TEST BANK for Business Driven Information Systems, 8th Edition by Baltzan by ACADEMIAMILL

APPENDIX A 1)

Describe the six major categories of hardware and provide an example of each.

Identify the different computer categories and explain their potential business uses.

Explain the difference between primary and secondary storage.

List the common input, output, storage, and communication devices.

Version 1

Describe the eight categories of computers by size.

Define the relationship between operating system software and utility software.

What is software?

A) any computer-based tool that people use to work with information and support the information and information-processing needs of an organization B) the set of instructions that the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system D) an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data

What is hardware?

Version 1

What is a CPU?

A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and the read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the central processing unit (CPU) C) equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage D) equipment used to capture information and commands

10)

What is the arithmetic-logic unit?

A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly D) performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations (such as sorting and comparing numbers)

11)

What is a complex instruction set computer chip?

Version 1

12)

Which of the following represents megahertz?

A) the number of millions of CPU cycles per second B) the number of billions of CPU cycles per second C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly D) limit the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed

13)

What is the number of bits (0s and 1s) that can be processed by the CPU at any one time? A) clock speed B) word length C) bus width D) chip line width

14) What is the size of the internal electrical pathway along which signals are sent from one part of the computer to another?

Version 1

A) clock speed B) word length C) bus width D) chip line width

15)

What is roughly 1 million bytes? A) megabyte B) terabyte C) kilobyte D) gigabyte

16) What is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium? A) magnetic medium B) magnetic tape C) hard drive D) RAM

17) What is a form of a stationary mouse on which the movement of a finger causes the pointer on the screen to move? A) microphone B) touch pad C) pointing stick D) touch screen

Version 1

18) What detects the presence or absence of a mark in a predetermined place (popular for multiple-choice exams)? A) magnetic ink character reader B) optical-character recognition C) optical-mark recognition D) point-of-sale

19) What is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage

20) What interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage

21) What performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations?

Version 1

A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage

22)

What is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

23)

What is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

24) What is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

Version 1

25) What limits the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

26) What is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU? A) CPU B) control unit C) secondary storage D) primary storage

27) What is the computer’s primary working memory, in which program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external data bus? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

28)

What refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power?

Version 1

A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

29) What is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM? A) RAM B) cache memory C) volatility D) flash memory

30) What is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose its contents when one switches off the power? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

31) What is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact and portable? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

Version 1

32) What contains high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images, music, or text files? A) RAM B) memory stick C) memory card D) flash memory

33) What provides nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including computers, digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs? A) RAM B) memory stick C) memory card D) flash memory

34) What consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage? A) primary storage B) secondary storage C) memory stick D) flash memory

35) What is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store and retrieve data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials?

Version 1

A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

36) What is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

37)

What is equipment used to capture information and commands? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

38) What is an input device designed for special applications for use by people with different types of special needs? A) input device B) output device C) adaptive computer devices D) magnetic medium devices

Version 1

39) What is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of informationprocessing requests? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

40) What is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time? A) tablet B) PDA C) workstation D) minicomputer

41) What is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or computer game? A) tablet B) PDA C) appliance D) minicomputer

42) What is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special reading device. Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth?

Version 1

A) tablet B) eBook C) appliance D) minicomputer

43) What is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos, email, and includes many features of a PDA? A) tablet B) PDA C) eBook D) smartphone

44) What is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar? A) tablet B) PDA C) eBook D) smartphone

45) What is a computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power source or battery? A) tablet B) PDA C) laptop computer D) desktop computer

Version 1

46) What is a computer that has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead of a keyboard? A) tablet B) PDA C) laptop computer D) desktop computer

47) What is a computer that sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry around? A) tablet B) desktop computer C) workstation D) minicomputer

48) What is a computer designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer

49) What is a computer designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment?

Version 1

A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer

50)

What computer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer

51) What software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

52) What software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

Version 1

53) What system is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

54)

What allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

55)

What provides additional functionality to the operating system? A) system software B) operating system software C) utility software D) multitasking

56) What occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities?

Version 1

A) system restore software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

57)

What enables a user to return to the previous operating system? A) system restore software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

58)

What software helps save information if a computer crashes? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

59) What is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling applications if a hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

Version 1

60)

What software organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

61) What uses programs such as Window Washer which erases file histories, browser cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive? A) preventative security software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

62) What removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the background without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission? A) preventative security software B) spyware software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

63)

What software can remove software that is no longer needed? A) preventative security software B) spyware software C) crash-proof software D) uninstaller software

Version 1

64)

What software handles contact information, appointments, task lists, and email? A) preventative security software B) personal information management software C) crash-proof software D) course management software

65) What software contains course information such as a syllabus and assignments and offers drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book? A) preventative security software B) personal information management software C) crash-proof software D) course management software

66) What occur when the software vendor releases updates to software to fix problems or enhance features? A) software updates B) software upgrades C) crash-proof software D) course management software

67) What occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the software making significant changes to the program?

Version 1

A) software updates B) software upgrades C) crash-proof software D) course management software

68)

Which license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

69)

Which license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

70) Which license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software, regardless if the computer is on a network? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

Version 1

71) Which licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or per-use basis or usagebased licensing? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provider license

72)

What enables users to navigate the World Wide Web? A) a browser B) a network user license C) groupware D) PIM software

73)

What is system software?

A) controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software B) controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together C) provides additional functionality to the operating system D) used for specific information-processing needs, including payroll, customer relationship management, project management, training, and many others

74)

What is application software?

Version 1

75) Volatility is a protected memory space created by the CPU allowing the computer to create virtual machines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Complex instruction set computer chips limits the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) A computer is an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The central processing unit (CPU) (or microprocessor) is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

79) The arithmetic-logic unit includes instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) The control unit performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations. ⊚ ⊚

81)

Gigahertz is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Megahertz is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Complex instruction set computer (CISC) chips, which is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

84) Complex instruction set computer chips limit the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Primary storage is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Random access memory (RAM) is the computer’s primary working memory, in which program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external data bus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Volatility refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power. RAM is volatile, meaning it must have constant power to function; its contents are lost when the computer’s electric supply fails. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Cache memory is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

89) Random access memory is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose its contents when one switches off the power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) ROM is nonvolatile, meaning it does not require constant power to function. ROM contains essential system programs that neither the user nor the computer can erase. Since the computer’s internal memory is blank during start-up, the computer cannot perform any functions unless given start-up instructions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Flash memory is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact and portable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Memory cards contain high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images, music, or text files. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Memory sticks provide nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including computers, digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 25

94) Secondary storage consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

A megabyte (MB or M or Meg) is roughly 1 million bytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Magnetic medium is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store and retrieve data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Memory stick is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) A hard drive is a secondary storage medium that uses several rigid disks coated with a magnetically sensitive material and housed together with the recording heads in a hermetically sealed mechanism. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

99)

An input device is equipment used to capture information and commands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Adaptive computer devices are input devices designed for special applications for use by people with different types of special needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) An input device is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of information-processing requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) A tablet is a pen-based computer that provides the screen capabilities of a PDA with the functional capabilities of a laptop or desktop computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) An appliance is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or computer game. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

104) A desktop computer is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special reading device. Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) A workstation is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos, email, and includes many features of a PDA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Personal digital assistant (PDA) is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar. The PDA screen is touch-sensitive, allowing a user to write directly on the screen, capturing what is written. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) A handheld computer portable enough to fit in a purse or pocket and has its own power source or battery. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) A desktop computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power source or battery. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

109) A tablet computer has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead of a keyboard. Similar to PDAs, tablet PCs use a writing pen or stylus to write notes on the screen and touch the screen to perform functions such as clicking on a link while visiting a website. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) A personal computer is a computer that is operated by a single user who can customize the functions to match personal preferences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) A desktop computer sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry around. The computer box is where the CPU, RAM, and storage devices are held with a monitor on top, or a vertical system box (called a tower) usually placed on the floor within a work area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) A workstation computer is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) A minicomputer is designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 29

114) A common type of minicomputer is a server and is used for managing internal company applications, networks, and websites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) A mainframe computer is designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment. Mainframe computers are a step up in size, power, capability, and cost from minicomputers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) A supercomputer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer. Organizations such as NASA that are heavily involved in research and number crunching employ supercomputers because of the speed with which they can process information. Other large, customer-oriented businesses such as General Motors and AT&T employ supercomputers just to handle customer information and transaction processing. ⊚ ⊚

117)

Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. ⊚ ⊚

118)

true false

Disk optimization software helps save information if a computer crashes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

119) System software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software. System software includes both operating system software and utility software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Operating system software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together. When using Excel to create and print a graph, the operating system software controls the process, ensures that a printer is attached and has paper, and sends the graph to the printer along with instructions on how to print it. Some computers are configured with two operating systems so they can dual boot— provide the user with the option of choosing the operating system when the computer is turned on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Application software is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose. ⊚ ⊚

122)

true false

An iPod has a single-purpose embedded operating system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Application software also supports a variety of useful features, one of which is multitasking.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

124) Multitasking allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time. Multitasking is used when creating a graph in Excel and simultaneously printing a word processing document. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. Utility software includes antivirus software, screen savers, and antispam software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Utility systems are customized by using the control panel, which is a Windows feature that provides options that set default values for the Windows operating system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) Safe mode occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities. ⊚ ⊚

128)

true false

System restore enables a user to return to the previous operating system. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

129)

Crash-proof software helps save information if a computer crashes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) Disk image is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling applications if a hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted. ⊚ ⊚

131)

A disk image organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way. ⊚ ⊚

132)

true false

Encrypt data protects confidential information from unauthorized eyes. ⊚ ⊚

133)

true false

File and data recovery software retrieves accidental deletion of photos or documents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

134) Preventative security software uses programs such as Window Washer, erases file histories, browser cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

135) Spyware removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the background without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission. ⊚ ⊚

136)

true false

Spyware can remove software that is no longer needed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

137) Personal information management (PIM) software handles contact information, appointments, task lists, and email. ⊚ ⊚

true false

138) Personal information management software contains course information such as a syllabus and assignments and offers drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book. ⊚ ⊚

true false

139) Course management software occurs when the software vendor releases updates to software to fix problems or enhance features. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 34

140) Software upgrade occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the software making significant changes to the program. ⊚ ⊚

141)

A single user license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time. ⊚ ⊚

142)

true false

A network user license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

143) A site license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software, regardless if the computer is on a network. Some employees might install the software on a home computer for working remotely. ⊚ ⊚

true false

144) Application service provider licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or peruse basis or usage-based licensing. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

145) Communication turns a computer into a terminal for transmitting data to and receiving data from distant computers through the telephone system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

146) Desktop publishing transforms a computer into a desktop publishing workstation. Leading packages include Adobe FrameMaker, Adobe PageMaker, and QuarkXpress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

147) Email provides email services for computer users, including receiving mail, sending mail, and storing messages. Leading email software includes Microsoft Outlook, Microsoft Outlook Express, and Eudora. ⊚ ⊚

true false

148) Desktop publishing increases the cooperation and joint productivity of small groups of co-workers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

149) Presentation graphics create and enhance charts and graphs so that they are visually appealing and easily understood by an audience. A full-features presentation graphics package such as Lotus Freelance. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

150) Graphics or Microsoft PowerPoint includes facilities for making a wide variety of charts and graphs and for adding titles, legends, and explanatory text anywhere in the chart or graph. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix A_8e 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) C Version 1

33) B 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) B 57) A 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) B Version 1

63) D 64) B 65) D 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) D 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE Version 1

93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) FALSE 122) TRUE Version 1

123) FALSE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE 126) FALSE 127) TRUE 128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) TRUE 131) FALSE 132) TRUE 133) TRUE 134) TRUE 135) TRUE 136) FALSE 137) TRUE 138) FALSE 139) FALSE 140) TRUE 141) TRUE 142) TRUE 143) TRUE 144) TRUE 145) TRUE 146) TRUE 147) TRUE 148) FALSE 149) TRUE 150) TRUE

Version 1

APPENDIX B 1)

Compare LANs, WANs, and MANs.

List and describe the four components that differentiate networks.

Compare the two types of network architectures.

Explain topology and the different types found in networks.

Version 1

Describe TCP/IP along with its primary purpose.

Identify the different media types found in networks

What is a telecommunications system?

A) enables the transmission of data over public or private networks B) a communications, data exchange, and resource-sharing system created by linking two or more computers and establishing standards, or protocols, so that they can work together C) any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations D) a computer that is designed to request information from a server

Which of the following is not one of the differentiating factors of a network? A) architecture B) topology C) protocols D) telecommunication system

Version 1

What is a network?

10) What is designed to connect a group of computers in close proximity to each other such as in an office building, a school, or a home? A) local area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network

11)

What spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province, or country? A) local area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network

12)

What is a large computer network usually spanning a city?

Version 1

A) client/server network B) corporate network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network

13)

What is a peer-to-peer network?

14)

What is a client?

15) What runs a network, steering information between computers and managing security and users?

Version 1

A) client B) server C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

16)

What is a computer that is designed to request information from a server? A) client B) packet-switching C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

17) What occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer? A) client B) packet-switching C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

18)

What is a router?

Version 1

A) occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer B) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination C) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network D) a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients

19)

What is a client/server network?

20)

What is packet-switching?

Version 1

21)

What is interoperability?

A) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination B) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network C) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers

22)

What is network topology?

Version 1

23)

Which of the following is not a network topology? A) bus B) ring C) ethernet D) star

24)

Which of the following represents the bus topology?

A) All devices are connected to a central cable or backbone. B) All devices are connected to a central device, called a hub. C) All devices are connected to one another in the shape of a closed loop, so that each device is connected directly to two other devices, one on either side of it. D) Groups of star-configured workstations are connected to a linear bus backbone cable.

25)

Which of the following represents the ring topology?

26)

What is a protocol?

Version 1

27) What allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

28)

What allows the management of networked nodes to be managed from a single point? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

29)

What is TCP/IP’s own messaging system for email?

Version 1

A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

30)

What allows web browsers and servers to send and receive web pages? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

31) What refers to a type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wires twisted around each other within a plastic sheath? A) twisted-pair cable B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

32)

Which of the following represents the TCP/IP four-layer reference model? A) Application, Internet, Transport, Network Interfaces B) Application, Internet, Network Interfaces, Transport C) Application, Transport, Internet, Network Interfaces D) Application, Network Interfaces, Internet, Transport

33)

How many layers does the OSI model contain?

Version 1

A) four B) seven C) ten D) eleven

34)

Which of the following is not a commonly used type of guided media? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

35)

What refers to the various types of media used to carry the signal between computers? A) twisted-pair wiring B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

36) What is transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to a narrow path and will behave predictably? A) wire media B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

Version 1

37) What refers to a type of cable composed of four copper wires twisted around each other within a plastic sheath? A) twisted-pair wiring B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

38)

What is cable that can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

39) What refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

40) What refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber?

Version 1

A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) wireless media

41) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) Telecommunication systems enable the transmission of data over public or private networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) A network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology by which they can communicate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province, or country. WANs often connect multiple smaller networks, such as local area networks or metropolitan area networks. The world’s most popular WAN is the Internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

45) A MAN is a set of communication rules to make sure that everyone speaks the same language. ⊚ ⊚

true false

46) A WAN is a card that plugs into the back (or side) of your computers and lets them send and receive messages from other computers. ⊚ ⊚

47)

Cable is the medium to connect all of the computers. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

Topology includes peer-to-peer networks and client/server networks. ⊚ ⊚

50)

true false

A hub (switch or router) is the hardware to perform traffic control. ⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

Protocols includes bus, star, ring, hybrid, and wireless.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Architecture includes Ethernet and Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Media includes coaxial, twisted-pair, and fiber-optic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) A peer-to-peer (P2P) network is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) A server is a computer designed to request information from a server. A server is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) A peer-to-peer network is a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 15

56) A network operating system (NOS) is the operating system that runs a network, steering information between computers and managing security and users. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Packet-switching occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently sized units of data called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) A router is an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) A network topology refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers (and other network devices) in a network. Topologies vary depending on cost and functionality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) A protocol is a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

61) A protocol is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

A WAN is a physical and data layer technology for LAN networking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access network services. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

The application layer handles end-to-end packet transportation. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

66) The transport layer formats the data into packets, adds a header containing the packet sequence and the address of the receiving device, and specifies the services required from the network. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

The network interface layer places data packets on the network for transmission. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is TCP/IP’s own messaging system for email. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) FTP provides terminal emulation that allows a personal computer or workstation to act as a terminal, or access device, for a server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) allows web browsers and servers to send and receive web pages.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) allows networked nodes to be managed from a single point. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Network transmission media refers to the various types of media used to carry the signal between computers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Wireless media are transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to a narrow path and will behave predictably. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Coaxial cable refers to a type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wires twisted around each other within a plastic sheath. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Twisted-pair cable can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss. It consists of a metallic shield with a single wire placed along the center of a shield and isolated from the shield by an insulator.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Fiber-optic (or optical fiber) refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix B_8e 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C Version 1

33) B 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE Version 1

63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE

Version 1

APPENDIX C 1) What is a technique for documenting the entities and relationships in a database environment? A) entity-relationship diagram B) data model C) database D) relational database model

Which of the following is a type of attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

What has only a single value of each attribute of an entity? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

What has the potential to contain more than one value for an attribute?

Version 1

A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

What kind of attribute can be calculated using the value of another attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute

6) What kind of attribute is assigned to an attribute when no other value applies or when a value is unknown? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) null-valued attribute

What kind of attribute would be date of birth? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute

Version 1

What kind of attribute would be age? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute

What kind of attribute would be given for a person who does not have an email address? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) single-valued attribute D) stored attribute

10)

What is a statement that defines an aspect of a business? A) attribute B) entity C) business relational diagram D) business rule

11)

Which of the following is a possible business rule? A) A customer can purchase many DVDs. B) DVDs can be purchased by many customers. C) A DVD title can have many copies. D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

12)

Which of the following statements is accurate?

A) A correct business rule for one organization may not be correct for another organization. B) Each business rule will have entities and sometimes even attributes. C) A typical business may have hundreds of business rules. D) All of the answers are correct.

13) What occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to only one instance of a related entity? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

14)

What occurs when two entities can be related to each other in many instances? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

15) What occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to many instances of a related entity?

Version 1

A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

16)

What exists to represent the relationship between two other entities? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

17)

What expresses the specific number of instances in an entity? A) cardinality B) composite entity C) business rule D) null-valued attribute

18)

What is a characteristic of a table? A) field B) table C) record D) key

19)

What is composed of rows and columns that represent an entity?

Version 1

A) field B) table C) record D) key

20)

What is a collection of related data elements? A) field B) table C) record D) key

21)

What is a primary key?

A) a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables C) a table that uniquely identifies a given record in a field D) a foreign key of one table that appears as an entity in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two records

22)

What is a foreign key?

Version 1

23)

A primary key is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) A foreign key is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

A field is composed of rows and columns that represent an entity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) A one-to-many relationship occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to only one instance of a related entity. ⊚ ⊚

27)

true false

Date of birth would be a stored attribute. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix C_8e 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) TRUE

Version 1

APPENDIX D 1) Organizations anticipate, forecast, and assess future events using a variety of rational, scientific methods including A) trend analysis. B) trend monitoring. C) trend projection. D) All of the answers are correct.

What is trend analysis?

A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine “what if” analysis.

What is trend monitoring?

Version 1

What is trend projection?

What is historical analysis?

A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Historical events are studied to anticipate the outcome of current developments.

6) All of the following are scientific methods organizations use to anticipate, forecast, and assess the future except A) computer simulation. B) historical analysis. C) trend analysis. D) trend simulation.

Version 1

Which of the following is not one of the top reasons organizations should study trends? A) generate current revenue B) gain confidence C) generate ideas D) beat the competition

8) All of the following are countries expected to have the largest increases in population between 2000 and 2050 except A) Palestinian Territory. B) India. C) Democratic Republic of the Congo. D) Yemen.

9) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from the world’s population doubling in the next 40 years? A) Developed nations will begin to increase immigration limits. B) Developed nations will find that retirees will have to remain on the job to remain competitive. C) Global agriculture will be required to supply as much food as has been produced during all of human history. D) The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology.

10) On average, how many years longer does each generation live than the previous in the United States?

Version 1

A) one B) two C) three D) four

11)

What are the life expectancies for men and women in many developed countries? A) over 65 years for males and over 75 years for females B) over 80 years for males and over 75 years for females C) over 75 years for males and over 80 years for females D) over 75 years for males and over 75 years for females

12) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from people in developed countries living longer? A) global demand for elderly products will grow B) global demand for elderly services will grow C) the cost of health care will decrease D) pharmaceutical companies will be pushed for advances in geriatric medicine

13)

What kind of society is being created by the growth in information industries? A) knowledge-independent global society B) knowledge-dependent global society C) knowledge-independent local society D) knowledge-dependent local society

Version 1

14) Which of the following is not a potential business impact created by the growth in information industries? A) top managers must be computer-literate B) knowledge workers are generally higher paid C) entry-level positions will require less education D) downsizing will continue

15)

Why is the global economy becoming more integrated? A) relaxed borders in the European Union B) the Internet C) international outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct.

16)

Which of the following is one of the primary reasons for the increase in Internet use? A) reorganization B) connectivity technology C) organizational restructuring D) All of the answers are correct.

17)

All of the following jobs will be increasingly performed by robots except A) mundane commercial and service jobs. B) environmentally dangerous jobs. C) the repair of inaccessible equipment such as space stations. D) jobs performed by scientists, engineers, and technicians.

Version 1

18) What does 50 percent of what a student learns about innovative technology in their freshman year of college become by their senior year? A) obsolete B) revised C) taken for granted D) All of the answers are correct.

19)

What percentage will all of today’s technical knowledge represent in 2050? A) one B) ten C) twenty D) fifty

20)

How long does a product’s entire life cycle last today? A) 4 weeks B) 40 weeks C) 4 months D) 4 years

21) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Companies must take an active role in helping their employees balance their time at work with their family lives and need for leisure.

Version 1

A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

22) Which trend has the following potential business impact? The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

23) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Demand for personnel in distant countries will increase the need for foreign language training, employee incentives suited to other cultures, and many other aspects of performing business globally. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

24) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Top managers must be computer-literate to retain their jobs and achieve success.

Version 1

A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

25) What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and also to learn? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

26) What is software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge or representation of the user’s goals or desires? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

27) What is the network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network, and increasingly advanced threats targeting enterprises?

Version 1

A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

28) What is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body’s autonomic nervous system? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

29) What is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

30) What includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

Version 1

31) What is a world where interconnected Internet-enabled devices or “things” have the ability to collect and share data without human intervention? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

32) What is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

33) Trend analysis is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) Trend projection is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

35)

The world’s population will double in the next 20 years. ⊚ ⊚

36)

true false

People in undeveloped countries are living longer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

37) The ambient digital experience is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) Biological 3D printing includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

39) The Information of Everything (IoE) is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

40) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a concept with emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

41) Real-time adaptive computing is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body’s autonomic nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix D_8e 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE

Version 1

APPENDIX E 1)

Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) LAN, WAN, SAN B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) LAN, SAN, XAN D) LAN, WAN, XAN

Which of the following includes the three primary network access technologies? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

Which of the following includes the three primary network providers? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) ISP, NSP, RSP

Which of the following includes the three forms of primary network convergence? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

Version 1

Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

Which of the following includes the three primary network protocols? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

7) What is a large computer network usually spanning a city or a specific infrastructure like a college? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

8) What spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country, similar to the Internet?

Version 1

A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

9) What connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in a school or office setting? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

10)

What are the five elements that are needed to create a connected world or a network? A) categories, programs, alternatives, people, and core philosophy B) program, providers, access, mechanics, and teachers C) categories, providers, access technologies, protocols, and convergence D) LAN, WAN, MAN, PAN, and SAN

11) LANs, WANs, and MANs all provide users with an accessible and reliable network infrastructure. Which of the below are the most important network differentiating dimensions? A) reliability and timing B) confidentiality and performance C) security and cost D) cost and performance

Version 1

12) What is the largest and most important network that has evolved into a global information superhighway? A) Internet B) Intranet C) Extranet D) LAN

13)

Which of the below offers a common example of a LAN? A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) All of the answers are correct.

14)

Which of the below offers an example of a WAN? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the City of Denver’s Court and Police Departments D) All of the answers are correct,

15)

Which of the below offers a common example of a WAN?

Version 1

A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) the Internet

16)

Which of the below offers an example of a LAN? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the City of Denver’s Court and Police Departments D) college campus

17)

Which of the below is a WAN? A) home office B) business office C) college dorm room D) the Internet

18) The Internet is a hierarchical structure linking different levels of service providers whose millions of devices supply all the interconnections. The three levels outlined in the book from the top down include A) new system provider (NSP), current system provider (CSP), and order entry system provider (OSP). B) national service provider (NSP), regional service provider (RSP), and Internet service provider (ISP). C) net server point (NSP), radio server point (RSP), and Internet server point (ISP). D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

19) What measures network performance by the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time? A) bandwidth B) frequency C) access D) protocol

20)

The speed of transmission of a network is determined by the speed of its smallest A) unit of time. B) number of computers. C) amount of bandwidth. D) number of customers.

21)

What is a device that enables a computer to transmit and receive data? A) broadband B) modem C) bandwidth D) ISP

22) Which of the following terms refers to the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1?

Version 1

A) bit B) bandwidth C) modem D) Internet Protocol

23)

What measures bandwidth in terms of numbers transferred or received per unit of time? A) connection time B) broadband C) protocol D) bit rate

24) What is a high-speed Internet connection that is always connected and has a bandwidth greater than 2 Mbps? A) analog B) dial-up C) broadband D) protocol

25)

What are the two most prevalent types of broadband access? A) data subscriber and cable connection B) digital subscriber line and cable connection C) digital line and client line D) digital server and client server

Version 1

26) Which of the following allows high-speed digital data transmission over standard telephone lines? A) digital subscriber line (DSL) B) data subscription service (DSS) C) dominance service line (DSL) D) data converter input (DCI)

27) Which of the following provides Internet access using a cable television company’s infrastructure and a special cable modem? A) ISP cable box B) Internet cable connection C) Satellite cable box D) Satellite cable connection

28)

Which of the below allows a user to access the Internet? A) dial-up connection B) cable C) T1 line D) All of the answers are correct.

29) Which of the following is a type of data connection able to transmit a digital signal at 1.544 Mpbs and is more expensive and reliable than cable or DSL?

Version 1

A) T1 line B) dial-up line C) modem line D) All of the answers are correct.

30) What is the standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) protocol D) transmission record

31) What is the standard Internet protocol, which provides the technical foundation for the public Internet? A) data streaming and DSL protocols B) transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) C) data streaming rules and regulations D) Internet protocol/transmission control protocol (IP/TCP)

32)

How do TCP and IP differ?

A) TCP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where IP verifies the data are sent to the correct IP address. B) TCP verifies the information is reliable, and IP verifies that the data is sent. C) IP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where TCP verifies the data are sent to the correct IP address. D) IP verifies connectivity, and TCP verifies the rate at which the data is sent.

Version 1

33) What is the conversion of IP addresses that identifies labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions? A) domain grades B) URL spaces C) domain national sequences (DNS) D) domain name system (DNS)

34)

Which domain is reserved for U.S. government agencies? A) .info B) .USA C) .gov D) .US

35) Which domain is the most common and reserved for commercial organizations and businesses? A) .net B) .com C) .biz D) .org

36)

Which domain is reserved for accredited postsecondary institutions?

Version 1

A) .mil B) .edu C) .biz D) .org

37)

Which domain is reserved for the U.S. military? A) .mil B) .gov C) .org D) .age

38) What is the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures? A) network protocol B) networking category C) network convergence D) network communication

39)

What is a benefit of network convergence? A) the weaving together of voice, data, and video B) multiple services offered from a single vendor C) multiple devices supported by one provider D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

40)

What is a benefit of network convergence? A) the uncoupling of voice, data, and video service B) multiple services offered from several different vendors C) multiple devices supported by one provider D) All of the answers are correct.

41)

What is the integration of communication channels into a single service? A) instant communication B) unified communication C) peer-to-peer communication D) voice over communication

42)

What is VoIP? A) VoIP uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. B) VoIP offers the low cost ability to receive personal and business calls via computer. C) VoIP offers the ability to have more than one phone number. D) VoIP offers all of these.

43) What is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server? A) peer-to-peer (P2P) B) Voice over IP (VoIP) C) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV) D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

44)

Which of the below is an example of P2P? A) GoDaddy B) Skype C) Federal Communication Commission (FCC) D) Facebook

45)

Which statement below is inaccurate in reference to domain names? A) domain names are rented B) domain names are owned C) domain names are renewable D) GoDaddy is a popular domain name registrar

46)

What can unified communications merge? A) IMing B) videoconferencing C) voice mail D) All of the answers are correct.

47)

Which of the below statements is inaccurate in reference to unified communications? A) UC decreases communication costs. B) UC enhances the way individuals communicate. C) UC enhances the way individuals collaborate. D) UC increases communication expenses.

Version 1

48)

VoIP allows users to A) call anyone with a local telephone number. B) call anyone with an international telephone number. C) call anyone with a cellular telephone number. D) All of the answers are correct.

49)

What is a benefit of VoIP? A) lowers costs B) clear connection C) higher expenses D) All of the answers are correct.

50) What distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks? A) Internet broadband policy network B) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV) C) Internet Television Interactivity (ITVI) D) Internet television personalization

51)

What is a feature of IPTV?

Version 1

A) IPTV uses low bandwidth. B) IPTV offers personalization. C) IPTV supports multiple devices. D) All of the answers are correct.

52) What is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

53) What technology makes possible high-speed Internet access over ordinary residential electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

54) What represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

Version 1

55)

What receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

56) What allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data? A) telecommuting B) repeater C) packet header D) virtual attenuation

57)

What is a single unit of binary data routed through a network? A) packet B) traceroute packet C) packet header D) packet footer

58) Which formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet footer?

Version 1

A) attenuation B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

59) What lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

60)

What represents the end of the packet or transmission end? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

61) What is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

Version 1

62) What represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

63)

What is traceroute?

A) a single unit of binary data routed through a network B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer

64)

What is a packet?

65)

What is a packet header?

Version 1

66)

What is a packet footer?

67)

What are standard packet formats? A) include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet

footer B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer

68)

What is a proxy?

Version 1

A) software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons B) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission C) a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet D) a standard Internet protocol that provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks

69)

What is a protocol?

70)

What is a file transfer protocol (FTP)?

Version 1

71)

What is transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP)?

72)

What is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?

A) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP address to use the network B) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions C) the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures D) the integration of communication channels into a single service

73)

What is domain name system (DNS)?

Version 1

74)

What is network convergence?

75)

What is unified communications (UC)?

76)

What is voice over IP (VoIP)?

A) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls B) a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server C) distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks D) the integration of communication channels into a single service

77)

What is peer-to-peer (P2P)?

Version 1

78)

What is Internet Protocol TV (IPTV)?

79) What is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internetlike environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, and web publishing? A) national ISP B) regional ISP C) intranet D) extranet

80)

What is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders? A) national ISP B) regional ISP C) intranet D) extranet

Version 1

81)

An extranet is not available for use by a(n) A) customer. B) supplier. C) employee. D) competitor.

82)

What is a VPN?

A) a direct network provider using a company server B) a direct private network that creates a “private tunnel” within the Internet to connect to the corporate server C) a direct URL that creates a private tunnel for a company D) a direct P2p that creates an open access community for a company

83)

Why would a company use an intranet? A) Intranets are used for business operations and management. B) Intranets are used for communications and collaboration. C) Intranets are used for web publishing. D) All of the answers are correct.

84)

The network categories include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

85)

The network providers include ISP, NSP, and RSP. ⊚ ⊚

86)

The network access technologies include DSL, cable modem, and broadband. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

The network categories include ISP, NSP, and RSP. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Network convergence includes VoIP, UC, and IPTV. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

The network protocols include TCP/IP, FTP, and DHCP. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

The network providers include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

91)

The network access technologies include VoIP, UC, and IPTV. ⊚ ⊚

92)

The network protocols include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

Network convergence includes TCP/IP and FTP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) A wide area network (WAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

97) A metropolitan area network (MAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Attenuation represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

A repeater receives and repeats a signal to reduce its attenuation and extend its range. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

A local area network (LAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 27

102)

Network convergence is the integration of communication channels into a single service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) A domain name system (DNS) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. A LAN also often connects to other LANs, and to wide area networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. Perhaps the best example is the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Broadband over power line (BPL) technology makes possible high-speed Internet access over ordinary residential electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

107) A repeater represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals. ⊚ ⊚

108)

A repeater receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Attenuation is a single unit of binary data routed through a network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Packets directly impact network performance and reliability by subdividing an electronic message into smaller more manageable packets. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

112) Traceroute formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet footer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) The packet header lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) The packet footer represents the end of the packet or transmission end. The packet header and packet footer contain error-checking information to ensure the entire message is sent and received. The receiving device reassembles the individual packets into the original by stripping off the headers and footers and then piecing together the packets in the correct sequence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Dynamic host configuration protocol is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Telecommuting (virtual workforce) allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

117)

IP address is a unique number that identifies where computers are located on the network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) IP address is a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP address to use the network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) A proxy is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons. ⊚ ⊚

121)

true false

Voice over IP (VoIP) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) Peer-to-peer (P2P) is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV), which distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks. ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

Peer-to-peer uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Voice over IP is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) A repeater distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) An intranet is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internet-like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, Web publishing, and the support of business processes. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 32

128) An extranet is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders, such as customers, partners, and suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) Companies can establish direct private network links among themselves or create private, secure Internet access, in effect a private tunnel within the Internet, called a virtual private network (VPN). ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) An extranet is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internet-like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, Web publishing, and the support of business processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) An intranet is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders, such as customers, partners, and suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

132) Companies can establish direct private network links among themselves or create private, secure Internet access, in effect a private tunnel within the Internet, called an extranet. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

133) VPNs are often used to connect to a corporate server. VPN stands for a Valued Partner Network. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix E_8e 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) B 78) C 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) B 83) D 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) TRUE Version 1

117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) FALSE 125) FALSE 126) FALSE 127) TRUE 128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) FALSE 131) FALSE 132) FALSE 133) FALSE

Version 1

APPENDIX F 1) What types of BI decisions include predicting sales, determining correct inventory levels and distribution schedules among outlets, and loss prevention? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

2) What types of BI decisions include forecasting levels of bad loans and fraudulent credit card use, credit card spending by new customers, and which kinds of customers will best respond to new loan offers? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

3) What types of BI decisions include predicting machinery failures and finding key factors that control optimization of manufacturing capacity? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

4) What types of BI decisions include forecasting claim amounts, medical coverage costs, classifying the most important elements that affect medical coverage to predicting which customers will buy new insurance policies?

Version 1

A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

Which of the following can use BI to make informed decisions? A) law enforcement industry B) airline industry C) broadcasting industry D) All of the answers are correct.

6) Which of the following is a result of implementing business intelligence systems and tools allowing business users to receive data for analysis? A) reliable B) understandable C) easily manipulated D) All of the answers are correct.

7) Which of the following is the result of BI that implies that the data have been documented as the certified or approved data for the enterprise? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

Version 1

8) Which of the following is the result of BI that the processes that deliver the data to the business community are well documented and there are no surprises such as missing or inaccurate data? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

9) Which of the following is the result of BI that the data have been defined in business terms and calculations and algorithms are easily accessed for comprehension? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

10) Which of the following is the result of BI that it is no longer required to have a PhD in statistics to get sophisticated analytics delivered to users’ fingertips? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

11) What do organizations using BI ask to find the root causes to problems and provide solutions?

Version 1

A) what B) when C) where D) why

12)

Which type of BI manages daily operations and integrates BI with operational systems? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

13)

Which type of BI conducts short-term analysis to achieve strategic goals? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

14)

Which type of BI achieves long-term organizational goals? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

15)

Which form of BI has managers and analysts as its primary users?

Version 1

A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

16)

Which form of BI uses the time frame of days to weeks to months? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

17)

Which form of BI uses real-time metrics for its data? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

18)

Which form of BI uses months to years as its time frame? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

19)

What is data latency?

Version 1

A) the time duration to make data ready for analysis and loading the data into the database B) the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete C) the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic results and determine an appropriate action D) All of the answers are correct.

20)

What is analysis latency?

21)

What is decision latency?

22) What is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone?

Version 1

A) data integrity B) data mart analysis C) data mining D) data extraction

23)

What are the two main objectives associated with data mining? A) uncovering tactics and plans B) uncovering trends and patterns C) uncovering intelligence and unstructured data issues D) uncovering competitors and market advantages

24) Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A) data analysis tools B) electronic analysis tools C) data-mining tools D) data integrity tools

25)

Which of the following is not a common form of data-mining analysis? A) division organization B) classification C) estimation D) clustering

Version 1

26) Which of the following forms of data mining assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes? A) clustering B) classification C) estimation D) affinity grouping

27) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible? A) statistical detection B) cluster analysis C) association detection D) social media analytics

28) What is an example of using cluster analysis in business to create target-marketing strategies? A) Google search B) first name information C) ZIP code segmentation D) last name associations

29) Which of the following reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship?

Version 1

A) association detection B) masking detection tool C) cluster grouping D) blocking barriers

30) What is a common association detection analysis technique in which you analyze certain items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior? A) clustering factors B) mashup technology C) market basket analysis D) drill-down basket analysis

31)

What is prediction?

A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables

32)

What is optimization?

Version 1

33)

What are forecasts?

34)

What is regression?

35) What is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover?

Version 1

A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

36) What is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

37)

What are predictions based on time-series information? A) predictions B) optimizations C) forecasts D) regression

38)

What is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

Version 1

39)

What is classification? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

40)

What is estimation? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

41)

What is being accomplished by affinity grouping? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

42)

What does clustering accomplish?

Version 1

A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

43)

What assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

44) What determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

45)

What determines which things go together? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

Version 1

46)

What segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

47)

What is data mining?

A) the common term for the representation of multidimensional information B) a particular attribute of information C) using a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information and infer rules from them that predict future behavior and guide decision making D) the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone

48) What is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone? A) data integrity B) data mart analysis C) data mining D) data extraction

49)

What are the two main objectives associated with data mining?

Version 1

A) uncovering tactics and plans B) uncovering trends and patterns C) uncovering intelligence and unstructured data issues D) uncovering competitors and market advantages

50) Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A) data analysis tools B) electronic analysis tool C) data-mining tools D) data integrity tools

51)

Which of the following is not a common form of data-mining analysis? A) division organization B) classification C) estimation D) clustering

52) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible? A) statistical detection B) cluster analysis C) association detection D) social media analytics

Version 1

53) What is an example of using cluster analysis in business to create target-marketing strategies? A) Google search B) first name information C) ZIP code segmentation D) last name associations

54) Which of the below reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship? A) affinity grouping analysis B) masking detection tool C) cluster grouping D) blocking barriers

55) What is a common association detection analysis technique where you analyze certain items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior? A) clustering factors B) mashup technology C) market basket analysis D) drill-down basket analysis

56)

What is prediction?

Version 1

57)

What is optimization?

58)

What are forecasts?

59)

What is regression?

Version 1

60) What is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

61) What is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

62)

What are predictions based on time-series information?

Version 1

A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

63)

What is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

64)

What is estimation? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determine which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

65)

What is being accomplished by affinity grouping? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determine which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

Version 1

66) What determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

67)

What determines which things go together? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

68)

What is data mining?

A) the common term for the representation of multidimensional information B) a particular attribute of information C) uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information and infer rules from them that predict future behavior and guide decision making D) process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone

69)

Which of the following is a business benefit of BI?

Version 1

A) single point of access to information for managers only B) BI available to financial organizational departments only C) up-to-the minute information for everyone D) All of the answers are correct.

70)

Which of the following is one of the four main categories of BI benefits? A) quantifiable benefits B) predictable benefits C) tangible benefits D) All of the answers are correct.

71) Which type of BI benefits includes working time saved in producing reports and selling information to suppliers? A) quantifiable benefits B) predictable benefits C) tangible benefits D) All of the answers are correct.

72)

Which type of BI benefits are the results of discoveries made by creative users? A) quantifiable benefits B) indirectly quantifiable benefits C) unpredictable benefits D) intangible benefits

Version 1

73) Which type of BI benefits includes improved communication throughout the enterprise, improved job satisfaction of empowered users, and improved knowledge sharing? A) quantifiable benefits B) indirectly quantifiable benefits C) unpredictable benefits D) intangible benefits

74)

Improving the quality of business decisions has a direct impact on costs and revenue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Affinity grouping analysis reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Sensitivity analysis, what-if analysis, return on investment, and market basket analysis are the common DSS analysis techniques. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Affinity grouping analysis is a technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

78)

A pivot rotates data to display alternative presentations of the data. ⊚ ⊚

79)

A consolidation rotates data to display alternative presentations of the data. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Digital dashboards offer consolidation, drill-down, and slice-and-dice capabilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Time-series information is time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. It includes many techniques for modeling and analyzing several variables when the focus is on the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Regression is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Prediction is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Regression is a prediction based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 24

89)

Optimization is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

Affinity grouping determines which things go together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Association detection reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Association detection is a technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

94)

Data mining occurs on structured data that are already in a database or a spreadsheet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

97)

Time-series information is time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. It includes many techniques for modeling and analyzing several variables when the focus is on the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Regression is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Prediction is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

102)

Regression is a prediction based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Optimization is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Classification assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

105) Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

106)

Clustering segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

Clustering assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Affinity grouping determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

109)

Estimation determines which things go together. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Classification segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Data-mining tools use a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Affinity determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Estimation determines which things go together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Data-mining tools use a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Quantifiable benefits, indirectly quantifiable benefits, unpredictable benefits, and intangible benefits are the four primary categories of BI benefits. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

116) Data latency is the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete. ⊚ ⊚

117)

true false

The three forms of BI include operational, tactical, and value-added. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix F_8e 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) B 67) C 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE Version 1

87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE Version 1

117) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 1 1) Describe the information age and the differences between data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge.

2) Identify the different departments in a company and why they must work together to achieve success.

Explain the concept of data silos and provide an example of their effect on a company.

4) Define the six primary MIS-related strategic positions in an organization along with their associated responsibilities.

Version 1

5) Explain systems thinking and how management information systems enable business communications.

Explain why competitive advantages are temporary.

Describe Porter’s Five Forces Model and explain each of the five forces.

Compare Porter’s three generic strategies.

Version 1

Demonstrate how a company can add value by using Porter’s value chain analysis.

10)

Explain a digital value chain and explain how it benefits a company.

11)

Which of the following is NOT considered a core driver of the information age? A) information B) business intelligence C) competitive facts D) data

12)

Which of the following is NOT considered a core driver of the information age? A) information B) business intelligence C) knowledge D) variables

Version 1

13)

Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age? A) fact B) goods C) competitive intelligence D) data

14)

Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age? A) business analytics B) unstructured data C) analytics D) knowledge

15)

Why do students need to study management information systems? A) Management information systems are everywhere in business. B) Management information systems are rarely discussed in business. C) Management information systems are rarely used in organizations. D) Management information systems are found in only a few businesses.

16)

What is the confirmation or validation of an event or object? A) fact B) data C) data scientist D) business intelligence

Version 1

17) The age we live in has infinite quantities of facts that are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. What is this age called? A) data age B) information age C) business intelligence age D) data scientist age

18) Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of selling books? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

19) Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of renting videos? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

20) Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of selling shoes?

Version 1

A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

21)

What is data?

A) raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object B) data converted into a meaningful and useful context C) information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making D) skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources

22)

What is information?

23)

What is business intelligence?

Version 1

24)

What is knowledge?

25)

Which of the following is considered information? A) quantity sold B) date sold C) best-selling item by month D) product sold

26)

Which of the following is considered data? A) quantity sold B) best customer by month C) best-selling item by month D) worst-selling item by month

Version 1

27) Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of a piece of data Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) compare the costs of supplies, including energy, over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

28) Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of the type of information Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) Flour Power is supplier number 8745643. C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

29) Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of knowledge that Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job?

Version 1

A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) Flour Power is supplier number 8745643. C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

30) Data is useful for understanding individual sales, but to gain deeper insight into a business, data needs to be turned into information. Which of the following offers an example of turning data into information? A) Who are my best customers? B) What is my best-selling product? C) What is my worst-selling product? D) All answers provide an example of turning data into information.

31)

Which of the following provides an example of information? A) Who is customer number 12345XX? B) What is product number 12345XX? C) What customer number is Bob Smith? D) What is my worst-selling product?

32)

Which of the following provides an example of data? A) Who are my best customers? B) What is my best-selling product? C) What is my worst-selling product? D) Who is customer number 12345XX?

Version 1

33) Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources. Which of the following provides an example of a source that would be included in business intelligence? A) supplier source systems B) customer source systems C) competitor source systems D) All of the answers are correct.

34)

Which of the following represents the core drives of the information age? A) data, information, business intelligence, knowledge B) fact, data, intelligence, experience C) fact, intelligence, business skills, knowledge D) data, intelligence, business information, knowledge

35)

Which of the following represents the definition of a variable?

A) a data characteristic that is collected through competitive intelligence and cannot change over time B) a data characteristic that stands for a value that changes or varies over time C) a data characteristic that stands for a value that does not change or vary over time D) a data characteristic that is collected only through competitive intelligence and can change over time

36) Today’s workers are referred to as________, and they use BI along with personal experience to make decisions based on both information and intuition, a valuable resource for any company.

Version 1

A) knowledge workers B) knowledge thinkers C) knowledge resources D) fact workers

37) What is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making? A) supplier’s intelligence B) social intelligence C) employee intelligence D) business intelligence

38) Information is data converted into useful, meaningful context. What are data characteristics that change or vary over time? A) facts B) variables C) supplies D) services

39)

What is data converted into a meaningful and useful context? A) competitive intelligence B) information C) buyer power D) first-mover advantage

Version 1

40) What is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention? A) Internet of Things B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) fourth industrial revolution

41)

What refers to devices that connect directly to other devices? A) information age B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) descriptive analytics

42) What extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns? A) Internet of Things B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) fourth industrial revolution

43)

What is the Internet of Things?

Version 1

A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

44)

Which of the following definitions describes machine-to-machine?

45)

What is predictive analytics?

A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) techniques that extract information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

46) Who collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions?

