TEST BANK for Terrorism and Homeland Security 9th Edition by Jonathan White by ACADEMIAMILL

CHAPTER 1 1) The 2017 Food and Health Survey indicated that after taste, ______ is now the number two reason why people choose the food they do. A) healthfulness B) convenience C) price D) sustainability

2) Studies indicate an association between TV advertising of foods and drinks and _____, especially in the United States. A) dollars spent at restaurants B) purchase of more nutritious products from grocery stores C) the prevalence ofchildhood obesity D) the number of mealseaten at home

Which of the following trends has a negative effect on American food habits? A) More offerings of chicken and fish in restaurants as alternatives to beef B) Social changes that are leading to a general time shortage for many of us C) The variety of new, low-fat products in the grocery store D) Widespread availability of information on the nutritional content of fast foods

When the cells of the ______ are stimulated, the desire to eat subsides.

Version 1

A) satiety center of the brain B) feeding center of the brain C) pancreas D) tastebuds of the tongue

5) Which of the following terms describes psychological influences that encourage us to find and eat food? A) Appetite B) Hunger C) Satiety D) Saturation

6) from

Recent surveys from the USDA indicate that Americans consume most of their calories

A) dairy products (milk, ice cream), beverages (sugar-sweetened soft drinks, coffee) and vegetables (French fries). B) grain products (bread, pizza crust, macaroni, spaghetti), fats and oils (soybean). C) beverages (bottled water and energy drinks), fruits (apples and bananas), and dairy (cheese and yogurt). D) meat products (fried chicken and hamburgers), beverages (beer and soda pop), and fried products (donuts and French fries).

The essential nutrients

Version 1

A) must be consumed at every meal. B) are required for infants but not adults. C) can be made in the body when they are needed. D) cannot be made by the body and therefore must be consumed to maintain health.

Nutrition is A) the science that links foods to health and disease. B) the study of diet and disease patterns among various populations. C) the use of dietary supplements to cure diseases. D) the practice of eating only healthy foods.

9) Which of the following is the leading nutrition-related cause of death in the United States?0_24_2014_QC_54921 A) Heart disease B) Cancer C) Diabetes D) Pneumonia

10)

Which of the following is an essential nutrient? A) Alcohol B) Carbohydrates C) Phytochemicals D) Zoochemicals

11)

The main function of carbohydrates is to

Version 1

A) provide energy. B) promote growth and development. C) regulate body processes. D) prevent cancer.

12)

Carbohydrates provide ______ kcal per gram. A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 0

13)

Which class of nutrients comprises 60% of body weight? A) Water B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Minerals

14)

Fiber belongs to the class of nutrients known as A) carbohydrates. B) protein. C) lipids. D) minerals.

15)

Which of the following is an example of a phytochemical?

Version 1

A) Carotenoids B) Cholesterol C) Fiber D) Enzymes

16)

Which of the following is characteristic of lipids? A) Supplies 4 kcal per gram B) Adds structural strength to bones and muscles C) Supplies a concentrated form of fuel for the body D) Adds sweetness to food

17)

Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamins? A) Provides energy B) Becomes structural components of the body C) Enables chemical processes in the body D) Made in sufficient quantities by the body

18)

Minerals can A) provide energy. B) be destroyed during cooking. C) be degraded by the body. D) become part of body structures.

19)

Which of the following is a function of water?

Version 1

A) Provides energy B) Transports nutrients and wastes C) Structural component of bone D) Prevents oxidative damage to cell membranes

20) Which of the following are substances in plant foods that are not digested in the stomach or small intestine? A) Dextrose B) Disaccharides C) Dietary fiber D) Simple sugars

21)

Which of the following contain no calories? A) Alcohol B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins

22)

Which of the following is a complexcarbohydrate? A) Starch B) Sucrose C) Fruit sugar D) Glucose

Version 1

23)

Protein A) is a major component of body structures. B) supplies 9 kcal per gram. C) is a significant energy source for humans. D) functions as a solvent.

24) What substances, present in fruits and vegetables, provide significant health benefits such as reducing the risk of cancer? A) Phytochemicals B) Beta blockers C) Deoxidizers D) Free radicals

25) A serving of bleu cheese dressing containing 23 grams of fat would yield _____ kcal from fat. A) 161 B) 92 C) 207 D) 255

26)

A kilocalorie is a measure of A) heat energy. B) fat in food. C) nutrients in food. D) sugar and fat in food.

Version 1

27)

Vitamins and minerals ______ be broken down to provide energy. A) cannot B) can

28) When in Europe, you are told that you are eating a steak weighing 140 grams. This is equivalent to how many ounces? A) 5 ounces B) 3920 ounces C) 8.75 ounces D) 1.4 ounces

29) One cup of chocolate milk contains 15 grams of carbohydrates, 8 grams of fat, and 8 grams of protein. This cup of chocolate milk supplies ______ kcal. A) 164 B) 124 C) 279 D) 31

30)

Pat purchases a 2-liter bottle of root beer. This would be approximately A) 2 quarts. B) 4 cups. C) 2 gallons. D) 2 pints.

Version 1

31)

Which of the following nutrients can directly supply energy for human use? A) Lipids B) Fiber C) Vitamins D) Minerals

32)

Which of the following is true about the energy content of nutrients? A) Lipids supply 7 kcal per gram. B) Carbohydrates and proteins supply 4 kcal per gram. C) Alcohol supplies 9 kcal per gram. D) Lipids and alcohol supply 9 kcal per gram.

33)

Which of the following yield greater than 4 kcal per gram? A) Plant fats B) Plant carbohydrates C) Plant proteins D) Animal proteins

34)

Which of the following includes all energy-yielding substances? A) Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, water B) Vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, lipids, protein C) Alcohol, carbohydrates, lipids, protein D) Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, vitamins, minerals, water

Version 1

35) A meal consisting of a cheeseburger, large fries, and a chocolate shake provides a total of 1120 kcal. Forty-eight percent of the energy in the meal is from carbohydrate and 13%isfrom protein. How many calories of fat does the meal contain? A) 137 B) 313 C) 287 D) 437

36) A large hamburger sandwich contains 628 kcal and 36 grams of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat? A) 23% B) 52% C) 19% D) 41%

37)

Gram for gram, which provides the most energy? A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Alcohol D) Fats

38)

Which of the following most accurately describes the term epidemiology?

Version 1

A) A test made to examine the validity of an educated guess B) An educated guess by a scientist to explain a phenomenon C) A study of how disease rates vary among different population groups D) An explanation for a phenomenon that has numerous lines of evidence to support it

39) In the _____ experimental design, neither the participants nor the researchers are aware of each participant’s assignment (test or placebo) or the outcome of the study until it is completed. A) animal model B) case control C) double-blinded D) clinical trial

40)

Which of the following accurately describes the term hypothesis? A) A test made to examine the validity of an educated guess B) An educated guess by a scientist to explain a phenomenon C) A study of how disease rates vary among different population groups D) An explanation for a phenomenon that has numerous lines of evidence to support it

41) An evaluation of work by professionals of similar competence to the producers of the work to maintain standards of quality and credibility is called A) compentency check. B) performance review. C) independent critique. D) peer review.

Version 1

42) A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the treatments of participants in an experiment. A) placebo B) control C) case D) hypothesis

43) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from carbohydrates. A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%

44) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from protein. A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%

45) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from fat.

Version 1

A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%

46)

Healthy People 2020 was designed to

A) attain high-quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. B) disclose dietary practices that best support health. C) prevent chronic disease in the adult population. D) eliminate dietary inadequacies and excesses, and to encourage healthful practices.

47)

Which of the following is true about the North American dietary pattern? A) Most of our protein comes from plant sources. B) Approximately half of our carbohydrates come from simple sugars. C) Most of our fats come from plant sources. D) Most of ourcarbohydrates come from fibers.

48)

To reduce their risk formany chronic diseases, Americans should limit their intakes of A) solid fats. B) whole grains. C) phytochemicals. D) carbonated water.

49)

On average, Americans consume approximately ______% of total calories as fat.

Version 1

A) 34 B) 22 C) 28 D) 55

50)

The prevalence of obesity has A) not changed in women but increased in men. B) not changed in men but increased in women. C) increased for both men and women. D) not changed for men or women.

51)

A nutrition-related objective from Healthy People 2020 is to reduce A) the proportion of adults who are obese. B) the contribution of fruits to the dietary pattern. C) the contribution of whole grains to the dietary pattern. D) the proportion of adults who are at a healthy weight.

52)

Over the past 50 years, rates of ______ have declined among American adults. A) deaths of cardiovascular disease B) cancer screenings C) obesity D) diabetes

53)

A warning sign or symptom of alcohol poisoning is

Version 1

A) semiconsciousness or unconsciousness. B) rapid breathing. C) skin that is hot to the touch. D) insomnia.

54)

The Freshman 15is the term used to describe the A) typical waist circumference of college students after their freshman year. B) typical body fat percentage of college students after their freshman year. C) amount of weight (in pounds) typically gained during the freshman year of college. D) typical BMI of college students after their freshman year.

55)

For hydration, sports drinks are superior to water for athletes who participate in A) continuous workouts lasting more than 60 minutes. B) workouts in cold weather. C) strength training. D) outdoor athletic events.

56)

Which of the following is engaging in binge drinking? A) A woman who drinks two 12-fl oz cans of beer while eating steamed crabs. B) A man who drinks four shots of whiskey at a bachelor party. C) A woman who drinks three 5-fl oz glasses of wine at a cocktail party. D) A man who drinks a six-pack of 12-fl oz bottles of beer at a cookout.

57)

All of the essential nutrients function as regulators of body processes.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

58)

Water is one of the six classes of essential nutrients. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

The health status of baby boomers appears lower than that of the previous generation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Long-term consequences of eating disorders include heart irregularities, gastrointestinal dysfunction, and bone loss. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_6e 1) C 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 2 1)

A comparison of the calorie content of a food to the weight of that food is A) energy density. B) nutrient density. C) body density. D) diet quality.

Nutrient density can be defined as the amount of

A) a particular nutrient in a serving of food divided by the number of calories in that serving. B) a particular nutrient in a serving of food divided by the number of grams of protein. C) calories in a food divided by the amount of calories needed in a day. D) a nutrient in a serving of food divided by the amount of the nutrient needed for that day.

Which statement best describes nutrient density?

A) Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the same old thing. B) Consume a variety of foods from MyPlate's five major food groups every day. C) Plan your entire day's dietary intake so that you do not overconsume nutrient sources. D) Consume foods that have the most nutrients when compared to their calories.

4) One cup of apple juice has 111 kcal and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kcal and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density?

Version 1

A) Apple juice ismore nutrient dense for vitamin C than orange juice. B) To get adequate vitamin C while watching calorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice. C) Apple juice provides more vitamin C per calorie than orange juice. D) Orange juice ismore nutrient dense for vitamin C than apple juice.

5) Which of the following would not enhance your overall dietary intake of phytochemicals? A) Replacing plant proteins with animal proteins B) Substituing salsa for cream-based dips C) Incorporating soy-based proteins into your dietary pattern D) Replacing crisp head lettuce with red or dark green loose-leaf lettuce

Which statement best describes the healthful dietary principle of moderation?

A) Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the same old thing. B) Consume a varietyof foods from MyPlate's five major food groups every day. C) Pay attention to portion size and plan your entire day's dietary pattern so that you do not overconsume nutrient sources. D) Consume foods that have the most nutrition for their calories.

Which of the following behaviors exemplifies the concept of dietary moderation?

Version 1

A) Eat only unprocessed plant products. B) Choose several different foods from each food group throughout the day. C) Eat only "good" foods such as fruits and vegetables and avoid the "bad" foods such as steak and ice cream. D) If breakfast was high in fat and sodium, plan to eat something relatively low in fat and sodium for dinner.

8) Which of the following is true about the dietary patterns to promote optimal nutritional status? A) Eat fruits and vegetables because we can get all the nutrients we need from these. B) Do the best we can but take supplements to fill in the deficient areas. C) Eat a wide variety of foods because no single natural food meets all human nutrient needs. D) Eat only plant products because animal products are bad and generally filled with hormones for animal growth.

9) The Dietary Guidelines stresses the importance of adhering to key recommenations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes? A) Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day. B) Limiting intake of monunsaturated fats. C) Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily. D) Aiming to eat at least 5 servings of fruits and vegetables daily.

10)

The Dietary Guidelines emphasize

Version 1

A) reduction of bothtotal calories and physical activity. B) reduction of total calories, sugar-sweetened beverages, saturated fat, and sodium. C) increase in animalprotein and refined grains. D) increase in alltypes of dairy products.

11)

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend which of the following? A) Limit calories from saturated fats and added sugars B) Consume two alcoholic beverages per day C) Eliminate oils and solid fats from the diet D) Decrease vegetable and fruit intake

12) Which of the following statements is consistent with the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? A) Choose a dietary pattern very low in total fat and cholesterol. B) Balance the calories you eat with physical activity. C) Choose a dietary pattern with plenty of animal products, including milk and meats. D) Eat an abundance of saturated fats.

13) According to the Dietary Guidelines, Americans should adjust their dietary patterns to include more A) milk, meat, and beans. B) fruits, vegetables, low-fat milk, and whole grains. C) grains, beans,and solid fats. D) fruit juice, beans, and meat.

Version 1

14) Key dietary recommendations support calories.

limiting intake of ______ to less than 10% of

A) added sugars B) sodium C) animal proteins D) total fat

15) The Dietary Guidelines recommend limiting intake of ______ to less than 10% of calories. A) saturated fatty acids B) trans fatty acids C) essential fatty acids D) total fat

16) According to the Dietary Guidelines, adults should _______ intake of fat-free or lowfat milk and milk products. A) increase B) maintain current C) decrease

17) The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans advise a minimum of minutes per week of moderate-intensity physical activity for adults.

Version 1

to ______

A) 30; 60 B) 60; 150 C) 90; 120 D) 150; 300

18) The visual food grouping guidelines most recently released from the United States government are called A) The Food Guide Pyramid. B) The Basic Four Food Groups. C) MyPyramid. D) MyPlate.

19)

According to MyPlate, eggs belong in the ______ group. A) protein B) dairy C) grain D) vegetable

20)

Two tablespoons (tbsp) of salad dressing or peanut butteris about the size of A) a yoyo. B) a softball. C) a tennis ball. D) 2 dice.

21)

In order to ensure adequate intake of nutrients, choose vegetables

Version 1

A) from all vegetable subgroups. B) from local farms. C) that have no preservatives. D) that are organic.

22)

Which of the following is a major contributor of empty calories in American diets? A) Sugar-sweetened beverages B) Diet soft drinks C) Canned fruits D) Whole grain breakfast cereals

23)

The number of servings to consume from each MyPlate food group depends on a person's A) height, weight, and waist circumference. B) taste preferences. C) age, sex, height, and weight. D) frame size.

24)

Which meal contains foods from all food groups represented in MyPlate?

A) Chef's salad containing ham, lettuce, an egg, cream-based salad dressing, and croutons; bagel; apple; and soft drink B) Steak, baked potato with margarine, broccoli, salad with oil and vinegar dressing, and milk C) Refried beans, onions, tomatoes, and low-fat cheese wrapped in a tortilla; orange; and water D) Pasta, marinara(tomato)sauce with clams, house salad with vegetables, Italian bread withbutter, and wine

Version 1

25)

When it comes to choosing fruit, the Dietary Guidelines recommend A) avoiding fruit if you want to lose weight. B) eating a variety of fruit—fresh, canned, or frozen. C) including plenty of fruit juices for your fruit servings. D) choosing only whole, fresh fruits.

26) Which of the following is not representative of the Dietary Guidelines recommondations for meal planning? A) Selecting low-fat dairy choices over high fat B) Incorporating several servings of plant sources of protein per week C) Consuming whole grain breads and cereals D) Eliminating all fruits to lose weight

27) Margaret, an elderly woman, needs to limit her calorie intake without sacrificing needed nutrients. Keeping MyPlate in mind, which of the following could she do? A) Eliminate carbohydrates B) Carefully select foods rich in nutrients but low in calories C) Count calories and not worry about the food groups D) Eliminate dairy foods

28)

Which of the following is true about the use of MyPlate?

Version 1

A) The guide appliesto infants. B) Milk and meat are essential to good nutrition. C) Variety is the key to the plan. D) The guide doesnot permit use of fats, oils, and sweets.

29) An adult who follows a 2000 kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern should consume ______ ounce-equivalents from the Protein Food group per day. A) 2 to 3 B) 4 C) 5.5 D) 10

30)

According to MyPlate, food choicesfrom the Grain Group should include

A) an equal amount ofwhole grain and refined grain products. B) at least half ofthe grain servings as whole grain cereals, breads, crackers, rice, or pastaevery day. C) only whole grain products. D) a serving of grain products at each meal.

31) An adult who follows a 2000 kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern should consume ______ cups of milk or dairy equivalents per day. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Version 1

32) The Mediterranean Diet Pyramid represents the dietary patterns of people from parts of the Mediterranean region that enjoy A) the lowestrecorded rates of chronic diseases. B) the lowest adultlife expectancy. C) the highest intakeof saturated fat. D) the lowest intakeof carbohydrates.

33) Malnutrition can occur in people old or young, rich or poor. Malnutrition is defined by being A) overnourished. B) undernourished. C) either overnourished or undernourished. D) food insecure.

34) Which term describes failing health that results from a dietary pattern that is chronically inadequate? A) Desirable nutrition B) Food insecurity C) Undernutrition D) Inferior nutrition

35) A state of micronutrient deficiency, when the quality of food one consumes does not meet their nutrient requirements for normal metabolic functions and maintenance is called

Version 1

A) overnourished. B) hidden hunger. C) undernourished. D) food insecurity.

36) Kate consumes 1900 kcal each day. She requires 1750 kcal to meet daily energy needs. Over time, Kate's calorie consumption could lead to A) undernutrition. B) balanced nutrition. C) overnutrition.

37)

Measurements of height, weight, body circumferences, and body fat are called A) sonography. B) electrocardiography. C) radiography. D) anthropometry.

38)

Which of the following is not a key component of a basic nutritional assessment? A) Anthropometrics B) Biochemical tests C) Clinical evaluation D) Psychoanalysis

Version 1

39) Missy visits a doctor because she feels tired most of the time, is easily distracted, and feels chilled. As part of her examination, Missy has blood drawn to be tested for concentrations of nutrients and their by-products. This part of the examination is the A) anthropometric assessment. B) physical examination. C) biochemical evaluation. D) clinicalexamination.

40) Mrs. Mitchell was hospitalized after being found unconscious in her home. A dietitian conducted a nutritional assessment, noting the general appearance of Mrs. Mitchell's skin, eyes, and tongue. Which part of the assessment is this? A) Medicalhistory B) Diet history C) Biochemical evaluation D) Clinical examination

41) Jeff, a world-class triathlete, visits a dietitian to obtain sports nutrition advice. During his visit, Jeff is asked to recall what he ate for the past 24 hours. Which part of a nutritional assessment is this? A) Biochemical evaluation B) Dietaryassessment C) Clinical examination D) Menu planning

42)

The acronym

Version 1

DRI stands for

A) Dietary Required Intake. B) Dietary Reference Intake. C) Daily Required Intake. D) Daily ReferenceIntake.

43) When there is insufficient research to determine the RDA for a nutrient, the ______, based on estimates of intakes that appear to maintain a defined nutritional state in a specific life stage, is the nutrient standard. A) Adequate Intake (AI) B) Daily Value (DV) C) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) D) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) E) Chronic Disease Risk Reduction Intakes (CDRR)

44)

The acronym RDA stands for A) Recommended Dietary Allowance. B) Recommended Daily Allowance. C) Required Dietary Allowance. D) Required Daily Allowance.

45)

The RDAs for nutrients are set A) to cover the needs of ~97% of the population. B) based on the dietary intakes of people who appear to be maintaining nutritional

health. C) by the FDA for food labeling purposes. D) based on a person’s height and weight.

Version 1

46)

The RDAs are considered to be adequate to meet the known nutritional needs of A) all persons except the very young and very old. B) all persons except pregnant and lactating women. C) nearly all healthy persons. D) all persons, diseased and healthy.

47)

The RDAs for nutrients generally are A) the minimum amounts the average adult male requires. B) more than twice the actual requirements. C) designed to prevent deficiency disease in half the population. D) designed to be adequate for almost all healthy people.

48)

Adequate Intakes (AI) A) are established for nutrients for which there is not enough information to set RDAs. B) are established for carbohydrate, total fat, and dietary fiber. C) represent minimum nutrient needs. D) are established for all vitamins and minerals.

49) The RDA for iron is 18 milligrams per day for adult women. Tinausually consumes about 15 milligrams of iron per day. She is a healthy young woman with no condition that significantly increases her needs for iron. Which of the following statements is true about her consumption of this nutrient?

Version 1

A) She is likely tobe deficient in iron. B) She will need to consume significantly more iron, above the RDA, to make up for her intake. C) She would only be at great risk of nutritional deficiency if her intake is consistently below 70% of the RDA. D) She could not possibly be getting enough iron for her needs.

50) Which of the following nutrient standards is referenced on the Nutrition Facts label of a box of breakfast cereal? A) Recommended Dietary Allowance B) Daily Value C) Adequate Intake D) Estimated Safe and Adequate Daily Dietary Intake

51) One serving of breakfast cereal contains 50% of the 18 mg Daily Value for iron. How much iron will one serving of the cereal provide? A) 5 mg B) 9 mg C) 15 mg D) 36 mg

52) Based on the % DV, what is the maximum grams of added sugars per day that one could consume and meet the dietary recommendations? A) 5 grams B) 10 grams C) 25 grams D) 50 grams

Version 1

53)

The term Daily Value on a food label refers to

A) a generic standardset at or close to the highest RDA value or related nutrient standard. B) RDAs. C) minimum requirements. D) AIs.

54)

EER refers to

A) a set of nutrient recommendations that includes RDAs, AIs, and ULs. B) estimated calorie needs for the average person in a specific life stage. C) a person's actual calorie needs, as measured by calorimetry. D) the level of dietary intake of a nutrient that is likely to meet the needs of nearly all healthy individuals in a particular life stage and sex.

55)

In order to makehealthful and logical nutrition decisions, beware of A) testimonials aboutpersonal experience. B) reputablepublication sources. C) registered dietitian nutritionists. D) evidence from a variety of scientific studies.

56) A food label states that a serving of a particular product provides 20% of the Daily Value for fat. This means that

Version 1

A) when you eat a serving of this product, you will be getting one-fifth of the RDA for fat. B) a serving of this product provides about 15.6 grams of fat. C) this product is not a good choice to achieve your nutritional needs. D) fat makes up 20% of the weight of the food product.

57)

Which government agency is responsible for most U.S. food labeling? A) FDA B) USPS C) AND D) NAS

58) To carry the organic label claim on the front of a food package, at least ______% of the ingredients (by weight) must meet the federal guidelines for organic foods. For a product labeled made with organic ingredients, only ______% of ingredients must be organic. A) 100; 75 B) 90; 51 C) 80; 60 D) 95; 70

59)

Added sugars

A) are no longer limited in the Dietary Guidelines. B) are not included on the new food label. C) should be limited to less than 10% of total calories per day. D) must include all sugars and artificial sweeteners that are added during food processing or cooking on the Added Sugars declaration of Nutrition Facts labels.

Version 1

60)

RDAs are not used in food labeling because A) they are age- and sex-specific. B) they are too generic. C) there are too many of them. D) their values are set too high.

61) To be labeled a good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain ______% to ______% of the Daily Value for that nutrient. A) 5; 10 B) 10; 19 C) 20; 40 D) 50; 100

62)

By law, which of the following food items must display a Nutrition Facts label? A) Box of granola bars B) Navel oranges C) Fresh catfish fillet D) Fresh spinach

63)

Which of the following is required on the Nutrition Facts label? A) The amount per serving of all vitamins and minerals for which there is an RDA B) The serving size C) Total calories from vitamin D per serving D) Percent DV for protein

Version 1

64) Looking at the ingredients list on a jar of spaghetti sauce, you see that olive oil is the second ingredient. This means that olive oil is A) the second ingredient by alphabetical listing. B) just one of theingredients present in the sauce. C) the second most abundant ingredient by weight. D) the second most abundant ingredient by volume.

65) A food item has 200 kcal per serving and 25 grams of carbohydrate. What percent of the caloriesare from carbohydrate in this item? A) 100% B) 40% C) 25% D) 50%

66) To calculate the number of calories from fat in one serving, multiply grams of fat by ______ kcal/g.

A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 2

67) The food label of your beverage liststhe serving size as ½ bottle and the calories per serving as 100 kcal. If youdrank the entire bottle, you consumed ______ kcal.

Version 1

A) 200 B) 75 C) 300 D) 150

68) The Nutrition Facts label on a box ofbreakfast cereal shows that the product provides 10% of the Daily Value for Vitamin D. Which of the following statements is true? A) One serving of cereal provides 10% of the recommended amount of Vitamin D for the general population. B) One package of cereal provides 10% of the recommended amount of Vitamin D for the general population. C) One serving of cereal provides 10% of the Recommended Dietary Allowance for Vitamin D for adults. D) One serving of cerealprovides 10% of total calories from Vitamin D.

69)

Which government agency is responsible for regulating most U.S. food labeling? A) Food and Drug Administration B) U.S. Department of Agriculture C) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms D) Center for Science in the Public Interest

70) Recent data suggests that it is more important to focus on whole foods and eating patterns rather than individual nutrients or phytochemicals to successfully reduce chronic disease risk. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

71) The results of an observational study show that women who regularly take multivitamins tend to have healthier body weight. Taking multivitamins causes weight loss. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72)

The percent Daily Value on a food label are based on a 2300 kcal dietary pattern. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_6e 1) A 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 3 1) Which of the following is stored within the nucleus of the cell and acts as a code book for synthesizing specific proteins? A) RNA B) Ribosomes C) Amino acids D) DNA

The organelles that are known as the power plantsor the powerhousesof the cell are the A) mitochondria. B) lysosomes. C) ribosomes. D) nuclei.

3) The constant turnover of body tissues requires the ______ supplied by carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. A) chemical energy B) structuralcomponents C) vitamins D) hormones

4) Which of the following nutrients must be supplied by the foods we eat to support the chemical processes of human physiology?

Version 1

A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Vitamins and minerals D) All of these

To which body part does blood travel to pick up oxygen and release carbon dioxide? A) Heart B) Lungs C) Liver D) Kidneys

6) Which large blood vessel transports nutrients from the small intestine directly to the liver? A) Hepatic portal vein B) Mesenteric vein C) Subclavian vein D) Renal vein

Immediately after digestion in the small intestine, most dietary fats are absorbed into the A) lymph. B) bile. C) urine. D) blood.

Which of the following is a feature of the lymphatic system?

Version 1

A) It removes waste materials from the blood and produces urine. B) It picks up and transports dietary lipids. C) It serves to transport water-soluble vitamins to the heart. D) It carries water-soluble nutrients directly to the liver.

Which of the following is true about the lymphatic system? A) It transports waste products from the blood to the kidneys. B) It transports deoxygenated blood to the lungs. C) It helps to maintain the acid-base balance of the blood. D) It is important for transporting fat-soluble nutrients.

10)

Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? A) Production of bile B) Excretion of excess water-soluble vitamins C) Digestion of carbohydrates D) Transport of oxygen to tissues

11)

Which body system filters wastes from the blood and helps to regulate fluid balance? A) Urinary system B) Endocrine system C) Integumentary system D) Respiratory system

12)

Which organ of the urinary system produces urine?

Version 1

A) Kidney B) Ureter C) Urethra D) Urinary bladder

13)

Transmission of nerve impulses relies on the concentrations of ______ in theneuron. A) sodium andpotassium B) vitamin D C) cholesterol D) B vitamins

14)

A chemical that allows for communication between one cell and anotheris a A) neurotransmitter. B) neuron. C) nephron. D) synapse.

15) The _____ system is made up of several glands that act in the regulation of metabolism, reproduction, water balance, and many other functions. A) urinary B) cardiovascular C) endocrine D) lymphatic

16)

Which hormone functions in the regulation of the body's metabolic rate?

Version 1

A) Thyroid hormone B) Insulin C) Vitamin D D) Glucagon

17) The ______ system is assisted by the lymphatic system and the physical barriers of the skin and gastrointestinal tract. A) immune B) skeletal C) respiratory D) nervous

18)

The physical barriers of the skin and GI tract support the ______ immune response. A) nonspecific (innate) B) specific (adaptive)

19) The processes by which certain white blood cells identify and destroy pathogens are part of the ______ immune response. A) specific (adaptive) B) nonspecific (innate)

20)

What structure prevents food from entering the trachea when you swallow?

Version 1

A) Epiglottis B) Tongue C) Tonsils D) Esophagus

21)

Nutrient-rich blood leaving the intestine goes by way of a blood vessel directly to the A) kidneys. B) heart. C) liver. D) pancreas.

22)

Where does digestion begin? A) Mouth B) Stomach C) Esophagus D) Small intestine

23)

The taste for fat is known as A) oleogustus. B) umami. C) lipase. D) butyric acid.

24)

The epiglottis

Version 1

A) covers the opening of the stomach. B) prevents food from entering the windpipe during swallowing. C) regulates the movement of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine. D) transports a bolus of food from the mouth to the stomach.

25)

What is one function of the lower esophageal sphincter? A) Prevents intestinal contents from backing up into the stomach B) Prevents esophageal contents from emptying too quickly into the stomach C) Prevents stomach contents from backing up into the esophagus D) Prevents intestinal contents from emptying too quickly into the colon

26)

Most chemical digestion takes place in the A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) pancreas. D) large intestine.

27)

The stomach empties into the small intestine through the A) pyloric sphincter. B) lower esophageal sphincter. C) sphincter of Oddi. D) ileocecal sphincter.

28)

What is one function of the pyloric sphincter?

Version 1

A) Controls the release of pancreatic secretions into the small intestine B) Prevents stomach contents from backing up into the esophagus C) Controls the passage of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine D) Prevents the backward movement of feces from the large intestine into the small intestine

29)

What sphincter separates the small intestine from the large intestine? A) Pyloric B) Esophageal C) Anal D) Ileocecal

30) The ringlike muscles that prevent the backflow of partially digested food within the gastrointestinal tract are called A) sphincters. B) passages. C) channels. D) gates.

31)

Which of the following is a description of chyme?

A) A watery mixture of partially digested food released by the stomach into the intestines B) A semisolid mass of undigested food that moves down the esophagus C) The mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion D) A thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices

Version 1

32)

Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles? A) Breaks apart food particles B) Controls passage of food through the GI tract C) Controls peristalsis D) Produces enzymes and hormones

33) What substance helps suspend fat in a watery digestive mixture, making fat more available to digestive enzymes? A) Bicarbonate B) Mucus C) Bile D) Pancreatic juices

34)

Where are most digestive enzymes produced? A) Pancreas and small intestine B) Liver and large intestine C) Pancreas and large intestine D) Liver and pancreas

35) Most dietary ______ are too large to be absorbed directly into the capillaries from the small intestine; they must be absorbed into the lacteals. A) minerals B) fats C) carbohydrates D) proteins

Version 1

36)

Which of the followingorgans produces bile? A) Stomach B) Salivary glands C) Pancreas D) Liver

37)

Peristalsis refers to A) chewing and swallowing. B) the opening and closing of sphincters. C) the action of bile on dietary fat. D) muscular movement of materials through the GI tract.

38)

The muscular contractions that move food through the digestive tract are called A) regurgitation. B) peristalsis. C) propulsion. D) compression.

39) The digestive system consists of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and accessory organs. Which of the following organs is part of the GI tract? A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Colon D) Gallbladder

Version 1

40) ______ are protein-based substances that enhance digestion by making chemical reactions more likely to happen. A) Neurotransmitters B) Emulsifiers C) Enzymes D) Hormones

41)

Which of the following is true about digestive enzymes?

A) An enzyme can only be used one time. B) Most enzymes are produced by the liver. C) Enzymes that work in the acidic environment of the stomach cannot work in the basic or alkaline environment of the small intestine and vice versa. D) Enzymes typically work independently of vitamins or minerals.

42)

Which pH best describes the environment of the stomach when stimulated? A) Neutral B) Acidic C) Basic

43)

The stomach cells produce A) mucus. B) hydrochloric acid. C) enzymes. D) all of these.

Version 1

44)

The function of the intrinsic factor is to A) facilitate absorption of vitamin B-12. B) solubilize minerals in the chyme. C) emulsify fats in the small intestine. D) lubricate the passage of food through the GI tract.

45)

The intrinsic factor is produced by cells in the A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) liver. D) pancreas.

46)

The function of thick mucus in the stomach is to A) promote fat digestion. B) activate stomach enzymes. C) protect stomach cells from acid and enzymes. D) destroy pathogens in food.

