TEST BANK Data Communication and Computer Networks A Business User's Approach 9th Ed by Jill West

Data Communication and Computer Networks A Business User's Approach, 9e Jill West (Test Bank, All Chapters. 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks 1. Data is information that has been translated into a form that is more conducive to storage, transmission, and calculation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 2. The connection between workstations and the Internet in an enterprise network is handled by a client/ server system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 7 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 3. A desktop computer cannot be connected to a local area network using a wireless connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 8 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 4. Many years ago, most home users connected their computer to the Internet via a dial-up telephone line and a modem, but now the more common connection is using DSL. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 7 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 5. It is not possible to connect two local area networks so that they can share peripherals as well as software. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 8 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 6. Metropolitan area networks can transfer data at fast LAN speeds, but over smaller geographic regions than typically associated with a local area network. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 7. The Internet is not a single network but a collection of thousands of networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 8. The most recent “telephone” networks can now deliver voice, Internet, and television over a single connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 2 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 9. Analog signals are transmitted over conducted media, while digital signals are transmitted over radiated media. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 10. Network architectures are cohesive layers of protocols defining a set of communication services. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 14 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 11. The OSI model tells us what kind of wire or what kind of connector to use to connect the pieces of a network. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks 12. The application layer of the OSI model is responsible for token management. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 13. The session layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing synchronization points. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 14. The network layer of the OSI model is an end-to-end layer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 15. The data link layer of the OSI model can incorporate some form of error detection software. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 16. The TCP/IP protocol suite does not have rigidly defined layers as the OSI model does. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 17. SNMP is used to allow users to send and receive electronic mail. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 18. The lowest layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite is the network access or physical layer. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 19. In a network architecture, as the packet moves up through the layers, the data packet shrinks in size. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 20 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 20. SaaS is a cloud service that provides access to an application that runs in the cloud environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 24 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 21. A ____ is an interconnection of computers and computing equipment using either wires or radio waves over small geographic areas. a. personal area network (PAN) b. computer network c. wireless network d. local area network (LAN) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 22. ____ is the transmission of multiple signals on one medium. a. Multiplexing b. Codec c. Modem d. Package ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks REFERENCES: page 4 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 23. ____ is the design, installation, and support of a network and its hardware and software. a. Cloud computing b. Voice network c. Data network d. Network management ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 4 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 24. ____ are the computers that store network software and shared or private user files. a. Switches b. Routers c. Servers d. Hubs ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 25. ____ are points for the wires that interconnect the workstations of a LAN. a. Switches b. Routers c. Servers d. Workstations ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 26. A ____ is a device that connects to a computer network being either an endpoint or network device. a. server b. workstation c. switch d. node ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 27. In a(n) ____ system, a user at a computer, or client machine, issues a request for some form of data or service. a. wireless Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks b. client/server c. bridge d. Internet ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 7 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 28. ____ allows some underlying configuration, but developers can mostly focus on their development work without having to devote time to managing a network infrastructure. a. XaaS b. PaaS c. SaaS d. IaaS ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 24 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 29. The Internet “talks” only ____, so users must use software that supports this protocol. a. IPX/SPX b. DSL c. TCP/IP d. FTP ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 30. The devices that usually connect two or more LANs are the switch and ____. a. workstation b. subnetwork c. server d. router ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 31. The ____ is a subset of personal area networks. a. LAN b. CAN c. BAN d. MAN ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. A ____ is a high-speed network that interconnects multiple sites within a close geographic region, such as a large urban area. a. metropolitan area network (MAN) b. wide area network (WAN) c. local area network (LAN) d. personal area network (PAN) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. Connecting two wide area networks requires devices such as high-speed ____. a. switches b. routers c. bridges d. reflectors ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. In the context of cloud computing, ____ means that resources can be increased or decreased quickly in response to changing needs. a. scalability b. pay-as-you-go c. self-service d. elasticity ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 23 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. ____ is the reference model to standardize the design of communication systems and the interoperability between their components. a. OSI b. TCP/IP c. FTP d. ASCII ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 14 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. The ____ layer of the OSI model makes sure the data received at the very end of a transmission is exactly the same as the data originally transmitted. a. application b. session c. transport d. network access ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The ____ layer of the OSI model performs a series of miscellaneous functions necessary for presenting the data package properly to the sender or receiver. a. transport b. presentation c. applications d. session ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The ____ layer is the OSI layer that handles routing. a. network b. application c. transport d. session ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The ____ layer of the OSI model is responsible for taking data from the network layer and transforming it into a frame. a. transport b. physical c. data link d. session ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks 40. The ____ layer of the OSI model ensures that the data packet arriving at the final destination is identical to the data packet that left the originating station. a. transport b. data link c. physical d. session ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The ____ layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite is not a logical connection. a. application b. physical c. transport d. network ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. The bottom layer in the OSI model—the ____ layer—handles the transmission of bits over a communications channel. a. data link b. application c. physical d. network ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The ____ was not created by a standards-making organization but by a group of computer scientists. a. OSI model b. FTP protocol c. Relapse protocol d. TCP/IP protocol suite ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 14 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. The TCP/IP ____ layer supports network applications and may include presentation services. a. transport b. application c. network Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks d. network access ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 15 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. ____ is used to allow the numerous elements within a computer network to be managed from a single point. a. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) b. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) c. Telnet d. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. The TCP/IP ____ layer commonly uses the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) to maintain an error-free end-to-end connection. a. network b. network access c. transport d. application ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The TCP/IP ____ layer, sometimes called the Internet layer, is roughly equivalent to OSI’s network layer. a. network access b. application c. transport d. network ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. A(n) ____ connection is a nonphysical connection between sender and receiver that allows an exchange of commands and responses. a. physical b. encapsulated c. real d. logical ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The addition of control information to a packet as it moves through the layers is called ____. a. encapsulation b. overloading c. payload d. filtering ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 20 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. In the context of cloud computing, ____ refers to the ability of resources to be adjusted over time in response to changing needs. a. scalability b. pay-as-you-go c. self-service d. elasticity ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 23 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Computer networks that use radio waves are termed ____________________ and can involve broadcast radio, microwaves, or satellite transmissions.

ANSWER: wireless POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 52. ____________________ are personal computers or smartphones where users connect to computer networks.

ANSWER: Workstations POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 53. ____________________ are sets of rules used by communication devices to format signals transmitted.

ANSWER: Protocols POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 54. Metropolitan area networks are a cross between local area networks and ____________________ networks.

ANSWER: wide area POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 55. A(n) ____________________ converts the local area network data into wide area network data.

ANSWER: router POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 56. A(n) ______________________________ is what you need to run a program that is only available in a Windows computer into a computer with a different Operating System (OS).

ANSWER: virtual machine POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 12 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 57. ____________________ systems is promoting a revolution in the way datacenters and networks function.

ANSWER: Cloud computing POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 22 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 58. A(n) ____________________, or communications model, places the appropriate network pieces in layers.

ANSWER: network architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 14 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 59. The two most common architectures known today are the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model and the ____________________ protocol suite.

ANSWER: TCP/IP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 14 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 60. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, ____________________, network, data link, and physical.

ANSWER: transport POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 61. The top layer in the OSI model is the ____________________ layer, where the application using the network resides.

ANSWER: application POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks QUESTION TYPE: Completion 62. The ____________________ layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing sessions between users.

ANSWER: session POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 63. _________________________ are backup points that are used in case of errors or failures.

ANSWER: Synchronization points POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 64. The ____________________ layer of the OSI model is responsible for creating, maintaining, and ending network connections.

ANSWER: network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 65. The ____________________ layer of the OSI model is responsible for taking data from the network layer and transforming it into a cohesive unit called a frame.

ANSWER: data link POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 18 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 66. The ____________________ protocol suite incorporates the TCP and IP protocols and has in fact always been more popular than the OSI model.

ANSWER: TCP/IP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 14 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 67. ______________________________ is used to transfer files from one computer system to another.

ANSWER: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) File Transfer Protocol FTP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 68. ___________________________________ is used to allow Web browsers and servers to send and receive web pages.

ANSWER: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Hypertext Transfer Protocol HTTP Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 69. The _________________________ is the software that prepares a packet of data so that it can move from one network to another on the Internet or within a set of corporate networks.

ANSWER: Internet Protocol Internet Protocol (IP) IP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 70. The ____________________ connection is the only direct connection between sender and receiver and is at the physical layer, where actual 1s and 0s are transmitted over wires or airwaves.

ANSWER: physical POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 17 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 71. The ______________ layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite is responsible for making sure that what leaves one end of the network arrives at the other end of the network exactly the same.

ANSWER: transport POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 16 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 72. What is data communications?

ANSWER: We will define data communications as the transfer of digital or analog data using digital or analog signals. Once created, these analog and digital signals then are transmitted over conducted media or wireless media. Both the data and the signal can be analog or digital, allowing for four possible combinations. Transmitting analog data by analog signals and digital data by digital signals are fairly straightforward processes—the conversion from one form to another is relatively simple.

Transmitting digital data using analog signals, however, requires the digital data to be modulated onto an analog signal, which is what happens with a modem and the telephone system. Transmitting analog data using digital signals requires the data to be sampled at specific intervals and then digitized into a digital signal, which is what happens with a device called a digitizer or codec.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 3 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 73. What are the components of a wide area network?

ANSWER: Wide area networks also can be of many types. Although many different technologies are used to support wide area networks, all wide area networks include the following components: * Nodes, which are the computing devices that allow workstations to connect to the network and that make the decisions about where to route a piece of data * Some type of high-speed transmission line, which runs from one node to another * A sub-network, which consists of the nodes and transmission lines, collected into a cohesive unit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Introduction to Data Communications and Computer Networks POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 5 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 74. What are cloud networks?

ANSWER: Cloud networks are essentially networks that promote remote access to virtualized resources hosted in a software-defined environment using cloud computing characteristics. In such a way, cloud networks connect resources that are said to reside “in the cloud”, that is to say, resources that are provided by virtualization.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 11 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 75. What is the main advantage of cloud computing?

ANSWER: Cloud computing relies on the abstraction of compute, network, security, and storage functions away from the underlying physical hardware in ways that give network admins and other IT professionals almost unlimited resources at affordable prices.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 22 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 76. What kind of network is a cellular network, and what kind of infrastructure does it require?

ANSWER: A cellular network is the infrastructure that is needed to support modern smartphones and the myriad of functions currently available, such as the traditional voice, text messages, pictures and videos download and upload, stream of music and video, and all sorts of Internet access. The network infrastructure that is needed to support cellular networks includes cell towers that cover several places throughout the globe. These cell towers are tied together into some form of network managed by smartphone service providers.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 9 QUESTION TYPE: Essay

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media 1. USB stands for Universal Standard Bus. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 39 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 2. USB is a digital interface that uses a standardized connector (plug) for all serial and parallel type devices. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 39 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 3. USB 1.0 is a full-duplex connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 39 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 4. USB 3.0 is a full-duplex connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 39 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 5. Category 5 twisted pair has a higher number of twists per inch than the Category 1 to 4 wires. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 6. Category 6a twisted pair wires can be purchased only as unshielded twisted pairs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 7. The braided metal shield is very good at blocking electromagnetic signals from entering the cable and producing noise. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 8. Modern coaxial technology can typically support data transfer speeds up to 1 Gbps. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 9. Coaxial cable is frequently used as the cabling within a LAN. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 10. RG-6 coaxial cables are commonly used for cable television and cable modems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 11. Electromagnetic interference can be reduced with proper shielding, but it cannot be completely avoided unless you use fiber-optic cable. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 12. Fiber-optic cable cannot generate nor be disrupted by electromagnetic interference.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 13. Fiber-optic cable and optical fiber are not synonyms. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 14. Fiber-optic cable is capable of transmitting data at more than 100 Gbps over several kilometers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 15. LAN installations using LED sources are effectively limited to 100 Gbps and 10 kilometers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 16. Wireless transmissions generally do not have to deal with right-of-way issues. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 54 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 17. LAN installations using Laser sources are not effectively limited to 10 Gbps and 300 meters. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 53 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media QUESTION TYPE: True / False 18. RJ45 connectors are used for fiber-optic cables. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 51 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 19. MTRJ fiber-optic connectors are full-duplex. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 53 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 20. Coaxial cable connections are more secure than LED fiber-optic connections. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 53 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 21. The 802.11n standard has a greater maximum theoretical throughput than the 802.11ac standard. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 22. The 802.11b standard has a smaller maximum theoretical throughput than the 802.11a standard. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 23. Bluetooth uses the 2.4-GHz ISM (Industrial, Scientific, and Medical) band. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 24. Bluetooth is capable of transmitting through nonmetallic objects such as walls. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 25. Bluetooth version 5.2 can reach up to 2 Gbps at short distances. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 26. Wi-Fi 802.11ax standard can reach theoretical throughput up to 9.6 Gbps at a 70 meters range. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 27. Wi-Fi 802.11n standard was the first one to introduce the multiple input multiple output technology. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 57 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 28. Bluetooth is a radiated media for LANs intended for short and long-range connections. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media 29. Data transmission speed is the number of bits per second that can be transmitted. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 39 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 30. ZigBee is a form of wireless technology often used for embedded devices. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 31. ZigBee is capable of transmitting signals for up to one mile. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 60 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 32. Near-field communications involve sending signals over distances of up to 100 meters. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 61 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 33. A current or signal in one wire can produce an unwanted current or signal, called ____, in a second wire. a. current-talk b. signal-talk c. crosstalk d. crossover ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. ____ twisted pair is the least quality twisted pair wire that should be used in a data/voice application. a. Category 1 b. Category 3 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media c. Category 5e d. Category 7a ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. ____ twisted pair wire is used in environments that have a noticeable amount of electromagnetic interference. a. Shielded b. Congealed c. Super d. Dilithium ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. Thunderbolt standard uses the ____ connector and has a theoretical data rate of 40 Gbps. a. USB Type-B Micro b. USB-C c. Lightning d. RJ45 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 40 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. ____ twisted pair was designed to transmit 10 Gbps of data over a local area network for distances up to 100 meters (328 feet). a. Category 5 b. Category 6a c. Category 5e d. Category 6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 44 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Category 5e twisted pair can keep a 1 Gbps data rate up to ____ meters. a. 20 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. ____is the proprietary connector standard that is reversible as the USB-C and has a similar data transfer speed as the USB 2.0 specification. a. USB Type-B Micro b. RJ45 c. Lightning d. Thunderbolt ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 41 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. ____ twisted pair is designed to support data transmission with signals as high as 2 GHz by improving the shielding. a. Category 6 b. Category 7 c. Category 7a d. Category 8 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 44 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. In a(n) ____, none of the wires are wrapped with a metal foil or braid. a. shielded twisted pair (STP) b. unshielded twisted pair (UTP) c. CAT 4 twisted pair d. CAT 7 twisted pair ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. ____ is a form in which a shield is wrapped around each wire individually, around all the wires together, or both. a. Shielded twisted pair (STP) b. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) c. CAT 2 twisted pair d. CAT 5 twisted pair ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. Because of its good shielding properties, ____ is good at carrying analog signals with a wide range of frequencies.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media a. CAT 5 twisted pair b. CAT 5e twisted pair c. copper wire d. coaxial cable ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. ___, a.k.a. wireless router, is the essential interface between the wireless clients and the wired LAN. a. Wi-Fi b. Thunderbolt c. Access point d. Cellular antenna ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 56 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. ____ technology is the fastest option for fiber-optic cable. a. Laser b. LED c. Glass-based d. Plastic-based ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. ____ is not a common coaxial cable type. a. RG-6 b. RG-8 c. RG-59 d. RG-11 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. ____ are the two basic techniques to transmit light through a fiber-optic cable. a. Single-mode and dual-mode b. Monochromatic and polychromatic c. Single-mode and multimode d. RGB and HSL Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. _BNC connectors are used to ___ cables. a. RJ45 b. twisted pair c. fiber-optic d. coaxial ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 52 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. LC, ST, SC, and MTRJ are connector types for ____ cables. a. RJ45 b. twisted pair c. fiber-optic d. coaxial ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 53 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. ____ cables are virtually impossible to wiretap. a. RJ45 b. twisted pair c. fiber-optic d. coaxial ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. ____ is the type of conducted medium that can be employed in Wide Area Networks. a. Twisted pair b. Coaxial cable c. Laser fiber-optic d. LED fiber-optic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 53 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media 52. In a fiber-optic cable, when a signal reaches the other end of the cable, some of the light is reflected back into the cable to its source, and this phenomenon is called ____. a. reflectance b. attenuation c. mirroring d. refraction ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. When a light signal inside the cable bounces off the cable wall and back into the cable, this is called ____. a. refraction b. reflection c. blinking d. friction ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. ____ transmission requires the use of a very thin fiber-optic cable and a very focused light source, such as a laser. a. Multimode b. Reflection c. Single-mode d. Refraction ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. ____ transmission uses a slightly thicker fiber cable and an unfocused light source, such as an LED. a. Multimode b. Reflection c. Single-mode d. Refraction ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. The 802.11ax standard is frequently called ____. a. Wi-Fi 3 b. Wi-Fi 4 c. Wi-Fi 5 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media d. Wi-Fi 6 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The 802.11ac standard is frequently called ____. a. Wi-Fi 3 b. Wi-Fi 4 c. Wi-Fi 5 d. Wi-Fi 6 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. The 802.11g standard is frequently called ____. a. Wi-Fi 3 b. Wi-Fi 4 c. Wi-Fi 5 d. Wi-Fi 6 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. The 802.11n standard is frequently called ____. a. Wi-Fi 3 b. Wi-Fi 4 c. Wi-Fi 5 d. Wi-Fi 6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. ____ is the Bluetooth device class that has the smaller range. a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3 d. Class 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. ____ is the Bluetooth device class that has the larger range. a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3 d. Class 4 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. ____ is a special form of radio transmission that uses a focused ray of light in the infrared frequency range. a. UWB b. LED fiber-optic c. IR d. Laser fiber-optic ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 60 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. ____ transmits data over a wide range of frequencies rather than limiting transmissions to a narrow, fixed band of frequencies. a. UWB b. Zigbee c. IR d. NFC ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 61 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. ____ uses magnetic induction, as is commonly found with radio frequency ID (RFID) card readers, to perform very close proximity data transfer. a. UWB b. Zigbee c. IR d. NFC ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 61 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. ____ is a wireless technology that works well for connections that require low data transfer rates and low power Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media consumption. a. UWB b. Zigbee c. IR d. NFC ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. While considering the ____ criteria to select a medium for a computer network, the use of cryptography may compensate for the disadvantages of radiated media options. a. cost b. speed c. environment d. security ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 65 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. While selecting a medium for a computer network, it is important to consider not only the initial medium and installation ____, but also the subsequent ones. a. cost b. speed c. environment d. security ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 63 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The typical range limit for Class 2 Bluetooth devices is ____. a. 5 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 100 meters ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. The typical range limit for Wi-Fi 2 devices is ____. a. 5 meters b. 10 meters Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media c. 50 meters d. 100 meters ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. The typical range limit for Wi-Fi 1 devices is ____. a. 5 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 100 meters ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 58 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. ____ systems transmit data over a wide range of frequencies rather than limiting transmissions to a narrow, fixed band of frequencies. a. Wi-Fi b. Bluetooth c. Ultra-wideband d. Free space optics ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 61 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 72. ____ systems are good at sending low-speed signals over short to medium distances. a. Thunderbolt b. Wi-Fi 2 c. Wi-Fi 1 d. ZigBee ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 73. ____________________ wire comes as two or more pairs of single-conductor copper wires that have been twisted around each other.