Version 1

A) business intelligence manager B) data scientist C) data worker D) data analyst

47)

What role does a data analyst perform?

A) collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions B) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information C) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions D) supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services

48)

What are the three key skills required for a data analyst? A) understanding of math and statistics B) coding skills to work with data C) business area subject matter expertise D) All of the answers are correct.

49)

What is the science of fact-based decision making? A) business intelligence B) information C) knowledge D) analytics

Version 1

50) What is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions? A) business analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

51)

What describes past performance and history? A) diagnostic analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

52) What extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns? A) diagnostic analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

53)

What creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take?

Version 1

A) diagnostics analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

54)

What are business analytics?

A) the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

55)

What are descriptive analytics?

A) examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?” B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

56)

What are diagnostic analytics?

Version 1

57)

What are predictive analytics?

58)

What are prescriptive analytics?

59)

What are the four primary areas of analytics? A) descriptive analytics, diagnostics analytics, predictive analytics, prescriptive analytics B) descriptive analytics, primary analytics, secondary analytics, response analytics C) descriptive analytics, diagnostics analytics, future analytics, past analytics D) technique analytics, diagnostics analytics, future analytics, past analytics

60)

What are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization?

Version 1

A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

61) What resides within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

62)

What helps harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) data analysts D) business analytics

63)

What helps acquire and catalog the knowledge assets in an organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

Version 1

64)

What data is created by a machine without human intervention? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) structured data D) facts

65)

What data is generated by humans in interaction with computers? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine D) big data

66)

What type of structured data includes sensor data, point-of-sale data, and web log data? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) collective intelligence D) systems thinking

67)

What type of structured data includes input data, click-stream data, or gaming data? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine (M2M) D) systems thinking

Version 1

68)

Which of the following describes structured data? A) data that has a defined length, type, and format B) data that includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address C) data that is typically stored in a relational database or spreadsheet D) All of the answers are correct.

69)

What refers to devices that connect directly to other devices? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine D) systems thinking

70)

What is the characteristic of unstructured data? A) does not follow a specified format B) free-form text C) emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages D) All of the answers are correct.

71)

Which of the following does not describe unstructured data? A) does not follow a specified format B) a defined length, type, and format C) free-form text D) emails, twitter tweets, and text messages

Version 1

72)

Which of the following does not describe structured data? A) data with a defined length B) emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages C) typically stored in a relational database or spreadsheet D) data with a defined format

73)

Which of the following represent machine-generated unstructured data? A) satellite images B) scientific atmosphere data C) radar data D) All of the answers are correct.

74)

Which of the following represent human-generated unstructured data? A) text messages B) social media data C) emails D) All of the answers are correct.

75)

Which of the following does not represent machine-generated unstructured data? A) satellite images B) radar data C) social media data D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

76)

Which of the following does not represent human-generated unstructured data? A) text messages B) social media data C) scientific atmosphere data D) All of the answers are correct.

77)

What is a snapshot?

A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) a view of data at a particular moment in time C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

78)

What is a view of data at a particular moment in time? A) knowledge B) big data C) snapshot D) unstructured data

79)

What is a report?

Version 1

A) a document containing data organized in a table, matrix, or graphical format allowing users to easily comprehend and understand information B) a collection of large complex datasets, including structured and unstructured, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools C) a view of data at a particular moment in time D) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention

80)

What type of report is created based on data that does not change? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

81)

What type of report changes automatically during creation? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

82) What type of report can include a sales report from last year or salary report from five years ago? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) unstructured report

Version 1

83) What type of report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

84) Who extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends? A) data scientist B) knowledge worker C) data analyst D) chief sustainability officer

85)

What area does a data scientist extract knowledge from to identify trends? A) statistical analysis B) data mining C) advanced analytics on big data D) All of the answers are correct.

86)

Which of the following terms is synonymous with analytics?

Version 1

A) data analyst B) business analytics C) structured data D) data scientist

87) What is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions? A) business analytics B) Internet of Things C) machine-to-machine D) big data

88)

Which of the following definitions represents a data scientist?

A) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information B) collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions C) individuals valued for their ability to interpret and analyze information D) All of the answers are correct.

89) Who extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information?

Version 1

A) data scientist B) data analyst C) data worker D) knowledge facilitator

90)

In terms of big data, what is variety? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

91)

In terms of big data, what is veracity? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

92)

In terms of big data, what is volume? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

93)

In terms of big data, what is velocity?

Version 1

A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

94)

In terms of big data, what includes different forms of structured and unstructured data? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

95) In terms of big data, what includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

96)

In terms of big data, what includes the scale of data? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

Version 1

97) In terms of big data, what includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

98) What is a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools? A) big data B) data scientist C) data analyst D) descriptive analytics

99)

What is big data?

A) a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools B) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment C) focuses on forecasting future trends and producing insights using sophisticated quantitative methods, including statistics, descriptive and predictive data mining, simulation, and optimization D) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information

Version 1

100) In Lou’s Pizza Planet Inc., each department works independently. The sales and marketing department focuses on providing goods and services to customers and maintains transactional data, the finance and accounting department focuses on managing the organization’s resources and maintains monetary data, and the human resources department focuses on hiring and training people and maintains employee data. In the context of how Lou’s functions, which of the following best describes the situation? A) data silos B) data democratization C) data digitization D) data science

101) What of the following terms describes a situation at a company when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units? A) data silos B) data democratization C) competitive advantage D) productivity

102)

How are most companies today typically organized? A) by departments or functional areas B) by departments or financial areas C) by degree or financial areas D) by manager or knowledge area

103)

How does a company operate if it wants to be successful in the information age?

Version 1

A) functionally independent between departments B) interdependently between departments C) together as one department with little or no independence D) each department acting as its own individual business unit

104) Most companies are typically organized by departments or functional areas. Which of the following is not a common department found in a company? A) accounting B) payroll C) marketing D) human resources

105)

The sales department needs to rely on information from operations to understand A) inventory. B) customer orders. C) demand forecasts. D) All of the answers are correct.

106) Which of the following is the department that maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees? A) human resources B) sales resources C) employee resources D) employee relations

Version 1

107) Greg works for Geneva Steel Corporation. Greg’s duties include managing the overall processes for the company and transforming the steel resources into goods. Which department would Greg most likely work in? A) accounting B) operations management C) marketing D) chief information officer

108) The department within a company that records, measures, and reports monetary transactions is called A) accounting. B) marketing. C) human resources. D) operations management.

109) The department within a company that performs the function of selling goods or services is called A) marketing. B) sales. C) finance. D) operations management.

110) The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is called

Version 1

A) sales. B) operations management. C) accounting. D) marketing.

111) Which department tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

112) Which department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

113)

Which department records, measures, and reports monetary transactions? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

Version 1

114) Which department maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) human resources

115)

Which activities belong in the accounting department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

116)

Which activities belong in the finance department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

117)

Which activities belong in the marketing department?

Version 1

A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

118)

Which activities belong in the sales department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

119)

Which activities belong in the human resources department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees

120)

Which activities belong in the operations management department?

Version 1

A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees

121)

Which data types are typically found in the marketing department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

122)

Which data types are typically found in the human resources department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

123)

Which data types are typically found in the finance department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

124)

Which data types are typically found in the accounting department?

Version 1

A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

125)

Which data types are typically found in the sales department? A) sales data, customer data, commission data, customer support data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

126)

Which data types are typically found in the operations management department? A) manufacturing data, distribution data, production data B) sales data, customer data, commission data, customer support data C) employee data, promotion data, vacation data D) investment data, monetary data, reporting data

127)

Which of the following describes the relationship between functional areas in a business? A) independent B) autonomous C) interdependent D) self-sufficient

Version 1

128) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the accounting department? A) tax data B) payroll data C) transactional data D) All of the answers are correct.

129) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the finance department? A) monetary data B) technology data C) production data D) employee data

130) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the human resource department? A) financial data B) technology data C) production data D) employee data

131) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the sales department?

Version 1

A) customer data B) sales report data C) commission data D) All of the answers are correct.

132) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the marketing department? A) promotional data B) payroll data C) tax data D) employee data

133) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the operations management department? A) monetary data B) payroll data C) production data D) employee data

134)

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

Version 1

135) Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

136) Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the management information systems? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

137) Who is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

138) Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses?

Version 1

A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

139) Trina Hauger works for Johnson Electric as a corporate lawyer, and part of her duties are to ensure the ethical and legal use of information within the company. Which of the following represents Trina’s role at Johnson Electric? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

140) The challenge that companies today sometimes have is that they are departmentalized into functions that act independently of each other. One solution that can help a company work________ includes management information systems. A) variables B) human resource data C) interdepartmentally D) resource information systems

141) Susan Stewart is an executive at Equity Title, where she is responsible for collecting, maintaining and distributing knowledge for the company. What is Susan’s role at Equity Title?

Version 1

A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief technology officer (CTO) C) chief information officer (CIO) D) chief security officer (CSO)

142)

What is the primary responsibility of the CTO? A) overseeing all uses of MIS B) ensuring the security of business systems C) ensuring speed, accuracy, and reliability for MIS D) collecting and distributing company information

143) Jeremy Bridges is an executive for Green Web Designs, where his primary role is to ensure the security of business systems and develop strategies to protect the company from online viruses and hackers. What is Jeremy’s role within the company? A) chief executive officer (CEO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief procurement officer (CPO) D) chief technology officer (CTO)

144) Which role within a company is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategic aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief information officer (CIO) D) chief security officer (CSO)

Version 1

145) Recently, 150 of the Fortune 500 companies added which of the following positions to their list of senior executives? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief data officer (CDO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

146) Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief data officer (CDO)

147) Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

148) Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses?

Version 1

A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

149)

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A) chief data officer (CDO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

150) Who is responsible for (1) overseeing all uses of MIS and (2) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief information officer (CIO) B) chief data officer (CDO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

151) Who is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share? A) chief information officer (CIO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief data officer (CDO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

Version 1

152) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief technology officer (CTO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

153) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief information officer (CIO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

154) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief privacy officer (CPO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

155) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief security officer (CSO)? Version 1

A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

156) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief data officer (CDO)? A) determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

157) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief knowledge officer (CKO)? A) determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share B) collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

158)

Which of the following executive levels might we see created over the next decade?

Version 1

A) chief intellectual property officer B) chief automation officer C) chief user experience officer D) All of the answers are correct.

159) The chief intellectual property officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

160) The chief automation officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

161) The chief user experience officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

Version 1

162)

Which of the following is not a broad function of a chief information officer? A) manager B) follower C) communicator D) leader

163)

What is the difference between the chief information officer and chief data officer?

A) the CIO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system; the CDO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed B) the CIO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed; the CDO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system C) their roles and relationships are identical D) All of the answers are correct.

164) What is the difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill business goals and strategies? A) off-site training B) MIS skills gap C) social recruiting D) information security

165)

In recruiting lingo, what are perfect MIS candidates sometimes called?

Version 1

A) turquoise turtles B) red rabbits C) purple squirrels D) white unicorns

166) Eric Eberly holds an executive position at Parker Industries. He has designed and implemented a system to collect, maintain, and share information across the many departments of Parker Industries. He’s also instilled an updating protocol requiring department heads to keep the system up-to-date. Based on this description, what position does Eric hold? A) chief information officer B) chief security officer C) chief data officer D) chief knowledge officer

167) Cody Osterman holds an executive position at Trek Enterprises. His role is the newest senior executive position at the organization. He has advised the company on privacy procedures and processes, and has initiated a training program for employees about the privacy policy, customer confidentiality, and data security. Based on this description, what position does Cody hold at Trek Enterprises? A) chief information officer B) chief security officer C) chief data officer D) chief privacy officer

Version 1

168) Sara McGuire holds an executive position at Henry Commerce. She is a big-picture thinker, and makes sure the technology strategy at Henry Commerce serves its business strategy. She has a well-rounded knowledge of MIS, and her primary responsibilities include the efficiency of Henry Commerce’s MIS systems. Based on this description, what position does Sara hold? A) chief user experience officer B) chief technology officer C) chief data officer D) chief privacy officer

169) Allana Nation holds an executive position at PH Corporation. He has an extensive understanding of networks and telecommunications. Adam is aware of the informationtechnology threats the company faces and institutes security protocols and safeguards to secure the MIS systems at PH Corporation. Based on this description, what position does Allana hold? A) chief security officer B) chief user experience officer C) chief data officer D) chief automation officer

170) Jasmine Coleman holds an executive position at Keck-Howes Group. Jasmine has improved the quality of the data gathered by the organization and has created a model to decrease the cost of managing data while increasing the value of the data gathered. Based on this description, what position does Jasmine hold at Keck-Howes Group? A) chief security officer B) chief user experience officer C) chief data officer D) chief automation officer

Version 1

171) What is the ability for data to be collected, analyzed, and accessible to all users (the average end users)? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge democratization D) business data

172)

What is a segment of a company representing a specific business function? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge democratization D) business data

173) You are working for a new boss, Jill Slater. Jill believes that all employees in the company should have access to the data they need when they need it for analysis and to make data-driven business decisions. Which term best describes Jill’s business belief? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge dissemination D) business data

174) Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter’s actions. What would the original transmitter include?

Version 1

A) input, transform, output B) input, transform, outnumber C) output, input, perform D) All of the answers are correct.

175) MIS is a business function. Which of the following does MIS perform to help aid the company in decision making and problem solving? A) moves information about people B) moves processes across the company to improve systems C) moves information about products D) All of the answers are correct.

176)

In terms of system thinking, what is data entered in a computer? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

177)

In terms of system thinking, what controls to ensure correct processes? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

Version 1

178) In terms of system thinking, what is the resulting information from the computer program? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

179)

In terms of system thinking, what is the computer program that processes the data? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

180)

In terms of system thinking, what is input? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

181)

In terms of system thinking, what is output? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

Version 1

182)

In terms of system thinking, what is feedback? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

183)

In terms of system thinking, what is process? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

184) A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose. Systems thinking is a way of monitoring A) the entire system B) a division within the sales role C) the executive team D) the company’s competitors

185) MIS can be an important enabler of business success and innovation. Which of the below statements is accurate when referring to MIS?

Version 1

A) MIS equals business success and innovation. B) MIS represents business success and innovation. C) MIS is not a valuable tool that leverages talent. D) MIS is a valuable tool that can leverage the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively.

186) What is a way of monitoring the entire system in a company by viewing the multiple inputs being processed to produce outputs? A) feedback thinking B) systems thinking C) output management D) operational thinking

187)

Which of the following statements is true? A) MIS equals business success. B) MIS equals business innovation. C) MIS represents business success and innovation. D) MIS enables business success and innovation.

188)

What is the name of a company’s internal computer department? A) management information systems B) information systems C) information technology D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

189)

What are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

190)

What are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

191) What is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

192) What is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs?

Version 1

A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

193)

What are goods?

A) material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need B) tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need C) the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services D) the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

194)

What are services?

195)

What is production?

Version 1

196)

What is productivity?

197)

Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in which category? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

198)

Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in which category? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

Version 1

199)

Which of the following is considered a good? A) cars B) groceries C) clothing D) All of the answers are correct.

200)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) teaching B) waiting tables C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

201)

Which of the following is considered a good? A) cars B) teaching C) waiting tables D) All of the answers are correct.

202)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) cars B) groceries C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

203)

Which of the following is considered goods? A) milk and eggs B) managing a team C) selling groceries D) All of the answers are correct.

204)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) selling groceries B) managing a team C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

205) The lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

206) Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in which category of making a hamburger?

Version 1

A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

207)

The actual hamburger is included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

208) Assume you are in the business of producing and selling hamburgers. If you could produce more hamburgers with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your hamburgers remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

209) Assume you are in the business of producing and selling T-shirts. If you could produce more T-shirts with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your T-shirts remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

Version 1

210) Assume you are in the business of producing and selling cars. If you could produce more cars with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your cars remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

211)

Which four elements are included in systems thinking? A) output, process, feedback, and accounting B) process, output, operations, and accounting C) input, process, output, and feedback D) input, output, sales, and feedback

212) MIS is a business function, like accounting or sales, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. What does MIS stand for? A) management information strategy B) management intelligence system C) management information system D) management information strategist

213) Shelby Black runs a very successful hair salon in downtown Los Angeles. One of Shelby’s tasks is to input positive and negative customer reviews into her computer system. What type of information is Shelby gathering?

Version 1

A) feedback B) processing C) output management D) sales processing

214)

Which of the following provides an accurate definition of systems thinking?

A) a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part B) a way of monitoring individual components including an input, the process, and an output while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system C) a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system D) a way of monitoring singular parts of a system by viewing a single input that is processed or transformed to produce an entire system that is continuously monitored to gather feedback on each individual part

215) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the inputs? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

216) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the process?

Version 1

A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

217) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

218) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the outputs? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

219) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the input? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

Version 1

220) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the output? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

221) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the process? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

222) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

223) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the inputs?

Version 1

A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

224) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the outputs? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

225) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the process? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

226) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

Version 1

227) Which of the following is not a typical way that a company would duplicate a competitive advantage? A) acquiring the new technology B) copying the business operations C) hiring away key employees D) carrying large product inventories

228) When a company is the first to market with a competitive advantage, this is called a firstmover advantage. All of the following companies were first-movers except A) FedEx—Online Self-Service Software. B) Apple—iPad. C) Apple—iPod. D) Microsoft—Bing Search Engine.

229) Which of the following is a tool a manager can use to analyze competitive intelligence and identify competitive advantages? A) the three generic strategies B) the threat of substitute buyer power C) differentiated costs D) supplier loyalty

230) Identifying competitive advantages can be difficult, which explains why they are typically

Version 1

A) temporary. B) satisfactory. C) terminated. D) unsuccessful.

231) Updating business strategies is a continuous undertaking as internal and external environments A) become less competitive. B) remains stagnant. C) rapidly changes. D) become more consistent.

232) Which of the following represents a reason why competitive advantages are typically temporary? A) The competitor will hire away your key employees. B) The competitor quickly seeks ways to duplicate your business operations. C) The competitor will purchase new technology. D) All of the answers are correct.

233)

What is a competitive advantage?

Version 1

A) a product that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from a competitor B) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a lesser value than they do on similar offerings from another supplier C) a service that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from another supplier D) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors

234) Which of the following is not a common tool used in industry to analyze and develop competitive advantages? A) Five Forces Model B) three generic strategies C) competitive analysis model D) value chain analysis

235) What is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed? A) feedback B) information C) competitive intelligence D) data

236)

Who is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization?

Version 1

A) stakeholder B) business strategy C) supplier D) partner

237) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include reliable contracts, ethical materials handling, and responsible production? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

238) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include adhering to regulations/laws, increasing employment, and ethical taxation reporting? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

239) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include maximizing profits, growing market share, and high return on investment? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

Version 1

240) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include exceptional customer service, high-quality products, and ethical dealings? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

241) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include fair compensation, job security, and ethical conduct/treatment? A) employees B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

242) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include professional associations, ethical recycling, and increasing employment? A) employees B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

243) What is a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors?

Version 1

A) competitive advantage B) competitor advantage C) power advantage D) first-mover advantage

244)

Which of the following evaluates a project’s position? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

245)

What is a SWOT analysis?

A) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies B) analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry C) views a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

246)

What evaluates industry attractiveness? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

Version 1

247)

What is Porter’s Five Forces Model?

248)

What executes business strategy? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

249)

What is a value chain analysis?

Version 1

250)

Which strategy below helps an organization choose its business focus? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

251)

What are Porter’s three generic strategies?

A) evaluate an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. B) analyze the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry. C) view a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service. D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

252)

Which of the following describes a stakeholder? A) a leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives B) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value C) a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization D) information about a competitive environment

253) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for customers?

Version 1

A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

254) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for employees? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

255) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for the community? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

256) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for partners/suppliers?

Version 1

A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

257) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for the government? A) maximized profits B) adherence to regulations/laws C) exceptional customer service D) reliable contracts

258) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for shareholders/investors? A) maximized profits B) adherence to regulations/laws C) exceptional customer service D) reliable contracts

259) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization with common business interests. Depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is not a main concern for shareholders/investors?

Version 1

A) maximized profits B) grow market share C) job security D) high return on investment

260)

What is included in a SWOT analysis? A) strengths, weaknesses, organizations, and technology B) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats C) success, willingness, opportunities, and technology D) success, weaknesses, organizations, and threats

261)

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a SWOT analysis? A) Strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization. B) Opportunities and threats originate inside an organization. C) Strengths and threats originate inside an organization. D) Opportunities and weaknesses originate outside an organization.

262)

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a SWOT analysis? A) Strengths and weaknesses originate outside an organization. B) Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization. C) Strengths and threats originate inside an organization. D) Opportunities and weaknesses originate outside an organization.

Version 1

263) Which of the following are included as potential internal strengths in a SWOT analysis that are helpful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

264) Which of the following are included as potential internal weaknesses in a SWOT analysis that are harmful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

265) Which of the following are included as potential external opportunities in a SWOT analysis that are helpful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

266) Which of the following are included as potential external weaknesses in a SWOT analysis that are harmful to an organization?

Version 1

A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

267)

How would you categorize strengths in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

268)

How would you categorize weaknesses in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

269)

How would you categorize opportunities in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

Version 1

270)

How would you categorize threats in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

271)

What does a SWOT analysis perform? A) evaluates an organizations strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats B) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats C) evaluates an organization’s supporters, weaknesses, opportunities, and technology D) evaluates an organization’s systems, warehouses, outputs, and technology

272)

In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses originate________ an organization. A) inside (internally) B) outside (externally) C) both inside (internally) and outside (externally) D) All of the answers are correct.

273)

In a SWOT analysis, opportunities and threats originate________ an organization. A) inside (internally) B) outside (externally) C) both inside (internally) and outside (externally) D) All answer choices are correct.

Version 1

274) In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential internal strengths (helpful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) competitor issues

275) In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential inner weaknesses (harmful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) competitor issues

276) In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential external opportunities (helpful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) improved marketing campaigns

277) Managers use four common tools to analyze competitive intelligence and develop competitive advantages. Which of the following is not one of these tools?

Version 1

A) three generic strategies B) Five Forces Model C) first-mover advantage D) SWOT analysis

278) The Victory Wireless store in Denver is currently offering a fabulous marketing strategy for potential new iPhone customers. Victory Wireless offers customers who purchase an iPhone with a 2-year subscription a free Otter phone case, car charger, ear phones, and speakers. In terms of Porter’s Five Forces Model, what is Victory Wireless attempting to achieve with this marketing strategy? A) increased buyer power B) increased substitute products C) decreased supplier power D) decreased buyer power

279) Gina Brooks works for Aquarium Retail Services selling high-end salt water fish and tank supplies. Aquarium Retail Services is the current market leader in Gina’s city. Gina has recently been approached by Deep Blue Incorporated with an opportunity to run its corporate nation-wide marketing and sales division. Gina decides to jump at the opportunity. Deep Blue is attempting to gain a competitive________ by stealing its competitor’s key employees. A) power B) entry barrier C) advantage D) loyalty

Version 1

280) The banking industry has implemented several competitive advantages including ATMs, online bill pay services, and electronic statements. Of course, these competitive advantages were quickly duplicated by any competitor that wanted to remain in the banking industry. These were all examples of seeking competitive advantages through A) acquiring new technology products and services. B) hiring new employees. C) reducing expenses. D) gaining invaluable feedback from customers.

281) Michael Porter defined the Five Forces Model and the potential pressures that can hurt sales. Which of the following is not one of the potential pressures that can hurt sales? A) Suppliers can drive down profits by charging more for supplies. B) New market entrants can steal potential investment capital. C) Substitute products can steal customers. D) Competition can steal customers.

282) Kevin Campbell is an incoming freshman at your college. Kevin is frustrated by the cost of books, tuition, and expenses, and he needs to purchase a rather expensive laptop. In an effort to save money, Kevin begins a Facebook group finding other college students who need to purchase laptops. Soon, Kevin’s Facebook group has close to 100,000 students. Kevin decides to collectively approach different computer companies to see if his group qualifies for a special discount. What business strategy is Kevin using to purchase laptops? A) collecting business intelligence B) decreasing entry barriers C) purchasing a substitute product D) increasing buyer power

283)

What are costs that make customers reluctant to switch to another product or service?

Version 1

A) support activities B) switching costs C) loyalty rewards D) value chain activities

284) Callie Crystal owns and operates one of the most successful local coffee shops in Denver, called the Edgewater Café. Each time a customer purchases their 100th cup of coffee at the Edgewater Café, they receive a free pound of coffee of their choice. What is Callie attempting to create with her unique “Free Pound of Coffee” marketing program? A) reducing buyer power with a loyalty program B) increasing buyer power with a loyalty program C) decreasing supplier power with a differentiated product D) creating a substitute product

285) What includes all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product? A) support chain B) supply chain C) system chain D) supply choice

286)

Which of the below represents a company in a supply chain? A) customer and competitor B) supplier and competitor C) knowledge worker and supplier D) supplier and customer

Version 1

287) In the center of Porter’s Five Forces Model is competition. Which of the below represents the four outer boxes? A) buyer power, systems power, threat of false entrants, and threat of substitute products or services B) buyer power, systems power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services C) buyer power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services D) business power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of powerful services

288) Shawn McGill is on the executive board for ABC Pharmaceuticals. The company produces the top-selling cancer-fighting drug on the market. Due to its incredible success, ABC Pharmaceuticals has decided to increase the cost of the drug from $8 a pill to $15 a pill. Which force is ABC Pharmaceuticals using to increase its drug price? A) supplier power B) buyer power C) threat of false entrants D) business power

289)

What is one of the most common ways a company can decrease supplier power? A) charge lower prices B) charge higher prices C) use MIS to find and create alternative products D) companies cannot impact supplier power

290)

If a supplier has high power, what can it do to influence its industry?

Version 1

A) charge higher prices B) shift costs to industry participants C) limit quality or services D) All of the answers are correct.

291)

How can a company reduce the threat of substitute products or services? A) market the product to fewer than 10 customers B) ignore competitive forces C) offer additional value through wider product distribution D) offer less value making the product far more generic and similar to the competition

292) Which one of Porter’s five forces is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market? A) threat of new entrants B) threat of substitute products or services C) threat of buyer power D) supply chain competition

293) John Cleaver is the CEO of Tech World, a retail store that sells computers, monitors, cameras, televisions, and many other electronic products. John and his executive team are meeting to brainstorm new ideas on how to grow the business. One idea is to mimic a competitor product that is attempting to sell a new product in a different industry. After performing a Porter’s Five Forces Model analysis, John determines that all of the forces are high in this new industry. What should John do?

Version 1

A) explode into the market with an overflow of the product B) contemplate other products to introduce at the same time in this new market C) compare the competitor’s prices and offer his product at a lower price in this new market D) not introduce the product because all five forces are strong and this would be a highly risky business strategy

294) What is a feature of a product or service that customers have come to expect and entering competitors must offer the same if they want to survive? A) significant barrier B) entry barrier C) product differentiation D) entry chain

295)

Which of the following represents a typical supply chain? A) company – customers – suppliers B) company – suppliers – customers C) suppliers – company – customers D) suppliers – customers – company

296) Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the following statements indicates that it would be easy for you as the new entrant to compete in this market?

Version 1

A) The threat of new entrants’ force is high in the up-and-coming market. B) The threat of new entrants’ force is low in the up-and-coming market. C) The threat of new entrants’ force is impossible to define in the up-and-coming market. D) All of the answers are correct depending on the time of year.

297) Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the following statements indicates that it would be difficult for you to enter this new market? A) The threat of new entrants’ force is high in the up-and-coming market. B) The threat of new entrants’ force is low in the up-and-coming market. C) The threat of new entrants’ force is high during the summer months in the up-andcoming market. D) All of the answers are correct depending on the time of year.

298) Which of the following is an example in which Porter’s five forces are mostly strong and competition is high? A) dog-walking business B) ski resort C) professional hockey team D) All of the answers are correct.

299) Which of the following offers an example in which Porter’s five forces are mostly weak and competition is low?

Version 1

A) an international hotel chain purchasing milk B) a coffee shop C) a single consumer purchasing milk D) a dog-walking business

300) Some industries’ competition is much more intense than others. Retail grocery stores such as Kroger, Safeway, and Albertson’s in the United States experience fierce competition and offer similar marketing campaigns to compete. What is this an example of in terms of Porter’s Five Forces Model? A) rivalry among new entrants B) rivalry among existing competitors C) threat of substitute products or services D) buyer power

301) Amazon.com uses a customer profiling system whenever a customer visits its website. Using this system, Amazon can offer products tailored to that particular customer’s profile and buying pattern. What is Amazon using to achieve this competitive advantage? A) rivalry B) buyer power C) product differentiation D) substitute product

302) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the music industry?

Version 1

A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) Walmart, Target, iTunes C) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook. D) Taylor Swift,Beyoncé, The Beatles, The Stones

303) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) Walmart, Target, iTunes C) independent record labels D) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook

304) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents the threat of substitute products or services in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) independent record labels C) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook D) Taylor Swift,Beyoncé, The Beatles, The Stones

305) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the soft drink industry?

Version 1

A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

306) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

307) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents a threat of a new entrant in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

Version 1

308) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents a substitute product in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

309)

What is buyer power?

A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose

310)

What is supplier power?

Version 1

311)

What is the threat of substitute products or services?

312)

What is the threat of new entrants?

313)

What is the rivalry among existing competitors?

A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when competition is fierce in a market and low when competitors are more complacent

Version 1

314) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents rivalry in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) Coke and Pepsi submit bids to the owner of a football stadium for the exclusive sale of their products during games.

315) Porter identified three generic strategies that a business could follow after identifying a market it wanted to enter. Which of the following is not included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies? A) broad differentiation B) supplier cost differentiation C) focused strategy D) broad cost leadership

316) When analyzing Porter’s three generic strategies for entering a market, if you have a focused strategy, what market should you target? A) a niche market B) a broad market C) neither niche nor broad markets D) both niche and broad markets

Version 1

317) Which of the following offers an example of a company operating in a narrow focused market as the low-cost provider? A) Walmart B) Tiffany & Co. C) Neiman Marcus D) Payless Shoes

318) Broad differentiation, broad cost leadership, and________ create the three generic strategies identified by Porter. A) narrow market leadership B) high cost versus low cost C) focused strategy D) None of the answer choices are correct.

319) Jennifer Bloom is writing a paper, and she must determine which of Porter’s three generic strategies The Museum Company has implemented. Jennifer finds out that The Museum Company offers specialty products found only in museums around the world to affluent customers. What would Jennifer determine The Museum Company is using as its generic strategy? A) broad market, low cost B) narrow market, high cost C) broad market, high cost D) narrow market, low cost

320) According to Porter, companies that wish to dominate broad markets should operate using a________ strategy.

Version 1

A) cost leadership with a low cost B) differentiation with a low cost C) cost leadership with a high cost D) All answer choices are correct.

321) Which of the following demonstrates a company that has implemented a low-cost, broad market strategy? A) Neiman Marcus B) Payless Shoes C) the Sharper Image D) Walmart

322)

If a business is following a focused strategy, then its competitive scope is A) broad market. B) narrow market. C) broad range products. D) broad range of services.

323) When applying Porter’s three generic strategies, Tiffany & Co. has a competitive scope and cost strategy that is A) broad market, high cost. B) narrow market, low cost. C) narrow market, high cost. D) broad market, low cost.

Version 1

324) When analyzing the book store industry, some of today’s businesses compete with different business strategies and cost strategies. Which of the following is using a broad market competitive scope along with a low-cost strategy? A) Amazon.com B) local independent bookstore specializing in antique books C) Barnes & Noble D) bookstore at the airport

325)

Which of the following is similar to a focused strategy versus a broad strategy? A) large market versus leadership B) large market versus uniqueness C) niche market versus large market D) niche market versus generic

326) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a cost leadership strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

327) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a differentiation strategy?

Version 1

A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

328) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a focused strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

329) A(n)________ allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. A) SWOT analysis B) digital distribution platform C) management information system D) digital value chain

330) Baltzan bike manufacturing needed to decrease the amount of time it took to develop a customized bike. Many customers requested special parts to be assembled for the one-time creation for a bike. By connecting the sales systems to the manufacturing systems and adding 3D printing to its manufacturing process, it was able to cut down on the amount of time it took between sales and production. What type of technology is this called?

Version 1

A) digital value chain B) buyer power C) first-mover advantage D) SWOT analysis

331) When reviewing Porter’s value chain analysis, which of the following provides customer support after the sale of goods and services? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) operations D) service

332) Which of the following represents procurement as part of the support value activities in a value chain analysis? A) purchases inputs such as raw materials, resources, equipment and supplies B) applies MIS to processes to add value C) distributes goods and services to customers D) promotes, prices, and sells products to customers

333) What includes support value activities and primary value activities and is used to determine how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A) supplier power B) operations management C) Porter’s Five Forces Model D) value chain analysis

Version 1

334)

What is a standardized set of activities that accomplishes a specific task? A) business strategy B) business outcome C) business process D) knowledge process

335) Which of the following analyzes a company’s business processes and is useful for determining how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A) product analysis B) primary supplier power C) value chain analysis D) buyer chain analysis

336) The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself, with a________ or________. A) focused strategy; product differentiation B) focused strategy; cost advantage C) cost advantage; primary value activities D) cost advantage; product differentiation

337)

What are the two main categories in a value chain analysis?

Version 1

A) primary value activities and secondary value activities B) primary value activities and support value activities C) primary value activities and strengthening value activities D) None of the answer choices are correct.

338) Which of the following is not considered a category within the primary value activities in a value chain analysis? A) inbound logistics B) firm infrastructure C) operations D) service

339) Which of the following is not considered a category within the support value activities in a value chain analysis? A) technology development B) outbound logistics C) human resource management D) firm infrastructure

340) What is the support value activity that provides employees with training, hiring, and compensation? A) procurement B) operations resource management C) human resource management D) firm infrastructure

Version 1

100

341) Sandy Fiero works as the chief knowledge officer for Bend Lumbar Company. She has been given the responsibility to create a product or service that will bring an added value to its customers to increase the company’s revenue. Sandy determines that the best value she can add is by creating a service that offers free next-day shipping on any order over $50. Where in the value chain is Sandy adding value? A) primary value activity outbound logistics B) primary value activity inbound logistics C) primary value activity marketing and sales D) primary value activity operations

342) When evaluating the value chain, all of the following are included in the primary value activities except A) inbound activities. B) operations. C) service. D) MIS development.

343) When evaluating the value chain, which of the following is included in the support value activities? A) inbound activities B) marketing and sales C) firm infrastructure D) finance and sales

344) Which of the following decisions does a firm need to make as soon as it has identified the activities from the value chain that are bringing the highest added value to their customers? Version 1

101

A) target high value-adding activities to further enhance their value B) target low value-adding activities to increase their value C) perform some combination of the two D) All of the answers are correct.

345) MIS can add value to both primary activities and support activities in the value chain. Which of the following is not an example of adding value by the use of MIS in a primary activity? A) creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items B) a system for the sales and marketing departments to track specific sales targets and follow-up processes C) an easy electronic survey, similar to the Survey Monkey, to be sent to the customer right after a service is completed D) using a custom order and delivery system through an easily accessible web portal for the customer to track delivery status

346) MIS can add value to both primary and support activities within a business. Which of the following is not an example of adding value by the use of MIS in a support activity? A) creating a business strategy for the video rental market that delivers videos via the mail B) creating a tracking system to efficiently reward employees based on their performance C) creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items D) creating a program to automatically order office supplies such as pens and pads of paper for employees

Version 1

102

347) Companies today are successful when they combine the power of the information age with traditional business methods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

348) Diagnostic analytics is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

349) Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

350) The information age is a time infinite quantities of facts are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

351) Top managers use bits to define the future of the business, analyzing markets, industries and economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain unprofitable. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

103

352) A variable is a business intelligence characteristic that stands for a value that cannot change over time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

353) A fact is the confirmation or validation of an event or object. In the past, people primarily learned facts from books. ⊚ ⊚

354)

Zappos primary business focus is to sell books and competitive intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

355)

true false

Order date, amount sold, and customer number are all forms of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

356) Choosing not to fire a sales representative who is underperforming while knowing that the representative is experiencing family problems is a form of knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

104

357) Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. The truth about information is that its value is only as good as the people who use it. People using the same information can make different decisions depending on how they interpret or analyze the information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

358) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention. ⊚ ⊚

359)

Machine-to-machine (M2M) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. ⊚ ⊚

360)

true false

The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

361) Predictive analytics extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

362) Predictive analytics is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention. Version 1

105

⊚ ⊚

true false

363) Top managers use predictive analytics to define the future of the business, analyzing markets, industries, and economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain profitable. Tony will set the strategic direction for his firm, which might include introducing new flavors of potato chips or sports drinks as new product lines or schools and hospitals as new market segments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

364) A data analyst collects, queries, and consumers organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

365) Knowledge workers are individuals valued for their ability to mitigate risk and implement critical human resource and accounting rules and regulations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

366) Using only data and information to make decisions and solve problems is the key to finding success in business. These are also the only core drivers of the information age and the building blocks of business systems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

106

367) Big data is a collection of large complex datasets, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools. ⊚ ⊚

368)

The four common characteristics of big data include variety, veracity, volume, velocity. ⊚ ⊚

369)

true false

Variety in big data includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

370) Veracity in big data includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities. ⊚ ⊚

371)

true false

Volume in big data includes the scale of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

372) Velocity in big data includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

107

373)

Velocity in big data includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

374) Volume in big data includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities. ⊚ ⊚

375)

Big data is a view of data at a moment in time. ⊚ ⊚

376)

true false

A snapshot is a view of data at a particular moment in time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

377) A static report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

378) A dynamic report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory. Version 1

108

⊚ ⊚

true false

379) Business analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. ⊚ ⊚

380)

true false

Descriptive analytics describes past performance and history. ⊚ ⊚

true false

381) Predictive analytics extracts information from data to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

382) Prescriptive analytics creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take. ⊚ ⊚

true false

383) Knowledge assets, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

109

384) Knowledge assets reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media. ⊚ ⊚

385)

true false

Knowledge facilitators help harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

386) Descriptive analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. ⊚ ⊚

387)

true false

Diagnostic analytics describes past performance and history. ⊚ ⊚

true false

388) Prescriptive analytics extracts information from data to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

110

389) Analytics, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

390) Knowledge facilitators reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

391) Structured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

392) Unstructured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

393) Structured data is data that has a defined length, type, and format and includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address. ⊚ ⊚

true false

394) Unstructured data is data that is not defined and does not follow a specified format and is typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. Version 1

111

⊚ ⊚

true false

395) Unstructured data is data that has a defined length, type, and format and includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address. ⊚ ⊚

true false

396) Structured data is data that is not defined and does not follow a specified format and is typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

397) Unstructured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

398)

A business unit is a segment of a company representing a specific business function. ⊚ ⊚

399)

true false

The terms department, functional area, and business unit are used interchangeably. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

112

400) Companies update business strategies continuously as internal and external environments change. ⊚ ⊚

401)

true false

The finance department performs the function of selling goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

402) The marketing department supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

403) The operations management department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

404)

The accounting and finance departments primarily use monetary data. ⊚ ⊚

405)

true false

The sales and marketing departments primarily use monetary data.

Version 1

113

⊚ ⊚

true false

406) A data silo occurs when one business unit is able to freely communicate with other business units from silo to silo. ⊚ ⊚

true false

407) A data silo occurs when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units, making it difficult or impossible for organizations to work cross-functionally. ⊚ ⊚

true false

408) A data silo is beneficial because it helps keep all the data for a company organized in one place. ⊚ ⊚

true false

409) For an organization to succeed, every department or functional area must work independently to be most effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

410) Successful companies today operate cross-functionally, integrating the operations of all departments. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 114

411) MIS is a tool that is most valuable when it leverages the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively. ⊚ ⊚

true false

412) The chief technology officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

413) The chief security officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

414) The chief data officer is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability for MIS. ⊚ ⊚

true false

415) The chief privacy officer is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

115

416) The business decisions made by the marketing department include promotional data, sales data, and advertising data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

417) The business decisions made by the human resources department include employee data, promotion data, and vacation data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

418) The business decisions made by the finance department include investment data, monetary data, and reporting data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

419) The business decisions made by the accounting department include transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data and tax data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

420) The business decisions made by the sales department include potential customer data, sales report data, commission data, and customer support data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

116

421) The business decisions made by the operations management department include manufacturing data, distribution data, and production data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

422) The business decisions made by the finance department include promotion data, sales data, and advertising data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

423) The business decisions made by the accounting department include employee data, promotion data, and vacation data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

424) The business decisions made by the human resources department include investment data, monetary data, and reporting data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

425) The business decisions made by the marketing department include transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data and tax data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

117

426) The business decisions made by the human resources department include potential customer data, sales report data, commission data, and customer support data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

427) The business decisions made by the accounting department include manufacturing data, distribution data, and production data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

428) The chief data officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

429) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

430) Most organizations maintain positions such as chief executive officer (CEO), chief financial officer (CFO), and chief operations officer (COO) at the strategic level. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

118

431) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

432) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

433) The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share. ⊚ ⊚

true false

434) The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for ensuring the throughput, speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of an organization’s information technology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

435) The chief technology officer (CTO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

119

436) The chief privacy officer (CPO) is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

437) The chief intellectual property officer (CIPO) is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing the organization’s knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

438) The chief security officer (CSO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

439) According to Fast Company magazine, a few executive levels you might see created over the next decade include chief intellectual property officer, chief automation officer, and chief user experience officer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

440) The difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill the business goals and strategies is called a data analyst certification. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

120

441) Most chief technology officers do not possess a well-rounded knowledge of all aspects of MIS, such as hardware, software, and telecommunications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

442) Many chief privacy officers (CPOs) are lawyers by training, enabling them to understand the often-complex legal issues surrounding the use of information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

443) MIS skills gap is the difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill the business goals and strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

444) In many instances, an MIS job will remain unfilled for an extended period when an employer needs to hire someone who has a very specific set of skills. In recruiting lingo, such candidates are referred to as purple turtles. ⊚ ⊚

445)

true false

Goods are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

121

446) Waiting tables, teaching, and cutting hair are all examples of services that people pay for to fulfill their needs. ⊚ ⊚

447)

true false

An overview of systems thinking includes input, process, output, and finances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

448) A stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. It is not uncommon to find stakeholder’s business strategies have conflicting interests such as investors looking to increase profits by eliminating employee jobs. ⊚ ⊚

449)

true false

Cars, groceries, and clothing are all examples of goods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

450) Production is the process by which a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

122

451) Productivity is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

452) Lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in the output of making a hamburger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

453) Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in the process of making a hamburger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

454) Bread, cheese, and butter are included in the process of making a grilled cheese sandwich. ⊚ ⊚

455)

true false

A grilled cheese sandwich is considered the final output of a making-a-sandwich process. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

123

456) If a business could produce the same hamburger with less expensive inputs, it would probably see a decrease in profits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

457) If a business could produce more hamburgers with the same inputs, it would see a rise in productivity and possibly an increase in profits. ⊚ ⊚

458)

true false

A leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives is a business strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

459) To combat business challenges, leaders communicate and execute business strategies; the word strategy comes from the Greek stratus for army and ago for leading. ⊚ ⊚

true false

460) Businesses rarely need to update business strategies as the business environment remains relatively stable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

461) Attracting new customers, decreasing costs, and entering new markets are all examples of successful business strategies.

Version 1

124

⊚ ⊚

true false

462) Decreasing customer loyalty, increasing costs, and decreasing sales are all examples of business strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

463) A first-mover advantage is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

464) FedEx created a first-mover advantage by developing its customer self-service software, which allows people to request parcel pickups, print mailing slips, and track parcels online. ⊚ ⊚

true false

465) A SWOT analysis will evaluate potential internal strengths, internal weaknesses, and external opportunities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

466) A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies.

Version 1

125

⊚ ⊚

true false

467) A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats. ⊚ ⊚

true false

468) A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, worries, opportunities, and technologies to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

469) In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization, or internally. Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization, or externally, and cannot always be anticipated or controlled. ⊚ ⊚

true false

470) In a SWOT analysis, potential internal strengths are helpful when they identify all key strengths associated with the competitive advantage, including cost advantages, new and/or innovative services, special expertise and/or experience, proven market leader, improved marketing campaigns, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

126

471) In a SWOT analysis, potential internal weaknesses are harmful when they identify all key areas that require improvement. Weaknesses focus on the absence of certain strengths, including absence of an Internet marketing plan, damaged reputation, problem areas for service, outdated technology, employee issues, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

472) In a SWOT analysis, potential external opportunities are helpful when they identify all significant trends along with how the organization can benefit from each, including new markets, additional customer groups, legal changes, innovative technologies, population changes, competitor issues, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

473) In a SWOT analysis, potential external threats are harmful when they identify all threats or risks detrimental to your organization, including new market entrants, substitute products, employee turnover, differentiating products, shrinking markets, adverse changes in regulations, economic shifts, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

474) Competitive advantages provide the same product or service either at a lower price or with additional value that can fetch premium prices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

475) Mark Peterson identified Porter’s Five Forces Model, which analyzes the competitive forces within a business environment.

Version 1

127

⊚ ⊚

476)

true false

Porter’s Five Forces Model outlines the process for a sales strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

477) With the Five Forces Model, companies should watch the forces in the market. If the forces are strong, competition generally increases, and if the forces are weak, competition typically decreases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

478) There are many challenges to changing doctors, including transferring medical records and losing the doctor-patient relationship along with the doctor’s knowledge of the patient’s history. Changing doctors provides a great example of switching costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

479) Supplier power is one of Porter’s five forces, and it measures the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services). ⊚ ⊚

true false

480) Polaroid had a unique competitive advantage for many years until it forgot to observe competitive intelligence. The firm went bankrupt when people began taking digital pictures. Polaroid provides a great example of Porter’s supplier power.