47) When chyme enters the small intestine, ______ is released from the pancreas to neutralize hydrochloric acid.

Version 1

A) bicarbonate B) trypsin C) bile D) mucus

48)

Partially digested food that enters the small intestine from the stomach is called A) a bolus. B) feces. C) chyme. D) bile.

49) Which of the following substances is primarily involved in the emulsification of fat to facilitate its digestion? A) Bicarbonate B) Pancreatic juices C) Hydrochloric acid D) Bile

50)

Which of the following is true regarding bile? A) It is an enzyme B) It stimulates the release of pancreatic juices C) It is produced by the liver D) It is a hormone

51)

The function of the gallbladder is to

Version 1

A) store bile. B) store digestive enzymes. C) produce mucus. D) produce bicarbonate.

52)

During digestion, the gallbladder and pancreas empty their contents into the A) duodenum. B) jejunum. C) ileum. D) cecum.

53) Which of the following is both an endocrine (secretes hormones into the blood) and exocrine (secretes substances through a duct into the GI tract) organ? A) Pancreas B) Gallbladder C) Small intestine D) Large intestine

54)

The most active area for the absorption of nutrients into the blood or lymph is the A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) large intestine. D) liver.

55)

The villi of the small intestine

Version 1

A) provide an enormous surface area that facilitates absorption. B) store fat-soluble vitamins. C) continuously push food through the small intestine to the colon. D) inactivate enzymes consumed with food.

56)

Colon is another name for the A) large intestine. B) small intestine. C) gallbladder. D) spleen.

57)

In passive diffusion, nutrients enter the cell A) with a carrier. B) with the expenditure of energy. C) from an area of higher solute concentration to one of lower concentration. D) from an area of lower solute concentration to one of higher concentration.

58)

A major function of the large intestine is to absorb A) fats. B) water-soluble vitamins. C) water. D) dietary fiber.

59) The walls of the small intestine are folded, and within the folds are fingerlike projections called

Version 1

A) villi. B) cilia. C) dendrites. D) rugae.

60) Which absorptive process in the small intestine requires a carrier and energy to transport nutrients into absorptive cells? A) Active absorption B) Passive diffusion C) Facilitated diffusion D) Phagocytosis

61) When a nutrient moves freely across the cell membrane from an area of higher nutrient concentration into an absorptive cell where the concentration of that nutrient is lower, this is called A) active absorption. B) passive diffusion. C) facilitated diffusion. D) phagocytosis.

62) When a nutrient moves, with the help of a carrier, from an area of higher nutrient concentration into an absorptive cell where the concentration of that nutrientis lower, this is called A) active absorption. B) passive diffusion. C) facilitated diffusion. D) phagocytosis.

Version 1

63)

The word colon refers to the A) large intestine. B) small intestine. C) anus. D) esophagus.

64)

Water, dietary fiber, bacterial cells, and worn-out intestinal cells are components of A) feces. B) bile. C) urine. D) lymph.

65)

Which of the following organs serves as a storage depot formany vitamins and minerals? A) Liver B) Brain C) Kidney D) Stomach

66)

Glucose can be stored as glycogen in the A) liver and kidneys. B) liver and muscles. C) heart and kidneys. D) blood and lymph.

Version 1

67)

Excessive acid production in the stomach could result in A) poor iron, calcium, and folate absorption. B) small intestinal bacterial overgrowth. C) formation of an ulcer. D) decreased fiber digestion and absorption.

68)

A recurrent and serious form of heartburn is called A) gastroesophageal reflux disease. B) pernicious anemia. C) eosinophilicesophagitis. D) atrophic gastritis.

69)

Which of the following therapies is appropriate for treatment of occasional heartburn? A) Aspirin B) Antacids C) Orange juice D) Milk and cream

70)

Heartburn is caused by A) an esophageal tear near the heart. B) thebackflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus. C) consuming spicy and acidic foods. D) the backflow of intestinal contents into the stomach.

Version 1

71)

When should you seek medical attention for digestive problems? A) When over-the-counter medications cannot control the symptoms B) If there is evidence of blood in the stool or vomit C) If the problem results in unintended weight loss D) All of these are reasons to seek medical treatment.

72)

A safe and effective way to prevent constipation is to A) consume adequate dietary fiber. B) restrict fluid intake. C) restrict physical exercise. D) use laxatives.

73)

Which of the following is an important dietary recommendation for avoiding heartburn? A) Eat smaller meals that are lower in fat. B) Consume milk or cream with meals. C) Eat meals low in carbohydrate. D) Avoid fluids.

74)

Most stomach ulcers are caused by ______ infection. A) Salmonella B) Helicobacter pylori C) E. coli D) Clostridium botulinum

Version 1

75) Excessive use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, such as aspirin) could lead to A) an ulcer. B) gallstones. C) small intestinal bacterial overgrowth. D) hemorrhoids.

76) ions.

A(n) ______ is a medication that inhibits the ability of gastric cells to secrete hydrogen

A) proton pump inhibitor B) NSAID C) antacid D) antibiotic

77) A condition characterized by abdominal pain and bloating, diarrhea, and/or constipation is known as A) irritable bowel syndrome. B) peptic ulcers. C) gastroesophageal reflux disease. D) gallstones.

78) Dietary avoidance of poorly digested carbohydrates known as fermentable oligosaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides, and polyols (FODMAPs) may be a useful therapy for

Version 1

A) irritable bowel syndrome. B) heartburn. C) gallstones. D) inflammatory bowel disease.

79) An autoimmune condition that results in damage to the small intestine upon exposure to gluten-containing foods is called A) celiac disease. B) nonceliac wheat sensitivity. C) irritable bowel syndrome. D) traveler's diarrhea.

80)

The only proven treatment for celiac disease is dietary avoidance of A) wheat, barley, and rye. B) wheat, rice, and oats. C) gas-forming foods. D) spicy and acidic foods.

81) The esophagus serves only to transport food from the mouth to the somach; no digestion or absorption occur in the esophagus. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_6e 1) D 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) B 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) A 80) A 81) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 4 1)

The red blood cells and brain are two body tissues that derive most of their energy from A) fat. B) protein. C) carbohydrate. D) iron.

The major storage sites for glycogen are the

A) muscles and liver. B) kidney and muscles. C) liver and kidney. D) liver and pancreas.

Glycogen is A) a highly branched polysaccharide. B) stored in the absence of dietary carbohydrate. C) a straight chain of glucoses linked together. D) a hormone for blood glucose regulation.

Glucose is also known as A) levulose. B) ribose. C) maltose. D) dextrose.

Version 1

5) The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the sun's heat and light is called A) biosynthesis. B) anabolism. C) photosynthesis. D) glycogenesis.

The term simple carbohydratesrefers to A) starch. B) monosaccharides and disaccharides. C) fiber. D) polysaccharides.

_______ is the major monosaccharide found in the body. A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Lactose D) Sucrose

The monosaccharides important in nutrition are fructose, glucose, and A) lactose. B) sucrose. C) galactose. D) maltose.

Version 1

Which of the following combinations of monosaccharides is true? A) Glucose and glucose form sucrose. B) Glucose and fructose form lactose. C) Glucose and galactose form lactose. D) Glucose and galactose form maltose.

10)

The monosaccharides important in nutrition are A) glucose, fructose, and lactose. B) fructose, glucose, and galactose. C) fructose, glucose, and maltose. D) sucrose, fructose, and glucose.

11)

The scientific name for milk sugar is A) maltose. B) glucose. C) mannose. D) lactose.

12)

A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of A) two monosaccharides. B) two polysaccharides. C) one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide. D) two oligosaccharides.

Version 1

13)

The disaccharides important in nutrition are sucrose, maltose, and A) lactose. B) fructose. C) dextrose. D) galactose.

14)

Which of the following is a disaccharide? A) Galactose B) Fructose C) Lactose D) Glucose

15)

Amylose is A) a long, straight glucose chain. B) branched glucose chains. C) a long, straight fatty acid chain. D) branched amino acid chains.

16)

The two forms of starch found in food are A) amylose and amylopectin. B) maltose and mannose. C) glycogen and glucagon. D) soluble and insoluble.

17)

Dietary fibers primarily are

Version 1

A) polysaccharides. B) polypeptides. C) disaccharides. D) monosaccharides.

18)

Which of the following is incorrect about dietary fibers? A) They are mostly polysaccharides. B) The bonds between the sugar units cannot be broken by human digestive enzymes. C) They cannot be absorbed by the small intestine. D) They are absorbed in the large intestine.

19)

Which of the following is categorized as soluble fiber? A) Pectin B) Cellulose C) Hemicellulose D) Lignin

20)

Soluble fibers A) increase stool size significantly. B) are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria. C) cannot dissolve in water. D) helpto lower blood cholesterol.

21)

Fiber added to foodsthat has been shown to provide healthbenefits is called

Version 1

A) phytofiber. B) functional fiber. C) dietary fiber. D) amylopectin.

22) Selectively fermentedingredients that result in specific changesin the composition or activity ofthe gastrointestinal microbiota and conferbenefits upon the host are called A) probiotics. B) FODMAPs. C) prebiotics. D) gluten.

23)

The natural alternative sweetener derived from a South American plant is called A) aspartame (Equal®). B) saccharin (Sweet-n-Low®). C) sucralose (Splenda®). D) stevia (Sweet Leaf®, Truvia®).

24) Food manufacturers prefer to use ______ as a sweetener because it is easy to transport, has good shelf-stability, is low cost, and improves food properties. A) table sugar B) high-fructose corn syrup C) sucralose (Splenda®) D) honey

Version 1

25)

Sucralose (Splenda®) is made by adding A) lactose to sucrose. B) chlorines to sucrose. C) sucrose to galactose. D) sucrose to glucose.

26)

Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid A) stevia. B) aspartame. C) high fructose corn syrup. D) saccharin.

27)

Which section of MyPlate is the least significant source of carbohydrate? A) Grains B) Vegetables C) Fruits D) Protein E) Dairy

28)

Which of the following breakfast options is the highest in carbohydrate?

A) Grapefruit half, 2 fried eggs, 3 bacon slices, 1 slice of toast with butter, coffee B) English muffin with jelly, 8 ounces orange juice, 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar, 1 cup whole milk C) Coffee, 8 ounces orange juice, 1/2 cup fresh blueberries, 8 ounces nonfat yogurt D) 1 cup whole milk, 2 ounces sausage, 2 fried eggs, 1 slice of toast with butter

Version 1

29)

Which of the following has the most starch? A) 1 medium orange B) 1 cup of kidney beans C) 8 fluid ounces of milk D) 4 ounces of meat

30)

The Dietary Guidelines recommend consuming ______ servings of whole grainsper day. A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 4 to 6 D) 6 to 11

31)

Which of the following foods is the best source of insoluble fiber? A) Kidney beans B) English muffins made with enriched flour C) Broccoli D) Corn flake-type cereal

32)

Which of the following foods is the best source of soluble fiber? A) Broccoli B) Kidney beans C) Whole wheat bread D) Sunflower seeds

33)

The food components that yield the highest percentage of calories from carbohydrates are

Version 1

A) corn flake-type cereal, rice, bread, and noodles. B) peas, broccoli, oatmeal, dry beans and other legumes. C) cream pies, French fries, and fat-free milk. D) table sugar, honey, jam, jelly, and fruit.

34)

Which of the following is a major source of lactose? A) Milk B) Broccoli C) Apples D) Honey

35)

Major fructose sources include A) milk and cheese. B) fruits and sweetened beverages. C) fruits and vegetables. D) nuts and seeds.

36)

Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose? A) Alcohol B) Fruits C) Grains D) Sugar cane

37) Polysaccharides that cannot be digested by human digestive enzymes, and therefore cannot be absorbed, are called

Version 1

A) amylose. B) fiber. C) glycogen. D) starch.

38) ______ is a condition in which one lacks the enzyme lactase. Symptoms include gas and bloating after consuming dairy products. A) Milk allergy B) Celiac disease C) Lactose intolerance D) Galactosemia

39)

After absorption, galactose is converted to ________ in the liver. A) glucose B) fructose C) glycogen D) lactose

40)

______are pouches that protrude through the exterior wall of the large intestine. A) Ulcers B) Diverticula C) Colonostomies D) Hernias

41)

Dietary fiber may play a key role in the prevention of which type of cancer?

Version 1

A) Colon B) Liver C) Pancreatic D) Stomach

42)

Starch consists of hundreds and perhaps thousands of which molecule? A) Fructose B) Glycerol C) Glucose D) Galactose

43) Which of the following willmost likely cause symptoms in a person with lactose intolerance? A) Small servings of milk products B) Hard cheeses C) Yogurt containing active cultures D) Milk shakes made with skim milk

44)

The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are A) gas, abdominal pain, and bloating. B) a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose. C) a headache and chest pain. D) nausea and vomiting.

45)

Lactose intolerance is caused by

Version 1

A) a milk allergy. B) lactase deficiency. C) milk bacteria. D) intestinal bacteria.

46)

Immediately after sugars are absorbed into the blood, they travel to the A) kidney. B) heart. C) liver. D) pancreas.

47)

Which of the following is incorrect concerning carbohydrate absorption? A) Monosaccharides can enter the villi. B) End products of carbohydrate digestion are transported through the portal vein to the

liver. C) Maltose is transported through the portal vein to the liver. D) Disaccharides are digested to monosaccharides by enzymes that are attached to intestinal cells.

48)

Glucose is absorbed via ______ absorption. A) passive B) facilitated C) active D) participatory

49)

Amylase is

Version 1

A) an indigestible fiber. B) a branched chain of glucose units. C) an enzyme that digests starch. D) a straight chain of glucose units.

50)

Which of the following describes the process of starch digestion? A) Starch to lactose to galactose B) Starch to maltose to glucose C) Starch to glycogen to glucose D) Starch to sucrose to fructose

51)

What is the fate of disaccharides not digested in the small intestine? A) They pass into the colon and are absorbed. B) They pass into the colon and are fermented by bacteria. C) They are absorbed and converted to glycogen. D) They are absorbed and converted to fat.

52)

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) stomach with gastric lipase. B) stomach with peptic amylase. C) mouth with salivary amylase. D) small intestine with pancreatic amylase.

53)

What enzyme is responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine?

Version 1

A) Salivary amylase B) Bicarbonate C) Pancreatic proteases D) Pancreatic amylase

54)

Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion? A) Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking, which softens tough skins. B) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach. C) In the small intestine, amylase breaks down fiber to glucose. D) Bile is necessary for carbohydrate digestion.

55)

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) mouth. B) stomach. C) small intestine. D) pancreas.

56) When too little dietary carbohydrate is available to meet energy needs, ______ arise as byproducts of partial fat metabolism. A) fatty acids B) ketones C) monosaccharides D) polysaccharides

57)

For which of the following is glucose most critical as an energy source?

Version 1

A) Muscles B) Brain C) Liver D) Heart

58) Which of the following hormones is released during stressful times to increase blood glucose levels, making more energy available for use? A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Glycogen D) Progesterone

59)

Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state? A) Insulin B) Testosterone C) Estrogen D) Glucagon

60)

Which hormone corrects a hyperglycemic state? A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Cortisol D) Glucagon

61)

When insulin is released, it causes

Version 1

A) the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood. B) muscle and fat cells to take up glucose from the blood. C) fat breakdown and release from fat tissue. D) the liver to make glycogen from protein.

62)

The glycemic index (GI) is a measurement of how a carbohydrate-containing food raises A) blood glucose. B) liver glycogen. C) insulin released from the pancreas. D) glycogen stored in muscle.

63)

Adequate intakes of ______ may play a role in the prevention of colon cancer. A) dietary fiber B) saccharin C) high fructose corn syrup D) starch

64)

The main function of glucose is to A) serve as raw material to build tissue. B) work with enzymes to carry out chemical reactions. C) repair tissue. D) supply energy.

65) When blood glucose levels drop below normal, hormones signal the breakdown of ______, which releases glucose into the blood.

Version 1

A) stored fat B) liver glycogen C) amino acids from muscle D) ketones

66) The hormone _______ is released from the pancreas when blood glucose is elevated above a normal range. A) glucagon B) insulin C) thyroxine D) glycogen

67)

The main function of glucose is to supply _______ for the body. A) energy B) vitamins C) structure D) hormones

68)

Examples of refined grain products include A) white potatoes and popcorn. B) white flour, degermed cornmeal, white bread, and white rice. C) bread flour, grits, white rice, and buckwheat.

69)

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend limiting intake of

Version 1

A) added sugars. B) gluten. C) dietary fiber. D) carbohydrates.

70) What is the minimum number of grams of carbohydrate, per day, humans mustconsume to avoid ketosis? A) 75 B) 100 C) 130 D) 250

71)

When eating a high-fiber dietary pattern, one should ______ fluid intake.

A) decrease B) increase C) not change

72) John Fibernugget wants to increase his fiber intake. Which of the following would be the safest way for him do this?

A) Eating enriched grains such as Rice Krispies® and saltines B) Buying bran and fiber supplements to add to his current dietary pattern C) Reading the labels of grain products and buying those labeled wheat flour D) Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels

Version 1

73) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult man who consumes about 2700 kcal per day is A) 10 grams per day. B) 18 grams per day. C) 25 grams per day. D) 38 grams per day.

74) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult woman who consumes about 1800 kcal per day is A) 10 grams per day. B) 18 grams per day. C) 25 grams per day. D) 38 grams per day.

75) The Food and Nutrition Board recommends that Americans consume ______ of their total calories from carbohydrates. A) 10% to 25% B) 25% to 45% C) 45% to 65% D) 65% to 75%

76) The Dietary Guidelines recommend limiting added sugars intake to less than ______ of total calories. A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

Version 1

77)

Excessive sugar intake is related to development of dental caries because A) oral bacteria produce acids that dissolve tooth enamel when they metabolize sugars. B) sugar leaches calcium and phosphorus out of teeth. C) salivary amylase dissolves tooth enamel during carbohydrate digestion. D) sugars make the saliva more alkaline, causing damage to tooth enamel.

78)

Which of the following is a true statement about the effects of sugar?

A) Prolonged exposure of the teeth to simple sugars from snacks and drinks promotes dental caries. B) A high-sugar diet causes hyperactivity among children. C) A high sugar intake is not problematic as long as the overall diet is low in fat. D) Natural sources of sugar, like honey, are lower in calories than their processed counterparts, such as high fructose corn syrup.

79) A measure of boththe quality (GI value) and quantity (gramsper serving) of a carbohydrate in a meal is called A) glycemic index. B) glycemic load. C) glycated hemoglobin. D) insulin index.

80) The ______ was a landmark, multisite study designed to improve glucose control and prevent the onset of diabetes. Most impressive is that individuals that followed a healthy dietary and physical activity pattern had better glucose control than individuals treated by medication.

Version 1

A) Behavioral Management Trial (BMT) B) Glucose Control Trial (GCT) C) Prediabetes Pilot Program (PPP) D) Diabetes Prevention Program (DPP)

81)

The symptoms of diabetes may occur suddenly and may include A) extreme thirst and excessive urination. B) chronic insomnia. C) sudden weight gain. D) decrease in appetite.

82)

Which of the following describes type 1 diabetes mellitus? A) Arises most commonly in adulthood B) Caused by insensitivity of fat and muscle cells to insulin C) Often associated with obesity D) Caused by lack of insulin production

83)

Which of the following describes type 2 diabetes mellitus? A) Most often diagnosed during childhood B) Associated with a tendency to develop ketosis C) Sometimes caused by viral infection D) Strongly associated with obesity

84)

The primary goal of dietary management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to

Version 1

A) achieve a healthy body weight. B) eat regular meals. C) maintain a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day. D) avoid sugar.

85)

Medical conditions related to metabolic syndrome are A) type 1 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and cancer. B) type 1 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and stroke. C) type 2 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and stroke. D) type 2 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and cancer.

86)

Which of the following is not included as one of themetabolic syndrome risk indicators? A) High blood pressure B) High HDL cholesterol C) High glucose D) High triglycerides

87) Research suggests that dietary fiber is an important substrate for the gut microbiota; therefore, dietary fiber alterations may have an immediate and direct impact on gut microbes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) FODMAPs (fermentable oligo-, di-, and monosaccharides and polyols) may increase gastrointestinal distress for individuals diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Under the supervision of a primary care physician or registered dietitiannutritionist, a low-FODMAP diet may be recommended to alleviate symptoms associated with poor glycemic control.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_6e 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) B Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) A 82) D 83) D 84) A 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) TRUE 88) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 5 1) As a class of nutrients, what is the main characteristic that all forms of lipids have in common? A) They do not dissolve readily in water. B) They yield 9 kcal per gram. C) They have a multi-ring structure. D) They can be synthesized from essential fatty acids.

2) A______ is the simplest form of lipid; it is a carbon chain, flanked by hydrogens, with an acid group at one end and a methyl group at the other end. A) sterol B) fatty acid C) glycerol D) triglyceride

A(n) _______ is made up of a glycerol backbone attached tothree fatty acids. A) lipoprotein B) chylomicron C) eicosanoid D) triglyceride

4) A(n) ______ fatty acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid that has a double bond at the third carbon from the methyl end.

Version 1

A) saturated B) omega-3 C) omega-6 D) tri-methyl

Most lipids are composed of A) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. B) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. C) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and phosphorus. D) calcium, phosphorus, and oxygen.

Sterols are similar to triglycerides in which of the following ways? A) They have multiple rings in their structures. B) They contain glycerol. C) They contain three fatty acids. D) They do not dissolve in water.

Lecithin is a(n) A) phospholipid. B) fatty acid. C) sterol. D) eicosanoid.

Phospholipids differ from triglycerides in which of the following ways?

Version 1

A) Instead of three fatty acids, phospholipids have two fatty acids and one phosphatecontaining compound attached to a glycerol backbone. B) Phospholipids do not contain glycerol. C) Phospholipids do not contain fatty acids. D) Instead of three fatty acids, phospholipids have one fatty acid and two phosphatecontaining compounds attached to a glycerol backbone.

A monounsaturated fatty acid contains A) no double bonds. B) one double bond. C) 2 to 12 double bonds. D) 14 to 24 double bonds.

10)

In which form are most dietary lipids found? A) Sterols B) Phospholipids C) Triglycerides D) Monoglycerides

11)

A ______ fatty acid has one double bond. A) saturated B) hydrogenated C) monounsaturated D) polyunsaturated

Version 1

12)

A saturated fatty acid contains A) no double bonds. B) one double bond. C) 2 to 12 double bonds. D) 14 to 24 double bonds.

13)

Triglycerides are composed of A) glycogen and fatty acids. B) fatty acids and glycerol. C) lactic acid and glycogen. D) glucose and fatty acids.

14)

The three-carbon structure that forms the "backbone" of a triglyceride is called A) glycerol. B) glucose. C) lipoprotein. D) sterol.

15)

A diglyceride consists of A) twoglycerols and one fatty acid. B) two glucoses and one fatty acid. C) one glucose and two fatty acids. D) one glycerol and two fatty acids.

Version 1

16) If a fat contains mostly saturated fatty acids, it is likely to be _______ at room temperature. A) liquid B) solid

17)

______ is an essential omega-3 fatty acid. A) Linoleic acid (LA) B) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) C) Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) D) Docasahexaenoic acid (DHA)

18)

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? A) Oleic acid B) Linoleic acid C) Palmitic acid D) Stearic acid

19)

An omega-9 fatty acid has its first double bond starting at the ninth carbon from the A) acid group. B) alpha end. C) glycerol. D) methyl end.

Version 1

20)

In human cells, which of the following fatty acids can be made from linoleic acid? A) Arachidonic acid B) Oleic acid C) Palmitic acid D) Alpha-linolenic acid

21)

Olive and canola oils contain mostly ______ fatty acids. A) omega-3 B) saturated C) monounsaturated D) polyunsaturated

22) The process of _______ changes the double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids into single bonds, giving the fat a more solid consistency. A) emulsification B) elongation C) saponification D) hydrogenation

23) A meal from a fast food restaurant provides a total of 1,200 kilocalories(kcal), with 13 grams of saturated fat, 10 grams of monounsaturated fat, and 27 grams of polyunsaturated fat. This meal provides ______% of total kcal as fat.

Version 1

A) 16.7 B) 30 C) 37.5 D) 50

24)

Which of the following oils contains the most polyunsaturated fatty acids? A) Canola oil B) Olive oil C) Palm oil D) Safflower oil

25)

Which of the following is a food source of cholesterol? A) Safflower oil B) Avocados C) Peanuts D) Butter

26)

Gram for gram, which of the following contains the most cholesterol? A) Liver B) Shrimp C) Lard D) Ice cream

27)

What is olestra (Olean

Version 1

A) A cholesterol-lowering plant sterol B) A cholesterol-lowering medication C) A fat replacer used in food manufacturing D) An emulsifier used in food manufacturing

28)

Hydrogenation produces ______ in food products. A) high-density lipoproteins B) cholesterol C) low-density lipoproteins D) trans fatty acids

29) Due to negative effects on blood lipids, partially hydrogenated oils, the main source of ______, have been banned from the food supply. A) trans fats B) cholesterol C) saturated fats D) phospholipids

30)

Which of the following foods is cholesterol free? A) Corn oil B) Cheddar cheese C) Sirloin steak D) Butter

Version 1

31)

Which of the following is the highest source of polyunsaturated fatty acids? A) Beef B) Butter C) Olive oil D) Soybean oil

32)

Which of the following is the richestsource of saturatedfatty acids? A) Corn oil B) Soybean oil C) Coconut oil D) Safflower oil

33)

Butter contains mostly ______ fatty acids. A) saturated B) trans C) monounsaturated D) polyunsaturated

34)

Which of the following foods is cholesterol free? A) Butter B) Whole milk C) Turkey (light meat) D) Peanut butter

Version 1

35)

Olive oil contains mostly ______ fatty acids. A) saturated B) monounsaturated C) polyunsaturated D) trans

36)

Triglycerides in food are said to have satiety value primarily because they A) are high in calories. B) are readily stored in adipose tissue. C) provide bulk in foods. D) require bile to be digested.

37)

"Hidden" fat refers to A) butter spread on a piece of toast. B) fat incorporated into crackers and other grain products. C) fat around the edges of meats. D) mayonnaise in potato salad.

38)

Hydrogenation changes a fat A) from a liquid to a solid. B) from a solid to a liquid.

Version 1

39)

Which of the following contains the greatest percentage of calories from fat? A) T-Bone steak B) Olive oil C) Whole milk D) M&M candies

40)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

If Jacob eats a bowl of 18 chips, how many grams of fat will he consume?

Version 1

A) 10 grams B) 5 grams C) 6 grams D) 40 grams

41)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

Fat provides ______% of the total calories in pita chips.

Version 1

A) 35 B) 3 C) 15 D) 6

42)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

Saturated fat provides ______% of total calories in pita chips.

Version 1

A) 3.5 B) 24 C) 35 D) <1

43)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

One serving of pita chips provides______% of the Daily Value for fat.

Version 1

A) 6 B) 4 C) 10 D) <1

44)

Which of the following is a rich source of omega-3 fatty acids? A) Broccoli B) Sirloin steak C) Salmon D) Chicken breast

45)

Fatty fish, such as salmon, are rich sources of which omega-3 fatty acid? A) Arachidonic acid(AA) B) Eicosapentaenoicacid (EPA) C) Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) D) Conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)

46) Unsaturated fatty acids are susceptible to damage by exposure to light, oxygen, or heat. This breakdown of fatty acids may cause disagreeable flavors and odors in food products. A fatty acid that has been damaged in this way is A) rancid. B) hydrogenated. C) emulsified. D) desaturated.

Version 1

47)

One of the richest plant sources of omega-3 fatty acids is A) cranberries. B) walnuts. C) tomatoes. D) peanut butter.

48) Consumption of fatty fish at least twice a week is recommended to provide omega-3 fatty acids. However, some fish—especially swordfish, shark, king mackerel, and tile fish—can be a source of ________, which is toxic in high amounts. A) vitamin A B) conjugated linoleic acid C) fluoride D) mercury

49)

The main problem with the fat replacer olestra is that it can reduce absorption of A) cholesterol. B) fatty acids. C) fat-soluble vitamins. D) fiber.

50) When chyme is in the small intestine, the pancreas secretes ______ to digest triglycerides. A) chylomicrons B) lipase C) bicarbonate D) bile

Version 1

51) is a

Palmitic acid is a 16-carbon, saturated fatty acid. Based on its chain length, palmitic acid

A) short-chain fatty acid. B) medium-chain fatty acid. C) long-chain fatty acid.

52)

The primary site of lipid digestion and absorption is the A) small intestine. B) large intestine. C) liver. D) stomach.

53)

The liver secretes ______ to emulsify fats in the chyme in the small intestine. A) bile B) bicarbonate C) lipase D) hydrochloric acid

54)

Which of the following is true about the fate of fatty acids after their absorption?

Version 1

A) Fatty acids of 16 or more carbons enter the blood and then the liver via the hepatic portal vein. B) Fatty acids of less than 12 carbons enter the lymphatic system packaged in chylomicrons. C) Fatty acids of less than 12 carbons enter the blood and then the liver via the hepatic portal vein. D) Fatty acids of 16 or more carbons enter the lymphatic system directly and then enter the blood via the aorta.

55)

After dietary fats are digested, the small intestinal cells absorb a mixture of A) diglycerides and fatty acids. B) monoglycerides and diglycerides. C) monoglycerides and fatty acids. D) monoglycerides, diglycerides, and triglycerides.

56)

The major fat-digesting enzyme is A) amylase. B) pepsin. C) trypsin. D) lipase.

57)

Which of the following lipase enzymes digests the majority of dietary fat? A) Pancreatic lipase B) Lingual lipase C) Gastric lipase

Version 1

58)

After absorption, long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides inside intestinal cells are A) converted to proteins. B) converted to glucose. C) reformed into triglycerides. D) converted to cholesterol.

59)

Most lipids are transported in the blood as part of a structure called a(n) A) emulsifier. B) lipoprotein. C) phospholipid. D) sterol.

60) _______ are lipoproteins made of dietary fat surrounded by a shell of cholesterol, phospholipids, and protein; their role is to transport fat that has beenabsorbed from the GI tract. A) Chylomicrons B) Very-low-density lipoproteins C) Low-density lipoproteins D) High-density lipoproteins

61)

______ are synthesized by the liver to transport fat to the rest of the body. A) Chylomicrons B) Low-densitylipoproteins C) Very-low-densitylipoproteins D) High-densitylipoproteins

Version 1

62) Immediately after chylomicrons leave the intestinal cells, they are transported via what system? A) Cardiovascular B) Lymphatic C) Endocrine D) Urinary

63) Which lipoprotein is responsible for picking up cholesterol from dying cells and other sources so it can be transported back to the liver for excretion? A) Chylomicron B) Low-density lipoprotein C) Very-low-density lipoprotein D) High-density lipoprotein

64)

Lipoproteins are composed of A) triglycerides, cholesterol,phospholipids, and proteins. B) monoglycerides, glycerol, and free fatty acids. C) monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides. D) lipases, bile acids, and bicarbonate.

65) As chylomicrons and VLDLs travel through the bloodstream, the triglycerides in these lipoproteins are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids by ______ lipase, which is attached to the blood vessel walls.

Version 1

A) lipoprotein B) pancreatic C) lingual D) lecithin

66)

To be transported throughout the body, fats are packaged in structures called A) sterols. B) phospholipids. C) lipoproteins. D) micelles.

67)

Immediately after a meal, newly absorbed dietary fats appear in the blood as A) high-density lipoproteins. B) low-density lipoproteins. C) chylomicrons. D) very-low-density lipoproteins.

68) ______ cholesterol is sometimes called the "good" cholesterol because higher levels of this lipoprotein in the blood are associated with lower risk for cardiovascular disease. A) HDL B) LDL

69) ______ is sometimes called the "bad" cholesterol because higher levels of this lipoprotein in the blood are associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Version 1

A) LDL B) HDL

70)

Dietary patterns high in saturated fatty acids tend to ______ the levelof LDL in the blood. A) decrease B) increase

71)

During rest and light activities, ______ are the main fuel for muscles. A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) phospholipids D) monosaccharides

72) Sometimes phospholipids, such as lecithin, are used in commercial salad dressings to suspend vegetable oil in water. In this case, phospholipids are serving as A) fat replacers. B) emulsifiers. C) thickeners. D) homogenizers.

73)

Cholesterol is a precursor for the synthesis of

Version 1

A) estrogen and testosterone. B) insulin and glucagon. C) cholecystokinin. D) glycogen.

74)

In adipose tissue, humans can store a nearly limitless supply of energy in the form of A) glycogen. B) triglycerides. C) amino acids. D) phospholipids.

75)

The major function of adipose tissue is to A) store glycogen. B) store triglycerides. C) synthesize protein for muscle. D) synthesize cholesterol.

76)

The body stores excess protein as A) muscle tissue. B) glycogen. C) triglycerides. D) bone marrow.