ANSWER: Twisted pair POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 42 QUESTION TYPE: Completion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media 74. ____________________ twisted pair offers improved data rates for transmissions up to 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps, commonly called Gigabit Ethernet) for 100 meters.

ANSWER: Category 5e CAT 5e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 75. A(n) ____________________ is a device that generates a new signal by creating an exact replica of the original signal.

ANSWER: repeater POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 76. ____________________ twisted pair was designed to transmit 100 Mbps of data for distances up to 100 meters.

ANSWER: Category 5 CAT 5 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 77. ____________________ wire is designed to support 600 MHz of bandwidth for 100 meters.

ANSWER: Category 7 CAT 7 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 44 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 78. ____________________ the twisted pair wires where none of the wires is wrapped with a metal foil or braid.

ANSWER: Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) Unshielded twisted pair UTP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 79. ____________________ cable, in its simplest form, is a single wire (usually copper) wrapped in a foam insulation, surrounded by a braided metal shield, then covered in a plastic jacket.

ANSWER: Coaxial POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 80. The only USB connector type that is reversible is ____________________.

ANSWER: USB-C POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media REFERENCES: page 40 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 81. USB is a ____________________ cable because a peripheral connected using a USB cable can simply be plugged in and turned on, and the computer dynamically recognizes the device and establishes the interface.

ANSWER: hot-pluggable POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 39 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 82. A ____________________ or a foil shielding is used over an insulation to isolate the conducting wire in a coaxial cable.

ANSWER: braided metal shield POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 83. ____________________ is the electronic distortion that a signal passing through a metal wire experiences when a stray magnetic field passes over it.

ANSWER: Electromagnetic interference POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 84. Some types of coaxial cable use multiple layers of shielding for increased resistance to ____________________ in noisy environments.

ANSWER: EMI electromagnetic interference POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 47 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 85. When a light signal passes from the core of the cable into the surrounding material, this is called ____________________.

ANSWER: refraction POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 86. Multimode fiber-optic cable usually employs a(n) ____________________ light source, as for example a LED. ANSWER: unfocused POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 87. ____________________ is the legal capability of a business to install a wire or cable across someone’s property.

ANSWER: Right-of-way Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 54 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 88. Actual data transfer rates on wireless connections are roughly half or less of listed theoretical rates, due to ____________________ .

ANSWER: noise interference POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 57 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 89. The typical range for Bluetooth connections is determined by the class of the device, which is categorized according to the ____________________ of the Bluetooth radio.

ANSWER: transmission power POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 59 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 90. An interesting aspect of Zigbee is how devices are able to keep ____________________ low.

ANSWER: power consumption POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 60 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 91. This focused ray of infrared information is sent from transmitter to receiver over a ____________________ transmission.

ANSWER: line-of-sight POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 60 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 92. Smartphone manufacturers are beginning to add UWB technology to mobile devices for more precise ____________________.

ANSWER: location discovery POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 61 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 93. Rather than using radio transmission frequencies like Bluetooth, NFC uses ____________________.

ANSWER: magnetic induction POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 61 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 94. The typical transmission range of ____________________ technology is 4 centimeters.

ANSWER: Near-Field Communication (NFC) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media Near-Field Communication NFC POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 62 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 95. ____________________ transmission is a special form of radio transmission that uses a focused ray of light in the infrared frequency range (1012 –1014 MHz).

ANSWER: Infrared POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 60 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 96. To evaluate media properly, you need to consider expected speeds in the real world, not just ____________________.

ANSWER: theoretical maximums POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 64 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 97. Industrial environments with heavy machinery produce ____________________ that can interfere with improperly shielded cables.

ANSWER: electromagnetic radiation POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 65 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 98. Briefly explain the characteristics of Category 5e twisted pair.

ANSWER: Approved at the end of 1999, the specification for Category 5e twisted pair is similar to Category 5’s in that this wire is also recommended for transmissions of 100 Mbps (100 MHz) for 100 meters.

Many companies are producing Category 5e wire at 125 MHz for 100 meters. While the specifications for the earlier Category 1 to 5 wires described only the individual wires, the Category 5e specification indicates exactly four pairs of wires and provides designations for the connectors on the ends of the wires, patch cords, and other possible components that connect directly with a cable.

Thus, as a more detailed specification than Category 5, Category 5e can better support the higher speeds of 100-Mbps (and higher) local area networks.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 43 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 99. Explain when shielded twisted pair wire works better than unshielded twisted pair wire.

ANSWER: If a twisted pair wire needs to go through walls, rooms, or buildings where there is sufficient electromagnetic interference to cause substantial noise problems, using shielded twisted pair can provide a higher level of isolation from that interference than unshielded twisted pair wire, and thus a lower level of errors. Electromagnetic interference is often generated by large motors, such as those found in heating and cooling equipment or manufacturing equipment. Even fluorescent light fixtures generate a noticeable amount of electromagnetic interference. Large sources of power can also generate damaging amounts of electromagnetic interference. Therefore, it is generally not a good idea to strap twisted pair wiring to a power line that runs through a room or through walls. Furthermore, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media even though Categories 3 to 6 shielded twisted pairs have improved noise isolation, you cannot expect to push them past the 100-meter limit. Finally, be prepared to pay a premium for a shielded twisted pair. It is not uncommon to spend an additional $1 per foot for a good-quality shielded twisted pair. In contrast, Category 5, 5e, and 6 UTP often cost between $.10 and $.20 per foot.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 45 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 100. How does a fiber-optic cable transmit data?

ANSWER: A light source, called a photodiode, is placed at the transmitting end and quickly switched on and off to produce light pulses. These light pulses travel down the glass cable and are detected by an optic sensor called a photoreceptor on the receiving end. The light source can be either a simple and inexpensive light-emitting diode (LED), such as those found in many pocket calculators, or a more complex laser. The laser is much more expensive than the LED, and it can produce much higher data transmission rates. Fiber-optic cable is capable of transmitting data at over 100 Gbps (that’s 100 billion bits per second!) over several kilometers. Because many common local area network installations use an LED source, however, real-world fiber-optic transmissions are effectively limited to 10 gigabits for 300 meters.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 48 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 101. What are the disadvantages of fiber-optic cables?

ANSWER: Fiber-optic cable has two small but significant disadvantages. First, due to the way the light source and photoreceptor arrangement works, light pulses can travel in one direction only. Thus, to support a two-way transmission of data, two fiber-optic cables are necessary. For this reason, most fiber-optic cable is sold with at least two (if not more) individual strands of fiber bundled into a single package.

A second disadvantage of fiber-optic cable is its higher cost, but this disadvantage is slowly disappearing. For example, it is now possible to purchase bulk, general-purpose duplex (two-strand) fiber-optic cable for approximately $.50 per foot (as opposed to paying a few dollars per foot several years ago), which is close to the price of many types of coaxial cable and shielded twisted pair cable.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 50 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 102. What are the mechanical component characteristics of USB connectors?

ANSWER: The mechanical component of USB strictly specifies the exact dimensions of the interface’s connectors and cabling. While several types of USB connectors are specified, the most common today are Type-A, Type-B, Type-B Micro, and USB-C. Connectors A and B each have four pins, one for each of the four wires in the electrical component, while the micro connector has five pins. The fifth pin is called the signal pin and is often simply connected to either the VBUS or GND pins. USBC contains 24 pins to provide higher data transfer rates up to 10 Gbps, which is sufficient for video to extra monitors or a high-speed Internet connection. The connector can provide sufficient power transfer to charge a laptop and is reversible, meaning the connector does not have a “top” or “bottom” and can be inserted either way.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 40 QUESTION TYPE: Essay Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Conducted and Radiated Media