Version 1

128

⊚ ⊚

true false

481) Product differentiation occurs when a company develops unique differences in its products or services with the intent to influence demand. ⊚ ⊚

482)

true false

Buyer power is the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. ⊚ ⊚

true false

483) Rivalry among existing competitors refers to the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. ⊚ ⊚

true false

484) The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of customers to purchase alternatives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

485) The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of competitors to enter a new market. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

129

486) Tiffany & Company competes in the marketplace by offering high-cost, custom jewelry. Tiffany & Company is following a broad market and cost leadership strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

487) Porter has identified three generic business strategies, including focused, broad cost leadership, and switching strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

488) According to Porter’s three generic strategies, Walmart is following a business strategy that focuses on broad market and low cost. ⊚ ⊚

489)

According to Porter, it is recommended to adopt only one of the three generic strategies. ⊚ ⊚

490)

true false

Buyer power is included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

130

491) Value chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

492) A standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task is called a supply chain component. ⊚ ⊚

true false

493) The value chain will group a company’s activities into two categories: primary value activities and support value activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

494) A digital value chain digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. It allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. ⊚ ⊚

495)

true false

A digital data silo digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

496) A business process is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. Version 1

131

⊚ ⊚

true false

497) A primary value activity is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. ⊚ ⊚

498)

Inbound logistics and operations are part of the primary value activities. ⊚ ⊚

499)

true false

Inbound logistics and operations are part of the support value activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

500) Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the primary value activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

501) Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the support value activities. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

132

Version 1

133

Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_8e_Baltzan 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) A Version 1

134

37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) B Version 1

135

67) A 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) B 73) D 74) D 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) C 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) B 84) A 85) D 86) B 87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) B 92) C 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) C Version 1

136

97) D 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) B 104) B 105) D 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) B 110) D 111) D 112) B 113) C 114) D 115) A 116) B 117) C 118) D 119) D 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) C 124) D 125) A 126) A Version 1

137

127) C 128) D 129) A 130) D 131) D 132) A 133) C 134) A 135) B 136) C 137) D 138) B 139) B 140) C 141) A 142) C 143) B 144) C 145) C 146) A 147) C 148) B 149) D 150) A 151) C 152) A 153) D 154) B 155) C 156) A Version 1

138

157) B 158) D 159) A 160) B 161) C 162) B 163) B 164) B 165) C 166) D 167) D 168) B 169) A 170) C 171) A 172) B 173) A 174) A 175) D 176) A 177) D 178) B 179) C 180) A 181) C 182) B 183) D 184) A 185) D 186) B Version 1

139

187) D 188) D 189) A 190) B 191) C 192) D 193) A 194) B 195) C 196) D 197) A 198) B 199) D 200) D 201) A 202) C 203) A 204) D 205) A 206) B 207) C 208) B 209) B 210) B 211) C 212) C 213) A 214) A 215) A 216) C Version 1

140

217) D 218) B 219) A 220) B 221) D 222) C 223) A 224) B 225) D 226) C 227) D 228) D 229) A 230) A 231) C 232) D 233) D 234) C 235) C 236) A 237) A 238) D 239) B 240) D 241) A 242) C 243) A 244) A 245) A 246) B Version 1

141

247) B 248) C 249) C 250) D 251) D 252) C 253) A 254) B 255) C 256) D 257) B 258) A 259) C 260) B 261) A 262) B 263) A 264) B 265) C 266) D 267) A 268) B 269) C 270) D 271) B 272) A 273) B 274) A 275) B 276) C Version 1

142

277) C 278) D 279) C 280) A 281) A 282) D 283) B 284) A 285) B 286) D 287) C 288) A 289) C 290) D 291) C 292) A 293) D 294) B 295) C 296) A 297) B 298) A 299) A 300) B 301) C 302) A 303) B 304) C 305) A 306) B Version 1

143

307) C 308) D 309) A 310) B 311) D 312) C 313) D 314) D 315) B 316) A 317) D 318) C 319) B 320) A 321) D 322) B 323) C 324) A 325) C 326) A 327) B 328) C 329) D 330) A 331) D 332) A 333) D 334) C 335) C 336) D Version 1

144

337) B 338) B 339) B 340) C 341) A 342) D 343) C 344) D 345) A 346) A 347) TRUE 348) FALSE 349) TRUE 350) TRUE 351) FALSE 352) FALSE 353) TRUE 354) FALSE 355) TRUE 356) TRUE 357) TRUE 358) TRUE 359) TRUE 360) FALSE 361) TRUE 362) FALSE 363) TRUE 364) TRUE 365) FALSE 366) FALSE Version 1

145

367) TRUE 368) TRUE 369) TRUE 370) TRUE 371) TRUE 372) TRUE 373) FALSE 374) FALSE 375) FALSE 376) TRUE 377) FALSE 378) TRUE 379) TRUE 380) TRUE 381) TRUE 382) TRUE 383) TRUE 384) TRUE 385) TRUE 386) FALSE 387) FALSE 388) FALSE 389) FALSE 390) FALSE 391) FALSE 392) FALSE 393) TRUE 394) TRUE 395) FALSE 396) FALSE Version 1

146

397) FALSE 398) TRUE 399) TRUE 400) TRUE 401) FALSE 402) TRUE 403) TRUE 404) TRUE 405) FALSE 406) FALSE 407) TRUE 408) FALSE 409) FALSE 410) TRUE 411) TRUE 412) FALSE 413) TRUE 414) FALSE 415) TRUE 416) TRUE 417) TRUE 418) TRUE 419) TRUE 420) TRUE 421) TRUE 422) FALSE 423) FALSE 424) FALSE 425) FALSE 426) FALSE Version 1

147

427) FALSE 428) FALSE 429) TRUE 430) TRUE 431) FALSE 432) TRUE 433) TRUE 434) FALSE 435) FALSE 436) TRUE 437) FALSE 438) TRUE 439) TRUE 440) FALSE 441) FALSE 442) TRUE 443) TRUE 444) FALSE 445) TRUE 446) TRUE 447) FALSE 448) TRUE 449) TRUE 450) TRUE 451) TRUE 452) FALSE 453) TRUE 454) TRUE 455) TRUE 456) FALSE Version 1

148

457) TRUE 458) TRUE 459) TRUE 460) FALSE 461) TRUE 462) FALSE 463) FALSE 464) TRUE 465) TRUE 466) TRUE 467) FALSE 468) FALSE 469) TRUE 470) TRUE 471) TRUE 472) TRUE 473) TRUE 474) TRUE 475) FALSE 476) FALSE 477) TRUE 478) TRUE 479) TRUE 480) FALSE 481) TRUE 482) TRUE 483) FALSE 484) TRUE 485) FALSE 486) FALSE Version 1

149

487) FALSE 488) TRUE 489) TRUE 490) FALSE 491) TRUE 492) FALSE 493) TRUE 494) TRUE 495) FALSE 496) TRUE 497) FALSE 498) TRUE 499) FALSE 500) FALSE 501) TRUE

Version 1

150

CHAPTER 2 1) Explain the importance of decision making for managers at each of the three primary organization levels along with the associated decision characteristics.

2) Define critical success factors (CSFs) and key performance indicators (KPIs) and explain how managers use them to measure the success of MIS projects.

3) Classify the different operational support systems, managerial support systems, and strategic support systems, and explain how managers can use these systems to make decisions and gain competitive advantages.

4) Define bias and provide two examples of personal bias. Bias is a disproportionate weight in favor of or against an idea or thing, usually in a way that is closed-minded, prejudicial, or unfair. [Student may choose two of the four personal biases identified in his chapter]

Version 1

5) Explain the value of business processes for a company, and differentiate between customer-facing and business-facing processes.

6) Demonstrate the value of business process modeling, and compare As-Is and To-Be models.

Differentiate among business process improvements, streamlining, and reengineering.

Which of the following is NOT a type of organizational information system?

Version 1

A) executive information system B) decisions support system C) analysis processing system D) transactional processing system

Which of the following is an important challenge facing managers today? A) making business decisions B) solving business problems C) competing to win in today’s market D) All of the answers are correct.

10) Imagine an important customer shows up at a hotel that is fully booked, and the reservation is missing. The manager must decide how to respond to the customer. At which level would this decision be made? A) operational level B) structured level C) strategic level D) analysis level

11)

Which of the following is not a step in the six-step decision-making process? A) data collection B) employee decisions C) solution generation D) solution test

Version 1

12) When evaluating the six-step decision-making process, what occurs during the solution implementation step? A) the process will begin again if the decisions made were incorrect B) defining the problem as clearly and precisely as possible C) identifying details of every solution possible, including ideas that seem far-fetched D) selecting the question that best solves the problem

13)

Which of the following is a step in the six-step decision-making process? A) employee engagement B) data collection C) detail collection D) data-driven decision management

14)

Which of the following represents the structure of a typical organization? A) flat line B) pyramid C) circle D) cube

15) Which of the following represents the three different levels of a company pyramid from the top to the bottom?

Version 1

A) managerial—strategic—operational B) strategic—managerial—operational C) operational—managerial—strategic D) strategic—operational—managerial

16) Which of the following would you include as decisions and responsibilities typically found at the managerial level of a company? A) monthly plans B) monthly budgets C) monthly staffing D) All of the answers are correct.

17) Data collection, solution generation, and solution implementation are all concepts associated which of the following processes? A) the three-step problem identification process B) the six-step decision-making process C) the four-step problem-solving process D) the four-step decision-making process

18) Review the following key terms. Which one defines an operational decision that involves situations where established processes offer potential solutions? A) optimization analysis decision B) artificial intelligence decision C) structured decision D) unstructured decision

Version 1

19)

Which of the following is considered a structured decision or strategic decision? A) reordering inventory B) deciding to enter a new market C) creating the employee weekly staffing schedule D) creating the employee weekly production schedule

20)

Which of the following is considered an operational decision or structured decision? A) determining how many employees are out sick B) determining the impact of last month’s marketing campaign C) allocating resources to a department for a new system D) monitoring performance of a project team over the last six months

21)

Which of the following is considered a managerial decision or semistructured decision? A) determining how many employees are out sick B) determining the impact of last month’s marketing campaign C) determining which employee makes the least amount of errors per day D) tracking how much inventory is in the warehouse

22) Which of the following key terms represents the types of decisions made at the operational, managerial, and strategic levels of a company?

Version 1

A) structured decisions B) unstructured decisions C) semistructured decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

23) At which level do managers develop the overall business strategies and monitor the performance of the organization and the competitive business environment? A) operational level B) strategic level C) managerial level D) All of the answers are correct.

24) Jenny Welch works at a retail store selling sports equipment. Her daily tasks include opening the store, creating the work schedules, processing payroll, overseeing sales and inventory, and training employees. At what level of the organizational pyramid would you categorize Jenny? A) managerial level B) operational level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

25) Andy Benton works at the local Starbucks coffee shop, and his responsibilities include taking orders, fulfilling orders, and ringing in sales. At what level of the organizational pyramid would you categorize Andy?

Version 1

A) strategic level B) owner level C) operational level D) managerial level

26) Bill Schultz works at a high-powered investment firm in Los Angeles. Bill is responsible for promoting the firm’s vision and creating the companywide goals and strategies. He also monitors the overall strategic performance of the company and its direction for future business strategies. At what level of the organizational pyramid would you categorize Bill? A) strategic level B) owner level C) operational level D) managerial level

27) Chuck Biggs has been hired to oversee all of the plans that the city of Denver has created to expand its train transportation system by adding six more lines in the metropolitan area. Chuck will be responsible for planning the project, managing the processes, and finalizing each new line as it is completed. How would you categorize the majority of the decisions Chuck will have to make to complete his job? A) unstructured decisions B) semistructured decisions C) structured decisions D) key performance indicators

28) What occurs in situations in which a few established processes help to evaluate potential solutions, but not enough to lead to a definite recommended decision?

Version 1

A) key performance indicators B) structured decisions C) critical success factors D) semistructured decisions

29) What occurs in situations in which no procedures or rules exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice? A) key performance indicators B) structured decisions C) unstructured decisions D) semistructured decisions

30)

What arises in situations where established processes offer potential solutions? A) analytics B) structured decisions C) unstructured decisions D) key performance indicators

31) The structure of an organization is similar to a pyramid. The different levels require different types of information to assist with which of the following? A) decision making B) problem solving C) opportunity capturing D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

32)

At which level will a manager use analytics to make decisions? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

33) At which level of an organization do employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities required to run the day-to-day operations? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

34) At which level of an organization are employees continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

35) At which level of an organization do managers develop overall business strategies, goals, and objectives as part of the company’s strategic plan?

Version 1

A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

36) Lower management, department managers, analysts, and staff are all employees at the ________ level. A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

37)

Middle management, managers, and directors are all employees at the ________ level. A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

38) Senior management, presidents, leaders, and executives are all employees at the ________ level. A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

39)

What is the typical timeframe for decisions at the operational level? A) day-to-day decisions B) monthly decisions C) yearly decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

40)

What is the typical timeframe for decisions at the managerial level? A) day-to-day decisions B) monthly decisions C) yearly decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

41)

What is the typical time frame for decisions at the strategic level? A) day-to-day B) monthly C) yearly D) All of the answers are correct.

42) What are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals?

Version 1

A) models B) metrics C) benchmarks D) genetic algorithms

43) What are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies? A) critical success factors B) crucial success factors C) key performance indicators D) key performance factors

44)

Which of the following is an example of a critical success factor? A) increase customer satisfaction B) number of new customers C) number of new products D) percentage of employee turnover

45)

Which of the following statements is accurate? A) key performance indicators can have no more than four critical success factors B) critical success factors can have no more than four key performance indicators C) key performance indicators can have several critical success factors D) critical success factors can have several key performance indicators

Version 1

46) Key performance indicators are the metrics a company uses to evaluate progress toward critical success factors. Which of the following represents a key performance indicator? A) create high-quality products B) reduce product costs C) percentage of help-desk calls answered in the first minute D) hire the best business professionals

47) Critical success factors (CSFs) and key performance indicators (KPIs) are the two core metrics used within a business to track progress or success. What is the relationship between CSFs and KPIs? A) CSFs are business strategy elements, whereas KPIs measure the progress of the CSFs. B) CSFs build the business environment, whereas KPIs explain how to build the CSFs. C) KPIs are used first, and CSFs are applied later. D) KPIs promote employees on their performance, whereas CSFs demote employees based on their performance.

48) Market share measures a firm’s external performance relative to that of its competitors. Which of the following represents how a firm measures market share? A) multiplying the firm’s sales by the industries total sales B) dividing the firm’s sales by the total market sales for the entire industry C) subtracting competitor’s sales from the firm’s total sales D) subtracting the industry’s total sales from the firm’s total sales

49) Anne-Marie Cole runs the sales division for a local auto insurance firm. One of her key duties is to calculate her company’s market share. When evaluating the prior-year numbers, she found that her firm achieved total sales of $3 million and the entire industry had $30 million in sales. What is the current market share of Anne-Marie’s company?

Version 1

A) 1 percent B) 10 percent C) 18 percent D) 20 percent

50) Anne-Marie Cole runs the sales division for a local auto insurance firm. One of her key duties is to ensure the company has 10 percent market share by the end of the year. When evaluating the current sales numbers, she determines that her sales division has total sales of $3 million and the entire industry has total sales of $50 million. What additional sales must AnneMarie’s division meet to ensure they have 10 percent of the market by the end of the year? A) $1 million B) $2 million C) $5 million D) $10 million

51) Which of the following represents an internal key performance indicator that shows the earning power of a project? A) market share B) return on intelligence C) sensitivity analysis D) return on investment

52)

What could a manager use to measure the success of an MIS project?

Version 1

A) effectiveness MIS metrics, efficiency MIS metrics B) effectiveness MIS metrics, expert MIS metrics C) expert MIS metrics, executive MIS metrics D) All of the answers are correct.

53)

What type of metrics measure throughput, transaction speed, and system availability? A) efficiency MIS metrics B) effectiveness MIS metrics C) ROI D) benchmarks

54)

What types of metrics measure customer satisfaction? A) efficiency MIS metrics B) effectiveness MIS metrics C) both efficiency and effectiveness MIS metrics D) both ROI and market share

55)

According to Peter Drucker, what are managers who do things right addressing? A) efficiency B) effectiveness C) both efficiency and effectiveness D) customer satisfaction only

56)

According to Peter Drucker, what are managers who do the right things addressing?

Version 1

A) efficiency B) effectiveness C) both efficiency and effectiveness D) customer satisfaction only

57)

Which of the following is a type of effectiveness MIS metric? A) transaction speed B) system availability C) usability D) throughput

58)

Which of the following is a type of efficiency MIS metric? A) customer satisfaction B) conversion rates C) financial transactions D) web traffic

59) Which term is used to describe the ease with which people perform transactions and/or find information? A) usability B) customer satisfaction C) financial D) conversion rates

Version 1

60) What is measured by such benchmarks as satisfaction surveys, percentage of existing customers retained, and increases in revenue dollars per customer? A) usability B) customer satisfaction C) financial D) conversion rates

61)

What would a company like eBay or Amazon be constantly benchmarking? A) financial metrics B) MIS input, process, output C) MIS efficiency and MIS effectiveness D) All of the answers are correct.

62) When considering the graph depicting the interrelationships between efficiency and effectiveness, where does an organization ideally want to operate? A) upper right-hand corner B) lower right-hand corner C) upper left-hand corner D) lower left-hand corner

63)

Which of the following would efficiency MIS metrics measure? A) response time B) system availability C) transaction speed D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

64) Drew Savage is an MIS manager for an international consulting firm. Drew travels to different European countries where he implements news response tracking systems. Some of the metrics he uses to track the performance of his system include tracking the response time it takes to respond to Twitter posts mentioning the news station, as well as the speed and accuracy of content posted on numerous websites and social media sites. What type of metrics is Drew using to measure his system? A) customer satisfaction metrics B) efficiency metrics C) effectiveness metrics D) benchmarking metrics

65) Efficiency MIS metrics focus on the extent to which a firm is using its resources in an optimal way, whereas effectiveness MIS metrics focus on A) understanding how successful a firm is at achieving its goals and objectives. B) analyzing if a firm is doing the right things. C) setting the right goals and ensuring they are accomplished. D) All of the answers are correct.

66)

Which of the following describes the efficiency MIS metric of throughput? A) the number of hours a system is available for users B) the time it takes to respond to user interactions such as a mouse click C) the amount of information that can travel through a system at any point in time D) the ease with which people perform transactions and/or find information

67) Which of the following tracks the number of customers an organization “touches” for the first time and persuades to purchase its products or services? Version 1

A) customer satisfaction B) usability C) conversion rates D) financial

68)

What do usability effectiveness MIS metrics measure?

A) the ease with which people perform transactions and find information B) the number of customers an organization “touches” for the first time and persuades to purchase its products or services C) the amount of time a system takes to perform a transaction D) the number of hours a system is available for users

69) A common mistake that many managers make is focusing on only one type of metrics because they are easier to measure. Which type of metrics do they focus on? A) effectiveness MIS metrics B) efficiency MIS metrics C) endurance MIS metrics D) product sales metrics

70) When analyzing the interrelationships between efficiency and effectiveness, where would a company ideally want to operate? A) with high efficiency B) in the upper right-hand corner of the interrelationship graph C) with high effectiveness D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

71) What is the process of continuously measuring system results, comparing those results to optimal system performance, and identifying steps and procedures to improve system performance? A) benchmarking B) bottlenecking C) consolidation D) All of the answers are correct.

72)

Which of the following is not included as part of a benchmark?

A) benchmarks help assess how an MIS project performs over time B) when measured against MIS projects, benchmarks can provide feedback so managers can control the system C) benchmarks help to establish baseline values the system seeks to attain D) All of the answers are correct.

73) As a manager for your company, some of your responsibilities include measuring metrics and overseeing company strategies. You observe some critical success factors and see large increases in productivity. What would you suspect would be the primary reason for the large increases in productivity? A) decreases in effectiveness B) increases in effectiveness C) increases in executive roles D) decreases in efficiency

74) What are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a specific organization or industry? Version 1

A) return on investment B) metrics C) best practices D) key performance indicators

75)

What indicates the earning power of a project? A) return on investment B) metrics C) best practices D) key performance indicators

76) What are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals? A) return on investment B) metrics C) best practices D) key performance indicators

77) What are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies? A) return on investment B) critical success factors C) best practices D) key performance indicators

Version 1

78) What are the quantifiable metrics a company uses to evaluate progress toward critical success factors? A) return on investment B) critical success factors C) key performance indicators D) return on performance

79) What type of decision is the following: How many employees do we need to staff for Memorial Day? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

80) What type of decision is the following: What was the impact of last month’s loyalty 10 percent discount on all grocery sales? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

81) What type of decision is the following: What was the difference between forecasted sales and actual sales last year?

Version 1

A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

82)

What type of decision is the following: How will new data laws impact the business? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

83) What type of decision is the following: Which employee should we let go home since business is slow? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

84) What type of decision is the following: How many temporary employees do we need to hire for the holiday season? A) operational decision B) government decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

85) What type of decision is the following: What is the best route for dropping off products customers ordered in your neighborhood? A) efficiency decision B) effectiveness decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

86)

What type of decision is the following: Did we meet sales quotas? A) efficiency decision B) effectiveness decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

87) What type of decision is the following: Should we reduce costs by buying lower-quality ingredients? A) efficiency decision B) KPI metric decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

88)

What type of decision is the following: What was the turnover rate for employees?

Version 1

A) efficiency decision B) effectiveness decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

89)

What is a time-series chart?

A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a chart that is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time D) All of the answers are correct.

90)

What is an infographic?

A) a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a chart that is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time D) All of the answers are correct.

91) Which of the following represent the top-down (executives to analysts) organizational levels of information technology systems?

Version 1

A) TPS, DSS, EIS B) DSS, TPS, EIS C) EIS, DSS, TPS D) All of the answers are correct.

92)

What can a model accomplish? A) calculate risks B) understand uncertainty C) manipulate time D) All of the answers are correct.

93)

What compiles information from multiple sources and tailors it to meet user needs? A) algorithm B) digitization C) deep learning D) digital dashboard

94) What captures transaction and event information using technology to (1) process the information according to defined business rules, (2) store the information, and (3) update existing information to reflect the new information? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

Version 1

95) What is the basic business system that serves the operational level and assists in making structured decisions? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

96) What encompasses all organizational information and its primary purpose is to support the performance of managerial analysis or semistructured decisions? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) analytical information D) transactional information

97) What encompasses all the information contained within a single business process or unit of work and its primary purpose is to support the performance of daily operational or structured decisions? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) analytical information D) transactional information

98) What is the manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making?

Version 1

A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

99) What models information and provides assistance in evaluating and choosing among different courses of action? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

100)

What refers to the level of detail in the model or the decision-making process? A) granularity B) visualization C) digital dashboard D) All of the answers are correct.

101) What produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data? A) granularity B) visualization C) digital dashboard D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

102) What tracks KPIs and CSFs by compiling information from multiple sources and tailoring it to meet user needs? A) granularity B) visualization C) digital dashboard D) All of the answers are correct.

103) What is a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

104) What is a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

105) What is a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent?

Version 1

A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

106) What is a graphical display of data using bars of different heights that groups numbers into ranges? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

107)

What is a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend? A) bar chart B) histogram C) time-series chart D) sparkline

108)

What is a graphical representation showing the change of a variable over time? A) bar chart B) histogram C) time-series chart D) sparkline

Version 1

109)

What is a pie chart?

A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

110)

What is a bar chart?

A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

111)

What is a histogram?

A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights that groups numbers into ranges D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

112)

What is a sparkline?

Version 1

A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

113)

Which of the following is correct in terms of granularity? A) refers to the level of detail in the model B) the greater the granularity, the deeper the level of detail of the data C) the greater the granularity, the deeper the level of fineness of the data D) All of the answers are correct.

114)

Which of the following is a potential feature of a digital dashboard? A) a hot list of key performance indicators refreshed every 15 minutes B) a running line graph of planned versus actual production for the past 24 hours C) a graph of stock market prices D) All of the answers are correct.

115)

What is a simplified representation or abstraction of reality? A) model B) metric C) redundancy D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

116)

What can a manager use a model to do? A) calculate risk B) change variables C) understand uncertainty D) All of the answers are correct.

117)

What would managers use to make structured decisions at the operational level? A) transactional information B) analytical information C) executive information system D) neural network

118)

Which of the following would create transactional information? A) projecting future sales growth B) making an airline reservation C) hiring part-time employees for the holiday season D) generating payroll reports

119) What are the three primary types of management information systems available to support decision making across the company levels?

Version 1

A) transaction processing systems, decision support systems, executive information systems B) analytical information, decision support systems, executive information systems C) transaction processing systems, drill-down systems, expert systems D) what-if analysis, sensitivity analysis, goal-seeking analysis

120) A transaction processing system (TPS) is the basic business system that assists operational level analysts when making structured decisions. Which of the following is not an example of a TPS? A) Target’s internal payroll system B) Comfort Dental’s patient diagnosis system C) First Bank’s ATM D) Stewart Sport’s order-entry system

121) What is the management information system that manipulates information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) digital dashboard D) visualization

122) When viewing systems thinking, source documents are the original transaction records. What would the source documents for a medical doctor’s payroll system include?

Version 1

A) employee time sheets B) employee benefit reports C) employee wage rates D) All of the answers are correct.

123) Online transaction processing (OLTP) and online analytical processing (OLAP) are similar MIS strategies used to help with business decision making. What is the primary difference between OLTP and OLAP? A) OLTP is used at the operational level; OLAP is used at the managerial level B) OLTP is used to capture transactional and event data; OLAP is used to manipulate information C) OLTP is used to support structured decisions; OLAP is used to support semistructured decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

124) Decision making at the executive or strategic level requires business intelligence and knowledge to support the uncertainty and complexity of the business. What is a specialized decision support system that supports senior-level executives and unstructured decisions requiring judgment, evaluation, and insight? A) online transaction processing B) executive information system C) transaction support system D) decision support system

125) Executives of a company deal less with details of the operational activities and more with the higher, meaningful aggregations of information or “coarser” information. What refers to the level of detail in the model?

Version 1

A) digital dashboard B) visualization C) granularity D) consolidation

126) How does a decision support system typically differ from an executive information system? A) an executive information system requires data from external sources to support unstructured decisions, whereas a decision support system typically uses internal sources to support semistructured decisions B) a decision support system typically uses external sources, and an executive information system uses internal sources to support decisions C) a decision support system never uses external sources D) an executive information system always uses internal sources to support structured decisions

127) What is a graphical display of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data? A) visualization B) model C) table D) digital dashboard

128)

What is a category of AI that attempts to emulate the way the human brain works?

Version 1

A) intelligent agent B) artificial intelligence C) expert systems D) neural network

129) What is the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

130) What occurs when you add additional training examples by transforming existing training examples? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

131) What occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

Version 1

132) What occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

133)

Which of the following best describes affinity bias?

A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views C) looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone D) a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests or backgrounds

134)

Which of the following is an example of affinity bias?

A) Javier focuses on hiring people who have similar experience and backgrounds required by the job description. B) Brian tries to hire people with an affinity for the daily requirements of the job. C) Sonequa focuses on hiring people who accept the first salary offer due to tight budgets. D) Emily often hires people who have similar backgrounds and interests as her because she believes it improves collaboration.

135) Surveys have found that voters tend to ignore information from news broadcasters that contradicts their existing beliefs and views. Which of the following types of bias best describes such type of voter behavior? Version 1

A) preference bias B) confirmation bias C) affinity bias D) conformity bias

136)

Which of the following best describes confirmation bias?

A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone C) acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views D) a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds

137)

Which of the following refers to the tendency to prefer certain types of names? A) affinity bias B) confirmation bias C) name bias D) preference bias

138)

Which of the following best describes name bias? A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone C) acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

139)

Which of the following best describes conformity bias? A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) the tendency to look for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone C) the tendency to act similarly to those around you, regardless of your own views D) the tendency to hire those with similar work experiences

140) Which type of bias refers to the tendency of someone to match the behavior of their team members, regardless of their personality? A) name bias B) confirmation bias C) conformity bias D) affinity bias

141)

What is digitization?

A) the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format B) occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples C) occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data D) occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data

142)

What is data augmentation?

Version 1

143)

What is overfitting?

144)

What is underfitting?

145)

What is a problem with using incorrect training data to train a machine?

Version 1

A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) All of the answers are correct.

146) Which type of bias occurs as a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) variance bias

147) What type of bias occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) variance bias

148) Which type of bias represents a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) affinity bias

Version 1

149)

What is sample bias?

A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a mathematical property of an algorithm; this is the only bias not associated with the input or training data

150)

What is prejudice bias?

151)

What is measurement bias?

152)

What is variance bias?

Version 1

153)

What is affinity bias?

A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds

154)

Which of the following is NOT a type of machine learning? A) supervised machine learning B) unsupervised machine learning C) transfer machine learning D) market share machine learning

155) What is a robot capable of making its own decisions and performing an action accordingly?

Version 1

A) digitization B) autonomous robotics C) deep learning D) reinforcement learning

156)

What is the training of machine learning models to make a sequence of decisions? A) digitization B) autonomous robotics C) deep learning D) reinforcement learning

157) What is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets? A) digitization B) autonomous robotics C) deep learning D) reinforcement learning

158)

Which type of AI system assigns values of 0 and 1 to vague or ambiguous information? A) genetic algorithms B) artificial intelligence C) fuzzy logic D) reinforcement learning

Version 1

159) Artificial Intelligence stimulates human thinking and behavior, such as the ability to reason and learn. What is the ultimate goal of AI? A) to build an information system B) to build an intelligent agent C) to build a system that can mimic human intelligence D) to build a system that can mimic an expert agent

160)

Which of the following does not represent a category of AI? A) genetic algorithms B) neural networks C) expert systems D) consolidation

161) What is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it? A) augmented reality B) deep learning C) neural network D) virtual reality

162)

What is augmented reality?

Version 1

A) the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it B) a wearable computer with an optical head-mounted display C) uses technology allowing humans to interact with a computer through bodily sensations and movements D) a work environment that is not located in any one physical space

163) Which of the following categories of AI is used extensively in the finance industry to analyze situations in which the logic or rules are unknown? A) expert system B) virtual reality C) neural network D) genetic algorithm

164)

Which of the following is not a feature of a neural network? A) Neural networks can cope with huge volumes of information with many variables. B) Neural networks can function without complete or well-structured information. C) Neural networks can analyze linear relationships only. D) Neural networks can learn and adjust to new circumstance on their own.

165)

What is the mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective information? A) fuzzy logic B) virtual reality C) expert system D) genetic algorithm

Version 1

166) What is the ability of a computer to “see” by digitizing an image, processing the data it contains, and taking some kind of action? A) case-based reasoning B) machine vision C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

167) What is the ability of a machine to see in dim light or to detect weak impulses at invisible wavelengths? A) case-based reasoning B) machine vision C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

168)

What is the extent to which a machine can differentiate between objects? A) case-based reasoning B) machine vision C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

169) What is an optimizing system that can find and evaluate solutions with many more possibilities, faster, and more thoroughly than a human?

Version 1

A) genetic algorithm B) robotic process automation C) overfitting D) virtual reality

170) What is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets? A) reinforcement learning B) deep learning C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

171)

What refers to a set of instructions that completes a task? A) algorithm B) machine learning C) sample bias D) name bias

172) What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn? A) algorithm B) machine learning C) sample bias D) reinforcement learning

Version 1

173)

What is machine learning?

A) refers to a set of instructions that completes a task B) a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn C) machines that can still make their own decisions based on reasoning and past sets of data D) refers to the field of artificial intelligence that works toward providing brainlike powers to AI machines; in effect, it works to make machines as intelligent as the humans.

174) For what types of business decisions would an executive information system use artificial intelligence? A) semistructured decisions B) multistructured decisions C) structured decisions D) unstructured decisions

175)

Which of the following business ideas is not using AI?

A) Best Buy implements a software system that will determine how many customers are needed to increase gross profits to $5 million. B) McDonald’s unveils a robot that cleans and tidies the restaurant, while also asking guests if it can take their trays to the trash. C) Starbucks creates a system that works like a hand and lifts and moves the mixing pots for the coffees to and from the coffee machines to the counters. D) A golf course creates an automated golf cart that can offer swing and club suggestions and even navigate the course for the driver.

Version 1

176) What is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it? A) virtual reality B) augmented reality C) virtual workforce D) information reality

177) What is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world? A) virtual reality B) augmented reality C) virtual workforce D) information reality

178) Which of the following business processes would you find in the marketing and sales division? A) manufacturing inventory B) enrolling employees in a health care plan C) promoting of discounts D) creating financial statements

179) Which of the following departments is primarily responsible for promoting discounts, attracting customers, and communicating marketing campaigns?

Version 1

A) accounting and finance B) marketing and sales C) operations management D) human resources

180) Which of the following represents a business process you would find in the operations management department? A) ordering inventory B) processing sales C) promoting of discounts D) paying of accounts payable

181) The accounting and finance department performs processes such as creating financial statements, paying accounts payables, and collecting accounts receivables. What form of processes do these represent? A) customer-facing processes B) business-facing processes C) industry-specific customer-facing processes D) all answers are correct

182) What form of processes include loan processing for a bank, claims processing for an insurance company, reservation processing for a hotel, and baggage handling for an airline? A) customer-facing processes B) business-facing processes C) industry-specific customer-facing processes D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

183) What type of processes includes order processing, customer service processing, sales processing, customer billing processing, and order shipping processing? A) customer-facing processes B) business-facing processes C) industry-specific customer-facing processes D) All of the answers are correct.

184) Which of the following represents business processes you would find in the human resources department? A) hiring employees B) enrolling employees in benefit plans C) tracking vacation and sick time D) All of the answers are correct.

185)

What is the difference between customer-facing processes and business-facing processes?

A) Business-facing processes are front-office processes; customer-facing processes are back-office processes. B) Customer-facing processes are front-office processes; business-facing processes are back-office processes. C) Customer-facing processes are back-office processes; industry-specific customerfacing processes are back-office processes. D) Customer-facing processes are back-office processes; industry-specific customerfacing processes are front-office processes.

186)

Which of the following is a customer-facing process?

Version 1

A) communicating with customers B) strategic goal setting C) providing performance feedback and rewards D) purchasing raw materials

187)

Which of the following represents a business-facing process? A) loan processing B) order processing C) strategic planning D) customer billing

188) Which of the following processes would be found in the operations management department? A) creating production schedules B) communicating marketing campaigns C) hiring employees D) processing sales

189)

Which of the following should a business follow for success? A) technology choices should drive business processes B) business processes should drive technology choices C) technology choices should drive business strategies and goals D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

190) What uses a systematic approach in an attempt to improve business effectiveness and efficiency continuously? A) static process B) dynamic process C) sales process D) customer service process

191) What continuously changes and provides business solutions to ever-changing business operations? A) static process B) dynamic process C) financial process D) sales process

192)

Which of the following are examples of static processes? A) running payroll B) calculating taxes C) creating financial statements D) All of the answers are correct.

193)

Which of the following are examples of dynamic processes? A) employee layoffs B) order level changes based on currency rates C) canceling business travel due to extreme weather D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

194)

Which of the following is an example of a dynamic process? A) running payroll B) calculating taxes C) creating financial statements D) employee layoffs

195)

Which of the following is an example of a static process? A) employee layoffs B) order level changes based on currency rates C) canceling business travel due to extreme weather D) creating financial statements

196)

What is a graphical notation that depicts the steps in a business process? A) Business Process Model Nation B) Business Practice Model Notation C) Business Process Model Notation D) Business Practice Management Notes

197)

What displays the path in which the process flows? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

Version 1

198)

What is a task in a business process? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

199)

What is anything that happens during the course of a business process? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

200)

What is used to control the flow of a process? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

201)

What is represented by a circle in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

Version 1

202)

What is represented by a rounded-corner rectangle in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

203)

What is represented by a diamond shape in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

204)

What is represented by arrows in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

205) Jessica Ulta works for City Service Credit Union and is responsible for consulting on loans, talking clients through the loan process, and providing loans to members. What type of processes does Jessica primarily work with?

Version 1

A) business-facing processes B) industry-specific customer-facing processes C) customer-facing processes D) industry-specific business-facing processes

206) Sarah Smith was recently hired by Bank West as the Global Director of Human Resources. Her job duties include determining employment policies as well as overseeing all hiring, firing, and training of employees. What type of processes does Sarah’s new job demonstrate? A) business-facing processes B) industry-specific customer-facing processes C) customer-facing process D) industry-specific business-facing processes

207) What is a model that represents the current state of the operation without any specific improvements or changes to existing processes? A) As-Is process model B) To-Be process model C) competitive business process model D) workflow model

208) What is the business process model that ensures the process is fully and clearly understood before the details of a process solution are decided upon?

Version 1

A) As-Is process model B) business process reengineering model C) customer-facing process D) To-Be process model

209)

What is the difference between the As-Is process model and the To-Be process model?

A) The As-Is process model begins with what the process problem is, and the To-Be process model displays how the problem will be solved. B) The process models are not related. C) Both process models determine when to solve the problem. D) The As-Is process model begins with where to implement the solution, and the To-Be process model displays why the problem needs to be fixed.

210)

What is the primary goal of the As-Is process model? A) to outline the process elements for the To-Be process B) to create process choices for the As-Is process C) to simplify, eliminate, and improve the To-Be process D) to analyze the To-Be process elements

211) Local florist Cheryl Steffan has been in business for over 20 years. Recently, Cheryl has noticed several complaints about delivery errors. Cheryl decides to investigate the errors in her business delivery process and finds that most of the inaccuracies occur during order taking. Cheryl decides to implement an electronic ordering system to help improve order efficiency and effectiveness. What method did Cheryl follow to solve her delivery issues?

Version 1

A) modeled the As-Is process, fixed the errors, and then created the To-Be process B) modeled the To-Be process, fixed the errors, and then created the As-Is process C) moved directly to implementing the To-Be process without analyzing the As-Is process D) moved directly to implementing the As-Is process without analyzing the To-Be process

212)

What is the primary goal of using As-Is and To-Be process models? A) to determine employee specific errors B) to determine measurement metrics C) to determine the worst way to solve a problem D) to determine what the problem is and then how to solve it

213) Which of the following typically occurs during operational business process improvement? A) automation B) streamlining C) reengineering D) improvement

214) Which of the following typically occurs during managerial business process improvement? A) automation B) streamlining C) reengineering D) improvement

Version 1

215)

Which of the following typically occurs during strategic business process improvement? A) automation B) streamlining C) reengineering D) improvement

216)

What does business process reengineering assume about the current process? A) the current process is irrelevant B) the current process is broken C) the current process must be overhauled from scratch D) All of the answers are correct.

217) What is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform? A) data augmentation B) robotic process automation C) deep learning D) machine learning

218)

What improves managerial level business processes?

Version 1

A) performance measures B) bottlenecks C) redundancy D) streamlining

219) What is the point at which resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands? A) optimization analysis B) bottleneck C) redundancy D) swim lane

220) Automating a business process that contains ________ or _________ will magnify or amplify these problems if they are not corrected first. A) bottlenecks; regulations B) redundancies; regulations C) bottlenecks; redundancies D) redundancies; swim lanes

221)

What is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises? A) critical success factors B) benchmarking metrics C) business process reengineering D) decision support interfaces

Version 1

222) Changing business processes with MIS outlines how to improve the three levels of business processes, which include operational, managerial, and strategic. From operational to strategic, what are the three major improvement strategies that the author describes? A) automation—streamlining—reengineering B) artificial intelligence—streamlining—reengineering C) automation—workflow—reinvention D) automation—consolidating—restructuring

223) Which of the following explains why a company would implement a business process reengineering strategy? A) to encourage competition B) to decrease customers C) to create value for the customer D) All of the answers are correct.

224) What includes the tasks, activities, and responsibilities required to execute each step in a business process? A) workflow B) swim lane C) automation D) streamlining

225) What is the process of computerizing manual tasks, making them more efficient and effective and dramatically lowering operational costs?

Version 1

A) workflow B) swim lane C) automation D) streamlining

226) What improves business process efficiencies by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps? A) workflow B) swim lane C) automation D) streamlining

227) What occur(s) when resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands, limiting throughput and impeding operations? A) bottlenecks B) redundancy C) automation D) streamlining

228)

What occur(s) when a task or activity is unnecessarily repeated? A) bottlenecks B) redundancy C) automation D) streamlining

Version 1

229) What are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes? A) operational business processes B) managerial business processes C) strategic business processes D) success business processes

230) What are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions? A) operational business processes B) managerial business processes C) strategic business processes D) success business processes

231) What are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements? A) operational business processes B) managerial business processes C) strategic business processes D) success business processes

232)

What are managerial business processes?

Version 1

A) dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions B) semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements C) static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes D) None of the answer choices are correct.

233)

What are strategic business processes?

234)

What are operational business processes?

235) At the operational level, employees are continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

236) At the operational level, employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities required to run the day-to-day operations. ⊚ ⊚

237)

Operational decisions are considered structured decisions. ⊚ ⊚

238)

true false

Asking how many employees are out sick is a type of operational question. ⊚ ⊚

239)

true false

Strategic decisions are highly structured decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

240) One of the most important and challenging questions confronting managers today is how to lay the foundation for tomorrow’s success while competing to win in today’s business environment. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

241) The structure of a typical organization is similar to a pyramid, with different levels that require one consistent type of information to assist with all managerial decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

242) Operational decisions or semistructured decisions arise in situations where established processes offer potential solutions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

243) Unstructured decisions occur in situations in which no procedures or rules exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

244) At the strategic decision-making level, employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities. ⊚ ⊚

245)

true false

Key performance indicators can focus on external and internal measurements. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

246)

The proportion of the market that a firm captures is called market share. ⊚ ⊚

247)

Benchmarks are baseline values the system seeks to attain. ⊚ ⊚

248)

true false

Effectiveness MIS metrics include throughput, transaction speed, and system availability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

249) Measuring the amount of website traffic is the best way to determine an organization’s success. ⊚ ⊚

true false

250) A project is a temporary activity a company undertakes to create a unique product, service, or result. ⊚ ⊚

true false

251) Metrics are temporary activities a company undertakes to create a unique product, service, or result. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

252) Metrics are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals. ⊚ ⊚

253)

true false

Efficiency MIS metrics include throughput, speed, and availability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

254) Effectiveness MIS metrics measure the impact MIS has on business processes and activities, including customer satisfaction and customer conversion rates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

255) Efficiency MIS metrics measure the impact MIS has on business processes and activities, including customer satisfaction and customer conversion rates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

256) Best practices are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a specific organization or industry. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

257)

Return on investment indicates the earning power of a project. ⊚ ⊚

true false

258) MIS support systems rely on models for computational and analytical routines that mathematically express relationships among variables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

259) A pie chart is a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represent a proportion of the whole. ⊚ ⊚

true false

260) Streamlining information encompasses all of the information contained within a single business process or unit of work, and its primary purpose is to support the performing of daily operational or structured decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

261) A bar chart is a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

262) A histogram is a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

263) A sparkline is a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend. Sparklines are often used in reports, presentations, dashboards, and scoreboards. They do not include axes or labels; context comes from the related content. ⊚ ⊚

true false

264) An infographic (information graphic) is a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance. People use infographics to quickly communicate a message, to simplify the presentation of large amounts of data, to see data patterns and relationships, and to monitor changes in variables over time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

265) A time-series chart is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time. Time-series charts are used for data that changes continuously, such as stock prices. They allow for a clear visual representation of a change in one variable over a set amount of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

266) Managers use transactional information when making structured decisions at the operational level. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

267) The manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making is referred to as OLTP or online transaction processing. ⊚ ⊚

268)

A model is a simplified representation or abstraction of reality. ⊚ ⊚

269)

true false

Source documents are the original transaction records. ⊚ ⊚

271)

true false

Source documents are simplified representations or abstractions of reality. ⊚ ⊚

270)

true false

Granularity refers to the level of detail in the model or the decision-making process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

272) Visualization produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

273) A digital dashboard produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

274) A neural network is a category of efficiency and effectiveness MIS metrics where it attempts to measure the way a computer network sends and receives data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

275) A genetic algorithm is an operational system that uses human cellular information to mimic evolution for better solutions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

276) A genetic algorithm mimics the evolutionary, survival-of-the-fittest process to generate increasingly better solutions to a problem. ⊚ ⊚

277)

true false

Investment companies use effectiveness MIS metrics to help in trading decisions. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

278)

Fuzzy logic is a mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

279) Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. ⊚ ⊚

280)

true false

An algorithm refers to a set of instructions that completes a task. ⊚ ⊚

true false

281) Machine learning is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn. ⊚ ⊚

true false

282) Affinity bias is when someone acts similar to those around them regardless of their own personality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

283) Affinity bias is when a person who enjoys critical thinking, chess and strategic board games, hires someone who enjoys them as well.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

284) Conformity bias is when a person tries to mimic the behavior and thinking of their manager regardless of their own personality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

285) Conformity bias is when a person researching a project looks for data that supports their current assumptions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

286) Confirmation bias is when a person believes their coworker to be lazy and looks for signs that they come in late, procrastinate, and try to get out of work projects. ⊚ ⊚

287)

Name bias is when a person prefers certain types of names. ⊚ ⊚

288)

true false

Conformity bias is when a person prefers certain types of names. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

289) Affinity bias a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with dissimilar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. ⊚ ⊚

true false

290) Virtual reality is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world. ⊚ ⊚

true false

291) Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

292) Augmented reality is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world. ⊚ ⊚

true false

293) Virtual reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

294) A machine-vision system uses a video camera to capture data and send it to the robot controller. Machine vision is similar in complexity to voice recognition and can be used for handwriting recognition, signature identification, and currency inspection. Two important specifications in any vision system are the sensitivity and the resolution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

295) Deep learning is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

296) Business-facing processes or back-office processes are invisible to the external customer but essential to the effective management and operation of the business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

297) When evaluating the five steps in the order-to-delivery business process, step one includes creating a campaign and checking inventory, which are both part of the human resources function. ⊚ ⊚

298)

true false

Strategic planning is a customer-facing business process. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

299)

Product delivery is a customer-facing business process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

300) Improving the efficiency and effectiveness of its business processes will improve a firm’s value chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

301) Core processes are business processes, such as manufacturing goods, selling products, and providing services, that make up the primary activities in a value chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

302) Core processes are patents that protect a specific set of procedures for conducting a particular business activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

303) A static process uses a systematic approach in an attempt to improve business effectiveness and efficiency continuously. Managers constantly attempt to optimize static process. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

304) Examples of static processes include running payroll, calculating taxes, and creating financial statements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

305) Examples of dynamic processes include running payroll, calculating taxes, and creating financial statements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

306) A dynamic process continuously changes and provides business solutions to everchanging business operations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

307) A static process continuously changes and provides business solutions to ever-changing business operations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

308) As the business and its strategies change, so do the dynamic processes. Examples of dynamic processes include managing layoffs of employees, changing order levels based on currency rates, and canceling business travel due to extreme weather. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

309) A business process patent is a patent that protects a specific set of procedures for conducting a particular business activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

310) A payroll management system is a graphic description of a process, showing the sequence of process tasks, which is developed for a specific purpose and from a selected viewpoint. ⊚ ⊚

true false

311) To-Be process models show the results of applying change improvement opportunities to the current (As-Is) process model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

312) Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) is a graphical notation that depicts the steps in a business process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

313) A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) event is anything that happens during the course of a business process. An event is represented by a circle in a business process model. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

314)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) activity is a task in a business process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

315) A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) gateway is used to control the flow of a process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

316) A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) flow displays the path in which the process flows. ⊚ ⊚

true false

317) A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) flow is anything that happens during the course of a business process. An event is represented by a circle in a business process model. ⊚ ⊚

318)

true false

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) event is a task in a business process. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

319) A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) activity is used to control the flow of a process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

320) A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) gateway displays the path in which the process flows. ⊚ ⊚

true false

321) The primary goal of an As-Is process model is to simplify, eliminate, and improve the To-Be processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

322) Business processes should never drive MIS choices and should be based on business strategies and goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

323) A swim lane layout arranges the steps of a business process into a set of rows depicting the various elements. ⊚ ⊚

324)

true false

Redundancy occurs when a task or activity is never repeated.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

325) Robotic process automation (RPA) is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform. ⊚ ⊚

true false

326) Business process reengineering is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises. ⊚ ⊚

true false

327) Robotic process automation (RPA) is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform. ⊚ ⊚

true false

328) Operational business processes are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

329) Managerial business processes are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

330) Strategic business processes are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

331) Strategic business processes are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

332) Operational business processes are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

333) Operational business processes are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_8e_Baltzan 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) A Version 1

34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) D Version 1

64) B 65) D 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) A 80) B 81) C 82) C 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) B 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) A 91) C 92) D 93) D Version 1

94) A 95) C 96) C 97) D 98) B 99) D 100) A 101) B 102) C 103) A 104) B 105) C 106) D 107) D 108) C 109) A 110) B 111) C 112) D 113) D 114) D 115) A 116) D 117) A 118) B 119) A 120) B 121) B 122) D 123) D Version 1

124) B 125) C 126) A 127) A 128) D 129) A 130) B 131) C 132) D 133) D 134) D 135) B 136) B 137) C 138) A 139) C 140) C 141) A 142) B 143) C 144) D 145) A 146) B 147) C 148) D 149) A 150) B 151) C 152) D 153) D Version 1

154) D 155) B 156) D 157) C 158) C 159) C 160) D 161) A 162) A 163) C 164) C 165) A 166) B 167) C 168) D 169) A 170) B 171) A 172) B 173) B 174) D 175) A 176) B 177) A 178) C 179) B 180) A 181) B 182) C 183) A Version 1

184) D 185) B 186) A 187) C 188) A 189) B 190) A 191) B 192) D 193) D 194) D 195) D 196) C 197) C 198) B 199) A 200) D 201) A 202) B 203) D 204) C 205) B 206) A 207) A 208) D 209) A 210) C 211) A 212) D 213) A Version 1

214) B 215) C 216) D 217) B 218) D 219) B 220) C 221) C 222) A 223) C 224) A 225) C 226) D 227) A 228) B 229) A 230) C 231) B 232) B 233) A 234) C 235) FALSE 236) TRUE 237) TRUE 238) TRUE 239) FALSE 240) TRUE 241) FALSE 242) FALSE 243) TRUE Version 1

244) FALSE 245) TRUE 246) TRUE 247) TRUE 248) FALSE 249) FALSE 250) TRUE 251) FALSE 252) TRUE 253) TRUE 254) TRUE 255) FALSE 256) TRUE 257) TRUE 258) TRUE 259) TRUE 260) FALSE 261) TRUE 262) TRUE 263) TRUE 264) TRUE 265) TRUE 266) TRUE 267) FALSE 268) TRUE 269) FALSE 270) TRUE 271) TRUE 272) TRUE 273) FALSE Version 1

274) FALSE 275) FALSE 276) TRUE 277) FALSE 278) TRUE 279) TRUE 280) TRUE 281) TRUE 282) FALSE 283) TRUE 284) TRUE 285) FALSE 286) TRUE 287) TRUE 288) FALSE 289) FALSE 290) TRUE 291) TRUE 292) FALSE 293) FALSE 294) TRUE 295) TRUE 296) TRUE 297) FALSE 298) FALSE 299) TRUE 300) TRUE 301) TRUE 302) FALSE 303) TRUE Version 1

304) TRUE 305) FALSE 306) TRUE 307) FALSE 308) TRUE 309) TRUE 310) FALSE 311) TRUE 312) TRUE 313) TRUE 314) TRUE 315) TRUE 316) TRUE 317) FALSE 318) FALSE 319) FALSE 320) FALSE 321) TRUE 322) FALSE 323) TRUE 324) FALSE 325) TRUE 326) TRUE 327) TRUE 328) TRUE 329) TRUE 330) TRUE 331) FALSE 332) FALSE 333) FALSE Version 1

Version 1

CHAPTER 3 1) Compare disruptive and sustaining technologies, and explain how the Internet and the World Wide Web caused business disruption.

