Test Bank for Cognitive Neuroscience, 4th Edition by Banich, and Compton

TEST BANK

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 1 Introduction to the Nervous System 1. Neurons carry information from one place to another using what kind of signals?

A: Electrical only B: Electrical and chemical C: Electrical and pressure D: Chemical only 2. Which of these is not a role played by glia?

A: Creation of new neurons B: Removal of dead neurons C: Influencing communication between neurons D: Maintaining the blood-brain barrier 3. Which of these correctly lists the parts of the human nervous system A: The brain, spinal cord, skin and nerves B: The brain, spinal cord, nerves and muscles C: The brain, spinal cord, nerves and ganglia D: The brain, muscles, nerves and ganglia 4. The anterior of the brain is at the: A: Top B: Front C: Back D: Bottom 5. The inferior of the brain is at the: A: Bottom B: Back C: Top D: Front 6. Which of these statements is correct?

A: Areas in the middle are called lateral and areas towards the outside are called medial B: Areas in the middle are called dorsal and areas towards the outside are called ventral C: Areas in the middle are called rostral and areas towards the outside are called caudal D: Areas in the middle are called medial and areas towards the outside are called lateral 7. Regions referred to as caudal are where in the brain?

A: Towards the top B: Towards the front C: Towards the back D: Towards the bottom 8. Dorsal has a similar meaning to: A: Superior B: Ventral

C: Inferior D: Medial 9. Which of the following pair of terms means the opposite side and the same side of the brain?

A: Unilateral and bilateral B: Contralateral and ipsilateral C: Proximal and distal D: Ipsilateral and unilateral 10. What is the role of the skull and spinal column?

A: Nutrition for neurons B: To receive signals from neurons C: To send signals to neurons D: Protection of neurons 11. Which two of the following four roles are carried out by the cerebrospinal fluid?

A: Protection and cushioning of the brain B: Produces enzymes C: Synthesizes neurotransmitters D: Allows nutrients from the blood to reach nerve cells 12. Cells in the dorsal section of the spinal cord: A: Convey motor commands to muscles B: Receive input from the brain C: Receive sensory information D: Receive input from other regions of the spinal cord 13. What structure is located directly superior to the spinal cord?

A: Pons B: Cerebellum C: Midbrain D: Medulla 14. How many cranial nerves are there?

A: 12 B: 10 C: 8 D: 9 15. Which two of the following four functions below are controlled by the medulla?

A: Respiration B: Appetite C: Temperature D: Heart rate 16. Where is the cerebellum located?

A: Posterior to the medulla B: Anterior to the medulla C: Posterior to the spinal cord D: Anterior to the spinal cord

17. Which one of the mental functions below is not affected by damage to the cerebellum?

A: Balance B: Fluidity of movement C: Force of movement D: Timing of movements 18. What structure connects the rest of the brain to the cerebellum and most of the cranial nerves to the brain?

A: Pons B: Midbrain C: Medulla D: Thalamus 19. Which two of the following four describe roles of the midbrain?

A: Sound localization B: Controlling eating and drinking C: Secreting hormones D: Perceiving large moving objects in the periphery 20. The medulla, pons and midbrain are part of what structure?

A: The spinal column B: The brainstem C: The limbic system D: Basal ganglia 21. Which two of the following four statements below are correct?

A: The inferior colliculus is a relay point for auditory information as it travels from the ear to the cortex B: The superior colliculus allows us to perceive and orient toward large moving objects in the periphery C: The superior colliculus is a relay point for auditory information as it travels from the ear to the cortex D: The inferior colliculus is a relay point for visual information as it travels from the eye to the medulla 22. The role of which structure can be summarised as follows: ‘Controls behaviors that help the body satisfy its needs so it can maintain equilibrium (homeostasis) A: Cerberal cortex B: Brainstem C: Medulla D: Hypothalamus 23. Which structure below is not part of the limbic system?

A: Cerebellum B: Hypothalamus C: Amygdala D: Anterior thalamus 24. Which structure in the cerebral cortex separates each hemisphere of the brain in the dorsal-ventral dimension?

A: The central fissure

B: The Sylvian fissure C: The longitudinal fissure D: The cerebral fissure 25. The region directly behind the central fissure but above the Sylvian fissure is: A: The frontal lobe B: The parietal lobe C: The temporal lobe D: The occipital lobe 26. The area below the Sylvian fissure is: A: The temporal lobe B: The frontal lobe C: The occipital lobe D: The parietal lobe 27. What is the resting potential of a neuron?

A: – 50mV B: – 85mV C: – 55mV D: – 70mV 28. What voltage is required for a cell to ‘fire’?

A: – 55mV B: – 45mV C: – 75mV D: – 70mV 29. Which is the following correct sequence of events in an action potential?

A: Hyperpolarization, depolarization, repolarization B: Depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization C: Depolarization, hyperpolarization, repolarization D: Repolarization, depolarization, hyperpolarization 30. Which following statement about amino acid neurotransmitters is correct?

A: Glutamate has an excitatory effect and GABA has an inhibitory effect B: Both glutamate and GABA have an excitatory effect C: Both glutamate and GABA have an inhibitory effect D: GABA has an excitatory effect and glutamate has an inhibitory effect 31. Which neurotransmitter system affects sleep, mood, sexual behaviour, eating and memory?

A: Dopaminergic system B: Cholinergic system C: Septonergic system D: Noradrenergic system 32. Which one of the statements below is correct?

A: The smaller the myelin sheath, the more erratic the speed with which the electrical signal is propagated down the axon

B: The smaller the myelin sheath, the less erratic the speed with which the electrical signal is propagated down the axon C: The larger the myelin sheath, the slower the speed with which the electrical signal is propagated down the axon D: The larger the myelin sheath, the faster the speed with which the electrical signal is propagated down the axon 33. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the primary motor context A: It is organized so that the larger the size of a portion of the body, the larger is the amount of tissue in motor cortex devoted to that region B: The final exit point for neurons responsible for fine motor control of the body’s muscles C: It is organized so that the regions that control motor movements for the top of the body (i.e., the head) are located dorsally and regions at the bottom of the body (i.e., the foot) are located ventrally D: Damage to this region causes difficulty in gait and balance.

34. Damage to which area can result in alexia (inability to read) and agraphia (inability to write)?

A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 2 Historical perspectives 1. The concept that the brain is composed of different subsystems (or modules), located in specific regions of brain tissue is known as: A: Lateralization of function B: Localization of function C: Lateralization of structure D: Localization of structure 2. Who introduced the idea of localization of function?

A: Galen B: Sperry C: Milner D: Broca 3. The method that allows scientists to make inferences about what function a brain region performs from observing what behaviors are compromised or absent after damage to that region is known as: A: Electrophysiological method B: Physiological method C: Lesion method D: Observation method 4. Scientists made many important linkages between the brain and behavior in their interactions with many veterans of the two World Wars, especially those who had sustained missile wounds. What technique did they use to show damaged areas of the skull?

A: Surgery B: X-rays C: Electroencephalography D: Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT, or CT) 5. Which case study approach allows researchers to determine the variability across individuals as well as the degree to which the overall group average typifies the behaviour of individuals in the group?

A: Single-case study B: Independent case study C: Group case study D: Multiple-case study 6. A double dissociation occurs when…

A: one brain lesion causes a disruption in Function A but not Function B, whereas a different lesion causes a disruption in Function B but not Function A B: one brain lesion causes disruptions in Function A and Function B C: two brain lesions cause disruptions in the same function D: one brain lesion causes a disruption in Function A but not Function B, whereas a different lesion causes a disruption in Function A and Function B

7. What is the main disadvantage of the lesion method?

A: It is difficult to identify patients with lesions to study.

B: It does not allow us to directly investigate the functions of a particular brain area.

C: It is expensive and time-consuming.

D: It cannot be used in infants.

8. All research with animals must be approved by an ethical review board. In general, what are the types of individuals who must be represented on such a board?

A: Researchers and scientists.

B: Scientists and veterinarians.

C: A veterinarian and members of the community.

D: One researcher, veterinarian, a member of the community, and a non-scientist.

9. In electroencephalography (EEG) metal electrodes are positioned on the scalp and amplified.

How many electrodes are generally used?

A: Around 5 B: Between 20 and 100 C: Around 500 D: Over 1000 10. What is EEG typically used to detect in a clinical setting?

A: Epilepsy B: Schizophrenia C: Memory loss D: Lesions 11. Which of the following is a major limitation of EEG: A: It has poor temporal resolution B: It’s expensive C: Localization of activity to particular brain regions is difficult D: Subcortical activation is preferentially recorded 12. If a participant in an EEG experiment shows pronounced alpha activity what can we conclude about his or her cognitive state?

A: The participant is tired B: The participant is alert C: The participant is asleep D: The participant is upset 13. In EEG, the small region of electrical current with a positive and negative endpoints is called: A: A waveform B: An event-related potential C: A dipole D: A component 14. Which of the following would be considered a disconnection syndrome?

A: Dichotic listening B: Double dissociation C: Damage to Broca’s area D: Conduction aphasia

15. What is severed in the split-brain procedure?

A: Basal ganglia B: Thalamus C: Corpus callosum D: Cerebellum 16. The Wada technique is used to determine which hemisphere is responsible for speech output in patients. Which of the following is true?

A: It revealed that the right hemisphere is dominant for speech in 95% of right-handers.

B: It revealed that the left hemisphere is dominant for speech in 50% of right-handers.

C: It revealed that the left hemisphere is dominant for speech in 95% of right-handers.

D: It revealed that the left hemisphere is dominant for speech in 95% of left-handers.

17. A person who has sustained damage to their right hemisphere would have cognitive deficits with which of the following?

A: Global processing of linguistic and symbolic information B: Local processing of linguistic and symbolic information C: Processing linguistic and symbolic information D: Processing symbolic information 18. Which method uses X-rays to provide information about the density of structures, with those most dense, such as the skull, appearing in white, cerebrospinal fluid as dark gray, and brain tissue as light gray?

A: Electroencephalography (EEG) B: Positron emission tomography (PET) C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D: Computerized axial tomography (CAT) 19. In positron emission tomography (PET), what type of molecules are introduced into the blood supply and carried to the brain?

A: Radioactive molecules B: Negatively-charged molecules C: Positively-charged molecules D: Non-charged molecules 20. Which of these is not a disadvantage of PET? A: The number of scans an individual can undergo in a year is limited.

B: It cannot be used with individuals who have metal in their bodies or pacemakers.

C: Time periods required to obtain a picture of brain activity are typically long.

D: Requires expensive equipment that is not easily available.

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 3 Methods 1. What do the Weschler family of tests measure?