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals 1. The terms “data” and “signal” mean the same thing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 2. By convention, the minimum and maximum values of analog data and signals are presented as voltages. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 76 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 3. One of the primary shortcomings of analog data and analog signals is how difficult it is to separate noise from the original waveform. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 4. The ability to separate noise from a digital waveform is one of the great strengths of digital systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 5. A sine wave is a common example used to demonstrate an analog signal. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 6. The period of a signal can be calculated by taking the reciprocal of the frequency (1/frequency). a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 7. Converting digital data to square-wave digital signals is relatively straightforward. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 8. Converting analog data to analog signals is fairly uncommon. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 9. Like signals, data can be analog or digital. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 10. Telephones, AM radio, FM radio, broadcast television, and cable television are the most common examples of analog data-to-digital signal conversion. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 11. The NRZ-L encoding scheme is simple to generate and inexpensive to implement in hardware. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 84 QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals 12. With NRZI, the receiver has to check the voltage level for each bit to determine whether the bit is a 0 or a 1. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 85 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 13. With NRZ-L, the receiver has to check whether there is a change at the beginning of the bit to determine if it is a 0 or a 1. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 84 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 14. An inherent problem with the NRZ-L and NRZI digital encoding schemes is that long sequences of 0s in the data produce a signal that never changes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 85 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 15. The big disadvantage of the Manchester schemes is that roughly half the time, there will be two transitions during each bit. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 16. Under some circumstances, the baud rate may equal the bps, such as in the Manchester encoding schemes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 17. Amplitude shift keying is restricted to only two possible amplitude levels: low and high. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 88 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 18. Amplitude shift keying is susceptible to sudden noise impulses such as the static charges created by a lightning storm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 19. Frequency shift keying is susceptible to sudden noise spikes that can cause loss of data. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 20. Phase changes are not affected by amplitude changes, nor are they affected by intermodulation distortions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 21. The bps of the data transmitted using quadrature amplitude modulation is four times the baud rate. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 91 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 22. According to a famous communications theorem created by Nyquist, the sampling rate using pulse code modulation must be at least three times the highest frequency of the original analog waveform. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 96 QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals 23. One of the most common forms of data transmitted between a transmitter and a receiver is textual data. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 24. Shannon’s theorem calculates the data transfer rate of a signal using its frequency and the number of signaling levels. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 96 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 25. Shannon’s theorem calculates the maximum data transfer rate of an analog signal and incorporates noise. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 96 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 26. ASCII is now a subset of Unicode. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 27. A byte consists of 8 bits. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 28. One of the major problems with Unicode is that it cannot represent symbols other than those found in the English language. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 29. ASCII is one of the supported code charts in Unicode. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 30. In Unicode, the letter “r” is represented by the binary value of 0000 0000 0101 0100 0010. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 31. ____ are entities that convey meaning within a computer or computer system. a. Signals b. Data c. Impulse d. EMI ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 32. If you want to transfer data from one point to another, either via a physical wire or through radio waves, the data has to be converted into a(n) ____. a. hertz b. Unicode c. signal d. byte ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. ____ are represented as continuous waveforms that can be at an infinite number of points between some given minimum and maximum. a. Analog signals Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals b. Digital signals c. Digital data d. Digital pulses ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The most common example of ____ data is the human voice. a. sampling b. baud c. digital d. analog ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. Unfortunately, noise itself occurs as a(n) ____ waveform, and this makes it challenging, if not extremely difficult, to separate noise from an analog waveform that represents data. a. analog b. digital c. hertz d. byte ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. ____ are discrete waveforms, rather than continuous waveforms. a. Analog signals b. Analog bauds c. Digital signals d. Analog data ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. The three basic components of analog and digital signals are amplitude, frequency, and ____. a. cycles b. baud c. hertz d. phase ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. The amplitude of a signal can be expressed as volts, ____, or watts. a. hertz b. amps c. bits d. bytes ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. The ____ of a signal is the number of times a signal makes a complete cycle within a given time frame. a. phase b. amplitude c. period d. frequency ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. Cycles per second, or frequency, is represented by ____. a. bytes b. hertz c. bits d. watts ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. The frequency range of the average human voice usually goes no lower than 300 Hz and no higher than approximately ____ Hz. a. 2200 b. 2400 c. 3400 d. 5300 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals 42. The lowest note possible on the piano is ____ Hz, and the highest note possible is 4200 Hz. a. 30 b. 80 c. 300 d. 450 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. The bandwidth of a telephone system that transmits a single voice in the range of 300 Hz to 3400 Hz is ____ Hz. a. 10 b. 100 c. 3100 d. 3700 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. When traveling through any type of medium, a signal always experiences some loss of its power due to friction. This loss of power, or loss of signal strength, is called ____. a. amplification b. friction c. decibel d. attenuation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 81 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. When a signal is amplified by an amplifier, the signal gains in ____. a. decibels b. hertz c. bytes d. watts ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 81 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. ____ is the process of sending data over a signal by varying either its amplitude, frequency or phase. a. Amplification b. Modulation c. Attenuation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals d. Digital encoding ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 83 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 47. The ____ encoding scheme has a voltage change at the beginning of a 1 and no voltage change at the beginning of a 0. a. nonreturn to zero inverted (NRZI) b. nonreturn to zero-level (NRZ-L) c. Manchester d. Differential Manchester ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 85 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. The ____ digital encoding scheme is similar to the Manchester scheme in that there is always a transition in the middle of the interval. a. NRZ-L b. Bipolar-AMI c. differential Manchester d. NRZI ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The Manchester encoding schemes are called ____, because the occurrence of a regular transition is similar to seconds ticking on a clock. a. continuous-clocking b. analog-clocking c. discrete-clocking d. self-clocking ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 85 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. The number of times a signal changes value per second is called the ____ rate. a. hertz b. baud c. watts d. volts ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. The data rate is measured in ____. a. bits per second (bps) b. bytes per second (Bps) c. bauds per second (bps) d. hertz per second (hps) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. The ____ scheme tries to satisfy the synchronization problem and avoid the “baud equals two times the bps” problem. a. Manchester b. 4B/5B c. differential Manchester d. NRZ-L ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. The digital encoding system is ____ used on USB 3.1 communication. a. 4B/5B b. 8B/10B c. 128B/132B d. 256B/278B ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 87 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. The Manchester encoding schemes solve the synchronization problem but are relatively inefficient because they have a baud rate that is ____ the bps. a. equal to b. twice c. three times d. four times ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. The digital encoding system is 4B/5B and encodes 16 possible combinations into ____ possible combinations before Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals transmitting. a. 4 b. 5 c. 16 d. 32 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 87 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. Three currently popular modulation techniques for encoding digital data and transmitting it over analog signals are amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and ____ shift keying. a. noise b. baud c. strength d. phase ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 88 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. The simplest modulation technique is ____ shift keying. a. amplitude b. phase c. frequency d. noise ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 88 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. Frequency shift keying is subject to ____. a. baud noise b. bps distortion c. intermodulation distortion d. noise spikes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. ____ shift keying represents 0s and 1s by different changes in the phase of a waveform. a. Amplitude b. Phase c. Frequency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals d. Noise ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. ____ shift keying incorporates four different phase angles, each of which represents 2 bits. a. Quadrature amplitude b. Quadrature frequency c. Quadrature noise d. Quadrature phase ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. ____ modulation, which is commonly employed in contemporary modems, uses each signal change to represent 4 bits. a. Quadrature amplitude b. Quadrature frequency c. Quadrature noise d. Quadrature phase ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 91 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. One encoding technique that converts analog data to a digital signal is ____. a. NRZ-L b. Manchester c. pulse code modulation (PCM) d. NRZ-I ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 92 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. Tracking an analog waveform and converting it to pulses that represent the wave’s height above (or below) a threshold is termed ____. a. pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) b. codec c. quantization d. quantization levels ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 92 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. When converting analog data to digital signals, the frequency at which the snapshots are taken is called the ____ rate. a. baud b. sampling c. bps d. byte ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 93 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. With ____, a codec tracks the incoming analog data by assessing up or down “steps.” a. differential Manchester b. 4B/5B c. NRZI d. delta modulation ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 94 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. Unicode is an evolution of ____text encoding. a. NRZ-L b. 4B/5B c. ASCII d. NRZI ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. ____ is a 7-bit code allowing 128 possible combinations of textual symbols. a. ASCII b. Unicode c. NRZI d. UTF-9 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 68. The ____ is a character code system that currently supports nearly 145,000 unique characters. a. ASCII b. Unicode Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals c. NRZI d. UTF-9 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 69. According to ASCII the character "r" is encoded by ____. a. 111 0010 b. 0111 0010 c. 0000 111 0010 d. 0000 0000 111 0010 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 70. According to UTF-8 the character "r" is encoded by ____. a. 111 0010 b. 0111 0010 c. 0000 0111 0010 d. 0000 0000 0111 0010 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 71. Converting analog data to digital signals is generally called ____________________.

ANSWER: digitization POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 72. ____________________ are the electric or electromagnetic impulses used to encode and transmit data.

ANSWER: Signals POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 73. ____________________ is unwanted electrical or electromagnetic energy that degrades the quality of signals and data.

ANSWER: Noise POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: Completion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals 74. The ____________________ of a signal is the height of the wave above (or below) a given reference point.

ANSWER: amplitude POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 75. The ____________________, or time interval, of one cycle is called its period.

ANSWER: length POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 76. The range of frequencies that a signal spans from minimum to maximum is called the ____________________.

ANSWER: spectrum POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 77. The ____________________ of a signal is the absolute value of the difference between the lowest and highest frequencies.

ANSWER: bandwidth POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 78. Because extraneous noise degrades original signals, an electronic device usually has a(n) ____________________ that is less than its bandwidth.

ANSWER: effective bandwidth POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 79 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 79. The ____________________ of a signal is the position of the waveform relative to a given moment of time, or relative to time zero.

ANSWER: phase POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 80 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 80. ____________________ is a relative measure of signal loss or gain and is used to measure the logarithmic loss or gain of a signal.

ANSWER: Decibel (dB) Decibel dB POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 81 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals QUESTION TYPE: Completion 81. ____________________ is the opposite of attenuation.

ANSWER: Amplification POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 81 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 82. The ____________________ digital encoding scheme transmits 1s as zero voltages and 0s as positive voltages.

ANSWER: nonreturn to zero-level (NRZ-L) nonreturn to zero-level NRZ-L POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 84 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 83. With the ____________________ encoding scheme, to transmit a 1, the signal changes from low to high in the middle of the interval; to transmit a 0, the signal changes from high to low in the middle of the interval.

ANSWER: Manchester POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 85 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 84. The ____________________ encoding scheme takes 4 bits of data, converts the 4 bits into a unique 5-bit sequence, and encodes the 5 bits using NRZI. ANSWER: 4B/5B POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 86 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 85. ____________________ is a simpler form of modulation in which binary 1s and 0s are represented by uniquely different values of amplitude, frequency, or phase.

ANSWER: Shift keying POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 88 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 86. ____________________ shift keying uses two different frequency ranges to represent data values of 0 and 1.

ANSWER: Frequency POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 87. ____________________ is a phenomenon that occurs when the frequencies of two or more signals mix together and create new frequencies.

ANSWER: Intermodulation distortion POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals REFERENCES: page 89 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 88. A(n) ____________________ converts the analog data to a digital signal by tracking the analog waveform and taking “snapshots” of the analog data at fixed intervals.

ANSWER: codec POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 92 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 89. Quantization error, or ____________________, causes the regenerated analog data to differ from the original analog data.

ANSWER: quantization noise POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 93 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 90. A problem inherent with delta modulation is that if the analog waveform rises or drops too quickly, the codec may not be able to keep up with the change, and ____________________ results.

ANSWER: slope overload noise POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 94 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 91. The set of all textual characters or symbols and their corresponding binary patterns is called a(n) ____________________.

ANSWER: data code POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 92. ____________________ dedicates one to four bytes for each encoded symbol.

ANSWER: UTF-8 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 93. ____________________ dedicates two or four bytes for each encoded symbol.

ANSWER: UTF-16 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 98 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 94. ____________________ is an encoding technique that provides a unique coding value for every character in every language, no matter what the platform.

ANSWER: Unicode UTF-8 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals UTF-16 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 95. Currently, ____________________ supports nearly 145,000 unique characters.

ANSWER: Unicode UTF-8 UTF-16 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 97 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 96. What are the four possible data-to-signal conversion combinations?

ANSWER: Data and signals are two of the basic building blocks of any computer network. It is important to understand that the terms “data” and “signal” do not mean the same thing and that in order for a computer network to transmit data, the data must first be converted into the appropriate signals. The one thing data and signals have in common is that both can be in either analog or digital form, which gives us four possible data-to-signal conversion combinations: * Analog data-to-analog signal, which involves amplitude and frequency modulation techniques * Digital data-to-digital signal, which involves encoding techniques * Digital data-to-discrete analog signal, which involves modulation techniques * Analog data-to-digital signal, which involves digitization techniques POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 97. What are common examples of data?

ANSWER: Common examples of data include: * A computer file of names and addresses stored on a hard disk drive * The bits or individual elements of a movie stored on a DVD * The binary 1s and 0s of music stored on a compact disc or inside an iPod * The dots (pixels) of a photograph that has been digitized by a digital camera and stored on a memory stick * The digits 0 through 9, which might represent some kind of sales figures for a business POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 98. What are common examples of signals?

ANSWER: Common examples of signals include: * A transmission of a telephone conversation over a telephone line * A live television news interview from Europe transmitted over a satellite system * A transmission of a term paper over the printer cable between a computer and a printer * The downloading of a Web page as it transfers over the telephone line between your Internet service provider and your home computer POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 75 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Fundamentals of Data and Signals QUESTION TYPE: Essay 99. What happens when you introduce noise into digital data and digital signals?

ANSWER: Noise has the properties of an analog waveform and thus can occupy an infinite range of values; digital waveforms occupy only a finite range of values. When you combine analog noise with digital waveform, it is fairly easy to separate the original digital waveform from the noise.

If the amount of noise remains low enough that the original digital waveform can still be interpreted, then the noise can be filtered out, thereby leaving the original waveform. If, however, the noise becomes so great that it is no longer possible to distinguish a high from a low, then the noise has taken over the signal and you can no longer understand this portion of the waveform.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 100. What is the purpose of using digital encoding schemes?

ANSWER: To transmit digital data using digital signals, the 1s and 0s of the digital data must be converted to the proper physical form that can be transmitted over a wire or airwave. Thus, if you wish to transmit a data value of 1, you could do this by transmitting a positive voltage on the medium. If you wish to transmit a data value of 0, you could transmit a zero voltage. You could also use the opposite scheme: a data value of 0 is a positive voltage, and a data value of 1 is a zero voltage. Digital encoding schemes like this are used to convert the 0s and 1s of digital data into the appropriate transmission form. There are six digital encoding schemes that are representative of most digital encoding schemes: NRZ-L, NRZI, Manchester, differential Manchester, bipolar-AMI, and 4B/5B. POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 77 QUESTION TYPE: Essay

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors 1. The physical layer has no awareness of the meaning of the data bits being transmitted. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 108 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 2. The function of a data frame is to wrap the message, just like an envelope wraps a letter in regular mail. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 108 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 3. Creating a data frame does not increase the number of bits to be transmitted. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 4. The sender and receiver of a data link frame do not need to be using the same protocol. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 5. The part of a frame that holds the actual data that needs to be transmitted is called a payload. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 6. The transport layer header contains as receiver address a port number. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 7. The fields of each header do not vary depending on the protocol that creates the header. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 8. The MAC address usually appears in the transport layer header. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 110 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 9. The trailer part of a data link frame never holds error detection information. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 110 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 10. Long messages can be broken into smaller ones that are sent in distinct packets that each have its own route across a network. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 110 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 11. Because white noise is relatively continuous, it can be reduced significantly but never completely eliminated. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 111 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 12. White noise is dependent on the temperature of the medium.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 112 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 13. If the impulse spike interferes with an analog signal, removing it without affecting the original signal is extremely easy. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 14. If impulse noise interferes with a digital signal, often the original digital signal cannot be recognized and recovered. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 15. Noise is a problem for both analog and digital signals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 111 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 16. Telephone signal crosstalk was a more common problem before telephone companies used fiber-optic cables and other well-shielded wires. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 17. Echo error rarely occurs at junctions where wires are connected. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 18. If jitter becomes too great, correcting it can require the transmitting devices to speed up their transmission rates. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 19. Attenuation can be eliminated with the use of repeaters for analog systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 20. An unfortunate side effect of noise during a transmission is that the transmitting station has to slow down its transmission rate. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 21. Installing special filters for analog signals and digital signal regeneration for digital signals helps in preventing white noise. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 112 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 22. TCP performs error detection at the endpoints of the connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 118 QUESTION TYPE: True / False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors 23. Simple parity can detect only an even number of erroneous bits per character. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 24. The CRC error-detection method treats the packet of data to be transmitted as a large polynomial. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 25. The CRC method catches almost 100% of errors. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 26. Returning a message was one of the first error-control techniques developed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 122 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 27. NAK represents a positive acknowledgment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 123 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 28. Sliding window protocols have been around since the 1970s. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors REFERENCES: page 123 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 29. When a parity bit is assigned to ASCII, the Hamming distance becomes 4. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 127 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 30. In a stop-and-wait error control system, a receiver may acknowledge multiple packets with a single ACK. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 122 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 31. In a sliding-window error control system, a receiver may acknowledge multiple packets with a single ACK. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 124 QUESTION TYPE: True / False 32. A tool called ____ can capture packets as they traverse a network. a. wire unpacker b. wire sniffer c. packet sniffer d. unpacker ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 33. The data contained within a data link package is called ____. a. payload b. trailer c. header d. bits ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 34. The ____ layer has no awareness of the meaning of the data bits being transmitted. a. data link b. physical c. transport d. network ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 108 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 35. In the Ethernet header, the destination address is a ____. a. port number b. IP address v4 c. IP address v6 d. MAC address ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 110 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 36. In the Transport header, the destination address is a ____. a. port number b. IP address v4 c. IP address v6 d. MAC address ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 37. White noise is also called thermal noise or ____ noise. a. crosstalk b. jitter c. Gaussian d. spike ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 111 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 38. Impulse noise is also known as ____. a. noise spike b. jitter Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors c. attenuation d. crosstalk ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 112 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 39. Typically, impulse noise is a(n) ____ burst of energy. a. digital b. analog c. binary d. logical ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 112 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 40. High humidity and wet weather can cause an increase in electrical ____ over a telephone system. a. compression b. attenuation c. jitter d. crosstalk ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 41. To minimize the effect of echo, a device called a(n) ____ can be attached to a line. a. echo suppressor b. repeater c. amplifier d. hub ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 42. ____ is the result of small timing irregularities that become magnified during the transmission of digital signals as the signals are passed from one device to another. a. White noise b. Jitter c. Attenuation d. Echo ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 43. Causes of jitter can include electromagnetic interference, ____, passing the signal through too many repeaters, and the use of lower-quality equipment. a. coding b. sampling c. compression d. crosstalk ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 44. ____ is not necessarily a form of error, but can indirectly lead to an increase in errors affecting the transmitted signal. a. Impulse noise b. Crosstalk c. Attenuation d. White noise ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 45. ____ means that if the transmitting modem sends data and the data arrives garbled, the receiving modem may ask the transmitting modem to fall back to a slower transmission speed. a. Impulse negotiation b. Fallback negotiation c. Attenuation d. Downlink ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 46. ____ noise that happens with twisted pair wires, such as an Ethernet cable, can be electrical. a. Crosstalk b. Gaussian c. Echo d. Jitter ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors 47. Installing proper shielding on cables prevents ____. a. white noise b. impulse noise c. attenuation d. crosstalk ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 48. Error detection can be performed in several places within a communications model. One of the most common places is the TCP/IP ____ layer. a. network b. application c. network access/data link d. physical ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 116 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 49. The most basic error-detection techniques are parity checks, which are also used for ____ systems. a. wireless b. data storage c. wired d. fiber-optic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 116 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 50. With ____ parity, the 0 or 1 added to the string produces an even number of binary 1s. a. even b. odd c. longitudinal d. binary ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 51. Isolated single-bit errors occur ____ percent of the time. a. 30 to 40 b. 40 to 50 c. 50 to 60 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors d. 60 to 70 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 52. Error bursts occur ____ percent of the time. a. 2 to 5 b. 5 to 10 c. 8 to 10 d. 10 to 20 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 53. Longitudinal parity is sometimes called longitudinal redundancy check or ____ parity. a. vertical b. horizontal c. random d. binary ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 54. An arithmetic checksum _______ the individual characters to be transmitted. a. adds b. multiplies c. inverts d. divides ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 118 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 55. A ____ is an industry-approved bit string used to create the CRC remainder. a. arithmetic checksum b. numeric modem c. generator polynomial d. packet sniffer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 56. Many wide area network protocols use ____ for error-detection. a. arithmetic checksum b. CRC c. longitudinal parity d. simple parity ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 121 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 57. ____ cable is the medium least prone to generating errors. a. Fiber-optic b. Coaxial c. Twisted pair d. Copper-based ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 111 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 58. ____ is probably the most common form of error control. a. Toss the frame (do nothing) b. Correct the error without retransmission c. Sending a message back to the transmitter d. Correct the error with retransmission ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 122 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 59. ____ error control is a technique usually associated with the Stop-and-wait flow control protocol. a. Stop-and-wait b. Timeout c. Sliding window d. ACK ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 122 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 60. When working with stop-and-wait error control, the amount of time a station waits before retransmitting a packet is called ____. a. stop time Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors b. ACK time c. NAK time d. timeout ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 123 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 61. ____ is a flow-control scheme that allows a station to transmit a number of data packets at one time before receiving some form of acknowledgment. a. Stop-and-wait b. Sliding window c. Timeout d. ACK window ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 124 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 62. With the sliding window protocol, a station that had a maximum window size of 7 could transmit only ____ data packets at one time before it had to stop and wait for an acknowledgment. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 124 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 63. A ____ protocol’s function is simply to inform the transmitter what piece of data is expected next. a. CRC-16 b. CRC-32 c. stop-and-wait d. sliding window ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 124 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 64. For a receiver to be able to fix an error—in a process called ____—redundant information must be present so that the receiver knows which bit or bits are in error and what their original values were. a. forward error correction b. forward error detection c. backward error correction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors d. backward error detection ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 127 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 65. If a receiver correctly receives packets 2, 3, and 4, it will respond with a(an) ____. a. ACK 3 b. ACK 4 c. ACK 5 d. NAK ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 124 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 66. If a receiver has just received one packet of data with bytes numbered 600 to 700, it will respond immediately with ____. a. an ACK of 700 b. an ACK of 701 c. an ACK of 800 d. it will not respond just yet ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 124 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice 67. Bits at the beginning and end of the data signal serve as a package for the data as it traverses a network connection.

