Chapter 1 Clinical Psychology: An Introduction MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to the definition of clinical psychology offered by the Society of Clinical Psychology (Division 12 of the American Psychological Association), clinical psychology focuses on the _____ aspect of human functioning. a. social b. intellectual c. emotional d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: What is Clinical Psychology?
DIF: Factual
2. According to the definition of clinical psychology offered by the Society of Clinical Psychology (Division 12 of the American Psychological Association), the field of clinical psychology a. understands and alleviates maladjustment, disability and discomfort. b. promotes and supports the use of prescription medications. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF:
What is Clinical Psychology?
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
3. Compared to other degrees in the mental health field, the doctoral degree in clinical psychology a. equips one to work with a narrower range of patient types. b equips one to work with a similar range of patient types. c. equips one for a wider array of job opportunities. d. equips one for a similar array of job opportunities. ANS: C
REF: What is Clinical Psychology?
DIF: Conceptual
4. __________ are physicians. a. Rehabilitation psychologists b. Clinical psychologists c. Occupational therapists d. Psychiatrists ANS: D
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
5. Which of the following clinical psychologists may currently prescribe medication to people under their care? a. all clinical psychologists b. only clinical psychologists earning their degrees from 2005 onward c. only clinical psychologists in some states d. no clinical psychologists ANS: C
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
6. Dr. Green is a clinical psychologist. Her neighbor, Dr. Brown, is a psychiatrist. In which area below would we expect to find that Dr. Green has received more training than Dr. Brown? a. assessment b. psychotherapy techniques c. principles of human behavior d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
7. In contrast to psychiatrists, clinical psychologists typically receive little training in a. formal assessment of psychological functioning. b. scientific research methods. c. medicine. d. human behavior. ANS: C
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
8. Which of the following is true regarding psychiatric residencies? a. They take place after the medical degree and general medical internship are completed, and typically last 1 year. b. They take place after the medical degree and general medical internship are completed, and typically last 4 years. c. They take place between the completion of the medical degree and the general medical internship, and typically last 1 year. d. They take place between the completion of the medical degree and the general medical internship, and typically last 4 years. ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
9. Over the last four decades, the popularity of the psychiatric specialization among medical school graduates a. has increased dramatically. b. has generally declined. c. first declined and then experienced a resurgence. d. has remained relatively stable. ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
10. Aidan, a college freshman who is interested the mental health field, visits a vocational guidance counselor to talk about the various training and degree options. About one field, his counselor tells him, “This area is currently in the middle of an identity crisis. The field has shrunk over time, the prestige has dropped, the emphasis of the work has changed, and people with this degree rarely get the chance to offer intensive talk therapy to their patients.” Based on what you read about the various mental health professions, which field is the counselor most likely referring to? a. clinical psychology b. psychiatry c. clinical social work d. counseling psychology ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Conceptual
11. Traditionally, counseling psychologists work primarily with a. normal or moderately maladjusted individuals. b. children or the elderly. c. psychiatric inpatients. d. individuals with alcohol dependency. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
12. Dr. Stevens feels competent seeing clients who are having difficulty adjusting to stressors in their lives but who generally function at a high level. If she was to determine that a client had schizophrenia or needed medication, she would refer to another type of mental health professional. Dr. Stevens is probably a a. psychiatrist. b. clinical psychologist. c. school psychologist. d. counseling psychologist. ANS: D
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
13. Traditionally, the most common employment arenas for counseling psychologists have been a. educational settings such as colleges and universities. b. psychiatric hospitals. c. general hospitals. d. private corporations. ANS: A
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
14. Which of the following activities are consistent with the work of counseling psychologists? a. development of outreach programs b. vocational counseling and short-term counseling/therapy c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
15. Dr. Young earned a doctoral degree in counseling psychology 5 years ago, and Dr. Experienced earned a doctoral degree in counseling psychology 25 years ago. Which of the following is most likely, considering recent trends in the field? a. Dr. Young is more interested in vocational and career counseling than Dr. Experienced. b. Dr. Young is more interested in private practice than Dr. Experienced. c. Dr. Young was trained in medicine, but Dr. Experienced was not. d. Dr. Young is less interested in traditionally clinical activities than Dr. Experienced. ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
16.
What trend has been observed over the years regarding the theoretical orientation of counseling psychologists? a. Counseling psychologists have shifted from a predominantly psychodynamic orientation to more diverse orientations. b. Counseling psychologists have shifted from a predominantly humanistic (person-centered) orientation to more diverse orientations. c. Counseling psychologists have shifted from a predominantly psychodynamic orientation to a predominantly cognitive one. d. Counseling psychologists have shifted from a predominantly humanistic orientation to a predominantly psychodynamic one. ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
17. Which of the following is true? a. There are more doctoral-level counseling psychologists than doctoral-level clinical psychologists. b. There are more accredited doctoral programs in counseling psychology than in clinical psychology. c. It is more likely for a clinical program, as opposed to a counseling program, to be housed in a psychology department. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
18. Which of the following types of clients would typically be seen by a clinical, rather than counseling, psychologist? a. A man who wants vocational testing and counseling to help him make career choices. b. A woman with a 20-year history of borderline personality disorder who has been hospitalized several times. c. A high-functioning professional woman seeking short-term treatment for mild depressive symptoms following a death in the family. d. A college student who visits the college counseling center to discuss problems with a romantic relationship. ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
19. Which of the following statements about clinical and counseling psychology doctoral programs is INACCURATE? a. Applicants to clinical programs have higher GRE scores. b. Counseling programs accept a higher percentage of ethnic minority students. c. Counseling programs more commonly feature research focusing on minority or crosscultural issues. d. Research focusing on psychological disorders is more common in counseling programs than in clinical psychology programs. ANS: D
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
20. Which mental health profession below is most likely to emphasize social forces and external agents that may contribute to patients' difficulties? a. psychiatry b. clinical social work c. clinical psychology d. counseling psychology ANS: B
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
21. Which of the following is generally true regarding the various mental health professions? a. Over the years, the professional roles have tended to blur, such that the activities of various types of mental health professionals now overlap. b. Over the years, the ability to prescribe medicine, which once belonged exclusively to psychiatrists, has spread to most mental health professions. c. Although some overlap may occur in other areas, clinical psychologists are still the only mental health professionals who can ethically conduct psychotherapy. d. Although some overlap may occur in other areas, clinical psychologists are still the only mental health professionals who can ethically conduct psychological testing. ANS: A
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Conceptual
22. A therapist regularly visits the homes and workplaces of his/her clients in an attempt to actively understand the clients' daily stresses. It is most likely that this therapist is a a. clinical social worker. b. clinical psychologist. c. counseling psychologist. d. psychiatric nurse. ANS: A
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
23. Which of the following statements about clinical social workers is INACCURATE? a. They provide only a small fraction of the nation's mental health services. b. They typically have training programs that are shorter in length than those of clinical psychologists. c. Fieldwork constitutes an important part of their training. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
24. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the relative size of the fields of clinical psychology and clinical social work? a. Clinical psychologists currently outnumber clinical social workers, and this trend is likely to continue in the future. b. Clinical psychologists currently outnumber clinical social workers, but this trend is likely to reverse over time. c. Clinical social workers currently outnumber clinical psychologists, and this trend is likely to continue in the future. d. Clinical social workers currently outnumber clinical psychologists, and this trend is likely to reverse over time. ANS: C
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Conceptual
25. Which of the following activities is typical of a school psychologist? a. generating programs to assist the development of children with special needs b. testing and evaluating school-age children c. consulting with school officials and teachers regarding educational policy d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
26. Kendra, who is interested in the mental health field, visits a career counselor to talk about the various training and degree options. About one field, her counselor tells her, “There’s a real need for people to enter this area; it’s one of the smaller training areas, and the individuals who need service often must wait months or years to meet with a professional for evaluation.” Based on what you have read about the various mental health professions, which field is the counselor most likely referring to? a. school psychology b. clinical psychology c. clinical social work d. any of the above ANS: A
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Conceptual
27. Dr. Phillips is a mental health professional who works in a general hospital with physically or cognitively disabled clients and attempts to help them adjust to the barriers they face. Dr. Phillips is most likely a a. school psychologist. b. rehabilitation psychologist. c. psychiatrist. d. counseling psychologist. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
28. Dr. Herman is a mental health professional who spends part of his time working in a medical center designing and running weight control programs for people with Type II diabetes, and the rest of the time consulting with local businesses about how to reduce employee stress. Dr. Herman is most likely a a. health psychologist. b. psychiatrist. c. rehabilitation psychologist. d. clinical social worker. ANS: A
REF:
Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Applied
29. People who are trained to assist professional mental health workers a. are called paraprofessionals. b. rarely have direct access to clients, especially in crisis centers. c. generally have not been found to effectively supplement the work of professionals. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions
DIF: Factual
30.
Which of the individuals below would be legally prohibited from using the title “psychotherapist”? a. someone receiving a Ph.D. in counseling psychology b. someone receiving a master’s degree in social work c. someone who has no formal training in mental health interventions, but gives advice to people after reading their palms d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Professions and Titles Not Regulated....
DIF: Conceptual
31. Which activity typically occupies the largest portion of clinical psychologists’ time? a. research b. diagnosis c. intellectual testing d. psychotherapy ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
32. According to recent research on the topic, which two activities are most commonly engaged in by clinical psychologists? a. psychotherapy and teaching b. teaching and research c. research and assessment/diagnosis d. assessment/diagnosis and psychotherapy ANS: D
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
33. Which of the activities below are performed by significant numbers of clinical psychologists? a. diagnosis/assessment b. teaching/supervision c. research and consultation d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
34. The mental health professionals most likely to have been trained as both scientists and practitioners are a. clinical social workers. b. clinical psychologists. c. psychiatrists. d. psychiatric nurses. ANS: B
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
35. Research on the employment of clinical psychologists demonstrates a. a significant diversity of both work activities and work settings. b. that very few clinical psychologists work in private practice settings anymore. c. that research is the most common work activity among clinical psychologists. d. that at least a quarter of clinical psychologists feel dissatisfied with their careers. ANS: A
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
36. According to recent demographic data, __________ of current clinical psychologists are women. a. a small minority (fewer than 10%) b. about a third c. about half d. a large majority ANS: B
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
37. The percentage of clinical psychologists who identify as racial or ethnic minorities is currently __________ and this number is likely to __________ in the future. a. less than 10% increase b. less than 10%; remain stable c. about 25%; increase d. about 25%; remain stable ANS: A
REF:
The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
38. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the theoretical orientations of clinical psychologists? a. The proportion who consider themselves primarily psychodynamic in orientation has increased in recent decades. b. The proportion who consider themselves primarily cognitive in orientation has decreased in recent decades. c. Eclectic remains the most commonly endorsed theoretical orientation. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: C
REF: The Clinical Psychologist
DIF: Factual
39. Kai is a typical clinical psychologist. Most likely, he has completed a. only a bachelor's degree. b. a bachelor's degree and two years of graduate work. c. a bachelor's degree and five years of graduate work. d. a bachelor's degree, a medical degree, and a three-year residency. ANS: C
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Applied
40. Which of the following is true of people with master's degrees in clinical psychology? a. They can be licensed as psychologists in most states. b. They typically achieve as much professional independence as people with doctoral degrees in clinical psychology. c. They are typically paid less and perceived as less competent than people with doctoral degrees in clinical psychology. d. Research has suggested that they are less effective than doctoral-level clinicians. ANS: C
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Factual
41. The predominant training philosophy in clinical psychology today is the a. clinical science model. b. scientist-practitioner model. c. research specialization model. d. ethical practitioner model. ANS: B
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Factual
42. Each of the following factors may vary from one clinical psychology training program to another, with the exception of a. the specific course requirements. b. the inclusion of clinical practica. c. the form of the qualifying exam. d. Any of the above factors may vary from one program to another. ANS: B
REF:
Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Conceptual
43. Given the description provided in the text, each of the following would constitute a clinical practicum experience EXCEPT a. providing therapy to mildly depressed outpatients through a clinic operated by the psychology department. b. performing cognitive assessments on individuals coming through an Alzheimer’s clinic at the local hospital. c. teaching an undergraduate research methods laboratory for the department. d. running a weekly group at the library to teach relaxation techniques to people in the community. ANS: C
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Applied
44. A typical contemporary clinical psychology doctoral training program includes a. coursework in basic and applied psychology. b. practicum work. c. coursework in research methods and the completion of theses/dissertations. d. all of the above ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Factual
45. Javier is a 4th year clinical psychology graduate student. For the last two months, he has been busy writing up an original study that he conducted in the lab last term. Based on this information alone, one might guess that the document Javier has been working on is his a. preliminary exam. b. thesis. c. dissertation. d. post-doc application. ANS: C
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Applied
46. Which component of the doctoral program in clinical psychology is specifically intended to develop a student’s competence with regard to clinical work? a. practicum experiences b. internship c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Conceptual
47. During their third years, students at some clinical psychology training programs are required to take a qualifying exam (also called a preliminary or comprehensive exam) before proceeding to their dissertations. At other programs, students may fulfill the exam requirement by instead a. completing a comprehensive literature review on some topic. b. reading several “classic” works in the field and discussing them with their advisor. c. assembling a portfolio of their best clinical work. d. none of the above; all doctoral degree candidates must take a qualifying exam ANS: A
REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Factual
48. If a clinical psychology doctoral program is accredited by the American Psychological Association, a. students must complete a 2-year internship. b. students must complete an internship that has not been completed by any other students from that graduate program within the last 5 years. c. students must complete internships in medical, rather than educational, settings. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF:
Training: Toward a Clinical Identity
DIF: Conceptual
49. The clinical science training model a. has been decreasing in popularity in recent years. b. focuses on evidence-based approaches to assessment and intervention. c. emphasizes the “art” of clinical practice. d. has been embraced by the majority of clinical psychology training programs. ANS: B
REF: A Profession in Movement
DIF: Conceptual
50. APA accredits _______ programs in clinical psychology. a. only Psy.D. b. only Ph.D. c. both Psy.D. and Ph.D. d. The APA doesn’t accredit training programs in clinical psychology ANS: C
REF: A Profession in Movement
DIF: Factual
ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast the training and activities of clinical psychologists and psychiatrists. ANS: Not provided. REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions 2. Describe trends in the popularity of the psychiatric profession over the last few decades. Provide at least three reasons for these trends, relative to other medical specialties. ANS: Not provided. REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions 3. Compare and contrast the training and activities of clinical psychologists and counseling psychologists. ANS: Not provided. REF: Closely Related Mental Health Professions 4. In what professional activities do clinical psychologists participate? How have the activities of clinical psychologists evolved over the last few decades? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Clinical Psychologist 5. Where do clinical psychologists work? How has this evolved over the last few decades? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Clinical Psychologist 6. Outline the advantages and disadvantages of holding a doctoral degree, rather than a master’s degree, in clinical psychology. What might we predict about the popularity of master’s levels programs in the future, and why? ANS: Not provided. REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity 7. Briefly describe the major components of a typical doctoral program in clinical psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity 8.Explain the value of the clinical internship for doctoral students in clinical psychology, making sure to identify several distinct benefits of the experience. ANS: Not provided. REF: Training: Toward a Clinical Identity 9.Briefly compare and contrast the scientist-practitioner and clinical science training models. ANS: Not provided. REF: A Profession in Movement 10. Why is tolerance for ambiguity important for the contemporary clinical psychologist? ANS: Not provided. REF: A Tolerance For Ambiguity and a Thirst For New Knowledge
Chapter 2 Historical Overview of Clinical Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Due to the direct influence of Philippe Pinel and Dorothea Dix, individuals with mental illness were, as a whole, a. treated more humanely than before. b. given more biologically based treatments. c. treated more often at home, rather than in the hospital. d. assigned more diagnoses. ANS: A
REF: Historical Roots
DIF: Conceptual
2. Francis Galton is best known for a. establishing the first psychology laboratory. b. coining the term "projective technique." c. applying quantitative methods to understanding differences among people. d. originating the DSM. ANS: C
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
3. If you had met with James McKeen Catell and asked him to assess your intelligence, he most likely would have a. examined your body type. b. measured your reaction time to various tasks. c. asked you to define a list of words as best you could. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Applied
4. Up until the end of WWII, one of the main focuses of clinical assessment and treatment was a. youth. b. the elderly. c. addiction. d. none of the above ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
5. In the early 1900s, __________ divided all mental illnesses into exogenous (curable) and endogenous (incurable) categories, thus pioneering the classification of mental illness that continues with the current version of the DSM. a. Catell b. Kraepelin c. Binet d. Bender ANS: B
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
6. The Binet-Simon Scale a. was published in the latter half of the 1900s. b. had a profound influence on the measure of personality. c. was an early measure of intellectual ability for children with cognitive limitations. d. was more "culture-free" in many respects that today's Wechsler intelligence tests. ANS: C
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
7. You schedule a personality assessment, and the professional you meet with says she’s going to start off by giving you a word-association task. On the basis of this information alone, the professional’s approach appears to have been influenced by which of the following individuals? a. William James b. Alfred Binet c. Carl Rogers d. Carl Jung ANS: D
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Applied
8. What is "g"? a. a concept, forwarded by Thorndike, that emphasizes the importance of separate, independent intelligences or abilities b. a score that a patient can earn on a Rorschach response c. an abbreviation for "genius," which is the formal name of the category for the highest intelligence scores d. a concept, forwarded by Spearman, that denotes overall intelligence ANS: D
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
9. When the United States entered World War I in 1917, the Army asked the APA to a. develop tests to classify military recruits according to ability level. b. develop methods of interviewing to detect spies who had infiltrated the country. c. develop treatment methods that would inoculate soldiers from psychological trauma related to battle. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
10. What is "Psychodiagnostik"? a. the European predecessor to the DSM b. Kraepelin's masterpiece, in which he outlines the criteria he used to distinguish endogenous and exogenous forms of psychopathology c. Herman Rorschach's book describing the use of inkblots as projective stimuli d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
11. Which of the following personality tests requires the person to look at a picture and make up a story to describe what is happening in the picture, as well as what the people in the picture are thinking and feeling? a. TAT b. MMPI c. Bender-Gestalt d. Halstead-Reitan ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
12. If an individual was to undergo a personality assessment in 1960, which of the following would have been available for the clinician to use? a. Rorschach b. TAT c. MMPI d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Applied
13. What does it mean to say that a personality measure is “projective” in nature? a. It requires the test taker to “project” his or her personality onto an ambiguous test stimulus. b. It requires the test taker to complete a complex task or project. c. It is presented to the test taker via a projector. d. The results allow the test giver to make projections about the test taker’s future success. ANS: A
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
14. In the 1950s, if a clinician wanted to use a personality test that required no theoretical interpretation of responses in order suggest a psychiatric diagnosis, the best choice would have been the a. TAT. b. Rorschach. c. word-association test. d. MMPI. ANS: D
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Applied
15. Beginning in the __________, radical behaviorists challenged the field of personality testing by asserting that a. 1920s; only overt behavior (not inferred personality traits) should be measured b. 1950s; only overt behavior (not inferred personality traits) should be measured c. 1970s; projective tests are culturally biased d. 1960s; phobias and other disorders can be created in individuals regardless of a person’s underlying temperament ANS: B
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
16. Which of the following is true of the emphasis on personality assessment over the last 50 years or so? a. It has been steady. b. It has declined steadily. c. It has increased steadily. d. It has experienced a decline and then a resurgence. ANS: D
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
17. The first edition of DSM appeared in a. 1912. b. 1932. c. 1952. d. 1972. ANS: C
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Factual
18. Which of the following is true regarding the publication and (periodic revision) of the DSM? a. It has spurred the development of structured diagnostic interviews. b. It has reduced the overall volume of psychological and psychiatric research. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
19. Tests used to evaluate relative strengths and deficits of patients based upon empirically established brainbehavior relationships are known as __________ tests. a. neuropsychological b. projective personality c. objective personality d. "g" ANS: A
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
20. Four months ago, Gary was in an automobile accident where he sustained a head injury, and he and his wife both agree that his cognitive abilities are not what they were prior to the accident. Which of the following tests (or batteries of tests) is most likely to be administered to Gary when he meets with the neuropsychologist next week? a. the Luria-Nebraska b. the MMPI c. the NEO-PI d. the Army Beta ANS: A
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Applied
21. Managed care has influenced psychological assessment by showing a preference for tests that a. aid in treatment planning by identifying problematic symptoms. b. are sensitive to changes or improvements in client functioning. c. are relatively brief. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Diagnosis and Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
22. Jean Charcot is best known for a. advocating for more humane treatment of the seriously mentally ill. b. putting on dramatic clinical demonstrations of hypnosis. c. co-creating the original version of DSM. d. creating an early intelligence test that became the forerunner of the Stanford-Binet. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
23. Freud's collaboration with __________ paved the way for the development of psychoanalysis. a. Janet b. James c. Jung d. Breuer ANS: D
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
24. A Mind That Found Itself is a. a book written by Sigmund Freud detailing his self-analysis. b. a book written by Sigmund Freud detailing his analysis of his daughter, Anna. c. a book written by Clifford Beers, a psychiatric inpatient, detailing abuses present in psychiatric care. d. a book written by Josef Breuer detailing his treatment of Anna O. ANS: C
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
25. Which of the following is a correct pairing of an historical figure and his/her primary contribution to psychological treatment? a. Anna Freud/group therapy b. Alfred Adler/play therapy c. Anna Freud/play therapy d. Alfred Adler/group therapy ANS: C
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
26. Miriam had troublesome mental health issues in the mid 1950s. Which of the interventions below absolutely would NOT have been available to her had she sought treatment at that time? a. group therapy b. rationale emotive therapy (RET) c. client-centered therapy d. psychoanalysis ANS: B
REF: Interventions
DIF: Applied
27. When large numbers of World War II soldiers developed emotional difficulties, a. military psychiatrists refused to allow psychologists to help in their treatment. b. the military asked psychologists to develop screening tests, which came to be called Army Alpha and Army Beta. c. psychologists successfully lobbied to add posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) to the DSM. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Interventions
DIF: Conceptual
28. The Nazi tyranny in Europe in the 1930s resulted in a. the murder of Sigmund Freud, who was Jewish. b. many European psychiatrists and psychologists moving to the U. S. c. heightened interest in psychoanalysis in the U. S. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
29. Systematic desensitization was introduced a. by Perls as one of the primary interventions of Gestalt therapy. b. by Wolpe as a behavioral treatment based on conditioning principles. c. by Ellis as a "common sense" form of psychoanalysis. d. by Dollard and Miller as a brief treatment based on learning theory. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Interventions
DIF: Conceptual
30. Several major steps in the rise of behavioral treatment, including Skinner's application of operant principles to therapeutic and social interventions and the introduction of systematic desensitization, took place during the a. 1910s. b. 1930s. c. 1950s. d. 1970s. ANS: C
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
31. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of cognitive therapy? a. It was developed by Aaron Beck. b. It is used exclusively for the treatment of depression. c. It focuses on the ways individuals think about themselves and the world around them. d. It has proven to be one of the most effective psychological treatments ever developed. ANS: B
REF: Interventions
DIF: Conceptual
32. Which of the following clinical psychologists would be most likely to call themselves an “eclectic”? a. Dr. Hernandez, who practices short-term psychodynamic treatment with both adults and children b. Dr. Chen, who offers cognitive therapy in both psychiatric and general hospital settings c. Dr. Wilson, who offers both group and individual therapy from a behavioral perspective d. Dr. Patel, who used both cognitive and psychodynamic interventions in her private practice ANS: D
REF: Interventions
DIF: Applied
33. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of manualized psychological treatments? a. They often may be completed in as few as 10-15 sessions. b. Their use is generally discouraged by managed care organizations. c. They provide clinicians with specific goals for each therapy session. d. They outline various techniques for clinicians to use. ANS: B
REF: Interventions
DIF: Conceptual
34. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the treatments offered by clinical psychologists? a. The number of treatments has been declining in recent decades. b. The number of treatments has grown only slightly in recent decades. c. The number of treatments has grown tremendously in recent decades. d. The number of treatments has grown tremendously in recent decades, and most of these treatments have received empirical support. ANS: C
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
35. In __________, the Task Force on Promotion and Dissemination of Psychological Procedures published its first list of "empirically supported treatments." a. 1995 b. 1983 c. 1978 d. 1963 ANS: A
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
36. In 2002, ____ became the first state(s) to enact a law authorizing properly trained psychologists to prescribe psychotropic medications to patients or clients. a. Florida b. New Mexico c. Illinois and Ohio d. California and New York ANS: B
REF: Interventions
DIF: Factual
37. Dr. Howard, a clinical psychologist by training, has built a program of research around the genetic and environmental determinants of various personality traits (studying, for instance, how much of each trait is determined by genetic vs. environmental factors). These interests suggest that Dr. Howard is a. a molecular geneticist. b. a behavior geneticist. c. a behavioral scientist. d. a clinical neuroscientist. ANS: B
REF: Interventions
DIF: Applied
38. __________ is usually credited with establishing the first formal psychological laboratory in Europe. __________ established a psychological laboratory in America during the same decade. a. Wundt; Rogers b. James; Skinner c. Wundt; James d. Freud; James ANS: C
REF: Research
DIF: Factual
39. In 1952, __________ published a critique of the effectiveness of psychotherapy that stimulated much research by clinical psychologists hoping to prove the worth of their craft. a. Eysenck b. Skinner c. Beck d. Bandura ANS: A
REF: Research
DIF: Factual
40. The American Psychological Association was founded in a. 1892. b. 1922. c. 1952. d. 1982. ANS: A
REF: The Profession
DIF: Factual
41. Many historians point to the establishment of the first psychological clinic by __________ in 1896 as the beginning of the field of clinical psychology. a. Jung b. Rogers c. Witmer d. Smith and Glass ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: The Profession
DIF: Factual
42. Your learn that your friend’s great-great-grandfather was a psychologist in the U.S. during the early part of the last century (roughly 1900-1910). Based on this information alone, in what kind of setting would you guess that he worked? a. a private practice b. a corporate or business setting c. a government agency d. a university department ANS: D
REF: The Profession
DIF: Applied
43. After World War II, the Veterans Administration a. funded the training of a large number of psychologists. b. conducted independent research refuting the efficacy of behavior therapy. c. recognized that additional mental health services were needed for traumatized veterans and trained physicians, rather than psychologists, to provide these services. d. publicized criticisms of clinical psychologists that ultimately reduced the pay that clinical psychologists were able to command. ANS: A
REF: The Profession
DIF: Factual
44. What was the most significant outcome of the 1949 conference held in Boulder, Colorado? a. APA's first set of ethical standards b. the first list of empirically validated treatments c. the scientist-practitioner training model d. the establishment of the first psychological clinic ANS: C
REF: The Profession
DIF: Factual
45. Which of the following is NOT an element of the training model in clinical psychology that has been dominant for the last 50 years? a. competency in diagnosis b. a clinical internship c. achievement of the Psy.D. degree d. All of the above are elements of this training model. ANS: C
REF: The Profession
DIF: Conceptual
46. Russell, a clinical psychology graduate student, is less interested in diagnosing or treating psychological problems that in preventing them in the first place. Which subspecialty below would fit best with his career aims? a. consumer psychology b. health psychology c. rehabilitation psychology d. neuropsychology ANS: B
REF: The Profession
DIF: Applied
47. The general term for a factor that precedes a mental disorder (e.g., depression) and is believed to play a role in its development is __________. a. etiological. b. ontological. c. consequent. d. tertiary. ANS: A
REF: The Profession
DIF: Conceptual
48. Membership in the American Psychological Association a. is declining. b. is holding steady. c. is increasing. d. is similar in size to the membership of APS. ANS: C
REF: The Profession
DIF: Factual
49. What was the most significant event to take place within the American Psychological Association (APA) in 1988? a. A dramatic decrease in membership led to the recruitment of psychiatrists and others outside the psychological profession. b. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy was officially denounced as ineffective. c. Scientists, unhappy with the amount of emphasis placed upon clinical issues, left APA and formed the American Psychological Society. d. To avoid confusion with the American Psychiatric Association (also abbreviated APA), the American Psychological Association officially renamed itself the American Psychological Society. ANS: C
REF: The Profession
DIF: Conceptual
50. Which of the following is true regarding members of APS? a. Over 50% of APS members are clinical psychologists. b. The number of APS members currently exceeds the number of APA members. c. Members of APS cannot also be members of APA. d. None of the above are true. ANS: D
REF: The Profession
DIF: Factual
ESSAY 1.What was the primary goal of such early mental health care advocates as Philippe Pinel and Dorothea Dix? What were they able to accomplish? ANS: Not provided. REF: Historical Roots 2.
