Test Bank for Chemistry The Central Science, 15th edition by Theodore Brown by ACADEMIAMILL

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 1 Introduction: Matter, Energy, and Measurement 1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is the physical state in which matter has a specific volume but does not have a specific shape? A) gas B) solid C) liquid D) salts E) ice Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 2) The law of constant composition applies to ________. A) solutions B) heterogeneous mixtures C) compounds D) homogeneous mixtures E) solids Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2 3) A combination of sand, salt, and water is an example of a ________. A) homogeneous mixture B) heterogeneous mixture C) compound D) pure substance E) solid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2

4) A small amount of salt dissolved in water is an example of a ________. A) homogeneous mixture B) heterogeneous mixture C) compound D) pure substance E) solid Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 5) Which one of the following has the element name and symbol correctly matched? A) S, sodium B) Tn, tin C) Fe, iron D) N, neon E) B, bromine Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 6) Which one of the following elements is identified by the chemical symbol, Al? A) tin B) aluminum C) mercury D) copper E) lead Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 7) Which one of the following is often separated into its components by simple techniques such as filtering or decanting? A) heterogeneous mixture B) compounds C) homogeneous mixture D) elements E) solutions Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2

8) Which states of matter are significantly compressible? A) gases only B) liquids only C) solids only D) liquids and gases E) solids and liquids Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 9) For which of the following, can the composition vary? A) pure substance B) element C) both homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures D) homogeneous mixture E) heterogeneous mixture Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2 10) If matter is uniform throughout and cannot be separated into other substances by physical means, it is ________. A) a compound B) either an element or a compound C) a homogeneous mixture D) a heterogeneous mixture E) an element Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2 11) An element cannot ________. A) be part of a heterogeneous mixture B) be part of a homogeneous mixture C) be separated into other substances by chemical means D) interact with other elements to form compounds E) be a pure substance Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2

12) Homogeneous mixtures are also known as ________. A) solids B) compounds C) elements D) substances E) solutions Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2 13) The law of constant composition says ________. A) that the composition of a compound is always the same B) that all substances have the same composition C) that the composition of an element is always the same D) that the composition of a homogeneous mixture is always the same E) that the composition of a heterogeneous mixture is always the same Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 14) Which of the following is an illustration of the law of constant composition? A) Water boils at 100 °C at 1 atm pressure. B) Water is 11% hydrogen and 89% oxygen by mass. C) Water can be separated into other substances by a chemical process. D) Water and salt have different boiling points. E) Water is a compound. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 15) In the following list, only ________ is not an example of a chemical reaction. A) dissolution of a penny in nitric acid B) the condensation of water vapor C) a burning candle D) the formation of polyethylene from ethylene E) the rusting of iron Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2

16) Gases and liquids share the property of ________. A) compressibility B) definite volume C) incompressibility D) indefinite shape E) definite shape Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 17) Of the following, only ________ is a chemical reaction. A) melting of lead B) dissolving sugar in water C) tarnishing of silver D) crushing of stone E) dropping a penny into a glass of water Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 18) Which one of the following is not an intensive property? A) density B) temperature C) melting point D) mass E) boiling point Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 19) Which one of the following is an intensive property? A) mass B) temperature C) length D) volume E) amount Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2

20) Of the following, only ________ is an extensive property. A) density B) volume C) boiling point D) freezing point E) temperature Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 21) Which of the following are chemical processes? 1. rusting of a nail 2. freezing of water 3. decomposition of water into hydrogen and oxygen gases 4. compression of oxygen gas A) 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 1, 3 D) 1, 2 E) 1, 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 22) In the following list, only ________ is not an example of a chemical reaction. A) burning a plastic water bottle B) the production of hydrogen gas from water C) the tarnishing of a copper penny D) chopping a log into sawdust E) charging a cellular phone Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 23) Of the following, ________ is the largest mass. A) 25 kg B) 2.5 × 10-2 mg C) 2.5 × 1015 pg D) 2.5 × 109 fg E) 2.5 × 1010 ng Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 6

24) Which one of the following is the highest temperature? A) 38 °C B) 96 °F C) 302 K D) none of the above E) the freezing point of water Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 25) Which of the following is (are) the lowest temperature? A) The freezing point of water B) 5 °C C) 30 °F D) 280 K E) A and D Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 26) Which one of the following is true about the liter? A) It is the SI base unit for volume. B) It is equivalent to a cubic decimeter. C) It is slightly smaller than a quart. D) It contains 106 cubic centimeters. E) It is slightly smaller than a gallon. Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 27) Which of the items below would be considered the most dense? A) a piece of wood with a volume of 2.5 L and a mass of 12.5 kg B) a ball with a volume of 139 mL and a mass of 93 g C) a tire with a volume of 2.12 L and a mass of 4.22 × 104 mg D) a wire with a volume of 3.91 × 10-7 L and a mass of 7.93 × 10-1 ng E) a block of metal with a volume of 1350 mL and a mass of 1.29 × 103 g Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

28) Which calculation clearly shows a conversion between temperatures in degrees Celsius, °C, and temperature in Kelvins, K? A) K = °C + 273.15 B) K = 273.15 - °C C) K = [°C - 32] / 1.8 D) K = [°C + 32] × 1.8 E) K = °C Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 29) You have to calculate the mass of a 30.0 mL liquid sample with density of 1.52 g/mL, but you have forgotten the formula. Which way of reasoning would help you in finding the correct mass? A) If 1 mL of a liquid has the mass of 1.52 g, then 30.0 mL has the mass of ________ g. B) If 1.52 mL of a liquid has the mass of 1 g, then 30.0 mL has the mass of ________ g. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 30) You have to calculate the volume of a gas sample with mass of 1.000 × 103 g and density of 1.027 g/L, but you have forgotten the formula. Which way of reasoning would help you in finding the correct mass? A) If 1.027 g of a gas takes up a volume of 1 L, then 1.000 × 103 g of the same gas takes up a volume of ________. B) If 1.027 L of gas has a mass of 1 g, then ________ L has the mass of 1.000 × 103 g. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 31) Osmium has a density of 22.6 g/cm3. What volume (in cm3) would be occupied by a 21.8 g sample of osmium? A) 0.965 B) 1.04 C) 493 D) 2.03 × 10-3 E) 2.03 × 103 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

32) Iron has a density of 7.9 g/cm3. What is the mass of a cube of iron with the length of one side equal to 55.0 mm? A) 2.1 × 104 g B) 4.3 × 102 g C) 1.3 × 103 g D) 1.4 g E) 2.3 × 10-2 g Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 33) Precision refers to ________. A) how close a measured number is to other measured numbers B) how close a measured number is to the true value C) how close a measured number is to the calculated value D) how close a measured number is to zero E) how close a measured number is to infinity Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G2 34) Accuracy refers to ________. A) how close a measured number is to zero B) how close a measured number is to the calculated value C) how close a measured number is to other measured numbers D) how close a measured number is to the true value E) how close a measured number is to infinity Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G2 35) Which of the following has the same number of significant figures as the number 1.00310? A) 1 × 106 B) 199.791 C) 8.66 D) 5.119 E) 11.762 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G2

36) Acceleration due to gravity of a free-falling object is 9.8 m/s2. Express this in millimeters/millisecond2. A) 9.8 × 10-9 B) 9.8 × 103 C) 9.8 × 10-6 D) 9.8 E) 9.8 × 10-3 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 37) If an object is accelerating at a rate of 25 m/s2, how long (in seconds) will it take to reach a speed of 550 m/s? (Assume an initial velocity of zero.) A) 22 B) 1.4 × 104 C) 0.045 D) 1.2 × 104 E) 2.3 × 102 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 38) If an object is traveling at a speed of 400 m/s, how long (in hours) will it take to reach 950.5 km? A) 3.96 × 10-2 B) 7.01 × 10-6 C) 1.43 × 105 D) 39.6 E) 6.34 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

39) A wooden object has a mass of 10.782 g and occupies a volume of 13.72 mL. What is the density of the object determined to an appropriate number of significant figures? A) 8 × 10-1 g/mL B) 7.9 × 10-1 g/mL C) 7.86 × 10-1 g/mL D) 7.859 × 10-1 g/mL E) 7.8586 × 10-1 g/mL Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 40) Expressing a number in scientific notation ________. A) changes its value B) removes ambiguity as to the significant figures C) removes significant zeros D) allows an increase in the number's precision E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 41) The number with the most significant zeros is ________. A) 0.00002510 B) 0.02500001 C) 250000001 D) 2.501 × 10-7 E) 2.5100000 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 42) How many significant figures should be retained in the result of the following calculation? 12.00000 × 0.9893 + 13.00335 × 0.0107 A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec 1.6

43) In which one of the following numbers are all of the zeros significant? A) 100.090090 B) 0.143290 C) 0.0010 D) 0.0001 E) 0.1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 44) Which of the following is not an exact number? A) the number of seconds in a year B) the number of millimeters in a kilometer C) the number of liters in a gallon D) the number of centimeters in an inch E) the number of grams in a kilogram Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 45) Round the number 0.007222 to three significant figures. A) 0.007 B) 0.00722 C) 0.0072 D) 0.00723 E) 0.007225 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 46) Round the number 3456.5 to two significant figures. A) 3400.0 B) 3400 C) 3000 D) 3500 E) 3000.0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

47) Convert 1 cm3 to Å3. A) 1024 B) 10-24 C) 1030 D) 10-30 E) 10-9 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 1.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Solids have a ________ shape and are ________. A) definite, compressible B) definite, incompressible C) indefinite, compressible D) indefinite, incompressible E) sharp, convertible Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 2) ________ is the chemical symbol for elemental sodium. A) S B) W C) So D) Na E) Sn Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2

3) If matter is uniform throughout and cannot be separated into other substances by physical processes, but can be decomposed into other substances by chemical processes, it is called a(n) ________. A) heterogeneous mixture B) element C) homogeneous mixture D) compound E) mixture of elements Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2 4) A separation process that depends on differing abilities of substances to form gases is called ________. A) filtration B) solvation C) distillation D) chromatography E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 5) The initial or tentative explanation of an observation is called a(n) ________. A) law B) theory C) hypothesis D) experiment E) test Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G1 6) A statement or mathematical equation which is based on repeated observations is called a(n) ________. A) law B) theory C) hypothesis D) experiment E) test Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G1 14

7) The SI unit for mass is ________. A) kilogram B) gram C) pound D) troy ounce E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 8) A difference in one degree of temperature is the smallest on the ________ temperature scale. A) Kelvin B) Celsius C) Fahrenheit D) Kelvin and Celsius E) Fahrenheit and Celsius Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 9) ________ is the abbreviation for the prefix mega-. A) k B) m C) M D) n E) d Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 10) ________ is the abbreviation for the prefix milli-. A) k B) m C) M D) n E) d Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2

11) A common English set of units for expressing velocity is miles/hour. The SI unit for velocity is ________. A) km/hr B) km/s C) m/hr D) m/s E) cm/s Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 12) The density of a gold nugget is 19.3 g/cm3. If the volume of the gold nugget is 0.00369 L, the mass of the nugget is ________ g. A) 71.2 B) 0.191 C) 19.3 D) 5.23 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 13) The length of the side of a cube having a density of 12.6 g/ml and a mass of 7.65 g is ________ cm. A) 0.607 B) 0.847 C) 1.18 D) 1.65 E) 4.58 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4

14) The unit of force in the English measurement system is Newton, which is ________ in base SI units. A) B) C) D) E) Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 1.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 1.5

15) The SI unit for momentum is ________. A) B) C) D) E) Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 1.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 1.5

16) The SI unit of temperature is ________. A) K B) °C C) °F D) t E) T Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2

. The SI unit of force is the

17) The freezing point of water at 1 atm pressure is ________. A) 0 °F B) 0 K C) 0 °C D) -273 °C E) -32 °F Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 18) A temperature of ________ K is the same as 63 °F. A) 17 B) 276 C) 290 D) 29 E) 336 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 19) 1 nanometer = ________ picometers A) 1000 B) 0.001 C) 1 × 10-6 D) 1 × 106 E) 10 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 20) 1 picometer = ________ centimeters A) 1 × 1010 B) 1 × 10-10 C) 1 × 108 D) 1 × 10-8 E) 1 × 10-12 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4

21) 1 kilogram = ________ milligrams A) 1 × 10-6 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 1,000,000 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 22) "Absolute zero" refers to ________. A) 0 Kelvin B) 0° Fahrenheit C) 0° Celsius D) °C + 9/5(°F - 32) E) 273.15 °C Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 23) The density (in g/cm3) of a gold nugget that has a volume of 1.68 cm3 and a mass of 32.4 g is ________. A) 0.0519 B) 19.3 C) 54.4 D) 0.0184 E) 32.4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 24) A certain liquid has a density of 2.67 g/cm3. 1340 g of this liquid would occupy a volume of ________ L. A) 1.99 × 10-3 B) 50.2 C) 3.58 D) 35.8 E) 0.502 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 19

25) A certain liquid has a density of 2.67 g/cm3. 30.5 mL of this liquid would have a mass of ________ Kg. A) 81.4 B) 11.4 C) 0.0875 D) 0.0814 E) 0.0114 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 26) Osmium has a density of 22.6 g/cm3. The mass of a block of osmium that measures 1.01 cm × 0.233 cm × 0.648 cm is ________ g. A) 6.75 × 10-3 B) 3.45 C) 148 D) 6.75 × 103 E) 34.5 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 27) 3.337 g/cm3 = ________ kg/m3 A) 3.337 × 10-9 B) 3.337 × 10-5 C) 3337 D) 0.3337 E) 333.7 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 28) What is the volume in cm3 of a perfect cube if one edge length measures 1.95 m? A) 3.80 × 106 B) 7.41 × 106 C) 3.80 D) 7.41 E) 195 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 20

29) A cube has a volume of 856 mL. What would be the length of one edge (in cm)? A) 856 B) 9.49 C) 94.9 D) 9.49 × 10-2 E) 29.3 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 30) 45 m/s = ________ km/hr A) 2.7 B) 0.045 C) 1.6 × 102 D) 2.7 × 103 E) 1.6 × 105 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 31) A baseball is thrown at a velocity of 98.4 miles per hour. What is the speed in m/s? A) 1.59 × 105 B) 5.72 × 108 C) 2.65 × 103 D) 44.1 E) 2.21 × 102 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 32) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is ________. 6.3 × 3.25 = ________ A) 20. B) 20.475 C) 20.48 D) 20.5 E) 21 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 21

33) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is ________. (2.01)(6.936) / 12 = ________ A) 1.1618 B) 1.2 C) 1.16 D) 1.162 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 34) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is ________. 12.75 × 1.3621 = ________ A) 17.367 B) 17.40 C) 17.37 D) 17.4 E) 17.0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 35) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is ________. (12.67 + 19.2)(3.99) / (1.36 + 11.366) = ________ A) 9.99851 B) 9.9985 C) 9.999 D) 1.00 × 101 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

36) The number 1.00430 has ________ significant figures. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 E) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 37) The correct result (indicating the proper number of significant figures) of the following addition is ________. 12 1.2 0.12 + 0.012 A) 13 B) 13.3 C) 13.33 D) 13.332 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 38) The correct result (indicating the proper number of significant figures) of the following problem is ________.

A) 113.73635 B) 113.736 C) 113.74 D) 113.7 E) 1.1 × 102 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.6

39) The correct result (indicating the proper number of significant figures) of the following calculation of the molecular mass for 4 × 15.9994 + 32.066 + 2 × 1.0079 A) 98.08 B) 98.079 C) 98.074 D) 98.838 E) 98.84 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.6

40) The volume of a regular cylinder is V =πr2h. What is the volume of a cylinder of radius 2.34 cm and height 19.91 cm expressed to the correct number of significant figures? A) 342.49471 B) 342.495 C) 342.49 D) 343 E) 342 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 41) There are ________ significant figures in the answer to the following computation:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.6

42) There should be ________ significant figures in the answer to the following computation.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.6

43) ________ significant figures should be retained in the result of the following calculation.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.6

44) The density of a 167.4 g sample of magnesium having a volume of 96.32 mL is ________ g/cm3. A) 0.5754 B) 16120 C) 3.625 D) 25.26 E) 1.738 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

45) A 210. lbs person is required to take a medication at a dose of 5.00 mg per kg of body weight twice a day. How much medication would the person take in a 24 hour period? (Indicate the number in proper scientific notation with the appropriate number of significant figures.) A) 2.10 × 103 B) 1.05 × 103 C) 4.77 × 102 D) 9.55 × 102 E) 9.55 × 101 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 46) The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3. The density of mercury is ________ kg/m3. A) 1.36 × 10-2 B) 1.36 × 104 C) 1.36 × 108 D) 1.36 × 10-5 E) 1.36 × 10-4 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 47) The distance from the Earth to the Moon is approximately 240,000 miles. If a rocket travels at a speed of 7.50 km/sec, it will take ________ days to travel between the Earth and Moon. A) 0.60 B) 6.0 C) 0.23 D) 33.5 E) 5.6 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

48) 1.55 kg/m3 is equivalent to ________ g/L. A) 1.55 × 10-3 B) 1.55 × 103 C) 1.55 × 10-6 D) 1.55 × 106 E) 1.55 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 49) An iron mine produces 2.18 × 105 US tons of raw ore on a daily basis which contains 21.47% elemental iron. How many pounds of elemental iron would the mine produce over a span of one year? (Assume the mine operates 365 days per year.) (1 US ton = 2000 lbs.) A) 1.59 × 1011 B) 7.96 × 107 C) 3.42 × 1010 D) 1.71 × 107 E) 4.68 × 104 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 50) A 4.369 g sample of metal is placed in a flask. Water is added to the flask and the total volume in the flask is read to be 126.4 ml. The mass of the water, flask, and metal is 268.5 g. If the mass of the flask is 139.3 g and the density of water is 1.000 g/mL, the density of the solid is ________ g/cm3. A) 0.366 B) 1.56 C) 0.641 D) 2.78 E) 3.21 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

51) The quantity 1.0 mg/cm2 is the same as 1.0 × ________ kg/m2. A) 10-4 B) 102 C) 10-6 D) 10-2 E) 104 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 52) A rectangular water tank is 14.5 cm long and 4.63 cm wide. If 368.5 g of water completely fills the tank, the height of the tank is ________ cm. (Assume the density of water is 1.000 g/ml.) A) 0.182 B) 5.49 C) 24700 D) 29.1 E) 165 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 53) There are ________ ng in a pg. A) 0.001 B) 1000 C) 0.01 D) 100 E) 10 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 54) One edge of a cube is measured and found to be 13 cm. The volume of the cube in m3 is ________. A) 2.2 × 10-3 B) 2.2 × 10-6 C) 2.2 D) 2.2 × 103 E) 2.2 × 106 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 28

55) The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm3. The mass of a lead ball with a radius of 0.50 mm is ________ g. A) 6.0 B) 4.6 × 10-2 C) 4.6 × 10-5 D) 6.0 × 10-3 E) 4.6 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 1.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) In the following list, only ________ is not an example of matter. A) book B) heat C) flower D) mouse E) neon Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 2) The symbol for the element platinum is ________. A) K B) P C) Pt D) S E) Ca Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 3) The element hydrogen has the symbol ________. A) H B) He C) K D) B E) Ar Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 29

4) Which one of the following has the element name and symbol correctly matched? A) Ne, nitrogen B) Si, sulfur C) Ca, carbon D) Be, beryllium E) None of the symbols are correctly matched to the element name. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 5) Which one of the following is a pure substance? A) tap water B) rock C) air D) elemental oxygen E) apple Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 6) The symbol for the element neon is ________. A) Rb B) Si C) Mg D) Mn E) Ne Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 7) The symbol for the element sodium is ________. A) Me B) Hg C) Sn D) Na E) Pb Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2

8) Express the temperature, 275.18 K, in degrees Celsius. A) 548.33 °C B) 274.17 °C C) 2.03 °C D) 120.88 °C E) 22.78 °C Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 9) The temperature of 25 °C is ________ in Kelvins. A) 103 B) 138 C) 166 D) 248 E) 298 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 10) An object will sink in a liquid if the density of the object is greater than that of the liquid. The mass of a sphere is 9.83 g. If the volume of this sphere is less than ________ cm3, then the sphere will sink in liquid mercury (density = 13.6 g/cm3). A) 0.723 B) 1.38 C) 134 D) 7.48 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 11) What decimal power does the abbreviation d represent? A) 1 × 10-2 B) 10 C) 1 × 10-9 D) 1 × 10-1 E) 1 × 103 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 31

12) An object measuring 25.0 inches will have a length of ________ centimeters. A) 63.5 B) 9.84 C) 0.0158 D) 0.102 E) 2.54 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 13) An object measuring 0.4500 kilograms will have a mass of ________ grams. A) 450.0 B) 0.0004500 C) 45.00 D) 4.500 E) 2222 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 14) An object measuring 77 milliliters will have a volume of ________ liters. A) 0.077 B) 77000 C) 13 D) 7700 E) 770 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 15) An object measuring 0.76 decimeters will have a length of ________ centimeters. A) 7.6 B) 0.076 C) 0.0076 D) 1100 E) 0.00076 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4

16) The prefix giga is represented by the following notation ________. A) 1 × 10-1 B) 1 × 10-3 C) 1 × 10-9 D) 1 × 109 E) 1 × 103 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 17) A temperature of 290. K is the same as ________ °F. A) 63 B) 81 C) 260 D) 711 E) 351 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 18) A temperature of 10.00 °C is the same as ________ °F. A) 50.00 B) 32.18 C) -12.22 D) 283.15 E) -263.15 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 19) A temperature of 100. °F is the same as ________ °C. A) 38 B) 212 C) 700. D) 373 E) -173 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4

20) A temperature of 55.0 °F is the same as ________ °C. A) 12.8 B) 131.0 C) 32.0 D) 328.2 E) -218.2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 21) Which of the following mass measurements is the smallest? A) 78 kg B) 78 mg C) 78 pg D) 78 fg E) 78 ng Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 22) Which of the following mass measurements is the largest? A) 123.20 Mg B) 123.20 dg C) 123.20 g D) 123.20 Tg E) 123.20 Gg Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G2 23) What is the volume (in cm3) of a 36.7 g piece of metal with a density of 6.95 g/cm3? A) 5.28 B) 255 C) 0.189 D) 6.34 E) 1.74 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

24) The density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3. A piece of silver with a mass of 61.3 g would occupy a volume of ________ cm3. A) 0.171 B) 644 C) 10.5 D) 0.00155 E) 5.84 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 25) A cube of an unknown metal measures 0.250 cm on one side. The mass of the cube is 0.095 g. Which of the following is most likely the unknown metal?

A) zirconium B) rhodium C) vanadium D) copper E) niobium Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7

26) Gold has a density of 0.01932 kg/cm3. What volume (in cm3) would be occupied by a 22.2 g sample of gold? A) 0.429 B) 0.870 C) 0.000429 D) 16.81 E) 1.15 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

27) Gold has a density of 0.01932 kg/cm3. What is the mass (in kg) of a 92.5 cm3 sample of gold? A) 1.79 B) 0.560 C) 92.5 D) 0.000209 E) 4790 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 28) The density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3. A piece of silver that occupies a volume of 42.5 cm3 would have a mass of ________ g. A) 446 B) 0.247 C) 7.64 D) 4.05 E) 23.6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 29) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is ________. 7.3 × 4.68 = ________ Answer: 34 Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 30) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is ________. (1501-1496) × (9.18 × 3.68) = ________ Answer: 200 Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 31) If an object weighs 38.325 lbs, what would be the mass in grams? (2.20 lbs = 1 kg) Answer: 17400 Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 36

32) Which of the following has the same number of significant figures as the number 0.0050? A) 0.9 B) 4.0 C) 1.00 D) 601 E) 99.000 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 33) How many Significant Figures does the number 0.005000 have? A) 4 B) 5 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 34) The number 0.0101 has ________ significant figures. A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 35) In which one of the following numbers are none of the zeros significant? A) 10.0 B) 103 C) 161.00 D) 0.00050 E) 0.009 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

36) Round the number 0.00637 to two significant figures. A) 0.0064 B) 0.006 C) 0.00637 D) 0.0 E) 0.0063700 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 37) How many significant figures are in the number 30.80? A) 3 B) 4 C) 0 D) 1 E) 2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 38) How many significant figures are in the measurement 5000 g? A) 4 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 E) 5 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 39) The number with the most significant zeros is ________. A) 0.08 B) 0.00090 C) 90.300 D) 0.008001 E) 591 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

40) What would be the volume of a box that measures 1.12 m × A) 0.772800 B) 0.77 C) 0.773 D) 0.7728 E) 0.77280 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4

41) The estimated costs for remodelling the interior of an apartment are: three 1-gallon cans of paint at each, two paint brushes at each, and for a helper. The total estimated cost with the appropriate significant figures is A) 215.76 B) 2.2 × 102 C) 216 D) 2 × 102 E) 215.8 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 42) Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 0.00222755 A) 0.2228 × 10-2 B) 0.002228 C) 2.228 × 103 D) 2.228 × 10-3 E) 22.28 × 102 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4 43) The quantity ________ m is the same as 4 km. A) 4000 B) 400 C) 0.004 D) 0.04 E) 40 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 39

44) How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 30.0 gal? A) 1.26 × 10-4 B) 0.126 C) 114 D) 7.93 × 103 E) 7.93 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 45) The recommended adult dose of Elixophyllin , a drug used to treat asthma, is 6.00 mg/kg of body mass. Calculate the dose in milligrams for a 134-lb person. A) 10.1 B) 1773 C) 13.2 D) 365 E) 3.6 × 105 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G7 46) The density of air under ordinary conditions at 25 °C is 1.19 g/L. How many kilograms of air are in a room that measures and has an 10.0 ft ceiling? A) 2.99 B) 0.124 C) 3.34 × 104 D) 0.0644 E) 33.4 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 12 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7 LO: 1.8 GO: G4 47) Which of the following liquids has the greatest density? A) 13 with a mass of 23 g B) 3.5 with a mass of 10 g C) 0.022 with a mass of 0.10 g D) 54 with a mass of 45 g E) 210 with a mass of 12 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 40

48) An inert atmosphere was obtained by adding nitrogen in a room that measures and has a 8.00 ft ceiling. How many liters of nitrogen were used to fill the room? A) 2.74 × 104 B) 102 C) 29.5 D) 2.95 × 107 E) 9.14 × 105 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 12 LO: 1.8 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 1.5, 1.7

1.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Gases do not have a fixed ________ as they are able to be ________. Answer: volume, compressed Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 2) The symbol for the element phosphorus is ________. Answer: P Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 3) Sn is the symbol for the element ________. Answer: Tin Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 4) Si is the symbol for the element ________. Answer: Silicon Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2 5) Cu is the symbol for the element ________. Answer: Copper Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.2 GO: G2

6) Mass and volume are often referred to as ________ properties of substances. Answer: extensive Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.3 LO: 1.3 GO: G2 7) 1 milligram = ________ micrograms Answer: 1,000 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 8) 1.035 × 10-4 L = ________ mL Answer: 0.1035 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 1.5 True/False Questions 1) Water is considered to be a diatomic molecule because it is composed of two different atoms. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.2 LO: 1.1 GO: G2 2) A scientific law is a concise statement or an equation that summarizes a broad variety of observations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G1 3) 3.2 cm3 = 0.0032 L Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4 4) Temperature is a physical property that determines the direction of heat flow. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.5 LO: 1.6 GO: G4

5) There are 6 significant figures in the number 0.003702. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 1.6 LO: 1.7 GO: G4

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 2 Atoms, Molecules, and Ions 2.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A molecule of water contains hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:8 ratio by mass. This is a statement of ________. A) the law of multiple proportions B) the law of constant composition C) the law of conservation of mass D) the law of conservation of energy E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.1 LO: 2.1 GO: G2 2) Which one of the following is not one of the postulates of Dalton's atomic theory? A) Atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. B) All atoms of a given element are identical; the atoms of different elements are different and have different properties. C) Atoms of an element are not changed into different types of atoms by chemical reactions: atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions. D) Compounds are formed when atoms of more than one element combine; a given compound always has the same relative number and kind of atoms. E) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.1 LO: 2.1 GO: G2 3) Consider the following selected postulates of Dalton's atomic theory: (i) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms. (ii) Atoms are indivisible. (iii) Atoms of a given element are identical. (iv) Atoms of different elements are different and have different properties. Which of the postulates is(are) no longer considered valid? A) (i) and (ii) B) (ii) only C) (ii) and (iii) D) (iii) only E) (iii) and (iv) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.1 LO: 2.1 GO: G2 1

4) Which pair of substances could be used to illustrate the law of multiple proportions? A) SO2, H2SO4 B) CO, CO2 C) H2O, O2 D) CH4, C6H12O6 E) NaCl, KCl Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.1 LO: 2.1 GO: G2 5) Which statement below correctly describes the responses of alpha, beta, and gamma radiation to an electric field? A) Both beta and gamma are deflected in the same direction, while alpha shows no response. B) Both alpha and gamma are deflected in the same direction, while beta shows no response. C) Both alpha and beta are deflected in the same direction, while gamma shows no response. D) Alpha and beta are deflected in opposite directions, while gamma shows no response. E) Only alpha is deflected, while beta and gamma show no response. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 6) Which one of the following is not true concerning cathode rays? A) They originate from the negative electrode. B) They travel in straight lines in the absence of electric or magnetic fields. C) They impart a negative charge to metals exposed to them. D) They are made up of electrons. E) The characteristics of cathode rays depend on the material from which they are emitted. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 7) The charge on an electron was determined in the ________. A) cathode ray tube, by J. J. Thomson B) Rutherford gold foil experiment C) Millikan oil drop experiment D) Dalton atomic theory E) atomic theory of matter Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2

8) ________-rays consist of fast-moving electrons. A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) X E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 9) The gold foil experiment performed in Rutherford's lab ________. A) confirmed the plum-pudding model of the atom B) led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus C) was the basis for Thomson's model of the atom D) utilized the deflection of beta particles by gold foil E) proved the law of multiple proportions Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 10) In the Rutherford nuclear-atom model, ________. A) the heavy subatomic particles, protons and neutrons, reside in the nucleus B) the three principal subatomic particles (protons, neutrons, and electrons) all have essentially the same mass C) the light subatomic particles, protons and neutrons, reside in the nucleus D) mass is spread essentially uniformly throughout the atom E) the three principal subatomic particles (protons, neutrons, and electrons) all have essentially the same mass and mass is spread essentially uniformly throughout the atom Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 11) Cathode rays are ________. A) neutrons B) X-rays C) electrons D) protons E) atoms Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2

12) Cathode rays are deflected away from a negatively charged plate because ________. A) they are not particles B) they are positively charged particles C) they are neutral particles D) they are negatively charged particles E) they are emitted by all matter Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 13) In the absence of magnetic or electric fields, cathode rays ________. A) do not exist B) travel in straight lines C) cannot be detected D) become positively charged E) bend toward a light source Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 14) Of the three types of radioactivity characterized by Rutherford, which is/are electrically charged? A) β-rays B) α-rays and β-rays C) α-rays, β-rays, and γ-rays D) α-rays E) α-rays and γ-rays Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 15) Of the three types of radioactivity characterized by Rutherford, which is/are not electrically charged? A) α-rays B) α-rays, β-rays, and γ-rays C) γ-rays D) α-rays and β-rays E) α-rays and γ-rays Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2

16) Of the three types of radioactivity characterized by Rutherford, which are particles? A) β-rays B) α-rays, β-rays, and γ-rays C) γ-rays D) α-rays and γ-rays E) α-rays and β-rays Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 17) Of the three types of radioactivity characterized by Rutherford, which type does not become deflected by a electric field? A) β-rays B) α-rays and β-rays C) α-rays D) γ-rays E) α-rays, β-rays, and γ-rays Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2 18) Of the following, the smallest and lightest subatomic particle is the ________. A) neutron B) proton C) electron D) nucleus E) alpha particle Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 19) All atoms of a given element have the same ________. A) mass B) number of protons C) number of neutrons D) number of electrons and neutrons E) density Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2

20) Which atom has the smallest number of neutrons? A) carbon-14 B) nitrogen-14 C) oxygen-16 D) fluorine-19 E) neon-20 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 21) Which of the following atoms has the smallest number of neutrons? A) carbon-14 B) chlorine-35 C) carbon-12 D) carbon-13 E) bromine-79 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 22) There are ________ electrons, ________ protons, and ________ neutrons in an atom of Xe. A) 132, 132, 54 B) 54, 54, 132 C) 78, 78, 54 D) 54, 54, 78 E) 78, 78, 132 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.3

23) An atom of the most common isotope of gold, neutrons, and ________ electrons. A) 197, 79, 118 B) 118, 79, 39 C) 79, 197, 197 D) 79, 118, 118 E) 79, 118, 79 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 6

Au, has ________ protons, ________

24) Which combination of protons, neutrons, and electrons is correct for the isotope of copper, A) 29 p+, 34 n°, 29 eB) 29 p+, 29 n°, 63 eC) 63 p+, 29 n°, 63 eD) 34 p+, 29 n°, 34 eE) 34 p+, 34 n°, 29 eAnswer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 25) Which isotope has 45 neutrons? A) Sc B)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.3

26) Which pair of atoms constitutes a pair of isotopes of the same element? A) X X B)

X X

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.3

27) Which isotope has 36 electrons in an atom? A) Kr B)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.3

28) Isotopes are atoms that have the same ________ but differing ________. A) atomic masses, charges B) mass numbers, atomic numbers C) atomic numbers, mass numbers D) charges, atomic masses E) mass numbers, charges Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 29) The nucleus of an atom does not contain ________. A) protons B) protons or neutrons C) neutrons D) subatomic particles E) electrons Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2

30) The subatomic particles located in the nucleus with no overall charges are ________. A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons and neutrons E) protons, neutrons, and electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 31) Different isotopes of a particular element contain the same number of ________. A) protons B) neutrons C) protons and neutrons D) protons, neutrons, and electrons E) subatomic particles Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 32) Different isotopes of a particular element contain different numbers of ________. A) protons B) neutrons C) protons and neutrons D) protons, neutrons, and electrons E) None of the above is correct. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 33) In the symbol shown below, x = ________. C A) 7 B) 13 C) 12 D) 6 E) not enough information to determine Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

34) In the symbol below, X = ________. X A) N B) C C) Al D) K E) not enough information to determine Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 35) In the symbol below, x = ________. O A) 17 B) 8 C) 6 D) 7 E) not enough information to determine Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 36) In the symbol below, x is ________. C A) the number of neutrons B) the atomic number C) the mass number D) the number of electrons E) the elemental symbol Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

37) Which one of the following basic forces is so small that it has no chemical significance? A) weak nuclear force B) strong nuclear force C) electromagnetism D) gravity E) Coulomb's law Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 38) Gravitational forces act between objects in proportion to their ________. A) volumes B) masses C) charges D) polarizability E) densities Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 39) Silver has two naturally occurring isotopes with the following isotopic masses: Ar

106.90509

108.9047

The average atomic mass of silver is 107.8682 amu. The fractional abundance of the lighter of the two isotopes is ________. A) 0.24221 B) 0.48168 C) 0.51835 D) 0.75783 E) 0.90474 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.4 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

40) The atomic mass unit is presently based on assigning an exact integral mass (in amu) to an isotope of ________. A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) sodium D) carbon E) helium Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.4 LO: 2.5 GO: G4 41) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 219.7 B) 220.4 C) 220.42 D) 218.5 E) 221.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

42) Element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 41.54 B) 39.68 C) 39.07 D) 38.64 E) 33.33 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

43) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The isotopic masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 161.75 B) 162.03 C) 162.35 D) 163.15 E) 33.33 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

44) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The isotopic masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 33.33 B) 55.74 C) 56.11 D) 57.23 E) 56.29 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

45) The element X has two naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 30.20 B) 33.20 C) 34.02 D) 35.22 E) 32.73 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

46) The average atomic weight of copper, which has two naturally occurring isotopes, is 63.5. One of the isotopes has an atomic weight of 62.9 amu and constitutes 69.1% of the copper isotopes. The other isotope has an abundance of 30.9%. The atomic weight (amu) of the second isotope is ________ amu. A) 63.2 B) 63.8 C) 64.1 D) 64.8 E) 28.1 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.4 LO: 2.5 GO: G4 47) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 17.20 B) 16.90 C) 17.65 D) 17.11 E) 16.90 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

48) Vanadium has two naturally occurring isotopes, 50V with an atomic mass of 49.9472 amu and 51V with an atomic mass of 50.9440. The atomic weight of vanadium is 50.9415. The percent abundances of the vanadium isotopes are ________% 50V and ________% 51V. A) 0.25, 99.75 B) 99.75, 0.25 C) 49, 51 D) 1.0, 99 E) 99, 1.0 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.4 LO: 2.5 GO: G4 15

49) An unknown element is found to have three naturally occurring isotopes with atomic masses of and Which of the following is the unknown element? A) Ar B) K C) Cl D) Ca E) None of the above could be the unknown element. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.4 LO: 2.5 GO: G4 50) In the periodic table, the elements are arranged in ________. A) alphabetical order B) order of increasing atomic number C) order of increasing metallic properties D) order of increasing neutron content E) increasing atomic mass Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 51) Elements ________ exhibit similar physical and chemical properties. A) with similar chemical symbols B) with similar atomic masses C) in the same period of the periodic table D) on opposite sides of the periodic table E) in the same group of the periodic table Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 52) Which pair of elements would you expect to exhibit the greatest similarity in their physical and chemical properties? A) H, Li B) Cs, Ba C) Ca, Sr D) Ga, Ge E) C, O Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 16

53) Which pair of elements would you expect to exhibit the greatest similarity in their physical and chemical properties? A) O, S B) C, N C) K, Ca D) H, He E) Si, P Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 54) Which pair of elements would you expect to exhibit the greatest similarity in their physical and chemical properties? A) As, Br B) Mg, Al C) I, Br D) Br, Kr E) N, O Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 55) The elements in groups 1A, 6A, and 7A are called ________, respectively. A) alkaline earth metals, halogens, and chalcogens B) alkali metals, chalcogens, and halogens C) alkali metals, halogens, and noble gases D) alkaline earth metals, transition metals, and halogens E) halogens, transition metals, and alkali metals Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 56) Which pair of elements below should be the most similar in chemical properties? A) C and O B) B and As C) I and Br D) K and Kr E) Cs and He Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

57) An element in the upper right corner of the periodic table ________. A) is either a metal or metalloid B) is definitely a metal C) is either a metalloid or a nonmetal D) is definitely a nonmetal E) is definitely a metalloid Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 58) An element that appears in the lower left corner of the periodic table is ________. A) either a metal or metalloid B) definitely a metal C) either a metalloid or a nonmetal D) definitely a nonmetal E) definitely a metalloid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 59) Elements in the same group of the periodic table typically have ________. A) similar mass numbers B) similar physical properties only C) similar chemical properties only D) similar atomic masses E) similar physical and chemical properties Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 60) Which one of the following molecular formulas is also an empirical formula? A) C6H6O2 B) C2H6SO C) H2O2 D) H2P4O6 E) C6H6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.9 GO: G2

61) Which compounds do not have the same empirical formula? A) C2H2, C6H6 B) CO, CO2 C) C2H4, C3H6 D) C2H4O2, C6H12O6 E) C2H5COOCH3, CH3CHO Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.9 GO: G2 62) Of the choices below, which one is not an ionic compound? A) PCl5 B) MoCl6 C) RbCl D) PbCl2 E) NaCl Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6, 2.7 LO: 2.8 GO: G2 63) Which type of formula provides the most information about a compound? A) empirical B) molecular C) simplest D) structural E) chemical Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.10a GO: G2 64) A molecular formula always indicates ________. A) how many of each atom are in a molecule B) the simplest whole-number ratio of different atoms in a compound C) which atoms are attached to which in a molecule D) the isotope of each element in a compound E) the geometry of a molecule Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.10a GO: G2

65) An empirical formula always indicates ________. A) which atoms are attached to which in a molecule B) how many of each atom are in a molecule C) the simplest whole-number ratio of different atoms in a compound D) the isotope of each element in a compound E) the geometry of a molecule Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.9 GO: G2 66) The molecular formula of a compound is always ________ the empirical formula. A) more complex than B) different from C) an integral multiple of D) the same as E) simpler than Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.10a GO: G2 67) Formulas that show how atoms are attached in a molecule are called ________. A) molecular formulas B) ionic formulas C) empirical formulas D) diatomic formulas E) structural formulas Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.10a GO: G2 68) Of the following, ________ contains the greatest number of electrons. A) P3+ B) P C) P2D) P3E) P2+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

69) Which species has 54 electrons? A) Xe+ B)

Te2-

Sn4+

Xe2+

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.7

70) Which species has 16 protons? A) P B) C) Cl D) B E) O Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 71) Which species has 18 electrons? A) 39K B) 32S2C) 35Cl D) 27Al3+ E) 45Sc3+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

72) Which of the following species contains 18 electrons? A) 31P B) 34S2C) 36Cl D) 80BrE) 16O Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 73) Which of the following species is an isotope of 79Br? A) 40Ar+ B) 34S2C) 79BrD) 80Br E) 79Se Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 74) Which one of the following species has as many electrons as it has neutrons? A) 1H B) 40Ca2+ C) 14C D) 19FE) 14C2+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 75) There are ________ protons, ________ neutrons, and ________ electrons in 131I-. A) 131, 53, 54 B) 131, 53, 52 C) 53, 78, 54 D) 53, 131, 52 E) 53, 78, 52 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 22

76) There are ________ protons, ________ neutrons, and ________ electrons in 238U+5. A) 146, 92, 92 B) 92, 146, 87 C) 92, 146, 92 D) 92, 92, 87 E) 146, 92, 97 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 77) Which species contains 68 neutrons? A) Sn+2 B)

Sn+2

Cd+2

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.7

78) Which of the following compounds would you expect to be ionic? A) H2O B) CO2 C) SrCl2 D) SO2 E) H2S Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2

79) Which pair of elements is most apt to form an ionic compound with each other? A) barium, bromine B) calcium, sodium C) oxygen, fluorine D) sulfur, fluorine E) nitrogen, hydrogen Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 80) Which pair of elements is most apt to form a molecular compound with each other? A) aluminum, oxygen B) magnesium, iodine C) sulfur, fluorine D) potassium, lithium E) barium, bromine Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 81) Which species below is the nitride ion? A) Na+ B) NO3C) NO2D) NH4+ E) N3Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.13 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.8

82) Barium reacts with a polyatomic ion to form a compound with the general formula Ba3(X)2. What would be the most likely formula for the compound formed between sodium and the polyatomic ion X? A) NaX B) Na2X C) Na2X2 D) Na3X E) Na3X2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 24

83) Aluminum reacts with a certain nonmetallic element to form a compound with the general formula Al2X3. Element X must be from Group ________ of the Periodic Table of Elements. A) 3A B) 4A C) 5A D) 6A E) 7A Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 84) The formula for a salt is XBr. The X-ion in this salt has 46 electrons. The metal X is ________. A) Ag B) Pd C) Cd D) Cu E) Cs Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 85) Which formula/name pair is incorrect? A) Mn(NO2)2 manganese(II) nitrite B) Mg(NO3)2 magnesium nitrate C) Mn(NO3)2 manganese(II) nitrate D) Mg3N2 magnesium nitrite E) Mg(MnO4)2 magnesium permanganate Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 86) Which formula/name pair is incorrect? A) FeSO4 iron(II) sulfate B) Fe2(SO3)3 iron(III) sulfite C) FeS iron(II) sulfide D) FeSO3 iron(II) sulfite E) Fe2(SO4)3 iron(III) sulfide Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 25

87) Which one of the following is the formula of hydrochloric acid? A) HClO3 B) HClO4 C) HClO D) HCl E) HClO2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 88) The suffix -ide is used primarily ________. A) for monatomic anion names B) for polyatomic cation names C) for the name of the first element in a molecular compound D) to indicate binary acids E) for monoatomic cations Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 89) Which one of the following compounds is chromium(III) oxide? A) Cr2O3 B) CrO3 C) Cr3O2 D) Cr3O E) Cr2O4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 90) Which one of the following compounds is copper(I) chloride? A) CuCl B) CuCl2 C) Cu2Cl D) Cu2Cl3 E) Cu3Cl2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 26

91) The correct name for MgF2 is ________. A) monomagnesium difluoride B) magnesium difluoride C) manganese difluoride D) manganese bifluoride E) magnesium fluoride Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 92) The correct name for NaHCO3 is ________. A) sodium hydride B) persodium carbonate C) persodium hydroxide D) sodium bicarbonate E) carbonic acid Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 93) A correct name for Fe(NO3)2 is ________. A) iron nitrite B) ferrous nitrite C) ferrous nitrate D) ferric nitrite E) ferric nitrate Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 94) The correct name for HNO2 is ________. A) nitrous acid B) nitric acid C) hydrogen nitrate D) hyponitrous acid E) pernitric acid Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

95) The proper formula for the hydronium ion is ________. A) HB) OHC) N3D) H3O+ E) NH4+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 96) The charge on the ________ ion is -3. A) sulfate B) acetate C) permanganate D) oxide E) nitride Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 97) Which one of the following polyatomic ions has the same charge as the hydroxide ion? A) ammonium B) carbonate C) nitrate D) sulfate E) phosphate Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 98) Which element forms an ion with the same charge as the ammonium ion? A) potassium B) chlorine C) calcium D) oxygen E) nitrogen Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2

99) The formula for the compound formed between aluminum ions and phosphate ions is ________. A) Al3(PO4)3 B) AlPO4 C) Al(PO4)3 D) Al2(PO4)3 E) AlP Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 100) Which metal does not form cations of differing charges? A) Na B) Cu C) Co D) Fe E) Sn Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 101) Which metal forms cations of differing charges? A) K B) Cs C) Ba D) Al E) Sn Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 102) The correct name for Ni(CN)2 is ________. A) nickel (I) cyanide B) nickel cyanate C) nickel carbonate D) nickel (II) cyanide E) nickel (I) nitride Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

103) What is the molecular formula for 1-propanol? A) CH4O B) C2H6O C) C3H8O D) C4H10O E) C5H12O Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 2.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Methane and ethane are both made up of carbon and hydrogen. In methane, there are 12.0 g of carbon for every 4.00 g of hydrogen, a ratio of 3:1 by mass. In ethane, there are 24.0 g of carbon for every 6.00 g of hydrogen, a ratio of 4:1 by mass. This is an illustration of the law of ________. A) constant composition B) multiple proportions C) conservation of matter D) conservation of mass E) octaves Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.1 LO: 2.1 GO: G2 2) ________ and ________ reside in the atomic nucleus. A) Protons, electrons B) Electrons, neutrons C) Protons, neutrons D) Neutrons, only neutrons E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.2 LO: 2.2 GO: G2

3) 520 pm is the same as ________ Å. A) 5200 B) 52 C) 520 D) 5.2 E) 0.00052 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G4 4) The atomic number indicates ________. A) the number of neutrons in a nucleus B) the total number of neutrons and protons in a nucleus C) the number of protons or electrons in a neutral atom D) the number of atoms in 1 g of an element E) the number of different isotopes of an element Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 5) The nucleus of an atom contains ________. A) electrons B) protons, neutrons, and electrons C) protons and neutrons D) protons and electrons E) protons Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 6) In the periodic table, the elements touching the steplike line are known as ________. A) transition elements B) noble gases C) metalloids D) nonmetals E) metals Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

7) Which group in the periodic table contains only nonmetals? A) 1A B) 6A C) 2B D) 2A E) 8A Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 8) Horizontal rows of the periodic table are known as ________. A) periods B) groups C) metalloids D) metals E) nonmetals Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 9) Vertical columns of the periodic table are known as ________. A) metals B) periods C) nonmetals D) groups E) metalloids Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 10) Elements in Group 1A are known as the ________. A) chalcogens B) alkaline earth metals C) alkali metals D) halogens E) noble gases Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

11) Elements in Group 2A are known as the ________. A) alkaline earth metals B) alkali metals C) chalcogens D) halogens E) noble gases Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 12) Elements in Group 6A are known as the ________. A) alkali metals B) chalcogens C) alkaline earth metals D) halogens E) noble gases Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 13) Elements in Group 7A are known as the ________. A) chalcogens B) alkali metals C) alkaline earth metals D) halogens E) noble gases Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 14) Elements in Group 8A are known as the ________. A) halogens B) alkali metals C) alkaline earth metals D) chalcogens E) noble gases Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

15) Potassium is a ________ and chlorine is a ________. A) metal, nonmetal B) metal, metal C) metal, metalloid D) metalloid, nonmetal E) nonmetal, metal Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2 16) Lithium is a ________ and magnesium is a ________. A) nonmetal, metal B) nonmetal, nonmetal C) metal, metal D) metal, metalloid E) metalloid, metalloid Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2 17) Oxygen is a ________ and nitrogen is a ________. A) metal, metalloid B) nonmetal, metal C) metalloid, metalloid D) nonmetal, nonmetal E) nonmetal, metalloid Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2 18) Calcium is a ________ and silver is a ________. A) nonmetal, metal B) metal, metal C) metalloid, metal D) metal, metalloid E) nonmetal, metalloid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2

19) ________ are found uncombined, as monatomic species in nature. A) Noble gases B) Chalcogens C) Alkali metals D) Alkaline earth metals E) Halogens Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 20) When a metal and a nonmetal react, the ________ tends to lose electrons and the ________ tends to gain electrons. A) metal, metal B) nonmetal, nonmetal C) metal, nonmetal D) nonmetal, metal E) None of the above; these elements share electrons. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 21) The empirical formula of a compound with molecules containing 12 carbon atoms, 14 hydrogen atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms is ________. A) C12H14O6 B) CHO C) CH2O D) C6H7O3 E) C2H4O Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.9 GO: G2 22) ________ only form ions with a 2+ charge. A) Alkaline earth metals B) Halogens C) Chalcogens D) Alkali metals E) Transition metals Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 35

23) What is the formula of the compound formed between strontium ions and nitrogen ions? A) SrN B) Sr3N2 C) Sr2N3 D) SrN2 E) SrN3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 24) Magnesium reacts with a certain element to form a compound with the general formula MgX. What would the most likely formula be for the compound formed between potassium and element X? A) K2X B) KX2 C) K2X3 D) K2X2 E) KX Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 25) The charge on the manganese in the salt MnF3 is ________. A) 1+ B) 1C) 2+ D) 2E) 3+ Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 26) Aluminum reacts with a certain nonmetallic element to form a compound with the general formula AlX. Element X is a diatomic gas at room temperature. Element X must be ________. A) oxygen B) fluorine C) chlorine D) nitrogen E) sulfur Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 36

27) Sodium forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 1+ B) 1C) 2+ D) 2E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 28) Potassium forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 2+ B) 1C) 1+ D) 2E) 0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 29) Calcium forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 1B) 2C) 1+ D) 2+ E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 30) Barium forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 1+ B) 2C) 3+ D) 3E) 2+ Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

31) Aluminum forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 2+ B) 3C) 1+ D) 3+ E) 1Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 32) Fluorine forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 1B) 1+ C) 2+ D) 3+ E) 3Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 33) Iodine forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 7B) 1+ C) 2D) 2+ E) 1Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 34) Oxygen forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 2B) 2+ C) 3D) 3+ E) 6+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

35) Sulfur forms an ion with a charge of ________. A) 2+ B) 2C) 3+ D) 6E) 6+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 36) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from sodium and fluorine. A) NaF B) Na2F C) NaF2 D) Na2F3 E) Na3F2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 37) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from magnesium and fluorine. A) Mg2F3 B) MgF C) Mg2F D) Mg3F2 E) MgF2 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 38) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from magnesium and oxygen. A) Mg2O B) MgO C) MgO2 D) Mg2O2 E) Mg3O2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 39

39) Predict the empirical formula of the ionic compound that forms from aluminum and oxygen. A) AlO B) Al3O2 C) Al2O3 D) AlO2 E) Al2O Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 40) The correct name for K2S is ________. A) potassium sulfate B) potassium disulfide C) potassium bisulfide D) potassium sulfide E) dipotassium sulfate Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 41) The correct name for Al2O3 is ________. A) aluminum oxide B) dialuminum oxide C) dialuminum trioxide D) aluminum hydroxide E) aluminum trioxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 42) The correct name for CaH2 is ________. A) hydrocalcium B) calcium dihydride C) calcium hydroxide D) calcium dihydroxide E) calcium hydride Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2

43) The correct name for SO is ________. A) sulfur oxide B) sulfur monoxide C) sulfoxide D) sulfate E) sulfite Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 44) The correct name for CCl4 is ________. A) carbon chloride B) carbon tetrachlorate C) carbon perchlorate D) carbon tetrachloride E) carbon chlorate Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 45) The correct name for N2O5 is ________. A) nitrous oxide B) nitrogen pentoxide C) dinitrogen pentoxide D) nitric oxide E) nitrogen oxide Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 46) The correct name for H2CO3 is ________. A) carbonous acid B) hydrocarbonate C) carbonic acid D) carbohydrate E) carbohydric acid Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

47) The correct name for H2SO3 is ________. A) sulfuric acid B) sulfurous acid C) hydrosulfuric acid D) hydrosulfic acid E) sulfur hydroxide Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 48) The correct name for H2SO4 is ________. A) sulfuric acid B) sulfurous acid C) hydrosulfuric acid D) hydrosulfic acid E) sulfur hydroxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 49) The correct name for HNO3 is ________. A) nitrous acid B) nitric acid C) hydronitroxide acid D) nitroxide acid E) nitrogen hydroxide Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 50) The correct name for HClO3 is ________. A) hydrochloric acid B) perchloric acid C) chloric acid D) chlorous acid E) hydrochlorous acid Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

51) The correct name for HClO is ________. A) hydrochloric acid B) perchloric acid C) chloric acid D) chlorous acid E) hypochlorous acid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 52) The correct name for HBrO4 is ________. A) hydrobromic acid B) perbromic acid C) bromic acid D) bromous acid E) hydrobromous acid Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 53) The correct name for HBrO is ________. A) hydrobromic acid B) perbromic acid C) bromic acid D) bromous acid E) hypobromous acid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 54) The correct name for HBrO2 is ________. A) hydrobromic acid B) perbromic acid C) bromic acid D) bromous acid E) hydrobromous acid Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

55) The correct name for HClO2 is ________. A) perchloric acid B) chloric acid C) hypochlorous acid D) hypychloric acid E) chlorous acid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 56) The correct name of the compound Na3N is ________. A) sodium nitride B) sodium azide C) sodium trinitride D) sodium(III) nitride E) trisodium nitride Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 57) The formula of bromic acid is ________. A) HBr B) HBrO4 C) HBrO D) HBrO3 E) HBrO2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 58) The correct formula for molybdenum (IV) hypochlorite is ________. A) Mo(ClO3)4 B) Mo(ClO)4 C) Mo(ClO2)4 D) Mo(ClO4)4 E) MoCl4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

59) The name of PCl3 is ________. A) potassium chloride B) phosphorus trichloride C) phosphorous(III) chloride D) monophosphorous trichloride E) trichloro potassium Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 60) The ions Ca2+ and PO43- form a salt with the formula ________. A) CaPO4 B) Ca2(PO4)3 C) Ca2PO4 D) Ca(PO4)2 E) Ca3(PO4)2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 61) The correct formula of iron (III) bromide is ________. A) FeBr2 B) FeBr3 C) FeBr D) Fe3Br3 E) Fe3Br Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 62) Magnesium and sulfur form an ionic compound with the formula ________. A) MgS B) Mg2S C) MgS2 D) Mg2S2 E) Mg2S3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2

63) The formula of ammonium carbonate is ________. A) (NH4)2CO3 B) NH4CO2 C) (NH3)2CO4 D) (NH3)2CO3 E) N2(CO3)3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 64) The formula of the chromate ion is ________. A) CrO42B) CrO23C) Cr D) CrO32E) CrO2Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.8

65) The formula of the carbonate ion is ________. A) CO22B) CO32C) CO33D) CO2E) COAnswer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 66) The correct name for Mg(ClO3)2 is ________. A) magnesium chlorate B) manganese chlorate C) magnesium chloroxide D) magnesium perchlorate E) manganese perchlorate Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 46

67) What is the correct formula for ammonium sulfide? A) NH4SO3 B) (NH4)2SO4 C) (NH4)2S D) NH3S E) N2S3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 68) When calcium reacts with sulfur the compound formed is ________. A) Ca2S2 B) Ca3S2 C) CaS D) CaS2 E) Ca2S3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 69) Chromium and chlorine form an ionic compound whose formula is CrCl3. The name of this compound is ________. A) chromium chlorine B) chromium (III) chloride C) monochromium trichloride D) chromium (III) trichloride E) chromic trichloride Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 70) Iron and chlorine form an ionic compound whose formula is FeCl3. The name of this compound is ________. A) iron chlorine B) iron (III) chloride C) moniron trichloride D) iron (III) trichloride E) ferric trichloride Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 47

71) Copper and chlorine form an ionic compound whose formula is CuCl2. The name of this compound is ________. A) copper chlorine B) copper (III) dichloride C) monocopper dichloride D) copper (II) dichloride E) cupric chloride Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 72) The name of the binary compound N2O4 is ________. A) nitrogen oxide B) nitrous oxide C) nitrogen (IV) oxide D) dinitrogen tetroxide E) oxygen nitride Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 73) The formula for zinc phosphate is Zn3(PO4)2. What is the formula for cadmium arsenate? A) Cd4(AsO2)3 B) Cd3(AsO4)2 C) Cd3(AsO3)4 D) Cd2(AsO4)3 E) Cd2(AsO4)4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 74) The formula for aluminum hydroxide is ________. A) AlOH B) Al3OH C) Al2(OH)3 D) Al(OH)3 E) Al2O3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 48

75) The name of the ionic compound V2O3 is ________. A) vanadium (III) oxide B) vanadium oxide C) vanadium (II) oxide D) vanadium (III) trioxide E) divanadium trioxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 76) The name of the ionic compound NH4CN is ________. A) nitrogen hydrogen cyanate B) ammonium carbonitride C) ammonium cyanide D) ammonium hydrogen cyanate E) cyanonitride Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 77) The name of the ionic compound (NH4)3PO4 is ________. A) ammonium phosphate B) nitrogen hydrogen phosphate C) tetrammonium phosphate D) ammonia phosphide E) triammonium phosphate Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 78) What is the formula for perchloric acid? A) HClO B) HClO3 C) HClO4 D) HClO2 E) HCl Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2

79) The correct name for HIO2 is ________. A) hypoiodic acid B) hydriodic acid C) periodous acid D) iodous acid E) periodic acid Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 80) What is the molecular formula for propane? A) C2H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H8 D) C4H8 E) C4H10 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 81) What is the molecular formula for butane? A) C2H8 B) C3H6 C) C3H8 D) C4H8 E) C4H10 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 82) What are the primary atoms found in alkanes? A) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) carbon and nitrogen C) oxygen and hydrogen D) carbon and oxygen E) carbon and hydrogen Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2

83) What is the correct name for the following alkane, C5H12? A) heptane B) propane C) hexane D) pentane E) butane Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 84) How many carbon and hydrogen atoms are found in decane? A) 10 carbons and 22 hydrogens B) 9 carbons and 20 hydrogens C) 10 carbons and 20 hydrogens D) 9 carbons and 18 hydrogens E) 10 carbons and 24 hydrogens Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 85) What is the molecular formula for heptane? A) C6H12 B) C6H14 C) C7H14 D) C7H16 E) C7H18 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 86) What is the molecular formula for 1-hexanol? A) C6H13O B) C6H14O C) C6H15O D) C7H14O E) C7H15O Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2

2.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) A certain mass of carbon reacts with 128 g of oxygen to form carbon monoxide. ________ grams of oxygen would react with that same mass of carbon to form carbon dioxide, according to the law of multiple proportions. A) 25.6 B) 64.0 C) 128 D) 1280 E) 256 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.1 LO: 2.1 GO: G4 2) An atom of 13C contains ________ protons. A) 6 B) 19 C) 7 D) 9 E) 13 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 17 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 3) Of the following, the subatomic particle with the smallest mass is the ________. A) proton B) neutron C) electron D) alpha particle E) isotope Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G2 4) An atom of 118Xe contains ________ neutrons. A) 54 B) 172 C) 64 D) 110 E) 118 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 17 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 52

5) There are ________ protons, ________ electrons, and ________ neutrons in an atom of Xe. A) 129, 129, 129 B) 129, 129, 75 C) 54, 75, 129 D) 54, 54, 75 E) 54, 54, 129 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 6) An atom of 14C contains ________ electrons. A) 14 B) 20 C) 8 D) 10 E) 6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 17 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 7) 87 pm is the same as ________ Angstroms. A) 870 B) 8.7 C) 87 D) .87 E) .087 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G4 8) 200 pm is the same as ________ Å. A) 2000 B) 20 C) 200 D) 2 E) 0.0002 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3 GO: G4

9) In the symbol below, X = ________. X A) Zr B) K C) Sc D) Br E) not enough information to determine Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 10) In the symbol below, x = ________. Cl A) 17 B) 34 C) 16 D) 36 E) not enough information to determine Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 11) The mass number of an atom of 14C is ________. A) 6 B) 20 C) 8 D) 14 E) 10 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 17 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 12) Which atom has the largest number of neutrons? A) silicon-30 B) sulfur-36 C) argon-38 D) calcium-44 E) magnesium-24 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 54

13) How many neutrons are there in one atom of 184W? A) 74 B) 112 C) 258 D) 110 E) 184 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 14) How many protons are there in one atom of 71Ga? A) 40 B) 70 C) 71 D) 31 E) 13 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 15) How many electrons are there in one atom of 71Ga? A) 40 B) 70 C) 71 D) 31 E) 13 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

16) Which pair of atoms constitutes a pair of isotopes of the same element? A) X X B)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 50+ LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 2.3

17) The atomic number of an atom of 80Br is ________. A) 115 B) 35 C) 45 D) 73 E) 80 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 17 Page Ref: Sec. 2.3 LO: 2.3, 2.4 GO: G2 18) How many total electrons are in the Li+ ion? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

19) How many total electrons are in the O2- ion? A) 10 B) 8 C) 6 D) 16 E) 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 20) If a iron atom loses 2 electrons to make an ion, what is the charge on that ion? A) 2+ B) 1+ C) 3+ D) 2E) 1Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 21) If an atom gains 3 electrons to make an ion, what is the charge on that ion? A) 3+ B) 1+ C) 2+ D) 1E) 3Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

22) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 33.333 B) 220.40 C) 220.24 D) 219.00 E) 219.67 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

23) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 159.4 B) 162.0 C) 163.1 D) 161.5 E) 163.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

24) The element X has three naturally occurring isotopes. The masses (amu) and % abundances of the isotopes are given in the table below. The average atomic mass of the element is ________ amu.

A) 52.62 B) 56.14 C) 55.70 D) 55.40 E) 55.74 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 5 LO: 2.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 2.4

25) The element ________ is the most similar to helium in chemical and physical properties. A) O B) Mg C) Be D) Ar E) Sr Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 26) Which pair of elements would you expect to exhibit the greatest similarity in their physical and chemical properties? A) Li, F B) Sr, Te C) O, S D) In, Sb E) Ti, Ne Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

27) Which one of the following is a metalloid? A) Se B) Hf C) Zr D) Xe E) Si Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2 28) The element lithium is in a group known as the ________. A) transition metals B) alkaline earth metals C) noble gases D) halogens E) alkali metals Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 29) The element chlorine is in a group known as the ________. A) transition metals B) noble gases C) alkali metals D) alkaline earth metals E) halogens Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 30) The element calcium is in a group known as the ________. A) transition metals B) alkali metals C) halogens D) noble gases E) alkaline earth metals Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

31) Of the following, only ________ is not a metalloid. A) B B) Po C) Si D) Ge E) As Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2 32) Which of the following elements is a nonmetal? A) At B) Rh C) Tc D) Mo E) Zr Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.7 GO: G2 33) Which one of the following will occur as diatomic molecules in elemental form? A) helium B) argon C) chlorine D) phosphorous E) sodium Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.6 LO: 2.8 GO: G2 34) How many electrons does the Al3+ ion possess? A) 16 B) 10 C) 6 D) 0 E) 13 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

35) How many protons does the Br- ion possess? A) 34 B) 36 C) 6 D) 8 E) 35 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 36) Which one of the following is most likely to gain electrons when forming an ion? A) Mn B) Zn C) F D) Li E) Al Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 37) The formula of a salt is XC . The X-ion in this salt has 24 electrons. The metal X is ________. A) Ni B) Fe C) Zn D) Cr E) Ti Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 38) Predict the charge of the most stable ion of bromine. A) 2+ B) 1+ C) 3+ D) 1E) 2Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

39) Predict the charge of the most stable ion of aluminum. A) 3B) 1+ C) 2+ D) 1E) 3+ Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 40) Which of the following compounds would you expect to be ionic? A) C2H6 B) NH3 C) H2O2 D) LiBr E) None of the above. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.6, 2.7 LO: 2.8 GO: G2 41) Which species below is the sulfate ion? A) CNB) SO42C) OHD) SO32E) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 42) Which species below is the nitrate ion? A) NO2B) NO3C) ClO3D) ClO4E) MnO4Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 63

43) Which species below is the chromate ion? A) Cr2O72B) CrO42C) CH3COOD) CO32E) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 44) The correct name for CaO is ________. A) calcium oxide B) calcium hydroxide C) calcium peroxide D) calcium monoxide E) calcium dioxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 45) Element M reacts with fluorine to form an ionic compound with the formula M . The M-ion has 21 electrons. Element M is ________. A) Al B) Cr C) Mn D) Fe E) Sc Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 46) The charge on the copper ion in the salt CuO is ________. A) +1 B) +2 C) +4 D) +3 E) +5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 64

47) The charge on the silver ion in the salt AgCl is ________. A) +2 B) +1 C) +3 D) +4 E) +5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.12 GO: G2 48) The name of the ionic compound NaBrO4 is ________. A) sodium perbromate B) sodium bromate C) sodium hypobromate D) sodium perbromite E) sodium bromide Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 49) When a bromine atom forms the bromide ion, it has the same charge as the ________ ion. A) sulfide B) ammonium C) nitrate D) phosphate E) sulfite Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 50) Which element forms an ion with the same charge as the sulfate ion? A) magnesium B) sodium C) fluorine D) vanadium E) sulfur Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2

51) The correct name for Na2O2 is ________. A) sodium oxide B) sodium dioxide C) disodium dioxide D) sodium peroxide E) disodium oxide Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2 52) Which metal is not required to have its charge specified in the names of ionic compounds it forms? A) Cr B) Ni C) Zr D) Na E) Mo Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 2.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The following hypothetical element : Answer: VIA Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 2.6 GO: G2

: can be found in which group on the periodic table?

Page Ref: Sec. 2.5

2) Which element is found in Period 2 and Group VIIA? Answer: fluorine Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.5 LO: 2.6 GO: G2 3) The formula for potassium sulfide is ________. Answer: K2S Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2

4) What is the name of an alcohol derived from hexane? Answer: hexanol Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.9 LO: 2.15 GO: G2 2.5 True/False Questions 1) The possible oxidation numbers for iron are +1 and +2. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.7 LO: 2.11 GO: G2 2) The formula for chromium (II) iodide is CrI2. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 3) H2SeO4 is called selenic acid. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.14 GO: G2 4) The correct name for Na3N is sodium azide. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 2.8 LO: 2.13 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Reaction Stoichiometry 3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficients are ________. C8H18 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 2, 3, 4, 4 B) 1, 4, 8, 9 C) 2, 12, 8, 9 D) 4, 4, 32, 36 E) 2, 25, 16, 18 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

2) Of the reactions below, which one is not a combination reaction? A) C + O2 → CO2 B) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO C) 2N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 D) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 E) 2CH4 + 4O2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 3) When a hydrocarbon burns in air, what component of air reacts? A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) carbon dioxide D) water E) argon Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2

4) When a hydrocarbon burns in air, a component produced is ________. A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) carbon D) water E) argon Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 5) Of the reactions below, which one is a decomposition reaction? A) NH4Cl → NH3 + HCl B) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO C) 2N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 D) 2CH4 + 4O2 → 2CO2 + 4H2O E) Cd(NO3)2 + Na2S → CdS + 2NaNO3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 6) Which one of the following substances is the product of this combination reaction? Al (s) + I2(s) → ________ A) AlI2 B) AlI C) AlI3 D) Al2I3 E) Al3I2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.2

7) Which one of the following is not true concerning automotive air bags? A) They are inflated as a result of a decomposition reaction. B) They are loaded with sodium azide initially. C) The gas used for inflating them is oxygen. D) The two products of the decomposition reaction are sodium and nitrogen. E) A gas is produced when the air bag activates. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 2

8) The reaction used to inflate automobile airbags ________. A) produces sodium gas B) is a combustion reaction C) is a combination reaction D) violates the law of conservation of mass E) is a decomposition reaction Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 9) Which of the following are combination reactions? 1) CH4 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) 2) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) 3) Mg (s) + O2(g) → MgO (s) 4) PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g) A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 4 only E) 2, 3, and 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 10) Which of the following are combustion reactions? 1) CH4 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) 2) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) 3) PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g) 4) CH3OH (l) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) A) 1 and 4 B) 1, 2, 3, and 4 C) 1, 3, and 4 D) 2, 3, and 4 E) 3 and 4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2

11) Which of the following are decomposition reactions? 1) CH4 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) 2) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) 3) Mg (s) + O2(g) → MgO (s) 4) PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g) A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 4 only C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 2 and 3 E) 2, 3, and 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 12) The formula of nitrobenzene is C6H5NO2. The molecular weight of this compound is ________ amu. A) 107.11 B) 43.03 C) 109.10 D) 123.11 E) 3.06 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 13) The formula weight of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) is ________ amu. A) 107.09 B) 255.08 C) 242.18 D) 294.18 E) 333.08 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

14) The formula weight of silver chromate (Ag2CrO4) is ________ amu. A) 159.87 B) 223.87 C) 331.73 D) 339.86 E) 175.87 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 15) The formula weight of ammonium sulfate ((NH4)2SO4), rounded to the nearest integer, is ________ amu. A) 100 B) 118 C) 116 D) 132 E) 264 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 16) The molecular weight of the acetic acid (CH3CO2H), rounded to the nearest integer, is ________ amu. A) 60 B) 48 C) 44 D) 32 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 17) The formula weight of a substance is ________. A) identical to the molar mass B) the same as the percent by mass weight C) determined by combustion analysis D) the sum of the atomic weights of each atom in its chemical formula E) the weight of a sample of the substance Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G2

18) The formula weight of calcium nitrate (Ca(NO3)2), rounded to one decimal place, is ________ amu. A) 102.1 B) 164.0 C) 204.2 D) 150.1 E) 116.1 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 19) What is the formula weight of magnesium fluoride (MgF2)? A) 86.6 B) 43.3 C) 62.3 D) 67.6 E) 92.9 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 20) What is the formula weight of lead iodide (PbI2)? A) 334.1 B) 168.7 C) 295.6 D) 461.0 E) 668.2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 21) The mass % of C in methane (CH4) is ________. A) 25.13 B) 133.6 C) 74.87 D) 92.26 E) 7.743 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

22) The mass % of H in methane (CH4) is ________. A) 25.13 B) 4.032 C) 74.87 D) 92.26 E) 7.743 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 23) The mass % of F in the binary compound KrF2 is ________. A) 18.48 B) 45.38 C) 68.80 D) 81.52 E) 31.20 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 24) Calculate the percentage by mass of nitrogen in PtCl2(NH3)2. A) 4.67 B) 9.34 C) 9.90 D) 4.95 E) 12.67 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 25) Calculate the percentage by mass of lead in Pb(NO3)2. A) 38.6 B) 44.5 C) 62.6 D) 65.3 E) 71.2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

26) Calculate the percentage by mass of carbon in CO2. A) 27.29 B) 75.10 C) 73.05 D) 72.71 E) 37.53 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 27) Calculate the percentage by mass of oxygen in Pb(NO3)2. A) 9.7 B) 14.5 C) 19.3 D) 29.0 E) 33.4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 28) Calculate the percentage by mass of ammonia in cisplatin, PtCl2(NH3)2. A) 5.68 B) 11.35 C) 4.67 D) 12.53 E) 18.09 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 29) Calculate the percentage by mass of hydrogen in PtCl2(NH3)2. A) 1.558 B) 1.008 C) 0.672 D) 0.034 E) 2.016 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

30) Which of the following contains the largest number of atoms in mole? A) S8 B) C4H10 C) Al2(SO4)3 D) Na3PO4 E) Cl2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 31) One mole of ________ contains the smallest number of atoms. A) S8 B) C10H8 C) Al2(SO4)3 D) Na3PO4 E) NaCl Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 32) One million argon atoms is ________ mol (rounded to two significant figures) of argon atoms. A) 3.0 B) 1.7 × 10-18 C) 6.0 × 1023 D) 1.0 × 10-6 E) 1.0 × 10+6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 33) How many molecules of CH4 are in 48.2 g of this compound? A) 5.00 × 10-24 B) 2.00 × 1023 C) 4.64 × 1026 D) 1.81 × 1024 E) 4.00 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 9

34) A 30.5 gram sample of glucose (C6H12O6) contains ________ mol of glucose. A) 0.424 B) 0.169 C) 5.90 D) 2.36 E) 0.136 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 35) A sample of CH2F2 with a mass of 19 g contains ________ atoms of F. A) 2.2 × 1023 B) 38 C) 3.3 × 1024 D) 4.4 × 1023 E) 9.5 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 36) A sample of CH4O with a mass of 32.0 g contains ________ molecules of CH4O. A) 5.32 × 10-23 B) 1.00 C) 1.88 × 1022 D) 6.02 × 1023 E) 32.0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 37) How many atoms of nitrogen are in 10 g of NH4NO3? A) 3.5 B) 1.5 × 1023 C) 3.0 × 1023 D) 1.8 E) 2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4

38) Gaseous neon has a density of 0.900 g/L at standard conditions. How many neon atoms are in 1.00 L of neon gas at standard conditions? A) 5.42 × 1023 B) 1.35 × 1025 C) 7.41 × 10-26 D) 2.69 × 1022 E) 6.02 × 1023 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 39) How many oxygen atoms are contained in 2.74 g of Al2(SO4)3? A) 12 B) 6.02 × 1023 C) 7.22 × 1024 D) 5.79 × 1022 E) 8.01 × 10-3 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 40) What is the total number of atoms in 0.139 mol of Fe(OH2)63+? A) 19.0 B) 1.59 × 1024 C) 8.37 × 1022 D) 2.64 E) 1.84 × 1024 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 41) How many sulfur dioxide molecules are there in 1.80 mol of sulfur dioxide? A) 1.08 × 1023 B) 6.02 × 1024 C) 1.80 × 1024 D) 1.08 × 1024 E) 6.02 × 1023 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 11

42) How many sulfur dioxide molecules are there in 0.180 mol of sulfur dioxide? A) 1.80 × 1023 B) 6.02 × 1024 C) 6.02 × 1023 D) 1.08 × 1024 E) 1.08 × 1023 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 43) How many carbon atoms are there in 52.06 g of carbon dioxide? A) 5.206 × 1024 B) 3.134 × 1025 C) 7.122 × 1023 D) 8.648 × 10-23 E) 1.424 × 1024 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 44) How many oxygen atoms are there in 52.06 g of carbon dioxide? A) 1.424 × 1024 B) 6.022 × 1023 C) 7.122 × 1023 D) 5.088 × 1023 E) 1.018 × 1024 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 45) How many moles of sodium carbonate contain 1.773 × 1017 carbon atoms? A) 5.890 × 10-7 B) 2.945 × 10-7 C) 1.473 × 10-7 D) 8.836 × 10-7 E) 9.817 × 10-8 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 12

46) How many grams of sodium carbonate contain 1.773 × 1017 carbon atoms? A) 3.121 × 10-5 B) 1.011 × 10-5 C) 1.517 × 10-5 D) 9.100 × 10-5 E) 6.066 × 10-5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 47) The compound responsible for the characteristic smell of garlic is allicin, C6H10OS2. What is the mass (g) of 1.00 mol of allicin? A) 34 B) 162 C) 86 D) 61 E) 19 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G7 48) The molecular formula of aspartame, the generic name of NutraSweet®, is C14H18N2O5. What is the mass (g) of 1.00 mol of aspartame? A) 24 B) 156 C) 294 D) 43 E) 39 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G7

49) There are ________ oxygen atoms in 30 molecules of C20H42S3O2. A) 6.0 × 1023 B) 1.8 × 1025 C) 3.6 × 1025 D) 1.2 × 1024 E) 60 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 50) A nitrogen oxide is 63.65% by mass nitrogen. The molecular formula could be ________. A) NO B) NO2 C) N2O D) N2O4 E) either NO2 or N2O4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G2 51) A sulfur oxide is 50.0% by mass sulfur. This molecular formula could be ________. A) SO B) SO2 C) S2O D) S2O4 E) either SO2 or S2O4 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G2 52) Which hydrocarbon pair below has identical mass percentage of C? A) C3H4 and C3H6 B) C2H4 and C3H4 C) C2H4 and C4H2 D) C2H4 and C3H6 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G2

53) Propane (C3H8) reacts with oxygen in the air to produce carbon dioxide and water. In a particular experiment, 38.0 grams of carbon dioxide are produced from the reaction of 22.05 grams of propane with excess oxygen. What is the % yield in this reaction? A) 38.0 B) 57.6 C) 66.0 D) 86.4 E) 94.5 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 3.2 Bimodal Questions 1) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficients are ________. NH3 (g) + O2 (g) → NO2 (g) + H2O (g) A) 1, 1, 1, 1 B) 4, 7, 4, 6 C) 2, 3, 2, 3 D) 1, 3, 1, 2 E) 4, 3, 4, 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

2) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficients are ________. Al(NO3)3 + Na2S → Al2S3 + NaNO3 A) 2, 3, 1, 6 B) 2, 1, 3, 2 C) 1, 1, 1, 1 D) 4, 6, 3, 2 E) 2, 3, 2, 3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

3) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H2 is ________. K (s) + H2O (l) → KOH (aq) + H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

4) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of Al is ________. Al (s) + H2O (l) → Al(OH (s) + H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

5) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H2O is ________. Ca (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

6) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of Al2O3 is ________. Al2O3 (s) + C (s) + Cl2 (g) → AlCl3 (s) + CO (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

7) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H2S is ________. FeCl3 (aq) + H2S (g) → Fe2S3 (s) + HCl (aq) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

8) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of HCl is ________. CaCO3 (s) + HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

9) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of HNO3 is ________. HNO3 (aq) + CaCO3 (s) → Ca(NO3)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

10) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H3PO4 is ________. H3PO4 (aq) + NaOH (aq) → Na3PO4 (aq) + H2O (l) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

11) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of C3H8O3 is ________. C3H8O3 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 7 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

12) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of O2 is ________. C2H4O (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (g) A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

13) Balance the following reaction and determine the coefficient of H2O. CO (g) + H2 (g) → H2O (g) + CH4 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

14) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H2SO4 is ________. H2SO4 (aq) + NaOH (aq) → Na2SO4 (aq) + H2O (l) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0.5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

15) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of water is ________. K (s) + H2O (l) → KOH (aq) + H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

16) Balance the following reaction and determine the coefficient of potassium hydroxide. K (s) + H2O (l) → KOH (aq) + H2 (g) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

17) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of oxygen is ________. PbS (s) + O2 (g) → PbO (s) + SO2 (g) A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

18) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of sulfur dioxide is ________. PbS (s) + O2 (g) → PbO (s) + SO2 (g) A) 5 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 E) 4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

19) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of dinitrogen pentoxide is ________. N2O5 (g) + H2O (l) → HNO3 (aq) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

20) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of water is ________. N2O5 (g) + H2O (l) → HNO3 (aq) A) 5 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 1 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

21) Balance the following reaction and determine the coefficient of nitric acid. N2O5 (g) + H2O (l) → HNO3 (aq) A) 5 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 1 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

22) Write the balanced equation for the reaction that occurs when methanol, CH3OH (l), is burned in air. What is the coefficient of methanol in the balanced equation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 3/2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2 23) Write the balanced equation for the reaction that occurs when butane undergoes combustion. What is the coefficient of oxygen in the balanced equation? A) 10 B) 8 C) 13 D) 4 E) 13/2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2

24) What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is completed and balanced? C4H8O2 + O2 → ________ A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 E) 1 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 3.2 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.2

25) Predict the product in the combination reaction below. Al (s) + N2 (g) → ________ A) AlN B) Al3N C) AlN2 D) Al3N2 E) AlN3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 3.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.2

26) The balanced equation for the decomposition of sodium azide is ________. A) 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 3N2 (g) B) 2NaN3 (s) → Na2 (s) + 3N2 (g) C) NaN3 (s) → Na (s) + N2 (g) D) NaN3 (s) → Na (s) + N2 (g) + N (g) E) 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 2N2 (g) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G2

27) There are ________ mol of carbon atoms in 4 mol of C4H8O2. A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 20 E) 32 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 28) There are ________ sulfur atoms in 25 molecules of C4H4S2. A) 1.5 × 1025 B) 4.8 × 1025 C) 3.0 × 1025 D) 50 E) 6.02 × 1023 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 29) There are ________ hydrogen atoms in 25 molecules of C4H4S2. A) 25 B) 3.8 × 1024 C) 6.0 × 1025 D) 100 E) 1.5 × 1025 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 30) A sample of C3H8O that contains 200 molecules contains ________ carbon atoms. A) 600 B) 200 C) 3.61 × 1026 D) 1.20 × 1026 E) 4.01 × 1025 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4

31) How many moles of carbon monoxide are there in 36.55 g of carbon monoxide? A) 1.023 B) 1.305 C) 0.8307 D) 0.7761 E) 1023 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 32) How many moles of carbon dioxide are there in 52.06 g of carbon dioxide? A) 0.8452 B) 1.183 C) 6.022 × 1023 D) 8.648 × 1023 E) 3.134 × 1025 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 33) There are ________ molecules of methane in 0.123 mol of methane (CH4). A) 5 B) 2.46 × 10-2 C) 2.04 × 10-25 D) 7.40 × 1022 E) 0.615 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 34) What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 27.0% S, 13.4% O, and 59.6% Cl by mass? A) SOCl B) SOCl2 C) S2OCl D) SO2Cl E) ClSO4 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4

35) What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 29% Na, 41% S, and 30% O by mass? A) Na2S2O3 B) NaSO2 C) NaSO D) NaSO3 E) Na2S2O6 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 36) What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 49.4% K, 20.3% S, and 30.3% O by mass? A) KSO2 B) KSO3 C) K2SO4 D) K2SO3 E) KSO4 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 37) A compound contains 40.0% C, 6.71% H, and 53.29% O by mass. The molecular weight of the compound is 60.05 amu. The molecular formula of this compound is ________. A) C2H4O2 B) CH2O C) C2H3O4 D) C2H2O4 E) CHO2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4

38) A compound that is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen contains 70.6% C, 5.9% H, and 23.5% O by mass. The molecular weight of the compound is 136 amu. What is the molecular formula? A) C8H8O2 B) C8H4O C) C4H4O D) C9H12O E) C5H6O2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 39) A compound that is composed of only carbon and hydrogen contains 85.7% C and 14.3% H by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) CH2 B) C2H4 C) CH4 D) C4H8 E) C86H14 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 40) A compound that is composed of only carbon and hydrogen contains 80.0% C and 20.0% H by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C20H60 B) C7H20 C) CH3 D) C2H6 E) CH4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4

41) A compound contains 38.7% K, 13.9% N, and 47.4% O by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) KNO3 B) K2N2O3 C) KNO2 D) K2NO3 E) K4NO5 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 42) A 1.038 g sample of unknown containing C, H, and O yielded 2.48 g of CO2 and 0.510 g of H2O during combustion analysis. Determine the empirical formula of the compound. A) C3H3O B) C6H6O C) CH3O D) C6H6O2 E) C2H6O2 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 43) Combustion of a 1.031-g sample of a compound containing only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced of CO2 and of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C3H8O B) C3H5O C) C12H16O5 D) C3H9O3 E) C3H6O3 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4

44) Combustion of a 0.9827-g sample of a compound containing only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 1.900 g of CO2 and 1.070 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C2H5O B) C5H7O3 C) C4H11O2 D) C4H10O E) C2H5O2 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 45) The combustion of ammonia in the presence of excess oxygen yields NO2 and H2O: 4 NH3 (g) + 7 O2 (g) → 4 NO2 (g) + 6 H2O (g) The combustion of 43.9 g of ammonia produces ________ g of NO2. A) 2.58 B) 178 C) 119 D) 0.954 E) 43.9 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 46) The combustion of propane (C3H8) in the presence of excess oxygen yields CO2 and H2O: C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g) When 2.5 mol of O2 are consumed in their reaction, ________ mol of CO2 are produced. A) 1.5 B) 3.0 C) 4.2 D) 7.5 E) 2.5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

47) Calcium carbide (CaC2) reacts with water to produce acetylene (C2H2): CaC2 (s) + 2H2O (g) → Ca(OH)2 (s) + C2H2 (g) Production of 13 g of C2H2 requires consumption of ________ g of H2O. A) 4.5 B) 9.0 C) 18 D) 4.8 × 102 E) 4.8 × 10-2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 48) Calcium carbide (CaC2) reacts with water to produce acetylene (C2H2) as shown in the unbalanced reaction below: CaC2 (s) + H2O (g) → Ca(OH)2 (s) + C2H2 (g) How many grams of H2O are required to completely react with 82.4 g of CaC2. A) 1.29 B) 11.6 C) 46.3 D) 23.2 E) 18.0 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 49) Under appropriate conditions, nitrogen and hydrogen undergo a combination reaction to yield ammonia. Write the reaction and determine the mass of H2 (g) required to completely react with 25.8 g of N2. A) 5.57 B) 1.86 C) 77.4 D) 2.78 E) 0.928 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.6

50) Under appropriate conditions, nitrogen and hydrogen undergo a combination reaction to yield ammonia: N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) Determine the mass of N2 (g) required to completely react with 18.5 g of H2. A) 0.51 B) 771 C) 257 D) 85.7 E) 6.17 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 51) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g) How many grams of lead (II) oxide will be produced by the decomposition of 2.50 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 0.41 B) 2.50 C) 0.00936 D) 2.09 E) 2.61 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 52) The combustion of propane (C3H8) produces CO2 and H2O: C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g) The reaction of 2.5 mol of O2 with 4.6 mol of C3H8 will produce ________ mol of H2O. A) 4.0 B) 1.25 C) 2.5 D) 2.0 E) 18.4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 31

53) GeF3H is formed from GeH4 and GeF4 in the combination reaction: GeH4 + 3GeF4 → 4GeF3H If the reaction yield is 89.1%, how many moles of GeH4 are needed to produce 3.50 mol of GeF3H? A) 15.7 B) 3.93 C) 0.982 D) 0.875 E) 2.95 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 54) Under appropriate conditions, nitrogen and hydrogen undergo a combination reaction to yield ammonia: N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) If the reaction yield is 81.4 %, how many moles of N2 are needed to produce 8.50 mol of NH3? A) 20.9 B) 10.4 C) 5.22 D) 6.92 E) 15.7 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4

55) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g) If the reaction yield is 92.4%, how many grams of lead (II) oxide will be produced by the decomposition of 1.30 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 1.00 B) 1.18 C) 1.20 D) 1.09 E) 1.41 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 56) The combustion of ammonia in the presence of oxygen yields NO2 and H2O: 4 NH3 (g) + 7 O2 (g) → 4 NO2 (g) + 6 H2O (g) The combustion of 43.9 g of ammonia with 258 g of oxygen produces ________ g of NO2. A) 212 B) 178 C) 119 D) 0.954 E) 43.9 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 57) What mass in grams of hydrogen is produced by the reaction of 31.3 g of magnesium with 2.12 g of water? Mg (s) + 2H2O (l) → Mg(OH)2 (s) + H2 (g) A) 0.119 B) 0.237 C) 0.474 D) 0.0593 E) 2.71 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.6

58) If the reaction yield is 88.2%, what mass in grams of hydrogen is produced by the reaction of 7.73 g of magnesium with 1.31 g of water? Mg (s) + 2H2O (l) → Mg(OH)2 (s) + H2 (g) A) 0.0646 B) 0.0323 C) 0.0733 D) 0.147 E) 0.641 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 3.8 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.7

59) Silver nitrate and aluminum chloride react with each other by exchanging anions: 3AgNO3 (aq) + AlCl3 (aq) → Al(NO3)3 (aq) + 3AgCl (s) What mass in grams of AgCl is produced when 4.22 g of AgNO3 react with 7.73 g of AlCl3? A) 2.76 B) 28.5 C) 24.9 D) 3.56 E) 11.9 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 60) How many moles of magnesium oxide are produced by the reaction of 1.82 g of magnesium nitride with of water? Mg3N2 + 3H2O → 2NH3 + 3MgO A) 0.0180 B) 0.0541 C) 0.00601 D) 0.984 E) 3.00 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.6

61) A 3.82-g sample of magnesium nitride is reacted with 7.73 g of water: Mg3N2 + 3H2O → 2NH3 + 3MgO The yield of MgO is 3.60 g. What is the percent yield in the reaction? A) 94.5 B) 78.7 C) 46.6 D) 49.4 E) 20.8 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 62) Pentacarbonyliron (Fe(CO)5) reacts with phosphorous trifluoride (PF3) and hydrogen, releasing carbon monoxide: Fe(CO)5 + PF3 + H2 → Fe(CO)2(PF3)2(H)2 + CO (not balanced) The reaction of 9.0 mol of Fe(CO)5, 11.0 mol of PF3 and 3.0 mol of H2 will release ________ mol of CO. A) 9 B) 3 C) 27 D) 16.5 E) 23 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 63) What is the maximum mass in grams of NH3 that can be produced by the reaction of N2 with of H2 via the equation below? N2 (g) + H2 (g) → NH3 (g) (not balanced) A) 2.0 B) 1.2 C) 0.61 D) 17 E) 4.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.6