A: Visual processing B: Emotional functioning C: Language D: Intelligence 2. Which of the following is a standard estimate of premorbid functioning: A: Vocabulary test B: Magnetic resonance imaging scan C: Processing speed assessment D: Recall test 3. Which of these is a disadvantage of MRI? A: Expensive and not commonly available.

B: Cannot be used by people with pacemakers, or anyone with metal in their body that is not connected to hard tissue.

C: Cannot provide information on subcortical structures.

D: Involves the use of ionizing radiation.

4. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) measures which of the following to understand neural connectivity?

A: Receptor binding affinity B: Cortical thickness in specific brain areas of interest C: The direction in which water flows in white matter tracts D: Neural activation in gray matter 5. Which method is particularly useful for examining how the brain uses specific molecules and provides information on absolute levels of brain metabolism?

A: Positron Emission Tomography (PET) B: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) C: Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS) D: Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT) 6. Which of the following is true about PET? A: It cannot assess receptor binding affinity or concentration B: It can be performed an unlimited number of times C: It has a low temporal resolution D: It cannot be used to measure regional cerebral blood flow 7. Which method can be used to assess glutamate and GABA, the main excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, whose concentrations in the brain are high?

A: Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT B: Electroencephalography (EEG) C: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) D: Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)

8. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) works by detecting differences in the magnetic properties of what materials?

A: Neurotransmitters B: Nutrients C: Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood D: Neurons 9. Functional magnetic resonance imaging fMRI is a methodology that relies on the fact that there is an increased magnetic signal a given brain region due to __________ A: A decrease in the level of deoxygenated blood B: An increase in the level of oxygenated blood C: A reciprocal relationship between oxygenated and deoxygenated blood D: An additive effect of the levels of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood 10. In a single fMRI acquisition information on brain activation is generally obtained in how many locations across the brain?

A: Over 30,000 B: Over 300 C: Over 300,000 D: Over 30 11. EEG is a methodology useful for assessing which of the following: A: The spatial location of distributed networks of activation associated with a particular mental function B: The timing and frequency of brain activation C: The frequency of neuronal spiking in subcortical regions D: The integrity of white matter tracts connects anterior and posterior brain regions.

12. Multi-voxel pattern analysis (MVPA) is a technique used for what purpose?

A: It assesses the area where specific receptor concentrations are highest B: It reconstructs neuroanatomical areas based on time frequencies of neural activation C: It classifies the pattern of neural activity that are associated with different cognitive inputs, such as faces.

D: It allows for predictions of white matter connectivity based on cognitive markers 13. Which statement below is the correct definition of event-related potentials (ERPs)?

A: Magnetic potentials that are associated with electrical activity in the brain.

B: Electrical potentials that are recorded in response to an event and are time-locked.

C: Electrical potentials that are recorded at rest and are time-locked.

D: Electrical potentials that are recorded in response to an event and are not time dependent.

14. If a researcher wanted to understand how quickly attention can be allocated to a novel auditory stimulus, they would most likely use which technique: A: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) to disrupt the auditory cortex B: Positron Emission Tomography (PET) to measure the binding affinity of neurotransmitters that modulate attention

C: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) to reconstruct the neuroanatomical areas related to attention and audition D: Electroencephalography (EEG) to measure Event-related Potentials (ERPs) associated with early attentional processing 15. Which method is most commonly clinically used to localize the source of epileptic activity and to locate primary sensory cortices so they can be avoided during neurosurgical intervention?

A: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) B: Magnetoencephalography (MEG) C: Event-related Potentials (ERPs) D: Electroencephalography (EEG) 16. Which method has reported induced seizures, mild headaches, muscle twitches and nausea as possible side effects?

A: Electroencephalography (EEG) B: Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) C: Magnetoencephalography (MEG) D: Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS) 17. What is Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS) commonly used to treat?

A: Memory loss B: Substance abuse C: Depression D: Schizophrenia 18. Which method has been found to improve memory, attention, and other abilities in neurologically normal individuals?

A: Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS B: Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) C: Electroencephalography (EEG) D: Event-related Potentials (ERPs) 19. Which of the following are both disadvantages to using TMS and optical imaging?

A: They are both expensive techniques B: They are both unable to target subcortical brain regions C: They are both unable to measure regional cerebral blood flow D: They are both invasive techniques 20. Computational models used in conjunction with neuroimaging measures are able to provide valuable information that may help in diagnosing clinical conditions by revealing: A: Important structural information about the brain B: Which specific brain area is most active during specific psychological states C: Unique patterns of neural activity that can predict a particular mental state or group status D: The severity of certain cognitive deficits over time

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 4 Motor control 1. What is the name for the specialized synapse between a neuron and muscle fibers?

A: Muscle junction B: Motor unit C: Neuromuscular junction D: Motor junction 2. The medial pathway linking the brain to the muscles controls what kind of movements?

A: Movement of the arms, hands and fingers B: Movement of the lower leg and foot C: Movement of the trunk and proximal limb muscles D: Movement of the head 3. Which subcortical region of plays an important role in the coordination of muscle movement timing, planning of movements and learning of motor skills?

A: Cerebellum B: Brainstem C: Thalamus D: Basal ganglia 4. The caudate nucleus, putamen, and nucleus accumbens are all part of which subcortical structure?

A: Substantia nigra B: Cerebellum C: Basal ganglia D: Subthalmic nucleus 5. Which of the following would not be affected by damage to the cerebellum?

A: Speech B: Motor coordination C: Motor learning D: Pantomime 6.

Which of the following statements is true of the basal ganglia?

A. All portions of output from the basal ganglia funnel through the same section of the thalamus on their way to the cortex.

B. All output from the basal ganglia is via the external section of the globus pallidus.

C. There are three pathways though the basal ganglia – the direct, the indirect, and the hyper-direct.

D. In the indirect pathway, the connection between the external and internal sections of the globus pallidus is via the subthalamic nucleus.

7. Huntington’s disease is associated with damage to which of the following structures?

A. Substania Nigra B. Caudate C. Subthalamic Nucleus

D. Motor Cortex 8. Akinesia, bradykinesia and tremors, are characteristic of which disease?

A: Huntingdon’s disease B: Epilepsy C: Dysarthria D: Parkinson’s disease 9. The role of the inferior parietal lobe in motor programming is to: A. Generate an estimate of the state of the limbs and effectors required for a movement B. Creates a forward model that specifies the sensory consequences of motor plans C. Is involved in the inhibition of motor actions D. Is involved in creating an abstract plan of motor sequences 10. Someone with Huntington’s disease often shows uncontrollable twisting and writhing contractions movements, which is captured by which of the following motor symptoms: A: Atheosis B: Decomposition of movement C: Bradykinesia D: Akinesia 11. Which cortical region is responsible for controlling the force and/or direction with which the motor plans are executed?

A: Primary motor cortex B: Premotor region C: Anterior cingulate D: Parietal regions 12. Which cortical region is important for selecting among conflicting responses and monitoring whether the execution of those actions occurred appropriately?

A: Primary motor cortex B: Premotor region C: Anterior cingulate D: Parietal regions 13. Which of the regions below is one of the main regions of the brain that plays a role in planning, preparing, and initiating movements?

A: Primary motor cortex B: Supplementary motor cortex C: Parietal regions D: Anterior cingulate 14. Which of the following is true regarding the frontal eye field?

A: It is involved the planning voluntary execution of eye movements B: It is involved in the execution of involuntary eye movements C: It is involved in both voluntary and involuntary eye movements D: It is involved in neither voluntary nor involuntary eye movements.

15. Which of the following roles does the superior parietal lobe play in movement?

A: It is important for determining the type of grasping motion used to manipulate objects.

B: It is important for determining how forceful movements area.

C: It is important in guiding movements to particular regions of space.

D: It regulates the speed with which movements are made.

16. Which region of the brain is primarily affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A: Substania Nigra B: Caudate C: Subthalamic Nucleus D: Motor Cortex 17. Parietal regions process proprioceptive information, which is characterized by the following: A: Motor feedback after inaccurate motor coordination B: Sensory information about the movements of body parts C: Sensory information about the spatial relation of body parts D: Simulation of planned motor movement before execution 18. If you sustained damage to your right ventrolateral prefrontal cortex what type of behavioural deficits would you most likely exhibit: A: Difficulty with novel motor movements B: Difficulty with coordinated and sequenced movements C: Difficulties reaching and grasping D: Difficulty with response inhibition 19. Someone with ideomotor apraxia would have the most difficulties with which of the following: A: Saluting the flag B: Dressing themselves C: Sticking out their tongue D: Lighting a candle 20. Which of the following statements regarding apraxia is true?

A: It primarily affects more automatic motor behaviors B: It affects fine skilled motor movements that are sequential in nature C: It affects gross motor movements that are sequential in nature D: It mainly affects the ability to perform multiple motor movements simultaneously.

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 5 Sensation and perception 1. Which statement about photoreceptors is correct?

A: Rods and cones both function optimally in broad daylight.

B: Rods are sensitive to very small amounts of light, cones function in broad daylight.

C: Cones are sensitive to very small amounts of light, rods function in broad daylight.

D: Rods and cones are both sensitive to very small amounts of light.

2. Where are rods and cones located?

A: Cones are distributed in the periphery of the retina, whereas rods are distributed in the center or fovea.

B: Rods and cones are distributed in the periphery of the retina.

C: Rods and cones are distributed in the fovea of the retina.

D: Rods are distributed in the periphery of the retina, whereas cones are distributed in the center or fovea.

3. Which statement about ganglion cells is correct?

A: M and P cells are both responsive to coarse patterns and detect rapid motion.

B: M cells preserve color information and P cells are responsive to coarse patterns and detect rapid motion.

C: M and P cells both preserve color information.

D: P cells preserve color information and M cells are responsive to coarse patterns and detect rapid motion.

4. You are walking home at night from the library when you suddenly detect something scurry beside you. Which type of ganglion cells would be responsible for processing this kind of input?

A: Bipolar B: Amacrine C: Parasol D: Midget 5. What are center-surround receptive fields useful for?

A: Enhancing contrast B: Color constancy C: Motion detection D: Retinotopic mapping 6. A loud and sudden noise automatically grabs your attention and you reflexively look toward its location. Which area would be most strongly activated by this kind of orienting?

A: Frontal eye fields B: Parvocellular pathway C: Dorsal stream D: Superior colliculus 7. The tectopulvinar pathway extends from the retina to which part of the brain?

A: Medial geniculate

B: Superior colliculus C: Lateral geniculate nucleus D: Superior olivary nucleus 8. Which of the functions below is enabled by the geniculostriate pathway?

A: Perception of color and detail B: Coarse pattern C: Rapid motion D: Reflexive orientation to important visual information 9. How many main layers make up the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A: 5 B: 9 C: 6 D: 8 10. Simple, complex, and hyper-complex (or end-stopped) cells have receptive fields that are responsive to bars of light oriented in particular ways. Where are they found?