This package is called a(n)____________________.

ANSWER: frame POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 108 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 68. The header of the ____________________ layer has port addresses for both the sender and receiver devices.

ANSWER: transport POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 109 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 69. The header of the ____________________ layer follows the Internet Protocol.

ANSWER: network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 110 QUESTION TYPE: Completion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors 70. The field source address in the Ethernet header has to be a(n) ____________________.

ANSWER: MAC address POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 110 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 71. ____________________ is a relatively continuous type of noise and is much like the static you hear when a radio is being tuned between two stations.

ANSWER: White noise POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 111 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 72. ____________________ is a noncontinuous noise and one of the most difficult errors to detect, because it can occur randomly.

ANSWER: Impulse noise POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 112 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 73. ____________________ is an unwanted coupling between two different signal paths.

ANSWER: Crosstalk POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 74. ____________________ is the reflective feedback of a transmitted signal as the signal moves through a medium.

ANSWER: Echo POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 75. A(n) ____________________ is essentially a filter that allows the signal to pass in one direction only.

ANSWER: echo suppressor POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 113 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 76. When a digital signal is being transmitted, the rises and falls of the signal can start to shift, or become blurry, and thus produce ____________________.

ANSWER: jitter POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 77. ____________________ is the continuous loss of a signal’s strength as it travels through a medium.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors ANSWER: Attenuation POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 78. The simplest error-detection technique is ____________________ parity.

ANSWER: simple POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 79. Simple parity comes in two basic forms: even parity and ____________________ parity.

ANSWER: odd POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 80. With ____________________ parity, the 0 or 1 added to the string produces an odd number of binary 1s.

ANSWER: odd POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 81. ____________________ parity tries to solve the main weakness of simple parity—that all even numbers of errors are not detected.

ANSWER: Longitudinal POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 82. The ____________________ method typically adds 8 to 32 check bits to potentially large data packets and yields an error detection capability approaching 100 percent.

ANSWER: cyclic redundancy checksum (CRC) cyclic redundancy checksum CRC cyclic checksum POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 83. The _________________________ is the usual CRC version used for Ethernet.

ANSWER: CRC-32 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 QUESTION TYPE: Completion

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors 84. Once an error in the received data transmission stream is detected, the action that the receiver takes is called ____________________.

ANSWER: error control POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 122 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 85. ____________________ is a process that keeps a transmitter from sending too much data to a receiver.

ANSWER: Flow control POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 122 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 86. Sliding window error control is based on the ____________________ protocol.

ANSWER: sliding window POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 123 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 87. In TCP/IP, if a receiver just received some data and wishes to send data back to the sender, then the receiver should include an ACK with the data it’s about to send. This is called ____________________.

ANSWER: piggybacking POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 126 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 88. A(n) ____________________ code is a specially designed code in which special check bits have been added to data bits such that, if an error occurs during transmission, the receiver may be able to correct the error using the included check and data bits.

ANSWER: Hamming POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 127 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 89. The ____________________ of a code is the smallest number of bits by which character codes differ.

ANSWER: Hamming distance POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 127 QUESTION TYPE: Completion 90. How many kinds of headers usually appear in a network packet, and what is their order with respect to the payload?

ANSWER: Usually, there are three header kinds in a network packet: the Data link layer header, the Network layer header, and the Transport layer header. The first ones are the Data link headers. They are followed by the Network layers headers. Finally, the Transport layer headers come just before the payload.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors QUESTION TYPE: Essay 91. List and briefly explain some error-prevention techniques.

ANSWER: You can prevent the occurrence of many types of transmission errors by applying proper errorprevention techniques, including those listed below: * Install wiring with the proper shielding to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk. * Use telephone line conditioning or equalization (provided by the telephone company), in which filters are used to help reduce signal irregularities. For an additional charge, the telephone company will provide various levels of conditioning to leased lines. This conditioning provides a quieter line, which minimizes data transmission errors. * Replace older equipment with more modern, digital equipment; although initially expensive, this technique is often the most cost-effective way to minimize transmission errors in the long run. * Use the proper number of digital repeaters and analog amplifiers to increase signal strength, thus decreasing the probability of errors. * Observe the stated capacities of a medium and, to reduce the possibility of errors, avoid pushing transmission speeds beyond their recommended limits.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 114 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 92. How does simple parity work?

ANSWER: If the 7-bit ASCII character set is used, a parity bit is added as the eighth bit. Suppose, for example, that the character “k”—which is 1101011 in binary—is transmitted and even parity is being applied.

In this case, a parity bit of 1 would be added to the end of the bitstream, as follows: 11010111. There is now an even number (six) of 1s. (If odd parity were used, a 0 would be added at the end, resulting in 11010110.)

Now, if a transmission error causes one of the bits to be flipped (the value is erroneously interpreted as a 0 instead of a 1, or vice versa), the error can be detected if the receiver understands that it needs to check for even parity. Returning to the example of the character “k” sent with even parity, if you send 11010111, but 01010111 is received, the receiver will count the 1s, see that there is an odd number, and know there is an error. What happens if 11010111 with even parity is sent and two bits are corrupted? For example, 00010111 is received. Will an error be detected? The answer is no; an error will not be detected because the number of 1s is still even.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 117 QUESTION TYPE: Essay 93. How does longitudinal parity work?

ANSWER: The first step of this parity scheme involves grouping individual characters together in a block. Each character (also called a row) in the block has its own parity bit. In addition, after a certain number of characters are sent, a row of parity bits, or a block character check, is also sent. Each parity bit in this last row is a parity check for all the bits in the column above it. If one bit is altered in Row 1, the parity bit at the end of Row 1 signals an error. In addition, the parity bit for the corresponding column also signals an error. If two bits in Row 1 are flipped, the Row 1 parity check will not signal an error, but two column parity checks will signal errors. This is how longitudinal parity is able to detect more errors than simple parity. Note, however, that if two bits are flipped in Row 1 and two bits are flipped in Row 2, and the errors occur in the same column, no errors will be detected.

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Chapter 04: Frames and Errors QUESTION TYPE: Essay 94. How does the cyclic redundancy checksum work?

ANSWER: The CRC error-detection method treats the packet of data to be transmitted (the message) as a large polynomial. The rightmost bit of the data becomes the x0 term, the next data bit to the left is the x1 term, and so on. When a bit in the message is 1, the corresponding polynomial term is included.

The transmitter takes this message polynomial and, using polynomial arithmetic, divides it by a given generating polynomial, and produces a quotient and a remainder. The quotient is discarded, but the remainder (in bit form) is appended to the end of the original message polynomial, and this combined unit is transmitted over the medium. When the data plus remainder arrive at the destination, the same generating polynomial is used to detect an error.

The receiver divides the incoming data (the original message polynomial plus the remainder) by the exact same generating polynomial that was used by the transmitter. If no errors were introduced during data transmission, the division should produce a remainder of zero. If an error was introduced during transmission, the arriving original message polynomial plus the remainder will not divide evenly by the generating polynomial and will produce a nonzero remainder, signaling an error condition.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 120 QUESTION TYPE: Essay

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 1. Perhaps the strongest advantage of a local area network is its capability of allowing users to share hardware and software resources. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 7:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 7:39 AM 2. The local area network first appeared in the 1950s. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 7:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 7:50 AM 3. While early LANs transmitted data at perhaps 10 million bits per second, the newest LANs can transmit data at 10 billion bits per second and higher. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 141 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:18 AM 4. A local area network cannot interface with other local area networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:19 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 5. A LAN can interface with other LANs and with WANs such as the Internet. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:20 AM 6. One of the biggest advantages of local area networks is their ability to share resources in an economical and efficient manner. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:20 AM 7. A local area network is only as strong as its strongest link. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 144 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:21 AM 8. The bus/tree topology was the first physical design used when local area networks became commercially available in the late 1970s. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 145 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:21 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:21 AM 9. The star-wired bus topology is still one of the more commonly found LAN topologies. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:22 AM 10. All bus networks share a major disadvantage: In general, it is difficult to add a new workstation if no tap currently exists. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 146 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:23 AM 11. Hubs (and switches) support only twisted pair cable for interhub connections. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:24 AM 12. With the CSMA/CD protocol, only one workstation at a time can transmit. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:24 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:25 AM 13. If the network is experiencing a high amount of traffic, the chances of collision are small. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:25 AM 14. The most popular example of a contention-based protocol among wired LANs is the token-passing protocol. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:26 AM 15. The hub, in most applications, has been replaced with the switch. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:26 AM 16. A hub is a simple device that requires virtually no overhead to operate. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:27 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:27 AM 17. Most switches are transparent, which means they learn by themselves. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 152 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:28 AM 18. Switches can significantly decrease interconnection traffic and increase the throughput of interconnected networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:28 AM 19. A hub is designed to perform much faster than a switch. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:29 AM 20. All ports included in the broadcast message are collectively called a broadcast domain. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 152 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:29 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:29 AM 21. The software of a switch is called the backplane. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 153 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:30 AM 22. A VLAN is a logical subgroup within a LAN created via switches and software. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 154 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:30 AM 23. The logical link control sublayer defines the layout or format of the data frame, simply called the frame. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 161 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:31 AM 24. According to the IEEE 802.1p standard, there are ten different levels of quality of service for LAN frames. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 158 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:31 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:32 AM 25. The term “Base,” such as in 100Base-T, is an abbreviation for baseband signals, which are digital signals. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:32 AM 26. Using Cat 5e or higher cables to transmit using a 2.5GBase-T can transmit data at 2.5 Gbps for a maximum segment distance of 100 meters. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 160 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:32 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:33 AM 27. The Fast Ethernet standards are based on 1000-Mbps transmission speeds, or 1 gigabit (1 billion bits) per second. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:33 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:33 AM 28. 1000Base-SX was the first Gigabit Ethernet standard. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:34 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:34 AM 29. 1000Base-T is capable of using only the Cat 7 or higher cable specification. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 160 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:35 AM 30. In the CSMA/CA protocol, the signal RTS stands for Return to Sender. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 164 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:35 AM 31. Link aggregation allows you to combine two or more data paths, or links, into one higher-speed link. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 155 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:35 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:36 AM 32. The spanning tree algorithm allows you to run cable spans between two or more networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 156 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:36 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:36 AM 33. Early local area networks transmitted data at only ____ million bits per second. a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 141 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:37 AM 34. A local area network performs file serving when it’s connected to a workstation with a large storage disk drive that acts as a central storage repository or ____ server. a. file b. printer c. database d. application ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:38 AM 35. The local area network software called a(n) ____ server provides workstations with the authorization to access a particular printer, accepts and queues prints jobs, prints cover sheets, and allows users access to the job queue for routine administrative functions. a. application b. database c. file d. print ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:40 AM 36. The ____ topology consists of a simple cable to which all devices attach.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks a. bus b. token ring c. ring star d. star ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 145 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:41 AM 37. In a bus topology, connecting to the cable requires a simple device called a(n) ____. a. hub b. router c. tap d. echo suppressor ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 146 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:42 AM 38. The LAN topology that logically acts like a bus but physically looks like a star is called ____ topology. a. bus b. star-wired bus c. bus wired tree d. star ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:43 AM 39. The LAN topology that has the devices connected by a single hub is called ____ topology. a. bus b. star-wired bus c. bus wired tree d. star ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:44 AM 40. The most popular configuration for a local area network is the ____ topology. a. bus b. star-wired bus c. bus wired tree d. star ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:44 AM 41. The ____ topology of a network determines how the data moves around the network from workstation to workstation. a. electrical b. data c. physical d. logical ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:45 AM 42. Because of collisions, busy CSMA/CD networks rarely exceeded ____ percent throughput. a. 10 b. 40 c. 50 d. 80 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:46 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:46 AM 43. After watching traffic for a while, a switch has a table of device addresses that shows which ____ address is connected to each of the switch’s ports. a. IP b. TCP c. MAC d. LLC ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 152 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:47 AM 44. As ____ on a CSMA/CD network increased, the rate of collisions increased, which further degraded the service of the network. a. errors b. noise amplitude c. traffic d. transmission speed ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:48 AM 45. The most popular contention-based protocol for wired LANs is ____. a. token ring b. round-robin c. carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) d. carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 8:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 8:51 AM 46. In the CSMA/CA protocol, the time interval during which a device waits to check if the medium is idle is called ____.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks a. CTS b. IFS c. RTS d. TIW ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 164 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:24 AM 47. The ____ sublayer contains a header, computer (physical) addresses, error-detection codes, and control information. a. logical link control (LLC) b. logical flow control (LFC) c. medium access control (MAC) d. physical link control (PLC) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 161 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:26 AM 48. The ____ sublayer is primarily responsible for logical addressing and providing error control and flow control information. a. medium access control (MAC) b. physical access control (PAC) c. medium physical control (MPC) d. logical link control (LLC) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 161 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:27 AM 49. ____ was the first commercially available local area network system and remains, without a doubt, the most popular local area network system today. a. Ethernet b. IBM Token Ring c. FDDI Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks d. Wireless Ethernet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 158 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:28 AM 50. The ____ standard is an early and extremely popular 802.3 standard. a. 1GBase-T b. 10Base-T c. 1GBase-R d. 100Base-TX ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:29 AM 51. ____ was a system designed for twisted-pair wiring, but with only a 100 Mbps data transfer rate for 100 meters. a. 10Base-T b. 100Base-T c. 100Base-TX d. 100Base-FX ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 160 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:18 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:19 PM 52. A ____ system transmits 10-Mbps baseband (digital) signals over twisted pair for a maximum of 100 meters per segment length. a. 10Base-F b. 100Base-FX c. 10Base-T d. 100Base-TX ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:19 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:20 PM 53. IEEE created the 100-Mbps Ethernet 802.3u protocol, also called ____ Ethernet. a. Fast b. Gigabit c. Terabit d. FDDI ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:20 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:20 PM 54. ____ was the standard created for fiber-optic systems. a. 10Base-T b. 100Base-TX c. 10Base-F d. 100Base-FX ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:21 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:21 PM 55. The IEEE 802.3z standards are also known as ____ Ethernet. a. Switch b. Fast c. Gigabit d. Terabit ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:22 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:22 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 56. With ____, you can send electrical power over the Ethernet connection. a. 1Base5 b. power over Ethernet (PoE) c. 10GBase-fiber d. FDDI ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 160 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:23 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:24 PM 57. The ____ is used to connect local area networks to wide area networks. a. hub b. repeater c. router d. bridge ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 143 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:24 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:24 PM 58. A ____ is a device that interconnects two or more workstations in a star-wired bus local area network and immediately retransmits the data it receives from any workstation out to all other workstations connected. a. hub b. switch c. router d. repeater ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:25 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:25 PM 59. A ____ is a device that interconnects two or more workstations in a star local area network a. hub b. switch c. router Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks d. satellite ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:26 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:26 PM 60. A modern-day topology that uses a more advanced central connection device called a switch has both the physical and logical topologies ____ shaped. a. bus b. ring c. star d. tree ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 150 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:27 PM 61. The switch operates in place of a ____. a. repeater b. bridge c. router d. hub ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 149 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:27 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:28 PM 62. A ____has one primary function: direct the data frame to only the addressed receiver. a. hub b. port c. switch d. filter ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:28 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:29 PM 63. If the NICs are ____, it is possible to insert and remove cards while the power to the unit is still on. a. IEEE 802.3u compliant b. IEEE 802.3f compliant c. plug-and-play d. hot-swappable ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 153 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:29 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:30 PM 64. The ____ standard was designed to allow multiple devices to work together to create a virtual LAN. a. IEEE 802.1Q b. IEEE 802.3u c. IEEE 802.2v d. IEEE 802.3f ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 155 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:30 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:31 PM 65. In ____ segment networks, a switch may be directly connected to a workstation, and the switch connects to the hub. a. shared b. dedicated c. distributed d. remote ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 189 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:31 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:32 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 66. RSTP stands for ____ spanning tree protocol. a. rapid b. recurrent c. repeated d. reconfigurable ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 157 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:32 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:33 PM 67. The ____ standard defines the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). a. 802.3u b. 802.1s c. 802.1Q d. 802.1D ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 157 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:33 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:34 PM 68. The LLC and MAC sublayers are divisions of the ____ OSI model layer. a. transport b. Data link c. network d. physical ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 161 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:34 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:35 PM 69. ________________ allows you to combine two or more data paths, or links, into one higher-speed link. a. The Spanning Tree Algorithm b. Link aggregation c. A virtual LAN d. Quality of service Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 155 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:35 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:36 PM 70. A(n) _________________________ is a communications network that interconnects a variety of data communications devices within a small geographic area and broadcasts data at high data transfer rates.

