Test Bank for Anatomical Basis of Dentistry 4th Edition by Liebgott

Test Bank for Anatomical Basis of Dentistry 4th Anatomical Basis of Dentistry 4th Edition Liebgott Edition

by Liebgott Test Bank Chapter 01: General Concepts Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. “Anatomy” comes from Greek root words that mean a. “study of the body b. “to classify c. “to cut up d. “study of movement e. “replica of the gods

.”

ANS: C

To cut up. Anatomy is derived from two Greek root words that mean “to cut up.”

2. The term applied to the study of human form and structure as seen with the naked eye is a. b. c. d. e.

. gross anatomy neuroanatomy imaging anatomy cellular analysis physical examination

ANS: A

Gross anatomy. Gross anatomy is the study of human form and structure as seen with the naked eye.

3. The study of details of anatomical structure to the level of basic tissue and cell architecture is a. b. c. d. e.

. neurology regional anatomy microbiology immunology histology

ANS: E

Histology. Histology is the study of details of human tissue as seen through a microscope, ranging from basic tissue and cell architecture to ultrastructural elements of tissues and cells.

4. Noninvasive study of living subjects as revealed by radiography, magnetic resonance imaging,

or ultrasonography is a. surface anatomy b. imaging anatomy c. neuroanatomy d. gross anatomy e. X-ray studies

.

ANS: B

Imaging anatomy. Imaging anatomy is the noninvasive study of living or dead subjects by conventional radiography, magnetic resonance imaging, or ultrasonography.

5. Which connective tissue contains chondroblasts and has no neurovascular elements? a. Blood vessels b. Bone c. Ligaments d. Cartilage e. Muscle ANS: D

Cartilage. Cartilage is the supporting connective tissue consisting of cells (chondroblasts, which give rise to chondrocytes). There are no neurovascular elements within cartilage.

6. In its early stages, the fetal skeleton consists primarily of a. sesamoid bone b. cartilage c. short bone d. condyle e. epicondyle

.

ANS: B

Cartilage. During early development, most of the fetal skeleton is present as cartilage.

7. Calcification is a characteristic of a. cartilage b. muscle c. vessels d. nerves

.

e. bone ANS: E

Bone. The intercellular matrix of bone becomes calcified for rigidity and strength.

8. Which of the following statements is true about bone? a. Interstitial growth is not possible, and appositional growth takes place only below b. c. d. e.

the covering periosteal layer.

Periosteum consists of an outer layer of osteoblasts and a fibrous inner layer.

Blood cells are formed in the fibrous outer layer.

White blood cells and phosphorus are stored in bone.

All of the above

ANS: A

Because of bone’s rigid structure, interstitial growth is not possible. Appositional growth takes place only below the covering layer of bone. Periosteum consists of a fibrous outer layer and an inner layer of osteoblasts. Blood cells are formed in bone marrow.

9. Diploë is found in a. long bones b. short bone c. condyles d. epicondyles e. flat bones

.

ANS: E

Flat bones. Flat bones consist of a sandwich: two layers of compact bone encasing a cancellous layer called the diploë.

10. The rounded end of a bone with a smooth articular surface covered by cartilage is a. epicondyle b. sesamoid c. condyle d. trochanter e. crest

.

ANS: C

Condyle. The condyle is the rounded or widened end of a bone with a smooth articular surface covered by cartilage. The epicondyle is a ridge of bone above the condyle that provides muscle attachment.

11. The malleolus is found on bones of the a. upper arm b. leg c. thigh d. shoulder e. skull

.

ANS: B

Leg. The malleoli are two bony prominences found on bones of the leg that serve to bind the lower leg to the ankle. Malleoli are not found on any other bones.

12. A gently rounded depressionN inUbRoS neItN haG tT mB ay.pC roOvM ide space for muscles or a concave area for

joint surfaces is a a. foramen b. fissure c. fossa d. sesamoid e. tubercle

.

ANS: C

Fossa. Fossa is a gently rounded depression that in some cases provides space for muscles and in other cases denotes the smooth concave area for joint surfaces.

13. Foramen ovale and foramen magnum both describe which feature of bone? a. A notch in the end of a bone. b. An elongated space between two bones. c. A rounded depression that provides space for muscle. d. A raised process or ridge. e. A hole for nerves and vessels to pass through.

ANS: E

A hole for nerves and vessels to pass through. Foramen is a hole in the bone that allows structures such as nerves and vessels to pass through.

14. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. A joint is an articulation between two or more bones.

b. Amphiarthrodial joints allow partial movement. c. Joints may be composed of fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, or a combination

of both. d. All joints allow some movement. e. A syndesmosis is a type of fibrous joint.

ANS: D

All of the statements are true, except D. Synarthrodial joints allow no movement between the bones they unite.

15. The peg-and-socket articulation between the roots of teeth and the maxillary or mandibular

alveolar process is what type of joint? a. Syndesmosis b. Gomphosis c. Suture d. Diarthrodial e. None of the above ANS: B

Gomphosis. A gomphosis joint is in the form of a peg-and-socket articulation between the roots of teeth and the maxillary or mandibular alveolar process.

16. The temporomandibular joint is an example of a _ a. fibrous joint containing a disc b. fibrous joint without a disc c. cartilaginous joint d. synovial joint containing a disc

.

e. symphysis joint ANS: D

Synovial joint. A synovial joint is freely movable. Some synovial joints contain discs interposed between articular surfaces. The temporomandibular joint is an example of a synovial joint containing a disc.

17. A freely moveable shoulder is an example of a a. ball-and-socket multiaxial joint b. hinge joint c. uniaxial joint d. plane joint e. condyloid joint

.

ANS: A

Ball-and-socket multiaxial joint. A ball-and-socket multiaxial joint has one bony surface that is ball-shaped and a second surface that is a reciprocal socket, which allows movement in all planes. The shoulder is an example of a ball-and-socket multiaxial joint.

18. The three types of muscle tissue in the body are _ a. temporalis, cardiac, and striated b. skeletal, striated, and cardiac c. cardiac, smooth, and fibrous d. smooth, fibrous, and temporalis

.

e. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac ANS: E

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. The three types of muscle tissue in the body are skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. Skeletal muscle is also known as striated because it appears striped in a histological section.

19. Muscles that encircle openings, such as the eye and mouth, and can open or close the opening

are called a. pennate b. sphincter c. parallel d. fusiform e. converging

muscles.

ANS: B

Sphincter. Sphincter muscles encircle openings, such as the eye and mouth, and may contract to close the opening. Pennate muscle is structured for power. In fusiform muscle, the fibers converge at both origin and insertion.

20. A contraction of skeletal muscle that contracts or tenses the muscle but produces no

movement is characterized as a. antagonistic b. isotonic c. prime d. isometric e. synergistic

.

ANS: D

Isometric. Isometric contractions of skeletal muscle contract or tense the muscle but produce no movement. An example is tensing the stomach muscles. Isotonic contractions produce actual movement around a joint.

21. Which of the following is TRUE about smooth muscle? a. Smooth muscle lacks the striations of skeletal muscle. b. Smooth muscle cells are long and tapered. c. Generally smooth muscle forms the walls of hollow viscera and tubes. d. Hollow organs, such as the gallbladder, contain smooth muscle. e. All of the above ANS: E

All of the statements are true about smooth muscle.

22. An anatomical system consisting of fluid, a pump, and a system to transport fluid is best

described as the a. nervous b. musculoskeletal c. cardiovascular d. genitourinary e. pulmonary ANS: C

system.

Cardiovascular. The cardiovascular system consists of a quantity of fluid, a pump (the heart), and a series of tubes (veins, arteries, and capillaries) that contain the fluid.

23. Tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia are terms used to describe which structure? a. Blood vessels b. Brain c. Lung d. Smooth muscle e. Cartilage ANS: A

Blood vessels. Most blood vessels consist of three coats, or tunics. Tunica intima is the innermost coat, tunica media is the middle coat, and tunica adventitia is the outer layer.

24. The exchange of gases and metabolites takes place between blood and other tissues via a. b. c. d. e.

. arteries veins arterioles ventricles capillaries

ANS: E

Capillaries. Capillaries form large networks that accommodate large volumes of blood. The exchange of gases and metabolites takes place through the endothelial barrier of capillaries, not through veins and arteries.

NU 25. Which of the following statem enR tsSaI boNuG t tT heBc. arCdO ioM vascular system is FALSE? a. Each vein has a companion artery. b. Venules drain capillary beds and coalesce with one another to form veins. c. Generally, arteries have thicker walls than veins. d. Blood leaves the heart via arteries and returns via veins. e. All of the above statements are false.

ANS: A

Veins generally accompany arteries, but in some instances veins are found without companion arteries. All of the other statements are true.

26. During fetal development, CO2/O2 exchange takes place at the

. a. b. c. d. e.

heart lungs brain liver placenta

ANS: E

Placenta. During fetal development, the lungs are not functioning. CO2/O2 exchange takes place at the placenta.

27. Which of the following statements best describes changes in the newborn circulation system

at birth? a. Few substantive changes take place at birth. The circulation system is nearly complete in the 8th month of the mother’s pregnancy. b. Various fetal veins and arteries close spontaneously and eventually undergo fibrosis, thus closing off fetal shunts between arterial and venous circuits. c. The major fetal shunts remain open for few days after birth until the newborn’s lungs are fully functioning. d. The umbilical vein and umbilical artery continue to function for some days after birth and then eventually become thrombosed. e. None of the above is true.

ANS: B

Various fetal veins and arteries close spontaneously. The lungs expand and begin to function at birth. Spontaneously the ductus arteriosus closes and eventually undergoes fibrosis.

Similarly the ductus venosus is obliterated, thus closing off the three major fetal shunts between the arterial and venous circuits. The umbilical vein and arteries become thrombosed when the umbilical cord is cut. Pressure in the left atrium increases and closes the flaplike foramen ovale, which becomes fused after time.

28. Two types of lymphocytes present in the lymph are a. B cells and erythrocytes b. T cells and leukocytes c. erythrocytes and leukocytes d. B cells and T cells e. T cells and erythrocytes

.

ANS: D

B cells and T cells. Lymph contains two types of lymphocytes—B cells and T cells. B cells mature in bone marrow and are carried by the blood to the lymph nodes. T cells mature in the thymus gland and are carried by the blood to the lymph nodes.

29. Large groupings of lymph nodes are located in the a. leg and forearm b. axilla and groin c. intestines and stomach d. mandible e. esophagus

.

ANS: B

Axilla and groin. Lymph nodes are found in groups throughout the body, but two particularly large groupings are in the axilla and groin.

30. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? a. Drainage of tissue fluid and protein back to the blood venous system b. Conduction of fat from the intestines to the blood venous system c. Manufacture of erythrocytes d. Manufacture of antibodies e. Proliferation and circulation of lymphocytes ANS: C

Manufacture of erythrocytes. All of the aforementioned are functions of the lymphatic system, except for C. Erythrocytes are produced in the marrow of long bones.

31. Which of the following is the best general description of the purpose of the nervous system? a. To regulate body temperature b. To produce fundamental body components, such as blood cells c. To combat invasive foreign tissues d. To integrate and interpret stimuli and direct the body to respond in the appropriate

manner e. To facilitate healing after an organ has been damaged ANS: D

Integrate and interpret stimuli and direct the body to respond in the appropriate manner. The human nervous system is a complex and specialized system that reacts to the external and internal environment by integrating and interpreting incoming stimuli and directing the body to respond in the appropriate manner.

32. The two types of cells that populate the nervous system are a. neurons and neuroglia b. micron and neuron c. leukocyte and micron d. neuroglia and dermis e. leukocyte and erythrocyte

.

ANS: A

Neurons and neuroglia. Neuroglia and neurons are the primary cells of the nervous system.

Leukocytes and erythrocytes are blood cells.

33. The nervous system components that occur at the intercellular junctions of nerve processes or

between nerve processes and cells of effector organs are a. proteins b. neuroglia c. axons d. synapses e. dendrites

.

ANS: D

Synapses. Synapses occur at the intercellular junctions of nerve processes or between nerve processes and cells of effector organs. Neuroglia are nonreactive nerve cells.

34. Which of the following is true statements about neuroglia? a. Neuroglia are nonreactive cells that fulfill a supportive role. b. Neuroglia maintains homeostasis in the extracellular environment. c. Neuroglia are a primary component of the nervous system. d. Neuroglia electrically insulate nerve processes from each other. e. All of the above are true.

ANS: E

Statements A through D are true about neuroglia.

35. Neuronal bodies that are grouped and found in the central part of the spinal cord, on the

surfaces of the cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres, and scattered throughout the central nervous system are called . a. myelin b. gray matter c. ganglions d. neurons e. axons ANS: B

Gray matter. Gray matter is the term for neuronal bodies that are grouped and found in the central part of the spinal cord, on the surfaces of the cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres, and scattered throughout the central nervous system. Neurons are nerve cells. Ganglia are collections of neuronal cell bodies that are outside of the central nervous system.

36. The component of the nervous system that contains the brain and the spinal cord is the a. b. c. d. e.

nervous system. peripheral somatic efferent afferent central

ANS: E

Central. The central nervous system (CNS) includes the brain and the spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is composed of nerves outside of the central nervous system.

37. The somatic nervous system N coUnR troSlsIw ctiC vO itiM es?

NhGicThBa. a. Involuntary smooth muscle or glandular tissue activities b. Minute-to-minute vegetative functional activities of glands c. Voluntary and reflex skeletal muscle activities d. Reactions to emergency situations e. All of the above ANS: C

Voluntary and reflex activities. The somatic nervous system controls the body’s voluntary and reflex activities. The visceral (autonomic) nervous system controls involuntary smooth muscle, minute-to-minute functions of glands, and reactions to emergency situations.

38. Axons that carry impulses TOWARD the CNS or higher centers are

. a. b. c. d. e.

neurotransmitters afferent fibers ganglia efferent fibers neurilemma

ANS: B

Afferent fibers. Afferent fibers are axons that carry impulses toward the CNS or toward higher centers. They also are referred to as sensory or ascending fibers. Efferent fibers are axons that carry impulses away from the CNS to muscles and glands.

39. Axons that carry impulses AWAY from the CNS to muscles and glands are

. a. b. c. d. e.

neurotransmitters afferent fibers ganglia efferent fibers neurilemma

ANS: D

Efferent fibers. Efferent fibers are axons that carry impulses away from the CNS to muscles and glands. They also are referred to as motor or descending fibers. Afferent fibers are axons that carry impulses toward the CNS. 40. General sensory (also known as somatic sensory) pathways feature primary, secondary, and

tertiary a. axons b. neurons c. efferent fibers d. viscera e. neurilemma

.