A: Lateral geniculate nucleus B: Superior colliculus C: Striate cortex D: Medial geniculate nucleus 11. In the center-surround receptive fields of simple cells in V1, a cell will fire maximally for bars of light that: A: Appear only in the center with a specific orientation B: Appear in both the center and the surrounding area C: Appear anywhere in receptive field with a specific length D: Appear only in the surrounding area 12. If someone had damage to area V4, what condition would they most likely experience?

A: Blindsight B: Achromatopsia C: Blind spot D: Binocular disparity 13. Why is binocular disparity important?

A: It helps to determine depth.

B: It helps to distinguish colours.

C: It helps to determine fine detail.

D: It helps to distinguish movement.

14. Blindsight is caused by extensive damage to which part of the brain?

A: Striate cortex B: Superior colliculus C: Medial geniculate nucleus D: Lateral geniculate nucleus 15. The auditory pathway begins at the cochlea and extends to the cochlear nucleus. In what part of the brain is this located?

A: Auditory cortex

B: Brainstem C: Thalamus D: Forebrain 16. Which step of the auditory pathway comes after the inferior colliculus?

A: Auditory cortex B: Superior olive C: Medial geniculate nucleus D: Cochlear nucleus 17. What does the delay-line model explain about sound processing?

A: Pitch B: Location C: Intensity D: Frequency 18. Where are auditory receptor hair cells located?

A: Organ of Corti B: Auditory nerve C: Round window D: Tympanic membrane 19. Which of the following statements is true about the visual system?

A: The right lateral geniculate nucleus receives information from only the left eye B: Magnocellular layers are important for detecting color C: Each rod connects to one ganglion cell D: Information from each nasal retina projects to the contralateral lateral geniculate nucleus 20. The auditory and visual systems share many parallels. The following are commonalities except: A: Both eyes and ears are contralaterally organized in the brain B: They are spatially (for vision) and tonally (for audition) organized in their neural representations C: They involve nuclei in the thalamus D: They both have ascending and descending pathways

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 6 Object Recognition 1.

The ventral visual processing stream consists of two areas of the brain that are devoted to processing visual stimuli. What are they called?

A: Primary visual cortex and occipital regions B: Parietal and temporal regions C: Occipitotemporal and temporal regions D: V1 and temporal regions 2. What kind of visual processing do large receptive fields allow for?

A: Object recognition B: Bionocular rivalry C: Depth perception D: Spatial coding 3.

Visual agnosia is an inability to recognize objects in the visual modality and is divided into two types: A: Apperceptive and associative agnosia B: Percept and associative agnosia C: Apperceptive and pattern agnosia D: Percept and pattern agnosia 4. Someone with apperceptive agnosia would have deficits with which of the following: A: Motion detection B: Spatial frequency discrimination C: Holistic processing D: Contrast sensitivity 5. Someone with associative agnosia would be able to __________ but would have difficulties with ________: A: Name objects, detect identical objects B: Copy objects, naming objects C: Label categories, copying objects D: Detect motion, detect direction 6. Compared to right hemispheric damage, someone with damage to the ventral stream in their left hemisphere would have more deficits in which of the following: A: Categorizing similar objects B: Naming objects C: Recognizing faces D: Reading 7.

Prosopagnosia is a selective inability to visually recognize or differentiate: A: Identify of faces B: A category of objects C: Numbers D: Facial expressions 8.

The grandmother cell theory relates to the coding of cells in the ventral stream. What type of coding is it an example of?

A: Population coding B: Ventral stream coding C: Position coding D: Sparse coding 9.

Conjunctive encoding and nonlocal binding are two models of what?

A: Inversion effects B: Configural processing enhancement C: How individual features combine into whole shapes D: How whole shapes are broken down into features 10.

Neural modules within the ventral stream may be specialized for recognising specific categories of objects. There is evidence for four types of specialized modules. Which acronyms represent these four types?

A: VWFA, PPA, EBA, FFA B: VWFA, PPA, EPA, FAA C: VWFA, PPP, EBA, FAA D: VWWA, PAA, EPA, FFA 11.

What is double dissociation?

A. A research method that determines whether face recognition always relies on the same neural substrate B. A method that allows researchers to determine whether two cognitive functions are independent of one another.

C. A method for demonstrating that two mental processes are dependent on one another.

D. A symptom of patients with prosopagnosia 12.

Which hemisphere of the brain seems to play a predominant role in face recognition?

A. Right B. Left C. Neither 13.

Which pattern of brain activation is the scientific evidence in favour of for a specific category of images?

A: Distributed activity across the entire ventral visual processing stream B: Response to a particular category of visual images is found in just one area of the brain

C: Particular regions may specialise in terms of how and when they activate, but they will respond to more than one category of images and other regions will also activate for those images D: Activity is distributed across regions of the brain except for face recognition 14.

Fill in the gaps in the following sentence. Early cortical areas code __________________, whereas higher-level areas are critical for organizing sensations into representations of __________________.

A: Basic features, recognizable objects B: Recognizable objects, basic features C: Visual information, tactile information D: Tactile information, visual information 15.

What are the three ways that auditory agnosia can manifest?

A: verbal auditory, pure-word deafness, mixed auditory B: tactile asymbolia, pure-word deafness, mixed auditory C: verbal auditory, nonverbal auditory, mixed auditory D: localization agnosia, verbal auditory, nonverbal auditory 16.

Senses must determine and distinguish ‘what’ and ‘where’. In the visual system which pathways tend to do what?

A: What: dorsal stream, Where: ventral stream B: What: ventral stream, Where: dorsal stream C: What: primary visual cortex, Where: dorsal stream D: What: ventral stream, Where: primary visual cortex 17. Neural adaptation (aka habituation) in fMRI occurs when the same object is presented to someone repeatedly, which results in decreases of neural activation with each repetition of that object. Interestingly, showing a picture of a real apple several times and then showing a drawing of an apple continues to elicit decreasing activation with each presentation despite these variations. This is an example of: A: Category specific processing B: Form-cue invariance C: Receptive field sensitivity D: Stimuli competition 18. Differences in scale, contrast variation and occlusion are problems in visual perception that are solved by which part of the visual system: A: Magnocellular pathway B: Parvocellular pathway C: Ventral stream D: Dorsal stream 19. The brain’s ability to recognize the different instances of the same object as shown in a photo, a painting, and a drawing is an example of ____________ and is related to activation in the _____________.

A: Inversion effect, left ventral stream B: Featural processing, dorsal stream

C: Population coding, V4 in extrastriate cortex D: Cue form invariance, lateral occipital cortex 20. The inversion effect of face processing has been used as evidence for which of the following?

A: Featural processing of faces B: Configural processing of faces C: Perceptual constancy of faces D: Viewer-centered representations 21. There is support that the fusiform face area is specialized for processing faces as well as being an area related to what?

A: Expertise B: Word recognition C: Biological motion D: Constructing 3-d percepts 22. Which of the following is a tenet of the conjunctive coding model of visual processing?

A: Objects and their features are processed simultaneously B: Familiar objects are processed differently than novel objects C: Objects are more than the sum of their parts D: Objects are summations of their featural aspects

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 7 Spatial Cognition 1. The anterior parietal lobe is concerned primarily with: A: Visual guidance of specific kinds of actions B: Aspects of spatial cognition C: Somatosensory representations D: Visuospatial memory 2. Within the PPC the superior parietal lobule and the inferior parietal lobule are separated by: A: Intraparietal sulcus B: Medial superior temporal area C: Posterior parietal cortex D: Longitudinal sulcus 3. How many paths separate pathways project from the dorsal stream to other brain regions to support different spatial functions?

A: 2 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5 4. Susan has sustained damage to the pathway connecting her parietal cortex to her prefrontal cortex. She would have deficits in which of the following areas: A: Navigational B: Spatial motor coordination C: Visually-guided actions D: Spatial working memory 5. Cells within the inferior parietal lobe often fire when: A: Reaching B: Grasping C: Reaching, grasping, there is visual and tactile stimuli D: There is visual and tactile stimuli 6. Which do humans find trickier to distinguish: A: left from right B: up from down C: front from back D.: near from far 7. Binocular disparity is: A: A monocular depth cue B: The difference between the images seen by the two eyes C: Oscillation of conscious perception

D: The image that falls on each retina 8. Motion parallax refers to A: As you move, near objects are displaced more on your retina than objects that are far away B: A binocular depth cue C: As you move, far away objects are displaced more on your retina than objects that are near D: Joining information from the two eyes to infer motion 9. Jackson damaged his left eye in an accident and no longer receives any retinal input from that eye. What kind of visual deficits would he have related to this injury?

A: Motion parallax deficits B: Egocentric referencing deficits C: Left-right orientation deficits D: Depth perception deficits 10. Name two frames of reference for coding spatial information: A: Allocentric and extracorporeal B: Egocentric and allocentric C: Egocentric and extracorporeal D: Coordinate and categorical 11. Object-centered neglect is associated with the: A: Middle and inferior temporal lobe regions in the left hemisphere B: Middle and inferior temporal lobe regions in the right hemisphere C: Right parietal lobe D: Dorsal stream regions 12. Someone who shows spatial neglect of their left side and within their reach is said to have which kind of neglect?

A: Peripersonal B: Extrapersonal C: Object-centered D: Allocentric 13. Categorical spatial relations specify A: Relative position in dichotomous categorical terms B: The distance between two locations C: Verbal as well as spatial relations D: Spatial relations of certain categories of objects 14. Optic flow allows you to do which of the following?