Explain net neutrality and its potential benefits.

Describe Web 1.0 along with ebusiness and its associated advantages.

Compare the four categories of ebusiness models.

Version 1

Describe ebusiness tools for connecting and communicating.

Explain how Business 2.0 is helping communities’ network and collaborate.

Compare blogs and wikis.

Version 1

Explain the terms misinformation, disinformation, and fake news and their differences.

10)

Describe Web 3.0 and the next generation of online business.

11) Which of the following terms implies that organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction? A) collective intelligence B) digital Darwinism C) joint venture D) sole proprietorship

12) Which of the following produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive?

Version 1

A) sustaining technology B) disruptive technology C) reputation system D) personalization

13)

Which of the follow are characteristics of disruptive technology? A) enters the marketplace at the low end B) initially doesn’t meet the needs of existing customers C) tends to open new markets and destroy old ones D) All of the answers are correct.

14)

Which of the following is a challenge of sustaining technology? A) provides a cheaper product for current customers B) provides a product that does not meet existing customer’s future needs C) provides a better product for current customers D) provides a faster product for current customers

15) The Innovator’s Dilemma suggests that established companies can take advantage of ________ without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders. A) sustaining technology B) existing investments C) collective intelligence D) disruptive technology

Version 1

16) Which of the following began as an essential emergency military communications system operated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DARPA)? A) Internet B) ecommerce C) ebusiness D) World Wide Web

17)

Which of the following is the founding principle of net neutrality?

A) All consumers should be able to generate revenue by providing digital content such as news, music, photos, or videos. B) Consumers should be able to use the Internet and be free to access its resources without any form of discrimination. C) Companies should be able to manage the creation, storage, editing, and publication of their website content. D) All companies should be able to use masked Internet Protocol (IP) addresses.

18)

Which of the following is a description of net neutrality? A) net neutrality ensures that all information on the net is neutral and free of bias B) net neutrality ensures that everyone has equal access to the Internet C) net neutrality ensures that everyone always sees the same information on the Internet D) net neutrality protects people on the Internet from scams

19)

Which of the following terms could you use synonymously when referring to the web?

Version 1

A) network, paradigm shift B) URL, domain name C) HTML, Internet D) web browser, blog

20) At a local marketing firm, Steve is the lead Web developer and is responsible for working with customers on their web designs, development, and graphics. Which of the following would be a critical skill Steve must have to be able to perform his job? A) understanding that he must create a unique domain name for each client B) being able to work with HTML C) understanding the World Wide Web and how hyperlinks work D) All of the answers are correct.

21)

Which of the following is not a reason for the explosive growth of the WWW?

A) basic web pages are easy to create and extremely flexible B) the microcomputer revolution made it possible for an average person to own a computer C) digital Darwinism D) the speed, convenience, and low cost of email

22) Which term describes the WWW during its first few years of operation between 1991 and 2003? A) Web 1.0 B) eshop C) open source D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

23)

What is the difference between ecommerce and ebusiness?

A) Ecommerce includes Internet network effects; ebusiness includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations. B) Ecommerce is buying and selling of goods or services online; ebusiness includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations. C) Ecommerce includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations; ebusiness includes all of the knowledge management systems. D) Ebusiness is buying and selling of goods or services online; ecommerce includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations.

24) What is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators? A) hypertext markup language (HTML) B) URL C) hypertext transport protocol (HTTP) D) DARPA

25)

What allows users to access the WWW? A) web conferencing B) web browser C) Web 2.0 D) web business

26)

Which of the following is a type of web browser?

Version 1

A) Microsoft Word and Excel B) Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox C) Facebook and YouTube D) All of the answers are correct.

27)

What caused Polaroid to go bankrupt? A) it failed to have innovative technology and a captive customer base B) one-hour film processing and digital cameras stole its market share C) people who want instant access to their pictures also want a third party involved D) Internet websites such as Flickr and Facebook stole its market share

28) Many social media sites today allow you to customize your web address, for example www.facebook.com/Womenwithdrive. What is an alternate name for a web address such as www.apple.com? A) digital bookmark B) Internet bookmark C) universal resource locator D) web browser

29) Universities were among some of the first users of the Internet. What was the Internet first called? A) HTML B) ARPANET C) OPT D) WWO

Version 1

30) What links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link? A) digital Darwinism B) web browser C) hypertext transport protocol D) universal resource locator

31) What is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity? A) domain name B) domain name hosting C) dot-com D) paradigm shift

32) What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave? A) domain name B) domain name hosting C) click-thru D) paradigm shift

33)

What does digital Darwinism imply?

Version 1

A) Organizations that can adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. B) Organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. C) Organizations that can adapt to new information systems are doomed to extinction. D) Organizations that cannot adapt to new information systems are doomed to exile.

34)

Which of the following is an example of a disruptive technology? A) Oracle’s database software B) Sony’s transistor-based consumer electronics (transistor radio) C) Intel’s low-end microprocessor D) All of the answers are correct.

35)

Which of the following is an example of a sustaining technology? A) Porsche’s faster car B) Intel’s low-end microprocessor C) Sony’s transistor-based consumer electronics (transistor radio) D) All of the answers are correct.

36)

Which of the following is a reason for the growth of the World Wide Web? A) the microcomputer revolution B) advancements in networking hardware C) web pages being easy to create and flexible D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

37)

What is information richness?

A) a global public network of computer networks that pass information from one to another using common computer protocols B) refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information C) refers to the number of people a business can communicate with on a global basis D) occurs when those with access to technology have great advantages over those without access to technology

38)

What is information reach?

A) a global public network of computer networks that pass information from one to another using common computer protocols B) refers to the depth and breadth of information transferred between customers and businesses C) measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world D) occurs when those with access to technology have great advantages over those without access to technology

39) What are agents, software, or businesses that provide a trading infrastructure to bring buyers and sellers together? A) intermediaries B) showrooming C) disinformation D) disintermediation

Version 1

40) What occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online and cuts out the middleman? A) intermediaries B) disintermediation C) cookie D) showrooming

41) Which of the following are reasons why both individuals and organizations have embraced ebusiness? A) enhance productivity B) maximize convenience C) improve communication D) All of the answers are correct.

42) What is the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video? A) information richness B) information age C) information reach D) All of the answers are correct.

43) What is a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors?

Version 1

A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

44) What is the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

45) What uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

46) What uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-tomarket? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

Version 1

47)

What is a heat map?

A) a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors B) the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order C) uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level D) uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market

48)

What are clickstream analytics?

49)

What are website traffic analytics?

50)

What are website ebusiness analytics?

Version 1

51)

What measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world? A) information richness B) information age C) information reach D) information browser

52)

Which of the below would not be considered an advantage of ebusiness? A) expanding global reach B) opening new markets C) reducing costs D) reducing information reach

53) What is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications? A) personalization B) long tail C) mass customization D) information reach

Version 1

54) Which of the below would not be considered a company operating in the long tail of a typical sales curve? A) Walmart B) Netflix C) iTunes D) Amazon

55) Mars, Inc., offers people the opportunity to order M&Ms in special colors or with customized sayings. How would you classify Mars’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

56) Amazon creates a unique recommendation listing for each customer who revisits its website. How would you classify Amazon’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

57) Netflix creates a unique recommendation listing for each customer who revisits its website. How would you classify Netflix’s ebusiness strategy?

Version 1

A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

58) Nike offers people the opportunity to visit its website to create running shoes in the style and color they choose. How would you classify Nike’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

59) When evaluating the business value of disintermediation, the more ________ that are cut from the distribution chain, the lower the product price. A) users B) customers C) data D) intermediaries

60) A company can reduce its costs by using ebusiness to change its business processes. Which of the following represents an example of a company reducing its costs through ebusiness?

Version 1

A) creating an online travel reservation B) ordering office supplies online and picking it up at the store C) purchasing a book online and picking it up in the store D) researching products to find the lowest price and visiting the store to purchase the item

61)

Which of the below statements is correct? A) Just putting up a website can create tremendous ebusiness value. B) Just putting up a website can create tremendous business buzz. C) Just putting up a website can limit product availability. D) Just putting up a website does not create an ebusiness.

62)

What is the exact pattern of a consumer’s navigation through a site? A) web browsing B) hypertext C) clickstream data D) web data

63)

What is the best way to measure a company’s ebusiness success? A) effective MIS metrics B) interactivity C) clickstream data D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

64)

Which of the following is an ebusiness marketing technique? A) cookies B) pop-up ad C) banner ad D) All of the answers are correct.

65) Which type of ebusiness marketing technique induces websites or users to pass on a marketing message to other websites or users, creating exponential growth in the message’s visibility and effect? A) cookies B) click-through C) viral marketing D) pop-up ad

66) Bonnie Flat is a real estate agent who specializes in the luxury home market in the Seattle area. Bonnie is highly technical and uses many types of online marketing techniques to increase business. One of her most successful online marketing techniques is to place a box advertising her services along the top of real estate and luxury custom furniture websites. What type of marketing technique is Bonnie using? A) cookie B) banner ad C) pop-up ad D) click-through ad

67) What is the business strategy that lets a company shorten the order process and add value with reduced costs or a more responsive and efficient service, and occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online?

Version 1

A) disintermediation B) intermediaries C) freemium D) All of the answers are correct.

68)

Which of the following is an example of a clickstream data metric? A) dates and times of visits B) number of customers with shopping carts C) number of page views D) All of the answers are correct.

69)

What measures the amount of time visitors spend on a website or application? A) freemium B) cookie C) paradigm shift D) stickiness

70)

What is the difference between a business model and an ebusiness model?

A) A business model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; an ebusiness model does all of the same except on the Internet. B) A business model and an ebusiness model are identical. C) A business model and an ebusiness model are complete opposites. D) An ebusiness model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; a business model does all the same except on the Internet.

Version 1

71)

What are the four main types of ebusiness models?

A) business-to-borrower, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-business, and consumer-toconsumer B) business-to-business, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-business, and consumer-toconsumer C) business-to-business, business collaboration, collective business, and consumer-toconsumer D) ebusiness-to-ebusiness, e business-to-ebusiness, econsumer-to-ebusiness, and econsumer-to-econsumer

72)

What is the difference between a B2C and a C2B?

A) B2C focuses on companies as customers, and C2B focuses on consumers as customers. B) B2C focuses on collaboration, and C2B focuses on consumers. C) B2C focuses on business to consumers, and C2B focuses on consumers to business. D) B2C focuses on consumers as customers, and C2B focuses on companies as customers.

73) What is the ebusiness model that applies to customers offering goods and services to each other over the Internet? A) C2C B) C2B C) B2B D) B2C

Version 1

74) What is the ebusiness model that represents 80 percent of all online businesses and is typically more complex, requiring greater security needs? A) consumer-to-consumer B) business-to-consumer C) consumer-to-business D) business-to-business

75) Which of the following represents businesses buying from and selling to each other over the Internet? A) B2B B) B2C C) C2B D) C2C

76) Carfax is an example of a company that sells its products or services directly to its consumers online. Which ebusiness model is Carfax using? A) C2B B) C2C C) B2C D) B2B

77) John and Jenny have been saving for two years to take their six children on a vacation to Disneyworld. They are surprised to find out that airline tickets are far more expensive than they had anticipated. They decide to try to find cheaper tickets on Priceline, where they are allowed to set the price they are willing to pay for the airline tickets. What form of ebusiness model are John and Jenny using?

Version 1

A) CBC B) B2B C) C2B D) C2C

78) What type of revenue generation model is Google using when it generates revenue by allowing advertisers to bid on common search terms? A) disintermediation B) personalization C) mass customization D) adwords

79)

What is the practice of artificially inflating traffic statistics for online advertisements? A) click fraud B) hitbots C) affiliate program D) botnets

80) What creates the illusion that a large number of potential customers are clicking the advertiser’s links, when in fact there is no likelihood that any of the clicks will lead to profit for the advertiser? A) click fraud B) hitbots C) affiliate program D) botnets

Version 1

81) What allows a business to generate commissions or referral fees when a customer visiting its website clicks a link to another merchant’s website? A) click fraud B) hitbots C) affiliate program D) adwords

82)

What is a business that operates in a physical store without an Internet presence? A) brick-and-mortar business B) click-and-mortar business C) virtual business D) pure-play business

83)

What is a pure-play business? A) a business that operates only on the Internet without a physical store B) a business that sells products only in a physical store C) a business that sells services only in a physical store D) a business that does not have any employees

84)

Which type of ebusiness model does Amazon use?

Version 1

A) pure-play B) brick-and-mortar C) click-and-click D) Internet provider

85)

Which type of ebusiness model is Barnes & Noble using? A) pure-play B) brick-and-mortar C) click-and-mortar D) virtual

86)

Which type of ebusiness model best describes Apple? A) pure-play B) brick-and-mortar C) click-and-mortar D) virtual

87) What is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet? A) ebusiness B) ebusiness model C) ecommerce D) ecommerce model

Version 1

88) What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave? A) ecommerce model B) eshop sale C) paradigm shift D) Web 1.0

89)

Which of the following represents a brick-and-mortar business? A) The Gap B) Amazon C) Google D) McDonald’s

90)

Which of the following is not a valid form of an ebusiness revenue model? A) transaction fees B) subscription fees C) advertising fees D) service provider

91) For the past 20 years, Perry has been an owner of several Coldwell Banker Real Estate franchises. To increase business, Perry spends a great deal of money marketing and advertising his businesses online. Perry decides he would like to move beyond just marketing and create an actual ebusiness that acts like a search engine but only focuses on the real estate industry. The main revenue source for this Perry’s ebusiness will be a charge of $50 a month for each property that is listed on the website. What is the primary revenue model for Perry’s new business?

Version 1

A) transaction fees B) advertising fees C) subscription fees D) All of the answers are correct.

92)

What was the original term for a company operating on the Internet? A) dot-com B) search engine C) search engine ranking D) search engine optimization

93) What is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google? A) dot-com B) search engine C) search engine ranking D) search engine optimization

94) What evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results? A) dot-com B) keyword C) search engine D) search engine ranking

Version 1

95) What combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines, resulting in higher search engine ranking? A) dot-com B) search engine C) search engine ranking D) search engine optimization

96)

What generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct.

97) What generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct.

98)

What generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer?

Version 1

A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct.

99) What are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages? A) organic search B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) adwords

100)

Websites can generate revenue by using which of the following? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct.

101) What are the unpaid entries in a search engine results page that were derived based on their content’s relevance to the keyword query? A) organic search B) paid search C) keyword D) search engine optimization

Version 1

102)

What are links a company paid to have displayed based on a users’ keywords? A) organic search B) paid search C) keyword D) search engine optimization

103)

What is a word used in a performing a search? A) organic search B) paid search C) keyword D) search engine optimization

104)

Which of the following represents adwords?

A) email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and web conferencing B) content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, and transaction brokers C) keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on Google results pages D) advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, and value-added services fees

105)

Which of the following represents the primary ebusiness revenue models?

Version 1

A) email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and web conferencing B) content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, and transaction brokers C) B2B, B2C, C2C, and C2B D) advertising fees, subscription fees, and transaction fees

106)

Which of the following represents the categories for ebusiness models?

A) email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and web conferencing B) content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, and transaction brokers C) B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B D) advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, and value-added services fees

107)

What is an ISP?

A) An instant service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. B) An Internet service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. C) An Internet sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. D) An instant sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

108) Who studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing how technology can shape humans’ lives?

Version 1

A) cyborg anthropologist B) cyborg anthropology C) web real-time communications D) telepresence robots

109)

Who is a cyborg anthropologist?

A) an individual who studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing how technology can shape humans’ lives B) a discipline originated at the 1993 annual meeting of the American Anthropological Association C) an open source project that seeks to embed real-time voice, text, and video communications capabilities in web browsers D) a remote-controlled, wheeled device with a display to enable video chat and videoconferencing

110)

What is cyborg anthropology?

111) What occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives the information?

Version 1

A) collective intelligence system B) collaboration system C) real-time communication D) knowledge management system

112)

What is the primary business advantage of using email?

A) increasing the speed of order entry B) the ability to inform and communicate with many people simultaneously, immediately, and with ease C) the ability to have friends all over the globe D) increasing the number of computers required in an office

113)

What is another term for instant messaging? A) IMing B) HTML C) Podcasting D) Webbing

114)

What is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people? A) URL B) instant messaging C) tacit knowledge D) elicit knowledge

Version 1

115) What were some of the immediate results businesses found from using instant messaging? A) the ability to transmit messages as fast as naturally flowing conversation B) the ability to easily hold simultaneous IM sessions with multiple people C) the ability to resolve questions or problems immediately D) All of the answers are correct.

116)

What converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player? A) podcasting B) video chat C) photo sharing D) email

117) As a trainer for Exempla Healthcare, Tina is faced with many challenges to properly train her new hires. Exempla employees work at over 40 different locations across the Chicago metropolitan area. Tina decides to implement some valuable ebusiness tools to help reduce traveling costs, increase speed, and provide flexibility for completing training sessions with all the new hires. Tina primarily uses PowerPoints and videos during her training modules. What is the most effective ebusiness tool for Tina to implement to accomplish all of her training goals? A) IMing B) Video chat C) Blog D) Email

118) What do companies use as marketing communication channels discussing everything from corporate strategies to detailed product overviews?

Version 1

A) IMing B) web browsing C) email D) podcasting

119) What is a well-planned strategy that ensures the search and navigation functions are easy to use and user-friendly on a website? A) blog B) taxonomy C) email D) podcast

120) Which ebusiness tool increases the speed of business by allowing the transfer of documents with the same speed as the telephone? A) knowledge management system B) podcasting C) email D) ebusiness

121) What is the ebusiness tool that can increase marketing reach and build customer loyalty through audio broadcasting? A) IMing B) email C) taxonomy D) podcasting

Version 1

122) Which ebusiness tool plays a crucial role in getting site visitors to view more than just the home page by providing clear navigation choices? A) organic search B) content management system C) open system D) open source

123)

What are the four most common Business 2.0 characteristics? A) content sharing through open source B) user-contributed content C) collaboration inside and outside the organization D) All of the answers are correct.

124) What is the system that consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system? A) management system B) reputation system C) knowledge system D) open system

125)

What is Mozilla Firefox?

Version 1

A) a competitor to Microsoft Word B) a competitor to Microsoft Excel C) a competitor to Adobe Photoshop D) a competitor to Internet Explorer

126) What is an ebusiness model in which companies build, market, sell, and ship their products themselves, without relying on traditional stores or intermediaries? A) showrooming B) direct-to-consumer C) source code D) viral marketing

127) What is a marketing phenomenon that facilitates and encourages people to pass along a marketing message? A) paid search B) direct-to-consumer C) source code D) viral marketing

128)

What are the three main drivers of the direct-to-consumer sales channel? A) customer experience B) data collection C) reduced costs D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

129) What is software whose source code is available free for any third party to review and modify? A) freemium B) open source C) code source D) network source

130) What is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder? A) closed source B) open source C) closed system D) open system

131)

What is closed source?

A) any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder B) any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review and modify C) contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software D) consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allow third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate

132)

What is open source?

Version 1

133)

What is source code?

134)

What is an open system?

Version 1

135) Erik is the president and owner of Watch Out, a local website development company that helps clients create and build unique websites. Many of his daily tasks are heavily technical in nature and require a high level of computer programming and Internet knowledge. Which of the following would Erik primarily use when performing his daily tasks? A) source code B) brick-and-mortar C) information reach D) explicit knowledge

136) Ebusiness was characterized by few companies or users posting content for the masses. What characterizes Business 2.0? A) a select few posting content for high-level executives only B) the masses posting content for a select few C) the masses posting content for the masses D) a select few posting specific content for the masses

137)

What is web content that is created and updated by many users for many users? A) cybermediation contributed content B) user-contributed content C) executive-generated content D) customer-generated content

138) eBay buyers voluntarily comment to other users and sellers on the quality of service, promptness of shipping, and their general satisfaction with the product. This is one of the most popular examples of user-generated content and is called

Version 1

A) reputation system. B) knowledge system. C) explicit system. D) tacit knowledge.

139) What is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement? A) reputation system B) knowledge system C) explicit system D) native advertising

140)

What is native advertising?

A) an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement B) buyers posting feedback on sellers C) content created and updated by many users for many users D) the wisdom of the crowd

141)

What is a reputation system?

Version 1

142)

What is user-contributed content?

143)

What is crowdsourcing?

144)

What is the most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization?

Version 1

A) crowdsourcing B) tacit management C) knowledge management D) tagging

145)

What is the difference between asynchronous and synchronous communication?

A) asynchronous communication occurs in real time; synchronous communication is oneway technology B) asynchronous communication does not occur at the same time; synchronous communication occurs at the same time C) asynchronous communication includes instant messaging; synchronous communication includes email D) asynchronous communication is fast and instant; synchronous communication is collected at a single point in time

146)

Which of the below is not a characteristic of Business 2.0? A) knowledge management B) collaboration system C) web browser D) explicit knowledge

147) Which of the following is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by facilitating the sharing and flow of information?

Version 1

A) collaboration system B) collective system C) competitive system D) All of the answers are correct.

148) Lisa loves her job as an executive recruiter for a large hospital located in Dallas, Texas. Part of Lisa’s job is to gather industry information, collaborate with partners, compare competitors, and tap into the knowledge of prospective employees, partners, and customers. Which of the following would Lisa use to perform her job? A) interactivity metrics B) source code C) network effect D) collective intelligence

149) Which system supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge throughout an organization? A) affiliate program B) knowledge management system C) source code system D) social media system

150)

Which of the following focuses on user-generated content? A) YouTube B) Wikipedia C) LinkedIn D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

151)

What are the two categories that include intellectual and knowledge-based assets? A) explicit knowledge; tacit knowledge B) efficient knowledge; tacit knowledge C) intelligent knowledge; explicit knowledge D) open knowledge; closed knowledge

152)

What is the type of knowledge that is contained in people’s heads? A) explicit knowledge B) virtual knowledge C) tacit knowledge D) pure knowledge

153) What sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet? A) explicit knowledge B) crowdfunding C) tacit knowledge D) crowdsourcing

154) What is the type of knowledge that consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of a MIS department?

Version 1

A) tacit knowledge B) explicit knowledge C) pure knowledge D) virtual knowledge

155)

What is crowdsourcing?

A) the wisdom of the crowd B) sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet C) collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers D) capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions

156)

What is crowdfunding?

157)

What is collective intelligence?

Version 1

A) the wisdom of the crowd B) sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet C) collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers D) iCapturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions

158)

What is knowledge management?

159)

Which of the following is not an example of explicit knowledge? A) patent B) trademark C) employee opinion D) marketing research

160)

What do Netflix and Amazon use to drive their recommendation tools?

Version 1

A) Web 1.0 content B) open source content C) virtual content D) user-generated content

161) What are websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and YouTube? A) synchronous communication B) social media C) social networking D) asynchronous communication

162) What is the practice of expanding your business and social contacts by constructing a personal network? A) network effects B) tagging C) social taxonomy D) social networking

163) Which of the following represents an example of why an employer would use social media? A) to find potential job candidates via LinkedIn B) to review potential job candidates by viewing their Facebook page C) to attract new job candidates via YouTube D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

164)

What are the two basic functions that social networking sites provide?

A) the ability to create and publish your own software B) the ability to create and maintain a profile that is your online identity and create connections between other people within the network C) the ability to capture and create URLs and RSSs D) the ability to create URLs and edit RSS software

165)

What is an SNA? A) strong network application B) social needs analysis C) social networking analysis D) steady network areas

166)

What is a social networking analysis?

A) represents the interconnection of relationships in a social network B) maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together C) describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search D) a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#)

167)

What is social tagging?

Version 1

168)

What is a hashtag?

169)

What maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together? A) social network effects B) mashup networking analysis C) web network effects D) social networking analysis

170) Many social media websites use ________ or specific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for means of classification or taxonomy.

Version 1

A) conferencing B) tags C) long tails D) categories

171) Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to A) organize it for future navigation. B) organize it for future filtering. C) organize it for future search. D) All of the answers are correct.

172) Cell phone manufacturers often refer to their products as mobile devices. Which of the below would not be included in the folksonomy for a cell phone? A) cell B) iPhone C) Galaxy D) technology platform

173) What is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tag or keywordbased classification system? A) podcasting B) network effects C) folksonomy D) social bookmarking

Version 1

174)

How do the majority of potential customers find ebusiness websites? A) through radio B) through search terms that match the content C) through magazines D) through newspapers

175)

How would a company like Flickr use social tagging on its website? A) by applying keywords that do not match user content B) by building a tagging game for customers to participate in C) by allowing users to upload images and tag the images with their own keywords D) by selecting the keywords to associate with each image a customer uploads

176) Using the collective power of a community to identify and classify content significantly ________ content categorization costs. A) eliminates B) raises C) lowers D) balances

177) False information about the COVID-19 vaccine or about 5G allegedly causing cancer are two examples of ________ spread through the Internet.

Version 1

A) snackable content B) the net neutrality affect C) misinformation D) asynchronous communication

178)

Which of the following is a difference between misinformation and disinformation?

A) Misinformation refers to spreading false information to a few people, while disinformation refers to spreading false information to as many users as possible. B) Misinformation is the result of the network effect, while disinformation is the result of Metcalfe’s law. C) Misinformation is found on the deep web, while disinformation is found on the dark web. D) Misinformation is presented as fact without an intent to deceive, while disinformation is created to deceive the audience intentionally and maliciously.

179) The purpose of ________ is often to promote or discredit a public figure, political movement, or a company. A) fake news B) microblogging C) folksonomy D) crowdsourcing

180)

What is one simplification that has occurred with Business 2.0?

Version 1

A) helping online users create anonymity B) limiting the sharing capabilities of devices C) improving access to information D) communicating via email

181) What is an online journal that allows users to post their own opinions, comments, graphics, and video? A) web masters B) folksonomy C) disintermediation D) blog or web log

182)

Why are Fortune 500 companies engaging in blogging? A) to order supplies B) to review favorite Internet providers C) to gather feedback and share ideas D) to pay employees

183)

What type of website is Twitter? A) blog B) search engine C) microblogging D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

184) What is the practice of sending brief posts of 140-200 characters to a personal blog either publicly or to a private group of subscribers? A) ebusiness model B) tagging C) blogging D) microblog

185) Unlike traditional HTML, which of the following lets writers communicate and readers respond on a regular basis through a simple online journal? A) instant messaging B) HTTP C) blog D) email

186)

What is the difference between a wiki and a blog?

A) A wiki is free and a blog has a subscription fee. B) A wiki user can alter the original content of an article, whereas a blog user can only add information as a comment. C) A wiki is original content, whereas a blog is used sources. D) All of the answers are correct.

187) Large wikis, such as Wikipedia, can protect the quality and accuracy of their information by assigning users roles such as

Version 1

A) reader. B) subject matter expert. C) editor. D) All of the answers are correct.

188)

What is a self-photograph placed on a social media website? A) selfie B) blog C) wiki D) mashup

189) What is an online journal that allows users to post their own comments, graphics, and videos? A) selfie B) blog C) wiki D) mashup

190)

What is a collaborative website that allows users to add, remove, and change content? A) selfie B) blog C) wiki D) mashup

Version 1

191)

What is a selfie? A) a self-photograph placed on a social media website B) the practice of sending brief posts to a personal blog C) a web format used to publish frequently updated works D) a magazine published only in electronic form on a computer network

192)

What is microblogging? A) a self-photograph placed on a social media website B) the practice of sending brief posts to a personal blog C) a web format used to publish frequently updated works D) a magazine published only in electronic form on a computer network

193) What describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increase? A) network effect B) RSS C) mashup editor D) knowledge management

194) Which of the following is one of the largest wikis on the web and one of the 10 most popular web destinations? A) Google B) eBay C) Wikipedia D) Yahoo

Version 1

195) Some of the benefits for a company to operate an internal wiki are that they are great tools for all of the following except A) collecting and disseminating knowledge. B) building software applications. C) sharing information between functional business areas. D) distributing information to employees or partners across geographical distances.

196)

Which of the following best describes Web 1.0? A) static text-based information websites B) static electricity and connectivity C) social media D) technology intelligence

197)

Which of the following best describes Web 2.0? A) static websites B) intelligent websites C) social media and user-generated web content D) hypertext markup language

198)

Which of the following best describes Web 3.0?

Version 1

A) user-generated online business B) based on “intelligent” web applications using natural language processing C) collaboration and social media D) All of the answers are correct.

199)

What is the large part of the Internet that is inaccessible to conventional search engines? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web

200)

What is also referred to as the invisible web? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web

201) What is the portion of the Internet that is intentionally hidden from search engines, uses masked IP addresses, and is accessible only with a special web browser? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web

Version 1

202)

What is content that is designed to be easy for readers to consume and to share? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web

203) What is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can understand? A) social tagging B) sustaining web C) social web D) semantic web

204)

Which statement below is inaccurate? A) Web 2.0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users. B) Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information-using machines. C) Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information. D) Web 3.0 is a rich, “intelligent” understanding and relationships among concept and

topics.

205) What is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can understand?

Version 1

A) social tagging B) sustaining web C) social web D) semantic web

206)

Which statement below is incorrect?

A) the semantic web captures, organizes, and disseminates knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization B) the semantic web describes the relationships between things C) the semantic web describes the properties of things D) the semantic web is not about links between web pages

207)

Which of the following is not a topic or feature that is included in Web 3.0? A) a worldwide database B) intelligent applications C) social networking D) integration of legacy devices

208) What statement below describes Web 3.0’s feature that ensures the “integration of legacy devices”? A) the ability to use current devices such as iPhones and laptops as credit cards or tickets B) the design of websites and other software so they can be easily integrated and work together C) the ability for software to be distributed and accessed from anywhere D) the design of software to be easily integrated and work together

Version 1

209)

Disruptive technology tends to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

210) Disruptive and new technologies typically cut into the low-end of the marketplace and eventually evolve to displace high-end competitors and their reigning technologies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

211) In terms of disruptive technology, what is best for an organization’s current business could ruin it in the long term. ⊚ ⊚

212)

Ebusiness is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

213)

true false

Ebusiness is something that a business can just go out and buy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

214) Future managers and workers need to understand the benefits MIS and ebusiness can offer a company if it wants to take advantage of sustaining technologies.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

215) A disruptive technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

216) A sustaining technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

217) A sustaining technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

218) A disruptive technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

219) The universal resource locator (URL) contains the address of a file or resource on the web such as www.apple.com or www.microsoft.com. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 63

220) The Innovator’s Dilemma, a book by Clayton Christensen, discusses how established companies can take advantage of disruptive technologies without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

221) The Internet provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML. ⊚ ⊚

true false

222) The WWW provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML. ⊚ ⊚

true false

223) The Internet is a massive network that connects computers all over the world and allows them to communicate with one another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

224) Hypertext markup language (HTML) links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

225) The World Wide Web, such as Internet Explorer or Mozilla’s Firefox, allow users to access organization systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

226) Hypertext transport protocol (HTTP) is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators. ⊚ ⊚

true false

227) A universal resource locator (URL) identifies a URL address, and apple.com is an example of a domain name. ⊚ ⊚

228)

true false

URLs use domain names to identify particular websites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

229) Domain name hosting (web hosting) is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

230) Ecommerce is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet. Ecommerce refers only to online transactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

231) Ecommerce includes ebusiness along with all activities related to internal and external business operations, such as servicing customer accounts, collaborating with partners, and exchanging real-time information. During Web 1.0, entrepreneurs began creating the first forms of ecommerce. ⊚ ⊚

true false

232) A paradigm shift occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave. ⊚ ⊚

true false

233) A few examples of ebusiness advantages can include opening new markets, reducing costs, and expanding global reach. ⊚ ⊚

true false

234) Intermediaries occur when a customer sells directly to another customer online, cutting out the intermediary. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

235) Net neutrality’s founding principle includes the idea that all consumers should be able to use the Internet and its resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

236) Interactivity measures advertising effectiveness by counting visitor interactions with the target ad, including time spent viewing the ad, number of pages viewed, and number of repeat visits to the advertisement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

237) Information richness refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

238) Information richness measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world. ⊚ ⊚

true false

239) Mass customization is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications. For example, customers can order M&Ms in special colors or with customized sayings such as “Marry Me.” ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

240) Mass customization occurs when a company knows enough about a customer’s likes and dislikes that it can fashion offers more likely to appeal to that person, say by tailoring its website to individuals or groups based on profile information, demographics, or prior transactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

241) Cybermediation refers to the creation of new kinds of intermediaries that simply could not have existed before the advent of ebusiness, including comparison-shopping sites and bank account aggregation services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

242) Information reach refers to the number of people a business can communicate with on a global basis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

243) An example of showrooming would include a person finding a book they like at a local book store and then ordering it on Amazon for a cheaper amount. ⊚ ⊚

true false

244) An ebusiness clickstream is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

245) A business model shows the hierarchy and organization of the employees in a division or company. ⊚ ⊚

true false

246) An ebusiness model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

247) Content providers are companies that generate revenue by providing digital content such as news, music, photos, or videos and examples include Netflix and Spotify. ⊚ ⊚

248)

true false

Transaction brokers process online sales transactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

249) Business-to-consumer applies to any business that sells its products or services directly to consumers online. ⊚ ⊚

250)

true false

A click-and-mortar business operates on the Internet only, without a physical store.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

251) The majority of eBay’s customers are using a business-to-business (B2B) ebusiness model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

252) A business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues. ⊚ ⊚

253)

true false

Dot-com was the original term for a company operating on the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

254) A search engine is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google. ⊚ ⊚

true false

255) Search engine ranking evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

256) Adwords are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

257) Search engine optimization are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

258) Pay-per-call are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

259) Search engine optimization (SEO) combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines, resulting in higher search engine ranking. ⊚ ⊚

260)

true false

Pay-per-call generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

261) Pay-per-click generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call. ⊚ ⊚

true false

262) Pay-per-conversion generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

263) Many businesses are using instant messaging as a way to answer and resolve questions or problems quickly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

264) An Internet service provider (ISP) is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. ⊚ ⊚

true false

265) Real-time communication occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

266) Instant messaging (IMing) is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

267)

true false

Instant messaging converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player. ⊚ ⊚

true false

268) Video chat is an online face-to-face, visual communication performed with other Internet users by using a webcam and dedicated software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

269) Web 2.0 is the next generation of Internet that uses a more mature, distinctive communications platform characterized by new qualities such as collaboration, sharing, and free cost. ⊚ ⊚

270)

true false

Source code is software made available free for any third party to review and modify. ⊚ ⊚

true false

271) The most common form of collective intelligence found outside the organization is crowdsourcing, or the wisdom of the crowd. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

272) An open system consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

273) An open system contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

274) Open source refers to any software whose source code is made available free (not on a fee or licensing basis as in ebusiness) for any third party to review and modify. ⊚ ⊚

true false

275) User-contributed content (or user-generated content) is created and updated by many users for many users. ⊚ ⊚

true false

276) User-contributed content is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by facilitating the sharing and flow of information. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

277)

Open systems tap into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

278) Closed source is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

279) Native advertising is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

280) Open source is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

281) Closed source is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

282) Knowledge can be a real competitive advantage for an organization. The most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization is knowledge management (KM), which involves capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

283) Crowdfunding sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

284) Native advertising sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

285) The primary objective of knowledge management is to be sure that a company’s knowledge of facts, sources of information, and solutions are readily available to all employees whenever it is needed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

286) A knowledge management system (KMS) supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization. KMS can distribute an organization’s knowledge base by interconnecting people and digitally gathering their expertise.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

287) Tacit knowledge consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of MIS. Examples of tacit knowledge are assets such as patents, trademarks, business plans, marketing research, and customer lists. ⊚ ⊚

true false

288) Explicit knowledge is the knowledge contained in people’s heads. The challenge inherent in explicit knowledge is figuring out how to recognize, generate, share, and manage knowledge that resides in people’s heads. ⊚ ⊚

true false

289) Social media refers to websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook, YouTube, and Digg. ⊚ ⊚

true false

290) Social tagging is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tags or keyword-based classification system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

291) A hashtag is a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#). For example, the hashtag #sandiegofire helped coordinate emergency responses to a fire. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

292) A network effect is a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#). ⊚ ⊚

true false

293) A social network is an application that connects people by matching profile information. Providing individuals with the ability to network is by far one of the greatest advantages of Business 2.0. ⊚ ⊚

true false

294) Social networking is the practice of expanding your business and/or social contacts by constructing a personal network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

295) Social media maps group contacts (personal and professional), identifying who knows each other and who works together. In a company, it can provide a vision of how employees work together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

296) Tags are specific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for means of classification or taxonomy.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

297) Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search. ⊚ ⊚

true false

298) Wiki is a Hawaiian word for “quick” and is a type of a collaborative web page that allows users to add, remove, and change content. ⊚ ⊚

true false

299) Microblogging is the practice of sending brief posts (140 to 200 characters) to a personal blog, either publicly or to a private group of subscribers who can read the posts as IMs or as text messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

300) The network effect describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

301) Misinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact without an intent to deceive.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

302) Information about 5G allegedly causing cancer is an example of misinformation spread through the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

303) Disinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact, with an intent to deceive and mislead. ⊚ ⊚

true false

304) The hackings and distribution of information conducted by Russia to mislead and influence the American elections is an example of disinformation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

305) Fake news refers to news stories created to be widely shared or distributed for the purpose of promoting or discrediting a public figure, political movement, or a company. ⊚ ⊚

true false

306) Ads run by the CDC to explain the effectiveness and safety of the COVID 19 vaccine is an example of Fake news. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 80

307)

A selfie is a self-photograph placed on a social media website. ⊚ ⊚

308)

A hashtag is a self-photograph placed on a social media website. ⊚ ⊚

309)

true false

Web 3.0 refers to static, text-based information websites. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_8e_Baltzan 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) D Version 1

37) B 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) D 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) B Version 1

67) A 68) D 69) D 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) C 78) D 79) A 80) B 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) C 86) C 87) B 88) C 89) D 90) D 91) C 92) A 93) B 94) D 95) D 96) A Version 1

97) B 98) C 99) D 100) D 101) A 102) B 103) C 104) C 105) D 106) C 107) B 108) A 109) A 110) B 111) C 112) B 113) A 114) B 115) D 116) A 117) B 118) D 119) B 120) C 121) D 122) B 123) D 124) D 125) D 126) B Version 1

127) D 128) D 129) B 130) A 131) A 132) B 133) C 134) D 135) A 136) C 137) B 138) A 139) D 140) A 141) B 142) C 143) D 144) C 145) B 146) C 147) A 148) D 149) B 150) D 151) A 152) C 153) B 154) B 155) A 156) B Version 1

157) C 158) D 159) C 160) D 161) B 162) D 163) D 164) B 165) C 166) B 167) C 168) D 169) D 170) B 171) D 172) D 173) C 174) B 175) C 176) C 177) C 178) D 179) A 180) C 181) D 182) C 183) C 184) D 185) C 186) B Version 1

187) D 188) A 189) B 190) C 191) A 192) B 193) A 194) C 195) B 196) A 197) C 198) B 199) A 200) A 201) B 202) C 203) D 204) A 205) D 206) A 207) C 208) A 209) FALSE 210) TRUE 211) TRUE 212) FALSE 213) FALSE 214) FALSE 215) TRUE 216) TRUE Version 1

217) FALSE 218) FALSE 219) TRUE 220) TRUE 221) FALSE 222) TRUE 223) TRUE 224) TRUE 225) FALSE 226) TRUE 227) FALSE 228) TRUE 229) TRUE 230) TRUE 231) FALSE 232) TRUE 233) TRUE 234) FALSE 235) TRUE 236) TRUE 237) TRUE 238) FALSE 239) TRUE 240) FALSE 241) TRUE 242) TRUE 243) TRUE 244) FALSE 245) FALSE 246) TRUE Version 1

247) TRUE 248) TRUE 249) TRUE 250) FALSE 251) FALSE 252) TRUE 253) TRUE 254) TRUE 255) TRUE 256) TRUE 257) FALSE 258) FALSE 259) TRUE 260) FALSE 261) FALSE 262) TRUE 263) TRUE 264) TRUE 265) TRUE 266) TRUE 267) FALSE 268) TRUE 269) TRUE 270) FALSE 271) TRUE 272) TRUE 273) FALSE 274) TRUE 275) TRUE 276) FALSE Version 1

277) FALSE 278) TRUE 279) TRUE 280) FALSE 281) FALSE 282) TRUE 283) TRUE 284) FALSE 285) TRUE 286) TRUE 287) FALSE 288) FALSE 289) TRUE 290) FALSE 291) TRUE 292) FALSE 293) TRUE 294) TRUE 295) FALSE 296) TRUE 297) TRUE 298) TRUE 299) TRUE 300) TRUE 301) TRUE 302) TRUE 303) TRUE 304) TRUE 305) TRUE 306) FALSE Version 1

307) TRUE 308) FALSE 309) FALSE

Version 1

CHAPTER 4 1)

Explain the ethical issues in the use of information technology.

Identify the six epolicies organizations should implement to protect themselves.

Describe the relationships and differences between hackers and viruses.

4) Describe the relationship between information security policies and an information security plan.

Version 1

5) Provide an example of each of the three primary information security areas: (1) authentication and authorization, (2) prevention and resistance, and (3) detection and response.