ANS: B

Neurons. General sensory pathways feature three sets of neurons—primary, secondary, and tertiary. The tertiary neurons synapse with neurons in the sensory cortex of the brain.

41. The sympathetic division of the visceral (autonomic) nervous system is a. b. c. d. e.

. necessary to sustain life concerned with minute-to-minute control of activities of glands responsible for controlling the heart and opening gut sphincters expendable and may be cut with no loss of life none of the above

ANS: D

The sympathetic division of the visceral nervous system is expendable and may be cut with no loss of life. The parasympathetic division is necessary to sustain life and is concerned with minute-to-minute control of the viscera and glands.

42. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 12 e. 31 ANS: D

12. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves, which originate in the brain.

43. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? a. 2

b. c. d. e.

4 5 12 31

ANS: E

31. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

44. The trigeminal nerve, which innervates the face and scalp, is a a. cranial nerve b. spinal nerve c. splanchnic nerve d. ganglion e. glossopharyngeal nerve

.

ANS: A

Cranial nerve. The face and anterior scalp are innervated largely by the trigeminal nerve, which is cranial nerve V. 45. The moist internal lining of the gut, the respiratory tract, and the genitourinary tract is a. b. c. d. e.

. skin mucous membrane epidermis dermis all of the above

ANS: B

Mucous membrane. The linings of the gut, respiratory tract, and genitourinary tract are mucous membrane, which is kept moist by mucous glands. Skin is external, not internal, lining. Epidermis and dermis are layers within skin.

46. Skin color is controlled by the amount of a. epidermis b. dermis c. hair d. mucous e. melanin

in the skin.

ANS: E

Melanin. Skin color varies from pale to dark, depending on the amount of melanin present.

47. The underlying connective tissue layer of skin is the a. epidermis b. membrane c. dermis d. thick skin e. thin skin

.

ANS: C

Dermis. Dermis is the underlying connective tissue layer of skin. Epidermis is the outer epithelial layer of skin.

48. Skin that covers the palmar and plantar surfaces of the hands and feet and is devoid of hair is a. b. c. d. e.

. thick skin thin skin mucous membrane dermis transitional skin

ANS: A

Thick skin. Thick skin covers the palmar and plantar surfaces of the hands and feet. It is devoid of hair, and its surface is ridged for protection against wear. Thin skin covers the remainder of the body.

49. Skin produces a. vitamin C b. adipose tissue c. vitamin D d. subcutaneous tissue e. hair

when exposed to sunlight.

ANS: C

Vitamin D. Vitamin D production takes place in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight.

50. Which of the following statements is true about fascia? a. Two basic layers are superficial and deep fascia. b. There is no clear demarcation between fascia and dermis. c. It contains collagenous anNdUeR laS stI icN fiG beTrsB . .COM d. It may contain deposits of water and fat. e. All of the above are true.

ANS: E

All of the above statements are true.

Chapter 02: The Back Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The posterior surface of the skull is the a. dens b. occiput c. odontoid process d. transverse process e. coccyx

.

ANS: B

Occiput. The posterior surface of the skull is convex and is commonly called the occiput.

2. How many vertebrae are in the spine? a. 12 b. 16 c. 21 d. 33 e. 42 ANS: D

33. The vertebral column, or spine, has 33 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused), and 4 coccygeal (fused).

3. There are a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 7

cervical vertebN raU eR inStI heNsG piT neB. .COM

ANS: E

7. There are 7 cervical vertebrae in the spine.

4. The vertebral foramen, which houses the spinal cord, is formed by the a. occiput and nuchal line b. inion and occiput c. vertebral arch and body d. vertebral notches e. transverse process and spinous process

.

ANS: C

Vertebral arch and body. The vertebral arch and body form the vertebral foramen, which encloses and protects the spinal cord.

5. The arches in an articulated vertebral column form the

spinal cord. a. vertebral canal

, which houses the entire

b. c. d. e.

intervertebral foramina transverse process spinous process transverse foramen

ANS: A

Vertebral canal. The arches in an articulated vertebral column form the vertebral canal, which houses the spinal cord.

6. The transverse foramen in the cervical vertebrae provides a conduit for which of the

following? a. Spinal cord b. Occiput c. Posterior tubercle d. Vertebral artery and vein e. Dens ANS: D

Vertebral artery and vein. Cervical vertebrae exhibit a transverse foramen, a hole through the transverse processes to transmit the vertebral artery and vein.

7. Which characteristic of the thoracic vertebrae distinguishes them from other vertebrae? a. The spinous process is short and thick. b. There are fewer vertebrae than in the other components of the spinal column. c. There is no body in the thoracic vertebrae. d. The body is heart-shaped. e. The body is rectangular.

ANS: D

The body is heart-shaped. The 12 thoracic vertebrae exhibit features that distinguish them from other vertebrae: (1) the spinous process is long and slender; (2) the body has an articulating facet for the head of a rib; (3) the transverse process has an articulating facet for the tubercle of a rib; and (4) the body is heart-shaped.

8. Which vertebrae are long and slender, have facets for connection to the ribs, and are

heart-shaped? a. Lumbar b. Thoracic c. Cervical d. Sacral e. Coccygeal ANS: B

Thoracic. The 12 thoracic vertebrae exhibit features that distinguish them from other vertebrae: (1) the spinous process is long and slender; (2) the body has an articulating facet for the head of a rib; (3) the transverse process has an articulating facet for the tubercle of a rib; and (4) the body is heart-shaped.

9. Which type of vertebrae has no facets for ribs; is relatively massive, with bean-shaped bodies;

and has spinous processes that are not bifid but square? a. Lumbar

b. c. d. e.

Thoracic Cervical Sacral Coccygeal

ANS: A

Lumbar. Three features distinguish the lumbar vertebrae: (1) they are relatively massive, with bean-shaped bodies; (2) they have no facets for ribs; and (3) the spinous processes are neither bifid nor slender but square.

10. The normal curvatures in the cervical and lumbosacral regions of the human spine are formed

by a. b. c. d. e.

. changes in the shape of vertebrae as a child grows maturing of muscle through the life span removal of vertebrae action of the thyroid gland intervertebral discs of the curved regions assuming a wedge shape

ANS: E

Wedge shape of intervertebral discs. In the neonate, the fetal, or primary, curvature of the vertebral column is present. A convex cervical secondary curvature appears in the cervical area when the child learns to hold the head erect. When the child learns to walk, a secondary curve appears in the lumbosacral region. The curvatures are formed by the intervertebral discs of the curved regions assuming a wedge shape.

11. An intervertebral disc in the spinal column is composed of a. hyaline cartilage b. fibrocartilaginous fibers (N anUnR ulS usIfN ibG roTsuBs. ) aCnO dM pulpal nucleus c. longitudinal ligaments and cartilage d. transverse foramina and ligaments e. none of the above

.

ANS: B

Fibrocartilaginous fibers. Between two vertebrae is a disc consisting of concentric layers of fibrocartilaginous fibers (annulus fibrosus) surrounding a nucleus of fibrogelatinous material (pulpal nucleus).

12. Nerve roots descend past the termination of the spinal cord at L2 and resemble a horse’s tail.

The term for these nerve roots is a. anulus fibrosis b. syndesmosis c. intergluteal sulcus d. cauda equina e. lumbosacral cauda

.

ANS: D

Cauda equina. The nerve roots that descend past the spinal cord at L2 are termed the cauda equina.

13. The fine membrane that covers the spinal cord and forms the denticulate ligament, which

anchors the spinal cord to the vertebral canal, is the

.

a. b. c. d. e.

pia mater arachnoid mater dura mater filum terminale membranous layer

ANS: A

Pia mater. The pia mater is a fine membrane that covers the spinal cord intimately, following each fissure and groove. It covers the spinal rootlets and extends laterally between the rootlets as a scalloped denticulate ligament. Dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges.

14. The tough, heavy durable membrane that is the outer layer of membranes covering the spinal

cord is the a. pia mater b. arachnoid mater c. dura mater d. filum terminale e. membranous layer

.

ANS: C

Dura mater. The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges that cover the spinal cord and consists of a tough, heavy, and durable membrane. Pia mater is the fine membrane that covers the spinal cord intimately.

15.

is a potentially lethal inflammation of the brain or spinal cord caused by bacterial or viral infections that spread hematogenously in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). a. Synovitis b. Meningitis c. Kyphosis d. Scoliosis e. Lordosis ANS: B

Meningitis. Meningitis is a potentially lethal inflammation of the brain or spinal cord meninges caused by bacterial or viral infections that spread hematogenously in the CSF. Kyphosis, scoliosis, and lordosis are abnormal curvatures of the spine.

Chapter 03: The Thorax Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The skeleton of the

consists of (1) a midline sternum, (2) 12 pairs of ribs and associated costal cartilages, and (3) 12 vertebrae. a. peritoneal cavity b. pleural cavity c. mediastinum d. thorax e. epicardium ANS: D

Thorax. The thorax, or chest region, is a hollow body cavity enclosed by a thoracic bony and muscular wall. The skeleton of the thorax consists of (1) a midline sternum, (2) 12 pairs of ribs and associated costal cartilages, and (3) 12 vertebrae.

2. Costal cartilage joins a. sternum to thorax b. ribs to sternum c. manubrium to sternum d. ribs to jugular notch e. subcostal groove to interior surface

.

ANS: B

Ribs to sternum. The typical N ribUR is S joI inN edGtT oB th. eC stO erM num by its own costal cartilage. The manubrium is a portion of the sternum.

3. What are the three types of ribs? a. Sternal, true, and floating b. Tubercle, scalene, and medius c. True, false, and floating d. Fixed, semifixed, and floating e. There are only two types of ribs.

ANS: C

True, false, and floating. There are three types of ribs: true (ribs 1-7), false (ribs 8-10), and floating (ribs 10-12).

4. The right pleural cavity, the left pleural cavity, and the mediastinum are three main regions of

the a. b. c. d. e.

. heart lungs spinal cord diaphragm thoracic cavity

ANS: E

Thoracic cavity. The thoracic cavity is divided into three main regions: (1) the right pleural cavity, (2) the left pleural cavity, and (3) the mediastinum, a midline structure that divides the right and left pleural cavities.

5. The suprasternal, or jugular, notch, located at the anterior base of the

, is used to

locate the underlying trachea. a. skull b. neck c. rib cage d. thorax e. mediastinum ANS: B

Neck. The suprasternal, or jugular, notch is located at the anterior base of the neck and is an important landmark for locating the underlying trachea.

6. The costal margin, used as an aid in locating the correct sternal position for external heart

massage during cardiac emergencies, is formed by the inferior aspects of costal cartilages . a. 1-3 b. 4-5 c. 7-10 d. 11-12 e. 12-14 ANS: C

7-10. The costal margin, used as an aid in locating the correct sternal position for external heart massage during cardiacNeU mR erS geInN ciG esT , iB s. foC rm OeMd by the inferior aspects of costal cartilages 7 through 10.

7. The intercostal muscles of the thorax, which run from rib to rib, sternum to rib, and vertebra

to rib, are involved with the mechanics of a. the upper limb b. cardiac function c. digestion d. vocal cords e. breathing

.

ANS: E

Breathing. The intercostal muscles of the thorax, which run from rib to rib, sternum to rib, and vertebra to rib, are involved with the mechanics of breathing.

8. Intercostal arteries and veins provide circulation for the a. thoracic wall b. lungs c. heart d. esophagus e. thymus gland ANS: A

.

Thoracic wall. Blood circulation for the thorax is provided through the intercostal blood vessels, including the intercostal arteries and intercostal veins.

9. The lungs are contained within the thorax in the a. peritoneal cavity b. diaphragm c. mitral cavities d. pleural cavities e. sternal angle

.

ANS: D

Pleural cavities. The right and left pleural cavities are enclosed spaces within the thorax that contain the right and left lungs.

10. The air-filled chambers in the lungs in which gas exchange takes place are the

. a. b. c. d. e.

apices alveoli lobes fissures visceral pleura

ANS: B

Alveoli. The lungs consist of small, air-filled chambers, or alveoli, where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place with the circulatory system.

11. Which statement in the following is NOT true? a. Lungs are divided into loN beU sR bySfI isN suGreTs.B.COM b. Both lungs have an oblique fissure. c. Gas exchange takes place in the alveoli of the lungs. d. Each lung has two lobes. e. Each lung exhibits four surfaces: the apex, the diaphragmatic surface, the

mediastinal surface, and the costal surface.

ANS: D

Each lung does not have two lobes. The right lung has three lobes, and the left lung has two lobes. All other statements are true.

12. The entrance and exit in the lung for blood vessels and air tubes is the a. bronchus b. hilum c. cartilaginous ring d. upper lobe e. lower lobe

.

ANS: B

Hilum. On the mediastinal aspect of each lung are an exit and entrance (hilum) for blood vessels and air tubes.

13. Asthma is caused by a spasm in the muscle of the a. lung

.

b. c. d. e.

trachea bronchioles bronchi middle lobe of left lung

ANS: C

Bronchioles. Bronchiole walls are supported by a relative increase in smooth muscle thickness. Spasm of bronchiole smooth muscle decreases airflow, a condition known as asthma.

14. Which of the following statements about breathing is/are true? a. Respiration consists of inspiration and expiration. b. Muscle action decreases pressure in the sealed pleural cavities by enlarging the

volumes of the pleural cavities. c. Lower pressure in the sealed pleural cavities causes higher pressure from outside

to fill the lungs with air. d. A and B e. A, B, and C f. A and C ANS: E

A, B, and C. Respiration consists of inspiration and expiration. During inspiration, muscles decrease the pressure within the sealed pleural cavities by enlarging the volumes of the pleural cavities. Increasing the volume lowers the pressure and causes higher atmospheric pressure from outside to fill the lungs with air.

15. Which of the following is contained within the mediastinum? a. b. c. d. e.

Heart Trachea and bronchi Thoracic esophagus Vagus nerves All of the above

ANS: E

All of the above. The mediastinum contains (1) the heart and its great vessels, (2) the thoracic trachea and bronchi, (3) the thoracic esophagus, (4) the vagus nerves, (5) the phrenic nerves, and (6) the thoracic duct.

16. Where is the heart located? a. In the thorax, below the diaphragm b. Behind the sternum, closer to the posterior than to the anterior chest wall c. In the thorax, above the diaphragm, and closer to anterior than posterior chest wall d. In the thorax, below the diaphragm, and closer to anterior than posterior chest wall e. In the thorax, behind the sternum, and below the diaphragm ANS: C

In thorax, above the diaphragm. The heart sits within the thorax above the diaphragm, immediately behind the body of the sternum, and closer to the anterior than to the posterior chest wall.