64) What is the maximum number of moles of SO3 that can be produced by the reaction of 2.0 mol of S with of O2? A) 2/3 B) 1.0 C) 5.0 D) 3.0 E) 2.0 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.6

65) Solid aluminum and gaseous oxygen react in a combination reaction to produce aluminum oxide: 4Al (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Al2O3 (s) The maximum amount of Al2O3 that can be produced from 5.0 g of Al and 5.0 g of O2 is ________ g. A) 19 B) 4.7 C) 9.4 D) 11 E) 2.5 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 66) Sulfur and fluorine react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur hexafluoride: S (s) + 3F2(g) → SF6 (g) The maximum amount of SF6 that can be produced from the reaction of 32.1 g of sulfur with of fluorine is ________ g. A) 584 B) 438 C) 146 D) 48.7 E) 219 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 36

67) Solid aluminum and gaseous oxygen react in a combination reaction to produce aluminum oxide: 4Al (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Al2O3 (s) In a particular experiment, the reaction of 2.5 g of Al with 2.5 g of O2 produced 3.5 g of Al2O3. The % yield of the reaction is ________. A) 74 B) 37 C) 47 D) 66 E) 29 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 68) Sulfur and oxygen react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur trioxide, an environmental pollutant: 2S (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) In a particular experiment, the reaction of 1.0 g S with 1.0 g O2 produced 0.80 g of SO3. The % yield in this experiment is ________. A) 32 B) 80 C) 21 D) 64 E) 47 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4

69) Sulfur and fluorine react in a combination reaction to produce sulfur hexafluoride: S (s) + 3F2 (g) → SF6 (g) In a particular experiment, the percent yield is 83.1%. This means that in this experiment, a 4.50 g sample of fluorine yields ________ g of SF6 . A) 9.58 B) 3.74 C) 4.79 D) 43.1 E) 14.4 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 3.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficients are ________. + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 4, 50, 16, 18 B) 1, 5, 2, 2 C) 2, 2, 7, 1 D) 1, 13, 8, 9 E) 2, 25, 16, 18 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 4 LO: 3.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 3.1

2) The formula weight of PbCO3 is ________ amu. A) 279.2 B) 112.0 C) 118.0 D) 267.2 E) 235.2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

3) The formula weight of Zn(ClO4)2 is ________ amu. A) 164.7 B) 327.9 C) 228.6 D) 264.3 E) 116.7 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 4) The formula weight of LiClO4 is ________ amu. A) 212.3 B) 101.0 C) 52.0 D) 106.3 E) 58.3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 5) The molecular weight of 2-propanol ( C3H7OH ), known as rubbing alcohol, is ________ amu (rounded to one decimal place). A) 59.1 B) 29.0 C) 60.1 D) 12.0 E) 34.0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 6) The molecular weight of ethanol (C2H5OH), rounded to one decimal place, is ________ amu. A) 45.1 B) 34.1 C) 29.1 D) 46.1 E) 29.0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

7) The molecular weight of maltose ( C12H22O11 ), rounded to one decimal place, is ________ amu. A) 507.2 B) 182.0 C) 45.0 D) 342.3 E) 29.0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 8) What is the mass percent of C in carbonic acid (H2CO3). Answer: 19.36 Diff: 2 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 9) What is the mass % of carbon in dimethylsulfoxide (C2H6SO) rounded to three significant figures? A) 15.4 B) 19.7 C) 30.7 D) 7.74 E) 20.5 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 10) What is the mass % of oxygen in methanol? A) 16.0 B) 12.0 C) 50.0 D) 4.00 E) 32.0 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4

11) What is the mass % of aluminum in aluminum sulfate (Al2(SO4)3) rounded to three significant figures? A) 7.90 B) 35.7 C) 15.8 D) 19.4 E) 342.2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 12) What is the mass % of oxygen in lead (II) nitrate (Pb(NO3)2) rounded to three significant figures? A) 4.83 B) 19.3 C) 29.0 D) 14.5 E) 0.331 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 3.3 LO: 3.3 GO: G4 13) There are ________ mol of carbon atoms in 5 mol of dimethylsulfoxide (C2H6SO). A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12 E) 50 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 14) 1 mole of which of the following will contain the largest number of atoms? A) sodium B) magnesium C) mercury D) neon E) 1 mole of any element will contain the same number of atoms. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4

15) 1 mole of which of the following will have the largest mass? A) rubidium B) magnesium C) gold D) neon E) 1 mole of any element will contain the same mass. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 16) How many grams of hydrogen are in 46 g of CH4O? A) 5.8 B) 1.5 C) 2.8 D) 0.36 E) 180 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 17) There are ________ atoms of oxygen in 300 molecules of CH3CO2H. A) 300 B) 600 C) 150 D) 3.6 × 1026 E) 1.0 × 10-22 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 18) How many grams of oxygen are in 56 g of C2H2O2? A) 11 B) 58 C) 15 D) 31 E) 33 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4

19) How many atoms of carbon are in 23.1 g of glucose (C6H12O6)? A) 7.72 × 1022 B) 4.63 × 1023 C) 1.29 × 1022 D) 6.00 E) 138.6 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 20) A 1.36-g sample of magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2, contains ________ mol of this compound. A) 109 B) 2.02 C) 0.0157 D) 0.0182 E) 0.00917 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 21) A 22.5-g sample of ammonium carbonate contains ________ mol of ammonium ions. A) 0.467 B) 0.288 C) 0.234 D) 2.14 E) 3.47 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 22) What is the mass in grams of 9.76 × 1012 atoms of naturally occurring potassium? A) 2.41 × 1012 B) 2.50 × 1011 C) 6.34 × 10-10 D) 1.62 × 10-11 E) 3.82 × 1014 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 43

23) What is the mass in grams of 2.00 × 105 atoms of naturally occurring neon? A) 6.08 × 1019 B) 2.43 × 1030 C) 6.70 × 10-18 D) 1.65 × 10-20 E) 3.32 × 10-24 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.5 GO: G4 24) How many moles of pyridine (C5H5N) are contained in 4.14 g of pyridine? A) 0.0523 B) 327 C) 6.88 × 10-24 D) 2.49 ×1024 E) 79.1 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 25) How many moles of lithium phosphate (Li3PO4) are contained in 66.6 g of lithium phosphate? A) 0.575 B) 7710 C) 1.11 × 10-22 D) 4.01 × 1025 E) 116 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 26) How many grams of calcium cyanide (Ca(CN)2) are contained in 0.69 mol of calcium cyanide? A) 64 B) 0.0075 C) 1.2 × 10-24 D) 4.2 × 1023 E) 92 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 44

27) How many grams of phenol (C6H5OH) are contained in 5.50 mol of phenol? A) 518 B) 0.0584 C) 9.14 × 10-24 D) 3.31 × 1024 E) 94.1 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G4 28) What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 66.6% C, 11.2% H, and 22.2% O by mass? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 29) A certain alcohol contains only three elements, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Combustion of a 60.00 gram sample of the alcohol produced 114.6 grams of CO2 and 70.44 grams of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the alcohol? Answer: C2H6O Diff: 4 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 30) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g) → 2Li3N (s) How many moles of N2 are needed to react with 0.550 mol of lithium? A) 3.30 B) 0.550 C) 0.183 D) 1.65 E) 0.0917 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 45

31) The combustion of propane (C3H8) produces CO2 and H2O: C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g) The reaction of 2.5 mol of O2 will produce ________ mol of H2O. A) 4.0 B) 3.0 C) 2.5 D) 2.0 E) 1.0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 32) Magnesium and nitrogen react in a combination reaction to produce magnesium nitride: 3 Mg + N2 → Mg3N2 In a particular experiment, a 8.33-g sample of is ________ g. A) 7.23 B) 21.7 C) 28.9 D) 0.92 E) 13.9 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

reacts completely. The mass of Mg consumed

33) The combustion of ammonia in the presence of excess oxygen yields NO2 and H2O: 4 NH3 (g) + 7 O2 (g) → 4 NO2 (g) + 6 H2O (g) The combustion of 14.4 g of ammonia consumes ________ g of oxygen. A) 13.5 B) 28.8 C) 54.1 D) 47.3 E) 94.6 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 46

34) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g) → 2Li3N (s) How many moles of lithium nitride are produced when 0.330 mol of lithium react in this fashion? A) 0.110 B) 0.660 C) 0.0550 D) 0.990 E) 0.165 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 35) Lithium and nitrogen react in a combination reaction to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g) → 2Li3N (s) How many moles of lithium are needed to produce 0.45 mol of Li3N when the reaction is carried out in the presence of excess nitrogen? A) 0.23 B) 1.4 C) 0.15 D) 0.30 E) 2.7 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

36) Automotive air bags inflate when sodium azide decomposes explosively to its constituent elements: 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 3N2 (g) How many moles of N2 are produced by the decomposition of 1.75 mol of sodium azide? A) 1.17 B) 5.25 C) 2.63 D) 0.583 E) 0.875 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 37) Automotive air bags inflate when sodium azide decomposes explosively to its constituent elements: 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 3N2 (g) How many grams of sodium azide are required to produce 28.0 g of nitrogen? A) 1.50 B) 0.666 C) 65.0 D) 43.3 E) 97.5 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 38) Magnesium burns in air with a dazzling brilliance to produce magnesium oxide: 2Mg (s) + O2(g) → 2MgO (s) How many moles of O2 are consumed when 3.55 mol of magnesium burns? A) 0.146 B) 0.563 C) 3.55 D) 7.10 E) 1.78 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 48

39) Calcium carbide (CaC2) reacts with water to produce acetylene (C2H2): CaC2 (s) + 2H2O (g) → Ca(OH)2 (s) + C2H2 (g) Production of 6.5 g of C2H2 requires consumption of ________ g of H2O. A) 2.3 B) 4.5 C) 9.0 D) 480 E) 0.048 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 40) Lead (II) carbonate decomposes to give lead (II) oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO3 (s) → PbO (s) + CO2 (g) ________ grams of lead (II) oxide will be produced by the decomposition of 8.75 g of lead (II) carbonate? A) 10.5 B) 2.50 C) 0.033 D) 7.31 E) 8.75 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 41) Lithium and nitrogen react in a combination reaction to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s) + N2 (g) → 2Li3N (s) In a particular experiment, 2.50-g samples of each reagent are reacted. The theoretical yield of lithium nitride is ________ g. A) 2.51 B) 2.09 C) 12.5 D) 4.18 E) 6.2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 49

42) Magnesium burns in air with a dazzling brilliance to produce magnesium oxide: 2Mg (s) + O2 (g) → 2MgO (s) When 5.50 g of magnesium burns, the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide is ________ g. A) 5.50 B) 9.12 C) 0.226 D) 4.56 E) 18.2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 43) Calcium oxide reacts with water in a combination reaction to produce calcium hydroxide: CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (s) A 3.50 g sample of CaO is reacted with 3.38 g of H2O. How many grams of water remain after completion of reaction? A) 0.00 B) 0.00694 C) 2.25 D) 1.04 E) 0.125 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 44) If 588 grams of FeS2 is allowed to react with 352 grams of O2 according to the following unbalanced equation, how many grams of Fe2O3 are produced? FeS2 + O2 → Fe2O3 + SO2 Answer: 320 Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

45) Calcium oxide reacts with water in a combination reaction to produce calcium hydroxide: CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (s) In a particular experiment, a 2.00-g sample of CaO is reacted with excess water and 2.14 g of Ca(OH)2 is recovered. What is the percent yield in this experiment? A) 107 B) 1.07 C) 2.88 D) 81.1 E) 93.3 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G4 46) Sulfur and oxygen react to produce sulfur trioxide. In a particular experiment, 7.9 grams of SO3 are produced by the reaction of 6.0 grams of O2 with 7.0 grams of S. What is the % yield of SO3 in this experiment? S (s) + O2 (g) → SO3 (g) (not balanced) A) 45 B) 53 C) 22.5 D) 79 E) 35 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 5 LO: 3.8 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 3.7

3.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Complete and balance the following reaction, given that elemental sodium reacts with elemental oxygen to form Na2O (s). K (s) + S (s) → ________ Answer: K2S (s) Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.2 LO: 3.2 GO: G4 2) A compound was found to contain 90.6% lead (Pb) and 9.4% oxygen. The empirical formula for this compound is ________. Answer: Pb3O4 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G4 3) The combustion of propane (C3H8) in the presence of excess oxygen yields CO2 and H2O: C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g) How many grams of CO2 is produced when 12.5 g of C3H8 burns in open air? Answer: 37.4 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 4) Under appropriate conditions, nitrogen and hydrogen undergo a combination reaction to yield ammonia. A 18.2 g sample of hydrogen requires ________ g of N2 for a complete reaction. Answer: 84.3 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 5) Water can be formed from the stoichiometric reaction of hydrogen with oxygen. How many grams of H2O is generated when 45.3 g of O2 reacts with excess hydrogen? Answer: 51.0 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4

6) The combustion of carbon disulfide in the presence of excess oxygen yields carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide. The combustion of 10 mol of CS2 in the presence of excess oxygen yields ________ mol of SO2. Answer: 20 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G4 3.5 True/False Questions 1) The mass of a single atom of an element (in amu) is numerically equal to the mass in grams of that element. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.4 LO: 3.4 GO: G2 2) The empirical weight is always a whole-number multiple of the molecular formula weight. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.5 LO: 3.6 GO: G2 3) A great deal of oxygen is produced during combustion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.6 LO: 3.7 GO: G7 4) The quantity of product that is calculated to form when all of the limiting reagent reacts is called the percent yield. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 3.7 LO: 3.8 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 4 Reactions in Aqueous Solution 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Of the species below, only ________ is not an electrolyte. A) HCl B) Rb2SO4 C) Ar D) KOH E) NaCl Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1, 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 2) The balanced molecular equation for complete neutralization of H2SO4 by KOH in aqueous solution is ________. A) 2H+ (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) B) 2H+ (aq) + 2KOH (aq) → 2H2O (l) + 2K+ (aq) C) H2SO4 (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + SO42- (aq) D) H2SO4 (aq) + 2KOH (aq) → 2H2O (l) + K2SO4 (s) E) H2SO4 (aq) + 2KOH (aq) → 2H2O (l) + K2SO4 (aq) Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1, 4.2 GO: G2 3) Aqueous potassium chloride will react with which one of the following in an exchange (metathesis) reaction? A) calcium nitrate B) sodium bromide C) lead nitrate D) barium nitrate E) sodium chloride Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

4) Aqueous solutions of a compound did not form precipitates with Cl-, Br-, I-, SO42-, CO32-, PO43-, OH-, or S2-. This highly water-soluble compound produced the foul-smelling gas H2S when the solution was acidified. This compound is ________. A) Pb(NO3)2 B) (NH4)2S C) KBr D) Li2CO3 E) AgNO3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 5) The net ionic equation for formation of an aqueous solution of NiI2 accompanied by evolution of CO2 gas via mixing solid NiCO3 and aqueous hydriodic acid is ________. A) 2NiCO3 (s) + HI (aq) → 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g) + 2Ni2+ (aq) B) NiCO3 (s) + I- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g) + Ni2+ (aq) + HI (aq) C) NiCO3 (s) + 2H+ (aq) → H2O (l) + CO2 (g) + Ni2+ (aq) D) NiCO3 (s) + 2HI (aq) → 2H2O (l) + CO2 (g) + NiI2 (aq) E) NiCO3 (s) + 2HI (aq) → H2O (l) + CO2 (g) + Ni2+ (aq) + 2I- (aq) Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 6) The net ionic equation for formation of an aqueous solution of Al(NO3)3 via mixing solid Al(OH)3 and aqueous nitric acid is ________. A) Al(OH)3 (s) + 3HNO3 (aq) → 3H2O (l) + Al(NO3)3 (aq) B) Al(OH)3 (s) + 3NO3- (aq) → 3OH- (aq) + Al(NO3)3 (aq) C) Al(OH)3 (s) + 3NO3- (aq) → 3OH- (aq) + Al(NO3)3 (s) D) Al(OH)3 (s) + 3H+ (aq) → 3H2O (l) + Al3+ (aq) E) Al(OH)3 (s) + 3HNO3 (aq) → 3H2O (l) + Al3+ (aq) + NO3- (aq) Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

7) Which of the following is insoluble in water at 25 °C? A) Mg3(PO4)2 B) Na2S C) (NH4)2CO3 D) Ca(OH)2 E) Ba(C2H3O2)2 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 8) When aqueous solutions of ________ are mixed, a precipitate forms. A) NiBr2 and AgNO3 B) NaI and KBr C) K2SO4 and CrCl3 D) KOH and Ba(NO3)2 E) Li2CO3 and CsI Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 9) Which one of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) Na2CO3 B) K2SO4 C) Fe(NO3)3 D) ZnS E) AgNO3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 10) Which one of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) K2SO4 B) Ca(C2H3O2)2 C) MgC2O4 D) ZnCl2 E) Mn(NO3)2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 3

11) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) NaC2H3O2 (aq) and HCl (aq) B) NaOH (aq) and HCl (aq) C) AgNO3(aq) and Ca(C2H3O2)2 (aq) D) KOH (aq) and Mg(NO3)2 (aq) E) NaF (aq) and HCl (aq) Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 12) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) NH4OH (aq) and HCl (aq) B) AgNO3 (aq) and Ca(C2H3O2)2 (aq) C) NaOH (aq) and HCl (aq) D) NaCl (aq) and HC2H3O2 (aq) E) NaOH (aq) and Fe(NO3)2 (aq) Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 13) Which combination will produce a precipitate? A) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) and HCl (aq) B) Cu(NO3)2 (aq) and KC2H3O2 (aq) C) KOH (aq) and HNO3 (aq) D) AgC2H3O2 (aq) and HC2H3O2 (aq) E) NaOH (aq) and Sr(NO3)2 (aq) Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 14) With which of the following will the ammonium ion form an insoluble salt? A) chloride B) sulfate C) carbonate D) sulfate and carbonate E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

15) The net ionic equation for the reaction between aqueous sulfuric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide is ________. A) H+ (aq) + HSO4- (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + SO42- (aq) B) H+ (aq) + HSO4- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + 2Na+ (aq) + SO42-(aq) C) SO42- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq) → 2Na+ (aq) + SO42-(aq) D) H+ (aq) + OH- (aq) → H2O( l) E) 2H+ (aq) + SO42- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + 2Na+ (aq) + SO42- (aq) Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1, 4.2 GO: G2 16) The net ionic equation for the reaction between aqueous nitric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide is ________. A) H+ (aq) + HNO3 (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + NO3- (aq) B) HNO3 (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaNO3 (aq) + H2O (l) C) H+ (aq) + OH- (aq) → H2O (l) D) HNO3 (aq) + OH- (aq) → NO3- (aq) + H2O (l) E) H+ (aq) + Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq) → H2O (l) + Na+ (aq) Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1, 4.2 GO: G2 17) The reaction between strontium hydroxide and chloric acid produces ________. A) a molecular compound and a weak electrolyte B) two weak electrolytes C) two strong electrolytes D) a molecular compound and a strong electrolyte E) two molecular compounds Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1, 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2

18) Which one of the following is a diprotic acid? A) nitric acid B) chloric acid C) phosphoric acid D) hydrofluoric acid E) sulfuric acid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 19) Which one of the following is a triprotic acid? A) nitric acid B) chloric acid C) phosphoric acid D) hydrofluoric acid E) sulfuric acid Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 20) Which one of the following is a weak acid? A) HNO3 B) HCl C) HI D) HF E) HClO4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 21) Which of the following are weak acids? A) HF, HBr B) HI, HNO3, HBr C) HI, HF D) HF E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2

22) A compound was found to be soluble in water. It was also found that addition of acid to an aqueous solution of this compound resulted in the formation of carbon dioxide. Which one of the following cations would form a precipitate when added to an aqueous solution of this compound? A) NH4+ B) K+ C) Cr3+ D) Rb+ E) Na+ Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 23) The balanced reaction between aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous acetic acid is ________. A) KOH (aq) + HC2H3O2 (aq) → OH- (l) + HC2H3O2+ (aq) + K (s) B) KOH (aq) + HC2H3O2 (aq) → H2O (l) + KC2H3O2 (aq) C) KOH (aq) + HC2H3O2 (aq) → H2C2H3O3 (aq) + K (s) D) KOH (aq) + HC2H3O2 (aq) → KC2H3O3 (aq) + H2 (g) E) KOH (aq) + HC2H3O2 (aq) → H2KC2H3O (aq) + O2 (g) Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 24) The balanced reaction between aqueous nitric acid and aqueous strontium hydroxide is ________. A) HNO3 (aq) + Sr(OH)2 (aq) → Sr(NO3)2 (aq) + H2 (g) B) HNO3 (aq) + Sr(OH)2 (aq) → H2O (l) + Sr(NO3)2 (aq) C) HNO3 (aq) + SrOH (aq) → H2O (l) + SrNO3 (aq) D) 2HNO3 (aq) + Sr(OH)2 (aq) → 2H2O (l) + Sr(NO3)2 (aq) E) 2HNO3 (aq) + Sr(OH)2 (aq) → Sr(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2 (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

25) In which reaction does the oxidation number of oxygen increase? A) Ba(NO3)2 (aq) + K2SO4 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq) B) HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) C) MgO (s) + H2O (l) → Mg(OH)2 (s) D) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) E) 2H2O (l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 26) In which reaction does the oxidation number of hydrogen change? A) HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) B) 2Na (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) C) CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (s) D) 2HClO4 (aq) + CaCO3 (s) → Ca(ClO4)2 (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g) E) SO2 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO3 (aq) Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 27) Which compound has the atom with the highest oxidation number? A) CaS B) Na3N C) MgSO3 D) Al(NO2)3 E) NH4Cl Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 28) Of the choices below, which would be the best for the lining of a tank intended for use in storage of hydrochloric acid? A) copper B) zinc C) nickel D) iron E) tin Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 8

29) Which of these metals will be oxidized by the ions of cobalt? A) nickel B) tin C) iron D) copper E) silver Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 30) Which of these metals will be oxidized by the ions of aluminum? A) magnesium B) zinc C) chromium D) iron E) nickel Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 31) One method for removal of metal ions from a solution is to convert the metal to its elemental form so it can be filtered out as a solid. Which metal can be used to remove aluminum ions from solution? A) zinc B) cobalt C) lead D) copper E) none of these Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 32) Which of the following reactions is not spontaneous? A) Cu (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CuCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) B) Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2(g) C) 2Ni (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → Ni2SO4 (aq) + H2 (g) D) 2Al (s) + 6HBr (aq) → 2AlBr3 (aq) + 3H2 (g) E) Zn (s) + 2HI (aq) → ZnI2(aq) + H2 (g) Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 9

33) Based on the activity series, which one of the reactions below will occur? A) Zn (s) + MnI2 (aq) → ZnI2 (aq) + Mn (s) B) SnCl2 (aq) + Cu (s) → Sn (s) + CuCl2 (aq) C) 2AgNO3 (aq) + Pb (s) → 2Ag (s) + Pb(NO3)2 (aq) D) 3Hg (l) + 2Cr(NO3)3 (aq) → 3Hg(NO3)2 + 2Cr (s) E) 3FeBr2 (aq) + 2Au (s) → 3Fe (s) + 2AuBr3 (aq) Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 34) Based on the activity series, which one of the reactions below will occur? A) Fe (s) + ZnCl2 (aq) → FeCl2 (aq) + Zn (s) B) Mn (s) + NiCl2 (aq) → MnCl2 (aq) + Ni (s) C) Pb (s) + NiI2 (aq) → PbI2 (aq) + Ni (s) D) SnBr2 (aq) + Cu (s) → CuBr2 (aq) + Sn (s) E) None of the reactions will occur. Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 35) The net ionic equation for the dissolution of zinc metal in aqueous hydrobromic acid is ________. A) Zn (s) + 2Br- (aq) → ZnBr2 (aq) B) Zn (s) + 2HBr (aq) → ZnBr2 (aq) + 2H+ (aq) C) Zn (s) + 2HBr (aq) → ZnBr2 (s) + 2H+ (aq) D) Zn (s) + 2H+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + H2 (g) E) 2Zn (s) + H+ (aq) → 2Zn2+ (aq) + H2 (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 36) Sodium does not occur in nature as Na (s) because ________. A) it is easily reduced to NaB) it is easily oxidized to Na+ C) it reacts with water with great difficulty D) it is easily replaced by silver in its ores E) it undergoes a disproportionation reaction to Na- and Na+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 10

37) Zinc is more active than cobalt and iron but less active than aluminum. Cobalt is more active than nickel but less active than iron. Which of the following correctly lists the elements in order of increasing activity? A) Co < Ni < Fe < Zn < Al B) Ni < Fe < Co < Zn < Al C) Ni < Co < Fe < Zn < Al D) Fe < Ni < Co < Al < Zn E) Zn < Al < Co < Ni < Fe Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 38) Oxidation is the ________ and reduction is the ________. A) gain of oxygen, loss of electrons B) loss of oxygen, gain of electrons C) loss of electrons, gain of electrons D) gain of oxygen, loss of mass E) gain of electrons, loss of electrons Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 39) The process by which metal in the presence of air and water is converted into rust is known as ________. A) activity B) reduction C) corrosion D) metathesis E) decomposition Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 40) Oxidation cannot occur without ________. A) acid B) oxygen C) water D) air E) reduction Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 11

41) Which of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction? A) Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → 2Ag (s) + Cu(NO3)2 (aq) B) HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → H2O (l) + NaCl (aq) C) AgNO3 (aq) + HCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + HNO3 (aq) D) Ba(C2H3O2)2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaC2H3O2(aq) E) H2CO3 (aq) + Ca(NO3)2 (aq) → 2HNO3 (aq) + CaCO3 (s) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 42) Which of the following reactions will not occur as written? A) Zn (s) + Pb(NO3)2 (aq) → Pb (s) + Zn(NO3)2 (aq) B) Mg (s) + Ca(OH)2 (aq) → Ca (s) + Mg(OH)2 (aq) C) Sn (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → 2Ag (s) + Sn(NO3)2 (aq) D) Co (s) + 2AgCl (aq) → 2Ag (s) + CoCl2 (aq) E) Co (s) + 2HI (aq) → H2 (g) + CoI2 (aq) Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 43) Which one of the following is a correct expression for molarity? A) mol solute/L solvent B) mol solute/mL solvent C) mmol solute/mL solution D) mol solute/kg solvent E) μmol solute/L solution Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 44) All of the following are true concerning 2.00 L of 0.100 M solution of Ca3(PO4)2 except for ________. A) This solution contains 0.200 mol of Ca3(PO4)2. B) 1.00 L of this solution is required to furnish 0.300 mol of Ca2+ ions. C) There are 6.02 × 1022 phosphorus atoms in 500.0 mL of this solution. D) This solution contains 0.800 mol of oxygen atoms. E) This solution contains 0.600 mol of Ca2+. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 12

45) A 0.355 M K2SO4 solution can be prepared by ________. A) dilution of 500.0 mL of 1.00 M K2SO4 to 1.00 L B) dissolving 46.7 g of K2SO4 in water and diluting to a total volume of 250.0 mL C) dissolving 46.7 g of K2SO4 in water and diluting to 500.0 mL, then diluting 25.0 mL of this solution to a total volume of 500.0 mL D) dilution of 1.00 mL of 0.355 M K2SO4 to 1.00 L E) diluting 46.7 mL of 1.90 M K2SO4 solution to 250.0 mL Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 46) Which solution has the same number of moles of HCl as 25.0 mL of 0.200 M solution of HCl? A) 12.5 mL of 0.400 M solution of HCl B) 25.0 mL of 0.185 M solution of HCl C) 45.0 mL of 0.155 M solution of HCl D) 50.0 mL of 0.150 M solution of HCl E) 100.0 mL of 0.500 M solution of HCl Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 47) Which solution has the same number of moles of KCl as 75.00 mL of 0.250 M solution of KCl? A) 20.0 mL of 0.200 M solution of KCl B) 25.0 mL of 0.175 M solution of KCl C) 129.3 mL of 0.145 M solution of KCl D) 50.0 mL of 0.125 M solution of KCl E) 100 mL of 0.0500 M solution of KCl Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

48) What are the respective concentrations (M) of Fe3+ and I- afforded by dissolving 0.200 mol FeI3 in water and diluting to 725 mL? A) 0.276 and 0.828 B) 0.828 and 0.276 C) 0.276 and 0.276 D) 0.145 and 0.435 E) 0.145 and 0.0483 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 49) What are the respective concentrations (M) of Mg2+ and Cl- afforded by dissolving 0.325 mol MgCl2 in water and diluting to 250 mL? A) 0.0013 and 0.0013 B) 0.0013 and 0.0026 C) 1.30 and.1.30 D) 1.30 and 2.60 E) 2.60 and 2.60 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 50) A one-hundredfold dilution of an enzymatic buffer solution can be obtained by using ________. A) 1 part sample and 100 parts diluent B) 99 parts sample and 1 part diluent C) 1 part sample and 99 parts diluent D) 100 parts sample and 1 part diluent E) 9 parts sample and 1 part diluent Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 51) Mixing 10.00 mL of an aqueous solution with 10.00 mL of water represents a ________. A) crystallization B) neutralization C) twofold dilution D) tenfold dilution E) titration Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 14

52) Mixing 1.00 mL of an aqueous solution with 9.00 mL of water represents a ________. A) twofold dilution B) tenfold dilution C) titration D) hundredfold dilution E) neutralization Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 53) Which of the following 0.300 M solutions would contain the highest concentration of potassium ions? A) potassium phosphate B) potassium hydrogen carbonate C) potassium hypochlorite D) potassium iodide E) potassium bromide Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 54) Which solution contains the largest number of moles of chloride ions? A) 10.0 mL of 0.500 M BaCl2 B) 4.00 mL of 1.000 M NaCl C) 7.50 mL of 0.500 M FeCl3 D) 25.00 mL of 0.400 M KCl E) 30.00 mL of 0.100 M CaCl2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 55) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of magnesium chloride (9.00 M) must be diluted to 350. mL to make a 2.75 M solution of magnesium chloride? A) 14.1 B) 1.15 C) 127 D) 107 E) 38.8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4

56) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide (6.00 M) must be diluted to 200.0 mL to make a 0.880 M solution of sodium hydroxide? A) 0.0264 B) 176 C) 26.4 D) 29.3 E) 33.3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 57) A 650 mL sodium bromide solution has a bromide ion concentration of 0.245 M. What is the mass (g) of sodium bromide in solution? A) 103 B) 0.00155 C) 16400 D) 16.4 E) 0.159 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 58) What volume (L) of 0.250 M HNO3 is required to neutralize a solution prepared by dissolving 17.5 g of NaOH in 350 mL of water? A) 1.25 B) 0.11 C) 1.75 D) 0.070 E) 1.75 × Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G2 59) An aliquot (28.7 mL) of a KOH solution required 31.3 mL of 0.118 M HCl for neutralization. What mass (g) of KOH was in the original sample? A) 0.129 B) 0.190 C) 0.173 D) 0.207 E) 0.215 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G2 16

60) The point in a titration at which the indicator changes is called the ________. A) equivalence point B) indicator point C) standard point D) end point E) volumetric point Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G2 61) Which of the following would require the largest volume of 0.100 M sodium hydroxide solution for neutralization? A) 10.0 mL of 0.0500 M phosphoric acid B) 20.0 mL of 0.0500 M nitric acid C) 5.0 mL of 0.0100 M sulfuric acid D) 15.0 mL of 0.0500 M hydrobromic acid E) 10.0 mL of 0.0500 M perchloric acid Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G2 62) Which one of the following substances is produced during the reaction of an acid with a metal hydroxide? A) H2 B) H2O C) CO2 D) NaOH E) O2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G2 63) What volume (mL) of 7.48 × 10-2 M perchloric acid can be neutralized with 115 mL of 0.244 M sodium hydroxide? A) 125 B) 8.60 C) 188 D) 750 E) 375 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G2 17

64) ________ is an oxidation reaction. A) Ice melting in a soft drink B) Table salt dissolving in water for cooking vegetables C) Rusting of iron D) The reaction of sodium chloride with lead nitrate to form lead chloride and sodium nitrate E) Neutralization of HCl by NaOH Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 4.2 Bimodal Questions 1) A strong electrolyte is one that ________ completely in solution. A) reacts B) associates C) disappears D) ionizes Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 2) A weak electrolyte exists predominantly as ________ in solution. A) atoms B) ions C) molecules D) electrons E) an isotope Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1 LO: 4.1 GO: G2

3) Which of the following are strong electrolytes? HCl HC2H3O2 NH3 KCl A) HCl, KCl B) HCl, NH3, KCl C) HCl, HC2H3O2, NH3, KCl D) HCl, HC2H3O2, KCl E) HC2H3O2, KCl Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 4) Which of the following are weak electrolytes? HNO3 HF NH3 LiBr A) HNO3, LiBr B) HNO3, HF, NH3, LiBr C) HF, LiBr D) HF, NH3 E) HNO3, NH3, LiBr Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 5) What are the spectator ions in the reaction between KOH (aq) and HNO3 (aq)? A) K+ and H+ B) H+ and OHC) K+ and NO3D) H+ and NO3E) OH- only Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

6) What are the spectator ions in the reaction between KCl (aq) and AgNO3 (aq)? A) K+ and Ag+ B) Ag+ and ClC) K+ and NO3D) Ag+ and NO3E) K+ only Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 7) What are the spectator ions in the reaction between Mg(OH)2 (aq) and HCl (aq)? A) Mg2+ and H+ B) H+ and OHC) Mg2+ and ClD) H+ and ClE) OH- only Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 8) The net ionic equation for the reaction between aqueous solutions of HF and KOH is ________. A) HF + KOH → H2O + K+ + FB) HF + OH- → H2O + FC) HF + K+ + OH- → H2O + KF D) H+ + OH- → H2O E) H+ + F- + K+ + OH- → H2O + K+ + FAnswer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

9) Combining aqueous solutions of BaI2 and Na2SO4 affords a precipitate of BaSO4. Which ions are spectator ions in the reaction? A) Ba2+ only B) Na+ only C) Ba2+ and SO42D) Na+ and IE) SO42- and IAnswer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 10) Which ions are spectator ions in the formation of a precipitate of AgCl via combining aqueous solutions of CoCl2 and AgNO3? A) Co2+ and NO3B) NO3- and ClC) Co2+ and Ag+ D) ClE) NO3Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 11) The balanced net ionic equation for the precipitation of calcium carbonate when aqueous solutions of Na2CO3 and CaCl2 are mixed is ________. A) 2Na+ (aq) + CO32- (aq) → Na2CO3 (aq) B) 2Na+ (aq) + 2Cl- (aq) → 2NaCl (aq) C) Na+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → NaCl (aq) D) Ca+(aq) + CO32- (aq) → CaCO3 (s) E) Na2CO3 (aq) + Ca (aq) → 2NaCl (aq) + CaCO3 (s) Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

12) When aqueous solutions of AgNO3 and KI are mixed, silver iodide precipitates. The balanced net ionic equation is ________. A) Ag+ (aq) + (aq) → AgI (s) B) Ag+ (aq) + NO3- (aq) → AgNO3 (s) C) Ag+ (aq) + NO3- (aq) → AgNO3 (aq) D) AgNO3 (aq) + KI (aq) → AgI (s) + KNO3 (aq) E) AgNO3 (aq) + KI (aq) → AgI (aq) + KNO3 (s) Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 13) When aqueous solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and NaCl are mixed, lead(II) chloride precipitates. The balanced net ionic equation is ________. A) Pb2+ (aq) + 2Cl- (aq) → PbCl2 (s) B) Pb2+ (aq) + 2NO3- (aq) → Pb(NO3)2 (s) C) Pb2+ (aq) + 2NO3- (aq) → Pb(NO3)2 (aq) D) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2NaCl (aq) → PbCl2 (s) + 2NaNO3 (aq) E) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2NaCl (aq) → PbCl2 (aq) + 2NaNO3 (s) Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 14) When H2SO4 is neutralized by NaOH in aqueous solution, the net ionic equation is ________. A) SO42- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq) → Na2SO4 (aq) B) SO42- (aq) + 2Na+ (aq) → Na2SO4 (s) C) H+ (aq) + OH- (aq) → H2O (l) D) H2SO4 (aq) + 2OH- (aq) → 2H2O (l) + SO42- (aq) E) 2H+ (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → 2H2O (l) + 2Na+ (aq) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

15) The spectator ions in the reaction between aqueous perchloric acid and aqueous barium hydroxide are ________. A) OH- and ClO4B) H+, OH- , ClO4-, and Ba2+ C) H+ and OHD) H+ and Ba2+ E) ClO4- and Ba2+ Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 16) The spectator ions in the reaction between aqueous hydrochloric acid and aqueous calcium hydroxide are ________. A) OH- and ClB) H+, OH-, Cl-, and Ca2+ C) Cl- and Ca2+ D) H+ and OHE) H+ and Ca2+ Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 17) The spectator ions in the reaction between aqueous hydrobromic acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide are ________. A) Br- and Na+ B) OH-, Br-, and Na+ C) OH- and BrD) Na+ only E) H+, OH-, Br-, and Na+ Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

18) The spectator ions in the reaction between aqueous hydrobromic acid and aqueous ammonia are ________. A) H+ and NH3 B) H+, Br-, NH3, and NH4+ C) Br- only D) Br- and NH4+ E) H+, Br-, and NH4+ Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 19) Which of the following are strong acids? HI HNO3 HF HBr A) HF, HBr B) HI, HNO3, HF, HBr C) HI, HF, HBr D) HNO3, HF, HBr E) HI, HNO3, HBr Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 20) Which hydroxides are strong bases? Sr(OH)2 KOH NaOH Ba(OH)2 A) KOH, Ba(OH)2 B) KOH, NaOH C) KOH, NaOH, Ba(OH)2 D) Sr(OH)2, KOH, NaOH, Ba(OH)2 E) None of these is a strong base. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 24

21) A neutralization reaction between an acid and a metal hydroxide produces ________. A) water and a salt B) hydrogen gas C) oxygen gas D) sodium hydroxide E) ammonia Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 22) Of the metals below, which will dissolve in an aqueous solution containing nickel ion? aluminum chromium barium tin potassium A) aluminum and chromium B) All will dissolve except for tin C) barium and potassium D) tin only E) potassium only Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 23) Which of these metals is the least easily oxidized? Na Au Fe Ca Ag A) Na B) Au C) Fe D) Ca E) Ag Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 4.4

24) Which of these metals is the most easily oxidized? Cu Au Pt Li Hg A) Li B) Cu C) Au D) Pt E) Hg Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 4.4

25) Of the following elements, ________ is the most difficult to oxidize. Cu Hg Au Ag Na A) Cu, Hg, and Au B) Hg and Ag C) Au only D) Ag only E) Na only Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

26) Of the following elements, ________ is the most easily oxidized. lithium zinc hydrogen aluminum gold A) aluminum B) zinc C) hydrogen D) lithium E) gold Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 4.4

27) Of the following elements, ________ is the least easily oxidized. sodium calcium hydrogen gold platinum A) sodium B) gold C) calcium D) hydrogen E) platinum Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 4.4

28) Based on the equations below, which metal is the most active? Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + Ni (s) → Ni(NO3)2 (aq) + Pb (s) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + Ag (s) → No reaction Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + Ni (s) → Ni(NO3)2 (aq) + Cu (s) A) Ni B) Ag C) Cu D) Pb E) N Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 4.4

29) Which species is oxidized in the reaction below? Au(s) + 3NO3-(aq) + 6H+(aq) → Au3+(aq) + NO(g) + 3H2O (l) H+ N+5 O2H2O Au A) H+ B) N+5 C) Au D) O2E) H2O Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 4.2 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 4.4

30) What is the concentration (M) of a NaCl solution prepared by dissolving 9.3 g of NaCl in sufficient water to give 350 mL of solution? A) 18 B) 0.16 C) 0.45 D) 27 E) 2.7 × 10-2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 31) How many moles of Co2+ are present in 0.200 L of a 0.400 M solution of CoI2? A) 2.00 B) 0.500 C) 0.160 D) 0.0800 E) 0.0400 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 32) How many moles of Na+ are present in 343 mL of a 1.27 M solution of Na2SO4? A) 0.436 B) 0.871 C) 1.31 D) 3.70 E) 7.40 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 33) How many moles of K+ are present in 343 mL of a 1.27 M solution of K3PO4? A) 0.436 B) 1.31 C) 0.145 D) 3.70 E) 11.1 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

34) What are the respective concentrations (M) of Na+ and SO42- afforded by dissolving 0.500 mol Na2SO4 in water and diluting to 1.33 L? A) 0.665 and 0.665 B) 0.665 and 1.33 C) 1.33 and 0.665 D) 0.376 and 0.752 E) 0.752 and 0.376 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 35) What are the respective concentrations (M) of K+ and CO32- afforded by dissolving 0.530 mol K2CO3 in water and diluting to 1.50 L? A) 0.707 and 0.353 B) 0.118 and 0.353 C) 0.353 and 0.707 D) 0.353 and 0.353 E) 0.707 and 0.707 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 36) Calculate the concentration (M) of sodium ions in a solution made by diluting 50.0 mL of a 0.874 M solution of sodium sulfide to a total volume of 250.0 mL. A) 0.175 B) 4.37 C) 0.525 D) 0.350 E) 0.874 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4

37) An aqueous ethanol solution (400 mL) was diluted to 4.00 L, giving a concentration of 0.0400 M. The concentration of the original solution was ________ M. A) 0.400 B) 0.200 C) 2.00 D) 1.60 E) 4.00 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 38) The concentration (M) of an aqueous methanol produced when 0.200 L of a 2.00 M solution was diluted to 0.800 L is ________. A) 0.800 B) 0.200 C) 0.500 D) 0.400 E) 8.00 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 39) The molarity (M) of an aqueous solution containing 22.5 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 35.5 mL of solution is ________. A) 0.0657 B) 1.85 × C) 1.85 D) 2.33 E) 0.634 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 40) The molarity (M) of an aqueous solution containing 85.1 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 128 mL of solution is ________. A) 0.665 B) 0.0019 C) 0.249 D) 665 E) 1.94 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 31

41) The molarity (M) of an aqueous solution containing 129 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 200 mL of solution is ________. A) 0.716 B) 0.0036 C) 3.58 D) 0.645 E) 645 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 42) The molarity of an aqueous solution containing 75.3 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 35.5 mL of solution is ________. A) 14.8 B) 2.12 C) 481 D) 0.0118 E) 11.8 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 43) How many grams of sodium chloride are there in 55.0 mL of a 1.90 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride? A) 0.105 B) 6.11 C) 3.21 D) 6.11 × 103 E) 12.2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

44) How many grams of potassium bromide are there in 250.0 mL of a 2.50 M aqueous solution of potassium bromide? A) 0.625 B) 298 C) 74.4 D) 1.19 × 103 E) 119 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 45) The molarity of a solution prepared by diluting 43.72 mL of 1.005 M aqueous K2Cr2O7 to 500. mL is ________. A) 0.0879 B) 87.9 C) 0.0218 D) 0.0115 E) 0.870 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 46) The molarity of a solution prepared by diluting 43.72 mL of 5.005 M aqueous K2Cr2O7 to 500. mL is ________. A) 0.129 B) 0.109 C) 0.438 D) 0.0175 E) 0.870 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 47) What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.349 M solution of sodium chloride? A) 0.349 M B) 0.0349 M C) 0.0060 M D) 0.175 M E) 0.698 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 33

48) What is the concentration of nitrate ions in a 0.343 M solution of lead (II) nitrate? A) 0.686 M B) 0.172 M C) 1.03 M D) 0.0343 M E) 0.343 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 49) The concentration of iodide ions in a 0.193 M solution of barium iodide is ________. A) 0.193 M B) 0.386 M C) 0.0965 M D) 0.579 M E) 0.0643 M Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 50) The concentration of species in 100 mL of a 3.47 M solution of sodium iodide is ________ M sodium ion and ________ M iodide ion. A) 0.0347, 0.0347 B) 0.347, 0.347 C) 0.347, 0.694 D) 0.694, 0.347 E) 3.47, 3.47 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 51) When 0.344 mol of HCl is combined with enough water to make a 450.0 mL solution, the concentration of HCl is ________ M. A) 7.64 × 10-4 B) 0.155 C) 1.31 D) 0.764 E) 0.344 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

52) In a titration of 35.00 mL of 0.737 M H2SO4, ________ mL of a 0.827 M KOH solution is required for neutralization. A) 35.0 B) 31.2 C) 25.8 D) 62.4 E) 39.3 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 53) Calculate the mass percent of sulfuric acid in a solid sample given that a 0.8390 g sample of that solid required 32.22 mL of 0.2012 M NaOH for neutralization. A) 62.11 B) 2.64 C) 37.89 D) 75.78 E) 1.27 Answer: C Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 54) If an unknown sample contains 39.04% sulfuric acid by mass, then a 0.9368 g of that sample would require ________ mL of 0.2389 M NaOH for neutralization. A) 31.22 B) 39.98 C) 7.80 D) 79.96 E) 15.61 Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 55) A 17.5 mL sample of an acetic acid (CH3CO2H) solution required 29.6 mL of 0.250 M NaOH for neutralization. The concentration of acetic acid was ________ M. A) 0.296 B) 0.423 C) 0.591 D) 0.105 E) 129.5 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 35

56) A 25.5 mL aliquot of HCl (aq) of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.113 M NaOH (aq). It took 51.2 mL of the base to reach the endpoint of the titration. The concentration (M) of the acid was ________. A) 1.02 B) 0.114 C) 0.454 D) 0.113 E) 0.227 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 57) A 31.5 mL aliquot of HNO3 (aq) of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.0134 M NaOH (aq). It took 23.9 mL of the base to reach the endpoint of the titration. The concentration (M) of the acid was ________. A) 0.0102 B) 0.0051 C) 0.0204 D) 0.227 E) 1.02 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 58) A 31.5 mL aliquot of H2SO4 (aq) of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.0134 M NaOH (aq). It took 23.9 mL of the base to reach the endpoint of the titration. The concentration (M) of the acid was ________. A) 0.0102 B) 0.00508 C) 0.0204 D) 0.102 E) 0.227 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4

4.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Of the species below, only ________ is not an electrolyte. A) HBr B) LiCl C) Ne D) KOH E) NaNO3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1, 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 2) What is the formula for phosphoric acid? A) H3PO4 B) H2PO4 C) H4PO4 D) H3PO3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 3) The total concentration of ions in a 0.250 M solution of HCl is ________. A) 0 B) 0.125 M C) 0.250 M D) 0.500 M E) 0.750 M Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G2 4) Which hydroxides are weak bases? A) KOH B) Ba(OH)2 C) RbOH D) CsOH E) None of these choices are weak bases. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 37

5) Which of the following is soluble in water at 25 °C? A) AgNO3 B) Hg2Cl2 C) PbCl2 D) Ag2S E) AgCl Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 6) With which of the following will the Potassium ion form an insoluble salt? A) Phosphate B) Sulfate C) Sulfide D) Iodide E) Potassium will form soluble salts with all choices. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.2 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 7) Which one of the following solutions will have the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions? A) 1.10 M rubidium hydroxide B) 0.368 M calcium hydroxide C) 0.368 M ammonium hydroxide D) 0.368 M potassium hydroxide E) 0.368 M sulfuric acid Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G2 8) In which species does bromine have an oxidation number of zero? A) HBrO4 B) NaBrO3 C) BrD) Br2 E) HBr Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2

9) In which species does nitrogen have an oxidation number of zero? A) N2 B) NaNO3 C) HNO2 D) NO2E) NH3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 10) In which species does nitrogen have the highest oxidation number? A) NaNO3 B) HNO2 C) NO2D) NH3 E) N2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 4.4 LO: 4.2 GO: G2 11) What is the concentration (M) of potassium ions in 153 mL of a 1.25 M K3PO4 solution? Answer: 3.75 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 12) How many grams of NaOH (MW = 40.0) are there in 500.0 mL of a 0.250 M NaOH solution? A) 0.00313 B) 0.00625 C) 20 D) 5.00 E) 0.125 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

13) How many grams of NaOH (MW = 40.0) are there in 200.0 mL of a 0.175 M NaOH solution? A) .00219 B) 114 C) 1.40 D) 0.0350 E) 14.0 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 14) How many grams of CH3OH must be added to water to prepare 150 mL of a solution that is 2.0 M CH3OH? A) 0.0096 B) 430 C) 2.4 D) 9.6 E) 4.3 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 15) How many moles of chloride ions are in 0.500 L of a 0.250 M solution of AlCl3? A) 0.125 B) 0.0500 C) 0.375 D) 0.167 E) 0.750 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 16) What is the concentration (M) of KCl in a solution made by mixing 25.0 mL of 0.100 M KCl with 50.0 mL of 0.100 M KCl? A) 0.100 B) 0.0500 C) 0.0333 D) 0.0250 E) 125 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 40

17) What is the concentration (M) of CH3OH in a solution prepared by dissolving 34.4 g of CH3OH in sufficient water to give exactly 230 mL of solution? A) 11.9 B) 0.00159 C) 1.59 D) 4.67 E) 5.31 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 18) What is the concentration (M) of CH3OH in a solution prepared by dissolving 11.7 g of CH3OH in sufficient water to give exactly 330. mL of solution? A) 11.9 B) 1.11 C) 0.00159 D) 1.59 E) 0.0841 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 19) How many grams of H3PO4 are in 145 mL of a 3.50 M solution of H3PO4? A) 0.508 B) 49.7 C) 20.0 D) 4.90 E) 612 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 20) How many grams of H3PO4 are in 175 mL of a 4.00 M solution of H3PO4? A) 0.700 B) 20.0 C) 68.6 D) 4.90 E) 612 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 41

21) A solution of CH3F is prepared by dissolving 17.2 g of CH3F in sufficient water to give exactly 300 mL of solution. What is the concentration (M) of the newly prepared CH3F solution? Answer: 1.68 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 22) 325 mL of a 5.50 M phosphoric acid solution was prepared for laboratory. How many grams of phosphoric acid was in this solution. Answer: 175 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 23) A KCl solution was prepared by dissolving 9.3 g of KCl in sufficient water to give 350 mL of solution. What is the concentration (M) of the newly prepared KCl solution? Answer: 0.36 Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 24) How many grams of an unknown substance with a molar mass of 40.0 are there in 500.0 mL of a 0.175 M solution of the unknown? Answer: 3.50 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 25) How many grams of hydrazine N2H4 must be added to a solvent to prepare 375 mL of a solution that is 5.5 M hydrazine? Answer: 66 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 26) How many moles of chloride ions are present in 0.300 L of a 0.150 M solution of AlCl3? Answer: 0.135 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 27) How many moles of Cu2+ ions are present in 0.100 L of a 0.100 M solution of CuCl2? Answer: 0.0100 Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 42

28) What are the respective concentrations (M) of Cu2+ and Cl- afforded by dissolving CuCl2 in water and diluting to A) 3.36 and 6.73 B) 0.00336 and 3.36 C) 0.00336 and 0.00336 D) 3.36 and 3.36 E) 0.297 and 0.113 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 29) What mass (g) of barium iodide is contained in iodide ion concentration of A) 19.6 B) 39.1 C) 19,600 D) 39,100 E) 276 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

of a barium iodide solution that has an

30) What is the concentration (M) of potassium ions in a solution made by diluting 40.0 mL of a 0.474 M solution of potassium sulfide to a total volume of 300 mL. Answer: 0.126 Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 31) What volume (mL) of a concentrated solution of sodium hydroxide (6.00 M) must be diluted to to make a solution of sodium hydroxide? A) 99.9 B) 3600 C) 287 D) 0.104 E) 0.0100 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4

32) What volume (mL) of a 5.45 M lead nitrate solution must be diluted to solution of lead nitrate? A) 212 B) 6310 C) 3170 D) 0.00936 E) 0.00471 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4

to make a

33) How many milliliters of a 14.2 M HCl solution is needed to prepare 0.715 L solution of HCl with a concentration of 0.350 M? A) 0.0568 B) 3.55 C) 56.8 D) 17.6 E) 0.0176 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 34) A stock solution of HNO3 is prepared and found to contain 12.7 M of HNO3. If 25.0 mL of the stock solution is diluted to a final volume of 0.500 L, the concentration of the diluted solution is ________ M. A) 0.254 B) 1.57 C) 0.635 D) 635 E) 254 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4

35) Pure acetic acid (HC2H3O2) is a liquid and is known as glacial acetic acid. Calculate the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 20.00 mL of glacial acetic acid at 25 °C in sufficient water to give 500.0 mL of solution. The density of glacial acetic acid at 25 °C is 1.05 g/mL. A) 2.52 × 103 B) 42.0 C) 0.0420 D) 0.699 E) 6.99 × 10-4 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 36) What is the molarity of iodide ion in a solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.100 M HI and 5.00 mL of 0.200 M KI? A) 0.180 B) 8.33 C) 0.120 D) 1.50 E) 0.0400 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.4 GO: G4 37) What mass (g) of AgBr is formed when of aqueous hydrobromic acid? A) 4.59 B) 2.30 C) 25.7 D) 0.130 E) 25,700 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

AgNO3 is treated with an excess

38) 0.400 g of solid NaCl is added to 50 mL of a 0.100 M MgCl2 solution. Assuming the final volume does not change, what is the molarity of chloride ion in the final solution? A) 0.237 B) 0.108 C) 0.208 D) 0.337 E) 0.137 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 20 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 39) Calculate the number of grams of unknown solute (MW = 56.105 g/mol) in 250.0 mL of a 0.169 M solution. A) 2.37 B) 83.0 C) 0.753 D) 2.37 × 103 E) 7.53 × 10-4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 14 Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4 40) How much CaF2 (g) is formed when calcium bicarbonate? A) 0.750 B) 750 C) 0.123 D) 0.375 E) 2000 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.5 LO: 4.3 GO: G4

KF reacts with an excess of aqueous

41) What is the molarity of a NaOH solution if 15.5 mL of a 0.220 M H2SO4 solution is required to neutralize a 25.0-mL sample of the NaOH solution? A) 0.273 B) 0.355 C) 0.710 D) 42.6 E) 0.136 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 42) How many milliliters of 1.500 M aqueous KI solution must be added to an aqueous solution containing 0.100 mol of Pb(NO3)2 to completely precipitate the lead? A) 7.50 × 10-3 B) 66.7 C) 0.0667 D) 0.133 E) 133 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 43) Silver ions can be precipitated from aqueous solutions by the addition of aqueous chloride: Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s) Silver chloride is virtually insoluble in water so that the reaction appears to go to completion. How many grams of solid NaCl must be added to 25.0 mL of 0.149 M AgNO3 solution to completely precipitate the silver? A) 9.81 B) 6.37 × 10-5 C) 0.218 D) 0.102 E) 0.633 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4

44) How many milliliters of 0.188 M HClO4 solution are needed to neutralize 50.00 mL of 0.0832 M NaOH? A) 0.782 B) 8.85 × 10-3 C) 113 D) 0.0452 E) 22.1 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 14 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 45) What volume (mL) of 0.102 M NaOH is required to neutralize A) 74.3 B) 3.94 C) 0.773 D) 0.0135 E) 0.000773 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4

HCl?

46) What volume (mL) of potassium hydroxide will it take to reach the equivalence point in a 16.3 mL aliquot of triprotic acid? A) 2.22 B) 18.3 C) 55.0 D) 6.11 E) 120 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 47) What is the concentration (M) of 39.88 mL of an unknown NaOH solution if it required of to neutralize? A) 0.7617 B) 2788 C) 1211 D) 1.313 E) 1.211 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 48

48) A titration reached the equivalence point when 16.1 mL of was added to of NaOH (aq) of unknown concentration. What is the concentration (M) of this unknown NaOH solution? A) 0.561 B) 80.8 C) 0.280 D) 0.140 E) 3.21 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 4.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The solvent in an aqueous solution is ________. Answer: water Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.1, 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 2) If it took 49.33 mL of 0.2454 M KOH solution to neutralize 35.0 mL of arsenic acid (H3AsO4), what is the concentration (M) of the arsenic acid solution? Answer: 0.1153 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4 3) How many moles of CaCl2 are formed in the neutralization of 138 mL of 0.352 M Ca(OH)2 with aqueous HCl? Answer: 0.0486 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.6 LO: 4.5 GO: G4

4.5 True/False Questions 1) Ca(OH)2 is a strong base. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 2) The compound HClO4 is a weak acid. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 3) HNO2 is a strong acid. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 4) The compound NH4Cl is a weak acid. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2 5) Ammonia is a strong base. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 4.3 LO: 4.1 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 5 Thermochemistry 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Objects can possess energy as ________. (a) endothermic energy (b) potential energy (c) kinetic energy A) a only B) b only C) c only D) a and c E) b and c Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 5.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 5.1

2) The internal energy of a system is always increased by ________. A) adding heat to the system B) having the system do work on the surroundings C) withdrawing heat from the system D) adding heat to the system and having the system do work on the surroundings E) a volume decompression Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2 3) The internal energy of a system ________. A) is the sum of the kinetic energy of all of its components B) is the sum of the rotational, vibrational, and translational energies of all of its components C) refers only to the energies of the nuclei of the atoms of the component molecules D) is the sum of the potential and kinetic energies of the components E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2

4) Which one of the following conditions would always result in an increase in the internal energy of a system? A) The system loses heat and does work on the surroundings. B) The system gains heat and does work on the surroundings. C) The system loses heat and has work done on it by the surroundings. D) The system gains heat and has work done on it by the surroundings. E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2 5) When a system ________, ΔE is always negative. A) absorbs heat and does work B) gives off heat and does work C) absorbs heat and has work done on it D) gives off heat and has work done on it E) None of the above is always negative. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2 6) Which one of the following is an endothermic process? A) ice melting B) water freezing C) boiling soup D) Hydrochloric acid and barium hydroxide are mixed at 25 °C: the temperature increases. E) Both A and C Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2 7) Which one of the following is an exothermic process? A) ice melting B) water evaporating C) boiling soup D) condensation of water vapor E) Ammonium thiocyanate and barium hydroxide are mixed at 25 °C: the temperature drops. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2

8) Of the following, which one is a state function? A) H B) q C) w D) heat E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.4 GO: G2 9) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics? A) Ek = mv2 B) A negative ΔH corresponds to an exothermic process. C) ΔE = Efinal - Einitial D) Energy lost by the system must be gained by the surroundings. E) 1 cal = 4.184 J (exactly) Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.2 GO: G2 10) The internal energy can be increased by ________. (a) transferring heat from the surroundings to the system (b) transferring heat from the system to the surroundings (c) doing work on the system A) a only B) b only C) c only D) a and c E) b and c Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 5.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 5.2

11) A ________ ΔH corresponds to an ________ process. A) negative, endothermic B) negative, exothermic C) positive, exothermic D) zero, exothermic E) zero, endothermic Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.6 GO: G2 12) A ________ ΔH corresponds to an ________ process. A) negative, endothermic B) positive, exothermic C) positive, endothermic D) zero, exothermic E) zero, endothermic Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.6 GO: G2 13) ΔH for an endothermic process is ________ while ΔH for an exothermic process is ________. A) zero, positive B) zero, negative C) positive, zero D) negative, positive E) positive, negative Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.6 GO: G2 14) For a given process at constant pressure, w is positive. This means that the process involves ________. A) work being done by the system on the surroundings B) work being done by the surroundings on the system C) no work being done D) an equal amount of work done on the system and by the system E) work being done against a vacuum Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.6 GO: G2

15) Which one of the following statements is true? A) Enthalpy is an intensive property. B) The enthalpy change for a reaction is independent of the state of the reactants and products. C) Enthalpy is a state function. D) H is the value of q measured under conditions of constant volume. E) The enthalpy change of a reaction is the reciprocal of the ΔH of the reverse reaction. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 16) All of the following statements are true except ________. A) Internal energy is a state function. B) The enthalpy change for a reaction is equal in magnitude, but opposite in sign, to the enthalpy change for the reverse reaction. C) The enthalpy change for a reaction depends on the state of the reactants and products. D) The enthalpy of a reaction is equal to the heat of the reaction. E) Enthalpy is an intensive property. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 17) A chemical reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings is said to be ________ and has a ________ ΔH at constant pressure. A) endothermic, positive B) endothermic, negative C) exothermic, negative D) exothermic, positive E) exothermic, neutral Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 18) A chemical reaction that releases heat to the surroundings is said to be ________ and has a ________ ΔH at constant pressure. A) endothermic, positive B) endothermic, negative C) exothermic, negative D) exothermic, positive E) exothermic, neutral Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 5

19) The reaction 4Al (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2 Al2O3 (s) ΔH° = -3351 kJ is ________, and therefore heat is ________ by the reaction. A) endothermic, released B) endothermic, absorbed C) exothermic, released D) exothermic, absorbed E) thermoneutral, neither released nor absorbed Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 20) When ________ is constant, the enthalpy change of a process equal to the amount of heat transferred into or out of the system? A) temperature B) volume C) pressure and volume D) temperature and volume E) pressure Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G2 21) The units of heat capacity are ________. A) K/J or °C/J B) J/K or J/°C C) J/g-K or J/g-°C D) J/mol E) g-K/J or g-°C/J Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 22) The units of specific heat are ________. A) K/J or °C/J B) J/K or J/°C C) J/g-K or J/g-°C D) J/mol E) g-K/J or g-°C/J Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 6

23) The term Btu which stands for ________ is commonly used in engineering applications. A) Best thermal unit B) Bunsen thermal unit C) British thermal unit D) Bake thermal unit E) Brush thermal unit Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 24) Which of the following is a statement of Hess's law? A) If a reaction is carried out in a series of steps, the ΔH for the reaction will equal the sum of the enthalpy changes for the individual steps. B) If a reaction is carried out in a series of steps, the ΔH for the reaction will equal the product of the enthalpy changes for the individual steps. C) The ΔH for a process in the forward direction is equal in magnitude and opposite in sign to the ΔH for the process in the reverse direction. D) The ΔH for a process in the forward direction is equal to the ΔH for the process in the reverse direction. E) The ΔH of a reaction depends on the physical states of the reactants and products. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.6 LO: 5.9 GO: G2 25) For which one of the following reactions is ΔH°rxn equal to the heat of formation of the product? A) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) B) (1/2)N2 (g) + O2 (g) → NO2(g) C) 6C (s) + 6H (g) → C6H6 (l) D) P (g) + 4H (g) + Br (g) → PH4Br (l) E) 12C (g) + 11H2 (g) + 11O (g) → C6H22O11 (g) Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G2

26) Of the following, ΔH°f is not zero for ________. A) O2 (g) B) C (graphite) C) N2 (g) D) F2 (s) E) Cl2 (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G2 27) Of the following, ΔH°f is not zero for ________. A) Sc (g) B) Si (s) C) P4 (s, white) D) Br2 (l) E) Ca (s) Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G2 28) Consider the following two reactions: A → 2B A→C

ΔH°rxn = 456.7 kJ/mol ΔH°rxn = -22.1 kJ/mol

Determine the enthalpy change for the process: 2B → C A) -478.8 kJ/mol B) -434.6 kJ/mol C) 434.6 kJ/mol D) 478.8 kJ/mol E) More information is needed to solve the problem. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

29) In the reaction below, ΔH°f is zero for ________. Ni (s) + 2CO (g) + 2PF3 (g) → Ni(CO)2(PF3)2 (l) A) Ni (s) B) CO (g) C) PF3 (g) D) Ni(CO)2(PF3)2 (l) E) both CO (g) and PF3 (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 30) For the combustion reaction of methane, ΔH°f is zero for ________. CH4 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O(g) + CO2 (g) A) O2 (g) B) CH4 (g) C) CO2 (g) D) H2O (g) E) Both O2 (g) and CH4 (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 31) For the following reactions, the ΔH°rxn is NOT equal to ΔH°f for the product except for ________. A) CH4 (g) + 2Cl2 (g) → CH2Cl2 (l) + 2HCl (g) B) N2 (g) + O3 (g) → N2O3 (g) C) Xe (g) + 2F2 (g) → XeF4 (g) D) 2CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) E) C (diamond) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

32) For the following reactions, the ΔH°rxn is NOT equal to ΔH°f for the product except for ________. A) 2Ca (s) + O2 (g) → 2CaO (s) B) 3Mg (s) + N2 (g) → Mg3N2 (s) C) C2H2 (g) + H2 (g) → H4 (g) D) 2C (graphite) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g) E) C (diamond) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 33) For the following reactions, the ΔH°rxn is NOT equal to ΔH°f for the product except for ________. A) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) B) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) C) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) D) 2C (s, graphite) + 2H2(g) → C2H4 (g) E) H2O (l) + 1/2 O2 (g) → H2O2 (l) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 34) For the following reactions, the ΔH°rxn is NOT equal to ΔH°f for the product except for ________. A) H2O (l) + 1/2O2 (g) → H2O2 (l) B) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) C) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) D) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

35) For the following reactions, the ΔH°rxn is NOT equal to ΔH°f for the product except for ________. A) H2 (g) + 1/2 O2 (g) → H2O (l) B) H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O2 (l) C) 2C (s, graphite) + 2H2 (g) → C2H4 (g) D) 1/2 N2 (g) + O2 (g) → NO2 (g) E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 36) The term standard conditions with respect to enthalpy change means ________. A) 1 atm and 0 K B) 1 atm and 1 L C) 1 atm and 298 K D) 1 L and 0 K E) 1 atm and 1 °C Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G2 37) The energy released by combustion of ________ of a substance is called the fuel value of the substance. A) 1 kJ B) 1 kg C) 1 lb D) 1 J E) 1 g Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G2 38) Fuel values of hydrocarbons increase as the ________ increases. A) C atomic ratio B) H/C atomic ratio C) H atomic ratio D) C/C atomic ratio E) C/H atomic ratio Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 11

39) ________ yields the highest fuel value. A) hydrogen B) charcoal C) bituminous coal D) natural gas E) wood Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 40) All of the following are considered fossil fuels except ________. A) hydrogen B) anthracite coal C) crude oil D) natural gas E) petroleum Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 41) The most abundant fossil fuel is ________. A) natural gas B) petroleum C) coal D) uranium E) hydrogen Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7

5.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Calculate the kinetic energy in J of an electron moving at 6.00 × 106 m/s. The mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10-28 g. A) 4.98 × 10-48 J B) 3.28 × 10-14 J C) 1.64 × 10-17 J D) 2.49 × 10-48 J E) 6.56 × 10-14 J Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 2) Calculate the kinetic energy in joules of an automobile weighing 2135 lb and traveling at 55 mph. A) 1.2 × 104 J B) 2.9 × 105 J C) 5.9 × 105 J D) 3.2 × 106 J E) 3.2 × 10-6 J Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 3) Calculate the kinetic energy in joules of an automobile weighing 4345 lb and traveling at 75 mph. A) 5.5 × 105 J B) 5.5 × 10-5 J C) 1.1 × 106 J D) 2.2 × 106 J E) 2.2 × 10-6 J Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4

4) The kinetic energy of a 7.3 kg steel ball traveling at 18.0 m/s is ________ J. A) 1.2 × 103 B) 66 C) 2.4 × 103 D) 1.3 × 102 E) 7.3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 5) The kinetic energy of a 10.3 g golf ball traveling at 48.0 m/s is ________ J. A) 1.20 × 103 B) 66 C) 11.9 D) 1.3 × 102 E) 23.7 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 6) Calculate the kinetic energy in joules of a 150 lb jogger (68.1 kg) traveling at 12.0 mile/hr (5.36 m/s). A) 1.96 × 103 J B) 365 J C) 978 J D) 183 J E) 68.1 J Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 7) What is the kinetic energy of a 55.2 g object moving at 135 m/s. A) 503 J B) 5.03 × 105 J C) 1.01 × 103 J D) 3.73 J E) 3.73 × 103 J Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4

8) The kinetic energy of a 23.2-g object moving at a speed of 81.9 km/hr is ________ J. A) 1900 B) 77.8 C) 145 D) 1.43 × 10-3 E) 6.00 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 9) What is the kinetic energy of a 145 g baseball traveling at 89.9 mi/hr? A) 1.17 × 105 J B) 2.91 J C) 234 J D) 5.83 E) 117 J Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 10) A 100-watt electric incandescent light bulb consumes ________ J of energy in 24 hours. [1 Watt (W) = 1 J/sec] A) 2.40 × 103 B) 8.64 × 103 C) 4.17 D) 2.10 × 103 E) 8.64 × 106 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 11) The ΔE of a system that releases 12.4 J of heat and does 4.2 J of work on the surroundings is ________ J. A) 16.6 B) 12.4 C) 4.2 D) -16.6 E) -8.2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 15

12) The ΔE of a system that absorbs 12.4 J of heat and does 4.2 J of work on the surroundings is ________ J. A) 16.6 B) 12.4 C) 4.2 D) -16.6 E) 8.2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 13) The change in the internal energy of a system that absorbs 2,500 J of heat and that does 7,655 J of work on the surroundings is ________ J. A) 10,155 B) 5,155 C) -5,155 D) -10,155 E) 1.91 × 107 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 14) The change in the internal energy of a system that releases 2,500 J of heat and that does 7,655 J of work on the surroundings is ________ J. A) -10,155 B) -5,155 C) -1.91 × 107 D) 10,155 E) 5,155 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 15) Hydrogen gas and bromine gas react to form hydrogen bromide gas. How much heat (kJ) is released when 155 grams of HBr is formed in this reaction? ΔH° = -72 kJ. A) 137 B) 69 C) -69 D) -137 E) 1.12 × 105 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 16

16) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -126 kJ. ________ kj are released when 2.00 mol of NaOH is formed in the reaction? 2Na2O2 (s) + 2H2O (l) → 4NaOH (s) + O2 (g) A) 252 B) 63 C) 3.9 D) 7.8 E) -126 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

17) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -790 kJ. The enthalpy change accompanying the reaction of 0.95 g of S is ________ kJ. 2S (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) A) 23 B) -23 C) -12 D) 12 E) -790 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

18) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -6535 kJ. ________ kJ of heat are released in the combustion of 16.0 g of (l)? 2C6H6 (l) + 15O2 (g) → 12CO2 (g) + 6H2O (l) A) 1.34 × 103 B) 5.23 × 104 C) 669 D) 2.68 × 103 E) -6535 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

19) Carbon monoxide and oxygen gas react to form carbon dioxide. How much heat is released when 89.5 grams of O2 (g) reacts with excess CO? ΔH° = -482 kJ. A) 1.35 × 103 kJ B) 2.70 × 103 kJ C) 1.35 × 10-3 kJ D) 674 kJ E) 4.31 × 104 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 20) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -336 kJ. Calculate the heat (kJ) released to the surroundings when 23.0 g of HCl is formed. CH4 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → CHCl3 (l) + 3HCl (g) A) 177 kJ B) 2.57 × 103 kJ C) 70.7 kJ D) 211 kJ E) -336 kJ Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

21) How much heat is released when 29.5 grams of Cl2 (g) reacts with excess hydrogen? H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g) ΔH° = -186 kJ. A) 186 kJ B) 310 kJ C) -77.4 kJ D) -186 kJ E) 77.4 kJ Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

22) The enthalpy change for the following reaction is -483.6 kJ: 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) Therefore, the enthalpy change for the following reaction is ________ kJ. 4H2 (g) + 2O2 (g) → 4H2O (g) A) -483.6 B) -967.2 C) 2.34 × 105 D) 483.6 E) 967.2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 23) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is +128.1 kJ: CH3OH (l) → CO (g) + 2H2 (g) How many kJ of heat are consumed when 15.5 g of C equation? A) 0.48 kJ B) 62.0 kJ C) 1.3 × 102 kJ D) 32 kJ E) 8.3 kJ Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

OH (l) decomposes as shown in the

24) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is +128.1 kJ: CH3OH (l) → CO (g) + 2H2 (g) How much heat is consumed when 87.1 g of hydrogen gas is formed? A) 2.76 × 103 kJ B) 5.52 × 103 kJ C) -5.52 × 103 kJ D) -2.76 × 103 kJ E) -128.1 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 19

25) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is +128.1 kJ: CH3OH (l) → CO (g) + 2H2 (g) How many kJ of heat are consumed when 5.10 g of CO (g) is formed as shown in the equation? A) 0.182 kJ B) 162 kJ C) 8.31 kJ D) 23.3 kJ E) 62.0 kJ Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 26) CH3OH (l) decomposes into carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas in the presence of heat. How much heat is consumed when 5.75 g of CO (g) is formed? ΔH° = +128.1 kJ. A) 26.3 kJ B) 23.3 kJ C) 62.0 kJ D) 162 kJ E) 8.3 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 27) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -1107 kJ: 2Ba (s) + O2 (g) → 2BaO (s) How many kJ of heat are released when 5.75 g of Ba (s) reacts completely with oxygen to form A) 96.3 kJ B) 26.3 kJ C) 46.4 kJ D) 23.2 kJ E) 193 kJ Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

28) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -1107 kJ: 2Ba (s) + O2 (g) → 2BaO (s) How many kJ of heat are released when 5.75 g of BaO (s) is produced? A) 56.9 kJ B) 23.2 kJ C) 20.8 kJ D) 193 kJ E) 96.3 kJ Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 29) How many kJ of heat are released when 15.75 g of Ba (s) reacts completely with oxygen gas to form BaO (s)? ΔH° = -1107 kJ. A) 63.5 kJ B) 20.8 kJ C) 114 kJ D) 70.3 kJ E) 35.1 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 30) The molar heat capacity of an unknown substance is 92.1 J/mol-K. If the unknown has a molar mass of 118 g/mol, what is the specific heat (J/g-K) of this substance? A) 1.28 B) -92.1 C) 1.09 × 104 D) 0.781 E) 92.1 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

31) The specific heat capacity of lead is 0.13 J/g-K. How much heat (in J) is required to raise the temperature of of lead from 22 °C to 37 °C? A) 2.0 J B) -0.13 J C) 5.8 × 10-4 J D) 29 J E) 0.13 J Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 32) The temperature of a 15-g sample of lead metal increases from 22 °C to 37 °C upon the addition of 29.0 J of heat. The specific heat capacity of the lead is ________ J/g-K. A) 7.8 B) 1.9 C) 29 D) 0.13 E) -29 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 33) What is the molar heat capacity (in J/mol-K) of liquid bromine? The specific heat of liquid bromine is 0.226 J/g-K. A) 36.1 J/mol-K B) 707 J/mol-K C) 18.1 J/mol-K D) 9.05 J/mol-K E) 0.226 J/mol-K Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

34) The specific heat of liquid bromine is 0.226 J/g-K. How much heat (J) is required to raise the temperature of 10.0 mL of bromine from 25.00 °C to 27.30 °C? The density of liquid bromine: 3.12 g/mL. A) 5.20 J B) 16.2 J C) 300 J D) 32.4 J E) 10.4 J Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 35) ΔH for the reaction IF5 (g) → IF3 (g) + F2 (g) is ________ kJ, give the data below. IF (g) + F2 (g) → IF3 (g) ΔH = -390 kJ IF (g) + 2F2 (g) → IF5 (g) ΔH = -745 kJ A) +355 B) -1135 C) +1135 D) +35 E) -35 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

36) Given the following reactions Fe2O3 (s) + 3CO (s) → 2Fe (s) + 3CO2 (g) ΔH = -28.0 kJ 3Fe (s) + 4CO2(s) → 4CO (g) + Fe3O4(s) ΔH = +12.5 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction of Fe2O3 with CO 3Fe2O3 (s) + CO (g) → CO2 (g) + 2Fe3O4 (s) is ________ kJ. A) -59.0 B) 40.5 C) -15.5 D) -109 E) +109 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

37) Given the following reactions N2 (g) + 2O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) ΔH = 66.4 kJ 2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) ΔH = -114.2 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction of the nitrogen to produce nitric oxide N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) is ________ kJ. A) 180.6 B) -47.8 C) 47.8 D) 90.3 E) -180.6 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

38) Given the following reactions 2NO → N2 + O2 ΔH = -180 kJ 2NO + O2 → 2NO2

ΔH = -112 kJ

the enthalpy of the reaction of nitrogen with oxygen to produce nitrogen dioxide N2 + 2O2 → 2NO2 is ________ kJ. A) 68 B) -68 C) -292 D) 292 E) -146 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

39) Given the following reactions 2S (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) ΔH = -790 kJ S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2(g)

ΔH = -297 kJ

the enthalpy of the reaction in which sulfur dioxide is oxidized to sulfur trioxide 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) is ________ kJ. A) 196 B) -196 C) 1087 D) -1384 E) -543 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

40) Given the following reactions CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g) ΔH = 178.1 kJ C (s, graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ΔH = -393.5 kJ the enthalpy of the reaction CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + C (s, graphite) + O2 (g) is ________ kJ. A) 215.4 B) 571.6 C) -215.4 D) -571.6 E) 7.01 × 104 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

41) Given the following reactions H2O (l) → H2O (g) ΔH = 44.01 kJ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) ΔH = -483.64 kJ the enthalpy for the decomposition of liquid water into gaseous hydrogen and oxygen 2H2O (l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) is ________ kJ. A) -395.62 B) -527.65 C) 439.63 D) 571.66 E) 527.65 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

42) Given the following reactions N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) ΔH = +180.7 kJ 2NO( g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) ΔH = -113.1 kJ the enthalpy for the decomposition of nitrogen dioxide into molecular nitrogen and oxygen 2NO2 (g) → N2 (g) + 2O2 (g) is ________ kJ. A) 67.6 B) -67.6 C) 293.8 D) -293.8 E) 45.5 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

43) Given the following reactions N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) 2NO (g) + O2(g) → 2N (g) the enthalpy of reaction for 4NO (g) → 2NO2 (g) + N2 (g) is ________ kJ. A) 67.6 B) 45.5 C) -293.8 D) -45.5 E) 293.8 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

ΔH = +180.7 kJ ΔH = -113.1 kJ

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

44) Given the following reactions N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) 2N2O (g) → O2 (g) + 2N2 (g) the enthalpy of reaction for 2N2O (g) → 2NO (g) + N2 (g) is ________ kJ. A) 145.7 B) 343.9 C) -343.9 D) 17.5 E) -145.7 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.9 GO: G4

ΔH = +180.7 kJ ΔH = -163.2 kJ

Page Ref: Sec. 5.6

45) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -186 kJ. H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g) The value of ΔH°f for HCl (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -3.72 × 102 B) -1.27 × 102 C) -93.0 D) -186 E) +186 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 46) The value of ΔH° for the following reaction is -3351 kJ: 2Al (s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s) The value of ΔH°f for Al2 (s) is ________ kJ. A) -3351 B) -1676 C) -32.86 D) -16.43 E) +3351 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

47) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction Ca(OH)2 + 2H3AsO4 → Ca(H2AsO4)2 + 2H2O is ________ kJ.

A) -744.9 B) -4519 C) -4219 D) -130.4 E) -76.4 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.7

48) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction 4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 4NO (g) + 6H2O (l) is ________ kJ.

A) -1172 B) -150 C) -1540 D) -1892 E) The ΔH°f of O2 (g) is needed for the calculation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 29

49) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction C2H5OH (l) + O2 (g) → CH3CO2H (l) + H2O (l) is ________ kJ.

A) -79.0 B) -1048.0 C) -476.4 D) -492.6 E) The value of ΔH°f of O2 (g) is required for the calculation. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 50) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction 3NO2 (g) + H2O (l) → 2HNO3 (aq) + NO (g) is ________ kJ.

A) 64 B) 140 C) -140 D) -508 E) -64 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.7

51) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction IF5 (g) + F2 (g) → IF7 (g) is ________ kJ.

A) 1801 B) -1801 C) 121 D) -121 E) -101 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.7

52) Given the data in the table below, ΔH° for the reaction 2CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) is ________ kJ.

A) -566.4 B) -283.2 C) 283.2 D) -677.0 E) The ΔH°f of O2 (g) is needed for the calculation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

53) The value of ΔH° for the following reaction is 177.8 kJ. The value of Δ ________ kJ/mol. CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

A) -1600 B) -813.4 C) -635.5 D) 813.4 E) 177.8 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.7

54) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction 2Ag2S (s) + O2 (g) → 2Ag2O (s) + 2S (s) is ________ kJ.

A) -1.6 B) +1.6 C) -3.2 D) +3.2 E) The ΔH°f of S (s) and of O2 (g) are needed for the calculation. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

for CaO(s) is

55) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction Ag2O (s) + H2S (g) → Ag2S (s) + H2O (l) is ________ kJ.

A) -267 B) -370 C) -202 D) -308 E) More data are needed to complete the calculation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 56) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) is ________ kJ.

A) -99 B) 99 C) -198 D) 198 E) The ΔH°f of O2 (g) is needed for the calculation. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

57) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4 (l) is ________ kJ.

A) -132 B) 1496 C) 704 D) -704 E) -2.16 × 103 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.7

58) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction 3Cl2 (g) + PH3 (g) → PCl3 (g) + 3HCl (g) is ________ kJ.

A) -385.77 B) -570.37 C) 570.37 D) 385.77 E) The ΔH°f of Cl2 (g) is needed for the calculation. Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

59) Given the data in the table below, ΔH°rxn for the reaction PCl3 (g) + 3HCl (g) → 3Cl2 (g) + PH3 (g) is ________ kJ.

A) -570.37 B) -385.77 C) 570.37 D) 385.77 E) The ΔH°f of Cl2 (g) is needed for the calculation. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4 60) Given the data in the table below and ΔH°rxn for the reaction SO2Cl2 (g) + 2H2O (l) → H2SO4 (l) + 2HCl (g) ΔH° = -62 kJ ΔH°f of HCl (g) is ________ kJ/mol.