ANSWER: local area network (LAN) local area network LAN LAN (local area network) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 141 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:11 PM 71. A(n) ____________________ is the physical (hardware) layout used to interconnect the workstations within a local area network.

ANSWER: topology POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 145 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:38 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:39 PM 72. The ____________________ is an electronic device that performs the necessary signal conversions and protocol operations that allow the workstation to send and receive data on the network.

ANSWER: network interface card (NIC) network interface card NIC NIC (network interface card) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 146 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:39 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:11 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 73. The ______________________________ is a device that simply and immediately retransmits all data it received from any workstation out to all other devices connected to it.

ANSWER: hub POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:40 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:41 PM 74. ____________________ connection allows for data to be simultaneously transmitted and received between a workstation and the switch.

ANSWER: Full-duplex POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:41 PM 75. The ____________________ design is a synonym of hardware topology.

ANSWER: physical POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:41 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:42 PM 76. The ____________________ is a contention-based protocol that uses collision detection to sense when access could be granted to one of multiple devices.

ANSWER: CSMA/CD CSMA/CD (carrier sense multiple access with collision detection) Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:42 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:43 PM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 77. A(n) ____________________ protocol is basically a first-come, first-served protocol.

ANSWER: contention-based POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:43 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:44 PM 78. A(n) ____________________ occurs when two or more workstations listen to the medium at the same moment, hear nothing, and then transmit their data at the same moment.

ANSWER: collision POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:44 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:44 PM 79. A modern switch segments the network into many isolated ____________________, thereby eliminating the problem of collisions.

ANSWER: collision domains POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:45 PM 80. In IEEE 802.3 standard for CSMA/CD, frames shorter than 64 bytes are considered ____________________, or frame fragments.

ANSWER: runts POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 161 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:45 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:46 PM 81. In total, an Ethernet II frame (not counting the Preamble and SFD) is at least ____________________ bytes and no more than 1518 bytes long.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks ANSWER:

64 sixty-four POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 162 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:46 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:46 PM 82. A wireless LAN is essentially a ____________________ topology because the wireless workstations typically radiate around and transmit data to the access point.

ANSWER: star POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 163 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:47 PM 83. ____________________ was designed to support 100-Mbps baseband signals using two pairs of Category 5 unshielded twisted pair wires.

ANSWER: 100Base-TX POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 160 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:47 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:48 PM 84. ____________________ was designed to support 100-Mbps baseband signals using fiber optic.

ANSWER: 100Base-FX POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 160 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:48 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:48 PM 85. The ____________________ Ethernet standard is also known as IEEE 802.3ae.

ANSWER: 10 Gbps 10-Gbps Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks 10G 10-Gig POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 159 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:49 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:49 PM 86. The ____________________ is a device that connects workstations to local area networks and just retransmits the incoming frame.

ANSWER: hub POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:52 PM 87. The ____________________ allows workstations to connect to LANs and interconnects multiple segments of LANs. ANSWER: switch POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:52 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:53 PM 88. A(n) ____________________ is a device that interconnects two local area networks and can use processing power to direct a frame out a particular port, thus reducing the amount of traffic on the network.

ANSWER: switch POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:53 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:54 PM 89. A(n) ____________________ protocol is the set of rules that allows a device to place data onto a network that requires their workstations to compete for access to the same bandwidth.

ANSWER: medium access control Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:54 PM 90. Among the medium access control protocols, the token passing is an example of ____________________ protocols category.

ANSWER: round-robin POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 148 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:54 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:55 PM 91. The main hardware of the switch is called the ____________________.

ANSWER: backplane POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 153 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:55 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:56 PM 92. If the circuit cards are ____________________, it is possible to insert and remove cards while the power to the unit is still on.

ANSWER: hot-swappable POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 153 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:56 PM 93. Unlike CSMA/CD, ____________________ is a contention-based medium access control protocol that is still used on today’s LANs. ANSWER: CSMA/CA CSMA/CA (carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance) Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 164 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:56 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:57 PM 94. A(n) ____________________ is a logical subgroup within a local area network that is created via switches and software rather than by manually moving wiring from one network device to another.

ANSWER: virtual LAN VLAN POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 154 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:57 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:58 PM 95. The ____________________ allows for a CSMA/CD network to simultaneously transmit and receive data to and from a workstation.

ANSWER: full-duplex switch POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:58 PM 96. The ____________________ makes it possible to logically remove cyclic paths within a collection of multiple LANs. ANSWER: spanning-tree algorithm spanning-tree protocol spanning tree algorithm spanning tree protocol POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 156 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 9:58 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 9:59 PM 97. A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that interconnects a variety of data communications devices within a small geographic area and broadcasts data at high data transfer rates. Expand on this definition by explaining the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks various terminology used.

ANSWER:

Several points in this definition merit a closer look. The phrase “data communications devices” covers computers such as personal computers, computer workstations, and mainframe computers, as well as peripheral devices such as disk drives, printers, and modems. Data communications devices could also include items such as motion, smoke, and heat sensors; fire alarms; ventilation systems; and motor speed controls. These latter devices are often found in businesses and manufacturing environments where assembly lines and robots are commonly used.

The next piece of the definition, “within a small geographic area,” usually implies that a local area network can be as small as one room or can extend over multiple rooms, over multiple floors within a building, and even over multiple buildings within a single campus-area. The most common geographic areas, however, are a room or multiple rooms within a single building. Local area networks differ from many other types of networks in that most broadcast their data to many or all of the workstations connected to the network. Thus, if one workstation has data to send to a second workstation, that data is transmitted to other workstations on the network. When data that was not requested arrives at a workstation, it is simply discarded. As you will see a little later, it is now quite common to design a local area network so that all data is not transmitted to all workstations—an enhancement that reduces the amount of traffic on the network.

Lastly, the final phrase of the definition states that local area networks are capable of transmitting data at “high data transfer rates.” While early local area networks transmitted data at only 10 million bits per second, the newest local area networks can transmit data at 10 billion bits per second.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 141 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:01 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:02 PM 98. What are some of the application areas where a LAN can be an effective tool?

ANSWER: A local area network can be an effective tool in many application areas. One of the most common application areas is an office environment. A local area network in an office can provide word processing, spreadsheet operations, database functions, electronic mail (e-mail) access, Internet access, electronic appointment scheduling, and graphic image creation capabilities over a wide variety of platforms and to a large number of workstations.

Completed documents can be routed to high-quality printers to produce letterheads, graphically designed newsletters, and formal documents.

A second common application area for a local area network is an academic environment. In a laboratory setting, for example, a local area network can provide students with access to the tools necessary to complete homework assignments, send e-mail, and utilize the Internet. In a classroom setting, a local area network can enable professors to deliver tutorials and lessons with high-quality graphics and sound to students. Multiple workstations can be used to provide students with instruction at their own pace, while the instructor monitors and records each student’s progress at every workstation.

A third common application area for a local area network is manufacturing. In fact, modern assembly lines operate exclusively under the control of local area networks. As products move down the assembly line, sensors control position; robots perform mundane, exacting, or dangerous operations; and product subassemblies are inventoried and ordered. The modern automobile assembly line is a technological tour de force, incorporating numerous local area Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks networks and mainframe computers.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 142 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:02 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:02 PM 99. How does a star-wired bus topology work?

ANSWER: In a star-wired bus topology, all workstations connect to a central device such as the hub.

The hub is a nonintelligent device that simply and immediately retransmits the data it receives from any workstation out to all other workstations (or devices) connected to the hub.

All workstations hear the transmitted data because there is only a single transmission channel, and all workstations are using this one channel to send and receive. Sending data to all workstations and devices generates a lot of traffic but keeps the operation very simple because there is no routing to any particular workstation. Thus, with regard to its logical design, the star-wired bus is acting as a bus: when a workstation transmits, all workstations (or devices) immediately receive the data. The network’s physical design, however, is a star because all the devices are connected to the hub and radiate outward in a starlike (as opposed to linear) pattern.

The hub at the center of star-wired bus topology comes in a variety of designs. They can contain anywhere from two to hundreds of connections, or ports, as they are called. If, for example, you have a hub with 24 ports, and more are desired, it is fairly simple to either interconnect two or more hubs or purchase a larger hub.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 147 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:03 PM 100. Explain the switch filtering function.

ANSWER: As a frame of data moves across the first local area network and enters the switch, the switch examines the source and destination addresses that are stored within the frame. These frame addresses are assigned to the network interface card (NIC) when the NIC is manufactured.

(All companies that produce NICs have agreed to use a formula that ensures that every NIC in the world has a unique NIC address.) The switch, using some form of internal logic, determines if a data frame’s destination address belongs to a workstation on the current segment. If it does, the switch does nothing more with the frame because it is already on the appropriate segment. If the destination address is not an address on the current segment, the switch passes the frame on to the next segment, assuming that the frame is intended for a station on that segment. Additionally, the switch can check for transmission errors in the data by performing a cyclic checksum computation on the frame.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 151 QUESTION TYPE: Essay Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Wired and Wireless Local Area Networks HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:03 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:04 PM 101. What are the reasons to use a VLAN? ANSWER: VLANs are used to create a “network within a network” in order to enhance resource accessibility for a given workgroup, regardless of where each workstation is physically located. However, a VLAN can also be used to identify groups of devices whose data should be given priority handling; to isolate connections with heavy or unpredictable traffic patterns, such as when separating high-volume VoIP (Voice over IP) traffic from other network activities; to separate groups of users who need special or limited security or network functions, such as when setting up a guest network; to configure temporary networks, such as when making specific network resources available to a short- term projects; and to reduce the cost of networking equipment, such as when upgrading a network design to include additional devices or new types of network traffic.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 154 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/23/2022 10:04 PM DATE MODIFIED: 3/23/2022 10:05 PM