2. Compare and contrast the professional activity of clinical psychologists before and after WWII. ANS: Not provided. REF: Diagnosis and Assessment 3.Explain how the VA system shaped the profession of clinical psychology after WWII. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Profession 4.How were the Rorschach and MMPI each unique from the assessment tools that preceded them? ANS: Not provided. REF: Diagnosis and Assessment 5.Briefly summarize the contributions of Lightner Witmer to the history of clinical psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Diagnosis and Assessment; The Profession 6.Identify factors contributing to the increased popularity of behavior therapy beginning in the 1950s and 1960s. Also, explain the connection between the growth of behavior therapy and the growth of psychotherapy research. ANS: Not provided. REF: Interventions 7.How has the DSM influenced the field of psychological assessment? How has it impacted psychology research in general? ANS: Not provided. REF: Varies 8.How did Breuer influence Freud's development of psychoanalysis? Be sure to discuss the case of “Anna O.” ANS: Not provided. REF: Interventions
9.Briefly summarize the influence of Eysenck's (1952) landmark article criticizing psychotherapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Interventions 10. Briefly summarize the antecedents and outcome of the 1988 schism within the American Psychological Association. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Profession
Chapter 3 Current Issues in Clinical Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Currently, the most popular training model for clinical psychologists is the a. clinical scientist model. b. scientist-practitioner model. c. Vail model. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Factual
2. The model of psychological training that emerged from the 1949 conference in Boulder, Colorado represents an attempt to a. clearly emphasize clinical skill over research competency. b. clearly emphasize research competency over clinical skill. c. make graduate coursework less didactic and more “hands-on.” d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
3. According to proponents of the scientist-practitioner training model, clinical psychologists should a. spend 50% of their time conducting research and 50% of their time conducting clinical work. b. spend 25% of their time conducting research and 75% of their time conducting clinical work. c. spend at least 10% of their time conducting research. d. be able to understand and evaluate research even if they do not conduct it at all. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
4. The acceptance rate for applicants to Psy.D. programs is about a. 5%. b. 20%. c. 40%. d. 70%. ANS: C
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Factual
5. Which of the following is true? a. Research suggests that clinical psychologists with Psy.D. degrees will have more trouble finding employment than those with Ph.D. degrees. b. Compared to Psy.D. programs, Ph.D. programs admit a higher percentage of applicants. c. Compared to Psy.D. programs, Ph.D. programs award more doctoral degrees. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
6. Elena and Jacquelyn are each pursuing higher degrees in clinical psychology: Elena a Ph.D. and Jacquelyn a Psy.D. Compared to Jacquelyn’s program, students in Elena’s program are __________ to receive full financial assistance and __________ to land a clinical internship. a. more likely; less likely b. more likely; more likely c. less likely; less likely d. less likely; more likely ANS: B
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Applied
7. Terrence and Zachary are each pursuing higher degrees in clinical psychology: Terrence a Ph.D. and Zachary a Psy.D. Based on this information alone, which student will likely finish his degree sooner? a. Terrence b. Zachary c. Both will take about the same amount of time. d. There’s no way to answer this question based only on the information provided. ANS: B
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Applied
8. Professional schools of clinical psychology a. offer doctoral degrees. b. tend to be “for-profit” institutions. c. are not usually APA-accredited. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
9. Over time, the proportion of doctorates in clinical psychology awarded by professional schools has a. increased dramatically. b. increased slightly. c. remained constant. d. decreased dramatically. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Factual
10. Professional schools differ from traditional university-based scientist-practitioner programs in ALL BUT WHICH of the following ways? a. They depend less on part-time faculty. b. They tend to admit far more students per class. c. They tend to emphasize clinical over research skills. d. They rely on tuition as their primary source of funding ANS: A
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
11. The clinical scientist training model of clinical psychology a. is currently the dominant training model. b. emphasizes empirically supported clinical techniques. c. is synonymous with the scientist-practitioner model. d. all of the above ANS: B
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
12. Among the following, the clinical psychologist most closely associated with the clinical scientist model of training is a. DeLeon. b. McFall. c. Pope. d. Heiby. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Factual
13. As described in the text, the combined professional-scientific training program integrates aspects of what three specialties? a. clinical, counseling, and school psychology b. clinical, health, and neuropsychology c. counseling, school, and organizational psychology d. clinical, forensic, and health psychology ANS: A
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Factual
14. After many jobs in clinical psychology shifted from academic to private practice settings in the 1960s, a. complaints arose about the adequacy of the Boulder model for practitioners. b. many college and university psychology departments shrank due to problems retaining their faculty. c. the qualifications required to practice clinically became much more rigorous than before. d. the qualifications required to enter graduate school in clinical psychology became less rigorous than before. ANS: A
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
15. The Psy.D. model of training grew out of a conference held in a. Vail in 1973. b. New York in 1960. c. Denver in 1988. d. Boulder in 1949. ANS: A
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Factual
16. Professor Ferraro is talking with his students about developments in the clinical psychology profession. Which of his statements below is LEAST well-grounded? a. “Over time, training programs are likely to focus more on brief, empirically supported treatments.” b. “If there aren’t already more practice-oriented clinical psychologists out there than the market can support, there will be soon!” c. “At present, everyone who seeks an accredited clinical internship can still get one.” d. “Research-oriented clinical psychologists will continue to play an important role in the future of the profession.” ANS: C
REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Applied
17. Which of the following is true regarding certification? a. Certification is a stronger form of regulation than licensing. b. Certification is automatic for graduates of Ph. D. programs in clinical psychology. c. Non-certified individuals can provide psychological services to the public as long as they do not use the title "psychologist" or the word "psychological" to describe themselves or their services. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Professional Regulation
DIF: Conceptual
18. Which of the following is true regarding licensure as a psychologist? a. Licensure laws are uniform across all 50 states. b. Licensure usually requires a master’s degree. c. Licensure usually requires passing a written exam. d. Licensure is automatic for graduates of Ph.D. programs in clinical psychology. ANS: C
REF: Professional Regulation
DIF: Conceptual
19. Last spring, Johan earned his Ph.D. in clinical psychology in an APA-accredited program. This spring he will complete one year of supervised postdoctoral work and go to the state capital to take the Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP). What kind of professional designation does Johan appear to be pursuing? a. assistant professor b. certification c. licensure d. ABPP certification ANS: C
REF: Professional Regulation
DIF: Applied
20. What is ABPP? a. an organization that offers certification of professional competence in a particular area, such as clinical neuropsychology or forensic psychology b. a training model that emphasizes empirically supported clinical techniques c. a national organization of graduate students in clinical psychology d. a national organization that promotes research and practice in behavioral psychotherapy ANS: A
REF: Professional Regulation
DIF: Conceptual
21. Dr. Rodon earned her clinical psychology Ph.D. 15 years ago and she has worked in the neuropsychology department of the university hospital for the last 10 years. Recently, she completed a rigorous process of verifying her professional credentials, submitting several samples of her work for review by peers, and completing an oral exam administered by a panel of experts in the area of neuropsychology. If successful, what will Dr. Rodon receive for her efforts? a. licensure b. ABPP certification c. a clinical internship d. full professorship ANS: B
REF: Professional Regulation
DIF: Applied
22. Contemporary private practice is dominated by a. long-term, fee-for-service clinical work. b. a resurgence of client-centered therapy. c. clinical work within a managed care context. d. personality assessment. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Private Practice
DIF: Conceptual
23. The history of private practice has witnessed a. continuous cooperation between psychiatry and clinical psychology. b. clinical psychologists trying, but failing, to earn reimbursement privileges from more than a handful of insurance carriers. c. a decrease in the number of clinical psychologists interested in private practice. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Private Practice
DIF: Conceptual
24. Unlike a PPO, an HMO a. employs a restricted number of providers to serve members. b. contracts with outside providers to meet the needs of members. c. is a type of managed care model. d. attempts to contain health-care costs. ANS: A
REF: The Costs of Health Care
DIF: Conceptual
25. Dr. Spring, a clinical psychologist, has been treating individuals in a private practice setting since the 1970s. In what respect does her professional practice today, in a managed care environment, likely differ from her professional practice in the ‘70s and ‘80s? a. the length of treatment she can provide b. the type of treatment she can provide c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: The Costs of Health Care
DIF: Applied
26. The influence of managed care is likely to impact psychological treatment in the future in ALL BUT THE FOLLOWING ways: a. There will be increased use of master’s level providers and decreased use of doctoral level providers. b. There will be decreased use of self-help interventions. c. There will be greater use of computer- or Internet-assisted therapy. d. More psychological services will be delivered via primary care settings. ANS: B
REF: The Costs of Health Care
DIF: Conceptual
27. Dr. LeFevre is reimbursed for his clinical work under a model where he receives incentives for providing high-quality yet efficient services. In other words, he is paid more if he achieves a good patient outcome in 8 sessions than if he achieves a similar outcome with a similar patient in 12 sessions. What is the term for this type of reimbursement model? a. pay-for-performance disease-management model b. treatment efficiency maximization model c. efficient contingency reward model d. consumer-directed health-care model ANS: A
REF: The Costs of Health Care
DIF: Applied
28. Proponents of clinical psychologists obtaining prescription privileges argue that with prescription privileges, a. clinical psychologists would be able to treat a wider range of clients. b. care for patients needing both therapy and medication would be more efficient and costeffective. c. clinical psychologists would be better able to monitor changes in symptoms as a function of medication dosage. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Prescription Privileges
DIF: Conceptual
29. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are criticisms against clinical psychologists obtaining prescription privileges? a. Clinical psychologists would de-emphasize necessary medication and rely too heavily upon psychotherapy. b. The relationship between clinical psychology and psychiatry/general medicine would suffer. c. Clinical psychologists’ malpractice insurance premiums would increase significantly. d. It might lead to an increase in research sponsored by drug companies. ANS: A
REF: Prescription Privileges
DIF: Conceptual
30. In 1993, the Ad Hoc Task Force on Psychopharmacology of APA published recommendations regarding competence in prescribing. According to these recommendations, in order to achieve the highest level of competence (Level 3) and practice independently as a prescribing psychologist, the psychologist must have completed a. undergraduate coursework in organic chemistry and neuroscience plus a one-semester graduate course in psychopharmacology. b. six months of prescribing experience supervised by a psychiatrist. c. a strong undergraduate background in biological sciences, two years of graduate training in psychopharmacology, and a postdoctoral psychopharmacology residency. d. a Ph.D. or Psy.D. in clinical psychology plus one year of postdoctoral training in a psychiatric treatment setting. ANS: C
REF: Prescription Privileges
DIF: Factual
31. ALL BUT WHICH of the following statements is true of “telehealth”? a. It involves the delivery of health services using telecommunications technologies. b. One significant advantage of telehealth is the reduction in stigma associated with seeking treatment at traditional clinics. c. Most applications of telehealth to date have focused on poor urban communities with inadequate mental health facilities. d. Two forms of telehealth relevant to clinical psychology are ambulatory assessment and computer-assisted therapy. ANS: C
REF: Technological Innovations
DIF: Conceptual
32. JoAnn has just begun treatment for generalized anxiety disorder, and her therapist gave her an electronic diary with instructions to rate her anxiety level and provide a brief description of the current situation every time she is prompted by the diary. The term for this type of assessment is a. ambulatory assessment. b. electronic symptom tracking. c. real-time remote assessment. d. periodic electronic evaluation. ANS: A
REF: Technological Innovations
DIF: Applied
33. Jim wants to quit smoking secondary to some recent, serious health concerns. He and his therapist communicate frequently via e-mails and phone calls. In addition, his therapist periodically sends him links to webpages that offer useful techniques for dealing with cravings, and sends him automated text messages when he’s likely to be at a high risk of relapse (e.g., when on break at work, following meals). This treatment is an apt example of what is known as a. an electronic therapy protocol. b. ambulatory assessment. c. computer-assisted therapy. d. virtual therapy. ANS: C
REF: Technological Innovations
DIF: Applied
34. “Computer-assisted therapy” may refer to treatment administered via ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. videoconferencing b. e-mail and text messages c. therapy-based “apps” d. All of the above would be considered modes of computer-assisted therapy. ANS: D
REF: Technological Innovations
DIF: Conceptual
35. A 2005 study comparing traditional (therapist-provided) cognitive therapy for depression and computerassisted therapy found that individuals benefitted a. more from the traditional therapy than from the computer-assisted therapy. b. less from the traditional therapy than from the computer-assisted therapy. c. similarly from each form of therapy at the end of treatment, with the traditional group doing better at follow-up. d. similarly from each form of therapy both at the end of treatment and at follow up. ANS: D
REF: Technological Innovations
DIF: Factual
36. According to U. S. Census Bureau projections, between 1995 and 2050, population growth will be lowest for a. non-Hispanic Whites. b. Blacks. c. Hispanics. d. Asian Americans. ANS: A
REF: Culturally Sensitive Mental Health Services
DIF: Factual
37. According to supporters of cultural competence in clinical psychologists, clinicians should a. adhere to the "myth of sameness." b. have expertise specific to the cultural backgrounds of those they serve. c. avoid scientific mindedness. d. all of the above ANS: B
REF: Culturally Sensitive Mental Health Services
DIF: Conceptual
38. Multiculturalism in clinical psychology a. is discouraged by the American Psychological Association. b. was a primary cause of the 1988 schism of the American Psychological Association. c. is considered important for treatment, but not for research or education. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Culturally Sensitive Mental Health Services
DIF: Conceptual
39. In 2007, the APA published recommendations pertaining to sensitive clinical practice with __________, due to concerns about diagnostic bias and other issues. a. victims of abuse b. girls and women c. transgender individuals d. multiracial individuals ANS: B
REF: Culturally Sensitive Mental Health Services
DIF: Factual
40. APA published its first code of ethics in the a. 1930s. b. 1950s. c. 1970s. d. 1990s. ANS: B
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Factual
41. Among the "General Principles" presented in the most recent revision of the APA ethics code is a. beneficence and non-maleficence. b. integrity. c. justice. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Factual
42. All but which of the following scenarios involves violation of the APA ethical principle of “competence”?
a. A clinician with a doctoral degree in counseling introduces herself as “Doctor Smith” and does not specify the nature of her training. b. A clinician with a Ph.D. in clinical psychology uses an assessment or treatment procedure that he has not been specifically trained to use. c. A clinician who is going through a messy divorce refers a similarly messy marital therapy case to another clinician due to fears that she would lack objectivity. d. Each of the above scenarios involves violation of the competence principle. ANS: C
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Applied
43. In the Tarasoff case, the victim's parents a. sued the parents of the client. b. sued the therapist. c. defended the therapist in court. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Factual
44. In the Tarasoff case, the California Supreme Court ruled that a. the therapist should not have broken confidentiality at all. b. the therapist's actions were sufficient in the eyes of the law. c. the therapist should have warned additional people. d. the therapy conducted with the client caused the crime to be committed. ANS: C
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Conceptual
45. A psychologist is seeing a client who reports that he/she is planning to kill his/her spouse. If the ruling in the Tarasoff case is applicable to this situation, the psychologist should a. maintain confidentiality and not share this information with anyone. b. break confidentiality and inform police of this threat. c. require the client to call police and inform them directly of the threat. d. break confidentiality and inform all appropriate persons, including the spouse, of the threat. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Applied
46. According to the 1996 Supreme Court ruling in the Jaffe v. Redmond case, a. mental health professionals who misrepresent their credentials are guilty of a felony. b. a client's consent is necessary before his/her psychotherapy records can be disclosed. c. specific confidentiality guidelines depend on the age of the client. d. non-sexual dual relationships are not considered harmful to the client, from a legal perspective. ANS: B
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Conceptual
47. Which of the following is NOT considered a dual relationship between psychologist and client? a. sexual activities with a client
b. employing a current client c. becoming friends with a former client d. All of the above are examples of dual relationships. ANS: D
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Conceptual
48. Sexual intimacies between therapist and client a. have a positive impact on many clients who are involved in them. b. are not as harmful as emotional intimacies between therapist and client. c. are not addressed by the APA Ethical Standards because they happen so infrequently. d. are a type of “dual relationship.” ANS: D
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Conceptual
49. Dr. Bigg has been treating Joshua, a man with panic disorder and moderate depression, weekly for two years, and between therapy sessions they often trade e-mail messages relating to Joshua’s symptoms. Over that two-year span, Joshua’s symptoms have been consistent; there’s no evidence that he’s gotten better or has been prevented from getting worse. How would you assess this situation from the standpoint of the APA Ethical Principles? a. Dr. Bigg is breaching the ethical guidelines by trading e-mail messages with the client between sessions. b. Dr. Bigg is breaching the ethical guidelines by failing to terminate the treatment and refer Joshua elsewhere. c. Dr. Bigg is breaching the ethical guidelines in this case by offering individual therapy rather than less expensive group therapy. d. There’s no evidence that Dr. Bigg is breaching any ethical guideline in this case. ANS: B
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Applied
50. According to a recent survey (Pope & Vetter, 1992) cited in the textbook, the type of ethical dilemma reported most frequently by APA members involved a. confidentiality. b. cultural competence. c. clinical competence. d. dual relationships. ANS: A
REF: Ethical Standards
DIF: Factual
ESSAY 1.Compare and contrast the scientist-practitioner and clinical scientist models of training. ANS: Not provided. REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology 2.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Psy.D. model of training? ANS: Not provided. REF: Models of Training in Clinical Psychology 3.Explain at least three criticisms of the licensing requirement in psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Professional Regulation 4.In what way are physicians serving as role models for clinical psychology Ph.D.s desiring to work in private practice? Why do some consider this a bad thing?
ANS: Not provided.
REF: Private Practice
5.How has managed care influenced private practice psychotherapy? ANS: Not provided. REF: Private Practice 6. Describe the likely impact of prescription privileges on graduate training in clinical psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Prescription Privileges 7.Enumerate four advantages of ambulatory assessment over more traditional forms of assessment. ANS: Not provided. REF: Technological Innovations 8.What constitutes cultural competence, and why is it important? ANS: Not provided. REF: Culturally Sensitive Mental Health Services 9.What constitutes a dual relationship, and why are such relationships ethically inappropriate? ANS: Not provided. REF: Ethical Standards 10. Briefly summarize the facts of the Tarasoff case and the implications of its ruling on the practice of psychotherapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Ethical Standards
Chapter 4 Research Methods in Clinical Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In scientific terms, the best explanations for human behavior are those a. that offer a clear opportunity for disproof. b. that are most complex. c. that are based upon cross-sectional research. d. that are based upon commonly held beliefs. ANS: A
REF: Introduction to Research
DIF: Conceptual
2. Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between theory and research in clinical psychology? a. Theory influences research methods. b. Research outcome influences theory. c. Theory and research each progress without influence from the other. d. Theory and research influence each other. ANS: D
REF: Introduction to Research
DIF: Conceptual
3. Unsystematic observation a. has no value in the scientific process. b. is synonymous with naturalistic observation. c. is helpful in developing testable hypotheses. d. is limited to areas of psychology other than clinical. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
4. Which of the following is an advantage of naturalistic observation over controlled observation? a. less artificiality b. greater ability of the researcher to manipulate variables c. greater internal validity d. greater compliance with the APA ethical code ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
5. Researchers show participants one of several short films that vary in the extent to which they provoke anger, and they measure the heart rates of each participant immediately after each film. This research method is best described as a(n) a. series of case studies. b. unsystematic observation. c. controlled observation. d. naturalistic observation. ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
6. A psychologist notices that one client tends to arrive late for appointments if the client discussed emotionally difficult material during the previous session. The term for this research method is a. unsystematic observation. b. controlled observation. c. intuitive analysis. d. naturalistic observation. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
7. Over the course of several weeks, a psychologist visits a 4th grade classroom at various points during each day to determine whether hyperactive behavior is more prevalent at particular times of day. This research method is best described as a. naturalistic observation. b. unsystematic observation. c. the ABAB procedure. d. controlled observation. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
8. The __________ research method involves the intensive study of a particular client or patient who is receiving treatment. a. analytic b. case study c. unsystematic observation d. controlled observation ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
9. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the case study method? a. It is hard to detect or control all important variables acting in a given case. b. Data or conclusions from an individual case may not apply to people in general. c. Case studies do not allow us to draw conclusions about cause and effect. d. Case studies are unethical because they involve the disclosure of confidential information. ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
10. Case studies have proven useful for a. disconfirming universally known or accepted information. b. generating testable hypotheses. c. describing unusual phenomena or novel treatments. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
11. A study that aims to measure the number of people in a particular city who are diagnosable with generalized anxiety disorder is an example of a. the case study method. b. multivariate research. c. epidemiological research. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
12.
What is true of risk factors, in the context of epidemiological studies? a. If a person possesses a risk factor, it’s certain that he or she will develop the disease or disorder at some point. b. Identification of risk factors can be useful to target people for assessment and treatment. c. Both of the above are true. d. Neither of the above is true. ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
13. __________ refers to the rate of new cases of illness that develop within a given period of time, while __________ refers to the overall rate of cases (old or new) within a given period of time. a. Incidence; distribution b. Incidence; prevalence c. Prevalence; incidence d. Distribution; incidence ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
14. The lifetime prevalence rate of schizophrenia is 1%, suggesting that a. a member of the general population has a 1 in 100 chance of developing this disorder in his/her lifetime. b. a member of the general population has a 1 in 100 chance of developing this disorder in the next 12 months. c. if a member of the population is diagnosed with schizophrenia, he/she has a 1 in 100 chance of retaining the diagnosis for the remainder of his/her lifetime. d. currently, 1 of every 100 members of the general population has this disorder. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
15. Researchers conducting an epidemiological study are concerned about the influence of social desirability factors. In other words, the researchers are concerned that a. the editors of the journal where they hope to publish their results are biased toward "feelgood" articles. b. they will be unable to communicate their hypotheses to participants. c. participants will tend to withhold embarrassing information and report information that places them in a favorable light. d. they will not be able to sample as many segments of society as they would like. ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
16. Researchers on a college campus conduct an epidemiological study regarding criminal activity. They interview students about their personal histories of criminal activity, and the students underestimate the amount of criminal activity in which they have participated. This inaccuracy is probably due to a. retrospective reporting. b. social desirability. c. either of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
17. Epidemiological researchers who are trying to measure the number of 25-year-olds who are depressed should ideally ask a. people who are 25 at the time to report on their current symptoms. b. people who are 26 at the time to report on symptoms from 1 year ago. c. people who are 30 at the time to report on symptoms from 5 years ago. d. an equal number from each of the above groups. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
18. According to recent epidemiological data, women are more likely than men to be diagnosed with a. mood disorders and anxiety disorders. b. mood disorders, but not anxiety disorders. c. anxiety disorders, but not mood disorders. d. neither mood disorders nor anxiety disorders. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
19. Researchers conduct a correlational study and find that as the quality of the client-therapist relationship increases, so does the quality of the therapy outcome. The r statistic that would most likely represent this finding is a. r < .05. b. r = -.70. c. r = .70. d. r = -.05. ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
20. The Pearson product-moment coefficient ranges from a. 0 to 1. b. -1 to 1. c. 0 to 100. d. -100 to 100. ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
21. An r statistic of -.85 suggests that a. as one variable goes up, the other variable goes up. b. the two variables are unrelated to each other. c. on average, the second variable is .85 less than the first variable. d. as one variable goes up, the other variable goes down. ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
22. What is the term for the visual representation of data, in correlational research, that shows how each individual scored on each of two variables? a. scree plot b. histogram c. scatterplot d. correlation matrix ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
23. The correlation coefficient tells us a. the general shape of the scatterplot. b. which variable causes the other. c. how well we can predict the level of one variable from the level of the other. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
24. If the hypothesis states that A causes B and the r statistic demonstrates that A and B have a correlation of 0, it can be concluded that a. A causes B. b. B causes A. c. A does not cause B. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
25. What is the “third-variable problem”? a. When a researcher measures so many variables that it’s difficult to make sense of the data. b. When a research considers only one direction of causation between two variables that are strongly correlated. c. When a researcher measures variables that are not relevant to the relationship he or she is most interested in. d. When a researcher fails to consider that two variables may be correlated due only to the effects of some unmeasured third variable. ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
26. __________ is a statistical method that utilizes many separate correlations in order to determine which variables change in concert and thus can be considered functionally related. a. Latent correlation b. Scatterplot analysis c. Multiple correlation d. Factor analysis ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
27. Which of the following statements about factor analysis is NOT true? a. Factor analysis is a type of correlational method. b. Factor analysis is used to determine cause and effect in a large array of variables. c. A factor analysis is only as useful as the measures that are included in the analysis. d. All of the above statements are true of factor analysis. ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
28. __________ designs are those that evaluate or compare individuals at the same point in time, while __________ designs follow the same participants over time. a. Cross-sectional; longitudinal b. Longitudinal; cross-sectional c. Quasi-experimental; experimental d. Experimental; longitudinal ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
29. Researchers at a psychology clinic screen all new clients via phone interview, and over a few weeks have a list of 40 new clients who meet criteria for depression. Twenty receive cognitive-behavioral treatment, and the other twenty are told that they are on a waiting list. The independent variable in this study is __________, and the dependent variable is __________. a. depression level; treatment b. treatment; depression level c. length of study; depression level d. treatment; length of study ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
30. Good experimental procedure in the above study (#29) would include a. providing the people on the waiting list with a self-help version of the same treatment received by the other group. b. matching participants on initial severity of depressive symptoms. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
31. In an experimental procedure, the variable that is under the control of the experimenter is known as the __________ variable. a. dependent b. extraneous c. independent d. matching ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
32. A major advantage of within-group experimental designs is that they a. require fewer participants than between-groups designs. b. are more valid than between-groups designs. c. allow for higher numbers of participants than between-groups designs. d. are more flexible than between-groups designs. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
33. When we are not sure that the obtained result of an experimental study is really attributable to our manipulation of the independent variable, we are questioning the __________ of the study. a. generalizability b. external validity c. internal validity d. correlational nature ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Factual
34. Which of the following is the best example of a confounding variable jeopardizing the internal validity of a study? a. Researchers perform a factor analysis and, in the inferential factor-naming stage, assign names to the factors that cause disagreements with other researchers. b. A participant in a psychotherapy effectiveness study receives counseling from a minister in addition to the therapy provided in the study. c. A participant in a psychotherapy study who is placed on a waiting list receives no treatment at all while other participants in the same study are receiving psychotherapy. d. Two variables are found to correlate highly with each other, when in fact they are both caused by a third, unmeasured, variable. ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
35. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of the placebo effect? a. It is caused by participants’ expectations. b. It may be controlled through use of the double-blind procedure. c. It is only a factor in medication trials. d. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
36. A double-blind study a. helps guard against the effects of experimenter expectations. b. involves giving patients the treatment they least expect. c. necessarily involves the use of a placebo. d. is high in external validity. ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
37. Which type of study methodology does NOT yield results that are internally valid? a. case study method b. experimental method c. single-case design d. mixed design ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
38. Internal validity may be increased by a. matching participants on important characteristics. b. randomly assigning participants to treatment groups. c. employing double-blind procedures. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
39. External validity is essentially a. the strength of the cause-effect relationship. b. irrelevant to experimental research. c. assured by using a double-blind procedure. d. generalizability to situations beyond the specific study context. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
40. Dr. Greene would like to conduct an externally valid study on the topic of social anxiety. Which study methodology below is most likely to yield results that are externally valid? a. case study of an individual with social anxiety b. single-case design examining the effects of imagery exercises in a person with social anxiety c. epidemiological study to estimate the prevalence of social anxiety d. experimental study examining the effects of group therapy (versus being waitlisted) on social anxiety ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
41. Which of the following is NOT true of single-case designs? a. They allow the researcher to draw conclusions about cause and effect. b. They do not require that a potentially helpful treatment be withheld from any study participant. c. Ultimately, they require about as many participants as experimental studies comparing groups. d. All of the above statements are false. ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
42. The ABAB design a. is an example of a single-case design with alternating treatment and no-treatment phases. b. involves measuring participants on two separate variables of interest. c. has been recognized as the most externally valid form of clinical research. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Methods
DIF: Conceptual
43. Dr. Jennings has developed an intervention to help people stop smoking, and he wants to conduct a study to test it. In his design, he first collects baseline measurements of how much his study participants smoke at work, at home, and while socializing. Then, for one week he instructs participants to use the interventions he’s developed only at work; during the next week he instructs participants to use these techniques at both work and home; and during the next he instructs participants to use these techniques at work, at home, and while socializing with friends. All along Dr. Jennings continues to track how much people have smoked in each situation. This study is an example of a. an ABAB design. b. an epidemiological design. c. a multiple baseline design. d. a single-case design. ANS: C
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
44. A drug company has developed a new treatment for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder in children. They design a study that looks at the effectiveness of the drug separately in boys and girls across three different dosage levels. What is the term for this type of study design? a. AB study design b. mixed study design c. within-subjects design d. correlational design ANS: B
REF: Methods
DIF: Applied
45. Traditionally, a correlation is deemed statistically significant if it a. is less than -.05 or greater than .05. b. would occur by chance alone less than 5 times out of 100. c. is less than -.95 or greater than .95. d. is greater than 1.00. ANS: B
REF: Statistical Versus Practical Significance
DIF: Conceptual
46. Dr. Paulus conducts a study that compares the success of two 8-week weight-loss regimens. She uses statistics to compare the mean number of pounds lost by participants in each condition and comes up with a p-value of .08. What is the safest conclusion for her to draw? a. The results of the study are statistically significant. b. The difference in mean weight loss between groups may have been caused by chance alone. c. The difference in mean weight loss between groups was too great to have been a chance finding. d. One could expect similar levels of weight loss in the population at large. ANS: B
REF: Statistical Versus Practical Significance
DIF: Applied
47. Which of the following would constitute a violation of the ethical standard of confidentiality? a. At a conference, a psychologist presents the neuropsychological assessment scores for an Alzheimer’s patient, telling the audience only that the data came from “a 64-year-old Caucasian male.” b. A professor shows a portion of a therapy session with one of his clients during a graduate seminar, after having obtained the client’s consent to do so. c. A study author indicates that participants were 203 undergraduate students enrolled in introductory psychology at the university during fall 2011. d. None of the above scenarios involves a breach of confidentiality. ANS: D
REF: Research and Ethics
DIF: Applied
48. Deception in psychological research a. has been illegal since the early 1900s. b. should be used only when it is not possible to use non-deceptive methods. c. usually fails to conceal the hypotheses under study. d. was legal until 1980, but is currently illegal. ANS: B
REF: Research and Ethics
DIF: Conceptual
49. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are necessary elements of a study debriefing? a. an explanation for why the study was done b. if deception was used in the study, an explanation for why deception was necessary c. a description of the study results (or how to obtain this information when the study is complete) d. the credentials of all the researchers involved in the study ANS: D
REF: Research and Ethics
DIF: Factual
50. Ethical psychological researchers a. do not fabricate data. b. obtain informed consent from participants. c. use deception only when it is not possible to use alternative methods. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Research and Ethics
DIF: Factual
ESSAY 1.Briefly compare and contrast unsystematic, naturalistic, and controlled observation methods. ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 2.What are the strengths and weaknesses of the case study method? ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 3.What are some threats to the validity of epidemiological research? ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 4.What is the difference between statistical and practical significance? Provide an example to illustrate. ANS: Not provided. REF: Statistical Versus Practical Significance 5.Briefly compare and contrast cross-sectional and longitudinal designs. ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 6.Briefly compare and contrast experimental and correlational research methods. ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 7.Describe the general structure of an ABAB research design. What are the advantages and disadvantages of its use? ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 8.Explain what is meant by both internal and external validity in the context of psychological research. ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods 9.Identify at least four general elements of the consent form for a study. ANS: Not provided. REF: Research and Ethics 10. Why is deception sometimes used in psychological research? What are some objections to its use? ANS: Not provided. REF: Research and Ethics
Chapter 5 Diagnosis and Classification of Psychological Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ALL BUT WHICH of the following statements is true regarding the definition of abnormal behavior? a. Mental health professionals once debated the definition of abnormal behavior, but the debate has ended. b. There is no single descriptive feature shared by all forms of abnormal behavior. c. There is no discrete boundary between normal and abnormal behavior. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
2. "Cutoff points" are an advantage of the definition of abnormal behavior based upon a. statistical infrequency or the violation of social norms. b. subjective distress. c. disability, dysfunction, or impairment. d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
3. When a clinical psychologist uses a cutoff score on a test to determine abnormality, how is the cutoff score typically determined? a. The clinical psychologist sets the cutoff score based on his/her experience with previous clients. b. The authors of the test manual set the cutoff score, often using statistical deviance from the mean score as the primary criterion. c. The clinical psychologist sets the cutoff score based upon his/her expertise in the field. d. The cutoff score is determined by setting a range of +/- 1 standard deviation around the client's performance on a previous administration of the same test. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Factual
4. Which of the following terms refers to the idea that, in evaluating a behavior, one must consider the cultural context in which that behavior occurred? a. cultural relativity b. cultural analysis c. contextual analysis d. contextual deconstruction ANS: A
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
5. A "psychopathologist" is a. an individual currently diagnosed with a mental disorder. b. a scientist who studies the development and causes of mental disorders. c. an individual currently diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. d. a clinical psychologist who endorses the "violation of social norms" definition of abnormality above all others. ANS: B
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
6. Which of the following examples is most clearly abnormal according to the "subjective distress" definition of abnormality? a. a mean, callous supervisor who remains unaware that his/her employees hate him/her b. a librarian whose religious hallucinations interfere with her ability to work c. a child whose IQ is below the cutoff point for mental retardation d. a high-functioning accountant who feels depressed about several aspects of his/her life ANS: D
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Applied
7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a disadvantage of using the subjective distress definition of abnormal behavior? a. It doesn’t recognize the validity of the individual’s own experience. b. Not everyone who appears “disordered” to others reports distress. c. It’s unclear how much distress is enough to be considered abnormal. d. It’s unclear how long distress must persist in order to be considered abnormal. ANS: A
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
8. Which of the following examples is most clearly abnormal according to the "disability/dysfunction/impairment" definition of abnormality? a. a mean, callous supervisor who remains unaware that his/her employees hate him/her b. a librarian whose religious hallucinations interfere with her ability to work c. a child whose IQ is below the cutoff point for mental retardation d. a high-functioning accountant who feels depressed about several aspects of his/her life ANS: B
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Applied
9. Which of the following is a valid question regarding the disability/dysfunction/impairment definition of abnormal behavior? a. What should the standards for dysfunction be? b. Who establishes the standards for dysfunction? c. Both of the above are valid questions. d. Neither of the above is a valid question. ANS: C
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
10. Recently, Elizabeth has felt anxious much of the time, and her anxiety has caused her to perform some compulsive rituals that are highly unusual. Her job and her friends, however, have not been affected. Elizabeth is "abnormal" according to the definition based on a. violation of social norms and disability/dysfunction/impairment. b. subjective distress. c. disability/dysfunction/impairment. d. violation of social norms and subjective distress. ANS: D
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Applied
11. The only definition of abnormal behavior that does not involve subjectivity is a. conformity to norms. b. subjective distress. c. disability or dysfunction. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between abnormal behavior and mental illness? a. An individual who exhibits abnormal behavior may not have a mental illness. b. An individual who exhibits abnormal behavior that persists for at least 6 months has a mental illness. c. Most of the mental illnesses listed in DSM-IV-TR are defined by isolated abnormal behaviors. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: What Is Abnormal Behavior?
