Test Bank for Cognitive Psychology A Student's Handbook, 8th Edition by Michael Eysenck by ACADEMIAMILL

(Cognitive Psychology A Student's Handbook, 8e Michael Eysenck) (Test Bank all Chapters)

Testbank answers - Chapter 1 1. Which cognitive task is designed to tap inhibitory processes and asks participants to name the colour in which colour names are presented? a. Stroop b. Anti-saccade c. Stop-signal d. Wisconsin colour sort e. ANT task Answer: A

2. Early versions of the information-processing approach assumed that all processing was: a. Parallel and bottom-up b. Serial and bottom-up c. Serial and top-down d. Serial and parallel e. Parallel and top-down Answer: B

3. Parallel processing is most likely to occur when: a. People attempt a new task b. People lack the necessary skills to complete a task c. People attempt to process a task sequentially d. People are highly practised at a task e. All of these Answer: D

4. Which research field attempts to construct computer systems that produce intelligent outcomes, but without necessarily any regard for whether the processes involved bear a resemblance to those used by humans? a. Artificial intelligence b. Computational cognitive science c. Cognitive neuropsychology d. Cognitive neuroscience e. Physiological psychology Answer: A

5. Which neurologist produced a cytoarchitectonic map of the brain, with many of these numbered regions corresponding to functionally distinct areas?

a. b. c. d. e.

Weber Ebbinghaus Lashley Milner Brodmann

Answer: E

6. The extent to which laboratory findings are applicable to everyday life is called: a. Individual differences b. Measurement reliability c. Ecological validity d. Hubristic albescence e. Sentience Answer: C

7. A processor in the cognitive system that functions in an independent/separate fashion is termed a: a. Node b. Lexicon c. Unit d. Component e. Module Answer: E

8. The notion that parts of the processing system can be impaired by brain damage, but parts cannot be added, forms the basis of which cognitive neuropsychology assumption? a. Domain specificity b. Subtractivity c. Additivity d. Anatomical interdependence e. Uniformity Answer: B

9. If one patient performs well on task A, but poorly on task B, and another performs poorly on task A, but well on task B, we say that we have a(n): a. Trifecta b. Association c. Deviant association d. Syndrome e. Double dissociation Answer: E

10. A group of symptoms or impairments commonly found together is known as a: a. Lesion b. Syndrome c. Cohort d. Distributed network e. Categorical misnomer Answer: B

11. In order to address the problem that brain-damaged patients do not represent a homogeneous group, many cognitive neuropsychologists use: a. Group studies b. Diary studies c. Observation studies d. Case studies e. Double-blind studies Answer: D

12. What term is used to describe the exaggerated importance of neuroimaging to further our understanding of cognition? a. Ghosting b. Neuroenchantment c. Aliasing fallacy d. Neuroimaging illusion e. Neural trap Answer: B

13. Technically, the signal measured in fMRI is known by which acronym? a. MEG b. ERP c. OXYN d. BOLD e. ACT-R Answer: D

14. Which computational modelling theory was developed by Anderson (1993)? a. E-Z Reader b. ACT-R c. TRACE model d. Working memory theory e. NETtalk Answer: B

15. A unit in a connectionist network will produce an output when: a. The weighted sum of all inputs exceeds a threshold b. It receives any excitatory input c. It receives any inhibitory input d. It forms a connection with an inhibitory unit e. It is flooded by an antagonist Answer: A

16. The process whereby a neural network learns to associate an input pattern with an output pattern, by comparing actual responses against correct ones, is called: a. Forward propagation b. Retroactive interference c. Backward propagation d. Proactive interference e. Retrospective learning Answer: C

17. Which of the following divides the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain? a. Lateral fissure b. Parieto-occipital sulcus c. Pre-occipital notch d. Corpus callosum e. Central sulcus Answer: E

18. Which term is used to describe structures that are located at the sides of the brain? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Dorsal d. Ventral e. Occipital Answer: B

19. The term that describes how precisely a technique can identify where in the brain a task is being performed is: a. Temporal resolution b. Medial resolution c. Magnetic resolution d. Spatial resolution e. None of these

Answer: D

20. Averaging together time-locked portions of recordings of the brain’s electrical activity, to produce a single waveform, produces: a. Single-unit recordings b. Electroencephalogram c. Event-related potentials d. CT scans e. Lesions Answer: C

21. PET scans are used to detect changes in: a. Regional cerebral blood flow b. Electrical activity c. Neurotransmitter release d. Magnetic activity e. Brain volume Answer: A

22. Which of the following techniques can only be applied to brain areas lying just beneath the skull but not to areas overlying muscle? a. Ablation b. TMS c. Pharmaceutical intervention d. Spectroscopy e. fMRI Answer: B

23. Which of the following techniques measures the magnetic field produced by electrical brain activity? a. fMRI b. PET c. EEG d. MEG e. tDCS Answer: D

24. Which of the following techniques allows us to make the most confident CAUSAL statements? a. MEG b. fMRI c. EEG

d. TMS e. PET Answer: D

25. When we find similar results using several different brain-imaging techniques, we say that we have: a. Dissociations b. Double dissociations c. Temporal derivatives d. Inverse solution e. Converging operations Answer: E

26. What does the term “bottom-up” processing mean? a. Processing influenced by the individual’s expecations and knowledge b. One process occurs at a time before the onset of the next c. Processing that is indirectly influenced by environmental stimuli d. More than one proccess occurs at the same time e. Processing that is directly influenced by environmental stimuli Answer: E

27. Which statement best reflects social cognition? a. It focuses on the role of cognitive processes in influencing group behaviour in social situations b. It focuses on the role of cognitive processes in influencing individuals’ behaviour in social situations c. It focuses on the role of cognitive processes in society’s behaviour d. It focuses on the role of cognitive processes in animals’ behaviour in social situations e. All of the above Answer: B

Testbank answers - Chapter 2 1. Compared to participants in an everyday memory study, participants in a traditional memory study are more likely to be driven by: a. The need for accuracy b. The need to enhance self-esteem c. The need for honesty d. The need for reward e. The need for ecological validity Answer: A

2. What are the main functions of autobiographic memory? a. Social function b. Directive function c. Self function d. Options 1 and 3 e. Options 1, 2 and 3 Answer: E

3. The phenomenon whereby a surprisingly large number of memories come from the ages 10 to 30 is termed: a. Infantile amnesia b. Repression c. Reminiscence bump d. Retrospective interference e. Source amnesia Answer: C

4. Which brain region associated with memory is generated within the hippocampus early in development? a. Subiculum b. Pons c. Prefrontal cortex d. Dentate gyrus e. Anterior cingulate Answer: D

5. According to Howe and Courage (1997), infantile amnesia is most directly related to the emergence of:

a. b. c. d. e.

Short-term memory structures Repression Language The unconscious The cognitive self

Answer: E

6. Freud argued that childhood amnesia is caused by: a. Repression b. The emergence of the cognitive self c. Maternal reminiscing style d. Damage to the brain e. Lack of language Answer: A

7. According to social-cultural developmental theory (e.g., Fivush, 2010), what is key to autobiographic memory development? a. Reading and writing b. Listening and social interaction c. Reading and culture d. Language and culture e. None of the above Answer: D

8. According to Conway and Pleydell-Pearce's (2000) self-memory theory, the autobiographical memory knowledge base contains personal memories at how many levels of specificity? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five e. Six Answer: B

9. According to Conway and Pleydell-Pearce's (2000) theory, which two methods of retrieval are used to access autobiographical memories? a. Direct and generative b. Direct and indirect c. Proactive and retroactive d. Retrograde and anterograde e. Explicit and implicit Answer: A

10. Conway (2005) argued that people strive to have their autobiographical memories exhibit which two properties? a. Abundance and independent b. Diversity and abstractness c. Self-actualisation and integration d. Specificity and contingency e. Coherence and correspondence Answer: E

11. The study by Woike et al. (1999) distinguished between the communal personality type and which other personality type that emphasises independence, achievement and personal power? a. Agentic b. Selfish c. Ego-depleted d. Ought-self e. Cognitive self Answer: A

12. Bartlett (1932) argued that people commonly make use of expectation-shaping packets of knowledge stored in long-term memory, known as: a. Heuristics b. Stereotypes c. Unconscious desires d. Compulsions e. Schemas Answer: E

13. The target was correctly identified more often with same-race faces than other-race ones (Megreya et al.). This is an example of? a. Outgroup b. Same-race effect c. Ingroup d. Cross-race effect e. Other-race effect Answer: E

14. Brown and Kulik (1977) argued flashbulb memories typically include information about: a. Informant b. Place where the news was heard c. Individual's own emotional state d. Emotional state of others

e. All of the above Answer: E

15. What was found by Talarico and Rubin (2003) in their comparison of flashbulb and everyday memories? a. The vividness of flashbulb memories declined dramatically over the 32-week period b. People were good at judging the accuracy of their memories c. Flashbulb memories showed no more consistency over time than everyday memories d. The vividness of everyday memories increased over the 32-week period e. The vividness of flashbulb memories increased over the 32-week period Answer: C

16. The phenomenon whereby eyewitness memory is influenced by prior expectations is known as: a. Weapon focus b. Encoding specificity principle c. Confirmation bias d. Observer bias e. Post-event bias Answer: C

17. The study by Loftus and Palmer (1974) demonstrated how eyewitness memory can be influenced by: a. Pre-event information b. Confirmation bias c. Rehearsal d. Misleading information e. Reward Answer: D

18. The findings of Lindsay et al. (2004) demonstrated how eyewitness memory could be distorted by thematically similar: a. Post-event information b. Rehearsal c. Stereotype information d. Pre-event information e. Conformity cues Answer: D

19. Which type of information is most affected by misleading post-event information?

a. b. c. d. e.