6) Which of the following represents the two fundamental building blocks that protect organizational information? A) security and anti-spam B) confidentiality and security C) ethics and security D) ethics and technology

7) What is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or video game? A) privacy B) confidentiality C) intellectual property D) copyright

8) What is the intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes trademarks and patents?

Version 1

A) intellectual software B) intellectual property C) trademark property D) ethical property

9) Trust between companies, customers, partners, and suppliers is the support structure of which of the following? A) ebusiness B) ediscovery C) antivirus software D) epolicies

10) In relation to privacy, which of the following is the assurance that messages and information remain available only to those authorized to view them? A) contentment B) ethical standard C) confidentiality D) firewall security

11) Which of the following represents the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people? A) ethics B) intellectual property C) standards of living D) security

Version 1

12)

What is the difference between pirated and counterfeit software?

A) Counterfeit software is fake technology products, whereas pirated is invisible technological cameras placed online. B) Pirated software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software, whereas counterfeit is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as such. C) Counterfeit software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software, whereas pirated is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as such. D) Pirated software is stolen and used to hack into a company’s classified material, whereas counterfeit is a fake version of firewall software.

13) Which of the following governs the ethical and moral issues arising from the development and use of information technologies and the creation, collection, duplication, distribution, and processing of information? A) ethical information B) information technology C) information policies D) information ethics

14) Which of the following means the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent? A) safety B) ethical standard C) privacy D) confidentiality

Version 1

15) Determining what is ethical can sometimes be difficult because certain actions can be justified or condemned depending on how you view the relationship between which of the following? A) legal and confidential B) legal and ethical C) legal and technical D) confidential and open

16) What is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution? A) digital rights management B) counterfeit software C) privacy D) pirated software

17) Which of the following examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, value, and distribution, ensuring it has the types of data or information required to function and grow effectively? A) information code B) information technology C) information management D) information governance

Version 1

18) Sophie Black works as a computer programmer for a software company. Her boss, Mike Jones, is responsible for developing a new software game Nintendo After completion of the project, Mike gives all of the team members a free copy of the game without consent from the company. Sophie is unsure about accepting the game because legally it would be considered A) counterfeit software. B) pirated software. C) ethical software. D) governance software.

19)

What is the method or system of government for information management or control? A) information management B) information compliance C) information governance D) information secrecy

20) What is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity? A) information management B) information compliance C) information secrecy D) information ethics

21)

Which of the following represents the definition of information property?

Version 1

A) an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about individuals and how information can be sold and exchanged B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively

22)

Which of the following represents the definition of information governance?

A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively

23)

Which of the following represents the definition of information secrecy?

24)

Which of the following represents the definition of information management?

Version 1

25)

Which of the following represents the definition of information compliance?

A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively

26)

Which of the following represents the definition of information compliance? A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) the ability to comply with software C) the understanding of technology D) the verbalization of information governance in a company’s policies and procedures

27) Which of the following serves as key evidence in many legal cases today and also provides a faster, easier way to search and organize paper documents?

Version 1

A) confidentiality B) digital information C) privacy policies D) information ethics

28) Which of the following refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or an information inquiry? A) email privacy policy B) cybersecurity C) ediscovery D) epolicies

29) In the information technology world, which of the following are examples of ethical issues that a company may have to manage? A) employees copying and distributing company-owned software B) employees searching other employees’ private information without their consent C) employees intentionally creating or spreading viruses to confuse IT D) All of the answers are correct.

30) When studying the figure of the four quadrants of ethical and legal behavior, the goal is for organizations to make decisions in which of the following quadrants? A) quadrant IV B) quadrant II and III C) quadrant I D) quadrant III

Version 1

31)

Which of the following is included in the four quadrants of ethical and legal behavior? A) legal behavior and ethical behavior B) illegal behavior and ethical behavior C) legal behavior and unethical behavior D) All of the answers are correct.

32) What is intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes copyrights, trademarks, and patents? A) ethics B) intellectual property C) privacy D) confidentiality

33)

Which of the following describes privacy?

A) the assurance that messages and data are available only to those who are authorized to view them B) policies and procedures that address the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment C) the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your own personal possessions, and to not be observed without your consent D) the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people

34)

Which of the following is an example of acting ethically?

Version 1

A) Individuals copy, use, and distribute software. B) Employees search organizational databases for sensitive corporate and personal information. C) Individuals hack into computer systems to steal proprietary information. D) None of the answers are correct.

35)

Which of the following describes confidentiality?

A) the assurance that messages and information are available only to those who are authorized to view them B) policies and procedures that address the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment C) the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your own personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent D) the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people

36) What refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry? A) ediscovery B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) pirated software

37)

What was passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet?

Version 1

A) Rule 41 B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) pirated software

38) What is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence? A) ediscovery B) Child Online Protection Act C) Rule 41 D) pirated software

39) Which rule is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence? A) Rule 4 B) Rule 1 C) Rule 41 D) Rule 4.2

40) What is the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals? A) digital trust B) Child Online Protection Act C) Rule 41 D) digital child

Version 1

41) What is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution? A) ediscovery B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) digital trust

42)

What is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software? A) digital trust B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) pirated software

43)

What is ediscovery?

A) the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) a law passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet D) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals

44)

What is the Child Online Protection Act?

Version 1

45)

What is digital rights management?

A) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) a law passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet D) a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution

46)

What is pirated software?

A) the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals D) a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution

47) What are policies and procedures that address information management along with the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment?

Version 1

A) information systems policy B) epolicies C) technology applied policy D) data scraping

48) Which of the below is not one of the six epolicies that a company should implement for information protection as discussed in the text? A) information privacy policy B) workplace monitoring policy C) acceptable use policy D) GDPR monitoring policy

49)

Which of the following contains general principles to guide computer user behavior? A) information technology code B) technology policy C) ethical computer use policy D) information systems

50)

Which of the following clauses is typically contained in an acceptable use policy? A) nonrepudiation clause B) digital trust clause C) confidentiality clause D) employee use clause

Version 1

51)

Which of the following would not be found in a typical acceptable use policy?

A) not using the service as part of violating any law B) not posting commercial messages to groups where the employee has received user consent C) not performing any nonrepudiation D) not attempting to break the security of any computer network

52) Which of the following terms refers to a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants do not deny their online actions? A) compliance B) noncommittal C) nonrepudiation D) digital trust

53) According to the ethical computer use policy, users should ________ the rules and, by agreeing to use the system on that basis, ________ to abide by the rules. A) be informed of; collaborate B) consent to; be informed C) be informed; consent D) consent to; be informed

54) Which of the following policies states that users agree to follow it in order to be given access to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet?

Version 1

A) acceptable use policy B) social media policy C) information privacy policy D) email privacy policy

55)

Which of the following is not considered an epolicy? A) acceptable use policy B) Internet use policy C) ethical computer use policy D) anti-hacker use policy

56)

Which policy contains general principles regarding information privacy? A) information privacy policy B) acceptable use policy C) Internet use policy D) antispam policy

57) Which of the following represents the classic example of unintentional information reuse? A) phone number B) Social Security number C) address D) driver’s license number

Version 1

58)

What is also called web scraping? A) data scraping B) data security C) fair information practices D) biometrics

59) What is the process of extracting large amounts of data from a website and saving it to a spreadsheet or computer? A) data scraping B) data security C) fair information practices D) biometrics

60) What is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union? A) Rule 41 B) the right to be forgotten C) fair information practices D) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

61) What occurs when you allow an individual to request to have all content that violates their privacy removed?

Version 1

A) data scraping B) the right to be forgotten C) fair information practices D) General Data Protection Regulation

62) What is one of the guidelines an organization can follow when creating an information privacy policy? A) adoption and implementation of an antispam policy B) notice and disclosure C) choice and quality D) None of the answer choices are correct.

63)

What is one of the major problems with email? A) intellectual property B) nonrepudiation C) user’s expectation of privacy D) None of the answer choices are correct.

64)

If an organization implemented only one policy, which one would it want to implement? A) information privacy policy B) acceptable use policy C) Internet use policy D) ethical computer use policy

Version 1

65) Jackie is the head teller at ABC Bank, and her responsibilities include overseeing and managing the tellers, resolving customer issues, and developing and implementing systems for an optimal and efficient team. She notices a steady increase in customer complaints and tracks back to find that the complaints started right around the time ABC Bank provided Internet access to all employees. Jackie watched the tellers closely and found that they were spending significant amounts of time playing Internet games and posting on Facebook. Which policy should the company implement to help eliminate this problem? A) information privacy policy B) email privacy policy C) Internet use policy D) All of the answers are correct.

66)

Which of the below would you find in a typical Internet use policy? A) user ramifications if the policy is violated B) user responsibility for properly handling offensive material C) user responsibility for protecting the company’s good name D) All of the answers are correct.

67) Which of the following policies details the extent to which email messages may be read by others? A) email privacy policy B) email confidential policy C) right to be forgotten policy D) spam policy

68)

Employees need to understand that corporate email is solely owned by the

Version 1

A) individual user. B) company. C) human resources department. D) individual user’s department.

69)

Which of the following should a company email privacy policy do?

A) define legitimate email users and explain what happens to accounts after a person leaves the organization B) discourage sending junk email or spam to anyone who doesn’t want to receive it C) inform users that the organization has no control over email once it has been transmitted outside the organization D) All of the answers are correct.

70) What sends massive amounts of email to a specific person or system that can cause that user’s server to stop functioning? A) mail bomb B) spam C) digital trust D) junk mail

71)

What is unsolicited email that plagues employees at all levels and clogs email systems? A) spyware B) spam C) adware D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

72) What kind of policy can a company implement that can help diminish the activity of sending unsolicited email? A) email privacy policy B) spam policy and procedures C) antispam policy D) information privacy policy

73) To find out your company policy regarding such websites as YouTube, Facebook, and Twitter, you would have to refer to the ________ policy. A) Internet use policy B) social media policy C) information use policy D) employee monitoring policy

74) Which policy can protect a company’s brand identity and outlines the corporate principles governing employee online communication? A) Internet workplace policy B) social media policy C) technology information policy D) YouTube policy

75) With so much information and moving parts within a company, technology has made it possible for employers to monitor many aspects of employee jobs and duties. Which policy informs an employee that the company might track employee’s activities by such measures as keystrokes, error rate, and number of transactions processed?

Version 1

A) antispam system B) information intelligence system C) workplace MIS monitoring D) ebusiness monitoring

76)

Which of the following is a common Internet monitoring technology? A) key logger B) hardware key logger C) cookie D) All of the answers are correct.

77) What is an Internet monitoring technique that captures keystrokes on their journey from the keyboard to the motherboard? A) spyware B) web log C) adware D) hardware key logger

78) What type of Internet monitoring technique records information about a customer during a web surfing session such as what websites were visited and how long the visit was, what ads were viewed, and what was purchased? A) key logger B) spyware C) clickstream D) web log

Version 1

79) Which of the following is not included as a common stipulation an organization would follow when creating an employee monitoring policy? A) be as specific as possible stating when and what will be monitored B) do not state the consequences of violating the policy C) always enforce the policy the same for everyone D) expressly communicate that the company reserves the right to monitor all employees

80)

What is a mail bomb?

A) sending a massive amount of email to a specific person or system, resulting in filling up the recipient’s disk space B) a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants do not deny their online actions C) sending a few emails to a specific person or system, resulting in filling up the recipient’s disk space D) a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants deny their online actions

81)

Which policy details the extent to which email messages may be read by others? A) acceptable use policy B) email privacy policy C) Internet use policy D) GDPR policy

82) Which of the following measures are included in workplace MIS monitoring that tracks people’s activities?

Version 1

A) number of keystrokes B) error rate C) number of transactions processed D) All of the answers are correct.

83)

What program, when installed on a computer, records every keystroke and mouse click? A) key logger software B) spyware C) cookie D) adware

84) What is a small file deposited on a hard drive by a website containing information about customers and their web activities? A) key logger B) hardware key logger C) cookie D) adware

85) What includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the Internet or posted on a website? A) cyberbullying B) information vandalism C) cookie D) mail bomb

Version 1

86)

What is the electronic defacing of an existing website? A) information bullying B) cybervandalism C) cookie D) nonrepudiation

87) What includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the Internet or posted on a website? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

88)

What is the electronic defacing of an existing website? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

89) What is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy?

Version 1

A) cyberbullying B) fair information practices C) click-fraud D) bring your own device

90) What is a policy that allows employees to use their personal mobile devices and computers to access enterprise data and applications? A) cyberbullying B) fair information practices C) click-fraud D) bring your own device

91) Which of the following is one of the four basic options included in a bring your own device policy? A) unlimited access for personal devices B) access only to nonsensitive systems and data C) access but preventing local storage of data on personal devices D) All of the answers are correct.

92)

What refers to denying permissions to incoming emails? A) opt out B) opt in C) BYOD D) nonrepudiation

Version 1

93)

What refers to choosing to allow permissions to incoming emails? A) opt out B) opt in C) BYOD D) nonrepudiation

94) What is the process of monitoring and responding to what is being said about a company, individual, product, or brand? A) social media monitoring B) social media manager C) social media policy D) antispam policy

95) Who is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor, contribute, filter, and guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand? A) social media monitoring B) social media manager C) social media policy D) information privacy manager

96) What outlines the corporate guidelines or principles governing employee online communications?

Version 1

A) social media monitoring B) social media manager C) social media policy D) information privacy manager

97) What is the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

98) What is a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

99)

What is an act or object that poses a danger to assets? A) cyberbullying B) threat C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

Version 1

100)

What is cybervandalism?

A) the electronic defacing of an existing website B) the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser C) a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link D) an act or object that poses a danger to assets

101)

What is click-fraud?

102)

What is competitive click-fraud?

103)

What is a threat?

Version 1

104) What is a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names? A) typosquatting B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing

105) What is the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner? A) typosquatting B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing

106) What is government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens?

Version 1

A) typosquatting B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing

107) What is an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam? A) cyber duty B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing

108)

What occurs when a person chooses to deny permission to incoming emails? A) opt out B) website name stealing C) opt in D) digital trust

109)

Which of the following definitions represents typosquatting?

Version 1

A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam

110)

Which of the following definitions represents website name stealing?

111)

Which of the following definitions represents Internet censorship?

Version 1

112)

Which of the following definitions represents teergrubing?

113)

Which of the following definitions represents opt-out?

Version 1

114)

Which of the following definitions represents opt-in?

115)

Which of the following defines physical security?

A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names B) tangible protection such as alarms, guards, fireproof doors, fences, and vaults C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) denying permission to incoming emails

116)

Which of the following refers to a period of time when a system is unavailable?

Version 1

A) downtime B) down MIS C) data down D) downtown

117)

Which of the following is not an example of unplanned downtime? A) power outage B) tornado C) system upgrade D) flood

118)

Which of the following is a cost of downtime in addition to lost revenue? A) legal expenses B) loss in financial performance C) damage to reputation D) All of the answers are correct.

119)

A company should be able to calculate the cost of downtime by which of the following? A) per hour, per day, and per week B) per employee, per computer, and per company C) per stock, per stockholder, and per investment capital D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

120) Which quadrant in the cost of downtime includes equipment rental, overtime costs, and travel expenses? A) fiscal responsibility B) damaged reputation C) other expenses D) regeneration

121) Jensen is a senior developer for HackersRUs, a company that helps secure management information systems. Jensen’s new task is to break into the computer system of one of HackersRUs’s top clients to identify system vulnerabilities and plug the holes. What type of hacker is Jensen? A) cracker B) white-hat hacker C) script bunny D) black-hat hacker

122)

Which of the following defines information security? A) a broad term encompassing the protection of information B) protects information from accidental misuse C) protects information from intentional misuse D) All of the answers are correct.

123) What are experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and networks for profit or just as a challenge known as?

Version 1

A) elevation of privilege B) viruses C) hackers D) worms

124) What is a hacker who breaks into other people’s computer systems and may just look around or steal and destroy information? A) script-kiddies B) black-hat hacker C) white-hat hacker D) cracker

125) Which of the following is the correct list of the six different types of hackers listed in your text? A) black-hat, crackers, cyberterrorists, hacktivists, script-kiddies, and white-hat B) black-top, cookie, script-kiddies, environment, web 3.0, and white-top C) black-hat, script-kiddies, script bats, spider crawlers, ad spiders, and white-hat D) All of the answers are correct.

126)

What is software written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage? A) elevation of privilege B) spoofing C) sniffer D) virus

Version 1

127)

What are malicious attempts to access or damage a computer system? A) cyberattacks B) spoofing C) information attacks D) information ethics

128) What involves prevention, detection, and response to cyberattacks that can have wideranging effects on the individual, organization, community, and at the national level? A) cyberattacks B) cybersecurity C) sniffer D) information attacks

129) What builds the national capacity to defend against cyberattacks and works with the federal government to provide cyber security tools, incident response services, and assessment capabilities to safeguard .gov networks? A) cyberattacks B) data security C) Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency D) information attacks

130)

What includes a variety of threats such as viruses, worms, and Trojan horses?

Version 1

A) malicious code B) hoaxes C) spoofing D) sniffers

131) What is the forging of the return address on an email so that the email message appears to come from someone other than the actual sender? A) malicious code B) hoax C) spoofing D) sniffer

132) What is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission? A) sniffer B) spyware C) spoofware D) splog

133) What is a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment for the files’ decryption keys? A) sniffer B) spyware C) spoofware D) simplelocker

Version 1

134)

What is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money? A) sniffer B) spyware C) spoofware D) ransomware

135)

What is ransomware?

A) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money B) a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment for the files’ decryption keys C) software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user D) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission

136)

What is simplelocker?

137)

What is adware?

Version 1

138)

What is spyware?

139)

What is the primary difference between a worm and a virus?

A) A worm must attach to something to spread, whereas a virus does not need to attach to anything to spread and can tunnel itself into the computer. B) A virus is copied and spread by a person, whereas a worm takes a string of tag words and deletes websites. C) A virus must attach to something to spread, whereas a worm does not need to attach to anything to spread and can tunnel itself into the computer. D) All of the answers are correct.

140) What is a process by which a user misleads a system into granting unauthorized rights, usually for the purpose of compromising or destroying the system? Version 1

A) elevation of privilege B) packet tampering C) spoofing D) spyware

141) DDoS stands for one of the common forms of viruses that attack multiple computers to flood a website until it slows or crashes. What does DDoS stand for? A) data distribution of systems attack B) data denial-of-software attack C) distributed data online systems attack D) distributed denial-of-service attack

142)

Which of the following are all common forms of viruses? A) packet tampering, worms, cakes, and Trojan viruses B) polymorphic, sniffer, splogs, and denial-of-service viruses C) backdoor program, worm, and Trojan-horse viruses D) All of the answers are correct.

143) What is the software called that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user? A) sploging B) adware C) spygloss D) CPU buzzer

Version 1

144)

Who are hackers with criminal intent? A) crackers B) black-hat hackers C) hoaxes D) cyberterrorists

145) Who are those who seek to cause harm to people or to destroy critical systems or information and use the Internet as a weapon of mass destruction? A) white-hat hackers B) black-hat hackers C) cyberterrorists D) script bunnies

146) Which of the following types of viruses spread themselves not just from file to file but also from computer to computer? A) polymorphic virus B) worm C) Trojan-horse virus D) backdoor program

147) What is the one of the most common forms of computer vulnerabilities that can cause massive computer damage?

Version 1

A) virus B) white-hat hackers C) dumpster diving D) All of the answers are correct.

148)

Which of the following change form as they propagate? A) backdoor programs B) strikers C) polymorphic viruses and worms D) splogs

149) Which of the following is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network? A) backdoor program B) drive-by hacking C) polymorphic virus or worm D) hacker

150) What is a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization? A) information security B) physical security C) drive-by hacking D) adware

Version 1

151) Who is an expert in technology who uses their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge? A) information spy B) hacker C) spyware D) adware

152) What is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network? A) spyware B) hacker C) drive-by hacking D) adware

153) What is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission? A) spyware B) hacker C) drive-by hacking D) adware

154) What is software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user?

Version 1

A) spyware B) hacker C) drive-by hacking D) adware

155)

What is spyware?

A) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission B) experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user

156)

What is adware?

Version 1

157)

What is drive-by hacking?

158)

What is a hacker?

159) Which of the following terms refers to groups of many people whose job is to infiltrate message boards and comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony?

Version 1

A) black-hat hackers B) cyberterrorists C) troll farms D) script bunnies

160) What is it called if a group of people organize and plan to follow a politician’s Twitter account and bombard it with misinformation or extreme opinions? A) troll farms B) botnets C) black-hat hackers D) script bunnies

161)

What is the primary goal of a troll farm? A) infiltrate message boards to create discord B) take control of computer access for ransom C) look through people’s trash to obtain personal information D) deface websites as a form of protest

162)

What is information security?

Version 1

A) a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization B) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user

163) What is a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting software bugs? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware

164)

What is software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware

165) What is a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software?

Version 1

A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware

166)

What is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware

167)

What is a bug bounty program?

A) a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting software bugs B) software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems C) a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software D) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money

168)

What is malware?

Version 1

169)

What is scareware?

170)

What is ransomware?

171) What are the first two lines of defense a company should take when addressing security risks? A) technology first, customers second B) technology first, people second C) innovation first, technology second D) people first, technology second

172)

Which of the following represents the biggest problem of information security breaches?

Version 1

A) people misusing organizational information B) technology failures C) customers misusing organizational systems D) company departments missing sales goals

173) Angela works for an identity protection company that maintains large amounts of sensitive customer information such as usernames, passwords, personal information, and Social Security numbers. Angela and a coworker decide to use the sensitive information to open credit cards in a few of her customer’s names. This is a classic example of which of the following security breaches? A) social engineer B) insider C) spammer D) dumpster diver

174) What is it called when you use your social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or other valuable information? A) social engineering B) social media C) social viruses D) social processes

175)

What is it called when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information?

Version 1

A) striker bunny B) dumpster diving C) trash retrieval D) approved consent

176) What is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual? A) dumpster texting B) dumpster diving C) trash retrieval D) pretexting

177) What are malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines? A) dumpster texting B) dumpster diving C) trash retrieval D) destructive agents

178)

What is pretexting?

Version 1

A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual B) when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines

179)

What is dumpster diving?

A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual B) a hacker looking through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines

180)

What are insiders?

181)

What are destructive agents?

Version 1

A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual B) hackers looking through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines

182) Working at a ski resort in the mountains has its own unique security issues. Kenny is the chief information officer for Sundance Ski Resort, and he is faced with both physical and information security threats every month. Since the resort implemented a new software system, they have been having larger number of threats and breaches of company information. He suspects that an internal employee may be causing this. He needs to clarify and establish what type of plan to help reduce further problems? A) information security plan B) ethical information policy C) antivirus plan D) None of the answer choices are correct.

183) eBay is an example of an online company that has been faced with numerous security issues. For example, imagine you purchase a digital camera on eBay. Three months later, you might receive an email asking you to log in to the system to update your credit card or PayPal information. This email is not actually from eBay, and as soon as you log in, your information will be stolen. What type of information security breach would you consider this to be? A) an insider B) dumpster diving C) social engineering D) phishing

Version 1

184) Which of the following is an example of a way to maintain information security that a company should include in their information security policies? A) requiring computer users to log off before leaving for lunch B) never sharing user or password information with anyone C) changing passwords every 30 to 60 days D) All of the answers are correct.

185) Janet is a financial aid counselor at a local community college, and she shares an office with three coworkers. Janet feels safe in her office environment and frequently leaves her username and password on a sticky note next to her computer. Without realizing it, Janet is creating the potential for which type of information security breach to occur? A) insiders to hack into the college system B) dumpster diving to find usernames and passwords C) viruses and worms to spread through the college system D) All of the answers are correct.

186) Applications allowed to be placed on the corporate network, such as IM software, and corporate computer equipment used for personal reasons on personal networks are two areas that should be addressed by managers in which of the following company policies? A) information ethics policy B) information security policy C) Information technology plan D) All of the answers are correct.

187) Which of the following represents the three areas where technology can aid in the defense against information security attacks? Version 1

A) authentication and authorization, prevention and resistance, prevention and response B) authentication and authorization, prevention and response, detection and response C) analyzing and authenticating, prevention and repositioning, detection and response D) authentication and authorization, prevention and resistance, detection and response

188)

What is the forging of someone’s identity for the purpose of fraud? A) identity crisis B) identity theft C) ediscovery D) All of the answers are correct.

189) What is the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service? A) personally identifiable information (PII) B) astroturfing C) sensitive PII D) sock puppet marketing

190)

What includes any data that could potentially identify a specific individual? A) personally identifiable information (PII) B) nonsensitive PII C) astroturfing D) sock puppet marketing

Version 1

191) What is information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from public records, phone books, corporate directories, or websites? A) astroturfing B) nonsensitive PII C) sensitive PII D) sock puppet marketing

192) What is information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm? A) astroturfing B) nonsensitive PII C) sensitive PII D) sock puppet marketing

193)

What is sensitive PII?

A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from public records, phone books, corporate directories, websites, etc. C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service

194)

What is nonsensitive PII?

Version 1

195)

What is personally identifiable information (PII)?

196)

What is sock puppet marketing?

A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) the practice of artificially stimulating online conversation and positive reviews about a product, service, or brand C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service

197)

What is astroturfing?

Version 1

198) Imagine you accidentally mistype the URL for your bank and you are redirected to a fake website that collects your information. What type of identity theft were you just a victim of with this attack? A) pharming B) worm holes C) phishing D) insider hacking

199) What area of information security focuses on preventing identity theft, phishing, and pharming scams? A) prevention and resistance B) detection and authorizing C) detection and response D) authentication and authorization

200) What is the process that provides a user with permission including access levels and abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space?

Version 1

A) pharming B) authentication C) authorization D) programming

201)

What is a method for confirming users’ identities? A) phishing B) authentication C) authorization D) programming

202) The most secure procedures combine which of the following authentication and authorization techniques? A) something the user knows, such as a user ID and password B) something the user has, such as a smart card or token C) something that is part of the user, such as a fingerprint or voice signature D) All of the answers are correct.

203) A smart card is a device the size of a credit card that contains embedded technology that stores information and small amounts of software and can act as a(n) A) identification instrument. B) form of digital cash. C) data storage device. D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

204)

The best and most effective way to manage authentication is through A) smart technology card. B) tokens. C) biometrics. D) passwords.

205)

Which of the following is not considered a form of biometrics? A) iris scan B) password C) fingerprint D) handwriting

206)

Which of the following is the main drawback of biometrics? A) it is considered illegal B) it is viewed as an invasion of privacy C) it can be costly and intrusive D) it requires constant monitoring and upgrading

207) How do prevention and resistance technologies stop intruders from accessing and reading sensitive information?

Version 1

A) content filtering, encryption, and firewalls B) calculating, locking, and firewalls C) content prohibiting and cookies D) All of the answers are correct.

208) Which of the following occurs when organizations use software that filters content, such as email, to prevent the accidental or malicious transmission of unauthorized information? A) antivirus software B) content filtering C) encryption D) firewalls

209) What prevention technique scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to decrypt? A) encryption B) content filtering C) firewalls D) antivirus software

210)

What can encryption technology perform? A) switching the order of characters B) replacing characters with other characters C) inserting or removing characters D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

211) What type of encryption technology uses multiple keys, one for public and one for private? A) private key encryption B) policy key encryption C) public key encryption D) protective key code

212) What is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature? A) digital code B) digital sign C) digital certificate D) digital card

213) Charles Mott works for a company called VeriSign that acts a trusted third party to verify information. One of Charles’ largest clients is CheckMd, which holds and authenticates customer reviews of doctors and dentists online. Having a third party validating the reviews is critical to CheckMd’s success. What type of authentication technique is VeriSign providing for CheckMD? A) firewall B) certificate authority C) online certificate D) digital content certificate

214) What is hardware or software that guards a private network by analyzing incoming and outgoing information for the correct markings?

Version 1

A) firewall B) certificate authority C) online certificate D) digital certificate

215) Which of the following protection techniques scans and searches hard drives to prevent, detect, and remove known viruses, adware, and spyware? A) firewall B) digital certificate C) virus software D) antivirus software

216)

What must you do with antivirus software to make it protect effectively? A) never upgrade or change vendors B) download a portable button for it to activate C) frequently update it to protect against viruses D) All of the answers are correct.

217) Which of the following systems is designed with full-time monitoring tools that search for patterns in network traffic to identify intruders and to protect against suspicious network traffic that attempts to access files and data? A) interconnected data software (IDS) B) intrusion detection software (IDS) C) security information system (SIS) D) Internet detection scanner (IDS)

Version 1

218)

What is the most secure type of authentication? A) something the user knows such as a user ID and password B) something the user has such as a smart card or token C) something that is part of the user such as a fingerprint or voice signature D) All of the answers are correct.

219) What is a device that is around the same size as a credit card and contains embedded technologies that can store information and small amounts of software to perform some limited processing? A) token B) password C) smart card D) biometrics

220) What is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting? A) smart card B) token C) biometrics D) content filtering

221)

Which of the following is considered a type of biometrics?

Version 1

A) voice B) face C) iris D) All of the answers are correct.

222) What is a set of measurable characteristics of a human voice that uniquely identifies an individual? A) voiceprint B) face C) iris D) All of the answers are correct.

223)

What is single-factor authentication?

A) the traditional security process, which requires a username and password B) requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token) C) requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification) D) the identification of a user based on physical characteristic such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice or handwriting

224)

What is multifactor authentication?

Version 1

225)

What is two-factor authentication?

226) What gathers an organization’s computer network traffic patterns to identify unusual or suspicious operations? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage

227) What includes individuals who seek notoriety or want to make a social or political point such as WikiLeaks?

Version 1

A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage

228) What includes governments that are after some form of information about other governments? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage

229) What is the use of computer and networking technologies against persons or property to intimidate or coerce governments, individuals, or any segment of society to attain political, religious, or ideological goals? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage

230)

What is the traditional security process that requires a username and password? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures

Version 1

231) What requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification)? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures

232) What requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token)? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures

233) What are actions, processes, devices, or systems that can prevent, or mitigate the effects of, threats to a computer, server, or network? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures

234)

What are biometrics?

Version 1

235)

Which of the following authentication methods is 100 percent accurate? A) smart card B) fingerprint authentication C) user ID D) No authentication method is 100 percent accurate.

236)

Where do organizations typically place firewalls? A) between a personal computer and the server B) between a personal computer and a printer C) between the server and the content filtering software D) between the server and the Internet

237) What is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity? A) information secrecy B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing

Version 1

238) What is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing

239)

What is a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing

240) What is a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) vishing

241)

What reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites?

Version 1

A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing

242)

What is information secrecy?

A) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization

243)

What is phishing?

A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization

244)

What is a phishing expedition?

Version 1

245)

What is spear phishing?

246)

What is vishing?

A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information

247)

What is pharming?

Version 1

A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information

248)

What reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) pharming

249) What is a program that secretly takes over another computer for the purpose of launching attacks on other computers? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) time bomb

250)

What is a group of computers on which a hacker has planted zombie programs? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) time bomb

Version 1

251) What uses a zombie farm, often by an organized crime association, to launch a massive phishing attack? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) time bomb

252) What are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their instructions? A) zombies B) zombie farms C) pharming attacks D) time bombs

253) What is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography

254) What scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to decrypt?

Version 1

A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography

255)

What decodes information? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography

256) What is the science that studies encryption, which is the hiding of messages so that only the sender and receiver can read them? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography

257)

Ethics and security are two fundamental building blocks for all organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

258) Privacy is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or video game.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

259) Information governance is a method or system of government for information management or control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

260) Confidentiality is the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your own personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

261) Digital rights management is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

262) The Child Online Protection Act was passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

263) Counterfeit software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 79

264) Pirated software is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as such. ⊚ ⊚

true false

265) A patent is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or video game. ⊚ ⊚

true false

266) Intellectual property is intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes copyrights, trademarks, and patents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

267) Copyright is an exclusive right to make, use, and sell an invention and is granted by a government to the inventor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

268) Rule 41 is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

269) Information management examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, value, and distribution, ensuring it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively. ⊚ ⊚

270)

true false

Information compliance is the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

271) Information property is an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about individuals and how information can be sold and exchanged. ⊚ ⊚

true false

272) Information secrecy is an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about individuals and how information can be sold and exchanged. ⊚ ⊚

true false

273) Information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

274) Information property is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

275) Epolicies are policies and procedures that address information management along with the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

276) An acceptable use policy (AUP) requires a user to agree to follow it to be provided access to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

277) Companies do not need a privacy policy for email because an employee’s work email is private and cannot be viewed by the company. ⊚ ⊚

true false

278) A social media policy outlines the corporate guidelines or principles governing employee online communications. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

279) An ethical computer use policy contains general principles to guide computer user behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

280) Employee monitoring policies explicitly state how, when, and where the company monitors its employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

281) Workplace MIS monitoring tracks people’s activities by such measures as number of keystrokes, error rate, and number of transactions processed. ⊚ ⊚

282)

true false

Cybervandalism is the electronic defacing of an existing website. ⊚ ⊚

true false

283) Cybervandalism is a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

284) Website name stealing is the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

285) Internet governance is government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

286) Cybervandalism includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the Internet or posted on the website. ⊚ ⊚

true false

287) Bring your own device is a policy that allows employees to use their personal mobile devices and computers to access enterprise data and applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

288) Fair information practices are policies that allow employees to use their personal mobile devices and computers to access enterprise data and applications. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

289) Fair information practices is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

290) Bring your own devices is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

291) BYOD policies offer four basic options, including unlimited access for personal devices; access only to nonsensitive systems and data; access, but with IT control over personal devices, apps, and stored data; and access, but preventing local storage of data on personal devices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

292) Teergrubing is an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam. ⊚ ⊚

true false

293) Click-fraud is the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

294) Competitive click-fraud is a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link. ⊚ ⊚

true false

295) A user can opt out of receiving emails by choosing to deny permission to incoming emails. ⊚ ⊚

296)

true false

A user can opt in to receive emails by choosing to allow permissions to incoming emails. ⊚ ⊚

true false

297) A user can opt out of receiving emails by choosing to allow permissions to incoming emails. ⊚ ⊚

298)

true false

A user can opt in to receive emails by choosing to deny permissions to incoming emails. ⊚ ⊚

true false

299) Social media monitoring is the process of monitoring and responding to what is being said about a company, individual, product, or brand.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

300) A social media manager is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor, contribute, filter, and guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ ⊚

true false

301) A social media manager refers to the process of monitoring and responding to what is being said about a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ ⊚

true false

302) Cyberbullying is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor, contribute, filter, and guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ ⊚

303)

true false

Cyberbullying is an act or object that poses a danger to assets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

304) Spyware is software that, while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function, also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

305) The Trojan-horse virus hides inside other software, usually as an attachment or a downloadable file. ⊚ ⊚

true false

306) Information security is a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

307) A hacker weapon called a splog (spam blog) is a fake blog created solely to raise the search engine rank of affiliated websites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

308) Information security is a high priority for protection of the company’s information, and it is critical to implement an information security procedure to combat misuse of this information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

309) Smoking areas are targeted by hackers as they regularly use smoking entrances to gain building access where they pose as employees to gain access to the company network. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 88

310) Troll farms are groups of many people whose job is to infiltrate message boards and comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony. ⊚ ⊚

true false

311) Botnets are groups of people whose job infiltrate message boards to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony. ⊚ ⊚

true false

312) Downtime refers to a period of time when a system is unavailable, and unplanned downtime can strike at any time for various reasons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

313) Drive-by hacking is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

314) White-hat hackers break into other people’s computer systems and may just look around or may steal and destroy information. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

315) Black-hat hackers work at the request of the system owners to find system vulnerabilities and plug the holes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

316) Ransomware is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. ⊚ ⊚

true false

317) Simplelocker is a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment for the files’ decryption keys. ⊚ ⊚

318)

A worm is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. ⊚ ⊚

319)

true false

A worm spreads itself not only from file to file but also from computer to computer. ⊚ ⊚

320)

true false

Script-kiddies have criminal intent when hacking.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

321) Cyberterrorists seek to cause harm to people or to destroy critical systems or information and use the Internet as a weapon of mass destruction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

322) White-hat hackers have philosophical and political reasons for breaking into systems and will often deface the website as a protest. ⊚ ⊚

true false

323) Script-kiddies or script-bunnies find hacking code on the Internet and click-and-point their way into systems to cause damage or spread viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

324) The primary difference between a virus and a worm is that a virus must attach to something, such as an executable file, to spread. Worms do not need to attach to anything to spread and can tunnel themselves into computers. ⊚ ⊚

325)

true false

Backdoor programs change their form as they propagate. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 91

326)

Backdoor programs open a way into the network for future attacks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

327) A denial-of-service attack (DoS) floods a website with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes the site. ⊚ ⊚

true false

328) Legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident are called insiders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

329) Insiders are illegitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment to do business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

330) Information security policies detail how an organization will implement the information security plan. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

331) Dumpster diving is another security breach for companies and is where people not associated with the company jump into the company’s outside garbage bins and try to gather and steal any valuable company products they can resell on eBay. ⊚ ⊚

true false

332) Organizations address security risks through two lines of defense: The first is people and the second is technology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

333) Pretexting is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual. ⊚ ⊚

true false

334) Ransomware is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual. ⊚ ⊚

true false

335) Through social engineering, hackers use their social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or other valuable information. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

336) Through pretexting, hackers use their social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or other valuable information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

337) The three primary information security areas are (1) authentication and authorization, (2) policies and rewards, and (3) detection and response. ⊚ ⊚

338)

true false

Tokens are small electronic devices that change user passwords automatically. ⊚ ⊚

true false

339) The technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, often through fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses, is called phishing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

340) A process of providing a user with permission including access levels and abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space is called authentication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

341) One of the most ineffective ways to set up authentication techniques is by setting up user IDs and passwords.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

342) Biometrics is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

343) A firewall scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to decrypt. ⊚ ⊚

344)

true false

Identity theft is the forging of someone’s identity for the purpose of fraud. ⊚ ⊚

true false

345) Identity theft is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

346) A phishing expedition is a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. The perpetrator sends millions of spam emails that appear to be from a respectable company. The emails contain a link to a website that is designed to look exactly like the company’s website. The victim is encouraged to enter his or her username, password, and sometimes credit card information.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

347) Spear phishing is a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

348) Spear phishing is a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information. ⊚ ⊚

349)

true false

Phishing reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

350) A zombie is a program that secretly takes over another computer for the purpose of launching attacks on other computers. Zombie attacks are almost impossible to trace back to the attacker. ⊚ ⊚

351)

true false

A zombie farm is a group of computers on which a hacker has planted zombie programs. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

352) A pharming attack uses of a zombie farm, often by an organized crime association, to launch a massive phishing attack. ⊚ ⊚

true false

353) Worms are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their instructions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

354) Time bombs are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their instructions. ⊚ ⊚

355)

true false

Decrypting information is to decode it and is the opposite of encrypting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

356) Cryptography is the science that studies encryption, which is the hiding of messages so that only the sender and receiver can read them. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

357) A certificate authority is a trusted third party, such as VeriSign, that validates user identities by means of digital certificates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

358) A certificate authority is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature. ⊚ ⊚

true false

359) A voiceprint is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature. ⊚ ⊚

true false

360) A voiceprint is a set of measurable characteristics of a human voice that uniquely identifies an individual. These characteristics, which are based on the physical configuration of a speaker’s mouth and throat, can be expressed as a mathematical formula. Unfortunately, biometric authentication such as voiceprints can be costly and intrusive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

361) Single-factor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a username and password. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

362) Two-factor authentication requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token). ⊚ ⊚

true false

363) Multifactor authentication requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification). ⊚ ⊚

true false

364) Multifactor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a username and password. ⊚ ⊚

true false

365) Single-factor authentication requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification). ⊚ ⊚

true false

366) Single-factor authentication requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token). ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

367) The goal of multifactor authentication is to make it difficult for an unauthorized person to gain access to a system because if one security level is broken, the attacker will still have to break through additional levels. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

100

Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_8e_Baltzan 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) D Version 1

101

32) B 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) B Version 1

102

62) B 63) C 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) B 75) C 76) D 77) D 78) C 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) A 84) C 85) A 86) B 87) A 88) B 89) B 90) D 91) D Version 1

103

92) A 93) B 94) A 95) B 96) C 97) C 98) D 99) B 100) A 101) B 102) C 103) D 104) A 105) B 106) C 107) D 108) A 109) A 110) B 111) C 112) D 113) D 114) C 115) B 116) A 117) C 118) D 119) A 120) C 121) B Version 1

104

122) D 123) C 124) B 125) A 126) D 127) A 128) B 129) C 130) A 131) C 132) B 133) D 134) D 135) A 136) B 137) C 138) D 139) C 140) A 141) D 142) C 143) B 144) A 145) C 146) B 147) A 148) C 149) B 150) A 151) B Version 1

105

152) C 153) A 154) D 155) A 156) D 157) C 158) B 159) C 160) A 161) A 162) A 163) A 164) B 165) C 166) D 167) A 168) B 169) C 170) D 171) D 172) A 173) B 174) A 175) B 176) D 177) D 178) A 179) B 180) C 181) D Version 1

106

182) A 183) D 184) D 185) A 186) B 187) D 188) B 189) D 190) A 191) B 192) C 193) C 194) B 195) A 196) D 197) B 198) A 199) D 200) C 201) B 202) D 203) D 204) C 205) B 206) C 207) A 208) B 209) A 210) D 211) C Version 1

107

212) C 213) B 214) A 215) D 216) C 217) B 218) D 219) C 220) C 221) D 222) A 223) A 224) C 225) B 226) A 227) B 228) D 229) C 230) A 231) C 232) B 233) D 234) D 235) D 236) D 237) A 238) B 239) C 240) D 241) A Version 1

108

242) A 243) B 244) C 245) D 246) D 247) A 248) D 249) A 250) B 251) C 252) D 253) A 254) B 255) C 256) D 257) TRUE 258) FALSE 259) TRUE 260) FALSE 261) TRUE 262) TRUE 263) FALSE 264) FALSE 265) FALSE 266) TRUE 267) FALSE 268) TRUE 269) TRUE 270) TRUE 271) TRUE Version 1

109

272) FALSE 273) TRUE 274) FALSE 275) TRUE 276) TRUE 277) FALSE 278) TRUE 279) TRUE 280) TRUE 281) TRUE 282) TRUE 283) FALSE 284) TRUE 285) FALSE 286) FALSE 287) TRUE 288) FALSE 289) TRUE 290) FALSE 291) TRUE 292) TRUE 293) TRUE 294) TRUE 295) TRUE 296) TRUE 297) FALSE 298) FALSE 299) TRUE 300) TRUE 301) FALSE Version 1

110

302) FALSE 303) FALSE 304) FALSE 305) TRUE 306) TRUE 307) TRUE 308) TRUE 309) TRUE 310) TRUE 311) FALSE 312) TRUE 313) TRUE 314) FALSE 315) FALSE 316) TRUE 317) TRUE 318) FALSE 319) TRUE 320) FALSE 321) TRUE 322) FALSE 323) TRUE 324) TRUE 325) FALSE 326) TRUE 327) TRUE 328) TRUE 329) FALSE 330) FALSE 331) FALSE Version 1

111

332) TRUE 333) TRUE 334) FALSE 335) TRUE 336) FALSE 337) FALSE 338) TRUE 339) TRUE 340) FALSE 341) TRUE 342) TRUE 343) FALSE 344) TRUE 345) FALSE 346) TRUE 347) TRUE 348) FALSE 349) FALSE 350) TRUE 351) TRUE 352) TRUE 353) FALSE 354) TRUE 355) TRUE 356) TRUE 357) TRUE 358) FALSE 359) FALSE 360) TRUE 361) TRUE Version 1

112

362) TRUE 363) TRUE 364) FALSE 365) FALSE 366) FALSE 367) TRUE

Version 1

113

CHAPTER 5 1)

Explain MIS infrastructure and its three primary types.

Identify the three primary areas associated with an information MIS infrastructure.

Describe the characteristics of an agile MIS infrastructure.

Identify the environmental impacts associated with MIS.

Version 1

5) Explain the three components of a sustainable MIS infrastructure along with their business benefits.

What is an information MIS infrastructure?

A) identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured B) includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals C) identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption D) includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets

What is an agile MIS infrastructure?

What is a sustainable MIS infrastructure?

Version 1

What is an MIS infrastructure?

A) identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured B) includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals C) infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption D) includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets

10) Who is a person who is grounded in technology, fluent in business, and able to provide the important bridge between MIS and the business? A) MIS Infrastructure manager B) MIS specialist C) enterprise architect D) enterprise manager

11)

Which of the following is a benefit of a solid MIS infrastructure?

Version 1

A) reduces costs B) improves productivity C) optimizes business operations D) All of the answers are correct.

12)

What is the difference between hardware and software?

A) Hardware is the physical devices associated with a computer system, whereas software is the instructions the hardware executes to carry out tasks. B) They are both specific forms of clients. C) Hardware executes the instructions to carry out tasks, whereas software is the physical devices associated with a computer system. D) All of the answers are correct.

13)

What consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server

14)

What is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server

Version 1

15) What is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate? A) network B) software C) client D) server

16)

What is a computer designed to request information from a server? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server

17)

What is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server

18)

What is hardware?

Version 1

A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests

19)

What is software? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests

20)

What is a network?

A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate

21)

What is a client? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests

Version 1

22)

What is a server? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests

23) John works for Internal Computer Specialists, which focuses on helping small business owners resolve MIS infrastructure issues. John’s tasks include cleaning and replacing motherboards, cables, and internal components such as hard drives. What does John’s role at Internal Computer Specialists focus on fixing? A) hardware B) clients C) backup D) recovery

24) Jessica started her own online company that specializes in selling items for bachelorette parties, wedding parties, and baby showers. Due to the fact that she only operates online, her MIS infrastructure needs to be fast, efficient, and accurate to ensure the best possible experience for her customers. Which of the following is a critical component in Jessica’s MIS infrastructure? A) hardware and software B) clients C) server D) All of the answers are correct.

25)

What are the three business functions an MIS infrastructure supports?

Version 1

A) operations, change, and the environment/sustainability B) operations, customers, and ewaste C) information, clients, and viruses D) information, change, and business continuity planning

26)

Which of the following include the three components of an MIS infrastructure? A) information, aggregated, and sustainable MIS infrastructures B) information, operational, and changing MIS infrastructures C) information, agile, and sustainable MIS infrastructures D) varies depending on the industry

27)

Which characteristics support an agile MIS infrastructure?

A) accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and usability B) backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity planning C) grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization D) storage, network, and server virtualization

28)

Which characteristics support a sustainable MIS infrastructure?

Version 1

29)

Which characteristics support an information MIS infrastructure?

30) Grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization are all elements of a(n) ________ Blank MIS infrastructure. A) agile B) sustainable C) information D) virtualized

31) Accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and usability are all elements of a(n)________ MIS infrastructure. A) agile B) sustainable C) information D) virtualized

32) Backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity planning are all elements of a(n) ________ Blank MIS infrastructure.

Version 1

A) agile B) sustainable C) information D) virtualized

33) A(n) ________ Blank MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. A) sustainable B) information C) virtualized D) agile

34) What type of MIS infrastructure identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured? A) sustainable B) information C) virtualized D) agile

35) What type of MIS infrastructure includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation? A) information B) virtualized C) agile D) sustainable

Version 1

36) Francis works in the human resources division of a large oil and gas company in Texas. Francis’s tasks include maintaining payroll and vacation records, employment histories, and benefit information along with ensuring the security of all sensitive employee information. Which MIS infrastructure is most important to Francis? A) information MIS infrastructure B) agile MIS infrastructure C) sustainable MIS infrastructure D) virtualized MIS infrastructure

37) for

The information MIS infrastructure supports the day-to-day business operations and plans

A) security breaches and theft. B) floods and earthquakes. C) malicious Internet attacks. D) All of the answers are correct.

38) Each year, businesses lose time and money because of system crashes and failures. Which of the following offers the best way to protect a system from crashes and failures? A) backup and recovery plan B) fault tolerance C) failover D) All of the answers are correct.

39) Which of the following describes the difference between a backup plan and a recovery plan?

Version 1

A) Recovery is an exact copy of a system’s information, whereas backup is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure. B) Backup is mandatory, whereas recovery is optional. C) Backup is an exact copy of a system’s information, whereas recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure. D) Recovery is mandatory, whereas backup is optional.

40) What occurs when a redundant storage server offers an exact replica of the real-time data and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to a secondary server? A) failover B) disaster recovery cost curve C) reliability D) maintainability

41) What occurs when a primary machine recovers and resumes operations, taking over from a secondary server? A) failback B) disrupted communications C) warm site D) hot site

42) What has the ability to recover information or systems in the event of catastrophic disasters?

Version 1

A) recovery B) disaster recovery C) backup D) failback

43) Shawn works at the local electrical company in Nampa, ID, which provides electricity to the entire city of Boise. This area is prone to floods, high winds, and tornados. As the lead enterprise architect on the night shift, Shawn has been asked to suggest ways the company can protect its information MIS infrastructure. Shawn notices that the company does not have the ability for its systems to respond to unexpected failures or crashes and lacks a backup system that can automatically take over without a loss of service to Boise residents. What should Shawn recommend his company implement? A) accessibility B) Moore’s law C) antivirus software D) fault tolerance

44) What creates a way for a company to recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption? A) disaster recovery plan B) disaster recovery cost curve C) business continuity planning D) emergency notification system

45) What is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure that includes restoring the information backup?

Version 1

A) failure tolerance B) recovery C) reliability D) capacity planning

46)

What type of backup method does a thumb drive offer? A) low cost, high speed B) low cost, low speed C) high cost, high speed D) All of the answers are correct.

47) What question below would a company need to answer when first establishing a backup and recovery plan? A) What types of storage mechanism will meet the needs of the company? B) How often does the company need to backup its information? C) What types of recovery systems does the company infrastructure need? D) All of the answers are correct.

48) Which of the following is an effect a company could experience because of a disaster such as a fire, flood, or hurricane? A) disrupted communications B) damaged physical infrastructures C) halted transportation D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

49) To combat disasters, a company can create a ________ that details the process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster. A) disaster recovery plan B) database lookup initiative C) management recovery plan D) tornado threat plan

50) Among the sites that support disaster recovery, a ________ is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster. A) hot site B) cold site C) warm site D) All of the answers are correct.

51) Among the sites that support disaster recovery, a ________ is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business. A) hot site B) cold site C) warm site D) disaster site

52) Among the sites that support disaster recovery, a ________ is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration.

Version 1

A) hot site B) cold site C) warm site D) disaster site

53)

What is a hot site?

A) a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business B) a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster C) a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration D) a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster

54)

What is a cold site?

55)

What is a warm site?

Version 1

56)

What is a disaster recovery plan?

57) What charts the cost to the company of the unavailability of information and technology and the cost to the company of recovering from a disaster over time? A) disaster organizational cost analysis B) disaster recovery improvements C) disaster financial costs D) disaster recovery cost curve

Version 1

58) What is a more comprehensive and all-encompassing plan that details how a company recovers and restores critical business operations and systems after a disaster or extended disruption? A) business continuity plan B) database management plan C) incident recovery plan D) emergency recovery plan

59)

What is an infrastructure built for notifying people in the event of an emergency? A) business operational plan B) business continuity plan C) emergency notification service D) emergency continuity plan

60) What are the different options for how an emergency notification service can be deployed? A) through the firm’s own infrastructure B) by an outside service provider on company premises C) by an outside service provider hosted remotely D) All of the answers are correct.

61)

Which of the following is an example of an emergency notification system?

Version 1

A) radio stations’ occasional tests of the national alert system B) wireless alerts for promotional discounts C) text messages from your local grocery store D) All of the answers are correct.

62) What is a sudden, unexpected event requiring immediate action due to potential threat to health and safety, the environment, or property? A) emergency B) preparedness C) impact analysis D) technology failure

63) What ensures a company is ready to respond to an emergency in an organized, timely, and effective manner? A) technology success B) emergency preparedness C) business impact analysis D) technology failure

64) What identifies all critical business functions and the effect that a specific disaster may have upon them? A) emergence B) emergency preparedness C) business impact analysis D) technology failure

Version 1

65) What occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware, software, or data outage? A) technology success B) technology preparedness C) business impact analysis D) technology failure

66)

What contains all of the details of an incident? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy

67) What occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware, software, or data outage? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy

68)

What is the process responsible for managing how incidents are identified and corrected?

Version 1

A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy

69) What focuses specifically on prioritizing the order for restoring hardware, software, and data across the organization that best meets business recovery requirements? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy

70) Which term refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system? A) availability B) accessibility C) usability D) responsibility

71) Enterprise architects require ________ access so they can perform such functions as resetting passwords or deleting accounts. A) functional B) infrastructure C) restricted D) administrator

Version 1

72)

Which term refers to the time frames when the system is operational? A) administrator access B) accessibility C) availability D) portability

73)

What is the difference between unavailable and high availability?

A) High availability is when the system is not operating and can’t be used, whereas unavailable is when a system is continuously operating at all times. B) Unavailable only refers to clients, whereas high availability refers to servers. C) Unavailable is when the system is not operating and can’t be used, whereas high availability is when a system is continuously operating at all times. D) High availability only refers to clients, whereas unavailable refers to servers.

74)

What is a widely held but difficult to achieve standard of availability for a system? A) “five 9s” availability B) “1%” minimum availability C) “five’s accessibility” code D) “five 10s” availability

75) Which of the following agile MIS infrastructure characteristics refers to how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes?

Version 1

A) maintainability B) scalability C) capacity planning D) portability

76) Which of the following agile MIS infrastructure characteristics refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems? A) reliability B) portability C) maintainability D) usability

77)

What does reliability ensure? A) the system has the ability to operate in many different operating systems B) the system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use C) the system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information D) the time frames when the system is operational

78) Which of the following describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands or growth? A) flexibility B) scalability C) reliability D) affordability

Version 1

79)

What measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction? A) portability B) capacity planning C) performance D) sustainability

80) What determines future environmental infrastructure requirements that ensure highquality system performance? A) capacity system B) capacity planning C) capacity function D) performance indicators

81)

What is the primary reason a company has a failover system?

A) to use different systems continuously at the same time B) to allow employees to work virtually C) to take down the primary system for maintenance while the secondary system activates to ensure continuous operations D) All of the answers are correct.

82)

What is usability?

Version 1

A) the system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use B) the system functions correctly and provides accurate information C) the system allows varying levels of access D) the system quickly transforms to support environmental changes

83)

What refers to how well a system can adapt to increased demands? A) scalability B) capacity planning C) reliability D) availability

84) What represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the capacity of a hard drive represents the size or volume? A) capacity B) web accessibility C) web accessibility initiative D) vulnerability

85) What means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical, speech, cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web? A) capacity B) web accessibility C) web usability D) vulnerability

Version 1

86) What brings together people from industry, disability organizations, government, and research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities? A) capacity B) web usability C) web accessibility initiative D) vulnerability

87)

What is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat? A) capacity B) web usability C) web accessibility initiative D) vulnerability

88) Which of the following terms represents how quickly a third party or vendor can change a system to ensure it meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability or availability? A) capacity B) web accessibility C) serviceability D) vulnerability

89)

What is administrator access?

Version 1

A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) time frames when the system is operational D) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes

90)

What is accessibility?

91)

What is availability?

92)

What is maintainability?

Version 1

A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes D) ability to ensure that a system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information

93)

What is reliability?

A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes D) ability to ensure that a system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information

94)

What does it mean if a system is unavailable?

A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems C) how quickly a system performs a process or transaction D) the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use

95)

What does it mean if an application has portability?

Version 1

96)

What is performance?

97)

What is usability?

A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems C) the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use D) how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth

98)

What is scalability?

A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems C) the degree to which a system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use D) how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth

Version 1

99)

Gordon Moore, the cofounder of Intel, established which MIS law? A) Intel’s law B) George’s law C) Moore’s law D) Lee’s law

100)

Which of the following reflects Moore’s law?

A) the computer chip performance per dollar doubles every 18 months B) a company’s ability to acquire small amounts of MIS equipment for cheaper cost C) a company’s ability to acquire small amounts of capital for spending on innovative ideas every two years D) the computer chip performance per dollar doubles every 6 months

101) What describes the production, management, use, and disposal of technology in a way that minimizes damage to the environment? A) environmental MIS B) holistic MIS C) green designation for technology D) sustainability or green MIS

102)

Sustainable MIS is a critical part of ________ Blank within a company.

Version 1

A) company standard for the Green Initiative B) corporate social responsibility C) social expectations D) societal concerns

103)

Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to A) shareholders. B) employees. C) society. D) governments.

104)

What is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society? A) corporate social responsibility B) employee social responsibility C) society social responsibility D) government social responsibility

105) Miranda White likes taking old computer parts and remaking them into products such as earrings and clocks. Which of the following represents what Miranda is doing? A) upcycle B) recycle C) ewaste D) sustainable MIS

Version 1

106)

What is clean computing?

A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy C) reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product D) a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society

107)

What is a green personal computer?

108)

What is upcycle?

A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy C) reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product D) storing, managing, and processing data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server

109)

What is corporate social responsibility?

Version 1

A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society C) reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creates a new product D) storing, managing, and processing data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server

110)

What is cloud computing?

A) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy B) reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product C) a companies’ acknowledged responsibility to society D) storing, managing, and processing data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server

111) What is a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment? A) clean computing B) green personal computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility

112)

What is built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy? A) clean computing B) green personal computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility

Version 1

113)

What reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product? A) clean computing B) green personal computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility

114)

What is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society? A) cloud computing B) clean computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility

115) What stores, manages, and processes data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server? A) clean computing B) cloud computing C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility

116) The increased demand in technology devices has caused an increase in discarded devices, a phenomenon known as

Version 1

A) ewaste. B) grid computing. C) ergonomic code. D) electronic sustainability.

117)

Which of the following is not contributing to ewaste? A) printer B) coal C) microwave D) computer

118)

What are the three pressures driving sustainable MIS infrastructures? A) decreases in electronic waste, energy waste, and carbon emissions B) increases in ewaste, energy waste, and dynamic scaling C) increases in electronic waste, energy waste, and carbon emissions D) decreases in ewaste, energy waste, and carbon footprints

119)

What is the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle called? A) sustainable MIS disposal B) sustainable device disposal C) sustainable software disposal D) sustainable enterprise disposal

Version 1

120) What are the ramifications of improper electronic recycling when analyzing the example of a single desktop computer? A) one computer contains more than 700 chemicals that can be toxic to the environment B) computers in landfills can leak toxic chemicals into our land, water, and air C) computers contain high levels harmful toxins including mercury, lead. and cadmium D) All of the answers are correct.

121) Increased energy consumption poses new and growing sustainable infrastructure pressure. The energy consumed by a computer is estimated to produce as much as 10 percent of the amount of carbon dioxide produced by a A) house. B) school. C) car. D) cell phone.

122) Cheap electricity is great for keeping business energy costs down, but this means that we have to rely more on ________ for power. A) cars B) coal C) gasoline D) All of the answers are correct.

123)

What refers to discarded, obsolete, or broken electronic devices?

Version 1

A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS

124)

What is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS

125) What includes the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere, produced by business processes and systems? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS

126)

What refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS

Version 1

127) Which of the following sustainable infrastructure components is a collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are coordinated to solve a common problem? A) cloud computing B) grid computing C) virtualized computing D) database computing

128) With grid computing, a problem is broken into pieces and distributed to many machines, allowing ________ processing than could occur with a single system. A) more moderate B) slower C) faster D) cleaner

129)

What is storage virtualization? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

device B) combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device C) combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications D) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster

130)

What is network virtualization?

Version 1

A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage device B) combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device C) combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications D) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster

131)

What is server virtualization? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

132)

What is Disaster Recovery as a Service? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

Version 1

133) What combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage device? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) storage virtualization

134) What combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) storage virtualization

135) What combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) storage virtualization

136) What creates a virtual version of computing resources, such as an operating system, server, storage device, or network resource?

Version 1

A) community cloud B) virtualized system C) grid computing D) Software as a Service

137)

A virtualized system creates a virtual version of computing resources, including A) network resource. B) server. C) storage device. D) All of the answers are correct.

138) What offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) All of the answers are correct.

139) Grid computing takes advantage of the available 75 percent of unused processing power of a computer and links thousands of individual computers around the world, creating a ________ that can process intensive tasks. A) personal computer B) employee client C) company server D) virtual supercomputer

Version 1

140)

Which of the following delivers electricity using two-way digital technology? A) smart grid B) systematic grid C) collective grid D) interactive grid

141) DreamWorks Animation Company used which sustainable infrastructure component to complete many of its films, including Shrek, Madagascar, and Antz? A) agile computing B) grid computing C) cloud computing D) server computing

142)

What is cloud computing services changing? A) the way people access information B) the way people deliver information C) the way people use information D) All of the answers are correct.

143) What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity?

Version 1

A) grid computing B) smart phones C) utility computing D) computing services

144) In what category would you put a cloud computing benefit that allows a customer to store fewer applications on a client computer, freeing up the memory and allowing for increases in performance? A) Internet features B) increased costs C) increased performance D) increased software updates

145) What is a challenge for cloud computing that could cause employee performance to decrease? A) limited Internet features B) required Internet connectivity C) decreased dynamic scaling D) decreased job stability

146) What service delivers hardware networking capabilities, including the use of servers, networking, and storage, over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model? A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Version 1

147)

What is dynamic scaling?

A) the ability for the system to cut back on expenses when needed B) the infrastructure that is fixed and has no surprises C) MIS infrastructure that can be automatically scaled up or down based on needed requirements D) the flexibility to charge more or less, depending on the market

148)

What are the three-cloud computing service delivery models? A) Independent as a Service, Supportive as a Service, and Partnering as a Service B) Infrastructure as a Service, Software as a Service, and Platform as a Service C) Innovation as a Service, Server as a Service, and Platform as a Service D) All of the answers are correct.

149)

Which cloud computing model offers applications on a pay-per-use basis? A) Infrastructure as a Service B) Platform as a Service C) Software as a Service D) Information as a Service

150)

What is a Platform as a Service (PaaS)?

Version 1

A) setup and storage systems, including servers, and a database management model B) innovation leads to new programs for business on an ongoing basis C) salesforce.com is an example of PaaS D) the deployment of entire systems including hardware, networking, and applications using pay-per-use revenue model

151) What enables computers to run multiple operating systems and multiple software applications at the same time and creates multiple ‘virtual’ machines all on a single computing device? A) virtualization B) innovation C) availability D) viral computing

152) What is a facility used to house management information systems and associated components, such as telecommunications and storage systems? A) call center B) data center C) delivery base D) central center

153)

What does a single instance of a system serving multiple customers mean in the cloud? A) multi-tenancy B) single-tenancy C) noisy neighbor D) rapid elasticity

Version 1

154) What occurs when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an individual system? A) multi-tenancy B) single-tenancy C) noisy neighbor D) rapid elasticity

155) What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud

156)

What promotes massive, global, industry-wide applications offered to the general public? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud

157) What serves only one customer or organization and can be located on or off the customer’s premises?

Version 1

A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud

158) What serves a specific community with common business models, security requirements, and compliance considerations? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud

159) What includes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but each cloud remains separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and application portability? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) hybrid cloud

160) What occurs when a company uses its own computing infrastructure for normal usage and accesses the cloud when it needs to scale for high or peak load requirements, ensuring a sudden spike in usage does not result in poor performance or system crashes? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) cloud bursting D) hybrid cloud

Version 1

161) What offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)

162) What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) utility computing

163) What facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)

164)

What delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model?

Version 1

A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)

165) What offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)

166)

What is Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)?

A) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster B) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model C) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner D) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas

167)

What is Data as a Service (DaaS)?

Version 1

168)

What is Software as a Service (SaaS)?

169)

What is Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)?

170) MIS infrastructure is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology for communication.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

171) Every company, regardless of size, relies on some form of MIS infrastructure, whether it is a few personal computers networked together or many interconnected around the world. ⊚ ⊚

true false

172) Hardware consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system, where software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ ⊚

173)

true false

Software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

174) Software consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system, where software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ ⊚

175)

true false

Hardware is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

176) A network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate. ⊚ ⊚

177)

A client is a computer designed to request information from a server. ⊚ ⊚

178)

true false

A server is a computer designed to request information from a server. ⊚ ⊚

180)

true false

A server is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ ⊚

179)

true false

A client is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

181) A good way to understand the client-server relationship is when someone uses a web browser (this would be the client) to access a website (this would be a server that would respond with the web page being requested by the client). Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

182) There are three primary areas where enterprise architects focus when maintaining a firm’s MIS infrastructure, including information MIS infrastructure, agile MIS infrastructure, and sustainable MIS infrastructures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

183) If you want to support business operations, you will focus on building a strong information MIS infrastructure, which identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. ⊚ ⊚

true false

184) If you want to support organization change, you will focus on building a strong information MIS infrastructure, which identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. ⊚ ⊚

true false

185) If you want to support the environment, you will focus on building a strong, sustainable MIS infrastructure, which identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. ⊚ ⊚

186)

true false

Software is a computer designed to request information from a server.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

187)

true false

Hardware is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

188) An enterprise architect is a person grounded in technology, fluent in business, and able to provide the important bridge between MIS and the business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

189) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure that includes restoring the company information is called a failover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

190) Failback occurs when the primary machine recovers and resumes operations, taking over from the secondary server. ⊚ ⊚

191)

true false

Fault tolerance is an exact copy of a system’s information. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

192) The three primary areas of support provided by information infrastructure are backup and recovery, disaster recovery plan, and the business continuity plan. ⊚ ⊚

193)

Failover backs up an exact copy of a system’s information. ⊚ ⊚

194)

true false

A backup is an exact copy of a system’s information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

195) Recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure that includes restoring the information backup. ⊚ ⊚

true false

196) Failover is a specific type of fault tolerance that occurs when a redundant storage server offers an exact replica of the real-time data and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to the secondary server or backup server. This is a high-speed and highcost method of backup and recovery. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

197) Failover occurs when the primary machine recovers and resumes operations, taking over from the secondary server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

198) Failback is a specific type of fault tolerance that occurs when a redundant storage server offers an exact replica of the real-time data, and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to the secondary server or backup server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

199) Disasters such as power outages, fires, floods, hurricanes, and even malicious activities such as hackers and viruses strike companies every day. Disasters can disrupt communications, damage physical infrastructures, halt transportation, and block utilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

200) A hot site is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

201) A cold site is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

202) A warm site is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

203) A warm site is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

204) A warm site is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster. ⊚ ⊚

true false

205) A cold site is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

206) An emergency is a sudden, unexpected event requiring immediate action due to potential threat to health and safety, the environment, or property. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

207) Emergency preparedness ensures a company is ready to respond to an emergency in an organized, timely, and effective manner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

208) Business impact analysis details how a company recovers and restores critical business operations and systems after a disaster or extended disruption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

209) A business impact analysis identifies all critical business functions and the effect that a specific disaster may have upon them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

210) A business continuity planning identifies all critical business functions and the effect that a specific disaster may have upon them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

211) A business impact analysis occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware, software, or data outage. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

212) A cold site can destroy large amounts of vital data, often causing incidents and an unplanned interruption of a service. ⊚ ⊚

213)

true false

An emergency contains all of the details of an incident. ⊚ ⊚

true false

214) Incident management is the process responsible for managing how incidents are identified and corrected. ⊚ ⊚

true false

215) Technology recovery strategies focus specifically on prioritizing the order for restoring hardware, software, and data across the organization that best meets business recovery requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

216) Accessibility refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

217) Top-level MIS employees require administrator access, or unrestricted access to the entire system. Administrator access can perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and shutting down entire systems. ⊚ ⊚

218)

High availability occurs when a system is continuously operational at all times. ⊚ ⊚

219)

true false

Availability refers to the time frames when the system is operational. ⊚ ⊚

220)

true false

A system is called unavailable when it is not operating and cannot be used. ⊚ ⊚

true false

221) Portability refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

222) Scalability describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth. If a company grows faster than anticipated, it might experience a variety of problems, from running out of storage space to taking more time to complete transactions. Anticipating expected, and unexpected, growth is key to building scalable systems that can support that development. ⊚ ⊚

223)

Reliability means the system functions correctly and provides accurate information. ⊚ ⊚

224)

true false

Maintainability means the system quickly transforms to support environmental changes. ⊚ ⊚

226)

true false

Usability is the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use. ⊚ ⊚

225)

true false

Performance measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

227) Capacity planning determines future environmental infrastructure requirements to ensure high-quality system performance.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

228)

true false

Vulnerability is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat. ⊚ ⊚

true false

229) Serviceability is how quickly a third party or vendor can change a system to ensure it meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability, or availability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

230) Capacity represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the capacity of a hard drive represents the size or volume. ⊚ ⊚

true false

231) Web accessibility means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical, speech, cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web. ⊚ ⊚

true false

232) The Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) brings together people from industry, disability organizations, government, and research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

233) Availability refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system. ⊚ ⊚

234)

Unavailability occurs when a system is continuously operational at all times. ⊚ ⊚

235)

true false

Accessibility refers to the time frames when the system is operational. ⊚ ⊚

236)

true false

A system is called available when it is not operating and cannot be used. ⊚ ⊚

true false

237) Scalability refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

238) Portability describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth. ⊚ ⊚

239)

true false

Maintainability means the system functions correctly and provides accurate information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

240) Web accessibility is the degree to which a system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use. ⊚ ⊚

241)

Serviceability means the system quickly transforms to support environmental changes. ⊚ ⊚

242)

true false

Scalability measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

243) Maintainability determines future environmental infrastructure requirements to ensure high-quality system performance. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

244)

Reliability is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat. ⊚ ⊚

true false

245) Usability is how quickly a third party or vendor can change a system to ensure it meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability or availability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

246) Flexibility represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the capacity of a hard drive represents the size or volume. ⊚ ⊚

true false

247) Availability means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical, speech, cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web. ⊚ ⊚

true false

248) Administrator access initiative brings together people from industry, disability organizations, government, and research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

249) Gordon Moore, cofounder of Intel, observed in 1965 that continued advances in technological innovation made it possible to reduce the size of a computer chip while doubling its capacity every two years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

250) Tim Berners-Lee, cofounder of Intel, observed in 1965 that continued advances in technological innovation made it possible to reduce the size of a computer chip while doubling its capacity every two years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

251) Unsustainable, or green, MIS describes the production, management, use, and disposal of technology in a way that maximizes damage to the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

252) Sustainable, or green, MIS describes the production, management, use, and disposal of technology in a way that minimizes damage to the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

253) Ewaste is discarded electronics and is growing with the growth of innovation; for example, a personal computer has a life expectancy of only three to five years and that of a cell phone is less than two years.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

254) Upcycle refers to discarded electronics and is growing with the growth of innovation; for example, a personal computer has a life expectancy of only three to five years and that of a cell phone is less than two years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

255) Large increases in technology use, by both consumers and businesses, have greatly amplified energy consumption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

256) Sustainable MIS disposal refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

257) Unsustainable MIS disposal refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

258) Clean computing is a subset of sustainable MIS and refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

259) A green personal computer (green PC) is built using environmentally friendly materials and is designed to save energy. ⊚ ⊚

260)

true false

An upcycle reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product. ⊚ ⊚

true false

261) Corporate social responsibility is a subset of sustainable MIS and refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

262) A black personal computer (black PC) is built using environmentally friendly materials and is designed to save energy. ⊚ ⊚

263)

true false

Ewaste reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

264)

Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society. ⊚ ⊚

true false

265) Energy consumption is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

266) Carbon emissions include the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere produced by business processes and systems. ⊚ ⊚

267)

true false

Carbon emission is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

268) Energy consumption includes the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere produced by business processes and systems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

269) A sustainable MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

270) A smart grid delivers electricity using two-way digital technology and is meant to solve the problem of outdated electrical grids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

271) Grid computing is a collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are coordinated to solve a common problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

272) Cloud computing delivers electricity using two-way digital technology and is meant to solve the problem of outdated electrical grids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

273) Virtualization is a collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are coordinated to solve a common problem. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

274) Virtualization creates multiple virtual machines on a single computing device. A good analogy is a computer printer. In the past, you had to purchase a fax machine, copy machine, answering machine, and computer printer separately. This was expensive, required enough energy to run four machines, and created additional amounts of ewaste. ⊚ ⊚

true false

275) Storage virtualization combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage device. ⊚ ⊚

true false

276) Network virtualization combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device. ⊚ ⊚

true false

277) Server virtualization combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

278) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

279) Network virtualization combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage device. ⊚ ⊚

true false

280) Server virtualization combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device. ⊚ ⊚

true false

281) Storage virtualization combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

282) Virtualization offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. ⊚ ⊚

true false

283) A data center is a facility used to house management information systems and associated components, such as telecommunications and storage systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

284) Cloud computing stores, manages, and processes data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

285) Dynamic scaling means the MIS infrastructure can be automatically scaled up or down based on needed requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

286) Single-tenancy in the cloud means that a single instance of a system serves multiple customers. In the cloud, each customer is called a tenant, and multiple tenants can access the same system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

287) Multi-tenancy occurs when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an individual system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

288) Multi-tenancy in the cloud means that a single instance of a system serves multiple customers. In the cloud, each customer is called a tenant, and multiple tenants can access the same system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

289) Single-tenancy occurs when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an individual system.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

290) Cloud computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

291) Utility computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

292) A public cloud promotes massive, global, industry-wide applications offered to the general public. In a public cloud, customers are never required to provision, manage, upgrade, or replace hardware or software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

293) A private cloud serves only one customer or organization and can be located on or off the customer’s premises. ⊚ ⊚

true false

294) A community cloud serves a specific community with common business models, security requirements, and compliance considerations.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

295) A hybrid cloud includes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but each cloud remains separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and application portability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

296) A hybrid cloud serves a specific community with common business models, security requirements, and compliance considerations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

297) Cloud bursting is when a company uses its own computing infrastructure for normal usage and accesses the cloud when it needs to scale for high or peak load requirements, ensuring a sudden spike in usage does not result in poor performance or system crashes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_8e_Baltzan 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) A Version 1

32) C 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) D 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) A Version 1

62) A 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) C 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) C 78) B 79) C 80) B 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) B 86) C 87) D 88) C 89) A 90) B 91) C Version 1

92) C 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) C 97) C 98) D 99) C 100) A 101) D 102) B 103) C 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) B 108) C 109) B 110) D 111) A 112) B 113) C 114) D 115) B 116) A 117) B 118) C 119) A 120) D 121) C Version 1

122) B 123) A 124) B 125) C 126) D 127) B 128) C 129) A 130) B 131) C 132) D 133) D 134) B 135) A 136) B 137) D 138) C 139) D 140) A 141) B 142) D 143) C 144) C 145) B 146) A 147) C 148) B 149) C 150) D 151) A Version 1

152) B 153) A 154) B 155) C 156) D 157) B 158) A 159) D 160) C 161) A 162) D 163) B 164) C 165) D 166) A 167) C 168) B 169) D 170) FALSE 171) TRUE 172) TRUE 173) TRUE 174) FALSE 175) FALSE 176) TRUE 177) TRUE 178) TRUE 179) FALSE 180) FALSE 181) TRUE Version 1

182) TRUE 183) TRUE 184) FALSE 185) TRUE 186) FALSE 187) FALSE 188) TRUE 189) FALSE 190) TRUE 191) FALSE 192) TRUE 193) FALSE 194) TRUE 195) TRUE 196) TRUE 197) FALSE 198) FALSE 199) TRUE 200) TRUE 201) TRUE 202) TRUE 203) FALSE 204) FALSE 205) FALSE 206) TRUE 207) TRUE 208) FALSE 209) TRUE 210) FALSE 211) FALSE Version 1

212) FALSE 213) FALSE 214) TRUE 215) TRUE 216) TRUE 217) TRUE 218) TRUE 219) TRUE 220) TRUE 221) TRUE 222) TRUE 223) TRUE 224) TRUE 225) TRUE 226) TRUE 227) TRUE 228) TRUE 229) TRUE 230) TRUE 231) TRUE 232) TRUE 233) FALSE 234) FALSE 235) FALSE 236) FALSE 237) FALSE 238) FALSE 239) FALSE 240) FALSE 241) FALSE Version 1

242) FALSE 243) FALSE 244) FALSE 245) FALSE 246) FALSE 247) FALSE 248) FALSE 249) TRUE 250) FALSE 251) FALSE 252) TRUE 253) TRUE 254) FALSE 255) TRUE 256) TRUE 257) FALSE 258) TRUE 259) TRUE 260) TRUE 261) FALSE 262) FALSE 263) FALSE 264) TRUE 265) TRUE 266) TRUE 267) FALSE 268) FALSE 269) TRUE 270) TRUE 271) TRUE Version 1

272) FALSE 273) FALSE 274) TRUE 275) TRUE 276) TRUE 277) TRUE 278) TRUE 279) FALSE 280) FALSE 281) FALSE 282) FALSE 283) TRUE 284) TRUE 285) TRUE 286) FALSE 287) FALSE 288) TRUE 289) TRUE 290) FALSE 291) TRUE 292) TRUE 293) TRUE 294) TRUE 295) TRUE 296) FALSE 297) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 6 1)

Explain the four primary traits that determine the value of data.

Describe a database, a database management system, and the relational database model.

Identify the business advantages of a relational database.

Explain blockchain and its advantages over a centralized relational database.

Version 1

5) Define a data warehouse and provide a few reasons it can make a manager more effective.

Explain ETL and the role of a data mart in business.

7) Employees need to compare different types of data for what they commonly reveal to make strategic decisions. Which of the following represents the three common types of data found throughout an organization? A) levels, facts, granularities B) levels, facts, data C) levels, formats, granularities D) data, formats, governance

Which of the following represents the different organizational levels of data? A) detail, summary, aggregate B) document, presentation, spreadsheet, database C) individual, department, enterprise D) executives, managers, operational employees

Version 1

Which of the following represents the different data formats? A) detail, summary, aggregate B) document, presentation, spreadsheet, database C) individual, department, enterprise D) executives, managers, operational employees

10)

Which of the following represents the different data granularities? A) detail, summary, aggregate B) document, presentation, spreadsheet, database C) individual, department, enterprise D) executives, managers, operational employees

11)

Which of the following is not a primary trait of the value of data? A) governance B) type C) timeliness D) cost

12) What encompasses all of the data contained within a single business process or unit of work and its primary purpose is to support the performing of daily operational tasks?

Version 1

A) transactional data B) analytical data C) timeliness D) quality

13) What encompasses all organizational data and its primary purpose is to support the performing of managerial analysis tasks? A) transactional data B) analytical data C) timeliness D) quality

14)

What is immediate, up-to-date data? A) real-time data B) real-time systems C) data granularity D) data governance

15)

What provides real-time data in response to query requests? A) real-time data B) real-time systems C) data level D) data quality

Version 1

16)

What is one of the biggest pitfalls associated with real-time data? A) it is only available to high-level executives due to the expense B) it is only available in aggregate levels C) it continually changes D) it rarely changes

17) Which of the following is not one of the five characteristics common to high-quality data? A) accuracy B) completeness C) quantity D) consistency

18)

What is a real-time system? A) provides the same data elements with different values B) provides real-time data in response to query requests C) automates tasks for organizational systems D) provides all of the data contained within a single business process or unit of work

19) Which of the following implies that aggregate or summary data is in agreement with detailed data? A) uniqueness B) completeness C) consistency D) integrity

Version 1

20) Which of the following implies that data is current with respect to the business requirement? A) uniqueness B) accuracy C) consistency D) timeliness

21) What is it called when each transaction, entity, and event is represented only once in the data? A) uniqueness B) accuracy C) consistency D) timeliness

22)

Which of the following refers to the extent of detail within the data? A) knowledge data B) data granularity C) data intelligence D) data analytics

23) Which of the following represent the four primary traits that help determine the value of data?

Version 1

A) type, timeliness, quality, governance B) statistics, tracking, quality, governance C) type, cost, governance, policy D) timeliness, quality, quantity, governance

24)

What are the two different categories of data type? A) analytical and productive B) analytical and analysis C) transactional and analytical D) transactional and productive

25) Which of the following encompasses all of the data contained within a single business process or unit of work, and its primary purpose is to support daily operational tasks? A) targeted data B) analytical data C) productive data D) transactional data

26) Which of the following encompasses all organizational data, and its primary purpose is to support the performing of managerial analysis tasks? A) analytical data B) transactional data C) statistical data D) targeted data

Version 1

27) Ben works at a top accounting firm in Salt Lake City, and his responsibilities include writing letters, memos, and emails along with generating reports for financial analysis and marketing materials for products. Ben’s duties provide value-added to his company and would be categorized as occurring in different data A) lists. B) formats. C) granularities. D) focuses.

28) Ben works at a top accounting firm in Salt Lake City, and his responsibilities include developing individual and departmental goals and generating financial analysis across departments and the enterprise as a whole for the executive team to review. Ben’s duties provide value-added to his company and would be categorized as occurring in different data A) levels. B) formulas. C) granularities. D) focuses.

29) Ben works at a top accounting firm in Salt Lake City, and his responsibilities include developing reports for each salesperson, product, and part as well as departmental-wide sales reports by salesperson, product, and part. Ben’s duties provide value-added to his company and would be categorized as occurring in different data A) levels. B) formulas. C) granularities. D) focuses.

Version 1

30)

Which of the following refers to immediate, up-to-date data? A) daily data B) strategic data C) real-time data D) crisis data

31) Which of the following does not represent a company or group that requires up-to-thesecond data? A) 911 responders B) stock traders C) banks D) construction companies

32)

Which of the following provides real-time data in response to requests? A) sales system B) transactional system C) real-time system D) salary system

33)

Which of the following are examples of transactional data?

Version 1

A) airline tickets, sales receipts, packing slips B) trends, sales statistics C) product sales results, grocery receipts, growth projections D) airline tickets, sales growth spreadsheets

34)

Which of the following are examples of analytical data? A) airline tickets, sales receipts, packing slips B) hotel reservations, sales receipts, packing slips C) future growth analysis, sales projections, product statistics D) packing slips, grocery receipts, competitor data

35) Most people request real-time data without understanding that continual ________ is one of its biggest pitfalls. A) improvements B) change C) clustering D) cleansing

36)

Which of the following occurs when the same data element has different values? A) data modeling issue B) data gap analysis issue C) data governance issue D) data inconsistency issue

Version 1

37) Which of the following occurs when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data? A) data inconsistency issue B) data integrity issue C) data cost issue D) data gap analysis issue

38) Which of the following includes all of the five characteristics common to high-quality data? A) accuracy, completeness, strength, support, positive feedback B) accuracy, association, referral, sales, marketing C) accuracy, competition, support, customer service, visibility D) accuracy, completeness, consistency, timeliness, uniqueness

39) Which of the following would not be considered for the complete characteristic of highquality data? A) Is a value missing from the personal data? B) Is each transaction represented only once in the data? C) Is the address incomplete? D) Is the area code missing for the phone data?

40) Which of the following would not be considered for the timely characteristic of highquality data?

Version 1

A) Is the zip code missing in the address? B) Is the data current with respect to business needs? C) Is the customer address current? D) Is the data updated weekly or hourly?

41) Which of the following would not be considered for the accurate characteristic of highquality data? A) Is the name spelled correctly? B) Is the email address invalid? C) Do the name and phone values have the exact same data? D) Is aggregate data in agreement with detailed data?

42) Which of the following would not be considered for the unique characteristic of highquality data? A) Are there any duplicate orders? B) Are there any duplicate customers? C) Is aggregate data in agreement with detailed data? D) Is each transaction and event represented only once in the data?

43) Which of the following would not be considered for the consistent characteristic of highquality data? A) Do all sales columns equal the total for the revenue column? B) Is the two-digit state code missing in the data? C) Is all summary data in agreement with detailed data? D) Does the order number match the item and the color options available?

Version 1

44)

Which of the following is a reason for low-quality data? A) online customers intentionally enter inaccurate data to protect the privacy B) different systems have different data entry standards and formats C) third-party and external data contains inaccuracies and errors D) All of the answers are correct.

45) Some of the serious business consequences that occur due to using low-quality data to make decisions are all of the following, except A) inability to accurately track customers. B) inability to identify selling opportunities. C) the success of the organization. D) lost revenue opportunities from marketing to nonexistent customers.

46) What is the overall management of the availability, usability, integrity, and security of company data? A) data intelligence B) data governance C) data lake D) data map

47)

What occurs when the same data element has different values?

Version 1

A) data inconsistency B) data integrity issues C) data governance D) master data management

48)

What occurs when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data? A) data inconsistency B) data integrity issues C) data governance D) master data management

49) What is the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent, and complete, including such entities as customers, suppliers, products, sales, employees, and other critical entities that are commonly integrated across organizational systems? A) data inconsistency B) data integrity issues C) data governance D) master data management

50)

What is data inconsistency? A) occurs when the same data element has different values B) occurs when a system produces correct and consistent data C) refers to the overall management of the availability and usability of company data D) the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, and consistent

Version 1

51)

What are data integrity issues? A) occur when the same data element has identical values B) occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data C) refer to the overall management of the availability and usability of company data D) the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, and consistent

52)

What role does a data steward fulfill?

A) acts as a liaison between the finance and accounting departments B) ensures policies and procedures are never implemented across the organization C) acts as a liaison between the MIS department and the business and ensures policies and procedures are implemented across the organization D) ensures data is clean and consistent

53) What is the term for the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets to help provide business users with high-quality data that is easily accessible in a consistent manner? A) data steward B) data stewardship C) data master management D) data governance

54) What is the term for the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data governance policies to ensure correctness of data?

Version 1

A) data steward B) data stewardship C) data validation D) data master management

55)

What is data stewardship?

A) the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved B) the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets C) the person responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented across the organization D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps

56)

What is a data steward?

57)

What is data validation?

Version 1

A) the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved B) the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets C) the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data governance policies to ensure correctness of data D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps

58)

What maintains data about various types of objects, events, people, and places? A) database B) data model C) data mart D) data point

59)

What does a database maintain data on? A) inventory B) transactions C) employees D) All of the answers are correct.

60) In the relational database model, what is a person, place, thing, transaction, or event about which data is stored? A) entity B) relationships C) attribute D) foreign key

Version 1

61)

Why do relational databases use primary keys and foreign keys? A) create an entity B) create physical relationships C) create logical relationships D) create an attribute

62)

What is a primary key?

A) a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship among the two tables C) a characteristic or property of an entity D) a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given attribute in a table

63)

What is a foreign key?

64) Which of the following creates, reads, updates, and deletes data in a database while controlling access and security?

Version 1

A) database element B) database management system C) data governance D) data master management

65) Which of the following asks users to write lines of code to answer questions against a database? A) structured query language B) relational query language C) structured elements D) data cube

66) What is the primary tool that retrieves data and helps users graphically design the answer to a question? A) data visualization tool B) structured tool C) query-by-example tool D) relational fact tool

67)

What is the smallest or basic unit of data? A) database B) data element C) data model D) data integrity issue

Version 1

68) What is a logical data structure that details the relationship among data elements using graphics or pictures? A) data model B) data element C) data cube D) data mart

69)

What compiles all of the metadata about the data elements in the data model? A) data entity B) data element C) data attribute D) data dictionary

70) Which of the following allows users to create, read, update, and delete data in a relational database? A) infographic system B) bitcoin system C) relational database management system D) blockchain

71)

Which of the following illustrates the primary concepts of the relational database model?

Version 1

A) ethics, applications, keys, relationships B) entities, attributes, keys, relationships C) endeavor, aspire, control, regulate D) early, after, before, future

72) Which of the following stores data about a person, place, thing, transaction, or event and is usually referred to as a table? A) entity B) extraction C) attribute D) foreign key

73)

What type of keys do you need to use to create a relational database model? A) primary keys, secondary keys B) primary keys, foreign keys C) entity keys, attribute keys D) relational keys, structured keys

74)

What is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table? A) foreign key B) primary key C) secondary key D) block key

Version 1

75)

What is the role of a foreign key?

A) it is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables B) it is a unique way to identify each record C) it is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table D) it supports a secondary key

76) Your textbook discussed a record store example in which one user could perform a query to determine which recordings had a track length of four minutes or more and another user could perform an analysis to determine the distribution of recordings as they relate to the different categories. This is an advantage of which database advantage? A) decreased scalability and performance B) decreased data security C) increased data redundancy D) increased flexibility

77)

Which of the following is not an advantage of database-stored data? A) increased flexibility B) increased performance C) increased data redundancy D) increased data integrity

78)

What is the logical view of data?

Version 1

A) deals with the physical storage of data on a storage device such as a hard disk B) deals with the logical storage of data on a storage device such as a hard disk C) focuses on how users logically access data to meet their particular business needs D) focuses on how users physically access data to meet their particular business needs

79)

Which of the following is correct in reference to a database? A) a database can support only one logical view B) a database can support many physical views C) a database can support many logical views D) a database can support up to three logical views

80)

Which of the below is not an advantage of using a relational database? A) increased data quality B) increased flexibility C) decreased data redundancy D) decreased data security

81)

What is the term for the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved? A) data governance B) data latency C) data validation D) data gap analysis

82)

What is data latency?

Version 1

83)

What is data redundancy? A) duplication of data B) storing the same data in multiple places C) storing duplicate data in multiple places D) All of the answers are correct.

84)

What is the primary problem with redundant data? A) it is difficult to determine which values are the most current. B) it is often inconsistent. C) it is difficult to determine which values are the most accurate. D) All of the answers are correct.

85)

Which of the following is true in regard to the elimination of redundant data? A) uses additional hard disk space B) makes performing data updates harder C) improves data quality D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

86)

What are the rules that help ensure the quality of data? A) data integrity B) integrity constraints C) relational integrity constraints D) business-critical integrity constraints

87)

What are rules that enforce basic and fundamental information-based constraints? A) data integrity B) integrity constraint C) business-critical integrity constraint D) relational integrity constraint

88) What type of integrity constraint does not allow someone to create an order for a nonexistent customer? A) relational integrity constraint B) business-critical integrity constraint C) data-critical integrity constraint D) mission-critical integrity constraint

89)

Which of the following is a business-critical integrity constraint?

Version 1

A) system will not allow an entry for an order for a nonexistent customer B) system will not allow returns of fresh produce after 15 days past delivery C) system will not allow shipping a product to a customer who does not have a valid address D) systems will not allow shipping of a nonexistent product to a customer

90)

What is identity management?

A) enforces business rules vital to an organization’s success B) the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent, and complete C) a broad administrative area that deals with identifying individuals in a system and controlling their access to resources within that system D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps

91) What is the term for a broad administrative area that deals with identifying individuals in a system and controlling their access to resources within that system by associating user rights and restrictions with the established identity? A) identity management B) master data management C) data validation D) data latency

92) Which of the following focuses on how individual users logically access data to meet their own particular business needs?

Version 1

A) physical view B) logical view C) foreign key view D) business view

93) The book cited www.EllisIsland.org, which generates more than 2.5 billion hits, as a website that offers a database that can easily adjust to handle massive volumes of data. What is this an example of? A) increased scalability and performance B) increased data security C) reduced data redundancy D) increased flexibility

94) One of the primary goals of a database is to eliminate data redundancy by recording each piece of data in only one place in the database. What does the elimination of data redundancy do for a database? A) reduces disk space requirements B) makes updating data easier C) improves data quality D) All of the answers are correct.

95)

What are rules that help ensure the quality of data? A) data integrity B) integrity constraints C) data quality D) data ethics

Version 1

96)

What are the rules that enforce basic and fundamental information-based constraints? A) responsibly integrity constraints B) quality constraints C) web integrity constraints D) relational integrity constraints

97)

What is an organized collection of data? A) dataset B) dirty data C) data cube D) data point

98)

What is an individual item on a graph or a chart? A) dataset B) dirty data C) data cube D) data point

99)

What is a central location in which data is stored and managed? A) repository B) data warehouse C) data lake D) data element

Version 1

100)

What is a collection of data from various sources for the purpose of data processing? A) repository B) data warehouse C) data aggregation D) data cube

101)

What can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends? A) comparative analysis B) competitive monitoring C) data-driven decision management D) competitive analysis

102) What can help managers keep tabs of competitor’s activities on the web using software that automatically tracks all competitor website activities such as discounts and new products? A) comparative analysis B) competitive monitoring C) data governance D) source data

103)

Which of the following represents the data analysis cycle?

Version 1

A) compare, contrast, cost, concept B) collect, analyze, communicate, visualize C) fact, data, information, intelligence D) raw, cooked, source, set

104)

Which of the following is included in the data analysis cycle? A) collect B) analyze C) communicate D) All of the answers are correct.