A) -184 B) 60 C) -92 D) 30 E) Insufficient data are given. Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G4

61) A 19.5 g candy bar contains 8% protein, 33% fat, and 18% carbohydrate. The respective fuel values for protein, fat, and carbohydrate are 17, 38, and 17 kJ/g, respectively. What is the fuel value (kJ) for this piece of candy? A) 241 B) 331 C) 27 D) 60.0 E) 17.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G4 62) A 3.00 L pitcher of sweetened ice tea contains 600. g of sugar. Assuming that the sugar is the only fuel source, what is the fuel value (in kJ) of a 250. mL serving? The respective fuel values for protein, fat, and carbohydrate are 17, 38, and 17 kJ/g, respectively. A) 8.50 × 102 kJ B) 10.2 × 104 kJ C) 2.55 × 103 kJ D) 38 kJ E) 17 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 63) A typical fast food meal consists of a burger, fries, and a soft-drink and contains 58.0 grams of fat, 39.0 grams of protein, and 177 grams of carbohydrate. If jogging burns 950.0 kJ/hour, how many minutes would it take to completely burn off the meal? The respective fuel values for protein, fat, and carbohydrate are 17, 38, and 17 kJ/g, respectively. A) 6.19 B) 208 C) 371 D) 17.3 E) 9.70 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7

64) A slice of cake contains 29.0 grams of fat, 9.0 grams of protein, and 77 grams of carbohydrate. If swimming burns 1000.0 kJ/hour, how many minutes would it take to completely burn off the slice of cake? The respective fuel values for protein, fat, and carbohydrate are 17, 38, and 17 kJ/g, respectively. A) 154 B) 2.56 C) 23.4 D) 117 E) 262 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 5.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) A 26.9 g rock rolls down the hill at a speed of 81.9 m/s . What is the kinetic energy of the rock? A) 90.2 J B) 145 J C) 0.950 J D) 90200 J E) 1450 J Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 2) A 23.2 g piece of space debris is traveling at 81.9 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the space debris? A) 145 J B) 1450 J C) 0.950 J D) 77800 J E) 77.8 J Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4

3) At what velocity (m/s) must a A) 0.35 m/s B) 2.8 m/s C) 0.13 m/s D) 0.031 m/s E) 0.016 m/s Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ LO: 5.1 GO: G4

object be moving in order to possess a kinetic energy of

Page Ref: Sec. 5.1

4) At what velocity (m/s) must a 417.3 g object be moving in order to possess a kinetic energy of A) 0.12 m/s B) 26 m/s C) 0.015 m/s D) 0.0038 m/s E) 0.00024 m/s Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ LO: 5.1 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.1

5) When work is done on a system, w will be a ________ value. A) positive B) negative C) very large D) very small E) There is not enough information given to determine the answer. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 6) The value of ΔE for a system that performs 139 kJ of work on its surroundings and gains of heat is A) -85 B) 193 C) 7506 D) 85 E) -193 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 38

7) The value of ΔE for a system that performs 19 kJ of work on its surroundings and loses heat is A) -28 B) 28 C) 171 D) 10 E) -10 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4

8) Calculate the work (kJ) done during a reaction in which the internal volume expands from to against an outside pressure of A) -7.3 kJ B) 17 kJ C) 7.3 kJ D) -17 kJ E) 0 kJ; No work is done. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.5 GO: G4 9) Calculate the work (kJ) done during a reaction in which the internal volume expands from to against a vacuum (an outside pressure of A) 0; kJ No work is done. B) 3.6 kJ C) -3.6 kJ D) 6.5 kJ E) -6.5 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.5 GO: G4 10) Calculate the work (kJ) done during a reaction in which the internal volume contracts from to against an outside pressure of A) 31 kJ B) 43 kJ C) -31 kJ D) -43 kJ E) 0 kJ; No work is done. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.3 LO: 5.5 GO: G4 39

11) The value of ΔE for a system that performs 151 kJ of work on its surroundings and loses 79 kJ of heat is ________ kJ. A) +230. B) -230. C) +72 D) -72 E) -151 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 12) Calculate the value of ΔE in joules for a system that loses 115 J of heat and has 150 J of work performed on it by the surroundings. A) -115 J B) -35 J C) +35 J D) +265 J E) -265 J Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 5.2 LO: 5.3 GO: G4 13) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -72 kJ. ________ kJ of heat are released when 5.5 mol of HBr is formed in this reaction. H2 (g) + Br2 (g) → 2HBr (g) A) 144 B) 72 C) 0.44 D) 198 E) -72 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 12 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

14) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -126 kJ. The amount of heat that is released by the reaction of 10.0 g of Na2O2 with water is ________ kJ. 2Na2O2 (s) + 2H2O (l) → 4NaOH (s) + O2 (g) A) 8.08 B) 16.2 C) 67.5 D) 32.3 E) -126 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 9 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

15) The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -482 kJ. Calculate the heat (kJ) released to the surroundings when 10.0 g of CO (g) reacts completely. 2CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) A) 2410 kJ B) 172 kJ C) 86.0 kJ D) 482 kJ E) -482 kJ Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 8 LO: 5.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.4

16) In the presence of excess oxygen, methane gas burns in a constant-pressure system to yield carbon dioxide and water: CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) △H = -890.0 kJ Calculate the value of q (kJ) in this exothermic reaction when 1.80 g of methane is combusted at constant pressure. A) -100.1 kJ B) 0.0324 kJ C) -0.0100 kJ D) 30.9 kJ E) -1.00 × 105 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 41

17) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes to water and oxygen at constant pressure (△H = -196 kJ). What is the value of q (kJ) for this reaction when 4.60 g of hydrogen peroxide decomposes at constant pressure? A) -26.5 kJ B) -0.0189 kJ C) 1.25 kJ D) -2.65 × 104 kJ E) -13.3 kJ Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 18) The combustion of titanium with oxygen produces titanium dioxide: Ti (s) + O2(g) → TiO2 (s) When 0.610 g of titanium is combusted in a bomb calorimeter, the temperature of the calorimeter increases from 25.00 °C to 50.50 °C. In a separate experiment, the heat capacity of the calorimeter is measured to be 9.84 kJ/K. The heat of reaction for the combustion of a mole of Ti in this calorimeter is ________ kJ/mol. A) 2.09 B) 4.14 C) -311 D) -0.154 E) -1.98 × Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 19) A sample of aluminum metal absorbs 11.2 J of heat, upon which the temperature of the sample increases from 23.2 °C to 30.5 °C. Since the specific heat capacity of aluminum is 0.90 J/g-K, the mass of the sample is ________ g. A) 72 B) 1.7 C) 10. D) 65 E) 7.3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

20) A sample of calcium carbonate [CaCO3 (s)] absorbs of heat, upon which the temperature of the sample increases from to If the specific heat of calcium carbonate is what is the mass (in grams) of the sample? A) 7.6 g B) 5.1 g C) -7.6 g D) 0.13 g E) 5.3 g Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 21) How many joules of heat are absorbed when the temperature of a 13.9 g sample of CaCO3 (s) increases from to Specific heat of calcium carbonate is A) 130 J B) 0.68 J C) s-130 J D) -0.68 J E) 9.5 J Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 22) An 6.11 g sample of calcium carbonate [CaCO3 (s)] absorbs of heat, upon which the temperature of the sample increases from to What is the specific heat of calcium carbonate? A) 0.82 J/g-K B) -0.82 J/g-K C) 31 J/g-K D) 230 J/g-K E) 8600 J/g-K Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

23) A sample of iron absorbs 81.0 J of heat, upon which the temperature of the sample increases from to If the specific heat of iron is 0.450 J/g-K, what is the mass (in grams) of the sample? A) 21.2 g B) 4.29 g C) -21.2 g D) 0.0472 g E) 3.83 g Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 24) The temperature of a 35.1 g sample of iron increases from heat of iron is how many joules of heat are absorbed? A) 115 J B) 0.0936 J C) -115 J D) 0.722 J E) 3.29 J Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

If the specific

25) A 22.9 g sample of iron absorbs 155 J of heat, upon which the temperature of the sample increases from to What is the specific heat of iron? A) 0.451 J/g-K B) -0.451 J/g-K C) 237 J/g-K D) 102 J/g-K E) 53,200 J/g-K Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

26) The specific heat capacity of liquid water is 4.18 J/g-K. How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 7.25 g of water from 20.0 °C to 44.1 °C? A) 41.8 J B) 730 J C) 1.94 × J D) 2.39 × J E) 66.8 J Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 27) The specific heat capacity of methane gas is 2.20 J/g-K. How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 7.25 g of methane from 22.0 °C to 57.0 °C? A) 115 J B) 558 J C) 1.26 × 103 J D) 8.67 × 10-3 J E) 41.3 J Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 28) The specific heat capacity of liquid mercury is 0.14 J/g-K. How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 6.00 g of mercury from 25.1 °C to 65.3 °C? A) 1.7 × 103 J B) 34 J C) 76 J D) 5.8 × 10-4 J E) 2.2 J Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

29) How much heat is required to raise the temperature of a 1.15 kg piece of copper metal from 25.0 °C to 77.5 °C? The specific heat capacity of solid copper metal is 0.385 J/g-K. A) 2.32 × J B) 1.57 × J C) 23.2 J D) 6.38 × J E) 0.00638 J Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 30) A 4.50-g sample of liquid water at 25.0 °C is heated by the addition of 133 J of energy. The final temperature of the water is ________ °C. The specific heat capacity of liquid water is A) 149 B) 25.1 C) -17.9 D) 32.1 E) 7.07 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 20 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 5.5

31) A 10.1 g sample of NaOH is dissolved in 250.0 g of water in a coffee-cup calorimeter. The temperature increases from 23.0 °C to ________°C. Specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g-K and ΔH for the dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water is 44.4 kJ/mol. A) 35.2 B) 24.0 C) 33.7 D) 33.3 E) 40.2 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

32) A 50.0-g sample of liquid water at 25.0 °C is mixed with 23.0 g of water at 79.0 °C. The final temperature of the water is ________ °C. A) 123 B) 27.3 C) 52.0 D) 231 E) 42.0 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 30 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 33) A 5.00-g sample of copper metal at 25.0 °C is heated by the addition of 133 J of energy. The final temperature of the copper is ________ °C. The specific heat capacity of copper is A) 35.1 B) 25.0 C) 45.0 D) 95.0 E) 70.0 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 20 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 34) The temperature of a 24.3 g sample of gold increases from heat of gold is how many joules of heat are absorbed? A) 24.5 J B) 0.0414 J C) -24.5 J D) 0.293 J E) 1.01 J Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4

If the specific

35) What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) of a chemical reaction that raises the temperature of 250.0 mL of solution having a density of 1.25 g/mL by 3.33 °C? (The specific heat of the solution is 3.74 J/g-K.) A) -7.43 kJ B) -12.51 kJ C) 8.20 kJ D) -3.89 kJ E) 6.51 kJ Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 36) An 8 oz. bottle of energy drink contains 6.0 g of protein, 2.0 g of fat, and 16.3 g of carbohydrate. The fuel value of this energy drink bottle is ________ kJ. The fuel values for protein, fat, and carbohydrate are 17, 38, and 17 kJ/g, respectively. A) 520 B) 280 C) 720 D) 460 E) 72 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 5.4 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force. Answer: Work Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G4 2) The ΔHvap of water is 40.7 kJ at 100 °C. How much liquid water in grams can be converted to vapor if 5950 J of heat are absorbed? Answer: 2.63 grams Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 3) The ΔHvap of water is 40.7 kJ at 100 °C. How much heat energy is required to convert 15.0 grams of liquid water to vapor. Answer: 33.9 kJ Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 48

4) When 0.800 grams of NaOH is dissolved in 100.0 grams of water, the temperature of the solution increases from 25.00 °C to 27.06 °C. The amount of heat absorbed by the water is ________ J. (The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g-°C.) Answer: 868 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.5 LO: 5.8 GO: G4 5) The ΔHrxn for the combustion of methane is -890.0 kJ. How much heat energy (kJ) is released if 82.1 grams of methane are burned in an excess amount of oxygen? Answer: 4555 kJ Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.4 LO: 5.7 GO: G4 6) The ________ of a reaction is the enthalpy change when all reactants and products are at 1 atm pressure and a specific temperature. Answer: standard enthalpy change Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.7 LO: 5.10a GO: G2 7) Coal contains hydrocarbons of high molecular weight as well as compounds containing ________, sulfur, or nitrogen. Answer: oxygen Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G7 5.5 True/False Questions 1) Work equals mass times distance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G2 2) One joule equals 1 kg-m2/s2. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G2

3) Energy units include watts, volts, and newtons. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.1 LO: 5.1 GO: G2 4) The primary component of natural gas is methane. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G2 5) Renewable energy sources are essentially exhaustible. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G2 6) Petroleum is a liquid that can be refined to produce fuels such as gasoline, diesel oil, and kerosene. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 5.9 LO: 5.1 - 5.11 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 6 Electronic Structure of Atoms 6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which one of the following is correct? A) ν + λ = c B) ν ÷ λ = c C) ν = cλ D) λ = c ν E) νλ = c Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G2 2) Of the following, ________ radiation has the shortest wavelength. A) X-ray B) radio C) microwave D) ultraviolet E) infrared Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 3) The photoelectric effect is ________. A) the total reflection of light by metals giving them their typical luster B) the production of current by silicon solar cells when exposed to sunlight C) the ejection of electrons by a metal when struck with light of sufficient energy D) the darkening of photographic film when exposed to an electric field E) a relativistic effect Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G2

4) Which one of the following is considered to be ionizing radiation? A) visible light B) radio waves C) X-rays D) microwaves E) infrared radiation Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 5) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the ________ transition results in the emission of the lowest-energy photon. A) n = 1 → n = 6 B) n = 6 → n = 1 C) n = 6 → n = 3 D) n = 3 → n = 6 E) n = 1 → n = 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G2 6) In the Bohr model of the atom, ________. A) electrons travel in circular paths called orbitals B) electrons can have any energy C) electron energies are quantized D) electron paths are controlled by probability E) both A and C Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G2 7) According to the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle, it is impossible to know precisely both the position and the ________ of an electron. A) mass B) color C) momentum D) shape E) charge Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.6 GO: G2

8) All of the orbitals in a given electron shell have the same value as the ________ quantum number. A) principal B) angular momentum C) magnetic D) spin E) psi Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.6 GO: G2 9) The de Broglie wavelength of a ________ will have the shortest wavelength when traveling at 30 cm/s. A) marble B) car C) planet D) uranium atom E) hydrogen atom Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G2 10) The uncertainty principle states that ________. A) matter and energy are really the same thing B) it is impossible to know anything with certainty C) it is impossible to know the exact position and momentum of an electron D) there can only be one uncertain digit in a reported number E) it is impossible to know how many electrons there are in an atom Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.6 GO: G2 11) All of the orbitals in a given subshell have the same value as the ________ quantum number. A) principal B) spin C) magnetic D) A and B E) B and C Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2

12) Which one of the following is not a valid value for the magnetic quantum number of an electron in a 5d subshell? A) 2 B) 3 C) 0 D) 1 E) -1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 13) Which of the subshells below do not exist due to the constraints upon the angular momentum quantum number? A) 2d B) 2s C) 2p D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 14) Which of the subshells below do not exist due to the constraints upon the angular momentum quantum number? A) 4f B) 4d C) 4p D) 4s E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 15) An electron cannot have the quantum numbers n = ________, l = ________, ml = ________. A) 2, 0, 0 B) 2, 1, -1 C) 3, 1, -1 D) 1, 1, 1 E) 3, 2, 1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 4

16) An electron cannot have the quantum numbers n = ________, l = ________, ml = ________. A) 6, 1, 0 B) 3, 2, 3 C) 3, 2, -2 D) 1, 0, 0 E) 3, 2, 1 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 17) Which one of the following is an incorrect subshell notation? A) 4f B) 2d C) 3s D) 2p E) 3d Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 18) Which one of the following is an incorrect orbital notation? A) 2s B) 3py C) 3f D) 4dxy E) 4s Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 19) Which quantum number determines the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom? A) n B) E C) ml D) l E) n and l Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2

20) All of the following are a result from the solution of the Schrodinger equation except ________. A) spin B) principal C) azimuthal D) magnetic E) angular momentum Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 21) Which quantum numbers must be the same for the orbitals that they designate to be degenerate in a one-electron system (such as hydrogen)? A) n, l, and ml B) n and l only C) l and ml D) ml only E) n only Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.6 LO: 6.8 GO: G2 22) In a px orbital, the subscript x denotes the ________. A) energy of the electron B) spin of the electrons C) probability of the shell D) size of the orbital E) axis along which the orbital is aligned Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.6 LO: 6.8 GO: G2 23) A 4pz orbital in a many-electron atom is degenerate with ________. A) 5s B) 3pz C) 4dxy D) 4px E) 4d2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.6 LO: 6.8 GO: G2 6

24) Which one of the following orbitals can hold two electrons? A) 2px B) 3s C) 4dxy D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.6 LO: 6.8 GO: G2 25) Which of the quantum number(s) below represent the principal quantum number? A) n, l, and ml B) n only C) n, l, ml, and ms D) ms only E) n and l only Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 26) Which of the following is not a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, l, ml, ms) A) 2, 0, 0, +1/2 B) 2, 1, 0, -1/2 C) 3, 1, -1, -1/2 D) 1, 0, 0, +1/2 E) 1, 1, 0, +1/2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 27) Which of the following is a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, l, ml, ms) A) 2, 1, 0, +1/2 B) 2, 2, 1, -1/2 C) 1, 0, 1, +1/2 D) 2, 1, +2, +1/2 E) 1, 1, 0, -1/2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2

28) Which electron configuration represents a violation of the Pauli exclusion principle? A)

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

29) Which electron configuration represents a violation of the Pauli exclusion principle? A)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

30) Which electron orbital diagram represents a violation of the Aufbau principle? A)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

31) Which one of the following is the correct electron configuration for a ground-state nitrogen atom? A)

E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

32) Which electron configuration denotes an atom in its ground state? A)

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

33) The ground state electron configuration of Ga is ________. A) 1s22s23s23p64s23d104p1 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104d1 E) [Ar]4s23d11 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

34) The ground-state electron configuration of the element ________ is [Kr]5s14d5. A) Nb B) Mo C) Cr D) Mn E) Tc Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 35) The ground-state electron configuration of ________ is [Ar]4s13d5. A) V B) Mn C) Fe D) Cr E) K Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 36) Which is the correct electron configuration for a nitrogen atom? A) 1s22s22p2 B) 1s22s22p1 C) 1s22s22p4 D) 1s22s22p3 E) [He]2s22p5 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 37) Which is the correct electron configuration for an oxide ion? A) 1s22s22p3 B) 1s22s22p1 C) 1s22s22p6 D) 1s22s23s2 E) 1s22s22p2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

38) Which electron configuration represents a violation of Hund's rule for an atom in its ground state? A)

Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

39) Which electron configuration represents a violation of Hund's rule for an atom in its ground state? A)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

40) Which electron orbital diagram is written correctly for an atom without any violations? A)

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

41) The ground-state configuration of fluorine is ________. A) [He]2s22p2 B) [He]2s22p3 C) [He]2s22p4 D) [He]2s22p5 E) [He]2s22p6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2

42) The ground-state configuration of tungsten is ________. A) [Ar]4s23d3 B) [Xe]6s24f145d4 C) [Ne]3s1 D) [Xe]6s24f7 E) [Kr]5s24d105p5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 43) No two electrons within the same orbtial can have the same set of quantum numbers. This statement describes ________. A) Planck's constant B) Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle C) Pauli Exclusion Principle D) deBroglie hypothesis E) Hund's rule Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 44) Which of the following elements has a ground-state electron configuration different from the predicted one? A) Cu B) Ca C) Xe D) Cl E) Ti Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 45) Which two elements have the same ground-state electron configuration? A) Pd and Pt B) Cu and Ag C) Fe and Cu D) Cl and Ar E) No two elements have the same ground-state electron configuration. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 17

46) How many different principal quantum numbers can be found in the ground-state electron configuration of nickel? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 47) The valence shell of the element X contains 2 electrons in a 5s subshell. Below that shell, element X has a partially filled 4d subshell. What type of element is X? A) main group element B) chalcogen C) halogen D) transition metal E) alkali metal Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 6.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Electromagnetic radiation travels through vacuum at a speed of ________ m/s. A) 186,000 B) 125 C) 3.00 × 108 D) 10,000 E) It depends on wavelength. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 2) The wavelength of light that has a frequency of 1.20 × 1013 s-1 is ________ m. A) 25.0 B) 2.50 × 10-5 C) 0.0400 D) 12.0 E) 2.5 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 18

3) The wavelength of light that has a frequency of 1.66 × 109 s-1 is ________ m. A) 0.181 B) 5.53 C) 2.00 × 10-9 D) 5.53 × 108 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 4) Ham radio operators often broadcast on the 6-meter band. The frequency of this electromagnetic radiation is ________ MHz. A) 500 B) 200 C) 50 D) 20 E) 2.0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 5) Visible light with a wavelength of 550 nm has a frequency of ________ Hz. A) 5.5 × 105 B) 1.7 × 1011 C) 5.5 × 1014 D) 1.7 × 102 E) 5.5 × 1017 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 6) What is the frequency (s-1) of electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength of 2.3 m? A) 1.3 × 108 s-1 B) 1.8 × 10-9 s-1 C) 1.6 × 108 s-1 D) 1.3 × 10-33 s-1 E) 1.3 × 1033 s-1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 19

7) What is the frequency of light (s-1) that has a wavelength of 1.23 × 10-6 cm? A) 3.69 B) 2.44 × 1016 s-1 C) 4.10 × 10-17 s-1 D) 9.62 × 1012 s-1 E) 1.04 × 10-13 s-1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 8) What is the frequency of light (s-1) that has a wavelength of 3.86 × 10-5 cm? A) 7.77 × 1014 s-1 B) 6.32 × 10-12 s-1 C) 1.04 × 10-13 s-1 D) 9.62 × 1012 s-1 E) 2.14 × 10-16 s-1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 9) What is the frequency of light (s-1) that has a wavelength of 3.12 × 10-3 cm? A) 3.69 s-1 B) 2.44 × 1016 s-1 C) 9.62 × 1012 s-1 D) 4.10 × 10-17 s-1 E) 1.04 × 10-13 s-1 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 10) What is the wavelength of light (nm) that has a frequency of 3.22 × 1014 s-1? A) 932 nm B) 649 nm C) 9.66 × 1022 nm D) 9.32 × 10-7 nm E) 1.07 × 106 nm Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 20

11) What is the wavelength of light (nm) that has a frequency of 6.44 × 1013 s-1? A) 4660 nm B) 6490 nm C) 4.66 × 10-8 nm D) 6.49 × 10-8 nm E) 932 nm Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 12) What is the wavelength of light (nm) that has a frequency 4.62 × 1014 s-1? A) 932 nm B) 649 nm C) 1.39 × 1023 nm D) 1.54 × 10-3 nm E) 1.07 × 106 nm Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 13) The wavelength of a photon that has an energy of 6.33 × 10-18 J is ________ m. A) 3.79 × 10-7 B) 3.10 × 10-8 C) 2.38 × 1023 D) 4.21 × 10-24 E) 9.55 × 1015 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 14) The energy of a photon of light is ________ proportional to its frequency and ________ proportional to its wavelength. A) directly, directly B) inversely, inversely C) inversely, directly D) directly, inversely E) indirectly, not Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 21

15) The wavelength of a photon that has an energy of 5.25 × 10-19 J is ________ m. A) 3.79 × 10-7 B) 2.64 × 106 C) 2.38 × 1023 D) 4.21 × 10-24 E) 3.79 × 107 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 16) The energy of a photon that has a wavelength of 9.0 m is ________ J. A) 2.2 × 10-26 B) 4.5 × 1025 C) 6.0 × 10-23 D) 2.7 × 109 E) 4.5 × 10-25 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 17) The energy of a photon that has a wavelength of 8.33 × 10-6 m is ________ J. A) 2.20 × 10-26 B) 3.60 × 1013 C) 2.39 × 10-20 D) 2.7 × 109 E) 4.5 × 10-25 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 18) The frequency of a photon that has an energy of 3.7 × 10-18 J is ________ s-1. A) 5.6 × 1015 B) 1.8 × 10-16 C) 2.5 × 10-15 D) 5.4 × 10-8 E) 2.5 × 1015 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 22

19) The frequency of a photon that has an energy of 8.5 × 10-12 J is ________ s-1. A) 1.3 × 1022 B) 1.8 × 10-16 C) 2.5 × 10-15 D) 5.4 × 10-8 E) 2.5 × 1015 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 20) What is the energy of a photon (J) that has a wavelength of 105 nm? A) 1.89 × 10-13 B) 1.89 × 10-32 C) 1.89 × 10-18 D) 1.89 × 10-36 E) 1.89 × 10-27 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 21) The energy of a photon that has a wavelength of 13.2 nm is ________ J. A) 9.55 × 10-25 B) 1.62 × 10-17 C) 1.99 × 10-25 D) 4.42 × 10-23 E) 1.51 × 10-17 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 22) What is the energy of a photon (J) that has a frequency of 4.39 × 1019 Hz? A) 2.91 × 10-14 B) 2.91 × 1020 C) 6.83 × 10-12 D) 2.91 × 10-52 E) 2.91 × 1054 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 23

23) The energy of a photon that has a frequency of 1.821 × 1016 s-1 is ________ J. A) 5.44 × 10-18 B) 1.99 × 10-25 C) 3.49 × 10-48 D) 1.21 × 10-17 E) 5.46 × 10-24 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 24) What is the frequency (s-1) of a photon that has an energy of 4.38 × 10-18 J? A) 436 s-1 B) 6.61 × 1015 s-1 C) 1.45 × 10-16 s-1 D) 2.30 × 107 s-1 E) 1.31 × 10-9 s-1 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 25) What is the wavelength (angstroms) of a photon that has an energy of 4.38 × 10-18 J? A) 45.4 angstroms B) 2.30 × 107 angstroms C) 6.89 × 1015 angstroms D) 1.45 × 10-16 angstroms E) 1.31 × 10-9 angstroms Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 26) A photon that has an energy of 8.63 × 10-12 J would emit light at which wavelength (m)? A) 230 B) 2.30 × 10-14 C) 2.30 D) 3.48 × 1019 E) 2.30 × 10-5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 24

27) A mole of red photons of wavelength 725 nm has ________ kJ of energy. A) 2.74 × 10-19 B) 4.56 × 10-46 C) 6.05 × 10-3 D) 165 E) 227 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 28) A mole of yellow photons of wavelength 527 nm has ________ kJ of energy. A) 165 B) 227 C) 4.56 × 10-46 D) 6.05 × 10-3 E) 2.74 × 10-19 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 29) Of the following, ________ radiation has the longest wavelength and ________ radiation has the greatest energy. gamma ultraviolet visible A) ultraviolet, gamma B) visible, ultraviolet C) gamma, gamma D) visible, gamma E) gamma, visible Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 30) What color of visible light has the longest wavelength? A) blue B) violet C) red D) yellow E) green Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 25

31) Which of the following radiation sources from the electromagnetic spectrum has the shortest wavelength and greatest energy? A) radio B) microwave C) gamma D) visible E) ultraviolet Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 32) What color of visible light has the highest energy? A) violet B) blue C) red D) green E) yellow Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 33) Using Bohr's equation for the energy levels of the electron in the hydrogen atom, determine the of an electron in the n = 4 level. A) -1.36 × 10-19 B) -5.45 × 10-19 C) -7.34 × 1018 D) -1.84 × 10-29 E) +1.84 × 10-29 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 34) An electron in a Bohr hydrogen atom with a n = 4 value would have an energy of ________. A) 1.362 × 10-19 J B) -1.362 × 10-16 J C) -1.362 × 1019 J D) 1.362 × 1019 J E) -1.362 × 10-19 J Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 26

35) The energy (J) required for an electronic transition in a Bohr hydrogen atom from n = 2 to n = 3 is ________ J. A) 4.00 × 10-19 B) 3.00 × 10-19 C) -3.00 × 10-19 D) -7.90 × 10-19 E) 4.60 × 1014 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 36) The energy (J) required for an electronic transition in a Bohr hydrogen atom from n = 1 to n = 3 is ________ J. A) -8.90 × 10-1 B) 3.00 × 10-19 C) -3.00 × 10-19 D) 1.94 × 10-18 E) 8.90 × 10-1 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 37) An electron transition from n = 2 to n = 5 in a Bohr hydrogen atom would correspond to the following energy. A) 4.9 × 10-19 J B) 4.9 × 1019 J C) -4.9 × 10-19 J D) -4.9 × 1019 J E) 4.9 × 10-16 J Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4

38) The frequency of electromagnetic radiation required to promote an electron from n = 2 to n = 4 in a Bohr hydrogen atom is ________ Hz. A) 4.13 × 10-19 B) 6.17 × 1014 C) 5.46 × 10-19 D) 8.22 × 1014 E) 4.13 × 1019 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 39) A spectrum containing only ________ wavelengths is called a line spectrum. A) Rydberg B) specific C) continuous D) visible E) invariant Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 40) When the electron in a hydrogen atom moves from n = 6 to n = 1, light with a wavelength of ________ nm is emitted. A) 487 B) 411 C) 434 D) 93.8 E) 657 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 41) What is the wavelength (nm) of light emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom moves from n = 4 to n = 2? A) -486 B) 2.06 × 1015 C) 486 D) 2.06 × 106 E) 4.86 × 10-7 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 28

42) The n = 2 to n = 6 transition in the Bohr hydrogen atom corresponds to the ________ of a photon with a wavelength of ________ nm. A) emission, 410 B) absorption, 410 C) absorption, 660 D) emission, 94 E) emission, 390 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 43) The n = 5 to n = 3 transition in the Bohr hydrogen atom corresponds to the ________ of a photon with a wavelength of ________ nm. A) absorption, 657 B) absorption, 1280 C) emission, 657 D) emission, 1280 E) emission, 389 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 44) A transition in the Bohr hydrogen atom from n = 4 to n = 2 occurs in the ________ region of the electromagnetic spectrum. A) infrared B) microwave C) ultraviolet D) visible E) X-ray Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4

45) A transition in the Bohr hydrogen atom from n = 6 to n = 1 occurs in the ________ region of the electromagnetic spectrum. A) radio B) ultraviolet C) infrared D) X-ray E) microwave Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 46) The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by ________. A) h + mv B) hmv C) h/mv D) mv/c E) mv Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 47) What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of a 2.0-kg object moving at a speed of 50 m/s? A) 6.6 × 10-36 m B) 1.5 × 1035 m C) 5.3 × 10-33 m D) 2.6 × 10-35 m E) 3.8 × 1034 m Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 48) A 934 g object is traveling at a velocity of 35.0 m/s. What is the de Broglie wavelength of this object? A) 2.03 × 10-38 m B) 2.03 × 10-32 m C) 2.03 × 1033 m D) 2.03 × 10-35 m E) 2.03 × 1036 m Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 30

49) A 13 kg object is traveling at a velocity of 12.0 m/s. What is the de Broglie wavelength of this object? A) 4.25 × 10-36 m B) 4.25 × 1037 m C) 4.25 × 1034 m D) 4.25 × 10-39 m E) 4.25 × 10-33 m Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 50) At what speed (m/s) must a 10.0-mg object be moving to have a de Broglie wavelength of 3.3 × 10-41 m? A) 4.1 m/s B) 1.9 × 10-11 m/s C) 2.0 × 1012 m/s D) 3.3 × 10-42 m/s E) 1.9 × 1013 m/s Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 51) A 34.0 mg object with a de Broglie wavelength of A) 8.12 × 10-7 m/s B) 2.76 × 10-14 m/s C) 2.76 × 10-11 m/s D) 8.12 × 10-10 m/s E) 8.12 × 10-13 m/s Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4

is traveling at what speed?

52) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron is 8.7 × 10-11 m. The mass of an electron is 9.1 × 10-31 kg. The velocity of this electron is ________ m/s. A) 8.4 × 103 B) 1.2 × 10-7 C) 6.9 × 10-5 D) 8.4 × 106 E) 8.4 × 10-3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 53) What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of a 1.0 × 109 kg train car traveling at 95 km/hr? A) 2.51 × 10-41 B) 2.51 × 10-47 C) 6.97 × 10-45 D) 2.51 × 10-44 E) 6.97 × 10-48 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 54) What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of a 1.00 × 103 kg race car traveling at 145 mi/hr? A) 1.02 × 10-41 B) 1.02 × 10-35 C) 1.02 × 10-38 D) 4.57 × 10-39 E) 4.57 × 10-42 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4

55) The wavelength of an electron whose velocity is 1.7 × 104 m/s and whose mass is 9.1 × 1028 g is ________ m. A) 4.3 × 10-11 B) 12 C) 4.3 × 10-8 D) 2.3 × 107 E) 2.3 × 10-7 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 56) The ________ quantum number defines the shape of an orbital. A) spin B) magnetic C) principal D) angular momentum E) psi Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 57) There are ________ orbitals in the third shell. A) 25 B) 4 C) 9 D) 16 E) 1 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 58) The ________ subshell contains only one orbital. A) 5d B) 6f C) 4s D) 3d E) 1p Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2

59) There are ________ orbitals in the second shell. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 60) The angular momentum quantum number is 3 in ________ orbitals. A) s B) p C) d D) f E) a Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 61) The n = 1 shell contains ________ p orbitals. All the other shells contain ________ p orbitals. A) 3, 6 B) 0, 3 C) 6, 2 D) 3, 3 E) 0, 6 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 62) The lowest energy shell that contains f orbitals is the shell with n = ________. A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2

63) The principal quantum number of the first d subshell is ________. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 64) The total number of orbitals in a shell is given by ________. A) I2 B) n2 C) 2n D) 2n + 1 E) 2l + 1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 65) In a hydrogen atom, an electron in a 1s orbital can ________ a photon, but cannot ________ a photon. A) accept, absorb B) absorb, accept C) absorb, emit D) emit, absorb E) emit, accept Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 66) ________-orbitals are spherically symmetrical. A) s B) p C) d D) f E) g Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.6 LO: 6.8 GO: G2

67) Each p-subshell can accommodate a maximum of ________ electrons. A) 6 B) 2 C) 10 D) 3 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 68) Each d-subshell can accommodate a maximum of ________ electrons. A) 6 B) 2 C) 10 D) 3 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 69) How many quantum numbers are necessary to designate a particular electron in an atom? A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 70) Which orbital is degenerate with a 3dz2 in a many-electron atom? A) 3dyz B) 5dz2 C) 4dz2 D) 3dzz E) 4dxz Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

71) The 3p subshell in the ground state of atomic xenon contains ________ electrons. A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 E) 36 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 72) The 3p subshell in the ground state of atomic silicon contains ________ electrons. A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 E) 36 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 73) The first shell in the ground state of a krypton atom can contain a maximum of ________ electrons. A) 6 B) 36 C) 8 D) 18 E) 2 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 74) The 4d subshell in the ground state of atomic xenon contains ________ electrons. A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 E) 36 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

75) [Ar]4s23d104p3 is the electron configuration of a(n) ________ atom. A) As B) V C) P D) Sb E) Sn Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 76) [Ne]3s23p3 is the electron configuration of a(n) ________ atom. A) As B) V C) P D) Sb E) Sn Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 77) There are ________ unpaired electrons in a ground state fluorine atom. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 78) The electron configuration of a ground-state Ag atom is ________. A) [Ar]4s24d9 B) [Kr]5s14d10 C) [Kr]5s23d9 D) [Ar]4s14d10 E) [Kr]5s24d10 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2

79) The ground-state electron configuration for Zn is ________. A) [Kr]4s23d10 B) [Ar]4s23d10 C) [Ar]4s13d10 D) [Ar]3s23d10 E) [Kr]3s23d10 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 80) What is the correct ground state electron configuration for copper? A) [Ar]4s24d9 B) [Ar]4s14d10 C) [Ar]4s13d10 D) [Ar]4s23d10 E) [Ar]4s23d9 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 81) What is the correct ground state electron configuration for chromium? A) [Ar]4s13d5 B) [Ar]4s14d5 C) [Ar]4s23d4 D) [Ar]4s24d5 E) [Kr]4s13d5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 82) All of the ________ have a valence shell electron configuration ns1. A) noble gases B) halogens C) chalcogens D) alkali metals E) alkaline earth metals Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2

83) The elements in the ________ period of the periodic table have a core-electron configuration that is the same as the electron configuration of neon. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) fifth Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 84) Elements in group ________ have a np6 electron configuration in the outer shell. A) 4A B) 6A C) 7A D) 8A E) 5A Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 85) Which group in the periodic table contains elements with the valence electron configuration of ns2np1? A) 1A B) 2A C) 3A D) 4A E) 8A Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2

6.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 640 nm appears as orange light to the human eye. The frequency of this light is ________ s-1. A) 4.688 × B) 4.688 × C) 1.920 × D) 1.920 × E) 2.133 × Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 12 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 2) The wavelength of light emitted from a traffic light having a frequency of 2.74 × 1014 Hz is ________ nm. A) 1090 B) 109 C) 54.7 D) 36.5 E) 50.0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4 3) An FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic radiation at a frequency of 89.7 MHz. The wavelength of this radiation is ________ m. A) 3.34 × B) 3.34 C) 2.69 × D) 2.69 × E) 0.299 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 GO: G4

4) Calculate the energy (J) found in one photon of visible light if the wavelength is 589 nm. A) 3.37 × B) 1.17 × 10-31 C) 1.17 × 10-22 D) 3.37 × E) 2.96 × Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 12 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 5) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 641 nm appears as orange light to the human eye. The energy of one photon of this light is 3.10 × J. Thus, a laser that emits of energy in a pulse of light at this wavelength produces ________ photons in each pulse. A) 2.4 × B) 6.3 × 10-24 C) 2.7 × D) 4.2 × E) 6.5 × Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 12 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 6) Calculate the longest wavelength of light (nm) that can be used to remove electrons from metal surfaces if 245 kJ/mol is required to eject electrons. A) 233 B) 488 C) 725 D) 552 E) 165 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G4 7) A radio station broadcasts at 99.5 MHz. The wavelength of the signal is ________ m. A) 3.10 B) 3.02 C) 2.90 D) 2.75 E) 4.71 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.1 42

GO: G4 8) When the electron in a hydrogen atom moves from n = 5 to n = 2, light with a wavelength of ________ nm is emitted. A) 93.8 B) 410 C) 487 D) 657 E) 434 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G4 9) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the ________ transition results in the emission of the highest-energy photon. A) n = 6 → n = 4 B) n = 2 → n = 7 C) n = 4 → n = 6 D) n = 1 → n = 4 E) All transitions emit photons of equivalent energy. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G2 10) Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the ________ transition results in the absorption of the highest-energy photon. A) n = 2 → n = 5 B) n = 4 → n = 2 C) n = 3 → n = 2 D) n = 5 → n = 2 E) All transitions absorb photons of equivalent energy. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G2

11) What is the de Broglie wavelength (m) of an electron traveling at a velocity of 6.10 × 106 m/s? A) 1.19 × 10-10 B) 8.39 × 109 C) 8.39 × 1012 D) 1.19 × 10-16 E) 1.19 × 10-13 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G4 12) A 77.67 gram object traveling at a velocity of A) 2.206 × 10-36 B) 2.206 × 10-37 C) 2.206 × 10-38 D) 1.990 × 10-32 E) 2.206 × 10-35 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 50+ LO: 6.5 GO: G4

has a de Broglie wavelength of

Page Ref: Sec. 6.4

13) The de Broglie wavelength of a 0.02900 gram bullet traveling at the speed of A) 3.529 × 10-32 B) 3.529 × 10-33 C) 3.529 × 10-34 D) 3.529 × 10-35 E) 1.244 × 10-35 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ LO: 6.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 6.4

14) The symbol for the spin magnetic quantum number is ________. A) ms B) n C) l D) ml E) sm Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 15) The angular momentum quantum number (l) value of 2 indicates the ________ subshell. A) d B) f C) s D) p E) +1/2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 16) At maximum, an d-subshell can hold ________ electrons. A) 10 B) 6 C) 2 D) 8 E) 14 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 17) If an electron has a principal quantum number (n) of 7 and an angular momentum quantum number (l) of 3, the subshell designation is ________. A) 7f B) 7s C) 7p D) 3f E) 3d Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2

18) Which one of the following represents an acceptable set of quantum numbers for an electron in an atom? (arranged as n, l, ml, and ms ) A) 3, 2, -2, -1/2 B) 3, 3, -4, 1/2 C) 3, 4, 6, -1/2 D) 3, 2, 0, 0 E) 3, 3, 3, -1/2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 19) Which one of the following represents an acceptable set of quantum numbers for an electron in an atom? (arranged as n, l, ml, and ms) A) 3, 0, 0, -1/2 B) 3, -1, -4, 1/2 C) 3, -3, 1, -1/2 D) 0, 2, 1, 0 E) 3, 3, 4, 3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 20) Which one of the following represents an impossible set of quantum numbers for an electron in an atom? (arranged as n, l, ml, and ms) A) 4, 3, 0, 0 B) 4, 3, -3, 1/2 C) 4, 3, 3, -1/2 D) 4, 3, 0, +1/2 E) 4, 2, -2, -1/2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 21) Which set of three quantum numbers (n, l, ml) corresponds to a 4s orbital? A) 4,0,1 B) 4,0,2 C) 4,0,0 D) 4,1,0 E) 4,1,1 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 46

22) How many p-orbitals are occupied in a O atom? A) 5 B) 6 C) 0 D) 3 E) 1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 23) The element that corresponds to the electron configuration 1s22s22p2 is ________. A) lithium B) beryllium C) boron D) nitrogen E) carbon Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 24) There are ________ unpaired electrons in a ground state chlorine atom. A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 25) The ground-state electron configuration of V is ________. A) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d5 C) 1s22s22p63s23p11 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4 E) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

26) The complete electron configuration of sulfur, element 16, is ________. A) 3s23p4 B) 2p103s2 C) 2p63s2 D)

2s42p8 2s62p23s2

E) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 10 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

27) The complete electron configuration of vanadium, element 23, is ________. A) 3p7 B) 3d34s2 C) D)

3p5 3s43p1 3p3

E) Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 6.8

28) In a ground-state copper atom, the ________ subshell is partially filled. A) 3s B) 4s C) 4p D) 3d E) 4d Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 29) What is the principal quantum number for the outermost electrons in a Te atom in the ground state? A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 48

30) What is the angular momentum quantum number for the outermost electrons in a manganese atom in the ground state? A) -1 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 31) The condensed electron configuration of argon, element 18, is ________. A) [Ne]3s4 B) [Ar]3s23p2 C) [Ne]3s23p6 D) [He]2s42p10 E) [He]3s4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 32) The condensed electron configuration of titanium, element 22, is ________. A) [Ar]3s23p6 B) [Ne]3s4 C) [Ar]3s43p4 D) [Ar]3d24s2 E) [Ne]3s43p2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 33) The element that has a valence configuration of 2s2 is ________. A) Be B) Mg C) Ca D) Sr E) Ba Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 49

34) The element that has a valence configuration of 5s25p6 is ________. A) Xe B) Rn C) Ne D) Ar E) Kr Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 35) The element that has a valence configuration of 2s1 is ________. A) Li B) Na C) K D) Rb E) Cs Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 36) What is the maximum angular momentum quantum number in the ground state electron configuration of iodine? A) 3 B) 6 C) 7 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2

6.4 Short Answer Questions 1) A 750 nm wavelength light corresponds to which color within the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum? Answer: red Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G4 2) In the de Broglie formula describing the movement of an electron about the nucleus, the quantity "mv" is called its ________. Answer: momentum Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.5 GO: G2 3) A line spectrum contains radiation of ________ wavelengths. Answer: specific Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G2 4) The shape of an orbital is defined by the angular momentum quantum number which is represented as letter ________. Answer: l Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 5) The maximum angular momentum quantum number in the ground state electron configuration of carbon is ________. Answer: 1 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2 6) The maximum angular momentum quantum number in the ground state electron configuration of argon is ________. Answer: 2 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

7) The ground state electron configuration of scandium is ________. Answer: [Ar]4s23d1 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 8) Which group is represented by a ns2np1 valence shell electron configuration? Answer: 3A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 9) Which group is represented by a ns2np6 valence shell electron configuration? Answer: 8A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 10) The ground state electron configuration of copper is ________. Answer: [Ar]4s13d10 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.9 LO: 6.11 GO: G2 6.5 True/False Questions 1) The wavelength of radio waves can be longer than a football field. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.1 LO: 6.2 GO: G2 2) High energy and low wavelength light has the ability to eject electrons from metal surfaces. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.2 LO: 6.3 GO: G2 3) If a hydrogen atom electron jumps from the n=6 orbit to the n=2 orbit, energy is released. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.3 LO: 6.4 GO: G2

4) The square of Schrodinger's wave equation is called an orbital. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.4 LO: 6.6 GO: G2 5) The electron density of the 5s orbital is symmetric. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.5 LO: 6.7 GO: G2 6) The larger the principal quantum number of an orbital, the lower is the energy of the electrons in that orbital. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 7) When the value of n is greater than or equal to 3, electrons can reside in d orbitals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.7 LO: 6.9 GO: G2 8) An NMR spectrum results from photon irradiation in which the electron spin alignment is flipped. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 6.8 LO: 6.10 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 7 Periodic Properties of the Elements 7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In which set of elements would all members be expected to have very similar chemical properties? A) O, S, Se B) N, O, F C) Na, Mg, K D) S, Se, Si E) Ne, Na, Mg Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.1 LO: 7.1 GO: G2 2) In which set of elements would all members be expected to have very similar chemical properties? A) P, Se, I B) Cl, Br, Na C) Si, As, Te D) Ne, Na, Mg E) Br, I, At Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.1 LO: 7.1 GO: G2 3) Electrons in the 1s subshell are much closer to the nucleus in Ar than in He due to the larger ________ in Ar. A) nuclear charge B) paramagnetism C) diamagnetism D) Hund's rule E) azimuthal quantum number Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2

4) Screening of the nuclear charge by core electrons in atoms is ________. A) less efficient than that by valence electrons B) more efficient than that by valence electrons C) essentially identical to that by valence electrons D) responsible for a general decrease in atomic radius going down a group E) both essentially identical to that by valence electrons and responsible for a general decrease in atomic radius going down a group Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 5) The effective nuclear charge of an atom is primarily affected by ________. A) inner electrons B) outer electrons C) nuclear charge D) electron distribution E) orbital radial probability Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 6) The atomic radius of main-group elements generally increases down a group because ________. A) effective nuclear charge increases down a group B) effective nuclear charge decreases down a group C) effective nuclear charge zigzags down a group D) the principal quantum number of the valence orbitals increases E) both effective nuclear charge increases down a group and the principal quantum number of the valence orbitals increases Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 7) Atomic radius generally increases as we move ________. A) down a group and from right to left across a period B) up a group and from left to right across a period C) down a group and from left to right across a period D) up a group and from right to left across a period E) down a group; the period position has no effect Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 2

8) Atomic radius generally decreases as we move ________. A) down a group and from right to left across a period B) up a group and from left to right across a period C) down a group and from left to right across a period D) up a group and from right to left across a period E) down a group; the period position has no effect Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 9) Of the following, which gives the correct order for atomic radius for Mg, Na, P, Si and Ar? A) Mg > Na > P > Si > Ar B) Ar > Si > P > Na > Mg C) Si > P > Ar > Na > Mg D) Na > Mg > Si > P > Ar E) Ar > P > Si > Mg > Na Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 10) Of the following, which gives the correct order for atomic radius for Ca, K, As, Ge and Kr? A) Ca > K > As > Ge > Kr B) Kr > Ge > As > K > Ca C) Ge > As > Kr > K > Ca D) K > Ca > Ge > As > Kr E) Kr > As > Ge > Ca > K Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 11) Which compound has the smallest ionic separation? A) NaCl B) NaBr C) NaI D) NaF E) KF Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2

12) Which of the following is an isoelectronic series? A) B5-, Si4-, As3-, Te2B) F-, Cl-, Br-, IC) S, Cl, Ar, K D) Si2-, P2-, S2-, Cl2E) O2-, F-, Ne, Na+ Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 13) Which isoelectronic series is correctly arranged in order of increasing radius? A) K+ < Ca2+ < Ar < ClB) < Ar < K+ < Ca2+ C) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < ClD) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < ClE) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < Ar Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 14) Of the choices below, which gives the order for first ionization energies? A) Cl > S > Al > Ar > Si B) Ar > Cl > S > Si > Al C) Al > Si > S > Cl > Ar D) Cl > S > Al > Si > Ar E) S > Si > Cl > Al > Ar Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 15) Rank the following in terms of decreasing first ionization energies? A) Ne > O > N > Be > B B) Ne > N > O > B > Be C) Ne > O > N > B > Be D) Ne > N > O > Be > B E) B > Be > O > N > Ne Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2

16) ________ have the lowest first ionization energies of the groups listed. A) Alkali metals B) Transition elements C) Halogens D) Alkaline earth metals E) Noble gases Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 17) Which of the following correctly represents the third ionization of gallium? A) Ga (g) → Ga+ (g) + eB) Ga+ (g) → Ga2+ (g) + eC) Ga2- (g) + e- → Ga3- (g) D) Ga2+ (g) → Ga3+ (g) + eE) Ga+ (g) + e- → Ga2+ (g) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 18) Which of the following correctly represents the third ionization of aluminum? A) Al2+ (g) + e- → Al+ (g) B) Al (g) → Al+ (g) + eC) Al2- (g) + e- → Al3- (g) D) Al2+ (g) + e- → Al3+ (g) E) Al2+ (g) → Al3+ (g) + eAnswer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 19) Which of the following correctly represents the first ionization of oxygen? A) O (g) → O+ (g) + eB) O+ (g) + e- → O2+ (g) C) O (g) + e- → O- (g) D) O- (g) + e- → O2- (g) E) O+ (g) + e- → O (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2

20) Which equation correctly represents the first ionization of calcium? A) Ca (g) → Ca+ (g) + eB) Ca (g) → Ca- (g) + eC) Ca (g) + e- → Ca- (g) D) Ca- (g) → Ca (g) + eE) Ca+ (g) + e- → Ca (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 21) Which of the following correctly represents the second ionization of calcium? A) Ca (g) → Ca+ (g) + eB) Ca+ (g) → Ca2+ (g) + eC) Ca- (g) + e- → Ca2- (g) D) Ca+ (g) + e- → Ca2+ (g) E) Ca+ (g) + e- → Ca (g) Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 22) Which of the following correctly represents the second ionization of copper? A) Cu (g) → Cu+ (g) + eB) Cu+ (g) → Cu2+ (g) + eC) Cu- (g) + e- → Cu2- (g) D) Cu+ (g) + e- → Cu2+ (g) E) Cu+ (g) + e- → Cu (g) Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 23) Which ion below has the largest radius? A) ClB) K+ C) BrD) FE) Na+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 6

24) Which of the following species has the smallest ionic radius? A) Al3+ B) Na+ C) Mg2+ D) S2E) ClAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 GO: G2 Consider the following electron configurations to answer the questions that follow: (i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 (v) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 25) The electron configuration belonging to the atom with the highest second ionization energy is ________. A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) (v) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 26) The electron configuration that belongs to the atom with the lowest first ionization energy is ________. A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) (v) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2

27) The electron configuration of the atom with the most negative electron affinity is ________. A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) (v) Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 28) The electron configuration of the atom that is expected to have the least negative electron affinity is ________. A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) (v) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 29) Of the following elements, ________ has the most negative electron affinity. A) S B) Cl C) Se D) Br E) I Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 30) Of the following elements, ________ has the most negative electron affinity. A) P B) Al C) Si D) Cl E) B Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2

31) Of the following elements, ________ has the most negative electron affinity. A) O B) K C) B D) Na E) S Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 32) Sodium is much more apt to exist as a cation than is chlorine. This is because ________. A) chlorine is a gas and sodium is a solid B) chlorine has a greater electron affinity than sodium does C) chlorine is bigger than sodium D) chlorine has a greater ionization energy than sodium does E) chlorine is more metallic than sodium Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 33) Which equation correctly represents the electron affinity of calcium? A) Ca (g) + e- → Ca- (g) B) Ca (g) → Ca+ (g) + eC) Ca (g) → Ca- (g) + eD) Ca- (g) → Ca (g) + eE) Ca+ (g) + e- → Ca (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 34) Which of the following correctly represents the electron affinity of bromine? A) Br (g) → Br+ (g) + eB) Br (g) + e- → Br- (g) C) Br2 (g) + e- → Br- (g) D) Br2 (g) + 2e- → 2Br- (g) E) Br+ (g) + e- → Br (g) Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2

35) Which of the following correctly represents the electron affinity of phosphorus? A) P (g) → P+ (g) + eB) P (g) + e- → P- (g) C) P4 (g) + e- → P- (g) D) P4 (g) + 4e- → 4P- (g) E) P+ (g) + e- → P (g) Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 36) In the generation of most anions, the energy change (kJ/mol) that ________ an electron is ________. A) removes, positive B) adds, positive C) removes, negative D) adds, negative E) None of the above is correct. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 37) Of the elements below, ________ is the most metallic. A) sodium B) barium C) magnesium D) calcium E) cesium Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 38) The list that correctly indicates the order of metallic character is ________. A) B > N > C B) F > Cl > S C) Si > P > S D) P > S > Se E) Na > K > Rb Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

39) Which of the following has the most metallic character? A) Al B) Ca C) Mg D) Sr E) Si Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 40) Of the elements below, ________ has the highest melting point. A) Ca B) K C) Fe D) Na E) Ba Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 41) Of the following metals, ________ exhibits multiple oxidation states. A) Al B) Rb C) Mg D) Ni E) Cs Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 42) Which of the listed oxides is the most acidic? A) SO3 B) Na2O C) K2O D) Al2O3 E) MgO Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

43) Reacting CO2 with water results in a(n) ________ solution. A) ionic B) neutral C) basic D) acidic E) CO2 does not react with water Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 44) The element in the periodic table that looks like a metal, is a poor thermal conductor, and acts as an electrical semiconductor is ________. A) Sn B) B C) As D) Si E) Ge Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 45) Which of the following metals differ in the number of d-electrons? A) Fe and Cu B) Mg and Fe C) Na and Rh D) Cs and Ca E) Ca and Na Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 46) Which of the following oxides do not produce an acidic solution when dissolved in water? A) SO3 B) P2O5 C) CO2 D) Al2O3 E) Cl2O Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

47) Nonmetals can be ________ at room temperature. A) solid, liquid, or gas B) solid or liquid C) solid only D) liquid only E) liquid or gas Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 48) Which of the following is not a characteristic of metals? A) acidic oxides B) low ionization energies C) malleability D) ductility E) These are all characteristics of metals. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 49) When two elements combine to form a compound, the ________ the difference in metallic character between the two elements, the ________ the likelihood that the compound will be a ________ at room temperature. A) smaller, greater, solid B) greater, greater, liquid C) greater, greater, solid D) smaller, greater, liquid E) greater, smaller, solid Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 50) Alkaline earth metals ________. A) have the smallest atomic radius in a given period B) form monoanions C) form basic oxides D) exist as triatomic molecules E) form halides with the formula MX Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

51) The difference in metallic character is the smallest between ________. A) Li and O B) Rb and F C) Na and I D) Rb and Cl E) Na and Mg Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 52) The oxide of which element can react with water to give a basic solution? A) sulfur B) calcium C) phosphorus D) nitrogen E) carbon Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 53) Consider the general valence electron configuration of ns2np5 and the following statements: (i) Elements with this electron configuration are expected to form -1 anions. (ii) Elements with this electron configuration are expected to have large positive electron affinities. (iii) Elements with this electron configuration are nonmetals. (iv) Elements with this electron configuration form acidic oxides. Which statements are true? A) (i) and (ii) B) (i), (ii), and (iii) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i), (iii,) and (iv) E) All statements are true. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6, 7.7 LO: 7.7, 7.8 GO: G2

54) Which group in the periodic table has the lowest first ionization energy? A) VIA B) IA C) IIIA D) IIA E) VIIA Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G2 55) Which of the following elements is the most reactive in water? A) Na B) Rb C) Cs D) Li E) K Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G2 56) Which one of the following is not true about the alkali metals? A) They are low density solids at room temperature. B) They all readily form ions with a +1 charge. C) They all have 2 electrons in their valence shells. D) They are very reactive elements. E) They have the lowest first ionization energies of the elements. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G2

57) Consider the following properties of an element: (i) It is solid at room temperature. (ii) It easily forms an oxide when exposed to air. (iii) When it reacts with water, hydrogen gas evolves. (iv) It must be stored submerged in oil. Which element fits the above description the best? A) sulfur B) copper C) mercury D) sodium E) magnesium Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G2 58) All of the following reactions concerning alkali metals are correct except ________. A) 2Na (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) B) Na (s) + O2 (g) → NaO2 (s) C) 2Na (s) + H2 (g) → 2NaH (s) D) 2Na (s) + S (s) → Na2S (s) E) 2Na (s) + Cl2 (g) → 2NaCl (s) Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7, 7.8 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 59) The reaction of alkali metals with oxygen produce ________. A) oxides, peroxides, and superoxides B) peroxides only C) superoxides only D) oxides only E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7, 7.8 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2

60) Alkali metals tend to be more reactive than alkaline earth metals because ________. A) alkali metals have lower densities B) alkali metals have lower melting points C) alkali metals have greater electron affinities D) alkali metals have lower ionization energies E) Alkali metals are not more reactive than alkaline earth metals. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G2 61) The alkali metal that is naturally radioactive is ________. A) rubidium B) cesium C) lithium D) francium E) sodium Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G2 62) Lithium ion salts were originally found in Seven-Up® drinks. How many electrons does Li atom lose to become an ion? A) 4 B) 3 C) 0 D) 1 E) 2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G7 63) Lithium ion salts were used to treat manic-depressive illness. Lithium is part of which group in the periodic table? A) alkali metals B) noble gases C) alkaline earth metals D) halogens E) chalcogens Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8 GO: G7

64) Which alkaline earth metal will not react with liquid water or with steam? A) Be B) Mg C) Ca D) Ba E) They all react with liquid water and with steam. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7, 7.8 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 65) Which element is solid at room temperature? A) Cl2 B) F2 C) Br2 D) I2 E) H2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 66) ________ is a unique element and does not truly belong to any family. A) Nitrogen B) Radium C) Hydrogen D) Uranium E) Helium Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.10a GO: G2 67) Which of the following statements is not true for oxygen? A) The most stable allotrope of oxygen is O2. B) The chemical formula of ozone is O3. C) Dry air is about 79% oxygen. D) Oxygen forms peroxide and superoxide anions. E) Oxygen is a colorless gas at room temperature. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

68) All of the following elements can exist as allotropes except ________. A) N B) Ar C) O D) S E) F Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 69) Which of the following elements can exist as an allotrope? A) iron B) carbon C) silver D) silicon E) neon Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 70) All of the halogens ________. A) exist under ambient conditions as diatomic gases B) tend to form positive ions of several different charges C) tend to form negative ions of several different charges D) exhibit metallic character E) form salts with alkali metals with the formula MX Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 71) The noble gases were, until relatively recently, thought to be entirely unreactive. Experiments in the early 1960s showed that Xe could, in fact, form compounds with fluorine. The formation of compounds consisting of Xe is made possible by ________. A) the availability of xenon atoms B) xenon's noble gas electron configuration C) the stability of xenon atoms D) xenon's relatively low ionization energy E) xenon's relatively low electron affinity Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

72) Which of the following noble gases is not reactive? A) xenon and argon B) helium and neon C) xenon only D) xenon, krypton, and argon E) None of the above are reactive Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 73) In nature, the noble gases exist as ________. A) monatomic gaseous atoms B) the gaseous fluorides C) solids in rocks and in minerals D) alkali metal salts E) the sulfides Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 74) Hydrogen is unique among the elements because ________. 1. It is not really a member of any particular group. 2. Its electron is not at all shielded from its nucleus. 3. It is the lightest element. 4. It is the only element to exist at room temperature as a diatomic gas. 5. It exhibits some chemical properties similar to those of groups 1A and 7A. A) 1, 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 1, 4, 5 D) 3, 4 E) 2, 3, 4, 5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 7.10a GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 7.8

75) ________ is unique among the elements because its electron is not shielded from its nucleus. A) Cesium B) Potassium C) Hydrogen D) Lithium E) Sodium Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.10a GO: G2 76) Ozone is a a(n) ________ of oxygen. A) isotope B) allotrope C) precursor D) peroxide E) free radical Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 77) iodine has a(n) ________ density and a(n) ________ atomic radius compared to bromine. A) smaller, greater B) greater, smaller C) smaller, smaller D) greater, greater E) equal, equal Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 78) ________ has been shown to form compounds only when it is combined with something with a tremendous ability to remove electrons from other substances. A) Neon B) Helium C) Hydrogen D) Xenon E) Oxygen Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

7.2 Bimodal Questions 1) ________ is credited with developing the concept of atomic numbers. A) Dmitri Mendeleev B) Lothar Meyer C) Henry Moseley D) Ernest Rutherford E) Michael Faraday Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.1 LO: 7.1 GO: G2 2) Elements in the modern version of the periodic table are arranged in order of increasing ________. A) oxidation number B) atomic mass C) average atomic mass D) atomic number E) number of isotopes Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.1 LO: 7.1 GO: G2 3) The greatest effective nuclear charge in a many-electron atom is experienced by an electron in a ________ subshell. A) 6s B) 5s C) 2s D) 4s E) 3s Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 4) A tin atom has 50 electrons. Electrons in the ________ subshell experience the lowest effective nuclear charge. A) 1s B) 3p C) 3d D) 5s E) 5p Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 22

GO: G2 5) The first ionization energies of the elements ________ as you go from left to right across a period of the periodic table, and ________ as you go from the bottom to the top of a group in the table. A) increase, increase B) increase, decrease C) decrease, increase D) decrease, decrease E) The first ionization energies of the elements are completely unpredictable. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 6) In general, as you go across a period in the periodic table from left to right: (1) the atomic radius ________; (2) the electron affinity becomes ________ negative; and (3) the first ionization energy ________. A) decreases, decreasingly, increases B) increases, increasingly, decreases C) increases, increasingly, increases D) decreases, increasingly, increases E) decreases, increasingly, decreases Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3,7.4,7.5 LO: 7.2, 7.3, 7.5, 7.6 GO: G2 7) The ________ have the most negative electron affinities. A) alkaline earth metals B) alkali metals C) halogens D) transition metals E) chalcogens Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2

8) Element M reacts with chlorine to form a compound with the formula MCl2. Element M is more reactive than magnesium and has a smaller radius than barium. This element is ________. A) Sr B) K C) Na D) Ra E) Be Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 9) ________ can be ________ at room temperature. A) metals, liquid only B) metals, solid only C) metals; solid, liquid, or gases D) metals, solid or liquid E) metals, solid or gases Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 10) Most of the elements on the periodic table are ________. A) gases B) nonmetals C) metalloids D) liquids E) metals Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 11) Na reacts with element X to form an ionic compound with the formula Na3X. Ca will react with X to form ________. A) CaX2 B) CaX C) Ca2X3 D) Ca3X2 E) Ca3X Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 24

12) Ca reacts with element X to form an ionic compound with the formula CaX. Al will react with X to form ________. A) AlX2 B) AlX C) Al2X3 D) Al3X2 E) Al3X Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 13) Oxides of the active metals combine with water to form ________. A) metal hydroxides B) metal hydrides C) hydrogen gas D) oxygen gas E) water and a salt Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 14) Oxides of the active metals combine with acid to form ________. A) hydrogen gas B) metal hydrides C) water and a salt D) oxygen gas E) metal hydroxides Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 15) Oxides of most nonmetals combine with water to form ________. A) an acid B) a base C) water and a salt D) water E) hydrogen gas Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

16) Nonmetal oxides such as CO2 combine with NaOH to form water and ________. A) HOCO3 B) NaCO3 C) Na2CO3 D) NaCO2 E) Na2CO2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 17) An alkaline earth metal forms a compound with oxygen with the formula ________. (The symbol M represents any one of the alkaline earth metals.) A) MO B) M2O C) MO2 D) M2O2 E) MO3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 18) An alkali metal such as K forms a compound with chlorine gas with the formula ________. A) K2Cl2 B) KCl C) K2Cl D) KCl2 E) KCl3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2

19) What is the coefficient of Na when the following equation is completed and balanced? Na (s) + H2O (l) → A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 2 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 7.7

20) The substance ________ is always produced when an active metal reacts with water. A) NaOH B) H2O C) CO2 D) H2 E) O2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 21) The reaction between alkali metals (M) and elemental hydrogen produce ________. A) MH2 B) MH C) M2H D) MOH E) None of the above; alkali metals will not react directly with hydrogen. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2

22) What is the coefficient of H2O when the following equation is completed and balanced? Ca (s) + H2O (l) → A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5 E) Ca(s) does not react with H2O (l). Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 23) ________ compounds in fireworks are responsible for the observed blue colors. A) sodium B) barium C) calcium D) copper E) strontium Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 24) ________ compounds in fireworks are responsible for the observed green colors. A) barium B) strontium C) calcium D) copper E) sodium Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 25) The reaction of a metal with a nonmetal produces a(n) ________. A) base B) salt C) acid D) oxide E) hydroxide Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 28

26) Which nonmetal exists as a diatomic solid? A) bromine B) antimony C) phosphorus D) iodine E) boron Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 27) The most common and stable allotrope of oxygen is ________. A) O B) O2 C) O4 D) O3 E) oxygen does not form allotropes. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 28) Which group 6A element is a metal? A) tellurium and polonium B) sulfur C) selenium D) tellurium E) polonium Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 29) A nitride ion has a charge of ________. A) 3B) 2C) 1D) 0 E) nitrogen does not form ions. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

30) The element carbon exists in several forms such diamond and graphite in nature. These forms are called ________. A) isotopes B) oxidation C) metalloids D) allotropes E) noble gases Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 31) Which periodic table group contains only nonmetals? A) 8A B) 2A C) 6A D) 7A E) 5A Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 32) Which periodic table group contains only metals? A) 8A B) 2A C) 6A D) 7A E) 5A Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 33) Of the hydrogen halides, only ________ is a weak acid. A) HCl (aq) B) HBr (aq) C) HF (aq) D) HI (aq) E) They are all weak acids. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

34) Which of the groups in the periodic table contains elements that exist in the gas, liquid, and solid state at room temperature? A) IA B) IIA C) VA D) VIA E) VIIA Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 35) All of the following noble gases have a ns2np6 valence electron configuration except ________. A) helium B) radon C) neon D) krypton E) All noble gases have the ns2np6 valence electron configuration. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 36) ________ was the first ________ gas to be incorporated into a compound. A) Xeon, chalcogen B) Xeon, halogen C) Chlorine, noble D) Neon, noble E) Xeon, noble Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 37) Of the halogens, which are gases at room temperature and atmospheric pressure? A) fluorine, bromine, and iodine B) fluorine, chlorine, and bromine C) fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine D) fluorine, chlorine, and iodine E) fluorine and chlorine Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

38) 2F2 (g) + 2H2O (l) → ________ A) 2HF (aq) + 2HFO (aq) B) 2F- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) + H2O2 (aq) C) 4HF (aq) + O2 (g) D) 2HF2 (aq) + 2OH- (aq) E) 4HF (aq) + 2O2- (aq) Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 39) Cl2 (g) + H2O (l) → ________ A) HCl (aq) + HOCl (aq) B) 2Cl- (aq) + H2O (l) C) 2HCl (aq) + O2 (g) D) 2HCl (aq) + O2- (g) E) Cl2 (aq) + H2O (l) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

7.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Which element would be expected to have chemical and physical properties closest to those of rubidium? A) Cu B) Fe C) S D) Ca E) K Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 7.1 LO: 7.1 GO: G2 2) In which orbital does an electron in a nitrogen atom experience the greatest shielding? A) 3p B) 3s C) 2p D) 2s E) 1s Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 3) In which orbital does an electron in a copper atom experience the greatest effective nuclear charge? A) 1s B) 4s C) 4p D) 4d E) 3d Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 4) In which of the following atoms is the 3s orbital closest to the nucleus? A) S B) Po C) Te D) Se E) P Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 33

5) ________ is isoelectronic with helium. A) HB) H+ C) H D) B3E) N3Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 6) ________ is isoelectronic with krypton. A) Se2B) Se3C) Br D) Se2+ E) Te2Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 7) ________ is isoelectronic with argon. A) ClB) P4C) Ca D) KE) FAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 8) ________ is isoelectronic with scandium. A) Cr3+ B) Mn5+ C) Mn D) Mn4E) K+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 34

9) ________ is isoelectronic with argon, and ________ is isoelectronic with neon. A) P3-, N3B) P2-, N2C) P3+, N3+ D) N3-, P3E) P, N Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 10) Which one of the following atoms has the largest radius? A) In B) Sn C) Sb D) Te E) I Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 11) Which one of the following atoms has the largest radius? A) As B) O C) Sn D) Cs E) Ca Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 12) Which one of the following has the smallest radius? A) Na B) Al C) K D) Ca Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2

13) Which of the following correctly lists the five atoms in order of increasing size (smallest to largest)? A) Ge < Si < S < O < Ne B) Ne < O < S < Si < Ge C) Ne < S < O < Si < Ge D) Ne < Si < O < S < Ge E) Ne < Ge < Si < S < O Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 14) The ion with the smallest diameter is ________. A) Li+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) Rb+ E) Cs+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 15) The ion with the largest diameter is ________. A) Po2B) S2C) Se2D) Te2E) O2Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 16) Of the following atoms, which has the largest first ionization energy? A) K B) Rb C) Sr D) Ca E) Ba Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 36

17) Which of the following has the largest second ionization energy? A) Si B) Mg C) Al D) Na E) P Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 18) Which equation correctly represents the third ionization of aluminum? A) Al2+(g) → Al3+(g) + eB) Al(g) → Al+(g) + eC) Al2-(g) → Al3-(g) + eD) Al3+(g) + e- → Al2+(g) E) Al+(g) → Al2+(g) + eAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 19) Which is the correct equation for the third ionization of phosphorous? A) P2+(g) → P3+(g) + eB) P(g) → P+(g) + eC) P2-(g) → P3-(g) + eD) P3+(g) + e- → P2+(g) E) P+(g) → P2+(g) + eAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 20) Which is the correct equation for the first ionization of copper? A) Cu(g) → Cu+(g) + eB) Cu+(g) → Cu2+(g) + eC) Cu(g) → Cu-(g) + eD) Cu+(g) + e- → Cu(g) E) Cu2+(g) → Cu3+(g) + eAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 37

21) Of the following elements, ________ has the most negative electron affinity. A) F B) Cl C) Br D) H E) I Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.2 GO: G2 22) Which one of the following is a metalloid? A) Si B) S C) Cl D) In E) Li Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 23) Which one of the following is a metal? A) Li B) S C) I D) He E) Si Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 24) Of the elements below, ________ is the most metallic. A) Sn B) P C) Br D) Rn E) As Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

25) Of the elements below, ________ is the least metallic. A) Ne B) F C) Cl D) O E) S Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 26) Of the following metals, ________ exhibits multiple oxidation states. A) Ni B) K C) Ca D) Al E) Sr Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 27) The reason Bromine is more likely to exist as an anion than is potassium is because ________. A) Bromine is bigger than potassium B) Bromine has a greater ionization energy than potassium does C) Bromine has a greater electron affinity than potassium does D) Bromine is a liquid and potassium is a solid E) Bromine is more metallic than potassium Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.6 GO: G2 28) All of the following are ionic compounds except ________. A) CH4 B) K2O C) Be(OH)2 D) NiCl2 E) Sr3N2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2

29) When dissolved in water, ________ produces a basic solution. A) SO2 B) Rb2O C) OBr2 D) ZnCl2 E) N2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 30) Element M reacts with oxygen to form an oxide with the formula MO. When MO is dissolved in water, the resulting solution is basic. Element M could be ________. A) strontium B) bromine C) selenium D) germanium E) nitrogen Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 31) This element reacts with hydrogen to produce a gas with the formula HX. When dissolved in water, HX forms an acidic solution. X is ________. A) chlorine B) calcium C) oxygen D) germanium E) arsenic Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 32) Element M reacts with oxygen to form an oxide with the formula M2O. When M2O is dissolved in water, the resulting solution is basic. Element M could be ________. A) calcium B) bromine C) oxygen D) carbon E) nitrogen Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 40

7.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The effective nuclear charge for an atom ________ going from left to right across a period. Answer: increases Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 2) As successive electrons are removed from an element, the ionization energy ________. Answer: increases Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 3) Which of the halogens has the highest first ionization energy? Answer: fluorine Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 4) When electrons are removed from a lithium atom, they are removed first from which orbital? Answer: 2s1 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.5 GO: G2 5) In which orbital will an electron add to the element chlorine to form a Cl-? Answer: 3p Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.6 GO: G2 6) Write a balanced reaction between magnesium metal and hydrochloric acid. Answer: Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 7) What are the elements called that are located between the metals and nonmetals? Answer: metalloids Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2

8) Complete the following: SO3 + H2O → Answer: H2SO4 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 9) Which metal is a liquid at room temperature? Answer: Mercury (Hg) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 10) [Kr]5s2 is the electron configuration for ________. Answer: strontium Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 11) [He]2s22p5 is the electron configuration for ________. Answer: fluorine Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.6 LO: 7.7 GO: G2 12) The charges for the ions formed from the alkali metals and the alkaline earth metals are ________ and ________, respectively. Answer: 1+, 2+ Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 13) Peroxide or superoxides can be formed with ________ which is group IA in the periodic table. Answer: alkali metals Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 14) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of sodium metal with water. Answer: 2Na (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2

15) Which alkaline earth metal is the least reactive? Answer: Be Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.7 LO: 7.8, 7.9 GO: G2 16) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of elemental chlorine with liquid water. Answer: Cl2 (g) + H2O (l) → HCl (aq) + HOCl (aq) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 17) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of elemental sulfur and oxygen gas. Answer: S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 18) List seven nonmetals that exist as diatomic molecules in their elemental forms. Answer: hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 19) Which element(s) in group VIIA are solids at room temperature? Answer: iodine Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2 20) Which noble gas has the highest first ionization energy? Answer: helium Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

7.5 True/False Questions 1) The effective nuclear charge acting on an electron is larger than the actual nuclear charge. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 2) The effective nuclear charge in an atom is proportional to the number of nuclear protons. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.2 LO: 7.1, 7.2 GO: G2 3) The atomic radius of iodine is one-half the distance separating the iodine nuclei. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 4) A group of ions all containing the same number of electrons constitutes an isoelectronic series. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.3 LO: 7.2, 7.3 GO: G2 5) Elements that readily conduct electricity are elements with low ionization energies. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.4 LO: 7.2, 7.5 GO: G2 6) Electron affinity measures how easily an atom gains an electron. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.5 LO: 7.6 GO: G2 7) Xenon can form compounds with fluorine. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 7.8 LO: 7.11 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 8 Basic Concepts of Chemical Bonding 8.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following has eight valence electrons? A) Ti4+ B) Kr C) ClD) Na+ E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 2) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons? A) Ca+ B) Rb+ C) Xe D) BrE) All of the above have eight valence electrons. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 3) Lattice energy is ________. A) the energy required to convert a mole of ionic solid into its constituent ions in the gas phase B) the energy given off when gaseous ions combine to form one mole of an ionic solid C) the energy required to produce one mole of an ionic compound from its constituent elements in their standard states D) the sum of ionization energies of the components in an ionic solid E) the sum of electron affinities of the components in an ionic solid Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2

4) In ionic bond formation, the lattice energy of ions ________ as the magnitude of the ion charges ________ and the radii ________. A) increases, decrease, increase B) increases, increase, increase C) decreases, increase, increase D) increases, increase, decrease E) increases, decrease, decrease Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 The diagram below is the Born-Huber cycle for the formation of crystalline potassium fluoride.

5) Which energy change corresponds to the electron affinity of fluorine? A) 2 B) 5 C) 4 D) 1 E) 6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G3

6) Which energy change corresponds to the first ionization energy of potassium? A) 2 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 6 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 7) Using the Born-Haber cycle, the ΔH°f of KBr is equal to ________. A) ΔH°f [K (g)] + ΔH°f [Br (g)] + I1(K) + E(Br) + ΔHlattice B) ΔH°f [K (g)] - ΔH°f [Br (g)] - I1(K) - E(Br) - ΔHlattice C) ΔH°f [K (g)] - ΔH°f [Br (g)] + I1(K) - E(Br) + ΔHlattice D) ΔH°f [K (g)] + ΔH°f [Br (g)] - I1 - E(Br) + ΔHlattice E) ΔH°f [K (g)] + ΔH°f [Br (g)] + I1(K) + E(Br) - ΔHlattice Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 8) The type of compound that is most likely to contain a covalent bond is ________. A) one that is composed of a metal from the far left of the periodic table and a nonmetal from the far right of the periodic table B) a solid metal C) one that is composed of only nonmetals D) held together by the electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions E) There is no general rule to predict covalency in bonds. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 9) In which of the molecules below is the carbon-carbon distance the shortest? A) H2C CH2 B) H-C≡C-H C) H3C-CH3 D) H2C C CH2 E) H3C-CH2-CH3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2

10) Of the molecules below, the bond in ________ is the most polar. A) HBr B) HI C) HCl D) HF E) H2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 11) Which of the following has the bonds correctly arranged in order of increasing polarity? A) Be—F, Mg—F, N—F, O—F B) O—F, N—F, Be—F, Mg—F C) O—F, Be—F, Mg—F, N—F D) N—F, Be—F, Mg—F, O—F E) Mg—F, Be—F, N—F, O—F Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 12) Which of the following bonds would be considered non-polar covalent? A) N-H B) C-H C) O-H D) C-Cl E) C-O Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G4 13) The Lewis structure of N2H2 shows ________. A) a nitrogen-nitrogen triple bond B) a nitrogen-nitrogen single bond C) each nitrogen has one nonbonding electron pair D) each nitrogen has two nonbonding electron pairs E) each hydrogen has one nonbonding electron pair Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

14) The Lewis structure of the CO32- ion is ________. A)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.5

15) How many electrons are in the Lewis structure of a nitrite ion (NO2-)? A) 18 B) 17 C) 16 D) 23 E) 24 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 16) Resonance structures differ by ________. A) number and placement of electrons B) number of electrons only C) placement of atoms only D) number of atoms only E) placement of electrons only Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 17) The oxidation number of iron in Fe2O3 is ________. A) -2 B) +1 C) +3 D) +2 E) -3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 18) To convert from one resonance structure to another, ________. A) only atoms can be moved B) electrons and atoms can both be moved C) only electrons can be moved D) neither electrons nor atoms can be moved E) electrons must be added Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2

19) For ________ forms of a molecule or ion, the observed structure is an average of the ________ forms. A) resonance, covalent B) resonance, resonance C) ionic, resonance D) resonance, ionic E) resonance, metallic Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 For the questions that follow, consider the BEST Lewis structures of the following oxyanions: (i) NO2-

(ii) NO3- (iii) SO32- (iv) SO42- (v) BrO3-

20) There can be two equivalent best resonance structures of ________. A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) (v) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5,8.6,8.7 LO: 8.6, 8.7, 8.8 GO: G2 21) There can be three equivalent best resonance structures of ________. A) (ii), (iii), and (v) B) (i) and (ii) C) (iii) and (v) D) (iii), (iv), and (v) E) all Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6, 8.7 LO: 8.7, 8.8 GO: G2

22) A valid Lewis structure of ________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule. A) NF3 B) IF3 C) PF3 D) SbF3 E) SO42Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 23) Based on the octet rule, boron will most likely form a ________ ion. A) B3B) B+ C) B3+ D) B2+ E) B2Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 24) Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons? A) ClB) Xe C) Ti+4 D) Rb+ E) Sr+ Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 25) Which of the following Lewis structures would be an expansion to the octet rule? A) SiF4 B) CF4 C) CCl4 D) PO43E) NF3 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 8

26) The central atom in ________ does not violate the octet rule. A) SF4 B) KrF2 C) CF4 D) XeF4 E) ICl4Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 27) Which of the following Lewis structures would be an expansion to the octet rule? A) PH3 B) PCl3 C) CCl4 D) CO2 E) SO3 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 28) A valid Lewis structure of ________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule. A) NI3 B) SO2 C) ICl5 D) SiF4 E) CO2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 29) Which of the following Lewis structures would be an incomplete octet? A) NF3 B) SO2 C) BCl3 D) CF4 E) SO32Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 9

30) Why don't we draw double bonds between the Be atom and the Cl atoms in BeCl2? A) That would give positive formal charges to the chlorine atoms and a negative formal charge to the beryllium atom. B) There aren't enough electrons. C) That would result in more than eight electrons around beryllium. D) That would result in more than eight electrons around each chlorine atom. E) That would result in the formal charges not adding up to zero. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 31) Which of the following atoms may have an expansion to the octet? A) P B) C C) H D) O E) B Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 32) Bond enthalpy is ________. A) always positive B) always negative C) sometimes positive, sometimes negative D) always zero E) unpredictable Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 33) Given that the average bond energies for C-H and C-Br bonds are 413 and 276 kJ/mol, respectively, the heat of atomization of bromoform (CHBr3) is ________ kJ/mol. A) 1241 B) 689 C) -689 D) 1378 E) -1378 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2

34) Of the bonds C-C, C C, and C≡C, the C-C bond is ________. A) strongest/shortest B) strongest/longest C) weakest/longest D) weakest/shortest E) intermediate in both strength and length Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 35) Of the bonds C-N, C N, and C≡N, the C-N bond is ________. A) strongest/shortest B) strongest/longest C) weakest/shortest D) weakest/longest E) intermediate in both strength and length Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 36) As the number of covalent bonds between two atoms increases, the distance between the atoms ________ and the strength of the bond between them ________. A) increases, increases B) decreases, decreases C) increases, decreases D) decreases, increases E) is unpredictable, is unpredictable Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 37) Of the possible bonds between carbon atoms (single, double, and triple), ________. A) a triple bond is longer than a single bond B) a double bond is stronger than a triple bond C) a single bond is stronger than a triple bond D) a double bond is longer than a triple bond E) a single bond is stronger than a double bond Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2

38) Most explosives are compounds that decompose rapidly to produce ________ products and a great deal of ________. A) gaseous, gases B) liquid, heat C) soluble, heat D) solid, gas E) gaseous, heat Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 39) Dynamite consists of nitroglycerine mixed with diatomaceous earth or cellulose. What is another name for dynamite? A) KBr B) KOH C) TNT D) C-4 E) CFC Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 40) ________ is an explosive made of nitroglycerine and an absorbent such as diatomaceous earth. A) KOH B) TNT C) C-4 D) KBr E) CFC Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2

8.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Based on the octet rule, magnesium most likely forms a ________ ion. A) Mg2+ B) Mg2C) Mg6D) Mg6+ E) MgAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 2) Based on the octet rule, phosphorus most likely forms a ________ ion. A) P3+ B) P3C) P5+ D) P5E) P+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 3) Based on the octet rule, aluminum most likely forms an ________ ion. A) Al3+ B) Al4+ C) Al4D) Al+ E) AlAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2

4) Based on the octet rule, iodine most likely forms an ________ ion. A) I2+ B) I4+ C) I4D) I+ E) IAnswer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 5) The electron configuration of the phosphide ion (P3-) is ________. A) [Ne]3s2 B) [Ne]3s23p1 C) [Ne]3s23p3 D) [Ne]3p2 E) [Ne]3s23p6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 6) The electron configuration of the sulfide ion (S2-) is ________. A) [Ne]3s2 B) [Ne]3s23p1 C) [Ne]3s23p4 D) [Ne]3p2 E) [Ne]3s23p6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 7) The halogens, alkali metals, and alkaline earth metals have ________ valence electrons, respectively. A) 7, 4, and 6 B) 1, 5, and 7 C) 8, 2, and 3 D) 7, 1, and 2 E) 2, 7, and 4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 14

8) The only noble gas without eight valence electrons is ________. A) Ar B) Ne C) He D) Kr E) All noble gases have eight valence electrons. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 9) Which of the following would have to lose two electrons in order to achieve a noble gas electron configuration? O Sr Na Se Br A) O, Se B) Sr C) Na D) Br E) Sr, O, Se Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.1

10) Which of the following would have to lose three electrons in order to achieve a noble gas electron configuration? Si Mg Al Cl P A) Si, P B) Al C) P D) Cl E) Mg, Al, P Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.1

11) Which of the following would have to gain two electrons in order to achieve a noble gas electron configuration? O Sr Na Se Br A) Br B) Sr C) Na D) O, Se E) Sr, O, Se Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.1

12) For a given arrangement of ions, the lattice energy increases as ionic radius ________ and as ionic charge ________. A) decreases, increases B) increases, decreases C) increases, increases D) decreases, decreases E) This cannot be predicted. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 13) For a given arrangement of ions, the lattice energy decreases as ionic radius ________ and as ionic charge ________. A) decreases, increases B) increases, decreases C) increases, increases D) decreases, decreases E) This cannot be predicted. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2

14) The electron configuration of the S2- ion is ________. A) [Ar]3s23p6 B) [Ar]3s23p2 C) [Ne]3s23p2 D) [Ne]3s23p6 E) [Kr]3s22p6 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 15) The electron configuration of the P3- ion is ________. A) [Ar]3s23p6 B) [Ar]3s23p2 C) [Ne]3s23p6 D) [Ne]3s23p2 E) [Kr]3s22p6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 16) What species has the electron configuration [Ar]3d2? A) Mn2+ B) Cr2+ C) V3+ D) Fe3+ E) K+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 17) What species has the electron configuration [Ar]3d4? A) Mn2+ B) Cr2+ C) V3+ D) Fe3+ E) K+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 17

18) What is the electron configuration for the Co2+ ion? A) [Ar]4s13d6 B) [Ar]3d7 C) [Ar]3d5 D) [Ar]4s23d9 E) [Ne]3s23p10 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 19) What is the electron configuration for the Fe3+ ion? A) [Ar]4s13d6 B) [Ar]4s03d7 C) [Ar]4s03d5 D) [Ar]4s23d9 E) [Ne]3s23p10 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 20) What is the electron configuration for the Cu2+ ion? A) [Ar]4s13d10 B) [Ar]4s03d10 C) [Ar]4s03d9 D) [Ar]4s23d9 E) [Ar]4s03d11 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 21) The formula of palladium (IV) sulfide is ________. A) Pd2S4 B) PdS4 C) Pd4S D) PdS2 E) Pd2S2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 18

22) Elements from opposite sides of the periodic table tend to form ________. A) covalent compounds B) ionic compounds C) compounds that are gaseous at room temperature D) homonuclear diatomic compounds E) covalent compounds that are gaseous at room temperature Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 23) Determining lattice energy from Born-Haber cycle data requires the use of ________. A) the octet rule B) Coulomb's law C) Periodic law D) Hess's law E) Avogadro's number Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 24) A ________ covalent bond between the same two atoms is the longest. A) single B) double C) triple D) strong E) They are all the same length. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 25) How many hydrogen atoms must bond to silicon to give it an octet of valence electrons? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2

26) A double bond consists of ________ pairs of electrons shared between two atoms. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 27) A triple bond consists of ________ pairs of electrons shared between two atoms. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 28) What is the maximum number of double bonds that a hydrogen atom can form? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 29) What is the maximum number of double bonds that a carbon atom can form? A) 4 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2

30) What is the maximum number of triple bonds that a carbon atom can form? A) 4 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 31) In the molecule below, which atom has the largest partial negative charge? Cl ∣ F— C —Br ∣ I A) Cl B) F C) Br D) I E) C Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.4

32) The ability of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons is best quantified by the ________. A) paramagnetism B) diamagnetism C) electronegativity D) electron charge-to-mass ratio E) first ionization potential Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2

33) Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is most polar? Element: H C N O Electronegativity: 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5 A) C—H B) N—H C) O—H D) O—C E) O—N Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.4

34) Electronegativity ________ from left to right within a period and ________ from top to bottom within a group. A) decreases, increases B) increases, increases C) increases, decreases D) stays the same, increases E) increases, stays the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 35) Electropositivity ________ from left to right within a period and ________ from top to bottom within a group. A) decreases, increases B) increases, increases C) increases, decreases D) stays the same, increases E) increases, stays the same Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2

36) A nonpolar bond will form between two ________ atoms of ________ electronegativity. A) different, opposite B) identical, different C) different, different D) similar, different E) identical, equal Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 37) The ion ICl4- has ________ valence electrons. A) 34 B) 35 C) 36 D) 28 E) 8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 38) The ion NO- has ________ valence electrons. A) 15 B) 14 C) 16 D) 10 E) 12 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 39) The ion PO43- has ________ valence electrons. A) 14 B) 24 C) 27 D) 29 E) 32 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

40) The Lewis structure of AsH3 shows ________ nonbonding electron pair(s) on As. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) This cannot be determined from the data given. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 41) The Lewis structure of PF3 shows that the central phosphorus atom has ________ nonbonding and ________ bonding electron pair(s). A) 2, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 3, 1 D) 1, 2 E) 3, 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 42) The Lewis structure of HCN (H bonded to C) shows that ________ has ________ nonbonding electron pair(s). A) C, 1 B) N, 1 C) H, 1 D) N, 2 E) C, 2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

43) The formal charge on carbon in the molecule below is ________.

A) 0 B) +1 C) +2 D) +3 E) -1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.5

44) The formal charge on nitrogen in NO3- is ________, where the Lewis structure of the ion is:

A) -1 B) 0 C) +1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.5

45) The formal charge on sulfur in SO42- is ________, where the Lewis structure of the ion is:

A) -2 B) 0 C) +2 D) +4 E) -4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.5

46) In the Lewis structure of ClF, the formal charge on Cl is ________, and the formal charge on F is ________. A) -1, -1 B) 0, 0 C) 0, -1 D) +1, -1 E) -1, +1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 47) In the Lewis structure of HCO3-, the formal charge on H is ________, and the formal charge on C is ________. A) -1, -1 B) 0, 0 C) 0, -1 D) +1, -1 E) -1, +1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

48) In the resonance form of ozone shown below, the formal charge on the central oxygen atom is ________.

A) 0 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.7 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.6

49) How many equivalent resonance forms can be drawn for CO32-? (Carbon is the central atom.) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 50) How many equivalent resonance forms can be drawn for the nitrate ion? A) 0 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 1 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2

51) How many equivalent resonance structures can be drawn for the molecule of SO3 without having to violate the octet rule on the sulfur atom? A) 5 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) 3 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 52) How many different types of resonance structures can be drawn for the ion SO32-? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 53) Using the table of average bond energies below, the ΔH for the reaction is ________ kJ.

Bond: D (kJ/mol):

C≡C 839

A) +160 B) -160 C) -217 D) -63 E) +63 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

C-C 348

H-I 299

C-I 240

C-H 413

Page Ref: Sec. 8.8

54) Using the table of average bond energies below, the ΔH for the reaction is ________ kJ. H-C≡C-H (g) + H-Cl (g) → H2C CHCl (g) Bond: C≡C C=C H-Cl C-Cl C-H D (kJ/mol): 839 614 431 328 413 A) +741 B) -85 C) -839 D) -741 E) +85 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 8.8

55) Using the table of average bond energies below, the △H for the reaction is ________ kJ. H3C-O-H (g) → C≡O (g) + 2H2 (g) Bond: C-O C=O C≡O C-H H-H D (kJ/mol): 358 799 1072 413 436 A) +276 B) -276 C) +116 D) +735 E) -116 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 8.8

O-H 463

56) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the ΔH for the following gas-phase reaction is ________ kJ.

A) -44 B) 38 C) 304 D) 2134 E) -38 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 8.8

57) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the ΔH for the reverse of following gas-phase reaction is ________ kJ.

A) +57 B) +291 C) 2017 D) -57 E) -291 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 8.8

58) Using the table of bond dissociation energies, the ΔH for the following reaction is ________ kJ. 2HCl (g) + F2 (g) → 2HF (g) + Cl2 (g)

A) -359 B) -223 C) 359 D) 223 E) 208 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 8.8

8.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) There are ________ paired and ________ unpaired electrons in the Lewis symbol for a fluorine atom. A) 4, 2 B) 4, 1 C) 6, 1 D) 0, 5 E) 2, 5 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 2) The ________ ion has a noble gas electron configuration. A) Be2+ B) Li2+ C) Li D) Mg2E) Al2+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 3) The ________ ion has a noble gas electron configuration. A) ClB) F2C) F D) S2+ E) OAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2

4) The ________ ion has eight valence electrons. A) Sc3+ B) Ti3+ C) V3+ D) Cr3+ E) Mn3+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 5) There are ________ unpaired electrons in the Lewis symbol for an oxygen atom . A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 6) What is the principal quantum number of the last shell for the element barium? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 E) 2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 7.3 GO: G2 7) The oxide of which of the following metals should have the greatest lattice energy? A) calcium B) strontium C) magnesium D) beryllium E) barium Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2

8) The ________ ion is represented by the electron configuration [Ar]3d2. A) Cr4+ B) V4+ C) Ti4+ D) Mn4+ E) Sc4+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 9) Which of the following species does the noble gas electron configuration [Kr]4d10 represent? A) Cd B) Cd+ C) Ag+ D) Ag2+ E) Sr2+ Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 10) Which of the following noble gas electron configurations represents the Ru+ cation? A) [Kr]5s24d5 B) [Kr]5s24d7 C) [Kr]4d5 D) [Ar]4s13d6 E) [Kr]5s14d6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2

11) Ni2+ ions are represented by the electron configuration ________. A) [Ar]3d8 B) [Ar]3d10 C) [Ar]3d6 D) [Ar]4s23d6 E) [Kr]4d8 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 12) How many single covalent bonds must a chlorine atom form to have a complete octet in its valence shell? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 13) The most electronegative atom of the ones listed below is ________. A) B B) Al C) Ga D) In E) Tl Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 14) Of the atoms below, ________ is the most electronegative. A) Ba B) Sr C) Ca D) Mg E) Be Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2

15) Of the atoms below, ________ is the most electronegative. A) C B) Si C) Ge D) B E) Al Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 16) Of the atoms below, ________ is the least electronegative. A) B B) F C) C D) N E) O Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 17) Of the bonds below, ________ is the least polar. A) C-O B) N-O C) C-F D) S-O E) K-Br Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 18) Which two bonds are most similar in polarity? A) O-F and Cl-F B) B-F and Cl-F C) Al-Cl and I-Br D) I-Br and Si-Cl E) C-Cl and Be-Cl Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2

19) There are ________ valence electrons in the Lewis structure of CH3Cl. A) 14 B) 16 C) 18 D) 20 E) 22 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 20) How many valence electrons are in the Lewis structure of CH3OCH3.? A) 16 B) 18 C) 20 D) 24 E) 22 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 21) In the Lewis symbol for a nitrogen atom, there are ________ paired and ________ unpaired electrons. A) two, three B) one, three C) three, two D) zero, five E) two, two Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.5 LO: 8.6 GO: G2 22) The oxidation number of phosphorus in PF5 is ________. A) +5 B) +3 C) +1 D) -5 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2

23) The central atom in ________ violates the octet rule. A) PF5 B) SF2 C) Cl2 D) Br2CO E) FCN Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 24) Of the following, ________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons. A) Ni B) Sc C) Be D) Os E) Sb Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 25) How many covalent bonds are in the Lewis Structure of CH3CHCl2.? A) 6 B) 8 C) 7 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2

8.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The electron configuration that corresponds to the Lewis symbol, :

: is ________.

Answer: [Ne]3s23p6 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 2) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction for which △H°rxn is the lattice energy for sodium chloride. Answer: NaCl (s) → Na+ (g) + Cl- (g) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 3) Using the noble gas shorthand notation, write the electron configuration for Fe2+. Answer: [Ar]3d6 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 4) Give the electron configuration of Zn2+. Answer: [Ar]3d10 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 5) Which halogen, bromine or iodine, will form the more polar bond with phosphorus? Answer: bromine Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 6) Draw the Lewis structure of ICl2+. Answer:

Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 8.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 8.5

7) If more than one Lewis structure can be drawn then the molecule or ion is said to have ________ forms. Answer: resonance Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 8) How many resonance forms exist for benzene? Answer: two Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.6 LO: 8.7 GO: G2 9) If the bonds in the reactants of a reaction are weaker than the bonds in the product, the reaction is ________. Answer: exothermic Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 10) Which two elements in period 2 form compounds that can violate the octet rule? Answer: boron and beryllium Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 11) Polyatomic ions with an even number of electrons will follow the ________ rule. Answer: octet Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 12) The strength of a ________ bond is measured by its bond enthalpy. Answer: covalent Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2 13) An exothermic reaction should have ________ chemical bonds and decompose to a molecule with ________ bonds. Answer: weak, strong Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2

14) Calculate the bond energy of C—F given that the heat of atomization of CHFClBr is 1502 kJ/mol, and that the bond energies of C—H, C—Br, and C—Cl are 413, 276, and 328 kJ/mol, respectively. Answer: ΔHatomization = [D(C—H) + D(C—F) + D(C—Cl) + D(C—Br)] D(C—F) = ΔHatomization - [D(C—H) + D(C—Cl) + D(C—Br)] = [1502 - (413 + 276 + 328)] kJ/mol = 485 kJ/mol Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G4 15) The reaction below is used to produce methanol: CO (g) + 2H2 (g) → CH3OH (l)

△Hrxn = -128 kJ

(a) Calculate the C—H bond energy given the following data:

(b) The tabulated value of the (C-H) bond energy is 413 kJ/mol. Explain why there is a difference between the number you have calculated in (a) and the tabulated value. Answer: (a) △Hrxn = D(C≡O) + 2 D(H-H) - [3 D(C-H) + D(C-O) + D(O-H)] 3 D(C-H) = -△Hrxn + D(C≡O) + 2 D(H-H) - D(C-O) - D(O-H) D(C-H) = (128 + 1072 + 2(436) - 358 - 463)/3 = 417 D(C-H) = 417 kJ/mol (b) Tabulated values, like those in Table 8.4, are averaged from many bond energies measured for C—H bonds in many different molecules. Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G4

16) From the information given below, calculate the heat of combustion of methane. Start by writing the balanced equation.