Peripheral details Central details Weapon details Core details Self-relevant details

Answer: A

20. In Valentine et al.'s (2003) study of eyewitness identification from 314 real line-ups, how many eyewitnesses correctly identified the actual suspect? a. 0.4 b. 0.5 c. 0.6 d. 0.7 e. 0.8 Answer: A

21. Roy (1991) advised that distractions should be minimised, with pauses between responses and the next question, in their: a. Cognitive interview b. Encoding specificity principle c. Enhanced cognitive interview d. Simultaneous line-up e. Sequential line-up Answer: C

22. Remembering to perform a given action in the appropriate circumstances involves: a. Event-based retrospective memory b. Event-based prospective memory c. Time-based prospective memory d. Time-based retrospective memory e. Knowledge-based prospective memory Answer: B

23. According to Einstein and McDaniel's (2005) multi-process framework, the detection of cues for response is 'automatic' when the what following criteria are fulfilled? a. The ongoing task is focal b. The cue on the propective-memory task and the to-be-performed action are highly associated c. The cue is salient d. The indended action is simple e. All of the above Answer: E

24. McDaniel et al. (2013) argued the monitoring required to perform a non-focal task would involve: a. Working memory b. Top-down attentional control c. Bottom-up attentional control d. Sustained activity e. Transient activty Answer: B

25. Brown et al. (2017) replicated the other-race effect. They found greater activation in which network? a. Fronto-temporal network b. Default mode network c. Fronto-parietal network d. Salience network e. Tempo-parietal network Answer: C

26. In the study by Jenkins et al. (2011), participants showed very poor face recognition. Why? a. Varability b. Replicability c. Similarity d. Unfamiliairty e. Typicality Answer: A

27. According to McDaniel et al. (2013), sustained activity in the what would be involved in attentional control? a. Anterior parietal cortex b. Lateral prefrontal cortex c. Anterior prefrontal cortex d. Medial temporal lobe e. Hippocampus Answer: C

Testbank answers - Chapter 3 1. The fundamental principle that guides gestaltists is: a. Koffka's Principle b. Weber’s Law c. The principle of conservation d. The law of Prägnanz e. The principle of good contiguity Answer: D

2. The gestaltist law that states that similar elements will be grouped together perceptually is called the law of: a. Proximity b. Good continuation c. Similarity d. Closure e. Common fate Answer: C

3. The gestaltist law that states that visual elements that are located close to each other, tend to be grouped together, is the law of: a. Proximity b. Good continuation c. Similarity d. Closure e. Common fate Answer: A

4. Which of the following is a criticism of gestaltist ideas concerning perceptual organisation? a. They did not take into consideration the importance of past experience and learning b. They rarely provided adequate explanations for the descriptions of perceptual phenomena c. They did not identify all the principles of perceptual organisation d. Their findings were mostly based on 2-D line drawings e. All of the above Answer: E

5. The principle of visual organisation proposed by Palmer and Rock (1994) is termed: a. The law of Prägnanz

b. c. d. e.

The law of good continuation The grouping principle The principle of uniform connectedness The isomorphism principle

Answer: D

6. In Marr’s theory of object recognition, which representations are observer-centred? a. The primal sketch b. The 2 1/2-D sketch c. The 3-D sketch d. The primal and 2 1/2-D sketch e. The primal and 3-D sketch Answer: D

7. Biederman’s recognition-by-components theory held that objects consist of components known as what? a. Gabors b. Geons c. Voxels d. Pixels e. Gratings Answer: B

8. According to the recognition-by-components theory, the first stage in object recognition involves: a. Edge extraction b. Detection of non-accidental properties c. Parsing of areas of concavity d. Determination of components e. Matching of components to object representations Answer: A

9. According to Biederman (1987), which of the following is NOT one of the invariant properties of edges? a. Collinearity b. Colour c. Cotermination d. Curvature e. Symmetry Answer: B

10. Neurons responding strongly to one visual object, but weakly (or not at all) to other objects, possess high: a. Invariance b. Tolerance c. Dimensionality d. Selectivity e. Greebles Answer: D

11. Milivojevic et al. (2012) stated that object-recognition is typically not influenced by ____ when categorisation is required? a. object orientation b. colour constancy c. within-object discriminations d. the identification of voxels e. viewpoint change Answer: A

12. Which disorder involves problems with object recognition that result from deficits in face processing? a. Associative prosopagnosia b. Apperceptive prosopagnosia c. Optic ataxia d. Prosopagnosia e. Aphasia Answer: B

13. In which disorder do patients have an inability to access facial memories? a. Associative prosopagnosia b. Apperceptive prosopagnosia c. Optic ataxia d. Prosopagnosia e. Aphasia Answer: A

14. According to Bruce and Young’s (1986) model, which process produces various descriptions or representations of faces a. Directed visual processing b. Structural encoding c. Face recognition units d. Person identity nodes e. Name generation

Answer: B

15. The condition in which people cannot recognise faces, but can recognise common objects, is called: a. Associative agnosia b. Apperceptive agnosia c. Optic ataxia d. Prosopagnosia e. Aphasia Answer: D

16. Configural processing is otherwise known as: a. Local processing b. Feature processing c. Semantic processing d. Holistic processing e. Detailed processing Answer: D

17. Which brain area responds more strongly to faces than other stimuli categories? a. Amygdala b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal sulcus d. Frontal lobes e. Fusiform gyrus Answer: E

18. Kosslyn used which of the following terms to refer to the brain areas in which depictive representations are formed? a. Visuo-spatial sketchpad b. Episodic buffer c. Visual buffer d. Working memory e. Brodmann Area 13 Answer: C

19. According to Kosslyn, depictive representations are created in which brain area, also known as BA17? a. Early visual cortex b. Superior temporal cortex c. Amygdala d. Fusiform gyrus

e. Thalamus Answer: A

20. Pylsyhyn’s (2002) propositional theory of mental imagery emphasises the importance of: a. Depictive representations b. Geons c. Verbal skills d. Tacit knowledge e. Quasi-pictorial representations Answer: D

21. Which technique was famously used by Hubel and Wiesel (1962, 1979) to investigate visual processes in cats and monkeys? a. EEG b. Single-cell recording c. MEG d. fMRI e. Lesions Answer: B

22. Why was Marr’s computational approach influential? a. He realised bottom-up processing was highly influential in object recognition b. He successfully combined ideas from different approaches c. He realised vision told the truth about what is out there d. The processess he proposed are simple computationally e. All of the above Answer: B

23. According to Hubel and Wiesel (1962), simple cells are: a. Respond to straight-line stimuli in a particular orientation b. Are end-stopped cells c. Cells that respond to dark bars in a light field and have an “on/off” rectangular region d. Have large receptive fields that have “off” regions e. Cells that respond to dark bars in a light field and have an “on/off” spherical region Answer: C

24. Which gestaltist law was revealed when Johansson’s (1973) participants perceived human motion, despite only actually seeing lights that had been strapped to an actor’s joints? a. Proximity b. Good continuation

c. Similarity d. Closure e. Common fate Answer: E

Testbank answers - Chapter 4 1. Gibson stated that perception of the environment is mediated by: a. Retinal pictures b. Neural pictures c. Mental pictures d. Information pickup e. All of the above Answer: D

2. What term is used to describe the changes in the patterns of light that reach an observer when there is movement? a. Optic array b. Optic flow c. Retinal image d. Focus of expansion e. Texture gradient Answer: B

3. What term was used by Gibson to describe those higher-order characteristics of the visual array that remain unaltered when an observer moves around the environment? a. Affordances b. Dissociates c. Gradients d. Invariants e. Obligatories Answer: D

4. What term was used by Gibson to describe the potential uses of objects that present themselves to an observer? a. Affordances b. Dissociates c. Gradients d. Invariants e. Obligatories Answer: A

5. Gibson’s theory of perception is consistent with the visual processing that is moderated by which processing stream?

a. b. c. d. e.

Vision-for-perception Ventral What Vision-for-action Occipital lobe

Answer: D

6. According to Lee (1976), time to contact can be calculated using which of the following measures? a. Perceived distance b. Perceived velocity c. Perceived distance divided by perceived velocity d. The rate of expansion of an object’s retinal image e. Visual direction Answer: D

7. Tresilian (1999) argued that the informativeness of tau as a measure of time to contact is limited because: a. It ignores accelerations in object velocity b. It can only provide information about time to contact with the eyes c. It is only accurate when applied to objects that are spherically symmetrical d. It requires that image size and object expansion are both detectable e. All of the above Answer: E

8. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of the planning system in Glover’s (2004) planning-control model of human action? a. It is not used during an actual movement b. It is relatively slow c. It uses both spatial and non-spatial information d. It is influenced by the individual’s goals e. It is susceptible to conscious influence Answer: A

9. When free to look wherever they want, drivers approaching a bend tend to focus on the: a. Curb edge b. Plateau c. Tangent point d. Horizon e. Inflection gradient Answer: C

10. Units in which system are activated when animals perform an action AND when they observe another animal performing the same action? a. Replication dyad b. Reproduction system c. Fronto-vestibular network d. Mirror neuron system e. Perception-for-action system Answer: D

11. Grossman et al. (2005) found that point-light displays of biological motion activated which brain area? a. Middle temporal area b. Superior temporal sulcus c. Inferior parietal lobe d. Frontal lobes e. Basal ganglia Answer: B

12. Johansson (1975) stated that the ability to perceive biological motion is: a. Learned b. Related to practice c. Innate d. Controlled e. Less developed than other types of motion perception Answer: C

13. The phenomenon in which observers do not notice an unexpected object appearing in a visual display is termed: a. Change blindness b. Ebbinghaus illusion c. Müller-Lyer illusion d. Inattentional blindness e. Ponzo illusion Answer: D

14. According to Kuhn and Martinez (2012), magicians often make use of which phenomenon that involves a failure to detect that a once-present object has been manipulated in some way? a. Change blindness b. Ebbinghaus illusion c. Müller-Lyer illusion d. Misdirection

e. Ponzo illusion Answer: A

15. Rensink et al. (1997), among others, have argued that visual representations formed when viewing a scene depend on our limited attentional focus and, for that reason, are necessarily: a. Non-verbal b. Retinotopically mapped c. Rehearsed d. Sparse e. Integrated with other sensory information Answer: D

16. Hollingworth and Henderson’s eye-tracking study (2002) revealed that what type of change was most readily detected? a. Type b. Token c. Spatial d. Hemifield e. Depth Answer: A

17. Do adults with autism detect human motion in point-like displays? a. No – they do not have an intact ability to detect human motion b. Yes – they have an intact ability and show emotion processing in such displays c. Yes – they have an intact ability but exhibit impaired emotion processing in such displays d. No – they do not have an intact ability but can show emotion processing e. None of the above Answer: C

18. What is retinal flow? a. Changes in the pattern of light on the retina b. Changes in the pattern of light on the cornea c. Changes in rod and cone light patterns d. Steady increase in bright light on the eye e. The pressure on the retina Answer: A

19. Retinal flow is influenced by: a. The image on the cornea is flipped by following a straight path of light

b. The retinal image is flipped and is produced by following a straight path of light and/or eye movement alone c. Rotation in the retina image produced by following a curved path and/or eye and head movement d. Head and eye movements alone change the retina image e. Rotation in the retina image produced by following a straight path and/or eye and head movements Answer: C

20. Cohen (2002) assessed observer’s sensitivity to human, dog and seal motion using pointlight displays. What is their conclusion about sensitivity? a. We are less sensitive to animal motion b. We are more sensitive to observed motions resembling our own actions c. We are more sensitive to actions for human motion d. We have the same sensitivity to both human and animal motion e. None of the above Answer: B

21. “Identification of a peripheral object is impaired by nearby objects” describes which phenomenon? a. Change blindness b. Inattentional blindness c. Peripheral blindness d. Apraxia e. Visual crowding Answer: E

22. What is apraxia? a. Inability to perform planned actions b. Inability to plan actions c. Inability to recognise actions d. Inability to predict planned actions e. Inability to understand an action Answer: A

23. Which one is a criticism of Glover's (2004) planning-control model? a. The planning system involves different processes b. The model argues control occurs late during object-directed movements c. It has an oversimplified view of processes involved in goal-directed action d. The model accounts for planning and control processes when only one object is present e. All of the above

Answer: E

Testbank answers - Chapter 5 1. According to James (1890), passive attentional processes are controlled by: a. An individual’s goals b. An individual’s expectations c. Bottom-up processes d. Top-down processes e. All of the above Answer: C

2. Cherry’s research on the “cocktail party” problem involves the study of: a. Focused auditory attention b. Focused visual attention c. Divided auditory attention d. Divided visual attention e. Change blindness Answer: A

3. The method whereby participants have to repeat an auditory message back out loud while a second auditory message is played to the other ear is called: a. Monitoring b. Shadowing c. Tagging d. Breakthrough e. Following Answer: B

4. Cherry’s research on the “cocktail party” problem suggests that we use which type of information to enable us to follow just one conversation, when several people are talking at once? a. Message characteristics b. Language c. Syntactical information d. Physical characteristics e. None of these Answer: D

5. Which theory of attention was developed by Treisman and Gelade (1980)? a. Filter theory

b. c. d. e.