77)

Which of the following isa function of fat?

Version 1

A) Traps water in food products B) Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins C) Best source of energy for the brain D) Carrier of proteins in the blood

78)

Phospholipids are the main components of A) lipoproteins. B) cell membranes. C) plaque. D) adipose tissue.

79) Studies of theGreenlandicInuit populationhave demonstrated a relationship between the consumption of fish and the risk for heart disease. What is the most likely mechanism for the reduction of heart disease risk when fish is consumed? A) The protein in fish lowers the blood cholesterol. B) Fish is low in cholesterol. C) Fishsuppliesfatty acids that decrease blood clotting. D) The fiber in fish lowers blood cholesterol.

80)

The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for fat for adults is A) 20% to 35% of total kcal. B) 10% to 35% of total kcal. C) >10% of total kcal. D) 45% to 65% of total kcal.

Version 1

81) How could you lower the fat content of the following breakfast menu? Omelet (made with 2 whole eggs, 1/4 cup of Swiss cheese, 1/4 cup of mushrooms) 2 links of turkey sausage 1 slice of whole-wheat toast with 1teaspoon of butter 1 cup of orange juice A) Choose skim milk instead of orange juice. B) Use egg whites instead of whole eggs in the omelet. C) Use margarine instead of butter on the toast. D) Choose pork sausage instead of turkey sausage.

82)

A good suggestion for eating in a heart-healthy way would be to A) avoid all treats. B) trim fat off meat before and after cooking it. C) use eggs liberally because they are not associated with serum cholesterol. D) avoid foods high in monounsaturated fat, such as olive oil.

83) According to the Food and Nutrition Board, what is the upper limit of fat (in grams) that should be consumed by a healthy person requiring 2,000 kilocalories per day? A) 44 B) 78 C) 30 D) 93

84) Adults need to consume only about 5% of total calories per day from essential fatty acids. This corresponds to about _______ of plant oil each day.

Version 1

A) 2 to 4 teaspoons B) 2 to 4 tablespoons C) 1/4 to 1/2 cup D) 3/4 to 1 cup

85) For people who need to lower their blood cholesterol levels, the American Heart Association recommends limiting saturated fat intake to ______ of total calories. A) 1% B) 5% to 6% C) 10% to 12% D) 20% to 35%

86)

The major dietary factor to be concerned about in relation to heart disease is A) cholesterol. B) protein. C) total fat. D) saturated fat.

87)

In terms of heart disease risk, which of the following is true? A) Lower LDL = increased risk B) Higher HDL = increased risk C) Higher LDL = increased risk D) Lower HDL = decreased risk

Version 1

88)

Plant sterols A) reduce cholesterol absorption from the small intestine. B) increase the absorption of dietary fiber from the small intestine. C) decrease the ability of cholesterol to bind to artery walls. D) decrease trans fat formation in fried foods.

89) Which of the following is true about the use of medications that lower blood cholesterol levels? A) They often are helpful for persons who have had a heart attack or have cardiovascular disease or diabetes. B) They should be used by anyone with a high blood cholesterol level. C) They have few side effects. D) When one takes these, dietary changes are not necessary.

90)

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? A) High HDL B) High blood pressure C) Low LDL D) Low daily dose of aspirin

91)

________ are lipid-loaded white blood cells that form plaque in blood vessels. A) Lymphocytes B) Neutrophils C) Foam cells D) Liposomes

Version 1

92) Margarine is a solid or semi-solid spread made from vegetable oils, such as canola oil or safflower oil. Because of the way it is processed, margarine is a rich source of cholesterol. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_6e 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) A 81) B 82) B 83) B 84) B 85) B 86) D Version 1

87) C 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) C 92) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 6 1)

The basic building block of a protein is called a(n) A) fatty acid. B) monosaccharide. C) amino acid. D) keto acid.

2) The disease phenylketonuria (PKU) illustrates how a nonessential amino acid can becomeconditionally essential as a result of a genetic disease. A person with PKU has a limitedability to metabolize the essential amino acid A) phenylalanine. B) lysine. C) methionine. D) ascorbic acid.

3) Proteins are unique among the macronutrients because they are a source of ______ for the human body. A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) hydrogen

Which of the following is true about protein?

Version 1

A) It is unique in that it is the only dietary component that contains selenium. B) It is important primarily for increasing bone density. C) It is made up of combinations of approximately 20 amino acids. D) It is made up of combinations of amino acids and fatty acids.

An essential amino acid A) can be synthesized in the body if there is a nitrogen source. B) can be synthesized in the body if caloric intake is adequate. C) cannot be synthesized in the body in sufficient quantity to meet body needs. D) can be formed in the body from nonessential amino acids.

Which of the following is an essential amino acid? A) Aspartic Acid B) Cysteine C) Arginine D) Tryptophan

Leucine, isoleucine, and valine are A) branched-chain amino acids. B) conditionally essential amino acids. C) limiting amino acids. D) complementary amino acids.

In proteins, amino acids are joined by ______ bonds.

Version 1

A) amino B) peptide C) proteolytic D) nitrogen

9) Treating a protein with acid, heat, or agitation will alter the three-dimensional structure of the protein. This process is called A) deamination. B) translation. C) transcription. D) denaturation.

10)

Which type of anemia results from an error in the DNA code? A) Iron-deficiency anemia B) Macrocytic anemia C) Sickle cell anemia D) Microcytic anemia

11)

When an essential amino acid is missing from the diet, A) nonessential amino acids will be converted into the missing amino acid. B) protein synthesis will stop. C) glucose will be converted into the missing amino acid. D) proteins will be made, but they will lack that particular amino acid.

Version 1

12) If a food does not contain the necessary amounts of a certain amino acid to meet a body need, that amino acid is referred to as a(n) A) complementary amino acid. B) essential amino acid. C) limiting amino acid. D) dispensable amino acid.

13)

How many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins? A) 5 B) 9 C) 20 D) 29

14)

What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein? A) Number of side chains in the protein B) Folding arrangement of the peptide chain C) Order of appearance of amino acids in the peptide chain D) Sequence of events in protein synthesis

15) Which of the following is a hereditary condition caused by an incorrect amino acid in a protein chain? A) Kwashiorkor B) Sickle cell anemia C) Marasmus D) Edema

Version 1

16)

The chemical bond joining two amino acids is called a(n) ________ bond. A) glycosidic B) ionic C) amino D) peptide

17)

Denaturation refers to A) alteration of the three-dimensional structure of a protein. B) digestion of a polypeptide chain into individual amino acids. C) joining of two amino acids to form a dipeptide. D) removal of the amino group from an amino acid.

18)

Within cells, the synthesis of proteins is directed by A) DNA. B) RDA. C) CCK. D) ATP.

19)

The ______ is the site of protein synthesis within the cell. A) ribosome B) nucleus C) Golgi apparatus D) lysosome

Version 1

20)

In the case of sickle cell anemia, slight alterations in the DNA code lead to A) defects in the membranes of red blood cells. B) changes in the structure of the protein hemoglobin. C) poor use of glucose for energy. D) inability of red blood cells to make protein.

21)

Most proteins are ______, which are composed of 10 or more amino acids. A) dipeptides B) tripeptides C) proteases D) polypeptides

22) Because the DNA cannot leave the nucleus to get to the ribosomes, the genes for proteins must be transcribed into ______ that can leave the nucleus. A) amino acids B) chromosomes C) mRNA D) tRNA

23) Most plant proteins are ______ proteins, which means that they are low in one or more of the essential amino acids.

Version 1

A) nonessential B) complementary C) incomplete D) branched-chain

24)

Which of the following plant proteins is a complete source of protein? A) Quinoa B) Kidney beans C) Sunflower seeds D) Oats

25)

Complete (or high-quality) proteins A) provide ample amounts of all of the essential amino acids. B) also provide carbohydrates and lipids. C) are only found in foods of plant origin. D) are found only in foods of animal origin.

26) Which of the following is a food that provides ample amounts of all of the essential amino acids? A) Wheat B) Peanut butter C) Black beans D) Milk

Version 1

27)

High-protein diets may be harmful for A) individuals with kidney disease. B) athletes. C) the elderly. D) body builders.

28)

Which of the following is a true statement about sources of protein?

A) Plant sources of protein tend to be higher in saturated fat than animal sources of protein. B) Plant sources of protein tend to be higher in cholesterol than animal sources of protein. C) Animal sources of protein tend to be higher in phytochemicals than plant sources of protein. D) Plant sources of protein tend to be higher in dietary fiber than animal sources of protein.

29) Which of the following combinations of plant foods will provide ample amounts of all nine essential amino acids? A) Garbanzo beans and kale B) Black beans and rice C) Wheat bread with sesame seeds D) Three bean salad

30)

Which of the following food combinations is an example of complementary proteins?

Version 1

A) Green beans with slivered almonds B) Puffed rice cereal with milk C) Kidney beans with black beans D) Broccoli with cheese

31)

The majority of proteins in the traditional Mediterranean diet come from A) animal sources. B) plant sources.

32) Many legumes are deficient in the essential amino acid ______, while grains are limited in lysine. A) methionine B) alanine C) lysine D) arginine

33) Dietary patterns that are high in _______ tend to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and cancer. A) legumes B) fish C) nuts and seeds D) red meat

34)

Which of the following is one of the eight most common food allergens?

Version 1

A) Milk B) Chocolate C) Beef D) Mangoes

35) Short chain proteins and ______ are the end products of protein digestion that can be taken up by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. A) amino acids B) nitrogen C) polypeptides D) amino groups

36)

Amino acids are absorbed via A) active absorption. B) passive diffusion. C) facilitated diffusion. D) osmosis.

37)

Amino acids are transported via the _______ vein to the liver. A) subclavian B) renal C) intestinal D) portal

Version 1

38)

Human enzymes digest proteins in which areas of the body? A) Mouth and stomach B) Mouth and small intestine C) Stomach and small intestine D) Small and large intestines

39)

What enzyme digests protein in the stomach? A) Pepsin B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Trypsin

40)

Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme produced by the A) liver. B) pancreas. C) stomach. D) small intestine.

41) When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are A) stored as fat. B) excreted in the urine. C) stored as amino acids in muscle. D) stored as amino acids in the liver.

Version 1

42)

Which of the following is a true statement about the digestion and absorption of proteins?

A) Polypeptide chains are digested to yield individual amino acids, which can be absorbed into the blood. B) Polypeptide chains are digested to yield dipeptides, which can be absorbed into the blood. C) Many whole proteins are absorbed by phagocytosis and enter the blood. D) The products of protein digestion are first absorbedinto the lymphatic system, which empties into the blood.

43)

Which of the following is a true statement aboutbody proteins? A) Body proteins are in a constant state of breakdown, rebuilding, and repair. B) Body proteins change very little after age 20. C) Synthesis of body proteins is directed by antigens, which are present in every cell. D) Amino acids from dying cells or worn-out cell parts are excretedas a component of

bile.

44)

Insulin is one example of a protein that acts as A) an antioxidant. B) an enzyme. C) a hormone. D) an antibody.

45)

The nitrogen from amino acid breakdown is

Version 1

A) stored in the liver. B) oxidized to carbohydrate. C) converted to urea. D) converted to fat.

46) If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose? A) Urea B) Fatty acids C) Amino acids D) Ketones

47)

Food proteins are used most efficiently when we A) consume a very-low-kilocalorie diet. B) consume a low-carbohydrate diet. C) consume enough carbohydrates and fats to meet our kilocalorie needs. D) consume them with alcohol.

48)

Which of the following is a functionof protein? A) Absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K B) Medium for chemical reactions in the cell C) The body's preferred source of energy D) Synthesis of enzymes and hormones

Version 1

49) Jackie has an alcohol use disorder. Her liver has been damaged to such a degree that it cannot produce the appropriate blood proteins for fluid balance. She develops a condition called edema, which is A) extreme thirst. B) the accumulation of fluids between cells. C) loss of muscle mass. D) cardiovascular disease.

50)

Edema appears when there is a severe lack of dietary protein because A) sodium is retained in the body. B) blood protein levels fall and fluid shifts into extracellular spaces. C) the blood vessels become more permeable to ions. D) the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine.

51)

Proteins regulate the acid-base balance of the blood by A) acting as buffers. B) releasing nitrogen. C) synthesizing hydrochloric acid. D) binding sodium ions.

52)

A protein that acts as a hormone is A) insulin. B) trypsin. C) pepsin. D) hemoglobin.

Version 1

53)

Proteins that bind to foreign proteins in the body are A) enzymes. B) antibodies. C) hormones. D) collagen.

54)

Antibodies are A) chemical messengers produced by glands. B) catalysts that speed the rate of chemical reactions. C) compounds that transport lipids through the blood. D) proteins produced by white blood cells as part of the immune response.

55) If a person does not eat enough carbohydrates to supply the glucose the body needs, which of the following will happen? A) Fatty acids will be converted to glucose. B) The pancreas will produce more insulin. C) The liver will convert amino acids to glucose. D) The liver will produce more glycogen.

56) The Recommended Dietary Allowance for protein for nearly all adults is ______ g/kg/day.

Version 1

A) 0.5 B) 0.8 C) 1.6 D) 2.0

57) How many grams of protein are needed per day by a sedentary adult male who weighs 87 kilograms? A) 70 B) 87 C) 174 D) 191

58) The typical American diet supplies approximately what percentage of protein as essential amino acids? A) 10% B) 25% C) 40% D) 50%

59) The RDA for protein translates into approximately what percentage of total daily calorie needs? A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%

Version 1

60)

During starvation, a person is likely to be in a state of A) protein equilibrium. B) positive protein balance. C) negative protein balance.

61) Donovan has been consuming large quantities of food and, in violation of safe rules of athletic training, is injecting testosterone. He has been seeing large temporary gains in muscle mass. He is in a state of A) negative protein balance. B) positive protein balance. C) energy equilibrium. D) protein toxicity.

62)

Negative protein balance is likely during A) growth. B) pregnancy. C) starvation. D) recovery from surgery.

63)

Jack is a sedentary male who weighs 176 pounds. What is his RDA for protein?

Version 1

A) 10 grams B) 27 grams C) 64 grams D) 80 grams

64)

Which of the following is true about protein intake of people in the United States? A) Most do not consume enough protein. B) Most consume approximately the amount of protein needed to balance losses. C) Athletes generally do not get enough protein without supplements. D) Most consume more protein than is needed.

65)

In the typical American diet, most dietary protein comes from A) animal sources. B) plant sources.

66) Recent research shows that older adults need ______ the current RDA for protein for adults. A) more than B) less than

67) The type of malnutrition that results from severely deficient intake of both calories and protein is called

Version 1

A) kwashiorkor. B) marasmus. C) sickle cell anemia. D) phenylketonuria.

68)

Kwashiorkor and marasmus are two severe forms of A) protein-calorie malnutrition. B) protein overload. C) genetic diseases. D) anemia.

69)

Among children with kwashiorkor, A) calorie intake may be low, but protein intake is severely deficient. B) intakes of both calories and protein are severely deficient. C) protein intake may be low, but calorie intake is severely deficient. D) calorie intake may be low, but carbohydrate intake is severely deficient.

70)

The edema in children with kwashiorkor is the result of fluid leaking into A) body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased blood protein levels. B) body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased blood glucose levels. C) the bloodstream from body tissues because of decreased cellular proteins. D) the bloodstream from body tissues because of increased insulin levels.

71)

Kwashiorkor appears in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years. The reason is that

Version 1

A) growth needs are low. B) children havebeen weaned from breast milk to starchy gruels. C) by this time,adequate exposure to other children allows them to catch it. D) protein intake has been high for a long enough time to cause kidney damage.

72)

Which of the following conditions would describe a child with kwashiorkor? A) Bowed legs B) Visible eczema and cold sores C) Edema in the abdomen and legs D) Skin-and-bones appearance

73)

A child withmarasmus A) has a bloated abdomen due to edema. B) is hyperactive and irritable. C) is very susceptible to infections. D) has bowed legs and a deformed ribcage.

74)

The study of the ways nutrients and food influence gene expression is called A) epidemiology. B) molecular biology. C) nutrigenomics. D) nutrigenetics.

75)

The study of the ways in which genetic variations influence nutritional status is called

Version 1

A) nutritional biochemistry. B) genetic engineering. C) nutrigenetics. D) nutrigenomics.

76) Plant-based diets may reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease. This is likely due to the fact that, compared to animal sources of protein, plant sources of protein are lower in A) dietary fiber. B) saturated fat and cholesterol. C) one or more essential amino acids. D) phytochemicals.

77)

Plant-based dietary patterns are associated with lower risk of A) cardiovascular disease. B) colorectal cancer. C) diabetes. D) All of the choices are correct.

78) a(n)

A person who does not eat any animal foods and consumes only plant products is called

A) ovovegetarian. B) omnivore. C) lactoovovegetarian. D) vegan.

Version 1

79)

A vegetarian who excludes animal flesh but consumes milk and eggs is referred to as a(n) A) lactovegetarian. B) lactoovovegetarian. C) vegan. D) ovovegetarian.

80)

A vegetarian who eats only foods of plant origin is a(n) A) lactoovovegetarian. B) lactovegetarian. C) vegan. D) ovovegetarian.

81)

The most reliable source of vitamin B-12 for the vegan would be A) fortified soybean milk. B) shellfish. C) cheese. D) eggs.

82) The American Institute for Cancer Research promotes "The New American Plate," which includes plant-based foods covering _______ of the plate and meat, fish, poultry, or low-fat dairy covering _______ of the plate. A) one-half; one-half B) three-quarters(or more); one-quarter (or less) C) two-thirds (ormore); one-third (or less) D) one-third (orless); two-thirds (or more)

Version 1

83)

Dairy products, such as milk and yogurt, are good sources of protein. ⊚ ⊚

84)

Soy protein is a complete protein. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

Human cells derive most of their energy from the breakdown of amino acids. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_6e 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) D 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) C 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) C 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) D 78) D 79) B 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 7 1) The term for the minimum energy expended to keep a resting, awake body alive is ______. This represents about 60% to 80% of total energy expenditure. A) adenosine triphosphate B) basal metabolism C) thermogenesis D) thermic effect of food

Basal metabolism is the energy expended A) when sleeping in a cool environment. B) when doing moderate activity. C) while in a fasting state when resting and awakein a warm, quiet environment. D) to make food more available to the body.

Which of the following is true about basal metabolism?

A) It represents about 30% of total energy expenditure. B) It is energy expenditure to maintain a heartbeat, respiration, other basic functions, and daily activities. C) It represents about 60% to 80% of total calories used by a sedentary person during each day. D) It includes the energy used to digest food.

Which of the following increases basal metabolism?

Version 1

A) A decrease in body temperature B) A low calorie intake C) An increase in lean body mass D) A high fiber intake

5) Carol eats 800 kcal a day to lose weight. She is 40 years old. Carol has been walking briskly 60 minutes daily for the past 2 months. When she was younger, she lifted weights, but she has lost considerable lean body mass over the years due to inactivity. Recently, Carol was diagnosed with hypothyroidism which lowers metabolism. Which of the following factors increases Carol's energy output and promotes weight loss? A) Her 800-kcal diet B) Her age C) Her loss of lean body mass D) Her walking routine

Which of the following does not contribute to total energy expenditure? A) Basal metabolic rate B) Thermic effect of food C) Energy content of food D) Adaptive thermogenesis

Physical activity

Version 1

A) accounts for about 70% of total energy expenditure. B) is only counted as a significant contributor if it is a formal, regular, and scheduled exercise program. C) includes spontaneous moments as seemingly insignificant as fidgeting. D) accounts forvery little to no overall energy expenditure.

The thermic effect of food A) represents the calories needed to digest, absorb, and process ingested food. B) represents approximately 20% of total energy expenditure. C) is included in the measurement of basal metabolism. D) refers to energy expended to produce heat in response to a cold environment.

Which of the following is true in relation to the components of energy expenditure? A) The thermic effect of food represents about 20% to 35% of total energy expenditure. B) Physical activity accounts for 15% to 30% of total energy expenditure. C) Basal metabolism accounts for 85% to 100% of total energy expenditure. D) Fidgeting accounts for 40% of total energy expenditure.

10)

The calorie cost of the thermic effect of food is ______ of the energy consumed. A) 1% to 2% B) 8% to 15% C) 15% to 20% D) 20% to 25%

11)

Shivering in response to a cold environment is an example of

Version 1

A) adaptive thermogenesis. B) thermic effect of food. C) metabolism. D) physical activity.

12) The energy expended to digest, absorb, and further process the nutrients in food is called the ______ of food. This equals approximately 8% to 15% of energy intake. A) transformation B) thermic effect C) metabolism D) breakdown

13) The expenditure of energy to produce heat in response to a cold environment and as a result of overfeeding is called A) adaptive thermogenesis. B) thermic effect of cold. C) heat metabolism. D) thermic metabolism.

14) Bill expends 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from basal metabolism? A) 250 to 375 kcal B) 500 to 1050 kcal C) 1200 to 1500 kcal D) 1500 to 2000 kcal

Version 1

15) Bill consumes 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from the thermic effect of food? A) 125 to 250 kcal B) 250 to 375 kcal C) 300 to 550 kcal D) 425 to 600 kcal

16)

Thermogenesisrefers to all of the following except A) the ability to regulate body temperature. B) shivering when cold and fidgeting. C) brown adipose tissue, especially in hibernating animals. D) the energy you require during sleep at night.

17) The method for determining energy expenditure that involves the measurement of heat given off by the body during a select period of time in an insulated chamber is called A) direct calorimetry. B) indirect calorimetry. C) thermocalorimetry. D) bomb calorimetry.

18) The method for determining energy expenditure in which the amount of oxygen a person uses is measured is called

Version 1

A) direct calorimetry. B) indirect calorimetry. C) thermocalorimetry. D) bomb calorimetry.

19) Joe is getting his energy expenditure measured by direct calorimetry. The 1 liter of water surrounding the chamber has an initial reading of 15 degrees Celsius. The final reading is 2015 degrees Celsius. How many calories did he expend? A) 1000 B) 1500 C) 2000 D) 2500

20) Bob is a 34-year-old male who weighs 150 pounds and is a long-distance cycler. He is engaged in vigorous activity. Based on the MyPlate Calorie Guidelines, Bob needs approximately _______ kcal per day. A) 2000 B) 2600 C) 3000 D) 3200

21)

The MyPlateCalorie Guideline for a 19- to 30-year-old active woman is A) 1600 kcal per day. B) 2000 kcal per day. C) 2400 kcal per day. D) 2800 kcal per day.

Version 1

22)

John weighs 80 kilograms and is 1.6 meters tall. His body mass index is ______ kg/m

A) 5 B) 25 C) 31 D) 50

23) ______ obesity is a pattern of body fat distribution that is associated with an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. A) Android B) Gynoid C) Morbid D) Cardiometabolic

24) When attempting to use body fat percentage to define obesity, body fat above _______ for men results in an obesity diagnosis. A) 8% B) 20% C) 25% D) 30%

25) When attempting to use body fat percentage to define obesity, body fat above ______ for women results in an obesity diagnosis.

Version 1

A) 25% B) 20% C) 30% D) 35%

26)

Body weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters yields A) the obesity index. B) the body mass index. C) relative weight. D) percent body fat.

27) For a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms, the body mass index would equal A) 18. B) 23. C) 27. D) 32.

28) How would you interpret the body mass index for a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms? A) The value does not exceed the value at which health risks are increased. B) Her health risks would be high. C) This indicates significant android obesity and high health risk. D) She slightly exceeds the value at which health risks are increased.

Version 1

29)

Men with body fat levels greater than _____ have increased health risks. A) 20% B) 25% C) 30% D) 35%

30)

Which of the following is not a tool for measuringbody fatness or composition? A) Body mass index B) Bioelectrical impedance C) Skinfolds D) Underwater weighing

31)

Of the most common methods of estimating percent body fat, which is the most accurate? A) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry B) Skinfold measures C) Air displacementplethysmography D) Bioelectrical impedance

32) Ethan is a middle-aged man. His waist circumference measurement of 45 inches places him at a ______ risk for chronic, obesity-related diseases. A) high B) low

Version 1

33)

Which of the following health conditions is not primarily related to android obesity? A) Heart disease B) Diabetes mellitus C) Hypertension D) Lung cancer

34) A waist circumference _____ inches for men and _____ inches for women indicates increased risk of disease. A) > 30; > 25 B) < 40; < 35 C) > 35; > 40 D) > 40; > 35

35)

Which of the following is correctabout android obesity? A) It refers to obesity in the lower part of the body. B) Low testosterone levels encourage it. C) A low waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of it. D) It is related to heart disease, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.

36)

The body's set point has been suggested to be

Version 1

A) a weight the body attempts to maintain closely. B) one's desirable and most healthy body weight. C) one's minimum body weight. D) the weight thatis reached and maintained during mid-life.

37) The hormone made by adipose tissue that promotes satiety and a sense of fullness, thus reducing appetite is called A) leptin. B) insulin. C) ghrelin. D) glucagon.

38) Peg's parents are both obese. She has dieted at least six times, each time losing a considerable amount of weight and subsequently regaining it. Peg does not exercise. Which of the following is true about Peg's situation? A) Her frequent yo-yo dietinghave likely led to greater amounts of lean body mass. B) Her problem is genetic and there is no reason for her to attempt to lose weight. C) When she ends a diet, she likely regains additional body fat. D) Her problem results from poor habits, but genetics will prevent her from ever losing weight.

39) Martha is maintaining her current weight by eating 2500 kcal per day. To lose approximately 1 pound of fat per week to start, she would have to decrease her energy intake to about ______ kcal per day.

Version 1

A) 2300 B) 2000 C) 1500 D) 1000

40) Thekey to weight loss and maintenance canbe thought of as a triad, which consists of three interrelated components. Which of the following is not a component of the weight loss triad? A) Drinking sugar-free beverages B) Controlling calorie intake C) Performing regularphysical activity D) Engaging in positive behaviors

41)

When individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from A) fat, water, and glycogen. B) water, muscletissue, and bone. C) water, glycogen, and muscle tissue. D) fat, water, and muscle tissue.

42)

Which of the following isan appropriate goal for weight control programs? A) 5-pound weightloss per week B) Sparing lean body mass C) Reduced physical activity D) Significant water loss

Version 1

43) Mary wishes to lose 5 pounds before her vacation in approximately 5 weeks. Her average consumption is 2100 kcal per day. Assuming her physical activity levels remain unchanged, she should reduce her energy intake to ______ kcal per day. A) 1800 to 1900 B) 1600 to 1700 C) 1400 to 1500 D) 1200 to 1300

44) According to the 3500-kcal rule, adaily deficit of 500 kcal should result in an approximate weight loss of about how many pounds per week? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

45) What would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcal daily for one month? A) 2 pounds B) 3 pounds C) 4 pounds D) 6 pounds

46) Restricting food and beverage intake by ______ kcal per day below calorie needs typically leads to a weight loss of about 1 pound per week to start.

Version 1

A) 100 B) 250 C) 500 D) 1000

47)

A good weight-loss program should A) restrict food intake to less than 1200 kcal per day. B) include meal replacement shakes or bars. C) adapt to personal and cultural preferences. D) include a weight-loss goal of 3 to 5 pounds per week.

48)

Which of the following is true about fat?

A) It has a high thermic effect. B) It is less calorie-dense than carbohydrates or proteins. C) It is a concentrated source of calories. D) It is better to eliminate proteins and carbohydrates, rather than fat, when cutting calories.

49) Mindy has been following a weight-loss plan for the past five months, but she hasreached a plateau. It seems like she cannot lose any more weight. A good strategy tostimulate further weight loss is to A) increase physical activity. B) go off the weight control program and take a break. C) eliminate dairy products. D) further reduce food intake to 1000 kcal per day.

Version 1

50) A ______ is usually a more accurate tool for estimating the number of calories you burn during a workout than internal calorie estimators on cardio machines. A) bathroom scale B) body fat monitor C) step counter D) heart rate monitor

51) The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in a minimumof ________ minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week to decrease risksfor chronic diseases.

A) 60 to 120 B) 90 to 150 C) 150 to 300 D) 300 to 500

52) When considering physical activity for weight control, keep in mind that sustained aerobic activity, including brisk walking, jogging, or cycling, burns more ______ than resistance activity. A) fat B) protein C) carbohydrates D) muscle

53)

Changing one's frame of mind related to weight control and nutrition is called

Version 1

A) stimulus control. B) self-monitoring. C) chain-breaking. D) cognitive restructuring.

54) Which of the following is an important aspect of behavior modification used for weight control? A) Severely restricting intake after overeating B) Avoiding planned eating so you can be ready to handle spontaneous changes in the situation C) Keeping a record of eating behavior to identify situations that contribute to overeating D) Weighing yourself several times each day

55)

Altering the environment to minimize the stimuli for eating is called A) chain-breaking. B) stimulus control. C) contingency management. D) cognitive restructuring.

56)

An example of cognitive restructuring for weight control is A) planning what to eat for breakfast the night before. B) decreeing all desserts off limits. C) replacing stressful eating situations with relaxing alternatives. D) keeping a food intake diary to identify triggers for eating.

Version 1

57) What is the name of the recently FDA-approved obesity treatment device that uses a surgically implanted tube placed into the stomach to drain the stomach contents after every meal? A) DrainAssist® B) FatDrain® C) EatPurge® D) AspireAssist®

58)

Lorcaserin hydrochloride (Belviq®) is a weight-loss medication that work by A) stimulating funtional fibers. B) blocking digestive enzymes. C) stimulating ghrelin release. D) influencing appetite signals in the brain.

59) A very-low-calorie diet (VLCD), also known as protein-sparing modified fast, allows a person ________ kcal per day, often in liquid form. A) 200 to 400 B) 400 to 800 C) 800 to 1000 D) 1200 to 1400

60)

Orlistat (Xenical) is a medication approved by the FDA for weight loss that reduces fat

Version 1

A) storage by inhibiting lipase activity in fat cells. B) digestion by inhibiting lipase enzyme action in the small intestine. C) absorption by decreasing bile secretion. D) circulation by inhibiting lipoprotein production.

61)

Xenical is a weight-loss drug that works in the digestive system A) to substitute xylose for glucose. B) to block digestion of about 30% of the fat in the food we eat. C) to produce a full feeling that decreases hunger. D) as an artificial fat.

62) An example of a bariatric surgical procedure used for treating severely or morbidly obese individuals is called A) gastric bypass. B) intestinal resection. C) laproscopic liposuction. D) colonoscopy.

63)

The most qualified expert to assist individuals with their weight-loss goals is a A) nutritionist. B) personal trainer. C) registered dietitian nutritionist. D) naturopath.

Version 1

64)

Which of the following is true about the use of diet pills for weight reduction?

A) Diet pills do not lead to long-term changes in weight and tend to have side effects. B) Orlistat (Xenical®, Alli®) increases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. C) Candidates for medications to treat obesityinclude those with a BMI ≥ 25 or BMI ≥ 20 with at least one weight-related health condition. D) Very-low-calorie diets, combined with anti-obesity drugs, are recommended for optimal weight loss.

65)

An increasingly common and effective surgical procedure for morbid obesity is A) intestinal bypass. B) gastric bypass. C) gastric blockage. D) gastrectomy.

66)

The best way to treat an underweight person is to advise him or her to A) eat high-fat foods such as heavy cream, cheeses, ice cream, and ground beef. B) stop exercising. C) eat energy-dense foods higher in plant fats like nuts and seeds. D) eat high-calorie foods at the beginning of each meal.

67)

Cycles of loss and regain of weight are called A) plateauing. B) energy balancing. C) mindful eating. D) yo-yo dieting.

Version 1

68)

Which of the following statements about popular diets is not true? A) They promote quick weight loss that ends up being primarily water and lean muscle

mass. B) They help people make permanent changes in eating habits and behaviors. C) They often recommend expensive supplements or meals. D) They often use personal testimonials from famous people to promote their product.

69)

Which of the following is characteristic of a fad diet? A) It promotes quick solutions and rapid weight loss. B) It uses scientific evidence, presenting the pros and cons. C) It promotes a wide variety of food selections. D) It prohibits supplements and expensive meals.

70)

Underweight is defined as a body mass index below _______ kg/m

A) 18.5 B) 19.5 C) 20 D) 21.5

71) The term weight bias refers to negative attitudes, judgments, stereotypes, beliefs, and discrimination targeting individuals because of their weight. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

72)

Bariatric surgery is the most successful weight-loss strategy for extremely obese adults. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_6e 1) B 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) D 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) C 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) B 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) TRUE 72) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 8 1)

Which of the following statements is true about vitamin characteristics? A) They cannot be stored by the body. B) They are inorganic. C) They help regulate chemical reactions in the body. D) They directly supply energy to the body.