Answer: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O ΔHcombustion = (4 mol C—H)(DC—H) + (2 mol O O)(DO O) - [(2 mol C O)(DC O) - (4 mol O—H)(DO—H)] = [(4 × 413 + 2 × 495) - (2 × 799 + 4 × 463)] kJ ΔHcombustion = -808 kJ Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G4 8.5 True/False Questions 1) Atoms surrounded by eight valence electrons tend to lose electrons. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.1 LO: 8.1 GO: G2 2) The greater the lattice energy, the greater the charges on the participatory ions and the smaller their radii. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 3) Most transition metals do not form ions with a noble gas configuration. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2 4) When a metal gains an electron, the process is endothermic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.2 LO: 8.2 GO: G2

5) Electron affinity is a measure of how strongly an atom can attract additional electrons. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.3 LO: 8.3 GO: G2 6) As electronegativity difference increases, bond length will decrease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.4 LO: 8.4 GO: G2 7) In some molecules and polyatomic ions, the sum of the valence electrons is odd and as a result the octet rule fails. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.7 LO: 8.8 GO: G2 8) A positive change in bond enthalpy is required to break a bond. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 8.8 LO: 8.9 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 9 Molecular Geometry and Bonding Theories 9.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The basis of the VSEPR model of molecular bonding is ________. A) regions of electron density on an atom will organize themselves so as to maximize s-character B) regions of electron density in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to maximize overlap C) atomic orbitals of the bonding atoms must overlap for a bond to form D) electron domains in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to minimize repulsions E) hybrid orbitals will form as necessary to, as closely as possible, achieve spherical symmetry Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 2) In counting the electron domains around the central atom in VSEPR theory, a ________ is not included. A) nonbonding pair of electrons B) single covalent bond C) core level electron pair D) double covalent bond E) triple covalent bond Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 3) The electron-domain geometry of ________ is tetrahedral. A) CBr4 B) PH3 C) CCl2Br2 D) XeF4 E) all of the above except XeF4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

4) Of the following species, ________ will have bond angles of 120°. A) PH3 B) ClF3 C) NCl3 D) BCl3 E) All of these will have bond angles of 120°. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 5) The molecular geometry of the BrO3- ion is ________. A) trigonal pyramidal B) trigonal planar C) bent D) tetrahedral E) T-shaped Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 6) The molecular geometry of the left-most carbon atom in the molecule below is ________.

A) trigonal planar B) trigonal bipyramidal C) tetrahedral D) octahedral E) T-shaped Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

7) The molecular geometry of the right-most carbon in the molecule below is ________.

A) trigonal planar B) trigonal bipyramidal C) tetrahedral D) octahedral E) T-shaped Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 8) The bond angles marked a, b, and c in the molecule below are about ________, ________, and ________, respectively.

A) 90°, 90°, 90° B) 120°, 120°, 90° C) 120°, 120°, 109.5° D) 109.5°, 120°, 109.5° E) 109.5°, 90°, 120° Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

9) The bond angles marked a, b, and c in the molecule below are about ________, ________, and ________, respectively.

A) 109.5°, 109.5°, 109.5° B) 120°, 109.5°, 120° C) 109.5°, 109.5°, 120° D) 90°, 180°, 90° E) 109.5°, 109.5°, 90° Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 10) The central Xe atom in the XeF4 molecule has ________ unbonded electron pair(s) and ________ bonded electron pair(s) in its valence shell. A) 1, 4 B) 2, 4 C) 4, 0 D) 4, 1 E) 4, 2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 11) An electron domain consists of ________. a) a nonbonding pair of electrons b) a single bond c) a multiple bond A) a only B) b only C) c only D) a, b, and c E) b and c Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.2

12) The molecular geometry consists of ________. a) a nonbonding pair of electrons b) a single bond c) a multiple bond A) a only B) b only C) c only D) a, b, and c E) b and c Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.2

13) The electron-domain geometry and the molecular geometry of a molecule of the general formula ABn are ________. A) never the same B) always the same C) sometimes the same D) not related E) mirror images of one another Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 14) The electron-domain geometry and the molecular geometry of a molecule of the general formula ABn will always be the same if ________. A) there are no lone pairs on the central atom B) there is more than one central atom C) n is greater than four D) n is less than four E) the octet rule is obeyed Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

15) What is the molecular shape of H2O? A) T-shaped B) tetrahedral C) linear D) trigonal pyramidal E) bent Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 16) PCl5 has ________ electron domains and a ________ molecular arrangement. A) 6, trigonal bipyramidal B) 6, tetrahedral C) 5, square pyramidal D) 5, trigonal bipyramidal E) 6, seesaw Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 17) For molecules of the general formula ABn, n can be greater than four ________. A) for any element A B) only when A is an element from the third period or below the third period C) only when A is boron or beryllium D) only when A is carbon E) only when A is Xe Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

Consider the following species when answering the following questions: (i) BCl3

(ii) CCl4 (iii) TeCl4 (iv) XeF4

(v) SF6

18) For which of the molecules is the molecular geometry (shape) the same as the VSEPR electron domain arrangement (electron domain geometry)? A) (i) and (ii) B) (i) and (iii) C) (ii) and (v) D) (iv) and (v) E) (v) only Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 19) Of the molecules below, only ________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) CH4 C) SeF4 D) SiCl4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 20) Of the molecules below, only ________ is nonpolar. A) BF3 B) NF3 C) IF3 D) PBr3 E) BrCl3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2

21) Three monosulfur fluorides are observed: SF2, SF4, and SF6. Of these, ________ is/are polar. A) SF2 only B) SF2 and SF4 only C) SF4 only D) SF6 only E) SF2, SF4, and SF6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 22) The molecular geometry of the PF3 molecule is ________, and this molecule is ________. A) trigonal planar, polar B) trigonal planar, nonpolar C) trigonal pyramidal, polar D) trigonal pyramidal, nonpolar E) tetrahedral, unipolar Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2, 9.3 LO: 9.1, 9.2 GO: G2 23) Of the following molecules, only ________ is polar. A) BeCl2 B) BF3 C) C D) SiH2Cl2 E) Cl2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 24) Of the following molecules, only ________ is polar. A) CCl4 B) BCl3 C) NCl3 D) BeCl2 E) Cl2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 8

25) For molecules with only one central atom, how many lone pairs on the central atom guarantees molecular polarity? A) 1 B) 2 C) 1 or 2 D) 3 E) 1 or 3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 26) The molecular geometry of the CHF3 molecule is ________, and the molecule is ________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) tetrahedral, nonpolar C) seesaw, nonpolar D) tetrahedral, polar E) seesaw, polar Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2, 9.3 LO: 9.1, 9.2 GO: G2 27) The molecular geometry of the BCl3 molecule is ________, and this molecule is ________. A) trigonal pyramidal, polar B) trigonal pyramidal, nonpolar C) trigonal planar, polar D) trigonal planar, nonpolar E) trigonal bipyramidal, polar Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2, 9.3 LO: 9.1, 9.2 GO: G2

Consider the following species when answering the following questions: (i) BCl3

(ii) CCl4 (iii) TeCl4 (iv) XeF4

(v) SF6

28) Which of the molecules has a see-saw shape? A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) (v) Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 29) Which of the molecules has a square planar shape? A) (i) and (ii) B) (i) and (v) C) (iii) only D) (ii) and (iv) E) (iv) only Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 30) The combination of two atomic orbitals results in the formation of ________ molecular orbitals. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

31) Of the following, the central atom is sp3d2 hybridized only in ________. A) PCl5 B) XeF4 C) PH3 D) Br3E) BeF2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 32) The sp3d2 atomic hybrid orbital set accommodates ________ electron domains. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 33) The sp2 atomic hybrid orbital set accommodates ________ electron domains. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 34) The hybridizations of nitrogen in NF3 and NH3 are ________ and ________, respectively. A) sp2, sp2 B) sp, sp3 C) sp3, sp D) sp3, sp3 E) sp2, sp3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

35) The hybridizations of iodine in IF3 and IF5 are ________ and ________, respectively. A) sp3, sp3d B) sp3d, sp3d2 C) sp3d, sp3 D) sp3d2, sp3d E) sp3d2, sp3d2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 36) The hybridizations of bromine in BrF5 and of arsenic in AsF5 are ________ and ________, respectively. A) sp3, sp3d B) sp3d, sp3d2 C) sp3d, sp3 D) sp3d2, sp3d E) sp3d2, sp3d2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 37) The hybrid orbitals used for bonding by the sulfur atom in the SF4 molecule are ________ orbitals. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

38) What are the hybrid orbitals used for bonding by Xe in a XeCl4 molecule? A) sp2 B) sp3d2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 39) The hybridization scheme for BeF2 is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 40) What is the hybridization of the carbon atom attached to the two oxygen atoms in the structure below?

A) sp3 B) sp C) sp3d2 D) sp2 E) sp3d Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.5

41) What is the hybridization of the I atom in a IF5 molecule? A) sp2d2 B) sp3d C) sp3 D) sp3d2 E) sp2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 42) ________ hybrid orbitals are used for bonding by Xe in the XeF4 molecule. A) sp2 B) sp3 C) sp3d D) sp3d2 E) sp Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 Consider the following species when answering the following questions: (i) BCl3

(ii) CCl4 (iii) TeCl4 (iv) XeF4

(v) SF6

43) In which of the molecules is the central atom sp2 hybridized? A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) C) (iii) and (iv) D) (iii) only E) (iv) and (v) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

44) When four atomic orbitals are mixed to form hybrid orbitals, how many hybrid orbitals are formed? A) one B) six C) three D) four E) five Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 45) A triatomic molecule cannot be linear if the hybridization of the central atoms is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp2 or sp3 E) sp2d or sp3d2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 46) Valence bond theory addresses all of the following except ________. A) molecular shape B) covalent bonding C) excited states of molecules D) hybridization E) multiple bonds Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 47) A typical double bond ________. A) is stronger and shorter than a single bond B) consists of one σ bond and one π bond C) imparts rigidity to a molecule D) consists of two shared electron pairs E) All of the above answers are correct. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2

48) A typical triple bond ________. A) consists of one σ bond and two π bonds B) consists of three shared electrons C) consists of two σ bonds and one π bond D) consists of six shared electron pairs E) is longer than a single bond Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 49) In a SO42- ion, "localized" bonding electrons are associated with ________ particular atoms. A) zero B) one C) two D) three E) four Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 50) There are ________ σ bonds and ________ π bonds in H3C-CH2-CH CH-CH2-C CH. A) 14, 2 B) 10, 3 C) 12, 2 D) 13, 2 E) 16, 3 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 51) Which of the following molecules or ions have various resonance structures? CO2 O3 CO32A) CO2, O3, and CO32B) CO2 and O3 C) O3 and CO32D) CO32- only E) None of the above will exhibit delocalized bonding. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 16

52) Which of the following molecules or ions will exhibit delocalized bonding? NO2- NH4+ N3A) NH4+ and N3B) NO2- only C) NO2-, NH4+, and N3D) N3- only E) NO2- and N3Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 53) A molecule must have at least two resonance structures in order to display ________. A) delocalized σ bonding B) trigonal planar electron group geometry C) localized π bonding D) delocalized π bonding E) localized σ bonding Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 54) In a C=C bond, the σ bond results from overlap of ________ orbitals and the π bond(s) result from overlap of ________ orbitals. A) sp2-hybrid, p-atomic B) sp2-atomic, p-hybrid C) sp3-hybrid, p-atomic D) sp-hybrid, p-atomic E) σ-atomic, π-hybrid Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2

55) The carbon-hydrogen σ bond in ethylene, H2C CH2, results from the overlap of ________. A) sp2-hybrid and s-atomic orbitals B) sp hybrid orbitals C) sp3 hybrid orbitals D) s-hybrid and sp2-atomic orbitals E) s atomic orbitals Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 56) The π bond in ethylene, H2C CH2, results from the overlap of ________. A) sp3 hybrid orbitals B) s atomic orbitals C) sp hybrid orbitals D) sp2 hybrid orbitals E) p atomic orbitals Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 57) A typical double bond consists of ________. A) three sigma bonds B) three pi bonds C) one sigma and two pi bonds D) one sigma and one pi bond E) three ionic bonds Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.7 GO: G2 58) The N-H bond in ammonia consists of ________. A) one σ bond and one π bond B) one σ bond and no π bonds C) one σ bond and two π bonds D) two σ bonds and one π bond E) two σ bonds and two π bonds Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.7 GO: G2

59) The hybridization of the terminal carbons in the H2C C CH2 molecule is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 60) The hybridization of nitrogen in the H—C N: molecule is ________. A) sp B) s2p C) s3p D) sp2 E) sp3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 61) The hybridization of carbon in the H-C C-H molecule is ________. A) sp2 B) sp C) s2p D) s3p E) sp3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

62) The hybridization of the carbon atom labeled x in the molecule below is ________.

A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.5

63) The hybridization of the oxygen atom labeled x in the structure below is ________.

A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.5

64) The hybridization and molecular shape of the carbon atom in carbon dioxide is ________. A) sp and linear B) sp3 and bent C) sp2 and linear D) sp2d and bent E) sp2d2 and linear Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 65) Electrons in ________ bonds remain localized between two atoms. Electrons in ________ bonds can become delocalized between more than two atoms. A) pi, sigma B) sigma, pi C) pi, pi D) sigma, sigma E) ionic, sigma Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.7 GO: G2 66) Structural changes around a ________ bond in the retinal portion of the rhodopsin molecule trigger the chemical reactions that result in vision. A) C=C B) C-C C) C C D) C-H E) C=N Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 67) The bond order of any molecule containing equal numbers of bonding and antibonding electrons is ________. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 1/2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 21

68) In comparing the same two atoms bonded together, the ________ the bond order, the ________ the bond length, and the ________ the bond energy. A) greater, shorter, greater B) greater, greater, greater C) greater, longer, greater D) smaller, longer, smaller E) smaller, greater, greater Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 69) In comparing the same two atoms bonded together, the ________ the bond order, the ________ the bond length, and the ________ the bond energy. A) greater, shorter, greater B) greater, greater, greater C) greater, longer, greater D) greater, greater, smaller E) smaller, greater, greater Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 70) Based on molecular orbital theory, the bond orders of the H—H bonds in H2, H2+, and H2are ________, respectively A) 1, 0, and 0 B) 1, 1/2, and 0 C) 1, 0, and 1/2 D) 1, 1/2, and 1/2 E) 1, 2, and 0 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 71) Based on molecular orbital theory, the bond order of the H—H bond in the H2+ ion is ________. A) 0 B) 1/2 C) 1 D) 3/2 E) 2 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 22

72) An antibonding π orbital contains a maximum of ________ electrons. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 73) According to MO theory, overlap of two s atomic orbitals produces ________. A) one bonding molecular orbital and one hybrid orbital B) two bonding molecular orbitals C) two bonding molecular orbitals and two antibonding molecular orbitals D) two bonding molecular orbitals and one antibonding molecular orbital E) one bonding molecular orbital and one antibonding molecular orbital Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 74) A molecular orbital can accommodate a maximum of ________ electron(s). A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 12 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 75) Molecular Orbital theory correctly predicts paramagnetism of oxygen gas, O2. This is because ________. A) the bond order in O2 can be shown to be equal to 2 B) there are more electrons in the bonding orbitals than in the antibonding orbitals C) the energy of the π2p MOs is higher than that of the σ2p MO D) there are two unpaired electrons in the MO electron configuration of O2 E) the O—O bond distance is relatively short Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2

76) Molecular Orbital theory correctly predicts diamagnetism of fluorine gas, F2. This is because ________. A) the bond order in F2 can be shown to be equal to 1 B) there are more electrons in the bonding orbitals than in the antibonding orbitals C) all electrons in the MO electron configuration of F2 are paired D) the energy of the π2pMOs is higher than that of the σ2p MO E) the F—F bond enthalpy is very low Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 77) Based on molecular orbital theory, the only molecule in the list below that has unpaired electrons is ________. A) C2 B) N2 C) F2 D) O2 E) Li2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 78) According to molecular orbital theory, how many unpaired electrons are in a peroxide ion, O22-? A) 0 B) 1/2 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 79) According to molecular orbital theory, the bond order of N-N in nitrogen gas is ________. A) 0 B) 1/2 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 24

80) According to molecular orbital theory, the bond order of He-He in the He2 molecule is ________. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 81) Which of the following is expected to be paramagnetic? A) F2 B) O2 C) N2 D) H2 E) He Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 82) Which of the following molecules would be expected to be attracted to a magnetic field? F2

A) F2 and N2 B) F2 and O2 C) O2 only D) N2 only E) N2 and O2 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 9.8 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.8

83) According to MO theory, overlap of two p atomic orbitals produces ________. A) two bonding molecular orbitals B) one bonding molecular orbital and one antibonding molecular orbital C) two bonding molecular orbitals and two antibonding molecular orbitals D) two bonding molecular orbitals and one antibonding molecular orbital E) three bonding molecular orbitals and three antibonding molecular orbitals Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 84) According to MO theory, overlap of two p atomic orbitals produces ________. A) one π MO and one σ* MO B) one π MO and one σ MO C) one π MO and one π* MO or one σ MO and one σ* MO D) one π+ MO and one σ* MO E) two π MOs, two π+ MOs, one σ MO, and one σ* MO Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 85) An antibonding MO ________ the corresponding bonding MO. A) is always lower in energy than B) can accommodate more electrons than C) can accommodate fewer electrons than D) is always higher in energy than E) is always degenerate with Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 86) The more effectively two atomic orbitals overlap, ________. A) the more bonding MOs will be produced by the combination B) the higher will be the energy of the resulting bonding MO and the lower will be the energy of the resulting antibonding MO C) the higher will be the energies of both bonding and antibonding MOs that result D) the fewer antibonding MOs will be produced by the combination E) the lower will be the energy of the resulting bonding MO and the higher will be the energy of the resulting antibonding MO Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2

87) The bond order of a homonuclear diatomic molecule can be decreased by ________. A) removing electrons from a bonding MO or adding electrons to an antibonding MO B) adding electrons to a bonding MO or removing electrons from an antibonding MO C) adding electrons to any MO D) removing electrons from any MO E) The bond order of a homonuclear diatomic molecule cannot be decreased by any means. Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 88) The order of MO energies in B2, C2, and N2 (σ2p > π2p), is different from the order in O2, F2, and Ne2 This is due to ________. A) less effective overlap of p orbitals in O2, F2, and Ne2 B) the more metallic character of boron, carbon and nitrogen as compared to oxygen, fluorine, and neon C) greater 2s-2p interaction in O2, F2, and Ne2 D) greater 2s-2p interaction in B2, C2, and N2 E) less effective overlap of p orbitals in B2, C2, and N2 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2

9.2 Bimodal Questions 1) For a molecule with the formula AB2, the molecular shape is ________. A) linear or bent B) linear or trigonal planar C) linear or T-shaped D) T-shaped E) trigonal planar Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 2) For a molecule with the formula AB3, the molecular shape is ________. A) linear, octahedral, or bent B) linear, bent, or trigonal planar C) linear, bent, or T-shaped D) tetrahedral E) trigonal planar, trigonal pyramidal, or T-shaped Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 3) The molecular geometry of ________ is square planar. A) CCl4 B) XeF4 C) PH3 D) XeF2 E) ICl3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 4) The molecular geometry of the CS2 molecule is ________. A) linear B) bent C) tetrahedral D) trigonal planar E) T-shaped Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 28

5) The molecular geometry of the SiH2Cl2 molecule is ________. A) trigonal planar B) tetrahedral C) trigonal pyramidal D) octahedral E) T-shaped Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 6) The molecular geometry of the PHCl2 molecule is ________. A) bent B) trigonal planar C) trigonal pyramidal D) tetrahedral E) T-shaped Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 7) The molecular geometry of the CHCl3 molecule is ________. A) bent B) trigonal planar C) trigonal pyramidal D) tetrahedral E) T-shaped Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 8) The molecular geometry of the SF2 molecule is ________. A) linear B) bent C) trigonal planar D) tetrahedral E) octahedral Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

9) The molecular geometry of the PF4+ ion is ________. A) octahedral B) tetrahedral C) trigonal pyramidal D) trigonal planar E) trigonal bipyramidal Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 10) The F-B-F bond angle in the BF2- ion is approximately ________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 11) The Cl-Si-Cl bond angle in the SiCl2F2 molecule is approximately ________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 12) The F-B-F bond angle in the BF3 molecule is ________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

13) The H-B-H bond angle in BH3 is ________. A) 180° B) 90° C) 109.5° D) 60° E) 120° Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 14) The F-N-F bond angle in the NF3 molecule is slightly less than ________. A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° E) 60° Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 15) The molecular geometry of the H3O+ ion is ________. A) linear B) tetrahedral C) bent D) trigonal pyramidal E) octahedral Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 16) The electron-domain geometry of a sulfur-centered compound is trigonal bipyramidal. The hybridization of the central sulfur atom is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

17) The hybridization of orbitals on the central atom in a molecule is sp. The electron-domain geometry around this central atom is ________. A) octahedral B) linear C) trigonal planar D) trigonal bipyramidal E) tetrahedral Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 18) The hybridization of orbitals on the central atom in a molecule is sp2. The electron-domain geometry about this central atom is ________. A) octahedral B) linear C) trigonal planar D) trigonal bipyramidal E) tetrahedral Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 19) The hybridization of the carbon atom in carbon dioxide is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 20) The hybridization of the central atom in the XeF4 molecule is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 32

21) The electron-domain geometry of the AsF6- ion is octahedral. The hybrid orbitals used by the As atom for bonding are ________ orbitals. A) sp2d2 B) sp3 C) sp3d D) sp3d2 E) sp2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 22) In order to produce sp3 hybrid orbitals, ________ s atomic orbital(s) and ________ p atomic orbital(s) must be mixed. A) one, two B) one, three C) one, one D) two, two E) two, three Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 23) In order to produce sp2 hybrid orbitals, ________ s atomic orbital(s) and ________ p atomic orbital(s) must be mixed. A) one, two B) one, three C) one, one D) two, two E) two, three Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 24) The angles between sp2 orbitals are ________. A) 45° B) 180° C) 90° D) 109.5° E) 120° Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 33

25) There are ________ σ and ________ π bonds in the H—C≡C—H molecule. A) 3, 2 B) 3, 4 C) 4, 3 D) 2, 3 E) 5, 0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 26) There are ________ σ and ________ π bond(s) in the H2C=CH2 molecule. A) 3, 2 B) 3, 4 C) 4, 3 D) 2, 3 E) 5, 1 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 27) There are ________ σ and ________ π bonds in the H2C=C=CH2 molecule. A) 4, 2 B) 6, 4 C) 2, 2 D) 2, 6 E) 6, 2 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 28) The total number of π bonds in the H—C≡C—C≡C—C≡N molecule is ________. A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 9 E) 12 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2

29) There is/are ________ σ bond(s) in the molecule below.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 12 D) 13 E) 18 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.5 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.6

30) There is/are ________ π bond(s) in the molecule below.

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 16 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.5 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.6

31) There is/are ________ π bond(s) in the molecule below.

A) 7 B) 6 C) 2 D) 1 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 9.5 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.6

32) The Lewis structure of carbon monoxide is given below. The hybridizations of the carbon and oxygen atoms in carbon monoxide are ________ and ________, respectively. - :C ≡ O: + A) sp, sp3 B) sp2, sp3 C) sp3, sp2 D) sp, sp E) sp2, sp2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.5

9.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) How may lone pair electrons are found on the central atom in a ClF3 molecule which has a "T-shaped" geometry? A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 2) The electron domain and molecular geometry of SO3 are ________. A) trigonal bipyramidal, trigonal planar B) trigonal planar, bent C) trigonal bipyramidal, T-shaped D) trigonal planar, trigonal planar E) octahedral, seesaw Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 3) The H-C-H bond angle in the CH4 ion is approximately ________. A) 180 B) 120 C) 109.5 D) 60 E) 90 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

4) The bond angle marked a in the following molecule is about ________.

A) 109.5 B) 60 C) 180 D) 120 E) 90 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 9.2

5) The central atom in the ICl4- ion has ________ nonbonded electron pair(s) and ________ bonded electron pair(s) in its valence shell. A) 4, 2 B) 0, 4 C) 2, 4 D) 2, 2 E) 6, 0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 6) The central atom in a certain molecule has 1 nonbonded electron pairs and 2 bonded electron pairs in its valence shell. The molecular geometry of this molecule is ________. A) tetrahedral B) bent C) seesaw D) trigonal bipyrimidal E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

7) The central atom in a certain molecule has 4 nonbonded electron pairs and 2 bonded electron pairs in its valence shell. The molecular geometry of this molecule is ________. A) seesaw B) square planar C) linear D) trigonal bipyramidal E) T-shaped Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 8) The central atom in the O3 molecule has ________ nonbonded electron pair(s) and ________ bonded electron pair(s) in its valence shell. A) 6, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 2 D) 3, 1 E) 3, 2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 9) According to VSEPR theory, if there are three electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) ________ geometry. A) tetrahedral B) octahedral C) linear D) square planar E) trigonal planar Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 10) The electron-domain geometry and molecular geometry of iodine trichloride are ________ and ________, respectively. A) trigonal bipyramidal, trigonal planar B) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal C) trigonal bipyramidal, T-shaped D) octahedral, trigonal planar E) T-shaped, trigonal planar Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 2 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 39

11) The electron-domain geometry and molecular geometry of the nitrite ion are ________ and ________, respectively. A) trigonal bipyramidal, trigonal planar B) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal C) trigonal bipyramidal,T-shaped D) trigonal planar, bent E) T-shaped, trigonal planar Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 2 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 12) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in O3 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 13) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in ClO3- is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

14) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in ClF3 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 15) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in XeF4 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 16) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in KrF2 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 17) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in SO3 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 41

18) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in CH4 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 19) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in ClO2- is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 20) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in PCl3 is ________. A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 21) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in IF5 is ________. A) tetrahedral B) square planar C) square pyramidal D) seesaw E) trigonal bipyramidal Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2

22) The bond angles in a tetrahedral molecule are ________ degrees. A) 109.5 B) 120 C) 90 D) 45 E) <45 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 23) Of the molecules below, only ________ is polar. A) CO2 B) CH4 C) PF5 D) SnF3 E) H2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 24) Which of the following molecules would be considered nonpolar? A) PF3 B) Br2S C) BeH2 D) TeCl2 E) HCl Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 25) The molecular geometry of the BeCl2 molecule is ________, and this molecule is ________. A) bent, nonpolar B) linear, polar C) bent, polar D) seesaw, polar E) linear, nonpolar Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2, 9.3 LO: 9.1, 9.2 GO: G2

26) The molecular geometry of the IF5 molecule is ________, and this molecule is ________. A) trigonal bipyramidal, polar B) trigonal bipyramidal, nonpolar C) trigonal planar, polar D) square pyramidal, polar E) square pyramidal, nonpolar Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2, 9.3 LO: 9.1, 9.2 GO: G2 27) According to valence bond theory, which orbitals overlap in the formation of the bond in HCl? A) 1s on H and 2p on Cl B) 2s on H and 3p on Cl C) 1s on H and 3s on Cl D) 1s on H and 3p on Cl E) 1s on H and 4p on Cl Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 9.4 LO: 9.3 GO: G2 28) According to valence bond theory, which orbitals overlap in the formation of the bond in Cl2? A) 4p on Cl and 4p on Cl B) 3p on Cl and 3p on Cl C) sp on Cl and sp on Cl D) 3s on Cl and 3s on Cl E) 2p on Cl and 2p on Cl Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.4 LO: 9.3 GO: G2 29) According to valence bond theory, which orbitals overlap in the formation of the bond in ? A) 3s B) 3p C) 4s D) 4p E) 3d Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 9.4 LO: 9.3 GO: G2 44

30) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in SO3 is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 31) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in ClO2- is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 32) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in PCl5 is ________. A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp3d2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 33) The electron-domain geometry of a boron-centered compound BH3 is trigonal planar. The hybridization of the central boron atom is ________. A) sp2 B) sp3d2 C) sp3 D) sp3d E) sp Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 45

34) Of the following, only ________ has sp2 hybridization of the central atom. A) NF3 B) HCN C) BF3 D) ICl3 E) CH4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 35) How many unhybridized p atomic orbital(s) are found in an sp-hybridized carbon atom? A) 4 B) 2 C) 0 D) 1 E) 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 36) How many hybridized s atomic orbital(s) are found in an sp2-hybridized carbon atom? A) 0 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 37) How many hybrid orbitals are formed upon the mixing of three atomic orbitals? A) three B) six C) four D) one E) five Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2

38) Mixing one s atomic orbital and one p atomic orbital gives rise to ________. A) three sp2 hybrid orbitals B) two sp2 hybrid orbitals C) two sp3 hybrid orbitals D) three sp hybrid orbitals E) two sp hybrid orbitals Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 39) A typical triple bond consists of ________ sigma bond(s) and ________ pi bond(s). A) 1, 2 B) 2, 2 C) 1, 3 D) 0, 3 E) 1, 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 40) Construct a molecular orbital diagram for a Li2 molecule. According to molecular orbital theory, the σ1s orbital is ________ and the σ1s* orbital is ________. A) filled, filled B) half-filled, filled C) empty, filled D) filled, empty E) filled, half-filled Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 41) Based on molecular orbital theory, the bond order of the N—N bond in the N2 molecule is ________. A) 0 B) 1/2 C) 3 D) 2 E) 1 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 47

42) According to molecular orbital theory, the bond order in a Be2 molecule is ________. A) 3 B) 1/2 C) 1 D) 2 E) 0 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 43) In molecular orbital theory, the bond order of the He—He bond in He2 is ________. A) 0 B) 2 C) He—He D) 1 E) 1/2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.7, 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 44) The highest energy occupied molecular orbital in the F—F bond of the F2 molecule is ________. A) π*2s B) π2s C) σ*1p D) π*2p E) π2p Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2

45) The highest energy occupied molecular orbital in the C—C bond of the C2 molecule is ________. A) σ2p B) σ*1p C) π2p D) π2s E) π*2p Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 9.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What is the molecular geometry of ICl5? Answer: trigonal bipyramidal Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 2) In the valence shell of an atom there are six electron domains. They will be arranged in a(n) ________ geometry. Answer: octahedral Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 3) What are the three bond angles in the trigonal bipyramidal structure? Answer: 90°, 120°, 180° Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 4) Three molecules have similar electron domains, but different molecular shapes. Why? Answer: different numbers of non-bonding domains Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 5) The ________ hydrogen orbital overlaps with the ________ bromide orbital in HBr. Answer: 1s, 4p Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 9.4 LO: 9.3 GO: G2 49

6) A covalent bond in which overlap regions lie above and below an internuclear axis is called a(n) ________. Answer: π bond Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 9.6 LO: 9.5 GO: G2 7) The ________ hydrogen orbital overlaps with the ________ fluoride orbital in HF. Answer: 1s, 2p Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 9.4 LO: 9.3 GO: G2 8) According to molecular orbital theory, the greater the ________ ,the shorter the bond length. Answer: bond order Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 9.7 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 9) According to the Pauli exclusion principle, no more than ________ electrons with their spins paired can occupy a molecular orbital. Answer: 2 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 10) A ________ compound would display unpaired electrons in the molecular orbital diagram. Answer: paramagnetic Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 9.5 True/False Questions 1) Possible shapes of AB3 molecules are linear, trigonal planar, and T-shaped. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 2) Boron trifluoride has three bonding domains, and its electron domain geometry is trigonal planar. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 50

3) Electron domains for single bonds exert greater force on adjacent domains than the electron domains for multiple bonds. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.2 LO: 9.1 GO: G2 4) The quantitative amount of charge separation in a diatomic molecule contributes to the dipole moment of that molecule. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 5) XeF4 is a polar molecule. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.3 LO: 9.2 GO: G2 6) Hybridization is the process of mixing atomic orbitals as atoms approach each other to form a bond. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.5 LO: 9.4 GO: G2 7) Electrons in core orbitals contribute to atom bonding. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.6 LO: 9.6 GO: G2 8) Nitrogen is colorless because the minimum energy to excite an electron is in the ultraviolet section of the spectrum. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 9.8 LO: 9.8 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 10 Gases 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about gases is false? A) Gases are highly compressible. B) Distances between molecules of gas are very large compared to bond distances within molecules. C) Non-reacting gas mixtures are homogeneous. D) Gases expand spontaneously to fill the container they are placed in. E) All gases are colorless and odorless at room temperature. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 10.1 GO: G2 2) Of the following, ________ has a strong acrid odor. A) N2O B) CH4 C) CO D) NH3 E) HCN Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 10.1 GO: G2 3) Of the following, ________ has the odor of rotten eggs. A) NH3 B) H2S C) CO D) NO2 E) HCN Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 10.1 GO: G2

4) One significant difference between gases and liquids is that ________. A) a gas is made up of molecules B) a gas expands to fill its container C) a gas may consist of both elements and compounds D) gases are always mixtures E) All of the above answers are correct. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 10.1 GO: G2 5) Gaseous mixtures ________. A) can only contain molecules B) are all heterogeneous C) can only contain isolated atoms D) are all homogeneous E) must contain both isolated atoms and molecules Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 10.1 GO: G2 6) Which of the following equations shows an incorrect relationship between pressures given in terms of different units? A) 1.20 atm = 122 kPa B) 152 mm Hg = 2.03 × 104 Pa C) 0.760 atm = 578 mm Hg D) 1.0 torr = 2.00 mm Hg E) 1.00 atm = 760 torr Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 7) Which of the following is not a unit of pressure? A) mm Hg B) mm C) atm D) Pa E) psi Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4

8) The pressure exerted by a column of liquid is equal to the product of the height of the column times the gravitational constant times the density of the liquid, How high a column of methanol would be supported by a pressure that supports a 713 mm column of mercury A) 713 mm B) 41 mm C) 1.2 × 104 mm D) 9.7 × 103 mm E) 17 mm Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 9) Which statement about atmospheric pressure is false? A) As air becomes thinner, its density decreases. B) Air actually has weight. C) With an increase in altitude, atmospheric pressure increases as well. D) The warmer the air, the lower the atmospheric pressure. E) Atmospheric pressure prevents water in lakes, rivers, and oceans from boiling away. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2 10) In ideal gas equation calculations, expressing pressure in Pascals (Pa), necessitates the use of the gas constant, R, equal to ________. A) 0.08206 atm L mol-1K-1 B) 8.314 -Pa/mol-K C) 62.36 L torr mol-1K-1 D) 1.987 cal mol-1K-1 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2

11) The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas and its volume was ________. A) Amadeo Avogadro B) Lord Kelvin C) Jacques Charles D) Robert Boyle E) Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2 12) Of the following, ________ is a correct statement of Boyle's law. A) PV = constant B) = constant C)

= constant

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 10.3 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 10.3

13) "Isothermal" means ________. A) at constant pressure B) at constant temperature C) at variable temperature and pressure conditions D) at ideal temperature and pressure conditions E) that ΔHrxn = 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2

14) Of the following, ________ is a valid statement of Charles' law. A) = constant B)

= constant

C) PV = constant D) V = constant × n E) V = constant × P Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2 15) Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadro's law? A) = constant B)

= constant

C) PV = constant D) V = constant × n E) V = constant × P Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2 16) The temperature of an ideal gas at STP is ________. A) 0 °C B) -32 °F C) -273 K D) 0 °F E) 0 K Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4

17) Which of the following is not possible for an ideal gas? A)

D) E)

= =

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 10.3 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 10.3

18) The molar volume of a gas at STP is ________ L. A) 0.08206 B) 62.36 C) 1.00 D) 22.4 E) 14.7 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 19) Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers to ________. A) 298.15 K and 1 atm B) 273.15 K and 1 atm C) 298.15 K and 1 torr D) 273.15 K and 1 pascal E) 273.15 K and 1 torr Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.3 GO: G4

20) Sodium bicarbonate is reacted with concentrated hydrochloric acid at 37.0 °C and 1.00 atm. The reaction of 6.00 kg of bicarbonate with excess hydrochloric acid under these conditions will produce ________ L of CO2. A) 1.09 × 102 B) 2.85 × 104 C) 1.82 × 104 D) 8.70 × 102 E) 1.82 × 103 Answer: E Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 21) How much CO2 (L) is produced when 2.10 kg of sodium bicarbonate reacts with excess hydrochloric acid at 25.0 °C and 1.23 atm? A) 4.17 × 10-1 B) 4.98 × 102 C) 4.17 × 101 D) 3.50 E) 4.98 × 10-1 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 22) The volume of a sample of gas (2.49 g) was 752 mL at 1.98 atm and 62 °C. The gas is ________. A) SO2 B) SO3 C) NH3 D) NO2 E) Ne Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4

23) The density of NO2 in a 4.50 L tank at 760.0 torr and 25.0 °C is ________ g/L. A) 1.64 B) 9.30 C) 1.68 D) 1.88 E) 3.27 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 24) A 255 mL round-bottom flask is weighed and found to have a mass of 114.85 g. A few milliliters of an easily vaporized liquid are added to the flask and the flask is immersed in a boiling water bath. All of the liquid vaporizes at the boiling temperature of water, filling the flask with vapor. When all of the liquid has vaporized, the flask is removed from the bath, cooled, dried, and reweighed. The new mass of the flask and the condensed vapor is 115.23 g. Which of the following compounds could the liquid be? (Assume the ambient pressure is 1 atm.) A) ethanol B) propanol C) butanol D) hexanol E) methanol Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 25) A sample of an unknown volatile liquid was injected into a Dumas flask and heated until no visible traces of the liquid could be found. The flask and its contents were then rapidly cooled and reweighed The atmospheric pressure and temperature during the experiment were 0.976 atm and 18.0 °C, respectively. The unknown volatile liquid was ________. A) C6H12 B) C6H14 C) C7H14 D) C7H16 E) C6H6 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

26) The density of air at STP is 1.285 g/L. Which of the following cannot be used to fill a balloon that will float in air at STP? A) CH4 B) NO C) Ne D) NH3 E) HF Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 27) The average kinetic energy of the particles of a gas is ________ proportional to ________. A) directly, the rms speed B) directly, the square root of the rms speed C) inversely, the square of the rms speed D) directly, the square of the rms speed E) inversely, the particle mass Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 28) The kinetic-molecular theory predicts that pressure rises as the temperature of a gas increases because ________. A) the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules decreases B) the gas molecules collide more frequently with the wall C) the gas molecules collide less frequently with the wall D) the gas molecules collide more energetically with the wall E) B and D Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 29) According to kinetic-molecular theory, in which of the following gases will the root-meansquare speed of the molecules be the highest at 200 °C? A) HCl B) Cl2 C) H2O D) SF6 E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 9

30) According to kinetic-molecular theory, if the temperature of a gas is raised from 100 °C to 200 °C, the average kinetic energy of the gas will ________. A) double B) increase by a factor of 1.27 C) increase by a factor of 100 D) decrease by half E) decrease by a factor of 100 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 31) Which of the following is not part of the kinetic-molecular theory? A) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed by ordinary chemical reactions. B) Attractive and repulsive forces between gas molecules are negligible. C) Gases consist of molecules in continuous, random motion. D) Collisions between gas molecules do not result in the loss of energy. E) The volume occupied by all of the gas molecules in a container is negligible compared to the volume of the container. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 32) Of the following gases, ________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature. A) NH3 B) CH4 C) Ar D) HBr E) HCl Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4

33) A tank containing both HF and HBr gases developed a leak. The ratio of the rate of effusion of HF to the rate of effusion of HBr is ________. A) 4.04 B) 0.247 C) 2.01 D) 0.497 E) 16.3 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 34) Which of the following gases would have a similar rate of effusion to CO at 350 K? A) H2 B) He C) CO2 D) N2 E) NO2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 35) What is the temperature at STP? A) 0 °C B) 25 °C C) -32 °F D) 298 k E) 0 k Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4

36) Arrange the following gases in order of increasing average molecular speed at 25 °C. He, O2, CO2, N2 A) He < N2 < O2 < CO2 B) He < O2 < N2 < CO2 C) CO2 < O2 < N2 < He D) CO2 < N2 < O2 < He E) CO2 < He < N2 < O2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 37) Arrange the following gases in order of increasing average molecular speed at 25 °C. Cl2, O2, F2, N2 A) Cl2 < F2 < O2 < N2 B) Cl2 < O2 < F2 < N2 C) N2 < F2 < Cl2 < O2 D) Cl2 < F2 < N2 < O2 E) F2 < O2 < N2 < Cl2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 38) Which one of the following gases would have the highest average molecular speed at 25 °C? A) O2 B) N2 C) CO2 D) CH4 E) SF6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4

39) A sample of oxygen gas (O2) was found to effuse at a rate equal to three times that of an unknown gas. The molecular weight of the unknown gas is ________ g/mol. A) 288 B) 96 C) 55 D) 4 E) 10.7 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 40) A sample of oxygen gas was found to effuse at a rate equal to two times that of an unknown gas. The molecular weight of the unknown gas is ________ g/mol. A) 64 B) 128 C) 8 D) 16 E) 8.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 41) Two gases start to escape from a container and one of the gases effuses 1.25 times as fast as the other one. The two gases could have been ________. A) NO and SF6 B) CO and CO2 C) CO2 and Cl2 D) Cl2 and CO E) CO2 and SF6 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4

42) Carbon dioxide and an unknown gas start to effuse from a container and the carbon dioxide takes 4.69 times as long to escape as the unknown gas. What is the identity of the unknown gas? A) Br2 B) NO2 C) HCl D) CO E) H2 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 43) How much faster does 79Br2 effuse than 81Br2? A) 0.975 times as fast B) 1.025 times as fast C) 1.013 times as fast D) 0.988 times as fast E) Cannot be determined Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 44) An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas ________. A) have no attraction for one another B) have appreciable molecular volumes C) have a molecular weight of zero D) have no kinetic energy E) have an average molecular mass Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2 45) A real gas will behave most like an ideal gas under conditions of ________. A) high temperature and high pressure B) high temperature and low pressure C) low temperature and high pressure D) low temperature and low pressure E) STP Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2

46) Which one of the following gases would deviate the least from ideal gas behavior? A) Ne B) CH3Cl C) Kr D) CO2 E) F2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2 47) Which noble gas is expected to show the largest deviations from the ideal gas behavior? A) helium B) neon C) argon D) krypton E) xenon Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2 48) The van der Waals equation for real gases recognizes that ________. A) gas particles have non-zero volumes and interact with each other B) molar volumes of gases of different types are different C) the non-zero volumes of gas particles effectively decrease the amount of "empty space" between them D) the molecular attractions between particles of gas decreases the pressure exerted by the gas E) all of the above statements are true Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2 49) Real gases do not behave ideally at ________. A) high pressure and low temperature B) low pressure and high temperature C) high pressure and high temperature D) low pressure and low temperature E) high pressure only Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2

10.2 Bimodal Questions 1) A gas at a pressure of 10.0 Pa exerts a force of ________ N on an area of 5.5 m2. A) 55 B) 0.55 C) 5.5 D) 1.8 E) 18 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 2) A gas at a pressure of 325 torr exerts a force of ________ N on an area of 5.5 m2. A) 1.8 × 103 B) 59 C) 2.4 × 105 D) 0.018 E) 2.4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 3) A gas vessel is attached to an open-end manometer containing a nonvolatile liquid of density 0.791 g/mL as shown below.

The difference in heights of the liquid in the two sides of the manometer is 43.4 cm when the atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg. Given that the density of mercury is 13.6 g/mL, the pressure of the enclosed gas is ________ atm. A) 1.03 B) 0.967 C) 0.993 D) 0.990 E) 0.987 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 16

4) A gas vessel is attached to an open-end manometer filled with a nonvolatile liquid of density 0.993 g/mL as shown below.

The difference in heights of the liquid in the two sides of the manometer is 32.3 mm when the atmospheric pressure is 765 mm Hg. Given that the density of mercury is 13.6 g/mL, the pressure of the enclosed gas is ________ atm. A) 1.05 B) 1.01 C) 0.976 D) 0.993 E) 1.08 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 5) 760 torr is equivalent to ________ mm Hg. A) 380 B) 4.78 × 103 C) 1 D) 760 E) 121 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 6) A sample of a gas (5.0 mol) at 1.0 atm is expanded at constant temperature from 10 L to 15 L. The final pressure is ________ atm. A) 1.5 B) 7.5 C) 0.67 D) 3.3 E) 15 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 17

7) If 50.75 g of a gas occupies 10.0 L at STP, 129.3 g of the gas will occupy ________ L at STP. A) 3.92 B) 50.8 C) 12.9 D) 25.5 E) 5.08 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 8) A sample of H2 gas (12.28 g) occupies 100.0 L at 400.0 K and 2.00 atm. A sample weighing 9.49 g occupies ________ L at 353 K and 2.00 atm. A) 109 B) 68.2 C) 54.7 D) 147 E) 77.3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 9) A sample of a gas (1.50 mol) is contained in a 15.0 L cylinder. The temperature is increased from 100 °C to 150 °C. The ratio of final pressure to initial pressure [ A) 1.50 B) 0.667 C) 0.882 D) 1.13 E) 1.00 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 10.3 GO: G4

] is ________.

Page Ref: Sec. 10.3

10) A sample of a gas originally at 25 °C and 1.00 atm pressure in a 2.5 L container is subject to a pressure of 0.85 atm and a temperature of 15 °C. The final volume of the gas is ________ L. A) 3.0 B) 2.8 C) 2.6 D) 2.1 E) 0.38 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 18

11) A sample of a gas originally at 29 °C and 1.25 atm pressure in a 3.0 L container is allowed to contract until the volume is 2.2 L and the temperature is 11 °C. The final pressure of the gas is ________ atm. A) 2.9 B) 2.8 C) 1.6 D) 2.1 E) 0.38 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 12) If pressure and temperature are kept constant, the reaction of 38 mL of Cl2 gas with 22 mL of CH4 gas via the equation: Cl2 (g) + CH4 (g) → HCl (g) + CH3Cl (g) will produce a total of ________ mL of products. A) 16 B) 30 C) 60 D) 38 E) 22 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 13) If pressure and temperature are kept constant, the reaction of 95 mL of Cl2 gas with 45 mL of CH4 gas via the equation: Cl2 (g) + CH4 (g) → HCl (g) + CH3Cl (g) will produce a total of ________ mL of products. A) 95 B) 140 C) 45 D) 70 E) 50 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 19

14) If pressure and temperature are kept constant, the reaction of 29 mL of N2 gas with 87 mL of H2 gas will form ________ mL of ammonia. A) 29 B) 43.5 C) 58 D) 174 E) 14.5 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 15) If pressure and temperature are kept constant, the reaction of 18 mL of N2 gas with 54 mL of H2 gas will form ________ mL of ammonia. A) 108 B) 18 C) 9 D) 36 E) 27 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 16) The reaction of 50 mL of Cl2 gas with 50 mL of C2H4 gas via the equation: Cl2 (g) + C2H4 (g) → C2H4Cl2 (g) will produce a total of ________ mL of products if pressure and temperature are kept constant. A) 100 B) 50 C) 25 D) 125 E) 150 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

17) The amount of gas that occupies 60.82 L at 31.0 °C and 367 mm Hg is ________ mol. A) 1.18 B) 0.850 C) 894 D) 11.6 E) 0.120 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 18) The amount of gas that occupies 36.52 L at 68.0 °C and 672 mm Hg is ________ mol. A) 127 B) 1.15 C) 878 D) 24.4 E) 12.7 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 19) The pressure of a sample of CH4 gas (6.022 g) in a 30.0 L vessel at 402 K is ________ atm. A) 2.42 B) 6.62 C) 0.413 D) 12.4 E) 22.4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 20) The temperature of a sample of CH4 gas (10.34 g) in a 50.0 L vessel at 1.33 atm is ________ °C. A) 984 B) -195 C) 195 D) 1260 E) -1260 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4

21) What is the volume (in m3) of a 0.25 mol of an unknown gas at a pressure of 545.3 mm Hg and 15 °C? A) 8.1 × 10-5 B) 8.2 × 10-3 C) 4.3 × 10-4 D) 2.2 × 10-1 E) 1.2 × 10-4 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 22) How many moles of an unknown gas are in a 325 mL container at a pressure of 695 torr and 19 °C? A) 9.42 B) 1.48 × 10-2 C) 12.4 D) 1.24 × 10-2 E) 80.6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 23) A 0.133 mol sample of gas in a 525 mL container has a pressure of 312 torr. The temperature of the gas is ________ °C. A) 20.3 B) -253 C) -20.3 D) 203 E) 22.4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 24) What mass (g) of carbon dioxide is contained in a 5.33 L vessel at 48 °C and 1.44 atm? A) 12.8 B) 6.62 × 10-3 C) 0.291 D) 44.0 E) 151 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 22

25) The density of ammonia gas in a 4.32 L container at 837 torr and 45.0 °C is ________ g/L. A) 3.86 B) 0.719 C) 0.432 D) 0.194 E) 4.22 × 10-2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 26) What is the density of (g/L) CO2 at 1.53 atm and 45.2 °C? A) 18.2 B) 2.58 C) 0.388 D) 9.99 E) 1.76 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 27) The molecular weight of a gas is ________ g/mol if 3.5 g of the gas occupies 2.1 L at STP. A) 41 B) 5.5 × 103 C) 37 D) 4.6 × 102 E) 2.7 × 10-2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 28) The molecular weight of a gas is ________ g/mol if 6.7 g of the gas occupies 6.3 L at STP. A) 24 B) 3.6 × 103 C) 27 D) 3.0 × 102 E) 1.8 × 10-2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4

29) What is the molecular weight (g/mol) of an unknown gas that has a density of 4.90 g/L at STP? A) 1.10 × 10-2 B) 1.20 × 102 C) 1.10 × 102 D) 1.20 × 10-2 E) 1.10 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 30) The molecular weight of a gas that has a density of 7.10 g/L at 25.0 °C and 1.00 atm pressure is ________ g/mol. A) 174 B) 14.6 C) 28.0 D) 5.75 × 10-3 E) 6.85 × 10-2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 31) What is the molecular weight (g/mol) of an unknown gas that has a density of 3.59 g/L at STP? A) 7.37 B) 87.9 C) 0.0879 D) 80.5 E) 8.15 × 103 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 32) What is the density (g/L) of bromine gas at STP? A) 6.53 B) 3.26 C) 3.56 D) 0.140 E) 7.13 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 24

33) 5.25 g of zinc metal reacts with excess sulfuric acid to produce hydrogen gas. What volume (L) of hydrogen is generated at STP? A) 1.97 B) 118 C) 0.136 D) 1.80 E) 129 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 34) 1.92 g of zinc metal reacts with excess hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas. What volume (L) of hydrogen is generated at STP? A) 43.1 B) 0.656 C) 6.03 × 10-2 D) 0.719 E) 47.0 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 35) The volume of HCl gas required to react with excess magnesium metal to produce 6.82 L of hydrogen gas at 2.19 atm and 35.0 °C is ________ L. A) 6.82 B) 2.19 C) 13.6 D) 4.38 E) 3.41 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

36) What volume (mL) of fluorine gas is required to react with 1.28 g of calcium bromide to form calcium fluoride and bromine gas at STP? A) 28.7 B) 144 C) 31.3 D) 157 E) 13.1 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 37) What volume (L) of fluorine gas is required to react with 2.31 g of calcium bromide to form calcium fluoride and bromine gas at 8.19 atm and 35.0 °C? A) 3.57 B) 7.14 C) 357 D) 3.57 × 10-3 E) 4.05 × 10-3 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 38) What volume (mL) of sulfur dioxide can be produced by the complete reaction of 3.82 g of calcium sulfite with excess HCl (aq), when the final SO2 pressure is 827 torr at 44.0 °C? A) 7.60 × 102 B) 1.39 × 10-4 C) 1.00 × 10-3 D) 0.106 E) 5.78 × 102 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

39) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 3N2 (g). What mass (g) of NaN3 is required to provide 40.0 L of N2 at 25.0 °C and 763 torr? A) 1.64 B) 1.09 C) 160 D) 71.1 E) 107 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 40) Automobile air bags use the decomposition of sodium azide as their source of gas for rapid inflation: 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 3N2 (g). What mass (g) of NaN3 is required to provide 26.5 L of N2 at 22.0 °C and 1.10 atm? A) 52.2 B) 700. C) 0.807 D) 1.21 E) 1.10 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

41) The Mond process produces pure nickel metal via the thermal decomposition of nickel tetracarbonyl: Ni(CO)4 (l) → Ni (s) + 4CO (g). What volume (L) of CO is formed from the complete decomposition of 444 g of Ni(CO)4 at 752 torr and 22.0 °C? A) 0.356 B) 63.7 C) 255 D) 20.2 E) 11.0 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 42) What volume (L) of NH3 gas at STP is produced by the complete reaction of 7.5 g of H2O according to the following reaction? Mg3N2 (s) + 6H2O (l) → 3Mg(OH)2 (aq) + 2NH3 (g) A) 3.1 B) 9.3 C) 19 D) 28 E) 0.32 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 10.4

43) Ammonium nitrite undergoes thermal decomposition to produce only gases: NH4NO2 (s) → N2 (g) + 2H2O (g) What volume (L) of gas is produced by the decomposition of 35.0 g of NH4NO2(s) at 525 °C and 1.5 atm? A) 48 B) 160 C) 15 D) 72 E) 24 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

44) The thermal decomposition of potassium chlorate can be used to produce oxygen in the laboratory. 2KClO3 (s) → 2KCl (s) + 3O2 (g) What volume (L) of O2 gas at 25 °C and 1.00 atm pressure is produced by the decomposition of 7.5 g of KClO3 (s)? A) 4.5 B) 7.5 C) 2.3 D) 3.7 E) 11 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 45) Since air is a mixture, it does not have a "molar mass." However, for calculation purposes, it is possible to speak of its "effective molar mass." (An effective molar mass is a weighted average of the molar masses of a mixture's components.) If air at STP has a density of 1.285 g/L, its effective molar mass is ________ g/mol. A) 26.94 B) 31.49 C) 30.00 D) 34.42 E) 28.80 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 46) A vessel contained N2, Ar, He, and Ne. The total pressure in the vessel was 987 torr. The partial pressures of nitrogen, argon, and helium were 44.0, 486, and 218 torr, respectively. The partial pressure of neon in the vessel was ________ torr. A) 42.4 B) 521 C) 19.4 D) 239 E) 760 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4

47) What is the total pressure (atm) in a 10.0 L vessel that contains 2.34 mol of carbon dioxide, 1.73 mol of sulfur dioxide, and 4.50 mol of argon at standard temperature? A) 192 B) 1.92 C) 0.192 D) 19.2 E) 0.0192 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 48) A sample of Ne gas (2.5 L) at 4.5 atm and 25 °C was combined with 2.2 L of Ar gas at 6.3 atm and 25 °C at constant temperature in a 8.0 L flask. Assuming the initial pressure in the flask was 0.00 atm and the temperature upon mixing was 25 °C, what is the total pressure (atm) in the flask? A) 11.4 B) 10.0 C) 5.34 D) 10.8 E) 3.14 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 49) A sample of hydrogen gas (3.2 L) at 3.5 atm and 25 °C was combined with 5.2 L of nitrogen gas at 7.3 atm and 25 °C at constant temperature in a 15.0 L flask. Assuming the initial pressure in the flask was 0.00 atm and the temperature upon mixing was 25 °C, what is the total pressure (atm) in the flask? A) 3.28 B) 5.85 C) 9.45 D) 15.4 E) 10.8 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4

50) A gas mixture of Xe, Ne, and Ar has a total pressure of 12.20 atm. What is the mole fraction of Xe if the partial pressures of Ne and Ar are 2.10 and 4.50 atm, respectively? A) 0.848 B) 0.459 C) 5.60 D) 2.18 E) 1.18 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 51) A gas mixture of He and Ar has a total pressure of 4.10 atm. What is the mole fraction of Ar if the partial pressure of Ar is 1.50 atm? A) 0.634 B) 2.6 C) 36.6 D) 0.366 E) 63.4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 52) A gas mixture of N2 and H2 has a total pressure of 9.40 atm and contains 11.3 mol of gas. If the partial pressure of N2 is 4.89 atm, how many moles of H2 are in the mixture? A) 4.51 B) 5.65 C) 5.42 D) 11.3 E) 5.88 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 53) A mixture of He and Ne at a total pressure of 0.95 atm is found to contain 0.32 mol of He and 0.56 mol of Ne. The partial pressure of Ne is ________ atm. A) 1.7 B) 1.5 C) 0.60 D) 0.35 E) 1.0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 31

54) A flask contains a mixture of N2 and H2 at a total pressure of 5.20 atm. If there are 1.00 mol of H2 and 8.00 mol of N2 in the flask, what is the partial pressure (atm) of N2? A) 2.60 B) 4.62 C) 5.20 D) 8.00 E) 0.578 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 55) Sodium hydride reacts with excess water to produce aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas: NaH (s) + H2O (l) → NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) A sample of NaH weighing ________ g will produce 982 mL of gas at 28.0 °C and 765 torr, when the hydrogen is collected over water. The vapor pressure of water at this temperature is 28 torr. A) 2.93 B) 0.960 C) 0.925 D) 0.0388 E) 925 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 56) SO2 (5.00 g) and CO2 (5.00 g) were placed in a 750.0 mL container at 50.0 °C. The total pressure in the container was ________ atm. A) 0.192 B) 4.02 C) 2.76 D) 6.78 E) 1.60 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4

57) Sulfur dioxide (12.4 g) and carbon dioxide (12.4 g) are placed in a 500.0 mL container at 45.0 °C. What is the partial pressure (atm) of sulfur dioxide in the container? A) 0.0101 B) 5.06 C) 10.1 D) 648 E) 9.48 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 58) SO2 (5.00 g) and CO2 (5.00 g) were placed in a 750.0 mL container at 50.0 °C. The partial pressure of CO2 in the container was ________ atm. A) 6.78 B) 2.76 C) 1.60 D) 0.192 E) 4.02 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 59) CO (5.00 g) and CO2 (5.00 g) were placed in a 750.0 mL container at 50.0 °C. The total pressure in the container was ________ atm. A) 10.3 B) 4.02 C) 6.31 D) 0.292 E) 1.60 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 60) CO (5.00 g) and CO2 (5.00 g) were placed in a 750.0 mL container at 50.0 °C. The partial pressure of CO in the container was ________ atm. A) 6.29 B) 4.02 C) 10.3 D) 0.292 E) 1.60 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 33

61) CO (5.00 g) and CO2 (5.00 g) were placed in a 750.0 mL container at 50.0 °C. The partial pressure of CO2 in the container was ________ atm. A) 4.02 B) 10.3 C) 1.60 D) 0.292 E) 6.31 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 62) The root-mean-square speed of CO at 113 °C is ________ m/s. A) 317 B) 58.3 C) 586 D) 993 E) 31.5 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 63) A sample of H2 gas (5.0 mol) effused through a pinhole in 10.5 s. It will take ________ s for the same amount of O2 to effuse under the same conditions. A) 5.25 B) 42.0 C) 2.63 D) 168 E) 21.0 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4

64) A sample of CO2 gas (3.0 mol) effused through a pinhole in 18.0 s. It will take ________ s for the same amount of H2 to effuse under the same conditions. A) 396 B) 3.84 C) 0.818 D) 84.4 E) 1.92 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 65) A sample of He gas (2.0 mmol) effused through a pinhole in 53 s. The same amount of an unknown gas, under the same conditions, effused through the pinhole in 248 s. The molecular mass of the unknown gas is ________ g/mol. A) 0.19 B) 5.5 C) 88 D) 19 E) 350 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 66) Using the van der Waals equation, the pressure in a 22.4 L vessel containing 1.00 mol of neon gas at is ________ atm. (a = 0.211 L2-atm/mol2, b = 0.0171 L/mol) A) 0.730 B) 1.00 C) 1.21 D) 1.37 E) 0.367 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G4

67) Using the van der Waals equation, the pressure in a 22.4 L vessel containing 1.50 mol of chlorine gas at 0.00 °C is ________ atm. (a = 6.49 L2-atm/mol2, b = 0.0562 L/mol) A) 0.993 B) 1.50 C) 0.676 D) 1.91 E) 1.48 Answer: E Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G4 10.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Molecular compounds of low molecular weight tend to be gases at room temperature. Which of the following is most likely not a gas at room temperature? A) KBr B) F2 C) HCN D) SO2 E) CH4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 9.8 GO: G2 2) A pressure of 0.500 atm is the same as a pressure of ________ of mm Hg. A) 193 B) 760. C) 380. D) 29.9 E) 33.0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4

3) A closed-end manometer was attached to a vessel containing argon. The difference in the mercury levels in the two arms of the manometer was 9.60 cm. Atmospheric pressure was 783 mm Hg. The pressure of the argon in the container was ________ mm Hg. A) 96.0 B) 661 C) 773 D) 793 E) 882 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 10.2 LO: 10.1 GO: G4 4) A fixed amount of gas at 25.0 °C occupies a volume of 10.0 L when the pressure is 751 torr. Use Boyle's law to calculate the pressure (torr) when the volume is reduced to 7.25 L at a constant temperature of A) 1.04 × 103 B) 0.097 C) 5.44 × D) 544 E) 1.36 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 5) A fixed amount of gas at 25.0 °C occupies a volume of 8.66 L when the pressure is 629 torr. Use Charles's law to calculate the volume (L) the gas will occupy when the temperature is increased to while maintaining the pressure at 629 torr. A) 9.26 B) 11.2 C) 1.93 D) 6.70 E) 38.8 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 24 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4

6) A sample of gas (24.2 g) initially at 4.00 atm was compressed from 8.00 L to 2.00 L at constant temperature. After the compression, the gas pressure was ________ atm. A) 4.00 B) 2.00 C) 1.00 D) 8.00 E) 16.0 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 7) A balloon originally had a volume of 4.39 L at 44 °C and a pressure of 729 torr. The balloon must be cooled to ________ °C to reduce its volume to 3.99 L (at constant pressure). A) 0.00 B) 15.1 C) -288 D) 288 E) 546 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 8) If 3.21 mol of a gas occupies 56.2 L at 44 °C and 793 torr, 4.73 mol of this gas occupies ________ L under these conditions. A) 14.7 B) 61.7 C) 30.9 D) 82.8 E) 478 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 9) A gas originally at 27 °C and 1.00 atm pressure in a 3.3 L flask is cooled at constant pressure until the temperature is 11 °C. The new volume of the gas is ________ L. A) 0.27 B) 3.1 C) 3.3 D) 3.5 E) 0.24 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 38

10) A sample of He gas (2.35 mol) occupies 57.9 L at 300.0 K and 1.00 atm. The volume of this sample is ________ L at 469 K and 1.00 atm. A) 0.709 B) 41.1 C) 90.5 D) 1.41 E) 57.9 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 11) A sample of an ideal gas (3.00 L) in a closed container at 25.0 °C and 76.0 torr is heated to 270 °C. The pressure of the gas at this temperature is ________ torr. A) 912 B) 138 C) 76.5 D) 39.5 E) 0.0253 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 12) A helium balloon is filled to a volume of 27.7 L at 300 K. What will the volume of the balloon become if the balloon is heated to raise the temperature to 392 K? A) 36.2 B) 21.2 C) 0.0276 D) 0.0472 E) 3,260,000 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G4 13) At a temperature of ________ °C, 0.444 mol of CO gas occupies 11.8 L at 839 torr. A) 379 B) 73.0 C) 14.0 D) 32.0 E) 83.5 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 39

14) The pressure exerted by 1.0 mol of gas in a 13 L flask at 22 °C is ________ kPa. A) 560 B) 190 C) 18 D) 2.4 E) 1.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 15) A 0.325 L flask filled with gas at 0.851 atm and 19 °C contains ________ mol of gas. A) 0.0116 B) 0.0148 C) 9.42 D) 12.4 E) 80.7 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 16) A sample of gas (1.9 mol) is in a flask at 21 °C and 697 mm Hg. The flask is opened and more gas is added to the flask. The new pressure is 841 mm Hg and the temperature is now 26 °C. There are now ________ mol of gas in the flask. A) 1.6 B) 2.3 C) 2.9 D) 3.5 E) 0.28 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 17) A sample of gas (1.3 mol) occupies ________ L at 22 °C and 4.0 atm. A) 0.079 B) 0.59 C) 7.9 D) 13 E) 0.032 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 40

18) The volume of 0.15 mol of an ideal gas at 365 torr and 97 °C is ________ L. A) 0.054 B) 2.5 C) 11 D) 9.5 E) 0.024 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 19) The volume occupied by 1.5 mol of gas at 35 °C and 2.0 atm pressure is ________ L. A) 38 B) 19 C) 2.2 D) 0.053 E) 0.026 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 20) How many moles of gas are there in a 36.3 L container at 25.2 °C and 570.3 mm Hg? A) 1.11 B) 13.2 C) 0.863 D) 0.0110 E) 16,700 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 21) A gas in a 57.1 L pressure container at 24.9 °C and 889.8 mm Hg contains ________ moles. A) 32.7 B) 2080 C) 0.366 D) 0.0270 E) 2.73 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4

22) The volume of 1.26 mol of gas at 69.4 kPa and 25.30 °C is ________ L. A) 45.1 B) 633 C) 3.82 D) 0.445 E) 0.439 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 23) The density of HCN is ________ g/L at STP. A) 1.21 B) 329 C) 605 D) 0.829 E) 2.21 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 24) The density of nitric oxide (NO) gas at 0.970 atm and 34.9 °C is ________ g/L. A) 0.0384 B) 0.869 C) 1.15 D) 0.339 E) 10.2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 21 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 25) The density of krypton gas at 0.866 atm and 44.4 °C is ________ g/L. A) 0.0332 B) 0.359 C) 2.78 D) 5.57 E) 0.238 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 21 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4

26) What is the density of chlorine gas (g/L) at 1.01 atm and 54.1 °C? A) 2.67 B) 0.0376 C) 0.375 D) 0.228 E) 1.33 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 21 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 27) At STP, the density of ________ is 1.70 g/L. A) NO B) Ne C) CH4 D) F2 E) CO Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 28) What is the density of nitrogen dioxide gas (g/L) contained in a 4.77 L pressure tank at 738.4 mm Hg and 45.0 °C? A) 1.71 B) 1300 C) 12.1 D) 0.0169 E) 8.17 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 29) What is the density of carbon dioxide gas (g/L) at 1106.2 mm Hg and 56.3 °C? A) 13.9 B) 0.0234 C) 2.37 D) 1800 E) 0.0538 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4

30) At at 315 K and 1.16 atm, the density of ________ is 0.906 g/L. A) Ar B) Kr C) Xe D) Ne E) He Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 31) At standard pressure and 373 K, a 0.333-g sample of an unknown pure gas occupies a volume of 0.255 L. What is the identity of the gas? A) xenon B) argon C) neon D) helium E) krypton Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 20 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 32) Calcium hydride ( (s) +

) reacts with water to form hydrogen gas: O (l) →

(aq) +

(g)

How many grams of are needed to generate 48.0 L of a temperature of 32 °C? A) 56.8 B) 0.954 C) 161 D) 40.1 E) 80.3 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4

gas at a pressure of 0.995 atm and

33) How many liters of CO2 are formed during the combustion of 120.0 grams of ethane at STP in the open atmosphere? Answer: 179 Diff: 5 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 44

34) How many liters of O2 are consumed during the combustion of 60.0 grams of ethane at STP in the open atmosphere? Answer: 157 Diff: 5 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 35) A pressure vessel contains CO2 (PCO2 = 3.78 atm) and O2 (PO2 = 6 atm) gases at a total pressure of 9.78 atm. What is the mole-fraction of CO2 and O2 gases, respectively? A) 37, 58.7 B) 0.61, 0.39 C) 2.59, 1.63 D) 0.39, 0.61 E) 0.63, 1.59 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 36) 34.9 grams of hydrogen gas and 17.7 grams of methane gas are combined in a reaction vessel with a total pressure at 2.92 atm. What is the partial pressure (atm) of hydrogen gas? A) 0.175 B) 50.5 C) 53.8 D) 2.75 E) 5.53 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 37) 10.0 grams of argon and 20.0 grams of neon are placed in a 1216.1 ml container at 25.1 °C. The partial pressure of neon is ________ atm. A) 19.9 B) 5.03 C) 1.68 D) 20.0 E) 49.1 Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4

38) 0.7515 moles of nitrogen gas and 0.1135 moles of methane gas are placed in a 171.6 ml container at 20.8 °C. What is the partial pressure (atm) of methane gas? A) 1.14 B) 0.473 C) 16.0 D) 106 E) 226 Answer: C Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 39) A mixture of Xe, Kr, and Ar has a total pressure of 6.69 atm. What is the mole fraction of Kr if the partial pressures of Xe and Ar are 1.92 atm and 2.75 atm, respectively. A) 0.302 B) 0.287 C) 0.411 D) 0.259 E) 0.698 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 40) Zinc reacts with aqueous sulfuric acid to form hydrogen gas: Zn (s) +

(aq) → Zn

(aq) +

(g)

In an experiment, 201 mL of wet is collected over water at 27 °C and a barometric pressure of How many grams of Zn have been consumed? The vapor pressure of water at 27 °C is A) 4.38 × B) 0.519 C) 519 D) 394 E) 3.94 × Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 15 LO: 10.6 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 10.5

41) Zinc reacts with aqueous sulfuric acid to form hydrogen gas: Zn (s) +

(aq) → Zn

(aq) +

(g)

In an experiment, 177 mL of wet is collected over water at 27 °C and a barometric pressure of The vapor pressure of water at 27 °C is 26.74 torr. The partial pressure of hydrogen in this experiment is ________ atm. A) 0.972 B) 739 C) 1.01 D) 793 E) 1.04 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 42) What is the rms speed (m/s) of N2 at 33.5 °C? A) 173 B) 51.9 C) 302 D) 522 E) 16.5 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 43) What is the rms speed (m/s) of NO2 at 28.4 °C? A) 40.2 B) 124 C) 233 D) 12.8 E) 404 Answer: E Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4

44) At 500 °C, which of the following gases will have the greatest root-mean-square speed? A) N2O B) UF6 C) O2 D) NH3 E) None. The molecules of all gases have the same root-mean-square speed at any given temperature. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G2 10.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The temperature and pressure specified by STP are ________ °C and ________ atm. Answer: 0, 1 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.3 GO: G2 2) How many molecules are there in 4.00 L of oxygen gas at 500 °C and 50.0 torr? Answer: 2.50 × 1021 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.2 GO: G4 3) What volume (L) of HCl gas is required to react with an excess of sodium to generate 19.5 L of hydrogen gas at 1.31 atm and 51.0 °C? Answer: 39.0 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.5 GO: G4 4) Calculate the density of hydrogen gas (in g/L) at 43.0 °C and 700.0 torr. Answer: 0.0717 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.4 GO: G4 5) A 5.50 L vessel contains 0.348 mol of methane, 0.311 mol of propane, and 0.445 mol of neon at a total pressure of 882 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure (in mm Hg) of methane? Answer: 278 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.5 LO: 10.6 GO: G4 48

6) What is the rms speed (m/s) of oxygen molecules at 36.0 °C? Answer: 491 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G4 7) The deviation from ideal behavior of a gas is most evident at ________ and/or low temperature. Answer: high pressure Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G4 8) The ________ corrects the ideal gas law for the finite volume and attractive forces of gas molecules. Answer: van der Waals equation Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G4 10.5 True/False Questions 1) The main component of air is oxygen. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.1 LO: 10.1 GO: G2 2) If the temperature is lowered from 60 °C to 30 °C, the volume of a fixed amount of gas will be one half the original volume. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.3 LO: 10.3 GO: G2 3) A gas is considered "ideal" if one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure of exactly 1 atm at room temperature. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.4 LO: 10.3 GO: G2

4) Kinetic-molecular theory assumes that attractive and repulsive forces between gas particles are stronger than those between gas particles and container walls. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G2 5) According to the kinetic-molecular theory, molecules of different gases at the same temperature always have the same average kinetic energy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.6 LO: 10.7 GO: G2 6) The effusion rate of a gas is proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.7 LO: 10.7 GO: G2 7) Two deviations of real gases from ideal gases which are treated in the van der Waals equation are finite molecular volume and non-zero molecular attractions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 10.8 LO: 10.8 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 11 Liquids and Intermolecular Forces 11.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Crystalline solids ________. A) have their particles arranged randomly B) have ordered structures C) are usually very soft D) exist only at high temperatures E) exist only at very low temperatures Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 2) In liquids, the attractive intermolecular forces are ________. A) very weak compared with kinetic energies of the molecules B) strong enough to hold molecules relatively close together C) strong enough to keep the molecules confined to vibrating about their fixed lattice points D) not strong enough to keep molecules from moving past each other E) strong enough to hold molecules relatively close together but not strong enough to keep molecules from moving past each other Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 3) As a gaseous element condenses, the atoms become ________ and they have ________ attraction for one another. A) more separated, more B) more separated, less C) closer together, more D) closer together, less E) larger, greater Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

4) A gas is ________ and assumes ________ of its container, whereas a liquid is ________ and assumes ________ of its container. A) compressible, the volume and shape, not compressible, the shape of a portion B) compressible, the shape, not compressible, the volume and shape C) compressible, the volume and shape, compressible, the volume D) condensed, the volume and shape, condensed, the volume and shape E) condensed, the shape, compressible, the volume and shape Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 5) Together, liquids and solids constitute ________ phases of matter. A) the compressible B) the fluid C) the condensed D) all of the E) the disordered Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 6) Which statement is true about liquids but not true about solids? A) They flow and are highly ordered. B) They are highly ordered and not compressible. C) They flow and are compressible. D) They assume both the volume and the shape of their containers. E) They flow and are not compressible. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 7) The strongest interparticle attractions exist between particles of a ________, and the weakest interparticle attractions exist between particles of a ________. A) solid, liquid B) solid, gas C) liquid, gas D) liquid, solid E) gas, solid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

8) Which species has London dispersion forces as the only intermolecular force? A) CH3CH2OH B) Ar C) NH3 D) HBr E) H2O Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 9) Which molecule has hydrogen bonding as the predominant intermolecular force? A) CH4 B) C6H6 C) CH3OH D) CO2 E) C4H10 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 10) Which species has London dispersion forces as the only intermolecular force? A) KBr B) HI C) CH3OH D) CH3CH3 E) CH3F Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 11) When KBr dissolves in water, aqueous K+ and Br- ions result. The force of attraction that exists between K+ and H2O is called a(n) ________ interaction. A) dipole-dipole B) ion-dipole C) ion-ion D) London dispersion force E) hydrogen bonding Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 3

12) ________ are particularly polarizable. A) Small nonpolar molecules B) Small polar molecules C) Large nonpolar molecules D) Large polar molecules E) Large molecules, regardless of their polarity, Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.2 GO: G2 13) The ease with which the charge distribution in a molecule can be distorted by an external electrical field is called the ________. A) electronegativity B) hydrogen bonding C) polarizability D) volatility E) viscosity Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.2 GO: G2 14) The intermolecular force(s) responsible for the fact that CH4 has the lowest boiling point in the set CH4, CH3CH3, CH3CH2CH3, CH3CH2CH2CH3 is/are ________. A) hydrogen bonding B) London dispersion forces C) mainly hydrogen bonding but also dipole-dipole interactions D) dipole-dipole interactions E) mainly London-dispersion forces but also dipole-dipole interactions Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 15) Elemental iodine (I2) is a solid at room temperature. What is the major attractive force that exists among different I2 molecules in the solid? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole interactions C) ionic-dipole interactions D) covalent-ionic interactions E) dipole-dipole attractions Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 4

16) Hydrogen bonding is a special case of ________. A) London-dispersion forces B) ion-dipole attraction C) dipole-dipole attractions D) ion-ion interactions E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

17) Which one of the following substances will have hydrogen bonding as one of its intermolecular forces? A)

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 11.2

18) Which one of the following substances will not have hydrogen bonding as one of its intermolecular forces? A)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 11.2

19) What intermolecular force is responsible for the fact that ice is less dense than liquid water? A) London dispersion forces B) dipole-dipole forces C) ion-dipole forces D) hydrogen bonding E) ionic bonding Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 20) The predominant intermolecular force in water is ________. A) London dispersion forces B) hydrogen bonding C) ion-dipole forces D) dipole-dipole forces E) ionic bonding Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 21) Octane C8H18 molecules are held together by ________. A) ion-ion interactions B) hydrogen bonding C) ion-dipole interactions D) London dispersion forces E) dipole-dipole interactions Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 22) Which of the following molecules has hydrogen bonding as its only intermolecular force? A) HCl B) NH3 C) H2O D) CH3OH E) None, all of the above exhibit dispersion forces. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

23) Which of the following molecules has London Forces as its only intermolecular force? A) H2O B) CH3CH2NH2 C) HOCH2CH2OH D) CH3CH3 E) None, all of the above exhibit dispersion forces. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 24) What types of intermolecular forces exist between CH3OH and H2O? A) dipole-dipole and ion-dipole B) dispersion forces, dipole-dipole, and hydrogen bonding C) dispersion forces, dipole-dipole, and ion-dipole D) dispersion forces, hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole, and ion-dipole E) dispersion forces and ion-dipole Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 25) What type(s) of intermolecular forces exist between Cl2 and CCl4? A) dispersion forces and ion-dipole B) dispersion forces and dipole-dipole C) dispersion forces D) dispersion forces, ion-dipole, and dipole-dipole E) None. Since both are gases at room temperature, they do not interact with each other. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 26) What type(s) of intermolecular forces exist between NH3 and PO43-? A) dispersion forces B) dispersion forces, ion-dipole, and dipole-dipole C) dispersion forces and dipole-dipole D) dispersion forces and ion-dipole E) dispersion forces, ion-dipole, dipole-dipole, and hydrogen bonds Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

27) What types of intermolecular forces exist between NH3 and H2O? A) dispersion forces B) dispersion forces and hydrogen bonds C) dispersion forces and ion-dipole forces D) dispersion forces, dipole-dipole forces, and hydrogen bonds E) dispersion forces, hydrogen bonds, and ion-dipole forces Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 28) What types of intermolecular forces exist between water and HF? A) dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces B) dispersion forces, dipole-dipole forces, and hydrogen bonds C) dispersion forces and hydrogen bonds D) dispersion forces E) dispersion forces, hydrogen bonds, and ion-dipole forces Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 29) ________ is the energy required to expand the surface area of a liquid by a unit amount of area. A) Viscosity B) Surface tension C) Volatility D) Meniscus E) Capillary action Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.3 LO: 11.3 GO: G2

30) Which statements about viscosity are true? (i) Viscosity increases as temperature decreases. (ii) Viscosity increases as molecular weight increases. (iii) Viscosity increases as intermolecular forces increase. A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) none E) all Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 11.3 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 11.3

31) The shape of a liquid's meniscus is determined by ________. A) the viscosity of the liquid B) the type of material the container is made of C) the relative magnitudes of cohesive forces in the liquid and adhesive forces between the liquid and its container D) the amount of hydrogen bonding in the liquid E) the volume of the liquid Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.3 LO: 11.3 GO: G2 32) Viscosity is ________. A) the "skin" on a liquid surface caused by intermolecular attraction B) the resistance to flow C) the same as density D) inversely proportional to molar mass E) unaffected by temperature Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.3 LO: 11.3 GO: G2

33) How high a liquid will rise up a narrow tube as a result of capillary action depends on ________. A) the magnitudes of cohesive forces in the liquid and adhesive forces between the liquid and the tube, and gravity B) gravity alone C) only the magnitude of adhesive forces between the liquid and the tube D) the viscosity of the liquid E) only the magnitude of cohesive forces in the liquid Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.3 LO: 11.3 GO: G2 34) The property responsible for the "beading up" of water is ________. A) density B) viscosity C) vapor pressure D) surface tension E) hydrogen bonding Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.3 LO: 11.3 GO: G2 35) Heat of sublimation can be approximated by adding together ________ and ________. A) heat of fusion, heat of condensation B) heat of fusion, heat of vaporization C) heat of freezing (solidification), heat of condensation D) heat of freezing (solidification), heat of vaporization E) heat of deposition, heat of vaporization Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2

36) Which of the following statements is false? A) The absolute value of the heat of sublimation is equal to the absolute value of the heat of deposition. B) The heat of sublimation is equal to the sum of the heat of vaporization and the heat of deposition. C) The heat of sublimation is equal to the sum of the heat of vaporization and the heat of freezing. D) The absolute value of the heat of sublimation is equal to the absolute value of the sum of the heat of condensation and the heat of freezing. E) The absolute value of the heat of deposition is equal to sum of the absolute value of the heat of vaporization and the absolute value of the heat of freezing. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2

37) The ________ (is)are associated with the heat energy being used up to increase distances between molecules. A) phase change B → C B) phase changes B → C and D → E C) phase change D → E D) phase change B → E E) phase change C → E Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G3

38) Based on the following information, which compound has the strongest intermolecular forces? Substance Argon (Ar) Benzene (C6H6) Ethanol (C2H5OH) Water (H2O) Methane (CH4) A) Argon B) Benzene C) Ethanol D) Water E) Methane Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 11.4 GO: G3

ΔHvap (kJ/mol) 6.3 31.0 39.3 40.8 9.2

Page Ref: Sec. 11.4

39) Which compound has the strongest intermolecular forces? A) CCl4 B) CI4 C) CH4 D) H2 E) O2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 40) Large intermolecular forces in a substance are manifested by ________. A) low vapor pressure B) high boiling point C) high heats of fusion and vaporization D) high critical temperatures and pressures E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2

41) A supercritical fluid can expand like a ________ to fill a container and has a density similar to that of a ________ so can behave as a solvent. A) gas, plasma B) gas, solid C) solid, gas D) liquid, gas E) gas, liquid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 42) The critical temperature and pressure of CS2 are 279 °C and 78 atm, respectively. A supercritical fluid can only exist at a temperature ________ 279 °C and pressure ________ 78 atm. A) exactly, exactly B) above, below C) above, above D) below, above E) below, below Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 43) The substance with the largest heat of vaporization is ________. A) H2 B) Cl2 C) I2 D) N2 E) O2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 44) Of the following, ________ is an exothermic process. A) melting B) subliming C) freezing D) boiling E) All of the above are exothermic. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 15

45) Of the following, ________ should have the highest critical temperature. A) CBr4 B) CCl4 C) CF4 D) CH4 E) H2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 46) A volatile liquid is one that ________. A) is highly flammable B) is highly viscous C) is highly hydrogen-bonded D) is highly cohesive E) readily evaporates Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 47) In general, the vapor pressure of a substance increases as ________ increases. A) surface tension B) molecular weight C) hydrogen bonding D) viscosity E) temperature Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 48) The vapor pressure of any substance at its normal boiling point is ________. A) 1 Pa B) 1 torr C) 1 atm D) equal to atmospheric pressure E) equal to the vapor pressure of water Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2

49) Volatility and vapor pressure are ________. A) inversely proportional to one another B) directly proportional to one another C) not related D) the same thing E) both independent of temperature Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 50) Some things take longer to cook at high altitudes than at low altitudes because ________. A) water boils at a lower temperature at high altitude than at low altitude B) water boils at a higher temperature at high altitude than at low altitude C) heat isn't conducted as well in low density air D) natural gas flames don't burn as hot at high altitudes E) there is a higher moisture content in the air at high altitude Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 51) The vapor pressure of a liquid ________. A) increases linearly with increasing temperature B) increases nonlinearly with increasing temperature C) decreases linearly with increasing temperature D) decreases nonlinearly with increasing temperature E) is totally unrelated to its molecular structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 52) -

is the slope of a plot of the natural log of the vapor pressure of a substance versus

________. A) -1/T B) -T C) 1/T D) T E) 2T Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 11.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 11.5

53) On a phase diagram, the critical pressure is ________. A) the pressure required to melt a solid B) the pressure below which a substance is a solid at all temperatures C) the pressure above which a substance is a liquid at all temperatures D) the pressure at which a liquid changes to a gas E) the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 54) On a phase diagram, the critical temperature is ________. A) the temperature below which a gas cannot be liquefied B) the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied C) the temperature at which all three states are in equilibrium D) the temperature required to melt a solid E) the temperature required to cause sublimation of a solid Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 55) On a phase diagram, the melting point is the same as ________. A) the triple point B) the critical point C) the freezing point D) the boiling point E) the vapor-pressure curve Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 56) When the phase diagram for a substance has a solid-liquid phase boundary line that has a ________ slope, the substance can go from solid to liquid, within a small temperature range, via the application of pressure. A) positive B) zero C) y = 1 D) negative E) y = 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G2

57) The predominant intramolecular force in CaBr2 is ________. A) London-dispersion forces B) ion-dipole forces C) ionic bonding D) dipole-dipole forces E) hydrogen bonding Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 58) Which of the following is most likely to exhibit liquid-crystalline behavior? A) CH3CH2-C(CH3)2-CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2D)

Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 11.8 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 11.7

59) All of the following are characteristics of liquid crystal behavior except ________. A) long axial structure B) carbon-carbon single bonds C) double bonding D) ionic configuration E) polar groups Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2

60) In the ________ liquid-crystalline phase,the molecules are arranged in sheets, with their long axes parallel and their ends aligned as well. A) smectic B B) smectic C C) smectic A D) smectic E E) smectic D Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 61) In the ________ liquid crystalline phase, the component molecules exhibit ________ dimensional ordering. A) nematic, one B) smectic A, one C) nematic, two D) nematic, three E) smectic B, one Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 62) What are the common types of smectic liquid-crystalline phases? A) A, C, and D B) A only C) A and C D) A and D E) C and D Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 63) ________ liquid crystals are colored because the molecular layers are arranged in slightly twisted planes with respect to one another. A) smectic B B) cholesteric C) smectic A D) smectic C E) smectic D Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 20

64) Molecules with ________ do not generally exhibit liquid-crystalline properties because they lack the rigidity necessary for alignment. A) both single and double bonds B) double or triple bonds C) single, double, and triple bonds D) only single bonds E) only single and double bonds Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 65) For a given substance that exhibits liquid-crystalline properties, the transition from solid to liquid-crystal state occurs ________. A) over a range of temperatures between the melting point of the solid and the boiling point of the liquid B) at the melting point of the solid C) over a range of temperatures that includes the melting point of the solid D) at a well-defined temperature above the melting point of the solid E) at a well-defined temperature below the melting point of the solid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 66) There are ________ types of smectic liquid-crystalline phases. A) 6 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2

11.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Based on molecular mass and dipole moment of the five compounds in the table below, which should have the highest boiling point?