105)

Which of the following identifies the primary location where data is collected? A) comparative analysis B) competitive monitoring C) data governance D) source data

106)

What includes invoices, spreadsheets, time sheets, and transactions? A) data aggregation B) competitive monitoring C) data compliance D) source data

107)

What is data that has not been processed for use?

Version 1

A) raw data B) competitive monitoring C) data cube D) source data

108)

What is another name for raw data that has undergone processing? A) data lake B) cooked data C) data cube D) source data

109) What is a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until the business needs it? A) data latency B) data lake C) data governance D) data point

110)

What is a data lake?

A) a business that can answer questions using the why approach B) a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until the business needs it C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data

Version 1

111)

What is a data map?

112)

What is data-driven decision management?

113)

What is source data?

A) identifies the primary location where data is collected B) a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until the business needs it C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data

Version 1

114)

What is a data point?

A) identifies the primary location where data is collected B) an individual item on a graph or chart C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data

115) Which of the following questions is an example of how managers can use business intelligence (BI) to answer tough business questions? A) where has the business been? B) where is the business now? C) where is the business going? D) All of the answers are correct.

116) Businesses collect a tremendous amount of ________ data as part of their routine operations. A) operational B) transactional C) aggregate D) comparative

117) Kassandra Young is a business manager at Weith Productions. Although she does not have a background in technology, her job requires her to work with analytical tools to make datadriven decisions. To make her job easier, what can she customize to display data quickly and run custom reports? Version 1

A) data point B) data cleansing C) dashboard D) dataset

118)

What is it called when a manager has so much data that they cannot make a decision? A) data rich, information poor B) data rich, content poor C) data rich, communication poor D) data rich, intelligence

119) A data warehouse is a ________ collection of data, gathered from many different ________ databases, that supports business analysis activities and decision-making tasks. A) logical; operational B) physical; operational C) logical; transactional D) physical; transactional

120) Which of the following is incorrect in terms of data warehousing and business intelligence? A) they do not include data from other operational systems B) operational systems are always integrated C) operational data is mainly current D) operational data frequently has quality issues

Version 1

121)

What do data warehouses support? A) OLAP and transactional processing B) analytical processing and transactional processing C) online transactional systems D) OLAP and analytical processing

122)

What is the primary purpose of a data warehouse? A) combines strategic data B) organizes departments C) integrates computers and employees D) combines departments

123) The status of a lightbulb can be referred to in many ways (on, off, O/F, 1/0) in a data warehouse. What is the name for ensuring status is referenced in the same way throughout the warehouse? A) data scaling B) streamlining data points C) standardizing data D) standardizing protocols

124)

Why were data warehouses created?

Version 1

A) The numbers and types of operational databases increased as businesses grew. B) Many companies had data scattered across multiple systems with different formats. C) Completing reporting requests from numerous operational systems took days or weeks to fulfill. D) All of the answers are correct.

125)

What is extraction, transformation, and loading?

A) It is a process of entering data, tracking data, and loading it into a database. B) It is a process that extracts data from internal and external databases, transforms it using a common set of enterprise definitions, and loads it into a data warehouse. C) It is a process that is performed at the end of the data warehouse model prior to putting the data in a cube. D) It is a process that is performed at the beginning of all business processes.

126)

Which of the following are examples of external databases in the data warehouse model? A) marketing, sales, inventory, and billing B) accounting data mart C) competitor and industry data, mailing lists, and stock market analyses D) marketing data, sales data, and stock market analyses

127) Which of the following is an example of data found in an external database in the data warehouse model? A) marketing data B) sales data C) competitor data D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

128)

Which of the following describes ETL? A) a process that extracts data from internal and external databases B) a process that transforms data using a common set of enterprise definitions C) a process that loads data into a data warehouse D) All of the answers are correct.

129)

Which of the following statements is true regarding customer data? A) Customer data can exist in several operational systems. B) Customer data in each operational system can change. C) Customer data in each operational system can be different. D) All of the answers are correct.

130)

Which of the following occurs during data cleansing? A) cleaning missing records B) cleaning redundant records C) cleaning inaccurate data D) All of the answers are correct.

131)

Which of the following occurs during data cleansing? A) cleaning data marts B) cleaning redundant customer data C) cleaning accurate data D) cleaning correct data

Version 1

132) Within the beginning stage of the data warehouse models process, which of the following are included in the internal databases? A) marketing, sales, inventory, and accounting B) All of the answers are correct. C) competitor and industry data, mailing lists, and stock market analyses D) marketing data and stock market analysis numbers

133)

What is the ultimate outcome of a data warehouse? A) data keys B) data relationships C) data point D) data marts

134)

Which of the following contains a subset of data warehouse data? A) data point B) data mart C) data pool D) data lake

135)

What are the primary differences between a data warehouse and a data mart?

Version 1

A) data warehouses make quick decisions; data marts make slow decisions B) data warehouses tackle ethical issues; data marts tackle hypothetical issues C) data warehouses have a more organization-wide focus; data marts have a functional focus D) data warehouses have a physical focus; data marts have a logical focus

136) Which of the following is the common term for the representation of multidimensional data? A) block B) square C) column D) cube

137)

What is a data cube? A) multidimensional data B) storage repository C) column in a spreadsheet D) dirty data

138)

What is another term for data cleansing? A) data point B) data scrubbing C) data scrapping D) data aggregation

Version 1

139)

What determines the accuracy and completeness of organizational data? A) data quantity audit B) data quality audit C) data intelligence audit D) data cost audit

140)

Which of the following is not a data cleansing activity? A) identifying redundant records B) identifying inaccurate or incomplete data C) identifying missing records or attributes D) identifying sales trends

141)

What is erroneous or flawed data? A) dirty data B) data cleansing C) data scrubbing D) data lake

142)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) duplicate data B) incorrect data C) violates business rules D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

143)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) duplicate data B) correct data C) accurate data D) All of the answers are correct.

144)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) inaccurate data B) misleading data C) nonformatted data D) All of the answers are correct.

145)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) inaccurate data B) nonintegrated data C) violates business rules D) All of the answers are correct.

146)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) accurate data B) integrated data C) violates business rules D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

147)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) nonformatted data B) misleading data C) incorrect data D) All of the answers are correct.

148)

Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) formatted data B) misleading data C) correct data D) All of the answers are correct.

149) Business analysis is difficult to achieve from operational databases. Which of the following is a reason why? A) inconsistent data definitions B) lack of data standards C) All of the answers are correct. D) poor data quality

150)

Which of the following is not a dirty data problem?

Version 1

A) duplicate data B) inaccurate data C) specific data D) nonintegrated data

151)

Which of the following is true of data artists? A) are experts at creating a story from any information B) have philosophical and political reasons for breaking into systems C) work at the request of system owners to find system vulnerabilities D) reward individuals for discovering and reporting software bugs

152)

What are the benefits of data artists? A) They help people understand complex data. B) They create music and sculpture from combinations of data. C) They are responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented properly. D) They record classified transactional data.

153) What processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable

Version 1

154)

What records classified and summarized transactional data? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable

155) What is a type of distributed ledger consisting of blocks of data that maintains a permanent and tamper-proof record of transactional data? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable

156)

What simply means unchangeable? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable

157)

What is distributed computing? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable

Version 1

158)

What are the three primary components in a blockchain? A) hash B) data C) previous hash D) All of the answers are correct.

159)

What are the three advantages of using blockchain technology? A) immutability B) digital trust C) Internet of Things integration D) All of the answers are correct.

160)

What is a ledger? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable

161)

What is a blockchain? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable

Version 1

162)

What is immutable? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable

163)

What is proof-of-work?

A) a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain B) a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus C) a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it operates independently of a central bank D) All of the answers are correct.

164)

What is proof-of-stake?

A) a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain B) a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus C) a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it which operates independently of a central bank D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

165)

What is Bitcoin?

A) a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain B) a way to validate transactions and achieve the distributed consensus C) a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it which operates independently of a central bank D) All of the answers are correct.

166) What is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain? A) distributed computing B) proof-of-work C) blockchain D) proof-of-stake

167)

What is a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus? A) distributed computing B) proof-of-work C) blockchain D) proof-of-stake

168) What a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained, new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems, and it operates independently of a central bank?

Version 1

A) distributed computing B) proof-of-work C) blockchain D) bitcoin

169)

What is the first block created in the blockchain? A) genesis block B) hash C) block D) proof-of-stake

170) What is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an encrypted output of a fixed length? A) genesis block B) hash C) block D) proof-of-stake

171) What is the ability for a blockchain ledger to remain a permanent, indelible, and unalterable history of transactions? A) genesis block B) hash C) immutability D) proof-of-stake

Version 1

172)

What are links in a blockchain? A) genesis blocks B) hashes C) proofs-of-work D) bitcoins

173) In a block in a blockchain, what represents the transactional data, sender, receiver, and number of coins? A) data B) hash C) previous hash D) proof-of-stake

174)

In a block in a blockchain, what represents a block’s unique identifier like a fingerprint? A) data B) hash C) previous hash D) proof-of-stake

175)

In a block in a blockchain, what represents the hash of the previous block?

Version 1

A) data B) hash C) previous hash D) proof-of-stake

176)

Identify the correct statement about Ethereum. A) a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus B) the first block created in a blockchain C) the most actively used blockchain D) a block’s unique identifier such as a fingerprint

177)

Which of the following is a feature of a non-fungible token (NFT)? A) unique and irreplaceable B) cannot combine one NFT with another to “breed” a third, unique NFT C) does not contain ownership details D) All of the answers are correct.

178)

What is currently the most common use for NFTs (non-fungible tokens)? A) food and services B) expensive electronic devises C) sharing money amongst peers D) collectibles such as digital artwork

179)

Which of the following allows someone to own a tweet or digital image?

Version 1

A) non-fungible token B) Bitcoin token C) digital artist D) data steward

180) Data granularity refers to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse and abstract). ⊚ ⊚

true false

181) Data timeliness refers to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse and abstract). ⊚ ⊚

182)

true false

Organizational data has three primary areas including levels, formats, and granularities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

183) The four primary traits of the value of data include type, timeliness, quality, and governance. ⊚ ⊚

184) type.

true false

The four primary traits of the value of data include levels, formats, granularities, and

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

185) There are only two main primary traits that help you determine the value of data: timeliness and quality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

186) If a manager identifies numerous data integrity issues, they should consider the reports generated from that data as invalid and not use them when making decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

187) Real-time systems refer to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse and abstract). ⊚ ⊚

188)

Data granularity means immediate, up-to-date data. ⊚ ⊚

189)

true false

Real-time systems provide real-time data in response to requests. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

190) data.

Data integrity issues occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate ⊚ ⊚

true false

191) Data governance refers to the overall management of the availability, usability, integrity, and security of company data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

192) Transactional data is used when performing operational tasks and repetitive decisions such as analyzing daily sales reports and production schedules to determine how much inventory to carry. ⊚ ⊚

193)

true false

Organizational data comes at the same level, formats, and granularities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

194) Reports for each salesperson, product, and part are examples of detail or fine data granularities. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

195) Master data management (MDM) is the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent, and complete, including such entities as customers, suppliers, products, sales, employees, and other critical entities that are commonly integrated across organizational systems. MDM is commonly included in data governance. ⊚ ⊚

196)

Accurate data asks if there is an incorrect value in the data. ⊚ ⊚

197)

true false

Timely data asks if the data is current with respect to the business needs. ⊚ ⊚

200)

true false

Consistent data asks if the aggregate or summary data is in agreement with detailed data. ⊚ ⊚

199)

true false

Complete data asks if there is a value missing from the data. ⊚ ⊚

198)

true false

Unique data asks if each transaction and event are represented only once in the data.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

201)

Complete data asks if there is an incorrect value in the data. ⊚ ⊚

202)

true false

Unique data asks if the data is current with respect to the business needs. ⊚ ⊚

205)

true false

Accurate data asks if the aggregate or summary data is in agreement with the detailed ⊚ ⊚

204)

true false

Consistent data asks if there is a value missing from the data. ⊚ ⊚

203) data.

true false

Timely data asks if each transaction and event is represented only once in the data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

206) Determining if there are any duplicate customers in the data is an example of a unique characteristic of high-quality data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

207) Determining if all total columns equal the true total of the individual item is an example of a consistent characteristic of high-quality data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

208) A data steward is responsible for ensuring the policies and procedures are implemented across the organization and acts as a liaison between the MIS department and the business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

209) Data stewardship is the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets to help provide business users with high-quality data that is easily accessible in a consistent manner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

210) Data validation includes the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data governance polices to ensure correctness of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

211) Determining if a name is spelled correctly is an example of an accurate characteristic of high-quality data. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

212) Determining if data is updated weekly, daily, or hourly is an example of an accurate characteristic of high-quality data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

213) A foreign key is a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in a table. ⊚ ⊚

true false

214) The core component of any system, regardless of size, is a database and a database management system. ⊚ ⊚

215)

A foreign key provides details about data. ⊚ ⊚

216)

true false

A data element (or data field) is the smallest or basic unit of data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

217) Data elements can include a customer’s name, address, email, discount rate, preferred shipping method, product name, quantity ordered, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

218) Data models are logical data structures that detail the relationships among data elements by using graphics or pictures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

219) Metadata provides details about data. For example, metadata for an image could include its size, resolution, and date created. ⊚ ⊚

220)

true false

A data dictionary compiles all of the metadata about the data elements in the data model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

221) Relational database models store data in the form of logically related two-dimensional tables. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

222) Relational database management systems allow users to create, read, update, and delete data in a relational database. ⊚ ⊚

223)

Attributes (also called columns or fields) are the data elements associated with an entity. ⊚ ⊚

224)

true false

A record is a collection of related data elements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

225) A primary key is a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given record in a table. ⊚ ⊚

true false

226) A foreign key is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

227) Metadata are logical data structures that detail the relationships among data elements by using graphics or pictures.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

228)

A DBMS provides details about data. ⊚ ⊚

229)

true false

A field is a collection of related data elements. ⊚ ⊚

231)

true false

Entities are the data elements associated with an attribute. ⊚ ⊚

230)

true false

A foreign key uniquely identifies a given record in a table. ⊚ ⊚

true false

232) A primary key is a foreign key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

233) Databases offer many security features including passwords to provide authentication, access levels to determine who can access the data, and access controls to determine what type of access they have to the data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

234) Data redundancy is the duplication of data, or the storage of the same data in multiple places. ⊚ ⊚

true false

235) Relational databases offer many advantages over using a text document or a spreadsheet, which include decreased flexibility and decreased scalability and performance. ⊚ ⊚

236)

true false

The physical view of data deals with the physical storage of data on a storage device. ⊚ ⊚

true false

237) The logical view of data focuses on how individual users logically access data to meet their own particular business needs. ⊚ ⊚

238)

true false

The logical view of data deals with the physical storage of data on a storage device.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

239) The physical view of data focuses on how individual users logically access data to meet their own particular business needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

240) A business rule defines how a company performs certain aspects of its business and typically results in either a yes/no or true/false answer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

241) Data redundancy is the duplication of data, or the storage of the same data in multiple places. ⊚ ⊚

242)

Data integrity is a measure of the quality of data. ⊚ ⊚

243)

true false

Integrity constraints are rules that help ensure the quality of data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

244) Relational integrity constraints are rules that enforce basic and fundamental informationbased constraints. ⊚ ⊚

245)

Data integrity are rules that help ensure the quality of data. ⊚ ⊚

246)

true false

Data latency is the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved. ⊚ ⊚

true false

247) Business-critical integrity constraints enforce business rules vital to an organization’s success and often require more insight and knowledge than relational integrity constraints. ⊚ ⊚

248)

true false

One of the advantages found in a relational database is increased data redundancy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

249) Relational integrity constraints are rules that enforce basic and fundamental informationbased constraints. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

250)

A comparative analysis can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends. ⊚ ⊚

251)

true false

A dataset is an organized collection of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

252) The banking industry uses business intelligence to understand customer credit card usage and nonpayment rates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

253) Many organizations find themselves in the position of being data rich and information poor. Even in today’s electronic world, managers struggle with the challenge of turning their business data into business intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

254) rich.

true false

Many organizations find themselves in the position of being data poor and information ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

255)

Competitive monitoring can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends. ⊚ ⊚

true false

256) A data lake is a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until the business needs it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

257) Source data identifies the primary location where data is collected. It can include invoices, spreadsheets, timesheets, transactions, and electronic sources such as other databases. ⊚ ⊚

258)

A data point is an individual item on a graph or chart. ⊚ ⊚

259)

true false

Organizational data includes simple structured data elements in a database. ⊚ ⊚

260)

true false

A dataset is an individual item on a graph or chart.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

261)

true false

A data mart contains a subset of data warehouse data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

262) Data aggregation is the collection of data from various sources for the purpose of data processing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

263) An example of a data aggregation is to gather data about particular groups based on specific variables such as age, profession, or income. ⊚ ⊚

264)

The complete removal of dirty data from a source is practical and possible. ⊚ ⊚

265)

true false

Dirty data is an MIS problem, not a business problem. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

266)

Dirty data is erroneous or flawed data. ⊚ ⊚

267)

A repository is a central location in which data is stored and managed. ⊚ ⊚

268)

true false

A data warehouse is a central location in which data is stored and managed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

269) A data warehouse is a logical collection of data, gathered from many different operational databases, that supports business analysis activities and decision-making tasks. ⊚ ⊚

270)

Data warehouses struggle with combining too much standardized data. ⊚ ⊚

271)

true false

The primary purpose of a data warehouse is to perform transactional processes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

272)

The primary purpose of a data warehouse is to perform analytical process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

273) Within the data warehouse model, the internal databases could include marketing, sales, inventory, and billing. ⊚ ⊚

274)

A data mart contains a subset of data warehouse data. ⊚ ⊚

275)

true false

ETL, within a data warehouse model, stands for exit, track, and load. ⊚ ⊚

276)

true false

ETL, within a data warehouse model, stands for extraction, transformation, and loading. ⊚ ⊚

true false

277) Within the data warehouse model, the external databases could include competitor data, industry data, and stock market analysis.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

278) Dirty data is erroneous or flawed data. The complete removal of dirty data from a source is impractical or virtually impossible. ⊚ ⊚

true false

279) Data cleansing or scrubbing is a process that weeds out and fixes or discards inconsistent, incorrect, or incomplete data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

280) Duplicate data, inaccurate data, misleading data, and incorrect data are all problems associated with dirty data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

281) Many firm’s complete data quality audits to determine the accuracy and completeness of their data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

282) Infographics present the results of data analysis by displaying patterns and relationships in a graphical format. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 69

283)

Data Artists are experts at creating a story from the information. ⊚ ⊚

284)

true false

Analysis paralysis occurs when there is not enough information to perform an analysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

285) Data visualization describes technologies that allow users to see or visualize data to transform information into a business perspective. ⊚ ⊚

286)

true false

Data visualization tools are primarily limited to Excel. ⊚ ⊚

true false

287) Distributed computing processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment. ⊚ ⊚

288)

true false

A ledger records classified and summarized transactional data.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

289) A blockchain is a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data that maintain a permanent and tamper-proof record of transactional data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

290) Proof-of-stake is a way to validate transactions based and achieve the distributed consensus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

291) Proof-of-work is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

292) Proof-of-work is a way to validate transactions based and achieve the distributed consensus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

293) Proof-of-stake is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

294) Bitcoin is a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it operates independently of a central bank. ⊚ ⊚

true false

295) A blockchain is formed by linking together blocks, data structures containing a hash, previous hash, and data. ⊚ ⊚

296)

The genesis block is the first block created in the blockchain. ⊚ ⊚

297)

true false

The hash is the first block created in the blockchain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

298) A hash is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an encrypted output of a fixed length. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

299) A genesis block is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an encrypted output of a fixed length. ⊚ ⊚

300)

Hashes are the links in the blockchain. ⊚ ⊚

301)

true false

Immutable simply means unchangeable. ⊚ ⊚

302)

true false

Immutable simply means changeable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

303) Immutability is the ability for a blockchain ledger to remain a permanent, indelible, and unalterable history of transactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

304) A non-fungible token (NFT) is a digital signature backed by blockchain technology that proves ownership of something. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

305)

true false

Just like bitcoins, non-fungible tokens are unique and create scarcity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

306) It is possible to buy an NFT (non-fungible token) that represents physical objects but also digital assets such as a tweet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

307) Much of the current market for NFTs is centered around collectibles, such as digital artwork, sports cards, and rarities. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_8e_Baltzan 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) C Version 1

33) A 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) A Version 1

63) B 64) B 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) C 78) C 79) C 80) D 81) B 82) A 83) D 84) D 85) C 86) B 87) D 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) B Version 1

93) A 94) D 95) B 96) D 97) A 98) D 99) A 100) C 101) A 102) B 103) B 104) D 105) D 106) D 107) A 108) B 109) B 110) B 111) C 112) D 113) A 114) B 115) D 116) B 117) C 118) A 119) A 120) B 121) D 122) A Version 1

123) C 124) D 125) B 126) C 127) C 128) D 129) D 130) D 131) B 132) A 133) D 134) B 135) C 136) D 137) A 138) B 139) B 140) D 141) A 142) D 143) A 144) D 145) D 146) C 147) D 148) B 149) C 150) C 151) A 152) A Version 1

153) A 154) B 155) C 156) D 157) A 158) D 159) D 160) B 161) C 162) D 163) A 164) B 165) C 166) B 167) D 168) D 169) A 170) B 171) C 172) B 173) A 174) B 175) C 176) C 177) A 178) D 179) A 180) TRUE 181) FALSE 182) TRUE Version 1

183) TRUE 184) FALSE 185) FALSE 186) TRUE 187) FALSE 188) FALSE 189) TRUE 190) TRUE 191) TRUE 192) TRUE 193) FALSE 194) TRUE 195) TRUE 196) TRUE 197) TRUE 198) TRUE 199) TRUE 200) TRUE 201) FALSE 202) FALSE 203) FALSE 204) FALSE 205) FALSE 206) TRUE 207) TRUE 208) TRUE 209) TRUE 210) TRUE 211) TRUE 212) TRUE Version 1

213) FALSE 214) TRUE 215) FALSE 216) TRUE 217) TRUE 218) TRUE 219) TRUE 220) TRUE 221) TRUE 222) TRUE 223) TRUE 224) TRUE 225) TRUE 226) TRUE 227) FALSE 228) FALSE 229) FALSE 230) FALSE 231) FALSE 232) FALSE 233) TRUE 234) TRUE 235) FALSE 236) TRUE 237) TRUE 238) FALSE 239) FALSE 240) TRUE 241) TRUE 242) TRUE Version 1

243) TRUE 244) TRUE 245) FALSE 246) TRUE 247) TRUE 248) FALSE 249) TRUE 250) TRUE 251) TRUE 252) TRUE 253) TRUE 254) FALSE 255) FALSE 256) TRUE 257) TRUE 258) TRUE 259) FALSE 260) FALSE 261) TRUE 262) TRUE 263) TRUE 264) FALSE 265) FALSE 266) TRUE 267) TRUE 268) FALSE 269) TRUE 270) FALSE 271) FALSE 272) TRUE Version 1

273) TRUE 274) TRUE 275) FALSE 276) TRUE 277) TRUE 278) TRUE 279) TRUE 280) TRUE 281) TRUE 282) TRUE 283) TRUE 284) FALSE 285) TRUE 286) FALSE 287) TRUE 288) TRUE 289) TRUE 290) TRUE 291) TRUE 292) FALSE 293) FALSE 294) TRUE 295) TRUE 296) TRUE 297) FALSE 298) TRUE 299) FALSE 300) TRUE 301) TRUE 302) FALSE Version 1

303) TRUE 304) TRUE 305) FALSE 306) TRUE 307) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 7 1)

Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) LAN, WAN, SAN B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) LAN, SAN, XAN D) LAN, WAN, XAN

2) What is a large computer network usually spanning a city or a specific infrastructure like a college? A) metropolitan area network (MAN) B) local area network (LAN) C) wide area network (WAN) D) secure area network (SAN)

3) What spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country, similar to the Internet? A) metropolitan area network (MAN) B) local area network (LAN) C) wide area network (WAN) D) All of the answers are correct.

4) What connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in a school or office setting?

Version 1

A) metropolitan area network (MAN) B) local area network (LAN) C) wide area network (WAN) D) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the below offers a common example of a local area network? A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the below offers an example of a wide area network? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the city of Denver’s court and police departments D) All of the answers are correct.

Which of the below is an example of a wide area network? A) home office B) business office C) college dorm room D) the Internet

Version 1

8) What is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time? A) bandwidth B) frequency C) wide area network D) All of the answers are correct.

9) Which of the following terms refers to the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1? A) bit B) bandwidth C) local area network D) metropolitan area network

10)

What measures bandwidth in terms of numbers transferred or received per unit of time? A) All of the answers are correct. B) Wi-Fi C) wide area network D) bit rate

11) What is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time?

Version 1

A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity

12)

What is the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity

13)

What is the number of bits transferred or received per unit of time? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity

14) What includes the inner workings of a Wi-Fi service or utility, including the signal transmitters, towers, or poles and additional equipment required to send out a Wi-Fi signal? A) Wi-Fi infrastructure B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity

Version 1

15) What is a technology that connects individual devices to other parts of a network through radio connections? A) radio area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) All of the answers are correct.

16) What is the fifth-generation wireless broadband technology based on the 802.11ac standard engineered to greatly increase the speed and responsiveness of wireless networks? A) 5G B) WiMAX C) Wi-Fi 6 D) All of the answers are correct.

17)

What is the next generation of Wi-Fi expected to operate at 9.6 Gbps? A) 2G B) Wi-Fi 6 C) radio area network D) bandwidth

18) What is the ability to purchase goods and services through a wireless Internet-enabled device?

Version 1

A) bandwidth B) mobile business C) All of the answers are correct. D) Wi-Fi 6

19)

Which two terms are synonymous but have different meanings? A) mobile and wireless B) bit and Wi-Fi 6 C) LAN and WAN D) All of the answers are correct.

20) What means the technology can travel with the user; for instance, users can download software, email messages, and web pages onto a laptop or other mobile device? A) mobile B) wireless C) ebusiness D) radio access network

21) What refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection? A) digital divide B) wireless C) actor D) bad actor

Version 1

22)

Which of the following is a type of bandwidth speed? A) megabit B) wireless C) local area network D) radio access network

23) What is a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves? A) Bluetooth B) wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi) C) wide area network (WAN) D) wireless data centers

24) What is a wireless network that provides communication over a short distance that is intended for use with devices that are owned and operated by a single user? A) professional area network B) All of the answers are correct. C) personal area network D) political area network

25) What is a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices?

Version 1

A) laptop B) digital divide C) Bluetooth D) camera

26) Which network uses radio signals to transmit and receive data over distances of a few hundred feet? A) wireless MAN B) wireless WAN C) All of the answers are correct. D) wireless LAN

27)

What are areas around access points where users can connect to the Internet via Wi-Fi? A) hotspots B) wireless WAN C) smart phone D) WiMax

28) A wireless MAN (WMAN) is a metropolitan area network that uses ___________ to transmit and receive data? A) hotspots B) kilobytes C) digital divide D) radio signals

Version 1

29)

Which of the following is the correct definition for the acronym WiMAX? A) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access B) World Interconnected through Mobile Awareness C) All of the answers are correct. D) Wide International for Misinformation Access

30) What is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way that the user can view the file while it is being transferred? A) streaming B) smart phone C) networking D) wireless

31) What is data that is generated continuously by thousands of data sources, which typically send in the data records simultaneously, and in small sizes (order of kilobytes)? A) streaming data B) smart phone C) networking D) wireless

32) What is a space station that orbits the Earth receiving and transmitting signals from Earth-based stations over a wide area?

Version 1

A) Wi-Fi B) satellite C) digital divide D) streaming data

33)

What is Bluetooth?

A) means the technology can travel with the user; for instance, users can download software, email messages, and web pages onto a laptop or other mobile device B) refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection C) a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices D) All of the answers are correct.

34)

What is a personal area network (PAN)?

A) All of the answers are correct. B) refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection C) a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices D) provides communication for devices owned by a single user that work over a short distance

35)

What is an access point (AP)?

Version 1

A) the computer or network device that serves as an interface between devices and the network B) refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection C) a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices D) All of the answers are correct.

36)

What is a wireless MAN?

A) a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data B) a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over metropolitan area networks C) a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves D) All of the answers are correct.

37)

What is worldwide interoperability for microware access (WiMAX)?

38)

What is wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi)?

Version 1

39)

What is war chalking?

A) All of the answers are correct. B) the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available C) deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle D) remotely controls smart phones and tablets, ensuring data security

40)

What is war driving?

41) What is data that is generated continuously by thousands of data sources, which typically send in the data records simultaneously, and in small sizes?

Version 1

A) streaming data B) Wi-Fi 6 C) voice over IP D) protected WiMax

42)

What is wired equivalent privacy (WEP)?

43) What is a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a web server and a browser, ensuring that all data passed between them remain private? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy

44) What is an electronic document that confirms the identity of a website or server and verifies that a public key belongs to a trustworthy individual or company? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL Certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy

Version 1

45) What is a combination of HTTP and SSL to provide encryption and secure identification of an Internet server? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL Certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy

46)

What is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy

47)

What is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor

48) What is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available?

Version 1

A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor

49)

What is an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor

50)

What is an entity that is participating with ill-intentions? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor

51)

What is an actor? A) the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network D) an entity that is participating with ill-intentions

52)

What is a bad actor?

Version 1

A) the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network D) an entity that is participating with ill-intentions

53)

What is IT consumerization? A) the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network D) an entity that is participating with ill-intentions

54) What is the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization

55) What is the growing trend of embedding computer capabilities into everyday objects to make them effectively communicate and perform useful tasks in a way that minimizes the end user’s needs to interact with computers as computers? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization

Version 1

56) What is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization

57)

What isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization

58)

What are the three primary areas of an enterprise mobility management strategy? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) mobile pervasive management

59) What is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets?

Version 1

A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management

60) What is a security strategy comprised of products and services that offer remote support for mobile devices, such as smart phones, laptops, and tablets? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management

61) What is a security strategy that administers and enforces corporate epolicies for applications on mobile devices? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management

62) What is a security strategy that involves keeping sensitive data encrypted and allowing only approved applications to access or transmit it? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management

Version 1

63)

Which policy allows employees to use their own device? A) bring your own device B) choose your own device C) company-issued, personally-enabled D) ePolicy

64)

Which policy allows employees to choose a company approved and configured device? A) bring your own device B) choose your own device C) company-issued, personally-enabled D) ePolicy

65)

Which policy provides employees with corporate devices? A) bring your own device B) choose your own device C) company-issued, personally-enabled D) ePolicy

66)

What isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device? A) containerization or application sandboxing B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) fast data

Version 1

67) What is another name for containerization, which isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device?

A) application sandboxing B) dual persona technology C) accelerometer D) fast data

68) What creates two completely separate user interfaces one the same device, one for work and one for personal use? A) containerization B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) fast data

69) What is a device that can measure the force of acceleration, whether caused by gravity or by movement? A) containerization B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) fast data

70) What is a website that looks and behaves as if it is a mobile application, but it is just a normal website?

Version 1

A) containerization B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) progressive web application

71)

Which of the following is a characteristic of mobile application management? A) containerization B) accelerometer C) dual personal technology D) All of the answers are correct.

72) What is the application of big data analytics to smaller data sets in near-real or real-time in order to solve a problem or create business value? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use

73)

What refers to all data in computer storage? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use

Version 1

74) What is a stream of data that is moving or being transported between locations within or between computer systems? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use

75)

What is another term for data in motion? A) fast data, slow data B) transit data, flight data C) All of the answers are correct. D) big data, data analytics

76) What is data that is currently being updated, processed, erased, accessed, or read by a system? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use

77)

Which of the below is experiencing rapid growth due to wireless technology? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

78) Which business application uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services

79) Which business application uses location information to provide a service and is designed to give mobile users instant access to personalized local content? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services

80) Which business application is a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services

81) Which business application consists of hardware, software, and data that provide location information for display on a multidimensional map?

Version 1

A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services

82)

Which of the following is not a primary use of GIS? A) finding what is nearby from a specific location B) mapping densities C) routing information D) ensuring safety equipment is on an airplane before a flight

83)

What uses GPS tracking to track vehicles? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) All of the answers are correct.

84) What stores, views, and analyzes geographic data creating multidimensional charts or maps. For example, GIS are monitoring global warming by measuring the speed of glaciers melting in Canada, Greenland, and Antarctica? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

85) What is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users to interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) dual persona technology

86) What identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) spatial data

87) What is a coding process that takes a digital map feature and assigns it an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category)? A) geocoding B) geocache C) geocoin D) All of the answers are correct.

88) Who are certified in geocoding practices to ensure industry standards are met when classifying spatial data?

Version 1

A) GIS professionals B) enterprise architects C) database engineers D) All of the answers are correct.

89) What is a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find? A) geocoding B) geocache C) geocoin D) All of the answers are correct.

90)

What is a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache? A) geocoding B) geocache C) geocoin D) All of the answers are correct.

91) What is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications? A) estimated time of arrival B) estimated time enroute C) wireless MAN D) wireless LAN

Version 1

92) What is the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications? A) estimated time of arrival B) estimated time enroute C) wireless MAN D) wireless WAN

93)

What is an RFID tag? A) an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna B) a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID tags in the area C) does not have a power source D) have their own transmitter and a power source (typically a battery)

94)

What is an RFID reader (RFID interrogator)? A) an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna B) a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID tags in the area C) does not have a power source D) have their own transmitter and a power source (typically a battery)

95)

What is asset tracking?

Version 1

A) occurs when a company places active or semipassive RFID tags on expensive products or assets to gather data on the items’ location with little or no manual intervention B) All of the answers are correct. C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed

96)

What is a global positioning system (GPS)?

97)

What is automatic vehicle location (AVL)?

A) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles B) All of the answers are correct. C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information

98)

What is geocache?

Version 1

A) All of the answers are correct. B) a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find C) a north/south measurement of position D) an east/west measurement of position

99)

What is a geocoin?

A) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds B) an east/west measurement of position C) a north/south measurement of position D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

100)

What is estimated time of arrival (ETA)?

A) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds B) a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find C) a north/south measurement of position D) the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications

101)

What is estimated time enroute?

Version 1

A) the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications B) the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find

102)

What is a geographic information system (GIS)? A) a north/south measurement of position B) an east/west measurement of position C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

103)

What is cartography? A) an east/west measurement of position B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

104)

What is a GIS map?

Version 1

A) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time B) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

105)

What is spatial data?

A) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more B) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

106)

What is geocoding?

A) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more B) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time C) in spatial databases is a coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category) D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

107)

What do both GPS and GIS use?

Version 1

A) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more B) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time C) in spatial databases is a coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category) D) both use location-based services (LBS) applications that use location information to provide a service

108) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) A wide area network (WAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

112)

true false

A local area network (LAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. Perhaps the best example is the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Wi-Fi infrastructure includes the inner workings of a Wi-Fi service or utility, including the signal transmitters, towers, or poles and additional equipment required to send out a Wi-Fi signal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) A radio access network (RAN) is a technology that connects individual devices to other parts of a network through radio connections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) 5G is the fifth-generation wireless broadband technology based on the 802.11ac standard engineered to greatly increase the speed and responsiveness of wireless networks. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 33

117) Mobile business (or mbusiness, mcommerce) is the ability to purchase goods and services through a wireless Internet-enabled device. ⊚ ⊚

118)

Mobile business is also called low latency business or 5G. ⊚ ⊚

119) 1.

true false

A bit (short for binary digit) is the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Bandwidth is measured in terms of bit rate (or data rate), the number of bits transferred or received per unit of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Bandwidth is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

122) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) is a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over metropolitan area networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) A personal area network (PAN) provides communication for devices owned by a single user that work over a short distance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

124) Bluetooth is a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) A wireless LAN (WLAN) is a local area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data over distances of a few hundred feet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) An access point (AP) is the computer or network device that serves as an interface between devices and the network. Each computer initially connects to the access point and then to other computers on the network. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

127) A wireless access point (WAP) enables devices to connect to a wireless network to communicate with each other. ⊚ ⊚

128)

true false

Hotspots are designated locations where Wi-Fi access points are publicly available. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) A wireless MAN (WMAN) is a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) A wireless WAN (WWAN) is a wide area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) Streaming is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way that the user can view the file while it is being transferred. ⊚ ⊚

true false

132) A satellite is a space station that orbits the Earth, receiving and transmitting signals from Earth-based stations over a wide area.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

133)

true false

Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) a wireless security protocol to protect Wi-Fi networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

134) A Wi-Fi network is a space station that orbits the Sun, receiving and transmitting signals from Mars-based stations over a wide area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

135) Wi-Fi protected access (WAP) is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

136) Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is a wireless security protocol to protect Wi-Fi networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

137) Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

138) War Wi-Fi is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available. ⊚ ⊚

139)

true false

War chalking is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

140) War chalking is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available. The codes for war chalking tell other users the kind of access available, the speed of the network, and if the network is secured. ⊚ ⊚

141)

true false

War driving is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

142) Pervasive computing is the growing trend of embedding computer capabilities into everyday objects to make them effectively communicate and perform useful tasks in a way that minimizes the end user’s needs to interact with computers as computers. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

143) Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

144) Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce war chalking and war driving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

145) Mobile application management (MAM) is a security strategy that administers and enforces corporate epolicies for applications on mobile devices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

146) Dual persona technology creates two completely separate user interfaces one the same device, one for work and one for personal use. ⊚ ⊚

true false

147) Mobile application development is the set of processes and procedures involved in writing software for use on wireless devices. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

148) Mobile information management is the set of processes and procedures involved in writing software for use on wireless devices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

149) Progressive web application (PWA) is a website that looks and behaves as if it is a mobile application, but it is just a normal website. ⊚ ⊚

true false

150) Mobile information management (MIM) is a security strategy that involves keeping sensitive data encrypted and allowing only approved applications to access or transmit it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

151) An accelerometer is a security strategy that involves keeping sensitive data encrypted and allowing only approved applications to access or transmit it. ⊚ ⊚

152)

true false

Data at rest refers to all data in computer storage. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

153)

Data in motion refers to all data in computer storage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

154) Data in motion (also known as transit or flight) is a stream of data that is moving or being transported between locations within or between computer systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

155) Data in use is data that is currently being updated, processed, erased, accessed, or read by a system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

156) Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

157) A global positioning system (GPS) consists of only hardware that provides location information for display on a multidimensional map. ⊚ ⊚

true false

158) A geographic information system (GIS) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

159) A global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

160) A great GIS example, Google Earth, combines satellite imagery, geographic data, and Google’s search capabilities to create a virtual globe that users can download to a computer or mobile device. ⊚ ⊚

true false

161) GPS utilizes location-based services (LBS), applications that use location information to provide a service, whereas a GIS does not use LBS applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

162) Asset tracking occurs when a company places active or semipassive RFID tags on expensive products or assets to gather data on the items’ location with little or no manual intervention. ⊚ ⊚

163)

true false

RFID tag is an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

164) RFID reader (RFID interrogator) is a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID tags in the area. An RFID system is comprised of one or more RFID tags, one or more RFID readers, two or more antennas. ⊚ ⊚

165)

true false

Automatic vehicle location (AVL) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

166) Geographic information system (GIS) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data creating multidimensional charts or maps. For example, GIS is monitoring global warming by measuring the speed of glaciers melting in Canada, Greenland, and Antarctica. ⊚ ⊚

true false

167) Cartography is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users to interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps. ⊚ ⊚

true false

168) GIS map automation links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

169) Spatial data (geospatial data or geographic information) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more. Spatial data can be mapped and is stored as coordinates and topology. A GIS accesses, manipulates, and analyzes spatial data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

170) Wi-Fi is a coding process that takes a digital map feature and assigns it an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category). Wi-Fi professionals are certified in geocoding practices to ensure industry standards are met when classifying spatial data. ⊚ ⊚

171)

true false

A geocoin, a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache. ⊚ ⊚

true false

172) Estimated time of arrival (ETA) is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

173) Estimated time enroute (ETE) is the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

174)

true false

LBS differ from RFID in that an LBS cannot track and monitor objects such as inventory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

175) With the power of a wireless network, business professionals can take advantage of mobility allowing them to work from anywhere, at any time, using many different devices. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_8e_Baltzan 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) A 73) C 74) B 75) B 76) D 77) D 78) A 79) D 80) B 81) C 82) D 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) A 96) D 97) A 98) B 99) D 100) D 101) A 102) C 103) B 104) A 105) A 106) C 107) D 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE Version 1

117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE 126) TRUE 127) TRUE 128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) TRUE 131) TRUE 132) TRUE 133) TRUE 134) FALSE 135) FALSE 136) FALSE 137) TRUE 138) FALSE 139) FALSE 140) TRUE 141) TRUE 142) TRUE 143) TRUE 144) FALSE 145) TRUE 146) TRUE Version 1

147) TRUE 148) FALSE 149) TRUE 150) TRUE 151) FALSE 152) TRUE 153) FALSE 154) TRUE 155) TRUE 156) TRUE 157) FALSE 158) TRUE 159) TRUE 160) TRUE 161) FALSE 162) TRUE 163) TRUE 164) TRUE 165) TRUE 166) TRUE 167) TRUE 168) TRUE 169) TRUE 170) FALSE 171) TRUE 172) TRUE 173) TRUE 174) FALSE 175) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 8 1)

Explain integrations and the role they play in connecting a corporation.

Describe supply chain management along with its impact on business.

3) Identify the three components of supply chain management along with the technologies that are reinventing the supply chain.

Explain operational and analytical customer relationship management.

Version 1

Identify the core and extended areas of enterprise resource planning.

6) What allows separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems? A) integration B) chatbot C) hybrid ERP D) logistics

7) What takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all downstream systems and processes? A) forward integration B) data interchange C) backward integration D) application interchange

8) What takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all upstream systems and processes?

Version 1

A) forward integration B) data interchange C) backward integration D) application interchange

What integrates data from multiple sources and provides a unified view of all data? A) forward integration B) data interchange C) data integration D) application interchange

10)

What integrates a company’s existing management information systems? A) application integration B) data interchange C) data integration D) application interchange

11) What provides enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes? A) enterprise systems B) enterprise application integration C) middleware D) application integration

Version 1

12) What connects the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise systems? A) data integration B) enterprise application integration C) middleware D) order entry system

13) What are several different types of software that sit between and provide connectivity for two or more software applications? A) data integration B) enterprise application integration C) middleware D) order entry system

14)

What is an application integration?

A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all upstream systems and processes

15)

What is data integration?

Version 1

16)

What is forward integration?

17)

What is backward integration?

18)

What are enterprise systems?

Version 1

A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes

19)

What is enterprise application integration (EAI)?

A) connects the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes

20)

What does middleware accomplish?

A) the use of the Internet to provide customers with the ability to gain personalized information by querying corporate databases and their information sources B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data C) the translation of information between disparate systems D) packaging commonly used applications together, reducing the time needed to integrate applications from multiple vendors

21)

Which of the following is not an example of a primary enterprise system? A) supply chain management B) customer relationship management C) reputation management system D) enterprise resource planning

Version 1

22)

What is supply chain management (SCM)?

A) the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability B) a means of taking information entered into a given system and sending it automatically to all downstream systems and processes C) a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability D) a means of connecting the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system

23)

What is enterprise resource planning (ERP)?

A) the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability B) a means of integrating all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single MIS system (or integrated set of MIS systems) so employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information about all business operations C) a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability D) a means of connecting the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system

24)

What is customer relationship management (CRM)?

Version 1

25) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you prepare to manage all resources required to meet demand? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return

26) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you build relationships with suppliers to procure raw materials? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return

27) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you manufacture products and create production schedules?

Version 1

A) plan B) source C) deliver D) make

28) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you plan for the transportation of goods to customers? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return

29) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you support customers and product returns? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return

30)

Where would you find the customer’s customer in a typical supply chain? A) upstream B) downstream C) in the middle D) not in the supply chain

Version 1

31)

Where would you find the supplier’s suppler in a typical supply chain? A) upstream B) downstream C) in the middle D) not in the supply chain

32)

Where would you find the manufacturer and distributor in a typical supply chain? A) upstream B) downstream C) in the middle D) not in the supply chain

33) Walmart and Procter & Gamble (P&G) implemented a tremendously successful SCM system. The system linked Walmart’s ________ centers directly to P&G’s ________ centers. A) manufacturing; distribution B) distribution; manufacturing C) stores; distribution D) distribution; stores

34) What can effective and efficient supply chain management systems enable an organization to accomplish?

Version 1

A) increase the power of its buyers B) increase its supplier power C) increase switching costs to increase the threat of substitute products or services D) All of the answers are correct.

35) Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain management? A) plan B) source C) cost D) deliver

36) Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain management? A) plan B) source C) analyze D) deliver

37) Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain management? A) plan B) source C) sale D) deliver

Version 1

38) What is it called when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain? A) bullwhip effect B) source effect C) supply chain effect D) All of the answers are correct.

39)

Which of the following represents the bullwhip effect?

A) organizations know about employee events triggered downstream in the supply chain B) customers receive distorted product-demand information regarding sales information C) distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain D) the ability exists to view all areas up and down the supply chain

40)

What is the ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain in real time? A) bullwhip effect B) outbound logistics C) supply chain visibility D) inventory cycle time

41) Which of the following metrics represents an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock?

Version 1

A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover

42) Which of the following metrics represents the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover

43) Which of the following metrics represents the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover

44)

Which of the following metrics represents the frequency of inventory replacement? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover

Version 1

45)

What is a back order?

A) an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock B) the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer C) the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product D) the frequency of inventory replacement

46)

What is inventory cycle time?

47)

What is customer order cycle time?

48)

What is inventory turnover?

Version 1

49)

Which of the following is one of the business areas of supply chain management? A) logistics B) procurement C) materials management D) All of the answers are correct.

50)

What is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain? A) procurement B) logistics C) materials management D) bullwhip effect

51) What includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain? A) procurement B) logistics C) materials management D) bullwhip effect

Version 1

52) What includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing? A) procurement B) logistics C) materials management D) bullwhip effect

53)

What is procurement?

A) the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain B) includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain C) includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing D) occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain

54)

What is logistics?

55)

What is materials management?