Which of the following is true about the intake of vitamins? A) Supplementalvitamins are better than those from food. B) Occasional lapses in vitamin intake should cause no harm. C) It is hard to getall the vitamins we need from food. D) All vitamins consumed in excess are excreted.

Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamins differ in which way? A) Water-solublevitamins are stored, whereas fat-soluble vitamins are excreted readily. B) Water-soluble areless likely to be toxic. C) Fat-solublevitamins have much less potential for toxicity. D) Water-solublevitamins are best absorbed in the presence of dietary fat.

4) If you wanted to add significant quantities of vitamins and minerals to your diet from the food you eat, a good choice would be

Version 1

A) a doughnut made with enriched white flour. B) apple juice. C) a fortified breakfast cereal such as raisin bran. D) a multivitamin.

5) Megadoses are defined as vitamin intakes ________ times the estimated human needs to prevent a deficiency. A) 1 to 3 B) 2 to 10 C) 50 D) 100

6) Which of the following is true about the absorption, transport, and storage of fat-soluble vitamins? A) They enter the bloodstream directly from the stomach. B) Fat in thedigestive contents is not important for their absorption. C) They are not able to be stored in the body. D) Theyarestored in the liver and fatty tissue.

7) Which of the following is most likely to result in vitamin toxicity if consumed daily over a long period of time? A) Vitamin A supplements B) B-vitamincomplex C) Fortified breakfast cereals D) Spinach, kale, and other greens

Version 1

Which of the following does not describe fat-soluble vitamins? A) They are stored inthe body. B) Excesses areexcreted in the urine. C) They aretransported via special carriers in the bloodstream. D) They tend to existin several biologically active forms.

Which of the following is not a true statementregarding fat malabsorption? A) It results in decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. B) It increases the risk of fat-soluble vitamin deficiency. C) It increases the risk of developing pellagra or beriberi. D) It increases the risk of developing rickets or osteomalacia.

10)

In general, excess amounts of water-soluble vitamins are excreted via the A) kidneys. B) intestine. C) lungs. D) liver.

11)

Which of the following is not true of B vitamins? A) They are water soluble. B) They serve as coenzymes. C) They can be lost during food processing and preparation. D) They are stored in adipose tissue.

Version 1

12)

Which of the following is best for preservingthe vitamin content of foods? A) Exposure to light B) Cooking in water C) Flash freezing D) Alkalinity

13)

Which of the following vitamins are most readily excreted by the body? A) Vitamin B-6 B) Vitamin A C) Vitamin D D) Thiamin

14) Minerals are categorized based on the amount we need per day.Which of the following statements is correct? A) Major minerals areneeded in amounts of 500 mg per day or greater. B) Trace minerals areneeded in amounts of 100 mg per day or less. C) Trace minerals areneeded in amounts of 10 mg per day or less. D) Major minerals areneeded in amounts of 200 mg per day or greater.

15) Which of the following statements is notcorrect when describingthe role of minerals in the body?

Version 1

A) They facilitate the transfer of nerve impulses. B) They areconstituents of important body compounds. C) They provide 4 kcals per gram. D) They help maintainwater balance.

16)

Which of the following is true about mineral bioavailability?

A) Minerals fromplants are better absorbed than those from animal products. B) Minerals fromanimal products are better absorbed than those from plants. C) The trace mineralcontent of plants is relatively constant no matter which soil serves as themedium. D) Refining and processing foods will increase the trace mineral content.

17)

Oxalic acid, a component of fiber, can inhibit the absorption of A) vitamin A. B) thiamin. C) calcium. D) protein.

18)

Of the following minerals, daily requirements are highest for A) iron. B) iodine. C) calcium. D) copper.

Version 1

19)

Zinc competes with ______for absorption. A) chromium B) copper C) chloride D) vitamin C

20)

A nutrient that has been deemed essential but has not been classified as a vitamin is A) resveratrol. B) beta-carotene. C) choline. D) ascorbic acid.

21)

Which of the following is an example of a fat-soluble vitamin? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B-6 C) Vitamin B-12 D) Riboflavin

22)

Which of the following is not classified as aB vitamin? A) Choline B) Niacin C) Riboflavin D) Biotin

Version 1

23)

Which of the following criteria qualifies a compound as a vitamin?

A) The compound isnecessary for health, but thebody is unable to synthesize enough of thecompound to maintain health. B) The body is unable to synthesize the compound. C) The compound is best absorbed if taken in supplement form. D) The compound prevents chronic disease and cancer.

24)

Which of the following statements about micronutrients is true?

A) It is likely that all essential vitamins and minerals have beenidentified. B) Choline is the most recent addition to the vitamins. C) Natural forms ofvitamins are much more potent than synthetic forms. D) Toxicity diseasesare not likely to result from overdoses of trace minerals because theyare stored in such small amounts.

25) Which of the following is an example of a vitamin that is more bioavailable in its synthetic form? A) Folate B) Vitamin B-6 C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin A

26) Immediately after absorption from the small intestine, fat-soluble vitamins appear in the lymph as part of

Version 1

A) chylomicrons. B) VLDLs. C) HDLs. D) phospholipids.

27)

When B vitamins are consumed in their coenzyme forms,

A) they are brokendown to free vitamins in the stomach and small intestine prior toabsorption. B) intestinal absorption of fat is enhanced. C) toxicity of B vitamins is likely to occur. D) more energy is available to the body.

28) Which of the following does not helppreserve the vitamin content of fruits and vegetables? A) Trimming and peeling fruits and vegetables soon after purchase B) Storing fruits and vegetables in a cool place, such as the crisper drawer of the refrigerator C) Using cooking methods such as steaming, stir-frying, or microwaving D) Storing fruits and vegetables in moisture-proof, airtight containers

29)

Which of the following is an example of a trace mineral? A) Iron B) Calcium C) Sodium D) Potassium

Version 1

30)

Fluid balance is dependent on A) potassium. B) iron. C) vitamin C. D) niacin.

31)

Vitamins A, C, and E work together to A) protect the bodyfrom damage by free radicals. B) maintain thebalance between intracellular and extracellular fluid. C) serve as coenzymesin the chemical reactions of energy metabolism. D) provide strengthand stability to bones.

32)

Calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, and fluoride mainly serve as structural components of A) bones and teeth. B) the skin. C) hair and fingernails. D) the central nervous system.

33)

The B vitamins A) facilitatechemical reactions that yield energy from the macronutrients. B) can be broken down to yield about 4 kcals per gram. C) provide strengthand stability to bones. D) protect the cellsfrom damage by free radicals.

Version 1

34) The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 classified vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and herbal remedies as A) drugs. B) foods. C) micronutrients. D) phytochemicals.

35) The Supplement Facts label on dietary supplements resembles the _______ and is required on all dietary supplements. A) Drug Facts label on drugs B) Cosmetic Facts label on cosmetics C) Nutrition Facts label on food D) Prescription Facts label

36)

Excessive intake of zinc can decrease the absorption of A) copper. B) calcium. C) iron. D) vitamin C.

37) Besides being supplied in the diet, some micronutrients are synthesized in the body. For example, ______ can be synthesized by microorganisms in the intestinal tract.

Version 1

A) vitamin K B) vitamin D C) niacin D) vitamin B-6

38)

The vitamin that poses the greatest risk for toxicity is A) vitamin A. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K.

39)

______ are mostly stored in the liver and adipose tissue. A) Fat-soluble vitamins B) Water-soluble vitamins C) Trace minerals D) Major minerals

40)

The primary site of micronutrient absorption isthe A) small intestine. B) liver. C) stomach. D) large intestine.

41)

Consumption of vitamin C

Version 1

A) enhances absorption of iron. B) limits absorption of iron. C) does not affect absorption of iron.

42)

Earl, who has been a strict vegan for years, requiresa supplemental source of A) vitamin B-12. B) folate. C) vitamin C. D) selenium.

43)

Vitamin C is a ______-soluble vitamin. A) water B) fat

44) Micronutrients can be classified based on the presence of ______ in their chemical structures. According to this classification system, vitamins are organic and minerals are inorganic. A) carbon B) double bonds C) oxygen D) synthetic chemicals

45)

Orlistat is a weight-loss medication with a possible side-effect of

Version 1

A) limiting absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. B) excessive storage of fat-soluble vitamins. C) increased urinary excretion of water-soluble vitamins. D) impaired absorption of minerals.

46)

Compared to whole grain products, refined grains are ______ in trace minerals. A) lower B) higher C) equivalent

47) When buying avitamin or mineral supplement, look for ______on the label for evidence the product has been tested for purity, strength, and quality. A) UPS B) SPU C) PSU D) USP

48) Foods that are sources of the chemicals that provide health benefitsbeyond being essential dietary nutrients are termed A) functional foods. B) antioxidants. C) gluten-free foods. D) superfoods.

Version 1

49)

Functional foods can be placed into twocategories: ______ and ______. A) zoochemicals;phytochemicals B) antioxidants; anti-inflammatory C) superfoods;phytochemicals D) animal; plant

50)

Which of the following is a function of phytochemicals? A) Increases inflammation and oxidative damage to cells B) Regulates cell signaling and gene expression C) Increases the formation of blood clots D) Increases the initiation and proliferation of cancer

51)

Examples of foods that are rich sources of phytochemicals include A) gluten-free products, wild game, red wine, and green tea. B) plant and animal proteins. C) monounsaturated oils, whole grains, and poultry. D) fruits, vegetables,whole grains, herbs, nuts, and seeds.

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_6e 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) D

Version 1

CHAPTER 9 1)

Water accounts for ______ of body weight. A) 10% to 20% B) 25% to 45% C) 50% to 70% D) 75% to 95%

Which of the following are functions of water? A) Transport of nutrients B) Excretion of wastes C) Regulation of body temperature D) All of these are functions of water.

Water regulates body temperature through heat loss via A) conduction. B) radiation. C) respiration. D) evaporation.

4) A liter of perspiration lost by the body represents a heat loss of approximately _____ kilocalories.

Version 1

A) 200 B) 400 C) 600 D) 800

A rise from 98.6° to 99.6° F, results in a ______% rise in basal metabolic rate. A) 1 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10

Mucus and synovial (joint) fluid exemplify water's role as a A) lubricant. B) solvent. C) transport medium. D) participant in chemical reactions.

Which of the following people is likely to have the highest percentage of body water? A) A highly trained male athlete B) A highlytrainedfemale athlete C) An obese woman D) An elderly man

Adult men need how much total water intake (i.e., foods and beverages) per day?

Version 1

A) 2.0 liters (8.5cups) B) 2.7 liters (11cups) C) 3.0 liters (13cups) D) 3.7 liters (15cups)

Adult women need how much total water intake (i.e., foods and beverages) per day? A) 1.5 liters (6cups) B) 2 liters (8.5cups) C) 2.7 liters (11cups) D) 3 liters (13cups)

10) Joe is a wrestler, and during his workouts, he loses 2 pounds. How much water would he have to drink to replenish this water weight loss? A) 2 to 3 cups B) 3 to 4 cups C) 4 to 6 cups D) 6 to 8 cups

11)

Water that is lost from the body via ______ is sometimes called insensible water loss. A) perspiration and respiration B) perspiration and feces C) respiration and urination D) urine and feces

Version 1

12) After an intense workout, Christa's weight was down 3 pounds. To rehydrate adequately, Christa should drink ______ cups of water over the next hour or two. A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 4 to 6 D) 6 to 9

13)

Who should be concerned about dehydration? A) An athlete participating in a triathlon B) An elderly man C) A child who is ill with diarrhea D) All of these choices are correct.

14)

Inadequate hydration may increase the risk for A) hyponatremia. B) kidney stones. C) hypertension. D) hypokalemia.

15)

Aldosterone signals the kidneys to conserve A) sodium. B) potassium. C) chloride. D) phosphate.

Version 1

16)

Which of the following is a symptom of dehydration? A) Sweaty skin B) High blood pressure C) Rapid heart rate D) Pale yellow urine

17)

Dark yellow urine is most likely caused by A) not drinking enough fluids. B) drinking too much cranberry juice. C) eating too much carrots and squash. D) eating asparagus.

18)

Which of the following foods has the lowest water content? A) Lettuce B) Whole grain bread C) Tomato D) Sirloin steak

19)

Metabolic water refers to A) rehydration beverages that contain electrolytes. B) water that is formed as a byproduct of the breakdown of macronutrients for energy. C) water that is conserved by the kidneys. D) fluids that are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

Version 1

20)

Chronic dehydration increases a man's risk of developing A) gallstones. B) calcium deposits. C) a fever. D) kidney stones.

21) Water is lost from the body in four ways. Which is the biggest component of daily water losses? A) Feces B) Urine C) Perspiration D) Respiration

22)

Softening of hard water may increaseits ______ content. A) sodium B) magnesium C) calcium D) fluoride

23)

Which government agency regulates and monitors the safety of bottled water?

Version 1

A) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) B) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) D) All of these choices are correct.

24)

Most bottled water has _______ fluoride content than municipal tap water. A) a lower B) a higher C) the same

25) Which of the following individuals would benefit most from choosing a sports drink instead of water? A) A student who needs to stay up late to study for an exam B) An athlete who competes in a marathon C) An athlete whocompetes in the 100-meter dash D) An elderly adult

26)

Which of the following conditions leads to the breakdown of plastic water bottles? A) Being left in a hot car B) Being used toholdlemonade C) Cleaning in thedishwasher D) All of theseconditions break down plastic.

27) The main way the body gets rid of excess water, excess minerals, and metabolic waste products is Version 1

A) urine. B) sweat. C) feces. D) bile.

28) ______ is a hormone released by the adrenal glands that is responsible for regulating fluid volume in the body. A) Aldosterone B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Angiotensin D) Insulin

29)

The amount of water in each body compartment mainly is controlled by A) oxygen concentration. B) glucose concentration. C) the presence of fatty acids. D) ion concentration.

30)

The two main intracellular ions are A) sodium and chloride. B) phosphate and potassium. C) potassium and sodium. D) chloride and potassium.

Version 1

31)

The two main extracellular ions are A) sodium and chloride. B) phosphate and potassium. C) potassium and sodium. D) chloride and potassium.

32) If the intracellular concentration of ions is greater than the extracellular concentration of ions, which will happen in order to maintain balance? A) Fluid will moveinto the cell. B) Fluid will moveout of the cell. C) Ions will moveinto the cell. D) Ions will move outof the cell.

33) The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane (e.g., the cell membrane) is known as A) osmosis. B) diuresis. C) osteoporosis. D) nerve impulse transmission.

34)

Potassium and phosphateare the major ______ electrolytes. A) intracellular B) extracellular

Version 1

35) Active transport of ______ from the lumen of the intestine into the cells lining the intestine facilitates absorption of water from the gastrointestinal tract. A) sodium B) glucose C) amino acids D) phosphorus

36) Interstitial fluid, lymph, gastrointestinal fluid, spinal fluid, plasma, and synovial fluid are part of ______ fluid. A) extracellular B) intracellular

37) The process of nerve impulse transmission starts with the flow of ______ ions into the nerve cell. A) potassium B) sodium C) chloride D) phosphate

38) During the process of nerve impulse transmission, when sodium flows into the neuron, its cell membrane is

Version 1

A) depolarized. B) activated. C) charged. D) repolarized.

39) During nerve impulse transmission, depolarization results in a ______ charge inside the cell membrane. Repolarization restores the ______ charge inside the cell membrane. A) slightly positive; slightly negative B) slightly negative; slightly positive C) slightly positive; neutral D) neutral; slightly negative

40)

The pH of a solution is a measurement ofthe concentration of ______ ions in the solution. A) hydrogen B) phosphate C) chloride D) sodium

41)

The pH of blood is normally maintained at A) 7.4. B) 7.0. C) 0. D) 14.

Version 1

42)

The typical American dietary pattern A) is too low in sodium. B) provides a healthy amount of sodium. C) is too high in sodium.

43)

Of the following foods, which one is lowest in sodium? A) Canned carrots B) Carrot cake C) Fresh carrots D) Frozen carrots with cheese sauce

44)

All foods in their unprocessed form tend to be low in sodium except A) milk and dairy products. B) whole grains. C) legumes. D) fruits.

45) For a healthy individual, a high-salt dietary pattern tends to ______ urinary excretion of sodium. A) decrease B) increase

46) Which of the following 1-ounce portions of food would have the lowest amount of sodium? Version 1

A) Hamburger B) Ham C) Deli chicken D) Cheese

47)

The AI for sodium for adults is ______ milligrams per day. A) 500 B) 1000 C) 1500 D) 2000

48)

The sodium concentration of the blood is primarily regulated by the A) kidneys. B) small intestine. C) large intestine. D) spleen.

49)

About ______ of adults aresodium sensitive. A) 10% to 15% B) 25% to 30% C) 45% to 50% D) 70% to 75%

50) Which of the following meals would be most appropriate for a person following a lowsodium dietary pattern? Version 1

A) Chicken noodle soup, oyster crackers, and a tossed green salad with ranch dressing B) Chicken tenders, French fries, and sliced apples from a fast food restaurant C) A homemade chicken casserole made with canned green beans and cream of mushroom soup D) Homemade oven-baked chicken, buttered rice, and steamed fresh green beans

51)

Which of the following portions of food has the most sodium? A) 1 slice of cheese pizza B) 1 slice of cheese pizza topped with pepperoni and sausage C) 1 slice of cheese pizza topped with fresh tomato and basil D) All of these foods have the same amount of sodium.

52)

Most Americans exceed current recommendations for intake of A) water. B) sodium. C) potassium. D) calcium.

53) When starting a reduced-salt dietary pattern, how long before you can sense salt at a lower taste threshold? A) 2 weeks B) 8 weeks C) 12 weeks D) 18 weeks

Version 1

54) Which of the following populations is especially sensitive to the effects of excess sodium intake on blood pressure? A) Caucasians B) Hispanics C) African-Americans D) Native-Americans

55)

The major source of ______ in the typical American dietary pattern is processed foods. A) sodium B) potassium C) calcium D) phosphorus

56)

Reducing dietary intake of sodium will ______ urine production. A) decrease B) increase C) not change

57)

The ratio (by weight) of sodium to chloride in table salt is A) 30:70. B) 40:60. C) 50:50. D) 60:40.

Version 1

58)

Which of the following is a function of potassium? A) Maintenance of night vision B) Regulation of fluid balance C) Neutralization of free radicals D) Production of stomach acid

59)

Increasing your intake of potassium tends to ______ your blood pressure. A) increase B) decrease

60)

Of the following, the best source of potassium is A) fresh spinach. B) milk. C) white bread. D) canned tuna.

61)

Potassium is found in the largest quantities in A) milk and dairy products. B) meats. C) fruits and vegetables. D) refined grains.

Version 1

62)

Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense source of potassium? A) Squash B) Skim milk C) White bread D) Canola oil

63) Switching from an omnivorous dietary pattern to a vegetarian dietary pattern would most likely ______ your intake of potassium. A) increase B) decrease C) not affect

64)

Either too much or too little potassium in the blood can cause A) heart problems. B) extreme hunger. C) liver damage. D) excessive sweating.

65)

Which of the following population groups is at high risk for low blood potassium? A) People who follow a vegetarian dietary pattern B) People with lactose intolerance C) People with eating disorders D) People who are physically inactive

Version 1

66)

Which of the following populations is at risk for high blood potassium? A) People who follow a vegetarian dietary pattern B) People with alcohol use disorders C) People with eating disorders D) People with kidney disorders

67)

Which of the following electrolytes is especially important for proper heart rhythm? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Chloride D) Phosphate

68)

The major source of chloride in the typical American dietary pattern is A) nuts. B) milk. C) cheese. D) table salt.

69)

Depletion of chloride is mostly likely to occur with excessive A) dieting. B) vomiting. C) diarrhea. D) sweating.

Version 1

70)

Which of the following is a function of chloride? A) Participates in digestion B) Neutralizes free radicals C) Activates enzymes D) Mineralizes bone

71)

Hypertension is defined as a systolic/diastolic blood pressure at or above ______ mm Hg. A) 100/50 B) 120/80 C) 140/90 D) 130/80

72) Higher intake of which of the following minerals is associated with lowered blood pressure? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Cadmium D) Chloride

73)

Elevated blood pressure has been linked to excess intakes of

Version 1

A) calcium and vitamin D. B) sodium and potassium. C) sodium and chloride. D) magnesium and potassium.

74)

Systolic pressure refers to the pressure in the A) veins when the heart is contracting. B) veins when the heart is relaxed. C) arteries when the heart is contracting. D) arteries when the heart is relaxed.

75)

Diastolic pressure refers to the pressure in the A) veins when the heart is contracting. B) veins when the heart is relaxed. C) arteries when the heart is contracting. D) arteries when the heart is relaxed.

76) Normal blood pressure is defined as a systolic pressure below ______ mmHg and a diastolic pressure below ______ mmHg. A) 100; 50 B) 120; 80 C) 140; 90 D) 180; 100

Version 1

77)

Primary hypertension A) is also known as the white coat syndrome. B) has no clear-cut cause. C) is a result of kidney disease. D) is a result of sleep apnea.

78)

Obesity A) reduces risk for hypertension. B) is a minor contributor to risk for hypertension. C) is the number one lifestyle risk factor for hypertension. D) is not related to hypertension.

79)

Hypertension can lead to A) cardiovascular disease. B) kidney disease. C) declines in brain function. D) All of these choices are correct.

80)

A useful strategy to reduce the risk of developing hypertension is A) eat plenty of protein. B) limit the use of pepper at the table and during food preparation. C) eat lots of prepackaged and canned foods. D) eat a kilocalorie-controlled diet to maintain a desirable body weight.

Version 1

81)

Up to one or two alcoholic drinks per day A) is a reasonable alcohol intake for an adult with hypertension. B) may reduce the risk for ischemic stroke. C) is a reasonable alcohol intake for adults of legal drinking age. D) All of thesechoices are correct.

82)

The DASH diet for reduction of hypertension A) excludes added sugars. B) is a vegetarian meal plan. C) recommends 2 to 3 servings per day of low-fat dairy products. D) encourages daily use of coconut oil.

83) Stephen's blood pressure is 135/88 and he wishes to follow the principles of the DASH diet. For most Americans, this means increasing intake of A) fruits and vegetables. B) whole milk. C) protein. D) enriched grain products.

84)

The most effective strategy to reduce the risk of hypertension is

Version 1

A) achieve and maintain a healthy weight. B) eat lots of prepackaged and canned foods. C) follow a low-carbohydrate, high-protein dietary pattern. D) limit the use of salt at the table and during food preparation.

85)

The DASH diet recommends inclusionof ______ of nuts, seeds, or legumes. A) 4 to 5 servings per week B) 4 to 5 servings per day C) 2 to 3 servings per week D) 1 serving per day

86) When a person perspires, the evaporation of water from the skin allows heat to leave the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) During illness (i.e., repeated episodes of vomiting or diarrhea), thirst is a reliable indicator of how much water to drink to stay well hydrated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) It is impossible to drink too much water; the kidneys and sweat glands quickly excrete excess water to prevent overhydration. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

89)

Arthur's blood pressure measurement of 148/94 mmHg indicates hypertension. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_6e 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) C 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) C 66) D 67) B 68) D 69) B 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) D 81) D 82) C 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) TRUE Version 1

87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 10 1)

Which of the following accurately describes innate immunity? A) Physical and chemical defenses that keep foreign substances out of the body B) Second line of defense from infections after adaptive immunity C) Develops over time; effective after repeated exposures D) Specific to the pathogen that is in the system

2) Specialized cells and tissues that participate in the immune response, such as the spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes, are collectively called A) lymphoid tissue. B) bone marrow. C) white blood cells. D) lymphocytes.

The skin assists the immune system by A) forming a barrier against invading pathogens. B) secreting lysozyme. C) Both of these answers are correct. D) Neither of these answers is correct.

4) Clusters of specialized immune cells located throughout the gastrointestinal tract are known as

Version 1

A) gut-associated lymphoid tissue. B) lymph nodes. C) cytokines. D) lysozymes.

Phagocytosis is one form of A) cell-mediated immunity. B) antibody-mediated immunity. C) gut-associated lymphoid tissue. D) antimicrobial enzyme.

6) The process by which some types of white blood cells are able to engulf and destroy foreign particles is A) phagocytosis. B) antibody-mediated immunity. C) homeostasis. D) erythropoiesis.

To bolster immune function, evidence supports A) consuming plenty of fruits and vegetables each day. B) consuming one serving of red meat each day. C) taking megadoses of vitamin C supplements. D) All of these choices are correct.

Version 1

8) The ______ is an organ of the immune system that removes dead and damaged cells from the bloodstream. A) spleen B) thymus C) kidney D) liver

9) The physical and chemical barriers of the skin and gastrointestinal tract contribute to ______ immunity. A) innate B) adaptive

10)

A dietary pattern high in sugars, fat, and calories ______ the inflammatory response. A) promotes B) inhibits C) does not affect

11) Suppression of the ______ immune response by vitamin D may help to prevent autoimmune diseases. A) adaptive B) innate

12) The food choices typified by the traditional Mediterranean Diet tend to ______ chronic inflammation. Version 1

A) increase B) decrease

13)

When an atom or molecule is ______, it gains electrons. A) oxidized B) reduced C) hydrolyzed D) dehydrogenated

14)

When a molecule loses an electron in a chemical reaction, the molecule has been A) induced. B) reduced. C) oxidized. D) metabolized.

15)

Free radicals A) are the result of an inborn error of metabolism. B) are generated by normal metabolic processes. C) have no beneficial roles in the body. D) reduce inflammation.

16)

Antioxidants

Version 1

A) promote the formation of free radicals. B) donate electrons to free radicals. C) speed the rate of chemical reactions. D) damage cell membranes.

17)

The best way to improve the body's defense against free radicals is to A) take antioxidant supplements. B) increase intake of processed meats. C) exercise at high altitudes. D) consume plenty of fruits and vegetables.

18)

Free radical damage has been implicated in increasing the risk of A) sinus infections. B) HIV. C) heart disease. D) sickle cell disease.

19) in

Vitamin C, vitamin E, and selenium support immune function mainly through their roles

A) antioxidant systems. B) collagen synthesis. C) DNA synthesis. D) phagocytosis.

20)

Antioxidant nutrients support immune function because

Version 1

A) they protect white blood cells from being damaged by oxidative reactions that destroy pathogens. B) immune cells transport oxygen. C) white blood cells are rapidly turned over. D) vitamin C, vitamin E, and selenium are toxic to pathogens.

21)

Which of the following is a good source of provitamin A carotenoids? A) Low-fat milk B) Sweet potatoes C) Cauliflower D) Grapes

22) George wants to increase his consumption of vitamin A for the possible cancer riskreducing effects. Which of the following foods should he choose? A) Spinach B) Eggs C) Pears D) French fries

23)

Which of the following is converted to vitamin A in the body? A) Tocopherols B) Beta-carotene C) Cholesterol D) Phenylalanine

Version 1

24)

Taking large supplemental doses of vitamins A and E can A) prevent heart disease. B) prevent cancer. C) cure the common cold. D) result in vitamin toxicity.

25) The leading cause of blindness among older Americans is macular degeneration. A dietary pattern rich in can decrease the risk of this condition. A) retinoids B) vitamin B-12 C) vitamin D D) carotenoids

26)

Beta-carotene is a precursor to A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin C. D) vitamin D.

27)

Carotenoid consumptionmay reduce the risk of

Version 1

A) scurvy. B) cataracts. C) cirrhosis. D) beriberi.

28)

Lycopene is found in A) grapes. B) carrots. C) tomatoes. D) whole grain products.

29) In green vegetables, such as broccoli, the orange pigments of provitamin A carotenoids are masked by A) lycopene. B) chlorophyll. C) lutein. D) anthocyanin.

30)

The bioavailabilty of carotenoids is increased by A) cooking. B) consumption with meat products. C) soil mineral content. D) exposure to acid.

Version 1

31)

Consuming excessive carotenoids may cause A) fetal malformations. B) yellowing of the skin. C) chlorosis. D) scurvy.

32) Because of its roles in regulating the growth and development of epithelial tissue and supporting the activity of white blood cells, ______ is sometimes called the "anti-infection" vitamin. 07_2018_QC_CS-121298 A) vitamin A B) vitamin B-12 C) vitamin E D) folate

33)

Which of the following is true about the forms of vitamin A? A) Retinoids are found in plant foods. B) Carotenoids are found in animal foods. C) Carotenoids are converted to retinoids. D) Retinoids are converted to carotenoids.

34)

Most vitamin A is stored in the A) kidneys. B) liver. C) adipose tissue. D) small intestine.

Version 1

35)

Drying of the cornea due to vitamin A deficiency is called A) apnea. B) dysphagia. C) cachexia. D) xerophthalmia.

36) ______ is important for immune function because it promotes the health of epithelial tissue, which forms a barrier against infectious microorganisms, and it is required for the proper function of lymphocytes. A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K

37)

The safest way to meet vitamin A needs is by consuming A) a vitamin A supplement. B) a variety of brightly colored fruits and vegetables. C) large amounts of fortified foods. D) organ meats on a daily basis.

38)

Which of the following is the best source of preformed vitamin A (i.e., retinoids)?

Version 1

A) Liver B) Broccoli C) Pork chop D) Chicken breast

39) of

Yellow-orange vegetables and fruits, such as squash and apricots, are important sources

A) vitamin E. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin A. D) vitamin D.

40) Dark green or orange vegetables and/or fruits are recommended at least every other day to provide a source of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin D. D) vitamin E.

41) Who needs to take vitamin A supplements (beyond the amount that is included in a balanced multivitamin and mineral supplement)? A) Pregnant women B) People with severe fat malabsorption C) Anyone trying to fend off a cold D) All of the choices are correct.

Version 1

42)

Which of the following is true about the toxicity of vitamin A? A) Fetal malformations can occur. B) One is unlikely to get toxic doses from eating foods sources of vitamin A. C) Most adverse effects disappear after excessive doses stop. D) All of these are true about the toxicity of vitamin A.

43) The RDA for vitamin A is expressed in ______, which take into account the activity of preformed vitamin A and provitamin A carotenoids. A) retinol activity equivalents (RAE) B) niacin equivalents (NE) C) international units (IU) D) dietary folate equivalents (DFE)

44) Deficiency symptoms of pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin, bleeding gums, and joint pain are related to the role of vitamin C in A) carnitine synthesis. B) collagen synthesis. C) antioxidant reactions. D) neurotransmitter synthesis.

45)

Vitamin C contributes to bone health by virtue of its role in

Version 1

A) antioxidant reactions. B) collagen synthesis. C) immune function. D) mineral absorption.

46)

Vitamin C enhances the absorption of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) iron. D) zinc.

47)

As part of the body’s antioxidant defenses, vitamin C participates in the recycling of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) iron. D) zinc.

48)

Vitamin C intake over 2 grams per day may cause A) diarrhea. B) liver damage. C) beriberi. D) rebound scurvy.

49)

Which of the following snacks provides the most vitamin C?

Version 1

A) Mixed berries, including strawberries and blueberries B) Whole wheat crackers with peanut butter C) Baked apples with cinnamon and brown sugar D) Grilled cheese sandwich

50) Which of the following population groups should consume more than the RDA for vitamin C? A) Vegetarians B) Alcoholics C) Older adults D) Smokers

51)

The vitamin C content of foods can be decreased by A) exposure to cool temperatures. B) ripening. C) exposure to oxygen. D) binding with phytic acid.

52)

Research evidence shows that vitamin C supplements A) reduce the duration of the common cold. B) worsen the severity of symptoms of the common cold. C) suppress the immune response to the common cold. D) prevent the common cold.

53)

Formation and maintenance of collagen require

Version 1

A) thiamin. B) vitamin C. C) pantothenic acid. D) folate.

54)

Scurvy can be prevented with adequate intakes of A) niacin. B) riboflavin. C) vitamin C. D) thiamin.

55)

Which of the following is an antioxidant? A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B-6 C) Biotin D) Thiamin

56)

Vitamin E functions as A) a coenzyme. B) an antioxidant. C) a hormone. D) an enzyme.

57)

The main form of vitamin E in the body is

Version 1

A) alpha-tocopherol. B) gamma-tocopherol. C) beta-tocopherol. D) delta-tocopherol.

58) Replacing animal fats with plant oils in the dietary pattern would not only cut saturated fat intake, but would also increase A) vitamin A intake. B) vitamin C intake. C) vitamin E intake. D) selenium intake.

59) When a cell membrane is damaged by free radicals, which specific component of the cell membrane is damaged? A) Cholesterol B) Phospholipid C) Polysaccharide D) Saturated fat

60)

Which of the following vitamins serves as an antioxidant in cell membranes? A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K

Version 1

61)

In general, the richest sources of vitamin E are A) refined grain products. B) plant oils. C) citrus fruits. D) yellow and orange vegetables.

62)

A rich source of vitamin E is A) oranges. B) chicken breast. C) corn oil. D) prime rib.