17. The

forms the muscular, contractile layer of the heart.

a. b. c. d. e.

visceral pericardium endocardium parietal pericardium epicardium myocardium

ANS: E

Myocardium. The structures that form the heart wall are the epicardium, a serous layer that covers the external aspect of the heart; the myocardium, a layer of cardiac muscle that originates from and inserts into fibrous rings surrounding the valve orifices; and the endocardium, an inner lining of endothelium.

18. The superior and inferior venae cavae enter which chamber of the heart? a. Left ventricle b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium e. None of the above ANS: D

Right atrium. The superior and inferior venae cavae enter the right atrium of the heart.

19. The fossa ovalis is located in the a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

.

e. left and right ventricles ANS: A

Right atrium. The fossa ovalis is an oval depression on the posterior border immediately above the valve of the inferior vena cava. It is in the right atrium of the heart.

20. Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the a. bicuspid b. pulmonary c. right atrioventricular d. aortic e. mitral

valve.

ANS: C

Right atrioventricular. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium via the right atrioventricular, or tricuspid, valve. The bicuspid, or mitral, valve controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The pulmonary valve guards the exit of blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, and the aortic valve prevents aortic blood from flowing back into the left ventricle.

21. The

valve prevents blood from exiting the pulmonary artery and flowing back into the right ventricle. a. trabeculae carneae b. pulmonary

c. tricuspid d. aortic e. chordae tendineae ANS: B

Pulmonary. The pulmonary valve prevents blood from exiting the pulmonary artery and flowing back into the right ventricle.

22. The pumping chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the entire body is the

. a. b. c. d. e.

right atrium left atrium right ventricle left ventricle septomarginal trabecula

ANS: D

Left ventricle. The left ventricle is a pumping chamber that pumps blood to the entire body.

23. The mitral valve is the _ a. right atrioventricular b. left atrioventricular c. tricuspid d. aortic e. pulmonary

valve.

ANS: B

Left atrioventricular. The mitN ral R valvI e isGtheBle.ftCatrioventricular valve. The right M U S N T O atrioventricular valve is the tricuspid valve.

24. The

is a small aggregation of specialized cardiac muscle tissue that acts as a pacemaker and initiates the heartbeat. a. cardiac plexus b. angina pectoris c. bundle of His d. atrioventricular node e. sinoatrial node ANS: E

Sinoatrial node. The sinoatrial node is a small aggregation of specialized cardiac muscle tissue on the superior aspect of the crista terminalis. It acts as a pacemaker and initiates the heartbeat.

25. The

nervous system can modify the rate at which the pacemaker initiates the

heartbeats. a. peripheral b. sympathetic c. somatic d. autonomic e. none of the above ANS: D

Autonomic. The autonomic nervous system can modify the rate at which the pacemaker sinoatrial node initiates heartbeats.

26. The

is a tubelike portion of the gastrointestinal tract that extends from the pharynx at vertebra C6 to the abdomen at vertebra T11. a. thorax b. esophagus c. aorta d. bronchus e. trachea ANS: B

Esophagus. The esophagus is a tubelike portion of the gastrointestinal tract that extends from the pharynx at vertebral level C6 to the abdomen at vertebral level T11.

27. The primary function of the cricopharyngeus muscle at the pharyngeal end of the esophagus is

to a. b. c. d. e.

. assist in the movement of food through the esophagus prevent the regurgitation of stomach contents prevent the aspiration of blood assist in blood flow prevent the swallowing of air

ANS: E

Prevent the swallowing of air. The pharyngeal end of the esophagus is guarded by the cricopharyngeus muscle to prevent the swallowing of air. The cardiac sphincter muscle prevents the regurgitation of stomach contents.

28. The primary function of the cardiac sphincter at the abdominal end of the esophagus is to a. b. c. d. e.

. assist in the movement of food through the esophagus prevent the regurgitation of stomach contents prevent the aspiration of blood assist in blood flow prevent the swallowing of air

ANS: B

Prevent the regurgitation of stomach contents. The abdominal end of the esophagus is guarded by the cardiac sphincter to prevent the regurgitation of stomach contents. The cricopharyngeus muscle prevents the swallowing of air.

29. The vein that drains the lower limbs and abdomen is the a. inferior vena cava b. abdominal aorta c. superior vena cava d. aortic sinus e. jugular vein ANS: A

.

Inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava drains the lower limbs and abdomen, pierces the diaphragm through the central tendon, rises in the thorax, and ends in the inferior aspect of the right atrium of the heart. The superior vena cava drains the upper limbs, head, and neck.

30. The vein that drains the upper limbs, head, and neck is the a. inferior vena cava b. abdominal aorta c. superior vena cava d. aortic sinus e. jugular vein

.

ANS: C

Superior vena cava. The superior vena cava drains the upper limbs, head, and neck. The inferior vena cava drains the lower limbs and abdomen.

31. T lymphocytes are produced in the a. lungs b. bone marrow c. heart d. pineal gland e. thymus gland

.

ANS: E

Thymus gland. The thymus gland produces T lymphocytes. Blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.

32. A stethoscope placed at the right sternal border, second interspace, would pick up sounds of

the a. b. c. d. e.

. pulmonary valve valve of the inferior vena cava aortic valve right atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve left atrioventricular (mitral) valve

ANS: C

Aortic valve. The aortic valve is the only valve heard on the right sternal border at the second interspace. The tricuspid valve would be heard at the lower-left aspect of the sternal border.

33. A stethoscope placed at the left lower aspect of the sternal border would pick up sounds of the a. b. c. d. e.

. pulmonary valve valve of the inferior vena cava aortic valve right atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve left atrioventricular (mitral) valve

ANS: D

Tricuspid valve. The tricuspid valve is best heard at the left lower aspect of the sternal border.

The aortic valve would be heard on the right sternal border at the second interspace.

34. Which is the correct description of a fractured rib?

a. b. c. d. e.

A rib that is displaced at its sternocostal joint.

A rib that is torn from its costal cartilage.

A rib that has a break in the rib itself, usually at the angle of the rib.

A rib that has a break in the costal cartilage.

A rib that is separated at the costal cartilage.

ANS: C

A rib that has a break in the rib itself. A dislocated rib is displaced at its sternocostal joint. A rib separation is a rib torn from its costal cartilage. A rib fracture is a break in the rib itself and often occurs at the angle of the rib.

35. Which is the correct description of a dislocated rib? a. A rib that is displaced at its sternocostal joint. b. A rib that is torn from its costal cartilage. c. A rib that has a break in the rib itself, usually at the angle of the rib. d. A rib that has a break in the costal cartilage. e. A rib that is separated at the costal cartilage.

ANS: A

A rib that is displaced at its sternocostal joint. A rib separation is a rib torn from its costal cartilage. A rib fracture is a break in the rib itself and often occurs at the angle of the rib.

36. A condition in which the patient has a decreased number of air spaces distal to the terminal

bronchioles and destruction of elastic tissue necessary for recoil during quiet expiration, experiences breathlessness on exertion, and may be “barrel-chested” is . a. pneumothorax b. emphysema c. cardiac arrest d. asthma e. heart murmur ANS: B

Emphysema. Emphysema results in a decreased number of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles and destruction of elastic tissue necessary for elastic recoil during quiet normal expiration. The result is breathlessness on exertion and labored chest movements to provide sufficient oxygen. In advanced cases, the ribs are horizontal and the individual is “barrel-chested.” Pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural cavity because of a rupture of the lung surface.

37. A condition in which air is present in the pleural cavity because of a puncture through the

thoracic wall or a spontaneous rupture through the lung surface is a. angina pectoris b. foreign-object aspiration c. black lung d. emphysema e. pneumothorax ANS: E

.

Pneumothorax. Pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural cavity caused by a puncture in the thoracic wall or a spontaneous rupture of the lung surface. Emphysema results in a decreased number of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles.

38. Spasm of smooth muscle in the bronchial tree, inflammation of the respiratory mucosa, and

production of mucus is a description of a. emphysema b. pneumothorax c. asthma d. lung pigmentation e. tracheal spasm

.

ANS: C

Asthma. Asthma causes spasm of smooth muscle in the bronchial tree, inflammation of the respiratory mucosa, and production of mucus. Pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural cavity caused by a puncture through the thoracic wall or rupture through the lung surface.

39. What is a mitral valve stenosis? a. An incomplete closure of the mitral valve that permits the backflow of blood b. A permanent closure of the mitral valve c. A precursor to carditis d. The narrowing of the mitral valve that interferes with the emptying of blood to the

left ventricle e. An absence of the mitral valve ANS: D

Narrowing of the mitral valvN e. U ARmSiI traNl G vaT lvBe. stC enOoM sis, which is a narrowing of the mitral valve orifice, prevents the complete emptying of blood to the left ventricle. This condition can be corrected with a mitral valve replacement.

40.

occurs when a coronary vessel is completely occluded and the block of myocardium supplied becomes necrotic and dies. a. Cardiac ischemia b. Myocardial infarction c. Heart murmur d. Valvular stenosis e. Cardiac dysrhythmia ANS: B

Myocardial infarction. A myocardial infarction occurs when a coronary vessel is completely occluded and the block of myocardium supplied becomes necrotic and dies. Cardiac ischemia is a decrease in oxygen to the heart. Dysrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat.

Chapter 04: The Abdomen, Pelvis, and Perineum Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A large body cavity containing the major portion of the digestive tract and the viscera of the

genitourinary system is the a. perineum b. pelvis c. abdomen d. thoracic cavity e. pulmonary system

.

ANS: C

Abdomen. The abdomen, including the pelvis, is a large body cavity containing the major portion of the digestive tract and the viscera of the genitourinary system.

2. At approximately age 16, the ilium, ischium, and pubis bones fuse together to form the

. a. b. c. d. e.

collarbone shoulder girdle pelvis os coxae coccyx

ANS: D

Os coxae. The os coxae are oN riU giR naSllI yN foG rm TeBd.frCom OMthree separate bones, the ilium, ischium, and pubis, which fuse as one complete bone by about the age of 16 years.

3. Camper’s fascia and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the

fascia of the abdominal

wall. a. deep b. superficial c. transversalis d. peritoneal e. muscular ANS: B

Superficial. The superficial fascia of the abdominal wall is usually divisible into two layers, Camper’s fascia and Scarpa’s fascia.

4. The three flat abdominal muscles exhibit broad tendons, or a. membranous sheaths b. fasciae c. aponeuroses d. gubernacula e. quadrants

.

ANS: C

Aponeuroses. Aponeuroses are the flattened tendons that are part of the abdominal wall.

5. The innermost of the three flat muscles in the abdomen that originates from the lumbodorsal

fascia, iliac crest, inguinal ligament, and lower costal cartilages is the a. external oblique b. internal oblique c. transversus abdominis d. rectus abdominis e. cremaster

.

ANS: C

Transversus abdominis. The transversus abdominis muscle is the innermost of the three flat muscles and originates from the lumbodorsal fascia, iliac crest, inguinal ligament, and lower costal cartilages.

6. Which of the following comprise layers of the spermatic cord? a. External spermatic fascia b. Cremaster muscle c. Remnants of the processus vaginalis d. All of the above e. None of the above ANS: D

All of the above. The spermatic cord consists of five layers: (1) external spermatic fascia, (2) cremaster muscle, (3) internal spermatic fascia, (4) loose areolar tissue, and (5) remnants of the processus vaginalis.

7. The fibromuscular partition that separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity is the a. b. c. d. e.

diaphragm lung esophagus stomach trachea

NUR . SINGTB.COM

ANS: A

Diaphragm. The diaphragm is a fibromuscular partition that separates the abdominal cavity below from the thoracic cavity above.

8. The main function of the diaphragm is a. vocalization b. respiration c. esophageal constriction d. digestion e. circulation

.

ANS: B

Respiration. The main function of the diaphragm is respiration. Esophageal constriction during inspiration to prevent gastric regurgitation is a secondary function.

9. Innervation of the diaphragm is provided primarily by the a. iliohypogastric

nerve.

b. c. d. e.

ilioinguinal phrenic splanchnic mesenteric

ANS: C

Phrenic. The phrenic nerve is the motor and sensory supply to the diaphragm. The iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves supply the skin and musculature of the lower abdominal wall.

10. The levator ani muscles form the floor of the abdominopelvic cavity and the roof of the a. b. c. d. e.

, the most inferior aspect of the trunk. diaphragm stomach genitourinary tract spleen perineum

ANS: E

Perineum. The levator ani muscles form the floor of the abdominal cavity and the roof of the most inferior aspect of the trunk, the perineum. Superficially the perineum is the area bounded by the thighs and buttocks. On a deeper plane, the perineum is bounded by the ischiopubic rami converging on the pubic symphysis anteriorly and the sacrotuberous ligaments converging on the coccyx posteriorly.

11. The abdominal cavity is lined by a single layer of squamous cell mesothelium termed the

.

a. b. c. d. e.

pleura peritoneum perineal membrane transversalis fascia deep fascia

ANS: B

Peritoneum. Peritoneum is a lining tissue consisting of a single layer of squamous cell mesothelium and a thin, supporting, and nutritive layer of connective tissue. Peritoneum lines the primitive gut simply.

12. A double-layered fold of peritoneum that suspends some abdominal organs from the posterior

body wall and allows some degree of movement in the gut is a. parietal peritoneum b. visceral peritoneum c. deep fascia d. omentum e. mesentery

.

ANS: E

Mesentery. Mesentery is a double-layered fold of peritoneum that suspends some abdominal organs in the peritoneal cavity and allows a certain degree of movement in those portions of the gut that possess a mesentery. The parietal peritoneum lines the inner abdominal walls.

13. A double-layered fold of peritoneum that joins two viscera is

. a. b. c. d. e.

parietal peritoneum visceral peritoneum deep fascia omentum mesentery

ANS: D

Omentum. Omentum is a double-layered fold of peritoneum that is somewhat like a mesentery but joins two viscera. Mesentery is a double-layered fold of peritoneum that suspends some abdominal organs in the peritoneal cavity.

14. The liver is suspended from the diaphragm and the posterior body wall by the a. greater and lesser mesentery b. greater and lesser omentum c. parietal peritoneum d. coronary ligament e. visceral peritoneum

.

ANS: D

Coronary ligament. The liver does not have a mesentery. It is suspended from the diaphragm and posterior body wall by a broad-based peritoneal attachment called the coronary ligament.

15. Which two veins unite at vertebral level L5 to form the inferior vena cava? a. Right and left common iliac veins b. Right and left testicular or ovarian veins c. Greater and lesser lumbaN r vUeR inS s INGTB.COM d. Right and left sacral veins e. Superior and inferior phrenic veins ANS: A

Right and left common iliac veins. The right and left common iliac veins unite at vertebral level L5 to form the inferior vena cava.