A: Detect biological motion B: Integrate multimodal sensory inputs C: Integrate and predict fast-moving objects as you navigate your environment D: Spatial memory mapping 15. A corollary discharge is: A: Movement of the retina due to eye movement B: Feedback about changes in the position of the eye

C: A signal about upcoming eye movements D: The difference between spatial positions of left and right eye 16. Optic ataxia is a disorder of: A: Visually guided reaching B: Object recognition C: Eye-gaze direction D: Spatial navigation 17. Egocentric disorientation is due to being unable to: A: Recognize environmental stimuli such as landmarks B: Recognize or name people or objects C: Represent direction of orientation with respect to external environment D: Represent spatial relations in relation to self 18. Anterograde disorientation is when a patient is unable to construct new representations of environments, and is due to damage to: A: Lingual gyrus B: Retrosplenial cortex C: Parahippocampal gyrus D: primary visual cortex 19. Your uncle knows that the church is south of his house and the grocery store is just to the west of church, but he has trouble understanding his own orientation to navigate to these places. He most likely has this condition: A: Allocentric disorientation B: Landmark agnosia C: Anterograde disorientation D: Heading disorientation 20. The retrosplenial cortex: A: Contributes to integration between different reference frames B: Is an integral part of the limbic system C: Fires when an animal is facing in a particular direction D: Plays an important role in attention

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 8 Language 1. Broca’s aphasia involves: A: Paralysis of the vocal musculature B: A major loss of speech comprehension C: Damage to posterior regions of the left hemisphere D: A loss of fluent speech 2. Wernicke’s aphasia involves A: Disrupted speech comprehension and fluent nonsensical speech output B: Disrupted speech comprehension and disrupted speech output C: Disrupted speech output and intact comprehension D: Fluent nonsensical speech output and intact comprehension 3. Neologisms are: A: Words that sound similar to the intended word B: Made-up words that follow the rules for combining sounds C: Words that have a similar meaning to the intended word D: Sounds that do not follow any standard phonological rules 4. Damage that severs the connection between Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas leads to: A: Anomic aphasia B: Global aphasia C: Conduction aphasia D: Transcortial motor aphasia 5. Global aphasia is associated with damage to: A: Anterior portions of the left hemisphere B. Posterior and temporal regions of the left hemisphere C.The arcuate fasciculus D: All of the above 6. Psycholinguists divide language into three components: A: Phonology, morphology, semantics B: Morphology, syntax, semantics C: Phonology, syntax, semantics D: Phonology, syntax, pragmatics 7. Inferential errors of brain function can arise when areas that connect other brain areas are damaged. This can lead to errors in understanding the function of the damaged area. Which of the following conditions does this inferential error become likely?

A: Wernicke’s aphasia B: Broca’s aphasia C: Conduction aphasia D: Semantic paraphasia

8: Which of the following sentences might someone with an anterior aphasia be most likely to misinterpret?

A: “Let’s go!”

B: “The boy devoured the piece of chocolate cake” C: “The bell was rung by the mail carrier” D: “The girl was missed by her boyfriend” 9. Which two types of aphasia provide evidence of a double dissociation between brain regions involved in syntax vs.semantics A: Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia B: Broca’s aphasia, conduction aphasia C: Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia D: Wernicke’s aphasia, global aphasia 10. After a stroke, if someone has no problems speaking, but often says things like “train” instead of “bike” or uses the word “marriage” instead of “carriage” they would most likely have: A: Disconnection syndrome B: Conduction aphasia C: Broca’s aphasia D: Wernicke’s aphasia 11. Current models of the organization of the brain for language function posit a distinction between dorsal and ventral systems, which can best be characterized as follows: A: The dorsal system is involved in word-level and semantic processing compared to the ventral stream which is involved in phonological and motoric processing B: The dorsal system is involved in phonological and motoric processing compared to the ventral stream which is involved in word-level and semantic processing C: The dorsal system is involved in phonological and word-level processing compared to the ventral stream which is involved in semantic and motoric processing D: The dorsal system is involved in semantic and motoric processing compared to the ventral stream which is involved in phonological and word-level processing 12. Examination of deficits in individuals who have acquired brain damage and speak American Sign Language, a visual language, suggests that: A. The brain regions that process visual language are totally unrelated to those that do so for oral/spoken languages.

B. The brain organization for visual language is highly similar to that of oral/spoken except that visual languages involves more regions of the right hemisphere.

C. The brain regions that process visual language are identical to those for oral/spoken language except that all processing is performed by the right hemisphere rather than the left.

D. The brain regions that process visual language is reversed anterior/posterior from oral language with anterior regions being involved in comprehension and posterior areas being involved in production.

13. Which one of the following is true?

A: Alexia is the inability to read as a result of brain damage and always occurs in the presence of agraphia.

B: Agraphia is the inability to read as a result of brain damage and always occurs in the presence of aphasia.

C: Alexia is the inability to read as a result of brain damage and can occur independently of agraphia which is an inability to write as a result of brain damage.

D: Alexia is the inability to write as a result of brain damage and can occur independently of agraphia which is an inability to read as a result of brain damage.

14. Which one of the following is true?

A: The phonological route, which involves translating words to sound and then to meaning, involves anterior temporal and anterior frontal regions.

B: The direct route, which involves translating words directly to meaning, involves anterior temporal and anterior frontal regions.

C: The phonological route, which involves translating words to meaning to sound, involves posterior temporal and posterior frontal regions.

D. The direct route, which involves translating words directly to meaning, involves posterior temporal and anterior frontal regions.

15. Some ERP experiments show dissociations between the elicitation of the P600 and N400 components believed to reflect __________ and ____________, respectively.

A: Semantic violations, syntactical violations B: Syntactical violations, semantic violations C: Phonological violations, syntactical violations D: Phonological violations, semantic violations 16. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the two Japanese writing systems, Kana and Kanji A: Each symbol in Kana represents a phoneme and each symbol in Kanji represents a word.

B: A person can lose the ability to read Kana independently of the loss of the ability to read Kanji.

C: Reading kana appears to more or less engage the same brain mechanisms as the phonological route, whereas Kanji appears to more or less engage the same brain mechanisms as the direct route.

D. Stimulation to somewhat different regions of the ventral processing stream disrupts the ability the ability to read kana as opposed to kanji, suggesting that the visual brain regions processes each type of script is somewhat different.

17. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the visual word form area?

A: It is an area that is sensitive to the recurring regularities of the visual form of words in a given language.

B: It is located bilaterally in ventral visual areas of the temporal lobe.

C: It activates relatively quickly after viewing a word, within approximately 200 milliseconds.

D: The functioning (and location) of this region can be influenced by whether an individual was illiterate initially and learned to read as a adult, and also whether a person has had significant musical training.

18. The right hemisphere’s contribution to language processing includes: A: Processing complicated syntax B: Comprehending abstract words C: Narrative and inference D: Speech production

19. The term that refers to a person speaking at just one pitch is and is often observed after _________ -hemisphere damage: A: Intonatic, left B: Dysprosodic, left C: Uni-Prosodic,right D: Aprosodic, right 20. Research on people without hearing who use American Sign Language (ASL) has revealed which of the following?

A: People without hearing predominantly use their right hemisphere when signing B: There is no dissociation between semantics and syntax in ASL C: People without hearing can also become aphasic and show deficits in comprehension and production of ASL D: Broca’s area is not recruited in the production of ASL 21. Someone who has a double dissociation of alexia and without agraphia would exhibit which of the following: A: Difficulty reading and writing B: Difficulty reading but not writing C: Difficulty writing but not reading D: Difficulty reading things someone else wrote 22. Although the left hemisphere is predominantly involved in language, the right hemisphere also plays an important role. This is illustrated by people with non-fluent aphasia being able to do which of the following: A: Being able to sing words they cannot speak B: Being able to understand narrative structures C: Being able to control the pitch and intonation of one’s speech D: Being able to decipher meaning from incomplete sentences

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 9 Memory 1. Damage to the ______________________ produces material-specific memory disorders.

A: Unilateral hippocampus B: Bilateral hippocampus C: Unilateral basal ganglia D: Bilateral basal ganglia 1. What is the deficit in learning new information after the onset of amnesia known as?

A: Retrograde amnesia B: Anterograde amnesia C. Static amnesia D. Variable amnesia 2.Which of the following is true of amnesics?

A: They are unable to learn any new knowledge B: They can learn new facts, but cannot learn new motor skills.

C: They can learn new motor skills, but cannot learn new facts.

D: They can learn both new facts and new motor skills.

3. Amnesia is caused by damage to which region?

A: Hippocampus B: Basal gangila C: Anterior temporal lobe D: Amygdala 4. One of the important things that H.M’s abilities and deficits taught us was which of the following?

A: You need intact STM to form LTM B: You can have intact STM but still have LTM deficits C: Consolidation is not necessary for LTM D: STM is sufficient and necessary for LTM storage and retrieval 5. Research on rats with bilateral amygdala lesions has shown which of the following?

A: Rats with this type of damage are unable to navigate a previously learned maze B: Rats do not show the typical fear responses to unconditioned stimuli C: Rats only exhibit contextual fear conditioning D: Rats are unable to form conditioned-fear memories 6. Which of the following statements best describes the nature of amnesia after an insult?

A: All memories for information both prior and after the insult are lost.

B: Memory for information acquired prior to the lesion is more affected than memory for information acquired afterwards.

C: Information acquired prior to the insult is usually initially lost, but those deficits can shrink, although memories for events just prior to the insult are lost permanently.

D. Information acquired prior to the insult is usually initially lost, but with time all memories from prior to the insult are recovered.

7. The temporal gradient of long-term memory (LTM) sometimes seen in amnesia patients has been proposed to support which of the following: A: Damage that happens at a younger age is related to more anterograde deficits because the brain is still developing B: Newer (more recent) memories formed before the damage are lost first because they are less stable C: Older memories are lost more because of increased decay than more recently formed memories D. The temporal gradient is only seen when the prefrontal cortex and the hippocampus is damaged 8. Which of the following phenomena does not support the idea that episodic memories need to be consolidated?

A: Shrinking retrograde amnesia after an insult B: Better preserved memories for more remote memories than recent memories after electroconvulsive therapy C: The fact that memories just prior to an insult are never recovered.

D: Flat temporal gradients for memory loss in some patients with hippocampal system damage 9. Which of the following is not a type of memory spared in amnesics?

A: Working memory B: Declarative knowledge C: Skill learning D: Procedural knowledge 10. Which region is involved in implicit/procedural learning, usually occurring gradually and incrementally?

A: Amygdala B: Anterior temporal lobe C: Hippocampus D: Basal ganglia 11. ________ cells within the basal ganglia support error-driven learning by firing when _______________?

A: Dopaminergic, individuals make a mistake B: Dopaminergic, when the expected outcome and actual outcome are at odds C: Serotonergic, individuals make a mistake D: Serotonergic, when the expected outcome and actual outcome are at odds 12. As a child you were often stung by a jellyfish at the ocean, and now fear them. This negative association between jellyfish and pain was likely learned by your _________, while your ability to enjoy looking at jellyfish and not fear them when you see them in an aquarium is supported by the ____________.

A: Hippocampus, amygdala B: Amygdala, hippocampus C: Hippocampus, hippocampus D: Amygdala, amygdala

13: Long-term potentiation (LTP) is an important neural mechanism for learning and memory, which is mediated by which of the following: A: NMDA receptors that are activated in temporal proximity B: GABA receptors that depend on context of activation C: Metabotropic receptors that depend on strength of activation D: G-coupled receptors co-activated with dopamine receptors 14: Which of the following is not true?

A: The firing pattern of place and time cells in the rat is sensitive to a conjunction of attributes B: The firing pattern of place and time cells “scale”, firing to analogous spatial locations and temporal patterns even if they are not identical to those that made them fire initially.

C: Grid cells fire to locations in space aligned along a rectangular grid.

D: Grid cells fire to specific locations in space while place cells fire to relative locations.