63)

Cell membranes are susceptible to damage by free radicals because A) they are composed primarily of polyunsaturated fatty acids. B) they are composed primarily of saturated fatty acids. C) they have so many unpaired electrons. D) they are the site of cellular respiration.

64)

Vitamin E is thought to be helpful in the prevention of heart disease because it A) enhances vitamin Kactivity. B) prevents oxidation of LDL cholesterol. C) relaxes blood vessels. D) prevents sodium retention.

Version 1

65)

When the intake of

is low, vitaminE aids in itsabsorption.

A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) iron D) zinc

66)

Typical North American dietary patterns ______ the RDA for vitamin E. A) do not meet B) meet

67)

Which of the following population groups is at the greatest risk for vitamin E deficiency? A) Vegetarians B) Preterm infants C) Athletes D) Older adults

68)

Food processing, such as the milling of whole wheat to make white flour, A) enhances vitamin E absorption from foods. B) increases vitamin E content of foods. C) decreases vitamin E content of foods. D) has no effect on vitamin E in foods because it is a stable compound.

Version 1

69)

The most bioavailable sources of vitamin E are A) plant oils. B) fish oils. C) alpha-tocopherol supplements. D) mixed-tocopherol supplements.

70)

Vitamin E deficiency is least likely among A) those who follow a vegetarian dietary pattern. B) those who smoke cigarettes. C) premature infants. D) those with fat malabsorption.

71) The American Heart Association, the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, and the National Academy of Sciences ______ vitamin E supplements for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. A) do not recommend B) recommend

72)

Excessive use of vitamin E supplements could lead to A) uncontrolled bleeding. B) bone fractures. C) fishy body odor. D) All of these choices are correct.

Version 1

73)

The selenium level in a foodis tightly associated with A) fortification ofthe food. B) selenium contentof the soil. C) fortification ofthe feed provided to animals. D) oxygen exposure.

74)

The selenium content of the typical North American dietary pattern is A) inadequate, due to low intake of whole grain products. B) inadequate, due to low intake of fruits and vegetables. C) adequate, due to consumption of a variety of animal and grain products. D) adequate, due to widespread fortification of foods with selenium.

75)

Which of the following is true about selenium? A) It is needed for hemoglobin synthesis. B) An excess cancause hypertension. C) It acts as acofactor in protein metabolism. D) It participates inantioxidant reactions.

76)

Which of the following foods is highest in selenium? A) Whole grainbread B) Black beans C) Asparagus D) Tuna

Version 1

77)

Selenium is involved in an antioxidant enzyme system. It is a cofactor for A) cytochrome oxidase. B) catalase. C) superoxide dismutase. D) glutathione peroxidase.

78)

Selenium toxicity would most likely result from A) high intakes of seafood. B) high intakes of grain products grown on selenium-rich soil. C) daily intake of green, leafy vegetables. D) excessive use of dietary supplements.

79)

Muscle pain, wasting, and heart damage result from a deficiency of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin E. D) selenium.

80)

A mineral that has antioxidant functions and has been suggested to reduce cancer risk is A) iron. B) sodium. C) selenium. D) sulfur.

Version 1

81) ______ is needed for DNA synthesis, protein metabolism, wound healing, growth, development of sexual organs, and white blood cell formation. A) Zinc B) Selenium C) Vitamin A D) Vitamin E

82) Protein-rich dietary patterns, especially those that include many animal sources of protein, are high in A) zinc. B) beta carotene. C) calcium. D) vitamin E.

83)

Which of the following foods is the best source of zinc? A) Turkey B) Pears C) Swiss cheese D) Sweet potatoes

84)

A reduced sense of taste may be a symptom of ______ deficiency.

Version 1

A) zinc B) copper C) chromium D) choline

85)

Slow growth and delayed sexual development occur with a deficiency of A) zinc. B) copper. C) molybdenum. D) iron.

86)

Flavonoids, carotenoids, and stanols are examples of A) toxic chemicals. B) phytochemicals. C) zoochemicals. D) provitamin A.

87) Which of the following qualities can help to identify produce that is rich in phytochemicals? A) Price B) Fat content C) Color D) Texture

Version 1

88) Probiotics help to reinforce the integrity of the gastrointestinal tract by forming a network of proteins that blocks the movement of pathogens through its lining. If the integrity of the GI tract lining is compromised, pathogens can move more easily into the blood. This condition of compromised integrity of the GI tract is called A) a leaky gut. B) a Metchnikoff gut. C) an autoimmune disease. D) the gut microbiota.

89) Probiotics are being studied for their potential to improve many aspects of health. At this time, the best evidence exists to support the role of probiotics in A) reduction of diarrheal diseases. B) prevention of urinary tract infections. C) prevention of respiratory tract infections. D) reducing symptoms of ulcerative colitis.

90) Suzanne takes a supplement containing a strain of bacteria known as Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG in hopes that it will colonize her large intestine and promote health. This supplement is a(n) A) probiotic. B) prebiotic. C) synbiotic. D) antibiotic.

91) Ben started taking a supplement containing fructooligosaccharides, which are a form of carbohydrate that is not digestible by humans, but helps to promote the growth of healthy bacteria in the human colon. This supplement is a(n)

Version 1

A) prebiotic. B) probiotic. C) synbiotic. D) antibiotic.

92)

For cancer prevention, which of the following dietary componentsshould be limited? A) Omega-3 fattyacids B) Cured meats C) Phytochemicals D) Low-fat dairy products

93) Anya is undergoing treatment for cancerand suffers from nausea and mouth sores, which are hindering her food intake. Which of the following meals would you recommend? A) Pancakes, a hardboiled egg, and apple juice B) Bacon, fried eggs,and orange juice C) Spaghetti withmeat sauce, garlic bread, and a soft drink D) Toast with jam, asoft-boiled egg, and milk

94)

Which of the following cancers is unrelated to body fatness or excessive calorie intake? A) Lung B) Breast C) Colon D) Pancreatic

Version 1

95)

Cruciferous vegetables such as ______ are rich in cancer-preventing phytochemicals. A) onions and leeks B) carrots and sweet potatoes C) cabbage and cauliflower D) spinach and Swiss chard

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_6e 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) D 77) D 78) D 79) D 80) C 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) B Version 1

87) C 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) A 95) C

Version 1

CHAPTER 11 1)

Like bones, teeth are made of hydroxyapatite. Unlike bones, teeth are covered with A) periosteum. B) enamel. C) osteocytes. D) marrow.

Cortical bone A) has a dense structure. B) has a spongy structure. C) is the site of red blood cell synthesis. D) is more rapidly remodeled than trabecular bone.

Trabecular bone A) has a porous structure. B) is the site of blood cell synthesis. C) is more rapidly remodeled than cortical bone. D) All of these choices are correct.

The mixture of calcium and phosphorus that forms the structure of boneis called A) dentin. B) calcium citrate. C) calcium carbonate. D) hydroxyapatite.

Version 1

Bone remodeling refers to A) continual degradation and regeneration of bone. B) loss of height that occurs with aging. C) bone marrowregeneration. D) use of metal pins to repair broken bones.

Excess body weight A) accelerates bone loss. B) increases bone density. C) is associated with greater risk of fractures. D) enhances calciumabsorption.

A good indicator of bone health is A) bone mineral density. B) frame size. C) curvature of the spine. D) blood calcium concentration.

8) Accumulation of bone mass occurs primarily during childhood and adolescence. Later in life, the rate of bone degradation exceeds the rate of bone synthesis. For average, healthy men and women, gradual bone loss begins around age

Version 1

A) 20. B) 30. C) 40. D) 50.

Adequate intakes of ______ support optimal bone health. A) calcium, vitamin D, and protein B) vitamin E, folate, and protein C) protein, iron, and vitamin B-6 D) sodium, phosphorus, and vitamin C

10)

For prevention of osteoporosis, strength training is A) recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance. B) recommended because it decreases estrogen levels. C) not recommended because it increases fracture risk. D) not recommended because it increases testosterone levels.

11)

Choose the factors that promote bone health.

A) Smoking, alcohol, and excessive caffeine intake B) Healthy body weight, active lifestyle, and a balanced dietary pattern that includes bone-building nutrients C) Female, aging, and high estrogen D) Strength training, low estrogen levels, and low protein intake

12)

As adults age, their dietary needs for calcium and vitamin D

Version 1

A) increase. B) decrease. C) do not change.

13)

To prevent bone loss, a woman at risk for osteoporosis could A) increaseweight-bearing exercise. B) increase dietaryintake of calcium and vitamin D. C) consult aphysician about estrogen replacement. D) All of thesechoices are correct.

14)

In the body, 99 percent of calcium is found in A) the liver. B) intracellular fluid. C) bones and teeth. D) nerve cells.

15)

Calcium absorption is increased by A) high caffeine intake and large intakes of phytic acid. B) foods that contain vitamin D and lactose. C) foods high in oxalates such as sweet potatoes, collard greens, spinach, and rhubarb. D) tannins in tea and some legumes.

16)

Calcium absorption is decreased by

Version 1

A) phytic acid, oxalic acid, and tannins. B) periods of growth, such as adolescence and pregnancy. C) the presence of lactose in the dietary pattern. D) acidic environment of the stomach.

17)

______ should be taken with meals to enhance absorption. A) Calcium carbonate B) Calcium citrate

18)

Blood calcium concentration is regulated at the level of the A) bones. B) intestines. C) kidneys. D) All of these choices are correct.

19)

Which of the following accurately describes the functions of calcium? A) Growth, development, and maintenance of bones B) Appetite regulation C) Homocysteine metabolism D) Transport of oxygen through the blood

20)

Regarding use of calcium supplements, which of the following is true?

Version 1

A) Supplementscontaining oyster shell and dolomite should be labeled "purified" to beconsidered safe. B) Intakes over 500 milligrams per dose may interfere with absorption of iron and zinc. C) For maximum absorbability, any form of calcium supplements should be taken on an empty stomach. D) The USP label warns consumers that the supplement may contain high levels of lead or aluminum.

21)

The most bioavailable sources of calcium are A) vegetables. B) protein foods. C) milk and other dairy products. D) grains.

22)

Which would you expect to provide the largest amount of calcium? A) 1 medium egg B) 1 slice of bread C) 1 ounce of cheese D) 1 medium apple

23)

______ is the mineral present in the body in the greatest quantity. A) Boron B) Calcium C) Magnesium D) Phosphorus

Version 1

24)

Which of the following individuals is most likely to need supplemental dietary calcium? A) An adolescent girl with a milk allergy B) A 30-year-old man who follows a lactoovovegetarian dietary pattern. C) A 4-year-old girl who refuses to eat vegetables D) An overweight man with a sedentary desk job

25)

Tetanymay bea sign of low blood levels of A) fluoride. B) phosphorus. C) calcium. D) vitamin D.

26)

Which of the following accurately describes the functions of phosphorus?

A) Activation of enzymes, component of cell membranes, and maintenance of fluid balance B) Regulation of blood glucose, control of calcium absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D in the liver C) Energy metabolism, destruction of pathogens, and transport of oxygen in the blood D) Support of immune function, regulation of cell growth, and production of hormones

27)

Exceeding the UL for phosphorus can lead to

Version 1

A) mineralization of soft tissues, such as blood vessels and organs. B) excessive bone growth. C) blood clots. D) All of these choices are correct.

28)

Blood phosphorus levels are primarily regulated by A) the intestine. B) the kidneys. C) the liver. D) thyroid hormone.

29) Of the following, the mineral that is least likely to be deficient in the American dietary pattern is A) calcium. B) phosphorus. C) iron. D) magnesium.

30)

Which of the following food combinations would provide the most phosphorus? A) Strawberries, orange juice, potatoes B) Cream of wheat, enriched bread, muffin C) Cheeseburger on whole-wheat bun, cola D) Broccoli and cauliflower salad

Version 1

31)

Older women may be at risk for phosphorous deficiency if they A) include too much dairy products in their dietary patterns. B) live alone, have a nutrient-poor dietary pattern, and take calcium supplements. C) take hormone replacement therapy. D) stay inside most of the day.

32) Substituting carbonated soft drinks for dairy products is a bad idea because the resulting high _______ intake combined with inadequate _______ intake leads to bone loss. A) sodium; phosphorus B) phosphorus; calcium C) magnesium; sodium D) carbon dioxide; calcium

33)

The nutrient that can be considered both a vitamin and a hormone is A) vitamin E. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin A. D) niacin.

34)

Vitamin D is unique among the vitamins because A) it is absorbed and transported via the lymphatic system. B) its absorption requires bile and fat. C) it can be formed in the body by skin exposure to the sun. D) it can be stored.

Version 1

35)

Vitamin D regulates A) energy metabolism. B) fluid balance. C) oxidation and reduction reactions. D) blood calcium levels.

36)

______ is a building block of vitamin D and other hormones. A) Hydroxyapatite B) Calcitriol C) Cholesterol D) Estrogen

37)

The ability of the skin to synthesize vitamin D is decreased by A) the use of sunscreen. B) excessive dietary calcium intake. C) excessive dietary phosphorus intake. D) the use of a tanning bed.

38)

Deposition of calcium and phosphorus in the bones is influenced by A) vitamin A. B) riboflavin. C) vitamin D. D) niacin.

Version 1

39)

The childhood disease rickets is due to a deficiency of A) vitamin D. B) vitamin A. C) vitamin C. D) vitamin K.

40)

Vitamin D is converted to its active form by the A) liver and kidneys. B) bones. C) pancreas. D) skin.

41)

A reliable source of vitamin D in the dietary pattern is A) poultry. B) whole-grain bread. C) yellow squash. D) fortified milk.

42) A condition characterized by soft bones resulting from a deficiency of vitamin D in adulthood is known as

Version 1

A) osteopenia. B) osteomalacia. C) osteoporosis. D) osteopathy.

43)

The major effect of taking high doses of vitamin D is A) excessive acne. B) calcium deposits in the kidneys and other organs. C) limb paralysis. D) a flaky skin rash.

44)

Vitamin D toxicity is most likely a result of A) consuming beef liver. B) megadoses of vitamin D supplements. C) excessive sun exposure. D) consuming 3 servings of vitamin D-fortified dairy products per day.

45) Which of the following would be the best source of vitamin D for a person following a vegan dietary pattern? A) Fish oil B) Vitamin D-fortified soymilk C) Spinach D) Whole grain products

Version 1

46)

Reduced blood calcium levels would result from the actions of A) calcitriol. B) calcitonin. C) parathyroid hormone. D) All of these choices are correct.

47)

Fat malabsorption may contribute to poor bone health because of impaired absorption of A) vitamin D. B) vitamin A. C) phosphorus. D) magnesium.

48) The fat-soluble vitamin that can lead to calcification of soft tissue, such as the kidney, when consumed in large quantities, is A) vitamin A. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K.

49) Which of the following is a situation in whicha person should consider vitamin D supplementation? A) Strict vegan dietary pattern B) Allergy to milkprotein C) Kidneydisease D) All of thesechoices are correct.

Version 1

50)

Which of the following statements is true? A) As we age, weneed more vitamin D and more kilocalories. B) As we age, weneed more vitamin D and fewer kilocalories. C) As we age, weneed less vitamin D and fewer kilocalories. D) As we age, weneed less vitamin D and more kilocalories.

51) To promote bone health, all infants should receive supplemental ______ until dietary intake from formula and/or other foods meets their needs. A) calcium B) phosphorus C) vitamin D D) magnesium

52)

Vitamin ______ can be produced in the skin in response to ultraviolet light. A) A B) C C) D D) E

53)

In North America, the major dietary source of vitamin ______ is fortified dairy products. A) B-6 B) C C) D D) K

Version 1

54)

The childhood deficiency disease for vitamin D is called A) osteopenia. B) osteomalacia. C) rickets. D) osteoporosis.

55)

To protect bone health, vegans may require a supplemental source of vitamin A) A. B) C. C) D. D) K.

56)

What is magnesium's primary function? A) It transports calcium in the blood. B) It is importantin hemoglobin synthesis. C) It maintainsmucus production in the digestive tract. D) It is importantfor nerve and heart function.

57)

Magnesium is related to vitamin D in that A) magnesium is required for synthesis of vitamin D in the skin. B) magnesium increases intestinal absorption of vitamin D. C) magnesium is required for activation of vitamin D in the liver. D) All of these choices are correct.

Version 1

58)

Magnesium is required for A) bone health. B) cardiovascular health. C) energy-yielding reactions. D) All of these choices are correct.

59)

Foods of ______ origin are the best sources of magnesium. A) plant B) animal

60)

Magnesium deficiency may cause A) irregular heartbeat. B) muscle pain. C) seizures. D) All of these choices are correct.

61)

Which of the following populations are at risk for poor magnesium status?

A) Individuals with autoimmune disease, young adults, and individuals with irondeficiency anemia B) Individuals with diabetes, individuals who adhere to a vegan dietary pattern, and individuals who are overweight C) Teenagers and middle-aged males D) Individuals with alcohol use disorders, individuals using diuretics, and individuals experiencing excessive vomiting and diarrhea

Version 1

62) _______ is a major mineral important for nerve and heart function and is a cofactor for over 300 enzymes. It is a major constituent of bone and is found in whole grains and vegetables. A) Magnesium B) Calcium C) Phosphorus D) Fluoride

63) Low levels of _______, a mineral found especially in plant foods, may be associated with poor cardiovascular health. A) calcium B) fluoride C) phosphorus D) magnesium

64)

Besides calcium and phosphorous, ______ is another mineral important for bone health. A) iron B) sodium C) magnesium D) sulfur

65)

The mineral that gives hardness to teeth and bones is

Version 1

A) selenium. B) zinc. C) copper. D) fluoride.

66)

The most economical way to supply fluoride is A) fluoride tablets. B) topical fluoride gels. C) fluoridation of the municipal water supply. D) fortification of foods with fluoride.

67)

Too much ______ can cause discoloration (mottling) of the teeth. A) fluoride B) copper C) iron D) selenium

68) The addition of ______ to the water supply has lowered the rate of dental caries (i.e., cavities) in many areas of the United States. A) sodium B) fluoride C) magnesium D) iron

Version 1

69)

Vitamin C contributes to bone health by virtue of its role in A) antioxidant reactions. B) collagen synthesis. C) immune function. D) mineral absorption.

70)

Vitamin K is required for optimal bone health due to its role in activating A) proteins that bindcalcium. B) clotting factors in the blood. C) vitamin D in the kidneys. D) vitamin D in theliver.

71)

The difference between osteopenia and osteoporosis is

A) the bone loss of patients with osteopenia is not as severe as that of patients with osteoporosis. B) the bone loss of patients with osteopenia is worse than that of patients with osteoporosis. C) osteopenia is caused by heredity whereas osteoporosis is caused by lifestyle. D) osteopenia can be cured whereas osteoporosis is irreversible.

72) Postmenopausal women are more prone to fractures than premenopausal women primarily because

Version 1

A) low estrogen levels accelerate bone loss. B) low progesterone levels accelerate bone loss. C) older women are unable to maintain physical activity. D) accumulation of iron in the blood depletes bone minerals.

73)

Type 1 osteoporosis A) is mainly due to increased estrogen levels. B) most dramatically affects trabecular bone. C) is characterizedby equal losses of trabecular and cortical bone. D) affects both men and women over the age of 60.

74)

Which drug prevents bone loss by inhibiting osteoclast activity? A) Calcium citrate B) HRT C) Parathyroidhormone D) Bisphosphonate

75)

Osteomalaciais characterized by soft bones resulting from A) vitamin D deficiency in adulthood. B) vitamin D deficiency in childhood. C) calcium deficiency in adulthood. D) calcium deficiency in childhood.

Version 1

76) _______ is a disease in which bone mass is lost to such a degree that fractures can occur in bones, especially the wrist, spine, and hips. A) Osteopenia B) Rickets C) Osteomalacia D) Osteoporosis

77)

The most accurate method of assessing bone health is A) computed tomography. B) quantitative ultrasound. C) an x-ray of the back. D) dual energy x-ray absorptiometry.

78) Mrs. Davis is a 70-year-old white female who just had a DEXA measurement to assess her bone density. Her T-score of -2.1 indicates A) high bone mineral density. B) normal bone mineral density. C) osteopenia. D) osteoporosis.

79)

Which of the following non-dairy milk beverages has the highest protein content? A) Almond milk B) Flax milk C) Coconut milk D) Soy milk

Version 1

80) Unfortified coconut milk is not a good dairy substitute because of its high ______ content and relatively low ______ content. A) cholesterol; phosphorus and magnesium B) sodium; fluoride and vitamin C C) fat; calcium and vitamin D D) protein; carbohydrate and fat

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_6e 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) D 62) A 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) D 77) D 78) C 79) D 80) C

Version 1

CHAPTER 12 1) A ______ is an organic compound that aids enzyme function by combining with an inactive enzyme to form a catalytically active form. A) zymogen B) precursor C) coenzyme D) vitamin

2) Typically, about 50% to 90% of the B vitamins in the diet are absorbed. In other words, B vitamins have high A) essentiality. B) bioavailability. C) utilization. D) metabolism.

3) Because B vitamins are ______, very little is stored and excess intakes end up in the urine or stool. A) non-toxic B) dissolvable C) fat soluble D) water soluble

4) In the process of milling grains to make refined products, seeds are crushed and the germ, bran, and husk layers are discarded. This leaves only the starch-containing _______ in the refined grains.

Version 1

A) endosperm B) cereal C) cellulose D) fiber

5) In the United States, bread and cereal products made from milled grains are enriched with the vitamins _______ and with the mineral iron. A) A, D, and E B) thiamin, niacin, and riboflavin C) A, C, and K D) folate, choline, and B-12

The vitamin required specifically in carbohydrate metabolism is A) folate. B) niacin. C) riboflavin. D) thiamin.

Beriberi is caused by a ______ deficiency. A) thiamin B) vitamin B-6 C) niacin D) choline

Version 1

8) Symptoms of ______ deficiency include glossitis, dermatitis, cheilosis, eye disorders, sun sensitivity, and confusion. A) thiamin B) niacin C) riboflavin D) folate

The body can produce niacin from the amino acid A) alanine. B) phenylalanine. C) tryptophan. D) tyrosine.

10) ______ is a water-soluble vitamin that is especially important in amino acid metabolism, neurotransmitter synthesis, and the synthesis of the heme portion of hemoglobin. A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B-6 C) Thiamin D) Riboflavin

11) ______ is a water-soluble vitamin that is important for the release of energy from carbohydrates as well as the synthesis of RNA, DNA, and some neurotransmitters.

Version 1

A) Thiamin B) Pyridoxine C) Niacin D) Riboflavin

12) Thiamin is distributed in small amounts in many foods. The most nutrient-dense source of thiamin is A) milk. B) pork. C) whole grain cereals. D) dark green vegetables.

13)

Which of the following are the best thiamin sources? A) Pork, whole grains, enriched grain products, and legumes B) Root vegetables, cheddar-type cheese, and deep yellow/orange fruits and vegetables C) Seafood, vegetables of the cabbage family, and whole grains D) Milk, beef, and deep yellow/orange fruits and vegetables

14)

The nutrient that prevents beriberi is A) vitamin B-12. B) niacin. C) riboflavin. D) thiamin.

Version 1

15)

What disease is caused by a thiamin deficiency? A) Pellagra B) Scurvy C) Kwashiorkor D) Beriberi

16)

The foods that provide the largest source of riboflavin in the American dietary pattern are A) meats. B) whole grain cereals. C) milk and dairy products. D) dark green leafy vegetables.

17)

Niacin is necessary to prevent the disease A) pernicious anemia. B) beriberi. C) scurvy. D) pellagra.

18)

Pellagra is characterized by A) diarrhea. B) dementia. C) dermatitis. D) All the choices are correct.

Version 1

19)

In the body, the amino acid tryptophancan be converted into A) niacin. B) thiamin. C) vitamin B-6. D) riboflavin.

20) Bill's physician has written a prescription for 1.5 grams of nicotinic acid (a form of niacin) per day. Which of the following is a benefit of high doses of niacin? A) It is a potent antioxidant. B) It can lower blood pressure. C) It can lower blood sugar levels. D) It can lower blood cholesterol levels.

21)

The vitamin that aids in activating fatty acids so they can yield energy is A) pantothenic acid. B) biotin. C) vitamin B-6. D) thiamin.

22)

A pantothenic acid deficiency

Version 1

A) is very unlikely because of its widespread availability. B) is very likely. C) occurs commonly in children. D) occurs commonly in the elderly.

23) ______ is unique among the B vitamins because bacterial synthesis of the vitamin contributes to meeting human needs. A) Folate B) Vitamin B-6 C) Pantothenic acid D) Biotin

24)

Taking megadose supplements of vitamin B-6 can lead to A) liver damage. B) nerve damage. C) kidney damage. D) ulcers.

25) A deficiency of vitamin B-6 can result in depression, headaches, and confusion. These occur because of impaired A) hemoglobin synthesis. B) glucose metabolism. C) neurotransmitter synthesis. D) DNA synthesis.

Version 1

26)

Which B vitamin is required for amino acid metabolism? A) Thiamin B) Niacin C) Vitamin B-6 D) Pantothenic acid

27)

The best vitamin B-6 food sources include A) enriched breadsand cereals. B) milk and other dairy products. C) meat, fish, and poultry. D) deep yellow/orange fruits and vegetables.

28) In North America, which of the following populations is most susceptible to deficiencies of B vitamins? A) Vegans B) Pregnantwomen C) Preschooolchildren D) Alcoholics

29)

Which of the following is the best food source of riboflavin?

Version 1

A) Milk B) Lean ham C) Carrots D) Canola oil

30)

Biotin absorption is inhibited by A) phytate. B) oxalate. C) avidin. D) copper.

31) Consistently consuming raw egg whites, as in a daily high-protein drink, can bind and result in deficiency. A) folate B) vitamin B-6 C) pantothenicacid D) biotin

32)

_______is important in the synthesis of thyroid hormone. Lack of it will lead to a goiter. A) Chromium B) Biotin C) Iodine D) Fluoride

Version 1

33) A deficiency of _______ results in impaired glucose tolerance and elevated blood cholesterol. A) thiamin B) iodine C) chromium D) biotin

34)

A severe iodine deficiency during early pregnancy may result in an infant afflicted with A) scurvy. B) rickets. C) congenital hypothyroidism. D) xerophthalmia.

35)

A goiter may form as a consequence of an inadequate intake of A) copper. B) magnesium. C) sodium. D) iodine.

36) People who eat large amounts of seaweed can consume toxic levels of which trace mineral? A) Selenium B) Iron C) Zinc D) Iodine

Version 1

37)

Which of the following is a good chromium source? A) Cherries B) Whole grains C) Enriched, refinedgrains D) Drinking water

38)

A major source of iodine in the North American diet is A) seaweed. B) sea salt. C) table salt. D) carbonated soft drinks.

39)

Which of the following is likely to cause chromium toxicity? A) Exposure to industrial waste B) Daily consumption of egg yolks C) Daily consumption of Brazil nuts D) All of these lead to chromium toxicity.

40) Megadoses of ________ may be used to lower cholesterol, but they can cause flushing of the skin.

Version 1

A) pyridoxine B) nicotinic acid C) riboflavin D) pantothenic acid

41)

The apparent role of _______ in prevention of birth defects is similar to that of folate. A) manganese B) molybdenum C) choline D) pantothenic acid

42)

A suboptimal intake of chromium in individuals in the United States may be linked to A) impaired glucose tolerance. B) elevated calcitriol levels. C) lowered serum cholesterol levels. D) elevated blood pressure.

43)

Which of the following isa role of choline in human health? A) Synthesis of neurotransmitters B) Transport of lipids C) Structure of cell membranes D) All of these choices are functionsof choline.

44)

Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of

Version 1

A) riboflavin. B) choline. C) chromium. D) iodine.

45)

Which of the following body systems is particularly sensitive to choline status? A) Nervous system B) Immune system C) Digestivesystem D) Skeletalsystem

46) Manganese is required as a cofactor for synthesis of _______ and metabolism of some _______. A) glucose; amino acids B) protein; fatty acids C) starch; bile acids D) cholesterol; triglycerides

47)

Risk of molybdenum toxicity risk in humans is quite low. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

Manganese is not toxic at high doses. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 13

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_6e 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) C Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) TRUE 48) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 13 1)

Another name for red blood cells is A) erythrocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) leukocytes.

All blood cells are formed in A) bone marrow. B) cortical bone. C) the liver. D) plasma.

3) Oxygen binds to iron, contained in in red blood cells. A) hemosiderin B) hematocrit C) hemoglobin D) hemostat

The nutrient essential for synthesis of several blood clotting factors is

Version 1

A) vitamin A. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K.

5) Dennis had undergone a heart valve replacement and was placed on Coumadin (warfarin). In order for the Coumadin to be effective, consistent daily consumption of must be maintained. A) iron B) magnesium C) vitamin K D) vitamin B-12

Vitamin D and vitamin K share which of the following characteristics? A) Both can besynthesized to some extent in the body. B) Both affectintestinal absorption of calcium. C) Both are involvedin blood clotting. D) All of thesechoices are correct.

Which of the following populations is most susceptible to vitamin K deficiency? A) Vegans B) Preschoolchildren who are picky eaters C) Children withcystic fibrosis D) Older adults

Version 1

Which of the following food combinations provides the most vitamin K? A) Spinach saladwith strawberries, blueberries, and oil and vinegar dressing B) Ham and cheese ona whole wheat English muffin C) Low-fat yogurtwith granola and fresh berries D) Sirloin steak,steamed green beans, and baked potato

Excessive use of antibiotics can decrease A) calciumabsorption. B) vitamin Dsynthesis. C) vitamin Ksynthesis. D) phosphorusexcretion.

10)

______ are important for DNA synthesis in the formation of new red blood cells. A) Folate and thiamin B) Thiamin and niacin C) Vitamin B-12 and folate D) Folate and pantothenic acid

11)

Which of the following is a rich folate food source of folate? A) Skim milk, 1 cup B) Beef, roasted, 3 ounces C) Spinach, cooked, 1 cup D) Apple, 1 medium

Version 1

12)

Generally, ______ are the best sources of folate. A) fruits B) green, leafy vegetables C) milk and dairy products D) poultry and seafood

13) Acquiring sufficient vitamin B-12 from food sources may be a problem for vegans because QC_CS-103660 A) phytic acid in grains may inhibit its absorption. B) they lack the R-protein in the stomach. C) it is not naturally found in foods of plant origin. D) protein deficiency limits synthesis of intrinsic factor.

14)

Jason follows a vegan dietary pattern. He should take a supplemental source of A) vitamin B-12. B) folate. C) vitamin C. D) vitamin A.

15)

Vitamin B-12 is supplied almost entirely by A) animal products. B) vegetables and fruits. C) human intestinal bacteria. D) whole grain cereals and legumes.

Version 1

16) In 1998, the federal governments in both the United States and Canada mandated the fortification of grain products with ______ to reduce the rate of neural tube defects. A) niacin B) thiamin C) iron D) folic acid

17)

The form of folate found in supplements and enriched cereal is A) folate. B) folic acid. C) folacin. D) fluoric acid.

18) The synthetic form of folate (folic acid) is ______ bioavailable than the natural form of the vitamin. A) more B) less

19)

Exceeding the UL for folate A) is a common result of a dietary pattern that is rich in fruits and vegetables. B) can cause avitaminB-12 deficiency. C) can mask avitaminB-12 deficiency. D) cannot occur with synthetic forms of the vitamin.

Version 1

20)

Folate and vitamin B-12 work together in the metabolism of A) niacin. B) homocysteine. C) iron. D) fatty acids.

21) Consuming adequate ______ during pregnancy can helpto prevent neural tube defects, such as spina bifida. A) niacin B) folate C) riboflavin D) vitamin B-6

22)

Consuming high doses of ______ can mask signs of a vitamin B-12 deficiency. A) folate B) vitamin K C) iron D) vitamin B-6

23)

Pernicious anemia is related to impaired absorption of A) vitamin B-12. B) folate. C) copper. D) iron.

Version 1

24)

In order to adequately absorb vitamin B-12, we need A) intrinsicfactor. B) an acidenvironment in the stomach. C) a healthy ileum. D) all of these.

25)

The abnormal red blood cells seen in pernicious anemia are due to A) inadequate folateintake. B) inadequate folateabsorption. C) inadequate B-12intake. D) inadequate B-12absorption.

26)

Individuals who ______ are at increased risk for vitamin B-12 deficiency. A) take medications to decrease stomach acidity B) exercise intensely C) smoke D) frequently eat red meat

27) Individuals who take medications to reduce acid production in the stomach are at increased risk for ______ deficiency. A) vitamin B-12 B) folate C) vitamin K D) vitamin B-6

Version 1

28)

Older adults may require a supplemental source of vitamin B-12 because A) low intake of vitamin C impairs vitamin B-12 absorption. B) decreased production of intrinsic factor decreases vitamin B-12 absorption. C) increased hydrochloric acid production decreases vitamin B-12 absorption. D) high fiber intake binds vitamin B-12.