Perceptual load theory Bottleneck theory Decision integration theory Feature integration theory

Answer: E

6. In which of the following attention theories does the processing “bottleneck” occur much later in the processing system? a. Deutsch and Deutsch theory b. Filter theory c. Attenuation theory d. Perceptual load theory e. Feature integration theory Answer: A

7. According to Lavie (e.g., 2005), if all other factors held constant, susceptibility to distraction is greater when the task involves what? a. More items in the visual field b. Low perceptual load c. Low demand on executive control functions d. Pop-outs e. Only auditory stimuli Answer: B

8. According to Corbetta and Shulman (2002), the goal-directed system of visual attention consists of a: a. Right-hemisphere ventral fronto-parietal network b. Left-hemisphere ventral fronto-parietal network c. Ventral attention network d. Dorsal attention network e. Left-hemisphere ventral occipital network Answer: D

9. Which brain areas did Corbetta and Shulman (2002) find to be involved in the stimulusdriven system of visual attention? a. Inferior frontal junction b. Inferior frontal gyrus c. Supramarginal gyrus d. Superior temporal gyrus and insula e. All of the above Answer: E

10. The model of visual attention proposed by Eriksen and St James (1986) is the: a. Object-based theory b. Filter theory c. Colour wheel theory d. Autofocus theory e. Zoom lens model Answer: E

11. Posner (1980) suggested that the attentional spotlight can shift to a different visual location in the absence of eye movements. This is termed: a. Divided attention b. Split attention c. Overt attention d. Covert attention e. Attentional bias Answer: D

12. Inhibition of perceptual/attentional processes and inhibition of motor processes have both been proposed as possible mechanisms for which phenomenon? a. Mnemonic inhibition b. Inhibitory paralysis c. Apraxia d. Inhibition of return e. All of the above Answer: D

13. The condition in which there is a lack of awareness for stimuli presented to the contralesional side of space is called: a. Neglect b. Balint’s syndrome c. Visual agnosia d. Optic ataxia e. Anosognosia Answer: A

14. Feature integration theory predicts that, in the absence of focused attention, features from different objects will be randomly combined to produce: a. Conjunctive features b. Illusory conjunctions c. Non-targets d. Visual illusions e. Feature displays

Answer: B

15. The study by Treisman and Davies (1973) found that interference in a divided-attention task was greatest when: a. The tasks used the same modality b. Required responses were similar c. Participants were practised at the task d. Both tasks were difficult e. None of these Answer: A

16. The study by Spelke et al. (1976) investigated the effect of what on dual-task performance? a. Task difficulty b. Task similarity c. Response similarity d. Practice e. Reward Answer: D

17. According to Shiffrin and Schneider's (1977) theory, which of the following statements applies to controlled processes? a. They can be used flexibly in changing circumstances b. They have no capacity limitations c. They are hard to modify once learned d. They do not require attention e. None of these Answer: A

18. Evidence from many studies of the psychological refractory period has offered support for the predictions of: a. Capacity theory b. Instance theory c. Feature integration theory d. Cognitive bottleneck theory e. Visual search theory Answer: D

19. The cognitive neuroscience approach was used to test: a. Processes underlying parallel performance b. Theoretical models alone

c. Theoretical models and to enhance our understanding of processes underlying dualtask performance d. Theoretical models and to enhance our understanding of processing underlying single-task performance e. To enhance our understanding of processes underlying covert performance Answer: C

20. Dual-task performance is often associated with (Schweizer et al., 2013): a. Underadditivity b. Overadditivity c. Enhanced cognitive control d. Reduced spatial and visual processing e. Increased attentional processing Answer: B

21. What does the term “bottleneck” mean? a. Filter b. Processor c. Buffer d. Output e. Input Answer: A

22. What component of working memory is involved in attentional control? a. Visuospatial sketchpad b. Episodic buffer c. Phonological loop d. Central executive e. Long-term memory Answer: D

23. What did Chica et al. (2011) find when applying TMS to the right intraparietal sulcus? a. Impaired functioning of both attention systems b. Impaired functioning of the goal-directed system c. Hightened functioning of both attention systems d. Heightened function of the stimulus-driven attentional system e. Equal functioning of both systems Answer: A

Testbank answers - Chapter 6 1. Clarke and Mack (2015) carried out a classic series of studies on: a. Short-term memory store b. Long-term memory store c. Haptic memory store d. Iconic memory store e. Echoic memory store Answer: D

2. What type of information is held by the echoic store? a. Olfactory b. Visual c. Auditory d. Haptic e. Gustatory Answer: C

3. What are the causes for information to be lost from short-term memory? a. Displacement and interference b. Displacement and decay c. Rehearsal and interference d. Decay and interference e. Cue-dependent forgetting Answer: D

4. The type of forgetting that occurs when the memory traces in the memory system are stored, but are inaccessible, is: a. Displacement b. Proactive interference c. Retroactive interference d. Decay e. Cue-dependent forgetting Answer: E

5. The three memory stores in the multi-store model of memory differ in which of the following ways? a. Temporal duration b. Storage capacity

c. Forgetting mechanisms d. Effects of brain damage e. All of the above Answer: E

6. (Scenario) When Hugo Munsterberg couldn’t find the pocket-watch he used to keep in one particular pocket, after he moved it to a new one, he was experiencing forgetting attributable to: a. Displacement b. Proactive interference c. Retroactive interference d. Decay e. Cue-dependent forgetting Answer: B

7. Logie (1995) subdivided Baddeley's visuo-spatial sketchpad into the visual cache, and what additional component? a. Phonological loop b. Episodic buffer c. Central executive d. Inner scribe e. Articulatory loop Answer: D

8. What type of experiement has been used to test the assumption of limited capacity in shortterm memory? a. Chunking studies b. Digit span studies c. Dichotic listening studies d. Dual-task studies e. Free recall studies Answer: B

9. Serial recall of a list of words is better when the words do NOT sound the same. This phenomenon is called the: a. Distinctiveness effect b. Phonological similarity effect c. Word-length effect d. Familiarity effect e. Practice effect Answer: B

10. According to the working memory model, words presented visually obtain access to the phonological loop indirectly through: a. Subvocal articulation b. Articulatory suppression c. Rehearsal d. Practice e. The visuo-spatial sketchpad Answer: A

11. Which brain area is most likely to be associated with the central executive? a. Inferior frontal gyri b. Middle frontal gyri c. Prefrontal cortex d. Ventral prefrontal cortex e. Occipital lobe Answer: C

12. Patients with dysexecutive syndrome typically have damage within the: a. Occipital lobes b. Parietal lobes c. Corpus callosum d. Temporal lobes e. Frontal lobes Answer: E

13. The study by Allen et al. (2012) on visual stimuli whereby participants had to remember briefly a single feature or colour–shape combination offered support for the existence of which component of working memory? a. Phonological loop b. Episodic buffer c. Central executive d. Inner scribe e. Articulatory loop Answer: B

14. The study by Eysenck and Eysenck (1980), involving nouns with irregular grapheme– phoneme correspondence, demonstrated the importance of what in creating lasting longterm memories? a. Decay b. Distinctiveness c. Elaboration d. Maintenance rehearsal

e. Similiarity Answer: B

15. Which theory of memory was developed by Morris et al. (1977)? a. Multi-store model b. Working memory model c. Levels of processing theory d. Transfer-appropriate processing theory e. Source monitoring theory Answer: D

16. Freud claimed threatening or traumatic memories often cannot gain access to conscious awareness. This is an example of: a. Repression b. Displacement c. Denial d. Regression e. Projection Answer: A

17. The study by Jacoby et al. (2001) provided support for the idea that proactive interference results primarily from: a. Strength of the initial incorrect response b. Problems in retrieving the correct response c. Problems with storage of the correct response d. Retroactive interference by the incorrect response e. All of the above Answer: A

18. Which effect appears to be stronger when participants are in a positive rather than negative mood, because they are motivated to alter negative moods? a. Mood congruency effects b. Learned helplessness c. Trace-dependent forgetting d. Mood-state-dependent memory e. Repression Answer: D

19. Godden and Baddeley (1980) failed to find the typical superior memory performance for participants who learned and were tested in the same physical environment (contextdependent memory) using which type of test?

a. b. c. d. e.