DIF: Conceptual
13. Which of the following is not accurate regarding the DSM-IV-TR definition of "mental disorder"? a. The syndrome must be associated with distress, disability, or increased risk of problems. b. A mental disorder is considered to represent a dysfunction within an individual. c. Not all deviant behaviors or conflicts with society are signs of a mental disorder. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Conceptual
14. Portia is a 33-year-old married woman working as an accountant at a large firm. Eight months ago, her father, with whom she was close, died unexpectedly, and a month ago, her firm announced that they would be laying off 40% of its accountancy staff within the next three months. At present, Portia is experiencing moderate depressive and anxious symptoms, and these symptoms appear to be taking a toll on both the quality of her work and the quality of her relationship with her husband. In the present case, which factor would be considered an etiological factor for her depression and anxiety? a. the downturn in the quality of her marital relationship. b. the downturn in her work quality. c. her father’s death. d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Applied
15. DSM-I was published in the a. 1930s. b. 1940s. c. 1950s. d. 1960s. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Factual
16. All editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) have been published by a. the American Psychological Association. b. the American Psychiatric Association. c. the American Psychological Society. d. the World Health Organization. ANS: B
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Factual
17. What is the DC 0-3R? a. a diagnostic classification system developed for children between birth and age 3 b. a shorthand diagnostic classification system developed for use by mental health paraprofessionals c. a simplified diagnostic classification system developed for use by primary care physicians and other health care providers outside the mental health field d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Factual
18. The DSM manuals are based in large part upon the 19th century work of __________ in the area of psychiatric classification. a. Dix b. Binet c. Kraepelin d. Breuer ANS: C
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Factual
19. The most revolutionary changes in DSM, including the first application of explicit diagnostic criteria for the mental disorders and a multi-axial system, appeared in a. DSM-II. b. DSM-III. c. DSM-III-R. d. DSM-IV-TR. ANS: B
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Factual
20. Which edition of the DSM was the first to assume a theory-neutral approach to psychiatric classification and diagnosis? a. DSM-II. b. DSM-III. c. DSM-III-R. d. All editions of the DSM have used a theory neutral approach. ANS: B
REF: Mental Illness
DIF: Factual
21. Changes incorporated in DSM-IV and maintained in DSM-IV-TR were based on __________ to a greater extent than changes incorporated in any previous edition. a. standard psychiatric practice b. empirical data c. cognitive-behavioral theory d. consensus of expert opinion ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Factual
22. In DSM-IV-TR, clients are diagnosed along __________ axes. a. three b. four c. five d. six ANS: C
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Factual
23. In DSM-IV-TR, Axis I is used to a. indicate the presence of personality disorders or mental retardation. b. indicate the presence of clinical disorders other than personality disorders and mental retardation. c. list relevant medical conditions. d. quantitatively estimate an individual's overall level of functioning. ANS: B
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Factual
24. In DSM-IV-TR, Axis V is used to a. indicate the presence of personality disorders or mental retardation. b. indicate the presence of clinical disorders other than personality disorders and mental retardation. c. list relevant medical conditions. d. quantitatively estimate an individual's overall level of functioning. ANS: D
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Factual
25. In DSM-IV-TR, major depression is diagnosed on Axis a. I. b. II. c. III. d. V. ANS: A
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
26. In DSM-IV-TR, paranoid personality disorder is diagnosed on Axis a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV. ANS: B
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
27. Nathan has a rather aggressive case of multiple sclerosis, one that is beginning to affect his mobility and threaten his independent functioning. If Nathan presented for treatment at a mental health facility, on what diagnostic axis would his MS be noted? a. III b. IV c. V d. As a strictly medical diagnosis, it wouldn’t be noted at all. ANS: A
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
28. In DSM-IV-TR, cocaine dependence is diagnosed on Axis a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV. ANS: A
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
29. Problems with one’s occupation and housing would appear on Axis ___ of DSM-IV-TR. a. II b. III c. IV d. V ANS: C
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
30. Which of the following would be an appropriate entry on Axis IV of the DSM-IV-TR? a. marital difficulty, financial strain b. 55 c. avoidant personality disorder d. social anxiety disorder ANS: A
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
31. Nick is a patient in a psychiatric hospital who exhibits very poor personal hygiene. Recently, he has been physically attacking other residents, and he has attempted suicide. According to the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic system, his Global Assessment of Functioning would probably approximate a. 90. b. 70. c. 40. d. 10. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
32. Jennifer is a college student seeing a psychologist in the university counseling center for test anxiety. The only other symptoms she reports are occasional verbal arguments with her boyfriend of 2 years. In the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic system, Jennifer's GAF would appear on Axis __________ as approximately __________. a. I; 50 b. V; 85 c. IV; 95 d. V; 10 ANS: B
REF: DSM-IV-TR
DIF: Applied
33. DSM-IV-TR adopts a __________ approach to classifying psychopathology. a. six-axis b. dimensional c. biological d. categorical ANS: D
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Factual
34. Which of the following is true of the categorical approach to diagnosis? a. It doesn’t accurately reflect the true nature of most diagnostic constructs. b. It makes it more difficult for people to earn a diagnosis and obtain treatment. c. It makes it less likely that clinicians will “fudge” when assigning a diagnosis. d. It makes it less likely that treatment-seekers will be stigmatized. ANS: A
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
35. The dimensional approach to the classification of psychopathology a. assumes that abnormal behavior is qualitatively different from normal behavior. b. was adopted by DSM-III-R, DSM-IV, and DSM-IV-TR. c. is consistent with the idea that abnormal and normal behaviors differ in degree, not in kind. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
36. The fact that DSM-IV-TR diagnoses can be based on a variety of assessment methods increases a. the reliability of the diagnoses. b. the number of diagnoses included in the manual. c. the heterogeneity of any one diagnostic category. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
37. Homosexuality a. has never been a DSM diagnosis. b. has always been a DSM diagnosis. c. is not a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR, but was a diagnosis in early versions of DSM. d. is considered a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR, but was not a diagnosis in early versions of DSM. ANS: C
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Factual
38. For each Axis I and Axis II diagnosis, DSM-IV-TR includes information on all but which of the following? a. age of onset b. treatment of choice c. prevalence d. cultural considerations ANS: B
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Factual
39. Structured diagnostic interviews a. increase diagnostic reliability over unstructured interviews. b. do not yet exist, but are being developed for both Axis I and Axis II disorders. c. yield equally reliable diagnoses for all DSM-IV-TR disorders. d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
40. Which of the following is true regarding the reliability of diagnostic classification? a. Reliability provides us with important information about treatment and prognosis. b. Reliability is very similar across the diagnostic categories of the DSM-IV-TR. c. Reliability may vary between research- and non-research-oriented assessment contexts. d. If clinicians use structured diagnostic interviews, the reliability of diagnosis is assured. ANS: C
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
41. A psychiatric diagnosis is valid to the extent that it a. informs us about the etiology of the disorder. b. helps us predict the course of the disorder/prognosis. c. helps us choose an appropriate treatment for the disorder. d. All of the above suggest diagnostic validity. ANS: D
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
42. DSM-IV-TR includes approximately __________ possible diagnoses. a. 50 b. 150 c. 400 d. 800 ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Factual
43. Which of the following features has been most heavily criticized regarding DSM-IV-TR's coverage of diagnostic conditions? a. over-inclusiveness b. the exclusion of childhood developmental disorders c. the placement of personality disorders on Axis II d. the limited number of schizophrenia subtypes ANS: A
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
44. Some individuals have suggested that there is gender bias in psychiatric diagnosis. According to the paper by Widiger and Spitzer described in your textbook, which of the following situations would necessarily demonstrate the existence of such bias? a. if a disorder were found to be much more prevalent in one sex than in the other b. if men and women presenting with the same cluster of symptoms were assigned different diagnosis c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Conceptual
45. According to the DSM-IV-TR, ALL BUT WHICH of the following should be addressed in a cultural formulation of a person’s problem? a. How strong is the person’s cultural identity? b. How does the person’s culture explain the problem at hand? c. How does the person’s culture regard the proposed treatment? d. All of the above should be included in a cultural formulation. ANS: D
REF: General Issues in Classification
DIF: Factual
46. According to Dr. A., specific phobias are the result of classical conditioning. According to Dr. B., they result from the displacement of intrapsychic conflict onto an external object that can then be avoided. According to Dr. C., they are the product of maladaptive, irrational beliefs about the feared object. Respectively, Drs. A., B., and C. endorse the __________ etiological models of psychopathology. a. learning, biological, and psychodynamic b. learning, humanistic, and cognitive c. biological, psychodynamic, and cognitive d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness
DIF: Applied
47. Dr. Siegfried believes that abnormal behavior, ranging from mood disorders to eating disorders to sleep disorders, is due to structural, functional, or chemical abnormalities in the central nervous system. We would say that he adheres to the _________ model of psychopathology. a. developmental b. cognitive c. biological d. learning ANS: C
REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness
DIF: Applied
48. A good synonym for the term “diathesis” is __________. a. stress b. consequence c. environment d. vulnerability ANS: D
REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness
DIF: Conceptual
49. According to the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology, a. a vulnerability or predisposition (such as genetics) is necessary and sufficient to develop psychopathology. b. a vulnerability or predisposition and some kind of stressor are both required to develop psychopathology. c. possessing a diathesis for a disorder guarantees its eventual occurrence. d. all human beings are born with the same likelihood of developing a particular disorder. ANS: B
REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness
DIF: Conceptual
50. Which of the following is an accurate statement about diatheses and stresses, as conceptualized by the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology? a. Diatheses are always biological, and stresses are always environmental. b. Diatheses are always biological, and stresses are always psychological. c. Diatheses are always biological or psychological, and stresses are always environmental. d. Diatheses may be biological or psychological, and stresses may be biological, psychological, interpersonal, or environmental. ANS: D
REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.Identify three major purposes of psychiatric diagnosis. ANS: Not provided. REF: Mental Illness 2.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the "statistical infrequency or violation of social norms" definition of abnormal behavior? ANS: Not provided. REF: What is Abnormal Behavior? 3.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the "subjective distress" definition of abnormal behavior? ANS: Not provided. REF: What is Abnormal Behavior? 4.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the "disability or dysfunction or impairment" definition of abnormal behavior? ANS: Not provided. REF: What is Abnormal Behavior? 5.What are the major elements of “mental disorder,” as defined in the DSM-IV-TR? ANS: Not provided. REF: Mental Illness 6.What is the function of each axis of DSM-IV-TR? ANS: Not provided. REF: Mental Illness 7. Compare and contrast the categorical and dimensional approaches to the classification of mental disorders. ANS: Not provided. REF: General Issues in Classification 8. Describe the history of homosexuality as a mental illness. What does this case suggest about psychiatric diagnoses? ANS: Not provided. REF: General Issues in Classification
9. Identify at least three ways that culture may impact diagnosis and/or treatment. ANS: Not provided. REF: General Issues in Classification 10. Describe the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness
Chapter 6 The Assessment Interview MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Clinical assessment a. has historically been one of the least important activities of clinical psychologists. b. is less reliable when conducted by a clinician who will not subsequently become the therapist. c. is more reliable when conducted by a clinician who will not subsequently become the therapist. d. is crucial for helping clinicians to solve problems and/or make decisions. ANS: D
REF: Assessment in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
2. Which of the following is an accurate statement about psychological assessment? a. Interest in psychological assessment is currently at an all-time low. b. One current trend in assessment is the use of evidence-based assessment (EBA). c. Psychological assessment occurs only at the beginning of treatment. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Assessment in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
3. Mr. and Mrs. Hargett set up an assessment appointment for their 15-year-old son, Tommy; when they bring him in, they say that they want to find out “what is wrong” with him. According to the text, what should the psychologist do in this case? a. The psychologist should conduct a comprehensive assessment of Tommy, examining him for every type of psychological problem. b. The psychologist should tell the parents that their referral question is inappropriate, and that they should take their son elsewhere. c. The therapist should talk with the parents to help them narrow down their questions about Tommy, and then conduct an assessment around these questions. d. The psychologist should conduct a focused assessment of Tommy, examining him for the problems most commonly observed in 15-year-old males. ANS: C
REF: Assessment in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Applied
4. A client who is experiencing moderate anxiety symptoms receives a list of four clinicians as possible sources of help. The assessment procedures that are employed by these four clinicians a. may vary by theoretical orientation. b. will be uniform. c. will be uniform if all four clinicians have Ph.D. degrees in clinical psychology. d. will involve the same standardized tests, even if interview styles vary. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Assessment in Clinical Psychology
DIF: Conceptual
5. Interviews conducted by a computer, as opposed to those conducted by a clinician, a. were labeled as unethical in the most recent APA code of ethics. b. are more comfortable for some clients. c. have not yet been developed, but are in the planning stages. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
6. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a goal of interviews conducted by clinical psychologists? a. the establishment of rapport b. emotional release for the client c. personal satisfaction for the interviewer. d. improvement in the client’s psychological symptoms. ANS: C
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
7. Interviews should generally be conducted in an environment in which the client a. can be assured of privacy and protection from interruptions. b. can gain insight regarding the psychologist's personality as reflected in the office decor. c. is allowed to eat or drink. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
8. According to APA’s ethical code, video recording interviews a. is unethical. b. is ethical only if the client consents to it. c. is ethical only if a copy of the recording is provided to the client. d. is ethical with adult clients, but not with child clients. ANS: B
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
9. Which of the following is an accurate statement about taking verbatim notes during interviews or therapy sessions? a. Taking verbatim notes is one of the best ways for a clinician to communicate that he or she is truly attending to the client. b. Taking verbatim notes may keep the clinician from understanding what the client is feeling during the interview or session. c. Taking verbatim notes has little impact, positive or negative, on an interview or therapy session. d. In general, taking verbatim notes is probably more desirable than taking a moderate amount of notes. ANS: B
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
10. In presenting a therapy case to his colleagues for consultation, Dr. Jeffries remarks that he and the client have a good rapport. Therefore we may be confident in thinking that a. Dr. Jeffries likes his client. b. Dr. Jeffries’s client likes him. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
11. In order to establish rapport, an interviewer should a. use reflective statements as early as possible in the interview. b. communicate the client's diagnosis to him/her at the end of the interview. c. tell the client that he or she knows exactly what the client is feeling. d. adopt an attitude of acceptance and respect for the client. ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
12. In ALL BUT WHICH of the following situations would we expect it to be more challenging than usual for a clinician to establish a good rapport? a. Dr. Burke is meeting with a teenager as part of a school-mandated assessment of aggression-proneness. b. Dr. Bouchard is meeting with a man who is being evaluated in anticipation of a custody hearing. c. Dr. Ballas is meeting with a couple for marital therapy. d. It may be somewhat more challenging to build rapport in all of the above situations. ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
13. What is an accurate statement about rapport? a. Rapport is necessary and sufficient for a good clinical interview. b. Rapport is something that can be developed through certain tried-and-true techniques. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
14. __________ is acceptable in an interview once rapport has been established. a. Confrontation b. Probing c. either of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
15. Which of the following is an accurate statement? a. "Small talk" (about the weather, etc.) at the beginning of an interview is a common novice mistake that decreases the likelihood that the client will return for a second session. b. The interviewer should at least occasionally use professional jargon during the interview in order to communicate his/her expertise to the client. c. The interviewer should have the client clarify words or terms when their meanings are not clear to him/her. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
16. "Would you tell me about your relationship with your spouse?" is an example of a(n) __________ interview question. a. confronting b. direct c. facilitative d. open-ended ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
17. During an interview, a client mentions that he occasionally experiences panic attacks. The interviewer asks, "Can you tell me a little more about the panic attacks you mentioned?" This is an example of a(n) __________ interview question. a. facilitative b. open-ended c. confronting d. clarifying ANS: A
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
18. During an interview, the interviewer says, "Wait, I'm confused. A few minutes ago you said your anxiety prevents you from going to parties, but didn't you just mention being at a party at your friend’s house last weekend?" This is an example of a(n) __________ interview question. a. open-ended b. clarifying c. confronting d. facilitative ANS: C
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
19. During an interview, the interviewer says, “I’m not sure what you mean when you say your friend ‘really let him have it.’ Can you explain?” This is an example of a(n) __________ interview question. a. clarifying b. facilitative c. open-ended d. confronting ANS: A
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
20. During an interview, Dr. Jimenez’s client becomes very quiet, and there is a long period of silence. What should Dr. Jimenez do in this case? a. She should say nothing until the client takes the initiative to speak again, even if it takes a very long time. b. She should assume that the client is demonstrating resistance to the current topic. c. She should say something just to break the awkward tension of the silence. d. She should respond in such a way that encourages communication and understanding. ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
21. Dr. Hebb and his client are of the same sex and ethnicity. Dr. Vernon and his client differ with regard to both sex and ethnicity. What assumption below is a safe one to make? a. Dr. Hebb and his client have several values in common. b. Dr. Vernon and his client have few values in common. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
22. Dr. Seul will be doing a clinical assessment later this morning, and he wants things to go as well as possible. ALL BUT WHICH of the following should help him to achieve that goal? a. Preparing for the interview by reading all of the available records on the client. b. Clarifying the referral question, if necessary. c. Giving full play to the client’s emotions during the contact, even if it means going off topic. d. Giving the client some feedback or closure at the end of the interview. ANS: C
REF: The Interview
DIF: Applied
23. According to the text, in what two basic respects do the various types of clinical interviews differ? a. time and formality b. formality and purpose c. purpose and level of structure d. level of structure and time ANS: C
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
24. Interviewers should never a. directly answer personal questions, even if they are inconsequential or trivial. b. use the interview session as a place to work out their own problems. c. either of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: The Interview
DIF: Conceptual
25. Intake-admission interviews generally have the purpose of a. determining why the patient has come to the clinic. b. judging whether the agency will meet the needs and expectations of the patient. c. eliciting a complete personal and social history. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
26. Intake-admission interviews a. are conducted increasingly over the telephone b. are conducted exclusively by clinical psychologists. c. are intended to alleviate an immediate crisis. d. are intended to assess for cognitive difficulties. ANS: A
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
27. Case-history interviews of adult clients a. focus primarily on their childhoods. b. cover sexual development and medical history. c. do not cover educational or work histories. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
28. The type of interview that generally covers the broadest range of material is the __________ interview. a. case-history b. intake-admission c. mental status examination d. crisis ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
29. If a clinical psychologist is going to work with psychiatrists extensively, it is particularly important that he/she be familiar with __________ interviews, as they are one of the primary assessment tools used by psychiatrists. a. mental status examination b. intake-admission c. crisis d. case-history ANS: A
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Factual
30. Mental status examination interviews cover a. mood. b. state of consciousness. c. thought processes. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Factual
31. The purpose of __________ interviews includes the provision of immediate resources. a. crisis b. diagnostic c. intake-admission d. mental status examination ANS: A
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Factual
32. A clinician who refers to an interview as a "clinical interview" is probably conducting a(n) a. case-history interview. b. structured interview. c. mental status examination interview. d. unstructured interview. ANS: D
REF: Varieties of Interview s
DIF: Factual
33. What is the term for the type of interview that consists of a standard set of questions and follow-up probes that are asked in a predetermined sequence? a. intake-admission b. structured c. case-history d. systematic ANS: B
REF: Varieties of Interview s
DIF: Factual
34. Research on the reliability of diagnoses using unstructured interviews a. has not yet been conducted. b. has supported the use of unstructured interviews. c. has not supported the use of unstructured interviews. d. has focused primarily on unstructured interviews for the personality disorders. ANS: C
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
35. The SCID-I a. is a structured interview designed to provide immediate assistance to clients. b. is a structured interview designed to yield a DSM-IV diagnosis. c. is a structured interview for child clients. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Varieties of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
36. According to the text, which of the following is true based on research on structured interviews? a. Patients don’t seem to mind them, and they are used more frequently than unstructured interviews. b. Patients do not like them, but they are used more frequently than unstructured interviews. c. Patients don’t seem to mind them, but they are used less frequently than unstructured interviews. d. Patients do not like them, and they are used less frequently than unstructured interviews. ANS: C
REF: Varieties of Interview s
DIF: Conceptual
37. The __________ of an interview concerns how well the interview measures what it intends to measure. a. validity b. test-retest reliability c. practical utility d. interrater reliability ANS: A
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
38. The introduction of operational criteria as part of the definitions of most mental disorders was essential to the development of structured interviews. Such criteria first appeared in a. DSM-I. b. DSM-II. c. DSM-III. d. DSM-IV. ANS: C
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
39. The most common type of reliability assessed and reported for structured diagnostic interviews is a. interrater reliability. b. test-retest reliability. c. internal consistency reliability. d. temporal reliability. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
40. Dr. Lyons has developed an interview that assesses for a temporary psychiatric syndrome. When he collects data and calculates the one-month test-retest reliability, the figure is low. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this low figure? a. People’s symptoms changed over the one-month time frame. b. People were bored or fatigued on one or both administrations. c. either of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Applied
41. Test-retest reliability is expected to be high when a. the intervening time period between initial test and retest is at least several months. b. the variable being assessed is a long-standing personality trait. c. the variable being assessed is a temporary syndrome. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
42. Dr. Kanakis develops a brief structured interview to assess for the various eating disorders. To evaluate the interview, Dr. Kanakis sets up a study where one graduate student interviews an introductory psychology student while another is observing the interview behind a one-way mirror. Both graduate students score the interview. They repeat this process for 25 students, and then their scores are compared to observe the extent to which they agree on the presence or absence of each diagnosis. What, specifically, is being assessed in this study? a. concurrent reliability b. interrater reliability c. concurrent validity d. interrater validity ANS: B
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Applied
43. In general, a kappa value __________ is considered to reflect excellent interrater agreement beyond chance. a. greater than 0 b. between .75 and 1.00 c. greater than 100 d. between -.25 and .25 ANS: B
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
44. __________ validity is the degree to which the interview items adequately measure the various aspects of the variable or construct. a. Content b. Predictive c. Concurrent d. Construct ANS: A
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
45. A clinical psychologist develops a clinical interview to assess for the presence of alcohol abuse and dependence. In evaluating the interview, the psychologist conducts a study that compares people’s current scores on this interview with their current scores on a well-established paper-and-pencil measure of alcohol abuse and dependence. What kind of validity does this study appear to be assessing? a. content validity b. predictive validity c. concurrent validity d. discriminant validity ANS: C
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Applied
46. An interview designed to measure depression includes questions about cognitive and emotional aspects, but no questions about somatic aspects (weight changes, sleep disturbance, etc.). This interview clearly has imperfect __________ validity. a. predictive b. content c. discriminant d. concurrent ANS: B
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Applied
47. Predictive validity is a subtype of __________ validity. a. criterion-related b. concurrent c. discriminant d. content ANS: A
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
48. __________ validity is the extent to which an interview does not correlate with measures that are not theoretically related to the construct that the interview attempts to measure. a. Concurrent b. Content c. Criterion-related d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Factual
49. An interview designed to measure panic disorder correlates positively with several measures of psychoticism. This suggests that the interview has __________ validity. a. poor predictive b. poor discriminant c. strong discriminant d. poor concurrent ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
DIF: Applied
50. Research on interviewing suggests that a. the interviewer's theoretical orientation does not influence the focus of the interview. b. the match or mismatch between interviewer and interviewee in terms of age, gender, or race does not influence the course of the interview. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: The Art and Science of Interviewing
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.How is a clinical interview similar to and different from ordinary conversation? Psychological tests? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Interview 2.Briefly describe the ideal physical environment for a clinical interview. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Interview 3.What is the role of rapport in interviewing, and how can interviewers enhance rapport? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Interview 4.How should interviewers handle the issues of note-taking, audio recording, and video recording? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Interview 5.Briefly compare and contrast the following types of interview questions: open-ended, facilitative, clarifying, confronting, and direct. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Interview 6.Identify and briefly describe three ways that a clinician might enhance his or her own “gender awareness.” ANS: Not provided. REF: The Interview 7.Briefly compare and contrast intake-admission, case-history, mental status examination, crisis, and diagnostic interviews. ANS: Not provided. REF: Varieties of Interviews 8.Discuss the different types of reliability that apply to interviews. How is each measured? ANS: Not provided. REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
9. Explain why kappa estimates of interrater reliability are smaller than the percentage of time that clinicians arrive at the same conclusion. What range of kappa value is considered to reflect excellent interrater agreement? ANS: Not provided. REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews 10. Explain why it is so difficult to validate a structured diagnostic interview. What is required for us to feel confident about the validity of such interviews? ANS: Not provided. REF: Reliability and Validity of Interviews
Chapter 7 The Assessment of Intelligence MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Mismeasure of Man is a critique of a. early "mental ability" tests written by Alfred Binet. b. Binet's approach to intelligence testing written by David Wechsler. c. the intelligence testing of females written by Gloria Steinem. d. intelligence testing written by Stephen J. Gould. ANS: D
REF: Intelligence Testing: Yesterday and Today
DIF: Factual
2. By the 1960s, many individuals and groups were criticizing intelligence tests for what reason? a. They believed the tests were too easy, and were producing inflated scores. b. They believed that measuring intelligence was not a worthwhile pursuit. c. They believed that some test items were unfair and discriminated against certain groups. d. They believe that the tests were measuring talent, rather than intelligence per se. ANS: C
REF: Intelligence Testing: Yesterday and Today
DIF: Conceptual
3. In 1994, Hernstein and Murray published a controversial book called The Bell Curve. Why was this book so controversial? a. The authors questioned the effectiveness of Head Start programs for disadvantaged youth. b. The authors recommended an overhaul of affirmative action policies. c. The authors argued that intelligence is the most important predictor of many positive and negative outcomes. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Intelligence Testing: Yesterday and Today
DIF: Conceptual
4. With regard to psychological tests, reliability is most synonymous with a. cultural sensitivity. b. consistency. c. accuracy. d. validity. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
5. The consistency of scores across two alternative versions of a test is labeled a. test-retest reliability. b. equivalent forms reliability. c. split-half reliability. d. interrater reliability. ANS: B
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
6. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the assessment of reliability? a. Equivalent forms reliability is used to avoid the problems with test-retest reliability. b. Equivalent forms reliability is used to avoid the problems with split-half reliability. c. Test-retest reliability is used to avoid the problems with equivalent forms reliability. d. Test-retest reliability is used to avoid the problems with split-half reliability. ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
7. Dr. Vorst has created a new intelligence test, and the research conducted to date suggests that the items on the test are highly intercorrelated (i.e., they are measuring the same thing). Another way to say this is that Dr. Vorst’s test has high __________ reliability. a. internal consistency b. item-quotient c. interrater d. test-retest ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
8. The internal consistency of an intelligence test is measured by calculating a. split-half reliability. b. interrater reliability. c. test-retest reliability. d. discriminant reliability. ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
9. In evaluating the reliability of an intelligence test, Dr. Xavier computes __________, which is the average of all possible __________ correlations for the test. a. Pearson's r; split-half b. Cronbach's alpha; significant c. Cronbach's alpha; split-half d. Pearson's r; significant ANS: C
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
10. In general, the __________ of an intelligence test is the extent to which it measures what it is supposed to measure. a. utility b. validity c. reliability d. significance ANS: B
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
11. A test that is supposed to measure overall intelligence includes only mathematical questions. This test clearly lacks __________ validity. a. content b. discriminant c. predictive d. concurrent ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
12. If an intelligence test administered to 6th graders correlates strongly with the high school GPAs of these students, it can be concluded that the test has high __________ validity. a. concurrent b. predictive c. construct d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
13. If an intelligence test administered to 4th graders correlates strongly with their 4th grade teachers' estimates of their intelligence, it can be concluded that the test has high __________ validity. a. concurrent b. predictive c. construct d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
14. Dr. Richards has developed the Wide-Range Intelligence Test (WRIT). All but which of the following would suggest that this instrument has good validity? a. Scores on the WRIT during junior high are strongly correlated with high school rank years later. b. Scores on the WRIT are not correlated with current measures of self-esteem. c. Scores on the WRIT correlate negatively with current measures of extraversion. d. The WRIT contains items that tap into all of the recognized domains of intelligence. ANS: C
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
15. __________ is a measure of what one has already learned. a. Achievement b. Ability c. Adeptness d. Aptitude ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
16. The definition of intelligence that has been universally accepted a. equates intelligence with the ability to adapt to the environment. b. equates intelligence with the ability to learn, or "educability." c. equates intelligence with the ability to think abstractly or symbolically. d. does not yet exist. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
17. According to Spearman, "g" a. does not exist. b. stands for "good" overall intelligence, which roughly translates to scores that are above average. c. represents general intelligence. d. is one of the seven primary types of intelligence. ANS: C
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
18.
Joel has high innate intellectual ability; his brother James is more “book smart,” excelling at school. Using the terms from Cattell’s theory of intelligence, we would say that Joel has __________ and James has __________. a. high crystallized intelligence; high fluid intelligence b. high fluid intelligence; high crystallized intelligence c. low crystallized intelligence; low fluid intelligence d. low fluid intelligence; low crystallized intelligence ANS: B
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
19. Guilford argued that intelligence could be organized into three dimensions: __________. a. operations, contents, and products b. verbal, nonverbal, and performance c. componential, experiential, and contextual d. verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, and speed of processing ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
20. In comparison to traditional approaches, recent approaches to the definition of intelligence have emphasized a. strategies of processing. b. speed of processing. c. culture-dependent learning. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
21. Charlotte is attending a school that not only focuses on the three Rs (reading, writing, and arithmetic), but also instructs students with regard to music, language, spatial ability, bodily movement, selfknowledge, the understanding of others, and the understanding of nature. It sounds as if this school is based on whose theory of intelligence? a. Gardner b. Guilford c. Sternberg d. Cattell ANS: A
REF: The Concept of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
22. The ratio IQ equals __________ times 100. a. mental age b. mental age minus chronological age c. mental age divided by chronological age d. chronological age divided by mental age ANS: C
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Factual
23. The concept of deviation IQ scores a. was introduced by Wechsler. b. assumes that intelligence is normally distributed throughout the population. c. was introduced to address the fact that ratio IQ declines with age, even when mental abilities remain stable. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
24. The correlation between IQ scores and grades in school is approximately a. .85. b. .50. c. 0. d. -.25. ANS: B
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Factual
25. IQ scores have the weakest correlation with which of the following? a. occupational status as defined by income b. success after gaining entry to a profession c. grades in school d. occupational status as defined by social prestige ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
26. Most studies comparing the overall intelligence of males and females conclude that a. males are significantly more intelligent, overall. b. females are significantly more intelligent, overall. c. no significant differences exist in overall intelligence. d. no significant differences exist in either overall or specific intellectual abilities. ANS: C
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
27. Which of the following statements is true? a. Hispanic Americans tend to obtain significantly lower IQ scores than White Americans. b. African Americans tend to obtain significantly lower IQ scores than White Americans. c. After puberty, males tend to score significantly higher than women on tests of quantitative ability. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
28. ALL BUT WHICH of the following circumstances would suggest a significant genetic influence in the appearance of a characteristic like intelligence? a. A twin study finds higher concordance rates for MZ twin pairs than for DZ twin pairs. b. A twin study finds similar concordance rates for MZ twins reared together and MZ twins reared apart. c. A twin study finds similar concordance rates for DZ twins reared together and DZ twins reared apart. d. All of the above suggest a significant genetic influence. ANS: D
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
29. Recent estimates of the percentage of IQ variance associated with genetic factors range from approximately __________%. a. 10-30 b. 0-5 c. 50-80 d. 85-100 ANS: C
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Factual
30. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate based on behavior genetics studies of intelligence? a. In general, the more closely related two biological relatives, the more similar their levels of intelligence. b. In general, the intelligence of biological relatives reared together is more similar than the intelligence of biological relatives reared apart. c. In general, the intelligence of nonbiological relatives reared together is more similar than the intelligence of nonbiological relatives reared apart. d. In general, identical twins reared together are perfectly concordant for intelligence. ANS: D
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
31. Petunia is 54; her daughter Daisy is 32; and her granddaughter Rose is 4. For which of these individuals is intelligence most heavily influenced by environmental factors? a. Petunia b. Daisy c. Rose d. The intelligence of all three is equally influenced by environmental factors. ANS: C
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Applied
32. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement regarding the influence of genes and environment on intelligence? a. When the environment is similar for everyone, observed differences in intelligence are more accountable to genetic factors. b. Even strongly genetically determined traits, like intelligence, can be influenced by environmental factors. c. To date, psychosocial interventions have been very effective in improving IQ scores. d. The heritability of intelligence does not appear to be stable across the life span. ANS: C
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
33. IQ scores tend to be more stable over time for __________ than for __________. a. adults; children b. children; adults c. males; females d. females; males ANS: A
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Factual
34. What is meant by the term “the Flynn effect”? a. the observation that the average IQ of successive generations is declining b. the observation that the average IQ of successive generations is increasing c. the observation that people’s verbal intelligence is increasing, while their spatial intelligence is decreasing d. the observation that people’s spatial intelligence is increasing, while their verbal intelligence is decreasing ANS: B
REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates
DIF: Conceptual
35. The most recent edition of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test was published in the a. 1970s. b. 1980s. c. 1990s. d. 2000s. ANS: D REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence DIF: Factual 36. In the most recent edition of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test, the examinee's starting point for the subtests is determined by a. the examinee's grade level. b. the examinee's average school performance, across subjects. c. the examinee's scores on subtests of verbal and nonverbal ability. d. the examinee's age. ANS: C
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
37. Reliability and validity data obtained for the Stanford-Binet 5th Edition suggest that it is generally a. reliable and valid. b. reliable but invalid. c. valid but unreliable. d. neither reliable nor valid. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
38. Which of the following was developed first? a. the original Stanford-Binet test b. the original Wechsler test for adults c. the original Wechsler test for children d. the original Wechsler memory test ANS: A
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
39. On the WAIS-IV, the average IQ score is a. 50. b. 100. c. 150. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
40. What is the purpose of the reversal items on the WAIS-IV? a. They assess examinees’ ability to “undo” various mathematical operations in their heads. b. They assess the speed with which examinees are able to break physical objects down into their component parts. c. both of the above d. They reduce the number of items examinees must complete that are well below their ability levels. ANS: D
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
41. The Index Scores of the WAIS-IV, representing the major ability factors that underlie the subtest scores, are a. Comprehension, Picture Completion, Letter-Number Sequencing, and Cancellation. b. Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. c. Verbal Processing Speed and Nonverbal Processing Speed. d. Verbal and Performance. ANS: B
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
42. The WAIS-IV consists of __________ subtests. a. 3 b. 8 c. 15 d. 24 ANS: C
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
43. __________ is a WAIS-IV subtest that measures short-term memory and attention. a. Digit Span b. Symbol Search c. Similarities d. Comprehension ANS: A
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
44. Which of the following statements regarding WAIS-IV subtests is FALSE? a. The Vocabulary subtest contributes to the Verbal Comprehension Index Score. b. The Coding subtest contributes to the Processing Speed Index Score c. The Matrix Reasoning subtest contributes to the Perceptual Reasoning Index Score. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
45. A person whose lowest WAIS-IV subtest scores are Picture Completion, Block Design, and Matrix Reasoning most clearly has a relative weakness in a. long-term memory. b. verbal comprehension. c. perceptual reasoning. d. mathematical ability. ANS: C
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
46. Erika is referred for IQ testing, and she performs exceptionally well on the Arithmetic, Digit Span, and Letter-Number Sequencing subtests. Based on this information alone, we could assert that Erika has a relative strength with regard to a. mathematical ability. b. working memory. c. processing speed. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
47. Initial factor analyses on the WISC-IV suggest that the WISC-IV has a __________-factor structure. a. two b. four c. eight d. sixteen ANS: B
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Factual
48. A clinical psychologist assessing the intelligence of an 8-year-old client with a Wechsler test should use the a. WAIS-IV. b. WMS-IV. c. WISC-IV. d. WPPSI-III. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
49. In real clinical settings, intelligence tests are frequently used to a. estimate overall intelligence. b. predict academic success. c. appraise learning/problem-solving style. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Conceptual
50. Randall has been referred for IQ testing, and on the basis of his performance, the examiner determines that he has a full-scale IQ of 104. Which of the following is a safe assertion to make on this basis alone? a. Randall possesses roughly average verbal comprehension skills. b. Randall possesses roughly average perceptual reasoning skills. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
DIF: Applied
ESSAY 1.How did changes in educational policy during the late 19th century influence the measurement of intelligence? ANS: Not provided. REF: Intelligence Testing: Yesterday and Today
2.What types of reliability are most relevant to the evaluation of intelligence tests? Explain what is meant by each. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Concept of Intelligence 3.Identify at least two factors that may lead to poor test-retest reliability of intelligence tests. How might this reliability problem be remedied? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Concept of Intelligence 4.Briefly compare and contrast the theories of intelligence posited by Spearman and Cattell. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Concept of Intelligence 5.How do the theories of intelligence developed since the 1980s differ from those that preceded them? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Concept of Intelligence 6.How does age influence the stability of IQ scores? How does the heritability of IQ vary with age? ANS: Not provided. REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates 7.Based upon the body of IQ data available, between 30 and 80% of IQ variance is due to genetic factors. What does this mean about the influence of environmental factors on IQ? ANS: Not provided. REF: The IQ: Its Meaning and Its Correlates 8.Briefly compare and contrast the Stanford-Binet Fifth Edition and the Wechsler Adult Intelligence ScaleFourth Edition. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence 9.Briefly describe the four index scores of the WAIS-IV. What general type of ability does each refer to? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence 10. Identify at least three distinct types of stylistic appraisal that an intelligence test administrator might make from observing an examinee during testing. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Clinical Assessment of Intelligence
Chapter 8 Personality Assessment MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following should have the least impact on our evaluation of a specific personality assessment measure? a. how reliable and valid it is b. how cost-effective it is c. how long it has been in use d. how useful it is in producing good outcomes ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
2. Which of the following personality assessments is used by more clinical psychologists than any other personality assessment? a. MMPI-2 b. TAT c. Rorschach d. sentence completion methods ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
3. __________ involve the administration of a standard set of questions or statements to which the examinee responds using a fixed set of options. a. Personality interviews b. Objective personality tests c. Projective personality tests d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
4. An advantage of objective tests is that they typically allow clinical psychologists to a. administer the same test to multiple clients at the same time. b. allow significant leeway for personalized scoring and administration. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
5. Objective tests typically a. focus on behaviors, rather than underlying motives. b. contain some transparent items, making them more vulnerable to "faking" than projective tests. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