15. Anterior temporal regions play a role in which type of memory?

A: Episodic memory B: Semantic memory C: Explicit memory D: Implicit memory 16: Which regions are implicated in recognition memory?

A: Parietal regions B: Prefrontal regions C: Temporal regions D: Amygdala 17. The ability to complete perceptual priming tasks (e.g., word stem completion) in people with amnesia who cannot explicitly recall words can be explained by which of the following: A: Anterior hippocampal activation B: Intact domain-specific processing in areas related to reading C: Ribot’s law D: Reduced WM capacity, but increased maintenance 18: Which of the following is not true of the subsequent memory effect?

A: It is the phenomenon whereby greater neural activity when an item is encoded predicts a greater ability to subsequently retrieve that item B: It is associated with increased hippocampal and prefrontal activity at encoding.

C: It is thought that it occurs because the prefrontal and hippocampal regions play a similar role at encoding, allowing for pattern separation.

D: It has been observed both in neuroimaging and ERP studies.

19: Which of the following is not true with regards to working memory?

A: It requires activity of cells in prefrontal regions to maintain information during a delay B: It can be associated with damage to parietal regions C: It is thought to enable individuals to hold information on-line for short delays, on the order of seconds D: Deficits in working memory can be observed independently of deficits in long-term memory.

20: Which of the following is not true regarding implicit and explicit memory systems?

A: The former acquires information in a gradual and incremental manner, while the latter is designed to encode and store specific instances B: The former is supported by the basal ganglia and domain-specific cortical regions, while the latter relies on medial temporal lobe structures C: According to computational modelling, the requirements of these two systems can be easily accommodated with regards to one another, and provide redundancy during learning.

D: These systems may play major roles at different times in learning, for example, the explicit system being involved in the early stages of learning and implicit system at later stages.

21 Which of the following structures is thought to enable memory via pattern completion, that is using one specific aspect of a memory to re-constitute the whole memory?

A. Basal ganglia B. Amygdala C. Hippocampus D. Sensory regions

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 10 Attention 1. What condition would someone most likely have if they damaged their reticular activating system?

A: Insomnia B: Coma C: Spatial neglect D: Hemianopsia 2. What role does the noradrenergic system play in attention?

A: Acts as an interface between arousal and other aspects of attention.

B: Alerting the brain that it should get ready to receive information or make a response.

C: Selection of the appropriate motor response.

D: Control of where attention will be directed.

3. Overactivation of the locus coeruleus would result in which of the following?

A: Fatigue B: Decreased sensory integration C: Attentional fixation D: Insomnia 4. Which of the statements below is true of bottom-up attentional selection?

A: Some intrinsic aspect of the stimulus itself, such as its perceptual saliency relative to other information, causes it to be attended.

B: Control of attention occurs because of an item’s specific perceptual characteristics, such as brightness, color, or motion C: It is driven by processing information at primary sensory cortices D; All of the above.

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A: Top-down attentional selection is implemented by the superior parietal lobe, while bottom-up selection is implemented by the inferior parietal lobe.

B: Bottom-up selection is implemented by the inferior parietal lobe, while the intraparietal region is important for creating a salience map of spatial locations to which attention should be directed.

C: A salience map is created by the superior parietal lobe which is fed to the intraparietal region.

D: Salience maps integrate top-down and bottom-up influences on attentional control.

6. Which part of the brain plays an important important role in automatically orienting attention to particular locations in space?

A: Lateral prefrontal cortex B: The superior colliculus C: Medial prefrontal cortex D: The parietal lobe

7. You’re walking down the street when someone on the sidewalk across the street suddenly screams. This sudden noise automatically grabs your attention and you reflexively look toward the location of the scream. This event would most strongly activate which area: A: Frontal eye fields B: Inferior Colliculus C: Dorsal attention network D: Superior Colliculus 8. A brain region at which processing is modulated to enhance attention to a specific attribute, location, item, or other salient dimension is known as…

A: Source of attentional control B: Source of processing control C: Site of processing control D: Site of attentional control 9. Which of the below describes the typical manifestation of hemineglect?

A: Individuals ignore, or do not pay attention to, the side of space ipsilateral to their lesion.

B: Individuals ignore, or do not pay attention to, the side of space contralateral to their lesion.

C: Individuals ignore, or do not pay attention to, the sides of space both ipsilateral and contralateral to their lesion.

10. Personal neglect is used to describe patients who…

A: fail to notice items on the left side of the world B: fail to use the left side of the body.

C: fail to draw the left side of objects D: All of the above 11. Hemineglect syndrome is much more prominent and severe after damage to which brain hemisphere?

A: Right B: Left C: There is no difference observed.

12. The following patient was told to draw a vertical line halfway through a long horizontal line, known as the line bisection task. Based on their response below, what type of clinical impairment would you say they have and why?

A: Hemineglect of the right side of space B: Hemineglect of the left side of space C: Blindsight D: Damage to the left basal ganglia 13. You are at a picnic with your family and talking to some of your cousins. Whenever politics is discussed you tune out and ignore this information. What kind of attention would you be employing here?

A: Late-stage selective attention B: Early-stage selective attention C: Divided attention D: Pre-attention 14. Saliency maps allow for the swift detection of visual items among distractors. Which brain area plays a major role is constructing these maps?

A: Frontal eye fields B: Intraparietal sulcus C: Superior temporal lobe D: Medial prefrontal cortex 15. Biased competition is a mechanism that allows for filtering out distracting information.

One important implication of this phenomenon is which of the following?

A: Distracting information is only filtered out if attention is allocated outside a cell’s receptive field B: Distracting information increases activation of a cell within its receptive field irrespective of attention C: Attention to both distracting and task-relevant information increases a cell’s firing within the receptive field D: Attention can reduce the suppressive effects of distracting information within a cell’s receptive field 16. Imagine that you are eating lunch on campus and all of a sudden a person in whom you are romantically interested walks in and sits down nearby. You are trying to focus on what your friend is saying but you are also focused on this other person. What kind of attention would you be most likely employing?

A: Pre-attention B: Divided attention C: Early selection D: Late selection 17. An air-traffic controller who must sustain their attention over long periods of time would rely most heavily on which neurotransmitter system to do their job well?

A: Norepinephrine B: Dopamine C: Glutamate D: Serotonin 18. Based on research of divided attention, damage to which brain area would most likely disrupt your performance while multitasking?

A: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex B: Locus Coeruleus C: Anterior cingulate cortex D: Supplementary motor area 19. You have been studying hard for an upcoming exam when your mind begins to wander and you suddenly start day-dreaming. What attention network would most likely be activated during this experience?

A: Executive attention network B: Ventral attention network

C: Dorsal attention network D: Default network 20. Which of the following is not a behaviour patients with neglect can exhibit: A: Altered letter cancellation B: Landmark-specific neglect C: Neglect of part of one’s body D: Object-based neglect 21. Patients with hemineglect were asked to recall from memory landmarks they knew well.

What did this research on their spatial memory reveal?

A: Their memories of the left side of space was intact but distorted B: They always neglected the left side, but told to imagine themselves facing in one direction and then the opposite, it could be shown that their memory for all the landmarks was intact.

C: The neglected side of space was remembered as a mirror image of the attended side of space D: They were unable to adequately recall spatial information from memory 22. Hemineglect syndrome is more severe when the right hemisphere is damaged. What is one possible explanation for this?

A: Ocular dominance is often in the left eye B: The right hemisphere plays a larger role in attention and arousal C: The left hemisphere has difficult compensating because language centers are also located in the left hemisphere D: Most people are hemispherically rightward dominant

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 11 Executive Function and Higher-Order Thinking 1. Which activity do individuals with frontal lobe damage often have problems with?

A: Sequencing B: Initiation of behavior C: inhibition D: All of the above 2. Someone who has frontal lobe damage would exhibit all of the following except: A: Psychological inertia B: Perseveration C: Environmental dependency syndrome D: Difficulty with contention scheduling 3. Someone who has sustained damage to their prefrontal cortex would have the most pronounced deficits in what type of task: A: A rapid visual detection task B: A spatial navigation task C: A picture categorization task D: A working memory task 4. According to theories of frontal lobe function, they contribute prominently to behaviour under all of the following conditions except ___________?

A: when the situation is new and novel B: when memory must be linked to action C: when well-learned behaviors must be overridden D: when problem solving is required 5. Which area of the frontal lobe brain is most prominently involved in self-monitoring and evaluation of actions?

A: Medial portions B: Dorsolateral portions C: Inferior portions D: Anterior portions 6. This task would be used to assess someone’s ability to plan and sequence their behaviors: A: Stroop task B: Go/No-Go task C: Tower of London task D: Wisconsin Card Sorting task 7. The Stroop task and the Go/No-Go task both require the following: A: interference resolution B: Planning and sequencing C: Metacognition D: Abstract thinking

8. The _________ portions of the prefrontal cortex are centrally involved in representation of the self and understanding others, such as required for empathy..

A: Limbic System B: Orbitofrontal cortex C: Dorsolateral prefrontal D: Medial prefrontal 9. Which of the following statements is not true regarding error-related negativity (ERN) and the error positivity (Pe) A: The ERN is observed both when people are aware of when they have made an error and when they are not, while the Pe is only observed when people are aware they have made an error.

B: The ERN is likely generated In the anterior cingulate while the Pe is likely generated in the insula.

C: The ERN and P3 are separated in time by about 200-300 milliseconds.

D: The ERN follows the Pe 10. Adaptive behavior requires self-monitoring of performance during task engagement.

Which of the following neural signals allows for behavioral adjustment and performance feedback: A: P300 B: Error-related negativity C: N1 D: N2 11. Nadine is playing a video game and she mistakenly presses the wrong button during a fighting match. Her __________ is selectively activated relative to baseline because of this error.

A: Amygdala B: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex C: Orbitofrontal cortex D: Anterior cingulate cortex 12. Which of the following is not true about task switching?

A: It is often measured clinically by the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task (WCST) B: People can switch relatively easily from one task to another with no “switch cost” C: The inferior frontal junction plays a prominent role in task switching.

D: Frontal regions are only important in switching tasks when the task or criteria vary significantly.

13. Which area has been implicated as being particularly important for abandoning current strategy and trying a new one, consistent with its role in processing novelty?

A: Frontopolar cortex B: Lateral prefrontal cortex C: Dorsolateral cortex D: Medial prefrontal cortex 14. The dorsolateral plays a prominent role in many aspects of executive function because it supports which other cognitive function?

A: Long-term memory

B: Language output C: Visual perception D: Working memory 15. Research on various tasks requiring executive control have found which of the following to be true: A: Activity in dorsolateral PFC decreases when people make their own task decisions compared to when they’re told to make specific choices B: Lateral frontal regions are increased when many motor response must be employed adaptively to changing task demands C: Frontopolar regions are most activated when many subgoals of a task must be coordinated D: Medial frontal regions are increasingly employed when distracting information requires more attention to stay on task 16. Someone with damage to the left frontal cortex would show the most pronounced deficits in which of the following areas?