A) CH3CH2CH3 B) CH3OCH3 C) CH3Cl D) CH3CHO E) CH3CN Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G3

2) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature for a solid as it was heated. The slope of the ________ segment corresponds to the heat capacity of the liquid of the substance. A) AB B) BC C) CD D) DE E) EF Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G3 3) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature for a solid as it was heated. The slope of the ________ segment corresponds to the heat capacity of the solid. A) AB B) BC C) CD D) DE E) EF Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G3

4) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature for a solid as it was heated. The slope of the E-F segment corresponds to the heat capacity of the ________. A) liquid-gas B) solid-gas C) gas D) solid E) liquid Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G3 5) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature of a solid as it was heated. The heat flow into the sample in the segment D-E will yield the value of the ________ of this substance. A) ΔHsub B) ΔHvap C) ΔHmelting D) ΔHfusion E) ΔHrxn Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G3 6) The heating curve shown was generated by measuring the heat flow and temperature of a solid as it was heated. The heat flow into the sample in the segment ________ will yield the value of the ΔHfusion of this substance. A) AB B) BC C) CD D) DE E) EF Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G3

7) On the phase diagram shown above, segment ________ corresponds to the conditions of temperature and pressure under which the solid and the gas of the substance are in equilibrium. A) AB B) AC C) AD D) CD E) BC Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 8) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point B corresponds to the ________. A) critical temperature and pressure B) critical pressure C) critical temperature D) boiling point E) triple point Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3

9) On the phase diagram shown above, the coordinates of point ________ correspond to the triple point. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3

10) The phase diagram of a substance is given above. The region that corresponds to the solid phase is ________. A) w B) x C) y D) z E) x and y Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3

11) According to the phase diagram shown above, what is the normal boiling point (°C)? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 50 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 12) According to the phase diagram shown above, what is the normal melting point (°C)? A) 15 B) 25 C) 35 D) 45 E) 55 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3

13) The phase diagram of a substance is shown above. The area labeled ________ indicates the gas phase for the substance. A) w B) x C) y D) z E) y and z Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 14) The phase diagram of a substance is shown above. The area labeled ________ indicates the solid phase for the substance. A) w B) x C) y D) z E) y and z Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 15) The phase diagram of a substance is shown above. The area labeled ________ indicates the liquid phase for the substance. A) w B) x C) y D) z E) y and z Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 28

16) According to the phase diagram shown above, what is the normal boiling point (°C)? A) 10 B) -3 C) 38 D) 29 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 17) According to the phase diagram shown above, what is the normal melting point (°C)? A) -13 B) 0 C) 38 D) 10 E) 29 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3 18) A ________ liquid crystal has the least order and is the most liquid-like. A) nematic B) smectic C) cholesteric D) smectic C E) smectic B Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 19) ________ liquid crystals are colored and change color with temperature changes. A) Smectic A B) Nematic C) Cholesteric D) Smectic B E) Smectic C Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2

11.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) As a gaseous element condenses, the atoms become ________ and they have ________ attraction for one another. A) less separated, more B) less separated, less C) more separated, more D) more separated, less E) smaller, lesser Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 2) What is the predominant intramolecular force in NaNO3? A) ionic bonding B) ion-dipole attraction C) dipole-dipole attraction D) hydrogen bonding E) London-dispersion forces Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 3) With what compound will NH3 experience only dispersion intermolecular forces? A) BF3 B) LiF C) CH3I D) CH3OH E) HCN Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

4) With what compound will NH3 experience only ion-dipole intermolecular forces? A) LiCl B) SiH4 C) CH3I D) C3H7OH E) OCl2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 5) Which one of the following exhibits dipole-dipole attraction between molecules? A) HCl B) CF4 C) CS2 D) F2 E) BI3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 6) Which one of the following exhibits dipole-dipole attraction between molecules? A) NH3 B) CF4 C) C10H22 D) O2 E) SF6 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

7) Of the following substances, only ________ has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force. A) CCl4 B) SnF3 C) CH3OH D) HI E) H2O Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 8) Which of the following has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force? A) NBr3 B) CH3COOH C) SiCl4 D) HBr E) Cl2O Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 9) Which molecule has the lowest boiling point? A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH3 C) CH3CH3 D) CH4 E) H2O Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 10) Which one of the following should have the lowest boiling point? A) CH4 B) PCl3 C) C2H5COOH D) LiCl E) Cl2S Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 32

11) Of the following substances, ________ has the highest boiling point. A) H2O B) SiH4 C) Ar D) Cl2 E) BF3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 12) Of the following substances, ________ has the highest boiling point. A) HOCH2CH2CH2OH B) CH3CH2OH C) C4H10 D) N2 E) Cl2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 13) Of the following substances, ________ has the highest boiling point. A) Br2 B) N2 C) Cl2 D) O2 E) H2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

14) Which one of the following derivatives of methane has the highest boiling point? A) CI4 B) CBr4 C) CCl4 D) CF4 E) CH4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 15) What is the predominant intermolecular force in CH4? A) London-dispersion forces B) ion-dipole attraction C) ionic bonding D) dipole-dipole attraction E) hydrogen bonding Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 16) What is the predominant intermolecular force in H2NNH2? A) hydrogen bonding B) ion-dipole attraction C) ionic bonding D) dipole-dipole attraction E) London-dispersion forces Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 17) What is the predominant intermolecular force in HCN? A) dipole-dipole attraction B) ion-dipole attraction C) ionic bonding D) hydrogen bonding E) London dispersion forces Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

18) Ethanol melts at -114 °C and boils at 78 °C at a constant pressure of 1 atm. What state of matter must a sample of ethanol be in at 0°C and 1 atm? A) liquid B) gas C) solid D) solid and liquid in equilibrium E) liquid and gas in equilibrium Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 19) At 1 atm, an unknown sample melts at 49.9 °C and boils at 209.5 °C. If the temperature is 0°C, what is the state of matter for the sample? A) solid and liquid in equilibrium B) liquid C) gas D) solid E) liquid and gas in equilibrium Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 20) The enthalpy change for converting 1.00 mol of ice at -25.0 °C to water at 50.0 °C is The specific heats of ice, water, and steam are and respectively. For O, Δ = 6.01 kJ/mol, and . A) 12.28 B) 6.27 C) 10.71 D) 4709 E) 8.83 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G4

21) The enthalpy change for converting 10.0 g of ice at -50.0 °C to water at 50.0 °C is ________ kJ. The specific heats of ice, water, and steam are and respectively. For O, Δ = 6.01 kJ/mol, and . A) 12.28 B) 4.38 C) 3138 D) 6.47 E) 9.15 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G4 22) The heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The heat capacity of liquid water is 75.3 J/mol ∙ K. The conversion of of ice at 0.00 °C to liquid water at 0.00°C requires ________ kJ of heat. A) 6.01 B) 16.7 C) 75.3 D) 17.2 E) Insufficient data are given. Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G4 23) Calculate the enthalpy change (in kJ) associated with the conversion of 25.0 grams of ice at 4.00 °C to water vapor at 109.0 °C. The specific heats of ice, water, and steam are 2.09 J/g-K, 4.18 J/g-K, and 1.84 J/g-K, respectively. For H2O, Δ = 6.01 kJ/mol and Δ = 40.67 kJ/mol. A) 64.8 B) 75.9 C) 11100 D) 12000 E) 112 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G4

24) Ethanol ( OH) melts at -114 °C. The enthalpy of fusion is 5.02 kJ/mol. The specific heats of solid and liquid ethanol are 0.97 J/g-K and 2.3 J/g-K, respectively. How much heat (kJ) is needed to convert 25.0 g of solid ethanol at -135 °C to liquid ethanol at -60 °C? A) 207.3 B) -13.3 C) 6.34 D) 3617 E) 8.63 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.5 GO: G4 25) Of the following, ________ is the most volatile. A) C2H6 B) C2I6 C) C2Br6 D) C2Cl6 E) C2F6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 26) Which molecule is the least volatile? A) CH3Cl B) CH3I C) CH3F D) CH4 E) CH3Br Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G2

27) Based on the figure above, the boiling point of diethyl ether under an external pressure of is ________ °C. A) 40 B) 10 C) 30 D) 20 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G3 28) Based on the figure above, the boiling point of ethyl alcohol under an external pressure of is A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 E) 70 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G3

29) Based on the figure above, what is the boiling point (°C) of water under an external pressure of . A) 40 B) 60 C) 70 D) 90 E) 80 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 11.5 LO: 11.6 GO: G3

30) The phase diagram of a substance is given above. This substance is a ________ at 30 °C and 0.5 atm. A) liquid B) gas C) solid D) supercritical fluid E) crystal Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.7 GO: G3

11.4 Short Answer Questions 1) In general, intramolecular forces determine the ________ properties of a substance and intermolecular forces determine its ________ properties. Answer: chemical, physical Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.1 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 2) London Dispersion Forces tend to ________ in strength with increasing molecular weight. Answer: increase Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 3) The conversion of a solid to a liquid is called ________. Answer: melting Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 4) The initial discovery of a liquid crystal resulted from studies of a ________ derivative. Answer: cholesterol Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2 11.5 True/False Questions 1) The principal source of the difference in the normal boiling points of ICl (97 °C; molecular mass and Br2 (59 °C; molecular mass 160 amu) is both dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2 2) The boiling points of normal hydrocarbons are higher than those of branched hydrocarbons of similar molecular weight because the London-dispersion forces between normal hydrocarbons are greater than those between branched hydrocarbons. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.2 LO: 11.1 GO: G2

3) Heats of vaporization are greater than heats of fusion. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.4 LO: 11.4 GO: G2 4) Under ordinary conditions, a substance will sublime rather than melt if its triple point occurs at a pressure above atmospheric pressure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.6 LO: 11.6 GO: G2 5) Molecules containing many double bonds do not exhibit liquid-crystal behavior because free rotation can occur only around single bonds making these molecules rigid. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 11.7 LO: 11.8 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 12 Solids and Modern Materials 12.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A solid has a very high melting point, great hardness, and poor electrical conduction. This is a(n) ________ solid. A) ionic B) molecular C) metallic D) covalent network E) metallic and covalent network Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.1 GO: G2 2) All of the following are a type of solid except ________. A) supercritical B) ionic C) molecular D) covalent network E) metallic Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.1 GO: G2 3) Crystalline solids differ from amorphous solids in that crystalline solids have ________. A) appreciable intermolecular attractive forces B) a long-range repeating pattern of atoms, molecules, or ions C) atoms, molecules, or ions that are close together D) much larger atoms, molecules, or ions E) no orderly structure Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.2 GO: G2

4) The unit cell with all sides the same length and all angles equal to 90° that has lattice points only at the corners is called ________. A) monoclinic B) body-centered cubic C) primitive cubic D) face-centered cubic E) spherical cubic Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 5) All of the following can form a solid with a lattice structure similar to that of sodium chloride except ________. A) NaF B) CuBr2 C) LiCl D) KI E) MgO Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 6) Consider the following statements about crystalline solids: (i) Molecules or atoms in molecular solids are held together via ionic bonds. (ii) Metallic solids have atoms in the points of the crystal lattice. (iii) Ionic solids have formula units in the point of the crystal lattice. (iv) Molecules in covalent-network solids are connected via a network of covalent bonds. Which of the statements is true? A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv) E) none Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2

7) The ________ of light waves upon passing through a narrow slit is called diffraction. A) diffusion B) scattering C) grating D) adhesion E) incidence Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.2 GO: G2 8) What fraction of the volume of each corner atom is actually within the volume of a facecentered cubic unit cell? A) 1 B) 1/2 C) 1/4 D) 1/8 E) 1/16 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 9) What portion of the volume of each atom or ion on the face of a unit cell is actually within the unit cell? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 3/4 D) all of it E) none of it Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 10) A metallic material that is composed of two or more elements is called a(n) ________. A) homogeneous mixture B) pure metal C) nonmetal D) alloy E) mineral Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2

11) Which one of the following is a property of most metals? A) low melting point B) brittleness C) high electronegativity D) thermal conductivity E) acidic oxides Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 12) All of the following statements about steel are true except ________. A) it is an alloy of iron B) it can have different percentages of carbon C) it is a monomer D) it can be made so it resists rust E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 13) For a substitutional alloy to form, the two metals combined must have similar ________. A) ionization potential and electron affinity B) number of valance electrons and electronegativity C) reduction potential and size D) atomic radii and chemical bonding properties E) band gap and reactivity Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 14) The addition of an interstitial element to a metal ________ the overall hardness and strength while ________ the ductility. A) decreases, increasing B) increases, increasing C) increases, decreasing D) decreases, decreasing E) Adding an interstitial element to a metal has no affect on its properties. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2

15) ________ have properties that depend on the manner in which the solid is formed. A) Pure metals B) Heterogeneous alloys C) Homogeneous alloys D) Pure alloys Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 16) ________ are examples of homogeneous alloys. A) Covalent compounds B) Interstitial compounds C) Intermetallic compounds D) Intrametallic compounds E) Ionic compounds. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 17) ________ generally differ from compounds in that the atomic ratios of the constituent elements in the former are ________ and may vary over a wide range. A) Pure metals, fixed B) Alloys, not fixed C) Pure metals, not fixed D) Alloys, fixed E) Solids, not fixed Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 18) Of the following, ________ may be added to steel to modify its properties. A) carbon only B) carbon and nickel C) nickel only D) copper only E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2

19) Metallic solids exhibit all of the following except ________. A) thermal conductivity B) brittleness C) electrical conductivity D) variable melting point E) variable hardness Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.8 GO: G2 20) Trends in melting points for metals can be explained with the ________. A) intermolecular model B) electron-sea model C) thermal conductivity model D) covalent bonding model E) ionic bonding model Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.8 GO: G2 21) If the electronic structure of a solid substance consists of a valence band that is completely filled with electrons and there is a large energy gap to the next set of orbitals, then this substance will be a(n) ________. A) alloy B) insulator C) conductor D) semiconductor E) nonmetal Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.3 LO: 12.10a, 12.11 GO: G2 22) CsCl crystallizes in a unit cell that contains a Cs+ ion at the center of a cube and a Cl- ion at each corner. The unit cell of CsCl is ________. A) close packed B) body-centered cubic C) face-centered cubic D) amorphous E) primitive cubic Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.3 LO: 12.10a, 12.11 GO: G2 6

23) NaCl crystallizes in a face-centered cubic cell. What is the total number of ions (Na+ ions and Cl- ions) that lie within a unit cell of NaCl? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 6 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.3 LO: 12.10a, 12.11 GO: G2 24) KF crystallizes in a face-centered cubic cell. What is the total number of ions (K+ ions and F- ions) that lie within a unit cell of KF? A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.3 LO: 12.10a, 12.11 GO: G2 25) CsCl crystallizes in a unit cell that contains the Cs+ ion at the center of a cube that has a Clat each corner. Each unit cell contains ________ Cs+ ion(s) and ________ Cl- ion(s), respectively. A) 1, 8 B) 2, 1 C) 1, 1 D) 2, 2 E) 2, 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.3 LO: 12.10a, 12.11 GO: G2

26) The process of ________ can produce an n-type semiconductor, which can greatly increase intrinsic conductivity. A) melting B) fusing C) doping D) mixing E) infusing Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.15 GO: G2 27) The ________ for Ge shows it to be a semiconductor, because the gap between the filled lower and empty higher energy bands is relatively small. A) molecular-orbital model B) quantum mechanics model C) atomic-orbital model D) valence bond model E) intermolecular model Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 28) How many valence electrons do inorganic compounds contain if they are considered semiconductors? A) 2 B) 1 C) 4 D) 5 E) 3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 29) Which one of the following is an addition polymer with the same structure as polyethylene except that one hydrogen on every other carbon is replaced by a benzene ring? A) polyvinyl alcohol B) polystyrene C) polyethylene D) polyethylene glycol E) Teflon Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 8

30) All of the following are natural polymers except ________. A) silk B) starch C) nylon D) protein E) cellulose Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 31) The empirical formula of an addition polymer ________. A) is the same as that of the monomer from which it is formed except that 2 H and 1 O have been subtracted B) is the same as that of the monomer from which it is formed except that 1 H and 2 O have been subtracted C) is the same as that of the monomer from which it is formed except that 2 H and 1 C have been added D) is the same as that of the monomer from which it is formed E) is different than that of the monomer from which it is formed Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 32) An elastomer will fail to regain its original dimensions following a distortion beyond its ________. A) glass transition B) phase boundary C) London force D) crystallinity E) elastic limit Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2

33) What happens to a polymer as it becomes more crystalline? A) its melting point decreases B) its density decreases C) its yield stress decreases D) its stiffness decreases E) None of the above is correct. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 34) Natural rubber is too soft and chemically reactive for practical applications. ________ of natural rubber entails crosslinking reactive polymer chains with sulfur atoms. A) Addition B) Conversion C) Vulcanization D) Condensation E) Polymerization Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 35) The formation of a ________ polymer generally involves the elimination of a small molecule. A) conversion B) vulcanization C) monomeric D) condensation E) polymerization Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 36) All of the following are classified as a nanomaterial except ________. A) carbon nanotubes B) buckminsterfullerene C) isoprene D) graphene E) All of the above are classified as nanomaterials Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.6 LO: 12.19 GO: G2

37) The properties of graphene include ________. A) large thermal conductivity B) high strength C) a zero energy gap D) A and B E) A, B and C Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.6 LO: 12.20 GO: G2 12.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Molecular solids consist of atoms or molecules held together by ________. A) dipole-dipole forces only B) Metallic bonds only C) London dispersion forces and hydrogen bonds only D) hydrogen bonds only E) dipole-dipole forces, London dispersion forces, and/or hydrogen bonds Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.1 GO: G2 2) An unknown metal crystallizes in a primitive cubic unit cell. The length of the unit cell edge is 2.85 Å. The radius of the unknown atom is ________ Å. A) 5.70 B) 1.43 C) 1.85 D) 1.01 E) Insufficient data is given. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2, 12.3 LO: 12.6 GO: G2 3) An unknown metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure with a unit cell edge length of 4.35 Å. The radius of the unknown atom is ________ Å. A) 1.88 B) 3.77 C) 2.18 D) 8.70 E) 4.35 Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2, 12.3 LO: 12.6 GO: G2 11

4) What is the percent gold in a 14 karat gold ring? A) 86 B) 58 C) 14 D) 42 E) 1.0 × 102 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2, 12.3 LO: 12.6 GO: G2 5) What is the percent gold in a 10 karat gold necklace? A) 10 B) 58 C) 90 D) 1.0 × 102 E) 42 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2, 12.3 LO: 12.6 GO: G2 6) What is the percent gold in a 24 karat gold bracelet? A) 100 B) 24 C) 75 D) 25 E) 76 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2, 12.3 LO: 12.6 GO: G2 7) What is the percent gold in a 6 karat gold link? A) 94 B) 6.0 C) 75 D) 25 E) 1.0 × 102 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2, 12.3 LO: 12.6 GO: G2

8) Which group of transition metals have the highest melting points? A) 4B B) 6B C) 3B D) 2B E) 8B Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.8 GO: G2 9) The class of ________ has a diamond crystal structure. A) molecular semiconductors B) elemental conductors C) elemental semiconductors D) nonmetal semiconductors E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 10) Blue LEDs are usually made of ________. A) gallium arsenide B) gallium phosphide C) gallium nitride D) gallium oxide E) gallium sulfide Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.14 GO: G2 11) Which category of plastics is the most difficult to recycle? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2

12) Which category of plastics will generally be the most easily recycled? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 13) When the size of a semiconductor particle or crystal decreases, the band gap energy ________. A) decreases B) remains the same C) increases D) becomes 1 E) goes to zero Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.6 LO: 12.19 GO: G2

12.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Which of the following lattices is one of the five two-dimensional lattices in which the lattice vectors a and b are equal and the γ angle between them is 90°? A) hexagonal B) rectangular C) square D) rhombic E) oblique Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 2) Which of the following lattices is one of the seven primitive three-dimensional lattices in which the relationship between the lattice vectors a, b, and c can be written as: a ≠ b ≠ c? A) rhombohedral B) hexagonal C) tetragonal D) monoclinic E) cubic Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 3) Which statement best describes the classification of Sterling silver? A) It is pure silver. B) It is oxidized silver. C) It is an alloy of silver. D) It is a mixture of silver and gold. E) It is a liquid at room temperature. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 4) All of the following are alloys except ________. A) sterling silver B) 14-karat gold C) ceramic D) dental amalgam E) yellow brass Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 15

5) Which of the following can be used as an elemental semiconductor? A) Au B) H C) Ge D) Li E) Ne Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 6) Which of the following will have a larger band gap: GaN, GaP, GaAs, or GaSb? A) GaAs B) GaP C) GaN D) GaSb E) All choices have identical band gaps. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 7) All of the following are polymers except ________. A) nylon B) cellulose C) bronze D) starch E) protein Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 8) Which monomer is polymerized to make natural rubber? A) urethane B) ethylene C) styrene D) isoprene E) propylene Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2

9) Which of the following is an addition polymer? A) polyethylene terephthalate B) polyurethane C) Nylon 6,6 D) polyvinyl chloride E) polycarbonate Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 10) Which of the following is a condensation polymer? A) polyvinyl chloride B) polyethylene C) polypropylene D) Nylon 6,6 E) polystyrene Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 11) What is the correct abbreviation for the polymer low-density polyethylene? A) P B) PP C) PETE D) LDPE E) HDPE Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 12.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Define a primitive cubic lattice. Answer: when lattice points occur only at the corners of a unit cell Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 2) Define a body-centered cubic lattice. Answer: when lattice points occur at the corners and at the center of a unit cell Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 17

3) Define a face-centered cubic lattice. Answer: when lattice points occur at the center of each face, as well as each corner of a unit cell Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.3, 12.4 GO: G2 4) What is an alloy? Answer: a material that contains more than one element and has the characteristic properties of metals Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 5) A face-centered cubic unit cell contains contains ________ atoms. Answer: 4 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 6) An unknown metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic unit cell. There are ________ atoms of the unknown metal per unit cell. Answer: 2 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 7) What two primary metals are alloyed to produce bronze? Answer: copper and tin Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 8) Semiconductors are ________ conductive than metals because of a band gap. Answer: less Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 9) What are semiconductors? Answer: materials characterized by an energy gap between a filled valence band and an empty conduction band Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2

10) What is doping in the semiconductor field? Answer: the process of adding controlled amounts of impurity atoms to a material Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.15 GO: G2 11) The dopant atoms in an ________ semiconductor have more electrons than the host material. Answer: n-type Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.4 LO: 12.15 GO: G2 12) Quantum dots can be found as particles in semiconductors. What is the average diameter of quantum dots? Answer: 1-10 nm Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.6 LO: 12.19 GO: G2 13) What is the chemical formula for the monomer that forms polyethylene? Answer: H2C=CH2 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 14) What two compounds react to form the polymer Nylon? Answer: hexamethylen diamine and adipic acid Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 15) When two different monomers combine to form a polymer, the resulting compound is called a ________. Answer: copolymer Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 16) HDPE stands for ________. Answer: high-density polyethylene Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2

17) ________ are solid-state materials that can be made either semiconducting or metallic without any doping. Answer: Carbon nanotubes Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.6 LO: 12.20 GO: G2 12.5 True/False Questions 1) The type of solid that is characterized by low melting point, softness, and low electrical conduction is a molecular solid. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.1 LO: 12.1 GO: G2 2) Many metals are ductile, which means that they can be drawn into thin wires. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.2 LO: 12.5 GO: G2 3) An insulator does not conduct electricity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 12.4 LO: 12.13 GO: G2 4) Polyethylene is formed by a condensation reaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 5) Vulcanization of natural rubber entails crosslinking reactive polymer chains with sulfur atoms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2 6) Thermoplastics cannot be reshaped. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 12.5 LO: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 13 Properties of Solutions 13.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The dissolution of water in octane (C8H18) is principally prevented by ________. A) London dispersion forces between octane molecules B) hydrogen bonding between water molecules C) dipole-dipole attraction between octane molecules D) ion-dipole attraction between water and octane molecules E) repulsion between like-charged water and octane molecules Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2 2) When argon is placed in a container of neon, the argon spontaneously disperses throughout the neon because ________. A) of the large attractive forces between argon and neon atoms B) of hydrogen bonding C) a decrease in energy occurs when the two mix D) the dispersion of argon atoms produces an increase in disorder E) of solvent-solute interactions Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2 3) Hydration is a specific example of the phenomenon known generally as ________. A) salutation B) disordering C) solvation D) condensation E) dilution Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2

4) The phrase "like dissolves like" refers to the fact that ________. A) gases can only dissolve other gases B) polar solvents dissolve polar solutes and nonpolar solvents dissolve nonpolar solutes C) solvents can only dissolve solutes of similar molar mass D) condensed phases can only dissolve other condensed phases E) polar solvents dissolve nonpolar solutes and vice versa Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2 5) When solutions of strong electrolytes in water are formed, the ions are surrounded by water molecules. These interactions are described as a case of ________. A) hydration B) supersaturation C) crystallization D) dehydration E) saturation Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2 6) In a saturated solution of a salt in water, ________. A) the rate of crystallization > the rate of dissolution B) the rate of dissolution > the rate of crystallization C) seed crystal addition may cause massive crystallization D) the rate of crystallization = the rate of dissolution E) addition of more water causes massive crystallization Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G2 7) Compounds composed of a salt and water combined in definite proportions are known as ________. A) clathrates B) homogenates C) ionic solids D) molecular solids E) hydrates Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2

8) An unsaturated solution is one that ________. A) has no double bonds B) contains the maximum concentration of solute possible, and is in equilibrium with undissolved solute C) has a concentration lower than the solubility limit D) contains more dissolved solute than the solubility allows E) contains no solute Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G2 9) A solution with a concentration higher than the solubility allows is ________. A) not possible B) unsaturated C) supercritical D) saturated E) supersaturated Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G2 10) A supersaturated solution ________. A) is one with more than one solute B) is one that has been heated C) is one with a higher concentration than the solubility limit D) must be in contact with undissolved solid E) exists only in theory and cannot actually be prepared Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G2 11) The principal reason for the extremely low solubility of NaCl in benzene (C6H6) is the ________. A) strong solvent-solvent interactions B) hydrogen bonding in C6H6 C) strength of the covalent bond in NaCl D) weak solvation of Na+ and Cl- by C6H6 E) increased disorder due to mixing of solute and solvent Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2

12) Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble? A) A B) B C) K D) D E) E Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 13) Which of the following substances is more likely to dissolve in water? A) HOCH2CH2OH B) CHCl3 C) O CH3(CH2)9CH D) CH3(CH2)8CH3 E) CCl4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 14) Which of the following substances is least likely to dissolve in water? A) HOCH2CH2OH B) CHCl3 C) O CH3(CH2)9CH D) CH3(CH2)8CH2OH E) CCl4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2

15) Which of the following substances is more likely to dissolve in CH3OH? A) CCl4 B) Kr C) N2 D) CH3CH2OH E) H2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 16) Which one of the following substances is more likely to dissolve in CCl4? A) CBr4 B) HBr C) HCl D) CH3CH2OH E) NaCl Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 17) Which one of the following substances is more likely to dissolve in benzene (C6H6)? A) CH3CH2OH B) NH3 C) NaCl D) CCl4 E) HBr Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 18) Which one of the following is most soluble in water? A) CH3OH B) CH3CH2CH2OH C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH E) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2

19) Which one of the following is least soluble in water? A) CH3OH B) CH3CH2CH2OH C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH E) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 20) Which one of the following is most soluble in hexane (C6H14)? A) CH3OH B) CH3CH2CH2OH C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH E) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 21) The solubility of nitrogen gas at 25 °C and 1 atm is 6.8 × 10-4 mol/L. If the partial pressure of nitrogen gas in air is 0.76 atm, what is the concentration (molarity) of dissolved nitrogen? A) 6.8 × 10-4 M B) 5.2 × 10-4 M C) 4.9 × 10-4 M D) 3.8 × 10-4 M E) 1.1 × 10-5 M Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4

22) The concentration of CO2 in a soft drink bottled with a partial pressure of CO2 of 4.0 atm over the liquid at 25 °C is 1.2 × 10-1 M. The Henry's law constant for CO2 at this temperature is ________. A) 3.0 × 10-2 mol/L-atm B) 4.5 × 10-3 mol/L-atm C) 5.6 × 10-3 mol/L-atm D) 2.3 × 10-2 mol/L-atm E) More information is needed to solve the problem. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4 23) The concentration of CO2 in a soft drink bottled with a partial pressure of CO2 of 6.5 atm over the liquid at 29 °C is 2.2 × 10-1 M. The Henry's law constant for CO2 at this temperature is ________. A) 2.2 × 10-1 mol/L-atm B) 7.6 × 10-3 mol/L-atm C) 5.6 × 10-3 mol/L-atm D) 3.4 × 10-2 mol/L-atm E) More information is needed to solve the problem. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4 24) Pressure has an appreciable effect on the solubility of ________ in liquids. A) gases B) solids C) liquids D) salts E) solids and liquids Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G2

25) Which of the following statements is false? A) Nonpolar liquids tend to be insoluble in polar liquids. B) The weaker the attraction between the solute and solvent molecules, the greater the solubility. C) Substances with similar intermolecular attractive forces tend to be soluble in one another. D) The solubility of a gas increases in direct proportion to its partial pressure above the solution. E) The solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G2 26) Which of the following choices has the compounds correctly arranged in order of increasing solubility in water? (least soluble to most soluble) A) CCl4 < CHCl3 < NaNO3 B) CH3OH < CH4 < LiF C) CH4 < NaNO3 < CHCl3 D) LiF < NaNO3 < CHCl3 E) CH3OH < Cl4 < CHCl3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 27) Which component of air is the primary problem in a condition known as "the bends"? A) O2 B) CO2 C) He D) N2 E) CO Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G2 28) If the partial pressure of oxygen in the air a diver breathes is too great, ________. A) respiratory tissue is damaged by oxidation B) hyperventilation results C) the urge to breathe is increased and excessive CO2 is removed from the body D) the urge to breathe is reduced and not enough CO2 is removed from the body E) No problems result from this situation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G2 8

29) Calculate the molarity of a 10.0% (by mass) aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid. A) 0.274 m B) 2.74 m C) 3.04 m D) 4.33 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 30) Calculate the molarity of a 17.5% (by mass) aqueous solution of nitric acid. A) 0.274 m B) 2.74 m C) 3.04 m D) 4.33 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 31) What is the concentration in ppm of a solution which is prepared by dissolving 15 mg of NaCl in 200 mL water? A) 1.5 × 10-5 B) 75 C) 0.075 D) 15 E) 7.5 × 10-5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 32) Molality is defined as the ________. A) moles solute/moles solvent B) moles solute/liters solution C) moles solute/kg solution D) moles solute/kg solvent E) none (dimensionless) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2

33) Which one of the following concentration units varies with temperature? A) molarity B) mass percent C) mole fraction D) molality E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2 34) Of the concentration units below, only ________ uses kg of solvent in its calculation. A) mass % B) ppm C) ppb D) molarity E) molality Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2 35) A solution contains 11% by mass of sodium chloride. This means that ________. A) there are 11 g of sodium chloride in in 1.0 mL of this solution B) 100 g of the solution contains 11 g of sodium chloride C) 100 mL of the solution contains 11 g of sodium chloride D) the density of the solution is 11 g/mL E) the molality of the solution is 11 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2 36) A solution contains 15 ppm of benzene. The density of the solution is that ________. A) there are 15 mg of benzene in 1.0 g of this solution B) 100 g of the solution contains 15 g of benzene C) 1.0 g of the solution contains 15 × 10-6 g of benzene D) 1.0 L of the solution contains 15 g of benzene E) the solution is 15% by mass of benzene Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2

This means

37) A 0.200 m solution of which one of the following solutes will have the lowest vapor pressure? A) LiCl B) AlCl3 C) CaCl2 D) glucose E) KCl Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G2 38) A 0.100 m solution of which one of the following solutes will have the highest vapor pressure? A) KClO4 B) Ca(ClO4)2 C) Al(ClO4)3 D) sucrose E) NaCl Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G2 39) The magnitudes of Kf and of Kb depend on the identity of the ________. A) solute B) solvent C) solution D) solvent and on temperature E) solute and solvent Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 40) As the concentration of a solute in a solution increases, the freezing point of the solution ________ and the vapor pressure of the solution ________. A) increases, increases B) increases, decreases C) decreases, increases D) decreases, decreases E) decreases, is unaffected Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 11

41) Which of the following liquids will have the lowest freezing point? A) pure H2O B) aqueous glucose (0.60 m) C) aqueous sucrose (0.60 m) D) aqueous FeI3 (0.24 m) E) aqueous KF (0.50 m) Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 42) Which of the following liquids will have the highest freezing point? A) pure H2O B) aqueous glucose (0.60 m) C) aqueous sucrose (0.60 m) D) aqueous FeI3 (0.24 m) E) aqueous KF (0.50 m) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 43) Which of the following liquids will have the lowest freezing point? A) pure H2O B) aqueous glucose (0.050 m) C) aqueous CoI2 (0.030 m) D) aqueous FeI3 (0.030 m) E) aqueous NaI (0.030 m) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 44) Which of the following liquids will have the highest freezing point? A) pure H2O B) aqueous glucose (0.050 m) C) aqueous CoI2 (0.030 m) D) aqueous FeI3 (0.030 m) E) aqueous NaI (0.030 m) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2

45) A 2.05 m aqueous solution of some unknown had a boiling point of 102.1 °C. Which one of the following could be the unknown compound? The boiling point elevation constant for water is A) NaCl B) CH3OH C) C6H12O6 D) Na2CO3 E) CaBr2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 13.11 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 13.5

46) Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of ________ will have the lowest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 47) Of the following, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of ________ will have the highest freezing point. A) NaCl B) Al(NO3)3 C) K2CrO4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 48) Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the highest boiling point? A) 0.10 m Na2SO4 B) 0.20 m glucose C) 0.25 m sucrose D) 0.10 m NaCl E) 0.10 m SrSO4 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 13

49) The most likely van't Hoff factor for an 0.01 m CaI2 solution is ________. A) 1.00 B) 3.00 C) 1.27 D) 2.69 E) 3.29 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 50) Which one of the following solutes has a limiting van't Hoff factor (i) of 3 when dissolved in water? A) KNO3 B) CH3OH C) CCl4 D) Na2SO4 E) sucrose Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 51) The ratio of the actual value of a colligative property to the value calculated, assuming the substance to be a nonelectrolyte, is referred to as ________. A) Henry's law B) vapor pressure lowering C) the van't Hoff factor D) freezing point depression E) osmotic pressure Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 52) Colligative properties of solutions include all of the following except ________. A) depression of vapor pressure upon addition of a solute to a solvent B) elevation of the boiling point of a solution upon addition of a solute to a solvent C) depression of the freezing point of a solution upon addition of a solute to a solvent D) an increase in the osmotic pressure of a solution upon the addition of more solute E) the increase of reaction rates with increase in temperature Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 14

53) Calculate the vapor pressure of a solution made by dissolving 109 grams of glucose (molar mass = 180.2 g/mol) in 920.0 ml of water at 25 °C. The vapor pressure of pure water at is . Assume the density of the solution is 1.00 g/ml. A) 0.278 mm Hg B) 0.605 mm Hg C) 22.98 mm Hg D) 23.48 mm Hg E) 23.76 mm Hg Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 54) The process of a substance sticking to the surface of another is called ________. A) absorption B) diffusion C) effusion D) adsorption E) coagulation Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.6 LO: 13.12 GO: G2 55) All of the following are considered to be colloids except ________. A) an emulsion B) a homogeneous mixture C) an aerosol D) a foam E) All of the above are colloids. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.6 LO: 13.12 GO: G2 56) Hydrophobic colloids ________. A) are those that contain water B) can be stabilized by adsorption of ions C) are those that do not contain water D) can be stabilized by coagulation E) will separate into two phases if they are stabilized Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.6 LO: 13.13 GO: G2

13.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The process of solute particles being surrounded by solvent particles is known as ________. A) salutation B) agglomeration C) solvation D) agglutination E) dehydration Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1 LO: 13.1 GO: G2 2) Pairs of liquids that will mix in all proportions are called ________ liquids. A) miscible B) unsaturated C) polar liquids D) saturated E) supersaturated Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.1, 13.3 LO: 13.1, 13.2 GO: G2 3) The solubility of Ar in water at 25 °C is 1.6 × 10-3 M when the pressure of the Ar above the solution is 1.0 atm. The solubility of Ar at a pressure of 2.5 atm is ________ M. A) 1.6 × 103 B) 6.4 × 10-4 C) 4.0 × 10-3 D) 7.5 × 10-2 E) 1.6 × 10-3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4

4) A 81.5 g sample of calcium chloride is dissolved in 102 g of water at 45 °C. The solution is cooled to 20.0 °C and no precipitate is observed. This solution is ________. A) hydrated B) placated C) saturated D) unsaturated E) supersaturated Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G3 5) A 17.2 g sample of potassium chlorate is dissolved in 250 g of water at 65 °C. The solution is cooled to 30.0 °C and no precipitate is observed. This solution is ________. A) hydrated B) miscible C) saturated D) unsaturated E) supersaturated Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G3

6) A 30.0 g sample of potassium nitrate is dissolved in 100 g of water at 60 °C. The solution is cooled to 20.0 °C and a small amount of precipitate is observed. This solution is ________. A) hydrated B) placated C) saturated D) unsaturated E) supersaturated Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G3 7) A solution at that is 3.75 M in MnSO4 monohydrate is considered a(n) ________ solution. The solubility of MnSO4 monohydrate in water at 20 °C is 70.0 g per 100.0 mL of water. A) hydrated B) solvated C) saturated D) unsaturated E) supersaturated Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G3 8) The solubility of MnSO4 monohydrate in water at 20 °C is 70.0 g per 100.0 mL of water. A solution at that is 0.401 M in MnSO4 monohydrate is best described as a(n) ________ solution. The formula weight of MnSO4 monohydrate is 168.97 g/mol. A) hydrated B) solvated C) saturated D) unsaturated E) supersaturated Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G3

9) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15.0 g of NH3 in 250.0 g of water. The density of the resulting solution is 0.974 g/mL. The molarity of NH3 in the solution is ________ M. A) 0.00353 B) 0.882 C) 60.0 D) 3.24 E) 3.53 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 10) A solution is prepared by dissolving 25.0 g of NaCl in 500.0 g of water. What is the molality (m) of NaCl in the solution? The density of the solution is 1.0 g/mL. A) 0.000856 B) 0.0500 C) 50.0 D) 8.56 E) 0.856 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 11) A solution is prepared by dissolving 23.7 g of CaCl2 in 375 g of water. The density of the resulting solution is . The concentration of Cl- in this solution is ________ M. A) 0.214 B) 0.562 C) 1.12 D) 1.20 E) 6.64 × 10-2 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

12) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15.8 g of MgCl2 in 255 g of water. What is the mole fraction of Cl- in this solution? A) 0.977 B) 0.0116 C) 0.0232 D) 0.988 E) 0.00583 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 13) A solution is prepared by dissolving 23.7 g of CaCl2 in 375 g of water. The density of the resulting solution is The concentration of CaCl2 in this solution is ________ molal. A) 0.214 B) 0.569 C) 5.70 D) 63.2 E) 1.76 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 14) A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.7 g of KBr in 375 g water at 20.0 °C. What is the molarity (M) of KBr in this solution? Density of the solution at 20.0 °C is 0.998 g/mL. A) 0.552 B) 0.0659 C) 0.000552 D) 552 E) 65.9 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

15) What is the concentration (M) of HCl in a solution that is prepared by dissolving 25.5 g of HCl in of water? (Assume volume does not change after adding HCl.) A) 1.28 B) 0.0350 C) 35.0 D) 3.50 × 10-5 E) 14.0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 16) The concentration (M) of HCl in a solution prepared by dissolving 5.5 g of HCl in 200 g of C2H6O is ________ M. The density of the solution is 0.79 g/mL. A) 21 B) 0.93 C) 0.58 D) 6.0 × 10-4 E) 1.72 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 17) What is the mole fraction of HCl in a solution that is prepared by dissolving 25.5 g of HCl in of water? The density of the solution is 1.0 g/mL. A) 0.0155 B) 0.0319 C) 0.984 D) 0.874 E) 32.0 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

18) The mole fraction of urea (MW = 60.0 g/mol) in a solution prepared by dissolving 16 g of urea in of H2O is ________. A) 0.58 B) 0.37 C) 0.13 D) 0.11 E) 9.1 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 19) The concentration of urea (MW = 60.0 g/mol) in a solution prepared by dissolving 16 g of urea in 39 g of H2O is ________ molal. A) 96 B) 6.8 C) 0.68 D) 6.3 E) 0.11 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 20) The molarity of urea (MW = 60.0 g/mol) in a solution prepared by dissolving 11 g of urea in of H2O is ________ M. Assume the volume of the solution does not change when dissolving the urea. A) 0.314 B) 5.24 C) 314 D) 0.00524 E) 0.00642 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

21) What is the molarity of sodium chloride in solution that is 13.0% by mass sodium chloride and that has a density of 1.10 g/mL? A) 143 B) 2.45 C) 2.56 D) 2.23 E) 1.43 × 10-2 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 22) What is the molality of LiCl in solution that is 9.0% by mass LiCl and has a density of 1.00 g/mL? A) 9.00 B) 2.12 C) 2.33 D) 90.0 E) 0.0900 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 23) What is the mole fraction of LiCl in solution that is 9.0% by mass LiCl and has a density of 1.00 g/mL? A) 0.960 B) 2.33 C) 0.0403 D) 2.12 E) 9.00 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

24) The vapor pressure of pure ethanol at 60 °C is 0.459 atm. Raoult's Law predicts that a solution prepared by dissolving 10.0 mmol naphthalene (nonvolatile) in 90.0 mmol ethanol will have a vapor pressure of ________ atm. A) 0.498 B) 0.413 C) 0.790 D) 0.367 E) 0.0918 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 25) The vapor pressure of pure water at 25 °C is 23.8 torr. What is the vapor pressure (torr) of water above a solution prepared by dissolving 18.0 g of glucose (a nonelectrolyte, MW = 180.0 g/mol) in 95.0 g of water? A) 24.3 B) 23.4 C) 0.451 D) 0.443 E) 23.8 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 26) What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.3 g of Ca(NO3)2 in 115 g of water? The molal freezing point depression constant for water is (Assume 100% ionization of Ca(NO3)2.) A) -3.34 B) -1.11 C) 3.34 D) 1.11 E) 0.00 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4

27) A solution containing 10.0 g of an unknown liquid and 90.0 g water has a freezing point of 3.33 °C. Given for water, the molar mass of the unknown liquid is A) 69.0 B) 333 C) 619 D) 161 E) 62.1 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.11 GO: G4 28) A mixture containing 33.0 g of an unknown liquid and 230.0 g of water has a freezing point of -1.12 °C. Given for water, what is the molar mass (g/mol) of the unknown liquid? A) 54.8 B) 0.602 C) 143 D) 238 E) 138 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.11 GO: G4 29) A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of nicotine (a nonelectrolyte) in water to make 12 mL of solution. The osmotic pressure of the solution is at 25 °C. The molecular weight of nicotine is A) 28 B) 43 C) 50 D) 160 E) 0.60 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.11 GO: G4

30) A mixture containing 41.0 g of an unknown nonelectrolyte and 160.0 g of water has a freezing point of -1.34 °C. Given for water, what is the molecular weight (g/mol) of the unknown solute? A) 57.0 B) 356 C) 0.720 D) 4.74 E) 0.355 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.11 GO: G4 31) An aqueous solution of a soluble compound (a nonelectrolyte) is prepared by dissolving of the compound in sufficient water to form of solution. The solution has an osmotic pressure of 1.2 atm at What is the molar mass (g/mole) of the compound? A) 1.0 × 103 B) 2.7 × 103 C) 2.3 × 102 D) 6.8 × 102 E) 28 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.11 GO: G4 32) Determine the freezing point (°C) of a 0.015 molal aqueous solution of MgSO4. Assume i = 2.0 for MgSO4. The molal freezing-point-depression constant of water is A) -0.056 B) -0.028 C) -0.17 D) -0.084 E) 0.000 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4

33) A solution is prepared by dissolving 2.60 g of a strong electrolyte (formula weight = 101 g/mol) in enough water to make 1.00 L of solution. The osmotic pressure of the solution is 1.25 atm at 25.0 °C. What is the van't Hoff factor (i) for the unknown solute? A) 0 B) 0.99 C) 1.98 D) 2.98 E) 0.630 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G4 34) George is making spaghetti for dinner. He places 4.01 kg of water in a pan and brings it to a boil. Before adding the pasta, he adds 58 g of table salt (NaCl) to the water and again brings it to a boil. The temperature of the salty, boiling water is ________°C. (Assume 100% ionization of NaCl.) Assume a pressure of 1.00 atm and negligible evaporation of water. Kb for water is A) 99.87 B) 100.26 C) 100.13 D) 99.74 E) 100.00 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4

13.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) A saturated solution ________. A) contains dissolved solute in equilibrium with undissolved solute B) has the capacity to dissolve more solute C) contains no double bonds D) will rapidly precipitate if a seed crystal is added E) cannot be attained Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G2 2) Which one of the following substances would be the most soluble in C A) C4H10 B) Li2O C) NH3 D) HCl E) CH3CH2CH2OH Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 3) Which of the following would be least soluble in a nonpolar solvent? A) NaNO3 B) C5H12 C) NH3 D) HF E) CH3CH2OH Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2

4) The Henry's law constant for helium gas in water at 30 °C is 3.70 × M/atm. When the partial pressure of helium above a sample of water is 0.400 atm, the concentration of helium in the water is ________ M. A) 9.25 × 10-4 B) 1.08 × 103 C) 0.800 D) 1.48 × 10-4 E) 3.70 × Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4 5) The solubility of oxygen gas in water at 25 °C and 1.0 atm pressure of oxygen is solubility of oxygen in water at 4.0 atm and 25 °C is ________ g/L. A) 0.041 B) 0.014 C) 0.31 D) 0.16 E) 4.0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4

The

6) What is the solubility concentration (M) of nitrogen gas in 25 °C water and at a nitrogen pressure of 3.5 atm? The solubility of nitrogen gas in water at 25 °C and a nitrogen pressure of 1.0 atm is A) 0.00086 B) 120 C) 0.0037 D) 3.5 E) 0.0024 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4

7) On a clear day at sea level, with a temperature of 25 °C, the partial pressure of in air is 0.78 atm and the concentration of nitrogen in water is When the partial pressure of is ________ atm, the concentration in water is 2.0 A) 0.63 B) 0.68 C) 1.0 D) 3.0 E) 2.9 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.5 GO: G4 8) A solution is prepared by dissolving 27.7 g of Ca in 375 g of water. The density of the resulting solution is 1.05 g/mL. The concentration of Ca is ________% by mass. A) 6.88 B) 7.22 C) 0.0722 D) 0.0688 E) 6.24 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 9) The concentration of urea in a solution prepared by dissolving 16 g of urea in ________% by mass. The molar mass of urea is 60.0 g/mol. A) 39 B) 64 C) 0.39 D) 0.64 E) 0.48 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

10) A solution contains 39% phosphoric acid by mass. This means that ________. A) 100 g of this solution contains 39 g of phosphoric acid B) 1 mL of this solution contains 39 g of phosphoric acid C) 1 L of this solution has a mass of 39 g D) 1 L of this solution contains 39 mL of phosphoric acid E) the density of this solution is 3.9 g/mL Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 21 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 11) What is the molality of a 24.4% (by mass) aqueous solution of phosphoric acid? A) 323 m B) 6.59 m C) 3.29 m D) 1.65 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 12) What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a 31.5% (by mass) aqueous solution? A) 0.0846 m B) 0.156 m C) 0.0390 m D) 0.0780 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 13) Calculate the mole fraction of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in a 38.5% (by mass) aqueous solution. A) 0.103 B) 0.115 C) 0.206 D) 0.0516 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

14) What is the molality of a 10.0% (by mass) aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid? A) 111 m B) 1.01 m C) 3.05 m D) 1.52 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 15) What is the mole fraction of hydrochloric acid in a 17.4% (by mass) hydrochloric acid aqueous solution? A) 0.104 B) 0.189 C) 0.0471 D) 0.0943 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 16) Calculate the molality of a 27.0% (by mass) aqueous solution of nitric acid. A) 5.87 B) 222 C) 0.906 D) 1.37 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 17) What is the mole fraction of nitric acid in a(n) 8.46% (by mass) aqueous solution of nitric acid? A) 0.0433 B) 0.0830 C) 0.0257 D) 0.0208 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

18) A solution contains 30 ppm of some heavy metal and the density of the solution is This means that ________. A) 100 g of the solution contains 30 g of heavy metal B) 100 g of the solution contains 30 mg of heavy metal C) the solution is 30% by mass of heavy metal D) there are 30 mg of the heavy metal in 1.0 L of this solution E) the molarity of the solution is 30 M Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 19) What is the chloride ion concentration (M) in a solution that contains 0.100 M aluminum chloride? A) 0.100 B) 0.300 C) 0.050 D) 0.033 E) 0.200 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 20) What is the molal concentration of potassium bromide in a solution prepared by dissolving 2.27 g of potassium bromide in 897 g of water? A) 2.46 B) 0.0213 C) 0.0167 D) 0.0000207 E) 0.0186 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 21) The concentration of lead nitrate (Pb(N density of the solution is 1.202 g/mL. A) 0.770 B) 2.13 C) 1.03 D) 0.819 E) 0.650 Answer: C Diff: 5 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

) in a 0.926 M solution is ________ molal. The

22) What is the molal concentration of a benzene (C6H6) solution prepared by mixing 13.0 g benzene with 38.0 g of carbon tetrachloride? A) 2.40 B) 622 C) 4.38 D) 0.342 E) 0.508 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 23) What is the mole fraction of N in a solution prepared by dissolving 16.0 g of N g of water? The density of the resulting solution is 0.974 g/mL. A) 0.0640 B) 0.940 C) 0.0635 D) 0.922 E) 16.8 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

in 250.0

24) What is the molal concentration of KCl in a solution prepared by adding 2.11 mol of KCl to 889 g of water? A) 2.37 B) 2.37 × 10-3 C) 421 D) 0.421 E) 1.88 × 103 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

25) 13.3 g of benzene (C6H6) is dissolved in 282 g of carbon tetrachloride. What is the molal concentration of benzene in this solution? A) 6.04 × B) 0.0851 C) 0.0450 D) 4.50 E) 0.604 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 26) What is the molarity of a 7.00% by mass ammonium chloride aqueous solution at 20 °C? Density of the solution is A) 1.33 B) 1.41 C) 0.133 D) 0.146 E) 6.86 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 27) What is the molality of ammonium chloride in a 3.95 M ammonium chloride aqueous solution at 20 °C? Density of the solution is A) 0.0780 B) 3.95 C) 0.268 D) 20.00 E) 4.67 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 28) What is the mass % of ammonium chloride in a 1.73 M ammonium chloride aqueous solution at 20 °C? Density of the solution is A) 1.85 B) 3.31 C) 1.68 D) 0.594 E) 9.00 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 16 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 35

29) The mole fraction of He in a gaseous solution prepared from 1.0 g of He, 6.5 g of Ar, and 10.0 g of Ne is ________. A) 0.28 B) 0.25 C) 0.20 D) 0.66 E) 0.86 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 30) What is the % by mass of sodium chloride in an aqueous solution that is 2.39 M and has a density of 1.01 g/mL? A) 2.36 B) 13.8 C) 7.83 D) 140. E) 19.6 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 31) An acetic acid aqueous solution contains 22% by mass acetic acid? Which of the following statements is correct? A) 1 mL of this solution contains 22 g of acetic acid B) 1 L of this solution has a mass of 22 g C) 100 g of this solution contains 22 g of acetic acid D) 1 L of this solution contains 22 mL of acetic acid E) the density of this solution is 2.2 g/mL Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 21 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 32) What is the molality of a 36.1% (by mass) aqueous solution of phosphoric acid? A) 565 m B) 11.5 m C) 5.76 m D) 2.88 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 36

33) What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a 22.1% (by mass) aqueous solution? A) 0.0522 m B) 0.0248 m C) 0.0992 m D) 0.0496 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 34) What is the mole fraction of phosphoric acid in a 20.5% (by mass) aqueous solution? A) 0.0474 B) 0.0905 C) 0.0453 D) 0.0226 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 35) What is the molality of a 10.0% (by mass) aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid? A) 160 m B) 1.45 m C) 3.05 m D) 2.20 m E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 36) What is the mole fraction of hydrochloric acid in a 7.20% (by mass) aqueous solution? A) 0.0383 B) 0.0739 C) 0.0185 D) 0.0369 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

37) What is the molality of a 35.0% (by mass) aqueous solution of nitric acid? A) 348 B) 1.42 C) 8.55 D) 2.15 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 38) What is the mole fraction of nitric acid of a 16.2% (by mass) aqueous solution of nitric acid? A) 0.0374 B) 0.0721 C) 0.0180 D) 0.0523 E) The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 39) A water sample tested positive for lead with a concentration of 35 ppm. The density of the solution is Which of the following statements is correct? A) 100 g of the solution contains 35 g of lead B) there are 35 mg of lead in 1.0 L of this solution C) 100 g of the solution contains 35 mg of lead D) the solution is 35% by mass of lead E) the molarity of the solution is 35 M Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 40) How much sodium nitrate (g) is in a A) 5570 B) 13.2 C) 0.00132 D) 758 E) 55.7 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

sample of solution that is 27.1% by mass?

41) How many grams of solution are present if there is by mass? A) 43.2 B) 0.177 C) 1770 D) 5.64 E) 0.0564 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

of dissolved solute which is 15.6%

42) How many grams of solution are present if a solute is dissolved in concentration is 12.7% by mass? A) 55.0 B) 0.00722 C) 72.2 D) 20.2 E) 1.39 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4 43) What is the molality (m) of a solution containing 5.16 g of C6H12O6 in The density of water is A) 0.313 B) 0.156 C) 0.0782 D) 28.2 E) 0.00524 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G4

of water and the

of water?

44) Which produces the greatest number of ions when one mole dissolves in water? A) Na3PO4 B) KBr C) NaMnO4 D) NH4Cl E) glucose Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 39

45) The ideal value of i (van't Hoff factor) for Na3PO4 is: A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 46) Of the following, a 0.2 M aqueous solution of ________ will have the highest freezing point. A) RbBr B) K2SO4 C) Sr(NO3)2 D) (NH4)2SO4 E) Fe(NO3)2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 47) Which of the following will have an ideal van't Hoff factor (i) value of 1? A) sucrose B) NaF C) LiNO3 D) NH4NO3 E) Li2PO4 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G2 48) Which produces the greatest number of ions when one mole dissolves in water? A) K2SO4 B) NaF C) LiMnO4 D) NH4Br E) sucrose Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.7 GO: G4 40

49) A solution is prepared by dissolving 2.00 g of glycerin ( ) in 201 g of ethanol The freezing point of the solution is ________°C. The freezing point of pure ethanol is at 1 atm. The molal-freezing-point-depression constant ( ) for ethanol is The molar masses of glycerin and of ethanol are 92.1 g/mol and 46.1 g/mol, respectively. A) -116.6 B) 0.215 C) -112.6 D) -114.4 E) -114.8 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4 50) What is the vapor pressure (mm Hg) of water at above a solution prepared by dissolving of urea, CO(NH2)2, in of water? The vapor pressure of pure water at 25 °C is 23.8 mm Hg. A) 22 B) 2.9 C) 0.42 D) 27 E) 0.91 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 51) The freezing point of ethanol ( OH) is -114.6 °C. The molal freezing point depression constant for ethanol is 2.00 °C/m. What is the freezing point (°C) of a solution prepared by dissolving 50.0 g of glycerin a nonelectrolyte) in 200.0 g of ethanol? A) -115.0 B) -5.43 C) -132.3 D) -120.0 E) -114.6 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4

52) Calculate the freezing point of a 0.09500 m aqueous solution of glucose. The molal freezingpoint-depression constant of water is A) 0.0475 B) 0.106 C) -0.0562 D) -0.177 E) -0.354 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4 53) Calculate the freezing point of a 0.05500 m aqueous solution of NaN . The molal freezingpoint-depression constant of water is (Assume 100% ionization of NaNO3.) A) 0.0286 B) -0.106 C) 0.106 D) -0.0562 E) -0.205 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4 54) Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 20 grams of KCl and 2200.0 grams of water. The molal-freezing-point-depression constant ( ) for water is (Assume 100% ionization of KCl.) A) -0.45 °C B) +0.45 °C C) -0.23 °C D) +0.23 °C E) 1.23 °C Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G4

55) The osmotic pressure of a solution formed by dissolving 45.0 mg of aspirin 0.250 L of water at 25 °C is ________ atm. A) 24.5 B) 2.05 × C) 0.0245 D) 4.41 E) 2.48 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.10a GO: G4

56) A solution is prepared by adding 40.00 g of lactose (milk sugar) to 110.0 g of water at The partial pressure of water above the solution is ________ torr. The vapor pressure of pure water at 55 °C is 118.0 torr. The MW of lactose is A) 2.216 B) 125.5 C) 225.9 D) 115.8 E) 86.5 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 13.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What is the formula weight of iron(III) chloride hexahydrate? Answer: 270.294 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G4 2) Water (H2O) and the alcohol methanol (CH3OH) are infinitely soluble in each other. The primary intermolecular force responsible for this is ________. Answer: hydrogen bonding Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.3 LO: 13.2 GO: G2 3) An aqueous solution with a concentration of 18 ppm indicates that there is ________ per liter of solution. Answer: 18 mg Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2 43

4) An aqueous solution with a concentration of 12.5 ppb indicates that there is ________ per liter of solution. Answer: 12.5 ug Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.4 LO: 13.6 GO: G2 5) What is the osmotic pressure (in atm) of a 0.0255 M NaCl solution at 25.0 °C? Answer: 1.25 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.10a GO: G4 6) What is the osmotic pressure (in atm) of a 0.015 M calcium chloride solution at 28 °C? Answer: 1.1 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.10a GO: G4 7) 291.5 grams of calcium chloride is dissolved in 1974.3 grams of water. Calculate the vapor pressure lowering (in mm Hg) of the solution at 25.0 °C. (Note: The vapor pressure of pure water at 25.0 °C is 23.76 mm Hg.) Answer: 0.556 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 8) The mole fraction of NaCl in water is 0.0195. Calculate the vapor pressure lowering (in mm Hg) of the solution at 25.0 °C. (Note: The vapor pressure of pure water at 25.0 °C is 23.76 mm Hg.) Answer: 0.463 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G4 9) The ________ is a phenomenon used to differentiate colloids and true solutions. Answer: Tyndall effect Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.6 LO: 13.12 GO: G2

13.5 True/False Questions 1) A solution with a solute concentration greater than the solubility is called a supercritical solution. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.2 LO: 13.3 GO: G2 2) Adding a nonvolatile solute to a solution decreases the vapor pressure of the solution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.8 GO: G2 3) After swimming in the ocean for several hours, swimmers noticed that their fingers appeared to be very wrinkled. This is an indication that seawater is supertonic relative to the fluid in cells. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.10a GO: G2 4) The value of the boiling-point-elevation constant (Kb) depends on the identity of the solvent. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.5 LO: 13.9 GO: G2 5) Emulsifying agents typically have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 13.6 LO: 13.12 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 14 Chemical Kinetics 14.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A burning splint will burn more vigorously in pure oxygen than in air because ________. A) oxygen is a reactant in combustion and concentration of oxygen is higher in pure oxygen than is in air B) oxygen is a catalyst for combustion C) oxygen is a product of combustion D) nitrogen is a product of combustion and the system reaches equilibrium at a lower temperature E) nitrogen is a reactant in combustion and its low concentration in pure oxygen catalyzes the combustion Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.1 LO: 14.1 GO: G2 2) Of the following, all are valid units for a reaction rate except ________. A) mol/L B) M/s C) mol/hr D) g/s E) mol/L-hr Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2

3) Which one of the following is not a valid expression for the rate of the reaction below? 4NH3 + 7O2 → 4NO2 + 6H2O A) B) C) D) E) All of the above are valid expressions of the reaction rate. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2 4) The rate law of a reaction is rate = k[D][X]. The units of the rate constant are ________. A) mol L-1s-1 B) L mol-1s-1 C) mol2 L-2s-1 D) mol L-1s-2 E) L2 mol-2s-1 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2

The data in the table below were obtained for the reaction: A+B→C

5) The rate law for this reaction is rate = ________. A) k[A][B] B) k[P] C) k[A]2[B] D) k[A]2[B]2 E) k[A]2 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G4 6) The magnitude of the rate constant is ________. A) 5.56 B) 0.278 C) 13.2 D) 42.0 E) 2.21 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G4

The data in the table below were obtained for the reaction: 2 ClO2 (aq) + 2 OH- (aq) → ClO3- (aq) + ClO2- (aq) + H2O (1)

7) What is the order of the reaction with respect to ClO2? A) 1 B) 0 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G4 8) What is the order of the reaction with respect to OH-? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G4 9) Which of the following is correct regarding the overall order of the reaction? A) the overall order is found by subtracting the individual orders for ClO2 and OH-, so it is 1 for this reaction B) the overall order for this reaction is based on the individual order for OH-, so it is 1 C) the overall order is found by adding the individual orders for ClO2 and OH-, so it is 3 for this reaction D) the overall order for this reaction is based on the individual order for ClO2, so it is 2 E) the overall order cannot be determined Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G4

10) What is the magnitude of the rate constant for the reaction? A) 1.15 × 104 B) 4.6 C) 230 D) 115 E) 713 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G4 11) Under constant conditions, the half-life of a first-order reaction ________. A) is the time necessary for the reactant concentration to drop to half its original value B) is constant C) can be calculated from the reaction rate constant D) does not depend on the initial reactant concentration E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G2 12) The reaction 2NO2 → 2NO + O2 follows second-order kinetics. At 300 °C, [NO2] drops from 0.0100 M to 0.00650 M in 100.0 s. The rate constant for the reaction is ________ M-1s-1. A) 0.096 B) 0.65 C) 0.81 D) 1.2 E) 0.54 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

13) The reaction CH3-N≡C → CH3-C≡N is a first-order reaction. At is ________ M after A) 5.33 × 10-4 B) 2.34 × 10-4 C) 1.88 × 10-3 D) 4.27 × 10-3 E) 1.00 × 10-6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

is 1.00 × 10-3 initially,

14) Which one of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between concentration and time for a reaction that is second order in [A]? A)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 14.5 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 14.4

15) The following reaction is second order in [A] and the rate constant is 0.025

A→B The concentration of A was 0.65 M at 33 s. The initial concentration of A was ________ M. A) 2.4 B) 0.27 C) 0.24 D) 1.4 E) 1.2 × 10-2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G3 7

The reaction A → B is first order in [A]. Consider the following data.

16) What is the rate constant (s-1) for this reaction? A) 3.0 × 10-2 B) 14 C) 0.46 D) 4.0 × 102 E) 7.8 × 10-2 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.8 GO: G3 17) What is the concentration (M) of [A] after 80.0 s? A) 4.06 B) 7.8 × 10-2 C) 5.00 × 10-3 D) 4.06 × 10-4 E) 0.01 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.8 GO: G3 18) The rate constant of a first-order process that has a half-life of 3.50 min is ________ s-1. A) 0.693 B) 1.65 × 10-2 C) 1.98 D) 0.198 E) 3.30 ×10-3 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4

19) The reaction A (aq) → B (aq) is first order in [A]. A solution is prepared with [A] = 1.22 M. The following data are obtained as the reaction proceeds:

The rate constant for this reaction is ________ s-1. A) 0.23 B) 1.0 C) 0.17 D) 0.12 E) -0.12 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.8 GO: G3 20) One difference between first- and second-order reactions is that ________. A) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0 B) the rate of both first-order and second-order reactions do not depend on reactant concentrations C) the rate of a first-order reaction depends on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations D) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed E) None of the above are true. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G2

21) At elevated temperatures, methylisonitrile (CH3NC) isomerizes to acetonitrile (CH3CN): CH3NC (g) → CH3CN (g) The reaction is first order in methylisonitrile. The attached graph shows data for the reaction obtained at 198.9 °C.

What is the rate constant (s-1) for the reaction? A) -1.9 × 104 B) +5.2 × 10-5 C) +1.9 × 104 D) -5.2 × 10-5 E) +6.2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G3 22) The decomposition of [A] in solution at 55 °C proceeds via first order: A (aq) → B (aq) What is the rate law for the reaction? A) rate = k[A]2 B) rate = k[A] C) rate = k D) rate = k[A][B] E) rate = 2k[A] Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G2 10

23) As the temperature of a reaction is increased, the rate of the reaction increases because the ________. A) reactant molecules collide less frequently B) reactant molecules collide more frequently and with greater energy per collision C) activation energy is lowered D) reactant molecules collide with greater energy E) reactant molecules collide more frequently Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 24) The rate of a reaction depends on ________. A) collision frequency B) collision energy C) collision orientation D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 25) Which energy difference in the energy profile below corresponds to the activation energy for the forward reaction?

A) x B) y C) x + y D) x - y E) y - x Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 14.9 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 14.5

26) In the energy profile of a reaction, the species that exists at the maximum on the curve is called the ________. A) product B) activated complex C) activation energy D) enthalpy of reaction E) atomic state Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 27) In the Arrhenius equation, k = Ae-Ea/RT ________ is the frequency factor. A) k B) A C) e D) Ea E) R Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 28) In general, as temperature goes up, reaction rate ________. A) goes up if the reaction is exothermic B) goes up if the reaction is endothermic C) goes up regardless of whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic D) stays the same regardless of whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic E) stays the same if the reaction is first order Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2

29) In general, as activation energy increases, reaction rate ________. A) goes down if the reaction is exothermic B) goes down if the reaction is endothermic C) stays the same regardless of whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic D) goes down regardless of whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 30) The decomposition of [A] in solution at 80 °C proceeds via the following reaction: A (aq) → B (aq) The dependence of the rate constant on temperature is studied and the graph below is prepared from the results.

What is the energy of activation (kJ/mol) for this reaction? A) 1.6 × 105 B) 4.4 × 10-7 C) 160 D) 4.4 × 10-4 E) 1.9 × 104 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G3

31) The mechanism for formation of the product X is: A+B→C+D B+D→X

(slow) (fast)

The intermediate reactant in the reaction is ________. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) X Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2 32) For the elementary reaction NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2 the molecularity of the reaction is ________, and the rate law is A) 2, k[NO3][CO] B) 4, k[NO3][CO][NO2][CO2] C) 2, k[NO2][CO2] D) 2, k[NO3][CO]/[NO2][CO2] E) 4, k[NO2][CO2]/[NO3][CO] Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2

33) A possible mechanism for the overall reaction Br2 (g) + 2NO (g) → 2NOBr (g) is Step 1) NO (g) + Br2 (g) Step 2) NOBr2 (g) + NO (g)

NOBr2 (g) (fast) 2NOBr

(slow)

What is the rate determining step for this reaction? A) step 2 B) reverse of step 1 C) both steps 1 and 2 D) step 1 E) reverse of step 2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2 34) Which of the following is true? A) If we know that a reaction is an elementary reaction, then we know its rate law. B) The rate-determining step of a reaction is the rate of the fastest elementary step of its mechanism. C) Since intermediate compounds can be formed, the chemical equations for the elementary reactions in a multistep mechanism do not always have to add to give the chemical equation of the overall process. D) In a reaction mechanism, an intermediate is identical to an activated complex. E) All of the above statements are true. Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2 35) Of the following, ________ will lower the activation energy for a reaction. A) increasing the concentrations of reactants B) raising the temperature of the reaction C) adding a catalyst for the reaction D) removing products as the reaction proceeds E) increasing the pressure Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2

36) The rate law of the overall reaction A+B→C is rate = k[A]2. Which of the following will not increase the rate of the reaction? A) increasing the concentration of reactant A B) increasing the concentration of reactant B C) increasing the temperature of the reaction D) adding a catalyst for the reaction E) All of these will increase the rate. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 37) A catalyst can ________ the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative pathway with a ________ activation energy A) decrease, higher B) increase, lower C) decrease, lower D) increase, higher E) decrease, constant Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 38) The primary source of the specificity of enzymes is ________. A) their polarity, which matches that of their specific substrate B) their delocalized electron cloud C) their bonded transition metal, which is specific to the target substrate D) their locations within the cell E) their shape, which relates to the lock-and-key model Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2

39) ________ are used in automotive catalytic converters. A) Heterogeneous catalysts B) Homogeneous catalysts C) Enzymes D) Noble gases E) Nonmetal oxides Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 40) The enzyme ________ converts nitrogen into ammonia. A) oxygenase B) hydrogenase C) oxidase D) nitroglycerine E) nitrogenase Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 41) Fe and Mo are transition metals found in the cofactor active site of ________. A) hydrogenase B) nitrogenase C) oxidase D) nitroglycerine E) oxygenase Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 42) Which of the following statements describes why nitrogen fixation is a difficult process? A) there is so little nitrogen in the atmosphere B) nitrogen is very unreactive, largely due to its triple bond C) nitrogen exists in the atmosphere primarily as its oxides which are very unreactive D) of the high polarity of nitrogen molecules preventing them from dissolving in biological fluids, such as those inside cells E) of the extreme toxicity of nitrogen Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2

14.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Consider the following reaction: 3A → 2B The average rate of appearance of B is given by Δ[B]/Δt. Comparing the rate of appearance of B and the rate of disappearance of A, we get A) -2/3 B) +2/3 C) -3/2 D) +1 E) +3/2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2 2) Which substance in the reaction below either appears or disappears the fastest? 4NH3 + 7O2 → 4NO2 + 6H2O A) NH3 B) O2 C) NO2 D) H2O E) The rates of appearance/disappearance are the same for all of these. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2

3) Consider the following reaction: A→B The average rate of appearance of B is given by Δ[B]Δt. Comparing the rate of appearance of B and the rate of disappearance of A, we get Δ[B]/Δt = A) +1 B) +2 C) -1 D) +1/2 E) -1/2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2 A flask is charged with 0.124 mol of A and allowed to react to form B according to the reaction A(g) →B(g). The following data are obtained for [A] as the reaction proceeds:

4) The average rate of disappearance of A between 10 s and 20 s is ________ mol/s. A) 2.2 × 10-3 B) 1.1 × 10-3 C) 4.4 × 10-3 D) 454 E) 9.90 × 10-3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3 5) The average rate of disappearance of A between 20 s and 40 s is ________ mol/s. A) 8.5 × 10-4 B) 1.7 × 10-3 C) 590 D) 7.1 × 10-3 E) 1.4 × 10-3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4

6) The average rate of appearance of B between 20 s and 30 s is ________ mol/s. A) +1.5 × 10-3 B) +5.0 × 10-4 C) -1.5 × 10-3 D) +7.3 × 10-3 E) -7.3 × 10-3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 7) The average rate disappearance of A between 20 s and 30 s is ________ mol/s. A) 5.0 × 10-4 B) 1.6 × 10-2 C) 1.5 × 10-3 D) 670 E) 0.15 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 8) How many moles of B are present at 40. s? A) 0.18 B) 0.070 C) 0.124 D) 0.054 E) 7.8 × 10-3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 9) How many moles of B are present at 30 s? A) 2.4 × 10-3 B) 0.15 C) 0.073 D) 1.7 × 10-3 E) 0.051 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4

The peroxydisulfate ion (S2O82-) reacts with the iodide ion in aqueous solution via the reaction: S2O82- (aq) + 3I- → 2SO42- (aq) + I3- (aq) An aqueous solution containing 0.050 M of S2O82- ion and 0.072 M of I- is prepared, and the progress of the reaction followed by measuring [I-]. The data obtained is given in the table below.

10) The average rate of disappearance of I- between 400.0 s and 800.0 s is ________ M/s. A) 2.8 × 10-5 B) 1.4 × 10-5 C) 5.8 × 10-5 D) 3.6 × 104 E) 2.6 × 10-4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3 11) What is the average rate of disappearance (M/s) of I- in the initial 800.0 s? A) 2.8 B) 2.8 × 10-5 C) 3.3 × 10-5 D) 2.6 × 10-2 E) 3.1 × 104 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3 12) What is the average rate of disappearance (M/s) of I- between 800.0 s and 1200.0 s? A) 2.8 × 10-5 B) 3.3 × 10-5 C) 5.8 × 104 D) 2.3 × 10-5 E) 2.6 × 10-4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3 21

13) What is the concentration (M) of S2O82- remaining at 1200 s? A) +0.035 B) +0.038 C) -0.038 D) +0.012 E) -0.012 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3 14) The concentration of S2O82- remaining at 800 s is ________ M. A) 0.046 B) 0.076 C) 4.00 × 10-3 D) 0.015 E) 0.041 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3 15) What is the concentration (M) of S2O82- remaining at T=0? A) 0.072 B) 0.022 C) 0.15 D) 0.050 E) no S2O82- is remaining at T=0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G3

16) At elevated temperatures, dinitrogen pentoxide decomposes to nitrogen dioxide and oxygen: 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) When the rate of formation of NO2 is 5.5 × 10-4 M/s, the rate of decomposition of N2O5 is ________ M/s. A) 2.2 × 10-3 B) 1.4 × 10-4 C) 10.1 × 10-4 D) 2.8 × 10-4 E) 5.5 × 10-4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 17) At elevated temperatures, methylisonitrile (CH3NC) isomerizes to acetonitrile (CH3CN): CH3NC (g) → CH3CN (g) At the start of the experiment, there are 0.200 mol of reactant (CH3NC) and 0 mol of product (CH3CN) in the reaction vessel. After 25 min of reaction, 0.108 mol of reactant (CH3NC) remain. The average rate of decomposition of methyl isonitrile, CH3NC, in this 25 min period is ________ mol/min. A) 3.7 × 10-3 B) 0.092 C) 2.3 D) 4.3 × 10-3 E) 0.54 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 18) A reaction was found to be second order in carbon monoxide concentration. The rate of the reaction ________ if the [CO] is doubled, with everything else kept the same. A) doubles B) remains unchanged C) triples D) increases by a factor of 4 E) is reduced by a factor of 2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 23

19) If the rate law for the reaction 2A + 3B → products is first order in A and second order in B, then the rate law is A) k[A][B] B) k[A]2[B]3 C) k[A][B]2 D) k[A]2[B] E) k[A]2[B]2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 20) If the rate law for the reaction A + 3B → C + 2D is zero order in A and first order in B, then the rate law is A) k[A] B) k[A][B]3 C) k[B] D) k[A][B] E) k[A]/[B]3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 21) The overall order of a reaction is 1. The units of the rate constant for the reaction are ________. A) M/s B) M-1s-1 C) 1/s D) 1/M E) s/M2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2

22) The overall order of a reaction is 2. The units of the rate constant for the reaction are ________. A) M/s B) M-1s-1 C) 1/s D) 1/M E) s/M2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 23) It was determined experimentally that the reaction rate doubled when the concentration of B was doubled in the following reaction: A+B→C The reaction is ________ order in B. A) zero B) first C) second D) third E) one-half Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 24) It was determined experimentally that the reaction rate remained the same when the concentration of A was doubled in the following reaction: A+B→C The reaction is ________ order in A. A) zero B) first C) second D) third E) one-half Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2

25) A reaction was found to be third order in A. Increasing the concentration of A by a factor of 3 will cause the reaction rate to ________. A) remain constant B) increase by a factor of 27 C) increase by a factor of 9 D) triple E) decrease by a factor of the cube root of 3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G4 26) A reaction was found to be zero order in A. Increasing the concentration of A by a factor of 3 will cause the reaction rate to ________. A) remain constant B) increase by a factor of 27 C) increase by a factor of 9 D) triple E) decrease by a factor of the cube root of 3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G4 The data in the table below were obtained for the reaction: A+B→C

27) What is the order of the reaction in A? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G3

28) What is the order of the reaction in B? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G3 29) What is the overall order of the reaction? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G3 30) The following reaction occurs in aqueous solution: NH4+ (aq) + NO2- (aq) → N2 (g) + 2H2O (l) The data below is obtained at 25 °C.

The order of the reaction in NH4+ is ________. A) -2 B) -1 C) +2 D) +1 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.4 GO: G3

31) For a zero-order reaction, a plot of ________ versus ________ is linear. A) ln [A]t, B) [A]t, t C) ln [A]t, t D)

E) t, Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 14.5 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 14.4

32) The half-life of a first-order reaction is 13 min. If the initial concentration of reactant is it takes for it to decrease to 0.055 M. A) 8.2 B) 11 C) 3.6 D) 0.048 E) 8.4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4 33) The half-life of a first-order reaction is 13 min. If the initial concentration of reactant is it takes for it to decrease to 0.085 M. A) 12 B) 10. C) 8.0 D) 11 E) 7.0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4

34) The graph shown below depicts the relationship between concentration and time for the following chemical reaction.

The slope of this line is equal to ________. A) k B) -1/k C) ln [A]o D) -k E) 1/k Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G3 35) The reaction below is first order in [H2O2]: 2H2O2 (l) → 2H2O (l) + O2 (g) A solution originally at 0.600 M H2O2 is found to be 0.075 M after 54 min. The half-life for this reaction is ________ min. A) 6.8 B) 18 C) 14 D) 28 E) 54 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4

36) A second-order reaction has a half-life of 18 s when the initial concentration of reactant is 0.71 M. The rate constant for this reaction is ________ M-1s-1. A) 7.8 × 10-2 B) 3.8 × 10-2 C) 2.0 × 10-2 D) 1.3 E) 18 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 37) A second-order reaction has a half-life of 12 s when the initial concentration of reactant is 0.98 M. The rate constant for this reaction is ________ M-1s-1. A) 12 B) 2.0 × 10-2 C) 8.5 × 10-2 D) 4.3 × 10-2 E) 4.3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

14.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Of the following, only ________ is a valid unit for reaction rate. A) M/s B) mol/g C) mmol/mL D) g/L E) atm/g Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.1 LO: 14.1 GO: G4 2) The overall reaction below is ________ and the elementary reaction is considered ________. AB → A + B A) unimolecular, rare B) bimolecular, common C) unimolecular, common D) termolecular, rare E) bimolecular, rare Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 14.1 LO: 14.1 GO: G4 3) Of the units below, ________ are appropriate for a third-order reaction rate constant. A) M-2s-1 B) M s-1 C) s-1 D) M-1s-1 E) mol/L Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2

4) The rate law for a reaction is rate = k[A][B] Which one of the following statements is false? A) The reaction is first order overall. B) The reaction is first order in [A]. C) The reaction is first order in [B]. D) k is the reaction rate constant E) If [A] is doubled, the reaction rate will increase by a factor of 2. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 5) Nitrogen dioxide decomposes to nitric oxide and oxygen via the reaction: 2NO2 → 2NO + O2 In a particular experiment at 300 °C, [N ] drops from 0.0143 to 0.00701 M in 261 s. The rate of disappearance of NO2 for this period is ________ M/s. A) 2.79 × 10-5 B) -8.16 × 10-5 C) 5.59 × 10-5 D) 1.40 × 10-5 E) 35,800 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4

6) At elevated temperatures, dinitrogen pentoxide decomposes to nitrogen dioxide and oxygen: 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) When the rate of formation of O2 is 3.6 × 10-3 M/s, the rate of decomposition of N2O5 is A) 4.4 × 10-4 B) 3.6 × 10-3 C) 1.8 × 10-3 D) 1.4 × 10-2 E) 0.00090 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ LO: 14.6 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 14.2

7) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2HBr (g) → H2 (g) + Br2 (g) is 0.190 M at 150 °C. The rate of appearance of Br2 is ________ M A) 2.63 B) 0.095 C) 0.0361 D) 0.380 E) 0.436 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 8) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2HBr (g) → H2 (g) + Br2 (g) is 0.140 M at 150 °C. The rate of reaction is ________ M A) 3.57 B) 0.0700 C) 0.0196 D) 0.280 E) 0.0860 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 33

9) During the combustion of ethylene gas, C2H4, carbon dioxide is produced and the rate of disappearance of O2 is 0.13 M . What is the rate of appearance (M ) of CO2? A) 0.043 B) 0.39 C) 0.087 D) 0.20 E) 0.26 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 10) The combustion of ethylene proceeds by the reaction C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g) When the rate of disappearance of O2 is 0.13 M ________ A) 0.087 B) 0.043 C) 0.39 D) 0.20 E) 0.26 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4

, the rate of disappearance of C2H4 is

11) Nitrogen dioxide decomposes to nitric oxide and oxygen via the reaction: 2NO2 (g) → 2NO (g) + O2 (g) In a particular experiment at 300 °C, [NO2] drops from 0.0100 to 0.00800 M in appearance of O2 for this period is ________ M/s. A) 1.0 × B) 2.0 × C) 4.0 × D) 2.0 × E) 4.0 × Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4

The rate of

12) At elevated temperatures, methylisonitrile (CH3NC) isomerizes to acetonitrile (CH3CN): CH3NC (g) → CH3CN (g) At the start of an experiment, there are 0.200 mol of reactant and 0 mol of product in the reaction vessel. After 25 min, 0.121 mol of reactant (CH3NC) remain. There are ________ mol of product (CH3CN) in the reaction vessel. A) 0.022 B) 0.121 C) 0.200 D) 0.321 E) 0.079 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 14.2 LO: 14.6 GO: G4 13) A compound decomposes by a first-order process. If 13% of the compound decomposes in 60 minutes, the half-life of the compound is ________ min. A) 299 B) 20 C) 12 D) -18 E) -5 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 31 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4 14) What value is represented by the y-intercept of the line drawn from plotting [A] vs. time in a linear graphical representation of a zero-order reaction? A) ln[A]0 B) 1/[A]0 C) [A]0 D) [A]02 E) [A]/k Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G2

15) The rate constant for a particular zero-order reaction is If the initial concentration of reactant is it takes ________ s for the concentration to decrease to A) 5.8 B) -5.8 C) -0.047 D) 7.2 E) 0.040 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 16) The reaction A → B is first order in [A]. Consider the following data.

The rate constant for this reaction is ________ A) 0.14 B) 0.030 C) 0.013 D) 3.0 E) 3.1 × Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.8 GO: G4

17) The reaction A → B is first order in [A]. Consider the following data.

What is the half-life, in seconds, of this reaction? A) 5.0 B) 0.97 C) 7.1 D) 3.0 E) 0.14 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.8 GO: G4 36

18) What is the rate constant ( ) of a first-order process that has a half-life of 550 s? A) 3.81 × 102 B) 7.94 × 102 C) -9.09 × 10-4 D) 1.26 × 10-3 E) 1.82 × 10-3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4 19) The following reaction is second order in [A] and the rate constant is A→B What is the initial concentration (M) of A if at 28 s the concentration of A was 0.26 M? A) 2.8 B) -1.2 C) 0.36 D) -1.5 E) -0.83 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 20) What is the half-life of an unknown compound if 17.0% of the compound decomposes in 150 minutes via a first-order process? A) 59 minutes B) 40 minutes C) 1116 minutes D) 279 minutes E) 558 minutes Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4

21) The isomerization of methylisonitrile to acetonitrile CH3NC (g) → CH3CN (g) is first order in NC. The rate constant for the reaction is 9.45 × 10-5 at 478 K. The of the reaction when the initial [ NC] is 0.030 M is ________ s. A) 1.06 × 104 B) 5.29 × 103 C) 3.53 × 105 D) 7.33 × 103 E) 1.36 × 10-4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4 22) The elementary reaction 2NO2 (g) → 2NO (g) + O2 (g) is second order in temperature when A) 2.4 B) 7.6 C) 0.19 D) 0.13 E) 0.42 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 10 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

and the rate constant at 660 K is 5.23 = 0.45 M is ________ s.

Page Ref: Sec. 14.4

. The reaction half-life at this

23) The isomerization of methylisonitrile to acetonitrile CH3NC (g) → CH3CN (g) is first order in NC. The half-life of the reaction is 2.70 × 104 s at 463 K. The rate constant is ________ when the initial [ NC] is 0.030 M. A) 3.90 × 104 B) 1.23 × 10-3 C) 2.57 × 10-5 D) 8.10 × 102 E) 1.25 × 107 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G4 24) The decomposition of

in solution in carbon tetrachloride proceeds via the reaction

2N2O5 (soln) → 4NO2 (soln) + O2 (soln) The reaction is first order and has a rate constant of 4.82 × at 64 °C. If the reaction is initiated with 0.072 mol in a 1.00-L vessel, how many moles remain after 151 s? A) 0.067 B) 0.074 C) 0.035 D) 9.6 E) 1.6 × Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

25)

decomposes in the gas phase by the reaction SO2Cl2 (g) → SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)

The reaction is first order in SO2Cl2 and the rate constant is 3.0 × at 600 K. A vessel is charged with 3.6 atm of SO2Cl2 at 600 K. The partial pressure of SO2Cl2 at is ________ atm. A) 0.85 B) 3.2 C) 1.5 D) 0.19 E) 9.3 × 104 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 26) The rate constant for a particular second-order reaction is 0.47 . If the initial concentration of reactant is it takes ________ s for the concentration to decrease to A) 2.1 B) 1.4 C) 1.0 D) 0.47 E) 0.20 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 14.4

27) The reaction 2NOBr (g) → 2 NO (g) + Br2 (g) is a second-order reaction with a rate constant of 0.80 M-1s-1 at 11 °C. If the initial concentration of NOBr is 0.0440 M, the concentration of NOBr after 6.0 seconds is ________. A) 0.0276 M B) 0.0324 M C) 0.0363 M D) 0.0348 M E) 0.0402 M Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 40

28) A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 0.33 . It takes ________ min for the reactant concentration to decrease from 0.13 M to 0.066 M. A) 0.085 B) 0.13 C) 0.89 D) 2.4 E) 2.1 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 29) The initial concentration of reactant in a first-order reaction is 0.27 M and has a rate constant of What is the concentration (mol/L) of reactant after A) 0.99 B) 1.7 C) 0.074 D) 0.15 E) 0.47 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 30) The rate constant for a second-order reaction is 0.13 . If the initial concentration of reactant is it takes ________ s for the concentration to decrease to A) 0.017 B) 1.4 C) 14 D) 80. E) 10. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4

31) At elevated temperatures, nitrogen dioxide decomposes to nitrogen oxide and oxygen: NO2 (g) → NO (g) + O2 (g) The reaction is second order in NO2 with a rate constant of 0.543 M-1s-1at [NO2] is it will take ________ s for the concentration to drop to A) 3.34 B) 0.0880 C) 2.29 D) 0.299 E) 17.5 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G4 32) A particular first-order reaction has a rate constant of 1.35 × magnitude of k at A) 1.92 × 103 B) 1.95 × 104 C) 358 D) 3.48 × 1073 E) 1.35 × Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G4 33) What is the magnitude of k for a first-order reaction at 75.0 °C if constant is 1.35 × at 25.0 °C? A) 3.36 × 104 B) 3.85 × C) 745 D) 4.28 × E) 1.36 × Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G4

If the initial

at 25.0 °C. What is the

and rate

14.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Define Beer's Law. Answer: the direct relationship of absorbed light to the concentration of the substance absorbing the light Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2 2) Write the rate law for the reaction: aA → bB + cC. Answer: rate = k[A]m Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 3) If a rate law is first order (reactant), doubling the reactant ________ the reaction rate. Answer: doubles Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 4) The Earth's ozone layer is located in the ________. Answer: stratosphere Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G2 5) According to the collision model, reaction rates are affected by reactant ________ and ________. Answer: concentration, temperature Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 6) Define activation energy. Answer: the minimum energy required to initiate a chemical reaction Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 7) The rate of a chemical reaction should ________ as the temperature rises. Answer: increase Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.5 LO: 14.9 GO: G2 43

8) The rate-determining step is the ________ elementary step. Answer: slowest Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2 9) A unimolecular elementary reaction involves ________ reactant molecule(s). Answer: one Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2 10) Define a homogeneous catalyst. Answer: a catalyst that is present in the same phase as the reacting molecules Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 11) Define a heterogeneous catalyst. Answer: a catalyst present in a different phase from the reacting molecules Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 12) Biological catalysts are referred to as ________. Answer: enzymes Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2 13) A ________ is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without itself being consumed in the reaction. Answer: catalyst Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2

14.5 True/False Questions Questions 1) Rates of reaction can be positive or negative. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2 2) The instantaneous rate of a reaction can be read directly from the graph of molarity versus time at any point on the graph. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.2 LO: 14.2 GO: G2 3) The overall reaction order is the sum of the orders of each reactant in the rate law. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 4) Units of the rate constant of a reaction are independent of the overall reaction order. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 5) The concentration of reactants or products at any time during the reaction can be calculated from the integrated rate law. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.3 LO: 14.3 GO: G2 6) The rate of a second order reaction can depend on the concentrations of more than one reactant. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.4 LO: 14.5 GO: G2 7) The half-life for a first order rate law depends on the starting concentration. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.4 LO: 14.7 GO: G2 45

8) The rate limiting step in a reaction is the slowest step in the reaction sequence. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 14.6 LO: 14.10 GO: G2 9) Heterogeneous catalysts have different phases from reactants. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 14.7 LO: 14.11 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 15 Chemical Equilibrium 15.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) At equilibrium, ________. A) all chemical reactions have ceased B) the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal C) the rate constants of the forward and reverse reactions are equal D) the value of the equilibrium constant is 1 E) the limiting reagent has been consumed Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.1 LO: 15.1 GO: G2 2) What role did Karl Bosch play in development of the Haber-Bosch process? A) He discovered the reaction conditions necessary for formation of ammonia. B) He originally isolated ammonia from camel dung and found a method for purifying it. C) Haber was working in his lab with his instructor at the time he worked out the process. D) He developed the equipment necessary for industrial production of ammonia. E) He was the German industrialist who financed the research done by Haber. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 3) Fritz Haber was awarded the ________ Nobel Prize in chemistry for his development of a process for synthesizing ammonia directly from nitrogen and hydrogen. A) 1954 B) 1918 C) 1933 D) 1900 E) 1912 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2

4) Which one of the following is true concerning the Haber process? A) It is a process used for shifting equilibrium positions to the right for more economical chemical synthesis of a variety of substances. B) It is a process used for the synthesis of ammonia. C) It is another way of stating Le Châtelier's principle. D) It is an industrial synthesis of sodium chloride that was discovered by Karl Haber. E) It is a process for the synthesis of elemental chlorine. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 5) Which one of the following will change the value of an equilibrium constant? A) changing temperature B) adding other substances that do not react with any of the species involved in the equilibrium C) varying the initial concentrations of reactants D) varying the initial concentrations of products E) changing the volume of the reaction vessel Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 6) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the equilibrium between dinitrogen tetroxide and nitrogen dioxide? N2O4 (g)

2NO2 (g)

A) B) C) D) [NO2][N2O4] E) [NO2]2[N2O4] Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2

7) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the following reaction? CO2 (g) + 2H2 (g)

CH3OH (g)

A) B) C) D) E) Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 15.2

8) The equilibrium-constant expression depends on the ________ of the reaction. A) stoichiometry B) mechanism C) stoichiometry and mechanism D) the quantities of reactants and products initially present E) temperature Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2

9) The equilibrium constant for reaction 1 is K. The equilibrium constant for reaction 2 is ________. (1) SO2 (g) + (1/2) O2 (g) SO3 (g) (2) 2SO3 (g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) A) K2 B) 2K C) 1/2K D) 1/K2 E) -K2 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 15.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 15.2

10) The equilibrium expression for Kp for the reaction below is ________. 2O3 (g)

3O2 (g)

A) B) C) D)

E) Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 15.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 15.2

11) The equilibrium expression for Kp for the reaction below is ________. N2 (g) + O2 (g)

2NO (g)

A) B) C) D) E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 12) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 7.52 × 10-2 at 480.0 °C. 2Cl2 (g) + 2H2O (g)

4HCl (g) + O2 (g)

What is the value of Keq at this temperature for the following reaction? 2HCl (g) + O2 (g) A) 13.3 B) 3.65 C) -0.0376 D) 5.66 × 10-3 E) 0.274 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

Cl2 (g) + H2O (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

13) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 5.4 × 1013 at 480.0 °C. 2NO (g) + O2 (g)

2NO2 (g)

What is the value of Keq at this temperature for the following reaction? 2NO2 (g) 2NO (g) + O2 (g) A) 5.4 × 10-13 B) 1.9 × 10-14 C) 5.4 × 1013 D) 5.66 × 10-3 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.5 GO: G4 14) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 50. H2 (g) + I2 (g)

2HI (g)

What is the value of Keq for the following reaction? 2HI (g) A) 100 B) 0.50 C) 0.020 D) 2500 E) -50 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

H2 (g) + I2 (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

15) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 50. H2 (g) + I2 (g)

2HI (g)

What is the value of Keq for the following reaction? H2 (g) + I2 (g) A) 25 B) 2500 C) 7.07 D) 100 E) -50 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

HI (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

16) Given the following reaction at equilibrium, if Kc = 1.90 × 1019 at 25.0 °C, Kp = ________. H2 (g) + Br2 (g)

2 HBr (g)

A) 5.26 × 10-20 B) 1.56 × 104 C) 6.44 × 105 D) 1.90 × 1019 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.3 GO: G4

17) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the reaction below? 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)

2SO3 (g)

A) [SO3] / [SO2][O2] B) [SO2] / [SO3] C) [SO3]2 / [SO2]2[O2] D) [SO3]2 / [SO2]2[O2]2 E) [SO3] / [SO2][O2]2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 18) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the reaction below? (NH4)2Se (s)

2NH3 (g) + H2Se (g)

A) [NH3][H2Se] / [(NH4)2Se] B) [(NH4)2Se] / [NH3]2[H2Se] C) 1 / [(NH4)2Se] D) [NH3]2[H2Se] E) [NH3]2[H2Se] / [(NH4)2Se] Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2

19) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the reaction below? CO2 (s) + H2O (l)

H+ (aq) + HCO3- (aq)

A) [H+][HCO3-] / [CO2] B) [CO2] / [H+][HCO3-] C) [H+][HCO3-] / [CO2][H2O] D) [CO2][H2O] / [H+][HCO3-] E) [H+][HCO3-] Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2 20) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the reaction below? HF (aq) + H2O (l)

H3O+ (aq) + F- (aq)

A) [HF][H2O] / [H3O+][F-] B) 1 / [HF] C) [H3O+][F-] / [HF][H2O] D) [H3O+][F-] / [HF] E) [F-] / [HF] Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2

21) The expression for

for the reaction below is ________.