6. Dr. Ahmad is developing a new objective personality test by appealing to "authorities" in the field to verify the validity of each item. This strategy for test construction is best labeled a. empirical criterion keying. b. factor analytic. c. authoritarian. d. content validation. ANS: D
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
7. The content validation approach to objective test construction is based primarily upon a. the prevailing opinions of experts in the field. b. the predictive value of each potential item. c. correlations with other tests measuring the same construct. d. the premise that examinees cannot or will not reliably and accurately report on themselves. ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
8. The original MMPI was developed via the__________ approach to objective test construction. a. empirical criterion keying b. factor analytic c. content validation d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
9. A group of clinical psychologists is constructing an objective personality test. They find that people with panic disorder tend to agree with the statement "I like brown shoes better than white shoes" significantly more often than people without panic disorder. They decide to include this item on their test, even though it makes little theoretical sense. These clinical psychologists are apparently using the __________ strategy of test construction. a. factor analytic b. construct validation c. content validation d. empirical criterion keying ANS: D
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
10. The majority of contemporary test developers typically use the __________ approach to test construction. a. factor analytic b. content validation c. construct validation d. empirical criterion keying ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
11. A group of clinical psychologists is creating a new personality test by measuring correlations among items from pre-existing personality tests. They have theory-based hypotheses regarding the outcome of their procedure. They are apparently using the __________ approach to test construction. a. confirmatory factor analytic b. content validation c. empirical criterion keying d. exploratory factor analytic ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
12. A weakness of the factor analytic strategy of test construction is a. its reliance on expert opinion over empirical data. b. that items that measure the same thing may actually be measuring the wrong thing. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
13. The __________ approach to test construction involves many aspects of other approaches and is the most labor-intensive. a. construct validation b. content validation c. empirical criterion keying d. factor analytic ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
14. Hathaway and McKinley published the original MMPI in a. 1930. b. 1943. c. 1956. d. 1969. ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
15. Which of the following is true regarding the original MMPI? a. Its development included a nationwide comparison of several thousand nonclinical individuals and several thousand psychiatric patients. b. Its primary purpose was to diagnose personality disorders. c. It consisted of 550 true/false items. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
16. The Psychasthenia (Pt) scale on the MMPI is best characterized by which more popular contemporary term? a. depressed b. dissociative c. psychotic d. obsessive-compulsive ANS: D
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
17. The original MMPI included items that a. were deemed by experts in the field to be relevant to a particular scale. b. were answered differently by individuals who had particular diagnoses than by individuals with no diagnoses. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
18. The original MMPI was standardized on individuals who a. were exclusively white. b. were largely from small towns in Minnesota. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
19. A middle-aged male was admitted to the inpatient ward last night, and Dr. Harris had him complete the MMPI-2 this morning. If he follows current clinical practice, how is Dr. Harris most likely to use the MMPI-2 to arrive at a diagnosis? a. He will interpret the patient’s scores on individual clinical scales. b. He will interpret the patient’s pattern of scores across clinical scales. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
20. In which situation below would it be most appropriate to use the MMPI-2? a. Dr. Vilas has been hired by an automotive company to screen individuals applying for jobs with the company. b. Dr. Viviano is interested in assessing for generalized anxiety disorder in a large group of nursing home residents. c. Dr. Vinton is interested in the psychological functioning of individuals facing felony assault charges. d. Dr. Venka would like insight into the psychodynamic functioning of soldiers returning from their tours of duty. ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
21. The MMPI-2 was intended to improve the original MMPI's a. language, which had become sexist and outdated. b. standardization sample, which included too many highly educated and African-American individuals. c. scales, which were characterized by too much item overlap. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
22. Dr. Tagano is interested in seeing whether a recently admitted psychiatric inpatient was thoughtful and earnest in his completion of the MMPI-2. What scale scores would Dr. Tagano examine to make that determination? a. the clinical scales b. the supplementary scales c. the content scales d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
23. The purpose of the validity scales of the MMPI-2 is a. to detect malingering, response sets, or carelessness in test-taking. b. to provide a global measure of psychopathology across diagnostic categories. c. to measure the similarity between an examinee's test-taking attitude and his/her attitude during a previous administration. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
24. Joe is undergoing a psychological examination and is attempting to present himself in a favorable light. It is most likely that Joe's __________ scale on the MMPI-2 will be elevated. a. Mf b. F c. Pt or Sc d. L or K ANS: D
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
25. Lynn is undergoing a psychological examination and is attempting to exaggerate her problems and symptoms. It is most likely that Lynn's __________ scale on the MMPI-2 will be elevated. a. D b. Sc c. F d. L ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
26. The Family Problems (FAM) scale on the MMPI-2 is an example of a a. clinical scale. b. validity scale. c. VRIN scale. d. content scale. ANS: D
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
27. Some MMPI-2 experts have argued that new supplemental scales should be adopted only if they provide unique information about a person's behavior, personality, or psychopathology that is not conveyed by other measures. In other words, new supplemental scales should have good a. incremental validity. b. convergent validity. c. construct validity. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
28. Test bias refers to the situation in which a. an individual attempts to present himself/herself in the best possible light on a test such as the MMPI-2. b. a psychologist tends to administer a test such as the MMPI-2 to certain groups more often than to others. c. different decisions or predictions are made for members of two groups even when they obtain the same score on a test such as the MMPI-2. d. an individual prejudges all psychological tests as being invalid and therefore refuses to take them. ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
29. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a point of significant concern regarding the MMPI-2? a. the clarity of the item wording b. the internal consistency of the scales c. the amount of item overlap among scales d. the characteristics of the normative sample ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
30. Jason is taking a personality test. He comes to the item “I like large social gatherings,” which measures extraversion, and he rates his agreement on a 1-4 scale where 1 = strongly disagree and 4 = strongly agree. Which of the following would be a reverse-scored version of this item? a. “I like large social gatherings,” where -1 = strongly agree and -4 = strongly disagree b. “I like small social gatherings,” where 1 = strongly disagree and 4 = strongly agree c. “I dislike large social gatherings,” where 1 = strongly disagree and 4 = strongly agree d. “I dislike small social gatherings,” where 1= strongly disagree and 4 = strongly agree ANS: C
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Applied
31. The NEO-PI-R contains a. 240 true/false items. b. 240 dimensional items. c. 550 multiple choice items. d. 550 true/false items. ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
32. The domains measured by the NEO-PI-R include a. Neuroticism and Openness to Experience. b. Schizophrenia and Conscientiousness. c. Need for Achievement and Extraversion. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Factual
33. Jeremiah takes the NEO-PI-R and scores particularly high on the facets of Fantasy, Aesthetics, Feelings, and Ideas. Based on this information alone, it is likely that he will score a. relatively low on the domain of Neuroticism. b. relatively low on the domain of Conscientiousness. c. relatively high on the domain of Openness to Experience. d. relatively high on the domain of Extraversion. ANS: C REF: Objective Tests DIF: Applied 34. The NEO-PI-R was developed from a model of "normal" personality, but is increasingly being used with clinical populations. Specifically, its use in assessing __________ has been supported by preliminary research. a. dissociative disorders b. personality disorders c. specific phobias d. dysthymia ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
35. ALL BUT WHICH is a valid criticism of the NEO-PI-R? a. It contains very few validity items. b. It demonstrates poor test-retest reliability. c. It is unclear whether some facets really belong to their assigned domains. d. It is unclear yet whether the instrument is appropriate for treatment planning. ANS: B
REF: Objective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
36. The Rorschach consists of a. 10 ink blots, none of which contain color. b. 10 ink blots, half of which contain color. c. 31 ink blots, none of which contain color. d. 20 ink blots, half of which contain color. ANS: B
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Factual
37. What information, aside from information about content and determinants, is of interest to clinicians administering the Rorschach? a. examinees’ spontaneous remarks and exclamations during the test b. how long it takes examinees to produce their first response to each card c. the position of the card (e.g., rotated right) for each response d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Factual
38. Which of the following is an accurate statement about research on the reliability and validity of the Rorschach? a. Very few studies have evaluated the Rorschach empirically. b. There has been a substantial amount of research on the Rorschach, and this research has been overwhelmingly favorable. c. There has been a substantial amount of research on the Rorschach, and this research has been consistently negative. d. Research evaluating the Rorschach has been mixed and, at times, of questionable quality. ANS: D
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
39. Which of the following psychological assessment procedures requires examiners to note/record client’s verbatim responses? a. the Rorschach b. the TAT c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Factual
40. Compared to the Rorschach, the TAT a. is a purely objective personality test. b. contains fewer cards. c. is used to infer psychological needs. d. has been subject to more criticism. ANS: C
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
41. A clinical psychologist conducting a personality assessment instructs an examinee to "make up a story about each of these pictures." The test being administered is probably the a. Rorschach. b. NEO-PI-R. c. Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank. d. TAT. ANS: D
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Applied
42. Which of the following personality tests relies the least on formal, quantified scoring schemes? a. TAT b. Rorschach c. MMPI-2 d. NEO-PI-R ANS: A
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
43. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an advantage of the Incomplete Sentences Blank (ISB)? a. It is economical in terms of time and money. b. Administration is easy, and doesn’t require much training. c. Scoring is objective and reliable. d. The data it yields allows clinicians to make deep psychodynamic formulations. ANS: D
REF: Projective Tests
DIF: Conceptual
44. Dr. Klein believes that any patient who reports seeing lemurs on a Rorschach inkblot is necessarily psychotic, when perhaps things aren’t quite so simple. This is an apt illustration of a. the confirmation bias. b. illusory correlation. c. the availability heuristic. d. subjective validation. ANS: B
REF: Illusory Correlation
DIF: Applied
45. APA's ethical standards assert that psychologists employ only techniques or procedures that are a. objective. b. within their competence. c. cost-effective. d. widely accepted by professionals in the field. ANS: B
REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
DIF: Conceptual
46. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Psychologists should obtain informed consent for the entire assessment process. b. Psychologists should obtain informed consent for the entire assessment process from clients who are referred by others, but not from those who refer themselves. c. Psychologists should obtain informed consent for objective, but not projective, tests. d. Psychologists should obtain informed consent for projective, but not objective, tests. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
DIF: Conceptual
47. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is consistent with the goals of sound psychological assessment? a. The test used should match the purpose of the assessment. b. The test used should provide information beyond that of other, more economic, measures. c. The test used should be one that is familiar to the examinee. d. The test used should be one with which the examiner has adequate experience. ANS: C
REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
DIF: Conceptual
48. Rachael is a 14-year-old Latina who has been referred for a personality assessment. Theoretically, which of the following factors may impact the validity of her assessment results? a. The extent of her exposure to testing situations in the past. b. The racial/ethnic make-up of the individual conducting the assessment. c. The racial/ethnic breakdown of the standardization sample for the test. d. Any of the above may impact the validity of the results. ANS: D
REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
DIF: Applied
49. Computers are increasingly used to administer and interpret assessment procedures because they often a. cut costs. b. enhance clients' attention and motivation. c. standardize procedures across clinicians. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
DIF: Conceptual
50. Which of the following is true of computer-based test interpretations (CBTIs)? a. Surprisingly, these interpretations are just as subjective as interpretations generated by clinicians. b. They may be perceived as more reliable and valid than they in fact are. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.Summarize the content validation approach to objective test construction. ANS: Not provided. REF: Objective Tests 2.Outline the steps involved in the construct validation approach to objective test construction. How does this approach relate to the other approaches to test construction? ANS: Not provided. REF: Objective Tests 3.Outline three reasons why the MMPI was revised. Also, outline two common criticisms of the MMPI-2. ANS: Not provided. REF: Objective Tests 4.What is the purpose of the validity scales of the MMPI-2? Identify any two validity scales, and indicate what, specifically, they assess. ANS: Not provided. REF: Objective Tests 5.What is the nature of the controversy surrounding the use of the MMPI-2 in personnel settings? ANS: Not provided. REF: Objective Tests 6.Describe the Rorschach, and briefly summarize its administration and scoring procedures. How might one characterize its reliability and validity? ANS: Not provided. REF: Projective Tests 7.Describe the TAT, and briefly summarize its administration and scoring procedures. Identify two general guidelines for interpreting the TAT. ANS: Not provided. REF: Projective Tests 8.What must be true in order for a test to be considered “biased”? Is it possible for a test to be biased if it produces similar scores in different groups of people? Explain. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing 9.How are clients protected from abuses of personality tests, including privacy and confidentiality violations? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing 10. Explain in adequate detail at least three distinct drawbacks of Internet-mediated psychological assessment. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Use and Abuse of Testing
Chapter 9 Behavioral Assessment MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Evaluators with a behavioral orientation emphasize __________ when doing clinical assessments. a. underlying personality characteristics that mediate behavior b. the interaction of behaviors and situations c. projective techniques d. constellations of needs or motivations ANS: B
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Conceptual
2. Dr. Thomas is a behavioral clinical psychologist who is conducting an assessment of a child whose parents and teachers think he may be diagnosable with Oppositional Defiant Disorder. Dr. Thomas's focus during these assessments is probably on a. oppositionality and defiance as personality traits within the child. b. the underlying need for attention that may mediate the child’s disruptive behavior. c. the things the child does that are viewed by others as oppositional and defiant. d. the child’s unconscious wishes for discipline. ANS: C
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
MSC: WWW
3. Behavioral therapists and assessors see personality as a. a set of abilities. b. a group of traits. c. a constellation of needs. d. a system of drives. ANS: A
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Conceptual
4. Behavioral assessment, as compared to traditional assessment, a. views behaviors as signs of underlying personality traits. b. emphasizes enduring personality characteristics. c. values assessment tools that produce good samples of behavioral tendencies. d. utilizes assessment tools that are not “transparent.” ANS: C
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Conceptual
5. A client undergoing a psychological evaluation shouts insults at the evaluator. If the evaluator is behavioral, he/she is most likely to infer that a. one of the client's core personality characteristics is anger. b. this type of behavior probably happens in other similar situations. c. the insults are actually signs of self-loathing. d. the client is actually in need of affection, but has formed a defense mechanism against this need. ANS: B
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
6. Behavioral clinical psychologists assess behavior by identifying the events that precede and consequences that follow a behavior. In formal terms, we say that they __________ the behavior. a. functionally analyze b. factor analyze c. parse d. deconstruct ANS: A
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Conceptual
7. Which of the following is the thesis underlying functional analysis? a. Behaviors are learned and maintained because of consequences that follow them. b. Behaviors are largely a function of unconscious processes. c. Behaviors are a function of stable personality traits. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Conceptual
8. Phil is seeing a behavioral clinical psychologist for help with his drinking behavior. The clinician asks Phil what he hopes to accomplish in treatment, and Phil says that he wants to reduce his alcohol intake. Then the clinician asks Phil what would be the consequence of reducing his intake, and Phil says that it would improve his performance at work. Then the clinician asks Phil what would be the consequence of improving his work performance, and Phil says that he would earn more money. Then the clinician asks about the consequence of earning more money, and Phil says that there would be less strain on his marriage. Then the clinician asks about the consequence of less marital strain, and Phil says that he would be happier. What is the clinician trying to do in this intervention? a. define the ultimate outcome of the behavior change b. pinpoint the antecedent of the undesired behavior c. determine how committed the client is to treatment d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
9. An adult who is frequently late to work is being assessed by a behavioral assessor. The assessor is performing a functional analysis of the tardiness. This analysis is LEAST likely to include a. an examination of the days of the week that lateness is most common. b. an exploration of underlying feelings toward work that may cause the lateness. c. a review of the consequences of the tardiness. d. questions about the events of the evenings preceding tardy arrivals. ANS: B
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
10. In contrast to more traditional approaches to assessment, behavioral assessment a. views behavior as being consistent across time. b. relies more on methods like interviews and self-report. c. relies more on data to select, evaluate, and revise treatment. d. involves fewer assessments. ANS: C
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Conceptual
11.
__________ variables include physical, physiological, or cognitive characteristics of the individual that are important for both the conceptualization of the client's problem as well as the choice of treatment to administer. a. Inferential b. Organismic c. Stimulus d. Consequential ANS: B
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Factual
12. Many behavioral assessors use the SORC model for conceptualizing a clinical problem. According to this model, a. S stands for stimulus or antecedent conditions that precede the behavior. b. R stands for the response or behavior. c. C stands for the consequences of the behavior. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Factual
13. A behavioral assessor is using the SORC model to describe a client's problem. The client is phobic of dogs. Running inside after seeing a dog should be listed under a. S. b. O. c. R. d. C. ANS: C
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
14. A behavioral assessor is using the SORC model to describe a client's problem. The client is an obsessivecompulsive hand-washer. The obsessive thought, "my hands are dirty," should be listed under a. S. b. O. c. R. d. C. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
15. A behavioral assessor is using the SORC model to describe a client's problem. The client is a child who frequently throws tantrums in stores. The child's parent often gives in to the child's demands for new toys to end the tantrum. Getting a new toy should be listed under a. S. b. O. c. R. d. C. ANS: D
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Applied
16. Behavioral assessment takes place a. before treatment begins. b. before, during, and after treatment. c. after treatment. d. before and after treatment. ANS: B
REF: The Behavioral Tradition
DIF: Factual
17. Assessors who perform behavioral interviews a. are increasingly using structured diagnostic interviews. b. typically ask about past attempts to cope with the problem. c. usually inquire about people’s expectations for therapy. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Behavioral Interviews
DIF: Conceptual
18. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a disadvantage of naturalistic observation? a. Compared to other methods, naturalistic observation methods are relatively new and untested. b. Clinical psychologists are ethically bound to ensure that people are not observed without their knowledge c. It is expensive to maintain trained observers. d. It is not always practicable to observe individuals outside of institutional settings. ANS: A
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
19. Naturalistic observation has taken place in a. client's homes. b. schools. c. psychiatric hospitals. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
20. Controlled observation is sometimes referred to as a. systematic observation. b. analogue behavioral observation. c. functional analysis. d. behavioral assessment. ANS: B
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
21. The important feature of _________ is that the environment is "designed" such that it is likely that the assessor will observe the targeted behavior or interactions. a. controlled observation b. behavioral assessment c. time-sampling techniques d. role-playing techniques ANS: A
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
22. Alison has claustrophobia that interferes significantly with her daily life. When she presents for treatment, the behavioral clinician spends an early session placing her in various highly controlled situations involving different levels of enclosure (e.g., a small room, an elevator, a closet) and collects data on Alison’s behavior, her emotional responses, and physiological indices like electrodermal activity. What is the term for this type of assessment? a. naturalistic observation b. controlled performance technique c. ecological momentary assessment d. behavioral analysis ANS: B
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Applied
23. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of psychophysiological measures? a. They may assess activity of the central nervous system, the autonomic nervous system, or the skeletomotor system. b. They may assess processes that cannot be assessed directly through self-report measures. c. They are often more sensitive at assessing certain processes than other (e.g., behavioral) types of measures. d. The concepts of reliability and validity are not relevant to psychophysiological measures. ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
24. EMG, EDA, and EEG are most relevant to a. naturalistic observation. b. psychophysiological assessment. c. structured diagnostic interviews. d. self-monitoring techniques. ANS: B
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
25. An advantage of self-monitoring is that it a. is less expensive than observation by trained staff. b. can help clients translate vague, global complaints into specific behaviors to be changed. c. prevents clients from distorting their observations. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
26. The Dysfunctional Thought Record is an example of a __________ technique. a. controlled observation b. self-monitoring c. psychophysiological assessment d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
27. In order to increase the reliability of observation techniques, __________ behaviors should be observed. a. multiple b. complex c. lower-level d. higher-level ANS: C
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
28. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a good example of a “lower-level” behavior, in the context of behavioral observation? a. the number of times during class that a student behaves aggressively toward a classmate b. how many different classmates a student speaks to during a class period c. how many minutes of a class period a student spends out of his or her seat d. the number of times during class that a student raises his or her hand in response to a question from the teacher ANS: A
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Applied
29. Todd, Jamal, and Samuel are trained observers for a research project. Just after completing their training, their interrater reliability is very high. However, over time and without their awareness, their observations converge less and less closely. The term for this phenomenon is a. observer drift. b. fading agreement. c. rating separation. d. observer spread. ANS: A
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Applied
30. If a trained observer's ratings of the aggressive behavior of a child on the playground agree with the ratings made by the child's peers, then the __________ validity of those ratings is supported. a. construct b. content c. concurrent d. external ANS: C
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Applied
31. In the context of behavioral observation, ratings are usually made along ALL BUT WHICH of the following dimensions? a. duration b. intensity c. pleasantness d. frequency ANS: C
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
32. Which of the following is an appropriate example of a scoring procedure for a behavioral observation? a. Sally presses a counter every time a toddler looks in the direction of his or her mother during the clinic visit. b. Annika presses a button on her handheld computer every time, during the work day, that she becomes aware of a craving for a cigarette. c. Tomás makes a hatch mark on a piece of paper every time one spouse interrupts the other during a recorded conversation. d. All of the above are appropriate scoring procedures. ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Applied
33. Which of the following is a threat to the validity of an observational technique? a. poorly defined unit of analysis b. reactivity c. observer error d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
34. A child's parents and teachers report that he impulsively interrupts others dozens of times each day, and that he cannot remain quiet when told to do so. When he notices a behavioral assessor visiting his classroom, however, the child doesn't say a word. This phenomenon is best described as a. poor construct validity. b. reactivity. c. observer error. d. controlled observation. ANS: B
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Applied
MSC: WWW
35. Reliability and validity of observation techniques can be improved by ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. training observers. b. defining behaviors objectively. c. allowing observers to define the unit of analysis. d. developing a specific scoring system. ANS: C
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
36. In the context of behavioral assessment, handheld computers may be used in which of the following ways? a. Assessors may use them to code observational data. b. They may be assigned to clients and programmed to prompt these clients for ratings at particular times throughout the day. c. The data from these devices may be uploaded to other computers for complex analyses. d. any of the above ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
37. Aside from handheld computers, what other technology may be used to gather data from individuals in their natural environments? a. GPS devices b. biosensors c. audio recorders d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
38. In __________, research participants carry electronic diaries, which may beep at random times throughout the day while they’re in their natural environments. a. role-playing methods b. controlled observation methods c. ecological momentary assessment methods d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
39. Which of the following is an accurate statement about ecological momentary assessment (EMA)? a. It’s a research tool with a long history in behavioral assessment. b. It allows the researcher to tell whether electronic diary entries have been “backfilled.” c. One drawback is that it cannot be used to sample the characteristics of people’s environments. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Conceptual
40. According to a study of daily pain experiences by Stone, Shiffman, Schwartz, Broderick, and Hufford (2002), a. participants being assessed with paper-and-pencil diaries reported that they responded in a very timely manner. b. the responses of participants being assessed with paper-and-pencil diaries were just as timely as those being assessed with computer diaries. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Observation Methods
DIF: Factual
41. Behavioral assessors use role-playing techniques to a. build rapport with clients. b. allow clients to express underlying emotional issues. c. sample clients' behavioral skills and deficits. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Role-Playing Methods
DIF: Conceptual
42. Rory has problems with assertiveness. In an early meeting with a behavioral clinician, the clinician tells Rory to imagine that he’s out with a friend, and the friend has decided they should eat at a restaurant that Rory dislikes. The clinician asks Rory to respond to him as if he’s the friend. This type of behavioral assessment is called a. role-playing. b. functional analysis. c. controlled observation. d. cognitive-behavioral assessment. ANS: A
REF: Role-Playing Methods
DIF: Applied
43. Which of the following is true of inventories and checklists? a. Behavioral clinicians do not use these kinds of self-report techniques for assessment. b. Behavioral clinicians may have people complete checklists, but not inventories. c. Behavioral clinicians make use of a wide range of inventories and checklists in their work. d. Behavior clinicians use inventories and checklists, but only when observers are supplying the ratings. ANS: C
REF: Inventories and Checklists
DIF: Conceptual
44. The Beck Depression Inventory is an example of a __________ technique. a. self-monitoring b. self-report c. naturalistic observation d. controlled observation ANS: B
REF: Inventories and Checklists
DIF: Factual
45. The role of cognition in behavioral assessment a. has been decreasing since the mid-1970s. b. is highly criticized by Meichenbaum. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
46. Dr. Witwicky believes that people’s self-statements play an important role in what they do (or do NOT do) in a situation. Knowing only this, we would guess that she adheres to the __________ approach. a. cognitive-behavioral b. self-affirmation c. rational cognitive d. functional. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment
DIF: Applied
47. Which of the following is NOT a procedure used to assess cognitive functioning in the context of behavioral assessment? a. having clients “think aloud” (say whatever is on their minds) in response to problems they are presented with b. having clients list their thoughts in response to various stressful situations c. having clients fill out rating scales of adaptive and maladaptive cognitions d. All of the above are accepted procedures. ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
48. Which of the following is NOT a cognitive-behavioral assessment technique? a. Attributional Style Questionnaire b. Assertiveness Self-Statement Test c. Time Sample Behavioral Checklist d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment
DIF: Factual
49. In the past, most behavioral assessors __________, but currently they __________. a. emphasized the importance of base rates; rarely measure base rates b. believed mental disorder diagnoses were essential; view diagnoses as optional c. incorporated cognitions into their assessments on a regular basis; do so far less often d. saw mental disorder diagnoses as useless; concede that diagnoses may be useful ANS: D
REF: Strengths and Weaknesses of BA
DIF: Conceptual
50. Organismic variables, according to contemporary behavioral assessors, may include a. cognitions and expectations. b. physiological variables. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Strengths and Weaknesses of BA
DIF: Factual
ESSAY 1.Describe three distinct ways in which behavioral assessment differs from traditional assessment. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Behavioral Tradition 2.What is functional analysis, and why is it essential to behavioral assessment? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Behavioral Tradition 3.Explain what is meant by calling the behavioral model of treatment “iterative.” Describe briefly the stages of this model. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Behavioral Tradition 4.What are the advantages and disadvantages of naturalistic observation? ANS: Not provided. REF: Observation Methods 5.What are the advantages and disadvantages of controlled observation? ANS: Not provided. REF: Observation Methods
6. Describe two distinct types of observer error, and provide an example of each. ANS: Not provided. REF: Observation Methods 7. What are three advantages of having clients complete behavioral logs or diaries? Two disadvantages? ANS: Not provided. REF: Observation Methods 8. Describe three distinct ways one might increase the reliability and validity of observational techniques. ANS: Not provided. REF: Observation Methods 9. Describe three distinct ways that a cognitive-behavioral assessment may be conducted. ANS: Not provided. REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment 10. How have the opinions of behavioral assessors toward psychiatric diagnosis changed over the years? Identify at least three factors that may account for this change. ANS: Not provided. REF: Strengths and Weaknesses of Behavioral Assessment
Chapter 10 Clinical Judgment MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Clinical interpretation may be influenced by ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. the patient’s gestures b. the patient’s test scores c. the clinician’s theoretical orientation d. All of the above may influence clinical interpretation. ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
2. When psychologists make clinical judgments or interpretations, they may view patient data as a. samples of behavior outside the psychologists' office. b. correlates of other behaviors or emotions. c. signs of an underlying state or condition. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
3. The psychometric approach to clinical judgment and interpretation best characterizes __________ clinicians. a. behavioral b. empirical/objective c. psychodynamic d. humanistic ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
4. In general, empirical/objective clinicians regard patient data as a. correlates. b. projective. c. samples. d. signs. ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
5. A clinical psychologist interprets a client's phobic behavior as a sample of that client's typical behavior. This clinical psychologist is most likely a. psychodynamic. b. a group therapist. c. behavioral. d. humanistic. ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
6. A clinical psychologist interprets a client's phobic behavior as a sign of underlying pathology in the client. This clinical psychologist is most likely a. psychodynamic. b. behavioral. c. a Ph.D. rather than a Psy.D. d. cognitive-behavioral. ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
7. A clinician who is more comfortable making predictions mechanically, based upon correlations between variables, rather than intuitively, based upon clinical impressions, exhibits a __________ approach to clinical judgment. a. quantitative b. qualitative c. subjective d. clinical ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
8. Dr. Humboldt adheres to the quantitative, statistical approach to clinical judgment and interpretation. Furthermore, he knows that there is a strong association between childhood sexual abuse and borderline personality disorder. Which of the following is a safe assumption for Dr. Humboldt to make? a. If Patient A reports a history of sexual abuse during childhood, then he or she is guaranteed to have borderline personality disorder. b. If Patient A reports a history of sexual abuse during childhood, then there is a 75% chance that he or she has borderline personality disorder. c. If Patient A reports a history of sexual abuse during childhood, then there is an increased probability that he or she has borderline personality disorder, relative to patients without that history. d. If Patient A reports a history of sexual abuse during childhood, then he or she is more likely than not to have borderline personality disorder. ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
9. Clinicians who approach patient data statistically and predict patient behavior according to correlations between objective variables should be aware of the fact that significant correlations may not apply to patients a. with different comorbid diagnoses. b. living in different communities. c. of different cultures or subcultures. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
10. A clinician who uses the clinical approach to clinical judgment is likely to base his/her judgments on a. actuarial data. b. intuition. c. empirical literature. d. computer-generated predictions. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
11. A clinician makes a clinical judgment based on his/her experience. He/she cannot identify specifically what the patient did or said to lead to this judgment. This clinician is utilizing the __________ approach to clinical judgment. a. actuarial b. mechanical c. clinical d. statistical ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
12. Which of the following is true of the clinical approach to judgment and interpretation? a. The clinician functions like an actuary, adjusting the likelihood of various outcomes up and down based on objective factors. b. The clinician attends to only the most important aspects of the patient’s circumstances (e.g., level of education, history of trauma) in arriving at a judgment. c. The clinician often assumes a certain similarity between the patient and him- or herself in interpreting the patient’s behaviors. d. The clinician is as likely to recall his or her misinterpretations as his or her valid predictions. ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
13. The statistical approach to clinical judgment is best used when a. the percentage of correct predictions is more important than the correct prediction of the performance of any one individual. b. the outcome to be predicted is not very specific. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
14. “Barnum” statements a. are overly positive in tone. b. exaggerate people’s characteristics, similar to fun-house mirrors. c. are so general as to be true of almost everyone. d. are more negative or pessimistic than warranted. ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
15. A clinician uses interview data to make the clinical judgment that a client "is competent in many areas, but in other areas her performance may be hindered by a lack of confidence." Although the client may acknowledge the accuracy of this statement, its lack of specificity suggests that it exemplifies a. the Stroop effect. b. the Barnum effect. c. stereotyped beliefs. d. illusory correlation. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
16. There is a widely held belief that adult children of alcoholics (ACOAs) possess certain personality characteristics. A study to determine whether the acceptance of such descriptors is due, at least in part, to the Barnum effect showed that a. typical descriptors of ACOAs appear to discriminate this group of individuals from people who are not ACOAs. b. typical descriptors of ACOAs do not appear to discriminate this group of individuals from people who are not ACOAs. c. the usual descriptors of ACOAs do appear to possess a Barnum-like quality. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
17. The statistical approach to clinical judgment relies on ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. inductive and deductive reasoning b. explicit norms c. specific predictors d. regression equations ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
18. Some clinical psychologists resist the statistical approach because, in their opinion, a. it is based on short-term prediction. b. it is inferior to the judgment of experts in the field. c. it dehumanizes clients. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
19. According to Meehl (1957), what is one of the biggest roadblocks to adopting the statistical approach to judgment and interpretation? a. Clinicians are generally not very adept at statistical analysis. b. Most decisions required of clinicians are too complex to be addressed though statistical means. c. There are currently too few well-validated formulas available to assist, in a meaningful way, with clinical interpretation and prediction. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
20. In which situation below is a clinical approach to judgment and interpretation most likely to be helpful? a. A clinician is helping a technical training program identify the individuals, from a diverse application pool, that are likely to succeed in the program. b. A clinician is helping a security company choose the best job candidate from a homogenous group of highly selective applicants. c. A clinician has been contacted by a public school district to determine which children make the first cut for a free after-school tutoring program. d. The clinical approach to judgment will be equally helpful (or unhelpful) across all of the situations described. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
21. Given what we know about the clinical approach to judgment and interpretation, clinicians are LEAST likely to excel at a. integrating large amounts of information in their heads to arrive at a sound judgment. b. deciding what clinical information may have a bearing on a particular judgment. c. gathering data from clients that is likely to be useful for purposes of prediction. d. helping discriminate among individuals after initial screenings have been completed. ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
22. In the last few decades, a variety of reviews of studies comparing clinical and statistical prediction have a. demonstrated the superiority of statistical prediction. b. demonstrated the superiority of clinical prediction. c. suggested that the two are roughly equivalent. d. suggested that neither of the two should be used in isolation. ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
23. Goldberg's (1965) study, in which the accuracy of clinical judgments by Ph.D.-level and predoctoral clinicians was compared to those based on statistical indices, concluded that a. doctoral-level clinicians were significantly superior to predoctoral clinicians. b. clinicians in general were significantly superior to statistical indices. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
24. In a comprehensive review of studies comparing clinical and statistical prediction, Grove et al. (2000) reported that a. statistical prediction was superior in about 50% of the studies. b. statistical prediction was superior in none of the studies. c. statistical and clinical prediction were roughly equal in almost all of the studies. d. clinical prediction was superior in about 25% of the studies. ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
25. In a comprehensive review of studies comparing clinical and statistical prediction, Grove et al. (2000) reported that a. statistical prediction was superior to clinical prediction only when the judges were psychologists. b. statistical prediction was superior to clinical prediction only when the judges were physicians. c. statistical prediction was superior to clinical prediction only when the prediction did not involve psychotherapy outcome. d. statistical prediction was superior to clinical prediction across a wide variety of conditions. ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
26. In a 1954 paper summarizing studies that had compared clinical and statistical prediction, Meehl observed that statistical predictions often were made on the same data from which the regression equations were developed. In other words, the efficiency of the formulas __________ because they __________, a. was overestimated; were not cross-validated. b. was overestimated; did not fit the data. c. was underestimated; were not cross-validated. d. was underestimated; did not fit the data. ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
27. Compared to clinical prediction, statistical prediction typically a. is more expensive. b. places greater demands on personnel. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
28. Among the following, the name most closely associated with support for the statistical or actuarial approach to prediction is a. Murray. b. Meehl. c. Exner. d. Millon. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
29. According to the text, clinical psychologists do not appear to be particularly good at predicting future behavior. For instance, many studies show that violence is often overpredicted for both __________ and __________. a. men; convicted felons b. men; African Americans c. African Americans; convicted felons d. men; adolescents ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
30. Those who refute the finding that statistical judgment is better than clinical judgment argue that a. some individuals (the most "expert" clinicians) are in fact as good as statistical formulas. b. the tasks utilized in clinical prediction studies are not representative of the prediction situations facing clinicians. c. many of the clinical prediction studies reviewed have significant design flaws. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
31. Dr. Krupp, a clinical psychologist, has a strong need for order, and believes that he world is a predictable place. Knowing only this and Dawes’s (1994) theorizing, how would you guess she regards the different approaches to clinical judgment and interpretation? a. Dr. Krupp is likely to adhere to the clinical approach to judgment and interpretation. b. Dr. Krupp is not likely to adhere to the clinical approach to judgment and interpretation. c. Dr. Krupp is likely to adhere to the statistical approach to judgment and interpretation. d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
32. Which of the following illustrates bias in clinical judgment? a. Women and men endorse different combinations of depressive symptoms. b. A higher percentage of women than men are diagnosed with major depression. c. A higher percentage of women than men are diagnosed with major depression even when both exhibit precisely the same symptoms. d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Applied
33. According to a review of the empirical evidence for bias in clinical judgment (Garb, 1997), a. lower socioeconomic status patients are judged to be more seriously disturbed than those of higher socioeconomic status. b. middle class patients are more likely to be referred for psychotherapy than lower-class patients. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
34. According to a review of the empirical evidence for bias in clinical judgment (Garb, 1997), a. Black and Hispanic patients who have psychotic mood disorders are more likely to be misdiagnosed with schizophrenia than are similar White patients. b. Black patients are less likely to be prescribed anti-psychotic medications than other racial groups, even when the Black patients are more psychotic. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
35. According to a review of the empirical evidence for bias in clinical judgment (Garb, 1997), a. women patients are judged to be more dysfunctional than men patients. b. even when presenting the same constellation of symptoms, men are more likely to be diagnosed as antisocial and women are more likely to be diagnosed as histrionic. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
36. Garb (1997) reviewed the empirical evidence for social class bias, race bias, and gender bias in clinical judgment. Based on this review, the author recommended that clinicians should a. use statistical prediction rules instead of clinical prediction or judgment whenever possible. b. accept only clients who are similar to the therapist in terms of race, social class, and gender to the extent possible. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
37. A recent, large-scale meta-analysis of clinical judgment studies (Spengler et al., 2009) suggests that higher levels of clinical experience a. are associated with greatly improved prediction. b. are associated with slightly improved prediction. c. have no impact on prediction quality. d. are negatively associated with prediction quality. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
38. Research has shown that clinical experience increases only slightly the accuracy of one’s clinical predictions. ALL BUT WHICH of the following did the textbook offer as an explanation for this finding? a. The measures upon which mental health professionals base their predictions do not have high validity, so they are no more valid in experienced hands than in inexperienced ones. b. Once clinicians obtain job security, any enhanced accuracy from their experience is canceled out by a corresponding decrease in effort. c. Clinicians often receive no feedback about their predictions, so they cannot learn from their experience. d. Clinicians are biased toward remembering their accurate predictions and forgetting their inaccurate ones. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
39. Research investigating the validity of judgments about mental health diagnoses has found that a. medical practitioners are more accurate than nonmedical practitioners. b. there is no difference in the accuracy of medical and nonmedical practitioners. c. nonmedical practitioners are slightly more accurate than medical practitioners. d. nonmedical practitioners are much more accurate than medical practitioners. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Factual
40. The clinical approach to clinical judgment is especially valuable in all of the following cases EXCEPT a. when information is needed about areas for which no adequate assessments are available. b. when the task involves predicting outcomes for large, heterogeneous samples, and interest in individual cases is minimal. c. when the clinical judgment involves predictions for which no statistical equations have been developed. d. when the clinical judgment involves the prediction of rare, unusual events of a highly individualized nature. ANS: B
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
41. The statistical approach to clinical judgment is especially valuable when
MSC: WWW
a. b. c. d.