A: Difficulty shifting task sets of different dimensions like responding to shapes and then to colors B: Problems using feedback from errors to correct future behavior C: Sequencing multiple motor responses to a task D: Coming up with new solutions to a novel problem 17. Interoceptive information is processed in the insula and is believed to be linked to which of the following: A: Post-error slowing B: Error-related negativity (ERN) C: Error positivity (Pe) D: Contention scheduling 18. David has the urge for a cup of coffee. However, he has to decide whether we wants that cup of coffee enough to get up and walk the 8 blocks to the coffee shop to get it. Which brain region is likely to be involved in making that calculation?

A. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex B. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex C. Orbitofrontal cortex D. Anterior cingulate cortex 19. Sandrine is completing a task where she must respond with her left hand when a blue light appears and withhold responses when a red light appears. When these rules are reversed she has a lot of difficulty completing this task. What area of her brain would most likely be damaged relating to these difficulties?

A: Orbitofrontal cortex B: Posterior insula C: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex D: Medial frontal cortex 20. One prominent model of executive function argues that there is a nested hierarchy of control from ______ to _____ portions of frontal cortex, with the most _____ regions being influenced by the most immediate aspects of a situation and more ______ regions by the larger context. Identify which words are missing from this statement.

A: rostral, caudal, posterior, anterior B: rostral, caudal, anterior, posterior C: caudal, rostral, posterior, anterior D: caudal, rostral, anterior, posterior

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 12 Emotion 1. Emotional experiences often include bodily changes. This response depends upon the: A: Autonomic nervous system B: HPA axis C: Sympathetic nervous system D: All of the above 2. Cortisol is an important hormone involved in the flight or fight response and is released by the _______________________: A: Pituitary gland B: Hypothalamus C: Adrenal cortex D: Locus coeruleus 3. Which part of the brain is important for early detection of emotional information and rapid response to that information?

A: Hypothalamus B: Amygdala C: Adrenal glands D: Uncus 4. Psychic blindness is: A: The mind is visualizing, but a person's eyes are not working.

B: Ability to process the sensory properties of objects but not understand the affective properties of those objects.

C: Ability to understand the affective properties of those objects, but not process the sensory properties of objects.

D: Inability to understand the mental states of other people.

5. Damage to the amygdala typically results in: A. Inability to acquire fear conditioning B. Inability to experience feelings of fear or anxiety C. Inability to distinguish the identities of faces D. All of the above 6. Research suggests that the path to the amygdala that is important for quick, instinctive emotional response is from the: A: Anterior thalamus to the amygdala B: Neocortex to the amygdala C: Amygdala to the cortex D: Hippocampus to the amygdala 7. The nucleus accumbens is: A: Activated when deprivation is experienced B: A cluster of cells in the hindbrain

C: Activated when an unexpected reward is received D: One of the brain areas where electrical stimulation is least rewarding 8. The cerebral cortex is crucial for the emotional function: A: Deciding whether a particular behavior is likely to lead to a positive or negative outcome B: Inferring the feelings of others based on facial expression C: Using the correct tone of voice to convey to others how we are feeling D: All of the above 9. Interoception is the ability to: A: Resolve conflict between competing or distracting information B: Perceive the internal state of the body C: Regulate autonomic function D. Integrate emotion with decision-making 10. The insula is: A: Another name for the insular cortex B: Found inside a fissure of the brain called the lateral sulcus C: Involved in our self-awareness D: All of the above.

11. Which of the following is not associated with insula activity: A: Moral and physical disgust B: Gustatory and olfactory aversion C: Recognizing guilt in others D: Levator labii activation 12. The cingulate cortex is involved in: A: Motor control, cognition, and emotion B: Visual perception of emotion C: Facial expressions of emotion D: Production of prosody 13. Reversal learning is: A: The ability to change behavior when contingencies change B: Cognitive inflexibility C: The degree to which a reward or punishment is associated with a particular stimulus or action D: Impaired after damage to the insula 14. The orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) is associated with many kinds of emotional and cognitive processing. Which of the following is not true regarding the OFC: A: It’s related to feelings of regret B: Damage to the OFC results in IQ impairments C: It tracks the value of external rewards D: It is important for adaptive decision making 15. Situation selection, situation modification, attentional deployment, cognitive reappraisal, and response modulation are all strategies involved in A: Reinforcement contingency B: Reversal learning

C: Emotion regulation D. Fight-or-flight response 16. Many studies have shown the importance of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) in emotion regulation. Which of the following findings is true: A: Stimulation of DLPFC inhibited the processing of negative stimuli B: Stimulation of DLPFC increased the salience of emotional stimuli C: Stimulation of the DLPFC decreased retrieval abilities of emotional events D: Stimulation of the DLPFC improved appraisal strategies as indexed by physiological measures 17. Recognizing and producing facial expressions of emotion primarily involves: A: The right hemisphere B: The left hemisphere C: The hypothalamus D: The amygdala 18. Propositional prosody communicates: A: Semantic information B: Emotional context C: Sarcasm and superiority D: Comprehension 19. The approach-withdrawal model attempts to explain A: Arousal and valence B: Positive versus negative emotions C: Basic actions taken in responding adaptively to the environment D: How each individual emotion corresponds to a different brain region 20. According to the valence-arousal model of emotion, sadness would be described as the following: A: high arousal and negative valence B: low arousal and negative valence C: high arousal and positive valence D: low arousal and positive valence 21. People who are more optimistic show greater left frontal activation than right frontal activation. This supports which of the following models of emotion: A: Valence-arousal model B: Emotion regulation model C: Approach-withdrawal model D: Categorical model 22. The approach-withdrawal model of emotion is supported by the following patterns of specific neurotransmitter systems in the frontal lobes and basal ganglia: A: People who learn more from rewards showed more leftward dopamine D2 receptor binding B: People who learn more from rewards showed more rightward dopamine D2 receptor binding C: People who are more avoidance motivated showed more leftward dopamine D2 receptor binding

D: People who are more approach motivated showed less asymmetries in dopamine D2 receptor binding

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 13 Social Cognition 1. In conformity studies, activity in which area was increased when participants received the feedback that their ratings were different from those of others?

A: Inferior frontal cortex B: Orbitofrontal cortex C: Lateral frontal cortex D: Medial prefrontal cortex 2. The ultimatum game is often used to assess which one of the following social phenomena: A: Social norm compliance B: Informational conformity C: Normative conformity D: Theory of mind 3. Damage to which area has been most strongly associated with alterations in social behavior and judgments?

A: Inferior frontal cortex B: Orbitofrontal cortex C: Anterior cingulate cortex D: Medial prefrontal cortex 4. Neuroimaging studies in humans have found that imitation of simple finger movements resulted in increased activity in which region where mirror neurons are found in monkeys?

A: Medial prefrontal cortex B: Anterior cingulate cortex C: Inferior frontal cortex D: Orbitofrontal cortex 5. Which regions are activated by the false belief task?

A: Temporoparietal junction and medial prefrontal cortex B: Inferior frontal cortex C: Orbitofrontal cortex D: Anterior cingulate cortex 6. The ability to successfully complete the false belief task requires which of the following: A: Susceptibility to social influence B: Motor mimicry C: Understanding how someone else might feel in a given moment D: Understanding that people have knowledge that is different from your own 7. Which area is activated in the social animation test, mind-in-the-eyes task and false belief task?

A: Medial prefrontal cortex B: Lateral inferior frontal cortex C: Temporoparietal junction

D: Orbitofrontal cortex 8. Which of the following is not true about the temporoparietal junction A: It’s predominantly activated while viewing the Heider-Simmel illusion B: It is a heterogeneous structure C: It and the inferior frontal cortex are activated during the Mind-in-the-Eyes task D: It’s activated during empathic accuracy tasks Any other suggestions for a couple more questions welcome!

9. The social brain hypothesis of primate evolution posits that: A. Evolution in language areas of the brain allowed for sophisticated social cognition B. Larger group size in primates is correlated with smaller frontal lobes C. The need to engage in complex social cognition stimulated an evolutionary expansion of the brain D. Brain areas involved in social cognition are uniquely evident in primate brains 10. Understanding that another person can hold different knowledge than one’s self requires: A. Cognitive perspective-taking B. Emotional contagion C. Mimicry D. Pro-social action 11. Research into the neural differences between self vs. other considerations is difficult due to many potential biases. Which of the following is a not a bias in self vs. other thinking: A: People tend to think more positively of themselves than others B: People explain their own behavior based on personal attributes and others’ behavior based on social context C: People are more familiar with themselves than others D: When we think about ourselves we use more recent memories, whereas in thinking of others we use more distant memories 12. Two key symptoms required for the diagnosis of autism are: A. impairment in facial recognition and motor control B. impairment in social interaction and restrictive or repetitive actions C. Impairment in social interaction and language delay D. Impairment in facial recognition and repetitive actions 13. Which of the following has been found in research with people diagnosed with autism: A: They are unable to mimic goal-directed hand motions B: Their face processing deficits are related to an overactive fusiform face area C: They perform well on cognitive tasks that do not require social interaction D: They struggle more with emotional empathy than with cognitive empathy 14. Research into the neural correlates of social pain and physical pain have revealed which of the following: A: Social rejection cannot be dissociated from expectancy violations B: Social and physical pain share the same overall locus of activation but are different in their patterns C: The anterior cingulate cortex only activates during social pain D: The brain does not distinguish between different kinds of pain

15. At what point did ERP studies indicate that social categories such as race and gender are distinguished?

A: 400 ms B: 350 ms C: 300 ms D: 200 ms 16. Which of the following has been revealed about the neural patterns of in-group and out-group effects: A: They only appear in people scoring low in mentalizing B: They are controlled by top-down, deliberative processing areas C: They occur very early on in perceptual processing D: Neural activation only responds to in-group membership based on overt identity attributes like race and sex 17. Which of the following is true based on research into social categories: A: People process social categories only if it matters in completing the task B: People from your out-group are rated as having low thresholds for pain C: The degree of insula activation in response to someone else’s pain from your in-group predicts helping behaviors D: Social category membership takes time and repeated interactions with others from the same category to establish 18. Which area of the brain has research suggested is associated with unconscious racial bias?