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software 1. Network operating systems are essential if the network is going to allow multiple users to share resources. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:34 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:35 AM 2. In Cisco’s IOS, the user defines command modes using a GUI. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 187 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:37 AM 3. Even when Linux is purchased from a vendor, the cost of it is insignificant compared to the cost of purchasing Windows Server. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:37 AM 4. The resources that a network operating system must manage typically include one or more network servers. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:38 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software 5. A network operating system does not perform network support functions. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:39 AM 6. AD is one of the components of Microsoft Windows Server. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:39 AM 7. When running Linux on a VM hosted by a machine running Windows 10, you have a Type 2 hypervisor. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 190 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:40 AM 8. Increased licensing cost is a possible disadvantage of virtualization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 191 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:41 AM 9. The design of a tree should ideally be similar to a pyramid.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:42 AM 10. A firewall can never be the object of an NFV. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 192 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:42 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:43 AM 11. Windows Server is a network operating system designed to run over a network of microcomputer workstations and provide file sharing and peripheral sharing. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:43 AM 12. It is not possible to create a Windows Server network with multiple domains. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:43 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:44 AM 13. SD-WAN technology is one of the possible instances of SDS. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 193 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:44 AM 14. SD-branch technology is one of the possible instances of SDN. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:44 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:45 AM 15. Shortly after its introduction, the Unix software was rewritten in the popular C++ programming language. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:45 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:45 AM 16. AWS and GCP are examples of CSP. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 194 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:46 AM 17. Linux shares many of the same advantages and disadvantages as Unix.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:47 AM 18. Linux software cannot support e-mail servers, Web servers, FTP servers, file/print servers, firewalls, proxy servers, and Domain Name System (DNS) servers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:47 AM 19. One pricing strategy offered by AWS is BYOL. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 197 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:47 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:48 AM 20. A network operating system needs a host machine from which to operate. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:48 AM 21. The possible cloud-native storage options are only block storage and file storage.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 198 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:49 AM 22. Latency is one of the measurable factors for cloud storage optimization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 199 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:49 AM 23. A hot storage scheme has a lower cost per stored byte and a higher cost per data access. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 201 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:49 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:50 AM 24. A cold storage scheme has a lower cost per stored byte and a higher cost per data access. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 201 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:50 AM 25. Recently, business and home computer users have been victims of another type of intrusion from unscrupulous outsiders—spyware.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:51 AM 26. The application development process that breaks an application into smaller components is called deduplication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 202 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:51 AM 27. A CDN is a distributed storage structure that allows customers to store files in locations closer to where their users are located. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 200 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:52 AM 28. When a software package is installed on a multiuser system, it is not possible for multiple users to execute multiple copies of the single program. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:52 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software 29. Every software company may create its own brand of user licenses and may name them something unique. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:53 AM 30. A subscription license relies on a monthly or annual payment schedule to continue using the application. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:53 AM 31. “Global configuration” is the default mode for CLI commands in a Cisco IOS. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 188 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:54 AM 32. “User EXEC” is the default mode for CLI commands in a Cisco IOS. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 188 QUESTION TYPE: True / False HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:54 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:55 AM 33. The ____ manages all the other programs (applications) and resources (such as disk drives, memory, and peripheral Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software devices) in a computer. a. print server b. operating system c. file server d. user system ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:55 AM 34. ____is the RAID technique also called “striping.” a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 3 d. RAID 5 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:56 AM 35. In an on-prem network environment, ____ stands for the storage device attached directly to a computer. a. DAS b. NAS c. SAN d. DAN ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 178 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:57 AM 36. In an on-prem network environment, ____ stands for the storage devices of the network are placed in a single location available to all network users. a. DAS b. NAS c. SAN Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software d. DAN ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 178 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:58 AM 37. The ____ license is associated with software that is free to share and change. a. server b. site c. corporate d. GPL ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 1:59 AM 38. A(n) ____ operating system should be capable of supporting the applications and tools necessary to support Internet operations. a. print b. network c. file d. memory ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 1:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:00 AM 39. ____ is the prompt for the Privileged EXEC mode of Cisco’s IOS. a. Router> b. Router(config)# c. Router# d. Router(config-if)# ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 188 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:01 AM 40. ____ is the prompt for the Global configuration mode of Cisco’s IOS. a. Router> b. Router(config)# c. Router# d. Router(config-if)# ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 188 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:01 AM 41. ____ is the prompt for the Interface configuration mode of Cisco’s IOS. a. Router> b. Router(config)# c. Router# d. Router(config-if)# ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 188 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:02 AM 42. The ____ OS most often works via a text-based interface, although GUIs are available. a. Linux b. Unix c. Microsoft Windows Server d. macOS ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:03 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software 43. ____ runs directly on the host system’s hardware and does not require an underlying OS. a. Type 1 hypervisor b. Type 2 hypervisor c. Type 3 hypervisor d. Type 4 hypervisor ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 190 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:04 AM 44. ____ is an advantage of virtualization (choose two). a. Cost and energy savings b. Licensing costs c. Single point of failure d. Fault and threat isolation ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 191 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:05 AM 45. ____ is a disadvantage of virtualization (choose two). a. Cost and energy savings b. Licensing costs c. Single point of failure d. Fault and threat isolation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 191 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:06 AM 46. ____ is the technology that can be used to virtualize firewall and load balancers. a. NOS b. VM c. NFS d. NDS Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 192 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:07 AM 47. A(n) ____ is a security device or system that supports an access control policy between two networks. a. anti-malware b. firewall c. anti-spyware d. load balancer ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 192 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:07 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:08 AM 48. ____ is a more cloud-native storage infrastructure than file systems and block storage. a. Elastic storage b. Auto-scaling c. Microsoft AD d. Object storage ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 198 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:09 AM 49. ____ instance is a VM hosted on one of AWS’s servers. a. EBS b. E3 c. S3 d. EC2 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 196 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:09 AM 50. ____ is not a popular CSP. a. AWS b. W3C c. GCP d. Azure ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 194 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:10 AM 51. It is called ____ the kind of storage where there is a high cost per stored byte and low cost per data access. a. cold storage b. coarse storage c. hot storage d. fine-grain storage ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 201 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:11 AM 52. In the directory service AD, the ____ can be objects, like users, groups of users, computers, applications, and network devices. a. forest b. tree c. domain d. leaves ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:12 AM 53. Active Directory is part of the ____ OS. a. Unix Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software b. Windows Server c. Linux d. FreeBSD ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:36 AM 54. A(n) ____ is a large, complex program that can manage resources commonly found on most LANs. a. API b. GUI c. NOS d. RAID ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 175 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:36 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:37 AM 55. When an application is running, the application relies on the OS when it makes service requests through a defined ____. a. API b. GUI c. NOS d. RAID ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:37 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:38 AM 56. One of the greatest advantages of ____ is the efficient use of resources, as many servers can run on a single physical machine. a. OSs b. NOSs c. Virtualization d. RAIDs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 191 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:38 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:39 AM 57. ____ technique is also known as disk mirroring. a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 3 d. RAID 5 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:39 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:40 AM 58. Many network admins, even those most committed to the advantages of virtualization, are uncomfortable using a virtual ____. a. load balancer b. machine c. firewall d. storage ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 192 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:40 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:41 AM 59. Antivirus is one kind of network utility software belonging to the group of ____ software. a. Anti-malware b. Network monitoring c. Anti-spam d. Anti-spyware ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:41 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:42 AM 60. ____ software is used to block unwanted e-mail and is available at many levels. a. Anti-malware b. Network monitoring c. Remote access d. Anti-spam ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:46 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:48 AM 61. ____ software can locate and clean the spyware programs found in a computer’s memory and hard disk drive. a. Anti-spam b. Anti-spyware c. Crash protection d. Anti-malware ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:49 AM 62. ____ are then typically stored in a hierarchical file system. a. Logs b. Applications c. Websites d. Office and media files ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 178 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:50 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:50 AM 63. ____ software incorporates a fairly large number of network support tools.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. Network monitoring b. Crash protection c. Anti-spam d. Backup ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:51 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:52 AM 64. ____ software allows a user to access all of the possible functions of a personal computer workstation from a mobile or remote location. a. Network monitoring b. Sniffer c. Remote access d. Anti-spyware ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:52 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:53 AM 65. A reliable backup strategy called ____ includes at least three complete copies of data stored on at least two different types of media with at least one copy stored offsite and, for greater protection, at least one copy kept offline from the remainder of the network. a. 3-2-1-1 Rule b. Happy Paranoid Rule c. 4-steps Rule d. 4-fold Protection Rule ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 177 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:53 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:54 AM 66. ____ software is the application or set of programs that stores Web pages and allows browsers from anywhere in the world to access those Web pages. a. Remote access b. Network monitoring Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software c. Web server d. Antivirus ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:55 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:56 AM 67. Under the terms of the ____ license, the software package may be installed on a single machine, and then only a single user at one time may be using that machine. a. interactive user b. single-user-single-station c. site d. network server ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:56 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:57 AM 68. A(n) ____ license is designed for the user who might have a desktop machine at work and a laptop machine for remote sites or another desktop machine at home. a. single-user-single-station b. interactive user c. site d. single-user-multiple-station ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:57 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:58 AM 69. With a system-based or ____ license, there is rarely a software counter controlling the current number of users. a. server b. interactive user c. site d. corporate ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:58 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 2:59 AM 70. A(n) ____ license allows a software package to be installed on all workstations and servers at a given site. a. network server b. site c. corporate d. single-user-multiple-station ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 2:59 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:00 AM 71. A(n) ____ license allows a software package to be installed anywhere within a corporation, even if installation involves multiple sites. a. site b. network server c. corporate d. single-user-single-station ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:00 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:01 AM 72. It is possible to use a(n) ____ to run an Android VM in a computer that functions just like a real Android device. a. firewall b. webserver c. cloud service d. hypervisor ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 190 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:01 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:01 AM 73. ____ is similar in concept to software-defined networking since it abstracts the control of storage management away from the physical or virtual disks storing the data. a. SDN b. SDS c. SD-branch d. SD-WAN ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 193 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:02 AM 74. In a distant third place in the rank of the CSPs, ____ claims high popularity for PaaS resources, especially for application and website developers, and has been growing faster in recent years than AWS or Azure. a. IBM Cloud b. VMware c. Alibaba Cloud d. Google Cloud Platform ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 195 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:02 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:03 AM 75. Ubuntu is a popular ____ available to end-users. a. Linux distribution b. cloud service provider c. virtual machine d. virtual network device ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:03 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:04 AM 76. When you create an ____ instance, you will have a VM hosted in one of AWS servers.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software a. S3 b. EBS c. EC2 d. RDS ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 196 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:04 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:05 AM 77. Very popular in the network’s area, IOS is an Operating System running on ____ devices. a. Apple b. Cisco c. Microsoft d. NETGEAR ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 187 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:05 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:06 AM 78. When a software package is sold, it is usually intended for a particular type of installation, referred to as the ____. a. software compatibility b. copyright c. user license d. hardware imprint ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:06 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:07 AM 79. A(n) _________________________ is the program initially loaded into computer memory when the computer is turned on.

ANSWER: operating system operating system (OS) OS OS (operating system) POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software REFERENCES: page 175 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:08 AM 80. Even after an application starts and is being executed, the application makes use of the operating system by making service requests through a defined ___________________________________.

ANSWER: application program interface (API) application program interface API API (application program interface) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:08 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:09 AM 81. Because users are likely to run multiple applications at the same time, the OS must be capable of allocating the limited amount of ____________________ in a way that provides each application with a sufficient amount of these resources to operate.

ANSWER: main memory and processing time POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:09 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:10 AM 82. A(n) ______________________________ is a large, complex program that can manage the common resources on most local area networks.

ANSWER: network operating system (NOS) network operating system NOS NOS (network operating system) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:10 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software 83. According to ____________________ data is broken into pieces (stripes) and stored across three or more drives.

Parity information (error-checking code) is interleaved with the striped data, not separated onto a separate drive. This configuration maximizes performance while minimizing cost and still provides reliable data recovery if a drive is lost.

ANSWER: RAID 5 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 177 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:10 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:11 AM 84. ____________________ can listen to traffic on a network and determine if invalid messages are being transmitted, report network problems such as malfunctioning NICs, and detect traffic congestion problems.

ANSWER: Sniffers POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:11 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:11 AM 85. The basic idea underlying Microsoft’s AD is that the network administrator must create a ____________________ that represents the layout of the organization.

ANSWER: hierarchical tree POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:12 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:12 AM 86. A(n) _________________________ is an object that is further composed of additional objects (examples of which include servers, printers, users, or groups of users).

ANSWER: organizational unit (OU) organizational unit OU OU (organizational unit) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED:

3/24/2022 3:12 AM 3/24/2022 3:13 AM

87. ____________________ objects are not composed of any objects and are usually entities such as the users, peripherals, servers, printers, queues, and other network resources.

ANSWER: Leaf POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:13 AM 88. Network devices tend to be proprietary to the specific manufacturer, and typically they only offer a(n) ____________________.

ANSWER: CLI command-line interface CLI (command-line interface) command-line interface (CLI) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 187 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:13 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:14 AM 89. Microsoft’s ____________________ stores information about all the objects and resources in a network and makes this information available to users, network administrators, and application programs.

ANSWER: Active Directory POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 184 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:14 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:15 AM 90. A ____________________ runs on top of an existing OS. In other words, the host must have an OS installed first, and then a hypervisor application can run inside that OS. ANSWER: Type 2 hypervisor POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 190 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:15 AM 91. A(n) ____________________ is the computer that stores software resources such as the network operating system, computer applications, programs, data sets, and databases, and either allows or denies workstations connected to the network access to these resources.

ANSWER: network server POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:15 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:16 AM 92. _____________________________________________ is a collection of techniques for interfacing multiple hard disk drives to a computer.

ANSWER: Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) Redundant array of independent disks RAID RAID (Redundant array of independent disks) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:16 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:16 AM 93. Considering that the many kinds of servers' workloads rely on data, a(n) ____________________ application draws on data stored in a database.

ANSWER: CRM customer relationship management CRM (customer relationship management) customer relationship management (CRM) POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 178 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:17 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:18 AM 94. Besides RAID configurations and several storage types, the two other kinds of LAN software that work with and support the NOS are ____________________ and Internet software.

ANSWER: utilities Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 179 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:18 AM 95. ____________________ are software programs that operate in the background and support one or more functions to keep the network running at optimal performance.

ANSWER: Utilities POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 179 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:18 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:19 AM 96. ____________________, or unsolicited commercial bulk e-mail, has become a major nuisance to corporate users as well as individuals.

ANSWER: Spam POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:19 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:20 AM 97. ____________________ is software that a user unknowingly downloads from the Internet; and when this software is executed on the user’s machine, it begins spying on the user.

ANSWER: Spyware POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:20 AM 98. ____________________ utility is designed to detect and remove viruses and other ill-intended software that have infected a computer’s memory, disks, or OS. ANSWER: Anti-malware POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software REFERENCES: page 179 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:20 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:21 AM 99. ____________________ can “listen” to traffic on a network and determine if invalid messages are being transmitted, report network problems such as malfunctioning NICs, and detect traffic congestion problems.

ANSWER: Sniffers POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:21 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:22 AM 100. ____________________ is also called a system-based license or cluster-wide license.

ANSWER: Server license POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:22 AM 101. Interestingly, many current desktop OSs now incorporate many of the features found in ____________________, thereby enabling individual users to create their own versions for their homes and small businesses.

ANSWER: server OSs server Operating Systems POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:22 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:23 AM 102. The ____________________ that accompanies a software product is a legal contract and describes a number of conditions that must be upheld for proper use of the software package.

ANSWER: licensing agreement POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 180 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:23 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:23 AM 103. A(n) ____________________ license, operating system user license, and controlled number of concurrent users license all refer to essentially the same situation.

ANSWER: interactive user POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 181 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:24 AM 104. ____________________ are a special kind of file that collects information on events associated with a system or application.

ANSWER: Logs POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 178 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:24 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:25 AM 105. In the context of Microsoft's AD, _________________________ is one or more organizational units grouped together.

ANSWER: domain POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:25 AM 106. The interaction between physical and virtual devices introduces a small degree of _______________ (delay due to the passing or processing of data) as data passes through the hypervisor and its connections.

ANSWER: latency POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 192 QUESTION TYPE: Completion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:25 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:26 AM 107. An entire VM can be stored in a file called a(n) _______________, which can be backed up, copied, or recovered.

ANSWER: image POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 191 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:26 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:27 AM 108. The AWS service that provides a relational database is denominated by the abbreviation ______.

ANSWER: RDS POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 196 QUESTION TYPE: Completion HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:27 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:27 AM 109. What are the functions performed by a network operating system?

ANSWER: A network operating system functions can be summarized as follows: * Manage one or more network servers - Maintain a file system of data sets, applications, user profiles, network peripherals - Coordinate all resources and services available - Process requests from users - Prompt users for network login, validate accounts, apply restrictions, perform accounting functions * Manage one or more network printers * Manage the interconnection between local area networks * Manage locally connected users * Manage remotely connected users * Support system security * Support client/server functions * Support Web page development and Web server operations POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 183 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:28 AM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software 110. Which different kinds of data are more appropriate to the usual storage types in network environments?

ANSWER: According to the kind of data, it is possible to identify the better storage type.