16. Which vein carrying nutrients from the gut enters the liver and ends as a capillary bed? a. Hepatic b. Phrenic c. Portal d. Sacral e. Lumbar ANS: C

Portal. Veins returning from the gut join to form the portal vein. The portal vein enters the liver, carrying nutrients from the gut. Within the liver the portal vein ultimately ends as a capillary bed; at this level, nutrients are exchanged for storage and processing. The portal capillaries are drained by hepatic veins, which leave the liver to enter the inferior vena cava.

17. The epiglottis, which prevents food from entering the airway, is located in the a. oral cavity b. esophagus

.

c. stomach d. duodenum e. pharynx ANS: E

Pharynx. Within the pharynx the air channel divides anteriorly from the food tube behind, and food is prevented from entering the airway by the epiglottis.

18. The stomach is located in the

of the abdomen, with its proximal end immediately

below the left dome of the diaphragm. a. upper-right quadrant b. upper-left quadrant c. direct center d. lower-right quadrant e. lower-left quadrant ANS: B

Upper-left quadrant. The stomach is located in the upper-left quadrant of the abdomen.

19. Arterial blood supply to the stomach is derived primarily from the a. superior mesenteric artery b. left colic artery c. ileocolic artery d. branches of celiac trunk e. inferior phrenic artery

of the aorta.

ANS: D

Branches of the celiac trunk N of thRe aorta . ThB e. blC oodMsupply to the stomach is derived from all ING U S T O artery supplies the diaphragm. The three branches of the celiac trunk. The inferior phrenic superior mesenteric artery supplies the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, and appendix.

20. The duodenum is the first section of the a. large intestine b. small intestine c. bowel d. stomach e. esophagus

.

ANS: B

Small intestine. The first section of the small intestine is the duodenum.

21. Enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver are added to ingested food in the a. b. c. d. e.

. esophagus stomach bowel duodenum large intestine

ANS: D

Duodenum. Enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver are added to ingested food in the second part of the duodenum.

22. The

is a primary component of absorption. It contains circular folds (plicae circulares) and villi that aid in digestion. Each villus contains a central lymphatic capillary, or lacteal, which absorbs fats. a. small intestine b. large intestine c. duodenum d. stomach e. bowel ANS: A

Small intestine. The mucous membrane of the small intestine is suited for absorption. The mucous membrane has many circular folds (plicae circulares), and the folds are covered by fingerlike projections called villi. Each villus contains an arteriole, a capillary bed into which food is absorbed, and a central lymphatic capillary, or lacteal, which absorbs fats.

23. The liver is located in the a. lower-left b. lower-right c. upper-left d. upper-right e. central

quadrant of the abdominal cavity.

ANS: D

Upper-right. The liver occupies the upper-right quadrant of the abdominal cavity.

24. The site of entrance of the hepatic arteries and portal vein into the liver is the a. hepatic duct b. diaphragmatic surface c. porta hepatis d. ligamentum teres e. ligamentum venosum

.

ANS: C

Porta hepatis. The porta hepatis (gateway of the liver) is the site of entrance of the hepatic arteries and the portal vein.

25. The liver is supplied with oxygenated blood by the a. portal vein b. hepatic artery c. gastric artery d. inferior vena cava e. superior mesenteric artery

.

ANS: B

Hepatic artery. The hepatic artery supplies the liver with oxygenated blood. Veins carry blood away from the liver. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine.

26. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? a. Production of leukocytes b. Production of bile

c. Storage of vitamin A d. Storage of blood e. Transformation of glucose to glycogen ANS: A

Production of leukocytes. All of the above are functions of the liver except option A. Leukocytes are produced in the bone marrow.

27. a. b. c. d. e.

in the form of ferritin is stored in the liver.

Copper Phosphorus Vitamin C Potassium Iron

ANS: E

Iron. Iron is stored in the liver in the form of ferritin.

28. Which of the following is produced by connective tissue mast cells of the liver and mast cells

throughout the connective tissues of the body? a. Heparin b. Fibrinogen c. Prothrombin d. Bile e. Accelerator globulin ANS: A

Heparin is manufactured in cN onnR ectiI ve tG issuB e. thC rougMhout the body. Fibrinogen, prothrombin, U S N T accelerator globulin, and bile are produced in the O liver.

29. Bile is stored and concentrated in the a. kidneys b. gallbladder c. large intestine d. pancreas e. small intestine

.

ANS: B

Gallbladder. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile.

30. The common bile duct joins with the pancreatic duct distally to form a common chamber

called the a. colon b. pancreas c. ampulla d. ileum e. jejunum

.

ANS: C

Ampulla. The common bile duct joins with the pancreatic duct distally to form a common chamber called the ampulla.

31. Islets of Langerhans are a cluster of cells in the pancreas that produce

. a. b. c. d. e.

insulin bile phagocytic cells ferritin fibrinogen

ANS: A

Insulin. The pancreas contains special clusters of cells, the islets of Langerhans, which produce insulin.

32. The consists of two glands in one—the exocrine and endocrine portions. a. liver b. small intestine c. large intestine d. spleen e. pancreas ANS: E

Pancreas. The pancreas consists of two glands in one—the exocrine and endocrine portions.

33. What is/are the main functions of the spleen? a. Storage of blood b. Production of bile c. Production of lymphocytes d. A and C e. A, B, and C ANS: D

A and C. The spleen has three main functions. First, the spleen produces lymphocytes.

Second, it is a storehouse for blood, and by increasing in size, it can store up to one sixth of the total blood volume. Third, the spleen filters debris from circulating blood and breaks down worn-out erythrocytes.

34. Which organ has the following functions: storage of blood, production of lymphocytes, and

filtering debris from blood? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Spleen d. Bile duct e. Kidney ANS: C

Spleen. The spleen has three main functions. First, the spleen produces lymphocytes. Second, it is a storehouse for blood, and by increasing in size, it can store up to one sixth of the total blood volume. Third, the spleen filters debris from circulating blood and breaks down worn-out erythrocytes.

35. The is the basic functional unit of the kidney. a. glomerulus

b. c. d. e.

collecting tubule medulla nephron medullary ray

ANS: D

Nephron. The nephron is the basic functional unit of the kidney. The components of the nephron are the glomerulus, the ascending and descending loops of Henle, and collecting tubules.

36. Blood supply to the kidney is provided by the a. hepatic artery b. splenic artery c. aorta d. renal artery e. mesenteric artery

.

ANS: D

Renal artery. The renal artery arises from the abdominal aorta, passes laterally, and enters the hilus of the kidney.

37. The is a muscular tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. a. medullary ray b. major and minor calyces c. ureter d. collecting tubule e. urethra ANS: C

Ureter. The ureter is a muscular tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. The urethra carries urine from the bladder.

38. An equilateral triangle known as the trigone of the bladder is formed by the a. two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra b. ureters and the prostate gland c. right and left kidneys and the bladder d. bladder and the cervix of the uterus e. none of the above

.

ANS: A

The two openings of the ureters above and the exit of the urethra below form an equilateral triangle known as the trigone of the bladder.

39. The medulla of the suprarenal gland secretes a. sex hormones b. cortisone c. bile d. semen e. epinephrine ANS: E

.

Epinephrine. The medulla of the suprarenal gland is modified nervous tissue and functions as a sympathetic ganglion. Adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline are secreted by the medulla.

40. Circumcision of a male is the surgical removal of the a. glans b. penis c. bulb of the penis d. prepuce e. crus

.

ANS: D

Prepuce. The glans of the penis is covered by a fold of skin called the prepuce. Circumcision is the removal of the prepuce.

41. Which of the following is not part of the female genital system? a. Uterine tubes b. Ovaries c. Vagina d. Epididymis e. Uterus ANS: D

Epididymis. The epididymis is part of the structure of the testes. The uterine tubes, ovaries, vagina, and uterus all are part of the female genital system.

42. A/An

is a hollow, muscular tube that extends from the area approximating the ovary to the lumen of the uteN ruU s.RSINGTB.COM a. vagina b. uterine tube c. infundibulum d. fimbria e. labia minora ANS: B

Uterine tube. Uterine tubes are bilateral, hollow, muscular tubes about 10 cm long that extend from the area approximating the ovary laterally to the lumen of the uterus.

43. Fertilization of an ovum usually takes place in the a. uterine tube b. uterus c. vagina d. ovary e. urethra

.

ANS: A

Uterine tube. If intercourse takes place during the time of ovulation, fertilization may occur.

The ovum generally is fertilized within the uterine tube.

44. The component of the female genital system that is a specialized layer of mucous membrane

that proliferates to form a thick lining to coincide with ovulation is the

.

a. b. c. d. e.

myometrium serous coat uterine tube endometrium labia majora

ANS: D

Endometrium. The endometrium is a specialized layer of mucous membrane that proliferates to form a thick lining to coincide with ovulation. If fertilization does not take place, all but the basal layer of endometrium is sloughed off during menstruation.

45. In the female, the homologue of the male penis is the a. vagina b. clitoris c. uterus d. labia minora e. labia majora

.

ANS: B

Clitoris. The clitoris is the homologue of the male penis. However, the clitoris is not traversed by the urethra as the penis is in the male.

46. In a vasectomy, the a. prostate gland b. testes c. ductus deferens d. epididymis

is sectioned and ligated, resulting in sterility but not impotency.

e. urethra ANS: C

Ductus deferens. Vasectomy is an elective surgical procedure in men for birth control. The ductus (vas) deferens is exposed bilaterally through the anterosuperior wall of the scrotum.

The ducts are sectioned and ligated, resulting in sterility but not impotency.

Chapter 05: The Neck Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The skeleton of the neck consists of a vertebral unit and a a. glandular b. visceral c. circulatory d. neurological e. pulmonary

unit.

ANS: B

Visceral. The skeleton of the neck consists of a vertebral unit and a visceral unit.

2. The vertebral unit of the neck contains a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 e. 12

cervical vertebrae.

ANS: C

7. There are seven cervical vertebrae in the vertebral unit of the neck.

3. The U-shaped floating bone located just below the mandible is the a. larynx b. trachea c. oblique d. hyoid e. cricoid

.

ANS: D

Hyoid. The hyoid bone is a floating bone just below the mandible. It is a U-shaped bone with the prongs of the U facing posteriorly.

4. The “Adam’s apple” is more properly termed the a. hyoid bone b. thyrohyoid space c. cricothyroid space d. jugular prominence e. thyroid prominence

.

ANS: E

Thyroid prominence. The thyroid prominence of the thyroid cartilage is also known as the Adam’s apple.

5. The thin, wide sheet of muscle that covers the anterior and lateral aspects of the neck is the

muscle. a. pectoralis major

b. c. d. e.

mylohyoid sternocleidomastoid platysma trapezius

ANS: D

Platysma. The platysma muscle is a thin, wide sheet of muscle that covers the anterior and lateral aspects of the neck. It is a superficial muscle related to the superficial muscles of facial expression.

6. The

extends from the base of the skull, forming a sheath around the vertebral column and its musculature. It extends laterally to surround the brachial plexus and subclavian vessels. a. prevertebral fascia b. buccopharyngeal fascia c. pretracheal fascia d. carotid sheath e. deep investing fascia ANS: A

Prevertebral fascia. The prevertebral fascia surrounds the cervical vertebral unit. It extends from the base of the skull, forming a sheath around the vertebral column.

7. Which muscle in the neck is also a superficial muscle of the back, a cervical muscle, and a

muscle of the upper limb girdle and affects both the scapula and the head? a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Digastric c. Carotid d. Omohyoid e. Trapezius ANS: E

Trapezius. The trapezius muscle is expansive and covers a number of regions. It is a superficial muscle of the back, a muscle of the upper limb girdle, and a cervical muscle.

8. In the neck, the boundaries of the

triangle are the inferior border of the mandible and the upper borders of the posterior and anterior bellies of the digastric muscle. a. submental b. submandibular c. carotid d. posterior e. muscular ANS: B

Submandibular. The boundaries of the submandibular triangle are the inferior border of the mandible and the upper borders of the posterior and anterior bellies of the digastric muscle.

This region contains the submandibular gland, submandibular lymph nodes, lingual and facial arteries, and cranial nerve XII. 9. Arteries of the anterior triangle of the neck are all derived from the a. internal carotid

_ artery.

b. c. d. e.

subclavian external carotid vertebral common carotid

ANS: E

Common carotid. The arteries of the anterior triangle all are derived from the common carotid artery.

10. Baroreceptors of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves in the carotid sinus measure changes

in and help to regulate a. body temperature b. pulmonary output c. blood pressure d. equilibrium e. hormone levels

.

ANS: C

Blood pressure. Within the walls of the carotid sinus are baroreceptors, proprioceptive nerve endings of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves that measure changes in blood pressure.

This feedback information helps to regulate blood pressure.

11. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the internal jugular vein? a. Veins of the pharyngeal plexus b. Brachiocephalic vein c. Common facial vein d. Superior thyroid vein e. Facial vein ANS: B

Brachiocephalic vein. All of the above are tributaries of the internal jugular vein, except the brachiocephalic vein. The internal jugular vein joins with the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein.

12. The

of the posterior triangle of the neck is formed by a series of five muscles and their overlying deep fascia: the splenius capitis, levator scapulae, scalenus posterior, scalenus medius, and scalenus anterior muscles. a. floor b. roof c. anterior boundary d. posterior boundary e. inferior border ANS: A

Floor. The floor of the posterior triangle of the neck is formed by a series of five muscles and their overlying deep fascia: the splenius capitis, levator scapulae, scalenus posterior, scalenus medius, and scalenus anterior muscles.

13. The

vein is formed by the union of the posterior auricular vein and the posterior branch of the retromandibular vein just below the lobe of the ear. a. internal jugular

b. c. d. e.

subclavian phrenic external jugular facial

ANS: D

External jugular. The external jugular vein is formed by the union of the posterior auricular vein and the posterior branch of the retromandibular vein just below the lobe of the ear.

14. Within the upper limb, the basilic and brachial veins unite to form the a. superior vena cava b. internal jugular c. external jugular d. axillary e. brachiocephalic

vein.

ANS: D

Axillary. Within the upper limb, the basilic and brachial veins unite within the axilla to form the axillary vein.

15. Within the superior mediastinum, the right and left

veins unite to form the superior

vena cava. a. axillary b. jugular c. basilic d. subclavian e. brachiocephalic ANS: E

Brachiocephalic. Within the superior mediastinum, the right and left brachiocephalic veins unite to form the superior vena cava.

16. Within the neck, anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to C8 and T1 unite to form the a. b. c. d. e.