A: Primary motor cortex B: Amygdala C: Hypothalamus D: Cerebellum 19. One of the important findings in research on racial bias is: A: Because the majority of racial bias is explicit it is easier to recognize and self correct B: Racial bias is a slow and conditioned process C: People with greater executive control show less implicit racial bias D: People with amygdala damage do not show racial biases 20. Which of the following is true of the neural patterns related to racial bias: A: Left frontal asymmetry was associated with feedback about racially prejudiced responses B: The error-related negativity is smaller when people make racially biased responses C: People with making racially biased responses showed decreased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex only if they reported high levels of guilt D: Racial bias is associated with decreased amplitude of N170 responses 21. Stereotype threat refers to: A. The fear that one will display racial bias towards others B. The tendency to show enhanced fear conditioning towards other-race faces C. The activation of the amygdala by outgroup faces D. The phenomenon in which activation of a stereotype about one’s own group impairs performance

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 14 Psychopathology 1. The DSM criteria for diagnosis of schizophrenia has three central symptoms to diagnosis, and at least one of these three symptoms must be present in order to qualify for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. These are: A: Disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviour, delusions B: Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech C: Hallucinations, disorganized speech, negative symptoms 2. Schizophrenia is relatively common with the number of people affected at any given time being: A: 1 in 100 B: 1 in 200 C: 1 in 500 D: 1 in 1000 3. Which of the following is true about the negative symptoms in schizophrenia: A: Negative symptoms like delusions make treatment more difficult B: Negative symptoms like hallucinations create pervasive negative affect in patients with schizophrenia C: Negative symptoms like paranoia predict worse outcomes in patients with schizophrenia D: Negative symptoms like apathy and lack of motivation predict worse outcomes in patients with schizophrenia 4. One of the most reliable pieces of evidence of neural dysfunction in schizophrenia is: A: Increase in overall brain volume B: Reduced size of the lateral and third ventricles C: Enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles D: Alterations in ratio of hippocampus to whole brain volume 5. Working memory is disrupted in patients with schizophrenia and is associated with: A: Hypofrontality B: Negative symptoms C: Positive symptoms D: Under activation of the temporal lobe 6. Sensory gating is: A: A lack of response to auditory stimulus in schizophrenia.

B: Neural response to the first of two successive auditory tones or clicks is less than the response to the second stimulus.

C: Neural response to the second of two successive auditory tones or clicks is less than the response to the first stimulus.

D: Iincreased in schizophrenia 7. Hallucinations in schizophrenia:

A: Can occur in any sensory modality, but olfactory hallucinations are most typical B: Can occur in any sensory modality, but vision hallucinations are most typical C: Can occur in any sensory modality, but auditory hallucinations are most typical D: Are equally likely to occur across all sensory modalities 8. Depression is one of the most common mental illnesses. At any one time it afflicts approximately: A: 1 in 10 adults within any given 12-month period B: three times as many men as women C: 1 in 5 adults within any given 12-month period D: three times as many women as men 9. Dysthymia is: A: A milder state of chronic depression lasting at least two years B: A milder state of chronic depression lasting at least 12 months C: A major episode of depression lasting at least 12 months D: A major episode of depression lasting at least two years 10. Cognitive characteristics of depression include: A: Memory and attention are biased toward negative events and interpretations B: Poor performance on standard tasks of executive functions C: Inability to respond adaptively to performance errors or negative feedback D: All of the above 11. Neural features of depression may include: A: Overactive amygdala B: Disrupted connectivity within frontoparietal networks for cognitive control C: Reduced activity in the posterior right hemisphere D: All of the above 12. Research on the variants of the serotonin transporter gene (5-HTTLPR) has revealed which of the following important insights into its role in depression.

A: Two copies of the long allele variant explains most depression diagnoses B: Two copies of the short allele variant explains most depression diagnoses C: 5-HTTLPR is only predictive of depression in the presence if adverse life events D: 5-HTTLPR short and long variants can only explain the duration of depressive symptoms 13 Which of the following is true of treatment resistant depression: A: It refers to patients who resist following a treatment plan B: It occurs in less than 5% of patients with depression C: It refers to depression that is not successfully treated with typical forms of treatment D: It occurs when depression and anxiety are comorbid but only one disorder has been diagnosed 14. Research on the neural basis of depression and anxiety disorders is complicated by the fact that: A. Each condition involves heterogeneous symptoms and subtypes B. There is little comorbidity between anxiety and depression C. The conditions are found only in certain segments of the population D. Both conditions have isolated effects on cognition

15. Which of the following is not a main diagnostic category of anxiety disorders: phobias, panic disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, depression, obsessivecompulsive disorder?

A: Obsessive-compulsive disorder B: Depression C: Posttraumatic stress disorder 16. Which of the following is one of the two main dimensions of anxiety: A: Anxious apprehension B: Anxious agitation C: Anxious restlessness D: Anxious depression 17. Which of the following does not test for attentional bias toward threating information?

A: Dot probe task B: Emotional Stroop task C: Sustained attention to response task D: Sensory gating task 18. Which region is implicated in the process of anxious apprehension?

A: Right frontal region B: Broca’s region C: Wernicke’s region D: Amygdala 19. Which is the main region of the brain that is dysfunctional in addicts A: Orbitofrontal cortex B: Cingulate cortex C: Amygdala D: Insula 20. Research into the neural function of people with addiction has revealed which of the following: A: Context-induced relapse only occurs if the anterior cingulate is dysregulated B: Dopamine transmission is the sole explanation for drug addiction C: The nucleus accumbens shows diminished activation to natural rewards (e.g., food, sex) D: In people with addiction, reward processing is dysregulated but decision making is not impaired 21. What is major theme of cognitive neuroscience approaches to pathology?

A. Each disorder can be tied to one particular brain system B. Drug treatment is effective for nearly all cases of pathology C. Cognitive, emotional, and somatic symptoms imply that multiple brain regions involved D. Neural measures can be used to diagnose a person’s mental illness

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 15 Brain Development and Plasticity 1. During infancy there is a massive proliferation of new neural connections. This development process is called: A. Neurulation B. Neurogenesis C. Synaptogenesis D. Myelination 2. What pattern best describes the pattern of synaptic development during childhood?

A. Synapses begin to form after birth and increase with each year of development B. Synapses are overproduced during gestation, and are pruned back following birth C. Synaptic proliferation proceeds at a similar pace across all brain regions D. Synaptogenesis is following by pruning in a regionally specific manner 3. In which areas does synaptogenesis occur most rapidly?

A: Primary sensor and motor areas B: Prefrontal cortex C: Association areas D: Brainstem and cerebellum 4. Synaptic blooming and pruning is an important part of development. Research has shown that children who have early increased cortical thickening and faster subsequent cortical thinning showed the following: A: Dyslexia B: Higher IQ C: Language delays D: Sensory sensitivities 5. Studies on reading ability and neural development have found which of the following: A: Greater reading ability was related to more local co-activations B: Greater reading ability was related to increased gray matter volume C: Greater reading ability was related to less long-distance co-activations D: Greater reading ability was related to increased white matter volume 6. Risky decision-making in adolescence is believed to result from which of the following aspects of neural development: A: Underdeveloped working memory abilities B: Inability to inhibit distracting information C: Increased striatal activations and decreased lateral prefrontal activation D: Decreased reward processing 7. The main difference between experience-expectant and experience-dependent systems is: A: Experience-expectant systems require input during sensitive periods to develop normally B: Experience-expectant systems vary between individuals C: Experience-dependent systems require input during sensitive periods to develop normally

D: Experience-dependent systems are similar between individuals 8. Environmental enrichment studies on children have found which of the following: A: Institutionalized children who remained institutionalized showed the same developmental quotients as children placed in foster care B: Institutionalized children who were put into foster care after 2 years of age showed better developmental quotients than institutionalized children C: Institutionalized children who were put into foster care before 2 years of age showed better developmental quotients than institutionalized children put in foster care after 2 years of age D: The only developmental differences were between children who were never institutionalized and those who were 9. Based on what we know on sensitive periods in development, which of the following is true: A: Sensitive period disruptions from deprivation can be fully reversed B: Only sensorimotor development is adversely affected by sensitive period disruptions C: Social isolation during sensitive periods can cause alterations in white matter volume D: Children with language deficits during sensitive periods spontaneously recover in their abilities in adulthood 10. Down syndrome is caused by three chromosomes in which pair?

A: 12 B: 20 C: 21 D: 23 11. What syndrome do the following facial features indicate: long, narrow face; a long, prominent chin; and large ears?

A: Down syndrome B: Rubella infection C: Fragile X syndrome D: Fetal alcohol syndrome 12. Which region do functional imaging studies implicate in dyslexia?

A: Basal ganglia B: Perisylvian regions C: Prefrontal regions D: Anterior cingulate 13. What disorder is characterized by a profound lack of desire to interact emotionally or socially with other people?

A: Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) B: Dyslexia C: Autism D: Down syndrome 14. What process following brain damage often accompanies transneuronal degeneration and can be easily detected by brain imaging techniques?

A: Necrosis B: Calcification C: Phagocytosis D: Angiogenesis

15. What does the Kennard principle suggest about recovery of function after brain injury in children and adults?

A: Recovery in adults is superior to children.

B: Recovery in children is superior to adults.

C: Recovery in children and adults does not differ.

D: Recovery of function in children protects later-developing functions more than earlier-developing ones.

16. Which regions of the brain are most susceptible to the effects of aging?

A: Frontal and temporal regions B: Cerebellum C: Parietal lobe D: Occipital lobe 17. Which neurodevelopmental disorder is associated with increased cortical thickness in early life, slower rates myelination, and repetitive behaviors during play?

A: Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder B: Fragile X syndrome C: Autism D: Down syndrome 18. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is characterized by delay aversion and is related to which of the following neural patterns: A: Hyperactivation of the right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex during working memory tasks B: Oppositional activation of the anterior and posterior frontal regions during attention tasks C: Increased functional connectivity across frontal and limbic areas during control tasks D: Hypoactivation of the basal ganglia in anticipation of rewards 19. After brain damage, cell death may extend past the area of damage; this process is called: A: Transneuronal degeneration B: Necrosis C: Gliosis D: Edema 20. Which of the following is an example of cross-modal plasticity: A: Areas in the motor cortex being reorganized after paralysis B: The visual cortex being recruited during Braille reading in someone with congenital blindness C: Phantom limb sensation after amputation D: Network relearning after stroke to regain speech and cognitive functions 21. Research on the cognitive and neural changes of aging has revealed which of the following: A: Crystallized intelligence decreases B: Memory ability declines C: Negative biases increase D: Emotion regulation increases

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 16 Generalized Cognitive Disorders 1. Which of the following is the primary injury sustained after traumatic brain injury?

A: The shearing of white matter tracts B: Inflammation C: Glutamate excitotoxicity D: Coup injury 2. Which telltale sign of closed head injury can be detected at the time of injury?

A: Overproduction of glutamate B: Edema C: White matter deterioration D: Diffuse loss of neural tissue appearing as an enlargement of the ventricles and a loss of volume in large myelinated tracts such as the corpus callosum.