the outcome to be predicted is objective and specific. there is reason to be particularly concerned about human judgmental error or bias. both of the above neither of the above
ANS: C
REF: Process and Accuracy
DIF: Conceptual
42. Clinical judgment and interpretation can be improved by a. resisting the temptation to oversimplify inherently complex patients. b. recording and evaluating the validity of predictions. c. using structured rating scales and objective tests. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Conceptual
43. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement about prediction? a. Clinicians are often asked to make specific predictions about client behavior. b. It is usually possible to make valid, specific predictions on the basis of diagnostic and general background information. c. Sometimes predictions may appear invalid because people change their behavior in response to them. d. All of the above are accurate statements about prediction. ANS: B
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Conceptual
44. Dr. Dougherty is a clinical psychologist. If he is like many other clinical psychologists when making clinical judgments, Dr. Dougherty will a. often err by interpreting benign cues as indicative of psychopathology. b. often err by failing to take a person’s strengths into account. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Applied
45. Intuitive predictions of patient behavior often a. ignore base rates. b. fail to consider regression effects. c. assume that highly correlated predictors will yield higher validity. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Conceptual
46. Which of the following is true according to Golden's (1964) research regarding clinicians' predictions? a. When clinicians make predictions based on three personality tests rather than one, the clinicians tend to be more confident. b. When clinicians make predictions based on three personality tests rather than one, the predictions tend to be more valid. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Conceptual
47. Which of the following interpretive fallacies, as described by Meehl (1977), is best illustrated by the clinician who deems a patient non-pathological when in fact the patient demonstrates the same pathology as the clinician? a. sick-sick fallacy b. multiple Napoleons fallacy c. me-too fallacy d. understanding it makes it normal fallacy ANS: C
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Applied
48. Which of the following interpretive fallacies, as described by Meehl (1977), is best illustrated by the clinician who argues that a patient's psychotic delusions are real to him/her, and therefore nonpathological? a. Uncle George's pancakes fallacy b. sick-sick fallacy c. multiple Napoleons fallacy d. me-too fallacy ANS: C
REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation
DIF: Applied
49. Dr. Doyle is meeting a client for an assessment. While testing the client and gathering data about her history, a number of contradictions arise—contradictions that Dr. Doyle is unable to resolve. When it comes time to write his report, what should Dr. Doyle do? a. He shouldn’t bother noting the presence of contradictions at all, so as not to confuse the reader. b. He should mention the contradictions briefly, but play down their importance. c. He should describe the contradictions in adequate detail for the reader. d. How he handles this situation will depend upon the specific referral source. ANS: C
REF: Communication: The Clinical Report
DIF: Applied
50. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is good advice when it comes to report writing? a. Make sure the report addresses the referral question(s). b. Include information that is detailed and specific to the client. c. Write more than one version of the report in certain special situations. d. All of the above is good advice. ANS: D
REF: Communication: The Clinical Report
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the quantitative, statistical approach to clinical judgment and interpretation? When is it especially valuable? ANS: Not provided. REF: Process and Accuracy 2.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the subjective, clinical approach to clinical judgment and interpretation? When is it especially valuable? ANS: Not provided. REF: Process and Accuracy
3.Summarize the results of empirical research comparing clinical and actuarial approaches to clinical judgment and prediction. ANS: Not provided. REF: Process and Accuracy 4.Describe a position that integrates the clinical and actuarial approaches to clinical judgment and interpretation. What role(s) does the clinician play in such an approach? ANS: Not provided. REF: Process and Accuracy 5.Explain how stereotyped beliefs may affect one’s clinical judgment, providing one example. What are three ways that clinical psychologists may try to combat the effects of bias on their clinical judgments? ANS: Not provided. REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation 6.What is the relationship between clinical experience and the accuracy of clinical predictions? Explain. ANS: Not provided. REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation 7. In what ways might clinical judgment and interpretation be improved? ANS: Not provided. REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation 8.Summarize Dr. Paul Meehl’s primary complains in his paper, “Why I Do Not Attend Case Conferences.” You need not use the terms he used, as long as you accurately convey the concepts. ANS: Not provided. REF: Improving Judgment and Interpretation 9.What is the purpose of the clinical report? How should reports be written to best achieve this purpose? ANS: Not provided. REF: Communication: The Clinical Report 10.
10. How are clinical reports typically organized? What major sections should be included in most types of reports? ANS: Not provided. REF: Communication: The Clinical Report
Chapter 11 Psychological Interventions MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true regarding the overall efficacy of psychotherapy? a. Empirical evidence does not support the overall efficacy of psychotherapy. b. Empirical evidence supports the overall efficacy of psychotherapy. c. The overall efficacy of psychotherapy has not been empirically tested. d. Although psychotherapy is efficacious for some, it is not efficacious for the majority of clients. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Does Psychotherapy Help?
DIF: Conceptual
2. Dr. Hennepin is conducting a study on a new psychotherapy for depression. The depressed clients in his study are diverse, ranging greatly both in the presence of comorbid diagnoses and the severity of their depression; the therapists also are diverse, with different types of mental health training (clinical psychology, social work) and different levels of experience. Dr. Hennepin’s study has a high degree of external validity. What term is used for studies of this nature? a. a psychotherapy efficacy study b. a psychotherapy effectiveness study c. an analog treatment study d. a double-blind placebo trial ANS: B
REF: Does Psychotherapy Help?
DIF: Applied
3. Dr. Pettigrew is conducting a study on a new psychotherapy for depression through the outpatient psychological services clinic at his university. The depressed patients in his study are all moderately depressed, and the therapists are clinical psychology interns and post-doctoral fellows who have received extensive training in the new technique. The clients, who are being paid to take part, are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group. Overall, the study has been designed to maximize internal validity. What term is used for studies of this nature? a. a psychotherapy efficacy study b. a psychotherapy effectiveness study c. a quasi-experimental treatment study d. an analog treatment study ANS: A
REF: Does Psychotherapy Help?
DIF: Applied
4. The 1995 Consumer Reports study on the benefits of psychotherapy a. measured the efficacy rather than the effectiveness of psychotherapy. b. focused exclusively on treatment for alcohol and drug problems. c. suggested that psychiatrists, psychologists, and social workers were equally effective. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Does Psychotherapy Help?
DIF: Conceptual
5. The 1995 Consumer Reports study on the benefits of psychotherapy found that a. psychotherapy resulted in improvement for about one-third of respondents. b. longer treatment was related to greater improvement. c. respondents who received psychotherapy plus medication improved more than those who received psychotherapy alone. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Does Psychotherapy Help?
DIF: Conceptual
6. Which of the following terms is currently used to describe interventions or techniques that have produced significant change in clients and patients in controlled trials? a. empirically validated treatment (EVT) b. empirically supported treatment (EST) c. evidence-based practice (EBP) d. evidence-based treatment (EBT) ANS: D
REF: Evidence-Based Treatments....
DIF: Factual
7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are categories used to describe the usefulness of a therapeutic approach for reducing mental health symptoms? a. well-established b. certainly efficacious c. probably efficacious d. experimental ANS: B
REF: Evidence-Based Treatments....
DIF: Factual
8. A few studies have found that Treatment A for anxiety, a manualized treatment, is not only superior to a placebo treatment, but produces outcomes at least as good as an existing well-regarded, widely used treatment for anxiety. These studies have been conducted by different investigators, and the client samples have been specified clearly. On the basis of this information, we would describe Treatment A as a. well-established. b. probably efficacious. c. possibly efficacious. d. empirically verified. ANS: A
REF: Evidence-Based Treatments....
DIF: Applied
9. Two separate research groups have conducted studies investigating Treatment B for anxiety, and each has found that the treatment group experienced more improvement than a waitlist control group. On the basis of this information alone, we would describe Treatment B as a. experimental. b. possibly efficacious. c. probably efficacious. d. certainly efficacious. ANS: C
REF: Evidence-Based Treatments....
DIF: Applied
10. A 2006 meta-analysis by Weisz, Jensen-Doss, and Hawley (2006) on the effects of psychotherapy administered to youth of various backgrounds, symptom types, and symptom severity, found that a. evidence-based treatment produced better outcomes both at the end of treatment and also at follow-up. b. evidence-based treatment produced better outcomes at the end of treatment, but not at follow-up. c. evidence-based treatment produced outcomes similar to treatment as usual at the end of treatment, but better outcomes at follow-up. d. evidence-based treatment produced outcomes similar to treatment as usual both at the end of treatment and also at follow-up. ANS: A
REF: Evidence-Based Treatments....
DIF: Factual
11. Although their opinions may differ somewhat, most psychotherapy researchers believe that common factors __________ therapeutic change. a. are responsible for the majority of b. play at least a major role in c. play only a minor role in d. play no role in ANS: B
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Conceptual
12. Lambert and Ogles’s (2004) conceptualization of common factors in psychotherapy suggests that __________ factors lay the groundwork for any subsequent changes. a. biological b. action c. learning d. support ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Conceptual
13. In Lambert and Ogles's (2004) conceptualization of common factors in psychotherapy, risk taking and mastery are a. excluded. b. considered support factors. c. considered learning factors. d. considered action factors. ANS: D
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Conceptual
14. Which of the following is NOT among the common factors of psychotherapy effectiveness? a. the expert role of the therapist b. contingency management c. the therapeutic alliance d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Factual
15. Gabrielle and her therapist are currently working to improve Gabrielle’s social skills and correct her faulty ways of thinking. Which common factor of therapy is highlighted here? a. the therapeutic alliance b. the achievement of insight c. the release of emotions d. the building of competence/mastery ANS: D
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Applied
16. Cal just started psychotherapy two weeks ago, and he has noticed increased hope and positive expectations as a result. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement about such expectations? a. They fall under the category of nonspecific therapy factors. b. They likely increase the effectiveness of specific therapy interventions. c. They likely account for the bulk of therapeutic effectiveness. d. They are similar in function to a placebo. ANS: C
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Applied
17. Across the majority of approaches, successful psychotherapy tends to be associated with a. hope/positive expectations in the client. b. a strong therapeutic alliance. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Features Common to Many Therapies
DIF: Conceptual
18. Many clinicians believe that older clients have a __________ prognosis than younger clients, and the research support for this idea is __________. a. poorer; strong b. poorer; weak c. better; strong d. better; weak ANS: B
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Factual
19. Research on client motivation and psychotherapy outcome a. shows mixed support for the necessity of high levels of client motivation. b. has had difficulty adequately defining and measuring client motivation. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
20. According to the conventional wisdom about various patient variables, which individual is most likely to benefit from psychotherapy? a. Bobby, who was referred to treatment by the courts after two separate instances of “road rage” b. Antonio, whose wife begged him to seek help after he’d spent the last two weeks unable to pull himself out of bed c. Ethan, who is trying to show that he is a “fit” parent in anticipation of an upcoming custody hearing d. Kirin, who wants to make sure that her “head is on straight” before she starts a rigorous graduate program ANS: D
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Applied
21. Most therapists view openness to the therapeutic process as a. a positive indication for outcome. b. a mild form of psychopathology. c. a symptom of Dependent Personality Disorder. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
22. John is a man receiving psychotherapy; Jane is a woman receiving psychotherapy. Based on the average psychotherapy outcomes of men and women, a. we predict that John will experience a better outcome. b. we predict that Jane will experience a better outcome. c. we predict that both will experience excellent outcomes. d. we cannot predict who will experience a better outcome. ANS: D
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Applied
23. Two decades of research on therapeutic outcome for members of ethnic minority groups have a. shown conclusively that members of ethnic minority groups tend to have much poorer outcomes. b. shown conclusively that members of ethnic minority groups tend to have slightly poorer outcomes. c. shown conclusively that members of ethnic minority groups tend to have better outcomes. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
24. Which of the following is true according to empirical research? a. There is a positive relationship between social class of the client and therapy outcome. b. There is a negative relationship between social class of the client and therapy outcome. c. There is virtually no relationship between social class of the client and therapy outcome. d. The relationship between social class of the client and therapy outcome has not yet been empirically studied. ANS: C
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
25. What is the term for the degree to which one integrates new cultural patterns into one’s original cultural patterns? a. cultural sensitivity b. acculturation c. accommodation d. cultural identification ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Factual
26. Dr. Haislip, a clinical psychologist, has just started seeing a client of a different cultural background than himself. Which of the following is good advice for Dr. Haislip? a. He should not assess the person’s level of acculturation. b. He should not view unfamiliar behaviors as pathological. c. He should collect massive amounts of data early in the treatment. d. all of the above ANS: B
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Applied
27. Which of the following variables is associated with better psychotherapy outcome? a. the degree to which the therapist likes or relates to the patient b. the attractiveness of the patient c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
28. In comprehensive reviews, Beutler et al. (1994, 2004) concluded that a. older therapists tend to produce better therapy outcomes than younger therapists. b. female therapists tend to produce better therapy outcomes than male therapists. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
29. Dr. Chen, who is Asian American, is about to begin meeting with a young Latino man to administer behavior therapy for anxiety. Dr. Chen is concerned that their ethnic/racial differences will impede the progress of therapy. Being acquainted with the research on this issue, what would you tell him? a. He’s right; when the therapist and client are not matched with regard to ethnic background, it tends to have a negative effect on the therapeutic outcome. b. He’s wrong; although counterintuitive, when the therapist and client are not matched with regard to ethnic background, it tends to have a positive effect on the therapeutic outcome. c. He’s wrong; although counterintuitive, when the therapist and client are not matched with regard to ethnic background, it tends to have a positive effect on the therapeutic outcome, but only when the therapist makes an effort to be culturally sensitive. d. It is uncertain; the research conducted to date on the effect of therapist/client ethnic matching on therapeutic outcome is equivocal. ANS: D
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Applied
30. Rogers (1957) stated that empathy, warmth, and genuineness were __________ for therapeutic change. a. necessary and sufficient b. neither necessary nor sufficient c. necessary but not sufficient d. sufficient but not necessary ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
31. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is consistent with current thinking about the therapist qualities of empathy, warmth, and genuineness identified by Rogers (1957)? a. They are necessary, but not sufficient, for successful therapy. b. They are considered untrainable skills. c. They are believed to reflect the quality of the therapeutic alliance. d. All of the above are consistent with current thinking on this matter. ANS: B
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
32. Dr. Tierney is a clinical psychologist who has undergone personal psychotherapy in the past. Dr. Kellner, also a clinical psychologist, has never before received psychotherapy. Which individual is likely to be the more effective therapy provider? a. Dr. Tierney b. Dr. Kellner c. It’s hard to say; research on this topic has been mixed. d. It’s impossible to say; virtually no research has been devoted to this topic. ANS: C
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Applied
33. Which of the following is true? a. Several studies suggest that paraprofessionals produce therapy outcomes equivalent to, or at times exceeding, those produced by trained psychotherapists. b. Most of the research evidence on the topic supports the position that the more experience a psychotherapist has, the better therapy outcome he/she will produce. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
34. Which of the following is true? a. In the 1995 Consumer Reports study, people who saw a mental health professional reported higher satisfaction with their treatment than people who saw a family physician. b. Research evidence has generally found that psychiatrists and clinical psychologists produce better psychotherapy outcomes than social workers. c. Research evidence has generally found that clinical psychologists produce better psychotherapy outcomes than psychiatrists. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables
DIF: Conceptual
35. According to the informed consent form featured in the textbook (Handelsman & Galvin, 1988), which of the following questions does a client have the right to ask the therapist? a. How does your kind of therapy work? b. What other types of therapy or help are there? c. How can I reach you in an emergency? d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Course of Clinical Intervention
DIF: Conceptual
36. The text talks about therapists and clients entering into a treatment “contract” after completion of the initial assessment. What is an accurate statement about such contracts? a. They usually specify the length and goals of therapy. b. They usually specify the client’s responsibilities while in treatment. c. They may be modified as needed over time. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Course of Clinical Intervention
DIF: Conceptual
37. Dr. Wicker is winding up treatment with a patient who initially presented for therapy with significant depressive and anxious symptoms. ALL BUT WHICH of the following interventions would be appropriate at this stage of treatment? a. Dr. Wicker and her client should discuss and address the client’s feelings about termination. b. Dr. Wicker and her client should evaluate the client’s progress within the current treatment. c. Dr. Wicker and her client should discuss the possibility of the client returning for additional sessions in the future, if necessary. d. All of the above would be appropriate at this stage of treatment. ANS: D
REF: Course of Clinical Intervention
DIF: Applied
38. Which of the following is NOT among the stages in the “Stages of Change” model proposed by Prochaska and Norcross (2002)? a. intention b. preparation c. action d. termination ANS: A
REF: Stages of Change
DIF: Factual
39. According to Prochaska and Norcross's (2002) work on stages of change in psychotherapy, clients in the _______ stage have no intention of changing their behavior in the near future, and were probably pressured to enter therapy by others (e.g., the courts, family members, etc.). a. termination b. preparation c. precontemplation d. maintenance ANS: C
REF: Stages of Change
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
40. Maya is aware that her intense social anxiety is interfering with her goal of furthering her education, but at this point she is not ready to commit to addressing the issue. Maya is at what stage of the “Stages of Change” model proposed by Prochaska and Norcross (2002)? a. precontemplation b. contemplation c. preparation d. ambivalent ANS: B
REF: Stages of Change
DIF: Applied
41. In __________, a report written by __________ had a powerful impact on the psychotherapy establishment by suggesting that psychotherapy with neurotic clients was no more effective than no therapy at all. a. 1982; Eysenck b. 1952; Eysenck c. 1956; Bergin d. 1976; Bergin ANS: B
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Factual
42. Studies that seek to investigate the efficacy of psychotherapy typically include a treatment group, a pretreatment assessment of client functioning, a post-treatment assessment of client functioning, and a. a control group. b. a manipulation check. c. an internal audit. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Conceptual
43. Which of the following is a type of control group used in psychotherapy research? a. waiting list control group b. attention-only control group c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Factual
44. Smith and Glass (1977) a. performed a comparative study involving 90 outpatients and found that psychodynamic and behavioral therapy produced better results than no treatment at all. b. performed a meta-analysis of nearly 400 psychotherapy studies and concluded that psychotherapy is generally effective. c. published a strong but non-empirical paper criticizing the general effectiveness of psychotherapy. d. published a strong but non-empirical paper supporting the general effectiveness of psychotherapy. ANS: B
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Conceptual
45. According to the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis of psychotherapy outcome studies, the average person who received psychotherapy obtained better outcomes than __________ of people who did not receive treatment. a. 100% b. 80% c. 50% d. 30% ANS: B
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Factual
46. Research that addresses the specific events that occur during therapy in the course of interaction between therapist and patient is best labeled __________ research. a. meta-analytic b. analogue c. outcome d. process ANS: D
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Factual
47. According to Orlinsky et al. (2004), ALL BUT WHICH of the following is associated with positive psychotherapy outcome? a. Therapists’ use of advice and guidance. b. Therapists’ competence and adherence to the treatment protocol. c. The degree to which clients reflect on, think about, and emotionally process material within sessions. d. All of the above are associated with good therapy outcome. ANS: A
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Factual
48. Which of the following is an accurate statement about practice guidelines? a. They recommend specific forms of intervention for specific psychological disorders. b. They specify, in detail, the methods and procedures for each type of treatment. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Conceptual
49. Which of the following is NOT true of manualized treatments? a. They have been used by psychotherapy researchers to ensure that treatment protocols are standardized across patients. b. They have been used outside of the research context in clinical practice. c. They generally require less clinical skill than treatment as usual. d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychotherapy Research
DIF: Conceptual
50. As a broad generalization about the effectiveness of psychotherapy, it is accurate to state that a. many forms of psychotherapy are somewhat more effective than unplanned or informal help. b. comparative trials have consistently demonstrated that psychodynamic psychotherapy is superior to other types of psychotherapy across most clinical conditions. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Some General Conclusions
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.What is psychological intervention? Generally speaking, is psychotherapy beneficial? ANS: Not provided. REF: Intervention Defined; Does Psychotherapy Help? 2.Compare and contrast efficacy and effectiveness, in the context of psychotherapy research. ANS: Not provided. REF: Does Psychotherapy Help? 3.Outline four limitations of the 1995 Consumer Reports survey on the benefits of psychotherapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Does Psychotherapy Help? 4.In what respects does the therapeutic relationship differ from a supportive friendship? How would you respond to the claim that the “expert” status of the therapist introduces an authoritarian element into the relationship? ANS: Not provided. REF: Features Common to Many Therapies 5.Explain the difference between evidence-based treatment and evidence-based practice. ANS: Not provided. REF: Evidence-Based Treatment and Evidence-Based Practice 6.According to the conventional wisdom, a client must be motivated in order to benefit from therapy. Explain why successful psychotherapy seems to require motivation. ANS: Not provided. REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables 7.What is meant by “nonspecific factors” in psychotherapy? How do nonspecific factors contribute to therapy outcome? ANS: Not provided. REF: Features Common to Many Therapies 8.Describe at least three distinct challenges that arise in the context of providing psychotherapy to children that do not arise in psychotherapy with adults. ANS: Not provided. REF: Nature of Specific Therapeutic Variables 9.Enumerate at least three common criticisms of manualized treatment, and provide responses to each. ANS: Not provided. REF: Psychotherapy Research 10. In the concluding section of the chapter, the authors outline several worthwhile issues to be addressed by future psychotherapy research. Describe at least three such issues. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some General Conclusions
Chapter 12 Psychotherapy: The Psychodynamic Perspective MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Why did Sigmund Freud pursue a private practice? a. He knew that as a Jew he would probably not advance far in research/academia, which was rife with anti-Semitism. b. As a clinical psychologist, he was following the career path that most other clinical psychologists of his time and place had followed. c. An enduring interest in private practice is what prompted him to seek training in the first place. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
2. Breuer and Freud worked together to create __________, which was published in 1895. a. The Psychopathology of Everyday Life b. The Interpretation of Dreams c. Civilization and Its Discontents d. Studies in Hysteria ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
3. Sigmund Freud a. smoked cigars and experienced cancer of the jaw. b. moved to England in his later years. c. had a daughter who became a famous psychoanalyst herself. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
4. __________ influenced Freud by demonstrating the curative power of hypnosis. a. Janet b. Charcot c. Breuer d. Pierre ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
5. What did Charcot observe while using hypnosis to treat women with hysteria? a. that their “hysterical” symptoms would sometimes recede b. that they would sometimes recall traumatic experiences associated with the onset of their symptoms c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
6. Anna O. a. was one of Freud's first psychoanalysis patients. b. presented for treatment with severe depressive symptoms. c. demonstrated that psychoanalytic clients can develop strong emotional attachments to their analysts. d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
7. Free association, as practiced by Freud, a. involved patients responding to carefully chosen stimulus words that Freud said aloud. b. involved patients responding to ink blots that Freud presented to them. c. involved Freud asking the patient to simply talk, without censorship, about whatever came to mind. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
8. What term did Freud coin to refer to the idea that everything we do has meaning and purpose? a. psychic determinism b. primacy of the unconscious c. primary process dominance d. ego defense activation ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
9. The goal of therapy, according to Freudians, is to a. challenge and correct irrational thought patterns. b. change the frequency of certain target behaviors. c. make the unconscious conscious. d. achieve self-actualization. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
10. What names did Freud give the two sets of instincts that serve as energy sources for humans? a. pleasure; pain avoidance b. Eros; Thanatos c. Amo; Contemno d. need; desire ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
11. According to Freud, the positive and constructive aspects of human behavior, such as sex, hunger, and the creative arts, are attributable to a. the superego. b. the ego. c. Thanatos. d. Eros. ANS: D
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
12. According to Freud, instinctual urges that demand immediate gratification stem from the a. ego. b. superego. c. id. d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
13. According to Freud’s ideas about the structure of personality, the __________ arises because the __________ is inadequate at serving and preserving the organism. a. id; superego b. superego; ego c. ego; id d. superego; id ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
14. The ego a. acts as the executive of the personality. b. operates according to the pleasure principle. c. employs the primary processes. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
15. According to Freud, which personality structure utilizes the processes of learning, memory, judgment, and planning? a. ego b. superego c. id d. None of the personality structures utilize those processes. ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
16. Sammy is a child. If her personality is developing normally, Freud would say that Sammy’s punished behavior is being incorporated into her _______, and her rewarded behavior is being incorporated into her __________. a. conscience; ego ideal b. conscience; superego c. inferiority complex; superiority complex d. guilt complex; ego ideal ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
17. According to Freud, which of the following is true of the Oedipus complex? a. It occurs only in female children. b. It refers to a child’s murderous impulses against the parent of the opposite sex. c. If successfully resolved, it gives rise to the ego. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
18. According to Freud, children progress through stages of development in the following sequence: a. anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital. b. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital. c. oral, anal, genital, latency, phallic. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
19. According to Freud, a 5-year-old child who has developed normally is most likely in the __________ stage of development. a. oral b. phallic c. latency d. anal ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
20. According to Freud, a 6-month-old child who has developed normally is most likely to focus on what part of his or her body for gratification? a. mouth b. genitals c. anal region d. feet ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
21. Simone is a young woman with obsessive-compulsive symptoms. According to Freud, Simone probably failed to successfully negotiate the __________ stage of development. a. oral b. anal c. genital d. phallic ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
22. According to the psychosexual stages proposed by Freud, which of the following is most likely in a person characterized by excessive dependency? a. smoking habit b. workaholism c. excessive cleanliness concerns d. promiscuity ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
23. According to Freud, __________ at any psychosexual stage will lead to problems in adult personality. a. excessive frustration b. overindulgence c. either of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
24. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of anxiety, as postulated by Freud? a. It falls into one of four general classes. b. It functions as a warning signal to the ego. c. It is characterized by responses in several internal organs. d. Each class of anxiety differs in terms of source, but not quality. ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
25. Micah, who is in psychoanalysis, is nervous about the possibility that his id impulses will be expressed unchecked and thus cause trouble for him. The analyst probably labels this nervousness as a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. neurotic anxiety. c. reality anxiety. d. moral anxiety. ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
26. Geoffrey’s personality is characterized by the operation of very strong defense mechanisms. According to Freud, which of the following does not necessarily follow in this case? a. Geoffrey has a weak superego. b. Geoffrey’s view of reality is at least somewhat distorted. c. Geoffrey is unaware of the functioning of his defense mechanisms. d. Geoffrey has less energy (relative to those without such strong defense mechanisms) for constructive pursuits. ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
27. Defense mechanisms are produced by the a. superego. b. ego. c. id. d. personal unconscious. ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
28. Which of the following is considered to be the most basic of all the defense mechanisms? a. fixation b. projection c. repression d. regression ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Factual
29. Tamara, who has hateful, aggressive impulses toward an important person in her life, pushes these feelings out of consciousness. Freudians would label this action as a. regression. b. repression. c. projection. d. reaction formation. ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
30. Tate, who has hateful, aggressive impulses toward an important person in his life, accuses the other person of having exactly those feelings toward him. Freudians would label this action as a. projection. b. repression. c. reaction formation. d. regression. ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
31. At an unconscious level, Zeke is intrigued and titillated by pornography, yet he was among the loudest, most earnest protestors when the city council voted to give a business license to a retailer with a large selection of pornographic films and magazines. What defense mechanism seems to be operating in Zeke’s case? a. projection b. reaction formation c. fixation d. sublimation ANS: B
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
32. While they are discussing Bernie’s recently deceased father, Bernie’s psychodynamically oriented therapist encourages Bernie to compose a letter to his father, telling him everything he had wanted to tell him, but had failed to tell him, while he was alive. Bernie comes back the next week and tells his therapist that although writing the letter was an exhausting and very emotional exercise, he now feels much calmer than he did before. What term would Freud use to describe Bernie’s experience? a. working through b. transference c. insight d. catharsis ANS: D
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
33. Over the course of his psychotherapy, Jordan came to realize, with the help of his therapist, that his tendency to cut short and/or distance himself from several promising relationships was due to the sudden death of his younger sister years before, and his unconscious desire never to feel pain like that again. Following this realization, Jordan was able to initiate and maintain meaningful friendships. Psychoanalytic theorists would say that the therapy helped Jordan to a. achieve insight. b. experience catharsis. c. interpret transference. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Applied
34. When a psychoanalysis patient is reluctant to discuss, remember, or think about events that are threatening, Freudians label this as a. transference. b. catharsis. c. resistance. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
35. When a psychoanalysis patient examines how many areas of his/her life have been influenced by feelings that had been unconscious prior to analysis, Freudians label this as a. resistance. b. working-through. c. transference. d. insight. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings
DIF: Conceptual
36. According to Freudians, the interpretation of dreams involves an examination of the __________ of the dream to uncover the __________ of the dream. a. latent content; manifest content b. manifest content; latent content c. unconscious content; conscious meaning d. symbols; merits ANS: B
REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
DIF: Conceptual
37. According to Freud, a behavior like __________ typically occurs as an accident and is NOT the expression of an unconscious wish. a. missing an appointment b. a "slip of the tongue" c. forgetting to return a phone call d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
DIF: Conceptual
38. Deirdre has been undergoing psychoanalysis for 6 months and is starting to become conscious of hostile feelings toward her mother. Rather than discussing these uncomfortable feelings during therapy, Deirdre focuses excessively on rather petty complaints about work. Analysts would probably recognize this behavior as a. sociopathic. b. resistance. c. a "flight into health." d. a reaction formation. ANS: B
REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
DIF: Applied
39. ALL BUT WHICH of the following situations may indicate resistance on the part of the client? a. Art has spent much of the last couple sessions venting to the therapist about various political issues. b. Renée reports a sudden, marked improvement in her symptoms, and asks what her therapist things about the idea of terminating treatment. c. Victoria has been unable to make three of the last four scheduled sessions due to car problems, a tight deadline at work, and a bad sinus infection. d. Any of the above may indicate resistance on the part of the client. ANS: D
REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
DIF: Applied
40. A psychoanalysis patient who reacts to the therapist as if the therapist represented some important figure out of childhood is demonstrating a. resistance. b. transference. c. insight. d. working-through. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
DIF: Conceptual
41. Interpretation a. was used in Freudian psychoanalysis, but is rarely used in contemporary variations of psychoanalytic treatment. b. typically must be offered several times to fully bring unconscious material into conscious awareness. c. involves inducing the patient to understand thoughts or behaviors in a different manner. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
DIF: Conceptual
42. Compared to Freudian psychoanalysis, contemporary forms of psychoanalytic psychotherapy a. do not strictly require dream analysis or free association. b. tend to emphasize early childhood less and the present situation more. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalytic Alternatives
DIF: Conceptual
43. Object relations theorists tend to emphasize a. conflicts among intrapsychic, instinctual forces. b. the development of an integrated self. c. the way the patient relates to other people. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalytic Alternatives
DIF: Factual
44. Interpersonal psychotherapy a. involves a psychotherapist taking a neutral, passive stance consistent with Freudian psychoanalysis. b. has been empirically supported for some Axis II disorders, but no Axis I disorders. c. focuses on problems in current relationships, rather than events from the remote past. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalytic Alternatives
DIF: Conceptual
45. __________ is an abbreviation for the brief form of psychodynamic therapy that emphasizes social relationships. a. RET b. DBT c. IPT d. CISD ANS: C
REF: Psychoanalytic Alternatives
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
46. Recent reviews of psychodynamic psychotherapy a. suggest that children and adolescents tend to experience more benefit than do adults. b. indicate that the treatment appears to be efficacious for only depression. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Summary Evaluation of Psychodynamic....
DIF: Conceptual
47. A recent meta-analyses (Cuijpers et al., 2011) on the efficacy of interpersonal psychotherapy for depression (IPT) found that a. IPT was superior to no treatment. b. IPT plus medication was no better than medication alone. c. IPT was consistently superior to other psychotherapies for depression. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Summary Evaluation of Psychodynamic....