Serial recall Recognition Cued recall Digit span Free recall

Answer: B

20. The process whereby information is fixed into long-term memory is termed: a. Storage b. Knowledge transfer c. Encoding d. Consolidation e. Rehearsal Answer: D

21. According to Eichenbaum (2001), the first phase of consolidation primarily involves what brain region? a. Cerebellum b. Occipital lobe c. Amygdala d. Hippocampus e. Thalamus Answer: D

22. Patients who have impaired memory for events occurring before the onset of their memory loss are said to be suffering from: a. Proactive amnesia b. Anterograde amnesia c. Retrograde amnesia d. Retroactive amnesia e. Global amnesia Answer: C

23. Which of the following findings is/are consistent with consolidation theories of forgetting? a. Consuming alcohol prior to learning reduces forgetting rates b. Retrograde amnesia is greater for recently formed memories c. Retroactive interference effects are greatest soon after learning has occurred d. Distinct patterns of brain activations associated with retrieval of older versus newer memories e. All of the above Answer: E

24. Learning and memory involve several stages of processing. What is the first stage? a. Storage b. Encoding c. Retrieval d. Recovery e. Forgetting Answer: B

25. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968), iconic memory is assumed to be: a. Attentive b. Preattentive c. Subattentive d. Inattentive e. Unattentive Answer: B

26. Which does “encoding specificity principle” mean? a. The notion that encoding depends on readily accessible information b. The notion that forgetting depends on the similarities between information available and information forgotten c. The notion that retrieval depends on the overlap between the information available at retrieval and the information in the memory trace d. The probability of unsuccessful retrieval e. The probability of successful retrieval of the distractor item and the information readily available in the memory trace Answer: C

27. Darling et al. (2017) discussed several studies showing how memory can be enhanced by the episodic buffer. What was the focus of the research? a. Visuo-spatial kickboxing b. Episodic buffer c. Visuo-spatial bootstrapping d. Central executive e. Long-term memory Answer: C

Testbank answers - Chapter 7 1. Episodic and semantic memory have often been regarded as two forms of: a. Explicit memory b. Self memory c. Declarative memory d. Procedural memory e. Perceptual memory Answer: C

2. Which psychologist is credited with coining the terms “episodic” and “semantic” to refer to two distinct types of memory? a. Baddeley b. Mulligan c. Schacter d. Squire e. Tulving Answer: E

3. According to Vargha-Khadem et al. (1997), semantic memory depends, in part, on which of the following structures? a. Hippocampus b. Hypothalamus c. Amygdala d. Entorhinal cortex, perirhinal cortex and parahippocampal cortices e. Pons Answer: D

4. Stimulus processing occurs faster and/or more easily on the second and successive presentations of a stimulus, a finding which is referred to as what? a. Habituation b. Sensory adaptation c. Remote learning d. Repetition priming e. Inhibition of return Answer: D

5. According to Schacter et al.’s (2000) definition, learning to ride a bike is best classified as an example of what type of memory:

a. b. c. d. e.

Procedural Rote Explicit Episodic Echoic

Answer: A

6. Doyon et al. (2018) discovered that early learning mainly involved which regions? a. Prefrontal, hippocampus, primary motor cortex b. Basal ganglia, temporal cortices and premotor cortex c. Striatal regions, prefrontal and premotor cortices d. Striatal, prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia e. Striatal regions, red nucleus and basal ganglia Answer: C

7. In which of the following tasks are participants asked to press the key closest to a visual target appearing at one of four horizontal locations, often dictated by an underlying sequence that is repeated? a. Serial position task b. Serial recall task c. WADA test d. Serial reaction time task e. Dot-probe task Answer: D

8. The task in which participants indicate subjectively whether their positive recognition decisions were based on recollection of contextual information (remember responses) or solely on familiarity (know responses) is known as the: a. Process dissociation procedure b. Response deadline procedure c. Implicit association test d. Serial reaction time task e. Remember/know procedure Answer: E

9. Semantic dementia always involves the degeneration of which region of the brain? a. Frontal lobe b. Anterior temporal lobe c. Right hippocampus d. Right posterior temporal lobe e. Ventromedial frontal cortex Answer: B

10. Patterson et al. (2007) referred to the unified conceptual representations in their favoured theory as: a. Modality-specific nodes b. Modules c. Object attributions d. Hubs e. Amodal distributions Answer: D

11. The version of grounded cognition advocated by Barsalou (2009) focuses on the role of what in cognition? a. Modality-specific nodes b. Logical inference c. Feedforward mechanisms d. Situated simulation e. Serial processing Answer: D

12. The perceptual fluency view would predict that repeated presentations should yield which of the following: a. Declarative memory b. Greater demands on the central executive c. Reduced levels of brain activity d. More controlled processes e. Negative priming on behavioural measures Answer: C

13. All of the following were identified by Foerde and Poldrack (2009) as types of procedural learning EXCEPT: a. Cued associative recall b. Mirror reading c. Sequence learning d. Mirror tracing e. Artificial grammar learning Answer: A

14. Reber et al. (1996) found that, similar to healthy controls, amnesics learned to use probabilistic cues to classify which of the following: a. Current famous/non-famous faces b. Perceived weight c. Autobiographical memories

d. Expected utility e. The weather Answer: E

15. The finding that participants can decide faster whether an object is living or non-living, provided that they’ve seen it recently, is an example of: a. Perceptual priming b. Repetition priming c. Reduplicative priming d. Conceptual priming e. Negative priming Answer: D

16. Chronic alcoholics may suffer damage to the diencephalon as a result of a thiamine deficiency, and they commonly develop which syndrome? a. Alzheimer's b. Huntington's c. Korsakoff's d. Parkinson's e. Urbach–Wiethe Answer: C

17. Research on HM led to an exaggerated emphasis on the role of: a. Cerebellum b. Medial temporal lobe c. Prefrontal cortex d. Hippocampus e. Parahippocampus Answer: D

18. According to Collins and Loftus (1975), semantic memory is organised in terms of: a. Hierarchical refinement b. Semantic distance between concepts c. Semantic organisation d. Bottom-up processing e. Related semantics Answer: B

19. Distance between concepts in the spreading activation theory represents: a. Relatedness b. Asymmetry

c. Imageability d. Word length e. Word frequency Answer: A

20. Tasks such as word-completion have been used to test: a. Episodic memory b. Autobiographical memory c. Implicit memory d. Procedural memory e. Context-dependent memory Answer: C

21. According to Schacter and Tulving (1994), how many memory systems are there? a. One b. Four c. Six d. Three e. Nine Answer: B

22. Scalici et al. (2017) reviewed research on the involvement of the prefrontal cortex in familiarity and recollection. Which kind of activity was greater in the ventromedial and dorsomedial prefrontal cortex? a. Recognition b. Recollection c. Remember d. Familiarity e. Knowing Answer: D

23. Kenett et al. (2017) found what predicted performance on various episodic-memory tasks? a. Semantic categorisation b. Holistics c. Heuristics d. Cues e. Semantic distance Answer: E

Testbank answers - Chapter 8 1. Compared to participants in an everyday memory study, participants in a traditional memory study are more likely to be driven by: a. The need for accuracy b. The need to enhance self-esteem c. The need for honesty d. The need for reward e. The need for ecological validity Answer: A

2. What are the main functions of autobiographic memory? a. Social function b. Directive function c. Self-function d. A and C e. A, B and C Answer: E

4. Which brain region associated with memory is generated within the hippocampus early in development? a. Subiculum b. Pons c. Prefrontal cortex d. Dentate gyrus e. Anterior cingulate Answer: D

5. According to Howe and Courage (1997), infantile amnesia is most directly related to the emergence of:

a. b. c. d. e.

Short-term memory structures Repression Language The unconscious The cognitive self

Answer: E

6. Freud argued that childhood amnesia is caused by: a. Repression b. The emergence of the cognitive self c. Maternal reminiscing style d. Damage to the brain e. Lack of language Answer: A

8. According to Conway and Pleydell-Pearce’s (2000) self-memory theory, the autobiographical memory knowledge base contains personal memories at how many levels of specificity? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five e. Six Answer: B

13. The target was correctly identified more often with same-race faces than other-race ones (Megreya et al.). This is an example of? a. Out-group b. Same-race effect c. In-group d. Cross-race effect e. Other-race effect Answer: E

14. Brown and Kulik (1977) argued flashbulb memories typically include information about: a. Informant b. Place where the news was heard c. Individual’s own emotional state d. Emotional state of others

e. All of the above Answer: E

17. The study by Loftus and Palmer (1974) demonstrated how eyewitnesses’ memories can be influenced by: a. Pre-event information b. Confirmation bias c. Rehearsal d. Misleading information e. Reward Answer: D

18. The findings of Lindsay et al. (2004) demonstrated how eyewitnesses’ memories could be distorted by thematically similar: a. Post-event information b. Rehearsal c. Stereotype information d. Pre-event information e. Conformity cues Answer: D

19. Which type of information is most affected by misleading post-event information?

a. b. c. d. e.

Peripheral details Central details Weapon details Core details Self-relevant details

Answer: A

20. In Valentine et al.’s (2003) study of eyewitness identification from 314 real line-ups, how many eyewitnesses correctly identified the actual suspect? a. 0.4 b. 0.5 c. 0.6 d. 0.7 e. 0.8 Answer: A

23. According to Einstein and McDaniel’s (2005) multiprocess framework, the detection of cues for response is “automatic” when which following criteria are fulfilled? a. The ongoing task is focal b. The cue on the prospective-memory task and the to-be-performed action are highly associated c. The cue is salient d. The indended action is simple e. All of the above Answer: E

26. In the study by Jenkins et al. (2011), participants showed very poor face recognition. Why? a. Varability b. Replicability c. Similarity d. Unfamiliarity e. Typicality Answer: A

27. According to McDaniel et al. (2013), sustained activity in the ____ would be involved in attentional control? a. anterior parietal cortex b. lateral prefrontal cortex c. anterior prefrontal cortex d. medial temporal lobe e. hippocampus Answer: C

Testbank answers - Chapter 9 1. Prosodic cues are used to indicate sentence structure and meaning in speech; the equivalent though often less informative cues in written text are: a. Punctuation marks b. Discourse markers c. Orthographic cues d. Phonological cues e. All of the above Answer: A

2. The task that involves saying a printed word out loud as quickly as possible is the: a. Lexical decision task b. Naming task c. Semantic substitution task d. Reading span task e. Lexical bias task Answer: B

3. Reading involves the processing of: a. Orthography b. Word meaning c. Syntax d. Phonology e. All of the above Answer: E

4. Which of the following is concerned with the sound of words? a. Orthography b. Word meaning c. Syntax d. Phonology e. Prosody Answer: D

5. Two words that differ in only one phoneme are said to be members of the same: a. Soundscape b. Semantic network c. Phonological neighbourhood

d. Linguistic net e. Scope Answer: C

6. The findings of Neely (1977) demonstrate that word identification is influenced by: a. Position in the sentence b. Context c. Practice d. The response buffer e. Working memory capacity Answer: B

7. According to the dual-route cascaded model of reading, a patient who could pronounce words with regular spelling-to-sound correspondences, but not irregular words, would be most likely to be reading via: a. Route 1 b. Routes 1 and 3 c. Route 2 d. Routes 2 and 3 e. Route 3 Answer: A

8. Woollams et al. (2007) studied patients with semantic dementia, finding that there was a strong association between impaired semantic knowledge and which other condition? a. Phonological dyslexia b. Surface dyslexia c. Deep dyslexia d. Phonological dysgraphia e. Anomia Answer: B

9. In what type of disorder would we expect to see problems with reading unfamiliar words and non-words? a. Phonological dyslexia b. Surface dyslexia c. Deep dyselxia d. Phonological dysgraphia e. Anomia Answer: A

10. The distributed connectionist approach to reading (Plaut et al., 1996) is also known as what?

a. b. c. d. e.