4CuO (s) + CH4 (g)

CO2 (g) + 4Cu (s) + 2H2O (g)

C) D) E) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

22) The equilibrium-constant expression for the reaction Ti (s) + 2Cl2 (g)

TiCl4 (l)

is given by A) B) C) D) [Cl2 (g)]-2 E) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

23) The equilibrium constant for the gas phase reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)

2NH3 (g)

is Keq = 4.34 × 10-3 at 300 °C. At equilibrium, ________. A) products predominate B) reactants predominate C) roughly equal amounts of products and reactants are present D) only products are present E) only reactants are present Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G4 24) The equilibrium constant for the gas phase reaction 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)

2SO3 (g)

is Keq = 2.80 × 102 at 999 K. At equilibrium, ________. A) products predominate B) reactants predominate C) roughly equal amounts of products and reactants are present D) only products are present E) only reactants are present Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G4 25) The equilibrium constant for the gas phase reaction 2NH3 (g)

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)

is Keq = 230 at 300 °C. At equilibrium, ________. A) products predominate B) reactants predominate C) roughly equal amounts of products and reactants are present D) only products are present E) only reactants are present Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G4

26) The equilibrium constant for the gas phase reaction H2 (g) + I2 (g)

2HI (g)

is Keq = 50 at 25 °C. At equilibrium, ________. A) products predominate B) reactants predominate C) roughly equal amounts of products and reactants are present D) only products are present E) only reactants are present Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G4 27) The equilibrium constant for the gas phase reaction 2SO3 (g)

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)

is Keq = 3.6 × 10-3 at 999 K. At equilibrium, ________. A) products predominate B) reactants predominate C) roughly equal amounts of products and reactants are present D) only products are present E) only reactants are present Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G4 28) At 400 K, the equilibrium constant for the reaction Br2 (g) + Cl2 (g)

2BrCl (g)

is Kp = 7.0. A closed vessel at 400 K is charged with 1.00 atm of Br2 (g), 1.00 atm of Cl2 (g), and 2.00 atm of BrCl (g). Use Q to determine which of the statements below is true. A) The equilibrium partial pressures of Br2, Cl2, and BrCl will be the same as the initial values. B) The equilibrium partial pressure of BrCl (g) will be 4.00 atm. C) The equilibrium partial pressure of Br2 will be greater than 1.00 atm. D) At equilibrium, the total pressure in the vessel will be less than the initial total pressure. E) The reaction will go to completion since there are equal amounts of Br2 and Cl2. Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.8 GO: G4 12

29) Which of the following statements is true? A) Q does not change with temperature. B) Keq does not change with temperature, whereas Q is temperature dependent. C) K does not depend on the concentrations or partial pressures of reaction components. D) Q does not depend on the concentrations or partial pressures of reaction components. E) Q is the same as Keq when a reaction is at equilibrium. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.8 GO: G2 30) How is the reaction quotient used to determine whether a system is at equilibrium? A) The reaction quotient must be satisfied for equilibrium to be achieved. B) At equilibrium, the reaction quotient is undefined. C) The reaction is at equilibrium when Q < Keq. D) The reaction is at equilibrium when Q > Keq. E) The reaction is at equilibrium when Q = Keq. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.8 GO: G2 31) Which reaction will shift to the left in response to a decrease in volume? A) 2HI (g) H2 (g) + I2 (g) B) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2 HCl (g) C) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2 NH3 (g) D) 2 SO3 (g) 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) E) 4 Fe (s) + 3 O2 (g) 2 Fe2O3 (s) Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 32) Which reaction will shift to the right in response to a decrease in volume? A) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) B) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2 HCl (g) C) 2 SO3 (g) 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) D) 2HI (g) H2 (g) + I2 (g) E) 2 Fe2O3 (s) 4 Fe (s) + 3O2 (g) Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

33) Based on Le Châtelier's principle, increasing pressure at constant temperature in the following reaction will not change the concentrations of reactants and products. A) N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) B) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g) C) N2 (g) + 2O2 (g) 2NO2 (g) D) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) E) 2N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2N2O (g) Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 34) In which of the following reactions would increasing pressure at constant temperature change the concentrations of reactants and products, based on Le Châteliers principle? A) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) B) N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) C) N2 (g) + 2O2 (g) 2NO2 (g) D) 2N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2 O (g) E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 35) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2NH3 (g)

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that the moles of in the reaction container will increase with ________. A) some removal of from the reaction vessel (V and T constant) B) a decrease in the total pressure (T constant) C) addition of some to the reaction vessel (V and T constant) D) a decrease in the total volume of the reaction vessel (T constant) E) an increase in total pressure by the addition of helium gas (V and T constant) Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

36) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2CO2 (g)

2CO (g) + O2 (g) ΔH° = -514 kJ

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that a decrease in temperature will ________. A) decrease the partial pressure of O2 (g) B) increase the partial pressure of CO2 (g) C) decrease the value of the equilibrium constant D) increase the value of the equilibrium constant E) decrease the partial pressure of CO Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 37) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium. 2CO2 (g)

2CO (g) + O2 (g) ΔH° = -514 kJ

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that the equilibrium partial pressure of CO (g) can be maximized by carrying out the reaction ________. A) at high temperature and high pressure B) at high temperature and low pressure C) at low temperature and low pressure D) at low temperature and high pressure E) in the presence of solid carbon Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 38) The effect of a catalyst on an equilibrium is to ________. A) increase the rate of the forward reaction only B) increase the equilibrium constant so that products are favored C) slow the reverse reaction only D) increase the rate at which equilibrium is achieved without changing the composition of the equilibrium mixture E) shift the equilibrium to the right Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

15.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The value of Keq for the equilibrium H2 (g) + I2 (g)

2HI (g)

is 794 at 25 °C. What is the value of Keq for the equilibrium below? 1/2 H2 (g) + 1/2 I2 (g) A) 397 B) 0.035 C) 28 D) 1588 E) 0.0013 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

HI (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

2) The value of Keq for the equilibrium H2 (g) + I2 (g)

2HI (g)

is 794 at 25 °C. At this temperature, what is the value of Keq for the equilibrium below? HI (g) A) 1588 B) 28 C) 397 D) 0.035 E) 0.0013 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

1/2 H2 (g) + 1/2 I2 (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

3) The value of Keq for the equilibrium H2 (g) + I2 (g)

2HI (g)

is 54.0 at 427 °C. What is the value of Keq for the equilibrium below? HI (g) A) 27 B) 7.35 C) 0.136 D) 2.92 × 103 E) 3.43 × 10-4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

1/2 H2 (g) + 1/2 I2(g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

4) The value of Keq for the equilibrium CO2 (g) + 2H2 (g)

CH3OH (g)

is 14.5 at 483 °C. What is the value of Keq for the equilibrium below? 1/2 CO2 + H2 (g) A) 7.30 B) 7.35 C) 0.136 D) 3.81 E) 6.90 × 10-2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

1/2 CH3OH (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

5) The value of Keq for the equilibrium N2 (g) + O2 (g)

2 NO (g)

is 4.2 × 10-31 at 27 °C. What is the value of Keq for the equilibrium below? 4 NO (g)

2 N2 (g) + 2 O2 (g)

A) 5.7 × 1060 B) 8.4 × 10-31 C) 4.2 × 1031 D) 8.4 × 1031 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.5 GO: G4 6) Consider the following chemical reaction: CO (g) + 2H2(g)

CH3OH(g)

At equilibrium in a particular experiment, the concentrations of CO and H2 were and respectively. What is the equilibrium concentration of CH3OH? The value of Keq for this reaction is 14.5 at the temperature of the experiment. A) 14.5 B) 7.61 × 10-3 C) 2.82 × 10-1 D) 3.72 × 10-3 E) 1.34 × 10-3 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

7) A reaction vessel is charged with hydrogen iodide, which partially decomposes to molecular hydrogen and iodine: 2HI (g)

H2(g) + I2(g)

When the system comes to equilibrium at 425 °C, PHI = 0.708 atm, and

The value of Kp at this temperature is ________. A) 6.80 × 10-2 B) 1.30 × 10-2 C) 54.3 D) 1.84 × 10-2 E) Kp cannot be calculated for this gas reaction when the volume of the reaction vessel is not given. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4 8) Acetic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into the acetate ion and a proton in aqueous solution: HC2H3O2 (aq)

C2H3O2- (aq) + H+ (aq)

At equilibrium at 25 °C a 0.100 M solution of acetic acid has the following concentrations: and The equilibrium constant, Keq, for the ionization of acetic acid at is ________. A) 5.71 × 104 B) 0.100 C) 1.75 × 10-7 D) 1.79 × 10-5 E) 5.71 × 106 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

9) Dinitrogentetraoxide partially decomposes into nitrogen dioxide. A 1.00-L flask is charged with of N2O4. At equilibrium at 373 K, 0.0055 mol of N2O4 remains. Keq for this reaction is ________. A) 2.2 × 10-4 B) 13 C) 0.22 D) 0.87 E) 0.022 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4 10) In an experiment, 0.42 mol of CO and 0.42 mol of H2 were placed in a 1.00-L reaction vessel to yield CH3OH. At equilibrium, there were 0.29 mol of CO remaining. Keq at the temperature of the experiment is ________. A) 2.80 B) 17.5 C) 0.357 D) 14.5 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4 11) A sealed 1.0 L flask is charged with 0.500 mol of I2 and 0.500 mol of Br2. An equilibrium reaction ensues: I2 (g) + Br2 (g)

2IBr (g)

When the container contents achieve equilibrium, the flask contains 0.84 mol of IBr. The value of is ________. A) 11 B) 4.0 C) 110 D) 6.1 E) 2.8 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

12) The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the interconversion of PCl5 and PCl3 is 0.0121. A vessel is charged with PCl5 giving an initial pressure of 0.123 atm and yields PCl3 and Cl2. At equilibrium, the partial pressure of PCl3 is ________ atm. A) 0.0782 B) 0.0330 C) 0.0908 D) 0.0455 E) 0.123 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.10 GO: G4 13) At 200 °C, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the conversion of NO to oxygen and nitrogen gas is 2.40 × 103. A closed vessel is charged with 36.1 atm of NO. At equilibrium, the partial pressure of O2 is ________ atm. A) 294 B) 6.00 C) 35.7 D) 1.50 × 10-2 E) 17.9 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.10 GO: G4

15.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Which of the following expressions is the correct equilibrium-constant expression for the equilibrium between dinitrogen tetroxide and nitrogen dioxide? 5N2O4(g)

10NO2 (g)

A) [NO2]10/[N2O4]5 B) [N2O4]10/[NO2]5 C) [NO2]5/[N2O4]10 D) [NO2]5/[N2O4]5 E) [N2O4]5/[NO2]5 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 2) Given the following reaction at equilibrium, if Kc = 5.84 x 105 at 230.0 °C, Kp = ________. 2NO (g) + O2 (g) A) 3.67 × 10-2 B) 1.41 × 104 C) 6.44 × 105 D) 2.40 × 106 E) 2.41 × 107 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 10 LO: 15.3 GO: G4

(g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.2

3) Given the following reaction at equilibrium at 450.0 °C: CaCO3 (s)

CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

If pCO2 = 0.0155 atm, Kc = ________. A) 155 B) 0.0821 C) 0.920 D) 2.61 × 10-4 E) 9.20 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.3 GO: G4 22

4) Given the following reaction at equilibrium, if Kp = 1.10 at 250.0 °C, Kc = ________. PCl5 (g) A) 3.90 × 10-6 B) 2.56 × 10-2 C) 1.10 D) 42.9 E) 47.2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 LO: 15.3 GO: G4

PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.2

5) Given the following reaction at equilibrium at 300.0 K: NH4HS (s)

NH3 (g) + H2S (g)

If pNH3 = pH2S = 0.105 atm, Kp = ________. A) .0110 B) 4.99 × 10-4 C) .105 D) .0821 E) 5.66 × 10-3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.3 GO: G4

6) The value of S

(g) + N

The value of 3S

for the following reaction is 0.25: (g)

(g) + NO (g)

at the same temperature for the reaction below is ________. (g) + 3N

A) 1.6 × 10-2 B) 7.5 × 10-1 C) 8.3 × 10-2 D) 6.4 × 101 E) 0.25 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

(g)

(g) + 3NO (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

7) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 7.52 × 10-2 at 480.0 °C. 2Cl2 (g) + 2H2O (g)

4HCl (g) + O2 (g)

What is the value of Keq at this temperature for the following reaction? 8HCl (g) + 2O2 (g) A) 1.77 × 102 B) 5.66 × 10-3 C) 1.50 × 10-1 D) -7.52 × 10-2 E) 7.52 × 10-2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

4Cl2 (g) + 4H2O (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

8) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 5.4 × 1013 at 480.0 °C. 2NO (g) + O2 (g)

2NO2 (g)

What is the value of Keq at this temperature for the following reaction? 4NO (g) + 2O2 (g) A) 2.9 × 1027 B) 8.5 × 1054 C) 3.4 × 10-28 D) -1.1 × 1014 E) 5.4 × 1013 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

4NO2 (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

9) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 0.112 at 700.0 °C. SO2 (g) + O2 (g)

SO3 (g)

What is the value of Keq at this temperature for the following reaction? 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) A) 1.25 × 10-2 B) 2.24 × 10-1 C) 7.97 × 101 D) 4.46 E) 0.112 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

2SO3 (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

10) The value of Keq for the following reaction is 0.26: A (g) + B (g)

C (g) + D (g)

The value of Keq at the same temperature for the reaction below is ________. 2A (g) + 2B (g) A) 0.068 B) 0.52 C) 1.2 D) 0.065 E) 0.26 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 20 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

2C (g) + 2D (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

11) The value of Keq for the following reaction is 0.16: A (g) + B (g)

C (g) + D (g)

The value of Keq at the same temperature for the reaction below is ________. 3C (g) + 3D (g) A) 2.4 × 102 B) 2.1 C) 4.1 × 10-3 D) 5.3 × 10-2 E) 6.3 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 21 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

3A (g) + 3B (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

12) The value of Keq for the following reaction is 0.50: A (g) + 2B (g)

C (g) + 4D (g)

The value of Keq at the same temperature for the reaction below is ________. 1/2A (g) + B (g) A) 7.1 × 10-1 B) 2.5 × 10-1 C) 0.25 D) 1.0 E) 0.50 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 41 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

1/2C (g) + 2D (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

13) The Keq for the equilibrium below is 7.16 × 10-2 at 440.0 °C. 2Cl2 (g) + 2H2O (g)

4HCl (g) + O2 (g)

What is the value of Keq at this temperature for the following reaction? Cl2 (g) + H2O (g) A) 0.0716 B) 5.13 × 10-3 C) 0.268 D) 0.0376 E) 0.150 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 8 LO: 15.5 GO: G4

2HCl (g) + O2 (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 15.3

14) At 1000.0 K, the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2NO (g) + Br2 (g)

2NOBr (g)

is Kp = 0.016. Calculate Kp for the reverse reaction, 2NOBr (g) 2NO (g) + Br2 (g). A) 0.016 B) 1.6 × 10-4 C) 63 D) 0.99 E) 1.1 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.5 GO: G4 15) The expression of Keq for the following reaction will not include ________. A(g) + B(g)

C(l) + D(g)

A) [C] B) [A] C) [B] D) [D] E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2

16) Phosphorous trichloride and phosphorous pentachloride equilibrate in the presence of molecular chlorine according to the reaction: (g) +

(g) →

(g)

An equilibrium mixture at 450 K contains = 0.224 atm, = 0.284 atm, and = 4.24 atm. What is the value of Kp at this temperature? A) 66.7 B) 1.50 × C) 2.70 × 10-1 D) 3.74 E) 8.36 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 15.4

17) Hydrogen and iodine gas react to produce hydrogen iodide gas. What is the value of this reaction if at equilibrium the concentrations of , , and HI were and respectively? A) 23 B) 34 C) 63 D) 0.0090 E) 5.1 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

for

18) Dinitrogen tetroxide partially decomposes according to the following equilibrium: (g) →

(g)

A 1.000-L flask is charged with 9.20 × 10-3 mol of remains. for this reaction is ________. A) 0.183 B) 0.197 C) 0.212 D) 6.94 × E) 2.96 × 10-5 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

. At equilibrium, 5.98 × 10-3 mol of

19) Carbon monoxide and chlorine gas react to produce COCl2 gas. The 1.49 × 108 at 100.0 °C: In an equilibrium mixture of the three gases, atm. The partial pressure of the product, phosgene ( A) 2.51 × 1014 B) 3.98 × 10-15 C) 1.15 × 105 D) 8.83 × 101 E) 1.92 × 1011 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

for the reaction is = = 7.70 × 10-4

), is ________ atm.

20) At 900.0 K, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the following reaction is 0.345. +

(g) →

(g)

At equilibrium, the partial pressure of pressure of is ________ atm. A) 88.8 B) 3.89 × C) 214 D) 5.57 × 10-4 E) 42.4 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

is 36.9 atm and that of

is 16.8 atm. The partial

21) At elevated temperatures, molecular hydrogen and molecular bromine react to partially form hydrogen bromide: H2 (g) + Br2 (g)

2HBr (g)

A mixture of 0.682 mol of H2 and 0.440 mol of Br2 is combined in a reaction vessel with a volume of At equilibrium at 700 K, there are 0.546 mol of H2 present. At equilibrium, there are ________ mol of Br2 present in the reaction vessel. A) 0.000 B) 0.440 C) 0.546 D) 0.136 E) 0.304 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4

22) At 24°C, Kp = 0.080 for the equilibrium: NH4HS (s)

NH3 (g) + H2S (g)

A sample of solid NH4HS is placed in a closed vessel and allowed to equilibrate. Calculate the equilibrium partial pressure (atm) of ammonia, assuming that some solid NH4HS remains. A) 0.28 B) 0.080 C) 0.052 D) 0.0049 E) 3.8 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4 23) In the coal-gasification process, carbon monoxide reacts with water to produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen gas. In an experiment, 0.35 mol of CO and 0.40 mol of H2O were placed in a 1.00-L reaction vessel. At equilibrium, there were 0.22 mol of CO remaining. Keq at the temperature of the experiment is ________. A) 5.5 B) 0.28 C) 0.75 D) 3.5 E) 1.0 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G4 24)

= 0.0198 at 721 K for the reaction 2HI (g)

(g) +

(g)

In a particular experiment, the partial pressures of and at equilibrium are 0.678 and 0.788 atm, respectively. The partial pressure of HI is ________ atm. A) 7.87 B) 27.0 C) 5.19 D) 0.103 E) 0.0106 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.10 GO: G4 32

25) Nitrosyl bromide decomposes according to the following equation. 2NOBr (g)

2NO (g) +

(g)

A sample of NOBr (0.64 mol) was placed in a 1.00-L flask containing no NO or equilibrium the flask contained of NOBr. How many moles of NO and are in the flask at equilibrium? A) 0.48, 0.24 B) 0.48, 0.48 C) 0.16, 0.08 D) 0.16, 0.16 E) 0.24, 0.42 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.10 GO: G4

. At , respectively,

26) The reaction below is exothermic: 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)

2SO3 (g)

Le Châtelier's Principle predicts that ________ will result in an increase in the number of moles of in the reaction container. A) increasing the amount of SO2 B) decreasing the pressure C) increasing the temperature D) removing some oxygen E) increasing the volume of the container Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

27) For the endothermic reaction CaCO3 (s)

CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that ________ will result in an increase in the number of moles of A) increasing the temperature B) decreasing the temperature C) increasing the pressure D) removing some of the CaCO3(s) E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 28) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2N

(g)

(g) + 3

(g) ΔH° = +92.4 kJ

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that removing to the system at equilibrium will result in ________. A) an increase in the concentration of H2 B) a decrease in the concentration of H2 C) removal of all of the H2 D) a lower partial pressure of H2 E) an increase in the value of the equilibrium constant Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

29) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2C

(g)

2CO (g) +

(g) ΔH° = -514 kJ

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that removing (g) to the reaction container will ________. A) increase the partial pressure of CO B) decrease the partial pressure of CO C) increase the partial pressure of CO2 D) increase the value of the equilibrium constant E) decrease the value of the equilibrium constant Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 30) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: C (s) + H2O (g)

CO (g) + H2 (g)

Which of the following conditions will decrease the partial pressure of CO? A) decreasing the volume of the reaction vessel B) increasing the volume of the reaction vessel C) decreasing the amount of carbon in the system D) decreasing the pressure of the reaction vessel E) adding a catalyst to the reaction system Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 31) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: 2S

(g) +

(g)

(g) ΔH° = -99 kJ

Le Châtelier's principle predicts that a(n) increase in temperature will result in ________. A) an increase in the partial pressure of O2 B) a decrease in the partial pressure of O2 C) a decrease in the partial pressure of SO2 D) a(n) increase in E) no changes in equilibrium partial pressures Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 35

15.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The equilibrium-constant expressed as 1/Keq is for a reaction written in the ________ direction. Answer: reverse Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G2 2) If Reaction A + Reaction B = Reaction C, then Kc for Reaction C is ________. Answer: Kc Reaction A × Kc Reaction B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G2 3) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much less than 1, then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly ________. Answer: reactants Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.4 GO: G2 4) Pure solids and pure ________ are excluded from equilibrium-constant expressions. Answer: liquids Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.3 LO: 15.2, 15.6 GO: G2 5) Exactly 1.75 moles of N2O4 is placed in an empty 1.0-L container. After a period of time, equilibrium is reached and described by the equation below: N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g) If at equilibrium the N2O4 is 25% dissociated, what is the value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction? Answer: 0.58 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.7 GO: G2 6) Define the reaction quotient. Answer: The number obtained by substituting starting reactant and product concentrations into an equilibrium-constant expression. Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.8 GO: G2 36

7) If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is greater than the value of the equilibrium constant K for that reaction at a given temperature, ________ must be converted to ________ for the system to reach equilibrium. Answer: products, reactants Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.8 GO: G2 8) If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is equal to the value of the equilibrium constant K for that reaction at a given temperature, then the reaction is at ________. Answer: equilibrium Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.4 LO: 15.8 GO: G2 9) If a reaction is exothermic, ________ the reaction temperature results in an increase in K. Answer: decreasing Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 10) If a reaction is endothermic, ________ the reaction temperature results in an decrease in K. Answer: decreasing Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 15.5 True/False Questions 1) The relationship between the concentrations of reactants and products of a system at equilibrium is given by the law of energy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.2 LO: 15.2 GO: G2 2) The effect of a catalyst on a chemical reaction is to speed up the rate of the reaction in the forward direction by lowering the activation energy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

3) Le Châtelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, then more reactants are produced. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 4) In an exothermic equilibrium reaction, decreasing the reaction temperature favors the formation of reactants. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2 5) Le Châtelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, then more products are produced. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 15.5 LO: 15.11 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 16 Acid-Base Equilibria 16.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) According to the Arrhenius concept, an acid is a substance that ________. A) is capable of donating one or more H+ B) causes an increase in the concentration of H+ in aqueous solutions C) can accept a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent bond D) reacts with the solvent to form the cation formed by autoionization of that solvent E) tastes bitter Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.1 GO: G2 2) A Br∅nsted-Lowry base is defined as a substance that ________. A) increases [H+] when placed in H2O B) decreases [H+] when placed in H2O C) increases [OH-] when placed in H2O D) acts as a proton acceptor E) acts as a proton donor Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 3) A Br∅nsted-Lowry acid is defined as a substance that ________. A) increases Ka when placed in H2O B) decreases [H+] when placed in H2O C) increases [OH-] when placed in H2O D) acts as a proton acceptor E) acts as a proton donor Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2

4) Which one of the following is a Br∅nsted-Lowry acid? A) (CH3)3NH+ B) CH3COOH C) HF D) HNO2 E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 5) A substance that is capable of acting as both an acid and as a base is ________. A) autosomal B) conjugated C) amphiprotic D) saturated E) miscible Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 6) Which one of the following is a Br∅nsted-Lowry base? A) (CH3)3N B) CH3COOH C) HF D) HNO2 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 7) The molar concentration of hydronium ion in pure water at 25 °C is ________. A) 0.00 B) 1.0 × 10-7 C) 1.0 × 10-14 D) 1.00 E) 7.00 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.2 LO: 16.3 GO: G2

8) The molar concentration of hydroxide ion in pure water at 25 °C is ________. A) 1.00 B) 0.00 C) 1.0 × 10-14 D) 1.0 × 10-7 E) 7.00 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.2 LO: 16.3 GO: G2 9) The magnitude of Kw indicates that ________. A) water autoionizes very slowly B) water autoionizes very quickly C) water autoionizes only to a very small extent D) the autoionization of water is exothermic Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.2 LO: 16.3 GO: G2 10) Which one of the following statements regarding Kw is false? A) pKw is 14.00 at 25 °C. B) The value of Kw is always 1.0 × 10-14. C) Kw changes with temperature. D) The value of Kw shows that water is a weak acid. E) Kw is known as the ion product of water. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.2 LO: 16.3 GO: G2 11) The hydride ion, , is a stronger base than the hydroxide ion, O reaction of hydride ion with water is/are ________. A) H3O+ (aq) B) OH- (aq) + H2 (g) C) OH- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) D) no reaction occurs E) H2O2 (aq) Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G2

. The product(s) of the

12) Of the following acids, ________ is a strong acid. A) HNO2 B) H2CO3 C) HNO3 D) HClO E) HF Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4, 16.5 LO: 16.5, 16.6 GO: G2 13) Of the following acids, ________ is not a strong acid. A) HNO2 B) H2SO4 C) HNO3 D) HClO4 E) HCl Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 14) Of the following, ________ is a weak acid. A) HF B) HCl C) HBr D) HNO3 E) HClO4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 15) Which one of the following is the weakest acid? A) HF (Ka = 6.8 × 10-4) B) HClO (Ka = 3.0 × 10-8) C) HNO2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10-4) D) HCN (Ka = 4.9 × 10-10) E) Acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 4

16) Of the acids in the table below, ________ is the strongest acid.

A) HOAc B) HCHO2 C) HClO D) HF E) HOAc and HCHO2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 17) The Ka of hypochlorous acid (HClO) is 3.0 × 10-8 at . What is the percent ionization of hypochlorous acid in a aqueous solution of HClO at A) 4.5 × 10-8 B) 14 C) 2.1 × 10-5 D) 0.14 E) 1.4 × 10-3 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 18) Classify the following compounds as weak acids (W) or strong acids (S): benzoic acid A) W W W B) S S S C) S W W D) W S S E) W S W Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

nitric acid

acetic acid

Page Ref: Sec. 16.5

19) Classify the following compounds as weak acids (W) or strong acids (S): hydrocyanic acid A) S W W B) S S S C) W W S D) W S S E) W S W Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

hydrofluoric acid

hydrobromic acid

Page Ref: Sec. 16.5

20) Classify the following compounds as weak acids (W) or strong acids (S): hydrobromic acid A) W W W B) S S S C) S W W D) W S S E) S S W Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

hydrochloric acid

hydrofluoric acid

Page Ref: Sec. 16.5

21) Classify the following compounds as weak acids (W) or strong acids (S): nitric acid A) W W W B) W S S C) S S S D) S W W E) W S W Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

perchloric acid

chloric acid

Page Ref: Sec. 16.5

22) Ammonia is a ________. A) weak acid B) strong base C) weak base D) strong acid E) salt Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 23) HA is a weak acid. Which equilibrium corresponds to the equilibrium constant Kb for A-? A) HA (aq) + H2O (l) H2A+ (aq) + OH-(aq) B) A- (aq) + H3O+ (aq) HA (aq) + H2O (l) C) HA (aq) + OH- (aq) H2O (l) + H+ (aq) D) A- (aq) + H2O (l) HA (aq) + OH- (aq) E) A- (aq) + OH- (aq) HOA2- (aq) Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 24) A- is a weak base. Which equilibrium corresponds to the equilibrium constant Ka for HA? A) HA (aq) + H2O (l) H2A+ (aq) + OH- (aq) B) A- (aq) + H3O+ (aq) HA (aq) + H2O (l) C) HA (aq) + H2O (l) H3O+ (aq) + A- (aq) D) A- (aq) + H2O (l) HA (aq) + OH- (aq) E) A- (aq) + OH- (aq) HOA2- (aq) Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

25) Classify the following compounds as weak bases (W) or strong bases (S): ammonia A) S S S B) S W W C) W W W D) W S S E) W S W Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

fluoride ion

sodium ion

Page Ref: Sec. 16.6

26) Classify the following compounds as weak bases (W) or strong bases (S): methylamine A) S S S B) S W W C) W S S D) W W W E) W S W Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

carbonate ion

potassium ion

Page Ref: Sec. 16.6

27) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate bases below is the strongest base?

A) OAcB) C7H5O2C) NO2D) E) OAc- and C7H5 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2 8

28) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate bases below is the weakest base?

A) OAcB) C7H5O2C) NO2D) E) OAc- and C7H5O2Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2 29) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate bases below is the weakest base?

A) OAcB) CHO2C) ClOD) FE) OAc- and CHO2Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2

30) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate bases below is the weakest base?

A) OAcB) CHO2C) ClOD) FE) OAc- and CHO2Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2 31) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate acids below is the strongest acid?

A) HClO B) HCO3C) H2S D) NH3CH3+ E) H2S and HClO Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2

32) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate acids below is the strongest acid?

A) HClO B) HCO3C) H2S D) NH3CH3+ E) H2S and HClO Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2 33) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate acids below is the weakest acid?

A) NH4+ B) C5H5NH+ C) H3NOH+ D) NH3CH3+ E) NH4+ and NH3CH3+ Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2

34) Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate acids below is the weakest acid?

A) NH4+ B) C5H5NH+ C) NH3CH2CH3+ D) H3NOH+ E) NH4+ and NH3CH3+ Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G2 35) Which of the following ions will act as a weak base in water? A) OHB) ClC) NO3D) ClOE) None of the above will act as a weak base in water. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 36) Which of the following ions will act as a strong base in water? A) HSB) FC) NO2D) ClOE) None of the above will act as a strong base in water. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2

37) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest [OH-]? A) a solution with a pH of 3.0 B) a 1 × 10-4 M solution of HN C) a solution with a pOH of 12.0 D) pure water E) a 1 × 10-3 M solution of N Cl Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 38) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the lowest [OH-]? A) a solution with a pH of 3.0 B) a 1 × 10-4 M solution of HN C) a solution with a pOH of 12.0 D) pure water E) a 1 × 10-3 M solution of N Cl Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 39) An aqueous solution of a particular compound has pH = 7.46. The compound is ________. A) a weak base B) a weak acid C) a strong acid D) a strong base E) a salt Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2

40) Of the following substances, an aqueous solution of ________ will form basic solutions. NaHS

Cu(NO3)2 KHCO3

NaF

A) NaHS, Cu(NO3)2 B) KHCO3, NaHS C) NaF only D) NaF, KHCO3 E) NaHS, KHCO3 and NaF Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 41) Of the following substances, an aqueous solution of ________ will form basic solutions. NH4Br

Pb(NO3)2

K2CO3

NaF

A) NH4Br, Pb(NO3)2 B) K2CO3, NH4Br C) NaF only D) NaF, K2CO3 E) NH4Br only Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 42) Of the compounds below, a 0.1 M aqueous solution of ________ will have the highest pH. A) KCN, Ka of HCN = 4.0 × 10-10 B) NH4NO3, Kb of NH3 = 1.8 × 10-5 C) NaOAc, Ka of HOAc = 1.8 × 10-5 D) NaClO, Ka of HClO = 3.2 × 10-8 E) NaHS, Kb of HS- = 1.8 × 10-7 Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2

43) A 0.5 M solution of ________ has a pH of 7.0. A) K2S B) KF C) KNO3 D) NH4Br E) NaF Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 44) Which of the following acids will be the strongest? A) H2SO4 B) HSO4C) H2SO3 D) H2SeO4 E) HSO3Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.12 GO: G2 45) Of the following, which is the strongest acid? A) HClO B) HClO3 C) HClO2 D) HClO4 E) HIO Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.12 GO: G2

46) In the gas phase reaction below, NH3 is acting as a(n) ________.

A) Br∅nsted-Lowry acid B) Br∅nsted-Lowry base C) Lewis base D) Lewis acid E) Arrhenius acid Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.13 GO: G2 16.2 Bimodal Questions 1) What is the conjugate acid of NH2-? A) NH2+ B) NH3+ C) NH4+ D) NH3 E) NH4OH Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 2) What is the conjugate acid of HCO3-? A) CO22B) H2CO3 C) HCO22D) CO32E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2

3) The conjugate acid of SO42- is ________. A) OHB) H2SO4 C) HSO4D) HSO42E) H3SO4+ Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 4) The conjugate base of HPO42- is ________. A) PO43B) H2PO4 C) H3PO4 D) H2PO4E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 5) The conjugate base of HSO4- is ________. A) H2SO4 B) HSO4+ C) H+ D) SO42E) HSO3+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2

6) The conjugate base of CH3NH3+ is ________. A) CH3NH2+ B) CH3NH2C) CH3NH+ D) CH3NH2 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 7) What is the conjugate acid of OH-? A) O2 B) H2O C) OD) O2E) H3O+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 8) What is the pH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C that contains 2.50 × 10-4 M hydronium ion? A) 10.4 B) 4.00 C) 2.50 D) 3.60 E) 7.00 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 9) What is the pOH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C that contains 2.50 × 10-4 M hydronium ion? A) 3.60 B) 4.00 C) 2.50 D) 10.4 E) 7.00 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 18

10) What is the pH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C that contains 1.35 × 10-8 M hydroxide ion? A) 7.87 B) 8.00 C) 6.13 D) 1.35 E) 7.00 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 11) What is the pOH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C that contains 1.35 × 10-8 M hydroxide ion? A) 6.13 B) 7.87 C) 1.35 D) 8.00 E) 7.00 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 12) Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25.0 °C that contains 2.95 × 10-12 M hydronium ions. A) 12.00 B) 2.95 C) 7.00 D) 2.47 E) 11.53 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 13) Calculate the pH of a solution at 25.0 °C that contains 2.95 × 10-12 M hydronium ions. A) 2.95 B) 11.53 C) 7.00 D) 12.00 E) 2.47 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

14) Calculate the concentration (in M) of hydronium ions in a solution at 25.0 °C with a pOH of 3.58. A) 2.63 × 10-4 B) 2.63 × 1010 C) 3.80 × 10-11 D) 3.80 × 103 E) 1.00 × 10-7 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 15) Calculate the concentration (in M) of hydroxide ions in a solution at 25.0 °C with a pOH of 3.58. A) 2.63 × 1010 B) 3.80 × 10-11 C) 1.00 × 10-7 D) 3.80 × 103 E) 2.63 × 10-4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 16) An aqueous solution contains 0.500 M NaOH at 25.0 °C. The pH of the solution is ________. A) 0.500 B) 13.70 C) 0.301 D) 7.00 E) 13.50 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G4 17) An aqueous solution contains 0.390 M HCl at 25.0 °C. The pH of the solution is ________. A) 0.41 B) 0.390 C) 13.61 D) 13.59 E) 7.00 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G4 20

18) HZ is a weak acid. An aqueous solution of HZ is prepared by dissolving 0.020 mol of HZ in sufficient water to yield 1.0 L of solution. The pH of the solution was 4.93 at 25.0 °C. The Ka of HZ is ________. A) 1.2 × 10-5 B) 6.9 × 10-9 C) 1.4 × 10-10 D) 9.9 × 10-2 E) 2.8 × 10-12 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 19) The pH of a 0.55 M aqueous solution of hypobromous acid, HBrO, at 25.0 °C is 4.48. What is the value of Ka for HBrO? A) 2.0 × 10-9 B) 1.1 × 10-9 C) 6.0 × 10-5 D) 3.3 × 10-5 E) 3.0 × 104 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 20) The pH of a 0.25 M aqueous solution of hydrofluoric acid, HF, at 25.0 °C is 2.03. What is the value of Ka for HF? A) 2.0 × 10-9 B) 1.1 × 10-9 C) 6.0 × 10-5 D) 3.5 × 10-4 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

21) The pH of a 0.60 M aqueous solution of formic acid, HCHO2, at 25.0 °C is 1.98. What is the value of Ka for formic acid? A) 2.0 × 10-5 B) 1.8 × 10-4 C) 6.0 × 10-5 D) 3.5 × 10-4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 22) A 0.22 M aqueous solution of the weak acid HA at 25.0 °C has a pH of 4.15. The value of Ka for HA is ________. A) 7.1 × 10-5 B) 3.2 × 10-4 C) 2.2 × 10-1 D) 2.3 × 10-8 E) 3.2 × 104 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 23) The Ka of hypochlorous acid (HClO) is solution that is in A) +2.45 B) -2.45 C) -9.22 D) +9.22 E) +4.61 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

What is the pH at 25.0 °C of an aqueous

24) The Ka of acetic acid (HC2H3O2) is solution that is in A) +2.87 B) -2.87 C) -11.13 D) +11.13 E) +6.61 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

What is the pH at 25.0 °C of an aqueous

25) The acid-dissociation constants of sulfurous acid (H2SO3) are Ka1 = 1.7 × 10-2 and at 25.0 °C. Calculate the pH of a 0.163 M aqueous solution of sulfurous acid. A) 4.53 B) 1.28 C) 1.86 D) 6.21 E) 1.93 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 16.5

26) The acid-dissociation constants of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) are = 7.5 × 10-3, and Ka3 = 4.2 × 10-13 at 25.0 °C. What is the pH of a 2.5 M aqueous solution of phosphoric acid? A) 1.82 B) 0.40 C) 2.51 D) 0.86 E) 0.13 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

27) The pH of a 0.25 M aqueous solution ammonia, NH3, at 25.0 °C is 9.50. What is the value of Kb for NH3? A) 2.5 × 10-1 B) 4.0 × 10-19 C) 4.0 × 10-9 D) 3.2 × 10-5 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 28) A 0.10 M aqueous solution of the weak base B at 25.0 °C has a pH of 8.00. The value of Kb for B is ________. A) 1.0 × 10-15 B) 1.0 × 10-11 C) 1.0 × 10-6 D) 1.0 × 10-12 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 29) A 0.14 M aqueous solution of the weak acid HA at 25.0 °C has a pH of 3.15. The value of Ka for HA is ________. A) 7.08 × 10-4 B) 3.58 × 10-6 C) 5.01 × 10-7 D) 7.02 × 10-8 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

30) An aqueous solution of NaF is prepared by dissolving 0.350 mol of NaF in sufficient water to yield 1.0 L of solution. The pH of the solution was 8.93 at 25.0 °C. The Kb of F- is ________. A) 1.2 × 10-5 B) 2.1 × 10-10 C) 6.9 × 10-9 D) 2.8 × 10-12 E) 9.9 × 10-2 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 31) The pOH of a 0.10 M solution of a weak base is 4.18. What is the Kb for this base? A) 8.8 × 10-8 B) 2.1 × 10-4 C) 6.6 × 10-4 D) 4.4 × 10-8 E) 2.0 × 10-5 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 32) Determine the pH of a 0.35 M aqueous solution of CH3NH2 (methylamine). The Kb of methylamine is . A) 10.00 B) 3.86 C) 12.09 D) 1.96 E) 13.24 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

33) An aqueous basic solution has a concentration of 0.050 M and Kb is 4.4 × 10-4. What is the concentration of hydroxide ion in this solution (M)? A) 2.2 × 10-5 B) 4.5 × 10-3 C) 2.9 × 10-3 D) 4.7 × 10-3 E) 0.050 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 34) An aqueous basic solution has a concentration of 0.050 M and Kb is 4.4 × 10-4. What is the concentration of hydronium ion in this solution (M)? A) 2.2 × 10-13 B) 2.2 × 10-12 C) 2.9 × 10-13 D) 0.050 E) 4.5 × 10-13 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 35) The acid-dissociation constant, Ka, for an unknown acid HA is 4.57 × 10-3. What is the base-dissociation constant, Kb, for the unknown anion A-? A) 5.43 × 10-5 B) 4.57 × 10-3 C) 7.81 × 10-6 D) 2.19 × 10-12 E) 2.19 × 102 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G4

36) The base-dissociation constant, Kb, for an unknown base is constant, Ka, for the conjugate ion is ________. A) 1.0 × 10-7 B) 7.1 × 10-6 C) 1.4 × 10-23 D) 1.4 × 10-5 E) 7.1 × 10-4 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G4

The acid-dissociation

37) The Ka for HCN is 4.9 × 10-10. What is the value of Kb for CN-? A) 2.0 × 10-5 B) 4.0 × 10-6 C) 4.9 × 104 D) 4.9 × 10-24 E) 2.0 × 109 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G4 38) Ka for HF is 7.0 × 10-4. Kb for the fluoride ion is ________. A) 2.0 × 10-8 B) 1.4 × 10-11 C) 7.0 × 10-18 D) 7.0 × 10-4 E) 1.4 × 103 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.10 GO: G4 39) Ka for HA is 4.9 × 10-10. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of A-? A) 11.07 B) 0.74 C) 2.96 D) 7.00 E) 13.24 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 27

40) Ka for arsenic acic, HAsO42-, is 7.5 × 10-12. What is the pH of a 0.15 M aqueous solution of AsO43-? A) 7.97 B) 12.10 C) 8.04 D) 1.96 E) 6.00 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 41) The pH of a 0.15 M aqueous solution of NaBrO (the sodium salt of HBrO) is 10.7. What is the Ka for HBrO? A) 8.9 × 10-4 B) 1.6 × 10-6 C) 1.3 × 10-12 D) 3.3 × 10-8 E) 6.0 × 10-9 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4

16.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The conjugate base of NH3 is ________. A) NH2B) NH4+ C) NH2OH D) H3O+ E) OHAnswer: A Diff: 4 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 2) The conjugate base of H2PO4- is ________. A) H3PO4 B) HPO42C) PO43D) H3O+ E) OHAnswer: A Diff: 4 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 3) In acidic solution, ________. A) [H3O+] > [OH-] B) [H3O+] = [OH-] C) [H3O+] < [OH-] D) [O ] > 7.00 E) [ ] = 0M Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 16.2 LO: 16.3 GO: G2

4) Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions? A) pH = 12.5 B) pH = 11 C) pH = 8.3 D) pH = 6.0 E) pH = 3.0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G2 5) Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydronium ions? A) pH = 3.0 B) pH = 10 C) pH = 7.0 D) pH = 6.4 E) pH = 11.2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G2 6) An aqueous solution at 25.0°C contains [ A) 1.07 B) -1.07 C) 13.0 D) 0.0850 E) 1.20 × Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

] = 0.085 M. What is the pH of the solution?

7) The pH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C is 10.55. What is the molarity of A) 2.8 × 10-11 B) 3.5 × 10-4 C) 3.45 D) 1.1 × 10-13 E) 3.5 × 1010 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

in this solution?

8) Calculate the molarity of hydroxide ion in an aqueous solution that has a pOH of 3.00. A) 1.0 × 10-3 B) 11.00 C) 1.0 × 10-11 D) 3.0 × E) 1.1 × 10-13 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 9) What is the pH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C in which A) 6.50 B) 2.82 C) -2.82 D) -6.50 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

] is 0.0015 M?

10) What is the pOH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C in which A) 8.70 B) 11.70 C) -11.70 D) -8.70 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

] is 0.0050 M?

11) What is the pH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C in which [O A) 5.81 B) -11.48 C) 2.52 D) -2.52 E) 11.48 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

] is 0.0030 M?

12) An aqueous solution of ammonia at 25.0 °C has a [O the solution? A) 11.00 B) 3.00 C) -3.00 D) 6.91 E) -11.00 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4

] of 0.0010 M. What is the pOH of

13) What is the concentration (in M) of hydronium ions in a solution at 25.0 °C with pH = 4.146? A) 4.15 B) 9.85 C) 1.40 × D) 7.15 × E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 14) What is the concentration (in M) of hydroxide ions in a solution at 25.0 °C with pH = 4.282? A) 4.28 B) 9.72 C) 1.92 × D) 5.22 × E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.3 LO: 16.4 GO: G4 15) An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M HNO3. The solution is ________. A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) very dilute E) highly colored Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G2 32

16) Which solution will be the most basic? A) 0.10 M Ba(OH)2 B) 0.10 M KOH C) 0.10 M H2O D) 0.10 M CH3OH E) All solutions have equal basicity. Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G2 17) A 1.0 × 10-2 M aqueous solution of A) 12.30 B) 1.70 C) 2.0 × 10-2 D) 5.0 × 10-13 E) 12.00 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G4

at 25.0 °C has a pH of ________.

18) What is the pH of a 0.030 M aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide? A) 1.52 B) 12.48 C) 10.41 D) 12.78 E) 1.22 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G4 19) What is the pOH of a 0.030 M solution of calcium hydroxide? A) 12.78 B) 1.22 C) 12.48 D) 10.41 E) 1.52 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G4

20) Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. This means that ________. A) HCl dissociates completely to H+(aq) and Cl-(aq) when it dissolves in water B) HCl does not dissociate at all when it is dissolved in water C) HCl produces a gaseous product when it is neutralized D) HCl cannot be neutralized by a weak base E) aqueous solutions of HCl contain equal concentrations of H+(aq) and OH-(aq) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 16.4 LO: 16.5 GO: G2 21) The acid-dissociation constant at 25.0 °C for hypochlorous acid (HClO) is 3.0 × equilibrium, the molarity of in a 0.066 M solution of HClO is ________. A) 4.4 × B) 0.066 C) 2.2 × D) 4.35 E) 1.18 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 22) In which of the following aqueous solutions does the weak acid exhibit the highest percentage ionization? A) 0.01 M H2SO3 ( = 1.4 × ) B) 0.01 M HCN ( = 6.2 × ) C) 0.01 M H2CO3 ( = 4.5 × ) D) 0.01 M HC3H5O2 ( = 1.3 × ) E) 0.01 M HOCl ( = 3.5 × ) Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2

. At

23) In which of the following aqueous solutions does the weak acid exhibit the lowest percentage ionization? A) 0.01 M HCN ( = 6.2 × ) B) 0.01 M H2CO3 ( = 4.5 × ) C) 0.01 M HNO2 ( = 4.0 × ) D) 0.01 M HCHO2 ( = 1.8 × ) E) 0.01 M HOCl ( = 3.5 × ) Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G2 24) The of hypochlorous acid (HClO) is 3.0 × hypochlorous acid solution. A) 3.05 B) 9.53 C) 4.47 D) 6.52 E) -3.05 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

at 25.0 °C. Calculate the pH of a

25) The of hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 25.0 °C is 6.8 × aqueous solution of HF? A) 4.05 B) 1.76 C) 3.64 D) 0.35 E) 1.41 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

. What is the pH of a 0.45 M

26) The of citric acid is 1.9 × at 25.0 °C. What is the pH of a 0.35 M aqueous solution of citric acid? A) 0.46 B) 2.59 C) 5.23 D) -3.46 E) 2.13 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 27) What is the [ ] (M) of a solution with a concentration of 25.0 °C? A) 3.3 × B) 2.7 × C) 3.0 × D) 3.7 × E) 11.43 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 28) Calculate the pH of a 0.500 M aqueous solution of N A) 8.95 B) 11.47 C) 2.53 D) 11.77 E) 2.23 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4

. The

and Kb is 6.4 ×

of N

29) Which of the following 0.5 M aqueous salt solutions will have a pH of 7.0 at LiF

RbBr

NaClO4

NH4Cl

A) LiF only B) NaClO4 only C) LiF and RbBr D) RbBr and NaClO4 E) NH4Cl only Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 30) Which of the following salts will produce a basic solution? A) Mg(ClO4)2 B) RbBr C) Na2SO3 D) NH4NO3 E) KNO3 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 31) Which of the following salts will produce an acidic solution? A) Sr(ClO4)2 B) KBr C) NH4I D) K2CO3 E) NaNO3 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2

32) Which of the following salts will produce a neutral solution? A) NaBr B) LiNO2 C) LiF D) Na2CO3 E) NH4Cl Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G2 33) The Ka of some acid, HA, at 25.0 °C is 4.9 × solution of A-? A) 1.0 × 10-3 B) 3.00 C) 11.00 D) 9.9 × 10-12 E) 2.5 × 10-11 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4

. What is the pH of a 0.050 M aqueous

34) The for is What is the pOH of a 0.0727 M aqueous NaA solution at 25.0 °C? A) 9.33 B) 5.22 C) 8.78 D) 1.14 E) 10.00 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 35) The for is What is the pH of a 0.0787 M aqueous NaA solution at 25.0 °C? A) 9.33 B) 10.00 C) 5.21 D) 1.10 E) 8.79 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 38

36) The for acid HA is What is the pH of a 0.15 M aqueous solution of KA? A) 0.82 B) 8.17 C) 5.83 D) 1.17 E) 5.01 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 37) The for acid HA is What is the pOH of a 0.10 M aqueous solution of KA? A) 5.92 B) 1.00 C) 8.08 D) 1.58 E) 5.01 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 38) What is the pH of 0.626 M anilinium hydrochloride ( that for aniline is 3.83 × ? A) 1.81 B) 5.39 C) 12.19 D) 12.42 E) 8.61 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 39) What is the pOH of 0.606 M anilinium hydrochloride ( that for aniline is 3.83 × ? A) 12.42 B) 1.82 C) 8.60 D) 5.40 E) 12.18 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 39

Cl) solution in water, given

40) What is the pH of a 0.40 M aqueous solution of N A) 4.82 B) 2.57 C) 9.18 D) 11.43 E) 11.23 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 41) What is the pOH of a 0.20 M aqueous solution of N . A) 2.72 B) 4.98 C) 11.28 D) 11.23 E) 9.02 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 42) The for formic acid (HCO2H) is 1.8 × of sodium formate (NaHC )? A) 11.64 B) 5.48 C) 3.39 D) 8.52 E) 4.26 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4

Br at 25.0 °C?

for N

is 1.8 ×

. What is the pH of a 0.20 M aqueous solution

43) Of the following, which is the strongest acid? A) HIO4 B) HIO3 C) HIO2 D) HIO E) The acid strength of all of the above is the same. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.12 GO: G2 40

44) Of the following, which is the weakest acid? A) HPO3B) H3PO4 C) H2PO4D) HPO4E) The acid strength of all of the above is the same. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.12 GO: G2 16.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The pH of a 0.25 M aqueous solution of HA at 25.0 °C is 4.48. What is the value of Ka for HA? Answer: 4.4 × 10-9 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 2) The pOH of a 0.25 M aqueous solution of HA at 25.0 °C is 9.52. What is the value of Ka for HA? Answer: 4.4 × 10-9 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.5 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 3) A 0.045 M solution of ammonia is 2.0% ionized at 25.0 °C. The Kb at 25.0 °C for ammonia is ________. Answer: 1.8 × 10-5 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.6 LO: 16.6, 16.7 GO: G4 4) What is the pH of a sodium fluoride solution prepared by adding 0.4198 grams of sodium fluoride to 100.0 ml of water at 25.0 °C? The Ka at 25.0 °C for HF is 7.2 × 10-4. Answer: 8.07 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4

5) What is the pOH of a sodium fluoride solution prepared by adding 0.4198 grams of sodium fluoride to 100.0 ml of water at 25.0 °C? The Ka at 25.0 °C for HF is 7.2 × 10-4. Answer: 5.93 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.7 LO: 16.11 GO: G4 16.5 True/False Questions 1) In the reaction BF3 + F- → BF4BF3 acts as a Br∅nsted-Lowry acid. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.1 LO: 16.2 GO: G2 2) An acid containing the COOH group is called a carbo-oxy acid. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.12 GO: G2 3) A Lewis acid is an electron-pair acceptor, and a Lewis base is an electron-pair donor. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 16.8 LO: 16.13 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 17 Aqueous Equilibria: Buffers, Titrations, and Solubility 17.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which one of the following pairs cannot be mixed together to form a buffer solution? A) HONH2, HONH3Cl B) NaCl, HCl C) RbOH, HF D) KOH, HNO2 E) H2SO3, KHSO3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 2) Which one of the following pairs cannot be mixed together to form a buffer solution? A) NH3, NH4Cl B) NaC2H3O2, HCl (C2H3O2- = acetate) C) RbOH, HBr D) KOH, HF E) H3PO4, KH2PO4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 3) Which one of the following pairs cannot be mixed together to form a buffer solution? A) C5H5N, C5H5NHCl B) HC2H3O2, NaOH (C2H3O2- = acetate) C) KOH, HI D) NH2CH3, HCl E) NaClO, HNO3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

4) A solution containing which one of the following pairs of substances will be a buffer solution? A) NaI, HI B) KBr, HBr C) RbCl, HCl D) CsF, HF E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 5) A solution containing which one of the following pairs of substances will be a buffer solution? A) KI, HI B) AgBr, HBr C) CuCl, HCl D) CsI, HI E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 6) What change will be caused by addition of a small amount of HCl to a solution containing fluoride ions and hydrogen fluoride? A) The concentration of hydronium ions will increase significantly. B) The concentration of fluoride ions will increase as will the concentration of hydronium ions. C) The concentration of hydrogen fluoride will decrease and the concentration of fluoride ions will increase. D) The concentration of fluoride ion will decrease and the concentration of hydrogen fluoride will increase. E) The fluoride ions will precipitate out of solution as its acid salt. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

7) The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is ________. A) [H+] = Ka + B) pH = pKa - log C) pH = pKa + log D) pH = pKa + log E) pH = log Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 17.2

8) In a solution, when the concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base are equal, ________. A) the system is not at equilibrium B) the buffering capacity is significantly decreased C) the -log of the [H+] and the -log of the Ka are equal D) All of the above are true. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 9) Which solution has the greatest buffering capacity? A) 0.335M HC2H3O2 and 0.497 M NaC2H3O2 B) 0.520 M HC2H3O2 and 0.116 M NaC2H3O2 C) 0.820 M HC2H3O2 and 0.715 M NaC2H3O2 D) 0.120 M HC2H3O2 and 0.115 M NaC2H3O2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

10) Which solution has the greatest buffering capacity? A) 0.335 M NH3 and 0.100 M NH4Cl B) 0.085 M NH3 and 0.090 M NH4Cl C) 0.540 M NH3 and 0.550 M NH4Cl D) 0.200 M NH3 and 0.565 M NH4Cl E) They are all buffer solutions and would all have the same capacity. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 11) The addition of HF and ________ to water produces a buffer solution. A) HBr B) KNO3 C) KOH D) NaCl E) NaBr Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 12) The addition of HCl and ________ to water produces a buffer solution. A) NH3 B) HC6H5O C) KOH D) KNO3 E) HNO3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 13) The addition of HCl and ________ to water produces a buffer solution. A) HC6H5O B) C2H5NH2 C) KOH D) KCl E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

14) The addition of KOH and ________ to water produces a buffer solution. A) HI B) NH3 C) KF D) LiC2H3O2 E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 15) Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? A) acetic acid only B) acetic acid or hydrochloric acid C) hydrochloric acid only D) potassium acetate only E) sodium chloride or potassium acetate Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 16) Which of the following could be added to a solution of NaF to prepare a buffer? A) HBr B) NaOH C) LiC2H3O2 D) KF E) NH3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 17) Which of the following could be added to a solution of HC2H3O2 to prepare a buffer? A) HBr B) HNO3 C) KOH D) more HC2H3O2 E) None of the above can be added to an acetic acid solution to prepare a buffer. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

18) Which of the following could be added to a solution of acetic acid to prepare a buffer? A) sodium acetate only B) sodium acetate or sodium hydroxide C) nitric acid only D) hydrofluoric acid or nitric acid E) sodium hydroxide only Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 19) What is the primary buffer system that controls the pH of the blood? A) carbonate, bicarbonate B) carbon dioxide, carbonate C) carbonic acid, bicarbonate D) carbonic acid, carbon dioxide E) carbonate, carbonic acid Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 20) The ________ and ________ are the principal organs that regulate the pH of the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system in the blood. A) kidneys, liver B) lungs, skin C) lungs, kidneys D) brain stem, heart E) spleen, liver Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 21) Human blood is considered to be ________. A) neutral B) very basic C) slightly basic D) slightly acidic E) very acidic Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

22) Decreasing the pH of blood will cause hemoglobin to release ________. A) CO2 B) N2 C) H2 D) O2 E) Fe Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2

23) A 25.0 mL sample of a solution of an unknown compound is titrated with a 0.115 M NaOH solution. The titration curve above was obtained. The unknown compound is ________. A) a strong acid B) a strong base C) a weak acid D) a weak base E) neither an acid nor a base Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G3 24) A 50.0 mL sample of a solution of a monoprotic acid is titrated with a 0.115 M NaOH solution. The titration curve above was obtained. The concentration of the monoprotic acid is about ________ mol/L. A) 0.120 B) 25.0 C) 0.240 D) 0.0600 E) 0.100 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G3

25) A 25.0 mL sample of a solution of a monoprotic acid is titrated with a 0.115 M NaOH solution. The titration curve above was obtained. Which of the following indicators would be best for this titration? A) methyl red B) bromthymol blue C) thymol blue D) phenolpthalein E) bromocresol purple Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G3 Consider the following table of

values.

26) Which compound listed below has the greatest molar solubility in water? A) CdCO3 B) Cd(OH)2 C) AgI D) CaF2 E) ZnCO3 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G3

27) Which compound listed below has the smallest molar solubility in water? A) ZnCO3 B) Cd(OH)2 C) CdCO3 D) AgI E) CaF2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G3 28) The molar solubility of ________ is not affected by the pH of the solution. A) Na3PO4 B) NaF C) KNO3 D) AlCl3 E) MnS Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G3 29) In which one of the following solutions is silver chloride the most soluble? A) 0.200 M HCl B) 0.750 M LiNO3 C) 0.0150 M NH3 D) 0.185 M KCl E) pure H2O Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 30) Which one of the following is not amphoteric? A) Al(OH)3 B) Ca(OH)2 C) Cr(OH)3 D) Zn(OH)2 E) Sn(OH)2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2

31) For which salt should the aqueous solubility be most sensitive to pH? A) MgCl2 B) Mg(NO3)2 C) MgF2 D) MgBr2 E) MgI2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 32) Which one of the following is amphoteric? A) H2SO4 B) H2O2 C) CO2 D) H2O E) NaOH Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 33) Why does fluoride treatment render teeth more resistant to decay? A) Fluoride kills the bacteria in the mouth that make the acids that decay teeth. B) Fluoride stimulates production of tooth enamel to replace that lost to decay. C) Fluoride reduces saliva production, keeping teeth drier and thus reducing decay. D) Fluoride converts hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite that is less reactive with acids. E) Fluoride dissolves plaque, reducing its decaying contact with teeth. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2

34) A result of the common-ion effect is ________. A) that some ions, such as Na+ (aq), frequently appear in solutions but do not participate in solubility equilibria B) that common ions, such as Na+ (aq), don't affect equilibrium constants C) that the selective precipitation of a metal ion, such as Ag+, is promoted by the addition of an appropriate counterion (X-) that produces a compound (AgX) with a very low solubility D) that ions such as K+ and Na+ are common ions, so that their values in equilibrium constant expressions are always 1.00 E) that common ions precipitate all counter-ions Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.6 LO: 17.10 GO: G2 17.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The Ka of benzoic acid is 6.30 × 10-5. The pH of a buffer prepared by combining 50.0 mL of potassium benzoate and 50.0 mL of 1.00 M benzoic acid is ________. A) 1.705 B) 0.851 C) 3.406 D) 4.201 E) 2.383 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 2) Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving of benzoic acid and sodium benzoate in water sufficient to yield of solution. The Ka of benzoic acid is A) 2.516 B) 3.892 C) 4.502 D) 10.158 E) 4.195 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 17.2

3) Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving of acetic acid and sodium acetate in water sufficient to yield of solution. The Ka of acetic acid is A) 2.516 B) 3.892 C) 4.502 D) 10.158 E) 5.056 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

4) The pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.550 mol of solid methylamine hydrochloride (CH3NH3Cl) in of methylamine (CH3NH2) is ________. The Kb for methylamine is (Assume the final volume is 1.00 L.) A) 11.03 B) 2.97 C) 3.75 D) 10.64 E) 10.25 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 5) The pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.350 mol of acid in of of conjugate base is ________. The Kb for the conjugate base is (Assume the final volume is 1.00 L.) A) 11.23 B) 1.66 C) 11.14 D) 2.77 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

6) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.723 M HClO4 is titrated with a KOH solution. The H3O+ concentration after the addition of of KOH is ________ M. A) 0.4 B) 1 × 10-7 C) 0.7 D) 3 × 10-13 E) 4 × 10-2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 7) The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 50.0 mL of 0.125 M KOH and 50.0 mL of 0.125 M HCl is ________. A) 6.29 B) 7.00 C) 8.11 D) 5.78 E) 0.00 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 8) The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 40.0 mL of 0.125 M Mg(OH)2 and 150.0 mL of 0.125 M HCl is ________. A) 6.29 B) 4.11 C) 1.14 D) 5.78 E) 1.34 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

9) The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 50.0 mL of 0.125 M NaOH and 40.0 mL of 0.125 M HNO3 is ________. A) 13.29 B) 7.00 C) 8.11 D) 11.00 E) 12.14 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 10) A 50.0 mL sample of an aqueous H2SO4 solution is titrated with a NaOH solution. The equivalence point is reached with of the base. The concentration of H2SO4 is ________ M. A) 0.234 B) 0.469 C) 0.150 D) 0.300 E) 0.938 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 11) The concentration of iodide ions in a saturated solution of lead (II) iodide is ________ M. The solubility product constant of PbI2 is A) 3.8 × 10-4 B) 3.0 × 10-3 C) 1.5 × 10-3 D) 3.5 × 10-9 E) 1.4 × 10-8 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4

12) The concentration of fluoride ions in a saturated solution of barium fluoride is ________ M. The solubility product constant of BaF2 is A) 3.8 × 10-4 B) 3.0 × 10-3 C) 1.5 × 10-2 D) 7.5 × 10-3 E) 1.4 × 10-4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4 13) The concentration of iodide ions in a saturated solution of silver iodide is ________ M. The solubility product constant of AgI is A) 3.8 × 10-11 B) 3.0 × 10-10 C) 9.1 × 10-9 D) 3.5 × 10-9 E) 1.4 × 10-8 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4 14) The solubility of lead (II) chloride (PbCl2) is A) 5.0 × 10-4 B) 4.1 × 10-6 C) 3.1 × 10-7 D) 1.6 × 10-5 E) 1.6 × 10-2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4

What is the Ksp of PbCl2?

15) The solubility of manganese (II) hydroxide (Mn(OH)2) is Mn(OH)2? A) 1.1 × 10-14 B) 4.3 × 10-14 C) 2.1 × 10-14 D) 4.8 × 10-10 E) 2.2 × 10-5 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4

What is the Ksp of

16) Determine the Ksp for magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2) where the solubility of Mg(OH)2 is . A) 2.7 × 10-12 B) 1.1 × 10-11 C) 2.0 × 10-8 D) 3.9 × 10-8 E) 1.4 × 10-4 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4 17) Calculate the maximum concentration (in M) of silver ions (Ag+) in a solution that contains of CO32-. The Ksp of Ag2CO3 is A) 1.8 × 10-5 B) 1.4 × 10-6 C) 2.8 × 10-6 D) 3.2 × 10-10 E) 8.1 × 10-12 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G4

18) Calculate the maximum concentration (in M) of calcium ions (Ca2+) in a solution that contains of CO32-. The Ksp of CaCO3 is A) 5.8 × 10-5 B) 6.8 × 10-9 C) 3.4 × 10-9 D) 6.2 × 10-8 E) 1.9 × 10-10 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G4 19) What is the solubility (in M) of PbCl2 in a A) 2.0 × 10-3 B) 1.1 × 10-4 C) 1.8 × 10-4 D) 7.1 × 10-4 E) 1.6 × 10-5 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 17.8 GO: G4

solution of HCl? The Ksp of PbCl2 is

Page Ref: Sec. 17.5

20) The Ksp for Cu(OH)2 is 4.8 × 10-20. Determine the molar solubility of Cu(OH)2 in a buffer solution with a pH of 10.1. A) 6.0 × 10-10 B) 7.6 C) 3.0 × 10-12 D) 2.2 × 10-10 E) 3.8 × 10-16 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G4

17.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Calculate the pH of a solution that is 0.278 M in sodium formate ( formic acid The of formic acid is 1.77 × . A) 3.843 B) 3.647 C) 13.90 D) 10.16 E) 4.954 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

) and

2) Calculate the percent ionization of formic acid ( formic acid and 0.178 M in sodium formate ( A) 35.6 B) 0.1011 C) 10.8 D) 1.03 × 10-3 E) 3.488 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

H) in a solution that is 0.322 M in ). The of formic acid is 1.77 × .

3) Calculate the percent ionization of formic acid (

H) in a solution that is 0.152 M in

formic acid. The A) 2.74 × B) 0.0180 C) 3.44 D) 0.581 E) 8.44 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

of formic acid is 1.77 ×

Page Ref: Sec. 17.2

4) Calculate the pH of a solution that is 0.322 M in nitrous acid ( ) and 0.178 M in potassium nitrite (KNO2). The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is 4.50 × . A) 3.093 B) 3.607 C) 14.26 D) 10.91 E) 4.589 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 5) What is the percent ionization of nitrous acid in a solution that is 0.222 M in nitrous acid (HNO2) and 0.278 M in potassium nitrite (KNO2)? The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is A) 55.6 B) 15.5 C) 2.78 × D) 3.448 E) 0.162 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 6) What is the percent ionization of nitrous acid in a solution that is 0.189 M in nitrous acid? The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is A) 0.0450 B) 8.51 × 10-5 C) 0.594 D) 4.20 E) 4.88 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

7) Which solution would have the greatest buffering capacity? A) 0.574 M HF and 0.312 M NaF B) 0.287 M HF and 0.156 M NaF C) 0.189 M HF and 0.103 M NaF D) 1.15 M HF and 0.624 M NaF E) They are all buffer solutions and would all have the same capacity. Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 8) The addition of hydrofluoric acid and ________ to water produces a buffer solution. A) NaF B) HF C) NaN D) NaBr E) KI Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 9) What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.266 M in lactic acid and 0.111 M in sodium lactate? The of lactic acid is 1.4 × . A) 14.38 B) 10.53 C) 5.38 D) 3.47 E) 4.23 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 10) What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.172 M in hypochlorous acid (HClO) and 0.131 M in sodium hypochlorite? The of hypochlorous acid is 3.8 × . A) 14.12 B) 6.70 C) 9.07 D) 7.54 E) 7.30 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 20

11) A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.23 mol of hypochlorous acid and 0.27 mol of sodium hypochlorite in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution. The addition of 0.05 mol of HCl to this buffer solution causes the pH to drop slightly. The pH does not decrease drastically because the HCl reacts with the ________ present in the buffer solution. The of hypochlorous acid is 1.36 × 10-3. A) O B) C) hypochlorite ion D) hypochlorous acid E) This is a buffer solution: the pH does not change upon addition of acid or base. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 12) A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.23 mol of benzoic acid and 0.27 mol of sodium benzoate in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution.The addition of 0.05 mol of NaOH to this buffer solution causes the pH to increase slightly. The pH does not increase drastically because the NaOH reacts with the ________ present in the buffer solution. The of benzoic acid is 6.3 × 10-5. A) O B) C) benzoate D) benzoic acid E) This is a buffer solution: the pH does not change upon addition of acid or base. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 13) What is the pH of a solution that contains 0.800 M weak acid ( of its conjugate base? A) 8.578 B) 5.422 C) 8.370 D) 4.087 E) 9.913 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

= 1.76 ×

) and 0.172 M

14) Consider a solution containing 0.100 M fluoride ions and 0.126 M hydrogen fluoride. The concentration of fluoride ions after the addition of 9.00 mL of 0.0100 M HCl to 25.0 mL of this solution is ________ M. A) 0.0735 B) 0.0762 C) 0.0980 D) 0.0709 E) 0.00253 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.3 GO: G4 15) A buffer solution contains 0.100 M fluoride ions and 0.126 M hydrogen fluoride. What is the concentration (M) of hydrogen fluoride after addition of 9.00 mL of 0.0100 M HCl to 25.0 mL of this solution? A) 0.0900 B) 0.122 C) 0.130 D) 0.0953 E) 0.00976 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.3 GO: G4 16) The

of some weak acid HA is 1.76 × . The pH of a buffer prepared by combining 15.0 A- and 50.0 mL of 1.00 M HA is ________.

mL of A) 1.705 B) 4.232 C) 0.851 D) 2.383 E) 3.406 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 9 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 17.2

17) The of ammonia is 1.76 × . What is the pH of a buffer which is prepared by combining 50.0 mL of 1.00 M ammonia and 45.0 mL of 1.00 M ammonium nitrate? A) 9.372 B) 4.632 C) 4.742 D) 9.291 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 18) Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.270 mol of weak acid HA and 0.260 mol of its conjugate base in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution. The of HA is A) 2.099 B) 3.736 C) 10.264 D) 3.952 E) 2.307 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 8 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 17.2

19) What is the pH of a solution which is prepared by dissolving 0.850 mol of N of in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution? The of ammonia is A) 9.700 B) 5.204 C) 8.781 D) 8.796 E) 4.300 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4

and

20) Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.250 mol of benzoic acid ( H) and of sodium benzoate (Na ) in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution. The of benzoic acid is A) 4.409 B) 3.965 C) 10.035 D) 9.591 E) 5.190 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 21) A buffer solution with a pH of 4.31 is prepared with The Ka of H is A) 0.37 B) 0.74 C) 4.2 × 10-6 D) 8.8 × 10-10 E) 0.18 Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.4 GO: G4

and

22) A buffer solution with a pH of 4.63 is prepared with formate. The of formic acid is A) 1.1 B) 2.1 C) 5.4 × 10-6 D) 3.0 × 10-8 E) 0.54 Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.4 GO: G4

acid and

23) 0.78 M Na and pH of 4.40 . The of H is A) 3.5 B) 4.1 × 104 C) 1.7 D) 0.86 E) 0.35 Answer: C Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.4 GO: G4

are required to prepare a buffer solution with a

24) acid and formate are required to prepare a buffer solution with a pH of 4.78 . The of formic acid is A) 0.17 B) 0.083 C) 3.3 × 103 D) 0.041 E) 9.8 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.4 GO: G4 25) How many milliliters of 0.0839 M NaOH are required to titrate 25.0 mL of the equivalence point? A) 29.5 B) 0.332 C) 4.57 D) 0.208 E) 21.2 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

26) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 M acetic acid is titrated with a 0.150 M NaOH solution. What is the pH at the equivalence point? The of acetic acid is 4.50 × 10-4. A) 11.74 B) 9.26 C) 4.74 D) 7.00 E) 8.81 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 27) A 25.0-mL sample of 0.150 M hydrocyanic acid is titrated with a 0.150 M NaOH solution. What is the pH before any base is added? The of hydrocyanic acid is 4.9 × 10-10. A) 5.07 B) 8.6 × 10-6 C) 9.31 D) 8.49 E) 3.1 × 108 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 28) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 M hydrazoic acid is titrated with a 0.150 M NaOH solution. What is the pH after 26.0 mL of base is added? The of hydrazoic acid is 1.9 × 10-5. A) 2.54 B) 11.47 C) 7.00 D) 4.70 E) 4.74 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

29) How many milliliters of 0.120 M NaOH are required to titrate 50.0 mL of 0.0998 M hypochlorous acid to the equivalence point? The of hypochlorous acid is 3.0 × 10-8. A) 7.60 B) 50.0 C) 41.6 D) 60.1 E) 7.35 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 30) Which is the correct A) = [Pb2+] [Cl–]2 B) C) D)

expression for PbCl2 (s) dissolving in water?

= [Pb2+] [Cl–] = [Pb2+]2 [Cl–] = [PbCl+] [Cl–] = [Pb+] [Cl2–]2

E) Answer: A Diff: 5 Var: 4 LO: 17.7 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 17.4

31) A 25.0-mL sample of 0.150 M hypochlorous acid is titrated with a 0.150 M NaOH solution. What is the pH after 13.3 mL of base is added? The of hypochlorous acid is 3.0 × 10-8. A) 7.25 B) 1.34 C) 4.43 D) 7.58 E) 7.46 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 11 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

32) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.723 M HCl concentration after the addition of A) 0.0181 B) 0.430 C) 0.723 D) 0.273 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

is titrated with a KOH solution. The of KOH is ________ M.

33) A 25.0 mL sample of an acetic acid solution is titrated with a 0.175 M NaOH solution. The equivalence point is reached when 10.2 mL of the base is added. The concentration of acetic acid in the sample was ________ M. A) 0.365 B) 0.175 C) 0.119 D) 0.0714 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 34) A 25.0 mL sample of an HCl solution is titrated with a NaOH solution. The equivalence point is reached with of base. The concentration of HCl is ________ M. A) 11.7 B) 0.00214 C) 0.0856 D) 0.267 E) 0.139 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

35) The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 45.0 mL of 0.183 M KOH and 35.0 mL of HCl is ________. A) 1.314 B) 1.403 C) 0.00824 D) 12.597 E) 12.923 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 36) What is the pH of a solution which is prepared by mixing 55.0 mL of 0.183 M KOH and 10.0 mL of HC2H3O2? A) 13.122 B) 9.97 C) 7.74 D) 0.878 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 37) What is the molar solubility of calcium carbonate ( CaCO3 ) in water? The solubility-product constant for CaCO3 is 4.5 × 10-9 at 25 °C. A) 2.3 × 10-9 B) 9.0 × 10-9 C) 8.35 D) 9.5 × 10-5 E) 6.7 × 10-5 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4

38) What is the molar solubility of silver carbonate ( Ag2CO3 ) in water? The Ksp for Ag2CO3 is 8.1 × 10-12 at A) 1.3 × 10-4 B) 1.4 × 10-6 C) 2.0 × 10-4 D) 4.0 × 10-6 E) 2.7 × 10-12 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 4 LO: 17.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 17.4

39) In which aqueous system is least soluble? A) O B) 0.5 M HF C) 0.2 M HF D) 1.0 M HN E) 0.8 M KF Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 40) AgBr would have the lowest solubility in ________. A) 0.040 M SrBr2 B) pure H2O C) 0.040 M NaBr D) 0.040 M KBr E) 0.010 M AgNO3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2

41) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect AgI to have the highest solubility? A) pure water B) 0.050 M BaI2 C) 0.050 M NaI D) 0.050 M KI E) 0.010 M AgNO3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 42) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect AgF to have the lowest solubility? A) 0.030 M LiF B) pure water C) 0.023 M NaF D) 0.015 M KF E) 0.0075 M AgNO3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 43) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect AgF to have the highest solubility? A) 0.00750 M LiF B) 0.030 M AgNO3 C) 0.023 M NaF D) 0.015 M KF E) AgF will have the same solubility in all solutions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2

44) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect CuBr to have the highest solubility? A) 0.0100 M KBr B) 0.040 M CuNO3 C) 0.030 M NaBr D) 0.020 M LiBr E) CuBr will have the same solubility in all solutions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 45) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect PbCl2 to have the lowest solubility? A) 0.020 M BaCl2 B) 0.020 M Pb(NO3)2 C) 0.020 M NaCl D) 0.020 M KCl E) pure water Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 46) Of the substances below, ________ will decrease the solubility of Pb(CN)2 in a saturated solution. A) Pb(MnO4)2 B) NaMnO4 C) HMnO4 D) H2O2 E) NaCl Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2

47) A solution of NaF is added dropwise to a solution that is 0.0122 M in . When the concentration of exceeds ________ M, will precipitate. Neglect volume changes. For , A) 7.0 × B) 1.2 × 10-2 C) 2.1 × D) 3.0 × E) 1.4 × 10-4 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 17.6 LO: 17.9 GO: G4 17.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Calculate the pH of a buffer that contains 0.270 M hydrofluoric acid (HF) and 0.180 M cesium fluoride (CsF). The Ka of hydrofluoric acid is 6.80 × 10-4. Answer: 2.99 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 2) Calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.010 moles of A- and 0.010 moles of HA in 100 ml of water. The Ka of HA is 1.77 × 10-5. Answer: 4.75 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G4 3) Suppose you have just added 50.0 ml of a solution containing 0.0400 moles of weak acid HA to 500.0 ml of 0.6000 M NaOH. What is the final pH? The Ka of HA is 1.77 × 10-5. Answer: 13.67 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 4) Suppose you have just added 500.0 ml of a solution containing 0.2000 moles of acetic acid per liter to 200.0 ml of 0.250 M NaOH. What is the final pH? The Ka of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10-5. Answer: 4.75 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4

5) Suppose you have just added 100.0 ml of a solution containing 1.00 mole of acetic acid per liter to 500.0 ml of 0.100 M KOH. What is the final pH? The Ka of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10-5. Answer: 4.75 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.3 LO: 17.5 GO: G4 6) In general, the solubility of a slightly soluble salt is decreased by the presence of a second solute that furnishes a ________. Answer: common ion Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 7) CaCO3 is very soluble in the presence of ________. Answer: acid Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 8) A complex ion is when a metal ion binds to a ________. Answer: Lewis base Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 9) Metal oxides and hydroxides that are relatively insoluble in neutral water, but are soluble in both strongly acidic and strongly basic solutions are said to be ________. Answer: amphoteric Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 10) ________ analysis determines how much of a given substance is present. Answer: Quantitative Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.6 LO: 17.11 GO: G2

17.5 True/False Questions 1) The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte is increased by adding to the solution a strong electrolyte that has an ion in common with the weak electrolyte. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.1 LO: 17.1 GO: G2 2) For any buffer system, the buffer capacity depends on the amount of acid and base from which the buffer is made. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.2 LO: 17.2 GO: G2 3) The solubility product of a compound is numerically equal to the product of the concentration of the ions involved in the equilibrium, each raised by its coefficient in the equilibrium reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.4 LO: 17.7 GO: G2 4) The solubility of a slightly soluble salt is increased by the presence of a second solute that provides a common ion to the system. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2 5) The solubility of slightly soluble salts containing basic anions is directly proportional to the pH of the solution. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 17.5 LO: 17.8 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15thEdition Chapter 18 Chemistry of the Environment 18.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In the troposphere, temperature ________ with increasing altitude, while in the stratosphere, temperature ________ with increasing altitude. A) increases, increases B) decreases, decreases C) increases, decreases D) decreases, increases E) decreases, remains constant Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 2) Which of the following is arranged correctly in order of increasing distance from Earth's surface? A) mesosphere < troposphere < stratosphere < thermosphere B) troposphere < mesosphere < stratosphere < thermosphere C) troposphere < mesosphere < thermosphere < stratosphere D) troposphere < stratosphere < mesosphere < thermosphere E) mesosphere < troposphere < thermosphere < stratosphere Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 3) Which of the following is released by the combustion of fossil fuels? A) N2 B) CO2 C) H2 D) O2 E) O3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2

4) As one gains altitude in the atmosphere, based on the ionization energies shown below, which sequence of mole fractions is the correct one? Process Ionization Energy (kJ/mol) + N2 + hν → N2 + e 1495 O2 + hν → O2+ + e1205 O + hν → O+ + e1313 + NO + hν → NO + e 890 A) N2 > N > NO > O2 B) N2 > O > O2 > NO C) N2 > O2 > O > NO D) NO > O2 > O > N2 E) All will be equal. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.4 GO: G3 5) Why does the upper atmosphere contain only very little dissociated nitrogen? A) Most of the nitrogen is in the troposphere and not in the upper atmosphere. B) The dissociated nitrogen very rapidly diffuses out of the atmosphere and into space. C) Nitrogen atoms are extremely reactive and so react with other substances immediately upon their formation. D) The bond energy of nitrogen is very high and it does not absorb radiation very efficiently. E) There is no N2 in the upper atmosphere. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 6) Of the compounds below, the one that requires the shortest wavelength for photoionization is ________. A) O B) O2 C) NO D) N2 E) They all require the same wavelength. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.4 GO: G2

7) Photoionization processes (e.g., N2 + hν → N2+ + e-) remove UV of < 150 nm. Which photoreaction is the principal absorber of UV in the 150-200 nm range in the upper atmosphere? A) N2 + hν → 2N B) O2 + hν → 2O C) O3 + hν → O2 + O D) N2 + O2 + hν → 2NO E) NO + O2 + hν → NO3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.4 GO: G4 8) The majority of ozone that protects against the high energy radiation of the sun is found in the ________. A) thermosphere B) mesosphere C) mesopause D) stratosphere E) troposphere Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 9) Why does ozone not form in high concentrations in the atmosphere above 50 km? A) Insufficient oxygen is available. B) Insufficient molecules exist for removal of excess energy from ozone upon its formation. C) Light of the required wavelength is not available at those altitudes. D) Atomic oxygen concentration is too low at high altitudes. E) The pressure is too high. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2

10) Of the reactions involved in the photodecomposition of ozone (shown below), which are photochemical? 1. O2 (g) + hν → O (g) + O (g) 2. O (g) + O2 (g) + M (g) → O3 (g) + M* (g) 3. O3 (g) + hν → O2 (g) + O (g) 4. O (g) + O (g) + M (g) → O2 (g) + M* (g) A) 2 and 4 B) 1, 2, and 4 C) 1 and 3 D) 1 only E) all of them Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 11) Of the reactions involved in the photodecomposition of ozone (shown below), which are exothermic?1. O2 (g) + hν → O (g) + O (g) 2. O (g) + O2 (g) + M (g) → O3 (g) + M* (g) 3. O3 (g) + hν → O2 (g) + O (g) 4. O (g) + O (g) + M (g) → O2 (g) + M* (g) A) 2 and 4 B) 1 and 3 C) 1, 2, and 4 D) 2 only E) all of them Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2

12) In the reactions involved in the photodecomposition of ozone (shown below), what does M symbolize? 1. O2 (g) + hν → O (g) + O (g) 2. O (g) + O2 (g) + M (g) → O3 (g) + M* (g) 3. O3 (g) + hν → O2 (g) + O (g) 4. O (g) + O (g) + M (g) → O2 (g) + M* (g) A) mesosphere B) metal C) molybdenum D) methane E) molecule Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 13) Why are chlorofluorocarbons so damaging to the ozone layer when they are such stable molecules? A) They contain a double bond that ozone readily attacks, resulting in the destruction of the ozone. B) They are very light molecules that rapidly diffuse into the upper atmosphere and block the radiation that causes formation of ozone. C) They are greenhouse gases that raise the temperature above the dissociation temperature of ozone. D) The radiation in the stratosphere dissociates them producing chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy ozone. E) CFCs do not damage the ozone. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2 14) Cl atoms formed via photolysis of C—Cl bonds of chlorofluorocarbons in the stratosphere are particularly effective in destroying ozone at these altitudes because ________. A) Cl atoms absorb UV, which generate O atoms to react with to produce ozone B) Cl atoms catalytically convert O3 to O2 C) Cl atoms stoichiometrically convert O3 to O2 D) Cl atoms react with H atoms, which catalyze conversion of O2 to O3 E) Cl atoms react with N atoms, which catalyze conversion of O2 to O3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2

15) Select the substance that is thought to be partially responsible for depleting the concentration of ozone in the stratosphere. A) CFCl3 B) CO2 C) O2 D) N2 E) He Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2 16) In the past, CFCs were used in which of the following? A) spray cans B) plastic manufacturing C) air conditioners D) refrigerators E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2 17) Which one of the following is a source of carbon dioxide in the troposphere? A) natural gas seepage B) electrical discharges C) fossil-fuel combustion D) volcanic gases E) forest fires Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 18) The source(s) of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere is/are ________. A) volcanic gases B) forest fires C) bacterial action D) fossil-fuel combustion E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2

19) Of the following, only ________ does not result in the formation of acid rain. A) carbon dioxide B) nitrogen dioxide C) sulfur dioxide D) nitrogen monoxide E) methane Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 20) Sulfur released into the troposphere arises from both natural and human activity. What is the ratio of human to natural sources of sulfur compounds? A) 3:1 B) 2:1 C) 1:1 D) 1:2 E) 1:3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 21) How does lime reduce sulfur dioxide emissions from the burning of coal? A) It reacts with the sulfur dioxide to form calcium sulfite solid that can be precipitated. B) It reduces the sulfur dioxide to elemental sulfur that is harmless to the environment. C) It oxidizes the sulfur dioxide to tetrathionate that is highly water soluble so it can be scrubbed from the emission gases. D) It catalyzes the conversion of sulfur dioxide to sulfur trioxide which is much less volatile and can be removed by condensation. E) It converts S to solid, elemental sulfur. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 22) The cumulative result of carbon dioxide, methane, and ozone in the troposphere on atmospheric temperatures is referred to as ________. A) acid rain B) the greenhouse effect C) photoionization D) photochemical smog E) photodissociation Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 7

23) Carbon dioxide contributes to atmospheric warming by ________. A) absorbing incoming radiation from the sun and converting it to heat B) absorbing radiation emitted from the surface of the earth preventing its loss to space C) undergoing exothermic reactions extensively in the atmosphere D) increasing the index of refraction of the atmosphere so that infrared radiation from the sun is refracted to the surface of the earth where it is converted to heat E) reducing the concentration of CO in the atmosphere Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 24) Which one of the following substances found in the atmosphere will absorb radiation in the infrared portion of the spectrum? A) N2 B) O2 C) Kr D) H2O E) He Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 25) Which gaseous sulfur compound combines with water to form the principal acidic constituent of acid rain? A) SO42B) SO3 C) SO2 D) SO E) H2S Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2

26) The reaction that forms most of the acid in acid rain is ________. A) SO2 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4 (aq) B) SO2 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO3 (aq) C) H2S (g) + 2 O2 (g) → H2SO4 (l) D) Cl2 (g) + H2O (l) → HCl (aq) + HClO (aq) E) SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4 (aq) Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 27) Incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials occurs when ________. A) there is insufficient oxygen to convert all of the carbon to carbon dioxide B) there are sulfur impurities in the carbon-containing material C) the carbon-containing material is a gas D) the combustion flame is too hot E) there is an excess of oxygen Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 28) What is meant by the salinity of seawater? A) percent by mass of salt in seawater B) mass in grams of dry salts present in 1 kg of seawater C) molality of NaCl in seawater D) osmotic pressure of seawater E) molarity of NaCl in seawater Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2 29) The concentration of Na in seawater is 0.470 M. How many grams of Na can be extracted from 10.0 kg of seawater if the recovery rate is 60.0%? A) 0.470 B) 64.8 C) 4.70 D) 108 E) 43.2 Answer: B Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G4

