethnonursing data analysis guide?
A) Abstract major themes and present findings
B) Identify and categorize descriptors
C) Analyze data to discover repetitive patterns in their context
D) Collect, describe, and record data
26. Which of the following is the correct order of tasks in organizing and managing narrative data for qualitative analysis?
A) 1. Organize the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4. check the accuracy of transcribed data
B) 1. Develop a category scheme; 2. check the accuracy of transcribed data; 3. read and code the data; 4. organize the data
C) 1. Check the accuracy of transcribed data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4. organize the data
D) 1. Read and code the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. check the accuracy of transcribed data; 4. organize the data
27. Which of the following can best facilitate researchers' search for themes?
A) Charting devices
B) Detailed coding
C) Quasi-statistics
D) Computer software
28. Why does a researcher introduce quasi-statistics?
A) As an analytic strategy
B) To validate and refine themes
C) As a taxonomic analysis
D) To provide an overall structure
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Answer Key
1. Which of the following terms is especially controversial among qualitative researchers?
A) Dependability
B) Validity
C) Transferability
D) Credibility
2. Which of the following are terms that are considered aspects of trustworthiness within the Lincoln and Guba framework? Select all that apply.
A) Transferability
B) Confirmability
C) Stability
D) Dependability
3. Dependability in qualitative research is considered the analog of which criterion in quantitative research?
A) Internal validity
B) Construct validity
C) Reliability
D) Specificity
4. The criterion that refers to neutrality or objectivity in qualitative inquiry is which of the following?
A) Credibility
B) Transferability
C) Authenticity
D) Confirmability
5. Which criterion is considered analogous to internal validity in the Lincoln & Guba framework?
A) Credibility
B) Transferability
C) Dependability
D) Confirmability
6. If both in-depth interviews and participant observations were used to collect data on a phenomenon in a study, this would be referred to as which of the following?
A) Data triangulation
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Theory triangulation
D) Method triangulation
7. If a researcher studying family response to adolescent suicide interviewed parents and siblings independently, the triangulation approach method would be called which of the following?
A) Data triangulation
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Theory triangulation
D) Method triangulation
8. A member check involves the researcher reviewing data with which of the following?
A) An external auditor
B) A peer of the researcher
C) A study participant
D) A second member of the research team
9. The maintenance of good, thorough documentation and a decision trail is especially critical in which of the following?
A) Member checks
B) Stepwise replications
C) Negative case analysis
D) Inquiry audits
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10. A quality-enhancement strategy about which there is considerable controversy is which of the following?
A) Member checks
B) Stepwise replications
C) Negative case analysis
D) Inquiry audits
11. The term trustworthiness in qualitative research parallels which of the following terms used in quantitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Generalizability
B) Validity
C) Reliability
D) Correlation
12. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) It is consistent with the constructivist paradigm of inquiry.
B) It generates causal hypotheses.
C) It tests hypotheses.
D) It involves an iterative process of interpretation and analysis.
13. Credibility in qualitative research refers to which of the following?
A) The reliability of data over time
B) Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
C) Applicability of the data to other groups
D) Confidence in the truth value of the data
14. Confirmability in qualitative research refers to which of the following?
A) The reliability of data over time
B) Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
C) Applicability of the data to other groups
D) Confidence in the truth value of the data
15. The term transferability in qualitative research is similar to which term used in quantitative research?
A) Authenticity
B) Reliability
C) Generalizability
D) Correlation
16. Which of the following statements about qualitative research methods is true?
A) Peer debriefings in qualitative research provide proof that interpretations are correct.
B) Qualitative research attempts to test hypotheses generated from quantitative research.
C) Interpretation and analysis of qualitative data typically occur simultaneously.
D) Qualitative research methods are best suited to study well-known phenomenon.
17. Which of the following statements about controversies in qualitative research is true?
A) Unlike quantitative research methods, qualitative research methods do not require rigorous study designs.
B) There is lack of consensus regarding the quality criteria for qualitative inquiry.
C) There is no “gold standard” in qualitative research criteria.