Dual-route model Binary model E-Z Reader Triangle model Five-point model

Answer: D

11. Rayner et al. (2012) discussed which technique to determine the amount of text from which useful information can be obtained in each fixation? a. Follow-the-dot b. Backwards digit span c. Occular disparity d. Peripheral optometry e. Moving window Answer: E

12. Which of the following does NOT describe one of the findings that formed the basis of the EZ Reader model of reading? a. Words that are not fixated tend to be uncommon and unpredictable b. Rare words are fixated for longer than common words c. Words that are more predictable in the sentence context are fixated for less time d. The fixation time on a word is longer if it is preceded by a rare word e. Words not fixated tend to be common and short Answer: A

13. Which of the following empirical findings is NOT predicted by the E-Z Reader model of reading? a. The fixation time on a word is longer if it is preceded by a rare word b. Eye fixations at the centre of words are longer than those at either end c. The effects of frequency d. The effects of predictability e. Cost of skipping Answer: B

14. Difficulty in distinguishing words from the pattern of speech sounds is known as: a. The binding problem b. The coarticulation problem c. The segmentation problem d. The lateralisation issue e. None of the above Answer: C

15. The McGurk effect highlights listeners’ reliance on: a. Left-to-right language bias b. Gender-specific cues c. Regional dialectic cues d. Lip-reading e. Prosody Answer: D

16. The abrupt boundary between phoneme categories contributes to which phenomenon? a. Feature blending b. Categorical perception c. Consonant intensification d. Reduplication e. Singulation Answer: B

17. An ambiguous initial phoneme is more likely to be assigned to a given phoneme category when it produces a word than when it does not. This phenomenon is known as the: a. Ganong effect b. Phonemic restoration effect c. Spillover effect d. Lexical bias effect e. Categorical effect Answer: A

18. Warren and Warren’s (1970) study of the influence of context on the perception of meaningless sounds demonstrated the: a. Apposition tendency b. Phonemic restoration effect c. Spillover effect d. Lexical bias effect e. Lexical identification shift Answer: B

19. Marslen-Wilson and Tyler’s (1980) original model of speech perception, which emphasised interactions between bottom-up and top-down processes in spoken word recognition, is called the: a. Cohort model b. Dual-route model c. E-Z Reader d. Interactive activation model e. TRACE model

Answer: A

20. Liberman et al. (1967) argued that listeners mimic: a. Wording used by the speaker to establish common ground b. The articulatory movements of the speaker c. Hand gestures to facilitate communication d. Eye gaze to etablish common ground e. Emotional responses Answer: B

21. O’Rourke and Holcomb (2012) focused on the N400 component of the ERP waveform to determine whether processing speed depends on the: a. Motor readiness potential b. Stimulus luminance c. Word frequency d. Perceptual threshold e. Uniqueness point Answer: E

22. The findings of McClelland et al. (1986) offer support for which model of speech perception? a. Cohort model b. Dual-route model c. E-Z Reader d. Interactive activation model e. TRACE model Answer: E

23. Many studies have suggested that the TRACE model of speech perception may exaggerate the effects of: a. Context b. Practice c. Top-down processes d. Bottom-up processes e. Word frequency Answer: C

24. Which component of Ellis and Young’s (1988) model of speech processing is concerned with the extraction of phonemes from the speech wave? a. Auditory analysis system b. Auditory input lexicon c. Phoneme response buffer

d. Speech output lexicon e. Semantic system Answer: A

25. Which of the following does not form part of Route 2 in Ellis and Young’s (1988) model of speech processing? a. Speech output lexicon b. Semantic system c. Phonemic response buffer d. Auditory input lexicon e. Auditory analysis system Answer: B

26. Ellis and Young’s (1988) model of speech processing predicts that a patient suffering from the symptoms of word meaning deafness is likely to be reading via which route? a. Route 1 b. Routes 1 and 3 c. Route 2 d. Routes 2 and 3 e. Route 3 Answer: C

Testbank answers - Chapter 10 1. If an entire sentence has two or more possible interpretations we say that it is ambiguous at the: a. Basic level b. Local level c. Meaning level d. Global level e. Subordinate level Answer: D

2. In the garden-path model of parsing, the notion that new words encountered in a sentence are attached to the current phrase, if grammatically permissible, forms the basis of which principle? a. The principle of minimal attachment b. The principle of late closure c. The principle of common ground d. The principle of good-enough representations e. None of these Answer: B

3. Which of the following statements describes one of the key assumptions of the garden-path model of parsing? a. Semantic processing is necessary to construct initial syntactic structure b. Semantic processing occurs prior to syntactic processing c. Semantic processing does not influence the construction of the initial syntactic structure d. Semantic and syntactic processing occur simultaneously e. None of these Answer: C

4. MacDonald et al.’s (1994) constraint-based theory of parsing is based on: a. A stage-theory model b. Freudian ideas c. Neuropsychological data d. Behaviourist ideas e. Connectionist architecture Answer: E

5. MacDonald et al.’s (1994) constraint-based theory predicts difficulty in reading sentences such as “The professor read the newspaper had been destroyed” when the sentence structure is inconsistent with what? a. Anthopomorphism b. Limited capactity constraints c. Brain damage d. Verb bias e. Word superiority Answer: D

6. Van Gompel et al. (2000) put forward which model that combined aspects of the gardenpath and constraint-based models? a. Unrestricted race model b. Garden-variety model c. Central processing model d. Multicore processing model e. Limited path model Answer: A

7. Which of the following statements describes an assumption of the standard pragmatic model? a. Literal meanings are always accessed before non-literal meanings b. Several literal meanings are generated in Stage 3 c. Literal and non-literal meanings are accessed simultaneously d. Non-literal meanings are generated in Stage 1 e. Non-literal meanings are always accessed before literal meanings Answer: A

8. According to Keysar (2000), information about common ground is used to correct any misunderstandings resulting from the use of: a. Ambiguous sentences b. Prosodic cues c. The egocentric heuristic d. Body language e. None of these Answer: C

9. The measure of reading span has been used to test: a. Working memory capacity b. Motivation c. IQ d. Long-term memory capacity e. Prosodic cues

Answer: A

10. A statement making an assertion or denial that can be true or false is technically referred to as a[n]: a. Independent query b. Circular reasoning c. Maxim d. Preposition e. Proposition Answer: E

11. Häuser et al. (2016) applied rTMS to which network, which they hypothesised provides cognitive control to resolve semantic conflicts? a. BA 22 b. BA 17 c. BA 45 d. BA 41 e. BA 40 Answer: C

12. Graesser et al. (1997) argued that Kintsch’s theory ignored two levels of discourse representation: text genre and which of the following levels? a. Communication b. Letter genre c. Transmission d. Subliminal e. Perceptual Answer: A

13. A word referring back to a person or object previously mentioned in a text or speech is an example of: a. Topographic b. Anaphor c. Phonological d. Lemma e. Transitive Answer: B

14. Inferences that are made to establish coherence between the current part of the text and preceding text are called: a. Elaborative inferences

b. c. d. e.

Logical inferences Linking inferences Bridging inferences Metaphorical inferences

Answer: D

15. According to Garrod and Terras (2000), the two stages (in order) involved in establishing coherence between parts of the text are: a. Fixation, interlocution b. Separation, integration c. Circumlocution, resolution d. Identification, bonding e. Bonding, resolution Answer: E

16. The greatest difference between the minimalist and constructionist positions on text processing concerns: a. The number of strategic inferences drawn b. The number of automatic inferences drawn c. The number of bridging inferences drawn d. The number of global inferences drawn e. All of the above Answer: B

17. The findings of McKoon and Ratcliff (1992) are more consistent with which account of text processing? a. The minimalist position b. The constructionist position c. Constructionist-integration theory d. Script-pointer-plus-tag hypothesis e. Search-after-meaning theory Answer: A

18. According to Bartlett (1932), the main impact of schematic knowledge occurs at: a. Encoding b. Learning c. Initial comprehension d. Retrieval e. Storage Answer: D

19. Kintsch (2000) put forward a prediction model of metaphor, suggesting that which of the following components selects features of the predicate that are relevant to the argument, and inhibits irrelevant predicate features? a. Latent semantic analysis b. Mutual dampening c. Analogical reasoning d. Modus tollens e. Construction-integration Answer: E

20. Which ERP component has been used as a measure of the time to detect a semantic mismatch by researchers such as Hagoort et al. (2004)? a. P3 b. N2pC c. ERN d. N400 e. P200 Answer: D

21. What, within the sentence, depended mostly on linguistic information in Coco and Keller’s (2015) study? a. Ambiguity solution b. Disambiguity solution c. Ambiguity resolution d. Linguistic information e. Visual context Answer: C

22. What do Heller et al.’s (2016) findings indicate about listeners? a. They use uncommon ground b. They use common ground c. They use egocentric perspectives d. They use heuristics e. They use semantics Answer: B

Testbank answers - Chapter 11 1. Which of the following is a similarity between spoken and written language? a. Both generate the same word conceptualisation b. Both use the same complexity of word construction c. Both start with planning – what is the overall meaning going to be communicated d. Both use the same error detection processes e. Both are time-bound and transient Answer: C

1. Which of the following does NOT describe one of the differences between spoken and written language? a. Speaking represents a more self-monitored process b. Speakers typically know precisely who is receiving their message c. Speakers generally receive moment-by-moment feedback d. Speakers have much less time to plan their language production e. Writers typically have direct access to what they have written so far Answer: A

2. Horton and Keysar (1996) provided evidence that common ground was not used properly in a speeded condition, lending support to which model of common ground? a. Initial design model b. Monitoring and adjustment model c. Spreading activation theory d. WEAVER++ e. None of these Answer: B

3. Which type of speech error involves inflections or suffixes remaining in place, but attached to the wrong words? a. Semantic substitution errors b. Blending errors c. Morpheme-exchange errors d. Spoonerism e. Word-exchange errors Answer: C

4. A node in Levelt’s (1989) second level of the network, representing a word that is specified both syntactically and semantically, though not phonologically, is called a:

a. b. c. d. e.