. ulnar nerve brachial plexus radial nerve sympathetic trunk vagus nerve

ANS: B

Brachial plexus. Deep within the neck, anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to C8 and T1 unite to form the brachial plexus.

17. The right

artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery; the left arises directly from the arch of the aorta. a. subclavian b. vertebral c. internal thoracic d. suprascapular e. thyroid

artery

ANS: A

Subclavian. The right subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery; the left subclavian artery arises directly from the arch of the aorta.

18. Cranial nerve X, found in the anterior triangle of the neck, is also known as the

. a. b. c. d. e.

laryngeal nerve axillary nerve vagus nerve phrenic nerve brachial plexus

ANS: C

Vagus nerve. There are three cranial nerves in the anterior triangle of the neck. Cranial nerve X is the vagus nerve. Cranial nerve XI is the accessory nerve. Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve.

19. The proximal end of the prenatal thyroglossal duct persists in the adult as the a. vallate papilla b. foramen cecum c. pyramidal lobe of the thyroid gland d. right and left lobes of thyroid gland e. thyroglossal cyst

.

ANS: B

Foramen cecum. In the adult, the proximal end of the thyroglossal duct persists as the foramen cecum of the tongue.

20. A “wry neck,” or twisted neck, caused by spasms of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

muscles, is characterized as a. mediastinitis b. trapezinitis c. Horner syndrome d. emphysema e. torticollis

.

ANS: E

Torticollis. The term torticollis means a twisted neck. Spasmodic torticollis occurs in adults and is characterized by unilateral spasms of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

21. If the sympathetic trunk below the superior cervical ganglion is cut or damaged, resulting in

facial symptoms of dry skin, constricted pupil, drooping of the eyelid, and enophthalmos, the patient exhibits . a. fragile X syndrome b. Guillain-Barré syndrome c. mediastinitis d. Horner syndrome e. torticollis ANS: D

Horner syndrome. Horner syndrome, characterized by facial symptoms of dry skin, flushing of the skin, constricted pupil, and enophthalmos, may result from cutting, compressing, or damaging the sympathetic trunk below the superior cervical ganglion.

Chapter 06: The Skull Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the neurocranium? a. Frontal b. Vomer c. Parietal d. Temporal e. Occipital ANS: B

Vomer. The bones of the neurocranium are the frontal bone, the parietal bones, the temporal bones, the occipital bone, the sphenoid bone, and the ethmoid bone. The vomer is part of the facial skeleton.

2. All of the following are bones in the facial skeleton except the a. sphenoid b. nasal c. lacrimal d. vomer e. zygomatic

bone.

ANS: A

Sphenoid. The facial skeleton consists of several irregular bones: maxillae, nasal, zygomatic, palatine, lacrimal, inferior coN ncUhR aeS ,I voN mG erT, B m. anC dO ibM le, and hyoid. The sphenoid bone is part of the neurocranium.

3. The bony sockets in the maxilla and mandible that support the teeth are the a. alveolar conchae b. canine fossae c. incisive fossae d. zygomatic canals e. alveolar processes

.

ANS: E

Alveolar processes. The alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible are the bony sockets that support the teeth.

4. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. There are 32 teeth in the complete adult dentition and 20 in a child’s dentition. b. The mental foramen of the mandible transmits the mental nerve and vessels. c. The mental protuberance of the mandible is a triangular elevation of bone that

forms the chin. d. The upper jaw is fixed and contains a single bone, the maxilla. e. The lower jaw is movable and contains a single bone, the mandible.

ANS: D

The upper jaw is fixed and consists of two bones, not one.

5. The

of the mandible is a roller-shaped process that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. a. neck b. condyle c. body d. coronoid process e. mental foramen ANS: B

Condyle. The condyle, or condylar head, of the mandible is a roller-shaped process that articulates with the mandibular fossa.

6.

is an anthropological landmark marked by the intersection of the sagittal and coronal sutures in the skull. a. Bregma b. Lambda c. Nasion d. Inion e. Pterion ANS: A

Bregma. Bregma is an anthropological landmark marked by the intersection of the sagittal and coronal sutures. Lambda is a landmark at the intersection of the lambdoidal and sagittal sutures. The sagittal suture separates the right and left parietal bones.

7. The

is bounded posteriorly by the paramedian dorsum sellae and by two oblique petrous temporal ridges and aNcU coR mS mIoN daG teT sB th. eC hyOpM ophysis cerebri in the median plane and the temporal lobes of the brain laterally. a. anterior cranial fossa b. middle cranial fossa c. posterior cranial fossa d. crista galli e. frontal crest ANS: B

Middle cranial fossa. The middle cranial fossa is bounded posteriorly by the paramedian dorsum sellae and by two oblique petrous temporal ridges and accommodates the hypophysis cerebri in the median plane and the temporal lobes of the brain laterally.

8. In the posterior cranial fossa, the

is a large, oval-shaped opening through which the spinal cord is continuous with the brainstem above. a. petrosal sulcus b. clivus c. hypoglossal canal d. foramen magnum e. jugular foramen ANS: D

Foramen magnum. The foramen magnum is a large, oval-shaped opening through which the spinal cord is continuous with the brainstem. It is in the posterior cranial fossa.

9. There are four main functional cavities in the skull. They are a. nasal, oral, maxillary, and orbital b. neurocranial, orbital, oral, and nasal c. nasal, oral, paranasal, and sinus d. sinus, nasal, neurocranial, and maxillary e. orbital, maxillary, sinus, and neurocranial

.

ANS: B

Neurocranial, orbital, oral, and nasal. The four main functional cavities in the skull are the neurocranial cavity, the orbital cavity, the oral cavity, and the nasal cavity.

10. In the neurocranium, the

bone contributes to the forehead, the anterior cranial fossa, and the roof of the bony orbits. a. occipital b. temporal c. sphenoid d. parietal e. frontal ANS: E

Frontal. The frontal bone contributes to the entire forehead region, the anterior cranial fossa, and the roof of the bony orbits. The parietal bone forms portions of the cranial vault. The occipital bone forms the posteroinferior aspect of the cranial vault and the posterior aspect of the posterior cranial fossa.

11. The

bone contributes to the anterior cranial fossa, the middle cranial fossa, orbit, GaTllBo.f C infratemporal roof, and roof N anU dR laS teI raN lw thO e nMasal cavity. It fuses with the occipital bone after adolescence. a. frontal b. temporal c. sphenoid d. parietal e. ethmoid ANS: C

Sphenoid. The sphenoid bone contributes to the anterior cranial fossa, middle cranial fossa, orbit, infratemporal roof, roof and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and lateral wall of the cranial vault. It fuses with the occipital bone after adolescence.

12. The

bone contributes to the anterior cranial fossa; the roof, lateral wall, and median septum of the nasal cavity; and the medial wall of the orbit. a. sphenoid b. occipital c. frontal d. ethmoid e. temporal ANS: D

Ethmoid. The ethmoid bone contributes to the anterior cranial fossa; the roof, lateral wall, and median septum of the nasal cavity; and the medial wall of the orbit. The frontal bone contributes to the entire forehead region, the anterior cranial fossa, and the roof of the bony orbits. The occipital bone forms the posteroinferior aspect of the cranial vault and the posterior aspect of the posterior cranial fossa.

13. The ridge of bone that peaks upward in the median plane into the anterior cranial fossa and is

attached to the falx cerebri is the a. cribriform plate b. crista galli c. septal plate d. uncinate process e. superior concha

.

ANS: B

Crista galli. The crista galli is a ridge of bone that peaks upward from the median plane into the anterior cranial fossa. The falx cerebri is attached to it.

14. The right and left maxillae help form all of the following except the a. upper face b. orbital floor c. lateral wall of the nasal cavity d. floor of the oral cavity e. floor of the nasal cavity

.

ANS: D

Floor of the oral cavity. The right and left maxillae help form the upper face, the infratemporal region, the orbital floor, the lN atU erR alSwIalN lG ofTthBe.nC asO alMcavity, the floor of the nasal cavity, and the roof, not the floor, of the oral cavity.

15. The

bone(s) help form the nasal cavity (lateral wall and floor), the oral cavity (posterior third of the hard palate), the pterygopalatine fossa, and the orbit (a portion of the posterior wall). a. maxillae b. mandible c. palatine d. sphenoid e. vomer ANS: C

Palatine. The palatine bones help form the nasal cavity (lateral wall and floor), the oral cavity (posterior third of the hard palate), the pterygopalatine fossa (medial wall), and the orbit.

16. The palatine bone articulates with the sphenoid bone, the ethmoid bone, the vomer, the

opposite palatine bone, and the a. maxilla b. temporal bone c. occipital bone d. parietal bone e. mandible

.

ANS: A

Maxilla. The palatine bone articulates with the maxilla, the sphenoid bone, the ethmoid bone, the vomer, the inferior concha, and the opposite palatine bone.

17. The bone that is roughly diamond-shaped, with four borders and four angles, and that

articulates with the frontal bone, sphenoid bone, temporal bone, and maxilla is the a. nasal bone b. lacrimal bone c. vomer d. palatine bone e. zygomatic bone

.

ANS: E

Zygomatic bone. The zygomatic bone is roughly diamond-shaped, with four borders, four angles, three surfaces, and three foramina. It articulates with the frontal bone, the greater wing of the sphenoid, the maxilla, and the temporal bone.

18. The

bone is a small, thin bone with two surfaces and four borders that articulates with the maxilla, the ethmoid bone, the frontal bone, and the inferior concha. a. nasal b. lacrimal c. vomer d. palatine e. zygomatic ANS: B

Lacrimal. The lacrimal bone is a small, thin, fragile bone with two surfaces and four borders GoTidBb.oCneO, M that articulates with the maxiN llaU, R thS eI etN hm the frontal bone, and the inferior concha.

19. The nasal bone articulates with the opposite nasal bone, the frontal bone, the maxilla, and the a. b. c. d. e.

bone. vomer zygomatic palatine occipital ethmoid

ANS: E

Ethmoid. The nasal bone articulates with the opposite nasal bone, the frontal bone, the maxilla, and the ethmoid bone.

20. The mandible articulates with the a. sphenoid b. occipital c. parietal d. frontal e. temporal

bone.

ANS: E

Temporal. The mandible articulates with the temporal bone through a movable synovial joint.

21. Which of the following bones have not fused yet as single bones in the neonatal skull?

a. b. c. d. e.

Frontal Mandible Temporal A and C A, B, and C

ANS: E

A, B, and C. At birth the frontal bone is separated by the midline metopic or interfrontal suture, which ossifies in the first year. The mandible is separated by the symphysis menti, and it fuses in the first year. The temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones have not fused at birth.

22. At birth, the mandible is separated into two halves by the a. interfrontal suture b. retromolar fossa c. symphysis menti d. metopic suture e. coronal suture

.

ANS: C

Symphysis menti. At birth, the mandible is in two halves, separated at the chin by the symphysis menti.

Chapter 07: The Head by Region Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A discrete layer of deep fascia of the face is found in the a. cheeks and scalp behind the bony orbit b. forehead only c. external nose d. chin and cheeks e. none of the above

.

ANS: E

None of the above. There is no discrete layer of deep fascia in the face.

2. The nerve supply of the face is derived principally from which of the following? a. Maxillary nerve b. Infraorbital nerve c. Mandibular nerve d. Trigeminal nerve e. Ophthalmic nerve ANS: D

Trigeminal nerve. The facial cutaneous nerve supply is derived principally from the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). The mandibular nerve is associated with the lower jaw. The ophthalmic nerve serves the orbit.

3. The entire blood supply of the face is derived from either the internal or external

arteries. a. carotid b. ophthalmic c. nasal d. aortic e. lacrimal ANS: A

Carotid. The entire blood supply of the face is derived from either the internal or external carotid arteries.

4. The inferior and superior

arteries provide blood supply to the lower and upper

lips. a. facial b. labial c. buccal d. zygomatic e. supratrochlear ANS: B

Labial. As the facial artery travels toward the medial angle of the mouth, it gives off the inferior labial artery to the lower lip and the superior labial artery to the upper lip.

5. The primary function of facial muscles is to a. perform as a dilator for orifices b. perform as a sphincter for orifices c. move overlying skin to provide facial expression d. all of the above e. none of the above

.

ANS: D

All of the above. In general, facial muscles are found within superficial fascia around facial orifices. They perform two functions: (1) as dilators and sphincters to control openings of the orifices and (2) as movers of overlying skin to reflect various facial expressions.

6. The primary muscle of the cheek is the a. levator labii superioris b. buccinator c. orbicularis oculi d. mentalis e. orbicularis oris

.

ANS: B

Buccinator. The buccinator is the primary muscle of the cheek. It presses the cheek against the vestibular surfaces of the molar teeth.

7. The

nerve exits from the skull through the stylomastoid foramen at the base of the skull and has five main groups of branches, including temporal branches, zygomatic branches, and buccal branches. a. optic b. olfactory c. cranial d. facial e. frontal ANS: D

Facial. The facial nerve exits from the skull through the stylomastoid foramen at the base of the skull. It enters the parotid gland and breaks up into five main groups of branches that radiate from the gland to various areas of the face.

8. The primary muscle of the lips is the

muscle, which also is the sphincter of

the mouth. a. orbicularis oris b. buccinator c. depressor labii inferioris d. mentalis e. procerus ANS: A

Orbicularis oris. The muscle of the lip is the orbicularis oris, the sphincter of the mouth. The buccinator serves the cheek.

9. The three layers of the meninges of the brain are the

.

a. b. c. d. e.

external mater, intermediate mater, and internal mater posterior mater, internal mater, and intermediate mater vertical, horizontal, and internal dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater dura mater, internal mater, and external mater

ANS: D

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The meninges of the brain consist of three layers: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

10. The

is a small, crescent midline fold interposed between the right and left cerebellar hemispheres. a. pia mater b. tentorium cerebelli c. falx cerebelli d. falx cerebri e. dura mater ANS: C

Falx cerebelli. The falx cerebelli is a small, crescent midline fold interposed between the right and left cerebellar hemispheres. The falx cerebri is a large, sickle-shaped fold.

11. Blood return from the brain flows to special channels in the skull called

, which

contain no valves and do not have regular venous walls. a. jugular foramina b. venous mater c. arachnoid granulations d. venous sinuses e. meningeal spaces ANS: D

Venous sinuses. Blood return from the brain flows via cerebral veins to special channels within the skull called venous sinuses. Cranial venous sinuses contain no valves, and aside from an endothelial lining, do not have regular venous walls.

12. The five components of the brain are the . a. foramen, mastoid, pons, telencephalon, and diencephalon b. telencephalon, diencephalon, midbrain, pons, and cerebellum c. encephalon, cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, pons, and cerebellum d. telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon e. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, diencephalon, and metencephalon ANS: D

Telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. The brain (encephalon) consists of five components: (1) telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres), (2) diencephalon, (3) mesencephalon (midbrain), (4) metencephalon (pons and cerebellum), and (5) myelencephalon (medulla oblongata).