29)

Which of the B vitamins contains cobalt? A) Niacin B) Thiamin C) Vitamin B-6 D) Vitamin B-12

30)

Milk is a poor source of A) vitamin D. B) calcium. C) iron. D) vitamin A.

31)

The amount of iron in the body is mostly regulated by A) excretion in the urine. B) absorption in the small intestine. C) synthesis in the skin. D) metabolism in the liver.

Version 1

32)

Which of the following foods provides the most iron? A) 3 ounces of shrimp B) 3 ounces of turkey C) 3 ounces of tofu D) 3 ounces of sirloin steak

33)

Which of the following statements is true about iron?

A) Iron deficiency anemia is found most commonly among young children, adolescents, and menstruating women. B) Approximately 65% of dietary iron is absorbed. C) An individual with iron-deficiency absorbs less iron than a person with good iron status. D) Excess dietaryiron is excreted readily via the kidneys.

34)

Of the following foods, iron is best absorbed from A) beef. B) broccoli. C) kidney beans. D) cheese.

35)

Vitamin C and meat protein ______ nonheme iron absorption. A) increase B) decrease C) do not change

Version 1

36)

Which of the following is a source of heme iron? A) Seafood B) Leafy, green vegetables C) Oranges D) Fortified breakfast cereal

37)

During the firststage of iron deficiency, A) red blood cellsare small and low in number. B) body stores of iron are depleted. C) circulating ironin the blood is depleted. D) physical symptomsof iron deficiency are apparent.

38)

A disorder that causes increased iron absorption leading to organ toxicity is A) hemochromatosis. B) hemolysis. C) pellagra. D) anemia.

39)

In North America, iron-deficiency anemia would be leastlikely in a

A) 55-year-old postmenopausal woman. B) 12-year-old girl who is having a growth spurt. C) 3-year-old boy who is a picky eater. D) 9-month-old baby boy who has recently started eating solid foods.

Version 1

40) How many sources of non-heme iron are in a meal containing a tuna sandwich on enriched bread with milk and an apple? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

41) The only mineral that is required to be added to enriched grain products in the United States is A) iron. B) zinc. C) iodine. D) potassium.

42)

Worldwide, the most prevalent nutrient deficiency is of A) vitamin A. B) iodine. C) iron. D) folate.

43)

Iron is best absorbed in its ______ form.

Version 1

A) heme B) nonheme C) synthetic D) coenzyme

44)

Iron found as a component of hemoglobin and myoglobin is called A) heme iron. B) nonheme iron.

45) If an individual has anemia, examining the size and of the red blood cells can help to identify the nutritional cause of the deficiency disease. A) color B) number C) density D) shape

46)

Anemia can result from a deficiency of A) iron. B) folate. C) vitamin B-12. D) All of these choices are correct.

Version 1

47) Which of the following minerals is important for transport and storage of iron, synthesis of hemoglobin, and synthesis of collagen? A) Copper B) Zinc C) Selenium D) Boron

48)

Copper is most similar to _____ in terms of food sources, absorption, and functions. A) iron B) vitamin K C) vitamin B-12 D) folate

49) ______ is important for blood health because it is a component of several iron-transport proteins. A) Copper B) Folate C) Zinc D) Magnesium

50)

In general, the best sources of copper are found in the A) protein foods group. B) fruits and vegetables groups. C) grains group. D) dairy group

Version 1

51)

What is the name of the copper-containing protein that transports iron in the blood? A) Ceruloplasmin B) Cysteine C) Chaperone D) Casein

52)

Which of the following is true about nutrition and Alzheimer's disease?

A) High intakes of aluminum can cause Alzheimer's disease. B) High intakes of choline can reverse Alzheimer's disease. C) It is wise for others to oversee food planning and mealtimes to ensure nutritional adequacy. D) Strict adherence to the Mediterranean diet can prevent Alzheimer's disease.

53)

What is the brain's preferred fuel source? A) Glucose B) Protein C) Lipid D) Oxygen

54) What nutrient participates in the pathways that yield energy to fuel the brain, the myelination of nerve tissue, and the formation of neurotransmitters?

Version 1

A) Iron B) Iodine C) Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids D) Folate

55)

Acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin are examples of A) neurotransmitters. B) proteins. C) enzymes. D) types of nerve tissue.

56) The _____ diet is a dietary intervention that shows promising results for protecting the brain against cognitive decline. A) MIND B) gluten-free C) Paleo D) Scholars

57)

The MIND Diet includes plenty of A) fruits and vegetables. B) red meats. C) whole milk. D) All of these.

Version 1

58)

Dietary heme iron is obtained mainly from plant-based foods. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_6e 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 14 1) Trained professionals that can help you set reasonable physical activity goals based upon your current level of fitness are called A) sports dietitians. B) gym trainers. C) life coaches. D) health coaches.

Which of the following isa benefit of regular physical activity? A) Improved sleep B) Increased body fat C) Reduced muscle mass D) Increased blood pressure

A physically active lifestyle may reduce the risk of A) osteoporosis, heart disease, and obesity. B) skin cancer, ADHD, and nutrient deficiency. C) liver cancer, anemia, and hypotension. D) infectious disease, muscular degenerative disease, and retinal detachment.

4) A fitness program that includes 30 minutes of moderate jogging for 5 days per week is primarily designed to improve

Version 1

A) aerobic fitness. B) strength. C) balance. D) flexibility.

5) A free-weight workout that includes 8 to 10 different exercises performed for many repetitions with low resistance is designed mainly to enhance A) muscular endurance. B) muscular strength. C) muscular power. D) range of motion.

The FITTprinciple describes A) specific aspects to consider when designing a sound fitness program. B) the benefits of incorporating regular, moderate physical activity into one's lifestyle. C) a method of determining the intensity of exercises. D) the fluid needs of athletes before, during, and after a workout.

What is the age-predicted maximum heart rate of a healthy 48 year old? A) 172 B) 138 C) 220 D) 103

What is the name of the high-energy compound that cells use to fuel chemical reactions?

Version 1

A) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) B) Glucose C) Amino acids D) Fatty acids

The conversion of glucose to lactic acid is called A) aerobic glucose breakdown. B) anaerobic glucose breakdown. C) aerobic glycogen breakdown. D) anaerobic glycogen breakdown.

10)

Anaerobic glucose breakdown provides most of the energy for sports activities lasting A) 10 seconds. B) up to 30 seconds. C) 30 seconds to 2 minutes. D) up to 5 minutes.

11)

Aerobic glucose breakdown provides most of the energy for sports activities lasting A) up to 30 seconds. B) 30 seconds to 1 minute. C) 1 to 2 minutes. D) 2 minutes to 4 hours.

Version 1

12)

Where does aerobic glucose breakdown take place within the cell?

A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Golgi body D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

13)

The difference between aerobic and anaerobic glucose breakdownis

A) aerobic glucose breakdown uses amino acids, while anaerobic does not. B) the end product of aerobic glucose breakdown is lactic acid, while the end products of anaerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water. C) the end products of aerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water; while the end product of anaerobic glucose breakdown is lactic acid. D) anaerobic glucose breakdown uses oxygen, while aerobic does not.

14)

Which of the following is true about protein as an energy source?

A) Protein is more important than carbohydrate as an energy source for muscular activity. B) The use ofprotein as an energy source is greater for endurance athletes than for thosewho body build or lift weights. C) Protein and amino acid supplements are needed as energy sources for weight lifters. D) Protein is a goodenergy source, supplying 7 kcal per gram.

15) Protein supplies approximately _______ % of a human's typical energy needs during regular physical activity.

Version 1

A) 0 B) 5 C) 15 D) 25

16)

Which of the following is true about fatty acid usage for energy? A) Energy is released from fatty acids anaerobically. B) Energy is released from fatty acids in a process called lipogenesis. C) Gram for gram, fatty acids provide more than twice as much energy as glucose. D) Fatty acids are useful for intense exercise.

17) The process of manipulating the macronutrient content of the diet during athletic training to enhance the cells' ability to use fat for fuel is called A) fat adaptation. B) lipid loading. C) carbohydrate loading. D) insulin manipulation.

18) The training effect, in which individuals experience improvements in physical fitness as they continue a regular exercise regimen, is a product of A) increased number of mitochondria in muscle cells. B) increased number ofcapillaries in muscles. C) increased efficiency of the heart. D) All of these choices are correct.

Version 1

19) During endurance exercise, ______ can supply as much as 10% of energy for exercising muscles. A) amino acids B) glucose C) fatty acids D) thiamin

20) Bill goes on an 8-hour continuous, moderate-intensity hike. Most of the ATP for this activity will be derived from A) aerobic glucose breakdown. B) anaerobic glucose breakdown. C) breakdown of amino acids. D) breakdown of fatty acids.

21) Maxine Miles runs a marathon in 2 hours and 40 minutes. Most of the ATP for this activity is supplied by A) aerobic glucose breakdown. B) anaerobic glucose breakdown. C) breakdown of amino acids. D) breakdown of fatty acids.

22) Zelda is a marathon runner. She completes the marathon in 2 hours and 30 minutes. Which of the following is true regarding her fuel use during the marathon?

Version 1

A) If she runs out of muscle glycogen at the 2-hour mark, she will not feel fatigue. B) Anaerobic glucose breakdown, using muscle glycogen, will provide most of the ATP for the marathon. C) Liver glycogen is the preferred fuel during intense muscular activity lasting less than 2 hours. D) Amino acids may supply up to 15% of energy needs.

23) Which of the following is a high-energy compound that resupplies ATP for quick bursts of activitylasting up to 10 seconds? A) Phosphocreatine B) Aerobic glucosebreakdown C) Lactic acid D) Caffeine

24)

Which of the following is true about the vitamin and mineral intake of athletes?

A) Most athletes do not consume enough supplements. B) Most athletes should take iron supplements to enhance their aerobic capacity. C) Most athletes should take antioxidant supplements to reduce muscle damage caused byworkouts. D) Most athletes obtain ample vitamins and minerals through whole foods if they meet their caloric needs.

25)

To prevent iron deficiency, a female athlete should

Version 1

A) take high-dose iron supplements regularly while following a low-calorie diet. B) have her blood hemoglobin level checked to determine if a deficiency exists that may require iron supplementation. C) not be concerned as a low iron status is common in female athletes and will eventually resolve on its own. D) not be concerned about iron status as iron is not involved in energy production.

26)

Which of the following is true about the protein intake of athletes?

A) Most athletes require protein supplements to get enough protein. B) Amino acid supplements are the best way to deliver amino acids because they do not need to be digested. C) Most athletes eating an adequate dietary pattern will easily meet their protein needs.

27) According to most sports nutrition experts, the daily protein intake for an athleteshould fall within the range of A) 0.6 to 0.8 grams per kilogram. B) 0.8 to 1.2grams per kilogram. C) 1.2 to 2.0grams per kilogram. D) 2.0 to 3.0 grams per kilogram.

28) A 120-pound woman is training for a bodybuilding competition and needs to build muscle mass. What is the maximum recommended daily protein intake for this woman? A) 110 grams per day B) 240 grams per day C) 45 grams per day D) 80 gramsper day

Version 1

29)

Athletes who consume adequate carbohydrates experience A) increased lean body mass. B) adequate liver and muscle glycogen stores. C) increased risk of chronic disease. D) chronic fatigue.

30) Triathletes and marathoners need approximately ______ grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of weight per day to prevent chronic fatigue. A) 3 to 5 B) 10 to 12 C) 20 to 22 D) 30 to 32

31)

To boost glycogen stores in the hours before an event, an endurance athlete should eat A) broccoli and cheese soup. B) bagels. C) peanut butter. D) tuna fish.

32)

If an athlete's body fat level is too high, what is the best weight-loss approach? A) Follow an 800-kcal per day eating pattern. B) Wear a rubber or plastic suit to sweat off extra body weight. C) Eat 200 to 500 kcal less than one's EERper day. D) Restrict dietarycarbohydrates to less than 50% of total calories.

Version 1

33)

The best way to determine if an athlete is consuming adequate calories is to A) track changes in weight over time. B) compare dietary intake to calculated energy needs. C) measure serum triglycerides. D) evaluate the color of urine.

34)

If a woman athlete is not menstruating regularly, she should A) consult her primary care provider to determine the cause. B) decrease her calcium intake as a high calcium intake can trigger irregular menses. C) decrease calorie intake to lower body fat. D) increase fluid intake.

35)

Good practices to keep well hydrated during endurance events include

A) taking salt tablets and drinking plenty of fluid before the workout. B) drink freely during the 24 hours before an event and consuming fluid to replace losses during the workout. C) never drinking fluid during a workout as this will cause abdominal cramps. D) avoid water 24 hours prior to a competition and then hyperhydrate during the event.

36)

The best way to determine how much fluid to consume after a workout is to A) weigh yourself before and after the workout. B) rely on your thirst. C) check the label of a sports drink. D) ask a personal trainer.

Version 1

37) For every pound lost during a workout, ______ cup(s) of water should be consumed during or after exercising. A) 1/2 to 1 B) 1 to 2 C) 2 to 3 D) 3 to 4

38) Joe loses 4 pounds of fluid by sweating during a vigorous basketball game. How many cups of fluid are needed to replenish this loss? A) 2 cups B) 5 cups C) 10 cups D) 20 cups

39)

The use of sports drinks is most helpful for continuous activities lasting A) 5 to 60 seconds. B) 1 to 5 minutes. C) 30 minutes. D) 60 minutes or longer.

40)

An adequate sports drink contains

Version 1

A) electrolyte minerals. B) caffeine. C) at least 10% carbohydrate. D) branched-chain amino acids.

41)

Choose the statement that is true about sports drinks. A) They replenish electrolytes B) They replenish fluids C) Their flavor encourages athletes to drink D) All of these choices are correct.

42)

To decrease the risk of developing heat-related injuries, A) watch for rapid body-weight changes of 2% or more of body weight. B) limit fluid repletion to avoid bloating. C) avoid exercising in temperatures below freezing. D) stretch before and after physical activity.

43) The first stage of heat-related illness that occurs because of depletion of blood volume is called A) heatexhaustion. B) heat stroke. C) heat cramps. D) heat rash.

Version 1

44)

The goal of blood doping is to A) enhance aerobic capacity. B) enhance immune function. C) prevent blood clots. D) alleviate hemochromatosis.

45)

A meal representative of what an endurance athlete should eat before an athletic event is A) steak, eggs, milk, and hash browns. B) a turkey sandwich, cottage cheese, milk, and a chocolate bar. C) two scrambled eggs, a bran muffin, bacon, and orange juice. D) spaghetti with marinara sauce, green beans, and low-fat milk.

46)

A pre-event meal should A) be eaten less than 1 hour before the event. B) contain at least 600 kcal. C) be high in carbohydrates without providing large amounts of fiber. D) be high in fat to prevent hunger.

47) For a pre-event meal, rich sources of carbohydrates, such as bagels, muffins, and bread, should be eaten ______ before an endurance event. A) 1 to 4 hours B) 4 or more hours C) less than 30 minutes D) 30 to 60 minutes

Version 1

48)

Which of the following is a good pre-event meal? A) Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich B) Chocolate milkshake C) Cheese andsausage pizza D) Bagel with peanutbutter

49)

Carbohydrate loading A) involves loading up on carbohydrate-laden foods on the morning of an endurance

event. B) involves little exercise and a high-carbohydrate diet the first 3 days, followed by heavy exercise and a low-carbohydrate diet right before competition. C) involves a reduction in the intensity of workouts with a corresponding increase in the percentage of carbohydrate intake over several days before a competition. D) does not increase glycogen stores to any significant degree.

50)

For which of the following activities would carbohydrate loading be most useful? A) Marathon B) Weight lifting C) Football D) Golf

51)

Guidelines for replenishing fuel during endurance events include

Version 1

A) consume 30 to 60 grams of carbohydrate per hour. B) use only onetype of carbohydrate to avoid gastrointestinal upset. C) use a protein supplement every 30 minutes. D) avoid fluid during exercise.

52) To promote gains in muscle mass, a strength-trained athlete could consume ______ within the first 1 or 2 hours after a weight-lifting workout. A) 2 cups of plain yogurt with 1 cup of fresh blueberries B) 1 large bagel with 2 tablespoons of cream cheese C) 1 bag of microwave popcorn D) 4 ounces of sirloin steak

53) Which of the following is a permissible supplement for athletic departments to provide to athletes as defined by the NCAA? A) Ginseng B) Conjugated linoleic acid C) Electrolyte replacement beverages D) Creatine

54)

Anabolic steroid use may cause which of the following side effects? A) Frequent urination, hyperactivity, and groin pain B) Decreased heart rate, confusion, and vision disturbances C) Cardiovascular disease, extreme mood swings, and sleep disturbances D) Weight loss, decreased mental alertness, and increased fat metabolism

Version 1

55)

Which of the following ergogenic aids may cause anxiety and insomnia? A) Caffeine B) Growth hormone C) Creatine D) Sodium bicarbonate

56) Researchers suggest a dose of at least _____ grams of protein per meal is ideal to promote muscle synthesis. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50

57)

Good sources of plant-based proteins include A) avocados, tomatoes, and seeds. B) nuts, quinoa, and chickpeas. C) coconut oil, bananas, and beans. D) soy, berries, and peppers.

58) To promote gains in muscle mass, many experts recommend at least 15 to 25 grams of high-quality protein within the first 1 or 2 hours after exercise to maximize protein synthesis. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_6e 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 15 1) Mild and short-termchanges in eating patterns that occur inrelation to a stressful event, an illness, ora desire to modify one’s dietary pattern for a varietyof health and personal appearance reasons are classified as A) disordered eating. B) eating disorders.

Which of the following could be a trigger for an eating disorder? A) Comments from significant others about being too fat B) A traumatic event, such as witnessing a car crash C) Leaving home for college or independent living D) All of these choices.

Most cases of anorexia nervosa begin in A) adolescence or young adulthood. B) the preschool years. C) middle adulthood. D) older adulthood.

Current research indicates that eating disorders are due to A) dysfunctional family relationships. B) the physical changes of puberty. C) genetic variations. D) a combination of genetic variations and lifestyle factors.

Version 1

5) they

A characteristic shared by individuals with anorexia and individuals with bulimia is that

A) are male. B) were born underweight for height. C) lack appropriate coping strategies. D) both recognize their behavior as abnormal.

6) Participants in which of the following sports are most likely to engage in disordered eating behaviors? A) Wrestling B) Cross-country C) Ice hockey D) Baseball

Individuals with anorexia nervosa A) tend to be between 25 and 35 years of age. B) tend to be adolescent and early adult girls. C) usually acknowledge the existence of their disease. D) see themselves as thin even though they are overweight.

Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?

Version 1

A) Extreme dietary restriction that leads to significantly low body weight B) Body mass index below 17.5 kg/m 2 C) Use of unsafe means of preventing weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting) at least one time per week for at least 3 months D) Significantly low heart rate, measured on two separate occasions

9) A 16-year-old girl who severely restricts her food intake because she is fearful of becoming obese, even though her BMI is less than expected for her age, may be diagnosed with A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) night eating syndrome. D) orthorexia.

10)

For a person with anorexia nervosa, when is total hospitalization necessary? A) Self-mutilation or threats of suicide B) Missing one or more menstrual periods (for women) C) Body weight falls below 85% of expected weight D) Growth of lanugo

11)

Anorexia nervosa is characterized by A) hyperactivity. B) compulsive eating. C) misuse of laxatives and diuretics. D) psychological denial of appetite.

Version 1

12) ______ is an eating disorder characterized by extreme restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, which leads to significantly low body weight. A) Anorexia nervosa B) Bulimia nervosa C) Purging disorder D) Binge eating disorder

13)

Which of the following may be

an early warning sign of anorexia nervosa?

A) Withdrawing from family and friends B) Cooking a large meal for others, but refusing to eat it C) Frequent measurement of body weight or body size D) All of these choices.

14)

Which of the following is aphysiological change often associated withanorexia nervosa? A) Excessive sweating B) Swollen salivary glands C) Decreased heart rate D) High blood pressure

15) What is a serious, long-term health consequence of absent or irregular menstrual periods among women of childbearing age?

Version 1

A) Bone loss B) Muscle tears C) Esophageal bleeding D) Dehydration

16)

One feature of anorexia nervosa that significantly reduces treatment success is A) drug abuse. B) denial of the problem. C) rationalization of the problem. D) high self-esteem.

17)

One of the best ways to get a person with anorexia nervosa into treatment is to A) threaten them. B) deny the disorder. C) keep offering them food. D) stage an intervention.

18)

The best long-term success in anorexia nervosa treatment has been with A) hospitalization and feeding via a tube. B) a multidisciplinary team approach with health care providers. C) scare tactics. D) outpatient treatment.

19)

Which of the following is a goal for a person with anorexia nervosa?

Version 1

A) Restore BMI to 25 or higher B) Gain enough weight to raise themetabolic rate to normal C) Stick to a regimented dietary plan D) Maintain a high level of physical activity

20) Which of the following are potential effects of refeeding during the initial treatment of anorexia nervosa? A) Feelings of fullness and abdominal bloating B) Increased body temperature C) Dangerous changes in electrolyte balance in the blood D) All of these are potential effects of refeeding.

21) Which ofthe following is a useful approach in psychological therapy for a person with anorexia nervosa? A) Family-based treatment B) Joining a support group C) Cognitive behavioral therapy D) All of these are useful approaches in psychological therapy for anorexia nervosa.

22) Nutritional therapy for people with anorexia nervosa aims to slowly increase body weight to achieve a BMI of at least A) 15 kg/m 2. B) 20 kg/m 2. C) 25 kg/m 2. D) 30 kg/m 2.

Version 1

23) Individuals with ______ may present with clinical signs of semistarvation, such as decreased metabolic rate. A) anorexianervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) binge eating disorder D) night eatingsyndrome

24)

Cessation of menstruation is most common among women with A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) binge eating disorder. D) night eating syndrome.

25)

Downy hair that grows on the body to protect against heat loss is called A) lanugo. B) alopecia. C) hypothyroidism. D) amenorrhea.

26)

Coping with stress by not eating is the typical pattern of

Version 1

A) anorexianervosa. B) bulimianervosa. C) binge eating disorder. D) night eatingsyndrome.

27) A disorder characterized by extreme weight loss, distorted body image, and an extreme fear of obesity and weight gain is A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) binge eating disorder. D) night eating syndrome.

28)

The most important predictor of an eating disorder is A) extreme dieting. B) a history of sexual abuse. C) binge drinking. D) perfectionism.

29) The hormonal changes associated with cessation of menstruation increase the risk of ______ among women with eating disorders. A) osteoporosis B) hyperglycemia C) hypertension D) anemia

Version 1

30) The slower basal metabolic rate that accompanies starvation among people with anorexia nervosa is caused by A) decreased thyroid hormone synthesis. B) decreased insulin sensitivity. C) low levels of physical activity. D) increased growth hormone synthesis.

31) Low blood levels of ______ can lead to disturbances in heart rhythm, a leading cause of death among people with eating disorders. A) potassium B) sodium C) chloride D) glucose

32)

Which of the following statements describes a person with bulimia nervosa? A) Engages in binge eating B) Has obvious physical and mental symptoms C) Tends to be very thin and emaciated D) Usually male

33)

Which of the following is among the criteria for diagnosing bulimia nervosa?

Version 1

A) Repeated use of unsafe means to prevent weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting)  B) Restriction of energy intake that leads to significantly low body weight C) Binge-compensate cycles that occur at least one time per week for one month or longer D) Waking at least once during the night with a need to eat to be able to fall asleep again

34)

Which of the following characteristics is most likely related to bulimia nervosa? A) Daily energy intake <800 kcal per day B) Feeling a sense of power because of strict discipline and self-denial C) Fluctuating weight D) Lack of menstruation

35)

The low blood potassium levels seen among people with eating disorders may cause A) lack of appetite. B) high blood pressure. C) heart rhythm disturbances. D) swelling of the salivary glands.

36) A disorder in which frequent bingeing is followed by compensatory behaviors to rid the body of excess calories is called A) hypoglycemia. B) bulimia nervosa. C) anorexia nervosa. D) compulsive overeating.

Version 1

37) Which of the following is true about the bingeing behavior of a person with bulimia nervosa? A) Violation of rigid food rules can initiate a binge. B) Binges most often occur during the morning. C) Binges usually last 15 to 30 minutes. D) Accomplishing a personal goal usually initiates a binge.

38)

For a person who engages in binge eating, typical binge foods include A) high-protein foods, such as tuna, chicken, and steak. B) a wide variety of fruits and vegetables. C) cakes, cookies, doughnuts, and ice cream. D) sugar-free items, such as artificially sweetened gelatin, candy, and soft drinks.

39)

Which of the following is true about purging behaviors related to bulimia? A) There are no medical risks to purging. B) After many months of purging, it gets more difficult to purge. C) After vomiting, many calories from the food eaten are still absorbed. D) Few kilocaloriesare absorbed when laxatives are used as a purging technique.

40)

Which of the following traits is common among people with bulimia nervosa?

Version 1

A) Sexual modesty B) Perfectionism C) Rigidity D) Impulsiveness

41)

Negative health effects of frequent, self-induced vomiting include A) tooth damage. B) increased abdominal fat. C) cirrhosis. D) All of these are negative effects of self-induced vomiting.

42)

Successful treatment for bulimia nervosa usually lasts at least A) 4 weeks. B) 8 weeks. C) 16 weeks. D) 32 weeks.

43) Which of the following is a useful approach in the nutritional therapy of a person with bulimia nervosa? A) Alternate-day fasting B) Keeping a daily food diary C) Eating alone D) Providing strict food rules to control eating

Version 1

44)

Food diaries and a regular meal plan are commonly part of the treatment for A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) relative energy deficiency in sport. D) night eating syndrome.

45)

Understanding the abnormality of their behavior is more common among people with A) bulimia nervosa. B) anorexia nervosa.

46)

Coping with stress by eating is a characteristic of A) anorexianervosa. B) bulimianervosa. C) relative energy deficiency in sport. D) orthorexia.

47)

A disorder characterized by frequent, secretive bingeing, often followed by purging, is A) bulimia nervosa. B) anorexia nervosa. C) binge eating disorder. D) relative energy deficiency in sport.

48) For a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, binge eating must occur, on average, ______ time(s) per week for at least three months. Version 1

A) one B) two C) three D) four

49) A(n) ______ often consists of high-carbohydrate, convenience foods and may be triggered by stress, boredom, loneliness, or depression. A) binge B) purge C) compensatory behavior D) enema

50)

Compensatory behaviors used by people with eating disorders may include A) self-induced vomiting. B) excessive exercise. C) misuse of laxatives. D) All of these choices.

51) Many of the health problems associated with bulimia (e.g., tooth decay, stomach ulcers, and esophageal tears) arise as a result of A) vomiting to purge excess calories. B) low blood calcium levels. C) low blood potassium levels. D) laxative abuse.

Version 1

52)

The only drug approved by FDA for treatment of bulimia nervosa is A) fluoxetine (Prozac®). B) duloxetine (Cymbalta®). C) topiramate (Topamax®). D) lorcaserin (Belviq®).

53)

A difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is that

A) individuals with anorexia nervosa turn away from food during a crisis, whereas individuals with bulimia nervosa turn toward food. B) individuals with bulimia nervosa exhibit denial of the disorder, whereas individuals with anorexia nervosa know their behavior is abnormal. C) anorexia is more common among women, whereas bulimia is more common among men. D) individuals with bulimia nervosa tend to be methodical, whereas individuals with anorexia nervosa tend to be impulsive.

54) Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? A) Individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa may exhibit behaviors of bulimia nervosa. B) Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are two distinct conditions that do not overlap. C) Anorexia nervosa is essentially a very severe case of bulimia nervosa. D) People with anorexia nervosa fear becoming overweight or obese, whereas people with bulimia nervosa are not concerned with body weight.

Version 1

55)

The typical characteristics for binge eating disorder include binge-eating episodes A) that are not accompanied by compensatory behaviors. B) that do not cause distress or shame. C) at holidays or during social occasions. D) that occur at least once per month for three months in a row.

56)

Which of the following is the best treatment approach for binge eating disorder?

A) A diet that lists foods to be eaten and others to be avoided. B) A structured eating plan that the person follows without regard to his or her hunger signals. C) Encouraging a person to nurture others rather than focus on his or her own needs. D) Teaching a person to eat in response to internal hunger cues.

57) Which of the following drugs has been approved by FDA for treatment of binge eating disorder? A) Fluoxetine (Prozac®) B) Lisdexamfetaminedimesylate (Vyvanse®) C) Topiramate (Topamax®) D) Lorcaserin (Belviq®)

58)

Which of the following is a likely long-term consequence of binge eating disorder? A) Type 2 diabetes B) Osteoporosis C) Enlarged salivary glands D) Low blood potassium

Version 1

59)

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of night eating syndrome? A) For women, missing three or more menstrual periods in a row B) Consuming more than 25% of daily food intake afterdinner C) Lack of appetite in the evening D) Repeated use of unsafe methods to prevent weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting)

60) Studies have shown that behaviors of night eating syndrome are significantly improved with use of A) antibiotics. B) antidepressants. C) sleeping pills. D) amphetamines.

61) Individuals who induce vomiting to rid the body of calories even in the absence of a binge may be diagnosed with A) purging disorder. B) binge eating disorder. C) bulimia nervosa. D) anorexia nervosa.

62)

The practice of eating nonfood substances is called

Version 1

A) pica. B) purging disorder. C) lanugo. D) bingeing.

63) A person who severely restricts food intake, has a distorted body image, fears weight gain, and has a BMI of 19 may be diagnosed with A) atypical anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa of low frequency. C) bulimia nervosa of limited duration. D) purging disorder of unknown etiology.

64) Athletes who do not consume enough calories to meet the demands of their intense physical training may suffer from a syndrome of physical and mental impairments known as A) reverse anorexia. B) diabulimia. C) relative energy deficiency in sport. D) binge eating disorder.

65) Individuals who perceive themselves as being too thin and who engage in disordered eating behaviors to achieve weight gain may have A) muscle dysmorphia. B) orthorexia. C) anorexia nervosa. D) reverse bulimia.

Version 1

66) Research shows that disordered eating behaviors are twice as common among young people with type 1 diabetes than those without diabetes. A pattern of disordered eating commonly called diabulimia involves A) intentionally skipping insulin doses to avoid weight gain. B) overdosing on insulin to induce weight loss. C) severely restricting carbohydrate intake to avoid weight gain. D) purging excess calories by self-induced vomiting.

67) ______ is the term used to describe a condition in which the desire to consume healthy foods becomes an obsession and begins to interfere with daily living. A) Orthorexia B) Diabulimia C) Reverse anorexia D) Atypical anorexia nervosa

68)

Which of the following is not an appropriate measureto prevent eating disorders? A) Discourage restrictive dieting and meal skipping. B) Correct misconceptions about nutrition and healthy body weight. C) Provide opportunities for fun and social physical activity in school and at home. D) Encourage daily measurements of body weight.

69)

If you suspect that a friend has an eating disorder, you should

Version 1

A) encourage your friend to seek professional help. B) provide your friend with a calorie-controlled diet plan. C) ignore the behavior. D) direct your friend to pro-Ana or pro-Mia websites.

70) Rachel, a female college student, goes on a restrictive diet for several weeks before her sister's wedding. After the wedding, she returns to her usual dietary pattern. Rachel should be diagnosed with an eating disorder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Among children and adolescents, failure to grow as expected in height or delayed sexual maturation could be signs of eating disorders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Twin studies reveal that genetic factors account for more than half of the overall risk for developing an eating disorder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) At the time of diagnosis, individuals with bulimia nervosa typically have a BMI <18.5 2 kg/m . ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

74) After an episode of binge eating, a person with binge eating disorder engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors to rid the body of excess calories. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

Relative energy deficiency in sport is harmful for women, but not for men. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_6e 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 16 1) In ______, the United Nations launched a transformativeagenda to address key issues related to global health. Called the Sustainable DevelopmentGoals, these 17 bold goals outline a 15-year agenda to serve as ablueprint for global health and sustainability. A) 2000 B) 2005 C) 2010 D) 2015

What are the four pillars of food security? A) Economic stability, housing, food access, and healthcare B) Availability, access, utilization, and stability C) Food access, sustainability, transportation, and childcare D) Education, entitlements, healthcare, and childcare

3) Failing health that resultsfrom a longstanding dietary intake that isnot enough to meet nutritional needs is termed A) starvation. B) undernutrition. C) emaciation. D) food security.

4) Failing health that resultsfrom longstanding dietary practices thatdo not coincide with nutritional needs is termed

Version 1

A) undernutrition. B) overnutrition. C) emaciation. D) malnutrition.