Morpheme Feedforward unit Lexeme Lemma Articulator

Answer: D

5. Which of the following is a feature of Dell’s (1986) spreading-activation theory of speech planning? a. Parallel, interactive processing b. Insertion rules c. Categorical rules d. Four levels of presentation e. All of the above Answer: A

6. Dell et al.’s (1997) key assumption, following from the spreading-activation theory of speech production, suggests that what type of speech error should be reduced with practice and improved performance? a. Perseveration speech errors b. Anticipatory speech errors c. Boundary shifts d. Prosodic cues e. All of the above Answer: A

7. In the WEAVER++ model of speech production, lexicalisation occurs at which processing stage? a. Morphological encoding b. Phonological encoding c. Phonetic encoding d. Lexical selection e. Articulation Answer: B

8. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior aspect of which lobe of the left hemisphere? a. The frontal lobe b. The occipital lobe c. The temporal lobe d. The parietal lobe e. The ventral lobe Answer: C

9. The speech of someone with non-fluent aphasia (agrammatism) tends to lack: a. Nouns b. Verbs c. Content words d. Function words e. Familiar words Answer: D

10. Jargon aphasics often produce made-up words, which are called: a. Anomia b. Prothesis c. Aphaeris d. Haplology e. Neoligisms Answer: E

11. Hayes and Flower (1986) identified three key processes of writing that fall in which “natural” order: a. Sentence generation, planning, revision b. Sentence generation, revision, planning c. Planning, revision, sentence generation d. Revision, planning, sentence generation e. Planning, sentence generation, revision Answer: E

12. The method that involves stopping writers at various times during the writing process in order to categorise what they are doing is: a. Verbal protocol b. Procedural facilitation c. Event sampling d. Directed retrospection e. Directed introspection Answer: D

13. Levy and Ransdell (1995) found that most writers overestimated the time they spent on: a. Generating words b. Generating sentences c. Revision and reviewing d. Planning e. Taking breaks

Answer: C

14. According to Bereiter and Scardamalia (1987), the knowledge-transforming strategy used in planning writing involves working out how to achieve the writing goals and: a. How to decide on the long-term goals b. How to decide on the specific information to write down c. How to decide on the overall context d. How to decide on the meaning behind the sentence e. How to plan what to write down Answer: B

15. Which of the following describes a difference between expert and non-expert writers? a. Expert writers spend more time revising their text b. Experts construct a more complex writing plan c. Experts detect more problems in a text at the revision stage d. Experts engage in more knowledge-telling when producing narrative rather than argumentative texts e. All of the above Answer: E

16. According to Kellogg (2001), all of the main processes involved in writing use: a. Episodic memory b. The central executive in working memory c. The phonological loop in working memory d. The visuo-spatial sketchpad in working memory e. Episodic memory Answer: B

17. When using the non-lexical route of spelling, we might expect to see the most errors with: a. Regular words b. Irregular words c. Non-words d. Unfamiliar words e. Familiar words Answer: B

18. If a patient has problems spelling unfamiliar words and non-words, but not known words, they might be suffering from: a. Anomia b. Surface dysgraphia c. Phonological dysgraphia d. Surface dyslexia

e. Jargon aphsia Answer: C

19. A patient who could spell non-words reasonably well, and made more errors on irregular than regular words, might be suffering from: a. Anomia b. Surface dysgraphia c. Phonological dysgraphia d. Surface dyslexia e. Jargon aphasia Answer: B

20. In the dual route of spelling, the lexical and non-lexical routes both lead to a: a. Semantic system b. Phonological input lexicon c. Orthographic output lexicon d. Graphemic buffer e. Letter-shape conversion system Answer: D

21. Iris Murdoch (and Agatha Christie) had Alzheimer’s disease. Writing impairments both involved: a. Reading and writing b. Writing and syntax c. Vocabulary more than syntax d. Syntax more than vocabulary e. Grammar more than syntax Answer: C

22. The writings of Murdoch showed a sharp decrease in what, after developing Alzheimer's disease? a. Vocabulary size b. Increased repetition of phrases c. Reduction in lexical diversity d. Irrelevant filler words or phrases e. All of the above Answer: E

Testbank answers - Chapter 12 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the three specified major aspects to problem solving? a. It is time limited b. It is purposeful c. It involves controlled processes d. It is not totally reliant on automatic processes e. The person must have the knowledge to produce an immediate solution Answer: A

2. Problem solving that involves the reuse of previous experiences has been termed: a. Productive thinking b. Reproductive thinking c. Insight d. Trial-and-error learning e. Deductive reasoning Answer: B

3. Bowden et al. (2005) presented participants with three cue words (e.g., “fence”, “card” and “master”), and participants would have to think of a word (e.g., “post”). A problem such as this is referred to as: a. Surface matching b. Forced choice recognition c. Remote Associates Test d. Deese–Roediger–McDermott e. Lexical decision Answer: C

4. Duncker’s (1945) study on human problem solving demonstrated the notion of: a. Operant conditioning b. Wanderlust c. “Aha!” experiences d. Mental set e. Eureka moments Answer: D

5. According to Ohlsson (1992), changing the representation of a problem, so that restrictions on what is regarded as possible are removed, is termed: a. Elaboration

b. c. d. e.

Re-encoding Impasse-breakage Disinhibition Constraint relaxation

Answer: E

6. Wallas (1926) suggested that a problem can often be solved more easily by simply ignoring it for some time, during what he called: a. Incubation b. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon c. Unblocking d. Refractory period e. Conscious reinterpretation Answer: A

7. Ohlsson’s (1992) view that problems can be solved by altering the representation, shares similarities with which Gestalt notion? a. Insight b. Restructuring c. Law of common effects d. Continuity e. Law of Prägnanz Answer: B

8. Failing to solve problems, because one assumes from past experience that a given object has only a limited number of familiar uses, has been called: a. Stubborn rationality b. Rigid logic c. Functional fixedness d. Change-proclivity e. Representational change Answer: C

9. Which computer program, designed to solve numerous well-defined problems, is credited to Newell and Simon (1972)? a. Space Invaders b. WEAVER++ c. ACT-R d. General Problem Solver e. Problem Space Delimiter Answer: D

10. Newell and Simon (1972) included the initial stage of the problem, the goal state, all of the possible moves and intermediate states of the problem, in what they deemed the: a. Complexity algorithm b. Peg-constraints c. Mental model d. Operation span e. Problem space Answer: E

11. According to Newell and Simon (1972), an important heuristic that involves changing the present state within the problem to one closer to the goal is called: a. Means–end analysis b. Shaping c. Automaticity d. Goal reduplication e. Hill climbing Answer: E

12. There is overlap between the notion of cognitive miser and Newell and Simons’ (1972) focus on problem solvers’ use of heuristics. Newell and Simon assumed our limited processing capacity does what to us to use heuristics? a. Limited processing capacity forces us to use heuristics b. Limited processing capacity makes us ignore the use of heuristics c. Limited processing capacity combines new heuristics with old ones d. Limited processing capacity makes us reluctant to use heuristics e. Limited processing capacity makes us replace heuristics Answer: A

13. Which of the following tasks requires one to keep one’s pen on the paper at all times while drawing lines? a. Pendulum problem b. Nine-dot problem c. Line bisection task d. Tower of Hanoi e. Tower of London Answer: B

14. According to Chen (2002), a current problem may be similar to a previous one because causal relations among some of the main components are shared by both problems. This is termed: a. Superficial similarity b. Deep similarity

c. Procedural similarity d. Structural similarity e. Causal similarity Answer: D

15. Most research on expertise has made use of: a. Impossible problems b. Well-defined problems c. Ill-defined problems d. Knowledge-lean problems e. Knowledge-rich problems Answer: E

16. Gobet used the what term to describe a schematic structure that is more general than an actual board position? a. Chunk b. Template c. Script d. Prototype e. Model Answer: B

17. Which of the following is an aspect of deliberate practice? a. The task is at an appropriate level of difficulty b. The learner is provided with informative feedback c. The learner has sufficient opportunities for repetition d. It is possible for the learner to correct his/her errors e. All of the above Answer: E

18. If chess experts use long-term working memory to learn the positions of chess pieces on a board, what do novices rely on? a. Short-term memory b. Declarative memory c. Working memory d. Epsiodic memory e. Geographical memory Answer: C

19. Dagher et al. (1999) used various levels of complexity in the Tower of London problem. They found that the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex was most associated with which process?

a. b. c. d. e.

Negative feedback Reward Emotional reasoning Plan executive Plan generation

Answer: E

20. People perform poorly on the Monty Hall problem. Their poor level of performance is due to ______? a. Equiprobability bias b. Heavy demands on the central executive system c. The host’s actions are random d. It’s very hard to understand the problem itself e. All of the above Answer: E

21. System codes are: a. Systems codes b. Computational methods that produce solutions c. Computational methods that provide strategies for problem solving d. Artifical intelligence e. Heuristics Answer: B

22. When is hill climbing used? a. Problem solver has no clear understanding b. Problem solver has too much insight c. The problem is in multiple parts d. Problem solver has short-term goals e. Problem solver feels trapped Answer: A

23. How do medical experts’ strategies differ from those of non-experts? a. Years of experience b. Application of knowledge is different c. Detection and recognition d. Global perception e. Holistic perception Answer: C

Testbank answers - Chapter 13 1. What is the assumption that the frequencies of events can be estimated accurately by the accessibility in memory? a. Representativeness heuristic b. Recognition heuristic c. Availability heuristic d. Base-rate heuristic e. Knowledge heuristic Answer: C

2. What is the assumption that representative or typical members of a category are encountered most frequently? a. Representativeness heuristic b. Recognition heuristic c. Availability heuristic d. Base-rate heuristic e. Knowledge heuristic Answer: A

3. What is using the knowledge that only one out of two objects is recognised to make a judgement? a. Representativeness heuristic b. Recognition heuristic c. Availability heuristic d. Base-rate heuristic e. Knowledge heuristic Answer: B

4. Base-rate information is what? a. The amount of knowledge someone has b. The level of processing capacity someone has c. The absolute amount of information there is on something d. The prior belief in the probability of an event occurring prior to its occurrence e. The interestingness of information held Answer: D

5. Galotti’s (2007) most striking finding was that people consistently limited the amount of information considered. This is consistent with Simon’s (1957) notion of what?

a. b. c. d. e.