13. Speech and language are controlled by which two separate but connected areas in the brain? a. Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area b. Calcarine sulcus and Broca’s area

c. Calcarine sulcus and Wernicke’s area d. Association area and Broca’s area e. Motor speech area and Broca’s area ANS: A

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area. Speech and language are controlled by two separate but connected areas. The motor speech (Broca’s) area is located anterior to the inferior aspect of the precentral gyrus. The sensory speech (Wernicke’s) area lies within the junction of the parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes.

14. The thalamus, epithalamus, hypothalamus, and the hypophysis cerebri are four functional

areas of the a. midbrain b. metencephalon c. mesencephalon d. telencephalon e. diencephalon

.

ANS: E

Diencephalon. The diencephalon is divided into four functional areas: (1) thalamus, (2) epithalamus, (3) hypothalamus, and (4) hypophysis cerebri. The mesencephalon is the midbrain. The metencephalon is the pons and cerebellum.

15. Four large arteries form an arterial circle (also known as the circle of Willis) around the base

of the brain. These arteries are the . a. right and left cerebral arteries and right and left basilar arteries b. right and left internal carotid arteries and right and left vertebral arteries c. inferior and superior vertN ebU raR lS arI teN rieGsT anBd.rC igO htMand left basilar arteries d. aorta, cerebral artery, and right and left basilar arteries e. none of the above ANS: B

Right and left internal carotid arteries and right and left vertebral arteries. Four large arteries contribute to the arterial circle of the brain: the right and left internal carotid arteries and the right and left vertebral arteries.

16. The trigeminal nerve is cranial nerve V (CN V). The maxillary and mandibular nerves are

branches of cranial nerve V, such that a. maxillary: CN V-2; mandibular: CN V-4 b. maxillary: CN V-1; mandibular: CN V-4 c. maxillary: CN V-2; mandibular: CN V-3 d. maxillary: CN V-3; mandibular: CN V-1 e. maxillary: CN V-2; mandibular: CN V-1

.

ANS: C

Maxillary. CN V-2; mandibular: CN V-3. The maxillary nerve is cranial nerve V-2. The mandibular nerve is cranial nerve V-3. Cranial nerve V-1 is the ophthalmic nerve. There is no cranial nerve V-4.

17. The eyeball and the optic nerve are the primary structures in the a. middle cranial space

.

b. c. d. e.

temporal fossa anterior cranial fossa Orbit maxillary sinus

ANS: D

Orbit. The prime occupants of the orbit are the eyeball and its optic nerve. Accessory occupants are extraocular muscles, nerves to the eyeball and muscles, vessels to the muscles and eyeball, the lacrimal gland, and orbital fat.

18. The muscle that originates from the superior position of the tendinous ring and primarily turns

the eyeball upward is the a. medial rectus b. superior rectus c. lateral rectus d. superior oblique e. inferior oblique

.

ANS: B

Superior rectus. The superior rectus originates from the superior position of the tendinous ring and primarily turns the eyeball upward. The medial rectus turns the eyeball inward. The lateral rectus turns the eyeball outward. The superior oblique turns the eyeball downward and laterally.

19. The

is the only muscle that does not originate from the tendinous ring. It turns the eyeball superiorly and laterally and is supplied by a branch of the oculomotor nerve. a. medial rectus b. superior rectus c. lateral rectus d. superior oblique e. inferior oblique ANS: E

Inferior oblique. The inferior oblique is the only muscle that does not originate from the tendinous ring; instead, it originates from the floor of the orbit near the posterior lacrimal crest. It turns the eyeball superiorly and laterally. The medial rectus turns the eyeball inward.

The lateral rectus turns the eyeball outward.

20. The

nerve divides into a superior and inferior division that supplies all of the extraocular muscles except the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles. a. frontal b. optic c. oculomotor d. trochlear e. abducens ANS: C

Oculomotor. The oculomotor nerve enters the orbit through the superior orbital fissure. It divides into superior and inferior divisions that supply all of the extraocular muscles except the superior oblique and the lateral rectus muscles.

21. The

is the firm, smooth, fibrous outer covering of the posterior five sixths of the

eyeball. a. cornea b. sclera c. vascular coat d. iris e. ciliary body ANS: B

Sclera. The sclera is a firm, smooth, fibrous outer covering of the posterior five sixths of the eyeball. The iris is the pigmented diaphragm of the eyeball. The ciliary body surrounds the lens and suspends the lens via the suspensory ligament.

22. Which of the following is an accurate description of how the eye focuses? a. For faraway objects, the elastic suspensory ligament holds the lens taut, thus

b.

c.

d.

e.

flattening the lens. For nearby objects, the eyeballs turn inward, the pupillae muscle lets less light enter the eyeball, and the suspensory ligament loosens to allow the lens to relax and assume its normal shape.

For faraway objects, the elastic suspensory ligament loosens the lens, thus allowing the lens to assume its normal shape. For nearby objects, the eyeballs turn inward, the pupillae muscle lets less light enter the eyeball, and the suspensory ligament tightens to flatten the lens.

For faraway objects, the elastic suspensory ligament holds the lens taut, thus flattening the lens. For nearby objects, the eyeballs turn outward, the pupillae muscle lets more light enter the eyeball, and the suspensory ligament loosens to allow the lens to relax and assume its normal shape.

For faraway objects, the eNlasR tic sI uspG ensoBry.lC igam Ment loosens the lens, thus N Tshape.

O allowing the lens to assumeUitsS normal For nearby objects, the eyeballs turn outward, the pupillae muscle lets less light enter the eyeball, and the suspensory ligament becomes taught, thus flattening the lens.

For faraway objects, the elastic suspensory ligament holds the lens taut, thus flattening the lens. For nearby objects, the eyeballs turn inward, the pupillae muscle lets more light enter the eyeball, and the suspensory ligament loosens to allow the lens to relax and assume its normal shape.

ANS: A

For faraway objects, the elastic suspensory ligament holds the lens taut, thus flattening the lens. For nearby objects, the eyeballs turn inward, the pupillae muscle lets less light enter the eyeball, and the suspensory ligament loosens to allow the lens to relax and assume its normal shape.

23. The

nerve passes into the parotid gland and becomes plexiform and forms five sets of branches—temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical—that supply the superficial muscles of facial expression and the platysma muscle. a. optic b. ophthalmic c. petrosal d. facial e. trochlear ANS: D

Facial. The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) passes into the parotid gland and becomes plexiform and forms five sets of branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical. These radiate from the anterior and inferior borders of the gland to spill onto the face and supply the superficial muscles of facial expression and the platysma muscle.

24. Articulation of the temporomandibular joint takes place in which of the following two areas? a. Between the maxillary and mandibular teeth and between the mandibular condyle

and the frontal bone b. Between the maxillary and mandibular teeth and between the mandibular condyle

and the ethmoid bone c. Between the maxillary and mandibular teeth and between the maxillary condyle

and the frontal bone d. Between the maxillary and mandibular teeth and between the mandibular condyle

and the temporal bone e. Between the maxillary condyle and the mandibular condyle ANS: D

Articulation of the temporomandibular joint takes place in two areas: (1) between maxillary and mandibular teeth and (2) between the mandibular condyle and the temporal bone.

25. Innervation of the temporomandibular joint is provided primarily by the a. temporalis b. auriculotemporal c. lingual d. buccal e. mental

nerve.

ANS: B

Auriculotemporal. Most of the temporomandibular joint is supplied by sensory articular branches of the auriculotemporal nerve.

26. The position of the mandible in which freeway space is closed and the teeth come into

maximal contact in the midline is referred to as a. rest position b. chewing position c. centric occlusion d. stable occlusion e. temporal occlusion

.

ANS: C

Centric occlusion. Centric occlusion is achieved on closing the freeway space and allowing the teeth to come into maximal contact in the midline. The rest position is achieved when several millimeters separate the occlusal surfaces and the condyles rest on the posterior slope of the articular eminence.

27. Which of the following are muscles of mastication? a. Masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid b. Masseter, temporalis, and mental c. Uvular, temporalis, and palatoglossus d. Levator veli palatini, mental, and temporalis e. Masseter, pterygoid, and levator veli palatini

ANS: A

Masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid. The muscles of mastication are the masseter (superficial head and deep head), temporalis, and pterygoid (medial and lateral).

28. Which nerve supplies all the structures that arise from the mandibular process? a. Cranial nerve III b. Cranial nerve I c. Masseter nerve d. Cranial nerve V-3 e. Facial nerve ANS: D

Cranial nerve V-3. Cranial nerve V-3 (mandibular nerve) is the nerve of the mandibular process of the first branchial arch and supplies all the structures that arise from the mandibular process.

29. The

nerve branches from the inferior alveolar nerve and passes to the face through the mental foramen. It sends branches to supply the skin and mucous membrane of the lower lip, the skin of the chin, and the vestibular gingiva of the mandibular incisors. a. mylohyoid b. mental c. chorda tympani d. lingual e. buccal ANS: B

Mental. The mental nerve branches inferior NURSfrom INGthe B.C M alveolar nerve and passes to the face T O through the mental foramen. It sends branches to supply the skin and mucous membrane of the lower lip, the skin of the chin, and the vestibular gingiva of the mandibular incisors.

30. The

muscle is used as a landmark to divide the maxillary artery into three parts: (1) the portion before the muscle, (2) the portion passing over the muscle, and (3) the part after crossing the muscle. a. infrahyoid b. medial pterygoid c. masseter d. temporalis e. lateral pterygoid ANS: E

Lateral pterygoid. The lateral pterygoid muscle is used as a landmark to divide the maxillary artery into three parts: Part 1 is the portion before the muscle, Part 2 is the portion passing over the muscle, and Part 3 is the portion after crossing the muscle.

31. The venous flow from areas supplied by the maxillary artery to the maxillary vein is through a

complex configuration of tributaries called the a. mesenteric plexus of veins b. pterygoid plexus of veins c. buccal venous plexus d. mental vein plexus

.

e. sphenopalatine venous plexus ANS: B

Pterygoid plexus of veins. The venous flow from areas supplied by the maxillary artery does not return in a simple fashion to the maxillary vein. Rather, the tributaries form a complex configuration termed the pterygoid plexus of veins.

32. The pterygopalatine fossa is seen through a narrow cleft, the

, between the

pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone and the posterior wall of the maxilla. a. pterygomaxillary fissure b. infraorbital foramen c. temporal fossa d. mandibular fossa e. inferior orbital fissure ANS: A

Pterygomaxillary fissure. The pterygopalatine fossa is located on the lateral aspect of the skull and is best seen with the zygomatic arch removed. The fossa is seen through a narrow cleft, the pterygomaxillary fissure, between the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone and the posterior wall of the maxilla.

33. The

nerve is the second of three large divisions to arise from the trigeminal ganglion within the middle cranial fossa. It follows a complicated course through four regions of the head and gives rise to sensory branches as it passes through each region. a. zygomatic b. buccal c. maxillary d. greater palatine e. labial ANS: C

Maxillary. The maxillary nerve is the sensory supply to all the eventual derivatives of the maxillary process. It is the second of three large divisions to arise from the trigeminal ganglion within the middle cranial fossa. It follows a complicated course through four regions of the head.

34. The last branch to arise from the maxillary nerve within the pterygopalatine fossa is the

nerve. It descends along the infratemporal surface of the maxilla, and its branches enter the maxillary sinus. a. labial b. intracranial c. zygomatic d. posterior superior alveolar e. anterior superior alveolar ANS: D

Posterior superior alveolar. The posterior superior alveolar nerve is the last branch to arise from the maxillary nerve within the pterygopalatine fossa. It descends along the infratemporal surface of the maxilla and enters the perforated area of the infratemporal surface as several branches, which pass through the posterior superior alveolar foramina and enter the maxillary sinus.

35. The midline partition of bone and cartilage that divides the nasal cavity into right and left

portions is the a. nares b. hard palate c. maxillary sinus d. paranasal sinus e. septum

.

ANS: E

Septum. The midline partition of the nasal cavity, or septum, that divides the nasal cavity into right and left portions is composed of bone and cartilage. The nares are the nostrils.

36. The functions of the nose and nasal cavity are respiration, olfaction, filtration, reception of

secretions from paranasal air sinuses, and . a. vocalization b. humidification of inspired air c. reception of secretions from the nasolacrimal duct of the orbit d. A, B, and C e. B and C ANS: E

Humidification of inspired air and reception of secretions from the nasolacrimal duct of the orbit. The functions of the nose and nasal cavity are respiration, olfaction, filtration of particulate matter, humidification of inspired air, and reception of secretions from communicating paranasal air sinuses and from the nasolacrimal duct of the orbit. Vocalization is accomplished in the larynx.

37. The floor of the nasal cavity is the a. nasal cartilages b. hard palate c. frontal bone d. sphenoid bone e. ethmoid bone

.

ANS: B

Hard palate. The floor of the nasal cavity is the hard palate.

38. The largest, and perhaps most troublesome, of the paranasal air sinuses are the a. ethmoid b. frontal c. sphenoidal d. maxillary e. superior

sinuses.

ANS: D

Maxillary. The paired maxillary sinuses are the largest and clinically, perhaps, the most troublesome of the paranasal air sinuses. They lie within the bodies of the right and left maxillae. The maxillary sinus drains to the middle meatus of the nose through its ostium, which sometimes is chronically blocked.

39. The oral cavity consists of which two areas? a. Anterior cavity and posterior cavity b. Oral cavity proper and posterior cavity c. Vestibule and oral cavity proper d. Vestibule and posterior cavity e. Gingiva and oral cavity proper ANS: C

Vestibule and oral cavity proper. The oral cavity consists of two areas. The vestibule is the space between the teeth and the inner mucosal lining of the lips and cheeks. The oral cavity proper is the space contained within the upper and lower dental arches.

40. The marks the injection site for local anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve. a. labial frenula b. mucolabial fold c. coronoid notch d. external oblique ridge e. retromolar fossa ANS: E

Retromolar fossa. The retromolar fossa marks the injection site for local anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve.

41. The soft palate is the movable posterior third of the palate. It ends posteriorly as a free edge

with a pendulous projection called the a. palatine tonsils b. incisive papilla c. uvula d. palatal rugae e. lingual frenulum

.

ANS: C

Uvula. The uvula is the midline projection at the posterior edge of the soft palate. The incisive papilla is an elevation directly anterior to the underlying incisive foramen. Radiating laterally from the incisive papilla are parallel transverse ridges called palatal rugae.