3. Which of the following is true about white-matter deterioration in closed head injury: A: It is unrelated to the severity of cognitive impairment B: It is detected as volumetric increases in brain tissue representing scarring C: It can persist for years after the initial injury D: Functional magnetic resonance imaging is the optimal method to measure it 4. Which brain regions are most likely to sustain traumatic injury?

A: Orbitofrontal and temporal regions B: Cerebellum C: Brainstem D: Parietal lobe 5. If someone sustained focal damage from an object striking their occipital lobe straight on, which brain area would be the site of a countercoup injury?

A: Temporal lobe B: Opposite side of the occipital lobe C: Frontal lobe D: Parietal lobe 6. Which of these is not evaluated by the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A: Visual responsiveness B: Verbal responsiveness C: Motor capabilities D: Memory 7. Clinicians find the Glasgow Coma Scale to be valuable mainly because: A: It can predict the probability of someone lapsing into a coma B: It is able to predict survival rates and future functioning C: It can measure the degree of focal versus distributed damage D: It assesses pupil reactivity as a proxy for brainstem damage

8. Which of the following is not an effect of sustaining a traumatic brain injury: A: There is a reduced risk for future brain injuries B: People can experience changes to smell, taste, and appetite C: Disruptions in attention and motivation are common D: Changes in emotional states like irritability and depression often result 9. Which of the following makes chronic traumatic encephalopathy difficult to detect: A: It cannot easily be distinguished from Alzheimer’s in its histological pathology B: The number of concussions is not recorded in most sports C: Its behavioral manifestations often mimic dementia D: It can only be diagnosed postmortem 10. Which statement about cortical dementias is correct?

A: They manifest as the co-occurrence of many deficits such as aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, spatial and calculation deficits and memory problems.

B: They do not result in specific cognitive deficits such as aphasia and apraxia.

C: They are primarily characterized by motor slowing.

D: They are notable for the absence of changes in emotion or personality.

11. What type of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease?

A: Mixed-variety dementia B: Cortical dementia C: Subcortical dementia D: Vascular dementia 12. Early-onset Alzheimer’s is characterized by onset of the disease before what age?

A: 60 B: 65 C: 68 D: 70 13. Which of the following is true about the neuropsychological profile of Alzheimer’s disease: A: Their procedural and implicit learning is intact B: Syntax and phonology are the most pronounced language deficits C: Personality changes are only seen in late stage of the disease D: They are unable to acquire new knowledge 14. Which neurotransmitter do the vast majority of therapeutic interventions for Alzheimer’s disease attempt to increase?

A: Dopamine B: Acetylcholine C: GABA D: Glutamate 15. Which disease is characterized by a general slowing of motor functioning and thinking, dysfunction of executive processes, difficulty in memory retrieval, apathy, and depression?

A: Huntingdon’s disease B: Parkinson’s disease C: Alzheimer’s disease D: Multiple Sclerosis

16. Which of the following supports the idea that dopamine cannot explain all the cognitive deficits in Parkinson’s disease: A: Depression in Parkinson’s disease has similar rates to other degenerative motor impairments B: Not everyone with Parkinson’s disease develops dementia C: Dopamine agonists do not improve cognitive functioning D: Severity of motor impairments is uncorrelated with dopamine deficits 17. Clinicians are able to differentiate Parkinson’s disease from Huntington’s disease based on which of the following symptoms: A: Huntington’s disease has much longer survival rates than those with Parkinson’s disease B: People with Huntington’s disease usually do not develop dementia C: People with Huntington’s disease have deficits in attention and retrieval of information D: People with Huntington’s disease typically do not exhibit severe ataxia or aphasia 18. Which of the following is not true about Huntington’s disease: A: It is associated with cortical thinning B: It’s related to increased activation and upregulation of GABA C: It’s related to decreased functional connectivity between areas important during executive tasks D: People with the Huntington’s gene can show no motor impairments but perform worse than noncarriers on cognitive tasks 19. Which of the following is not true about multiple sclerosis (MS): A: It is more prevalent near the equator B: It affects the central and peripheral nervous systems C: Only white matter degeneration is associated with the severity of cognitive decline D: MS typically affects people in old age 20. Which of the following is true about epilepsy: A: People with epilepsy show abnormal neural functioning only during a seizure B: All seizures include a loss of consciousness C: Sleep deprivation is a potent trigger for epileptic seizures D: People with epilepsy have a lower risk of developing psychiatric disorders 21. Which disorder of conscious awareness shows sleep-wake cycle and eyes opening but no responsive behaviour?

A: Locked-in syndrome B: Minimally conscious C: Unresponsive wakefulness (vegetative state) D: Coma

Banich/Compton Test bank Chapter 17 Cognitive Neuroscience and Society 1. Analyses on neuroscience research covered in the media have shown which of the following: A: People encounter neuroscience research mainly in popular non-fiction books written by neuroscientists B: Neuroscientists are pleased with how neuroscience research is covered in the media C: The media typically report neuroscience findings with high levels of accuracy D: The general public has a nuanced understanding of the limitations of neuroscience 2. Which neuroscience topics are people most interested in learning about?

A: Pharmaceutical cognitive enhancements B: Sex differences between women and men C: Memory D: Intelligence 3. Explanations for human behaviour are more persuasive when they contain neuroscience information even if that information is irrelevant. Research into this phenomenon supported which of the following: A: Hard science explanations are just as persuasive as neuroscience explanations B: Undergraduates who completed a neuroscience course were not duped by irrelevant neuroscience information C: Graduate students and postdocs rated good explanations containing irrelevant neuroscience information as worse than bad explanations with irrelevant information D: Explanations were more persuasive when they contained an equation to explain behavior regardless of its relevance 4. Research has shown that people exhibit which of the following cognitive biases when they encounter neuroscience information: A: They underestimate the impact of the neuroscience explanation on human behavior B: They endorse neuroscience information that conforms to their pre-existing beliefs C: They make more assumptions about people’s fundamental attributes D: They discount the importance of behavior in the near future vs. distant future 5. Neuroscience can be applied in the education system to help students with diverse learning needs. Which of the following was found to be potentially useful for early detection of dyslexia in children?

A: Larger ERN component for visually presented words vs. symbols B: Larger left frontal lateralization activation for visually presented words vs. symbols C: Larger P300 component for visually presented words vs. symbols D: Larger N1 component for visually presented words vs. symbols 6. Research on the role of socioeconomic status (SES) and brain function have found which of the following A: Only the lowest levels of SES affect cognitive performance and brain anatomy B: Lags in neuroanatomical development related to SES accounted for around 35% of the differences in test performance

C: Children from low SES backgrounds showed hyperactivation of ERP components related to attention D: Children from low SES backgrounds have decreased gray-matter volume in their hippocampus and temporal lobes 7. Which of the following is NOT a likely mechanism to explanation SES-related differences?

A: Malnutrition B: Linguistic overstimulation C: Reduced language input D: Stressful environment 8. Stress has been show to play a large role in the neurodevelopment effects of low SES in children. Which of the following brain areas has been show to be especially impacted by stress?

A: Inferior occipital gyrus B: Left temporal cortex C: Intraparietal sulcus D: Prefrontal cortex 9. Studies on the effects of chronic stress have found which of the following?

A: chronic stress is related to small, but enduring changes in sensory acuity B: Chronic stress is related to transient performance improvements C: Chronic stress is related to elevated levels of cortisol D: Chronic stress interventions are only effective for young children 10. Which of the following best captures the differences in the meaning of “evidence” for neuroscience research versus the courtroom?

A. Science produces definitive answers whereas courtroom evidence is murky B. Scientists tend think in terms of probability, whereas a jury must issue a categorical judgment (guilty or not guilty).

C. Scientists consider all the variables involved in individual cases, whereas judges must draw general conclusions about human nature D. Scientists are more experienced than judges in thinking about “the burden of proof” 11. Which of the following results has been used to support the idea that adolescents should not be tried as adults for crimes?

A: Adolescent brains are not mature enough to make rapid moral evaluations B: Memory consolation is slower in adolescent brains resulting in reduced planning abilities C: Adolescents have underdeveloped prefrontal cortices and reduced executive control D: Adolescent brains have decreased pain integration abilities 12. One of the limitations of neuroscience in aiding judicial proceedings is which of the following?

A: Neuroscience can reveal brain aberrations that can explain someone’s actions, which may be unethically used to convict.

B: There are large natural variations in structure and function making abnormal or normal designations unrealistic.

C: Juries are more lenient when neuroscience information is used to explain someone’s behavior D: Neuroscience in courts is disproportionately used for low SES defendants and may bias the jury

13. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) has been used to improve cognitive performance by focusing controlling activity in which area?

A: Rostral anterior cingulate cortex B: Orbitofrontal cortex C: Left amygdala D: Dorsal hippocampus 14. Brain-machine interfaces are currently used for which of the following?

A: Allowing people who have been paralyzed to move B: Improve technology user experiences C: Detecting people’s preferences for certain products D: Allowing researchers to assess cognitive impairments for intervention purposes 15. What is the dual-use dilemma?

A: When a methodology is used differently by researchers, which makes standardization difficult B: That any technology or advancement can be used for both good and bad purposes C: Experimental results are often interpreted and used in opposing ways, making consensus difficult D: Different cultures have different opinions about how to use scientific information or technology 16. What is cosmetic neurology?

A: The trend to create homogeneity in neural function through culture B: The trend to hold beliefs that make you more appealing to others C: The trend to value neural aesthetics related to achievement and intelligence D: The trend to boost cognitive performance through various neural interventions 17. One of the common conflicts that arise when neuroscience in applied to other areas like education, the law, and marketing is which of the following?

A: There are financial conflicts of interests that make collaboration difficult B: The results are often too simplistic for accurate application in these areas C: There are conflicting goals that arise when neuroscience is implemented in these areas D: There can be “group-think” in the interpretations of the neuroscience findings 18. What has research on the neuroscience of morality shown in New World capuchin monkeys?

A: Monkeys will refuse to participate in token exchanges if they see another monkey get a bigger reward than they are offered B: Monkeys who steal and hoard food eventually will climb to the top of the social hierarchy C: Monkeys only react to unfair acts if they are in large groups D: Monkeys will only retaliate against unfair acts if they are repeated over many instances 19. People who are high in justice sensitivity showed which of the following: A: They show more activation in the amygdala B: They show more activation in the temporoparietal junction C: They show more activation in the middle temporal area D: They show more activation in the hippocampus

20. The neuroscience of morality has revealed that moral decision making is a deliberative process that involves which of the following: A: Areas related to more strictly emotion and future thinking B: A small number of key brain areas specialized for moral judgments C: People make moral judgments to ensure that the least amount of harm is done D: Areas related to evaluating both emotional and cognitive information related to costbenefit analyses