Base-rate information Working memory capacity Satisficing Intelligence Bounded rationality

Answer: E

6. The mistaken belief that the probability of a conjunction of two events is greater than the probability of one of them is called what? a. Conjunction fallacy b. Framing effect c. Loss aversion d. Omission bias e. Sunk-cost effect Answer: A

7. According to Oh et al. (2016), satisficing is what? a. The tendency to prefer inaction to action when engaged in risky decision-making b. Selection of the best choice in decision-making c. Prioritising some sources of information while ignoring others d. Expending additional resources to justify some previous commitment that has not worked well e. The influence of irrelevant aspects of a situation (e.g., wording of the problem) on decision-making Answer: C

8. _____ are evaluated in terms of their accuracy; in contrast, the value of _____ is typically assessed in terms of the consequences of those decisions a. responses, decisions b. judgements, decisions c. decisions, judgements d. decisions, responses e. judgements, responses Answer: B

9. What did the Rev. Thomas Bayes theorise about? a. The evolutionary emphasis placed on natural sampling b. The heuristic, or rule of thumb, of representativeness c. The probability of two related hypotheses being correct d. Simple heuristics that make us smart e. The existence of God Answer: C

10. According to Riege and Teigen (2017), the “tendency to judge the probability of the whole set of outcomes to be less than the total probabilities of its parts” is called the: a. Inverse rule b. Negative probability c. Subadditivity effect d. Base rate e. Hebbian activation Answer: C

11. Tverky and Kahneman (e.g. 1974) argued most people given judgement tasks use: a. Conjunction fallacy b. Bounded rationality c. Status quo bias d. Omission bias e. Heuristics Answer: E

12. Gigerenzer and Hoffrage (1995, 1999) argued that our experience of the world typically comes not in the form of probabilities, but in the form of: a. Differential equations b. Percentages c. Ratios d. Categories e. Frequencies Answer: E

13. What did Gigerenzer and Hoffrage (1999, p. 425) define as "the process of encountering instances in a population sequentially"? a. Expected utility b. Base-rate neglect c. The conjunction fallacy d. Natural sampling e. Queued series Answer: D

14. When people judge the probability that an object or event (A) belongs to a class or process (B), they will often apply which heuristic? a. Contagion b. Peak-end c. Representativeness d. Anchoring

e. Fluency Answer: C

15. Standard explanations of the conjunction fallacy assume it occurs because of the ____ perceived ____ of the additional information given the description a. high, hypothesis b. high, probability c. high, hypothesis d. low, probability e. neutral, cues Answer: B

16. According to support theory, a more ______ description draws attention to aspects of the event less obvious in the _____ description a. explicit, non-explicit b. unpleasant, non-explicit c. pleasant, explicit d. non-explicit, explicit e. implicit, explicit Answer: A

17. According to Tversky and Kahneman, heuristics can greatly ___ the effort associated with ____ a. reduce, cognitive tasks b. increase, cognitive tasks c. reduce, stategies d. increase, strategies e. ignore, decisions Answer: A

18. Decision avoidance is accounted for in which model? a. Dual-process model b. Rational-emotional model c. Logical intuition model d. Complex models e. Emotional-conflict model Answer: B

19. Oppenheimer’s (2004) study involving assessment of name pairs (one famous, one nonfamous), indicated what about the availability heuristic? a. The heuristic is prone to effects of temperature

b. Knowledge of the Cartesian distance between two cities influences recognition speed c. Deliberate thought can override the heuristic d. Younger participants employed the heuristic more often than older adults e. Repetition priming cancels out the effect of the heuristic Answer: C

20. According to von Neumann and Morgenstern (1944), the probability of a given outcome multiplied by the utility of the outcome yields the: a. Attained utility b. Prospect c. Expected utility d. Explicit outcome e. Maximum utility Answer: C

21. Which types of theories focus on how people should make decisions, rather than on how they actually make them? a. Framing theories b. Social functionalist theories c. Bounded rationality theories d. Risk aversion theory e. Normative theories Answer: E

22. The study by Dawes (1988), on whether to return from a holiday or not, is an example of: a. The visibility heuristic b. The representativeness heuristic c. The availability heuristic d. Planning e. The sunk-cost effect Answer: E

23. Framing effects are found when decisions are influenced by irrelevant aspects of the situation (e.g. when people focus on potential gains), according to which theory? a. Fast and frugal heuristics b. Support theory c. Natural sampling d. Prospect theory e. Utility theory Answer: D

24. The phenomenon describing how people overestimate the intensity and duration of their negative emotional reactions to loss is called: a. Impact bias b. The fatalist’s paradox c. Pessimism d. Pain expansion e. Focal magnification Answer: A

25. What aspect of risky decision-making was studied by Wang (1996)? a. Concerns about fairness b. Individual differences c. The dominance principle d. The probability of an outcome e. Self-esteem Answer: A

26. According to prospect theory, people should overweigh the probability of which of the following? a. Common events b. Rare events c. Schema-inconsistent occurrences d. Social cues e. None of these Answer: B

27. The study by Samuelson and Zeckhauser (1988), about retirement funds, is a demonstration of what form of decision avoidance caused by emotional factors? a. Attentional bias b. Status quo bias c. Omission bias d. The dominance principle e. Utility theory Answer: B

28. In Anderson’s (2003) rational-emotional model, the omission and status quo biases were both explained in terms of: a. Regret and anxiety b. Anxiety and fear c. Regret and fear d. Sadness and anxiety e. Avoidance and fear

Answer: C

29. The theory whereby decision-makers eliminate options by considering one relevant attribute or aspect after another, is known as: a. Utility theory b. Support theory c. Natural sampling theory d. Prospect theory e. Elimination-by-aspects theory Answer: E

30. According to prospect theory, people are typically much more sensitive to potential ______ than to potential ______. a. gains, losses b. losses, gains c. pain, pleasure d. pleasure, pain e. guilt, pleasure Answer: B

31. When steps were taken to ensure that participants fully understood the story, by making the category of a bank teller explicit, Tversky and Kahneman (1983) found that: a. The conjunction fallacy disappeared statistically b. The conjunction fallacy increased in magnitude c. There remained a strong (though somewhat reduced) conjunction fallacy effect d. People became more risk averse e. People became more risk seeking Answer: C

Testbank answers - Chapter 14 1. Popper (1968) argued that hypotheses can never be proved to be true by: a. Formal reasoning b. Genetic studies c. Simply generalising from confirming instances d. Brain-lesion studies e. Inductive reasoning Answer: C

2. Only 21% were correct on their first attempt, and 28% never discovered the rule at all. To which hypothesis-testing task, devised by Wason (1960), do these findings refer? a. Remote Associates Test b. 2–4–6 task c. Selection task d. Tower of Hanoi e. Tower of London Answer: B

3. Participants in Dunbar’s (1993) genetic controlled study were led to focus on the hypothesis that the gene control was by ______ whereas it was actually by ______: a. activation, inhibition b. deactivation, inhibition c. inhibition, activation d. inhibition, deactivation e. activation, predetermined decisions Answer: A

4. Which form of reasoning involves making a generalised conclusion from premises referring to particular instances? a. Deductive reasoning b. Problem solving c. Decision-making d. Judgement e. Inductive reasoning Answer: E

5. Tom is taller than Dick, and Dick is taller than Harry, therefore Tom is taller than Harry. Drawing the conclusion that Tom is taller than Harry is an example of:

a. b. c. d. e.

Deductive reasoning Problem solving Decision-making Judgement Inductive reasoning

Answer: A

6. If Susan is angry, then I am upset. I am upset. Conclusion: Susan is angry. This type of conditional reasoning is known as: a. Denial of the antecedent b. Affirmation of the consequent c. Modus tollens d. Modus ponens e. Base-rate fallacy Answer: B

7. Which task poses the question “If there is an R on one side of the card, then there is a 2 on the other side of the card”? a. The standard conditional reasoning task b. The Tower of London task c. The standard Wason selection task d. The transitive inference task e. The card-sorting task Answer: C

8. The tendency for participants to select items named in a given rule describes what type of bias: a. Selection b. Bracketing c. Hill climbing d. Matching e. Ratio Answer: D

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors Hahn and Oaksford identified as influencing the perceived strength of a conclusion? a. Degree of previous conviction or belief b. Negative arguments have more impact than positive ones c. Evidence strength d. Positive arguments have more impact than negative ones e. All of the above Answer: B

10. A syllogism consists of how many premise(s), followed by a conclusion? a. One b. Two c. Two or more d. Three or more e. Any number Answer: B

11. Johnson-Laird’s theory assumes that individuals minimise demands on working memory by only constructing mental models representing explicitly: a. What involves the fewest chunks b. What is false c. What is true d. What fires consistent schemas e. Only what is true and what is false, disregarding what is ambiguous Answer: C

12. One of the central assumptions of mental models theory is that people will search for what, after constructing an initial mental model and generating a conclusion? a. Validity b. Inconsistent inferences c. Invalid inferences d. Counterexamples e. Real-world relevance Answer: D

13. Hahn and Oaksford (2007) suggest everyday rationality is founded on uncertain rather than certain reasoning, and so ______ provides a better starting point for an account of human reasoning than logic a. concreteness b. uncertainty c. mental models d. relevance e. probability Answer: E

14. According to Evans (2008) and Stanovich and West (2000), differences in intelligence are mostly associated with the functioning of: a. System 1 thinking b. System 1 and 2 thinking c. System 2 thinking

d. System 2 and 3 thinking e. System 3 thinking Answer: C

15. Houdé and Borst (2015) argued the ________ is involved in ______ incorrect responses triggered by Type ____ processes a. right inferior frontal cortex, inhibiting, Type 1 b. left anterior frontal cortex, activation, Type 1 c. bilateral frontal cortex, inhibiting, Type 2 d. right inferior frontal cortex, activating, Type 2 e. left inferior frontal cortex, inhibition, Type 1 Answer: A

16. Working memory capacity has been found to predict performance on all of the following tasks EXCEPT: a. Conditional reasoning b. Syllogistic reasoning c. Belief-bias reasoning problems d. Sunk-cost effect e. Real-world reasoning Answer: D

17. Camerer and Hogarth (1999) reviewed 74 reasoning studies and concluded that: a. When steps were taken to ensure that participants fully understood the problem their performance was still inadequate b. Medical experts were biased by irrelevant information in diagnosis problems c. The tasks used in deductive reasoning experiments are unlike the problems people encounter in real life d. People are mostly rational, most of the time e. The provision of incentives rarely led to improved performance Answer: E

18. Stanovich and West (2007) specified three different reasons why individuals produce incorrect heuristic responses. Specifically, the lack of what is said to be the cause in Path 1? a. Decoupling capacity b. Inhibitory control c. Attentional resources d. Mindware e. Frame Answer: D

19. One defining feature of Type 1 processing is its lack of involvement in working memory. What is its other key feature? a. Capacity-limited b. Consciousness c. Controlled motivation d. Autonomy e. Serial Answer: D

20. According to which theory will there be less belief bias when Type 2 processes are used? a. Dual-process theories b. Theories of forgetting c. Theories of conditional reasoning d. Theories of deductive reasoning e. Mental models Answer: A

21. According to McCrudden et al. (2017), what can reduce myside bias? a. Perspective taking b. Motivation to support one's own beliefs c. Reasoning d. Optimism e. Mindfulness Answer: A

22. Many “errors” in human thinking reflect what rather than irrationality? a. Environmental constraints b. Anticipation of future consequences c. Heightened information capacity d. Limited processing capacity e. Incomplete knowledge Answer: D

Testbank answers - Chapter 15 1. “Any short-term evaluative, affective, intentional, psychological state” is the description of: a. Mood b. Affect c. Emotion d. Valence e. Appraisal Answer: C

2. Future threats are most associated with which disorder? a. Visual agnosia b. Apraxia c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder d. Anxiety e. Depression Answer: D

3. In the ongoing debate over the structure of emotions, Barrett and Russell (1998) proposed that misery–pleasure and arousal–sleep represented two: a. Discrete categories of emotion b. Uncorrelated dimensions of emotion c. Correlated dimensions of emotion d. Descriptions of the same underlying, one-dimensional emotion space e. None of these Answer: B

4. Eich (1995) argued state has ____ influence when crucial information is presented explicitly at retrieval a. more b. similar c. exaggerated d. less e. no difference Answer: D

5. Self-reported negative affect is associated most strongly with activation of what brain region? a. Dorsal prefrontal cortex

b. c. d. e.