DIF: Conceptual
48. At a psychology conference, Dr. Albers presents a paper extolling the virtues of psychoanalytic psychotherapy. Dr. Zerbolio, who is in the audience, is a staunch critic of psychoanalytic psychotherapy. ALL BUT WHICH is a valid criticism that could be offered by Dr. Zerbolio? a. “Isn’t it possible that by encouraging complete understanding—by spending so much time analyzing past behavior—the therapist and client delay making meaningful changes in the present?” b. “If I’m not mistaken, the research is unclear on whether behavior change necessarily follows insight.” c. “Even if psychoanalytic psychotherapy is effective, it seems to me that it’s simply too costly for more than a small percentage of individuals needing treatment.” d. “Based on my understanding, the research suggests that over half of clients receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy report unsatisfactory relationships with their therapists.” ANS: D
REF: Summary Evaluation of Psychodynamic....
DIF: Applied
49. Which of the following is true according to research on the interpretation of transference? a. Better outcome is associated with a greater frequency of interpretations. b. Transference interpretations are uniquely effective among interpretations. c. Transference interpretations pose no threat to the therapeutic relationship. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Summary Evaluation of Psychodynamic....
DIF: Conceptual
50. Research on the curative factors of psychoanalytic psychotherapy highlights the importance of a. the frequency of transference interpretations. b. the facilitation of the "flight into health." c. the quality and strength of the therapeutic alliance. d. the accuracy of dream analysis. ANS: C
REF: Summary Evaluation of Psychodynamic....
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.Compare and contrast the three structures of personality proposed by Freud. ANS: Not provided. REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings 2.How do problems at each of Freud's psychosexual stages contribute to adult personality? ANS: Not provided. REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings 3.What is the purpose of defense mechanisms, according to Freud? Briefly identify and describe at least three separate defense mechanisms. ANS: Not provided. REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings 4.Why is dream analysis important to psychoanalysis? Identify at least a couple challenges for the therapist analyzing a client’s dreams. ANS: Not provided. REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy 5.What is transference, and how might a psychoanalyst facilitate it? ANS: Not provided. REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy 6.Define both insight and working through, and tell how they relate to each other in psychoanalysis. ANS: Not provided. REF: Psychoanalysis: The Beginnings 7.What advice would you offer to a therapist on making interpretations in therapy? Be sure to make at least three separate recommendations. ANS: Not provided. REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy 8.Define resistance, and outline three distinct ways it might show up in therapy. In theory, what is the positive consequence of analyzing resistance in psychotherapy? ANS: Not provided. REF: Techniques of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy 9.Outline at least four ways that contemporary forms of psychoanalytic psychotherapy differ from Freudian psychoanalysis. ANS: Not provided. REF: Psychoanalytic Alternatives 10. What does recent research suggest about the efficacy of psychodynamic psychotherapy? What appears to be its most curative element? ANS: Not provided. REF: Summary Evaluation of Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
Chapter 13 Psychotherapy: Phenomenological & Humanistic-Existential Perspective MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Carl Rogers a. was born in Europe. b. grew up in a family with devout religious beliefs. c. received his professional training in psychiatry. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
2. Rogers' theories of personality and psychotherapy were influenced by the approaches of Otto Rank and Jessie Taft, who emphasized a. early childhood experiences as causative factors in adult psychopathology. b. the importance of the therapeutic relationship and clients’ freedom to exert their wills in therapy. c. the curative powers of identifying and adopting meaningful goals in life. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
3. Rogers' view of personality emphasizes __________, which is an appreciation of how an individual experiences the world around him/her. a. logotherapy b. congruence c. moral precepts d. phenomenology ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
4. Which of the following is the best definition for the term “phenomenal field”? a. the sum total of a given person’s knowledge b. everything experienced by a person at any given point in time c. all of the locations a given person visits/occupies regularly d. a truly remarkable area of study ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
5. Which term below corresponds to the basic human tendency to maintain and enhance the self? a. achievement drive b. perfectionism c. self-actualization d. self-realization ANS: C
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
6. According to Rogers, truly well-adjusted people a. are conscious of childhood experiences that have contributed to their adult personalities. b. are conscious of previously unconscious thoughts and impulses that had been influencing their behavior. c. are able to acknowledge and accept all of their experiences, including those not immediately consistent with their self-concept. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
7. According to Rogers, a well-adjusted adult who gets demoted at work as a result of poor performance will deal with the event by a. suggesting that he/she would have performed better if he/she had been better motivated to do so. b. emphasizing poor working conditions as the reason for his/her poor performance. c. accepting the failure in this job but recognizing his/her other strengths and overall personal value. d. achieving insight regarding the unconscious forces that contributed to his/her failure. ANS: C
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
8. Client-centered therapists are especially likely to rely on __________ as the primary source of information about their clients. a. self-reports b. previous diagnoses c. projective personality test data d. objective personality test data ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
9. A client-centered psychotherapist is conducting an initial interview with Akila, a new client. Upon which of the following data sources is the psychotherapist most likely to rely? a. the results of Akila’s personality tests b. Akila’s self-description c. descriptions of Akila provided by her husband and sister d. the results of Akila’s intelligence tests ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
10. According to Rogers, the fundamental human tendency is a. striving for self-fulfillment. b. attempting to make sense of the world around us. c. trying to eliminate unwanted behaviors. d. trying to satisfy id impulses. ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
11. Client-centered psychotherapists assume that clients a. possess growth potential. b. are incapable of improving without critical feedback. c. must rely upon the therapist to assume authority over their lives. d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
12. According to Rogers, successful therapy is facilitated by a. empathy. b. insight. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
13. According to Rogers, empathy a. is a professional tool that therapists use to earn clients’ trust. b. is an attitude that must be genuine in order to be effective. c. is an attitude that must be complete in order to be effective. d. more than one of the above. ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
14. According to Rogers, therapists should provide unconditional positive regard a. to all clients, unless they describe behaviors that are blatantly illegal. b. to all clients, unless they describe behaviors that are clearly inconsistent with the norms or morals of society. c. to all adult clients, but only to child clients whose behaviors are not disruptive or problematic. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
15. A client-centered therapist is seeing a client who frequently makes racially hateful comments. The therapist will probably a. examine with the client the social costs and benefits of holding and stating such beliefs. b. design a homework assignment that will enhance the client’s cultural sensitivity. c. show respect and acceptance for the client as a person. d. object only if the therapist holds dissonant beliefs. ANS: C
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
16. According to Rogers, congruence a. refers to the therapist's ability to accurately identify and reflect the feelings of the client. b. is secondary to insight as a therapeutic factor. c. involves therapists openly expressing the feelings they have during sessions. d. involves the similarity between the personal beliefs of the therapist and the personal beliefs of the client. ANS: C
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
17. A client-centered therapist is seeing a client whose comments anger the therapist. As a congruent therapist, the therapist will probably a. terminate the therapy and refer the client to another therapist. b. attempt to persuade the client to think more like the therapist does. c. smile and nod in an attempt to maintain rapport. d. allow the client to know that the therapist is angry. ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
18. Brandon is a graduate student receiving training in client-centered therapy. Which of the following is something that he should be discouraged from doing when he meets with a client? a. asking the client questions b. giving the client advice c. offering the client interpretations d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
19. Emma, who is seeing Dr. Charles for client-centered therapy, is currently going through a particularly difficult time. How might Dr. Charles reassure Emma at this time, while also working within the confines of client-centered therapy? a. by telling her repeatedly that she has the ability to make positive life changes b. through her tone of voice, facial expression, and general demeanor c. by patting or holding her hand during especially tough portions of session d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
20. A client who is afraid of flying describes a recent episode in which his/her job required her to take a onehour flight. A client-centered therapist is most likely to respond by a. acknowledging the anxiety that the client must have felt . b. pointing out to the client that he/she survived the flight and no catastrophe occurred, thus challenging the belief that flying is dangerous. c. offering social reinforcements including smiles and compliments to increase the likelihood that the client will fly again. d. offering the interpretation that the client's fear of flying may actually be a response (reaction formation) to an unconscious wish to "fly" away from home. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
21. Regarding client contact, client-centered therapy recommends a. weekly meetings with the client, with no extra sessions and no phone calls/e-mails/texts between sessions. b. weekly meetings with the client, with extra sessions as needed but no phone calls/emails/texts between sessions. c. weekly meetings with the client, with no extra sessions but phone calls/e-mails/texts between sessions, as needed. d. weekly meetings with the client, with extra sessions as needed as well as phone calls/emails/texts between sessions, as needed. ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
22. Oscar is receiving client-centered therapy. He is expressing his feelings fairly freely and beginning to assume some responsibility for his situation in life. He is most likely at which of the following stages of therapy, as conceived by Rogers? a. first b. fourth c. seventh d. tenth ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Applied
23. Most Rogerians believe that formal assessment and diagnosis is a. necessary. b. not necessary, but beneficial. c. unnecessary. d. detrimental. ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
24. Rogerian therapists rarely __________ because doing so places the therapist in a position of authority, which can impede the development of client autonomy and self-actualization. a. diagnose b. give advice c. offer interpretations d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
25. Aside from psychotherapy, the client-centered/person-centered framework has been applied in which of the following contexts? a. schools b. businesses c. charitable organizations d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
26. Compared to psychoanalysis, client-centered therapy de-emphasizes a. biological urges. b. self-determination. c. the here-and-now. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
27. Which of the following is true of Rogers’ contributions to psychotherapy research? a. He was the first well-known theorist to question the efficacy of psychotherapy. b. He was the first person to use recordings of psychotherapy sessions to study therapy process and outcome. c. He was the first to propose that consent forms be used in psychotherapy research. d. He was the first to use meta-analysis as a way of summarizing results across psychotherapy effectiveness studies. ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
28. In general, research evidence suggests that client-centered therapy is a. more effective than no treatment. b. more effective than most other forms of psychological treatment. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
29. What have recent psychotherapy studies found regarding the relationship between therapist empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence/genuineness and therapy outcome? a. These variables show no correlation with therapy outcome. b. These variables show significant but modest (<.30) correlations with therapy outcome. c. These variables show significant and strong (>.50) correlations with therapy outcome. d. Therapist empathy and unconditional positive regard are positively related to therapy outcome, but congruence/genuineness is unrelated to therapy outcome. ANS: B
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Factual
30. Which of the following is a valid criticism of client-centered therapy? a. Its emphasis on self-report rather than structured or objective assessment data makes it vulnerable to distorted or incomplete information. b. Every client receives the same, “one-size-fits-all,” treatment. c. Core concepts such as "being" and "congruency" are difficult to define and measure. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Client-Centered Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
31. According to existentialism, the fundamental human characteristic is a. the search for meaning. b. the desire for rational thought patterns. c. the struggle between biological drives and societal norms. d. the tendency toward self-actualization. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
32. According to existential therapy, choosing the present, or status quo, ultimately results in feelings of ________, while choosing the future results in __________. a. security; anxiety b. security; satisfaction c. guilt; satisfaction d. guilt; anxiety ANS: D
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
33. The primary goals of existential psychotherapy are accepting responsibility for one’s decisions and a. letting go of one’s past. b. accepting one’s imperfections. c. learning to tolerate anxiety. d. relinquishing control over others’ decisions. ANS: C
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
34. Viktor Frankl's experience with __________ led to his development of __________. a. psychotic parents; logotherapy b. psychotic children; client-centered therapy c. concentration camps; ego-analytic psychotherapy d. concentration camps; logotherapy ANS: D
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Factual
35. William’s therapist is using logotherapy techniques in their sessions. Assuming that the therapist attempted to match the treatment to the presenting problem, what is the most likely goal of William’s treatment? a. to correct his illogical/distorted cognitions b. to assist him in his recovery from a traumatic experience c. to encourage independence in his thoughts and actions d. to help him find meaning in a cold, uncaring world ANS: D
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Applied
36. Which of the following therapeutic techniques best illustrates paradoxical intention? a. A client who anxiously stutters in social situations is told to ignore the problem and behave as though he/she is entirely comfortable in such situations. b. A client who anxiously stutters in social situations is told to try to stutter in social situations. c. A client who anxiously stutters in social situations role-plays this situation with the therapist, who stutters more noticeably than the client. d. A client who anxiously stutters in social situations is instructed to substitute another symptom for stuttering. ANS: B
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Applied
37. The Gestalt therapy movement is most closely associated with a. Frankl. b. Rogers. c. Perls. d. Allport. ANS: C
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Factual
38. Gestalt therapy places greatest emphasis on a. the distant past. b. the recent past. c. the present. d. the immediate future. ANS: C
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
39. Shayla’s therapist is constantly calling her attention to her current feelings, thoughts, and experiences. Which type of therapy below is Shayla most likely receiving? a. psychoanalytic b. Gestalt c. logod. humanistic ANS: B
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Applied
40. How do Gestalt therapists deal with patients' dreams? a. They reject the idea that dreams can be useful in therapy. b. They rely on patients' self-reports of dreams and use techniques such as free association to help extract latent content from manifest content. c. They encourage patients to re-live their dreams in session with the therapist. d. They analyze dreams and offer interpretations based upon symbolism that stems from the collective unconscious. ANS: C
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
41. DeMarre is seeing a Gestalt therapist who asks him to act out both sides of a dialogue involving a "topdog" and an "underdog." The "underdog" is most likely to a. express DeMarre’s primitive wishes. b. be defeated by the "topdog." c. echo the rules taught to DeMarre by his parents. d. express DeMarre’s deepest fears. ANS: A
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Applied
42. According to Gestalt therapists, the client's actions and behaviors are the responsibility of a. the client. b. the client's parents. c. the sum total of the client’s experience. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
43. Which psychotherapy uses a technique where people are directed to describe something about themselves, and then to add the phrase, “and I take responsibility for that”? a. logotherapy b. Gestalt therapy c. existential therapy d. primal scream therapy ANS: B
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Factual
44. Which of the following is true regarding the "rules" of Gestalt therapy? a. Communication should be in the future tense. b. Questions are encouraged. c. Gossip (talking about someone else) is not allowed. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
45. Most Gestalt therapists a. recognize the value of psychotherapy research but are reluctant to conduct it for fear of violating clients’ confidentiality. b. recognize the value of psychotherapy research and use well-established empirical methods to document the effectiveness of their work. c. are strongly opposed to psychotherapy research. d. are amenable to conducting outcome research, but not process research. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
46. Which of the following is true regarding research on the efficacy and effectiveness of Gestalt therapy? a. An early meta-analysis (Smith et al., 1980) suggested that Gestalt therapy was more beneficial than no treatment at all. b. More recent research suggests that Gestalt therapy is more effective than other forms of psychological treatment. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Factual
47. Emotion-focused therapy (EFT) is best conceived as an integration of what two psychotherapy traditions? a. client-centered therapy and existential therapy b. client-centered therapy and Gestalt therapy c. logotherapy and Gestalt therapy d. existential therapy and psychodynamic therapy ANS: B
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Factual
48. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true regarding Emotion-Focused Therapy (EFT)? a. It has been around for decades, but is currently experiencing a surge in popularity. b. It is based on the idea that emotions are fundamentally adaptive. c. It views emotion regulation as necessary for personal growth. d. To date, the empirical research on the efficacy of EFT has been favorable. ANS: A
REF: The Humanist-Existential Movement
DIF: Conceptual
49. Relative to other major approaches to psychotherapy, humanism and existentialism a. emphasize the potential for positive growth rather than psychopathology. b. emphasize inner awareness rather than the influence of unconscious processes. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Summary Evaluation of....
DIF: Conceptual
50. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a recognized shortcoming of the humanistic-existential approach to psychotherapy? a. the use of language that suggests that other approaches are authoritarian or inhumane b. an emphasis on feelings that leaves the therapy process vulnerable to bias and unreliability c. the use of jargon that is vague and ill-defined d. a research emphasis that seems to detract from the performance of the therapy, itself ANS: D
REF: Summary Evaluation of....
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.What is meant by the term phenomenology, and why is this concept important to client-centered psychotherapy? ANS: Not provided. REF: Client-Centered Therapy 2. Identify and briefly describe three therapist characteristics that, according to Rogers, precipitate positive outcomes in psychotherapy. What does recent research suggest about Rogers’ assertion? ANS: Not provided. REF: Client-Centered Therapy 3.Compare and contrast client-centered psychotherapy and psychodynamic psychotherapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Client-Centered Therapy 4. Identify at least two major activities of therapists providing client-centered therapy. Also, identify at least three therapist behaviors that are explicitly discouraged. ANS: Not provided. REF: Client-Centered Therapy 5. Describe at least three strengths and three criticisms of client-centered psychotherapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Client-Centered Therapy 6.What are the basic tenets of existentialist psychotherapy? ANS: Not provided. REF: The Humanistic-Existential Movement 7. Identify and briefly describe at least three types of therapy interventions employed in Gestalt therapy, as well as three “moral precepts” (rules for clients to live by) associated with the Gestalt tradition. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Humanistic-Existential Movement 8. Describe the ideas at the foundation of Emotion-Focused Therapy (EFT), and identify at least one therapeutic task. What does research to date suggest about the efficacy of EFT? ANS: Not provided. REF: Emotion-Focused Therapy 9. How do the humanistic-existential psychotherapies approach the issue of assessment and diagnosis? Identify three distinct criticisms of this approach. ANS: Not provided. REF: Summary Evaluation of Phenomenological and Humanistic-Existential Therapies 10. Identify and describe at least five shortcomings of humanistic-existential psychotherapies, in general. ANS: Not provided. REF: Summary Evaluation of Phenomenological and Humanistic-Existential Therapies
Chapter 14 Psychotherapy: Behavioral and Cognitive-Behavioral Perspectives MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Definitions of behavior therapy are diverse, but all of them tend to emphasize a. an experimental approach to the study of human behavior. b. clinical inference. c. mentalism over science. d. mentalism and science equally. ANS: A
REF: Origins of the Behavioral Approach
DIF: Conceptual
2. In 1924, Mary Cover Jones worked with a young boy to remove a fear of rabbits and similar objects. Her therapeutic technique a. involved pairing rabbits with objects that elicited a higher intensity of fear. b. emphasized the symbolic meaning that the child attached to the rabbits. c. was similar to Wolpe's later techniques involving reciprocal inhibition. d. emphasized the replacement of irrational cognitions with more logical cognitions. ANS: C
REF: Origins of the Behavioral Approach
DIF: Conceptual
3. Joseph Wolpe's name is most closely associated with which of the following? a. free association b. systematic desensitization c. contingency management d. thought stopping ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Origins of the Behavioral Approach
DIF: Factual
4. __________ procedures attempt to alter behavior by controlling the consequences of the behavior. a. Classical conditioning b. Operant c. Restructuring d. Pavlovian ANS: B
REF: Origins of the Behavioral Approach
DIF: Factual
5. In the 1950s, Rotter theorized that a. behavior was determined by the value of the reinforcement that followed it. b. behavior was determined by the expectancy that it would be reinforced. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Origins of the Behavioral Approach
DIF: Conceptual
6. Data suggest that the client's perception of the therapeutic relationship a. is not very important to the outcome of any type of psychotherapy. b. is more important to the outcome of behavioral psychotherapy than to other types of psychotherapy. c. is less important to the outcome of behavioral therapy than to other types of psychotherapy. d. is very important to the outcome of behavioral and other forms of psychotherapy. ANS: D
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following distinguishes the therapeutic relationship in behavior therapy from that of other therapies? a. The therapist tends to adopt a more collaborative style. b. The therapist tends to be slightly less warm or empathic. c. The therapist may be more accepting of the problem as viewed/presented by the client. d. The treatment recommended by the therapist may more obviously address the problematic behavior. ANS: B
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
8. Systematic desensitization a. was developed by Meichenbaum. b. has proven similarly efficacious for mood and anxiety disorders. c. is based upon the principle that one cannot be simultaneously anxious and relaxed. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
9. If a client who has never been taught proper table manners becomes seriously anxious while dining out with others, a behavior therapist's goal should be to a. employ exposure treatment to help the client overcome his/her anxiety. b. teach the client proper table manners to overcome his/her behavioral deficit. c. refer the client to either a client-centered or psychodynamic therapist. d. teach the client relaxation skills to use when he/she becomes anxious about table manners. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
10. Relaxation training in systematic desensitization a. was once an important component of treatment, but no longer is emphasized. b. typically occupies about 15-20 sessions. c. involves teaching the client to tense and relax particular muscle groups. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
11. In systematic desensitization, who constructs the hierarchy? a. the client alone b. the therapist alone c. the client and therapist together d. a neutral third party ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Factual
12. Susan is a client with a phobia of airplanes who is seeing Dr. Williams, a behavioral therapist. Which of the following should occur during systematic desensitization? a. Dr. Williams decides the order of the items that Susan generates for her anxiety hierarchy. b. Dr. Williams teaches Susan to relax by audiorecording instructions for tensing and relaxing various muscle groups. c. Dr. Williams has Susan list 20 ways in which her fear of flying has negatively affected her life. d. Dr. Williams explains to Susan the rationale for the desensitization treatment, using professional jargon. ANS: B
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
13. Dr. Olaf and Marcus are proceeding through a systematic desensitization exercise when Marcus signals that he feels anxious. Given what you know about the treatment, what should happen next? a. Dr. Olaf should halt the treatment entirely, and he and Marcus should spend time trying to identify the origin of Marcus’s anxiety. b. Dr. Olaf should reassure Marcus that the anxiety is normal, but that he must endure it until it subsides naturally. c. Dr. Olaf should direct Marcus to stop visualizing the scenario and help him to relax, and then they should resume the exercise. d. Dr. Olaf should direct Marcus to stop visualizing that scenario and they should move to the next one up the hierarchy. ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
14. It has been hypothesized that systematic desensitization works as a result of a. counterconditioning. b. habituation. c. extinction. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Factual
15. In __________ exposure, the client actually confronts the feared stimulus or anxiety-provoking situation. a. in vivo b. simulated c. experiential d. in imagino ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Factual
16. Michael is a client with social phobia who is seeing a behavioral therapist. If the therapist uses exposure therapy, a. the therapist is using a technique with no empirical support for this disorder. b. Michael will have to remain in anxiety-provoking situations until his anxiety subsides. c. he or she cannot use any other treatment interventions concurrently. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
17. To achieve maximum benefit in exposure therapy, a. the duration of exposures should be short rather than long. b. exposures should not provoke anxiety. c. the client should be directed to attend as little as possible to the feared stimulus. d. exposure should be graduated, starting with stimuli that evoke low levels of anxiety and moving up. ANS: D
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
18. Interoceptive cues a. are internal physiological stimuli such as rapid breathing and dizziness. b. are particularly important in specific phobias since the symptoms of this disorder usually come "out of the blue." c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
19. A study comparing the effectiveness of two forms of treatment for panic disorder with agoraphobia (Craske et al., 1997) found that a. interoceptive exposure resulted in a better outcome than breathing retraining. b. breathing retraining resulted in better outcome than interoceptive exposure. c. interoceptive exposure and breathing retraining were associated with similar outcomes. d. interoceptive exposure and breathing retraining were associated with similar outcomes at post-treatment, but interoceptive exposure was superior at follow-up. ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Factual
20. Exposure and response prevention has been found to be particularly effective at treating a. panic disorder. b. social phobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Factual
21. Mark is a client who reports anxiety in situations where he’s required to interact with his supervisors at work. He reports that he "just doesn't know what to say or do" in such situations. His behavioral therapist should probably employ a. behavioral rehearsal. b. rational restructuring. c. covert sensitization. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
22. Deena and her therapist are using behavioral rehearsal to address her difficulties with social anxiety, and currently they are drawing up a hierarchy of social situations where Deena has been having problems. This suggests that they are in the __________ stage of the behavioral rehearsal. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
23. Vince and his therapist are using behavioral rehearsal to help him reduce his interpersonal aggression. What form is this rehearsal likely to take? a. Vince’s therapist acts as his coach during a role-play exercise. b. Vince and his therapist do a role play, and his therapist gives him feedback as they review the video recording of the performance. c. Vince and his therapist do a role play, and then he and his therapist swap roles so the therapist can model appropriate behavior. d. any of the above ANS: D
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
24. If lack of assertiveness stems from __________, then __________ might be the treatment of choice. a. lack of information; education b. behavioral deficits; behavioral rehearsal c. unrealistically negative expectations; desensitization d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
25. Which of the following is NOT an example of a behavioral therapy technique based upon contingency management principles? a. "Grandma's rule" (i.e., the Premack principle) b. shaping c. time-out d. systematic desensitization ANS: D
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
26. A client tells his behavioral therapist that he has a goal of jogging for 30 minutes every other day. The therapist helps the client create a system by which he rewards himself first for putting on jogging clothes and doing any kind of exercise for any length of time, then for jogging for 5 minutes, then for jogging for 15 minutes, and ultimately for jogging for 30 minutes. This technique is best described as a. shaping. b. behavioral instruction. c. time-out. d. a token economy. ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
27. A client and therapist agree upon the following rule regarding the client's behavior by signing a document which states, "If I study my most boring textbook for 5 hours this week, I can see the movie of my choice on Sunday." Which of the following contingency management techniques is illustrated by this example? a. "Grandma's rule" (i.e., the Premack principle) b. contingency contracting c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
28. Which of the following rules for patients in an inpatient psychiatric facility best illustrates the proper application of a token economy? a. If you make your bed in the morning, you can watch TV for an extra 15 minutes that night. b. If you make your bed in the morning, you immediately receive a red poker chip that can be exchanged for 15 extra minutes of TV. c. If you are a good patient in the morning, you can watch TV for an extra 15 minutes that night. d. If you are a good patient in the morning, you immediately receive a red poker chip. ANS: B
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
29. Ethan, who is in the third grade, has not been doing his homework. The counselor at school suggests that his parents institute a token economy where Ethan receives a poker chip each time he completes his homework, and every time he accumulates 5 chips and turns them in to his parents, they buy him a comic book. In this case, what is considered the “backup reinforcer”? a. the comic book b. the poker chip c. the parents’ praise d. the homework ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
30. Aversion therapy is typically applied when a client has a. an aversion to a food or other stimulus and the goal is to overcome it. b. a desired response in his/her repertoire and the goal is to increase its frequency. c. an unwanted response in his/her repertoire and the goal is to decrease its frequency. d. a behavioral deficit and the goal is to expand his/her behavioral repertoire. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
31. Trisha is a client who wants to reduce her cigarette smoking behaviors. Her behavioral therapist instructs her to imagine that while she is smoking, her lungs are impaired and she is desperately but unsuccessfully trying to catch her breath. This technique is best described as a. behavioral rehearsal. b. covert sensitization. c. shaping. d. overcorrection. ANS: B
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
32. A child who has been playing outside in the dirt comes inside, refuses to wash his hands, and gets the refrigerator dirty. His parents force him to clean not only the refrigerator, but the kitchen floor and countertops as well. Behavioral therapists would label this technique as a. overcorrection. b. “Grandma’s rule.” c. response cost. d. negative reinforcement. ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
33. A child is punished for lying to her parents by having her allowance reduced. Behavioral therapists would label this technique as a. response cost. b. token economy. c. thought stopping. d. overcorrection. ANS: A
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Applied
34. Aversion therapy is quite controversial. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a common criticism of this type of treatment? a. Punishment may not be the most effective way to influence behavior in the long term. b. This type of treatment shows little appreciation for human dignity. c. The range of practicable aversive agents is somewhat limited. d. All of the above are common criticisms. ANS: C
REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
35. The role of self-efficacy in cognitive-behavioral therapy was most clearly emphasized by a. Watson. b. Bandura. c. Wolpe. d. Meichenbaum. ANS: B
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Factual
36. Which of the following clinical examples best illustrates guided participation? a. A client with contamination fears is asked to imagine a series of progressively more intense anxiety-producing scenarios. b. A client with social anxiety watches a videotape of a model interacting at a party. c. After watching a model exhibit target behaviors, a client with a snake phobia is gradually encouraged by the therapist to try out similar behaviors. d. The therapist of a client with sexual dysfunction challenges the irrational beliefs that underlie the problem and tries to replace them with more rational beliefs. ANS: C
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Applied
37. According to Ellis, a. the unconscious origins of irrational thought are the key elements to be examined during therapy. b. therapists should focus exclusively upon stimuli and responses, and should not focus upon any intervening cognitive processes. c. our interpretations of events, rather than the events themselves, determine our behavioral reactions. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
38. In the ABC model of RET, a. "A" represents the "actions," or target behaviors, that the client wants to change. b. the fundamental goal is to alter "C" by increasing the extent to which "B" is logical. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
39. The belief that life is awful, terrible, horrible, or catastrophic when things don't go the way we'd like them to go a. is one of the common irrational beliefs identified by Ellis. b. is the type of belief that, according to cognitive therapists, increases one’s risk of psychopathology. c. would be a target of change for an RET therapist. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
40. A therapist who is working with a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder decides to use stress inoculation training. Which of the following is likely to take place during this treatment? a. First, the client is taught how certain thought patterns lead to anxiety, and is also taught how to cope with potential threats. Next, the client rehearses these coping skills and then applies them in various stressful conditions. b. The client is "flooded" or "imploded" with anxiety by being forced to remain in the most anxiety-provoking situation imaginable, thus decreasing the anxiety experienced in similar but less extreme situations. c. Unconscious conflicts that underlie the anxiety are explored in order to neutralize the anxiety at the most fundamental psychological level. d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Applied
41. According to Aaron Beck, depressed individuals are characterized by negative beliefs about a. others’ views of them. b. their work and their relationships. c. their safety and security. d. themselves, their world, and their future. ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
42. A depressed client is seeing a therapist who uses Beck's cognitive therapy. Which of the following is the therapist LEAST likely to do during treatment? a. Identify automatic thoughts that precede a depressed mood and challenge their validity. b. Schedule activities to counteract the periods of inactivity that may cause one to focus on depressive feelings. c. Help the client search for alternative solutions to problems rather than resigning to defeat. d. Teach the client relaxation skills and move through a hierarchy of symptoms of physical tension. ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
43. Which of the following is NOT a routine part of a cognitive therapy session, as outlined by Beck? a. eliciting emotional expression b. setting an agenda c. checking mood symptoms d. assigning homework ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Factual
44. The empirical evidence supporting Beck's cognitive therapy suggests that it is effective for a. depression. b. personality disorders. c. eating disorders. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Factual
45. The diagnosis most closely associated with Dialectical Behavior Therapy is a. antisocial personality disorder. b. major depression. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. borderline personality disorder. ANS: D
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Factual
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the skills training areas outlined by Dialectical Behavior Therapy? a. mindfulness b. time management c. distress tolerance d. interpersonal effectiveness ANS: B
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Factual
47. Dialectical Behavior Therapy a. lasts about six months. b. involves both individual and group therapy components. c. has not been well-supported by research to date. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
48. Which of the following is true regarding behavioral and cognitive-behavioral therapy? a. They require a few more sessions, on average, than most psychodynamic treatments. b. Several meta-analytic studies have found that they are slightly more effective than other forms of therapy. c. They seem to be consistent with the values and activities of scientist-practitioners and clinical scientists. d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: An Evaluation of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
49. Which form of therapy has developed more manualized approaches to psychotherapy than any other? a. behavioral b. humanistic c. group therapy d. psychodynamic ANS: A
REF: An Evaluation of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Factual
50. Critics of behavior therapy argue that a. behavioral therapy techniques can be mechanistic and dehumanizing. b. behavioral therapy may relieve symptoms but does not promote inner growth or fulfillment. c. behavioral treatment seems to lack a unifying theory. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: An Evaluation of Behavior Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.Provide a brief fictional example of a therapist using systematic desensitization with a client for whom this type of treatment is appropriate. ANS: Not provided. REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy 2.Summarize the rationale of exposure therapy and identify at least three features that enhance its effectiveness. ANS: Not provided. REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy 3.For what type of diagnosis is exposure and response prevention the treatment of choice? Illustrate with a fictional example the important elements of this treatment. ANS: Not provided. REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy
4.In what type of clinical situation is behavior rehearsal an appropriate form of treatment? What are the four stages of this type of treatment? ANS: Not provided. REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy 5.Propose a token economy for a director of an inpatient psychiatric unit who would like to increase the frequency of patients making their beds. ANS: Not provided. REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy 6.Many people have criticized aversion therapy over the years. Defend the use of this type of treatment with at least three distinct arguments. ANS: Not provided. REF: Traditional Techniques of Behavior Therapy 7.In what type of clinical situation is participant modeling an appropriate form of treatment? What factors can increase the effectiveness of the model? ANS: Not provided. REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy 8.Explain the ABC model of RET, including the fundamental goal of this approach to therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy 9.Identify and describe briefly at least four distinct techniques used in Beck’s cognitive therapy for depression. Also, comment on the effectiveness of this treatment. ANS: Not provided. REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy 10. Identify at least four strengths of behavior therapy relative to other forms of therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: An Evaluation of Behavior Therapy 11.