Version 1

56) What acquires raw materials and resources and distributes them to manufacturing as required? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) logistics D) procurement

57)

What distributes goods and services to customers? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) logistics D) procurement

58) What includes the increasingly complex management of processes, information, and communication to take a product from cradle to grave?

Version 1

A) procurement B) outbound logistics C) logistics D) cradle-to-grave

59)

Which of the following questions can logistics help a company answer? A) What quantity of raw materials should we purchase to minimize spoilage? B) How can we guarantee that our raw materials meet production needs? C) At what price can we purchase materials to guarantee profitability? D) What path should the vehicles follow when delivering the goods?

60)

Which of the following questions can materials management help a company answer? A) What are our current inventory levels? B) What items are running low in the warehouse? C) What items are at risk of spoiling in the warehouse? D) All of the answer choices are correct.

61)

Which of the following questions can materials management help a company answer? A) How do we dispose of spoiled items? B) What laws need to be followed for storing hazardous materials? C) Which items must be refrigerated when being stored and transported? D) All of the answers are correct.

62)

What is 3D printing?

Version 1

A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model B) uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) a focus on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input

63)

What is RFID?

A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model B) the use of electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) a focus on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input

64)

What are drones?

65)

What is robotics?

Version 1

A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model B) the use of electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input

66) What is a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID

67) What focuses on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID

68)

What is unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID

Version 1

69)

What uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID

70)

What is computer-aided design?

A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to create things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes

71)

What is computer-aided manufacturing?

72)

What is the maker movement?

Version 1

A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes

73)

What is a makerspace?

A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes

74) What is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things? A) maker movement B) computer-aided manufacturing C) makerspace D) computer-aided design

75) What is a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable?

Version 1

A) computer-aided design B) computer-aided manufacturing C) makerspace D) RFID

76) What is a low-cost, credit card–sized computer that plugs into a computer monitor or TV and uses a standard keyboard and mouse? A) Raspberry Pi B) digital supply chain C) drone D) robotics

77) What fully capitalizes on connectivity, system integration, and the information-producing capabilities of smart devices? A) Raspberry Pi B) digital supply chain C) drone D) robotics

78)

Which of the following represents the three primary capabilities of a drone? A) sensors B) navigation C) stabilization D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

79) Which of the following is not a valid source from which a CRM system can collect information? A) accounting system B) order fulfillment system C) inventory system D) customer’s personal computer

80)

Which of the following is not one of the three phases in the evolution of CRM? A) reporting B) analyzing C) processing D) predicting

81)

What is a person or company that is unknown to your business? A) lead B) account C) contact D) sales opportunity

82) What is an existing business relationship that includes customers, prospects, partners, and competitors?

Version 1

A) lead B) account C) contact D) sales opportunity

83)

Who is a specific individual representing an account? A) lead B) accountant C) contact D) sales opportunity

84) What is an opportunity that exists for a potential sale of goods or services related to an account or contact? A) lead B) account C) contact D) sales opportunity

85) What is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products? A) lead analysis B) RFM analysis C) uplift modeling D) sales opportunity

Version 1

86)

What helps an organization identify its customers across applications? A) CRM reporting technologies B) CRM analyzing technologies C) CRM processing technologies D) CRM predicting technologies

87) What is an organization using when it asks questions such as “why was customer revenue so high”? A) CRM reporting technologies B) CRM analyzing technologies C) CRM processing technologies D) CRM predicting technologies

88) What is an organization using when it asks questions such as “which customers are at risk of leaving”? A) CRM reporting technologies B) CRM analyzing technologies C) CRM processing technologies D) CRM predicting technologies

89)

Which question below represents a CRM reporting technology example?

Version 1

A) Why did sales not meet forecasts? B) What customers are at risk of leaving? C) What is the total revenue by customer? D) All of the answers are correct..

90)

Which question below represents a CRM analyzing technology question? A) Why did sales not meet forecasts? B) What customers are at risk of leaving? C) What is the total revenue by customer? D) All of the answers are correct..

91)

Which question below represents a CRM predicting technology question? A) Why did sales not meet forecasts? B) What customers are at risk of leaving? C) What is the total revenue by customer? D) All of the answers are correct..

92) Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the sales department typically use? A) campaign management, contact management, opportunity management B) sales management, contact management, contact center C) sales management, call scripting, opportunity management D) sales management, contact management, opportunity management

Version 1

93) Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the marketing department typically use? A) contact center, web-based self-service, call scripting B) contact center, cross-selling and up-selling, web-based self-service C) list generator, opportunity management, cross-selling and up-selling D) list generator, campaign management, cross-selling and up-selling

94) Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the customer service department typically use? A) contact center, web-based self-service, call scripting B) sales management, contact management, opportunity management C) list generator, opportunity management, cross-selling and up-selling D) list generator, campaign management, cross-selling and up-selling

95) What CRM technology compiles customer information from a variety of sources and segments the information for different marketing campaigns? A) sales opportunity B) cross-selling C) up-selling D) list generator

96) What CRM technology guides users through marketing campaigns performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis?

Version 1

A) campaign management system B) cross-selling C) up-selling D) list generator

97) What was McDonald’s performing when it asked its customers if they would like to super-size their meals? A) uplift modeling B) cross-selling C) up-selling D) down-selling

98)

Which of the following represents sales force automation? A) helping an organization identify its customers across applications B) selling additional products or services to a customer C) a system that automatically tracks all of the steps in the sales process D) selling larger products or services to a customer

99) What automates each phase of the sales process, helping individual sales representatives coordinate and organize all of their accounts? A) sales management CRM system B) contact management CRM system C) opportunity management CRM system D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

100) What maintains customer contact information and identifies prospective customers for future sales? A) sales management CRM system B) contact management CRM system C) opportunity management CRM system D) All of the answers are correct.

101)

What targets sales opportunities by finding new customers or companies for future sales? A) sales management CRM system B) contact management CRM system C) opportunity management CRM system D) sales force automation CRM system

102) Which of the following was one of the first CRM components built to address the overwhelming amount of customer account information sales representatives were required to maintain and track? A) sales management system B) opportunity management system C) sales force automation system D) contact management system

103) Which of the following is where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and respond to problems through a number of different customer touchpoints?

Version 1

A) contact center B) web-based self-service C) call scripting D) uplift modeling

104) What allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems? A) contact center B) web-based self-service C) call scripting D) uplift modeling

105) What accesses organizational databases that track similar issues or questions and automatically generates the details to the customer service representative who can then relay them to the customer? A) contact center B) web-based self-service C) call scripting D) uplift modeling

106)

What is automatic call distribution?

Version 1

A) a technology that automatically dials outbound calls and when someone answers, the call is forwarded to an available agent B) a technology that directs customers to use touch-tone phones or keywords to navigate or provide information C) a phone switch that routes inbound calls to available agents D) an attempt to increase the amount of a sale

107)

What is interactive voice response?

108)

What is predictive dialing?

109)

What is a contact center or call center?

Version 1

A) a place where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve problems, usually by email, chat, or phone B) a technology that allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems C) a technology that gathers product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer D) a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products

110)

What is web-based self-service?

111)

What is call scripting?

Version 1

112)

What is uplift modeling?

113) What divides a market into categories that share similar attributes such as age, location, gender, habits, and so on? A) contact center B) customer segmentation C) customer center D) uplift modeling

114)

Which of the following is a common customer service CRM metric? A) number of new prospective customers B) number of marketing campaigns C) average time to resolution D) revenue generated by marketing campaigns

115) What is properly addressing the customer’s need the first time they call, thereby eliminating the need for the customer to follow up with a second call?

Version 1

A) first call resolution B) contact center C) average time to resolution D) call center

116)

Which of the following is a common marketing CRM metric? A) number of new prospective customers B) average number of service calls per day C) average time to resolution D) cost per interaction by marketing campaign

117) What is a part of operational CRM that automates service requests, complaints, product returns, and information requests? A) cross-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support

118) What guides users through marketing campaigns by performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis? A) cross-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support

Version 1

119)

What is selling additional products or services to an existing customer? A) cross-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support

120)

What is increasing the value of the sale? A) up-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support

121) What is properly addressing the customer’s need the first time they call, thereby eliminating the need for the customer to follow up with a second call? A) first call resolution B) data integration C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value

122)

What measures the customer’s worth over a specific period of time?

Version 1

A) chatbot B) click-to-talk C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value

123) What is a metric that represents the total net profit a company makes from any given customer? A) intelligent virtual agent B) click-to-talk C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value

124) What an artificial intelligence program that simulates interactive human conversation by using key precalculated user phrases and auditory or text-based signals? A) chatbot B) intelligent virtual agent C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value

125) What is an animated, humanlike graphical chat bot commonly displayed on website home pages and advertisement landing pages? A) chatbot B) intelligent virtual agent C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value

Version 1

126)

What is the key word in ERP? A) enterprise B) resource C) intelligence D) business

127)

What is enterprise resource planning?

A) the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises B) a standardized set of activities that accomplish as specific task, such as processing a customer’s order C) a process that integrates all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single MIS system so that employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information on all business operations D) a process involving managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability

128) Which of the following is a component ERP vendor offer to differentiate themselves in the marketplace? A) accounting B) CRM C) sales D) human resources

129) Which of the following is not one of the three most common core ERP components focusing on internal operations?

Version 1

A) accounting and finance B) production and materials management C) business intelligence D) human resources

130)

Which activities do accounting and finance components perform?

A) track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance assessment, and assure compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities B) handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control C) manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D) All of the answers are correct.

131)

Which activities do production and materials management components perform?

132)

Which activities do human resource components perform?

Version 1

133)

Which component is a credit-management feature typically included in? A) accounting and finance component B) production and managerial management component C) human resource component D) production and materials management component

134) Which component can help an organization determine such things as the identification of individuals who are likely to leave the company unless additional compensation or benefits are provided? A) accounting and finance component B) production and managerial management component C) human resource component D) production and materials management component

135)

Which of the following is an extended ERP component?

Version 1

A) business intelligence B) ebusiness C) customer relationship management D) All of the answers are correct.

136) Which extended ERP component collects information used throughout an organization, organizes it, and applies analytical tools to assist managers with decisions? A) business intelligence B) ebusiness C) customer relationship management D) supply chain management

137)

Which of the following describes ERP systems?

A) ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments. B) ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate. C) ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organizations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organization’s performance. D) All of the answer choices are correct.

138)

What is at the heart of any ERP system? A) network B) employees C) customers D) database

Version 1

139) Which of the following occurs when everyone involved in sourcing, producing, and delivering the company’s product works with the same information? A) eliminating redundancies B) cutting down on wasted time C) removing misinformation D) All of the answers are correct.

140)

Who are the primary users of SCM systems? A) sales, marketing, and customer service B) accounting, finance, logistics, and production C) customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors D) All of the answers are correct.

141)

What are the primary business benefits of an ERP system?

A) sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns B) market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling C) forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution D) sales system

142)

Who are the primary users of ERP systems?

Version 1

A) sales, marketing, and customer service B) accounting, finance, logistics, and production C) customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors D) sales system

143) Which application’s primary business benefits include sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns? A) customer relationship management B) supply chain management C) enterprise resource planning D) marketing system

144) Which application’s primary business benefits include market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling? A) customer relationship management B) supply chain management C) enterprise resource planning D) human resource system

145) Which application’s primary business benefits include forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution? A) customer relationship management B) supply chain management C) enterprise resource planning D) accounting system

Version 1

146)

What modifies existing software according to the business’s or user’s requirements? A) software customization B) data integration C) application integration D) sales system

147) Integrations allow separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

148) Integrations provide enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes. ⊚ ⊚

149)

true false

Middleware translates information between disparate systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

150) Data integration is the integration of a company’s existing management information systems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

151) Application integration is the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

152) Application integration is the integration of a company’s existing management information systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

153) Data integration is the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

154) A forward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all downstream systems and processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

155) A backward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all upstream systems and processes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

156) A backward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all downstream systems and processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

157) A forward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all upstream systems and processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

158) Integrations are achieved using middleware —several types of software that sit between and provide connectivity for two or more software applications. Middleware translates information between disparate systems. ⊚ ⊚

159)

true false

The customer’s customer is upstream in the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

160) Plan, source, make, deliver, and return are the five basic supply chain management components. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

161) Plan, source, give, get, and return are the five basic supply chain management components. ⊚ ⊚

true false

162) In the basic supply chain, source refers to building relationships with suppliers to procure raw materials. ⊚ ⊚

163)

In the basic supply chain, give refers to planning for transportation of goods to customers. ⊚ ⊚

164)

true false

In the basic supply chain, return refers to supporting customers and product returns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

165) In the basic supply chain, make refers to manufacturing products and create production schedules. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

166) In the basic supply chain, return refers to prepare to manage all resources required to meet demands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

167) In the basic supply chain, plan refers to preparing to manage all resources required to meet demand. ⊚ ⊚

true false

168) In the basic supply chain, deliver refers to planning for transportation of goods to customers. ⊚ ⊚

169)

true false

A back order is an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock. ⊚ ⊚

true false

170) Inventory cycle time is the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

171) Customer order cycle time is the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

172)

Inventory turnover is the frequency of inventory replacement. ⊚ ⊚

173)

true false

Inventory turnover is an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock. ⊚ ⊚

true false

174) Customer order cycle time is the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

175) Information technology’s primary role in supply chain management is creating the integrations or tight process and information linkages between functions within a firm—such as marketing, sales, finance, manufacturing, and distribution—and between firms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

176) Effective and efficient supply chain management systems can enable an organization to decrease the power of its buyers. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

177)

Supply chain visibility is the ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

178) Electronic data interchange (EDI) is a standard format for the electronic exchange of information between supply chain participants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

179) The bullwhip effect occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

180) The bullwhip effect is a standard format for the electronic exchange of information between supply chain participants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

181) Electronic data interchange occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

182) Procurement is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

183) Procurement can help a company answer the following question: What quantity of raw materials should we purchase to minimize spoilage? ⊚ ⊚

true false

184) Logistics includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

185) Inbound logistics acquires raw materials and resources and distributes them to manufacturing as required. ⊚ ⊚

186)

true false

Outbound logistics distributes goods and services to customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

187) Logistics controls processes inside a company (warehouse logistics) and outside a company (transport logistics) and focuses on the physical execution part of the supply chain.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

188) Materials management is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

189) Logistics can help a company answer the following question: What quantity of raw materials should we purchase to minimize spoilage? ⊚ ⊚

true false

190) Logistics includes the increasingly complex management of processes, information, and communication to take a product from cradle to grave. Cradle-to-grave provides logistics support. ⊚ ⊚

true false

191) Materials management includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

192) The process of 3D printing (additive manufacturing) builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

193) 3D printing is a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a threedimensional solid object from a digital model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

194) Drones include a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a threedimensional solid object from a digital model. ⊚ ⊚

195)

3D printing supports procurement. ⊚ ⊚

196)

true false

RFID uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances. ⊚ ⊚

197)

true false

RFID supports logistics. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

198)

RFID supports procurement. ⊚ ⊚

199)

Drones are unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. ⊚ ⊚

200)

true false

Drones support logistics. ⊚ ⊚

202)

true false

3D printing is unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. ⊚ ⊚

201)

true false

Drones support materials management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

203) Robotics focuses on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

204)

Robotics supports materials management. ⊚ ⊚

205)

Robotics supports procurement. ⊚ ⊚

206)

true false

RFID systems are used to create digital designs and then manufacture the products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

207) The maker movement is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things. ⊚ ⊚

true false

208) The robotics movement is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things. ⊚ ⊚

true false

209) Makerspaces are community centers that provide technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

210) RFID’s electronic product code (RFID EPC) promotes serialization or the ability to track individual items by using the unique serial number associated with each RFID tag. ⊚ ⊚

true false

211) A drone is an unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. Amazon.com is piloting drone aircraft for package deliveries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

212) The primary difference between operational CRM and analytical CRM is the direct interaction between the organization and its suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

213)

Back-office operations deal directly with the customer. ⊚ ⊚

214)

true false

RFM stands for regency, frequency, and monetary. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

215)

The evolution of CRM is reporting, analyzing, and predicting. ⊚ ⊚

216)

true false

List generators fall in the category of the sales department’s CRM tools. ⊚ ⊚

true false

217) Contact management falls in the category of the customer service department’s CRM tools. ⊚ ⊚

true false

218) Customer service and support (CSS) is a part of operational CRM that automates service requests, complaints, product returns, and information requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

219) Opportunity management CRM systems target sales opportunities by finding new customers or companies for future sales. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

220) Call scripting occurs when customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve problems by email and IMing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

221) Call scripting systems gather product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

222) Web-based self-service systems allow customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

223) Click-to-talk functions allow customers to click on a button and talk with a representative via the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

224) CRM predicting technologies help organizations identify their customers across other applications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

225) CRM analysis technologies help organizations segment their customers into categories such as best and worst customers. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

226) CRM predicting technologies help organizations predict customer behavior, such as which customers are at risk of leaving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

227) Analytical CRM supports traditional transactional processing for day-to-day front-office operations or systems that deal directly with the customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

228) Operational CRM supports back-office operations and strategic analysis and includes all systems that do not deal directly with the customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

229) List generators compile customer information from a variety of sources and segment it for different marketing campaigns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

230) Campaign management systems guide users through marketing campaigns by performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 59

231)

Up-selling is selling additional products or services to an existing customer. ⊚ ⊚

232)

true false

Cross-selling is increasing the value of the sale. ⊚ ⊚

true false

233) Call scripting systems gather product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

234) Uplift modeling is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products. ⊚ ⊚

235)

true false

Automatic call distribution routes inbound calls to available agents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

236) Predictive dialing automatically dials outbound calls and forwards answered calls to an available agent. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

237) Interactive voice response automatically dials outbound calls and forwards answered calls to an available agent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

238) When a user enters or updates information in one ERP module, it is immediately and automatically updated throughout the entire system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

239) Core ERP components are the traditional components included in most ERP systems and primarily focus on internal operations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

240) Core ERP components are the extra components that meet organizational needs not covered by the core components and primarily focus on external operations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

241) Accounting and finance ERP components manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

242) Production and materials management ERP components handle production planning and execution tasks such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control. ⊚ ⊚

243)

Business intelligence is both a core and extended ERP component. ⊚ ⊚

244)

true false

SCM, CRM, and ERP are all extended ERP components. ⊚ ⊚

true false

245) Software customization modifies existing software according to the business’s or user’s requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

246) A two-tier ERP architecture allows an organization to have an on-premises ERP system along with cloud ERP applications. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

247) The goal of ERP is to integrate all of the organizational systems into one fully functioning, high-performance system that is capable of meeting all business needs and user requirements. Of course, this goal is incredibly difficult to achieve because businesses and technologies experience rapid change, and ERP must support mobility, cloud, SaaS, and tiered architectures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

248) The primary concern with mobile ERP is security of sensitive data, including trade secrets, financial data, and customer data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_8e_Baltzan 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) A Version 1

32) C 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) D 60) D 61) D Version 1

62) A 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) D 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) A 77) B 78) D 79) D 80) C 81) A 82) B 83) C 84) D 85) C 86) A 87) B 88) D 89) C 90) A 91) B Version 1

92) D 93) D 94) A 95) D 96) A 97) C 98) C 99) A 100) B 101) C 102) C 103) A 104) B 105) C 106) C 107) B 108) A 109) A 110) B 111) C 112) D 113) B 114) C 115) A 116) D 117) D 118) C 119) A 120) A 121) A Version 1

122) C 123) D 124) A 125) B 126) A 127) C 128) B 129) C 130) C 131) B 132) A 133) A 134) C 135) D 136) A 137) D 138) D 139) D 140) C 141) C 142) B 143) A 144) B 145) C 146) A 147) TRUE 148) FALSE 149) TRUE 150) FALSE 151) FALSE Version 1

152) TRUE 153) TRUE 154) TRUE 155) TRUE 156) FALSE 157) FALSE 158) TRUE 159) FALSE 160) TRUE 161) FALSE 162) TRUE 163) FALSE 164) TRUE 165) TRUE 166) FALSE 167) TRUE 168) TRUE 169) TRUE 170) TRUE 171) TRUE 172) TRUE 173) FALSE 174) FALSE 175) TRUE 176) TRUE 177) TRUE 178) TRUE 179) TRUE 180) FALSE 181) FALSE Version 1

182) TRUE 183) TRUE 184) TRUE 185) TRUE 186) TRUE 187) TRUE 188) FALSE 189) FALSE 190) TRUE 191) TRUE 192) TRUE 193) TRUE 194) FALSE 195) TRUE 196) TRUE 197) TRUE 198) FALSE 199) TRUE 200) FALSE 201) TRUE 202) FALSE 203) TRUE 204) TRUE 205) FALSE 206) FALSE 207) TRUE 208) FALSE 209) TRUE 210) TRUE 211) TRUE Version 1

212) FALSE 213) FALSE 214) FALSE 215) TRUE 216) FALSE 217) FALSE 218) TRUE 219) TRUE 220) FALSE 221) TRUE 222) TRUE 223) TRUE 224) FALSE 225) TRUE 226) TRUE 227) FALSE 228) FALSE 229) TRUE 230) TRUE 231) FALSE 232) FALSE 233) TRUE 234) TRUE 235) TRUE 236) TRUE 237) FALSE 238) TRUE 239) TRUE 240) FALSE 241) TRUE Version 1

242) TRUE 243) FALSE 244) FALSE 245) TRUE 246) TRUE 247) TRUE 248) TRUE

Version 1

CHAPTER 9 1)

Describe the seven phases of the systems development life cycle.

Explain the term technical review, when it occurs, and explain its importance.

Summarize the different software development methodologies.

4) Explain project management and the role the triple constraints play when managing a project.

Version 1

5) Describe the project stakeholder’s and executive sponsor’s roles in choosing strategic projects.

Describe the two primary diagrams most frequently used in project planning.

7) Identify the three primary areas a project manager must focus on managing to ensure success.

8) In which phase does the firm analyze its end-user business requirements and refine project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system?

Version 1

A) analysis phase B) design phase C) development phase D) testing phase

9) What are the specific business requests the system development effort must meet to be successful? A) legacy system B) conversion C) business requirements D) sign-off

10)

What is the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system? A) off-the-shelf software B) conversion C) business requirements D) sign-off

11)

What modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements? A) software customization B) conversion C) business requirements D) sign-off

Version 1

12) Which software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization’s needs? A) systems development life cycle B) customized software C) off-the-shelf application software D) application software

13) What is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance? A) systems development life cycle B) software customization C) off-the-shelf application software D) legacy system

14) Which phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals? A) testing phase B) analysis phase C) maintenance phase D) planning phase

15) What is a person or event that is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes?

Version 1

A) change controller B) change over C) change management D) change agent

16) What is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted? A) brainstorming B) change agent C) test conditions D) bugs

17) What is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project? A) requirements documentation B) requirements management C) requirements definition document D) change agent

18) Which document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company? A) requirements documentation B) requirements management C) requirements definition document D) change agent

Version 1

19) What contains the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements? A) change agent B) requirements management C) requirements definition document D) sign-off

20) Which phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system? A) testing phase B) analysis phase C) development phase D) planning phase

21) What is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools? A) software B) software testing C) software engineering D) software customization

22) What do software engineers use as tools to provide automated support for the development of the system?

Version 1

A) software B) software engineer C) iterative development D) computer-aided software engineering (CASE)

23)

What languages are programming languages that look similar to human languages? A) extreme programming B) object-oriented languages C) fourth-generation languages D) pseudocodes

24) What refers to a unique set of keywords along with a special syntax for organizing program instructions that execute computer commands? A) programming language B) database C) design document D) testing document

25) Which phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase? A) testing phase B) analysis phase C) development phase D) planning phase

Version 1

26)

What are defects in the code of an information system? A) testing B) bugs C) insects D) programming language

27) What details the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it? A) testing phase B) testing documentation C) test conditions D) bugs

28) What is created for users to highlight how to use the system and troubleshoot issues or problems? A) user documentation B) requirements definition document C) scope document D) development document

29)

What is provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom?

Version 1

A) training B) testing C) implementation phase D) testing phase

30) What runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace? A) online training B) workshop training C) help desk D) corrective maintenance

31)

What is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor? A) online training B) workshop training C) help desk D) corrective maintenance

32)

What is a group of people who respond to users’ questions? A) online training B) workshop training C) help desk D) corrective maintenance

Version 1

33)

What assesses whether the entire system meets the design requirements of the users? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing

34)

What occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing

35) What verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing

36)

What verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing

Version 1

37)

What determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) user acceptance testing

38)

What tests individual units or pieces of code for a system? A) unit testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) user acceptance testing

39) Which implementation uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify that the new system functions correctly? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

40) Which implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system?

Version 1

A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

41) Which implementation is a small group of people using the new system until it is verified that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrating to it? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

42) Which implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

43) What makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues? A) corrective maintenance B) preventative maintenance C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

Version 1

44)

What makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure? A) corrective maintenance B) preventative maintenance C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

45) Which reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization? A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports

46) Which internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data? A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports

47)

Which internal reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal?

Version 1

A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports

48) Which reports highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard? A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports

49)

Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software? A) increased revenue B) damage to brand reputation C) increased liabilities D) increased expenses

50)

Which of the following is a business-related consequence of failing software? A) decrease productivity B) damage to brand reputation C) increased liabilities D) All of the answers are correct.

Version 1

51)

What is the systems development life cycle?

A) a process that involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals B) a process that involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) a process that involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance

52) What is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance? A) systems development life cycle B) project management C) systems management D) project development life cycle

53)

Which of the following represents the phases in the SDLC? A) plan, analysis, design, test, maintain, develop, implement B) analysis, plan, design, test, develop, maintain, implement C) plan, analysis, design, develop, test, implement, maintain D) analysis, plan, develop, design, test, implement, maintain

54)

What is the analysis phase in the SDLC?

Version 1

A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system

55)

Which phase of the SDLC gathers business requirements? A) plan B) analysis C) test D) design

56) What is a session in which employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system? A) joint application development B) requirements management C) process modeling D) data flow diagram

57)

What is a business requirement? A) a nonspecific business request the system must meet to be successful B) a specific business request the system must meet to be successful C) the nonspecific methodology the system must meet to be successful D) the specific methodology the system must meet to be successful

Version 1

58)

What is the design phase in the SDLC? A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project

goals B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system

59)

What is the implementation phase in the SDLC? A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project

60) What is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges? A) project plan B) methodology C) waterfall D) agile

61)

What is a project manager?

Version 1

A) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget B) the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment

62)

What is the project scope?

63)

What is a project plan?

A) an illustration of the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment

64)

What is process modeling?

Version 1

65)

What is a data flow diagram (DFD)?

66)

What are computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools?

67) What involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment?

Version 1

A) data flow diagram B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools C) systems development life cycle D) process modeling

68) What illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system? A) data flow diagram B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools C) systems development life cycle D) process modeling

69)

What are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development? A) data flow diagram B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools C) systems development life cycle D) process modeling

70)

Which machine language is difficult for people to understand? A) first-generation machine language B) fifth-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language

Version 1

71)

Which assembly language is difficult for people to understand? A) fifth-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language

72)

Which high-level programming language uses C+ and Java? A) first-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language

73)

What is the term used to refer to people who write programs that operate computers? A) coders B) testers C) analysts D) designers

74)

Which programming language looks similar to human languages? A) first-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language

Version 1

75)

Which programming language is for artificial intelligence and neural network? A) fifth-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language

76)

Which of the following is a purpose of a technical review? A) to detail the steps a system must perform along with the expected result of each step B) to provide an in-depth analysis of project results C) to eliminate errors and bugs from a system D) to verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis

phase

77)

Which of the following is an issue related to the waterfall methodology? A) flaws in accurately defining and articulating the business problem B) managing costs, resources, and time constraints C) assumes users can specify all business requirements in advance D) All of the answers are correct.

78)

What consists of a series of tiny projects?

Version 1

A) waterfall methodology B) iterative development C) scope creep parking lot D) scope creep

79) Which methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements? A) rad methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming

80)

Which of the following describes agile methodology? A) fast and efficient B) small and nimble C) lower cost D) All of the answers are correct.

81)

Which of the following is not a primary form of agile methodology? A) RAD B) SDLC C) RUP D) scrum

Version 1

82) What is an activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance? A) RAD methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming

83) What emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process? A) RAD methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming

84) What breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete? A) RAD methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming

85)

What is the success rate for a project using the waterfall methodology?

Version 1

A) 1 in 10 B) 2 in 10 C) 4 in 10 D) 8 in 10

86)

Which of the following is a fundamental of the RAD methodology?

A) focus initially on creating a prototype that looks and acts like the desired system B) actively involve system users in the analysis, design, and development phases C) accelerate collecting the business requirements through an interactive and iterative construction approach D) All of the answers are correct.

87) Which methodology provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four gates? A) scrum B) XP C) RAD D) RUP

88)

Which of the following is not one of the four gates in the RUP methodology? A) inception B) collaboration C) construction D) transition

Version 1

89) Which gate in the RUP methodology expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it? A) inception B) elaboration C) construction D) All of the answers are correct.

90)

Which gate in the RUP methodology includes building and developing the project? A) inception B) elaboration C) construction D) All of the answers are correct.

91)

Which methodology is owned by IBM? A) scrum B) All of the answers are correct. C) RAD D) RUP

92) Which methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable software using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal?

Version 1

A) scrum B) XP C) All of the answers are correct. D) RAD

93) Which methodology ends or begins each day with a stand-up meeting to monitor and control the development effort? A) scrum B) XP C) RUP D) RAD

94)

How many days is a typical sprint in the scrum methodology? A) 1 days B) 100 days C) 30 days D) 90 days

95) Which gate ensures that all stakeholders have a shared understanding of the proposed system and what it will do? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

Version 1

96) Which gate expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

97)

Which gate includes building and developing the product? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

98) Which gate answers primary questions addressing ownership of the system and training of key personnel? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

99)

Which gate is inception?

Version 1

A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

100)

Which gate is elaboration? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

101)

Which gate is transition? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

102)

Which gate is construction? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

103)

What are the three primary variables (or triple constraints) in any project?

Version 1

A) time, cost, expense B) time, expense, requirements C) time, cost, scope D) time, cost, quality

104)

What is the number one reason that IT projects fall behind schedule or fail? A) change in business goals during the project B) lack of support from business management C) poor planning or poor project management D) change in technology during the project

105)

Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project? A) delivered on time B) delivered within budget C) meets the business’s requirements D) All of the answers are correct.

106)

What is a project?

A) a temporary activity undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

Version 1

107)

What are project deliverables?

A) a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

108)

What is a project manager?

A) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project B) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project C) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed D) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management

109)

Which of the following does a project manager perform? A) defines and develops the project plan B) tracks the plan to ensure all key project milestones are completed on time C) expert in project planning and management D) All of the answers are correct.

110)

What is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects?

Version 1

A) project deliverables B) project scope C) project management office D) All of the answers are correct.

111) The Project Management Institute (PMI) develops procedures and concepts necessary to support the profession of project management. Which of the following is not one of the three areas it focuses on? A) the distinguishing characteristics of a practicing professional (ethics) B) content and structure of the profession’s body of knowledge (standards) C) change in business goals during project planning (management) D) recognition of professional attainment (accreditation)

112) Who are the individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion? A) project managers B) project stakeholders. C) executive sponsors D) All of the answers are correct.

113)

Who is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project? A) project manager B) project stakeholders C) executive sponsor D) project team

Version 1

114) What defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations? A) communication plan B) executive sponsor C) project assumptions D) project deliverable

115)

What are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration? A) project plan B) project constraints C) project assumptions D) project deliverable

116) What are specific factors that can limit options, including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies? A) project objectives B) project constraints C) project assumptions D) project deliverables

117) What is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project?

Version 1

A) project milestone B) project objective C) project assumption D) project deliverable

118)

What represents key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project assumptions D) project deliverables

119)

What are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project assumptions D) project deliverables

120) What defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project requirements document D) project deliverables

Version 1

121)

What statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project scope statement D) project deliverables

122) Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion? A) project stakeholders B) project managers C) project planners D) project testers

123) role?

What defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each

A) communication plan B) responsibility matrix C) project assumptions D) project deliverables

124)

What are intangible benefits?

Version 1

A) benefits that are difficult to quantify or measure B) benefits that are easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project C) the gains attributable to your project that are reportable D) periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance

125)

What are tangible benefits?

126)

What is feasibility? A) difficult to quantify or measure B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance

127)

What is economic feasibility?

A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise

Version 1

128)

What is operational feasibility?

129)

What is schedule feasibility?

130)

What is technical feasibility?

131)

What is political feasibility?

Version 1

A) a measure of how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise

132)

What is legal feasibility?

A) a measure of how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity B) a measure of how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise

133)

What measures the cost-effectiveness of a project? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility

134) What measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities?

Version 1

A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility

135)

What measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility

136) What measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility

137)

What measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity? A) political feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) legal feasibility

Version 1

138) What measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations? A) political feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) legal feasibility

139)

What is a status report? A) difficult to quantify or measure B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance

140)

Which of the following are tangible benefits? A) improved decision making B) improved community service C) improved goodwill D) increased quantity or sales

141)

Which of the following are intangible benefits? A) improved decision making B) decreased expenses C) decreased response time D) increased quantity or sales

Version 1

142)

What are project constraints?

A) specific factors that can limit options B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

143)

What are project assumptions?

144)

What is a project charter?

145) An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the “what” part of this question focus on? Version 1

A) justification of the project B) definition of the project C) expected results of the project D) All of the answers are correct.

146) An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the “how” part of this question focus on? A) justification of the project B) definition of the project C) analysis of project risks D) expected results of the project

147)

What is project scope?

A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success B) products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D) definition of the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

148)

What are project objectives?

Version 1

149)

What does SMART criteria for successful objective creation include? A) specific, metrics, agreed-upon, real, time-valued B) specific, measurable, agreed-upon, realistic, time-framed C) specific, measurable, accurate, real, time-valued D) specific, metrics, agreed-upon, realistic, time-framed

150)

Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-defined project plan? A) easy to read B) appropriate to the project’s size C) communicated to all key participants D) All of the answers are correct.

151)

What is the most important part of the project plan? A) slack B) specification C) communication D) scope creep

Version 1

152) What is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks? A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) dependency D) work breakdown structure

153) What is the logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a project task and a milestone? A) resource B) task C) dependency D) activity

154)

What is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar? A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) dependency D) work breakdown structure

155)

What type of chart typically displays the critical path?

Version 1

A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) work breakdown structure D) three interdependent variables

156)

What is the critical path? A) the path from resource to task that passes through all critical components of a project

plan B) the path between tasks to the project’s finish that passes through all critical components of a project plan C) the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed D) the path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the longest amount of time

157) The critical path is a series of activities that determine the ________ time by which the project can be completed. A) latest B) between C) earliest D) slack

158) In a Gantt chart, tasks are listed ________, and the project’s time frame is listed ________.

Version 1

A) vertically; horizontally B) horizontally; vertically C) vertically; vertically D) horizontally; horizontally

159)

What is a concise written description of the project’s intended work? A) project charter B) kill switch C) dependency D) work breakdown structure

160) What is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish date? A) project charter B) kill switch C) dependency D) slack

161) What is the tendency to permit changes that exceed a project’s scope and may wreak havoc on the schedule, work quality, and budget? A) scope creep B) kill switch C) dependency D) slack

Version 1

162) What is a plan that breaks down a project’s goals into the many deliverables required to achieve it? A) work breakdown structure B) project scope C) prototyping D) technical review

163)

What subdivides complex activities into their most manageable units? A) work breakdown structure B) project scope C) prototyping D) technical review

164)

What question is asked repeatedly when creating a work breakdown structure? A) What will have to be done to accomplish X? B) Can we afford to add additional features? C) What will scope creep look like? D) Will we need outsourcing?

165)

Which of the following includes a common reason why change occurs?

Version 1

A) a misunderstanding of the initial scope B) shifts in planned technology that force unexpected and significant changes to the business C) an omission in defining initial scope D) All of the answers are correct.

166) What is the outsourcing option that includes the most remote location and indirect customer control? A) onshore outsourcing B) nearshore outsourcing C) offshore outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct.

167) What is the outsourcing option that includes the closest location and direct customer control? A) onshore outsourcing B) nearshore outsourcing C) offshore outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct.

168) What is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems? A) in-sourcing B) outsourcing C) business process outsourcing D) offshore outsourcing

Version 1

169) What is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house? A) in-sourcing B) outsourcing C) business process outsourcing D) offshore outsourcing

170) What is it called when a company uses organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems? A) in-sourcing B) outsourcing C) business process outsourcing D) offshore outsourcing

171) A joint application development session is where employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

172) Business requirements are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

173) Business requirements include the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system. ⊚ ⊚

174)

true false

Conversion modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

175) Off-the-shelf application software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization’s needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

176) The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

177) The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

178) Conversion occurs when a person or event is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

179) Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted. ⊚ ⊚

true false

180) Requirements management is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project. ⊚ ⊚

true false

181) Projects are typically dynamic in nature, and change should be expected and anticipated for successful project completion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

182) A requirements definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company. ⊚ ⊚

true false

183) Sign-off is the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

184) The analysis phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system, including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

185) The design phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system, including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

186) The testing phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

187) Software engineering is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools. ⊚ ⊚

true false

188) Software engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools that provide automated support for the development of the system.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

189) Fourth-generation languages (4GL) are programming languages that look similar to human languages. For example, a typical 4GL command might state, “FIND ALL RECORDS WHERE NAME IS ‘SMITH’.” ⊚ ⊚

true false

190) The development phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase. ⊚ ⊚

191)

true false

Bugs are defects in the code of an information system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

192) Test conditions detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

193) User documentation is created to highlight how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or problems.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

194)

Training is also provided for the system users and can be online or in a workshop. ⊚ ⊚

195)

true false

Coders refer to people who write programs that operate computers. ⊚ ⊚

196)

true false

Testers are people who write programs that operate computers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

197) Online training runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace. ⊚ ⊚

198)

Workshop training is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor. ⊚ ⊚

199)

true false

A help desk is a group of people who respond to users’ questions.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

200) Development testing assesses if the entire system meets the design requirements of the users. ⊚ ⊚

201)

true false

Alpha testing occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free. ⊚ ⊚

true false

202) Development testing verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

203) Integration testing verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

204) User acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

205)

User acceptance testing tests individual units or pieces of code for a system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

206) Unit testing uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify that the new system functions correctly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

207) Plunge implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

208) Pilot implementation involves a small group of people using the new system until it is verified that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrate to it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

209) Pilot implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

210) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

211) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

212) Internal reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization. Internal reports typically support day-to-day operations monitoring that supports managerial decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

213) Detailed internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data. ⊚ ⊚

214)

true false

Exception reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

215) Summary internal reports highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

216) Information system control reports ensure the reliability of information, consisting of policies and their physical implementation, access restrictions, or record keeping of actions and transactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

217) Information systems audit reports assess a company’s information system to determine necessary changes and to help ensure the information systems’ availability, confidentiality, and integrity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

218) Post-implementation reports are formal reports or audits of a project after it is up and running. ⊚ ⊚

true false

219) Preventative maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure. ⊚ ⊚

220)

true false

Encouraging liabilities is a business-related consequence of failed software.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

221) The implementation phase involves taking all of the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforming them into the actual system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

222) Process modeling involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

223) A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

224) A data flow diagram involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

225) Process modeling illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 59

226) Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development. ⊚ ⊚

227)

Coders are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development. ⊚ ⊚

228)

true false

First-generation machine language is difficult for people to understand. ⊚ ⊚

229)

true false

Second-generation assembly language is difficult for people to understand. ⊚ ⊚

true false

230) Third-generation high-level programming languages, such as C+ and Java, are high-level programming languages. ⊚ ⊚

231)

true false

Fourth-generation programming languages look similar to human languages.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

232) Fifth-generation programming languages are used for artificial intelligence and neural networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

233) A supervised review is a meeting in which the project team provides an in-depth analysis of project results to ensure that the work was done accurately. ⊚ ⊚

true false

234) A technical review is a meeting in which an independent team of experts provides an indepth analysis of project results to ensure that team members did the work accurately, completely, and to the right quality standard. ⊚ ⊚

true false

235) The traditional waterfall methodology is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

236) Scrum is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

237) A prototype is a smaller-scale representation or working model of the users’ requirements or a proposed design for an information system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

238) A methodology is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges. ⊚ ⊚

true false

239) Plunge implementation is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges. ⊚ ⊚

true false

240) The oldest and the best-known software development methodology is the waterfall methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input for the next. ⊚ ⊚

true false

241) The oldest and the best-known software development methodology is the agile methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input for the next.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

242) Prototyping is a modern design approach by which the designers and system users use an iterative approach to build the system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

243) Iterative development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile methodologies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

244) Waterfall development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile methodologies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

245) An agile methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process using the bare minimum requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

246) Rapid application development (RAD) methodology (also called rapid prototyping) emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

247) Extreme programming (XP) methodology, like other agile methods, breaks a project into four phases, and developers cannot continue to the next phase until the previous phase is complete. ⊚ ⊚

true false

248) The rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four gates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

249) The scrum methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series of sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

250) Project miles are any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project. ⊚ ⊚

true false

251) Project deliverables represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

252) Rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four “gates.” ⊚ ⊚

true false

253) Scrum methodology, uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series of “sprints,” or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

254) A communication plan defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

255) The executive sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project. ⊚ ⊚

true false

256) Project constraints are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 65

257) Project assumptions are specific factors that can limit options, including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

258) A project objective is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project. ⊚ ⊚

true false

259) The project management office (PMO) is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects. ⊚ ⊚

true false

260) Project assumptions represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

261) Project objectives are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

262) The project requirements document defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

263) The project scope statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals. It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project. ⊚ ⊚

true false

264) The project managers are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

265) The responsibility matrix defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role. ⊚ ⊚

266)

true false

Status reports are periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

267) A kill switch is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before completion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

268) A Gantt chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

269) A dependency is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a project task and a milestone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

270) A dependency is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before completion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

271) A kill switch is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a project task and a milestone. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

272)

Gantt charts define dependency between project tasks before those tasks are scheduled. ⊚ ⊚

true false

273) A critical path for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

274) A PERT chart is a simple bar chart that lists project tasks vertically against the project’s time frame, listed horizontally. ⊚ ⊚

true false

275) In the past, outsourcing was often used tactically, as a quick-fix, short-term solution to a particular need or problem that did not form part of an overall business strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

276) Outsourcing is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

277) In-sourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house. ⊚ ⊚

true false

278) Offshore outsourcing is using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

279) In-sourcing (in-house development) uses the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain its information technology systems. In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT professionals and in creating a better-quality workforce combining both technical and business skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

280) In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT professionals and in creating a better-quality workforce combining both technical and business skills. ⊚ ⊚

true false

281) Outsourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

282) Onshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another company within the same country for services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

283) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country. Often this country will share a border with the native country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

284) Offshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems. In offshore outsourcing, the country is geographically far away. ⊚ ⊚

true false

285) Offshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another company within the same country for services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

286) Onshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country. Often this country will share a border with the native country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

287) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems. In offshore outsourcing, the country is geographically far away. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

288)

true false

Human resources are the most common outsourced function. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_8e_Baltzan 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) A Version 1

34) B 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) D 60) B 61) A 62) B 63) C Version 1

64) D 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) A 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) D 75) A 76) B 77) D 78) B 79) B 80) D 81) B 82) C 83) A 84) D 85) A 86) D 87) D 88) B 89) B 90) C 91) D 92) A 93) A Version 1

94) C 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) B 101) D 102) C 103) C 104) C 105) D 106) A 107) C 108) D 109) D 110) C 111) C 112) B 113) C 114) A 115) C 116) B 117) D 118) A 119) B 120) C 121) C 122) A 123) B Version 1

124) A 125) B 126) C 127) A 128) B 129) C 130) D 131) A 132) B 133) A 134) B 135) C 136) D 137) A 138) D 139) D 140) D 141) A 142) A 143) B 144) D 145) D 146) C 147) D 148) A 149) B 150) D 151) C 152) B 153) C Version 1

154) A 155) B 156) C 157) C 158) A 159) A 160) D 161) A 162) A 163) A 164) A 165) D 166) C 167) A 168) A 169) B 170) D 171) TRUE 172) TRUE 173) FALSE 174) FALSE 175) TRUE 176) TRUE 177) TRUE 178) FALSE 179) TRUE 180) TRUE 181) TRUE 182) TRUE 183) TRUE Version 1

184) FALSE 185) TRUE 186) FALSE 187) TRUE 188) TRUE 189) TRUE 190) FALSE 191) TRUE 192) TRUE 193) TRUE 194) TRUE 195) TRUE 196) FALSE 197) TRUE 198) TRUE 199) TRUE 200) FALSE 201) FALSE 202) FALSE 203) FALSE 204) TRUE 205) FALSE 206) FALSE 207) TRUE 208) TRUE 209) FALSE 210) TRUE 211) FALSE 212) TRUE 213) TRUE Version 1

214) FALSE 215) FALSE 216) TRUE 217) TRUE 218) TRUE 219) TRUE 220) FALSE 221) FALSE 222) TRUE 223) TRUE 224) FALSE 225) FALSE 226) TRUE 227) FALSE 228) TRUE 229) TRUE 230) TRUE 231) TRUE 232) TRUE 233) FALSE 234) TRUE 235) TRUE 236) FALSE 237) TRUE 238) TRUE 239) FALSE 240) TRUE 241) FALSE 242) TRUE 243) TRUE Version 1

244) FALSE 245) TRUE 246) TRUE 247) TRUE 248) TRUE 249) TRUE 250) FALSE 251) FALSE 252) TRUE 253) TRUE 254) TRUE 255) TRUE 256) FALSE 257) FALSE 258) FALSE 259) TRUE 260) FALSE 261) TRUE 262) TRUE 263) TRUE 264) FALSE 265) TRUE 266) TRUE 267) TRUE 268) FALSE 269) TRUE 270) FALSE 271) FALSE 272) FALSE 273) TRUE Version 1

274) FALSE 275) TRUE 276) FALSE 277) FALSE 278) TRUE 279) TRUE 280) TRUE 281) TRUE 282) TRUE 283) TRUE 284) TRUE 285) FALSE 286) FALSE 287) FALSE 288) FALSE

Version 1