Medial prefrontal cortex Primary and secondary visual cortex Temporo-parietal junction Thalamus

Answer: B

6. Mood state exerts less influence when crucial information is explicitly presented, according to which principle coined by Eich (1995)? a. Do-it-yourself b. Explicit mood dependence c. Generative d. Implicit relevance e. Internal variation Answer: A

7. The tendency to interpret ambiguous stimuli and situations in a negative fashion is known as what kind of bias? a. Attentional b. Explicit memory c. Implicit memory d. Inattentional e. Interpretive Answer: E

8. Attentional bias is shown in the emotional Stroop task when participants: a. Take less time to name the colours of emotion-congruent words than neutral words b. Take longer to name the colours of emotion-incongruent words than neutral words c. Take longer to name the colours of emotion-congruent words than neutral words d. Take longer to name the emotion displayed by the blue happy face than by the yellow happy face e. Take longer to name the colours of emotion-incongruent words than emotioncongruent words Answer: C

9. What type of cognitive behavioural therapy has been used to modify cognitive factors in psychiatric conditions? a. Emotion regulation therapy b. Cognitive bias modification c. Cognitive therapy d. Behaviour therapy e. Cognitive control training Answer: B

10. The Stroop effect indicates that word identification is generally: a. Controlled b. Effortful c. Difficult d. Automatic e. Strategic Answer: D

11. The tendency to retrieve most negative or unpleasant rather than positive or neutral information on memory tests involving conscious recollection is known as what type of bias? a. Interpretive bias b. Implicit memory bias c. Cognitive bias d. Attentional bias e. Explicit memory bias Answer: E

12. The tendency to exhibit superior performance for negative information on memory tests not involving conscious recollection is what type of bias? a. Interpretive bias b. Implicit memory bias c. Cognitive bias d. Attentional bias e. Explicit memory bias Answer: B

13. What did Koster et al. (2017) conclude about cognitive control interventions in the treatment of depression? a. Reduces anxiety b. Reduces depression c. Reduces cognitive vulnerability d. Reduces aggression e. Inhibits anxiety and depression Answer: C

14. How many emotional states did Cowen and Keltner (2017, 2018) analyse? a. 5 b. 55 c. 98 d. 27 e. 10

Answer: D

15. According to locationist theories, fear is strongly associated with the ____, disgust with the ____, anger with the _____ and sadness with the ______: a. amgydala, insula, orbitofrontal cortex, anterior cingulate b. insula, orbitofrontal cortex, amygdala, posterior cingulate c. cingulate, amygdala, inferior temporal lobe, insula, orbitofrontal cortex d. orbitofrontal cortex, anterioro commissure, insula, amygdala e. Mammillary bodies, posterior cingulate, pituarity, occiptal lobe Answer: A

16. Cognitive processes influence ___ we experience emotional states and _____ emotional state we experience a. how, when b. what, how c. when, what d. why, what e. why, how Answer: C

17. There are substantial ______ in cognitive appraisal of emotional events (Kuppens, 2013): a. interpretation differences b. control differences c. neural differences d. individual differences e. physiological differences Answer: D

18. According to Aldao et al. (2015), what might contribute to patients‘ emotional disturbances? a. Inflexible emotion regulation b. Inflexible hormone regulation c. Increased dopamine d. Decreased serotonin e. Flexible emotion regulation Answer: A

19. According to Fernandez et al. (2016), why are patients with emotional disorders poor at emotion regulation? a. They find it hard to identify emotions that need regulating b. They fail to select an effective emotion-regulation strategy c. They ineffectively apply the selected strategy

d. They often fail to monitor the implemented strategy e. All of the above Answer: E

20. Why does anger impair decision-making? a. It leads to shallow processing based on heuristics b. It leads to bottom-up processing c. It leads to deeper processing based on heuristics d. It leads to shallow processing based on emotion-regulation strategy e. It leads to increased regulation and monitoring of emotions Answer: A

21. What key issue is raised when studying anxiety, depression and cognitive biases? a. Individual differences b. Interpretation c. Causality d. Association e. Heuristics Answer: C

22. According to Clark and Watson’s (1991) tripartite model, physiological hyperarousal is present in ____ but not ____ a. anxiety, depression b. anxiety, anger c. anger, sadness d. fear, depression e. fear, anger Answer: A

23. Everaert et al. (2017) obtained two main findings in a review of interpretive bias in depression. First there was a strong relationship between depression and interpretive bias for patients clinically depressed and depressed healthy individuals. What was the second finding? a. There was a weak relationship between depression and interpretive bias for just clinically depressed patients b. There was a strong relationship between hearing motivational sayings and clinically depressed individuals c. There were no individual differences d. The people in the study all shared the same commonalities of depression e. The relationship was stronger with self-referential material than non-self-referential material Answer: E

Testbank answers - Chapter 16 1. Who conducted elaborate EEG work that indicates free will is an illusion by showing brain activity in the motor cortex occurs before the intention to move? a. George Sperling b. Adrian Owen c. Benjamin Libet d. Daniel Wegner e. Victor Lamme Answer: C

2. Who stated we have only the illusion of conscious or free will? a. George Sperling b. Adrian Owen c. Carl Jung d. Daniel Wegner e. Victor Lamme Answer: D

3. Who proposed the global workspace theory? a. Dehaene and Changeux (2011) b. Baars (1988) c. Pinker (1997) d. Webb and Graziano (2015) e. Lamme (2018) Answer: B

4. Sperling’s (1960) research evidence indicated conscious experience is often: a. Under-report conscious experience b. Over-report conscious experience c. Our conscious experience is controlled by current experiences d. Conscious experience is short-lived e. Conscious experience is dictated by performance time Answer: A

5. The key finding of Libet et al. (1983) on consciousness and intention was that: a. Participants were unaware of their conscious intentions b. No readiness potentials were detected in the brain

c. Readiness potentials in the brain occurred before conscious awareness of an intention d. Readiness potentials in the brain occurred during conscious awareness of an intention e. Readiness potentials in the brain occurred after conscious awareness of an intention Answer: C

6. A primary function of consciousness is: a. To plan b. Social communication c. To access information d. To exercise global coordination e. To control Answer: B

7. Block (2012) distinguised between how many forms of consciousness? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four e. Five Answer: B

8. The question of how physical processes in the brain can give rise to subjective experience was referred to by Chalmers (2007) as: a. The easy problem b. The hard problem c. The binding problem d. The integration problem e. The self-problem Answer: B

9. “I cannot only feel pain and see red, but think to myself, ‘Hey, here I am, Steve Pinker, feeling pain and seeing red!’” This is an example of: a. Higher form of consciousness b. Lower form of consciousness c. Conscious attitudes d. Phenomenal consciousness e. Self-monitoring Answer: A

10. The vegetative state is defined, behaviourally, by all of the following criteria EXCEPT: a. No evidence of wakefulness b. No response to external stimuli that suggests volition c. No evidence of language comprehension d. No external evidence of awareness e. No evidence of language expression Answer: D

11. Which of the following involves feedback from higher to lower areas and has been linked to conscious awareness? a. Feedforward sweep b. Feedback sweep c. Recalcitrant propagation d. Cascaded processing e. Recurrent processing Answer: E

12. Which of the following statements describes one of the assumptions of global workspace theory? a. All information processing occurs unconsciously b. Conscious awareness is associated with synchronised brain activity c. Attention plays no part in conscious awareness d. All information processing occurs consciously e. The global workspace has an unlimited capacity Answer: B

13. Which three brain areas were identified by Dehaene and Changeux (2011) as being particularly important in the conscious experience? a. Prefrontal cortex, parietal cortex and cingulate b. Cerebellum, pons and nucleus accumbens c. Fusiform face area, putamen and medulla d. Superior colliculus, reticular formation and occipital cortex e. Hippocampus, pons and reticular formation Answer: A

14. Split-brain patients typically have severance of the: a. Frontal cortex b. Superior temporal sulcu c. Corpus callosum d. Pons e. Anterior cingulate Answer: C

15. Who regarded the left hemisphere as dominant because language processing is typically centered there, and took the view that split-brain patients have two minds, each with its own consciousness? a. George Sperling b. Michael Gazzaniga c. Benjamin Libet d. Roger Sperry e. Victor Lamme Answer: D

16. According to Gazzaniga, the interpreter system of consciousness is based in which area of the brain? a. Hippocampus b. Broca’s area c. Left hemisphere d. Temporal lobes e. Cerebellum Answer: C

17. Baynes and Gazzaniga (2000) offered evidence that patient VJ was different from all other split-brain patients that they had studied, in that she: a. Had no damage to the connective tissue across hemispheres b. Had been split-brained since birth c. Had right-lateralised language d. Displayed signs of limited dual consciousness e. None of these Answer: D

18. The study of the conscious abilities in the right hemisphere of split-brain patients is hampered by: a. The fact that there is usually extensive damage to this hemisphere b. The lack of memory abilities in this hemisphere c. The lack of language abilities in this hemisphere d. The impossibility of presenting experimental stimuli exclusively to this hemisphere e. All of the above Answer: C

19. Access consciousness is: a. Refers to the actions associated with consciousness b. Refers to the feelings associated with consciousness c. Refers to the experiential characteristics of consciousness

d. Refers to the immediate conscious experience e. Refers to the functions that can be associated with consciousness Answer: E

20. Phenomenal consciousness is: a. Refers to the actions associated with consciousness b. Refers to the feelings associated with consciousness c. Refers to the experiential characteristics of consciousness d. Refers to the immediate conscious experience e. Refers to the functions that can be associated with consciousness Answer: C

21. According to Bor and Seth (2012), there is an important distinction between: a. Conscious awareness and conscious being b. Conscious awareness and conscious behaviour c. Conscious content and conscious level d. Conscious perception and conscious emotion e. Conscious experience and conscious awareness Answer: C

22. What are the main functions of consciousness? a. Perceiving the environment b. Social communication c. Control d. Think about events and issues far removed e. All of the above Answer: E

23. In a study by Wegner and Wheatley (1999), two participants were instructed to stop a cursor every 30 s or so and to indicate whether they had consciously intended the cursor to stop where it did. This is an example of a study of: a. Free will b. Conscious attention c. Attentional control d. Action selection e. Social perception Answer: A

24. Studying neural correlates of consciousness has many problems. Which statement does NOT reflect these issues:

a. It is hard to disentagle which neural activity is associated with conscious awareness and task-related processes b. Neuroimaging measures may access consciousness more directly than behavioural measures alone c. It is hard to establish the relationship between a given pattern of neural activity and consciousness d. Research is limited to neural correlates of visual conscious awareness e. Little is known about neural processess associated with conscious awareness of past or future events Answer: B