For office and media files, it is better to use a hierarchical file system. Office files include file types such as documents, spreadsheets, and presentations, while media files include file types such as photos or videos. By storing those files grouped within folders (also called directories) and subfolders (or subdirectories), the data format is preserved; as such, the use of a DAS would be a good option.

Applications are often made up of many parts stored in various places on a network. These parts interact as needed to generate the requested output. These applications rely on data supplied from other sources, such as a database, an OS, or another application. Therefore, a network storage (NAS) seems to be the better storage type for applications.

Websites usually consist of many files stored on a web server. Each web page lives in a different file and often collects data from many files. A web page might also pull data from other sources, such as APIs from another website, a database, or an application. Therefore, the storage of the data in media attached to the server (DAS) seems to be a better option.

A log file is a special kind of file that collects information on events associated with a system or application. Keeping logs generates a tremendous amount of data in a short period of time and can take up a lot of storage space. But logs are important for troubleshooting problems or investigating security issues. Therefore, log storage is better addressed with storage into a specific storage area (SAN), likely with block storage.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 178 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:28 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:29 AM 111. What are the four steps for creating a good and appropriate tree design?

ANSWER: Creating a good and appropriate tree design is not a trivial task; however, the following four basic steps will give the network administrator a good start. First, gather the appropriate corporate documents so that you know about the available hardware and software and the employee departments and divisions. As part of this first step, you should obtain an organizational chart.

Second, design the top section of the tree before you design any lower sections. To design the top section of the tree, you give the top level of the tree the name of the organization object (in most cases, the name of the company) and then create the first layer of organizational units or container objects. For example, a division in a company that is composed of multiple departments would be considered an organizational unit. A department is also an organizational unit because it too is further composed of objects, such as employees. If your network is very small, there may not be a need for any organizational units.

Third, you design the bottom section of the tree, which includes the remaining hierarchy of organizational units and leaf objects. Leaf objects are not composed of any objects and are usually entities such as the users, peripherals, servers, printers, queues, and other network resources.

The fourth and final step in creating a tree is to design the security access rights—determine who has rights to the appropriate objects. For example, if you create a new user and place that user in a particular location on the tree, what rights will that user have? What printers and directories will that user be able to access?

POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software REFERENCES: page 185 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:29 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:30 AM 112. What are the advantages and disadvantages of virtualization?

ANSWER: The advantages of virtualization can be summarized in the following: * Efficient use of resources, as many servers can run on a single physical machine. * Cost and energy savings, as fewer physical machines require less electricity to power and cool. * Fault and threat isolation, as services running on one VM are isolated from those on other VMs, even when those VMs are hosted on the same physical device. * Simple backups, recovery, and replication, as an entire VM can be stored in a file called an image, which can be backed up, copied, or recovered.

The disadvantages of virtualization can be summarized in the following: * Compromised performance, as if one VM on a host system is demanding a high level of hardware resources, other VMs on the same host can experience reduced performance and capacity. * Increased licensing costs, as every instance of commercial software requires its own license, whether the software is running on a physical server or a virtual server. * Single point of failure, as the use of VMs does not abide by the suggestion to keep critical services spread across multiple physical machines, so the failure of a single physical host does not compromise these services.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 191 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:30 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:30 AM 113. What are some of the more common RAID techniques?

ANSWER: Some of the more common RAID techniques include: * RAID-0, in which the data is broken into pieces, and each piece is stored on different disk drives. This technique is known as striping. There is no redundancy of data in this technique, so if one disk drive fails, some of the data is lost. The advantage of this technique, however, is the speed at which data can be read or written across multiple disks at the same time. * RAID-1, in which the data is stored on at least two disk drives, in duplicate, to provide a level of redundancy (or fault tolerance), should one disk become corrupted. This technique is also known as disk mirroring. * RAID-3, in which the data is redundantly stored across multiple disk drives (striping), and error-checking information concerning the stored data is kept on a separate disk. This errorchecking information can be used to detect errors and possibly reconstruct the data should some of it become corrupted. * RAID-5, in which data is broken into pieces (stripes) and stored across three or more disks.

Parity information (error-checking code) is stored along with the striped data, not on a separate disk. RAID-5 is the most popular of the RAID techniques.

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Chapter 06: Network Systems and Software POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 176 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Basic DATE CREATED: 3/24/2022 3:31 AM DATE MODIFIED: 3/24/2022 3:31 AM

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet 1. Current estimates suggest that there are more than 1.5 million active and inactive websites connected to the Internet. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 216 2. IP is a connection-oriented protocol. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 223 3. Currently, almost all networks involved in the Internet use IP version 6. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 273 4. The IP datagram fields Identification, Flags, and Fragment Offset are used to fragment a datagram into smaller parts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 218 5. The Time to Live field indicates how long a particular datagram is allowed to live. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 219 6. A 16-bit address uniquely defines a connection to the Internet. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 218 7. When the user wants to send an e-mail message, the e-mail program takes the e-mail message and passes it to the transport layer of the software. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 223 8. The Sliding-window size field of the TCP header cannot be set to zero. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 9. Unlike its counterpart IP, TCP uses port addresses to identify source and destination. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 229 10. IP is the protocol most networks use to create an error-free, end-to-end network connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 229 11. The UDP header contains only four fields: Source Port, Destination Port, Length, and Checksum. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 12. Every device connected to the Internet is assigned an IP address. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 225 13. LANs often are represented to the Internet as a single IP address by using NAT. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 226 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet 14. An IP packet is the combination of the IP header and its payload. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 217 15. The IPv4 protocol addresses use more bits than the IPv6 protocol addresses. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 16. Every object on the Internet has a unique English-based address called its Uniform Resource Locator (URL). a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 17. The Internet recognizes URLs directly. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 225 18. All Uniform Resource Locators consist of six parts. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 19. To make IPv4 addresses a little easier for human beings to understand, the 32-bit binary addresses are represented by dotted decimal notation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 218 20. There are six basic forms of a classful IPv4 address: Class A, B, C, D, E, and F. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 21. The first 4 bits of an IP package indicate the protocol version. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 218 22. The valid network range of a class A IPv4 address is 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 23. IPv6 doesn’t contain a field that allows fragmentation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 222 24. POP3 is not useful if you do not have a permanent connection to a network and must connect using a temporary Internet connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 234 25. The File Transfer Protocol, or FTP, was one of the first services offered on the Internet. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 234 26. H.323 was originally designed for TCP/IP networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet REFERENCES: page 240 27. RTP (Real-Time Protocol) is a public-domain network protocol that servers use to deliver streaming media. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 28. An intranet is a TCP/IP network that allows employees to access the company’s resources through an Internet-like interface. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 236 29. The Internet is a static entity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 30. During the late 1960s, a branch of the U.S. government titled the ____ created one of the country’s first wide area packet-switched networks. a. Department of Defense b. IEEE c. Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA) d. IETF ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 215 31. In 1983, the Department of Defense broke the ARPANET into two similar networks: the original ARPANET and ____. a. MILNET b. NSFnet c. CampusNET d. DoDNET ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 215 32. The National Science Foundation funded the creation of a new high-speed, cross-country network backbone called the ____.

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Chapter 07: The Internet a. MILNET b. NSFnet c. CampusNET d. DoDNET ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 215 33. The ____ is the main telecommunications line through the network, connecting the major router sites across the country. a. star topology b. ARPANET c. mid-level network d. backbone ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 216 34. To provide secure remote login, one of the common services the Internet offers is ____. a. Telnet b. SSH c. POP3 d. SMTP ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 237 35. ____ are used to select unique documents from anywhere in the world. a. Uniform Resource Locators (URLs) b. Domain Name Systems (DNSs) c. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol d. XMLs ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 36. The protocol that resides at the ____ layer in the TCP/IP protocol suite is called Internet Protocol (IP). a. application b. network c. transport d. network access ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 216 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet 37. The ____ field of an IP datagram contains the version number of IP being used, just in case a new version becomes available. a. Service Type b. Time to Live c. Protocol d. Version ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 218 38. The IPv4 ____ field enables the network to discard a datagram that has been traveling the Internet for too long. a. Time to Live b. Service Type c. Total Length d. IP Options ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 219 39. The TCP header ____ field contains a 32-bit value that counts bytes and indicates a packet’s data position within the connection. a. Source Port b. Padding c. Sequence Number d. Sliding-window size ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 40. ____ is a no-frills transport protocol that does not establish connections, does not attempt to keep data packets in sequence, and does not watch for datagrams that have existed for too long. a. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) c. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) d. Network Address Translation (NAT) ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 41. ____ takes an IP address in an IP datagram and translates it into the appropriate medium access control layer address for delivery on a local area network. a. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) c. Network Address Translation (NAT) d. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 231 42. ____ lets a router represent an entire local area network to the Internet as a single IP address. a. ICMP b. NAT c. ARP d. UDP ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 226 43. The most popular protocol to assign an IP address dynamically is called ____. a. NAT b. UDP c. DNS d. DHCP ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 225 44. ICMP is used by routers and other nodes to perform ____ for IP. a. domain name resolution b. conversion analog-to-digital c. error reporting d. translation of addresses ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 231 45. ____ is an encrypted form of HTTP. a. HTTPS b. SHTTP c. SSH d. SHS ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 237 46. ____ is a popular service that sends voice signals over an IP-based network such as the Internet. a. IoT b. FTP c. TCP/IP d. VoIP Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 238 47. A(n) ____ uniquely identifies files, Web pages, images, or any other types of electronic documents that reside on the Internet. a. IP address version 4 (IPv4) b. IP address version 6 (IPv6) c. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) d. Domain Name Service (DNS) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 48. The ____ is a large, distributed database of Internet addresses and domain names. a. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) b. Domain Name System (DNS) c. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) d. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 225 49. An IPv4 address has ____ octets. a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 219 50. The number of network bits of a class ____ IPv4 address is 16 bits. a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 51. The number of hosts bits of a class A IPv4 address is ____ bits. a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet d. 24 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 52. The number of network bits of a class ____ IPv4 address is 8 bits. a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 53. The number of hosts bits of a class C IPv4 address is ____ bits. a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 221 54. ____ is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held for you at your Internet server. a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) b. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) c. Domain Name Service (DNS) d. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 234 55. The primary functions of ____ are to allow a user to download a file from a remote site to the user’s computer and to upload a file from the user’s computer to a remote site. a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) b. Domain Name Service (DNS) c. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) d. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 234 56. ____ is a terminal emulation program for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet, that allows users to log in to a remote computer. a. Telnet Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet b. ARP c. DNS d. FTP ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 236 57. The practice of making telephone calls over the Internet has had several different names, including packet voice, voice over packet, voice over the Internet, Internet telephony, and ____. a. Telnet b. FTP c. VoIP d. ATT ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 238 58. RTSP is a protocol used for ____. a. media streaming b. the Internet of Things c. VoIP d. remote login ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 59. ____ is actually a set of protocols named packet-based multimedia protocols, and it was designed for a wide range of applications (audio and video). a. H.121 b. H.232 c. H.256 d. H.323 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 60. ____ is an alternative to the protocol H.323. a. RTP b. SIP c. TCP d. RTSP ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet 61. ____ involves the continuous download of compressed audio or video files, which can then be heard or viewed on the user’s device. a. Media streaming b. Voice over IP c. File Transfer Protocol d. The Internet of Things ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 62. ____ is a common application layer protocols that servers and the Internet use to deliver streaming audio and video data to a user’s browser. a. Secure Shell (SSH) b. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) c. Real-Time Protocol (RTP) d. Voice over IP (VoIP) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 63. Amazon Echo, Apple HomePod, or Google Home are examples of ____. a. personal assistant apps b. media streaming devices c. voice over IP devices d. voice-controlled smart speakers ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 64. An example of ____ is when the computer is given labeled data items and, after studying the data, learns how to identify the appropriate label for unlabeled items. a. unsupervised learning b. supervised learning c. reinforced learning d. media streaming ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 242 65. SIP stands for ____. a. Session Initiation Protocol b. Static Internet Protocol c. Static Initiation Protocol d. Session Initiation Protocol ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 66. An ICMP packet header has in its first 32 bits ____ fields. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 232 67. An UDP datagram header has ____ fields. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 231 68. An TCP segment header has in its first 64 bits ____ fields. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 69. In the https://www.cengage.com/student URL what is the detailed path? a. https:// b. www.cengage.com c. student d. There is no domain name ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 70. If you are given the IPv4 address 1000 0001 1000 1101 0000 1100 1100 1111, what is that address in dotted decimal notation? a. 129.141.12.207 b. 65.77.12.111 c. 2.4.2.6 d. 65.77.8.110 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 219 71. The IPv6 address 6A3E:BA99:0:0:0:87BA:0123:FFEF can be abbreviated as: a. 6A3E:BA99:30:87BA:0123:FFEF b. 6A3E:BA99:0 c. 0:::87BA:0123:FFEF d. 6A3E:BA99::87BA:0123:FFEF ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 223 72. Given the IPv6 address 6A3E:BA91::877B:FFEF/104, how many bits identify the host ID? a. 104 b. 24 c. none d. 128 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 223 73. Given the IPv4 address 162.48.128.0/24, how many addresses are available for the hosts? a. 64 b. 128 c. 256 d. 512 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 223 74. During the late 1960s, ARPA created one of the country’s first wide area packet-switched networks, the ____________________.

ANSWER: ARPANET POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 215 75. The ____________________ provides a connectionless data transfer service over heterogeneous networks by passing and routing IP datagrams.

ANSWER: Internet Protocol (IP) Internet Protocol IP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 216 76. IP ____________________ is essentially the combination of the IP header and its payload.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER: packet POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 217 77. The primary function of ___________________________________ is to turn an unreliable network into a reliable network that is free from lost and duplicate packets.

ANSWER: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Transmission Control Protocol TCP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 229 78. ____________________ takes an IP address in an IP packet and translates it into the appropriate MAC layer address for delivery on a LAN. ANSWER: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Address Resolution Protocol ARP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 231 79. The TCP header ____________________ field contains a sliding window value that provides flow control between the two endpoints.

ANSWER: sliding-window size POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 230 80. The first field of an ICMP package is called ________________________________________.

ANSWER: Type POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 231 81. The ________________________________________, which is used by routers and nodes, performs error reporting for the Internet Protocol.

ANSWER: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Internet Control Message Protocol ICMP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 231 82. The most popular protocol that handles dynamic assignment of IP addresses is ________________________________________.

ANSWER: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol DHCP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 225 83. ____________________ lets a router represent an entire LAN to the Internet as a single IP address.

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Chapter 07: The Internet ANSWER:

Network Address Translation (NAT) Network Address Translation NAT POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 226 84. The ____________________ field of the IPv4 packet performs an arithmetic checksum on only the header portion of the packet.

ANSWER: Header checksum POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 219 85. The ____________________ portion of the URL specifies a particular server at a particular site that contains the requested item.

ANSWER: domain name POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 86. The basic idea behind ____________________ is to take the host ID portion of an IP address and further divide it into a subnet ID and a host ID. ANSWER: subnet masking POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 219 87. ________________________________________ is the software that allows the user to save e-mail messages in a server mailbox and download them when desired from the server.

ANSWER: Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) Post Office Protocol version 3 POP3 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 234 88. The ____________________ can perform the digitization, compression, and encapsulation required, and it controls the setup of VoIP calls between the calling device and the called device.

ANSWER: VoIP gateway POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 89. ___________________________________ was introduced in 1998 by the Internet Engineering Task Force specifically for supporting the transfer of voice over the Internet.

ANSWER: Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) Session Initiation Protocol SIP POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 240 90. ____________________ is a non-secure terminal emulation program for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet.

ANSWER: Telnet Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 236 91. _________________________ is a technique that enables a router to switch data from one path onto another path.