Chapter 15 Group Therapy, Family Therapy, and Couples Therapy MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about group therapy? a. Historically, group therapy has been viewed as a “second choice” or supplemental therapy by clients and therapists alike. b. Even now, the demand for group therapy is at an all-time low. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
2. Multiple transference effects are most relevant to a. behavioral group therapy. b. psychoanalytic group therapy. c. Gestalt group therapy. d. transactional analysis. ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
3. Group psychotherapy in which members act out roles with each other is labeled a. transactional analysis. b. psychoanalytic group therapy. c. Gestalt group therapy. d. psychodrama. ANS: D
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
4. Psychodrama a. always involves acting out a scene from the client’s past. b. is thought to promote catharsis, or emotional release. c. has not been found efficacious by meta-analysis. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
5. According to transactional analysis, each person possesses a(n) __________ ego state. a. child b. parent c. adult d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
6. A transactional analysis involves the determination of which __________ are operative in a given transaction between people. a. defense mechanisms b. ego states c. cognitive distortions d. social desirability factors ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
7. According to transactional analysis, the preferred ego state is a. parent (positive). b. adult (positive). c. child (positive). d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
8. A client in group therapy is told by the therapist that her patterns of interaction with other group members suggest a negative parent ego state. This therapist is apparently employing a. transactional analysis. b. behavioral group therapy. c. psychoanalytic group therapy. d. Gestalt group therapy. ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Applied
MSC: WWW
9. According to Berne, __________ are behaviors that people use to avoid getting too close to others. a. transactions b. games c. outbursts d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
10. Typically, therapists who conduct transactional analysis a. produce little research. b. try to create/foster pseudo-intimacy in their groups. c. try to maintain a very slow, deliberate pace in their groups. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
11. As therapist for a Gestalt group, Dr. Otero focuses on a. one member at a time. b. two members at a time. c. all members at the same time. d. different numbers of group members, depending on the situation. ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Applied
12. A group therapist who tells a client that he/she will be the focus of the session and will be on the "hot seat" is probably practicing a. psychoanalytic group therapy. b. behavioral group therapy. c. transactional analysis. d. Gestalt group therapy. ANS: D
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Applied
13. Annabeth often attends her group therapy in the form of resident seminars, weekend retreats, and brief workshops, rather than weekly meetings. Which type of therapy is she most likely receiving? a. psychodrama b. transactional analysis c. Gestalt group therapy d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Applied
14. Which two types of group therapy have drawn concern due significant popularization with little research support? a. psychoanalytic group therapy; psychodrama b. psychodrama; transactional analysis c. transactional analysis; Gestalt group therapy d. Gestalt group therapy; psychoanalytic group therapy ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
15. __________ seems to have grown out of considerations of efficiency rather than a compelling belief in the value of group dynamics. a. Gestalt group therapy b. Transactional analysis c. Psychodrama d. Behavioral group therapy ANS: D
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
16. Generally speaking, behavioral and cognitive-behavioral groups a. are time-limited. b. consist of a heterogeneous mix of presenting problems. c. make only modest use of assessment. d. prescribe a fairly passive role for the therapist. ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
17. Bryan is a 13-year-old boy with significant social skills deficits. Which type of group therapy below would seem to be the best fit for him? a. psychodrama b. transactional analysis c. behavioral group therapy d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Applied
18. Research has supported the efficacy of behavioral and cognitive-behavioral group interventions for the treatment of a. depression. b. social phobia. c. pain. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
19. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of cognitive-behavioral group treatment for social phobia? a. It requires all group members to undergo individual CBT concurrently. b. It includes exposure exercises, cognitive restructuring, and skills training. c. It is arguably the treatment of choice for this condition. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
20. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement about time-effective group therapy? a. It has an interpersonal focus. b. It may be especially helpful for individuals with personality disorders. c. It specifies a fairly passive role for the therapist. d. It encourages patient responsibility. ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
21. What is the purpose of a pregroup screening, as used in time-effective group psychotherapy? a. to see whether the potential group member responds appropriately to feedback b. to ensure that the therapist and potential group member have a good rapport c. to make sure that the potential group member has excellent social skills d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
22. The wide variety of group therapy approaches yield many different therapy arrangements, but typically group therapy involves a. 2-3 patients meeting once per week for 2 hours. b. 5-10 patients meeting twice per week for 45 minutes. c. 5-10 patients meeting once per week for 90 minutes. d. 10-15 patients meeting once per week for 2 hours. ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
23. Most therapists agree that __________ patients should be excluded from psychotherapy groups. a. personality disorder b. psychotic c. depressed d. agoraphobic ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
24. Among the curative factors of group therapy identified by Yalom (1975) are a. group cohesiveness. b. altruism. c. interpersonal learning. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
25. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a curative factor of group therapy identified by Yalom (1975)? a. the imparting of information. b. the instillation of hope. c. the acceptance of the “patient” role. d. All of the above are among the curative factors identified by Yalom (1975). ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
26. Reviews of the research literature assessing the effectiveness of group psychotherapy consistently conclude that group treatment is a. equivalent to no treatment. b. more effective than no treatment. c. more effective than other forms of psychotherapy. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Factual
27. Which of the following scenarios truly constitutes family therapy? a. Dr. Cash, who is seeing a 14-year-old girl with binge-eating disorder, invites the girl’s mother in for the last 10 minutes of each session to explain what they worked on and how the mother can best support her daughter’s recovery. b. Dr. Carlisle is seeing Max, a 66-year-old male with severe anxiety symptoms, and every few weeks Max’s wife or grown daughter participate in the session to share their impressions of Max’s progress. c. Dr. Cameron meets regularly with Jonah, Julia, and their parents to discuss how each family member contributes to Jonah’s self-destructive behavior, as well as ways to change their maladaptive patterns of interaction. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Group Therapy
DIF: Applied
28. Which of the following is the best example of a double bind? a. Martin’s mother tells him to respect his teacher’s authority, even when the teacher is wrong. b. During the first months of her son’s life, Mimi is criticized by some people for staying at home with him, and when she resumes working outside the home, the same people start to question her devotion as a mother. c. While in graduate school, Alan is encouraged to both work hard and play hard. d. Chandra’s best friend tells her that she won’t be her friend anymore unless Chandra stops lying to her. ANS: B
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
29. Bateson, Lidz, and Bowen each emphasized the role that family members can play in the development of __________ and subsequent research has shown __________ for their ideas. a. depression; minimal support b. bipolar disorder; significant support c. schizophrenia; minimal support d. antisocial personality disorder; significant support ANS: C
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
30. From the time of its origins, family therapy has tended to emphasize __________ as the basis for psychopathology. a. power differentials b. genetic factors c. conflicting priorities d. communication failure ANS: D
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
31. General systems theory views the family as constantly striving to maintain a. dysfunction. b. a homeostatis. c. civility and cooperation among members. d. the best individual outcome for each member. ANS: B
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
32. Family therapy is conducted by a. social workers. b. psychologists and psychiatrists. c. counselors. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
33. Which of the following is considered a general characteristic of family therapy? a. Knowledge of the familial roles and idiosyncratic subculture are important to the family therapist’s work. b. Therapists typically try to become identified with the most "well-adjusted" faction of the family and to distance themselves from the other family members. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
34. A family therapist who sees members of a family together as a unit is conducting __________ family therapy. a. conjoint b. collaborative c. coordinated d. concurrent ANS: A
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
35. Satir regarded the family therapist as a person who a. becomes a model of communication for the family. b. helps the family balance their various obligations. c. translates vaguely defined problems into objective, behavioral terms. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
36. Marla and her family are in family therapy, and Marla’s mother always agrees with others, no matter what is going on. According to many family therapists, Marla’s mother is a. delusional. b. placating. c. being passive-aggressive. d. probably the most psychologically healthy family member. ANS: B
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
MSC: WWW
37. In a family therapy session, Darin speaks in such a way that his words represent an attempt to "throw his weight around." Family therapists would most likely label his mode of communication as a. placating. b. super-reasonable. c. blaming. d. irrelevant. ANS: C
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
38. Dr. Korman is seeing each member of a family in separate individual sessions. We would say she is conducting __________ family therapy. a. conjoint b. collaborative c. coordinated d. concurrent ANS: D
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
39. A family whose members are each seeing different therapists who get together to discuss the family is involved in __________ family therapy. a. conjoint b. collaborative c. coordinated d. concurrent ANS: B
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
40. In his family therapy work, Dr. Sugarman emphasizes rewards that maintain undesirable actions or may enhance desired actions. Dr. Sugarman probably is conducting a. behavioral family therapy. b. network family therapy. c. strategic family therapy. d. structural family therapy. ANS: A
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
41. Multisystemic therapy (MST) was developed for use with a. teens with eating disorders and their families. b. juvenile offenders and their families. c. families coping with bipolar disorder in one member. d. families coping with the sudden loss of one member. ANS: B
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
42. Rebekah is a graduate student obtaining experience in a particular family therapy modality. Although she has a small caseload, she delivers treatment in people’s homes or schools, is available for consultation at all times, and serves on a team with others who are doing the same thing she is. What is the term for the type of treatment Rebekah is providing? a. psychoanalytic family therapy b. intensive family therapy (IFT) c. emotionally focused therapy (EFT) d. multisystemic therapy (MST) ANS: D
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
43. Most often, family therapy begins with __________ as the principal patient. a. the wife b. the husband c. an adolescent d. a toddler ANS: C
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
44. The Browns are considering family therapy, but one of the daughters, Karina, is so uncooperative that her presence will likely hinder the therapeutic process. What should the therapist recommend? a. Karina should be forced to participate, but the focus should be placed primarily on other members of the family. b. Karina should be forced to participate, and the focus should be placed directly on her lack of cooperation. c. Karina should not be forced to participate. d. Karina should be forced to participate in a separate group therapy, while the rest of the family is seen together. ANS: C
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
45. Behavioral Marital Therapy (BMT) involves ALL BUT WHICH of the following components? a. contingency contracting b. support-understanding techniques c. problem-solving techniques d. mindfulness techniques ANS: D
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
46. A husband and wife involved in couples therapy each generates a list of actions that would please them if performed by the partner, and for homework, each partner agrees to perform three of these activities prior to the next session. This couple is probably involved in __________ therapy. a. emotionally focused couples b. concurrent couples c. behavioral marital d. insight-oriented couples ANS: C
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Applied
MSC: WWW
47. Which of the following is the primary goal of Emotionally Focused Couples Therapy? a. to free partners to express all of their emotions to each other, both positive and negative b. to assist each partner in accurately identifying the emotions being experienced by the other c. to change partners’ problematic interactional styles and emotional responses so their attachment is more secure d. to help partners focus on their emotional responses in the here-and-now so that they can be more spontaneous ANS: C
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
48. According to Sexton et al. (2004), ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an "ingredient" for successful family therapy? a. redefining the problem as a "family problem" b. fostering improved family communication c. maintaining strong therapeutic alliances d. All of the above are ingredients of successful family therapy identified by Sexton et al. (2004). ANS: D
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Conceptual
49. A meta-analysis of family therapy by Baucom et al. (1998) found that a. family therapy appears helpful in reducing schizophrenia relapse. b. family therapy appears less effective than individual therapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
50. Relatively recent meta-analyses of couples therapy suggest that a. it is generally efficacious for reducing relationship distress. b. it shows no promise for treating psychological disorders in individual partners. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Family Therapy
DIF: Factual
ESSAY 1.Describe briefly the structure of psychoanalytic group therapy. Explain how the techniques used differ from those of the individual form of the therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Group Therapy
2.Compare and contrast transactional analysis and Gestalt group therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Group Therapy 3.Explain why the group approach appears to be the treatment of choice for assertiveness training. Make sure that you provide at least three distinct reasons in your response. ANS: Not provided. REF: Group Therapy 4.Identify briefly at least five decisions that must be made by the therapist regarding the structure and conduct/rules of group therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Group Therapy 5.Describe briefly at least four of the curative factors of group psychotherapy proposed by Yalom (1975). ANS: Not provided. REF: Group Therapy 6.Explain how history-taking and assessment may be particularly helpful in a family therapy context. ANS: Not provided. REF: Family Therapy 7.Compare and contrast conjoint, concurrent, and collaborative family therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Family Therapy 8.Identify at least three general situations in which it would be logical to recommend family therapy. Identify at least two general situations in which family therapy should NOT be considered. ANS: Not provided. REF: Family Therapy 9.Compare and contrast behavioral marital therapy and emotionally-focused couples therapy. ANS: Not provided. REF: Family Therapy 10. Describe current trends in the use of group, family, and couples therapy, and describe the reasons for these trends. ANS: Not provided. REF: Group Therapy; Family Therapy
Chapter 16 Community Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true? a. Community psychology is typically practiced in clinical settings. b. The focus of community psychology is on individuals who have already developed psychological problems. c. Community psychology supports “giving psychology away” through activities like consultation. d. Only recently have clinicians accepted the idea that all behavior is a joint product of situational and personal factors. ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
2. When community psychologists define problems, they place particular emphasis on a. individuals. b. economic institutions. c. organizations and neighborhoods. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
3. Community psychologists tend to see psychological problems as primarily due to a. poor fit between people and environments. b. people’s inadequate coping styles. c. cognitive distortions in people at large. d. inadequate environments. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
4. Community psychologists tend to believe that a. interventions should emphasize deficits over competencies. b. diversity among individuals and communities is desirable. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
5. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true regarding the field of community psychology? a. The relationships among the political activists, clinicians, and scientists who work in the field have been characterized by a high degree of harmony. b. The field does not emphasize either individual disease or individual treatment. c. The field emphasizes the empowerment of individuals and communities. d. All of the above statements are true. ANS: A
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
6. Above all, community psychologists strive to __________ psychological disorders. a. prevent b. cure c. determine the etiology of d. redefine ANS: A
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
7. In __________, the U. S. Congress passed legislation creating the Joint Commission on Mental Health and Illness, whose report encouraged the development of a community mental health concept. a. 1905 b. 1929 c. 1955 d. 1973 ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
8. The 1963 "Kennedy Bill" funded mental health centers for the purpose of a. promoting the early detection of mental health problems. b. preventing the "warehousing" of chronic patients in mental hospitals. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
9. U. S. presidents __________ were instrumental in providing the political leadership to get the community psychology movement underway. a. Nixon and Ford b. Carter and Reagan c. Kennedy and Johnson d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
10. Which of the following is true regarding community mental health centers? a. The community mental health movement began to fall apart secondary to funding cuts during the Reagan Presidency. b. The number of community mental health centers is currently on the rise. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: A
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
11. ALL BUT WHICH of the following factors played a role in reducing the population of mental hospitals after the mid-1950s? a. a more liberal discharge philosophy b. the advent of psychotropic drugs, including antipsychotic medications c. a lack of trained therapists within the hospitals d. the widespread acceptance/use of the DSM ANS: D
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
12. The movement toward community psychology was fueled by a. questions about the efficacy of psychotherapy. b. the availability of psychotherapy for the poor and disadvantaged. c. a shortage of clinical psychologists and psychiatrists. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
13. The movement toward community psychology was fueled by ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. discontent with use of the medical model for psychological problems b. the general sociopolitical climate and activism of the 1960s c. less emphasis on environmental influences on people’s behavior d. greater emphasis on social influences on people’s behavior ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
14. According to researchers who have studied community psychology via ecological levels of analysis, the level with the broadest scope is the a. macrosystem. b. organization. c. locality. d. microsystem. ANS: A
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
15. Lawrence is a college student. Both his family and his peer group would be categorized at which level of the ecological levels of analysis? a. organization b. macrosystem c. locality d. microsystem ANS: D
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
16. Tracey is a high school student. Both her school and her church would be categorized at which level of the ecological levels of analysis? a. organization b. macrosystem c. locality d. microsystem ANS: A
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
17. Which of the following is true of the ecological levels of analysis identified by community psychologists? a. There are four such levels. b. Each level is independent of the others. c. The ecosystem as a whole is dynamic, rather than static. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Conceptual
18. In order to qualify for federal funds in 1963, a mental health center had to provide ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. inpatient care b. outpatient care c. research and practicum opportunities for students in mental health fields d. All of the above were required. ANS: C
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
19. According to the concept of community mental health, particularly in the 1960s, the role of the therapist was replaced by that of the a. researcher. b. teacher. c. social-change agent. d. scientist. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Conceptual
20. In the context of community psychology, the principle of prevention asserts that a. the identification of biological predispositions toward psychological disorders is the key to overcoming such disorders. b. prompt individual treatment of psychological disorders is crucial for preventing the development of additional, related disorders. c. timely treatment of the individual will help prevent larger problems within that person’s social group. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Conceptual
21. Research on the JOBS program has concluded ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. JOBS participants were re-employed no sooner than nonparticipants. b. JOBS participants secured better and more stable jobs than nonparticipants. c. JOBS participants demonstrated higher levels of self-confidence/lower levels of depression than nonparticipants. d. The JOBS program appeared to be cost-effective. ANS: A
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
22. __________ places an emphasis on counteracting harmful circumstances before they have had a chance to produce illness. a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Traditional psychological treatment ANS: A
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
23. Programs such as Head Start and Meals on Wheels are __________ programs. a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
24. A meta-analysis of primary prevention programs for children and adolescents (Durlak & Wells, 1997) concluded that a. such programs actually had unintended, negative effects on the majority of participants. b. the average participant in such programs demonstrated a better outcome than at least 50% of those in control groups. c. the positive effects of such programs were limited to the specific problem behaviors targeted. d. the positive effects of such programs did not endure over time. ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
25. __________ involves programs that promote the early identification of mental health problems and prompt treatment of problems at an early stage so that mental disorders do not develop. a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
26. Each October, thousands of sites across the country recognize National Depression Screening Day by offering free depression screenings to interested individuals. This kind of program would fall under which of the following categories? a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
27. The early detection and treatment of individuals with potentially damaging drinking problems exemplifies a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
28. The goal of __________ is to reduce the duration and the negative effects of mental disorders after their occurrence. a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
29. According to the Institute of Medicine's 1994 report "Reducing Risks for Mental Disorders," __________ preventive intervention is targeted toward "high risk" individuals. a. universal b. selective c. intermediate d. indicated ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
30. Dr. Pullman is involved in mental disorder prevention research, and he has just completed an extensive review of the literature on the risk and protective factors for a particular disorder, as well as the relevant prevention programs conducted to date. If he follows the research model recommended in the text, what should he do next? a. He should plan a prevention program and conduct large-scale trials of its effectiveness. b. He should plan a prevention program and conduct pilot studies of its effectiveness. c. He should plan a prevention program, implement it on a large scale, and evaluate its effectiveness. d. He should thoroughly review the extent of the disorder, as well as its costs to society. ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
31. In the field of community psychology, empowerment a. as a goal is incompatible with the prevention of mental disorders. b. as a goal is incompatible with an appreciation of diversity. c. is closely related to the concept of locus of control. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Conceptual
32. Which of the following was NOT identified by Dalton et al. (2001) as a dimension of human diversity important to the work of community psychologists? a. ability/disability status b. socioeconomic status c. religion/spirituality d. political affiliation ANS: D
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
33. Race was once viewed as __________, and now is viewed as __________. a. the most important dimension of diversity; the least important dimension of diversity b. a biological variable; a social variable based on physical criteria c. having moderate influence on mental health risk; having great influence on mental health risk d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Conceptual
34. Which of the following correctly illustrates "blaming the victim?" a. Society views the person addicted to drugs as a product of a bad social environment. b. Society views the high school dropout as making an incorrect decision regarding his/her future. c. Society views the long-term unemployed adult as the victim of poor schooling and inadequate social programs. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Applied
35. According to Caplan and Nelson (1973), why are some individuals prone to placing responsibility on individuals who are disadvantaged rather than on society or the environment? a. Such explanations free the government and cultural institutions from blame. b. Such explanations remove the burden for solving the problem from government and cultural institutions. c. Such explanations legitimize the traditional clinical practice of treating individuals. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Key Concepts
DIF: Conceptual
36. Through __________, a mental health professional can multiply the number of clients he/she serves indirectly. a. hospitalization b. rehabilitation c. crisis intervention d. consultation ANS: D
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Conceptual
37. Which of the following is an example of the kind of consultation that might be provided by a community psychologist? a. Dr. Roeber is working with management at the auto parts factory to reduce employee absenteeism. b. Dr. Fiske is working with middle school teachers in the local school district to adopt more effective classroom management/discipline strategies. c. Dr. Kowalski is working with the local sheriff’s department to help them recognize and refer for treatment individuals with mood and psychotic disorders. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Applied
38. Dr. Blalock is helping a colleague with a diagnostic problem regarding a specific client. According to the widely accepted classification scheme detailed in Caplan (1970), Dr. Blalock is offering __________ consultation. a. client-centered case b. consultee-centered case c. program-centered administrative d. consultee-centered administrative ANS: A
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Applied
39. Dr. Wertheimer is working with a teacher to develop strategies to use with future students who exhibit behavior problems. According to the widely accepted classification scheme detailed in Caplan (1970), Dr. Wertheimer is offering __________ consultation. a. consultee-centered case b. client-centered case c. consultee-centered administrative d. program-centered administrative ANS: A
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Applied
40. __________ are considered viable alternatives to the chronic hospitalization of mentally ill patients. a. Community lodges b. Day hospitals c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Factual
41. The Head Start program was designed primarily to a. train high school dropouts for employment. b. prepare disadvantaged preschool children for elementary school. c. educate disadvantaged parents about proper nutrition. d. help disadvantaged high school students navigate the college application process. ANS: B
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Conceptual
42. Studies of the effectiveness of Head Start programs suggest that the program a. increases high school graduation rates. b. decreases contact with the criminal justice system. c. decreases out-of-wedlock births. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Factual
43. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of self-help groups like Parents Without Partners? a. The success of such groups does not appear to be enhanced by governing rules. b. Such groups may prevent/reduce the need for professional intervention. c. Such groups serve several important functions for members. d. All of the above are true. ANS: A
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Conceptual
44. Terrell is the grown child of an alcoholic who is interested in establishing an Al-Anon group in his part of town. Based on the available research, what role should Terrell assign to professionals in order to maximize the group’s success? a. He should bring in professionals to oversee/manage the group. b. He should arrange for professionals to provide periodic consultation to group leaders. c. He shouldn’t involve professionals at all. d. It doesn’t matter; the role played by professionals has almost no impact on the success of self-help groups. ANS: B
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Applied
45. Most of the relevant empirical evidence suggests that, regarding the provision of mental health services, a. paraprofessionals are much less effective than professionals. b. paraprofressionals are somewhat less effective than professionals. c. paraprofessionals are at least as effective as professionals. d. The methodological flaws of the studies conducted on this topic do not allow for firm conclusions. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Factual
46. According to a series of studies on paraprofessional mental health services (Cowen, 1982), __________ of the customers of hairdressers and bartenders raised moderate to serious personal problems with them. a. almost none b. a small but significant proportion c. greater than 50% d. almost all ANS: B
REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
DIF: Factual
47. Recent reports evaluating the effectiveness of a wide range of prevention programs suggest that we should feel __________ about the effectiveness of community psychology. a. disappointed b. cautiously optimistic c. extremely confident d. discouraged, particularly in comparison to the effectiveness of early prevention programs ANS: B
REF: Concluding Comments
DIF: Conceptual
48. According to recent meta-analyses, effective prevention programs have been developed for a. substance abuse. b. depression and anxiety. c. conduct disorder and antisocial personality disorder. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Concluding Comments
DIF: Factual
49. ALL BUT WHICH is true regarding training in the area of community psychology? a. Very few new prevention experts are produced by training programs each year. b. At least a master’s degree is required to do work in the field of community psychology. c. The multidisciplinary nature of community psychology makes it difficult to design appropriate training programs. d. It is critical that community psychologists receive training regarding issues of diversity. ANS: B
REF: Concluding Comments
DIF: Conceptual
50. According to the 1994 Institute of Medicine report, __________ have more stringent requirements, including training in the design and evaluation of interventions, than do __________. a. prevention field specialists; prevention research specialists b. clinical psychologists; community psychologists c. community psychologists; consultants d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Concluding Comments
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.What is community psychology? Identify four respects in which it differs fundamentally from traditional clinical psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Perspectives and History 2.Identify and provide examples of at least three of the levels of analysis referred to in community psychology. What are some characteristics of this ecosystem? ANS: Not provided. REF: Key Concepts 3.Compare and contrast primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention. How does tertiary prevention differ from interventions based on a deficit philosophy? ANS: Not provided. REF: Key Concepts 4.Compare and contrast universal, selective, and indicated preventive interventions. ANS: Not provided. REF: Key Concepts 5.Explain how the concept of empowerment is important to the field of community psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Key Concepts 6.Briefly differentiate sex from gender, and race from ethnicity. Also, identify at least four dimensions of human diversity (aside from gender, race, and ethnicity) outlined by Dalton et al. (2001). ANS: Not provided. REF: Key Concepts 7.What do community psychologists mean by "blaming the victim"? Why does it happen, and what can be done to minimize it? ANS: Not provided. REF: Key Concepts 8.What is consultation, and what role does it play in community psychology? ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods of Intervention and Change
9.Identify at least four primary functions of self-help groups. How may professionals best contribute to the success of these groups? ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods of Intervention and Change 10. Identify three ways in which the prevention field has been its own worst enemy and aroused the skepticism of people outside the field. ANS: Not provided. REF: Concluding Comments
Chapter 17 Health Psychology and Behavioral Medicine MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Most health problems in the United States are related to a. chronic diseases. b. personality disorders. c. malnutrition. d. accidents. ANS: A
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
2. The costs of medical care in the United States are approximately __________% of the Gross Domestic Product. a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 24 ANS: C
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
3. How is behavioral medicine distinguished from health psychology? a. There is no difference; the terms may be used interchangeably. b. Behavioral medicine is a medical specialty, whereas health psychology is a psychology specialty. c. Behavioral medicine focuses on disease prevention, whereas health psychology focuses on health promotion. d. Behavioral medicine is an interdisciplinary field, whereas health psychology is a specialty within psychology. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
4. The most recent definitions of health psychology include psychology's contributions to the a. enhancement of health. b. improvement of the health care system. c. shaping of public opinion with regard to health. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
5. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a criticism of the traditional biomedical approach to medicine? a. The mind-body dualism perspective is outdated. b. Too often, psychosocial factors are emphasized to the neglect of somatic factors. c. The approach is reductionistic and ultimately sheds no light on what causes disease. d. All of the above are criticisms of the biomedical approach. ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
6. By about __________, researchers in the field of psychosomatic medicine began to identify some diseases, including __________, as caused by psychological factors. a. the 1980s; hypertension b. the 1940s; peptic ulcer disease c. the 1920s; heart disease d. the 1960s; lung cancer ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
7. Ian has been described by friends and family as driven to succeed, competitive, and occasionally hostile towards others. In health psychology terms, Ian would be said to have a __________ personality. a. borderline b. Type A c. overachieving d. psychasthenic ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Applied
8. The biopsychosocial model acknowledges that __________ may influence illness and health. a. cognitions b. genetic predispositions c. life events d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
9. Dr. Stanley, who is treating a patient with hypertension, believes that nutritional deficiencies, behavior patterns, and family interactions all contribute to the disease. Dr. Stanley appears to endorse the __________ model of health and illness. a. biopsychosocial b. psychosocial c. biomedical d. psychosomatic ANS: A
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Applied
10. According to the text, the development of the field of health psychology beginning in the 1970s was fueled by a. a rise in the rate of infectious diseases. b. rising health care costs. c. increased barriers to entering private practice and academia. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
11. Most contemporary health psychologists view stress as a. a quality of an external stimulus. b. an individual's response to a stimulus. c. the result of an interaction between an external stimulus and the individual’s response. d. the result of an interaction between two or more stimuli. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
12. Stress increases the production of a. epinephrine and norepinephrine. b. ACTH. c. cortisol. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
13. __________ is a hormone that increases energy level and decreases inflammation during times of stress. a. Epinephrine b. Cortisol c. Capsaicin d. Endorphin ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
14. Which of the following is true about stressful life events? a. They impact psychological health, but not physical health. b. Only negative events are perceived as stressful. c. Relatively common, minor stressors are referred to as “daily hassles.” d. They are the primary cause of illness and disease. ANS: C
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
15. The physiological effects of stress typically include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. increased respiration b. increased heart rate c. increased blood flow d. decreased muscle strength ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
16. Prolonged stress can have adverse effects on a. the ability of the immune system to destroy viruses. b. bodily organs. c. mental functions. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
17. __________ refers to people's beliefs about their ability to exercise control over events that affect their lives. a. Self-efficacy b. Self-esteem c. Grandiosity d. Optimism ANS: A
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
18. Bethany believes that nothing she does will have any impact on her life. We might say that Bethany demonstrates a. dysthymia. b. low self-efficacy. c. delusions of persecution. d. dependent personality disorder. ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Applied
19. Protection Motivation Theory posits that behavior is a function of a. cultural values and gender norms. b. threat appraisal and coping appraisal. c. one’s level of motivation. d. one’s security drive. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
20. According to Protection Motivation Theory, a young man who is deciding whether or not to engage in drinking behavior will ask himself, a. "How dangerous is alcohol, and how vulnerable am I?" b. "How capable am I to refrain from drinking alcohol, or to deal with the situations that come up as a result of drinking?" c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Applied
21. In what ways can personality characteristics influence physical health and illness? a. Personality characteristics can result from disease processes. b. Personality characteristics can lead to unhealthy behaviors. c. A third variable may relate to both personality characteristics and unhealthy behaviors/disease. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
22. Individuals with Type A personality tend to a. become aggressive and hostile when frustrated. b. work near maximum capacity when a deadline approaches, and below maximum capacity when no deadline is approaching. c. report significant fatigue and physical complaints. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Factual
23. The best predictor of coronary heart disease is a. the anger-hostility component of Type A personality. b. the time-pressure component of Type A personality. c. a combination of the anger-hostility and time-pressure components. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
24. According to the psychosocial vulnerability model of the relationship between hostility and health, a. increased heart rate, blood pressure, and stress-related hormones increase risk for coronary artery disease. b. hostile individuals create a stressful environment by mistrusting others and scanning their environments for potential mistreatment. c. hostile individuals have small social support networks, and, as a result, take worse care of themselves/their bodies. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
25. In explaining the relationship between hostility and health, Dr. Billings asserts that more hostile individuals have poorer health habits, and it’s these habits that increase their susceptibility to coronary heart disease. Evidently, Dr. Billings is an adherent of the __________. a. transactional model of stress. b. psychophysiological reactivity model. c. psychosocial vulnerability model. d. health behavior model. ANS: D
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Applied
26. Dr. Perez, a health psychologist, would like to evaluate the social support available to her new client, Camden. In other words, she will assess a. the number of Camden’s social relationships. b. the quality of Camden’s social relationships. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Applied
27. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between health and social support? a. Several studies suggest that social support acts as a "buffer" against adverse health outcomes. b. The effect of social support on health disappears after controlling for demographic variables and medical risk factors. c. The relationship between social support and health goes in one direction only; although social support affects health outcomes, health status has no effect on social support networks. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: History and Perspectives
DIF: Conceptual
28. Which of the following best illustrates extinction? a. A person with a fear of doctors’ offices overcomes this fear by repeatedly visiting a doctor's office for pleasant interactions with personnel and other, non-anxious, patients. b. A person with a fear of dentists visits a psychoanalyst who helps to uncover the unconscious symbolism of dental procedures. c. A person who is not anxious about acquiring HIV watches an educational video on the topic and develops mild anxiety about acquiring HIV. d. A person never experiences anxiety about contracting sexually transmitted diseases because he/she has never developed such a disease despite frequent high-risk behaviors. ANS: A
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Applied
29. Dr. McAndrew has decided to use systematic desensitization to treat his client’s tension headaches. Which of the following treatment components MUST be present in order for Dr. McAndrews’s intervention to be considered systematic desensitization? a. an extensive explanation (verbal and/or written) of the relationship between lifestyle and conditions like headache b. a record on which the client is asked to record headache data, including the factors that precede it, how he or she responds to it, and the consequences that follow from it c. extensive training in/use of relaxation techniques d. a thorough psychophysiological assessment using self-ratings, observer ratings, and/or recording equipment ANS: C
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Conceptual
30. Which of the following best illustrates the application of operant conditioning principles in health psychology? a. A person with peptic ulcers undergoes relaxation training. b. A person with a fear of the dentist undergoes systematic desensitization. c. Family members of a chronic pain patient are instructed to ignore the patient's complaints and reinforce the patient's attempts to become more physically active. d. A person with hypertension is taught to imagine, during highly stressful times, a calming scenario that he/she has created with his/her health psychology professional. ANS: C
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Applied
31. Cognitive-behavioral methods have been demonstrated as effective for the treatment of a. chronic pain. b. bulimia. c. smoking cessation. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Factual
32. Carmen, a chronic pain patient, completes a self-monitoring record, and the health psychology professional helps her to challenge and correct her maladaptive beliefs. The treatment Carmen is receiving is best labeled a. biofeedback. b. primary prevention. c. cognitive-behavioral. d. behavioral. ANS: C
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Applied
33. __________ is an example of a respondent technique used by health psychologists, and __________ is an example of an operant technique used by health psychologists. a. Biofeedback; contingency contracting b. Selective reinforcement; exposure c. Thought stopping; biofeedback d. Systematic desensitization; contingency contracting ANS: D
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Conceptual
34. In __________, an aspect of the patient's physiological functioning is monitored and fed back to the patient in the form of a signal, which he/she then attempts to modify. a. biofeedback b. self-monitoring c. a virtual reality paradigm d. obesity treatment ANS: A
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
35. Because Delilah experiences severe headaches, she undergoes treatment that involves the placement of electrodes on her forehead. Delilah is most likely receiving a. cognitive-behavioral treatment. b. electroconvulsive therapy. c. placebo treatment. d. biofeedback. ANS: D
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Applied
36. ALL BUT WHICH of the following has been a common criticism of biofeedback? a. Biofeedback may not be more effective than other, less expensive, techniques. b. Studies on biofeedback have not always been able to separate the effects of biofeedback from the effects of other treatments included in the same treatment package. c. Biofeedback may be harmful, depending on the nature of the health condition. d. Rightly or wrongly, biofeedback has a reputation for being faddish or cultish. ANS: C
REF: Methods of Intervention
DIF: Conceptual
37. Which of the following is true regarding cigarette smoking? a. Despite widely known health risks, the number of habitual cigarette smokers is currently on the rise. b. Rebelliousness contributes to the initiation of smoking, but not to maintenance of the habit. c. Relapse rates for smoking cessation treatment are approximately 30%. d. Most people who manage to quit smoking do so on their own. ANS: D
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Conceptual