42. The

is a midline fold of mucous membrane running from the lingual gingiva posteriorly to the undersurface of the tongue. a. lingual frenulum b. uvula c. palatine tonsil d. palatal rugae e. palatal raphe ANS: A

Lingual frenulum. The lingual frenulum is a midline fold of mucous membrane running from the lingual gingiva behind the mandibular central incisors posteriorly to the undersurface of the tongue.

43. The skeleton of the hard palate is formed by the _ a. mandible and right and left occipital bones

.

b. c. d. e.

right and left maxillae and right and left sphenoid bones mandible and right and left palatine bones right and left maxillae and right and left palatine bones mandible and right and left maxillae

ANS: D

Right and left maxillae and right and left palatine bones. The palatal processes of the right and left maxillae form the anterior two thirds of the skeleton of the hard palate. The palatal processes of the right and left palatine bones form the posterior third of the skeleton of the hard palate.

44. All of the following are muscles of the soft palate except the a. palatopharyngeus b. genioglossus c. palatoglossus d. uvular e. tensor veli palatini

.

ANS: B

Genioglossus. The genioglossus is a muscle of the tongue. All others are muscles of the soft palate.

45. All of the following are muscles of the tongue except the a. palatoglossus b. infrahyoid c. genioglossus d. styloglossus

.

e. hyoglossus ANS: A

Palatoglossus. The palatoglossus is a muscle of the soft palate. All others are muscles of the tongue.

46. The floor of the mouth is innervated by which three nerves? a. Mesenteric, mental, and glossopharyngeal b. Mental, nasopalatine, and pharyngeal c. Nasal, pharyngeal, and infraorbital d. Lingual, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal e. Lingual, mesenteric, and hypoglossal ANS: D

Lingual, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal. The floor of the mouth is innervated primarily by the lingual, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal nerves and their branches. The nasopalatine nerve supplies the nasal cavity.

47. The three major salivary glands are the a. submandibular, sublingual, and nasal b. salivary, maxillary, and mandibular c. salivary, parotid, and nasal d. parotid, lingual, and sublingual e. submandibular, sublingual, and parotid

.

ANS: E

Submandibular, sublingual, and parotid. The three major salivary glands are the submandibular, sublingual, and parotid glands.

48. The hollow space within the crown and neck of a tooth that contains odontoblasts, connective

tissue cells, and blood vessels and arteries is the a. alveolus b. pulp chamber c. dentine d. cementum e. enamel

.

ANS: B

Pulp chamber. The pulp chamber is the hollow space within the crown and neck of the tooth that contains soft tissues, including odontoblasts on the periphery, ordinary connective tissue cells, and blood vessels and nerves.

49. The a. vestibular b. lingual c. mesial d. occlusal e. distal

surface of a tooth is the masticating, or biting, surface.

ANS: D

Occlusal. The occlusal surface of a tooth is the masticating, or biting, surface. The vestibular surface faces the vestibule. The lingual surface is the side facing the tongue. The mesial RiSdlIinNeGofTtB surface is the side closest to tN heUm he.dC enOtaMl arch. The distal surface is the side farthest from the midline of the dental arch.

50. All mandibular teeth on the right side are supplied by the right

nerve and on the

left side by the left nerve. a. middle superior alveolar b. superior alveolar c. inferior alveolar d. posterior superior alveolar e. mental ANS: C

Inferior alveolar. All mandibular teeth on the right side are supplied by the right inferior alveolar nerve and on the left side by the left inferior alveolar nerve.

51. Which two muscles act to raise the pharynx and larynx during the act of swallowing? a. Palatopharyngeus and genioglossus b. Styloglossus and stylopharyngeus c. Hyoglossus and stylopharyngeus d. Genioglossus and stylopharyngess e. Palatopharyngeus and stylopharyngeus ANS: E

Palatopharyngeus and stylopharyngeus. Two longitudinal muscles, the palatopharyngeus and stylopharyngeus, act to raise the pharynx and larynx during the act of swallowing. The genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles are all muscles of the tongue.

52. The larynx serves as an air passage between the a. pharynx and trachea b. trachea and lungs c. oral cavity and pharynx d. nasal cavity and pharynx e. pharynx and epiglottis

.

ANS: A

Pharynx and trachea. The larynx acts as an air passage linking the pharynx above to the trachea below.

53. In the larynx, a fibroelastic sheet between the vocal folds above and the superior border of the

cricoid cartilage below, which is also referred to as the conus elasticus, is the . a. thyrohyoid membrane b. ventricular ligament c. quadrangular membrane d. cricothyroid membrane e. aryepiglottic ligament ANS: D

Cricothyroid membrane. The cricothyroid membrane is a fibroelastic sheet that fills a triangular area between the vocal folds above and the superior border of the cricoid cartilage below. It is also referred to aN s tU heRcSoI nuNs G elT asBti. cuCs.OM 54. The cricothyroid, transverse arytenoid, posterior cricoarytenoid, aryepiglottic, and vocalis are

all muscles of the a. pharynx b. larynx c. epiglottis d. oral cavity e. trachea

.

ANS: B

Larynx. The muscles of the larynx are the cricothyroid, transverse arytenoid, posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, aryepiglotticus, thyroarytenoid, thyroepiglotticus, and vocalis.

55. All of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the laryngeal branches of the a. b. c. d. e.

nerve. vagus mental hypoglossal lingual inferior alveolar

ANS: A

Vagus. All the intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by laryngeal branches of the vagus nerve.

56. The

membrane stretches across the medial end of the external auditory meatus of the ear and vibrates in sympathy with incoming sound waves. a. inner b. middle c. auditory d. cochlear e. tympanic ANS: E

Tympanic. The tympanic membrane stretches across the medial end of the external auditory meatus of the ear and vibrates in sympathy with incoming sound waves.

57. The

bone consists of a round head that projects upward into the epitympanic recess, two short processes, and a long process that extends inferiorly onto the medial aspect of the tympanic membrane. a. incus b. stapes c. malleus d. tympanic e. ossicle ANS: C

Malleus. The malleus (hammer) bone consists of a round head that projects upward into the epitympanic recess, two short processes, and a long process (handle) that extends inferiorly GeTmBb. onto the medial aspect of theNtyUmRpS anIicNm raC neO .M The incus (anvil) articulates with the malleus through a synovial joint. The stapes articulates with the incus.

58. The portion of the ear that is concerned with the reception of sound and balance is the a. b. c. d. e.

. tympanic membrane malleus middle ear cavity internal ear external ear

ANS: D

Internal ear. The internal ear is concerned with the reception of sound and balance. It consists of two parts: (1) the bony labyrinth, which is filled with perilymph, and (2) the membranous labyrinth, which is filled with endolymph.

59. Perilymph and endolymph are found in which of the following? a. Cochlea b. Bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth c. Stapedius d. Tympanic membrane e. Middle ear cavity ANS: B

Bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth. The bony labyrinth is an interconnecting system of twisted canals and is filled with a plasmalike fluid called perilymph. The membranous labyrinth is suspended within the perilymph of the bony labyrinth, and it is filled with a fluid called the endolymph.

60. The

, or hearing organ, is shaped like the shell of a snail and communicates with the vestibule and the middle ear. a. cochlea b. incus c. tympanic cavity d. malleus e. semicircular canal ANS: A

Cochlea. The cochlea, or hearing organ, is shaped like the shell of a snail and consists of a bony core, or modiolus, around which is wrapped the cochlear canal. The cochlea communicates with the vestibule and the middle ear. The incus and malleus are bones in the middle ear.

61. The chorda tympani nerve, which runs through the middle ear, and the greater petrosal nerve

are branches of the a. mental b. lingual c. nasopalatine d. facial e. olfactory

nerve.

ANS: D

Facial. The greater petrosal nerve and the chorda tympani nerve are branches of the facial nerve.

62. The buccal artery is a branch of the a. facial b. inferior alveolar c. maxillary d. ophthalmic e. superficial temporal

artery.

ANS: C

Maxillary. The buccal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery.

63. Depression of the mandible is accomplished by bilateral contractions of the a. medial pterygoid b. deep heads of the masseter c. temporalis d. superior heads of the lateral pterygoid e. inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid ANS: E

muscles(s).

Inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid. Contractions of both inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscles, along with the suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles, help in depressing the mandible.

64. Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux), in which pain may be triggered by a light touch to the

face, is a disorder of the a. facial artery b. supraorbital nerve c. supraorbital vein d. trigeminal ganglion e. mental nerve

.

ANS: D

Trigeminal ganglion. Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) is a disorder of the trigeminal ganglion and can give rise to paroxysms along the pathways of the sensory facial branches of the trigeminal nerve. These episodes of pain may be triggered by a light touch to the face or hot or cold foods in the mouth.

65. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a . a. potentially fatal infection arising from the face or orbit that spreads into the b. c. d. e.

cavernous sinus and causes an intracranial thrombus spasm in the cavernous sinus caused by an infection in the mandible or maxilla disorder of the facial vein congenital disorder of the paranasal sinuses minor infection of the inferior or superior sagittal sinus

ANS: A

Organisms in the blood fromNinUfeRcS tioInN sG onTtB he.fC acO eM may be swept through the orbit to the cavernous sinus. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a potentially fatal infection arising from the face or orbit that can spread through venous communication to the cavernous sinus and cause an infective intracranial thrombus.

66. Damage to the upper motor neurons of the facial nerve results in a. paralysis of the upper facial muscles on the ipsilateral side b. paralysis of the lower facial muscles on the contralateral side c. paralysis of the upper facial muscles on the contralateral side d. spasms of upper and lower facial muscles on the ipsilateral side e. no visible paralysis of the face

.

ANS: B

Paralysis of the lower facial muscles on the contralateral side. Damage to the upper motor neurons of the facial nerve results in paralysis of the lower facial muscles on the contralateral side. Strokes are the most common cause of this type of facial paralysis.

67.

is a rupture of cerebral veins as they enter the superior sagittal sinus that results in a separation of the dura and arachnoid layers and forms a hematoma. a. Intracranial hemorrhage b. Meningitis c. Encephalitis d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage e. Subdural hemorrhage

ANS: E

Subdural hemorrhage. A subdural hemorrhage is caused by a rupture of cerebral veins as they enter the superior sagittal sinus. The blood escapes, separates the dura and arachnoid layers, and forms a hematoma in the newly created subdural space.

68.

is increased intraocular pressure caused by obstructed outflow of aqueous humor that progressively destroys the exiting fibers of the optic nerve. a. Myopia b. Dacryostenosis c. Cataract d. Glaucoma e. Astigmatism ANS: D

Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a common cause of blindness brought about by an increased intraocular pressure that progressively destroys the exiting fibers of the optic nerve. The increased pressure is caused by an obstructed outflow of aqueous humor. A cataract is a condition in which the lens becomes opaque, resulting in decreased vision.

69. The usual cause of myofascial pain syndrome (fibromyalgia), which involves pain emanating

from fibrous muscle sheaths, muscle, tendons, and ligaments, in the masticator region is . a. mandibular tooth infection b. maxillary tooth infection c. bruxism d. arthritis e. internal disc derangemenN t URSINGTB.COM ANS: C

Bruxism. The usual cause of myofascial pain syndrome (fibromyalgia), which involves pain emanating from fibrous muscle sheaths, muscle, tendons, and ligaments, in the masticator region is nocturnal bruxism.

70. Toothache in the maxillary arch may be caused by referred pain from an infected sinus

because . a. the maxilla is part of the sinus b. the maxilla and sinus share a common artery c. the maxilla and sinus share a common vein d. the maxilla and sinus share a common nerve supply e. sinusitis may refer pain throughout the head ANS: D

The maxilla and sinus share a common nerve supply. Toothache in the maxillary arch may be caused by referred pain from an infected sinus. Because the maxillary teeth lie in proximity to the sinus floor and because the teeth and the maxillary sinus share a common nerve supply, sinusitis may manifest itself as a generalized ache arising from the teeth.

71. If inflammation of the gums or gingivitis is left untreated, the disease may spread to other

supporting structures and alveolar bone, a condition called a. orbital infection

.

b. c. d. e.

periodontitis caries sinusitis malocclusion

ANS: B

Periodontitis. Improper oral hygiene may result in gingivitis or inflammation of the gums. If left untreated, the disease may spread to other supporting structures and alveolar bone, causing periodontitis (inflammation and destruction of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone).

72. Malocclusion may be caused in the developing child for all of the following reasons except a. b. c. d. e.

. inherited characteristics from the parents premature loss of deciduous molars chronic mouth breathing oral habits, such as thumb sucking tonsillitis

ANS: E

Tonsillitis. All of the above are possible causes of malocclusion in the developing child except tonsillitis, which is a condition of inflamed tonsils, usually caused by a streptococcal infection.

73. Saliva contains high levels of

, which can precipitate spontaneously as supragingival calculus, particularly on the lingual surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth. a. calcium phosphate b. potassium c. iron d. phosphorus e. acetic acid ANS: A

Calcium phosphate. Saliva contains high levels of calcium phosphate, which can precipitate spontaneously as a chalky material on the teeth as supragingival calculus. It forms most readily on the lingual surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth.

74. When a tooth becomes nonvital, the pulpal tissues die and the remaining necrotic debris

usually becomes infected. What causes a tooth to become nonvital? a. Loss of innervation b. Loss of blood supply c. Tonsillitis d. Sinusitis e. Extraction of the tooth ANS: B

Loss of blood supply. The nonvital tooth is one that has lost its blood supply, usually due to a blow to the tooth or to the invasion of the pulp chamber by a deep carious lesion.

75. In an emergency caused by airway obstruction, the best way to secure a patent airway is with

a/an

.

a. b. c. d. e.

tracheostomy endotracheal intubation cricothyrotomy cardiopulmonary resuscitation tonsillectomy

ANS: C

Cricothyrotomy. In an emergency caused by airway obstruction, the obstructed vocal folds may be bypassed by creating an airway with a cricothyrotomy. In an emergency a cricothyrotomy is preferred over a tracheostomy because there are no important structures between the cricothyroid membrane and the skin.

Chapter 08: Systemic Review of the Head and Neck Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The internal jugular vein leaves the skull through the jugular foramen, and, at the root of the

neck, joins the subclavian vein to form the a. facial b. suprascapular c. brachiocephalic d. superior vena cava e. lingual

vein.

ANS: C

Brachiocephalic. The internal jugular vein drains intracranial structures, leaves the skull through the jugular foramen, and descends in the neck within the carotid sheath. At the root of the neck, it joins the subclavian vein to form the large brachiocephalic vein.

2. Lymph drains from the larynx and trachea through the paratracheal, pretracheal, and

prelaryngeal nodes, which are in the a. superficial horizontal b. submandibular c. parotid d. submental e. deep horizontal

ring of lymph nodes.