30) A single individual typically uses the greatest quantity of water for ________. A) flushing toilets B) cooking C) cleaning (bathing, laundering, and house cleaning) D) watering lawns E) drinking water Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G5 31) The main ionic constituent of sea water is ________. A) Na+ B) ClC) SO42D) Mg2+ E) Ca2+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2 32) To produce acceptable quality drinking water from seawater by desalination, the level of salt must be reduced ________ fold. A) 10 B) 50 C) 70 D) 100 E) 120 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2

33) The primary detrimental effect of the presence of large amounts of biodegradable organic materials in water is ________. A) it causes death of bottom dwelling organisms because it agglutinates and settles to the bottom, poisoning bottom dwelling organisms B) it causes oxygen depletion in the water C) it rises to the surface and absorbs wavelengths needed by aquatic plants D) it decomposes endothermically causing the temperature of the water to decrease below the limits within which most aquatic organisms can live E) it causes the water to become murky Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G5 34) Which of the following is not a stage in water treatment? A) coarse filtration B) aeration C) chlorination D) distillation E) settling Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 35) Chemical treatment of municipal water supplies commonly entails use of CaO, Al2(SO4)3, and Cl2. The purpose of adding CaO is to ________. A) remove all HCO3- as solid CaCO3 B) remove all SO42- as solid CaSO4 C) remove all Cl- as solid CaCl2 D) selectively kill anaerobic (but not aerobic) bacteria E) make the water slightly basic so that addition of Al2(SO4)3 will afford a gelatinous precipitate of Al(OH)3 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2

36) Eutrophication of a lake is the process of ________. A) rapid increase in the amount of dead and decaying plant matter in the lake as a result of excessive plant growth B) rapid decline in the lake's pH due to acid rain C) dissolved oxygen being depleted by an overpopulation of fish D) stocking the lake with fish E) restoration of the lake's dissolved oxygen supply by aerobic bacteria Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 37) The lime-soda process is ________ being added to water to cause precipitation of magnesium as Mg(OH)2 and is used for large-scale water-softening operations. A) Fe2O3 B) Al(OH)3 C) CaO D) Fe2MgO4 E) Na2O Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 38) Water containing high concentrations of ________ cations is called hard water. A) Ca2+ B) Mg2+ C) Na+ D) K+ E) Ca2+ or Mg2+ Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 39) THMs are ________. A) non-toxic B) natural C) used in green chemistry D) suspected carcinogens E) atmospheric pollutants Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 12

40) Which of the following is classified as a supercritical fluid? A) water B) xylene C) toluene D) hydrogen peroxide E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.5 LO: 18.13 GO: G2 18.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The layer of the atmosphere that contains our weather is called the ________. A) mesosphere B) heterosphere C) stratosphere D) thermosphere E) troposphere Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 2) Of the noble gases, ________ is present in highest concentration in dry air at sea level. A) Ne B) He C) Xe D) Kr E) Ar Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 3) The dividing line between the troposphere and stratosphere is known as the ________. A) mesosphere B) tropopause C) thermosphere D) stratopause E) mesopause Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2

4) The pressure of the atmosphere ________. A) increases with altitude B) follows the same trend as temperature C) decreases with altitude D) follows the reverse trend as temperature E) stays the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 5) What is/are the product(s) of photodissociation of molecular oxygen? A) molecular nitrogen B) excited oxygen molecules C) ozone D) ozone and atomic oxygen E) atomic oxygen Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 6) The C—Cl and C—F bond dissociation energies in CF3Cl are 339 kJ/mol and 482 kJ/mol, respectively. The maximum wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation required to rupture these bonds are ________ and ________, respectively. A) 45.0 nm, 307 nm B) 742 nm, 654 nm C) 482 nm, 248 nm D) 353 nm, 248 nm E) 979 nm, 953 nm Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.5 GO: G2 7) The C O bond dissociation energy in CO2 is 799 kJ/mol. The maximum wavelength of electromagnetic radiation required to rupture this bond is ________. A) 307 nm B) 149 nm C) 248 nm D) 353 nm E) 979 nm Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.5 GO: G4 14

8) The amount of atomic O relative to O2 ________. A) is highest in the troposphere B) is highest in the stratosphere C) increases with altitude in the thermosphere D) decreases with altitude in the thermosphere E) is essentially independent of altitude in the thermosphere Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 9) In the equation below, M is most likely ________. O + O2 + M → O 3 + M* A) Br2 B) Xe C) SO2 D) N2 E) H2O Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 18.1

10) Ozone is a(n) ________ of oxygen. A) isomer B) allotrope C) isotope D) resonance structure E) atomic form Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 11) CFC stands for ________. A) chlorinated freon compound B) chlorofluorocarbon C) carbonated fluorine compound D) caustic fluorine carbohydrate E) carbofluoro compound Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2 15

12) Natural, unpolluted rainwater is typically acidic. What is the source of this natural acidity? A) CO2 B) SO2 C) NO2 D) HCl E) chlorofluorocarbons Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 13) What compound in limestone and marble is attacked by acid rain? A) hydroxyapatite B) calcium carbonate C) gypsum D) graphite E) potassium hydroxide Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 14) CO2 from hydrocarbon combustion creates a major environmental problem that is described as ________. A) the greenhouse effect B) photochemical smog C) acid rain D) stratospheric ozone depletion E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 15) The majority of SO2 released annually in the United States results from ________. A) combustion of oil B) acid rain C) combustion of coal D) depletion of ozone by CFCs E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2

16) Radiation in the infrared portion of the spectrum is absorbed by ________ found in the atmosphere. A) N2 B) O2 C) CO2 D) Ar E) He Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 17) Compounds found in fossil fuels that contain ________ are primarily responsible for acid rain. A) sulfur B) carbon C) hydrogen D) phosphorus E) neon Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 18) Acid rain typically has a pH of about ________. A) 7 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2 E) 1 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 19) Sulfur dioxide is not released into the atmosphere in any significant amount by ________. A) burning of coal B) bacterial action C) internal combustion engines D) volcanic eruption E) Sulfur dioxide is produced in significant amount by all of these processes. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2

20) Ozone is a necessary, protective component of the ________, but is considered a pollutant in the ________. A) troposphere, upper atmosphere B) troposphere, air C) photochemical smog, air we breathe D) upper atmosphere, troposphere E) air we breathe, upper atmosphere Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 21) The brown color of photochemical smog over a city is mainly due to ________. A) NO2 B) N2O4 C) CO D) SO2 E) CO2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 22) The concentration of which greenhouse gas has increased steadily over the last few decades? A) H2O B) CO C) CO2 D) H2O2 E) O2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 23) What is the percentage of freshwater on planet Earth? A) 97% B) 2.1% C) 2.8% D) 0.6% E) 100% Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G5

24) In the world's oceans, the average salinity is about ________ g/kg. A) 0.03 B) 0.1 C) 35 D) 17 E) 3.5 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G5 25) The sterilizing action of chlorine in water is due to what substance? A) ClB) Cl2 C) HCl D) HClO E) H+ Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 26) The "scale" caused by hard water is ________. A) calcium ions B) sodium chloride C) magnesium oxide D) sodium ions E) calcium carbonate Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2

18.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the total pressure (torr) inside a container that contains a gas at 3.18 × 103 ppm where its partial pressure is ? -3 A) 5.38 × 10 B) 1.86 × 10-4 C) 1.88 × 103 D) 1.86 × 10-10 E) 1.88 × 109 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 2) Which of the following is (are) not a typical source of nitric oxide? A) livestock emissions B) atmospheric electrical discharges C) internal combustion engines D) combustion of organic matter E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 3) The area of the Earth's atmosphere 50 - 85 km above the surface is called the ________. A) mesosphere B) thermosphere C) troposphere D) stratosphere E) exosphere Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2

4) What is the total pressure (torr) inside a container that contains a gas at 8.57 × 103 ppm where its partial pressure is 1.87 torr? A) 4.58 × 109 B) 1.60 × 10-2 C) 2.18 × 10-4 D) 218 E) 0.218 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 5) What is the wavelength of a photon with just enough energy to break a energy of the is A) 362 nm B) 723 nm C) 181 nm D) 5.46 × 1035 nm E) 5.50 × 10-19 nm Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.5 GO: G4

(The bond

6) What is the concentration (ppm) of water vapor in a sample of air that has a partial pressure of water of 1.20 torr and a total pressure of air of 695 torr? A) 1.7 B) 0.17 C) 5.8 × D) 1.7 × E) 0.58 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4

7) The concentration of CO in a room is 7.2 ppm. If the total pressure is 695 torr, then the partial pressure of CO is ________ torr. A) 5.0 × B) 5.0 C) 1.0 × 104 D) 5.0 × E) 9.7 × 107 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 8) The concentration of ozone in a sample of air that has a partial pressure of O3 of 0.53 torr and a total pressure of air of 695 torr is ________ ppm. A) 7.6 × B) 0.76 C) 0.076 D) 1.3 × E) 1.3 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 9) The mole fraction of nitrogen in dry air near sea level is 0.78084, where the molar mass of nitrogen is 28.013. The partial pressure of nitrogen when the total atmospheric pressure (dry air) is 97.5 kPa is A) 126 B) 4.51 C) 77.0 D) 2.16 × 103 E) 2.75 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4

10) The concentration of carbon monoxide in a sample of air is 6.0 ppm. There are ________ molecules of CO in 1.00 L of this air at 755 torr and 23 °C. A) 2.5 × B) 1.4 × C) 1.9 × D) 1.1 × E) 1.5 × Answer: E Diff: 5 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 11) What is the concentration (ppm) of helium in the atmosphere if the mole fraction of helium in dry air near sea level is 0.00000524? A) 5.24 B) 1.91 × 1011 C) 5.24 × 10-4 D) 5240 E) 5.24 × 10-12 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 12) The mole fraction of nitrous oxide in dry air near sea level is 0.00000050. The concentration of nitrous oxide is ________ molecules per liter, assuming an atmospheric pressure of 739 torr and a temperature of 29.5 °C. A) 1.5 × 10-5 B) 2.0 × 10-8 C) 1.2 × 1016 D) 8.9 × 1018 E) 1.2 × 1017 Answer: C Diff: 5 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4

13) Components of Air Nitrogen Oxygen Argon

Mole Fraction 0.781 0.209 0.010

What is the partial pressure or oxygen (in torr) in the atmosphere when the atmospheric pressure is 755.0 torr? A) 158 B) 590. C) 611 D) 7.55 E) 760 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 14) Components of Air Nitrogen Oxygen Argon

Mole Fraction 0.781 0.209 0.010

What is the partial pressure or nitrogen (in torr) in the atmosphere when the atmospheric pressure is 760.0 torr? A) 159 B) 594 C) 611 D) 7.60 E) 760 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4

15) Components of Air Nitrogen Oxygen Argon

Mole Fraction 0.781 0.209 0.010

What is the partial pressure or argon (in torr) in the atmosphere when the atmospheric pressure is 750.0 torr? A) 157 B) 586 C) 611 D) 7.50 E) 760 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.3 GO: G4 16) The dissociation energy of N2 is 941 kJ/mol. The maximum wavelength of light that has enough energy per photon to dissociate the N2 molecule is ________ nm. A) 3137 B) 1.27 × C) 1.27 × D) 1.27 × E) 127 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.5 GO: G4 17) The ionization energy of NO is 890 kJ/mol: NO + hv → NO+ + The maximum wavelength of light capable of causing the ionization of NO is ________ nm. A) 2967 B) 1.35 × 10-4 C) 1.35 × 10-7 D) 134.5 E) 1.35 × 105 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.5 GO: G4

18) The concentration of in a sample of seawater is 5.3 × (ppm) of ? A) 0.042 B) 0.53 C) 5.3 D) 42 E) 0.0053 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1, 18.3 LO: 18.3 GO: G4

M. What is the concentration

19) What is the final stage in municipal water treatment? A) treatment with ozone or chlorine B) course filtration through a screen C) addition of CaO/Al2(SO4)3 and settling D) sand bed filtration E) aeration Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 20) In the presence of oxygen, the nitrogen present in biodegradable material ends up mainly as ________. A) NO3B) NO2 C) N2O D) NH3 E) NH4+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2

21) Which one of the following is produced by anaerobic bacteria after decomposing biodegradable nitrogen-containing waste? A) NH3 B) NO2 C) N2O D) NO3E) NH4+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 22) Which process in the Global Water Cycle involves the phase transition A) evaporation from fresh water B) fog drip C) plant uptake D) freshwater storage E) snowmelt runoff to streams Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 23) Which choice is one of the suspected carcinogens by-products from water chlorination called THMs? A) CHClBr2 B) Cl2 C) Br2 D) CH3OCH3 E) CH4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2

24) Which choice is not one of the Ionic Constituents of seawater typically present in concentrations greater than 1 ppm? A) ClO4B) Sr2+ C) Na+ D) H3Bo3 E) ClAnswer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 25) The acidic water of a lake (V = 4 × 108 L) must be neutralized with lime, CaO. It will require a minimum of ________ grams of lime to adjust the pH from 5.6 to 6.5. A) 2 × 104 B) 5 × 104 C) 1 × 105 D) 3 × 104 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G4 26) Which of the following is not one of the 12 principles associated with green chemistry? A) distribution of chemical by-products into oceans B) less hazardous chemical syntheses C) promotion of the use of catalysts D) use of renewable feedstocks E) inherently safer chemistry for accident prevention Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 18.5 LO: 18.13 GO: G2

18.4 Short Answer Questions 1) The most abundant component of air is ________. Answer: N2 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 2) The absorption of a photon which results in bond breaking is known as ________. Answer: photodissociation Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 3) The concept that radiowave propagation was affected by the atmosphere of the earth was discovered by ________. Answer: Marconi Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 4) In the equation below, what is the meaning of the asterisk? O + O2 → O3* Answer: The asterisk indicates that the ozone formed contains excess energy. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 5) The stratosphere contains approximately ________ of the earth's ozone. Answer: 90% Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 6) Show how a molecule of C2F2Cl2 can destroy two molecules of ozone, O3. Answer: CF2Cl2 (g) + hν → CF2Cl (g) + Cl (g) Cl (g) + O3 (g) → ClO (g) + O2 (g) ClO (g) + hν → Cl (g) + O (g) Cl (g) + O3 (g) → ClO (g) + O2 (g) ---------------------------------------------------------C2F2Cl2 (g) + 2 O3 (g) → C2F2Cl (g) + ClO (g) + 2 O2 (g) + O (g) Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2 29

7) ________ and ________ are major contributors to the depletion of the ozone layer. Answer: Nitrogen oxides, chlorofluorocarbons Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 8) Clean rainwater is ________ mainly due to the presence of carbon dioxide. Answer: acidic Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 9) What is the approximate pH of acid rain? Answer: 4.0 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 10) The contribution of ________ to acid rain is via the production of H2SO4. Answer: sulfur Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 11) What are the primary chemical pollutants that create acid rain? Answer: sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 12) Nitric oxide arises from auto emissions and reacts with oxygen to produce ________ which reacts with sunlight to produce ________ atoms which react with oxygen to produce ________. Answer: nitrogen dioxide, oxygen, ozone Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 13) The salinity, density, and temperature of seawater varies with ________. Answer: depth Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2

14) The three most concentrated ions in seawater are ________. Answer: chloride ions, sodium ions, and sulfate ions Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2 15) The average pH of the oceans is ________. Answer: 8.0-8.3 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2 16) How many liters of water does the average adult in the U.S. require? Answer: 2 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2 17) The world's largest desalinization plant is in Saudi Arabia and uses the process of ________ to produce drinking water. Answer: reverse osmosis Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 18) Organic material that bacteria are able to oxidize is known as ________. Answer: biodegradable Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 19) In the purification of drinking water, the filtered water is made basic by adding ________, then particles and bacteria are captured by adding Al2(SO4)3. Answer: CaO Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2

18.5 True/False Questions 1) When dealing with gases, the mass fraction and the mole fraction are the same. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 2) The bond energy of oxygen is higher than that of nitrogen. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 3) The total pressure of a component in a gas mixture is the product of its mole fraction and the partial mixture pressure. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.1 LO: 18.1, 18.2 GO: G2 4) Nitrogen oxides catalytically destroy ozone. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 5) Ozone depletion from chlorofluorocarbons is chiefly due to the production of free chlorine. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.8 GO: G2 6) Nitric oxide arises from internal combustion engines. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 7) Sulfur compounds in the atmosphere are equally derived from natural sources and from human activity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2

8) The greenhouse effect of a methane molecule far exceeds the effect of a carbon dioxide molecule. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.10 GO: G2 9) The principal component of smog is sulfur dioxide. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.2 LO: 18.9 GO: G2 10) Most fresh water in the U.S. is used for agriculture. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.3 LO: 18.11 GO: G2 11) Municipal water treatment consists of five steps ending with chlorination. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G2 18.6 Essay Questions 1) Describe the process of reverse osmosis that is used to desalinate seawater. Answer: Water is fed, at high pressure, through tubes of semipermeable material. The water passes through the tubing material and the ions do not. Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G8 2) How can the presence of biodegradable waste in a lake result in the death of fish in the lake? Answer: Bacteria utilize oxygen to degrade the waste and deplete the oxygen in the lake water. Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G8 3) List two of the three major sources of nitrogen and phosphorus in water. Answer: domestic sewage, runoff from agricultural land, runoff from livestock areas Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G8

4) Ozone is more efficient at killing bacteria in water, yet chlorine is used more commonly for that purpose in municipal water treatment. Why? Answer: Ozone must be generated on site, whereas chlorine can be shipped in tanks as a liquefied gas. Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 18.4 LO: 18.12 GO: G8

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 19 Chemical Thermodynamics 19.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The first law of thermodynamics can be given as ________. A) ΔE = q + w B) Δ = C) for any spontaneous process, the entropy of the universe increases D) the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is zero E) ΔS = /T at constant temperature Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2 2) A reaction that is spontaneous as written ________. A) is very rapid B) will proceed without outside intervention C) is also spontaneous in the reverse direction D) has an equilibrium position that lies far to the left E) is very slow Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2 3) Of the following, only ________ is not a state function. A) S B) H C) q D) E E) T Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2

4) When a system is at equilibrium, ________. A) the reverse process is spontaneous but the forward process is not B) the forward and the reverse processes are both spontaneous C) the forward process is spontaneous but the reverse process is not D) the process is not spontaneous in either direction E) both forward and reverse processes have stopped Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2 5) A reversible process is one that ________. A) can be reversed with no net change in either system or surroundings B) happens spontaneously C) is spontaneous in both directions D) must be carried out at low temperature E) must be carried out at high temperature Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2 6) Which of the following statements is true? A) Processes that are spontaneous in one direction are spontaneous in the opposite direction. B) Processes are spontaneous because they occur at an observable rate. C) Spontaneity can depend on the temperature. D) All of the statements are true. Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2 7) The thermodynamic quantity that expresses the extent of randomness in a system is ________. A) enthalpy B) internal energy C) bond energy D) entropy E) heat flow Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2

8) For an isothermal process, ΔS = ________. A) q B) /T C) qrev D) T E) q + w Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 9) Which one of the following is always positive when a spontaneous process occurs? A) ΔSsystem B) ΔSsurroundings C) ΔSuniverse D) ΔHuniverse E) ΔHsurroundings Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 10) The entropy of the universe is ________. A) constant B) continually decreasing C) continually increasing D) zero E) the same as the energy, E Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 11) The second law of thermodynamics states that ________. A) ΔE = q + w B) ΔH°rxn = Σ nΔH°f (products) - Σ mΔH°f (reactants) C) for any spontaneous process, the entropy of the universe increases D) the entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero at absolute zero E) ΔS = qrev/T at constant temperature Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2

12) Which of the following statements is false? A) The change in entropy in a system depends on the initial and final states of the system and the path taken from one state to the other. B) Any irreversible process results in an overall increase in entropy. C) The total entropy of the universe increases in any spontaneous process. D) Entropy increases with the number of microstates of the system. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 13) Which one of the following processes produces a decrease of the entropy of the system? A) dissolving sodium chloride in water B) sublimation of naphthalene C) dissolving oxygen in water D) boiling of alcohol E) explosion of nitroglycerine Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.4 GO: G2 14) Consider a pure crystalline solid that is heated from absolute zero to a temperature above the boiling point of the liquid. Which of the following processes produces the greatest increase in the entropy of the substance? A) melting the solid B) heating the liquid C) heating the gas D) heating the solid E) vaporizing the liquid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.4 GO: G2

15) Which one of the following correctly indicates the relationship between the entropy of a system and the number of different arrangements, W, in the system? A) S = kW B) S = C) S = D) S = k lnW E) S = Wk Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 LO: 19.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 19.3

16) The entropy change accompanying any process is given by the equation: A) ΔS = k lnWfinal B) ΔS = k Wfinal - k Winitial C) ΔS = k ln(Wfinal / Winitial) D) ΔS = k final - k initial E) ΔS = Wfinal - Winitial Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.4 GO: G2 17) ΔS is positive for the reaction ________. A) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g) B) 2NO2 (g) → N2O4 (g) C) CO2 (g) → CO2 (s) D) BaF2 (s) → Ba2+ (aq) + 2F- (aq) E) 2Hg (l) + O2 (g) → 2HgO (s) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2

18) ΔS is positive for the reaction ________. A) 2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) B) 2N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) C) C3H8 (g) + 5 O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4 H2O (g) D) Mg (s) + Cl2 (g) → MgCl2 (s) E) C2H4 (g) + H2 (g) → C2H6 (g) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2 19) ΔS is positive for the reaction ________. A) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) B) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) C) 2SO3 (g) → 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) D) Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s) E) H2O (l) → H2O (s) Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2 20) ΔS is positive for the reaction ________. A) 2 Ca (s) + O2 (g) → 2 CaO (s) B) 2 KClO3 (s) → 2KCl (s) + 3 O2 (g) C) HCl (g) + NH3 (g) → NH4Cl (s) D) Pb2+ (aq) + 2Cl- (aq) → PbCl2 (s) E) CO2 (g) → CO2 (s) Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2 21) Which reaction produces a decrease in the entropy of the system? A) CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g) B) 2C (s) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g) C) CO2 (s) → CO2 (g) D) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) E) H2O (l) → H2O (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2 6

22) A decrease in the entropy of the system is observed for the reaction ________. A) 4 NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) → 4 NO (g) + 6 H2O (g) B) 2 HgO (s) → 2 Hg (l) + O2 (g) C) UF6 (s) → U (s) + 3F2 (g) D) K (s) + 1/2 I2 (g) → KI (s) E) H2O (s) → H2O (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2 23) Which reaction produces an increase in the entropy of the system? A) Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s) B) CO2 (s) → CO2 (g) C) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2 HCl (g) D) N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) → 2 NH3 (g) E) H2O (l) → H2O (s) Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2 24) Which of the following reactions would have a negative ΔS? A) NH4Cl (s) → NH3 (g) + HCl (g) B) PbCl2 (s) → Pb2+ (aq) + 2Cl- (aq) C) 2C (s) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) D) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) E) H2O (l) → H2O (g) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2 25) ΔS is positive for the reaction ________. A) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq) B) 2H2O (g) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) C) H2O (g) → H2O (s) D) NO (g) + O2 (g) → NO2 (g) E) Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s) Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2 7

26) For an isothermal process, the entropy change of the surroundings is given by the equation: A) ΔS = qsys T B) ΔS = -qsys T C) ΔS = q lnT D) ΔS = -q lnT E) ΔS = -qsys / T Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2 27) The equilibrium position corresponds to which letter on the graph of G vs. f (course of reaction) below?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 19.11 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 19.5

28) For the reaction C2H6 (g) → C2H4 (g) + H2 (g) ΔH° is +137 kJ/mol and ΔS° is +120 J/K ∙ mol. This reaction is ________. A) spontaneous at all temperatures B) spontaneous only at high temperature C) spontaneous only at low temperature D) nonspontaneous at all temperatures Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G2

29) For the reaction 2 C4H10 (g) + 13 O2 (g) → 8 CO2 (g) + 10 H2O (g) ΔH° is -125 kJ/mol and ΔS° is +253 J/K ∙ mol. This reaction is ________. A) spontaneous at all temperatures B) spontaneous only at high temperature C) spontaneous only at low temperature D) nonspontaneous at all temperatures E) unable to determine without more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G2 30) A reaction that is not spontaneous at low temperature can become spontaneous at high temperature if is ________ and is ________. A) +, + B) -, C) +, D) -, + E) +, 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G2 31) Given the following table of thermodynamic data,

complete the following sentence. The vaporization of Ti is ________. A) spontaneous at all temperatures B) spontaneous at low temperature and nonspontaneous at high temperature C) nonspontaneous at low temperature and spontaneous at high temperature D) nonspontaneous at all temperatures E) not enough information given to draw a conclusion Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G3

32) Consider the reaction: Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s) Given the following table of thermodynamic data,

determine the temperature (in °C) above which the reaction is nonspontaneous under standard conditions. A) 1230 B) 150 C) 432 D) 133 E) 1640 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G3 33) Consider the reaction: NH3 (g) + HCl (g) → NH4Cl (s) Given the following table of thermodynamic data,

determine the temperature (in °C) above which the reaction is nonspontaneous. A) This reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures. B) 618.1 C) 432.8 D) 345.0 E) 1235 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G3

34) Consider the reaction: FeO (s) + Fe (s) + O2 (g) → Fe2O3 (s) Given the following table of thermodynamic data,

determine the temperature (in °C) at which the reaction is nonspontaneous. A) below 618.1 B) above 2438 C) above 756.3 D) below 2438 E) This reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures. Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G3 35) With thermodynamics, one cannot determine ________. A) the speed of a reaction B) the direction of a spontaneous reaction C) the extent of a reaction D) the value of the equilibrium constant E) the temperature at which a reaction will be spontaneous Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G2 36) Which one of the following statements is true about the equilibrium constant for a reaction if ΔG° for the reaction is negative? A) K = 0 B) K = 1 C) K > 1 D) K < 1 E) More information is needed. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G2

19.2 Bimodal Questions Use the table below to answer the questions that follow. Thermodynamic Quantities for Selected Substances at 298.15 K (25 °C) Substance

ΔH°f (kJ/mol) ΔG°f (kJ/mol) S (J/K-mol)

Carbon C (s, diamond) 1.88 C (s, graphite) 0 C2H2 (g) 226.7 C2H4 (g) 52.30 C2H6 (g) -84.68 CO (g) -110.5 CO2 (g) -393.5

2.84 0 209.2 68.11 -32.89 -137.2 -394.4

2.43 5.69 200.8 219.4 229.5 197.9 213.6

Hydrogen H2( g)

130.58

Oxygen O2 (g) H2O (l)

0 -285.83

0 -237.13

205.0 69.91

1) The value of ΔS° for the catalytic hydrogenation of acetylene to ethene, C2H2 (g) + H2 (g) → C2H4 (g) is ________ J/K∙ mol. A) +18.6 B) +550.8 C) +112.0 D) -112.0 E) -18.6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3

2) The combustion of acetylene in the presence of excess oxygen yields carbon dioxide and water: 2C2H2 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) The value of ΔS° for this reaction is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +689.3 B) +122.3 C) +432.4 D) -122.3 E) -432.4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 3) The value of ΔS° for the reaction 2C (s, diamond) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -185.9 B) +185.9 C) -9.5 D) +9.5 E) -195.7 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 4) The value of ΔS° for the catalytic hydrogenation of ethene to ethane, C2H4 (g) + H2(g) → C2H6 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -101.9 B) -120.5 C) -232.5 D) +112.0 E) +101.9 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3

5) The value of ΔS° for the catalytic hydrogenation of acetylene to ethane, C2H2 (g) + 2H2 (g) → C2H6 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -76.0 B) +440.9 C) -232.5 D) +232.5 E) +28.7 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 6) The value of ΔS° for the oxidation of carbon to carbon monoxide, 2C (s, graphite) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. Carbon monoxide is produced in the combustion of carbon with limited oxygen. A) -12.8 B) +408.6 C) -408.6 D) +179.4 E) +395.8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 7) The value of ΔS° for the oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide, C (s, graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2(g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. The combustion of carbon, as in charcoal briquettes, in the presence of abundant oxygen produces carbon dioxide. A) +424.3 B) +205.0 C) -205.0 D) -2.9 E) +2.9 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 14

8) The combustion of ethene in the presence of excess oxygen yields carbon dioxide and water: C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) The value of ΔS° for this reaction is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -267.4 B) -140.9 C) -347.6 D) +347.6 E) +140.9 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 9) The combustion of ethane in the presence of excess oxygen yields carbon dioxide and water: 2C2H6 (g) + 7O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 6H2O (l) The value of ΔS° for this reaction is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +718.0 B) -620.1 C) -718.0 D) -151.0 E) +151.0 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 10) The combustion of hydrogen in the presence of excess oxygen yields liquid water: What is the value of ΔS° in J/K ∙ mol. for this reaction? A) -405.5 B) +405.5 C) -265.7 D) -326.3 E) +265.7 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3

Use the table below to answer the questions that follow. Thermodynamic Quantities for Selected Substances at 298.15 K (25 °C) Substance

ΔH°f (kJ/mol) ΔG°f (kJ/mol) S (J/K-mol)

Calcium Ca (s) CaCl2 (s) Ca2+ (aq)

0 -795.8 226.7

0 -748.1 209.2

41.4 104.6 200.8

Chlorine Cl2 (g) Cl- (aq)

0 -167.2

0 -131.2

222.96 56.5

Oxygen O2 (g) H2O (l)

0 -285.83

0 -237.13

205.0 69.91

Phosphorus P2 (g) PCl3 (g) POCl3 (g)

144.3 -288.1 -542.2

103.7 -269.6 -502.5

218.1 311.7 325

Sulfur S (s, rhombic) 0 SO2(g) -269.9 SO3(g) -395.2

0 -300.4 -370.4

31.88 248.5 256.2

11) The value of ΔS° for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur trioxide, 2S (s, rhombic) + 3O2(g) → 2SO3 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +19.3 B) -19.3 C) +493.1 D) -166.4 E) -493.1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 16

12) The value of ΔS° for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur dioxide, S (s, rhombic) + O2(g) → SO2(g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +485.4 B) +248.5 C) -11.6 D) -248.5 E) +11.6 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 13) The value of ΔS° for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur trioxide to solid elemental sulfur and gaseous oxygen, 2SO3 (g) → 2S (s, rhombic) + 3O2 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +19.3 B) -19.3 C) +493.1 D) +166.4 E) -493.1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 14) The value of ΔS° for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur dioxide to solid elemental sulfur and gaseous oxygen, SO2 (g) → S (s, rhombic) + O2 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +485.4 B) +248.5 C) -11.6 D) -248.5 E) +11.6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 17

15) The value of ΔS° for the formation of POCl3 from its constituent elements, P2 (g) + O2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2POCl3 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -442.0 B) +771.0 C) -321.0 D) -771.0 E) +321.0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 16) The value of ΔS° for the decomposition of POCl3 into its constituent elements, 2POCl3 (g) → P2 (g) + O2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) +771.0 B) +442.0 C) -321.0 D) -771.0 E) +321.0 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 17) The value of ΔS° for the formation of phosphorous trichloride from its constituent elements, P2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2PCl3 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -311.7 B) +311.7 C) -263.6 D) +129.4 E) -129.4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3

18) The value of ΔS° for the decomposition of phosphorous trichloride into its constituent elements, 2PCl3 (g) → P2 (g) + 3Cl2( g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -311.7 B) +311.7 C) +263.6 D) +129.4 E) -129.4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 19) The value of ΔS° for the formation of calcium chloride from its constituent elements, Ca (s) + Cl2 (g) → CaCl2 (s) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -104.6 B) +104.6 C) +369.0 D) -159.8 E) +159.8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3 20) The value of ΔS° for the decomposition of calcium chloride into its constituent elements, CaCl2 (s) → Ca (s) + Cl2 (g) is ________ J/K ∙ mol. A) -104.6 B) +104.6 C) +369.0 D) -159.8 E) +159.8 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.9 GO: G3

21) The value of ΔH° for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur trioxide, 2S (s, rhombic) + 3O2( g) → 2SO3 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +790.4 B) -790.4 C) +395.2 D) -395.2 E) +105.1 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 22) The value of ΔH° for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur trioxide to its component elements, 2SO3 (g) → 2S (s, rhombic) + 3O2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +790.4 B) -790.4 C) +395.2 D) -395.2 E) +105.1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 23) The value of ΔH° for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur dioxide, S (s, rhombic) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +269.9 B) -269.9 C) +0.00 D) -11.6 E) +11.6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3

24) The value of ΔH° for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur dioxide to solid elemental sulfur and gaseous oxygen, SO2 (g) → S (s,rhombic) + O2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) 0.0 B) +135.0 C) -135.90 D) -269.9 E) +269.9 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 25) The value of ΔH° for the formation of POCl3 from its constituent elements, P2 (g) + O2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2POCl3 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -1228.7 B) -397.7 C) -686.5 D) +1228.7 E) +686.5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 26) The value of ΔH° for the decomposition of POCl3 into its constituent elements, 2POCl3 (g) → P2 (g) + O2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -1228.7 B) +1228.7 C) -940.1 D) +940.1 E) 0.00 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 21

27) The value of ΔH° for the formation of phosphorous trichloride from its constituent elements, P2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2PCl3 (g) is ________ kJ/mol A) -288.1 B) +432.4 C) -720.5 D) +720.5 E) -432.4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 28) The value of ΔH° for the decomposition of phosphorous trichloride into its constituent elements, 2PCl3 (g) → P2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +576.2 B) -288.1 C) +720.5 D) +288.1 E) -720.5 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 29) The value of ΔH° for the formation of calcium chloride from its constituent elements, Ca (s) + Cl2 (g) → CaCl2 (s) is ________ kJ/mol. A) 0.00 B) -397.9 C) +397.9 D) -795.8 E) +795.8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3

30) The value of ΔH° for the decomposition of calcium chloride into its constituent elements, CaCl2 (s) → Ca (s) + Cl2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) 0.00 B) -397.9 C) +397.9 D) -795.8 E) +795.8 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.10 GO: G3 31) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur trioxide, 2S (s, rhombic) + 3O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +740.8 B) -370.4 C) +370.4 D) -740.8 E) +185.2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 32) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur dioxide, S (s, rhombic) + O2(g) → SO2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +395.2 B) +269.9 C) -269.9 D) +300.4 E) -300.4 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 23

33) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur trioxide to solid elemental sulfur and gaseous oxygen, 2SO3 (g) → 2S (s, rhombic) + 3O2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +740.8 B) -370.4 C) +370.4 D) -740.8 E) +185.2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 34) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the decomposition of gaseous sulfur dioxide to solid elemental sulfur and gaseous oxygen, SO2 (g) → S (s, rhombic) + O2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) +395.2 B) +269.9 C) -269.9 D) +300.4 E) -300.4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 19.12 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 19.5

35) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the formation of POCl3 from its constituent elements, P2 (g) + O2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2POCl3 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -1108.7 B) +1108.7 C) -606.2 D) +606.2 E) -1,005 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 24

36) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the decomposition of POCl3 into its constituent elements, 2POCl3 (g) → P2 (g) + O2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -1108.7 B) +1108.7 C) -606.2 D) +606.2 E) -1,005 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 37) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the formation of phosphorous trichloride from its constituent elements, P2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2PCl3 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -539.2 B) +539.2 C) -642.9 D) +642.9 E) -373.3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 38) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the decomposition of phosphorous trichloride into its constituent elements, 2PCl3 (g) → P2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -539.2 B) +539.2 C) -642.9 D) +642.9 E) -373.3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 25

39) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the formation of calcium chloride from its constituent elements, Ca (s) + Cl2 (g) → CaCl2 (s) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -795.8 B) +795.8 C) +763.7 D) +748.1 E) -748.1 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 40) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the decomposition of calcium chloride into its constituent elements, CaCl2 (s) → Ca (s) + Cl2 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. A) -795.8 B) +795.8 C) +763.7 D) +748.1 E) -748.1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 41) The value of ΔG° at 373 K for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur dioxide is ________ kJ/mol. At 298 K, ΔH° for this reaction is -269.9 kJ/mol, and ΔS° is +11.6 J/K. A) -300.4 B) -274.2 C) -4,597 D) +300.4 E) +4,597 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3

42) The value of ΔG° at 25 °C for the following reaction: C2H4 (g) + H2 (g) → C2H6 (g) is ________ kJ/mol. At 298 K, ΔH° for this reaction is -137.5 kJ/mol, and ΔS° is +120.5 J/K. A) -35800 B) -173.4 C) 35800 D) -101.7 E) -274.2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G3 43) Given the thermodynamic data in the table below, calculate the equilibrium constant (at 298 K) for the reaction: 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2 SO3 (g)

A) 2.40 × 1024 B) 1.06 C) 1.95 D) 3.82 × 1023 E) More data are needed. Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G3 44) The value of ΔG° for a reaction conducted at 25 °C is 3.05 kJ/mol. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is ________ at this temperature. A) 0.292 B) -4.20 C) 0.320 D) -1.13 E) More information is needed. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G3

45) What is the equilibrium constant for a reaction at 25 °C? ΔG° for the reaction is 2.8 kJ/mol. A) 1.13 B) 0.32 C) -4.2 D) -1.13 E) More information is needed. Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G3 46) Consider the reaction between ammonia and hydrochloric acid to produce ammonium chloride. Given the following table of thermodynamic data at 298 K:

The value of K for the reaction at 25 °C is ________. A) 8.4 × 104 B) 150 C) 1.1 × 10-16 D) 9.3 × 1015 E) 1.4 × 108 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G3

47) Consider the reaction: FeO (s) + Fe (s) + O2(g) → Fe2O3 (s) Given the following table of thermodynamic data at 298 K:

The value K for the reaction at 25 °C is ________. A) 370 B) 5.9 × 104 C) 3.8 × 10-14 D) 7.1 × 1085 E) 8.1 × 1019 Answer: D Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G3 48) Consider the formation of solid silver chloride from aqueous silver and chloride ions. Given the following table of thermodynamic data at 298 K:

The value of K for the reaction at 25 °C is ________. A) 1.9 × 10-10 B) 810 C) 1.8 × 104 D) 3.7 × 1010 E) 5.3 × 109 Answer: E Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G3

19.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The normal boiling point of methanol is kJ/mol. The value of ΔS when 1.75 mol of A) 0.372 B) 372 C) 1.94 × D) 4.24 × E) 1.94 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.3 GO: G4

and the molar enthalpy of vaporization if 71.8 vaporizes at 64.7 °C is

2) The normal boiling point of water is 100.0 °C and its molar enthalpy of vaporization is 40.67 kJ/mol. What is the change in entropy in the system in J/K when 24.7 grams of steam at 1 atm condenses to a liquid at the normal boiling point? A) 88.8 B) -88.8 C) -150 D) 373 E) -40.7 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.3 GO: G4 3) The normal boiling point of C2Cl3F3 is 47.6 °C and its molar enthalpy of vaporization is 27.49 kJ/mol. What is the change in entropy in the system in J/K when 28.6 grams of C2Cl3F3 vaporizes to a gas at the normal boiling point? A) -13.1 B) -4.19 C) 4.19 D) 13.1 E) 27.5 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.3 GO: G4

4) What is the change in entropy in the system in J/K when 112.2 grams of ethanol at 1 atm condenses to a liquid at the normal boiling point? The normal boiling point of ethanol (C2H5OH) is 78.3 °C and its molar enthalpy of vaporization is 38.56 kJ/mol. A) 382 B) 1199 C) -267 D) -1199 E) -382 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.3 GO: G4 5) Which one of the following processes produces a decrease in the entropy of the system? A) freezing of Fe(l) into Fe(s) B) evaporation of liquid ethanol into gaseous ethanol C) dissolution of LiOH(s) in water D) melting ice to form water E) mixing of two gases into one container Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.4 GO: G2 6) ΔS is negative for the reaction ________. A) Sr(NO3)2 (aq) + 2LiOH (aq) → Sr(OH)2 (s) + 2LiNO3 (aq) B) 2H2O (g) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) C) CH3OH (l) → CH3OH (g) D) LiOH (aq) → Li+ (aq) + OH– (aq) E) C6H12O6 (s) → 6C (s) + 6H2 (g) + 3O2 (g) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.6 GO: G2 7) Which of the following has the largest entropy? A) HI (g) B) HBr (g) C) HCl (g) D) HCl (s) E) HCl (l) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2 31

8) Which of the following has the largest entropy? A) B2F4 (g) B) BF3 (g) C) B2H6 (g) D) BCl3 (l) E) B2O3 (s) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2 9) Which of the following has the largest entropy at A) C3H4 B) C3H6 C) C3H8 D) E) C2H6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2

and atm?

10) Which of the following has the largest entropy at A) Cl2 B) F2 C) I2 D) Br2 E) O3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 19.4 LO: 19.8 GO: G2

and atm?

11) The standard Gibbs free energy of formation of ________ is zero. (a) O (l) (b) O (g) (c) (g) A) (a) only B) (b) only C) (c) only D) (b) and (c) E) (a), (b), and (c) Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G2 12) The standard Gibbs free energy of formation of ________ is zero. (a) O (l) (b) Fe (s) (c) (s) A) (a) only B) (b) only C) (c) only D) (b) and (c) E) (a), (b), and (c) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G2

13) The standard Gibbs free energy of formation of ________ is zero. (a) Mn (s) (b) I2 (s) (c) Cu (s) A) (a) only B) (b) only C) (c) only D) (b) and (c) E) (a), (b), and (c) Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G2 14) The value of ΔG° at 261.0 °C for the formation of phosphorous trichloride from its constituent elements, (g) +

(g) →

(g)

is ________ kJ/mol. At 25.0 °C for this reaction, ΔH° is -720.5 kJ/mol, ΔG° is is A) -579.6 B) 6.81 × C) 1.40 × 105 D) -651.7 E) -861.4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G4

and

15) The value of ΔG° at 181.0 °C for the formation of calcium chloride from calcium metal and chlorine gas is ________ kJ/mol. At 25.0 °C for this reaction, ΔH° is -795.8 kJ/mol, ΔG° is 748.1 kJ/mol, and is A) 7.18 × B) -868.4 C) -766.9 D) -723.2 E) 2.81 × Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G4 34

16) The signs of ΔH° and ΔS° must be ________ and ________, respectively, for a reaction to be spontaneous at high temperatures but nonspontaneous at low temperatures. A) +, – B) –, + C) –, – D) +, + E) +, 0 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G2 17) Given the following table of thermodynamic data, complete the following sentence. The vaporization of H2O2 (l) is ________. A) nonspontaneous at low temperature and spontaneous at high temperature B) spontaneous at low temperature and nonspontaneous at high temperature C) spontaneous at all temperatures D) nonspontaneous at all temperatures E) not enough information given to draw a conclusion Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G2 18) For the reaction C(s) + O(g) → CO(g) +

(g)

ΔH° = 133.3 kJ/mol and ΔS° = 121.6 J/K ∙ mol at 298 K. At temperatures greater than ________ °C this reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions. A) 273 B) 325 C) 552 D) 823 E) 1096 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4

19) At what temperature in Kelvin will a reaction have ? ΔH = -24.2 kJ/mol and ΔS = 55.5 J/K-mol and assume both do not vary with temperature. A) 2.29 B) 2293 C) 298 D) 436 E) 0.436 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4 20) At what temperature will a reaction be spontaneous? ΔH = +22.2 kJ/mol and ΔS = +81.1 J/K-mol and assume both do not vary with temperature. A) at T > 298 K B) at T < 274 K C) at T < 298 K D) at T > 274 K E) at all temperatures Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 12 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4 21) For a given reaction, ΔH = +74.6 kJ/mol, and the reaction is spontaneous at temperatures above the crossover temperature, The value of assuming that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature. A) 166 B) 6020 C) -166 D) -6020 E) 3.35 × 104 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4

22) For a given reaction, ΔS = +69.0 J/mol∙K, and the reaction is spontaneous at temperatures above the crossover temperature, The value of assuming that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature. A) 30.3 B) -30.3 C) 1.57 × 10-4 D) -1.57 × 10-4 E) 6.36 × 10-3 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4 23) For a given reaction with ΔH = -28.1 kJ/mol, the ΔG = 0 at The value of ΔS must be assuming that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature. A) -75.5 B) 75.5 C) -7.55 × 10-5 D) 7.55 × 10-5 E) -1.32 × 10-2 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4 24) For a given reaction with ΔS = -50.8 J/K-mol, the ΔG = 0 at The value of ΔH must be assuming that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature. A) -20.1 B) 20.1 C) -1.29 × 10-4 D) 1.29 × 10-4 E) -7.78 × 10-3 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4

25) What is the equilibrium constant for a reaction at 25 °C. The value of ΔG° is -57.5 kJ/mol. A) 8.4 × 10101 B) 10 C) 1.0 D) 1.2 × 1010 E) more information is needed Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G4 26) If ΔG° for a reaction is less than zero, then ________. A) K > 1 B) K = 1 C) K < 1 D) K = 0 E) more information is needed. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G2 27) In the Haber process, ammonia gas is synthesized from nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas. ΔG° at 298 K for this reaction is -33.3 kJ/mol. The value of ΔG at 298 K for a reaction mixture that consists of 1.9 atm nitrogen gas, 2.3 atm hydrogen gas, and 0.85 atm ammonia gas is ________. A) -1.0 B) -4.09 × C) -8.62 × 103 D) -118.0 E) -41.9 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.14, 19.15 GO: G4

28) Phosphorous and chlorine gases combine to produce phosphorous trichloride. ΔG° at 298 K for this reaction is -642.9 kJ/mol. The value of ΔG at 298 K for a reaction mixture that consists of and is ________. A) -650.1 B) -34.9 C) -714.1 D) -4.46 × E) -7.86 × 103 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 15 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.14, 19.15 GO: G4 29) The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 0.38 at 25 °C. What is the value of ΔG° (kJ/mol) at this temperature? A) 2.4 B) -4.2 C) 200 D) 4.2 E) More information is needed. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G4 30) The equilibrium constant for the following reaction is 3.0 × (g) + 3 (g) 2N (g) The value of ΔG° for this reaction is ________ kJ/mol. A) 22 B) -4.1 C) 4.1 D) -48 E) -22 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G4

at 25 °C.

19.4 Short Answer Questions 1) A reversible change produces the maximum amount of ________ that can be achieved by the system on the surroundings. Answer: work Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.1 LO: 19.1 GO: G2 2) Calculate ΔG° (in kJ/mol) for the following reaction at 1 atm and 25 °C: C2H6 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) (unbalanced) ΔGf° C2H6 (g) = -32.89 kJ/mol; ΔGf° CO2 (g) = -394.4 kJ/mol; ΔGf° H2O (l) = -237.13 kJ/mol Answer: -2935.0 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G4 3) Calculate ΔG∘ (in kJ/mol) for the following reaction at 1 atm and 25 °C: C2H6 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (l) (unbalanced) ΔHf∘ C2H6 (g) = -84.7 kJ/mol; S∘ C2H6 (g) = 229.5 J/K ∙ mol; ΔHf∘ CO2 (g) = -393.5 kJ/mol; S∘ CO2 (g) = 213.6 J/K ∙ mol; ΔHf∘ H2O (l) = -285.8 kJ/mol; S∘H2O (l) = 69.9 J/K ∙ mol; S∘O2 (g) = 205.0 J/K ∙ mol Answer: -2934.0 Diff: 5 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.5 LO: 19.12 GO: G4 4) At what temperature (in K) will a reaction become spontaneous? ΔH is 115.0 kJ/mol and ΔS is 75.00 J/K ∙ mol. Answer: 1533 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4 5) At what temperature (in K) will a reaction become spontaneous? ΔH is 65.0 kJ/mol and ΔS is 149.00 J/K ∙ mol. Answer: 436 Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.6 LO: 19.13 GO: G4 40

6) What is the ΔG° (kJ/mol) for the formation of silver chloride at 25 °C? Ksp = 1.8 × 10-10 Answer: 56 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G4 19.5 True/False Questions 1) The melting of a substance at its melting point is an isothermal process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 2) The vaporization of a substance at its boiling point is an isothermal process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 3) The quantity of energy gained by a system equals the quantity of energy gained by its surroundings. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.2 LO: 19.2 GO: G2 4) The entropy of a pure crystalline substance at 0 K is zero. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.3 LO: 19.7 GO: G2 5) The more negative ΔG° is for a given reaction, the larger the value of the corresponding equilibrium constant, K. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 19.7 LO: 19.15 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 20 Electrochemistry 20.1 Multiple-Choice 1) Which element is oxidized in the reaction below? Fe(CO)5 (l) + 2HI (g) → Fe(CO)4I2 (s) + CO (g) + H2 (g) A) C B) O C) H D) Fe E) I Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

2) Which element is oxidized in the reaction below? Fe2+ + H+ + Cr2O72- → Fe3+ + Cr3+ + H2O A) Cr B) O C) H D) Fe Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

3) Which element is oxidized in the reaction below? I- + MnO4- + H+ → I2 + MnO2 + H2O A) H B) I C) O D) Mn Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

4) Which of the following reactions is a redox reaction? (a) K2CrO4 + BaCl2 → BaCrO4 + 2KCl (b) Pb22+ + 2Br- → PbBr (c) Cu + S → CuS A) (a) only B) (b) only C) (c) only D) (a) and (c) E) (b) and (c) Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

5) Which one of the following reactions is a redox reaction? A) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O B) Pb2+ + 2Cl- → PbCl2 C) AgNO3 + HCl → HNO3 + AgCl D) None of the above is a redox reaction. Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 6) Which substance is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction? Fe2S3 + 12HNO3 → 2Fe(NO3)3 + 3S + 6NO2 + 6H2O A) HNO3 B) S C) NO2 D) Fe2S3 E) H2O Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

7) What is the coefficient of the permanganate ion when the following equation is balanced? MnO4- + Br- → Mn2+ + Br2 (acidic solution) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 20.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.2

8) What is the coefficient of the dichromate ion when the following equation is balanced? Fe2+ + Cr2O72- → Fe3+ + Cr3+ (acidic solution) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 20.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.2

9) What is the coefficient of when the following equation is balanced? CN- + Fe3+ → CNO- + Fe2+ (basic solution) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 20.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.2

10) Which transformation could take place at the anode of an electrochemical cell? A) Cr2O72- → Cr2+ B) to C) O2 to H2O D) HAsO2 to As E) None of the above could take place at the anode. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 11) The purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell is to ________. A) maintain electrical neutrality in the half-cells via migration of ions B) provide a source of ions to react at the anode and cathode C) provide oxygen to facilitate oxidation at the anode D) provide a means for electrons to travel from the anode to the cathode E) provide a means for electrons to travel from the cathode to the anode Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 12) Which transformation below is an example of an oxidation in an electrochemical cell? A) CO2 → C2O42B) VO2+ → VO2+ C) NO → NO3D) H2AsO4 → H3AsO3 E) O2 → H2O2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 13) Which transformation could take place at the cathode of an electrochemical cell? A) MnO2 → MnO4B) Br2 → BrO3C) NO → HNO2 D) HSO4- → H2SO3 E) Mn2+ → MnO4Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 4

Table 20.1 Half Reaction F2 (g) + 2e- → 2F- (aq) Cl2 (g) + 2e- → 2Cl- (aq) Br2 (l) + 2e- → 2Br- (aq) O2 (g) + (aq) + 4e- → 2H2O (l) Ag+ + e- → Ag (s) Fe3+ (aq) + e- → (aq) I2 (s) + 2e → (aq) Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu (s) 2H+ + 2e- → (g) Pb2+ + 2e- → Pb (s) Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni (s) Li+ + e- → Li (s)

E°(V) +2.87 +1.359 +1.065 +1.23 +0.799 +0.771 +0.536 +0.34 0 -0.126 -0.28 -3.05

14) Which of the halogens in Table 20.1 is the strongest oxidizing agent? A) Cl2 B) Br2 C) F2 D) I2 E) All of the halogens have equal strength as oxidizing agents. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.5 GO: G3 15) Which one of the following types of elements is most likely to be a good oxidizing agent? A) alkali metals B) lanthanides C) alkaline earth elements D) transition elements E) halogens Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.5 GO: G3

16) Which one of the following is the best oxidizing agent? A) H2 B) Na C) O2 D) Li E) Ca Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.5 GO: G3 Table 20.2

17) Which of the following reactions will occur spontaneously as written? A) Sn4+ (aq) + Fe3+ (aq) → Sn2+ (aq) + Fe2+ (aq) B) 3Fe (s) + 2Cr3+ (aq) → 2Cr (s) + 3Fe2+ (aq) C) Sn4+ (aq) + Fe2+ (aq) → Sn2+ (aq) + Fe (s) D) 3Sn4+ (aq) + 2Cr (s) → 2Cr3+ (aq) + 3Sn2+ (aq) E) 3Fe2+ (aq) → Fe (s) + 2Fe3+ (aq) Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G3 18) Which of the following reactions will occur spontaneously as written? A) 3Fe2+ (aq) + Cr3+ (aq) → Cr (s) + 3Fe3+ (aq) B) 2Cr3+ (aq) + 3Sn2+ (aq) → 3Sn4+ (aq) + 2Cr (s) C) Sn4+ (aq) + Fe2+ (s) → Sn2+ (aq) + Fe (s) D) Sn2+ (aq) + Fe2+ (s) → Sn4+ (aq) + Fe3+ (aq) E) 2Cr (s) + 3Fe2+ (s) → 3Fe (s) + 2Cr3+ (aq) Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G3

19) Consider an electrochemical cell based on the reaction: 2H+ (aq) + Sn (s) → Sn2+ (aq) + H2 (g) Which of the following actions would change the measured cell potential? A) increasing the pH in the cathode compartment B) lowering the pH in the cathode compartment C) increasing the [Sn2+] in the anode compartment D) increasing the pressure of hydrogen gas in the cathode compartment E) Any of the above will change the measure cell potential. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G2 20) Consider an electrochemical cell based on the reaction: 2H+ (aq) + Sn (s) → Sn2+ (aq) + H2 (g) Which of the following actions would not change the measured cell potential? A) lowering the pH in the cathode compartment B) addition of more tin metal to the anode compartment C) increasing the tin (II) ion concentration in the anode compartment D) increasing the pressure of hydrogen gas in the cathode compartment E) Any of the above will change the measured cell potential. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G2 21) What is the anode in an alkaline battery? A) MnO2 B) KOH C) Zn powder D) Mn2O3 E) Pt Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.8 GO: G2

22) What is the cathode in an alkaline battery? A) MnO2 B) KOH C) Zn powder D) Mn2O3 E) Pt Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.8 GO: G2 23) What is being reduced at the cathode in the hydrogen fuel cell? A) O2 B) KOH C) Li D) H2 E) Pt Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.10 GO: G2 24) In a lead-acid battery, the electrodes are consumed. In this battery, ________. A) the anode is Pb B) the anode is PbSO4 C) the anode is PbO2 D) the cathode is PbSO4 E) the cathode is Pb Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.8 GO: G2

25) Which of the statements about cathodic protection of a metal pipe against corrosion is correct? A) The metal pipe is protected by attaching an active metal to make the pipe the cathode in an electrochemical cell B) The metal pipe is protected by coating the pipe with another metal whose standard reduction potential is less negative than that of the pipe C) The metal pipe is protected by attaching a dry cell to reduce any metal ions which might be formed D) The metal pipe is protected by attaching an active metal to make the pipe the anode in an electrochemical cell E) The metal pipe is protected by coating the pipe with a fluoropolymer to act as a source of fluoride ion (since the latter is so hard to oxidize) Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.8 LO: 20.11 GO: G2 26) One of the differences between a voltaic cell and an electrolytic cell is that in an electrolytic cell, ________. A) an electric current is produced by a chemical reaction B) electrons flow toward the anode C) a nonspontaneous reaction is forced to occur D) O2 gas is produced at the cathode E) oxidation occurs at the cathode Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.12 GO: G2

20.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The loss of electrons by an element is called ________. A) fractionation B) reduction C) disproportionation D) oxidation E) sublimation Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 2) Which element is oxidized in the following reaction? Cr2O72- + 6S2O32- + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ + 3S4O62- + 7H2O A) S4O62B) Cr C) H D) O E) S Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

3) Which element is reduced in the following reaction? Cr2O72- + 6S2O32- + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ + 3S4O62- + 7H2O A) H B) Cr C) O D) S E) S4O62Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

4) ________ is the reducing agent in the reaction below. Cr2O72- + 6S2O32- + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ + 3S4O62- + 7H2O A) Cr2O72B) S2O32C) H+ D) Cr3+ E) S4O62Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

5) ________ is the reducing agent in the reaction below. Na(s) + 2Cl2(g) → 2NaCl(s) A) Cl2 B) NaCl C) Na+ D) Na E) ClAnswer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

6) ________ is the oxidizing agent in the reaction below. Na(s) + 2Cl2(g) → 2NaCl(s) A) Na+ B) ClC) Na D) NaCl E) Cl2 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

7) Which substance is serving as the oxidizing agent in the following reaction? CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) A) H2O B) CH4 C) O2 D) CO2 E) The reaction above is not a redox reaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 8) Which substance is the oxidizing agent in the reaction below? Pb + PbO2 + 2H2SO4 → 2PbSO4 + 2H2O A) Pb B) PbSO4 C) H2SO4 D) PbO2 E) H2O Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

9) Which substance does not undergo oxidation or reduction in the reaction below? Pb + PbO2 + 2H2SO4 → 2PbSO4 + 2H2O A) Pb B) H2SO4 C) PbO2 D) PbSO4 E) The reaction above is not a redox reaction Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

10) What is the oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7? A) +3 B) +12 C) +6 D) +7 E) +14 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 11) What is the oxidation number of oxygen in H2O2? A) 0 B) +1 C) +2 D) -1 E) -2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 12) What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO4? A) +1 B) +2 C) +7 D) +4 E) +5 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 13) What is the oxidation number of manganese in MnO2? A) +3 B) +2 C) +1 D) +4 E) +7 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

14) What is the oxidation number of oxygen in K2O2? A) -2 B) +1 C) -1 D) +2 E) -1/2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 15) ________ electrons appear in the following half-reaction when it is balanced. S4O62- → 2S2O32A) 6 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 E) 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 20.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.2

16) The balanced half-reaction in which chlorine gas is reduced to the aqueous chloride ion is a ________ process. A) one-electron B) two-electron C) four-electron D) three-electron E) six-electron Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.2 LO: 20.2 GO: G2

17) The balanced half-reaction in which dichromate ion is reduced to chromium metal is a ________ process. A) two-electron B) six-electron C) three-electron D) four-electron E) twelve-electron Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.2 LO: 20.2 GO: G2 18) The balanced half-reaction in which ethanol, CH3CH2OH, is oxidized to ethanoic acid, CH3COOH. is a ________ process. A) twelve-electron B) three-electron C) four-electron D) six-electron E) two-electron Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.2 LO: 20.2 GO: G2 19) The balanced half-reaction in which sulfate ion is reduced to sulfite ion is a ________ process. A) four-electron B) one-electron C) two-electron D) three-electron E) six-electron Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.2 LO: 20.2 GO: G2 20) The electrode at which oxidation occurs is called the ________. A) oxidizing agent B) cathode C) reducing agent D) anode E) voltaic cell Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 15

21) The half-reaction occurring at the anode in the balanced reaction shown below is ________. 3MnO4- (aq) + 24H+ (aq) + 5Fe (s) → 3Mn2+ (aq) + 5Fe3+ (aq) + 12H2O (l) A) MnO4- (aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e- → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (l) B) 2MnO4- (aq) + 12H+ (aq) + 6e- → 2Mn2+ (aq) + 3H2O (l) C) Fe (s) → Fe3+ (aq) + 3eD) Fe (s) → Fe2+ (aq) + 2eE) Fe2+ (aq) → Fe3+ (aq) + eAnswer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 22) The half-reaction occurring at the cathode in the balanced reaction shown below is ________. 3MnO4- (aq) + 24H+ (aq) + 5Fe (s) → 3Mn2+ (aq) + 5Fe3+ (aq) + 12H2O (l) A) MnO4- (aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5 → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (l) B) 2MnO4- (aq) + 12H+ (aq) + 6e- → 2Mn2+ (aq) + 3H2O (l) C) Fe (s) → Fe3+ (aq) + 3eD) Fe (s) → Fe2+ (aq) + 2eE) Fe2+ (aq) → Fe3+ (aq) + eAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 23) In a voltaic cell, electrons flow from the ________ to the ________. A) salt bride, anode B) anode, salt bridge C) cathode, anode D) salt bridge, cathode E) anode, cathode Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2

24) The reduction half reaction occurring in the standard hydrogen electrode is ________. A) H2 (g, 1 atm) → 2H+ (aq, 1M) + 2eB) 2H+ (aq) + 2O → H2O (l) C) O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e- → 2H2O (l) D) 2H+ (aq, 1M) + 2e- → H2 (g, 1 atm) E) 2H+ (aq, 1M) + Cl2 (aq) → 2HCl (aq) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.4 GO: G2 25) 1V = ________. A) 1 amp ∙ s B) 1 J/s C) 96485 C D) 1 J/C E) 1 C/J Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.4 GO: G2 26) The less ________ the value of E°red, the lower the driving force for reduction. A) negative B) exothermic C) positive D) endothermic E) extensive Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.4 GO: G2

Table 20.2

27) The standard cell potential (E°cell) for the voltaic cell based on the reaction below is ________ V. Sn2+ (aq) + 2Fe3+ (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + Sn4+ (aq) A) +0.46 B) +0.617 C) +1.39 D) -0.46 E) +1.21 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.4 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 20.4

28) The standard cell potential (E°cell) for the voltaic cell based on the reaction below is ________ V. Cr (s) + 3Fe3+ (aq) → 3Fe2+ (aq) + Cr3+ (aq) A) -1.45 B) +2.99 C) +1.51 D) +3.05 E) +1.57 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.4 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 20.4

29) The standard cell potential (E°cell) for the voltaic cell based on the reaction below is ________ V. 2Cr (s) + 3Fe2+ (aq) → 3Fe (s) + 2Cr3+ (aq) A) +0.30 B) +2.80 C) +3.10 D) +0.83 E) -0.16 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.4 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 20.4

30) The standard cell potential (E°cell) for the voltaic cell based on the reaction below is ________ V. 3Sn4+ (aq) + 2Cr (s) → 2Cr3+ (aq) + 3Sn2+ (aq) A) +1.94 B) +0.89 C) +2.53 D) -0.59 E) -1.02 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.4 GO: G3

Page Ref: Sec. 20.4

31) The relationship between the change in Gibbs free energy and the emf of an electrochemical cell is given by ________. A) ΔG = B) ΔG = C) ΔG = -nFE D) ΔG = -nRTF E) ΔG = Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.5

32) The standard cell potential (E°cell) of the reaction below is +0.126 V. The value of the reaction is ________ kJ/mol. Pb (s) + 2H+(aq) → Pb2+ (aq) + H2 (g) A) -24.3 B) +24.3 C) -12.6 D) +12.6 E) -50.8 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.6 GO: G4

for

Page Ref: Sec. 20.5

33) The standard cell potential (E°cell) of the reaction below is -0.55 V. The value of reaction is ________ J/mol. I2 (s) + 2Br- (aq) → 2I- (aq) + Br2 (l)

for the

A) 0.54 B) 0.55 C) 5.5 × 10-6 D) 1.1 × 105 E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G4 34) The standard cell potential (E°cell) of the reaction below is -0.34 V. The value of reaction is ________ kJ/mol. Cu (s) + 2H+ (aq) → Cu2+ (aq) + H2 (g) A) -0.34 B) +66 C) -130 D) +130 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G4

for the

35) The standard cell potential (E°cell) of the reaction below is +1.34 V. The value of reaction is ________ kJ/mol. 3 Cu (s) + 2 MnO4- (aq) + 8H+ (aq) → 3 Cu2+ (aq) + 2 MnO2 (s) + 4 H2O (l) A) -24.3 B) +259 C) -259 D) +776 E) -776 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 20.6 GO: G4

for the

Page Ref: Sec. 20.5

36) The lead-containing reactant(s) consumed during recharging of a lead-acid battery is/are ________. A) Pb (s) only B) PbO2 (s) only C) PbSO4 (s) only D) both Pb (s) and PbSO4 (s) E) both Pb (s) and PbO2 (s) Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.8 GO: G2 37) Galvanized iron is iron coated with ________. A) magnesium B) zinc C) chromium D) phosphate E) iron oxide Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.8 LO: 20.11 GO: G2

38) Corrosion of iron is retarded by ________. A) the presence of salts B) high pH conditions C) low pH conditions D) both the presence of salts and high pH conditions E) both the presence of salts and low pH conditions Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.8 LO: 20.11 GO: G2 20.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) What is the oxidation number of bromine in the HBrO molecule? A) +1 B) +2 C) 0 D) -1 E) -2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 2) What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in the NH2OH molecule? A) -1 B) -2 C) -3 D) 0 E) +1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 3) What is the oxidation number of sulfur in the S2O32– ion? A) +2 B) +1 C) 0 D) -1 E) -2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 22

4) Which substance is the oxidizing agent in the reaction below? Fe (l) + 2HI (g) → Fe (s) + CO (g) + (g) A) HI B) Fe(CO)5 C) Fe(CO)4I2 D) CO E) H2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

5) Which element is reduced in the reaction below? Fe2+ + H+ + Cr2O72- → Fe3+ + Cr3+ + O A) Cr B) Fe C) H D) O Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

6) Which element is oxidized in the reaction below? I- + MnO4- + H+ → I2 + MnO2 + H2O A) I B) Mn C) O D) H Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

7) Which element is reduced in the following reaction? + 12HN → 2Fe(N + 3S + 6N + 6H2O A) N B) S C) H D) O E) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 20.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.1

8) What is the oxidation number of phosphorous in the PH3 molecule? A) -3 B) -4 C) -5 D) +1 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 20.1 LO: 20.1 GO: G2 9) What is the correct coefficient for the electrons in the following half-reaction: Ni6+ + ___e– → Ni A) 6 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 LO: 20.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 20.2

10) In the galvanic cell using the redox reaction below, the reduction half-reaction is ________. Zn (s) +

(aq) →

(aq) + Cu (s)

A) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu B) Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– C) Cu2+ → Cu + 2e– D) Zn + 2e– → Zn2+ Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 11) In the electrochemical cell using the redox reaction below, the cathode half-reaction is ________. 2

(s) + Sn (s) →

(aq) + H2 (g)

A) 2H+ + 2e– → H2 B) Sn → Sn2+ + 2e– C) 2H+ → H2 + 2e– D) Sn + 2e– → Sn2+ E) Sn + → H2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 12) In the electrochemical cell using the redox reaction below, the oxidation half reaction is ________. (aq) + Fe (s) →

(aq) +

(aq)

A) Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ B) Fe → Fe2+ + 2e– C) Sn4+ → Sn2+ + 2e– D) Fe + 2e– → Fe2+ E) Fe + → Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 25

13) The standard cell potential (E°) of a voltaic cell constructed using the cell reaction below is 0.76 V: Zn (s) + With

(aq) →

= 1.0 atm and [

(aq) +

(g)

] = 1.0 M, the cell potential is 0.53 V. At 25 °C, the concentration

in the cathode compartment is ________ M. A) 1.3 × 10-4 B) 1.7 × 10-8 C) 1.1 × 10-2 D) 7.7 × 103 E) 1.3 × 10-11 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G4 14) A voltaic cell is constructed with two silver-silver chloride electrodes, where the halfreaction is AgCl (s) +

→ Ag (s) +

(aq)

E° = +0.222 V

The concentrations of chloride ion in the two compartments are 0.0100 M and 1.55 M, respectively. At 25 °C, the cell emf is ________ V. A) 0.216 B) 0.130 C) 0.00143 D) 34.4 E) 0.228 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G4

15) The standard cell potential ( ) for the reaction below is +0.63 V. At 25 °C, the cell potential for this reaction is ________ V when [ ] = 3.0 M and [ ]= (aq) + Zn (s) → (aq) + Pb (s) A) 0.51 B) 0.86 C) 0.40 D) 0.75 E) 0.63 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 8 LO: 20.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 20.6

16) The standard cell potential ( ) for the reaction below is +1.10 V. The cell potential for this reaction is ________ V when the concentration of and Zn (s) + (aq) → Cu (s) + (aq) A) 1.42 B) 1.26 C) 0.94 D) 0.78 E) 1.10 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 8 LO: 20.7 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 20.6

17) A voltaic cell is constructed with two +

→ Zn (s)

-Zn electrodes, where the half-reaction is

E° = -0.763 V

The concentrations of zinc ion in the two compartments are 4.50 M and 1.11 × respectively. The cell emf is ________ V. A) -1.88 × B) -309 C) 0.0772 D) 0.154 E) -0.761 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G4

18) The standard emf for the cell using the overall cell reaction below is +2.20 V: 2Al (s) +

(s) →

(aq) +

(aq)

The emf generated by the cell when [ ] = 3.5 × A) 2.20 B) 2.28 C) 2.12 D) 2.36 E) 2.23 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G4

M and [ ] = 0.30 M is

19) The standard emf for the cell using the overall cell reaction below is +0.48 V: Zn (s) +

(aq) →

(aq) + Ni (s)

The emf generated by the cell when [ ] = 0.100 M and [ A) 0.56 B) 0.50 C) 0.44 D) 0.40 E) 0.52 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G4

] = 2.25 M is

20) How many kilowatt-hours of electricity are used to produce 4.50 kg of magnesium in the electrolysis of molten with an applied emf of 5.00 V? A) 0.0201 B) 0.0496 C) 12.4 D) 49.6 E) 24.8 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

21) The most useful ore of aluminum is bauxite, in which Al is present as hydrated oxides, The number of kilowatt-hours of electricity required to produce of aluminum from electrolysis of compounds from bauxite is ________ when the applied emf is A) 0.0249 B) 0.0402 C) 26.8 D) 13.4 E) 40.2 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 10 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 20.9

22) The town of Natrium, West Virginia, derives its name from the sodium produced in the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl) mined from ancient salt deposits. The number of kilowatt-hours of electricity required to produce 4.50 kg of metallic sodium from the electrolysis of molten NaCl(s) is ________ when the applied emf is 5.00 V. A) 26.2 B) 0.0381 C) 0.0262 D) 52.5 E) 13.1 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4 23) The electrolysis of molten for 2.50 hr with an electrical current of 12.0 A produces of aluminum metal. A) 90.7 B) 0.373 C) 2.80 × D) 10.1 E) 30.2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

24) How many seconds are required to produce 5.00 g of aluminum metal from the electrolysis of molten with an electrical current of 15.0 A? A) 27.0 B) 9.00 C) 1.19E × 103 D) 2.90 × 105 E) 3.57 × 103 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4 25) How many minutes will it take to plate out 2.19 g of chromium metal from a solution of using a current of 19.5 amps in an electrolytic cell? A) 10.4 B) 625 C) 208 D) 3.47 E) 31.2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4 26) What current (in A) is required to plate out 1.22 g of nickel from a solution of hour? A) 65.4 B) 8.02 × C) 2.22 D) 12.9 E) 4.46 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

in 0.50

27) How many grams of Ca metal are produced by the electrolysis of molten Ca current of 30.0 amp for 8.0 hours? A) 17.9 B) 359 C) 0.0622 D) 179 E) 89.7 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

using a

28) How many grams of Cu are obtained by passing a current of 12 A through a solution of for 15 minutes? A) 0.016 B) 3.6 C) 7.1 D) 14 E) 1.8 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4 29) How many seconds are required to produce 1.0 g of silver metal by the electrolysis of a AgN solution using a current of 60 amps? A) 5.4 × B) 3.2 × C) 15 D) 3.7 × E) 30 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

30) How many grams of copper will be plated out by a current of 2.3 A applied for 35 minutes to a 0.50 M solution of copper (II) sulfate? A) 1.6 B) 3.2 C) 1.8 × D) 3.6 × E) 0.019 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4 31) How much time (min) will it require to plate out 4.56 g of Ni metal from a solution of Ni2+ using a current of 35.5 amps in an electrolytic cell? A) 4.55 B) 3.52 C) 211 D) 7.04 E) 422 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4 32) How many minutes will it take to plate out 16.22 g of Al metal from a solution of Al3+ using a current of 14.6 amps in an electrolytic cell? A) 53.0 B) 66.2 C) 153 D) 199 E) 11900 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G4

20.4 Short Answer 1) Based on standard reduction potentials, the most difficult species to reduce and the poorest oxidizing agent is ________. Answer: lithium ion; Li+ Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G2 2) At constant ________ and ________ the Gibbs free energy value is a measure of the spontaneity of a process. Answer: temperature, pressure Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G2 3) In the formula ΔG = -nFE, n is the ________. Answer: number of electrons transferred in the reaction Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.5 LO: 20.6 GO: G2 4) Define the Nernst equation. Answer: the dependence of cell emf on concentration Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G2 5) The potential (E) to move K+ from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid necessitates work. The sign for this potential is ________. Answer: negative Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.6 LO: 20.7 GO: G2 6) The ________ of the alkaline battery is powdered zinc in a gel that contacts potassium hydroxide. Answer: anode Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.8 GO: G2 7) The major product of a ________ fuel cell is water. Answer: hydrogen Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.10 GO: G2 33

8) What is a galvanized iron nail? Answer: when an iron nail is coated with a thin layer of zinc to protect against corrosion Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.8 GO: G2 9) Define a coulomb. Answer: the quantity of charge passing a point in a circuit in one second when the current is one ampere Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.12 GO: G2 10) Calculate the number of grams of aluminum produced in 1.00 hour by electrolysis of AlCl3 at a current of 10.0 A. Answer: 3.36 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.13 GO: G2 20.5 True/False Questions 1) The electrode where reduction occurs is called the anode. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 2) In a voltaic cell electrons flow from the anode to the cathode. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.3 LO: 20.3 GO: G2 3) When the cell potential is negative in a voltaic cell, the cell reaction will not proceed spontaneously. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.5 GO: G2 4) The standard reduction potential, E°red, is proportional to the stoichiometric coefficient. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.4 GO: G2 34

5) The standard reduction potential of X is 1.23 V and that of Y is -0.44 V; therefore X is oxidized by Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.4 LO: 20.4 GO: G2 6) The lithium ion battery has more energy per unit mass than nickel-cadmium batteries. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.7 LO: 20.9 GO: G2 7) In a half reaction, the amount of a substance that is reduced or oxidized is directly proportional to the number of electrons generated in the cell. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.12 GO: G2 8) The amount of a substance that is reduced or oxidized is inversely proportional to the number of electrons produced in a cells half reaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 20.9 LO: 20.12 GO: G2

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 21 Nuclear Chemistry 21.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) All atoms of a given element have the same ________. A) mass number B) number of nucleons C) atomic mass D) number of neutrons E) atomic number Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 2) Atoms containing radioactive nuclei are called ________. A) radionuclides B) radioisotopes C) nucleons D) nuclides E) radioisophores Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 3) What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it undergoes beta decay? A) Neither the mass number nor the atomic number changes. B) The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2. C) The mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 1. D) The mass number does not change and the atomic number decreases by 2. E) The mass number increases by 2 and the atomic number increases by 1. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

4) Which one of the following is a correct representation of a beta particle? A) e B) β C) e D)

E) β Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

5) Which one of the following is a correct representation of an alpha particle? A) He B) H C) H D)

E) H Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

6) Which one of the following is a correct representation of a positron? A) e B) β C) e D)

E) β Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

7) Which one of the following processes results in an increase in the atomic number? A) gamma emission B) positron emission C) beta emission D) alpha emission E) corrosion Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 8) Of the following processes, which one changes the atomic number? A) alpha emission B) beta emission C) electron capture D) positron emission E) All of these processes change the atomic numbers. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

9) What radioactive element is used to diagnose medical conditions of the heart and arteries? A) cobalt-60 B) thallium-201 C) radium-226 D) radon-222 E) thorium-234 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 10) In what type of radioactive decay does the atomic number of the product increase by one? A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron emission E) electron capture Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 11) Which type of radioactive decay results in no change in mass number and atomic number for the starting nucleus? A) alpha B) beta C) positron emission D) electron capture E) gamma Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 12) Alpha decay produces a new nucleus whose ________ than those respectively of the original nucleus. A) atomic number is 2 less and mass number is 2 less B) atomic number is 1 less and mass number is 2 less C) atomic number is 2 less and mass number is 4 less D) atomic number is 2 more and mass number is 4 more E) atomic number is 2 more and mass number is 2 less Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

13) What is the missing product from this reaction? P→

S + ________

A) He B)

C) γ D) e E) p Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

14) What is the atomic number of a neutron? A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 0 E) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 15) What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it emits gamma radiation? A) The mass number remains unchanged while the atomic number decreases by one. B) The mass number decreases by four and the atomic number decreases by two. C) The mass number increases by four and the atomic number increases by two. D) The mass number remains unchanged while the atomic number increases by one. E) The mass number and atomic numbers remain unchanged. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

16) Atoms with the same atomic number and different mass numbers ________. A) do not exist B) are isomers C) are isotopes D) are allotropes E) are resonance structures Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 17) How many radioactive decay series exist in nature? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 10 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 18) At approximately what number of protons, or neutrons, does the 1:1 ratio of protons to neutrons start to produce unstable nuclei? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50 E) 80 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 19) Carbon-11 decays by ________. A) alpha emission B) beta emission C) positron emission D) photon emission E) neutron capture Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2

20) The formation of krypton from rubidium decay is a result of ________. A) alpha emission B) beta emission C) positron emission D) electron capture E) neutron capture Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 21) The mode of decay of 32P is ________. A) alpha emission B) beta emission C) positron emission D) electron capture E) neutron capture Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 22) The belt of nuclear stability ends with the element ________. A) lead B) polonium C) radon D) astatine E) bismuth Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2

23) Which of these nuclides is most likely to be radioactive? A) K B)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

24) What is required for a nuclear transmutation to occur? A) very high temperature B) a corrosive environment C) a particle to collide with a nucleus or neutron D) spontaneous nuclear decay E) gamma emission Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 25) In the nuclear transmutation,

O (p, α)

N, what is the bombarding particle?

A) an alpha particle B) a beta particle C) a gamma photon D) a proton E) a phosphorus nucleus Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

26) Cobalt-60 is produced by a three reaction process involving neutron capture, beta-emission, and neutron capture. The initial reactant in the production of cobalt-60 is ________. A) 59Co B) 56Fe C) 58Fe D) 61Co E) 60Fe Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4 27) The product of the nuclear reaction in which 28Si is subjected to neutron capture followed by alpha emission is ________. A) 31S B) 33S C) 23Mg D) 25Mg E) 25Al Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4 28) Transuranium elements have atomic numbers greater than ________. A) 90 B) 91 C) 92 D) 93 E) 94 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

29) What is emitted in the nuclear transmutation,

Al(n, ?)

Na?

A) an alpha particle B) a beta particle C) a neutron D) a proton E) a gamma photon Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4 30) In the nuclear transmutation represented by A) uranium-242 B) curium-245 C) curium-242 D) uranium-245 E) uranium-243 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

Pu( He, n)?, what is the product?

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

31) In the nuclear transmutation represented by A) neutron B) proton C) positron D) alpha particle E) electron Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

N( n, p)?, what is the emitted particle?

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

32) What is the product for the nuclear transmutation represented by A) carbon-12 B) carbon-16 C) nitrogen-16 D) carbon-14 E) nitrogen-15 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

N( n, p)?

33) Which one of the following requires a particle accelerator to occur? A) Fe → Co + e B)

Co + n →

U+ n→

Np +

Pu + He →

Cm + n

E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4 34) Bombardment of uranium-238 with a deuteron (hydrogen-2) generates neptunium-237 and ________ neutrons. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G4 35) The transmutation in which neptunium-239 is produced via bombardment of uranium-238 with a neutron is represented by ________. A) U( n, α) Np B)

U( n, p)

U( n, γ)

U( n,

U( n, n)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

Np Np

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

36) The transmutation in which a curium-242 nucleus is bombarded with an alpha particle to produce a californium-245 nucleus is represented by ________. A) Cm( He, p) Cf B)

Cm( n, He)

Cm( He,

Cm( He, 2 p)

Cm( He, n)

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

37) Which one of the following can be done to shorten the half-life of the radioactive decay of uranium-238? A) freeze it B) heat it C) convert it to UF6 D) oxidize it to the +2 oxidation state E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 38) The beta decay of cesium-137 has a half-life of 30.0 years. How many years must pass to reduce a 25 mg sample of cesium 137 to 8.7 mg? A) 46 B) 32 C) 3.2 D) 50 E) 52 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

39) The half-life of 218Po is 3.1 minutes. How much of a 155 gram sample remains after 0.40 hours? A) 0.00067 g B) 0.0072 g C) 0.72 g D) 0.0047 g E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 40) Cesium-131 has a half-life of 9.7 days. What percent of a cesium-131 sample remains after 60 days? A) 100 B) 0 C) 1.4 D) 98.6 E) more information is needed to solve the problem Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 41) The half-life for beta decay of strontium-90 is 28.8 years. A milk sample is found to contain 10.3 ppm strontium-90. How many years would pass before the strontium-90 concentration would drop to 1.0 ppm? A) 92.3 B) 0.112 C) 186 D) 96.9 E) 131 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

42) The half-life of carbon-11 is 20.3 minutes. How much of a 100.0 mg sample remains after 1.50 hours? A) 8.48 mg B) 4.63 mg C) 12.9 mg D) 22.6 mg E) 7.70 mg Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 43) The half-life of 131I is 0.220 years. How much of a 500.0 mg sample remains after 24 hours? A) 496 mg B) 560 mg C) 219 mg D) 405 mg E) 337 mg Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 44) The half-life of 223Ra is 11.4 days. How much of a 200.0 mg sample remains after 600 hours? A) 0.219 mg B) 21.9 mg C) .0302 mg D) 43.8 mg E) 6.04 mg Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 45) The half-life of 222Rn is 3.80 days. If a sample contains 36.0 g of Rn-222, how many years will it take for the sample to be reduced to 1.00 mg of Rn-222? A) 19.7 B) 0.1575 C) 8.53 D) 0.0234 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 14

46) The carbon-14 dating method can be used to determine the age of a ________. A) flint arrowhead B) papyrus scroll C) stone axe head D) clay pot E) rock Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 47) The basis for the carbon-14 dating method is that ________. A) the amount of carbon-14 in all objects is the same B) carbon-14 is very unstable and is readily lost from the atmosphere C) the ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in the atmosphere is a constant D) living tissue will not absorb carbon-14 but will absorb carbon-12 E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 48) Pb has a half-life of 22.3 years and decays to produce 206Hg. If you start with 7.50 g of 210Pb, how many grams of 206Hg will you have after 17.5 years? A) 4.35 B) 3.15 C) 3.09 D) 0.0600 E) 1.71 Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 49) The half-life of a radionuclide ________. A) is constant B) gets shorter with passing time C) gets longer with passing time D) gets shorter with increased temperature E) gets longer with increased temperature Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

50) The curie is a measure of the ________. A) number of disintegrations per second of a radioactive substance B) total energy absorbed by an object exposed to a radioactive source C) lethal threshold for radiation exposure D) number of alpha particles emitted by exactly one gram of a radioactive substance E) None of the above is correct. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 Consider the following data for a particular radionuclide:

51) What is the rate constant (in min-1) for the decay of this radionuclide? A) 45 B) 32 C) 0.024 D) 0.032 E) 0.022 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 52) What is the half-life (in min) of this radionuclide? A) 0.024 B) 0.022 C) 32 D) 0.032 E) 45 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

53) Cesium-137 undergoes beta decay and has a half-life of 30.0 years. How many beta particles are emitted by a 14.0-g sample of cesium-137 in three minutes? A) 6.1 × 1013 B) 6.2 × 1022 C) 8.4 × 1015 D) 1.3 × 10-8 E) 8.1 × 1015 Answer: E Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 54) What is a phosphor? A) an oxide of phosphorus B) a substance that thermally reduces to phosphorus C) a bioluminescent substance D) a substance that emits light when excited by radiation E) an alkali metal phosphide Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 55) Which one of the following devices converts radioactive emissions to light for detection? A) Geiger counter B) photographic film C) scintillation counter D) radiotracer E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 56) Which one of the following is used as a radiotracer to study blood? A) iron-59 B) technetium-99 C) sodium-23 D) iodine-131 E) phosphorus-32 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G2

57) Which one of the following is true? A) Some spontaneous nuclear reactions are exothermic. B) Some spontaneous nuclear reactions are endothermic. C) All spontaneous nuclear reactions are exothermic. D) There is no relationship between exothermicity and spontaneity in nuclear reactions. E) All spontaneous nuclear reactions are endothermic. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G2 58) The mass of a proton is 1.673 × 10-24 g. The mass of a neutron is 1.675 × 10-24 g. The mass of the nucleus of an 56Fe atom is 9.289 × 10-23 g. What is the nuclear binding energy (in J) for a 56Fe nucleus? A) 2.57 × 10-16 B) 7.72 × 10-8 C) 8.36 × 10-9 D) 7.72 × 10-11 E) 6.07 × 106 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.6 GO: G4 59) When two atoms of 2H are fused to form one atom of 4He, the total energy evolved is . What is the total change in mass (in kg) for this reaction? A) 1.28 × 10-17 B) 4.26 × 10-26 C) 3.45 × 108 D) 1.15 E) 4.26 × 10-29 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G4

60) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is 1.00867 amu. What is the binding energy (in J) of a Co nucleus? (The mass of a cobalt-60 nucleus is 59.9338 amu. Speed of light = 3.00 × 108 m/s.) A) 2.74 × 10-19 B) 9.12 × 10-28 C) 4.94 × 10-13 D) 8.20 × 10-11 E) 2.74 × 10-16 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.6 GO: G4 61) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is 1.00867 amu. What is the binding energy per nucleon (in J) of a Co nucleus? (The mass of a cobalt-60 nucleus is 59.9338 amu. Speed of light = 3.00 × 108 m/s.) A) 1.37 × 10-12 B) 2.49 × 10-12 C) 3.04 × 10-12 D) 9.43 × 10-13 E) 7.01 × 10-14 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.6 GO: G4 62) What is the mass defect (in amu) of a

Ni nucleus if the nuclear mass is 59.9308 amu? The

mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is 1.00867 amu. A) 0.5449 B) 0.5505 C) 1.2374 D) 1.3066 E) 28.7930 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G4

63) In terms of binding energy per nucleon, what element divides fission and fusion processes? A) H B) He C) C D) Fe E) U Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.6 GO: G2 64) What type of reaction is known as a thermonuclear reaction? A) fission B) fusion C) transmutation D) beta emission E) neutron emission Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 65) The main scientific difficulty in achieving a controlled fusion process is the ________. A) enormous repulsion between nuclei being fused B) enormous repulsion between the electrons of atoms being fused C) very large number of positrons emitted D) very large number of x-rays emitted E) very large number of gamma rays emitted Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 66) What exposure level to radiation is fatal to most humans? A) 100 rem B) 200 rem C) 600 rem D) 300 rem E) 1000 rem Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2

67) Which one of the following natural radionuclides is the most abundant? A) Potassium-40 B) Rubidium-87 C) Thorium-232 D) Uranium-238 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 68) Which one of the following forms of radiation can penetrate the deepest into body tissue? A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) proton Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 21.2 Bimodal Questions 1) What percentage of electricity generated in the U.S. is from commercial nuclear plants? A) 1% B) 10% C) 19% D) 50% E) 90% Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Ch. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G5 2) By what process does thorium-230 decay to radium-226? A) gamma emission B) alpha emission C) beta emission D) electron capture E) positron emission Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

3) The alpha decay of what isotope of what element produces lead-206? A) polonium-210 B) radon-222 C) mercury-202 D) bismuth-208 E) thallium-204 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 4) In balancing the nuclear reaction A) Pu B) Np C) U D) Pa E) Th Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

U→

E + He, the identity of element E is ________.

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

5) What is the identity of element E in the nuclear reaction

C→E+

A) B B) C C) O D) N E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 6) In balancing the nuclear reaction

Br → E + e, the identity of element E is ________.

A) Kr B) Br C) U D) Se E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 22

7) This reaction is an example of ________. Po →

Pb + ________

A) alpha decay B) beta emission C) gamma emission D) positron emission E) electron capture Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 8) The missing product from this reaction is ________. I→

Te + ________

A) He B)

C) n D) e E) γ Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

9) The missing reactant from this reaction is ________. Cl + ________ →

Ar +

A) He B)

C) n D) e E) γ Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

10) The missing product from this reaction is ________. Al + n →

Si + ________

A) He B)

C) n D) e E) γ Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

11) The missing reactant from this reaction is ________. B + ________ →

N+ n

A) He B)

C) n D) e E) γ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

12) The missing product from this reaction is ________. Fr →

N + ________

A) He B)

C) n D) e E) γ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

13) The missing product from this reaction is ________. I → ________ + A)

D) e E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 14) The missing product from this reaction is ________. Na → ________ + A)

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

15) The missing product from this reaction is ________. Se + A)

e → ________

E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 16) The missing product from this reaction is ________. Np →

Pa + ________

A) He B)

C) n D) e E) γ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

17) This reaction is an example of ________. Ca →

K + ________

A) alpha decay B) beta decay C) positron decay D) electron capture E) gamma emission Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 18) This reaction is an example of ________. Kr →

Rb + ________

A) alpha decay B) beta decay C) positron decay D) electron capture E) gamma emission Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 19) This reaction is an example of ________. P→

Si + ________

A) alpha decay B) beta decay C) positron decay D) electron capture E) gamma emission Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

20) This reaction is an example of ________. P + ________ →

A) alpha decay B) beta decay C) positron decay D) electron capture E) gamma emission Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 21) The missing product in this reaction would be found in which group of the periodic table? Na → A) 1A B) 2A C) 3A D) 8A E) 7A Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

e + ________

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

22) The missing product in this reaction combines with oxygen to form a compound with the formula ________. K→ A) M2O B) MO C) M D) M2O3 E) M3O2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

e + ________

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

23) Radium undergoes alpha decay. The product of this reaction also undergoes alpha decay. What is the product of this second decay reaction? A) Po B) Rn C) U D) Th E) Hg Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 24) 41Ca decays by electron capture. The product of this reaction undergoes alpha decay. What is the product of this second decay reaction? A) Ti B) Ca C) Ar D) Cl E) Sc Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 25) What is the mass number of a neutron? A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 26) Nuclei above the belt of stability can lower their neutron-to-proton ratio by ________. A) beta emission B) gamma emission C) positron emission D) electron capture E) Any of the above processes will lower the neutron-to-proton ratio. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2

27) What is the largest number of protons that can exist in a nucleus and still be stable? A) 206 B) 50 C) 92 D) 83 E) 84 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 28) The three radioactive series that occur in nature end with what element? A) Bi B) U C) Po D) Pb E) Hg Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 29) The largest number of stable nuclei have an ________ number of protons and an ________ number of neutrons. A) even, even B) odd, odd C) even, odd D) odd, even E) even, equal Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 30) In the nuclear transmutation represented by

O(p, α)

A) a beta particle B) an alpha particle C) a proton D) a positron E) a neutron Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2

N, the emitted particle is ________.