D) There is no comparable criterion in qualitative research for the positivists' criterion of internal validity.
18. Which of the following is a barrier that qualitative researchers face in demonstrating the trustworthiness of their studies to readers?
A) Page limitations imposed by journals
B) Reflexivity
C) Lack of generalizability
D) Small sample sizes
19. A nurse-midwife conducted a phenomenology study of the lived experience of women in Haiti who gave birth following the 2010 Haitian earthquake. She collected data from 15 women over a 12-month period of time. Which quality-enhancement strategy is described in this example?
A) Persistent observation
B) Prolonged engagement
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
20. A nurse working in an adolescent health clinic conducted a grounded theory study related to contraceptive decision-making in Latina youth. She collected data from individual interviews and focus groups. Which of the following quality-enhancement strategies is described in this example?
A) Persistent observation
B) Prolonged engagement
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
21. A nurse working in an inner-city clinic conducted an ethnographic study of sex workers to gain understanding of factors related to HIV risk for these women. After she completed her data collection, she gave three participants feedback about her findings for their review and commentary. Which of the following quality-enhancement strategies is described in this example?
A) Audit trail
B) Data triangulation
C) Reflexivity
D) Member checking
22. Which of the following quality-enhancement strategies has the greatest potential for leading to erroneous conclusions about the data?
A) Member checking
B) Audit trail
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
23. In qualitative research, investigator triangulation is comparable to which quantitative research concept?
A) Content validity
B) Construct validity
C) Inter-rater reliability
D) Internal consistency
24. The proper rationale for searching for and including disconfirming evidence is which of the following?
A) To eliminate confounding cases from data analysis
B) To refine a hypothesis or theory
C) To confirm saturation of the data
D) To formulate a conclusion based on existing data
25. Which of the following is true of thick description in qualitative research?
A) It should not include verbatim quotes from participants.
B) It should not include information that can be interpreted as controversial.
C) It should be implicit in the description of the research context.
D) It should avoid emotional impact.
Answer Key
1. Systematic reviews are the cornerstone of which of the following?
A) Evidence-based practice
B) Evidence hierarchies
C) Meta-analyses
D) Primary studies
2. The unit of analysis in a meta-analysis is which of the following?
A) Individual study participants
B) A primary qualitative study
C) A primary quantitative study
D) Prior systematic reviews
3. The “fruit” problem in meta-analysis refers to which of the following?
A) Including studies in the analysis from multiple disciplines
B) Including both unpublished and published reports in the analysis
C) Including both qualitative and quantitative findings in the analysis
D) Including studies that have addressed different research questions
4. Which of the following activities are normally undertaken as part of doing a meta-analysis? Select all that apply.
A) Obtaining the original data set from primary study researchers
B) Selecting a sample of studies
C) Systematically extracting and recording data
D) Evaluating the quality of studies
5. Searching for studies in the grey literature represents a reviewer's effort to do which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Counteract the effect of biases against the null hypothesis
B) Increase sample size and therefore have a more comprehensive evidence base
C) Minimize the risk of publication bias
D) Include only published, peer-reviewed studies
6. A viable approach to addressing the quality of primary studies included in a meta-analysis is which of the following?
A) Ignoring the problem of quality by using all studies regardless of rigor
B) Doing sensitivity analyses to assess if the effects change when low-quality studies are included.
C) Using a random effects model rather than a fixed effects model.
D) Using a forest plot to assess the degree to which study quality is related to effect size.
7. When heterogeneity of effects is high (statistically significant), the preferred meta-analytic approach is which of the following?