ANS: E

Deep horizontal. The paratracheal, pretracheal, and prelaryngeal nodes are in the deep horizontal ring of lymph nodes.

3. How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain? a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14 e. 18 ANS: C

12. Twelve pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain. The first two nerves are remote from the brain and communicate with the brain via long extensions. The remaining 10 nerves arise directly from the brainstem.

4. The sensation of sight is the sole functional component of cranial nerve a. I b. II c. III d. V e. VII ANS: B

.

II. The sensation of sight is the sole functional component of cranial nerve II, the optic nerve.

5. The

nerve, a branch of the trigeminal nerve, itself has a number of branches, including meningeal branches, posterior superior alveolar nerves, the middle superior alveolar nerve, and the zygomatic nerve. a. mandibular b. oculomotor c. trochlear d. facial e. maxillary ANS: E

Maxillary. The maxillary nerve (cranial nerve V-2) is a branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). The branches of the maxillary nerve include meningeal branches, ganglionic branches, posterior superior alveolar nerves, the middle superior alveolar nerve, the zygomatic nerve, the anterior superior alveolar nerve, and facial branches.

6. The

nerve, a branch of the trigeminal nerve, itself has a number of branches, including nervus spinosus, the buccal nerve, the auriculotemporal nerve, and the lingual nerve. a. mandibular b. oculomotor c. trochlear d. facial e. maxillary ANS: A

Mandibular. The mandibularNnU erR veS(I crN anGiaTl B ne. rvCeOVM -3) is a branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). The branches of the mandibular nerve include nervus spinosus, the nerve to the medial pterygoid, the buccal nerve, the auriculotemporal nerve, the lingual nerve, and the inferior alveolar nerve.

7. Loss of the pharyngeal gag reflex and loss of taste from the posterior third of the tongue could

indicate an impairment of the a. vagus b. glossopharyngeal c. facial d. trigeminal e. trochlear

nerve.

ANS: B

Glossopharyngeal. Impairment of the glossopharyngeal nerve could manifest as loss of the pharyngeal gag reflex and loss of taste from the posterior third of the tongue.

8. Paralysis of the soft palate and larynx, hoarseness or anesthesia of the larynx, and inability to

speak and breathe because of paralysis of the vocal folds could indicate an impairment of the nerve. a. vestibulocochlear b. facial c. glossopharyngeal d. vagus

e. trochlear ANS: D

Vagus. Impairment of the vagus nerve could manifest as paralysis of the soft palate and larynx on the affected side, in addition to hoarseness and anesthesia of the larynx, permitting the passage and aspiration of foreign bodies. Bilateral vagal damage would result in rapid heartbeat, decreased respiration, and inability to speak and breathe because of paralysis of the vocal folds.

9. Damage to the cranial sympathetic trunk can result in

, which is characterized by absence of sweating, vasodilation of the skin, enophthalmos, ptosis, and double vision. a. Horner syndrome b. Fragile X syndrome c. Wernicke’s syndrome d. Wilms syndrome e. Tachycardia ANS: A

Horner syndrome. Damage to the sympathetic trunk results in Horner syndrome, which is characterized by absence of sweating, vasodilation of the skin, enophthalmos, ptosis, and double vision.

10. Damage to the a. trochlear b. trigeminal c. maxillary d. mandibular

nerve results in tinnitus or hearing impairment and vertigo.

e. vestibulocochlear ANS: E

Vestibulocochlear. Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) results in tinnitus or hearing impairment and vertigo and loss of balance.

Chapter 09: The Upper Limb Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The shoulder girdle is composed of the a. clavicle and acromion b. scapula and clavicle c. humerus and clavicle d. humerus and scapula e. scapula and ulna

.

ANS: B

Scapula and clavicle. The shoulder girdle consists of two bones, the scapula (shoulder blade) and the clavicle (collarbone).

2. The a. ulna b. scapula c. clavicle d. humerus e. radius

is the single bone of the upper arm.

ANS: D

Humerus. The humerus is the only bone of the upper arm. The radius and ulna are bones of the forearm.

3. The

is the superoposterior portion of the trochlear notch of the ulna and forms the bony prominence of the elbow. a. acromion b. olecranon c. coronoid fossa d. capitulum e. clavicle ANS: B

Olecranon. The olecranon is the superoposterior portion of the trochlear notch of the ulna and forms the bony prominence of the elbow.

4. The

joint is an articulation between the spherical head of the humerus and the shallow depression of the glenoid fossa of the scapula and is a ball-and-socket configuration that allows three degrees of freedom. a. intracapsular b. scapulothoracic c. acromioclavicular d. sternoclavicular e. glenohumeral ANS: E

Glenohumeral. The glenohumeral, or shoulder, joint is an articulation between the head of the humerus and the shallow depression of the glenoid fossa of the scapula. It is a ball-and-socket configuration that allows three degrees of freedom and a considerable range of movement.

5. The

muscle is a large triangular muscle on the anterior chest wall that can flex, medially rotate, and adduct the arm. a. pectoralis minor b. subclavius c. serratus anterior d. pectoralis major e. trapezius ANS: D

Pectoralis major. The pectoralis major is a large triangular muscle on the anterior chest wall that can flex, medially rotate, and adduct the arm.

6. What are the four rotator cuff muscles? a. Deltoid, teres major, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus b. Latissimus dorsi, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis d. Teres major, teres minor, deltoid, and latissimus dorsi e. Teres major, teres minor, deltoid, and supraspinatus ANS: C

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. The four rotator cuff muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. All the other muscles named are in the shoulder or arm, but they are not rotator cuff muscles.

7. The intrinsic muscles of the hand that enable the fine positioning of the fingers and thumb for

skilled movements include all of the following except the a. supinator b. flexor pollicis brevis c. abductor pollicis brevis d. opponens pollicis e. abductor digiti minimi

.

ANS: A

Supinator. All of the aforementioned are intrinsic muscles of the hand except the supinator muscle. The supinator arises from the humerus and ulna and wraps around the lateral and posterior aspects of the radius.

8. The motor and sensory nerve supply to the upper limb is via the a. axilla b. brachial plexus c. lumbar nerve 5 d. ulnar nerve e. suprascapular nerve

.

ANS: B

Brachial plexus. The entire motor and sensory nerve supply to the upper limb is via the brachial plexus.

9. The artery and its branches provide the entire arterial supply to the upper limb. a. radial b. ulnar c. digital d. subclavian e. femoral ANS: D

Subclavian. The arterial supply to the upper limb is entirely from the subclavian artery and its branches.

10. Venous drainage in the upper arm begins in the hand and culminates in the

vein in

the root of the neck. a. cephalic b. antebrachial c. subclavian d. basilic e. cubital ANS: C

Subclavian. The deep veins of the upper limb begin in the hand and ultimately collect as the axillary vein, which ascends over the first rib to become the subclavian vein in the root of the neck.

Chapter 10: The Lower Limb Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The large bone of the thigh is the a. tibia b. os coxae c. fibula d. femur e. coccyx

.

ANS: D

Femur. The femur is the only bone of the thigh. It is a large, long bone that articulates with the os coxae and two large condyles that articulate inferiorly with the tibia.

2. The

is a sesamoid bone embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. Its anterior surface is roughened for the tendinous attachments to the quadriceps femoris muscle. a. tibia b. fibula c. femur d. trochanter e. patella ANS: E

NoUidRbSoI Patella. The patella is a sesam neNeG mT beBd. deCdOwMithin the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. Its anterior surface is roughened for the attachments to the quadriceps femoris muscle.

3. The weight-bearing bone of the leg is the a. femur b. tibia c. fibula d. patella e. calcaneus

.

ANS: B

Tibia. The tibia is relatively massive because it bears all the weight transmitted from the femur and, in turn, transfers the weight to the ankle. The fibula is not weight bearing. The femur is in the thigh.

4. In the knee, the condyles of the femur and tibia are partially separated by two

fibrocartilaginous discs, the a. anterior and posterior acetabular labrum b. medial and collateral ligaments c. anterior and posterior bursae d. medial and lateral menisci e. synovial membranes

.

Medial and lateral menisci. The condyles of the femur and the tibia are partially separated by two interposing fibrocartilaginous discs, or menisci, the medial and lateral menisci. Each meniscus is C-shaped, and a transverse ligament joins their anterior margins.

5. The talocrural joint is capable of which two movements? a. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion b. Hyperextension and extension c. Abduction and hyperextension d. Flexion and abduction e. Inversion and eversion ANS: A

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. The talocrural (ankle) joint is capable of two movements.

Dorsiflexion is the drawing up of the dorsum of the foot that allows the heel to strike the ground first. Plantarflexion is the opposite movement that points the foot downward. The intertarsal joint is capable of inversion and eversion of the ankle.

6. All of the following muscles are involved in flexion of the hip except the _ a. iliacus b. psoas c. rectus femoris d. soleus e. sartorius

.

ANS: D

Soleus. The iliacus and psoas muscles (together referred to as the iliopsoas muscle), the rectus femoris muscle, and the sartorius muscle all contribute to hip flexion. The soleus muscle is responsible for plantarflexionNoUf R thS eI foN oG t. TB.COM 7. The semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and posterior portion of the adductor

magnus muscles are colloquially referred to as a. calves b. flexors c. biceps d. gluten e. hamstrings

.

ANS: E

Hamstrings. The hamstrings are muscles that are extensors of the hip and flexors of the knee.

These muscles are the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and the posterior portion of the adductor magnus muscles.

8. The

nerve, which is the largest nerve in the body, runs down the back of the thigh and then divides into two branches, the common fibular nerve and the tibial nerve. a. pudendal b. femoral c. sciatic d. obturator e. peroneal ANS: C

Sciatic. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body. Just above the knee, it divides into two terminal branches, the common fibular nerve and the tibial nerve.

9. Blood supply to the lower limb is provided through the a. femoral b. tibial c. popliteal d. fibular e. plantar

artery and its branches.

ANS: A

Femoral. The femoral artery supplies the entire lower limb through its various branches, which are the popliteal, fibular, posterior tibial, and anterior tibial arteries.

10. The sacral plexus is formed by the anterior primary rami of which spinal nerves? a. T1 and T2 b. C1 to C4 c. C5 and T1 d. S1 and L1-L4 e. S1 to S4, L4, and L5 ANS: E

S1 to S4, L4, and L5. The sacral plexus arises from the anterior primary rami of spinal nerves L4 and L5 and S1, S2, S3, and S4.

Chapter 11: Applied Anatomy Liebgott: The Anatomical Basis of Dentistry, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Anesthesia that blocks a main nerve and numbs several teeth is called a. local infiltration b. topical c. nerve block d. general anesthesia e. infraorbital block

.

ANS: C

Nerve block. Large areas and several teeth may be anesthetized by blocking a main nerve through the deposition of the anesthetic solution adjacent to a main nerve. Local infiltration is used to numb a single tooth or a small area.

2. The site of an injection for a nasopalatine block is . a. a point midway between the gingival crest of the tooth and the midline palatal b. c. d. e.

raphe the mouth of the infraorbital canal the mouth of the greater palatine canal the mouth of the incisive canal immediately posterior to the central incisor teeth the point where the posterior superior alveolar nerve enters the foramen on the infratemporal surface of the maxilla

ANS: D

The mouth of the incisive canal immediately posterior to the central incisor teeth. The injection site for a nasopalatine block is the mouth of the incisive canal. The other injection sites mentioned here are for other types of blocks.

3. Generally, mandibular dentition in an adult is anesthetized with a. a nerve block b. local infiltration c. topical anesthetic d. intraorbital injection e. posterior superior alveolar block

.

ANS: A

Nerve block. The labial and buccal plates of bone of the mandible are relatively thick and preclude successful local infiltration. In general, nerve blocks are used to anesthetize mandibular dentition.

4. The injection site for the

block is in the infratemporal region below the insertion of the lateral pterygoid muscle at the anterior aspect of the condylar neck. a. palatine b. greater palatine c. standard inferior alveolar d. Gow-Gates mandibular nerve e. Akinosi mandibular nerve

ANS: D

Gow-Gates mandibular nerve. The injection site for the Gow-Gates mandibular nerve block is higher than that of the standard inferior alveolar block. In the Gow-Gates block, the needle tip is placed in the infratemporal region below the insertion of the lateral pterygoid muscle at the anterior aspect of the condylar neck.

5. What kind of radiograph provides a view of crowns, roots, alveolar bone, and surrounding

bony structures and may enable detection of periodontal disease, foreign bodies, and impacted third molars? a. Bitewing radiograph b. Periapical radiograph c. Occlusal radiograph d. Fluoroscope e. Conventional tomograph ANS: B

Periapical radiograph. Common radiographs of the jaws and teeth include the bitewing radiograph, periapical radiograph, and occlusal radiograph. Periapical radiographs provide a view of crowns, roots, alveolar bone, and some surrounding bony tissues.

6. What kind of radiograph is used to detect occlusal caries, interproximal caries, overhanging

restoration margins, and loss of alveolar bone height? a. Occlusal radiograph b. Panoramic radiograph c. Periapical radiograph d. Arthrography e. Bitewing radiograph ANS: E

Bitewing radiograph. Bitewing radiographs are useful in the detection of occlusal caries, interproximal caries, recurrent caries under old restorations, overhanging restoration margins, and loss of alveolar bone height.

7. A

fracture is a break in the bone that does not involve the skin externally or mucous membrane internally. a. compound b. complex c. facial d. simple e. mandibular ANS: D

Simple. A fracture that is a break in the bone but does not involve the external skin or internal mucous membrane is called a simple fracture. A facial or mandibular fracture could be simple or compound.

8. Le Fort fractures fall into one of three basic patterns and involve a. the nasal septum b. the mandible c. several bones of the mid and upper face

.

d. the orbit e. the skull ANS: C

Several bones of the mid and upper face. Le Fort fractures involve several bones of the mid and upper face and may include the nasal septum, orbits, maxilla, and maxillary sinuses.

9. If an infection of alveolar bone is not treated, the infection may spread to tertiary sites,

including a. soft tissues b. external skin c. superficial fascia d. submandibular region e. all of the above

.

ANS: E

All of the above. An untreated alveolar bone infection may burst through the periosteum to overlying soft tissues as cellulitis. The infection may spread to superficial fascia, external skin, and the submandibular region.

10. Ludwig’s angina is an aggressive cellulitis involving which of the following? a. Mandible b. Submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces c. Cavernous sinus d. Masticator space e. Orbit ANS: B

Submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces. Ludwig’s angina is an aggressive cellulitis involving the bilateral sublingual, submandibular, and submental spaces that can spread down into the neck via the parapharyngeal spaces.