Undernutrition and overnutrition are two forms of A) malnutrition. B) chronic disease. C) food insecurity. D) micronutrient deficiencies.

Humans are least susceptible to health effects associated with undernutrition during A) infancy. B) pregnancy. C) puberty. D) adulthood.

The health consequences of undernutrition are most critical during A) adulthood. B) the college years. C) infancy. D) the elderly years.

Version 1

8) Humans are particularly susceptible to the effects of undernutrition during periods of rapid growth, such as during A) adulthood. B) middle age. C) menopause. D) pregnancy.

Which of the following is not true about undernutrition during pregnancy? A) The mother and fetus are both affected. B) Only the mother is affected. C) Iron-deficiency anemia is a consequence in the mother. D) The risk of maternal death is increased.

10) Don is suffering from malnutrition. Which of the following might be true of his condition? A) Don must be undernourished. B) Don must be experiencing chronic hunger. C) Don must be experiencing a vitamin deficiency. D) Don could be suffering from undernutrition or overnutrition.

11) The UnitedNations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines ______ as secure access to an appropriately nutritious diet (i.e., protein,carbohydrate, fat, vitamins, minerals, and water), coupled with a sanitary environmentand adequate health services and care to ensure a healthy and active life for all householdmembers.

Version 1

A) food insecurity B) food access C) nutrition security D) sustainability

12)

Which of the following is true about chronic hunger in the world? A) Chronic hunger is not found in developed countries. B) Hunger is alleviated by drinking water. C) The primary cause of hunger is poverty. D) Hunger is the psychological state that results when enough food is eaten.

13)

The primary cause of chronic hunger is A) poverty. B) lack of technology. C) cultural food preferences. D) lack of local farms in developing countries.

14)

Which of the following is true about semistarvation?

A) Physical and mental impairment do not occur without clinical symptoms. B) Often the first sign that tissues are affected is a biochemical change that may be detectable by a blood test. C) Physical symptoms often appear before evidence of any biochemical changes. D) Action to correct undernutrition should only be taken when clinical symptoms are detected.

Version 1

15)

All of the following are effects of semistarvation except A) decreased energy level and strength. B) poor concentration and impaired learning. C) decreased hunger and appetite. D) impaired immunity.

16)

The organ system most affected by undernutrition in infancy and early childhood is the A) nervous system. B) muscular system. C) circulatory system. D) respiratory system.

17)

The most common nutrient deficiency disease is A) scurvy. B) goiter. C) beriberi. D) iron-deficiency anemia.

18)

Worldwide, the leading cause of preventable blindness is ______ deficiency. A) iodine B) vitamin A C) protein D) iron

Version 1

19)

Which of the following is true about the effects of undernutrition in poor countries?

A) Calcium and vitamin D deficiency can contribute to reduced immune function. B) Nutritional deficiencies can enhance optimal physical and mental performance. C) Symptoms of underweight rarely result in nutritional deficiencies. D) People in underdeveloped countries often have greater nutrient requirements to combat infectious disease and parasites.

20) Aform of undernutrition caused by an extremely deficient intake of calories, protein, or both is termed ______. Two examples of this type of malnutrition are kwashiorkor and marasmus. A) protein-energy malnutrition B) anorexia C) bulimia D) scurvy

21)

Which of the following is associated with health issues related to overnutrition? A) Goiter from iodine deficiency B) Blindness from xerophthalmia C) Iron-deficiency anemia D) Coronary heart disease

22)

The majority of undernourished people live in

Version 1

A) North America. B) Asia. C) Latin America. D) Europe.

23)

Homeless children suffer higher rates of all of the following medical conditions except A) asthma and upper respiratory tract infections. B) tooth decay and dental caries. C) hyperthyroidism. D) developmental delays.

24) The homeless in the United States are at increased risk of undernutrition. Which of the following is true about the homeless? A) Most of them are alcoholics. B) Most of them are lazy. C) Many are members of families with children. D) All are poorly educated.

25)

Which of the following is true about homelessness and undernutrition in America?

A) The homeless have plenty of resources; they just fail to utilize them. B) Chronically homeless individuals are more likely to be young, female, nonwhite,and underemployed. C) The rate of homelessness has declined over the last 25 years. D) The recent increase in homelessness stems from a shortage of affordablerental housingcoupled with an increase in poverty.

Version 1

26)

Approximately how many Americans live at or near the poverty level? A) 5 million B) 14 million C) 28 million D) 40 million

27) All of the following are socioeconomic factors affecting hunger in the United States except A) poverty. B) homelessness. C) politics and policy. D) weather.

28) Urban neighborhoods and rural towns without ready access to fresh, healthy, and affordable food are called A) safe food havens. B) nutrition outlets. C) fresh food oasis. D) food deserts.

29) Since the early 1900s, the role of the United States government in providing food assistance to the poor has steadily A) decreased. B) increased.

Version 1

30) The food assistance program developed in the 1960s to help wholefamilies purchase healthy foodsis termed the A) School BreakfastProgram. B) School LunchProgram. C) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. D) SpecialSupplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children.

31)

The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children

A) provides breakfast for school children. B) provides food vouchers and nutrition education to low-income pregnant and lactating women and their young children. C) is provided to all American families and has no enrollment criteria. D) was discontinued in 2015 after budget cuts.

32) Which of the following is true regarding the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)? A) SNAP is the current name for the old Fresh Food Bucks Program. B) SNAP participants can use an electronic benefit transfer (EBT) card to purchase food and garden seeds to grow food. C) The target population for SNAP benefits is pregnant or lactatingwomen and their children. D) Due to improvements in economicconditions, the need for food assistance is low in the United States.

33) An unexpected financialcrisis (medical emergency, death in the family, loss of a job) thatprevents individuals from retaining their housing is termed Version 1

A) situational poverty. B) systemic poverty. C) intermittent poverty. D) self-inflicted poverty.

34) In the United States, persistent hunger and food insecurity are largely associated with which two interrelated conditions? A) Poverty and homelessness B) Political unrest and single mothers C) Technology and healthcare D) Failing schools and poverty

35) The most recent USDA report assessing the shopping cart of SNAP participants foundthe top item purchased with SNAP dollars was A) soft drinks. B) fruits and vegetables. C) alcohol. D) frozen pizza.

36)

The root cause of hunger and undernutrition in the United States continues to be A) homelessness. B) overpopulation. C) increased life expectancy. D) poverty.

Version 1

37) Increasing per capita income and improving ______, especially for women in developingnations, are considered to be the most successful long-term solutions to excessivepopulation growth. A) education B) technology C) fertility clinics D) transportation

38)

Factors influencing the food/population ratio include all of the following except A) high socioeconomic status. B) war and political/civil unrest. C) rapid depletion of natural resources. D) AIDS.

39) In the future, billions ofpeople are expected to face ongoing _____ shortages that will contribute to civil unrest and food shortages. A) labor B) water C) oxygen D) coal

40)

Which of the following factors will adversely affect the nutritional status of a country?

Version 1

A) Movement of the population to urban centers B) Maintenance of rural, small farms C) Movement away from the growth of cash crops D) Discouraging the establishment of large farms

41) Housing, sanitation and storage facilities, education, communication, and transportation systems are components of a country's A) architecture. B) social capital. C) social structure. D) infrastructure.

42) To assess hunger, the International FoodPolicy Research Institute (IFPRI) annually calculates the ______, atool that measures and tracks global hunger based on population undernourishment, child wasting, childstunting, and child mortality. A) Global Hunger Index (GHI) B) Global Health Scale (GHS) C) Universal Healthcare Metric (UHM) D) Hunger and Health Scale (HHS)

43) been

A promising strategy to help other countries increase crop yields and food resources has

A) to use green revolution technologies. B) to establish largefarms that grow cash crops. C) to obtain more food sources from oceans. D) to cut down rain forests so there is more farmable land.

Version 1

44)

The green revolution was a A) movement that increased crop yields in some countries. B) initiative to force countries to stop using fertilizers. C) movement to prevent the destruction of rain forests. D) Third World strategy to reduce beef intake.

45) In light of its devastating toll on families and communities, a significant step toward alleviating poverty and hunger in sub-Saharan Africa and many other developing nations would be to alleviate the spread of A) AIDS. B) scurvy. C) sickle cell anemia. D) iron-deficiency anemia.

46) Which of the following is true about acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) worldwide? A) The transmission pattern is different in developed versus developing countries. B) North America is the continent that has been the hardest hit. C) The death rate from AIDS in the United States is increasing. D) Antiretroviral drugs can significantly increase the progression of the disease.

47)

Which of the following is true about the social and economic impact of AIDS?

Version 1

A) A vaccine has been approved by the FDA to prevent AIDS. B) AIDS will have the greatest economic impact on the United States. C) Drug companies and governments have begun working together to lower the cost of AIDS drugs for developing nations. D) Globally, progress toward the goal of ensuring access to HIV treatment has been slower for adults than for children.

48)

The acronym AIDS stands for A) acquired immune deficiency syndrome. B) autoimmune deficit syndrome. C) antibiotic infection deficiency syndrome. D) anti-immune deficiency syndrome.

49) Which of the following is the best approach to eradicating undernutrition in developing nations? A) Require developed countries to provide direct food aid to underdeveloped countries. B) Improve the education, infrastructure, and resources forthose living in poverty. C) Establish large farms run by the Peace Corps. D) Provide more jobs in urban areas.

50)

Which of the following is the best approach to preventing famine in developing nations?

A) Increase the productivity of rural people by teaching them farming methods, so they can build agricultural surpluses to eat and sell. B) Developed countries should supply food and medicine to underdeveloped countries. C) Developing countries should grow cash crops. D) Developing countries should avoid raising and consuming livestock.

Version 1

51)

Which of the following is nottrue about sustainable agriculture?

A) Sustainable agriculture involves maintaining or enhancing the land and natural resourcesfor use long into the future. B) Reaching the goal of worldwide sustainable agriculturerequires participation by all stakeholders, including farmers, laborers, retailers, consumers,researchers, and policymakers. C) Sustainableagriculture offers respect and fair treatment to farm workers, consumers, andthe animals raised for food. D) Sustainable agricultural practices have a promising role in developed nations, but would not benefitfarmers and consumersin developing nations.

52) is

The single most effective and critical health advantage for individuals wherever they live

A) adequate calorie intake. B) safe and accessible water supply. C) well-built shelter. D) governmentsupport.

53) A collection of processes that involves the use of biological systems for altering and, ideally, improving the characteristics of plants, animals, and other forms of life is termed A) biofeedback. B) gene splicing. C) biotechnology. D) agribusiness.

54) Manipulating the DNA inside cells to improve production of materials or the material itself is called

Version 1

A) social engineering. B) translocation. C) transcription. D) genetic engineering.

55) A recent global analysis of over 145 studies of biotechnology crops over the past 20 years found that GMO crops have ______ chemical pesticide use as well as ______ both crop yield and farmer profits. A) increased; increased B) increased; decreased C) decreased; decreased D) decreased; increased

56)

Which of the following is true about new biotechnology?

A) Compared to conventionalbreeding, it is more inefficient and has inconsistent results. B) It allowsscientists to create fruits and grains with greater amounts of nutrients such as beta-carotene(e.g., golden rice) and vitamins E and C. C) It differs from traditional methods becauseit does not change any of the genetic material (DNA) of organisms toimprove characteristics. D) The public's response to its use has been extremely positive.

57)

An extreme shortage of food with chronic hunger is termed

Version 1

A) muscle wasting. B) food insecurity. C) nutrition insecurity. D) famine.

58) In terms of population migration, a movement from residing in rural areas to urban areas tends to make the problem of undernutrition worse. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) One of the most effective methods to decrease the population aspect of the food/population ratio is for countries to institute birth control programs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_6e 1) D 2) B 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) TRUE 59) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 17 1) Of the following groups, which have the the lowest risk of becoming ill from foodborne illness? A) The elderly B) Young children C) Individuals with cancer D) Teens

2) ______ is the federal agency that enforces standards for wholesomeness and quality of meat, poultry, milk, and eggs. A) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) D) The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

3) Which of the following agencies enforces wholesomeness and quality standards for meat? A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Fisheries D) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

Which of the following agencies regulates pesticides?

Version 1

A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Fisheries D) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

5) One of the major goals of using preservation methods such as smoking, salting, and drying is decreasing the _______ content of a food. This decreases the potential for microbial growth. A) acid B) sugar C) protein D) water

6) The preservation method that involves adding bacteria or yeasts to food to produce acids and alcohol to minimize growth of other microbes is called A) distillation. B) acidification. C) pasteurization. D) fermentation.

7) ______ involves separately and simultaneously sterilizing the food and its container before packaging the food. A) Aseptic processing B) Pasteurization C) Food irradiation D) Canning

Version 1

Sugar acts as a food preservative by A) increasing the acidity of food. B) reducing the amount of free water in food. C) increasing the water activity of the food. D) directly killing disease-producing microbes.

9) Which of the following food preservation methods best maintains the water content of a food product? A) Salting B) Adding sugar C) Irradiation D) Smoking

10)

Increasing the acid content of a food is especially effective in preventing the growth of A) yeast. B) molds. C) Clostridium botulinum. D) Staphylococcus aureus.

11)

The aseptic processing food preservation method is especially useful for

Version 1

A) whole grain cereals. B) fruit juices. C) meats. D) spices.

12)

Aseptic processing involves A) quickly freezing a food product after it is prepared. B) drying foods to decrease water content. C) sterilizing the package and food separately and then packaging the food. D) the addition of chemical preservatives.

13) ______ is a food preservation process that exposes food to radiation energy, preventing microbial growth. A) Ionization B) Pasteurization C) Food irradiation D) Sterilization

14)

Which of the following is true about food irradiation? A) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has banned food irradiation. B) Irradiation does not affect the vitamin content of foods. C) Foods that are irradiated do not require labeling as such. D) Irradiation can slow or limit the growth of insects, microorganisms, and parasites in

food.

Version 1

15)

Common symptoms of foodborne illness include A) fever, skin rash, and itching. B) coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. C) fever, diarrhea, and vomiting. D) fever, headache, and muscle cramps.

16)

Which of the following food trends increases the risk of foodborne illness? A) More foods prepared in kitchens outside the home B) Consumption of more imported ready-to-eat foods C) Greater consumer interest in eating raw or undercooked animal products D) All of these trends increase the risk of foodborne illness.

17)

Foods commonly associated with illness caused by Staphylococcus aureus include A) raw seafood. B) meat, poultry, and eggs. C) undercooked soybeans. D) unfiltered water.

18)

The most common cause of foodborne illness in the United States is A) Norovirus. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Hepatitis A virus. D) Escherichia coli.

Version 1

19)

Which foods are commonly associated with Salmonella intoxication? A) Gravies and sauces B) Chicken and eggs C) Seafood and raw fish D) Custards and cream-filled pastries

20) Which of the following statements describes foodborne illness caused by Salmonella species? A) There have been no documented deaths from Salmonella infections. B) The symptoms of illness from Salmonella infection develop within 4 hours of eating the contaminated food. C) Most cases of Salmonella infection can be avoided by not allowing susceptible foods to stand at room temperature for more than 2 hours. D) Salmonella infection can cause acute respiratory failure.

21)

Foodborne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens

A) is usually associated with meat and meat dishes, gravies, and improperly handled leftovers. B) appears within 12 to 36 hours of ingesting contaminated food. C) usually is caused by consuming improperly home-canned food. D) can cause human illness in about 4 hours.

22) Which of the following bacteria can make a person ill by foodborne infection (as opposed to foodborne intoxication)?

Version 1

A) Clostridium botulinum B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Salmonella species D) Bacillus cereus

23) Which of the following bacteria can produce a foodborne intoxication (as opposed to foodborne infection)? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Salmonella species C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Campylobacter jejuni

24)

The greatest health risk from food today is contamination via A) fungi. B) viruses and bacteria. C) parasites. D) prions.

25) Which of the following is an example of a parasite found in the North American food supply? A) Trichinella spiralis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Clostridium botulinum D) Norovirus

Version 1

26) Escherichia coli O157:H7 produces _______ that can cause severe illness, including severe bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome. A) an infection B) urea C) spores D) a toxin

27) Salmonella, Listeria, Escherichia coli O157:H7, and Campylobacter are the bacterial foodborne illnesses of particular interest since they are the ones most often associated with A) kidney failure. B) high fever. C) death. D) liver failure.

28)

Listeriosis is of particular concern for pregnant women because A) pregnant women are more likely than other population groups to get listeriosis. B) Listeria bacteria can cross the placenta and infect the fetus. C) listeriosis can cause fetal death. D) All of the choices are correct.

29) ______ can cause spontaneous abortion or stillbirth because the bacteria can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.

Version 1

A) Listeria monocytogenes B) Salmonella species C) Escherichia coli O157:H7 D) Clostridium botulinum

30)

By keeping food cold, the growth of microorganisms is A) increased. B) not changed. C) minimized. D) stopped and they are killed.

31)

Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection has been associated with consumption of A) breakfast cereals. B) bread made from organic flour. C) fresh spinach or spinach-containing products. D) well-done roast beef.

32) with

As a result of Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection, individuals have been hospitalized

A) kidney failure. B) kidney stones. C) myocardial infarctions. D) strokes.

Version 1

33)

The Danger Zone refers to A) the temperature range at which bacteria grow quickly. B) any food preparation surface that is contaminated with microorganisms. C) parts of the United States where environmental conditions favor microbial growth. D) the rapid heart rate that accompanies dehydration from foodborne illness.

34) Experts speculate that about 70% of foodborne illness cases go undiagnosed because they result from ______causes. A) viral B) bacterial C) fungal D) microbial

35)

There is no easy way to test for pathogens such as A) Listeria. B) Salmonella. C) Escherichia coli O157:H7. D) Norovirus.

36)

Norovirus causes an illness that is commonly misdiagnosed as A) food poisoning. B) the common cold. C) the stomach flu. D) Montezuma's revenge.

Version 1

37) ______ are hardy and survive freezing and relatively high temperatures and chlorination up to 10 parts per million (ppm). A) Noroviruses B) Salmonella C) Escherichia coli D) Listeria

38)

Most strains of Escherichia coli are A) harmful. B) harmless.

39) When bacteria, such as Salmonella, produce their disease-causing effects by directly assaulting the intestinal tract, this is called a foodborne A) infection. B) intoxication.

40) Toxin-producing bacteria, such as Clostridium botulinum, that end up in food cause a disorder called a foodborne A) infection. B) intoxication.

Version 1

41) If you buy food in a can that is bulging or spurts liquid, the food is likely to contain toxins produced by a type of bacteria called A) Salmonella. B) Clostridium perfringens. C) Clostridium botulinum. D) Staphylococcus aureus.

42) Raw meats, poultry, and eggs are often contaminated with ______, which can cause fatal infections in immunocompromised populations. A) Salmonella B) Shigella species C) Escherichia coli D) Clostridium botulinum

43) ______, which causes abdominal pain and diarrhea, multiplies rapidly in prepared foods (e.g., beef, poultry, and gravy) left at room temperature for extended periods of time. A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Escherichia coli D) Salmonella

44) The ______ bacterium can cause a potentially fatal foodborne illness. Home-canned foods often are culprits of this intoxication.

Version 1

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Clostridium botulinum C) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio vulnificus

45)

The Delaney Clause

A) prevents the intentional use as food additives of compounds shown to cause cancer in laboratory animals or humans. B) defines themaximum dosage of a food additivethat causes no observable effects inrats and mice. C) lists foodadditives that are generally recognized as safe. D) grants the USDAjurisdiction over food additives.

46)

Which of the following population groups should avoid or strictly limit caffeine intake? A) Individuals with peptic ulcers B) Young children C) Individuals with anxiety disorders. D) All of these population groups should avoid or limit caffeine inake.

47)

Which of the following is not an example of an intentional food additive? A) Nitrates B) Lecithin C) Sucralose D) Solanine

Version 1

48) Which of the following is a natural substance found in raw egg whites that can inhibit the absorption of biotin? A) Avidin B) Dioxin C) Oxalic acid D) Saponins

49) Which of the following naturally occurring substances limits the absorption of calcium and iron? A) Oxalic acid B) Avidin C) Solanine D) Safrole

50) The introduction of harmful agents, biological and otherwise, into the food supply chain that is both deliberate and intended to cause damage is called A) food insecurity. B) agroterrorism. C) foodborne pathogenesis. D) agricultural targeting.

51) Which of the following is an environmental contaminant that may end up in the food supply?

Version 1

A) Caffeine B) Carbon dioxide C) Mercury D) Avidin

52)

Possible effects of lead toxicity include A) cancers of the reproductive organs. B) anemia, nervous system damage, and reduced learning capacity in children. C) coronary heart disease and peripheral vascular disease. D) deformities of the skull, legs, and ribcage.

53)

To reduce exposure to pesticides, A) wash and/or peelfruits and vegetables before eating. B) when fishing, throw back small fish and keep only the large ones. C) limit variety infruit and vegetable consumption. D) consume the outerleaves of leafy vegetables, which have the highest nutrient content.

54) Control of agricultural pests with the use of natural predators, parasites, or pathogens describes A) biological pest management. B) sustainable agriculture. C) biotechnology. D) GRAS.

Version 1

55)

Which of the following food-handling practices increases risk for foodborne illness? A) Always wash your hands after handling raw meat, fish, poultry, or eggs. B) Do not buy or use food from a bulging can. C) When shopping, select meat, poultry, or fish first. D) Wash all utensils that have come in contact with raw meat or fish after using.

56) Covering cuts or sores on hands and avoiding sneezing when handling food are important strategies to prevent foodborne illness from A) Salmonella. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Clostridium perfringens. D) Clostridium botulinum.

57) In its public health campaign, the United States Department of Agriculture promotes food safety with four simple actions: A) boil, freeze, dry, and salt. B) bake, sterilize, freeze, and label. C) clean, separate, chill, and cook. D) scrub, irradiate, cook, and freeze.

58) If you have just sliced raw poultry on your cutting board, there is an increased probability that ______ bacteria will be present. Therefore, if the board is not thoroughly washed, the bacteria can cross-contaminate other food coming in contact with the board.

Version 1

A) Salmonella B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli

59) Ground pork should be cooked to an internal temperature of ______ to destroy the parasite Trichinella spiralis. A) 145°F (63°C) B) 160°F (71°C) C) 165°F (74°C) D) 170°F (77°C)

60)

A common cause of foodborne illness that results from sneezing or coughing over food is A) Yersinia enterocolitica B) Clostridium perfringens. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Campylobacter jejuni.

61)

To avoid Salmonella contamination, A) store chicken below 40° F. B) cook chicken to at least 140°F. C) thaw chicken at room temperature. D) refrigerate or freeze leftovers within 6 hours of cooking.

Version 1

62)

The best way to prevent the foodborne illness caused by E. coli ( Escherichia coli) is to A) cook all meat thoroughly. B) substitute bean sprouts for washed lettuce. C) wash your hands often. D) wear a hair net while cooking.

63) James operates a food service establishment and is serious about preventing foodborne illnesses. James was disturbed to find out his employees A) served meals made with raw fish. B) cooked chicken to 165°F. C) cooled leftovers rapidly in shallow pans. D) avoided cross-contamination by using multiple cutting boards.

64)

Which of the following consumer behaviors increases the risk of a foodborne illness?

A) Chopping fresh vegetables on one cutting board, and then using a separate cutting board to prepare raw meat B) Cooking ground meats to an internal temperature of 165°F C) Washing and scrubbing all produce under running water D) Reheating leftover meatballs to an internal temperature of 140°F

65)

Food irradiation makes the food radioactive. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

66) Most health professionals agree that 200 to 300 milligrams of caffeine per day (equivalent to 2 to 3 cups of regular, brewed coffee) is safe to consume and may even have some health benefits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) The Environmental Working Group (EWG) annually publishes the "Dirty Dozen" and "Clean 15" in relation to pesticide exposure on produce. These guidelines are grounded in rigorous scientific research, promoted by U.S. government agencies, and should be followed by Americans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Running water is preferred over antibacterial washing products to reduce pesticide exposure when cleaning produce. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_6e 1) D 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 18 1)

Fertility can be impaired by A) too much body fat. B) too little body fat. C) either too little or too much body fat.

Low levels of body fat decrease ______ fertility. A) both male or female B) female C) male D) neither male nor female

3) Women who experience infertility related to high levels of testosterone and insulin may have a condition known as A) polycystic ovary syndrome. B) gestational hypertension. C) preeclampsia. D) gestational diabetes mellitus.

To reduce oxidative damage to her eggs, a woman should consume A) brightly colored fruits and vegetables. B) beta-carotene supplements. C) zinc supplements. D) 3 servings per day of dairy foods.

Version 1

A mineral that is especially important for male fertility is A) zinc. B) iron. C) potassium. D) sodium.

The duration of pregnancy normally is ______ weeks. A) 30 to 34 B) 32 to 36 C) 35 to 39 D) 38 to 42

The organ that nourishes the fetus in the mother's womb is called the A) ovum. B) umbilicus. C) placenta. D) embryo.

The first trimester of pregnancy

Version 1

A) involves a rapid increase in cell size rather than cell number. B) is the least critical time during fetal development. C) is a time of particular importance to avoid nutritional deficiencies and environmental exposures that could harm the fetus. D) is a time when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus.

9) Which trimester is an especially critical period when poor nutrition or drug use can result in birth defects? A) First B) Second C) Third

10)

Preterm infants A) have minimalnutritional problems. B) may have problemssucking and swallowing. C) will almost alwaysdie. D) are born with adequate mineral and fat stores.

11)

By definition, a low-birth-weight infant weighs less than ______ pounds at birth. A) 6.5 B) 7.5 C) 5.5 D) 3.5

Version 1

12)

Obesity during pregnancy is associated with A) high blood pressure. B) diabetes. C) surgical complications. D) All of the choices.

13)

Which of the following is true about lifestyle habits and pregnancy?

A) Repeated intakeof four or more alcoholic drinks at one sitting is harmful to the fetus. B) It is vital that mothers abstain from NutraSweet because phenylalanine causes problems with fetal brain development. C) Cigarette smoking should be limited to one pack per day. D) The only risk to the baby when a mother uses cocaine is cocaine addiction.

14) Which of the following is a federal program for reducing infant mortality by providing nutritional support and counseling? A) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B) Nutrition Supplement Program (NSP) C) SpecialSupplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) D) Regional Nutrition Counseling Program (RNCP)

15) Concerning the infant, two major indicators of a successful pregnancy are: (1) gestation period longer than ______ weeks and (2) birth weight greater than ______ pounds. A) 37; 5.5 B) 34; 5.5 C) 40; 7.5 D) 37; 2.5

Version 1

16)

An infant born at 38 weeks of gestation and weighing 5 pounds is A) LBW and SGA. B) preterm and LBW. C) preterm and SGA. D) LBW.

17) Lower risk for gestational diabetes, reduced bone loss during pregnancy, better sleep, decreased back pain, and improved satisfaction with body image are all outcomes of A) following a low-fat diet during pregnancy. B) weight gain throughout pregnancy. C) inactivity during pregnancy. D) exercise during pregnancy.

18) During the second and third trimesters of pregnancy, women need an average of ______ extra kilocalories per day. A) 150 to 250 B) 250 to 350 C) 350 to 450 D) 450 to 550

19)

Extra kilocalories for pregnancy are needed mostly during which trimester(s)?

Version 1

A) First B) Second and third C) Second D) First and third

20)

Choose the activity to avoid during pregnancy. A) SCUBA diving B) Water aerobics C) Riding a stationary bike D) Brisk walking

21)

During pregnancy, the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for fat is A) 10% to 35% of total kcal. B) 20% to 35% of total kcal. C) 25% to 35% of total kcal. D) 30% to 45% of total kcal.

22)

During pregnancy, it is particularly important to make sure to consume adequate A) saturated fatty acids. B) trans fatty acids. C) cholesterol. D) essential fatty acids.

23)

During the first trimester, a woman should gain ______ pounds.

Version 1

A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 4 C) 5 to 9 D) 10 to 14

24) During the second and third trimesters, pregnant women should gain approximately______ pound(s) per week. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

25) For a woman with a prepregnancy BMI of 22, total pregnancy weight gain should fall within the range of ______ pounds. A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

26) Millie's prepregnancy BMI is 18. Her weight gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy. A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

Version 1

27) Sue's prepregnancy BMI is 38. Her weight-gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy. A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

28)

The RDA for protein increases by an additional ______ grams per day during pregnancy. A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35

29)

Requirements for ______ increase by 50% during pregnancy. A) folate B) sodium C) vitamin D D) pantothenic acid

30) Barb wants to make sure she gets adequate folate during her pregnancy. She should do which of the following?

Version 1

A) Drink more milk. B) Eat more ready-to-eat breakfast cereals. C) Eat more meat. D) Eat more oysters.

31) Patricia's physician tells her she needs more folate in her dietary pattern during pregnancy. She should do which of the following? A) Drink orange juice. B) Eat beef. C) Eat more cheese. D) Eat more fish.

32)

Choose the minerals that are needed in higher quantities during pregnancy.

A) Iron, iodine, and zinc B) Calcium, chloride, and potassium C) Sodium, phosphorus, and fluoride D) There are no minerals that need to be increased during pregnancy, only some vitamins.

33)

Which of the following statements is true about folate and pregnancy?

A) Folate deficiency in pregnancy is associated with birth defects such as spina bifida. B) The RDA for folate for pregnant women increases by 50 percent over the RDA for nonpregnant women. C) Fortified breakfast cereal is a nutrient-dense source of folate for pregnant women. D) All of these choices are correct.

Version 1

34)

Prenatal dietary supplements containing iron may cause _______ in some women. A) constipation and nausea. B) brain fog C) high blood sugar D) gastrointestinal bleeding

35)

Most of the extra calcium for pregnancy is needed during which trimester(s)? A) First B) Second C) Third D) Calcium needs do not increase during pregnancy.

36)

Nutrient-dense and bioavailable sources of calcium for a pregnant woman include A) fruits. B) vegetables. C) legumes. D) low-fat milk and cheese.

37) Low maternal levels of ______ during gestation may increase the risk for type 1 diabetes, multiple sclerosis, allergies, asthma, and mental disorders in the offspring.

Version 1

A) vitamin D B) vitamin E C) vitamin A D) vitamin K

38)

For most pregnancies, women need to consume supplemental A) calcium. B) vitamin D. C) zinc. D) iron.

39)

Which of the following statements istrue about dietary supplements during pregnancy?

A) Overdosesof vitamin B-12 could cause birth defects. B) Vitamin A supplements are usually necessary to meet increased needs during pregnancy. C) Research evidence supports routine supplementation withiron and folic acid. D) It is better to take amino acid supplements than to increase the intake of protein foods.

40) The U.S. Public Health Service and the March of Dimes recommend that all women of childbearing age should take a daily multivitamin and mineral supplement that contains A) 400 micrograms of folic acid. B) 15 milligrams of iron. C) 500 milligrams of calcium. D) 40 milligrams of zinc.

Version 1

41) Adequate folate intake for neural tube development is especially important in the ______ trimester. A) first B) second C) third

42)

Toxicity of ______ is linked to birth defects. A) vitamin A B) iron C) folate D) vitamin B-12

43) During pregnancy, a woman should follow MyPlate's Daily Food Plan, which includes ______ each day. A) 9 cups from the vegetables group B) 2 ounce-equivalents from the protein group C) 3 cups of calcium-rich foods from the dairy group D) 4 ounce-equivalents from the grain group

44)

Consumption of non-food items such as laundry starch, ice, and dirt is known as

Version 1

A) hyperemesis. B) pica. C) preeclampsia. D) eclampsia.

45) Avoiding lying down, eating less fat, avoiding spicy foods, and consuming liquid between meals instead of during meals are all helpful strategies to prevent A) constipation. B) heartburn. C) hemorrhoids. D) gestational diabetes.

46) Which of the following can prevent or reduce the occurrence of constipation during pregnancy? A) Drink about 10 cups of fluids per day. B) Choose plenty of fruits and vegetables. C) Engage in daily physical activity. D) All of these are good strategies to prevent or reduce constipation.

47) Avoiding greasy or fried foods, eating saltine crackers or dry cereal before getting out of bed, avoiding large fluid intake in the mornings, and eating smaller, more frequent meals help to control _____ during pregnancy. A) edema B) constipation C) nausea D) gestational diabetes

Version 1

48) During pregnancy, symptoms such as high blood pressure, excess protein in the urine, edema, changes in blood clotting, and seizures are associated with a condition called A) essential hypertension. B) eclampsia. C) preeclampsia. D) secondary hypertension.

49)

The hormone that triggers "let down" or milk release is A) oxytocin. B) prolactin. C) estrogen. D) progesterone.

50)

Which of the following is true about lactation?

A) Only about 50 percent of all women can breastfeed. B) The most significant reason why women do not breastfeed is that they cannot produce enough milk. C) Some women cannot breastfeed because they do not have big enough breasts. D) The major reason why women do not breastfeed is lack of information.