A) Abandon efforts to undertake a meta-analysis
B) Use a fixed effects analytic model
C) Use a random effects analytic model
D) Use a forest plot to display the extensiveness of heterogeneity to readers of the report
8. An effect size index that can be used in meta-analyses includes which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Standardized mean difference or d
B) Intensity effect size
C) Pearson's correlation coefficient (r)
D) The odds ratio (OR)
9. A forest plot portrays information about which of the following for each study in the meta-analysis?
A) 95% CIs around an effect size
B) Number of study participants
C) Quality assessment scores
D) Sample size and standard errors
10. Which of the following best defines metasyntheses?
A) Involve interpretation as well as integration
B) Involve meta-summaries
C) Exclude studies judged to be low on trustworthiness
D) Rely primarily on phenomenological primary studies
11. A widely-used approach to metasynthesis was developed by whom?
A) Polit and Beck
B) Noblit and Hare
C) Glaser and Strauss
D) Sackett and Cochrane
12. Paterson and colleagues developed an approach to metasynthesis that includes which of the following components? Select all that apply.
A) Meta-data analysis
B) Meta-method
C) Meta-ethnography
D) Meta-theory
13. The unit of analysis in computing a frequency effect size, using the Sandelowski-Barroso approach, is which of the following?
A) An individual study
B) A study participant
C) A mean value
D) A theme or qualitative finding
14. Which of the following is a cornerstone of evidence-based practice?
A) Systematic reviews
B) Secondary study reports
C) Meta-analysis of qualitative studies
D) Narrative integration
15. Meta-analysis differs from meta-synthesis in that meta-analysis studies use which of the following? Select all that apply.
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A) Objectivity in drawing conclusions regarding a body of evidence
B) Combining phenomena into a transformed whole
C) Subjective decisions about how much weight to give findings from different studies
D) A measure of the probability of detecting a true relationship between variables
16. Which of the following not only yields information about the existence of a relationship between variables in many studies but also an estimate of its magnitude?
A) Effect size
B) Problem formulation
C) Grey literature
D) Subgroup analysis
17. It is appropriate to use statistical integration when which of the following components are nearly identical across studies?
A) Independent variable, dependent variable, and study populations
B) Statistical methods, population sample, hypotheses
C) Dependent variable, research design, theory explication
D) Available evidence, novel interpretation of findings, population sample
18. Which of the following is a condition under which meta-analysis would be inappropriate to conduct?
A) Highly conflicting results among studies
B) Research questions across studies being nearly identical
C) A large number of studies to draw from
D) Independent variables are similar across studies
19. Which of the following is most accurate regarding researchers conducting metasyntheses?
A) They often conduct original studies on the same topic as the metasynthesis they are conducting.
B) They perform little advance planning, as it is not needed in qualitative research.
C) They make sampling decisions at the end of the study.
D) They use only peer-reviewed journals in the analysis.
20. Integrating and analyzing qualitative findings from multiple research studies is called which of the following?
A) Systematic review
B) Grey literature
C) Meta-analysis
D) Metasynthesis
21. Analysis of grey literature includes which forms of research?
A) Dissertations, unpublished reports
B) Peer-reviewed journals, funded research
C) Systematic reviews, original research
D) Research reports from electronic databases only
22. Meta-analysts depend on the calculation of an index that encapsulates in a single number the relationship between the independent and dependent variables in each study. An example of this calculation is which of the following?
A) Inclusion criteria
B) Forest plot
C) Cohen's d
D) Moderator analyses
23. Analyzing heterogeneity in meta-analysis can be visually attained with which of the following?
A) Cohen's d
B) A forest plot
C) Inclusion criteria
D) Moderator analyses
24. In this research question for a systematic review, the researchers use which approach to determining the answer to the question: Are clinical outcomes of nurse-led care for patients with rheumatoid arthritis similar to those produced by usual care?
A) Randomized control trial
B) Metasynthesis
C) Meta-analysis
D) Not a researchable question
25. Meta-analysts perform subgroup analyses to accomplish which of the following?
A) Utilize a fixed effects model to ascertain heterogeneity
B) Address publication bias and compute a fail-safe number
C) Determine if exclusion criteria changes the results in a study
D) Split the effect size information from studies into distinct categorical groups
26. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. A meta-data analysis involves which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by analyzing the “processed data”
B) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
27. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. Meta-method involves which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by analyzing the “processed data”
B) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
28. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. Meta-theory analysis involves which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by analyzing the “processed data”
B) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
Answer Key