31) Bombardment of uranium-235 with a neutron generates tellurium-135, 3 neutrons, and ________. A) zirconium-98 B) krypton-101 C) krypton-103 D) strontium-99 E) zirconium-99 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 32) The reaction shown below is responsible for creating 14C in the atmosphere. What is the bombarding particle? N + ________ → A) alpha particle B) electron C) neutron D) positron E) proton Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G2

C+ H

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

33) How many neutrons are emitted when a californium-249 nucleus (Z=98) is bombarded with a carbon-12 nucleus to produce a Rf nucleus? A) one B) three C) two D) four E) zero Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

34) How many neutrons are emitted when a californium-249 nucleus (Z=98) is bombarded with a nitrogen-15 nucleus to produce a Db nucleus? A) two B) three C) four D) one E) zero Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 21.3 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.2

35) What order process is radioactive decay? A) zeroth B) first C) second D) third E) fourth Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G2 36) Due to the nature of the positron, ________ is actually detected in positron emission tomography. A) alpha radiation B) beta radiation C) gamma radiation D) x-ray emission E) neutron emission Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G7

37) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is 1.00867 amu. What is the mass defect (in amu) of a Co nucleus? (The mass of a cobalt-60 nucleus is 59.9338 amu.) A) 27.7830 B) 0.5489 C) 0.5405 D) 0.0662 E) 0.4827 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 21.5 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.5

38) What is the typical percent of uranium-235 in the enriched UO2 pellets used in nuclear reactors? A) 0.7 B) 1 C) 3 D) 10 E) 14 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G4 39) On average, ________ neutrons are produced by every fission of a uranium-235 nucleus. A) 4 B) 3.5 C) 1 D) 2.4 E) 2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 40) What drives the turbine in a nuclear power plant? A) the moderator B) steam C) the control rods D) the primary coolant E) UF6 gas Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G7 34

41) Who is credited with first achieving fission of uranium-235? A) Fermi B) Rutherford C) Curie D) Dalton E) Faraday Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 42) When ionizing radiation enters the body, what is the predominant free radical produced? A) H B) H3O C) protein D) OH E) H2O Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 43) A ________ is a highly reactive substance that contains one or more unpaired electrons. A) cation B) free radical C) anion D) protein Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2

21.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it undergoes alpha decay? A) The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2. B) The mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 1. C) The mass number increases by 4 and the atomic number does not change. D) The mass number increases by 2 and the atomic number decreases by 1. E) The mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 2. Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 2) Which one of the following is a correct representation of beta particle? A) e B) γ C) e D) He Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

3) Which one of the following processes results in a decrease in the number of neutrons? A) alpha emission B) gamma emission C) positron emission D) corrosion E) electron capture Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

4) In what type of radioactive decay does the atomic number of the product decrease by one? A) positron emission B) corrosion C) alpha D) beta E) gamma Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 5) What is the missing product from this reaction? P→ A)

S + ________

B) γ C) e D) He E) P Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

6) When an atom of an element undergoes beta decay, its proton count will change by ________ and its neutron count will change by ________. A) +1, -1 B) 0, 0 C) -1, +1 D) -2, -2 E) -1, -1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

7) What is the missing product from this reaction? Ca → A)

Sc + ________

B) γ C) e D) He E) Ca Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 4 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

8) What is the missing product from this reaction? Cm → ________ + He A)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

9) What is the missing product from this reaction? Tl → ________ + A)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

10) What is the missing product from this reaction? Na → ________ + e A)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 LO: 21.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

11) The product of the nuclear reaction in which 40Ar is subjected to neutron capture followed by alpha emission is ________. A) 37S B) 41Ar C) 36S D) 45Ca E) 35Ar Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 12) The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.20 yr. How many milligrams of a 2.000-mg sample remain after 9.50 years? A) 0.565 B) 7.03 × 10-22 C) 7.076 D) 1.095 E) 1.435 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 12 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 13) What percentage of a radioactive sample remains after 175.0 yr if it has a years? A) 84.8 B) 0.230 C) 16.5 D) 6.08 E) 1.48 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

of 28.8

14) What percentage of a sample remains after 50.0 min if it has a half-life of 20.4 min.? A) 8.62 B) 66.5 C) 40.8 D) 18.3 E) 2.45 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 40

15) A rock contains 0.153 mg of lead-206 for each milligram of uranium-238. The for the decay of uranium-238 to lead-206 is 4.5 × 109 yr. The rock was formed ________ years ago. A) 6.89 × 108 B) 5.60 × 108 C) 7.33 × 108 D) 1.06 × 109 E) 8.08 × 108 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 16) I has a half-life of 8.04 days. Assuming you start with a 1.03 mg sample of many mg will remain after 13.0 days? A) 0.326 B) 0.268 C) 0.422 D) 0.0781 E) 0.336 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 17) The decay of a radionuclide with a half-life of 3.3 × equal to ________. A) 4.8 × B) 2.1 × C) 4.2 × D) 2.8 × E) 5.9 × Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

I, how

years has a rate constant (in

)

18) What is the age in years of a mineral sample that has a mass ratio of 40Ar to 40K of 0.330? Potassium-40 decays to argon-40 with a half-life of 1.27 × 109 yr. A) 3.85 × 109 B) 5.23 × 108 C) 1.77 × 109 D) 3.62 × 108 E) 2.55 × 109 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 19) If we start with 1.000 g of strontium-90, 0.805 g will remain after 9.00 yr. This means that the of strontium-90 is ________ yr. A) 7.74 B) 11.2 C) 28.8 D) 7.25 E) 41.6 Answer: C Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 20) If we start with 1.000 g of cobalt-60, 0.400 g will remain after 7.00 yr. This means that the of is ________ yr. A) 12.1 B) 17.5 C) 2.80 D) 5.30 E) 7.65 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

21) A freshly prepared sample of curium-243 undergoes 3312 disintegrations per second. After 8.00 yr, the activity of the sample declines to 2591 disintegrations per second. What is the in years of ? A) 22.6 B) 6.26 C) 10.2 D) 1.36 E) 32.6 Answer: A Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 22) The beta decay of cesium-137 has a half-life of 30.0 years. How many years must pass to reduce a 30 mg sample of cesium 137 to 5.2 mg? A) 76 years B) -76 years C) 38 years D) 0.040 years E) 25 years Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 23) The half-life of 218Po is 3.1 minutes. How much of a 170 gram sample remains after 0.64 hours? A) 0.032 g B) 150 g C) 31 g D) 4.7 × 10-10 g E) None of the original sample will remain. Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

24) Cesium-131 has a half-life of 9.7 days. What percent of a cesium-131 sample remains after 62 days? A) 1.2 % B) 100 % C) 0 % D) 99 % E) 62% Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 26 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4 25) The half-life of carbon-11 is 20.3 minutes. How much of a 100.0 mg sample remains after 1.6 hours? A) 3.77 mg B) 0.0377 mg C) 94.7 mg D) 1.75 × 10-89 mg E) 99.9 mg Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ LO: 21.4 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.3

26) Pb has a half-life of 22.3 years and decays to produce Hg. If you start with of Pb, how many grams of Hg will you have after 15.8 years? A) 4.60 g B) 2.83 g C) 9.20 g D) 2.30 g E) 12.5 g Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G4

27) Carbon-11 decays by positron emission. The decay occurs with a release of 2.87 × 1011 J per mole of carbon-11. What mass (g) is converted to energy when 5.00 g of undergoes this radioactive decay? A) 1.45 × 10-6 B) 4.35 × 105 C) 6.90 × 102 D) 1.45 × 10-3 E) 1.59 × 10-2 Answer: D Diff: 4 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G4 28) How much energy (in J) is produced when 0.067 g of matter is converted to energy? A) 6.0 × B) 6.0 × C) 2.0 × D) 6.0 × E) 2.0 × Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 10 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.6 GO: G4 29) The mass of a proton is 1.673 × g. The mass of a neutron is The mass of the nucleus of an Fe atom is 9.787 × 10-23 g. What is the nuclear binding energy (in J) for Fe nucleus? A) 8.13 × 10-11 J B) 2.71 × 10-19 J C) 8.13 × 10-8 J D) 4.00 × 10-9 J E) -9.74 × 10-10 J Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 LO: 21.6 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.5

30) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is energy of a Co nucleus? (The mass of a cobalt-62 nucleus is A) 8.46 × 10-11 J

What is the binding

B) 8.46 × 10-19 J C) 4.15 × 10-9 J D) 5.09 × 1016 J E) -1.12 × 10-9 J Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 LO: 21.6 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.5

31) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is What is the binding energy per nucleon of a (The mass of a cobalt-59 nucleus is 58.9332 amu. The speed of light is 3.00 × m/s.) A) 1.37 × J B) 4.87 × 1013 J C) 1.34 × 10-34 J D) 2.50 × 1012 J E) 4.80 × 1010 J Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 LO: 21.6 GO: G4

Page Ref: Sec. 21.5

32) The mass of a proton is 1.00728 amu and that of a neutron is defect (in amu) of a 57Ni nucleus? (The mass of a nickel-57 nucleus is A) 0.5155 amu B) 28.76 amu C) -0.4932 amu D) 0.5141 amu E) 1.031 amu Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G4

What is the mass

21.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What happens in the nucleus of an atom that undergoes positron emission? Answer: A proton is converted to a neutron and a positron. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 2) What is the predominant isotope of uranium? Answer: 238U Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 3) What happens to the atomic mass number and the atomic number of a radioisotope when it undergoes alpha emission? Answer: The mass number drops by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 4) What are beta particles? Answer: high speed electrons emitted by an unstable nucleus Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 5) He represents ________. Answer: an alpha particle Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 6) What isotope of what element is produced if uranium-238 undergoes alpha decay? Answer: thorium-234 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 7) Stable nuclei with low atomic numbers, up to ________, have a neutron to proton ratio of approximately 1:1. Answer: 20 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 47

8) The first nuclear transmutation resulted in the conversion of nitrogen-14 to ________. Answer: oxygen-17 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 9) Conversion of one nucleus into another was first demonstrated in 1919 by ________. Answer: Rutherford Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 10) The initial element used to make cobalt-60 for cancer radiation therapy is ________. Answer: iron; Fe Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 11) What is the rate constant for the decay of some unknown radioactive compound if the halflife for the beta decay is 1.3 × 109 years? Answer: 5.3 × 10-10 year-1 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G2 12) ________ discovered radioactivity. Answer: Becquerel Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 13) Carbon-11, fluorine-18, oxygen-15 and nitrogen-13 are all used in the clinical diagnostic technique known as ________. Answer: positron emission tomography; PET Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G2 14) The conversion of matter to energy and mass loss occurs in ________ reactions? Answer: nuclear Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.5 GO: G2

15) Control rods in a nuclear reactor are composed of boron and ________. Answer: an alloy of silver, indium, and cadmium Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 16) The amount of fissionable material necessary to maintain a chain reactions is called the ________. Answer: critical mass Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 17) What was the purpose of the Manhattan project? Answer: to build a bomb based on nuclear fission Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 18) When living tissue is irradiated most of the energy is absorbed by ________. Answer: water Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 19) The relative biological effectiveness (RBE) values of beta rays, gamma rays, and alpha rays are ________, respectively. Answer: 1, 1, 10 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 20) The major type of cancer caused by radiation is ________. Answer: leukemia Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 21) Radioactive seeds that are implanted into a tumor are coated with ________ to stop alpha and beta ray penetration. Answer: platinum Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2

21.5 True/False Questions 1) Gamma radiation only changes the atomic number but not the mass number of a nucleus. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 2) Positron emission causes an increase of one in the atomic number. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G2 3) The neutron/proton ratio of stable nuclei increases with increasing atomic number. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.2 GO: G2 4) Charged particles are accelerated because the faster they move there is a greater chance of producing a nuclear reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.2 LO: 21.3 GO: G2 5) Radioactive decay is a first order kinetic process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G2 6) In radioactive dating, the ratio of carbon-12 to carbon-14 is related to the time of death of the animal or plant under investigation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G2 7) In the formula k = 0.693/t1/2, k is the decay constant. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.3 LO: 21.4 GO: G2

8) The energy produced by the sun is the result of nuclear fusion. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.5 LO: 21.7 GO: G2 9) The SI unit of an absorbed dose of radiation is the gray. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2 10) The relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is tenfold greater for gamma radiation than for alpha radiation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.6 LO: 21.8 GO: G2

21.6 Essay Questions 1) Electrons do not exist in the nucleus, yet beta emission is ejection of electrons from the nucleus. How does this happen? Answer: A neutron breaks apart to produce a proton and an electron in the nucleus. The proton remains in the nucleus and the electron is ejected. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G8 2) List the common particles and their symbols used in descriptions of radioactive decay and nuclear transformations. Answer:

Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 21.1 GO: G8

Page Ref: Sec. 21.1

3) When an isotope undergoes electron capture, what happens to the captured electron? Answer: It combines with a proton in the nucleus to form a neutron. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 21.1 LO: 21.1 GO: G8 4) The use of radioisotopes in tracing metabolism is possible because ________. Answer: all isotopes of an element have identical chemical properties Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 21.4 LO: 21.8 GO: G8

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 22 Chemistry of the Nonmetals 22.1 Multiple-Choice 1) How many oxygen atoms are bonded to each silicon atom in SiO2? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 2) Of the atoms below, ________ is the most effective in forming π bonds. A) C B) P C) N D) Si E) Ge Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 3) Which one of the following is false concerning tritium? A) It is radioactive, emitting alpha particles with a half-life of 12.3 yr. B) It can be produced by neutron bombardment of lithium-6. C) It has the same chemical properties as protium but reacts more slowly. D) The atomic number of tritium is 1. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 4) What method is used to produce the most hydrogen gas in the United States? A) electrolysis of water B) reaction of zinc with acid C) reaction of methane with steam D) reaction of coke (carbon) with steam E) reaction of metallic sodium with water Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 1

5) Water gas is ________. A) H2O and H2 B) CO2 and O2 C) H2O and CO2 D) H2O and CO E) H2 and CO Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 6) What is the primary commercial use of hydrogen in the United States? A) as a rocket fuel, especially on the space shuttle B) hydrogenation of vegetable oils C) manufacture of methanol D) manufacture of ammonia by the Haber process E) as an automobile fuel Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 7) Isotopes of hydrogen ________. A) have the same atomic number and different mass numbers B) have the same atomic number and the same mass number C) have different atomic numbers and different mass numbers D) have different atomic numbers and the same mass number E) are exactly alike Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 8) Which of the following would produce a basic solution? A) Na2O and CaO B) CO and CO2 C) CaH2 only D) Na2O, CaO, and CaH2 E) CO, CO2, and CaH2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

9) Which of the following would produce an acidic solution? A) Na2O and MgO B) Na2O, MgO, and CaH2 C) only D) CaH2 only E) CO, CO2, and CaH2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 10) How are the oxygen-containing compounds of xenon made? A) by direct combination of the elements B) by reaction of xenon with peroxide C) by thermal decomposition of the xenon hydroxide D) by reaction of the corresponding xenon fluoride with water E) Xenon is inert and does not form compounds with oxygen. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 11) Which of the following compounds is the most stable? A) XeOCl4 B) XeO2Cl2 C) XeO3 D) XeCl6 E) XeCl2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

12) Consider the following xenon compounds: (i) XeCl2 (ii) XeCl4 (iii) XeO4 (iv) XeOCl4 (v) XeO3 Which of the compounds is(are) polar? A) (i) only B) (iii) and (iv) C) (iv) and (v) D) (ii) and (iii) E) (iv) only Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 13) The heavier noble gases are more reactive than the lighter ones because ________. A) the lighter noble gases exist as diatomic molecules B) the lighter noble gases have complete octets C) the heavier noble gases are more abundant D) the heavier noble gases have low ionization energies relative to the lighter ones E) the heavier noble gases have greater electron affinities Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 14) Which noble gas is known to form a variety of binary compounds? A) Xe B) He C) Ne D) Ar E) Kr Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 15) Interhalogen compounds ________. A) are exceedingly reactive B) contain halogens in both positive and negative oxidation states C) are powerful oxidizing agents D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 4

16) Which elemental halogen(s) can be used to prepare A) F2 only B) Cl2 only C) Br2 only D) both Cl2 and Br2, but not F2 E) F2, Cl2, and Br2 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

from NaI?

17) Which halogen is the most easily oxidized? A) F B) Cl C) Br D) I Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 18) Which equation correctly represents the reaction between silica and hydrofluoric acid? A) SiCl4 + 4HF → SiF4 + 4HCl B) SiO2 + 6HF → H2SiF6 + 2H2O C) SiCl2 + 2HF → SiF2 + 2HCl D) SiH4 + 4HF → SiF4 + 4H2 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 19) The interhalogen compound ICl3 can form but BrCl3 cannot form. This is because ________. A) iodine is large enough to accommodate three chlorine atoms around itself but bromine is not B) bromine is not electronegative enough to react with chlorine C) bromine is too electronegative to react with chlorine D) iodine can have a positive oxidation state but bromine cannot E) iodine can have a negative oxidation state but bromine cannot Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

20) Chlorine can have a positive oxidation state ________. A) if it combines with bromine or iodine B) if it combines with oxygen or fluorine C) if it combines with hydrogen D) if it combines with an alkali metal E) in its elemental form Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 21) The oxidation state of fluorine in its compounds is ________. A) positive unless it combines with another halogen B) negative unless it combines with another halogen C) negative unless it combines with oxygen D) negative unless it combines with an active metal E) always negative Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 22) The most stable allotrope of oxygen is ________. A) H2O B) O3 C) O2 D) HClO E) O Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 23) Which of the following react with oxygen to form superoxides? A) Ca B) Na C) K D) Sr E) Ba Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

24) Nearly all commercial oxygen is obtained ________. A) from air B) by electrolysis of water C) by thermal decomposition of potassium chlorate D) by thermal cracking of petroleum E) as a byproduct of the preparation of aluminum in the Hall process Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 25) Which of the following statements is false? A) Ozone is a better reducing agent than O2 (g). B) Ozone is produced by passing electricity through dry O2 (g). C) Ozone oxidizes all of the common metals except gold and platinum. D) Ozone decomposes to O2 and O. E) Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 26) A disproportionation reaction is one in which ________. A) a single element is both oxidized and reduced B) a compound is separated into its constituent elements C) the ratio of combination of two elements in a compound changes D) aqueous ions combine to form an insoluble salt E) an insoluble salt separates into ions Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 27) The oxidation state of oxygen in OF2 is ________. A) +1 B) +2 C) 0 D) -1 E) -2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

28) ________ are typically basic while ________ are typically acidic. A) Nonmetal oxides, metal oxides B) Metals, nonmetals C) Metal oxides, nonmetal oxides D) Nonmetals, metals Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 29) Amphoteric oxides are also known as ________. A) basic oxides B) basic anhydrides C) acidic oxides D) acidic anhydrides E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 30) Which element in group 7A is not capable of having an expanded valence shell? A) astatine B) fluorine C) chlorine D) bromine E) iodine Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 31) Which element in group 6A is not capable of having an expanded valence shell? A) sulfur B) tellurium C) selenium D) oxygen E) polonium Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

32) What sulfur compound is used to sterilize wine? A) H2SO4 B) H2S C) Na2SO3 D) SO2 E) Na2S Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 33) What is the major commercial source of elemental sulfur? A) sulfide minerals B) sulfate minerals C) underground deposits of elemental sulfur D) seawater E) coal and petroleum Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 34) Which form of elemental sulfur is the most stable at room temperature? A) rhombic sulfur B) monoclinic C) hexagonal D) triclinic E) tetraclinic Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 35) The prefix thio- denotes ________. A) replacement of an oxygen atom by a sulfur atom B) a sulfur—sulfur double bond C) sulfur in a negative oxidation state D) a sulfur—oxygen double bond E) an allotropic form of sulfur Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

36) The oxidation numbers of sulfur in the sulfate ion, sulfite ion, sulfur trioxide, and hydrogen sulfide are ________, ________, ________, and ________, respectively. A) +4, -2, +4, +6 B) +6, +2, +4, +6 C) +6, +4, +6, -2 D) +4, +6, +4, -2 E) -2, +6, -2, 0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 37) Which one of the following is sodium thiosulfate? A) Na2SO4 B) Na2SO3 C) Na2S2O3 D) Na2S4O6 E) Na2S Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 38) Which one of the following is true concerning pure hydrazine? A) It is a weak reducing agent. B) It can be made by reaction of nitrogen and ammonia. C) It is used as a rocket fuel. D) It is a hydride of oxygen. E) It is a hydride of ammonia. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 39) The Ostwald process is by which NH3 is converted commercially into ________. A) HNO3 B) NO C) NO2 D) N2O3 E) N2O5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

40) The oxidation number of N in NO3- is ________. A) +1 B) +2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +5 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 41) The oxidation number of N in NO2- is ________. A) +1 B) +2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +5 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 42) The oxidation number of Pb in PbO2 is ________. A) +1 B) +2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +5 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 43) Which of the following equations correctly represents the combustion of hydrazine? A) N2H4 (l) + O2 (g) → NH3 (g) + HNO2 (g) B) N2H4 (l) + 2O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) + 2H2 (g) C) N2H4 (l) + O2 (g) → 2 NO (g) D) N2H4 (l) + O2 (g) → N2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) E) N2H4 (l) + O2 (g) → N2 (g) + 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1, 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

44) The oxidation numbers of nitrogen in the nitride ion, hydrazine, ammonium cation, and nitrate ion are ________, ________, ________, and ________, respectively. A) -3, -2, -3, +5 B) +3, -2, -3, +5 C) +3, -2, +1, +3 D) -3, +2, +1, +5 E) -3, +2, -3, +3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 45) Which equation correctly represents what happens when N A) NO2 (g) + H2O (l) → 2H+ (aq) + NO3- (aq) B) 3NO2 (g) + H2O (l) → 2H+ (aq) + 2NO3- (aq) + NO (g) C) NO2 (g) + H2O (l) → H2O2 (aq) + NO (g) D) 2NO2 (g) + H2O (l) → 2H+ (aq) + NO42- (aq) + NO (g) E) 2NO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) → 2HNO2 (aq) + O2 (g) + H2 (g) Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

dissolves in water?

46) The reaction between nitrogen dioxide and water is a ________. A) decomposition B) combustion C) disproportionation D) neutralization E) replacement Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 47) Of the following substances, ________ is both a very strong acid and a powerful oxidizing agent. A) HNO3 B) H2SO4 C) HCl D) H3PO4 E) HF Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 12

48) Which phosphorus chloride compound will form in the reaction of phosphorus with excess chlorine gas? A) PCl3 B) PCl2 C) PCl5 D) PCl4 E) PCl Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 49) What are the products of the reaction of PF3 (g) and water? A) phosphorous acid and hydrofluoric acid B) elemental phosphorus and hydrofluoric acid C) phosphoric acid and fluorine gas D) elemental phosphorus and fluorine gas E) phosphoric acid and phosphorous acid Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 50) What are the products of the reaction of PCl5 (g) and water? A) phosphoric acid and phosphorous acid B) elemental phosphorus and hydrochloric acid C) phosphoric acid and chlorine gas D) elemental phosphorus and chlorine gas E) phosphoric acid and hydrochloric acid Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 51) Which one of the following is false concerning buckminsterfullerene? A) It is the most recently discovered crystalline allotrope of carbon. B) It consists of individual molecules like C60 and C70. C) It is a molecular form of carbon. D) It is made up of Cl2 molecules. E) It is made up of molecules that resemble soccer balls. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 13

52) Of the following, which is most likely to form interstitial carbides? A) active metals B) transition metals C) boron and silicon D) alkaline earth metals E) alkali metals Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 53) Which of the following would produce the most strongly acidic aqueous solution? A) HCO3B) CO C) CO2 D) CO32E) CaCO3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 54) How many lone pair of electrons are there in one molecule of carbon monoxide? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 55) Which of the following is not an allotropic form of carbon? A) graphite B) carbon dioxide C) diamond D) buckminsterfullerene E) All of the above are allotropic forms of carbon. Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

56) Which of the following statements best describes graphite? A) It is a soft, slippery, and black solid that has a metallic luster and conducts electricity. B) It is a soft, slippery, and black gas that has a metallic luster and conducts electricity. C) It is a soft, slippery, and black liquid that has a metallic luster and conducts electricity. D) It is a soft, slippery, and black solid that has a metallic luster and does not conduct electricity. E) It is a soft, slippery, and black solid that has a nonmetallic dull look and does not conduct electricity. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 57) Carbon dioxide is produced ________. A) in blast furnaces when metal oxides are reduced with CO B) by combustion of carbon-containing substances in an excess of oxygen C) when carbonates are heated D) by fermentation of sugar during the production of ethanol E) by all of the above processes Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 58) Which of the following would produce the strongest basic aqueous solution? A) CO B) CO2 C) H2CO3 D) Na2CO3 E) KHCO3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 59) Which equation correctly represents the reaction between carbon dioxide and water? A) CO2 (aq) + H2O (l) → H2CO3 (aq) B) CO2 (aq) + H2O (l) → H2 (g) + CO (g) + O2 (g) C) CO2 (aq) + H2O (l) → H2O2 (aq) + CO (g) D) CO2 (aq) + 2H2O (l) → CH4 (g) + 2O2 (aq) E) CO2 (aq) + H2O (l) → H2CO (aq) + O2 (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

60) What is the function of the carbon fibers in a composite? A) to provide a structure to help the epoxy resin solidify in the desired shape B) to transmit loads evenly in all directions C) to provide resistance to oxidation D) to provide ultraviolet protection E) to "spread out" the epoxy so that it remains more flexible Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 61) The arrangement of oxygen atoms around a silicon atom in SiO44- is ________. A) square planar B) octahedral C) linear D) tetrahedral E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 62) Addition of to soda-lime glass ________. A) imparts a greater ability to withstand temperature change B) imparts a deep blue color C) results in a denser glass with a higher refractive index D) results in a glass with a lower melting point E) results in opaque glass Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 63) Replacement of CaO by PbO in soda-lime glass results in ________. A) denser glass with a higher refractive index B) glass with a deep blue color C) opaque glass D) a softer glass with a lower melting point E) a harder glass with a higher melting point Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2

64) Soda-lime glass contains ________. A) SiO2 and aluminum B) SiO2, CaO, and Na2O C) SiO2, CO2, and citric acid D) SiO2, CO2, Na2O E) pure SiO2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 65) Additives can be used in soda-lime glass to alter its ________. A) ability to withstand temperature change B) color C) hardness D) melting point E) any of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 66) Silicones are ________. A) chains of alternating silicon and oxygen atoms with attached organic groups B) three-dimensional covalent networks of SiO4 tetrahedra C) three-dimensional covalent networks of silicon atoms D) flat sheets of silicon atoms E) flat sheets of silicon and hydrogen atoms Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 67) Silicones can be oils or rubber-like materials depending on ________. A) the silicon-to-oxygen ratio B) the length of the chain and degree of cross-linking C) the percentage of carbon in the chain D) the percentage of sulfur in the chain E) the oxidation state of silicon in the chain Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2

68) Sodium borohydride, NaB , is a strong reducing agent because ________. A) Na+ is easily reduced to Na (s) B) boron easily changes its oxidation number from +3 to -3 C) boron is readily oxidized from -3 oxidation state to +3 D) hydrogen can be easily oxidized from -1 oxidation state to +1 E) hydrogen is easily reduced from +1 oxidation state to 0 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 69) The primary commercial use of nitric acid is ________. A) in the manufacture of plastics B) in the manufacture of explosives C) in pool water maintenance D) in the manufacture of fertilizers E) in the manufacture of anti-depressant drugs Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 70) Which one of the following is true concerning borax? A) It is the hydrated sodium salt of tetraboric acid. B) It is found in dry lake deposits in California. C) Its aqueous solutions are alkaline. D) It is commonly used in cleaning products. E) All of the above are true. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 71) A borane is a ________. A) compound containing only boron and oxygen B) compound containing only boron and aluminum C) compound containing only boron and hydrogen D) compound containing only boron and carbon E) three-dimensional covalent network of boron atoms Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

72) Which of the following equations correctly represents the reaction of A) B2H6 (g) + 3O2 (g) → B2O3 (s) + 3H2O (g) B) B2H6 (g) + O2 (g) → B2O2 (s) + 3H2 (g) C) B2H6 (g) + 2O2 (g) → B2H2 (s) + 2H2O2 (aq) D) B2H6 (g) + 2O2 (g) → B2O2 (s) + 3H2 + O2 (g) E) B2H6 (g) + O2 (g) → H2B2O2 (s) + 2H2 (g) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

with oxygen?

73) ________ can violate the octet rule in its compounds. A) carbon B) nitrogen C) boron D) oxygen E) none of these elements can violate the octet rule. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 74) B2O3 is the anhydride of ________. A) borous acid B) diborane C) tetraboric acid D) boric acid E) borax Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 75) Boric acid condenses to form tetraboric acid according to the equation ________. A) 4H3BO3 (s) → 2H2B2O7 (s) + 3H2O (g) B) 2H3BO3 (s) → HB2O2 (s) + 4H2O (g) C) 4H3BO3 (s) → HB4O8 (s) + 4H2O (g) D) 2H3BO3 (s) → H2B4O7 (s) + 3H2O (g) E) 4H3BO3 (s) → H2B4O7 (s) + 5H2O (g) Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

22.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The most common isotope of hydrogen is sometimes referred to as ________. A) deuterium B) protium C) tritium D) heavy hydrogen E) common hydrogen Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 2) In metallic hydrides, the oxidation number of hydrogen is considered to be ________. A) -2 B) -1 C) 0 D) +1 E) +2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 3) Hydrogen can form hydride ions. Elements in group ________ typically form ions with the same charge as the hydride ion. A) 1A B) 2A C) 6A D) 7A E) 3A Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 4) Hydrogen can combine with ________ to form a metallic hydride. A) an element from group 5A B) an element from group 7A C) an element from group 8A D) an element from group 1A E) an element from group 6A Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 20

5) Hydrogen can have oxidation states of ________. A) +1 only B) -1, 0, and +1 C) 0 and +1 only D) -1 and +1 only E) 0 only Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 6) ________ has the highest boiling point of following series. A) Ne B) He C) Kr D) Ar E) Rn Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 7) The electron-pair geometry and molecular geometry of XeF4 are ________ and ________, respectively. A) octahedral; square pyramidal B) tetrahedral; tetrahedral C) octahedral; linear D) octahedral; square planar E) octahedral; bent Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 8) Hybridization of Xe in XeF4 is ________ and in XeF2 is ________. A) sp3d2, sp3d2 B) sp3d, sp3d2 C) sp3d2, sp3d D) sp3, sp3d E) sp3, sp3d2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

9) The number of electrons in the valence shell of Xe in XeF6 is ________ A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 10) What is the oxidation state of xenon in XeO2F2? A) 0 B) +4 C) +8 D) +2 E) +6 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 11) What is the oxidation state of xenon in XeO4? A) +8 B) +6 C) +4 D) +2 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 12) Br2 can be prepared by combining NaBr with ________. A) Cl2 B) HBr C) HCl D) NaCl E) I2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

13) The active ingredient in many liquid bleaches is ________. A) NaCl B) NaClO C) NaClO2 D) NaClO3 E) NaClO4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 14) Which halogen can react with fluorine to form the compound XF7? A) bromine B) fluorine C) chlorine D) iodine E) astatine Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 15) Which halogen forms an oxyacid with the formula HXO2? A) bromine B) fluorine C) chlorine D) iodine E) astatine Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 16) The primary commercial use of oxygen is ________. A) for the treatment of respiratory distress B) in oxyacetylene welding C) as a household bleach D) as an oxidizing agent E) to charge oxygen-containing cylinders used by deep-sea divers Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

17) Only the most active metals react with oxygen to form ________. A) oxides B) superoxides C) peroxides D) ozonides E) water Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 18) Dissolving 2.0 mol of ________ in 1.0 L of water at 25 °C would yield the most acidic solution. A) CO2 B) Na2O C) SO3 D) CO E) CaO Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 19) The nitride ion is a strong Br∅nsted-Lowry base. Mg3N2 reacts with water to produce ________. A) N2 B) N2O C) NO D) NO2 E) NH3 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1, 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 20) The primary commercial use of elemental nitrogen is in the manufacture of ________. A) plastics B) explosives C) nitrogen-containing fertilizers D) rubber E) chlorine bleach Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 24

21) What is the coefficient of NO2 when the following disproportionation reaction is balanced? NO2 (g) + H2O (l) → A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

(aq) + NO3- (aq) + NO (g)

Page Ref: Sec. 22.7

22) The Haber process is used to make ________ from ________. A) HNO3, N2 B) O2, KClO3 C) NH3, N2 D) NO2, O2 E) NO, N2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 23) Most mined phosphate rock is ________. A) used as a strong acid B) used as a reducing agent C) used as a detergent D) converted to fertilizer E) discarded as a by-product Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 24) The white allotropic form of ________ bursts into flame when exposed to air. A) phosphorus B) carbon C) sulfur D) selenium E) oxygen Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 25

25) The two allotropic forms of phosphorus are ________ and ________. A) black, red B) white, black C) white, yellow D) white, red E) black, yellow Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 26) The principal combustion products of compounds containing carbon and hydrogen in the presence of excess O2 are ________. A) CO2 and H2O B) CO2 and H2O2 C) CO2 and H D) C(graphite) and H2 E) CO2 and H2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 27) ________ is formed when wood is heated strongly in the absence of air. A) Buckminsterfullerene B) Carbon black C) Sulfur dioxide D) Coke E) Charcoal Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 28) To produce carbon black, ________. A) diamond is exposed to extremely high pressures and temperatures B) wood is strongly heated in the absence of oxygen C) coal is strongly heated in the absence of oxygen D) hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in a very limited supply of oxygen E) graphite is cooled to -273 °C Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 26

29) Although CaC is essentially insoluble in pure water, it dissolves slowly in acidic ground water due to formation of ________. A) insoluble Ca(OH)2 B) soluble Ca(OH)2 C) insoluble Ca(HCO3)2 D) soluble Ca(HCO3)2 E) soluble CaO Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 30) The compound whose formula is CaC2 is ________. A) calcium carbide B) carborundum C) carbon calcide D) calcium dicarbon E) limestone Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 31) An example of a form of pure carbon that contains only sp3 hybridized carbon atoms is ________. A) diamond B) charcoal C) graphite D) carbon black E) carborundum Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 32) What is the oxidation state of carbon in the carbonate ion? A) +4 B) +2 C) 0 D) -2 E) -4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 27

33) The correct name of H2CO3 is ________. A) hydrogen carbide B) hydrogen carbonate ion C) carbonate ion D) carbonic acid E) carboxylic acid Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 34) The most common oxidation state of silicon is ________. A) -4 B) +2 C) +6 D) -2 E) +4 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 35) Pyrex® glass is formed by adding an oxide of ________ to soda-lime glass. A) lead B) cobalt C) boron D) silver E) phosphorous Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 36) SiO44- is the ________ ion. A) orthosilicate ion B) silicide ion C) thiosilicate ion D) silicon tetroxide ion E) siliconate ion Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2

37) The oxidation state of silicon in SiO44- is ________. A) 0 B) +6 C) +2 D) +4 E) -4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 38) The disilicate ion is ________. A) Si2O88B) Si2O76C) Si2O84D) Si2O86E) Si2O72Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 39) Glass is ________ whereas quartz is ________. A) hard, soft B) crystalline, amorphous C) amorphous, crystalline D) pure Si , a mixture of Si and carbonates E) breakable, not breakable Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 40) What is the formula of borax? A) H3BO3 B) H2B4O7 C) P5O8 D) B2O3 E) Na2B4O7 ∙ 10H2O Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 29

41) Which group 3A element is a metalloid? A) B B) Al C) Ga D) In E) Tl Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 42) Tetraboric acid, H2B4O7, is prepared by heating boric acid, H3BO3 (a condensation reaction involving water loss). If 400.0 mmol H3BO3 are used, what mass (g) of H2O is formed, assuming quantitative stoichiometric conversion? A) 5.77 B) 0.500 C) 0.320 D) 7.21 E) 9.01 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 43) Diborane is ________. A) B10H14 B) B2O3 C) BH3 D) B2H6 E) H3BO3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 44) Boric oxide is ________. A) B2O B) BO2 C) BO D) B2O3 E) B2O4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 30

45) The correct name for NaBH4 is ________. A) sodium borohydride B) sodium borate C) sodium boride D) sodium borite E) sodium hydroboride Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 22.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) The most nonmetallic element is ________. A) S B) P C) Cl D) Br E) Se Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 2) The least electronegative of the elements below is ________. A) Se B) S C) F D) Cl E) Br Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2

3) In the following chemical equation PCl3 + 3H2O → the products (when the equation is balanced) are ________. A) H3PO3 + 3HCl B) P(OH)3 + 3HCl C) H(ClO)3 + PH3 D) HPCl2 + Cl(OH)3 E) PO3 + 3HCl Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 4) Which of the following is a molecular hydride? A) H2O B) CsH C) MgH2 D) TiH2 E) LiOH Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 5) Which of the following is an ionic hydride? A) CaH2 B) C2H4 C) HCl D) NH3 E) CsOH Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

6) Which of the following compounds would produce the most acidic aqueous solution? A) MgH2 B) C2H2 C) HF D) KH E) H2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 7) The oxidation state of sulfur in the SO3 molecule is ________. A) +6 B) +2 C) -2 D) +4 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 8) The oxidation state of phosphorous in the PF5 molecule is ________. A) +5 B) +4 C) -5 D) +6 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 9) The oxidation state of chlorine in the ClO- molecule is ________. A) +1 B) +3 C) +4 D) +5 E) -1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

10) Which one of the following compounds is superoxide? A) NaO2 B) Na2O C) Na2O2 D) NaOH E) O Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 11) Which compound would produce a basic aqueous solution? A) KH B) H2S C) C2H6 D) CH3OH E) H2O Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 12) What is the F—Xe—F bond angle in XeF2? A) 180° B) 90° C) 109.5° D) 120° E) 60° Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 13) The oxidation number of xenon in XeF4 is ________. A) +4 B) +3 C) +5 D) +1 E) -6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

14) Which equation correctly represents the reaction between elemental chlorine and sodium iodide? A) Cl + NaI → I + NaCl B) + NaI → + NaCl C) + 2NaI → + 2NaCl D) Cl + NaI → 1/2 + NaCl E) + NaI → Na + Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 15) Which one of the following compounds is peroxide? A) Li2O2 B) Li2O C) LiO2 D) both Li2O2 and LiO2 E) O Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 4 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 16) The oxidation state of oxygen in O2F2 is ________. A) +1 B) -1 C) +2 D) 0 E) -2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 17) What is the molecular shape of the SF2 molecule? A) tetrahedral B) linear C) bent D) trigonal planar E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 35

18) The oxidation state of nitrogen in the NO2 molecule is ________. A) +4 B) +3 C) +5 D) +2 E) -3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 19) The oxidation state of As in the As2O3 molecule is ________. A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) -3 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 20) The oxidation number of B in B2O3 is ________. A) +3 B) +2 C) +1 D) +4 E) +5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 21) Which of the following is the nitride ion? A) N3B) N3C) NO3D) NE) NO2Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

22) Which pair of formula/name is incorrect? A) NO2 / dinitrogen oxide B) N2O / nitrous oxide C) NO / nitric oxide D) N2O4 / dinitrogen tetroxide E) N2O5 / dinitrogen pentoxide Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 23) The molecular shape of the PF3 molecule is ________. A) trigonal pyramidal B) trigonal bipyramidal C) see-saw D) T-shaped E) octahedral Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 24) How many lone pair of electrons are there in one molecule of dinitrogen monoxide? A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 E) 1 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 22.4 Short Answer 1) What are the five crystalline allotropes of carbon? Answer: graphene, carbon nanotubes, diamond, graphite, and buckminsterfullerene Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 2) Of Li, K, P and Ne which is the most electronegative? Answer: P Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 37

3) In a proton transfer reaction the weaker a Br∅nsted-Lowry acid the ________ is its conjugate. Answer: stronger Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G2 4) D2O, deuterium oxide, is also known as ________. Answer: heavy water Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 5) H2 is reacted with ________ to produce methanol. Answer: CO; carbon monoxide Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 6) What noble gas is radioactive? Answer: radon Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 7) Of the nonradioactive halogens, which is the largest? Answer: iodine Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 8) Which group 7A halogen is radioactive? Answer: astatine Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 9) In a hypohalous acid, the oxidation state of the halogen is ________. Answer: +1 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

10) Write the correctly balanced equation for the reaction between elemental fluorine and sodium iodide. Answer: F2 + 2 NaI → I2 + 2 NaF Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 11) Write the correctly balanced equation for the reaction between elemental iodine and sodium bromide. Answer: I2 + NaBr → no reaction Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 12) The acid and salts of which halogen-oxyanion are the most stable? Answer: perchlorate Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 13) What anion containing Cl is used as a rocket fuel? Answer: perchlorate Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 14) Group 8A elements are all gases at room temperature except for ________. Answer: radon Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3, 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 15) What is the oxidation state of oxygen in the superoxide ion? Answer: - 1/2 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 16) In oxygen compounds, a disproportionation reaction is a reaction in which oxygen is simultaneously ________. Answer: oxidized and reduced Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

17) What process replenishes O2? Answer: photosynthesis Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 18) Hydrogen peroxide is a highly polar and strongly hydrogen-bonded liquid. It decomposes to form water and ________. Answer: oxygen gas Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 19) If a metal forms more than one oxide, the acidic character of the oxide increases as the oxidation state of the metal ________. Answer: increases Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 20) What sulfur gas is used to sterilize wine? Answer: SO2 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 21) The electrical conductivity of ________ is low in the dark, but increases on exposure to light. Answer: selenium Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.6 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 22) The danger from mixing ammonia with bleach is the production of ________. Answer: chloramine; NH2Cl Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 23) KNO3 and NaNO3 are also known as ________. Answer: saltpeter Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

24) What is the primary commercial source of elemental nitrogen? Answer: fractional distillation of liquid air Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 25) What group 5A element is the least metallic? Answer: nitrogen Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 26) Low levels of arsenic consumption can lead to ________ or bladder cancer. Answer: lung Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.8 LO: 22.5 GO: G2 27) Why does calcium carbonate dissolve in water containing carbon dioxide? Answer: because the dissolved carbon dioxide makes the water slightly acidic Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 28) The balanced equation for the production of ethylene from calcium carbide is ________. Answer: CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 29) What is an acetylide? Answer: a carbide containing the C22- ion Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 30) What is meant by the term "composite"? Answer: a combination of two or more materials Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 31) What are the principal components used in making soda-lime glass? Answer: calcium oxide, sodium oxide, and silicon dioxide Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 41

32) What effect does substitution of K2O for Na2O in making soda-lime glass have in its properties? Answer: increases hardness and melting point Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 33) Chains of silicate tetrahedra are called ________. Answer: asbestos Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G2 34) Compounds containing only boron and hydrogen are called ________. Answer: boranes Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.11 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 22.5 True/False Questions 1) Air containing 4% H2 can be explosive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 2) The reduction of O2 by sodium hydride produces lye. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.2 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 3) Xenon can have oxidation states of 2, 4, 6, and 8. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 4) The instability of xenon fluorides is due to its negative enthalpy of formation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.3 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2

5) Ozone is a pale blue poisonous gas with an irritating odor. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 6) All oxides are ionic compounds. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 7) Oxides can react with water to form acids or bases. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.5 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 8) The reduction of metal oxides uses carbon monoxide. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 9) Calcium carbide is a solid source of acetylene. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G2 22.6 Essay Questions 1) Explain why silicon does not form any allotropes with structures analogous to that of graphite or buckminsterfullerenes, even though it is in the same group as carbon. Answer: Silicon is large enough to prevent efficient sideways-overlap of p orbitals required for π-bond formation. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.1 LO: 22.1, 22.2 GO: G8 2) Explain why hydrofluoric acid etches glass. Answer: Hydrofluoric acid forms a soluble hexafluorosilic acid (H2SiF6), removing silicon from glass and, consequently, destroying it. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G8 43

3) An aqueous solution of HF is considered a relatively ________ acid. Answer: weak Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.4 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G8 4) What are the three steps in the Ostwald process of nitric acid synthesis? Answer: 1) oxidation of ammonia to NO and water, 2) oxidation of NO to NO2, 3) reaction of NO2 with water. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G8 5) Photochemical decomposition of HNO3 produces small amounts of NO2 which causes the solution to sometimes become ________ in color. Answer: yellow Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.7 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G8 6) Describe the major difference in the charge distribution in CH4 and SiH4. Answer: Even though both C—H and Si—H bonds are polar, both CH4 and SiH4 are nonpolar due to their tetrahedral symmetry. Because carbon is more electronegative than hydrogen, bonding electrons are somewhat shifted towards carbon, leaving hydrogen atoms with positive partial charges. On the other hand, silicon is somewhat less electronegative than hydrogen and the bonding electrons are shifted towards hydrogen atoms, which adopt slightly negative charges. Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.9 LO: 22.3, 22.4 GO: G8 7) Briefly explain why carbon and silicon can form oxides with such different physical properties, gaseous CO2 and solid SiO2. Answer: Carbon atoms are small enough to form π bonds with oxygen due to the overlap of p orbitals, resulting in the formation of double C O bonds. Consequently, CO2 forms individual molecules that interact with each other via weak London dispersion forces. Silicon atoms are too large and form only single bonds with oxygen, four such bonds per each silicon atom, with each oxygen atom bridging between two silicon atoms, resulting in a covalent-network solid. Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 22.10 LO: 22.6 GO: G8

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 23 Transition Metals and Coordination Chemistry 23.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Chalcocite, chalcopyrite, and malachite are sources of which metal? A) manganese B) copper C) titanium D) iron E) zinc Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 2) Which mineral contains titanium? A) pyrolusite B) chalcopyrite C) galena D) rutile E) sphalerite Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 3) A mineral is ________. A) a solid inorganic compound that contains one or more metals B) a vitamin C) metal in its elemental form D) a transition metal ion E) a source of carbon Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2

4) What two oxidation states are more frequently observed in the first transition series than in the third? A) +3 and +7 B) +2 and +3 C) +2 and +7 D) +5 and +6 E) +3 and +5 Answer: B Diff: 4 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 5) A substance with unpaired electrons will be ________. A) slightly attracted to a magnet B) slightly repelled by a magnet C) permanently magnetic D) brightly colored E) nonmetallic Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 6) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that ________. A) Zr and Y have about the same radius B) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation states C) Zr and Hf have about the same radius D) Zr and Zn have similar oxidation states E) Zr and Hf have the same oxidation states Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 7) Which one of the following is not true about transition metals? A) They frequently have more than one common oxidation state. B) Their compounds are frequently colored. C) Their compounds frequently exhibit magnetic properties. D) They are found in the d-block of the periodic table. E) They typically have low melting points. Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2

8) Which one of the following species is paramagnetic? A) Fe3+ B) Cu+ C) Zn D) Mg E) Au+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 9) Paramagnetic solids ________. A) have atoms with one or more unpaired electrons B) show very slight magnetic character when placed in a magnetic field C) have atoms with randomly oriented magnetic moments D) have atoms with strongly aligned electrons when placed in a magnetic field E) both A and D Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 10) Formation of a complex species of Mn+ metal ion with ligands often ________. A) "masks" original chemical properties of both the Mn+ ion and the ligands B) reduces availability of the free Mn+ ions in solution C) may cause changes in the ease with which Mn+ is reduced or oxidized D) alters original physical properties of Mn+ E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 11) What is the most common geometry found in four-coordinate complexes? A) square planar B) octahedral C) tetrahedral D) icosahedral E) trigonal bipyramidal Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

12) The minimum number of unshared valence electron pairs in the ligands of a coordination compound is ________. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 13) The coordination number of cobalt in CoCl3 ∙ 6NH3 is ________. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 14) What is the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)5]3-? A) 1+ B) 2+ C) 3+ D) 4+ E) 5+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 15) Changes in the coordination sphere of a complex compound may lead to changes in ________. A) color B) physical properties C) chemical properties D) stability E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

16) In the compound, CaNa[Fe(CN)6], what ligands are in the coordination sphere? A) Ca2+ B) C) CND) H2O E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 17) What are the respective central-metal oxidation state, coordination number, and overall charge on the complex ion in Na2[Cr(NH3)2 (NCS)4]? A) +3; 6; -1 B) +3; 6; +1 C) +2; 6; -2 D) +2; 4; -1 E) +1; 6; -2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 23.2

18) Which of the following complexes has a coordination number of 6? A) [Co(NH3)2Cl2] B) [Co(NH3)4]2+ C) [Co(en)3]3+ D) [Co(NH3)2]3+ E) None of these complexes has coordination number 6. Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

19) How many ligands are there in the coordination sphere of [Co(en)2Cl2]+? A) 3 B) 6 C) 4 D) 1 E) 0 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 20) What is the charge on the complex ion in Ca2[Fe(CN)6]? A) 3B) 2+ C) 2D) 1E) 4Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 21) A ligand with a single donor atom is called ________. A) a chelon B) a chelate C) polydentate D) monodentate E) bidentate Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 22) Which of the following is not a chelating agent? A) chloride anion B) EDTA C) porphine D) ethylenediamine E) oxalate anion Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

23) What is the purpose of adding EDTA to prepared foods? A) to keep ions such as Ca2+ in solution so the foods look good B) to complex trace metal ions that catalyze decomposition reactions C) to complex iron (III) ions so they can catalyze protein decomposition on cooking D) to aid in browning of the surface during cooking E) to prevent dissolution of the container in the food when stored for long periods of time Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 24) In humans, what percent of absorbed iron is found in blood? A) 15 B) 25 C) 40 D) 60 E) 75 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 25) The coordination number and oxidation number of the central atom in [Fe(H2O)4Cl2] are ________ and ________, respectively. A) 4, +1 B) 6, +1 C) 6, +2 D) 5, +2 E) 4, +2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 26) What are the donor atoms in a porphine molecule? A) N B) O C) S D) Br E) F Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

27) What metal is complexed in chlorophyll? A) iron B) chromium C) manganese D) vanadium E) magnesium Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 28) What form of hemoglobin is purplish-red? A) myoglobin B) deoxyhemoglobin C) heme D) oxyhemoglobin E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 29) How many bonds can ethylenediamine form to a metal ion? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 30) Based on entropy considerations alone, which homogeneous aqueous equilibrium would be expected to lie to the right? A) AgI2- + 2Br- ⇔ AgBr2- + 2IB) Ni(H2NC2H4NH2)32+ + 6NH3 ⇔ Ni(NH3)62+ + 3H2NC2H4NH2 C) CoCl42+ + 6H2O ⇔ Co(H2O)62+ + 4ClD) Fe(NH3)62+ + C20H10N42- ⇔ Fe(NH3)2(C20H10N4) + 4NH3 E) Cu(NH3)42+ + 6H2O ⇔ Cu(H2O)62+ + 4NH3 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

31) The chelate effect is best attributed to considerations of which type? A) hydration B) enthalpy C) entropy D) hydrogen bonding E) resonance Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 32) Which one of the following species is a potential polydentate ligand (chelating agent)? A) NH3 B) C) D) H2O E) C2O42Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 33) What are the donor atoms in ferrichrome and how many of them are in one molecule? A) Cr, 5 B) N, 4 C) O, 6 D) Fe, 4 E) S, 6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 34) Which of the following is a polydentate ligand? A) ammonia B) oxalate ion C) chloride ion D) water E) hydroxide ion Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

35) A complex of correctly written formula [Pt(NH3)3Br]Br ∙ H2O has which set of ligands in its inner coordination sphere? A) 3 NH3 B) 3 NH3 and 2 BrC) 3 NH3 and 1 BrD) 3 NH3, 1 Br-, and 1 H2O E) 3 NH3, 2 Br-, and 1 H2O Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.5 GO: G2 36) Which one of the following is the correct formula for potassium diaquatetrachloromolybdate (III)? A) K2[Mo(H2O)2Cl4] B) K[Mo(H2O)2Cl2]Cl2 C) K[Mo(H2O)2Cl4] D) Mo[K(H2O)2]Cl4 E) K3[Mo(H2O)2Cl4] Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 37) Does either or both cis- or trans-[Mn(en)2Br2] have optical isomers? A) cis only B) trans only C) both cis and trans D) neither cis nor trans E) [Mn(en)2Br2] does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.7 GO: G2

38) Linkage isomerism would most likely occur when which of the following ligands is present? A) H2O B) NH3 C) ClD) PF3 E) NCSAnswer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 39) Isomers whose ligands can bind directly to a metal or be outside the lattice are called ________. A) linkage isomers B) rotational isomers C) coordination sphere isomers D) geometric isomers E) optical isomers Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 40) Which of the following will display optical isomerism? A) square-planar [Rh(CO)2Cl2]B) square-planar [Pt(H2NC2H4NH2)2]2+ C) octahedral [Co(NH3)6]3+ D) octahedral [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ E) octahedral [Co(H2NC2H4NH2)3]3+ Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.5 GO: G2 41) Which one of the following complexes would most likely have tetrahedral geometry? A) [NiCl4]2B) [Co(H2O)6]2+ C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ D) [Fe(CN)6]3+ E) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.5 GO: G2 11

42) Which one of the following complexes can exhibit geometrical isomerism? A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (square planar) B) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] (tetrahedral) C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (square planar) D) [Cu(NH3)5Cl]2+ (octahedral) E) All of the above can exhibit geometrical isomerism. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.5 GO: G2 43) Coordination sphere isomers ________. A) have the same molecular formula and coordination number B) have the same molecular formula but different coordination numbers C) have different molecular formulas but the same coordination number D) have different molecular formulas and different coordination numbers E) are the same as resonance structures Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.5 GO: G2 44) A racemic mixture is ________. A) an equal mixture of both enantiomers of an optically active species B) a mixture of an optically active species with an optically inactive species C) an equal mixture of cis- and trans-isomers D) a mixture of metal ions and ligands in equilibrium E) a mixture of structural isomers Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 45) Which compound is most likely white/colorless? A) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ B) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ C) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]2+ D) [Cd(H2O)4]2+ E) [Co(H2O)6]2+ Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 12

46) A complex that absorbs light at 700 nm will appear ________. A) red B) green C) yellow D) orange E) violet Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 47) A metal complex absorbs light mainly at 420 nm. What is the color of the complex? A) green B) yellow C) red D) orange E) purple Answer: B Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 48) Which one of the following substances has three unpaired d electrons? A) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ B) [V(H2O)6]4+ C) [Ag(NH3)2]+ D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ E) [Cr(CN)6]3Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5, 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2 49) Which one of the following complex ions will be paramagnetic? A) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (low spin) B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (low spin) C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (low spin) D) [Zn(H2O)4]2+ E) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5, 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2 13

50) Complexes containing metals with d10 electron configurations are typically white/colorless because ________. A) there is no d electron that can be promoted via the absorption of visible light B) the empty d orbitals absorb all of the visible wavelengths C) there are no d electrons to form bonds to ligands D) a complex must be charged to be colored E) d electrons must be emitted by the complex in order for it to appear colored Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 51) Complexes containing metals with d10 electron configurations are typically ________. A) violet B) blue C) green D) yellow E) white/colorless Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 52) Complexes containing metals with which one of the following electron configurations are usually white/colorless? A) d2 B) d1 C) d5 D) d8 E) d10 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2 53) Consider a complex in which manganese (III) is bonded to six identical ligands. Which one of the following ligands will result in the smallest value of Δ? A) B) NH3 C) H2O D) FE) CNAnswer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a 14

GO: G2 54) Based on the crystal-field strengths F- < CH2CN < NH3 < NO2- < CN-, which Co (III) complex is most likely high-spin? A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ B) [Co(NO2)6]3C) [Co(CN)6]3D) [CoF6]3E) [Co(CH3CN)6]3+ Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 55) The attraction of a metal to a neutral ligand is due to ________ bonding. A) ionic B) covalent C) ion-dipole D) dipole-dipole E) hydrophobic Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 56) Which of the following statements is (are) false? A) The greater the energy gap in a metal complex, the shorter the wavelength of light the complex will absorb. B) Complex color depends on both the metal and the ligand. C) Metal complexes with an ammonia ligand have a larger energy gap than the corresponding fluoride complexes. D) Strong field ligands are associated with low energy gaps. E) Both A and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2

57) Based on the crystal-field strengths Cl- < F- < H2O < NH3 < H2NC2H4NH2, which octahedral complex below has its d-d electronic transition at shortest wavelength? A) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ B) [Ti(H2NC2H4NH2)3]3+ C) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ D) [TiCl6]3E) [TiF6]3Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 58) Which of the following ions can form both a high spin and a low spin octahedral complexes? A) Fe3+ and Co2+ only B) Fe3+, Mn3+, and Co2+ C) Cr3+ only D) Fe3+, Cr3+, and Co2+ E) Mn3+, Cr3+, and Co2+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 59) Using the following abbreviated spectrochemical series, determine which complex ion is most likely to absorb light in the red region of the visible spectrum. small splitting Cl- < H2O < NH3 < CN- large splitting A) [CuCl4]2B) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ D) [Cu(CN)4]2E) not enough information given to determine Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.9 GO: G2

60) Which of the following cannot form both high- and low-spin octahedral complexes? A) Mn2+ B) V2+ C) Co3+ D) Cr2+ E) All of the above can form both high- and low-spin complexes. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 61) Which of the following can form both high- and low-spin octahedral complexes? A) Cr2+ B) Cr3+ C) Zn2+ D) Cu+ E) All of the above can form either high- or low-spin complexes. Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 62) How many d electrons are associated with the metal ion in [Cr(NH3)3+? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2

23.2 Bimodal Questions 1) The coordination numbers of cobalt (III) and of chromium (III) in their complexes are always ________. A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3 E) 6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 2) The coordination number of platinum in complexes is always ________. A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3 E) 6 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 3) During the formation of a coordination compound, the ________ acts as a Lewis acid. A) metal B) ligand Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 4) During the formation of a coordination compound, the ________ acts as a Lewis base. A) metal B) ligand Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

5) The coordination sphere of a complex consists of ________. A) the central metal ion only B) the ligands C) the central metal ion and the ligands bonded to it D) the primary and secondary valencies E) coordination and steric numbers Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 6) In the following reaction, Ni2+ is acting as a(n) ________. Ni2+ (g) + 6H2O (l) → Ni(H2O)62+ (aq) A) oxidizing agent B) Lewis acid C) precipitating agent D) solvent E) ligand Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 7) How many d electrons are in the iron ion of K3[Fe(CN)6]? A) 3 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 8) What is the charge on the complex ion in Mg2[FeCl6]? A) 2B) 2+ C) 3D) 3+ E) 4Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 19

9) What is the oxidation number of chromium in Cr[(NH3)4Cl2]Cl? A) -3 B) +3 C) +2 D) -2 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 10) What is the ligand in Ca3[Fe(CN)6]2? A) Ca2+ B) Fe3+ C) CND) Fe(CN)63E) Fe2+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 11) What is the charge of the central metal ion in Ca3[Fe(CN)6]2? A) 0 B) 1+ C) 2+ D) 3+ E) 6+ Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 12) What is the oxidation number of cobalt in [Co(NH3)4F2]? A) -3 B) +2 C) +1 D) +3 E) +6 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

13) The charge of the complex ion in [Zn(H2O)3Cl]Cl ________. A) 0 B) 1C) 2+ D) 1+ E) 2Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 14) The coordination number for [Zn(H2O)3Cl]Cl is ________. A) 5 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1 E) 6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 15) What is the oxidation state of iron in CaNa[Fe(CN)6]? A) 0 B) +2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 16) What is the oxidation state of iron in K3[Fe(CN)6]? A) 0 B) +2 C) +3 D) +4 E) +6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

17) What is the coordination number of iron in CaNa[Fe(CN)6]? A) 2 B) 8 C) 4 D) 6 E) 12 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 18) What is the coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH3)5Cl](NO3)2? A) 12 B) 8 C) 4 D) 2 E) 6 Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 19) What is the oxidation state of cobalt in [Co(NH3)5Cl](NO3)2? A) 0 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 20) What is the oxidation state of chromium in [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+? A) 0 B) +2 C) +3 D) -2 E) -3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

21) What is the coordination number of chromium in [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+? A) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 E) 12 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 22) The "dentation" of a ligand is defined by ________. A) how many "dents" or "deceptions" there are in the coordination sphere of a complex species it forms B) how many electron donor atoms it utilizes to form coordinate bonds to the central metal ion C) the total number of lone pairs of electrons it possesses D) how many metal ions it can sequester from solution E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 23) EDTA is ________-dantate ligand. A) mono B) bi C) tri D) tetra E) hexa Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 24) What is the metal ion in the porphyrin of heme? A) iron B) calcium C) molybdenum D) magnesium E) chlorophyll Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

25) How many iron atoms are coordinated in a hemoglobin molecule? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 26) The correct name for [Ni(NH3)6](NO3)3 ________. A) dinitrohexaamminenickel (II) B) hexaamminenickel (III) trinitrate C) dinitrohexaamminenickelate (III) D) hexaamminenickel (II) nitrate E) hexaamminenickel (III) nitrate Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 27) The correct name for [Cu(NH3)4(H2O)2]2+ is ________. A) diwaterquatraamminecopper (II) B) tetraamminediaquacopper (II) C) diaquatetraammoniumcopper (II) D) tetraamminecopper (II) dihydrate E) copper (II) tetraamminediaqueous Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 28) The correct name for [Al(H2O)2(OH-)4]- is ________. A) diwaterquatrahydroxyaluminum B) tetrahydroxydiaquaaluminum (III) C) diaquatetrahydroxoaluminate D) aluminum (IV) hydroxide dihydrate E) aluminumdihydratetetrahydroxide Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2

29) The correct name for [Fe(NH3)5]Cl3 is ________. A) pentaamineiron (II) chloride B) pentaamineiron (I) chloride C) pentaamineiron (III) chloride D) pentaamineiron (IV) chloride E) pentaamineiron (0) chloride Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 30) The names of complex anions end in ________. A) -o B) -ium C) -ate D) -ous E) -ic Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 31) The correct name for Na3[CoF6] is ________. A) trisodium hexakisfluorocobalt (III) B) trisodium hexakisfluorocobalt (II) C) trisodium hexakisfluorocobalt (IV) D) sodium hexafluorocobaltate (III) E) sodium hexafluorocobaltate (IV) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 32) Triphenylphosphine is often given the abbreviated formula PPh3. The correct name for Rh(PPh3)3Cl is ________. A) chlorotriphenylphosphinerhodium B) chlorotriphenylphosphinerhodium (I) C) tris(triphenylphosphine)chlororhodium (I) D) chlorotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium (I) E) chlorotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodate (I) Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2

33) In ________, the bonds are the same but the spatial arrangement of the atoms is different. A) structural isomers B) linkage isomers C) coordination-sphere isomers D) stereoisomers E) resonance structures Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 34) A geometrical isomer with like groups located on opposite sides of the metal atom is denoted with the prefix ________. A) cisB) transC) bisD) tetrakisE) dAnswer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 35) The complex [Zn(NH3)2Cl2]2+ does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism. The geometry of this complex must be ________. A) tetrahedral B) trigonal bipyramidal C) octahedral D) square planar E) either tetrahedral or square planar Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 36) How many isomers exist for the octahedral complex ion [Co(NH3)4F2]+? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2

37) Trans-[Fe(H2O)2Cl4]2- must be ________. A) tetrahedral B) octahedral C) square planar D) trigonal bipyramidal E) linear Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 38) Linkage isomerism can only occur ________. A) in cis-isomers of octahedral complexes B) with cobalt complexes C) with coordination number 6 D) with tetrahedral complexes E) with ligands that have more than one possible donor atom Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 39) Metals with ________ electron configurations characteristically form diamagnetic, square planar complexes. A) d0 B) d9 C) d6 D) d8 E) d10 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2

23.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Which mineral contains mercury? A) cinnabar B) sphalerite C) rutile D) chromite E) cassiterite Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 2) Which one of the following species is paramagnetic? A) Cu B) Ne C) Y3+ D) Ra E) Zn2+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 3) Which element has the largest bonding atomic radius? A) scandium B) titanium C) vanadium D) chromium E) manganese Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 4) What is the most common geometry found in five-coordinate complexes? A) trigonal bipyramidal B) octahedral C) tetrahedral D) linear E) icosahedral Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

5) The coordination number of cobalt in CoCl3 ∙ 6NH3 is ________. A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 1 E) 2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 6) What is the oxidation number of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2-? A) +2 B) +1 C) 0 D) +3 E) +4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 7) Which ion shown below does not exist? A) Y4+ B) Y2+ C) Y+ D) Zr4+ E) Nb3+ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 8) Which ion shown has empty 5s orbitals? A) Mo2+ B) Y3+ C) Zr4+ D) Nb2+ E) All choices have empty 5s orbitals. Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 29

9) Which ion shown has empty 4d orbitals? A) Y3+ B) Zr2+ C) Nb+ D) Mo3+ E) Zr3+ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 8 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 10) A ligand with a single donor atom is called ________. A) monodentate B) bidentate C) polydentate D) a chelate E) a chelon Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 3 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 11) Which of the following is not a chelating agent? A) water B) ethylenediamine C) ortho-phenanthroline D) carbonate ion E) triphosphate ion Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 12) How many bonds can carbonate ion form to a metal ion? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 17 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

13) Which of the following is a polydentate ligand? A) ethylenediamine B) water C) cyanide ion D) nitrite ion E) ammonia Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 14) The ligand with the formula Br– is named ________ in complexes with transition metals. A) bromo B) bromide C) fluoro D) carbonato E) azido Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 7 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 15) The ligand with the name aqua when used in complexes with transition metals has the formula ________. A) H2O B) H2O2 C) HOD) N3E) H3O+ Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

16) Which one of the following is the correct formula for pentaamminechlorocobalt (III) chloride? A) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 B) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2 C) [Co(NH3)6Cl]Cl2 D) [Co(NH3)5]Cl4 E) [Cl(NH3)5Co]Co2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 17) Which of the following can form both high- and low-spin octahedral complexes? A) Ru2+ B) Cr3+ C) Cr4+ D) Zr E) Ag+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 18) How many d electrons are associated with the metal ion in [Cr(NH3)6]3+? A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 3 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2

23.4 Short Answer Questions 1) Draw a diagram of the short-hand ground state electron configuration of zinc. Answer:

Diff: 4 Var: 1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 23.1

2) Most transition metal ions contain partially occupied ________ subshells. Answer: d Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 3) A substance is ________ if its ions or atoms have zero unpaired electrons. Answer: diamagnetic Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 4) The two more common oxidation states of lead are ________ and ________. Answer: 2+, 4+ Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 5) ________ arises when the unpaired electrons of the atoms or ions in a solid are influenced by the orientations of the electrons of their neighbors. Answer: Ferromagnetism Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.1 LO: 23.1 GO: G2 6) What is the oxidation state of the central atom in CaK[Co(CN)6]? Answer: +3 Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

7) The most common coordination numbers are ________. Answer: 4 and 6 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 8) What is the coordination number of the iron atom in CaNa[Fe(CN)6]? Answer: 6 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 9) Six-coordinate complexes generally have ________ geometry. Answer: octahedral Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 10) The number of "free" chloride ions in an ionic coordination compound can be determined by treating the compound with ________. Answer: AgNO3 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 11) The secondary valence in metal ion complexes is called the ________. Answer: coordination number Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 12) Werner's theory of primary and secondary valences for transition metal complexes has given us the concepts of ________ and ________. Answer: oxidation state, coordination number Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 13) Transition metal ions with empty valence orbitals act as ________. Answer: Lewis acids Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2

14) What is the oxidation number of the central metal in [Mo(H2O)5NO3]Cl2 Answer: +3 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 15) Define the chelate effect. Answer: Chelate effect = an increased stability of complex compounds formed with chelating (polydentate) ligands compared to those formed with monodentate ligands. Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G8 16) The chelate effect is enhanced by polydentate ligand binding because of the change in ________. Answer: entropy Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 17) List three of the ten transition metals required for human life. Answer: Any three of: Co, Cu, Cr, Fe, Mn, V, Zn, Ni, Mo, Cd Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 18) Myoglobin has ________ heme group(s) that bind(s) ________. Answer: 1,oxygen Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 19) In photosynthesis, ________ moles of photons are required to form one mole of ________. Answer: 48, glucose Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 20) In the leaves of plants, visible light is absorbed by a compound known as ________, and is aided by a ________ ion bonded to a porphyrin ring. Answer: chlorophyll, Mg Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2

21) What is the mechanism used in humans to combat blood bacterial growth via deprivation of iron? Answer: fever Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 22) A large difference in formation constant (Kf) of a poly- versus monodentate ligand is called ________. Answer: chelate effect Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 23) A compound that can occupy two coordination sites is a (an) ________. Answer: bidentate ligand Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 24) The porphyrin compound that contains Mg (II) is called ________. Answer: chlorophyll Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 25) The transport of iron into bacteria is facilitated by the formation of the complex ________. Answer: ferrichrome Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 26) Name the compound: K2[Cr(H2O)4(CO3)2]. Answer: potassium tetraaquadicarbonatochromate (II) Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2 27) Name Na [Ru(H2O)2 (C2O4)2]. Answer: sodium diaquadioxalatoruthenate (III) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G2

28) Two compounds have the same formula and contain an ligand. In one compound the ligand is bonded to the metal atom via the N atom and in the other it is bonded via the S atom. These two compounds are examples of ________ isomers. Answer: linkage Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 29) Non superimposable isomers are ________ isomers. Answer: optical, chiral, enantiomeric Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 30) How can high-spin and low-spin transition metal complexes be distinguished from each other? Answer: Magnetic properties and absorption spectra can be compared. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.10a GO: G2 23.5 True/False Questions 1) If chloride is a ligand to a transition metal, it will not be precipitated by silver nitrate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.2 LO: 23.6 GO: G2 2) The chelate effect must always occur with positive enthalpy change. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 3) The color of hemoglobin changes from purple to red when water displaces oxygen on the molecule. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 4) The heme unit of myoglobin is bound to the protein via a nitrogen-containing ligand. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G2 37

5) To separate racemic mixtures, the isomers must be in a chiral environment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.4 GO: G2 6) Green and orange are complementary colors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5 LO: 23.9 GO: G2 7) The energy of a metal ligand complex is higher than the energy of the separated components. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.6 LO: 23.8 GO: G2 23.6 Essay Questions 1) What is the purpose of adding sodium tripolyphosphate to a detergent? Answer: to sequester the metal ions in hard water to prevent their interference with the action of the detergent Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G8 2) What colors of light does chlorophyll-a absorb? Answer: red and blue Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G8 3) How does an elevated body temperature deprive some bacteria in the body of iron? Answer: In some bacteria, siderophore production decreases as temperature increases. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G8 4) What is a siderophore? Answer: a ligand that forms an extremely stable water-soluble complex, such as ferrichrome, with iron Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.3 LO: 23.2 GO: G8

5) What is meant by the prefix tetrakis-, and when is it used? Answer: It means 4 and is used when there are 4 of a ligand whose name includes a Greek prefix. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G8 6) Name the compound, Ca[AlH4]2. Answer: calcium tetrahydroaluminate Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G8 7) Name the compound, [Os(en)3]2 [NiCl2Br2]3. Answer: tris(ethylenediamine)osmium(III) dibromodichloronickelate(II) Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G8 8) Name the compound, Cu(H2O)42+. Answer: tetraaquacopper(II) Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.4 LO: 23.3 GO: G8 9) In what two ways can an object appear blue? Answer: absorb all wavelengths except blue and reflect or transmit only blue, or absorb the complementary color of blue and reflect or transmit all others Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 23.5 LO: 23.9 GO: G8

Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Edition Chapter 24 The Chemistry of Life: Organic and Biological Chemistry 24.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which substance would be the most soluble in gasoline? A) water B) NaNO3 C) HCl D) hexane E) NaCl Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 2) If each of the following represents an alkane, and a carbon atom is located at each vertex with the proper number of hydrogen atoms also bonded to it, which one is the most reactive? A) B)

E) They are all equally reactive since they are all alkanes. Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

3) Which of the following is not currently used as an additive agent in gasoline? A) toluene B) ethanol C) MTBE D) tetraethyl lead Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 4) How many isomers are possible for C4H10? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 10 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 5) How many isomers are possible for C5H12? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 10 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

6) The structure of 2,3-dimethylheptane is ________. A)

Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.2

7) When petroleum is distilled to separate the components by boiling point, the component with the highest boiling point is called ________. A) gas B) gasoline C) kerosene D) paraffin E) asphalt Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 3

8) What type of compound has been used to replace tetraethyl lead (( agent in gasoline? A) aromatic compounds B) olefins C) fluorochlorocarbons D) paraffins E) oxygenated hydrocarbons Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

Pb) as an antiknock

9) How many structural isomers (include all types except optical) can be drawn for C5H10? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 10 E) 12 Answer: D Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 10) How many isomers of C2H2Br2 are polar? A) none B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 E) It is impossible to tell without more information. Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 11) Which statement about hydrocarbons is false? A) The smallest alkane to have structural (constitutional) isomers has 4 carbon atoms. B) Cyclic alkanes are structural isomers of alkenes. C) Alkanes are more reactive than alkenes. D) Alkanes can be produced by hydrogenating alkenes. E) Alkenes can be polymerized. Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

12) Which statement about addition reactions between alkenes and HBr is false? A) The addition occurs at the double bond. B) Bromine attacks the alkene carbon atom possessing a partial positive charge. C) A hydrogen atom attaches to the alkene carbon atom possessing a partial negative charge. D) The π bond breaks in the course of the reaction. E) The proposed mechanism involves radicals. Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 13) Benzene behaves differently from a hydrocarbon which simply contains three C C bonds in that the latter would be expected to react much more readily with ________. A) H2 B) Cl2 C) Br2 D) HCl E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 14) Alcohols are hydrocarbon derivatives in which one or more hydrogens have been replaced by a hydroxyl functional group. ________ is the general formula of an alcohol. A) R—O—R B) R—CO—R C) R—CO—OH D) R—OH E) R—CO—H Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 15) Which one of the following is not an alcohol? A) acetone B) glycerol C) ethanol D) cholesterol E) ethylene glycol Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 5

16) The oxidation of ethanol produces ________. A) acetic acid B) formic acid C) citric acid D) lactic acid E) oxalic acid Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 17) Which one of the following compounds is an isomer of CH3CH2CH2CH2OH? A) CH3CH2CH2OH B)

E) CH3OH Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

18) Which of the following compounds do not contain an sp3 hybridized oxygen atom? A) ketones B) alcohols C) ethers D) esters E) water Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

19) Of the compounds below, ________ is an isomer of

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 7

20) Which structure below represents a ketone? A)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

21) Which structure below represents an amine? A)

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

22) Which structure below represents an aldehyde? A)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

23) Which structure below represents an ether? A)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

24) Which structure below is not correctly drawn? A)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

25) All of the following are achiral except ________ which is a chiral molecule. A)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.5 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.5

26) How many chiral carbon atoms does the neopentane (2, 2 - dimethylpropane) have? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2 13

27) How many chiral centers are there in CH3CHClCH2Cl? A) 1 B) 0 C) 3 D) 2 E) 4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2 28) Proteins are biopolymers formed via multiple condensation coupling of which two functional groups? A) ester and amine B) amine and carboxylic acid C) alcohol and carboxylic acid D) alcohol and amine E) ester and carboxylic acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.7 GO: G2 29) Which amino acid is not chiral? A) leucine B) isoleucine C) glycine D) alanine E) threonine Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.6 GO: G2 30) The tertiary structure of proteins is maintained by ________ bonds. A) hydrogen B) dipole-dipole C) ion-dipole D) covalent E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.7 GO: G2

31) Which of the following contains a peptide linkage? A)

E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.6 GO: G2 32) Sugars are examples of what type of molecule? A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) nucleic acids D) amino acids E) salts Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2

33) The principal difference between fructose and glucose is that ________. A) fructose is a disaccharide and glucose is a monosaccharide B) fructose is a monosaccharide and glucose is a disaccharide C) fructose is chiral and glucose is not D) glucose is chiral and fructose is not E) fructose is a ketone sugar and glucose is an aldehyde sugar Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2 34) Which one of the following is a monosaccharide? A) fructose B) lactose C) sucrose D) maltose E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2 35) Consider the following types of compounds: (i) amino acid (ii) nitrogen-containing organic base (iii)phosphoric acid (iv) five-carbon sugar From which of the above compounds are the monomers of nucleic acids, called nucleotides, formed? A) none B) (i) and (ii) C) (ii) and (iv) D) (ii), (iii), and (iv) E) all Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2

36) The basic building block of nucleic acids is the ________. A) nucleoside B) nucleotide C) ester linkage D) nitrogen base E) phosphoric acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2 37) The double helix of DNA is stabilized mainly by ________. A) ionic bonds B) covalent bonds C) ion-dipole bonds D) ester bonds E) hydrogen bonds Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2 24.2 Bimodal Questions 1) Hybridization of the carbon atom indicated by (*) in CH3-*CH2-CH3, *CH2 CH2, and CH3*C≡CH is ________, ________, and ________, respectively. A) sp3, sp2, sp B) sp3, sp, sp2 C) sp, sp2, sp3 D) sp, sp3, sp2 E) sp2, sp3, sp Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 2) Hydrocarbons containing only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called ________. A) alkenes B) alkynes C) aromatics D) alkanes E) ketones Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 17

3) What general class of compounds is also known as olefins? A) alkenes B) alkynes C) aromatics D) alkanes E) ketones Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 4) The simplest alkyne is ________. A) ethylene B) ethane C) acetylene D) propyne E) benzene Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 5) The melting and boiling points of hydrocarbons are determined by ________. A) ion-dipole attraction B) dipole-dipole attraction C) London forces D) hydrogen bonding E) ionic bonding Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 6) Hydrocarbons containing carbon-carbon triple bonds are called ________. A) alkanes B) aromatic hydrocarbons C) alkynes D) alkenes E) olefins Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

7) Alkynes always contain a ________. A) C C bond B) C≡C bond C) C—C bond D) C H bond E) C≡H bond Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 8) Alkenes always contain a ________. A) C C bond B) C≡C bond C) C-C bond D) C H bond E) C≡H bond Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 9) The molecular geometry of each carbon atom in an alkane is ________. A) octahedral B) square planar C) trigonal planar D) tetrahedral E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 10) The minimum number of carbons necessary for a hydrocarbon to form a branched structure is ________. A) 4 B) 6 C) 3 D) 9 E) 12 Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

11) Cyclohexane has ________ fewer hydrogens than n-hexane. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 12) How many structural isomers of heptane exist? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: E Diff: 3 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 13) The general formula of an alkane is ________. A) C2nH2n+2 B) CnH2n C) CnH2n+2 D) CnH2n-2 E) CnHn Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 14) Alkanes with ________ to ________ carbons are found in straight-run gasoline. A) 2, 3 B) 5, 12 C) 1, 5 D) 9, 15 E) 20, 60 Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

15) Gasoline and water do not mix because gasoline is ________. A) less dense than water B) less viscous than water C) nonpolar and water is polar D) volatile and water is not E) polar and water is nonpolar Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 16) Isooctane is assigned an octane number of 100, whereas ________ is assigned an octane number of 0. A) methane B) propane C) benzene D) heptane E) nitrous oxide Answer: D Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 17) The octane number of straight-run gasoline is about ________. A) 0 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) 93 Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 18) Alkenes have the general formula ________. A) CnH2n B) CnH2n-2 C) CnH2n+2 D) CnHn E) C2nHn Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

19) The compound below is an ________. A) alkyne B) alkene C) alkane D) aromatic compound E) olefin Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 20) What is the name of the compound below?

A) 2,4-methylbutene B) 2,5-dimethylpentane C) 2,4-ethylbutene D) 2,4-dimethyl-1-pentene E) 2,4-dimethyl-4-pentene Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 21) The name of -CH C CH-CH-CH CHA) 2, 3, 5 - octatriene B) 2, 5, 6 - octatriene C) 2, 3, 6 - octatriene D) 3, 5, 6 - octatriene E) 3, 4, 7 - octatriene Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

is ________.

22) ________ could be the formula of an alkene. A) C3H8 B) C3H6 C) C6H6 D) C17H36 E) CH8 Answer: B Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 23) In general, ________ are the least reactive hydrocarbons. A) alkenes B) alkynes C) alkanes Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 24) The addition of HBr to 2-butene produces ________. A) 1-bromobutane B) 2-bromobutane C) 1,2-dibromobutane D) 2,3-dibromobutane E) no reaction Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 25) ________ contains a series of π bonds on several consecutive carbon atoms. A) pentane B) cyclohexane C) benzene D) hexane Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

26) How many hydroxyl groups are in a glycerol molecule? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 27) The general formula for an ether is ________. A)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

28) Ethers can be made by condensation of two ________ molecules by splitting out a molecule of water. A) alkyne B) alcohol C) ketone D) aldehyde E) olefin Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 29) The general formula of an aldehyde is ________. A)

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

30) The general formula of a carboxylic acid is ________. A)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

31) The general formula of an ester is ________. A)

Answer: E Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

32)

is called a(n) ________. A) amine B) amide C) ketone D) aldehyde E) ester Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

33) The compound below is a(n) ________.

A) carboxylic acid B) ketone C) aldehyde D) ester E) amine Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 34) The hybridization of the central carbon atom in formaldehyde is ________. A) sp B) sp3 C) d2sp3 D) sp2 E) sp4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 35) Optically active molecules that are mirror images of each other are called ________. A) allotropes B) geometrical isomers C) enantiomers D) cofactors E) chiral compounds Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2

36) The secondary structure of a protein is the result of ________ bonding. A) covalent B) peptide C) ionic D) hydrogen E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.7 GO: G2 37) Starch, glycogen, and cellulose are made of repeating units of ________. A) lactose B) glucose C) fructose D) sucrose E) amino acids Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.9 GO: G2 38) How many chiral atoms does the open-chain form of glucose have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2 39) ________ acts as a kind of energy bank in the body, and is found concentrated in muscles and liver. A) Lactose B) Starch C) Cellulose D) Glycogen E) Sucrose Answer: D Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.9 GO: G2

40) What forces hold the strands of DNA together? A) covalent bonds B) hydrogen bonding C) ion-dipole attraction D) coordinate covalent bonds Answer: B Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2 24.3 Algorithmic Questions 1) Which one of the following could be a straight-chain alkane? A) C9H20 B) C3H3 C) C4H6 D) C5H4 E) C3H6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 2) Which one of the following could be a non-branched alkene? A) C6H5 B) C7H9 C) C7H14 D) C2H6 E) C9H20 Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 3) Which one of the following could be a cycloalkane? A) C6H5 B) C3H5 C) C2H6 D) C10H22 E) C5H10 Answer: E Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 30

4) Pentane has ________ structural isomers. A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 5) What geometric shape will the structure of cyclohexane appear as when drawn as a line structure? A) hexagon B) heptagon C) octagon D) triangle E) square Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 6) Gas, isolated from petroleum, has a minimum of ________ carbon atoms. A) 1 B) 36 C) 20 D) 16 E) 12 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 7) The correct name for the molecule CH3CH3 is ________. A) ethane B) propane C) ethyl D) propyne E) butane Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

8) In an addition reaction, H2 is added to 1-propene in the presence of a nickel catalyst to form ________. A) propanol B) propyne C) propane D) 2-butene E) propanoic acid Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 9) Primary alcohols can be oxidized to produce ________. A) amides B) esters C) aldehydes D) secondary alcohols E) amines Answer: C Diff: 2 Var: 5 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

10) What is the general formula for an aldehyde? A)

B) C)

E) Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 6 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.4

11) All of the following contain a C O bond except ________. A) aldahydes B) carboxylic acids C) alcohols D) esters E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Var: 14 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

12) The suffix used for organic molecules containing the ketone functional group is ________. A) -one B) -oic acid C) -oate D) -amide E) -ene Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 9 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 13) How many chiral centers are there in CH3CHCHCH2CHBr2? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 6 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2 14) ________ is a disaccharide. A) Sucrose B) Fructose C) Ribose D) Cellulose E) Uracil Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2 15) ________ is a monosaccharide. A) Fructose B) Lactose C) Guanine D) Glycogen E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Var: 50+ Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2

16) ________ is a polysaccharide. A) Cellulose B) Galactose C) Ribose D) Sucrose E) Uracil Answer: A Diff: 2 Var: 50+ Page Ref: 24.8 LO: 24.9 GO: G2 24.4 Short Answer Questions 1) What is the electron group geometry surrounding the carbon atoms in alkanes? Answer: tetrahedral Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 2) The resistance of gasoline to engine knocking is referred to as its ________. Answer: octane number or octane rating Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 3) Why is cyclopropane more reactive than propane? Answer: The small ring of cyclopropane forces the C-C-C bond angle to be significantly less than the 109.5° bond angle of C within the tetrahedral structure of propane. Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 4) What is the name of the compound below?

Answer: 4-propyloctane Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 35

5) Write the formula for 2-methyl-4-propylnonane. Answer:

Diff: 2 Var: 1 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2

Page Ref: Sec. 24.2

6) What is the correct name for the compound, C Answer: 2,2-heptadiene Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

CH CHC

CH CHCH3?

7) What is the name of the compound below?

Answer: 4,6-dimethyl-1-heptyne Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 8) Hydrogenation of an alkene requires high temperatures and a catalyst such as nickel. Why is this? Answer: This is due to the large bond enthalpy of H2. Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 9) Predict the product of the catalytic hydrogenation of 6-ethyl-3-decene. Answer: 6-ethyldecane Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2

10) Hydrogenation of what alkyne produces propane? Answer: propyne Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 11) In the reaction of nitric acid with benzene, which isomer is formed when a second nitro group is substituted? Answer: meta Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 12) The addition of an alkyl halide to an aromatic ring compound is called the ________ reaction. Answer: Friedel-Crafts Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 13) The anaerobic conversion of carbohydrates to ethanol is driven by the presence of ________. Answer: yeast Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 14) What is the name of the compound CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3? Answer: 3-hexanol Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 15) The formation of aspirin by reacting salicylic acid with acetic acid is a(n) ________ reaction. Answer: condensation Diff: 2 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 16) In the oxidation of ethanol the intermediate formed is ________. Answer: acetaldehyde Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2

17) The primary ingredient in vinegar is ________. Answer: acetic acid Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 18) The aromas of different fruit are due to the chemical compounds known as ________. Answer: esters Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 19) The hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of a base is called ________. Answer: saponification Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 20) Non-superimposable mirror-image isomers of a substance are called ________. Answer: enantiomers Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2 21) Living organisms must expend energy to counter any increase in ________. Answer: entropy Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.6 LO: 24.6 GO: G2 22) The doubly ionized form of an amino acid is called a(n) ________. Answer: zwitterion Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.6 GO: G2 23) Of the 20 amino acids found in our bodies, ________ of them must be ingested because our bodies cannot synthesize sufficient quantities of them. Answer: ten; 10 Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.6 GO: G2

24) Large protein molecules that act as catalysts are called ________. Answer: enzymes Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.7 GO: G2 25) The most important acidic and basic functional groups in all amino acids are the ________ and the ________ groups, respectively. Answer: carboxylic acid, amino Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.6 GO: G2 26) The condensation reaction of a carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a second amino acid results in the formation of a(n) ________. Answer: peptide bond Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.7 LO: 24.6 GO: G2 27) Lactose is a disaccharide of glucose and ________. Answer: galactose Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2 28) The monomers of nucleic acids, called nucleotides, consist of three parts. These are ________. Answer: phosphoric acid, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing organic base Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2 29) In DNA, adenine is always paired with ________. Answer: thymine Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2

24.5 True/False Questions 1) The overall polarity of organic molecules is high. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 2) Cyclobutane is more reactive than butane. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.2 LO: 24.1, 24.2 GO: G2 3) The stability of benzene is a major function of delocalized π bonding. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.3 LO: 24.2, 24.3 GO: G2 4) Aldehydes are less reactive than ketones. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.4 LO: 24.4 GO: G2 5) A carbon with three or more attached groups will be chiral. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2 6) Racemic mixtures of enantiomers do not rotate the plane of polarized light. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.5 LO: 24.5 GO: G2 7) The majority of glucose molecules exist in ring structure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.8 GO: G2

8) Humans digest starch but not cellulose because of differences in the type of linkage between the glucose monomers of these substances. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.8 LO: 24.9 GO: G2 9) The DNA double helix is held together by hydrogen bonds and London dispersion forces. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Var: 1 Page Ref: Sec. 24.10 LO: 24.11 GO: G2