51)

Which of the following is true about the let-down reflex?

Version 1

A) It is needed to make milk available to the infant. B) It can be inhibited by anxiety or nervous tension. C) After a few weeks of breastfeeding, it becomes automatic. D) All of these statements are true.

52)

Which of the following statements is true regarding infant feeding?

A) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of a child's life. B) Because of its immunological benefits, infant formula is preferred over breast milk. C) Working mothers should avoid breastfeeding. D) Cows' milk can be introduced safely when the child is 3 months old.

53) From the beginning to the end of each feeding, the ______ content of human milk increases. A) carbohydrate B) fat C) mineral D) protein

54)

Breast milk production requires approximately _______ kilocalories per day. A) 200 B) 400 C) 800 D) 1,000

Version 1

55)

Advantages of breastfeeding include A) fewer ear infections for the infant. B) reduced risk of food allergies for the infant. C) reduced risk of diarrheal diseases for the infant. D) All of these are advantages of breastfeeding.

56) Compared to formula-fed infants, breastfed infants tend to have ______ risk for autoimmune diseases, such as type 1 diabetes and celiac disease. A) lower B) higher C) the same

57)

Lack of role models, widespread misinformation, and the fear of social judgment are all A) legitimate reasons not to breastfeed. B) barriers to breastfeeding. C) concerns of a pregnant mother who is a vegan. D) None of the choices.

58)

The hormone that stimulates milk synthesis is A) prolactin. B) oxytocin. C) estrogen. D) progesterone.

Version 1

59) Rich in immune factors, the milk made by the mother's breast during the first few days after birth is A) colostrum. B) prolactin. C) foremilk. D) hindmilk.

60) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends all infants be given ______ of vitamin D per day until they are consuming that much from food. A) 5 micrograms B) 10 micrograms C) 15 micrograms D) 20 micrograms

61)

Low iodine status during the first trimester of pregnancy may lead to A) hypertension in the offspring. B) gestational diabetes in the mother. C) edema in the mother. D) congenital hypothyroidism in the offspring.

62)

A teratogen is a compound that may increase

Version 1

A) the risk for birth defects. B) the risk for gestational diabetes mellitus. C) the rate of conception. D) the ability to produce milk.

63) Women suffering from chronic alcoholism produce children with a recognizable pattern of malformations called A) chronic cirrhosis. B) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders. C) cystic fibrosis. D) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

64)

Obstetricians recommend dietary sodium restrictions to treat preeclampsia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Following a low-carbohydrate eating pattern during pregnancy is recommended for the prevention of birth defects. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Pregnant women must avoid all sources of caffeine. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_6e 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) D 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 19 1) According to current growth charts, an infant can be expected to ______ his or her birth weight by 1 year of age. A) double B) triple C) quadruple

2) According to current growth charts, an infant can be expected to increase his or her birth length by ______ in 1 year. A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100%

3) According to current growth charts, an infant will double his or her birth weight at about ______ months of age. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 9

4) For a girl, undernutrition could be expected to have its greatest effect on height if it occurs

Version 1

A) just before the onset of menstrual periods. B) 1 year after the onset of menstrual periods. C) 2 years after the onset of menstrual periods. D) 3 years after the onset of menstrual periods.

Typically, preterm infants will catch up in growth by ______ of age A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 2 to 3 years D) 4 to 5 years

The most sensitive indicator of long-term nutritional status in a child is A) weight. B) height. C) head circumference. D) fusion of growth plates.

7) Approximately one-third of children in developing nations are short and underweight for their age. The most frequent cause is A) weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein diets. B) diets low in essential fatty acids. C) weaning to low-carbohydrate, high-protein diets. D) diets low in vitamin A.

Version 1

8) is

To assess weight status in children 3 years of age and older, the most useful growth chart

A) BMI-for-age. B) height-for-age. C) weight-for-age. D) head circumference-for-age.

9) ______ refers to inadequate growth in an infant or child because of insufficient nutritional intake, inefficient nutrient absorption, or excessive energy expenditure. A) Failure to thrive B) BMI rebound C) Early childhood caries D) Weaning

10) Bennett is a 12-year-old boy whose BMI-for-age falls at the 90th percentile on the BMIfor-age growth chart. Bennett is A) underweight. B) healthy weight. C) overweight. D) obese.

11) Eliza is a 6-year-old girl whose BMI-for-age falls at the 75th percentile on the BMI-forage growth chart. Eliza is

Version 1

A) underweight. B) healthy weight. C) overweight. D) obese.

12)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) There is strong evidence that overweight infantswill become obese adults. B) Overweight infants usually become obese preschool children. C) Most overweight infants become normal weight preschoolers. D) Calories should berestricted for obese infants to levels less than those for normal weightinfants.

13) Mildred is worried about her infant becoming obese in adulthood. Which of the following wouldbe accurate information if you were attempting to counsel her? A) Fat cells can increase in number during infancy and adulthood. B) If she limitscalories during infancy, the growth of other organ systems may berestricted. C) Most obese infants become normal weight preschoolers. D) All of the above would be accurate information to share with the mother.

14) Susie is 3 years old. At her most recent checkup she was at the 20 height. This means that she is

percentile for

A) taller than 19 outof 100 girls her age. B) shorter than 19out of 100 girls her age. C) taller than 20 outof 100 girls her age. D) taller than 79 outof 100 girls her age.

Version 1

15)

Brain growth is most rapid during A) the toddler years. B) the first year of life. C) adolescence. D) adulthood.

16) The World Health Organization growth standards stress that ______ is the biological norm for infant nutrition. A) feeding infant formula B) breastfeeding C) feeding cows' milk D) feeding infant formula and cereal

17) Which of the following is a reliable indicator of generally good nutrition status in young children? A) The presence of subcutaneous fat B) Consumption of foods from several groups C) Regular gains in height and weight D) The child's interest in a variety of foods

18)

Most females reach their full height

Version 1

A) before the onset of menstrual periods. B) within 7 months of the onset of menstrual periods. C) within 5 years after the onset of menstrual periods. D) by the age of 13.

19)

Mild deficiencies of zinc in children in the United States have been linked to A) short stature. B) enlarged head circumference. C) childhood obesity. D) eating disorders.

20) In the short-term, gains in ________ are a good indicator of nutritional status. The best indicator of long-term nutritional status in a child is gains in ________. A) weight; height B) height; weight C) weight; head circumference D) height; head circumference

21)

Infants receive a dose of vitamin K at birth to A) reduce the risk of hemorrhage. B) reduce the risk of blood clots. C) support immune function. D) promote bone health.

Version 1

22) Per kilogram of body weight, at 6 months of age, a child's energy needs are approximately ______times higher than adult needs. A) 2 to 4 B) 5 to 7 C) 8 to 10

23)

The greatest energy requirement per unit of body weight occurs during A) pregnancy. B) infancy. C) lactation. D) childhood.

24)

Breast milk provides approximately ______ kilocalories per liter. A) 120 B) 360 C) 480 D) 670

25)

Daily protein needs during infancy vary from ______ grams per day. A) 5 to 10 B) 9 to 11 C) 15 to 25 D) 0.8 to 0.95

Version 1

26)

Consuming too much protein may stress an infant's immature A) kidneys. B) lungs. C) heart. D) brain.

27)

Human milk provides _______ of calories from protein. A) less than 10% B) 10% to 15% C) 15% to 25% D) more than 25%

28) Arachidonic acid (ARA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are two long-chain fatty acids necessary for the development of A) the muscles and bones. B) the circulatory and respiratory systems. C) the nervous system, brain, and eyes. D) the endocrine and integumentary systems.

29)

Infants require approximately ______ of fluid per day. A) 3 cups B) 1 pint C) 1 quart D) 8 cups

Version 1

30) If an infant is unusually tired or fussy, he cries without producing tears, and his eyes appear sunken, you should suspect A) dehydration. B) iron deficiency anemia. C) vitamin D deficiency. D) iron toxicity.

31)

Vitamin ______ is routinely given by injection to all infants at birth. A) A B) E C) K D) D

32) Full term infants are born with some stores of iron. However, the infant's stores of iron generally are depleted by ______ months of age. A) 1 to 2 B) 4 to 6 C) 6 to 8 D) 8 to 10

33) Infants need fat because it aids in absorption of several vitamins and also helps the _______ to develop.

Version 1

A) kidneys B) nervous system C) reproductive system D) skin

34) Freddie is 8 months old and weighs 9 kilograms. He needs about ______ grams of protein per day. A) 11 B) 9 C) 15 D) 21

35) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all infants should receive dietary supplements of ______ until they take in this much from food sources. A) 10 micrograms of vitamin D B) 11 milligrams of iron C) 3 milligrams of zinc D) 500 milligrams of calcium

36)

Most of the calories from human milk come from A) fat. B) carbohydrates. C) protein.

37)

Most formula products for infants contain

Version 1

A) lactose, heat-treated cows' milk protein, and vegetable oils. B) soy protein, glucose, and vegetable oils. C) fructose and heat-treated cow's milk protein. D) galactose and vegetable oils.

38) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, the best age to introduce solid foods into the infant's dietary pattern is A) 1 month of age. B) 4 months of age. C) 6 months of age. D) 8 months of age.

39)

The first solid foods usually introduced into an infant's dietary pattern are A) eggs. B) pureed meats. C) pureed fruits. D) iron-fortified infant cereals.

40) Signs of an infant's readiness for solid food include the abilities to sit with support, control the head and neck, and move foods from the front to the back of the mouth. These typically occur at _____ of age. A) 1 to 3 months B) 4 to 6 months C) 8 to 12 months D) 1 year

Version 1

41)

It is not advised to introduce solid foods to an infant before 4 months of age because

A) the young infant's GI tract is not mature enough to digest complex carbohydrates and proteins. B) the young infant's kidney function is limited. C) the young infant is not able to sufficiently control his head and neck. D) All of these are reasons to delay the introduction of solid foods until 4 to 6 months of age.

42)

Physical indicators of an infant's readiness to add solid foods include A) head and neck control. B) disappearance of the extrusion reflex. C) ability to sit with support. D) All of these are indicators of an infant's readiness for solid food.

43)

As solid foodis introduced, which of the following should be included in an infant's diet? A) Iron-fortified infant cereal B) Low-fat, vitamin D-fortified cow's milk C) Hot dogs D) Honey

44)

For infants (up to 12 months of age), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends

Version 1

A) no fruit juice. B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 4 fluid ounces per day. C) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day. D) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day.

45)

Which of the following are strategies to prevent early childhood caries (i.e., cavities)? A) Do not put an infant to sleep with a bottle filled with breast milk orinfant formula. B) Begin weaning an infant from bottle to cup around 12 months of age. C) Discuss the need for fluoride supplementation with a pediatrician or dentist. D) All of these are ways to prevent early childhood caries.

46)

Iron-deficiency anemia in the latter part of infancy is associated with A) a dietary pattern containing few solid foods. B) a dietary pattern dominated by commercial infant cereals. C) medicinal iron supplements. D) a dietary pattern dominated by carbohydrates.

47)

High-fiber diets are A) recommended for infants after 4 months of age. B) recommended for infants after 6 months of age. C) not recommended for infants. D) recommended for breastfed infants only.

Version 1

48) A gluten-free, casein-free diet is a nutritional intervention under study for its potential to help children with A) childhood obesity. B) autism spectrum disorder. C) preventing chronic diseases in adulthood. D) increasing longevity.

49)

Which of the following statements about autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is true? A) Autism spectrum disordercan both affect and be affected by nutritionalstatus. B) Nutritionalinterventions are useless in the treatment of ASD. C) Food allergens maycontribute to ASD by altering cardiovascular system function. D) Research shows acausal link between childhood vaccinations and ASD.

50)

Weight gain between the ages of 2 and 5 is about ______ pounds per year. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

51)

Which of the following practices may help to reduce lead exposure?

A) Allowing cold water to run from the tap for 2 to 3 minutes after a long period of inactivity B) Consuming a variety of whole grains, lean meats, and low-fat dairy products C) Ensuring adequate iron, zinc, calcium, thiamin, and vitamin E intakes D) All of these strategies may help to reduce lead exposure.

Version 1

52)

"Picky" eating behaviors may develop during the preschool years partially because of A) decreased appetiteassociated with decreased growth rate. B) increased appetiteassociated with increased growth rate. C) increased appetite associated with decreased growth rate. D) decreased appetite associated with increased growth rate.

53) Which foods would you suggest adding to the dietary pattern of a preschool child at risk for iron deficiency? A) Lean meats B) Milk C) Orange juice D) Egg whites

54) Preschool children should be encouraged to try new foods to build a dietary pattern with a variety of nutrient-dense foods. If a child is reluctant to try a new food, what is the best response? A) Suggest that the child try one bite of the new food. B) Withhold dessert until the child eats a serving of the new food. C) Quietly remove the new food and never offer it again. D) Enlist the support of other family members to coax the child to eat the new food.

55)

Which of the following are true statements about snacks for preschool children?

Version 1

A) Nutrient-dense snacks make an important contribution to overall nutrient intake. B) Snacks are appropriate if timed so that appetite is not reduced at meals. C) Snacks can assist in introducing children to new foods. D) All of these are true statements about snacks.

56)

For toddlers (ages 1 to 3 years), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends A) limiting fruit juice consumption to 4 fluid ounces per day. B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day. C) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day. D) no fruit juice.

57)

The nutrient needs of preschool children are relatively great, so it may be important to A) serve bigger portions at meals. B) provide vitamin supplements. C) withhold liquids until after meals. D) serve snacks daily in addition to meals.

58) Crystal wants to help her preschool daughter, Violet, to eat more vegetables. Which of the following strategies could she try? A) Crystal should show Violet that she likes vegetables. B) Crystal should offer Violet new vegetables along with familiar foods. C) Crystal should avoid overcooking vegetables. D) All of these are strategies to encourage preschoolers to eat vegetables.

Version 1

59)

Which of the following is an appropriate feeding philosophy for children? A) Parents should be responsible for choosing how much and when the child should eat. B) Parents should present a variety of nutritious food choices and avoid conflicts at meal

times. C) Children should be forced to eat what is good for them. D) Parents should present nutritious food choices and not worry about their own eating habits.

60)

Federally funded programs, such as Team Nutrition, promote A) good dentalhygiene. B) a vegetarianlifestyle. C) total avoidance offats and sweets. D) early developmentof healthy eating and exercise habits.

61)

Having an adequate iron and calcium status helps to reduce _____ absorption. A) saturated fat B) sugar C) bacteria D) lead

62)

Which of the following istrue about snacks? A) Healthy snack choices help children to meet their high caloric requirements. B) Snacks should be viewed as small, nutrient-dense meals. C) Distractions should be limited while snacking to prevent mindless eating. D) All of these are true statements about snacks.

Version 1

63)

Children on the autism spectrum are at risk for nutritional deficiencies because A) they are prone to selective eating behaviors. B) they commonly experience GI problems, such as diarrhea. C) they may follow overly-restrictive diets in an attempt to treat their disorder. D) All of these are reasons children with ASD are at nutritional risk.

64)

Children will more effectively develop the breakfast-eating habit if A) they are driven to school so that they have time to eat. B) parents eat breakfast with them. C) breakfast is prepared for them to eat while their parents are dressing for work. D) they are given money to buy breakfast on the way to school.

65)

For children with obesity, experts generally recommend A) severe caloric restriction. B) limiting physicalactivity to avoid stressing the joints. C) early diabetes andcholesterol screening. D) bariatricsurgery.

66) The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that children should engage in ______ of moderate to intense physical activity per day. A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes C) 90 minutes D) 150 minutes

Version 1

67) Approximately what percentage of children with obesity remain obese through adulthood? A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50%

68) Approximately what percentage of adolescents with obesity remain obese through adulthood? A) 30% B) 50% C) 80% D) 90%

69) In the United States, approximately _____ of school-age children are overweight or obese. A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/4 D) 1/10

70)

The treatment of childhood obesity involves

Version 1

A) increasing physical activity. B) moderation of energy intake. C) reducing intake of dietary sugar and fat. D) All the choices are correct.

71)

For young children (ages 4 to 6), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends A) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day. B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day. C) limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid ounces per day. D) consuming at least 8 fluid ounces per day of fruit juice.

72)

For older children (ages 7 to 18), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends A) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day. B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day. C) limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid ounces per day. D) consuming at least 8 fluid ounces per day of fruit juice.

73) For a child who follows a totally vegetarian diet, which nutrients need to be monitored carefully to prevent a deficiency? A) Iron, vitamin B-12, and vitamin D B) Vitamin A, vitamin C, and folate C) Vitamin K, thiamin, and vitamin C D) Fiber, vitamin A, and vitamin C

74)

Typically, the adolescent growth spurt

Version 1

A) begins earlier in boys than girls. B) begins earlier in girls than boys. C) begins at the same age for boys and girls.

75)

Dietary intakes of ______ are often low in the diets of adolescent girls. A) calcium and phosphorus B) iron and calcium C) magnesium and zinc D) iron and phosphorus

76)

Which of the following is true about teens and vegetable consumption?

A) Most teens meet the recommendation to consume 5 servings of fruits and vegetables per day. B) Most of a teen's vegetable intake is from pizza sauce. C) Potato chips and French fries make up more than one-third of the vegetable intake of teens. D) Most teens meet the AI for fiber despite low vegetable intake.

77) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, caffeine intake should be limited to ______ for children. A) 100 milligrams per day B) 300 milligrams per day C) 500 milligrams per day D) No amount of caffeine is safe for children.

Version 1

78) According to the latest data, among children under 3 years of age, the most common food allergy is to A) eggs. B) milk. C) peanuts. D) shellfish.

79)

What foods are most frequently linked to food allergies? A) Corn, sugar, and honey B) Milk, eggs, and wheat C) Oranges, beef, and corn D) Strawberries, mangoes, and avocados

80)

An adverse reaction to a food that does not involve the immune system is A) a food allergy. B) a food intolerance. C) anaphylaxis. D) a food deterrence.

81)

Foreign proteins that cause adverse reactions in the body are called A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) albumins. D) anaphylaxins.

Version 1

82) According to the hygiene hypothesis, frequent use of antimicrobial cleansers and antibiotics can A) impair development of the immune system, predisposing a person to allergies and autoimmune diseases. B) improve the function of the immune system, reducing the risk for communicable diseases. C) cause dry and cracked skin, which makes the person more susceptible to skin infections. D) promote tumor growth in people with a genetic predisposition for cancer.

83) Which of the following is an evidence-based strategy to reduce the risk for food allergies? A) Exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months of life, followed by continued breastfeeding along with age-appropriate solid foods through the first year of life B) Delaying the introduction of potentially allergenic foods (e.g., milk) until after 1 year of age C) Maternal avoidance of potentially allergenic foods (e.g., peanuts) during pregnancy and breastfeeding D) Provide probiotic dietary supplements to infants.

84) With some adjustments to portion sizes, MyPlate is an appropriate guide for meal planning for school-age children as well as adults. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Compared to children who skip breakfast, children who regularly eat breakfast have higher intakes of many vitamins and minerals, such as folate and iron.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_6e 1) B 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) B 60) D 61) D 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) A 78) C 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) TRUE 85) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 20 1) Some researchers believe that damage to cells by free radicalsmay contribute to the aging process. Which of the following nutrients serves as an antioxidant that protects cells from these compounds? A) Magnesium B) Vitamin B-12 C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K

The maximum number of years a human can live is called A) life morbidity. B) life span. C) life cycle staging. D) life expectancy.

3) The ______ dietary pattern features an abundant intake of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, beans, nuts, and seeds. A) Mediterranean B) Western C) Atkins D) Ketogenic

Life span refers to

Version 1

A) the maximum number of years that humans live. B) the average length of life for a cohort of people born in a specific year. C) the delay of the onset of disabilities caused by chronic disease. D) the promotion of longevity through healthful lifestyle changes.

Life expectancy refers to A) the maximum number of years humans live. B) the average length of life for a given group of people born in a specific year. C) the delay of the onset of disabilities caused by chronic disease. D) the promotion of longevity through healthful lifestyle changes.

6) is

The dietary manipulation that is most significantly related to longevity in animal studies

A) protein restriction. B) low fat intake. C) calorie restriction. D) high carbohydrate intake.

7) After age ______ or so, the total calorie needs of physically inactive adults fall steadily throughoutadulthood. A) 20 B) 30 C) 50 D) 70

Version 1

Which of the following is true about aging?

A) Aging is a disease. B) Mathematical models have been designed that are very predictive of the aging process. C) The rate of aging is based on genetics and no amount of modifiable lifestyle behaviorscan alter it. D) Development of chronic disease is not an inevitable consequence of aging.

Which of the following occurs with aging?

A) Copy errors in the cell cycle can lead to genetic mutations that cause protein dysfunction, resulting incell death. B) Concentrations of many hormones, such as testosterone in men and estrogen in women, increasewith aging. C) The immune system is more able to recognize and counteract foreignsubstances that enter the body. D) The body has learned to fight off attacks on healthy cells, thus preserving maximum function.

10)

The process of aging is most likely the result of A) slow cell death. B) acute death of an organ. C) complete death of the immune system. D) rapid cell multiplication.

11) Throughout the aging process, optimal functioning of body organs decreases, but it may be years before organ decline is noticeable. This phenomena is referred to as

Version 1

A) compression of morbidity. B) homeostasis. C) reserve capacity. D) organ repression.

12) Striving to live the greatest number of healthyyears and the fewest number of ill years is referred to as A) reserve capacity. B) compression of morbidity. C) maintaining homeostasis. D) usual aging.

13) A genetic tendencytoward efficient use of energy that resultsin below-average energy requirementsand increased storage of calories as fat is called A) thrifty metabolism. B) energy reserve. C) homeostasis. D) thrifty reserve.

14) Home-delivered meal kits are gaining in popularity. What is a key benefit of these kits for consumers?

Version 1

A) They are attractive for busy consumers with little time or novice cooking skills. B) They require advanced cooking skills so budding chefs can enjoy these meals at home. C) The companies pick up the food waste on their next delivery visit and share fresh compost with customers. D) Overall, they are lower in cost than purchasing the same food at a local grocery market.

15)

Life expectancy in North America is about ______ years for men and ______ for women. A) 84; 80 B) 75; 75 C) 76; 82 D) 80; 84

16)

Among the older population, the fastest growing age group is A) 60 to 65. B) 65 to 75. C) 75 to 80. D) 85 and older.

17)

Which of the following is

not a component of the Mediterranean diet?

A) Abstinence from alcohol B) Plentiful intake of fruits and vegetables C) Olive oil D) Frequent consumption of fish

Version 1

18) The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans provide guidelines specificallyfor older adults. Which of the following is not one of these guidelines? A) All adults should engage in moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 150 to 300 minutes per week, vigorous-intensity aerobic activity for 75 to 150 minutes per week, or an equivalent combination of the two. B) To maintain lean tissue and basal metabolic rate, strength training should be performed 5 to 7 times per week. C) For those over age 65 who are at risk for falling, physical activities thatimprove balance are recommended. D) Stretching each major muscle group should accompany aerobicor strength training at least 2 days per week.

19)

Which of the following is true about U.S. dietary patterns since the mid-1950s? A) We are eating less cheese. B) We are consuming less saturated fat. C) We are eating more eggs. D) We are eating less chicken and fish.

20) Sara is a middle-aged woman of Northern European descent and is quite small in stature. She eats plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, and lean meats. What else could she do to live a more health-promoting lifestyle? A) Take vitamin and mineral supplements. B) Eat more vitamin E-laden fruits and vegetables. C) Eat more red meat. D) Consume plenty of low-fat milk and dairy products.

Version 1

21) Which of the following would be included in a basic plan for health promotion and disease prevention? A) Getting 4 to 6 hours of sleep a night B) Consuming a plant-focused dietary pattern C) Smoking e-cigarettes D) Consuming 3 to 5 ounces of alcohol daily

22) Which of the following is akey recommendation by the Dietary Guidelines for Americansfor adults?

A) Follow an energy-dense dietary pattern across one's life span. B) Shift to processed food and beverage choices. C) Focus on refined grains and animal proteins. D) Limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats and reduce sodium intake.

23) A mineral that is often deficient in the diet of U.S. adults and is linked to bone health, muscle function, mental health, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes is A) magnesium. B) iron. C) zinc. D) calcium.

24) Research suggests that older adults require ______ the current RDA for protein for adults.

Version 1

A) more than B) less than C) the same amount as

25)

Compared to individuals aged 19 to 50, adults over the age of 70 need _____ vitamin D. A) more B) less C) the same amountof

26) Consuming food sources of omega-3 fatty acids areinvolved in biochemical pathways that ______ inflammationand are associated with a reduction in depression. A) decrease B) increase C) do not change

27) The CDC reports that over _____% of older adults take at least one prescription medication daily, and _____% of all people over age 65 take five or more medicines each day. A) 25; 10 B) 50; 25 C) 80; 25 D) 90; 40

28) Declining function of the ______ system directly affects an older adult's ability to shop for, prepare, and consume foods at home.

Version 1

A) nervous B) immune C) endocrine D) reproductive

29)

Which of the following typically increases with aging? A) Sense of thirst B) Lean tissue mass C) Immune function D) Fat stores

30) Barbara is 65 years of age, and her doctor finds her mental function is declining. Which of the following may improve her mental status?

A) Resting the brain and avoiding brain games B) Maintaining a sedentary lifestyle C) Eating a primarily plant-based dietary pattern D) Taking protein supplements

31)

Which of the following is true about dietary patterns and Alzheimer's disease?

A) High intakes of aluminum can cause it. B) High intakes of choline and lecithin are associated with improvement in the condition. C) It is wise for caregivers to oversee food planning and mealtimes to ensure nutritional adequacy. D) Diet alone can prevent this condition.

Version 1

32) Bud has trouble with his dentures that results in chewing difficulties. Which of the following foods would be most appropriate to help meet his nutritional needs? A) Toast B) Clear bouillon C) Sirloin steak D) Low-fat yogurt

33)

Which of the following is true about thirst among the elderly?

A) Elderly individuals can easily become dehydrated and this can cause confusion. B) Elderly people rarely become dehydrated because their sense of thirst is enhanced with aging. C) About six cups of fluid per day is the goal for elderly people. D) Diuretics do not affect an elderly person's fluid requirement.

34) Because elderly individuals need similar amounts of nutrients compared totheir younger counterparts but fewer calories, they should focus on dietary patterns that emphasize A) nutrient density. B) energy density. C) liquid calories. D) fat intake.

35)

Which of the following is an example of a medicationthat affects nutritional status?

Version 1

A) Some antihypertensive medications decrease appetite. B) Some pain medications cause blood clots, resulting in anemia. C) Long-term use of antibiotics can decrease the population of bacteria that synthesizes vitamin K. D) Use of oral contraceptives can decrease a woman's requirements for calcium.

36) Gary takes a diuretic to control his blood pressure, aspirin to prevent his blood clots, and an antibiotic for a recent sinus infection. Which of these may affect his vitamin K needs? A) Diuretic B) Aspirin C) Antibiotic

37)

Long-term aspirin use by an elderly person could increase the need for what nutrient? A) Calcium B) Potassium C) Thiamin D) Iron

38)

Elements from the National Institute on Aging include endurance, strength, balance, and A) nutrient density. B) flexibility. C) yoga. D) mindfulness.

Version 1

39) Consuming adequate amounts of protein and ______ helps maximize the health of the immune system in elderly individuals. A) selenium B) copper C) calcium D) zinc

40) Adequate intake of high-quality protein ______ the rate of muscle breakdown associated with aging. A) increases B) decreases C) does not affect

41) Edna, age 75, does not tolerate dairy products well. Which of the following practices would be most appropriate for Edna to increase her calcium levels? A) Eat more meat B) Decrease protein intake C) Eliminate all dairy D) Consume small amounts of milk with meals

42)

Mack is constipated. Recommendations to alleviate constipationinclude A) eating 50 grams of fiber per day. B) drinking more fluid. C) using mineral oil routinely and liberally. D) eating more refined grains.

Version 1

43) Regular physical activity along with adequate intakes of fluid and fiber are lifestyle strategies to prevent or treat A) constipation. B) diarrhea. C) gallstones. D) osteoarthritis.

44) Declining production of stomach acid and intrinsic factor increases the risk for deficiency of ______ among older adults. A) vitamin B-12 B) vitamin B-6 C) iron D) calcium

45)

The most common type of malnutrition during the adult years is ______ deficiency. A) vitamin K B) phytochemical C) vitamin C D) iron

46) One of the physiological changes of aging that often results in decreases in nutrient utilization is

Version 1

A) increased appetite. B) increased liver function. C) increased body water. D) poor dentition.

47)

Which of the following is associated with aging? A) The liver's detoxifying capacity increases. B) The risk of developing gallstones increases. C) High chromium intake impairs glucose tolerance. D) The digestive function of the pancreas improves.

48) As she ages, Maude begins losing her senses of taste and smell. Which of the following is true about her situation? A) The senses of taste and smell do not change with aging. B) She can vary her dietary patterns to include more herbs and spices to help enhance the flavors and odors of foods. C) She will have to learn to accept that food will continue to taste more bland. D) It is inevitable that she will eventually lose all sense of taste and smell.

49)

Eatinghabits of older adults may be influenced by A) reduced taste sensitivity. B) increased physical mobility. C) enhanced thirst response. D) increased production of melatonin.

Version 1

50)

Which of the following is not part of the DETERMINE acronym? A) Eating poorly B) Depression C) Economic hardship D) Multiple medications

51)

Loss of lean body mass is termed A) sarcopenia. B) ketosis. C) hypertrophy. D) myoglobinosis.

52)

The decrease in lean tissue that occurs with aging can be reduced by A) taking amino acid supplements. B) engaging in physical activity that includes resistance exercise. C) eating an abundance of calories. D) drinking enough water.

53)

A loss of muscle mass accompanied by gains in fat mass is called A) sarcopenic obesity. B) cachexia. C) visceral obesity. D) hypertrophy.

Version 1

54)

A single older adult who has been losing weight involuntarily may benefit from A) participation in a congregate meal program. B) antidepressant medications. C) bed rest. D) low-dose aspirin.

55) The foundation for a dietary pattern that optimizes long-term nutritional health would emphasize A) high-fat dairy products. B) a variety of fruits and vegetables. C) refined-grainbreads and cereals. D) animal proteins high in saturated fat.

56)

Meals on Wheels is a nutrition program that A) delivers meals to older adults in their own homes. B) serves meals to older adults in a congregate setting. C) provides free transportation to food pantries. D) provides nutrition education to older adults in senior centers.

57) Meals provided by congregate or home-delivered meal programsare designed to provide ______ of the RDA or AI for nutrients. A) one-third B) one-fourth C) one-half D) 100%

Version 1

58) Which of the following is not apractical suggestion for a single individual planning his or her dietary pattern? A) Buying small containers of food B) Cooking large amounts of food, dividing it into small portions, and freezing it C) Buying family-sized packages of meat D) Buying fruits at various stages of ripeness

59) A standarddrink provides about 14 grams of alcohol. Which of the following is standard alcoholic drink size for alcoholic beverages? A) 24 oz. regular beer B) 5 oz. table wine C) 3 oz. shot of hard alcohol (spirits) D) 22 oz. malt liquor

60) Of all the alcohol sources, ______ often is singled out as the best choice because of the added bonus of the many phytochemicals present. A) red wine B) wine coolers C) light beer D) hard cider

61)

An 80-proof alcoholic beverage contains ______ percent alcohol.

Version 1

A) 40 B) 20 C) 100 D) 80

62)

Which of the following is true about alcohol consumption by the elderly? A) Alcohol is absorbed only in the small intestine. B) Alcohol absorption is independent of the stomach contents. C) Most of the alcohol is metabolized by the kidney. D) Alcohol can interfere with medications in the body.

63)

Where is the chief site of alcohol metabolism? A) Brain B) Stomach C) Liver D) Kidneys

64)

A person with a deficiency of alcohol dehydrogenase would A) become intoxicated at low levels of alcohol intake. B) have a high tolerance for alcohol. C) be able to pass a breathalyzer test even with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or

higher. D) feel ill due to an accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood.

Version 1

65) Studies suggestthat about ______ of a person’s risk for developing alcohol-related disorders isgenetic. A) 10% B) 25% C) 40% D) 65%

66) The disease characterized by fatty infiltration of the liver and replacement of functioning liver cells with fibrous connective tissue is known as A) cirrhosis. B) liver cancer. C) hepatitis. D) Crohn's disease.

67) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that those who choose to drink alcoholic beverages should do so in moderation, defined as the consumption of up to ______ drink(s) per day for women and older adults and up to ______ drink(s) per day for men. A) 0; 1 B) 1; 2 C) 2; 3 D) 3; 4

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_6e 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) B

Version 1