38. According to research on demographic characteristics of cigarette smokers, which person below is most likely to be a smoker? a. Martina, a 25-year-old Hispanic female with a college degree b. Jared, a 40-year-old Caucasian male with a family income of $30,000 per year c. Sandra, a 60-year-old Asian-American female with a family income of $75,000 per year d. Russell, a 50-year-old African-American male with a high school education ANS: B
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Applied
39. Dr. Baker is a health psychologist, and he is developing a program for the local elementary schools to deter children from taking up smoking. Based on the available research, which of the following interventions is likely to be LEAST effective for this purpose? a. Focusing on dire health consequences, such as cancer or emphysema, that may occur after years of smoking. b. Teaching smoking refusal skills through peer modeling and role plays. c. Offering video recorded presentations that focus on the peer/social influences on smoking. d. Conducting discussion groups to monitor children’s attitudes toward and knowledge about smoking. ANS: A
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Applied
40. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding ethnicity and cancer? a. The incidence of common forms of cancer varies across ethnic groups. b. The mortality rates from common forms of cancer vary across ethnic groups. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Factual
41. Which of the following is true regarding alcohol abuse and dependence? a. The majority of clients treated for alcohol problems have a relapse episode soon after treatment is terminated. b. Research suggests that "controlled drinking" is a viable treatment option for some alcoholics. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Conceptual
42. How effective are school-based programs (through health classes or media campaigns) for preventing problem drinking? a. The effectiveness of these programs varies tremendously. b. The effectiveness of these programs is consistently superior to the standard school curriculum on alcohol-related issues. c. The effectiveness of these programs is consistently superior to the standard school curriculum on alcohol-related issues, but only in the short term. d. The effectiveness of these programs appears to be inferior to the standard school curriculum on alcohol-related issues. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Factual
43. According to recent meta-analyses, ALL BUT WHICH of the following are effective components of obesity prevention programs for children and youth? a. reducing television viewing b. limiting food access at home and providing good models for appropriate eating c. modifying home and school environments/policies to encourage physical activity d. All of the above appear to be effective program components. ANS: D
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Conceptual
44. Research on smoking, alcohol abuse and dependence, and obesity all suggests that a. the best approach to these problems is early prevention. b. aversion techniques appear to be most effective for dealing with these issues. c. because these problems have strong genetic components, medical treatment ultimately will be more helpful than psychological treatment. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Prevention of Health Problems
DIF: Conceptual
45. Research on health psychology applications with stressful medical procedures suggests that the most effective method of reducing negative affect, pain reports, and other distress involves descriptions of a. what will occur. b. the sensations that will be encountered. c. both what will occur and the sensations that will be encountered. d. neither what will occur nor the sensations that will be encountered. ANS: C
REF: Other Applications
DIF: Conceptual
46. Dr. Arden is a health psychologist who works with pediatric leukemia patients, several of whom are apprehensive about the same medical procedure. If Dr. Arden develops a film of a coping model to show to these patients, ALL BUT WHICH would maximize the film’s effectiveness? a. The patient in the film anticipates the same procedure as Dr. Arden’s patients. b. The patient in the film appears confident as he/she anticipates the procedure. c. The patient in the film copes successfully with the demands of the procedure. d. All of the above would maximize the film’s effectiveness. ANS: B
REF: Other Applications
DIF: Applied
47. Research on compliance with medical regimens suggests that a. educational and instructional interventions are more effective than behavioral interventions. b. behavioral interventions are more effective than educational and instructional interventions. c. neither educational and instructional interventions nor behavioral interventions are effective. d. educational and instructional interventions are more effective in the short term, and behavioral interventions are more effective in the long term. ANS: B
REF: Other Applications
DIF: Conceptual
48. ALL BUT WHICH of the following patient/illness factors appear to be associated with increased adherence to medical regimens? a. low income b. higher levels of self-efficacy c. greater severity of illness d. living with others ANS: A
REF: Other Applications
DIF: Factual
49. Most current health psychologists have a. a doctoral degree from a clinical health psychology graduate program. b. a doctoral degree from a clinical, social, or experimental psychology graduate program. c. a doctoral degree from a graduate program in public health. d. a master’s degree from a graduate program in public health. ANS: B
REF: Future Directions
DIF: Factual
50. According to Friedman et al. (1995), why haven't health psychology interventions been integrated to a greater extent into our health care system? a. Biological origins of diseases have been emphasized over psychosocial explanations. b. Physicians are unaware of the data supporting health psychology interventions. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Future Directions
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.Compare and contrast the biopsychosocial model of illness and health with the models that preceded it. ANS: Not provided. REF: History and Perspectives 2.Define self-efficacy, and explain the importance of this concept for health psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: History and Perspectives 3.Explain at least three distinct ways personality may impact health/illness (or personality and health/illness may relate). ANS: Not provided. REF: History and Perspectives 4.Briefly describe the “Type A” personality. What does more recent research suggest regarding the relationship between Type A behavior and coronary heart disease? ANS: Not provided. REF: History and Perspectives 5.Briefly describe the steps involved in systematic desensitization, using a health psychology example. ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods of Intervention 6.Define biofeedback, and describe generally how it might proceed for the problem of hypertension. What are two common criticisms of biofeedback? ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods of Intervention 7.Describe generally how cognitive-behavioral treatment might proceed for the problem of chronic pain. In your response, be sure to identify at least a couple specific components of the treatment. ANS: Not provided. REF: Methods of Intervention 8.Identify at least three distinct health risks posed by obesity. Also, identify at least three components of obesity prevention programs for children and youth that have shown promise in recent meta-analyses. ANS: Not provided. REF: Prevention of Health Problems
9.Identify at least one disease characteristic and one patient characteristic associated with higher levels of compliance to medical regimens. Also, identify two general strategies for improving patient compliance. ANS: Not provided. REF: Other Applications 10. Describe at least three professional challenges faced by health psychologists. What is one way health psychologists can establish their identity and presence in settings traditionally dominated by physicians? ANS: Not provided. REF: Future Directions
Chapter 18 Neuropsychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Neuropsychology is best defined as the study of a. brain malfunction due to lesion or disease. b. the relationship between brain function and intelligence. c. the relationship between brain function and behavior. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
2. The primary roles of a neuropsychologist include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. testing to determine whether symptoms are emotionally or neurologically based b. predicting prognosis for recovery from a brain injury c. designing interventions and rehabilitation programs for individual patients d. estimating the incidence and prevalence of various neurological disorders ANS: D
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
3. __________ is the theory that the bumps and indentations of the skull indicate individual differences in intelligence and personality. a. Phrenology b. Localization c. Equipotentiality d. Cranial topology ANS: A
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
4. Paul Broca a. is the most widely-known critic of current neuropsychological test batteries. b. championed the practice phrenology in the 19th century. c. determined via autopsy the area of the brain used for motor speech. d. more than one of the above ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
5. The idea of localization of brain function a. has been around for only about a century. b. is unable to explain why lesions in very different parts of the brain sometimes produce the same deficit or impairment. c. is unable to explain how some patients with very small brain lesions manifest marked, specific behavioral deficits. d. more than one none of the above ANS: B
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
6. Equipotentiality is best understood as a. the ability of brain-injured patients to return to premorbid levels of functioning. b. the tendency for the brain to function as a whole rather than as isolated units. c. equivalent neuropsychological abilities across the senses. d. the comparable impairment experienced by individuals with similar brain lesions. ANS: B
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
7. Dr. Jasper believes that a behavioral deficit depends on both which functional system (e.g., perception, planning) of the brain has been affected, as well as the localization of damage within that system. We would say that Dr. Jasper adheres to a. the idea of equipotentiality. b. the functional model. c. the idea of localization of function. d. the componential model. ANS: B
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Applied
8. ALL BUT WHICH of the following contributed to the growth of the field of neuropsychology after World War II? a. the large number of head injuries in soldiers returning from the war b. the rapid growth of the larger field of clinical psychology c. the emergence of rudimentary neuroimaging technologies d. All of the above played a role in the growth of neuropsychology at that time. ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
9. Which of the following is true regarding brain structure and function? a. The left hemisphere of the brain is thought to be more involved in language functions than the right hemisphere of the brain. b. The right hemisphere of the brain is thought to be more involved in visual-spatial skills than the left hemisphere of the brain. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Conceptual
10. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true regarding the hemispheric organization of the brain? a. Generally speaking, the left side of the brain controls sensation and motor functions on the right side of the body, and the right side of the brain controls sensation and motor functions on the left side of the body. b. Language is localized on the left side of the brain for right handers, and the right side of the brain for left-handers. c. The two hemispheres communicate via a structure called the corpus callosum. d. All of the above are true. ANS: B
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Conceptual
11. The frontal lobes of the brain were the __________ to develop, evolutionarily, and are the __________ to develop as humans grow from infancy to adulthood. a. last; first b. last; last c. first; first d. first; last ANS: B
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
12. Planning and carrying out goal-directed initiatives are activities governed by the __________ lobes. a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
13. The __________ lobes are primarily responsible for visual processing. a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal ANS: B
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
14. Scott is injured in a car accident and experiences a lesion to the left temporal lobe. It is most likely that this lesion will cause impairment in Scott’s a. equilibrium. b. vision. c. emotional regulation. d. language-related abilities. ANS: D
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
15. Following a bicycle accident where her (helmetless) head hit the asphalt, Ally is experiencing impaired tactile perception. She most likely has damage to the __________ lobes. a. parietal b. temporal c. frontal d. occipital ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
16. In recent months, Percy has been experiencing difficulty with his coordination and balance that is growing progressively worse. Which area of the brain, below, would you guess is involved in his problems? a. the cerebellum b. the parietal lobe c. the cerebral cortex d. the limbic system ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
17. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement about head injury? a. Most head injuries are relatively mild. b. Head injury is a leading cause of death and disability in young people in the U.S. c. Head injuries are classified as either concussions or perforations. d. All of the above are true. ANS: C
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Conceptual
18. A brain trauma in which the brain has been shifted from its normal position and is pressed against the skull, often resulting in bruised tissue, coma, or delirium, is referred to as a a. contusion. b. concussion. c. stroke. d. laceration. ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
MSC: WWW
19. The blockage or rupture of cerebral blood vessels is known as a(n) a. laceration. b. stroke. c. contusion. d. contrecoup. ANS: B
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
20. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement about strokes? a. Strokes occur most commonly among the elderly. b. Strokes are also called cerebrovascular accidents. c. Strokes result from one of three basic types of intracranial events. d. Prompt medical attention can greatly reduce the amount of damage from certain strokes. ANS: C
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Conceptual
21. Ever since her stroke, Julia has been unable to recognize ordinary objects, although she is able to describe their features. Julia appears to have a. agnosia. b. apraxia. c. ataxia. d. aphasia. ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
22. General language impairment is known as __________, and specific impairment in naming things is known as __________. a. aphasia; anomia b. anomia; agnosia c. agnosia; ataxia d. ataxia; aphasia ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
23. __________ is the most common degenerative brain disease, and __________ is the degenerative brain disease with the earliest typical age of onset. a. Alzheimer's; Alzheimer's b. Parkinson's; Parkinson's c. Alzheimer's; Huntington's chorea d. Parkinson's; Huntington's chorea ANS: C
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Factual
24. Ted has been an alcoholic for 20 years and is experiencing brain damage due to poor nutrition. The most likely diagnosis in this case is a. beriberi. b. Alzheimer's disease. c. Huntington's chorea. d. Korsakoff's psychosis. ANS: D
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
25. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a change to the brain often observed in people with chronic alcoholism? a. lesions in the temporal lobe b. atrophy of the cerebral cortex c. damage to the cerebellum d. shrinkage or lesions in the diencephalon ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Conceptual
26. Neurological damage can result in a. the deterioration of judgment under conditions of stress. b. a lack of concern over the consequences of one's actions. c. an inability to learn or retain new information. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Conceptual
27. Dennis’s friends bring him to the ER late one night following blows to his head that have left him unable to say where he is or even what day it is. Someone assessing Dennis’s neuropsychological status would say that he has impaired a. affect. b. perception. c. orientation. d. cognitive fluency. ANS: C
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
28. Mrs. Killoran has been brought to the neuropsychology clinic for evaluation by two of her grown children. During the interview with the neuropsychologist, Mrs. Killoran laughs and cries very easily, and shifts rapidly from exhibiting one emotional state to exhibiting another. The neuropsychologist would say that Mrs. Killoran is characterized by __________ affect. a. labile b. bipolar c. intemperate d. reactive ANS: A
REF: The Brain....
DIF: Applied
29. Which of the following is true? a. According to the standard battery approach to neuropsychological assessment, all patients should receive the same tests. b. The major disadvantage of the hypothesis-testing approach to neuropsychological assessment is that it is relatively costly in terms of time and money. c. The fixed and flexible battery approaches cannot readily be reconciled/combined. d. all of the above ANS: A
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
30. The neuropsychologist may interpret neuropsychological tests according to a. differences between a patient's score and the norms for others in his/her reference group. b. differences between two tests completed by the same patient. c. the specific pattern of test scores obtained by a patient. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
31. An investigation by Ivnik et al. (2000) on the validity of four different approaches to interpreting test data concluded that a. cutoff scores are essentially worthless. b. cutoff scores can be used instead of more complex indices like difference scores or patterns of scores. c. all approaches to interpreting neuropsychological test data are equally valid. d. the use of cutoff scores is adequate for novices in the field, but experts should rely more heavily upon more complex indices like difference scores or patterns of scores. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Factual
32. Which of the following provides a better sense of the "working" brain than more traditional neurodiagnostic procedures? a. fMRI b. CAT scan c. SPECT d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
33. Which of the following is true? a. None of the neurodiagnostic procedures currently in use pose physical risks for the patient. b. None of the neurodiagnostic procedures currently in use are physically invasive. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
34. Dr. Cao, a neuropsychologist, is testing a brain-injured patient and wants an estimate of the patient's premorbid level of functioning. For this purpose, Dr. Cao should consider administering the __________ subtests of the WAIS-IV. a. Arithmetic and Digit Span b. Information and Block Design c. Information, Comprehension, and Vocabulary d. Comprehension, Picture Completion, and Figure Weights ANS: C
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Applied
35. Dr. Tobin, a neuropsychologist, receives a referral for an individual who was in a car accident, and the referral source is interested in changes to the person’s functioning as a result of the accident. If no baseline data is available, how would Dr. Tobin best estimate the person’s premorbid (pre-accident) functioning? a. by asking the person what changes he/she has noticed since the accident b. by drawing an inference based on data (e.g., level of education, occupation) from the person’s case history c. by having the person complete certain subtests of the WAIS-IV d. by having the person complete the Wisconsin Card-Sorting Task ANS: C
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Applied
36. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is best used to assess a. premorbid functioning. b. abstract reasoning. c. overall intelligence. d. memory. ANS: B
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
37. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test involves a. sorting a standard deck of playing cards according to the evaluator's instructions. b. cards that differ only in the number of stimuli printed on each card. c. cards with visual figures that the examinee is asked to copy from memory onto a blank sheet of paper. d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
38. Which of the following is NOT a memory test based on visual stimuli? a. Benton Visual Retention Test b. Bender-Gestalt c. Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test d. All of the above assess visual memory. ANS: B
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
39. When a neuropsychologist presents the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure to an examinee, the neuropsychologist instructs the examinee to a. sort its pieces according to varying instructions. b. use the pieces to build a figure exactly as shown in the model. c. copy the figure, and then draw it from memory. d. count the number of various types of shapes contained in the figure. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
40. Neuropsychological damage can result in linguistic problems such as paraphasias, which are best described as a. word substitutions. b. impaired ability to name objects. c. the absence of coherent speech. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Factual
41. Which of the following is considered a test battery rather than a single test for brain dysfunction? a. Halstead-Reitan b. Luria-Nebraska c. Rey-Osterrieth d. more than one of the above ANS: D
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Factual
42. Currently, the __________ is the most widely used neuropsychological test battery. a. Halstead-Reitan b. Luria-Nebraska c. Rey-Osterrieth d. Bender-Gestalt ANS: A
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Factual
43. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery? a. Its initial development was guided by factor analysis. b. The entire battery takes about 2.5 hours to adminster/complete. c. The results can suggest whether a lesion has come on suddenly or more gradually. d. Research has supported its reliability and validity across age groups. ANS: B
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
44. The main advantage of the Luria-Nebraska over the Halstead-Reitan is a. more comprehensive normative data. b. length of administration time. c. localization accuracy. d. greater age range. ANS: B
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Conceptual
45. Which of the following situations best exemplifies malingering? a. When filling out a paper-and-pencil personality measure, Donna answers in such a way that she appears more thoughtful and less irritable than she truly is. b. Jay is hard to engage in his interview with the neuropsychologist, making little eye contact and supplying one- or two-word responses to her questions. c. During her neuropsychological evaluation, Lexi repeatedly requests bathroom and water breaks, and tries to distract the professional with questions and tangential comments. d. During his neuropsychological testing session, Derek responds to the tests in such a way that his memory functioning appears significantly worse than it really is. ANS: D
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Applied
46. Harvey, who is undergoing a neuropsychological evaluation, fails very easy test items and performs below chance levels on alternative-choice test items. According to Rogers et al. (1993) and others, the examiner should suspect a. localization of brain injury in the frontal lobes. b. localization of brain injury in the temporal lobes. c. inappropriate test selection by the examiner. d. malingering. ANS: D MSC: WWW
REF: Methods of Neuropsychological Assessment
DIF: Applied
47. Dr. Lowry is a neuropsychologist, and he is in charge of coordinating the treatment of a patient with a brain injury. What factor should he consider as he designs the treatment? a. Where are the patient’s specific deficits? b. What are the patient’s specific strengths? c. Will the treatment require too much of the staff’s time and energy? d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Intervention and Rehabilitation
DIF: Applied
48. According to a paper by Wilson (2008), ALL BUT WHICH of the following is likely to increase the success of rehabilitation programs for cognitive and behavioral deficits? a. involving the patient in the establishment and modification of the treatment goals b. making use of virtual reality to simulate real-life experience c. targeting cognitive, emotional, and physical deficits separately d. using electronic diaries or pagers to prompt the patient to use particular skills ANS: C
REF: Intervention and Rehabilitation
DIF: Conceptual
49. In the context of neuropsychology, rehabilitation can involve helping the patient a. change his/her environment to ensure the best possible quality of life. b. "relearn" impaired abilities via intact functional systems. c. develop new functional systems. d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Intervention and Rehabilitation
DIF: Conceptual
50. The future of neuropsychology will most likely include a. a de-emphasis on rehabilitation. b. the continued willingness of managed care companies to reimburse the costs of neuropsychological assessment. c. the growth and development of neuropsychological subspecialties. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Concluding Remarks
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.Define neuropsychology, and identify three primary roles of neuropsychologists. ANS: Not provided. REF: Perspectives and History 2.Compare and contrast the localization of function, equipotentiality, and functional models of brain functioning. ANS: Not provided. REF: Perspectives and History 3.Identify and describe in some depth at least four distinct antecedents or causes of brain damage. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Brain: Structure, Function, and Impairment 4.Identify and describe at least four common consequences or symptoms of brain damage. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Brain: Structure, Function, and Impairment 5.Explain the primary advantages and disadvantages of (1) the standard battery approach and (2) the flexible battery approach to neuropsychological assessment. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Brain: Structure, Function, and Impairment 6.What kind of information is provided by fMRI? Identify at least two drawbacks of neurodiagnostic procedures, in general, and explain when they should be ordered. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Brain: Structure, Function, and Impairment 7.Compare and contrast the Halstead-Reitan and the Luria-Nebraska test batteries. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Brain: Structure, Function, and Impairment 8.Identify at least four patient characteristics that affect performance on neuropsychological tests. In your response, avoid demographic variables such as age, sex, socioeconomic status, etc. ANS: Not provided. REF: The Brain: Structure, Function, and Impairment 9.Describe the guidelines for graduate training in clinical neuropsychology that were offered at the Houston Conference in 1997. Also, what kind of post-doctoral training is required? ANS: Not provided. REF: Concluding Remarks
10. According to the text, how will the focuses, duties, and work settings of clinical neuropsychologists change, or continue to change, in the future? ANS: Not provided. REF: Concluding Remarks
Chapter 19 Forensic Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Forensic psychology involves the application of the methods, theories, and concepts of psychology to a. violent criminal behavior. b. criminal behavior. c. the legal system. d. incarcerated individuals. ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
MSC: WWW
2. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of forensic psychology? a. The field has not always been well-regarded. b. Currently, forensic psychology training programs are increasing in both number and kind. c. Many of the training programs, texts, and journals are interdisciplinary in nature, spanning both law and psychology. d. The applications of the field are relatively narrow in scope. ANS: D
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Conceptual
3. Appropriately qualified psychologists were first authorized to testify in court as experts on mental disorder in a. 1942. b. 1962. c. 1976. d. 1990. ANS: B
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
4. The 1908 book On the Witness Stand was written by a. Hugo von Munsterberg. b. David Bazelon. c. John Wigmore. d. Lewis Terman. ANS: A
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
5. Ashlee, who is wrapping up her undergraduate degree in psychology, is interested in becoming a forensic psychologist. ALL BUT WHICH of the following options are available to her (and others like her) for graduate training in this area? a. doctoral psychology programs with a law emphasis b. master’s programs in psychology with a law emphasis c. joint programs that award both law and psychology degrees d. All of the above training options are available to Ashlee and others. ANS: D
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Applied
6. According to the ethical standards specifically applicable to forensic psychology (e.g., Blau, 1998), a. the psychologist should accept a fee contingent upon the outcome of a case only if the case is criminal (rather than civil). b. the psychologist should receive all fees after testifying. c. the psychologist who regularly testifies as an expert witness should devote some professional time to "pro bono publico" (charity) cases. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Perspectives and History
DIF: Factual
7. Which of the following is true regarding lay witnesses and expert witnesses? a. A lay witness, unlike an expert witness, can offer opinions or inferences. b. An expert witness, unlike a lay witness, can offer opinions or inferences. c. Both lay witnesses and expert witnesses can offer opinions or inferences. d. Neither lay witnesses nor expert witnesses can offer opinions or inferences. ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
8. A psychologist working as an expert witness is required by the court to have a. a Psy.D. or Ph.D. b. board certification in his/her respective specialty. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
9. What is the significance of the 1993 Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow? a. It changed the criteria for the admissibility of expert testimony. b. It narrowed the scope of the opinions that may be offered by expert witnesses. c. It broadened the scope of the opinions that may be offered by lay witnesses. d. more than one of the above ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
10. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the 1993 Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow? a. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more liberal and flexible, and it has had that effect. b. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more liberal and flexible, and it has had the opposite effect. c. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more restrictive, and it has had that effect. d. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more restrictive, and it has had the opposite effect. ANS: B MSC: WWW
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
11. Dr. Beatty, a forensic psychologist, has been contacted to serve as an expert witness for an upcoming court case. How will it be determined whether her testimony is admissible in court? a. Her testimony will be admissible if she possesses all the necessary credentials (doctoral degree from an accredited program, postdoctoral training, board certification). b. Her testimony will be admissible if it is generally accepted by others in her professional field. c. Her testimony will be admissible if it is generally accepted by others in her own and other related professional fields (e.g., psychiatry). d. Her testimony will be admissible if the trial judge deems it to be relevant and valid. ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
12. According to Faust et al. (2010), ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an informal criterion that many trial judges rely upon to decide whether expert testimony is admissible? a. The testimony must be helpful to the jury. b. The testimony must be trustworthy and valid. c. The testimony must be nonredundant with other previous testimony. d. The testimony must help prove or disprove an important issue in the case. ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
13. Who is entitled to provide “ultimate opinion” testimony? a. lay witnesses only b. expert witnesses only c. both lay witnesses and expert witnesses d. neither lay witnesses nor expert witnesses ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
14. Regarding cross-examination of the expert witness, Schwitzgebel and Schwitzgebel (1980) suggest a. never admitting weaknesses. b. answering questions quickly rather than taking time to think. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
15. Insanity a. is a medical/psychiatric term, rather than a legal one. b. pleas are often successful. c. pleas are less common than questions about competency to stand trial. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
16. Gerald robbed a bank early one morning and was caught by the authorities almost immediately afterwards. Now Gerald claims that he was not sane at the time of the crime. In most states and the District of Columbia, a. the burden of proof would be on Gerald to show that was not sane when he robbed the bank. b. the burden of proof would be on the prosecution to show that Gerald was sane when he robbed the bank. c. both the prosecution and the defense must address the question of sanity in their cases when the defendant enters an insanity plea. d. the “insanity” plea has been replaced by the “guilty but mentally ill” plea. ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
17. Gloria abused a neighbor’s child, who was under her care, so badly that the child ended up in the hospital in critical condition. Gloria asserts that she was mentally ill with post-partum depression at the time of the abuse and could not appreciate that what she was doing was wrong. Assuming that what she is saying is true, under which standard below would Gloria be considered “insane”? a. M'Naghten rule b. Durham c. ALI d. any of the above ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
18. Tommy was caught trying to steal a car, and now that he is in custody, he has been accused of stealing multiple cars in the area over the last three weeks. In his defense, Tommy says that he knows stealing cars is wrong, but that he can’t help himself from stealing them because of his bipolar disorder. Assuming that what he is saying is true, under which standard below would Tommy be considered “insane”? a. ALI b. Durham c. M'Naghten rule d. any of the above ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
19. The most liberal standard for judging a defendant insane is the a. M'Naghten rule. b. ALI standard. c. Durham standard. d. concept of biological defect. ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
20. The famous Hinckley case (regarding the attempted assassination of Ronald Reagan) resulted in a. more states placing the burden of proving the defendant's insanity on the defense, rather than requiring the prosecution to prove the defendant's sanity. b. the removal of the verdict "Guilty but Mentally Ill" from many state and federal statutes. c. a return to the ALI standard for criminal insanity. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
21. Under which condition below will a person who has been shown to commit a crime be held for treatment rather than punishment? a. If that person is judged not guilty by reason of insanity. b. If that person receives a “guilty but mentally ill” verdict. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
22. ___________ was defined by the U. S. Supreme Court as ". . . sufficient present ability to consult with his [sic] attorney with a reasonable degree of rational understanding and whether he has a rational as well as factual understanding of the proceedings against him." a. Competency to stand trial b. Criminal insanity c. Involuntary commitment d. Legal intellectual capacity ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
23. Which of the following is true regarding competency to stand trial? a. It is possible for a defendant to have been insane when the crime was committed but later be competent to stand trial. b. It is possible for a defendant to have been sane when the crime was committed but later be incompetent to stand trial. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
24. The assessment of _____ focuses on present mental state. a. insanity b. competency to stand trial c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
25. Seth has been charged with first-degree murder, but there is some question as to whether he is competent to stand trial. Which issue below was NOT among those identified by Greene and Heilbrun (2011) to be considered by clinicians determining competency? a. Can he appreciate the nature of the charges against him? b. Can he understand now that what he did was wrong? c. Can he cooperate in a reasonable way with counsel? d. Can he appreciate the proceedings of the court? ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
26. Sheryl is mentally ill. As such, she can be involuntarily committed to a mental institution by the court system if she a. is dangerous to self or others. b. is incapable of making responsible decisions about self-care and hospitalization. c. requires treatment or care in a hospital. d. any of the above ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
27. Who can petition the court for an examination of someone they believe requires commitment? a. anyone b. only the police c. only the patient's family d. only the patient’s family or close associates ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
28. The present norm in child custody cases is a. joint custody. b. maternal custody. c. paternal custody. d. foster care. ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
29. Research has suggested that joint custody is contraindicated when a. the distance between the two parents' homes is greater than 150 miles. b. the parents have an emotionally charged, conflictual relationship. c. either parent has a history of psychological or psychiatric treatment. d. the child has a history of psychological or psychiatric treatment. ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
30. Which of the following was NOT one of the three primary issues that the American Psychological Association (1994) recommended be addressed in a child custody evaluation? a. The way each member of the family interacts with the others. b. The child's ties to relatives on either side of the family. c. The child’s development and psychological needs. d. Each parent’s strengths and limitations. ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
31. The ultimate goal of a forensic psychologist's report in a child custody case is to a. serve the best interests of the child. b. serve the best interests of the party who hired the forensic psychologist. c. balance the interests of all involved parties. d. promote the timely movement of the case through the legal system. ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
32. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the right of hospitalized mental patients to refuse medication? a. Only patients who are hospitalized voluntarily may refuse medication. b. Only patients who are capable of informed consent may refuse medication. c. Only patients who have been hospitalized voluntarily AND are capable of informed consent may refuse medication. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
33. What is notable about the 2003 Supreme Court decision in Sell v. United States? a. It ruled that criminal defendants with mental illness may be involuntarily medicated if they pose a danger to self or others. b. It ruled that criminal defendants with mental illness may be involuntarily medicated for the purpose of making them competent to stand trial. c. It ruled that criminal defendants with mental illness may be involuntarily medicated if it is in their own best interests. d. more than one of the above ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
34. Relative to individuals without a mental disorder diagnosis, a history of violence is especially common among individuals with _____ disorders. a. anxiety b. learning c. mood d. substance use ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
35. Among individuals with mental illness, _____% have no history of violence. a. 20 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90 ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Factual
36. Which of the following is true regarding the prediction of dangerousness? a. Violent acts tend to be underpredicted. b. The ability of laypersons to predict dangerousness is quite poor, and the ability of psychologists to predict dangerousness is quite strong. c. Psychological evaluations for the purpose of predicting dangerousness are frequently requested by the criminal justice system. d. none of the above ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
37. According to the text, the research on clinical versus actuarial prediction of dangerousness a. clearly indicates that the clinical method is superior. b. clearly indicates that the actuarial method is superior. c. does not lend itself to a clear conclusion of superiority for either the clinical or actuarial method. d. is virtually non-existent. ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
38. According to the text, when a prisoner wants to refuse psychological treatment, a. his/her refusal will not be honored. b. his/her family will have to hire a private attorney to represent his/her interests. c. the issue will be taken up by an institutional committee to protect the rights of prisoners. d. a committee of peers (fellow and former prisoners) will be assembled to consider the issue. ANS: C MSC: WWW
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
39. Forensic psychologists who conduct psychotherapy with prisoners a. do so only in collaboration with the prison chaplain. b. do so only to restore an incompetent person to a state of mental competence. c. may only target behaviors that pertain to the relevant criminal act(s). d. none of the above ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
40. Dr. Kirk is a forensic psychologist who practices psychotherapy with prisoners. Which of the following is an accurate statement about his work? a. Dr. Kirk may be required to provide testimony in court regarding his patients. b. Due to confidentiality concerns, Dr. Kirk cannot see patients in groups. c. Dr. Kirk's methods are limited to behavior therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. Dr. Kirk sees patients only when they are incarcerated. ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
41. During jury selection, a forensic psychologist a. who works with one group of attorneys must also offer similar services to the opposing groups of attorneys. b. ultimately tries to assemble a jury that is as favorably disposed toward the patient as possible. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
42. __________ refers to the part of a trial during which a jury is impaneled. a. Jurat b. Voir dire c. Vinculum juris d. Trial de novo
DIF: Conceptual
ANS: B REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists DIF: Factual 43. In jury "shadowing," a. jury members undergo psychological evaluations by the consulting forensic psychologist to determine their motivations regarding the outcome of the trial. b. the consulting forensic psychologist speaks directly with jurors during breaks in the trial. c. the consulting forensic psychologist hires individuals similar to the jurors and monitors their reactions to the testimony as it is presented during the trial. d. the consulting forensic psychologist hires individuals similar to the jurors and obtains their reactions to the arguments that will be presented by the attorneys during the actual trial. ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
44. A forensic psychologist might conduct a public opinion survey for ALL BUT WHICH of the following purposes? a. To gather information that will be helpful for planning the presentation of evidence at a trial. b. To determine whether there is sufficient cause to request a change of venue for a trial. c. To help determine which juror characteristics should be considered in jury selection/deselection. d. Public opinion surveys may be used for all of the above purposes. ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
45. Which of the following forensic psychologists is behaving most unethically in his/her work on witness preparation? a. Dr. Hughes is telling a witness which facts of his testimony to emphasize and deemphasize when he is on the stand. b. Dr. Leung is advising a witness on clothes, grooming and other appearance-related matters. c. Dr. Jackson is helping a witness organize the facts she wishes to present to make her testimony clearer to the court. d. Dr. Sabin is coaching a witness on how to respond if/when his credibility as a witness is threatened. ANS: A MSC: WWW
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
46. According to research on the topic, which of the following factors may distort eyewitness testimony? a. the witness’s expectations b. additional information received by the witness after the witnessed event c. questions asked of the witness prior to the trial d. all of the above ANS: D
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
47. What is true of eyewitness testimony? a. It has been a powerful factor in the conviction of countless people over the years. b. It is often unreliable and inaccurate. c. both of the above d. neither of the above ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
48. Dr. Lacombe conducts a study where he recruits a group of 50 participants and has them watch a 10second film clip of a man breaking into and entering a house. Afterwards, participants are asked about what they observed. Based on the available research on eyewitness testimony, what do you think Dr. Lacombe will find? a. If the participants provide their testimony immediately after the film clip, their reports will be accurate. b. The participants will not all agree on basic, specific details such as the subject’s height or hair color. c. None of the participants will provide correct eyewitness testimony. d. none of the above ANS: B
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Applied
49. In the 1990s, a subcommittee was appointed by the American Psychology-Law Society and Division 41 of the American Psychological Association to review scientific evidence regarding eyewitness testimony. According to the subcommittee's recommendations, a person who conducts the lineup or photo spread in a case a. should know the identity of the suspect. b. should tell the eyewitness that the suspect in the case appears in the lineup or photo spread. c. should ensure that the suspect doesn’t stand out from the others in either appearance or dress. d. all of the above ANS: C
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
50. Research on jury behavior suggests that a. when the judge writes instructions in active rather than passive sentences and elaborates on abstractions like "reasonable doubt," jurors tend to apply the law with greater accuracy than they do otherwise. b. a defendant who is found guilty on several individual criminal charges tends to receive harsher verdicts than a defendant who is found guilty on a single indictment that joins all charges. c. the impact of the testimony of "dislikable" witnesses is similar to the impact of the testimony of "likable" witnesses. d. none of the above ANS: A
REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
DIF: Conceptual
ESSAY 1.How is forensic psychology defined? Identify at least four of the eight general activities of forensic psychologists identified in the textbook chapter. ANS: Not provided. REF: Perspectives and History 2.Describe at least three highlights in the historical development of forensic psychology. ANS: Not provided. REF: Perspectives and History 3.What did the Supreme Court decide in the 1993 Daubert v. Merrell Dow case regarding the admissibility of expert testimony? Compare the intent of the decision with its effects to date. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists
4.Describe briefly the ALI standard for criminal insanity. Also, indicate at least two effects the Hinckley case (regarding the attempted assassination of Ronald Reagan) had on issues relating to insanity pleas and NGRI verdicts. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists 5.What two general questions should guide a forensic psychologist’s evaluation for criminal insanity? Identify several factors the psychologist should examine in order to answer these two questions. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists 6.Identify at least three rights of hospitalized mental patients. Identify at least one additional right over which hospital personnel tend to exercise much discretion. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists 7.Under what conditions can an individual be involuntarily committed to a mental institution? Explain the textbook authors’ comment that even “voluntary” admission may not be as voluntary as it appears. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists 8.Identify at least four questions a forensic psychologist should address when performing a child custody evaluation. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists 9.Describe the three situations, identified by Greene and Heilbrun (2011), in which predictions of violent behavior are likely to be most accurate. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists 10. Describe at least three roles a forensic psychologist may play as a consultant to a trial attorney, making sure to highlight a couple issues relating to each role. ANS: Not provided. REF: Some Major Activities of Forensic Psychologists