ANSWER: Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) Multiprotocol Label Switching MPLS POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 232 92. For the URL https://www.cengage.com/student the ____________________ part is absent.

ANSWER: file name POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 224 93. The SFTP is a secure file-transfer protocol that includes encryption, authentication, and needs a single connection, usually over port ____.

ANSWER: 32 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 235 94. A(n) ____________________ is a TCP/IP network inside a company that allows employees to access the company’s information resources through an Internet-like interface.

ANSWER: intranet POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 236 95. When an intranet is extended outside the corporate walls to include suppliers, customers, or other external agents, it becomes a(n) ____________________.

ANSWER: extranet POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 236 96. How does the Internet Protocol work?

ANSWER: The Internet Protocol (IP) provides a connectionless data transfer service over heterogeneous networks by passing and routing IP datagrams. IP datagram is essentially another name for a data packet. To be passed and routed on the Internet, all IP datagrams or packets that are passed down from the transport layer to the network layer are encapsulated with an IP header that contains the information necessary to transmit the packet from one network to another. The format of this header will be explained in the next few paragraphs.

Consider the example of a workstation performing a network operation such as sending an e-mail message to a distant workstation. Suppose both workstations are on local area networks, and the two local area networks are connected via a wide area network. As the local workstation sends the e-mail packet down through the layers of the first internal network, the IP header is encapsulated over the transport layer packet, creating the IP datagram. The appropriate MAC layer headers are encapsulated over the IP datagram, creating a frame, and this frame is sent through LAN 1 to the first router. Because the router interfaces LAN 1 to a wide area network, the MAC layer information is stripped off, leaving the IP datagram. At this time, the router may use any or all of the IP information to perform the necessary internetworking functions. The necessary wide area network level information is applied, and Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet the packet is sent over the WAN to Router 2. When the packet arrives at the second router, the wide area network information is stripped off, once again leaving the IP datagram. The appropriate MAC layer information is then applied for transfer of the frame over LAN 2, and the frame is transmitted. Upon arrival at the remote workstation, all header information is removed, leaving the original data.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 217 97. How does a TCP make a network more reliable?

ANSWER: To make a network more reliable, TCP (as well as most transport layer protocols) performs the following six functions: * Create a connection—The TCP header includes a port address that indicates a particular application on a machine. Used in conjunction, the port address and the IP address identify a particular application of a particular machine. When TCP creates a connection between a sender and a receiver, the two ends of the connection use a port number to identify the particular application’s connection. This port number is found within the TCP datagram and is passed back and forth between sender and receiver. * Release a connection—The TCP software can also dissolve a connection after all the data has been sent and received. * Implement flow control—To make sure the sending station does not overwhelm the receiving station with too much data, the TCP header includes a field, called the Window value, that allows the receiver to tell the sender to slow down. This Window value is similar in operation to the sliding window used at the data link layer. The difference between the two window operations is that the data link layer’s sliding window operates between two nodes or between a workstation and a node, while the TCP window operates between the two endpoints (sender and receiver) of a network connection. * Establish multiplexing—Because the TCP header includes a port number instead of an IP address, it is possible to multiplex multiple connections over a single IP connection. This multiplexing can be done by creating a different connection that has a port number different from a previous connection. * Perform error recovery—TCP numbers each packet for transmission with a sequence number. As the packets arrive at the destination site, the receiving TCP software checks these sequence numbers for continuity. If there is a loss of continuity, the receiving TCP software uses an acknowledgment number to inform the sending TCP software of a possible error condition. * Establish priority—If the sender has to transmit data of a higher priority, such as an error condition, TCP can set a value in a field (the Urgent Pointer) that indicates that all or a portion of the enclosed data is of an urgent nature.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 229 98. How does NAT work?

ANSWER: When a user workstation on a company local area network sends a packet out to the Internet, NAT replaces the IP address of the user workstation with a corporate global IP address. In fact, all packets that leave the corporate network contain this global IP address. Thus, the only IP address that anyone sees outside of the corporate network is the one global IP address. If all packets from all workstations leave the corporate network with the same IP address, how do the responses that come back from the Internet get directed to the proper machine? The NAT software maintains a cache listing of all IP packets that were sent out and who sent each packet. When a response comes back, NAT checks the cache to see who originally sent the request. When NAT finds the match, it removes the global IP address, reinserts the user workstation’s IP address, and places the packet on the corporate network.

What happens if a packet arrives at the corporate NAT software and there is no cache entry with a matching outgoing request? In this case, the packet is destroyed. Apparently, someone has sent a packet to the corporate network that was not requested by a corporate workstation. There is one exception to this rule: If the company is supporting a server, such as a Web server, a packet may originate from a user somewhere out on the Internet. When the Web page request packet arrives at the NAT software, the IP address where the packet originated will not match any IP addresses in the local cache. Before the NAT Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: The Internet software destroys the packet, it examines the message’s destination port number. If the packet is a request for a Web page from the corporate Web server, the NAT software lets the packet in.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 227 99. What are the more common approaches of Machine Learning, and how do they work?

ANSWER: The three more common approaches for Machine Learning are: Supervised learning, Unsupervised learning, and Reinforcement learning.

Supervised learning is when the computer is given labeled data, such as videos of vehicles that are each identified by make and model. The computer studies the data to learn how to identify the same items later in unlabeled videos.

Unsupervised learning is when the computer is given unlabeled data and expected to identify patterns that might not be known to the human programmers. For example, a computer might be given medical data and asked to determine what factors might indicate the likelihood of someone developing heart disease or cancer.

Reinforcement learning is when the computer engages in trial-and-error learning where right responses are rewarded, and poor responses are not. For example, AWS’s DeepRacer service uses reinforcement learning to teach a virtual vehicle how to drive along a simulated road course. Turns that keep the vehicle on the road are preferred while turns that lead the vehicle off the road force-stop the simulation.

In DeepRacer competitions, students develop algorithms to try to train their AI models faster and with fewer errors.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 242 100. What are the disadvantages of Voice over IP (VoIP)?

ANSWER: Voice over IP has a number of disadvantages as well. The statement that sending data over the Internet is essentially free is misleading. Nothing, of course, is free. All Internet users must pay an Internet service provider for access, the interconnecting phone line, and any necessary hardware and software. Also, even more additional hardware and software is necessary to handle the transmission of voice packets over a corporate data network. Nonetheless, if you already have high-speed Internet access, adding VoIP may be a reasonable way to obtain both local and long-distance telephone service.

A second, and more important disadvantage, is that transmitting voice over a corporate network can be demanding on the network’s resources. If the current corporate network system is straining to deliver data, adding voice to this system can cause severe service problems. These service problems can be compounded because voice systems require networks that can pass the voice data through in a relatively small amount of time. A network that delays voice data by more than 20 milliseconds from end to end will introduce a noticeable echo into the transmission. If the delay becomes longer than 250 milliseconds (that’s only a quarter of a second), the system will be basically unusable.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 239

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance 1. Internet systems are the only systems that experience security problems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 255 2. The two leading attack methods for the last few years have been socially engineered attacks and exploiting known vulnerabilities in operating systems and in application software. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 3. Ransomware is a form of malware. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 4. All system attacks need a user to open an e-mail or Web page. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 5. Some attacks attempt to take advantage of bugs, loopholes, backdoors, or other software weaknesses. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 6. A popular attack method is to abuse or take advantage of valid user accounts and the permissions associated with those accounts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 257 7. The physical protection of a computer system or a computer network consists of protecting the equipment from physical damage.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 263 8. Physical security strategies for a network can be broadly categorized as electrical methods and electronic methods. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 263 9. Alarms and video captures are possible responses triggered by motion detection devices. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 264 10. Proxy servers provide opportunities to create audit logs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 265 11. Most firewalls function primarily by monitoring the TCP or UDP ports of traffic crossing the firewall. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 265 12. Providing a password is the most common form of authentication. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 13. Misspelling words or substituting some letters for numbers and symbols is a bad way to increase password security. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 14. Network administrators can enforce password rules for network users to increase password security. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 15. IAM works by creating an identity for each resource it manages, but not users. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 280 16. Auditing a computer system is often a good way to deter crime. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 287 17. Early cryptography algorithms used the same key for encryption and decryption. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 18. One of the inherent problems with protecting a single key is that it means that only one key is used to both encode and decode the message. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 19. A transportation-based cipher replaces a character or group of characters with a different character or group of characters. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 273 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance 20. One popular application of IPsec is in the support of virtual private networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 279 21. The DES algorithm works with 128-bit blocks of data. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 274 22. AES encryption technique is less powerful than the triple-DES. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 274 23. A digital signature is a security procedure that uses public-key cryptography. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 278 24. In digital signatures, the document to be signed needs to be hashed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 278 25. All certificates are issued by a certificate authority. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 26. If you exclusive-OR a 0 and a 0, as is done with certain spread spectrum techniques, the result is 1. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 289 27. A firewall cannot limit users on the Internet from accessing certain portions of a corporate network. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 265 28. Blockchain can be used to securely store transactions and data. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 284 29. The polyalphabetic substitution-based cipher uses multiple alphabetic strings to encode the ciphertext. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 30. WAP has been replaced by a new standard, Wired Equivalency Protocol (WEP). a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 288 31. One very common technique to attack a system is to deliver an e-mail or web page that contains a malicious piece of code called a(n) ____. a. FHSS b. DSSS c. TKIP d. malware ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 32. Many people consider keylogger to be a kind of ____. a. malware Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance b. firewall c. VPN d. protocol ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 258 33. In ____ systems a single identity store is referenced by many systems for user credentials and authentication processes. a. blockchain b. SSO c. polymorphic d. MFA ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 284 34. ____ is an important concept in accounting. a. VPN b. SSO c. SoD d. MFA ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 285 35. A(n) ____ is an application of tunneling protocol. a. VPN b. SSO c. SoD d. MFA ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 279 36. ____ is a way to increase the security of authentication tasks. a. VPN b. SSO c. SoD d. MFA ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 37. Denial of service attacks aims to compromise ____.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance a. users b. software c. availability d. accounts ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 38. Abuse or taking advantage of valid user accounts and the permissions associated with those accounts aims to compromise ____. a. users b. software c. availability d. accounts ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 257 39. A social engineering attack is a common way to compromise ____. a. users b. software c. availability d. accounts ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 40. ____ is a form of attack by a software installed (usually unknowingly) in a user’s operating system. a. Phishing b. Pharming c. Rootkit d. Keylogger ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 258 41. In ____, a web user seeking to visit a particular company’s website is unknowingly redirected to a bogus website that looks exactly like that company’s official website. a. phishing b. pharming c. rootkit d. keylogger ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 258 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance 42. A ____ risk assessment evaluates threats to and vulnerabilities of the network. a. user b. business c. router d. security ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 259 43. A ____ risk assessment evaluates the impact of potential threats on business processes. a. user b. business c. router d. security ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 259 44. Perhaps the most common form of protection from unauthorized use of a computer system are the ____. a. passwords b. certificates c. PKI d. digital signatures ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 45. ____ is a core feature of the accounting component of AAA. a. Authorizing b. Authenticating c. Access rights d. Auditing ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 286 46. Public key cryptography utilizes ____ encryption. a. symmetric b. open software c. asymmetric d. non copyrighted ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance 47. ____ is data before any encryption has been performed. a. Plaintext b. Ciphertext c. Criptext d. Cryptotext ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 48. A(n) ____ is the computer program that converts plaintext into an enciphered form. a. blockchain algorithm b. translator algorithm c. decryption algorithm d. encryption algorithm ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 49. A(n) ____ is the unique piece of information that is used to create ciphertext and then decrypt the ciphertext back into plaintext. a. secret b. displacement c. key d. cipher ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 50. A ____ substitution-based cipher replaces a character or group of characters with a different character or group of characters according to an alphabetic string. a. polyalphabetic b. monoalphabetic c. monotransposition d. polytransposition ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 51. Possibly the earliest example of a polyalphabetic cipher is the ____ cipher. a. Caesars b. Roman c. Enigma d. Vigenère ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 52. A ____ cipher is different from a substitution-based cipher in that the order of the plaintext is not preserved. a. transposition-based b. monoalphabetic c. polyalphabetic d. multialphabetic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 273 53. The concept of two keys, public and private, is called ____ cryptography. a. private key b. public key c. key two d. symmetric ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 54. Many ____ conform to the X.509 standard created and supported by the ITU-T. a. firewalls b. switches c. certificates d. routers ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 55. SSL’s successor is ____, which is based upon SSL version 3 and contains a few technical improvements over SSL. a. Transport Layer Security (TLS) b. IPsec c. Data Encryption Standard (DES) d. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 56. ____ is a set of protocols created to support the secure transfer of data at the network layer. a. Transport Layer Security (TLS) b. IPsec (IP security) c. Data Encryption Standard (DES) d. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 279 57. ____ uses hashing and it is a key part for the implementation of cryptocurrencies. a. IAM service b. WEP c. Blockchain d. WPA2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 284 58. A ____ is a security procedure that uses public key cryptography to assign to a document a code for which you alone have the key. a. certificate b. certificate authority c. PKI d. digital signature ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 278 59. While using symmetric encryption the number of keys used is ____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 60. ____ cloud services have a greater security responsibility on the cloud services provider. a. On-prem b. IaaS c. PaaS d. SaaS ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 260 61. ____ cloud services have a smaller security responsibility on the cloud services provider. a. On-prem b. IaaS c. PaaS d. SaaS Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 260 62. Many certificates conform to the ____ standard. a. X.309 b. X.409 c. X.509 d. X.609 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 63. A(n) ____ is a list of certificates that have been revoked before their originally scheduled expiration date. a. PKI b. ITU-T c. CA d. CRL ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 64. ____ technology essentially takes the data to be transmitted and rather than transmitting it in a fixed bandwidth spreads it over a wider bandwidth. a. Spread spectrum b. 3DES c. AES d. PKI ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 288 65. ____ spread spectrum spreads the transmission of a signal over a wide range of frequencies using mathematical values. a. Frequency hopping b. Direct sequence c. Time hopping d. Amplitude sequence ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 289 66. ____ spread spectrum transmission bounces the signal around on seemingly random frequencies rather than transmit it on one fixed frequency. a. Frequency hopping Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance b. Direct sequence c. Time hopping d. Amplitude sequence ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 288 67. The ____ is a regulation defined and enforced by credit card companies themselves, not by any government agency. a. CCPA b. PCI DSS c. GDPR d. HIPAA ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 271 68. The ____ is a regulation deployed by the EU (European Union) in 2018 applicable to any company doing business with a European citizen, which encompasses nearly every sizable business in the world. a. CCPA b. PCI DSS c. GDPR d. HIPAA ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 270 69. The first security protocol for wireless LANs was ____. a. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) b. Wired Equivalency Protocol (WEP) c. IPsec d. IEEE 802.11i ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 288 70. IEEE ____ addresses both weaknesses of WEP by allowing the keys, encryption algorithms, and negotiation to be dynamically assigned, and by adopting the AES encryption based on the Rijndael algorithm with 128-, 192-, or 256-bit keys. a. 802.11a b. 802.11b c. 802.11g d. 802.11i ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 365 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance 71. Vigenère cipher is an old example of ____________________ substitution-based cipher.

ANSWER: polyalphabetic POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 72. One of the most successful account attack strategies involves simply asking a user for their _____________.

ANSWER: password POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 257 73. ____________________ attack involves a form of communication, such as an e-mail, text, or phone call, that appears to be sent from a legitimate source and requests access or authentication information.

ANSWER: Phishing POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 257 74. _________________________ attacks bombard a computer site with so many messages that the site is incapable of performing its normal duties.

ANSWER: Denial of service (DoS) Denial of service DoS Distributed Denial of service (DoS) Distributed Denial of service DDOS POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 256 75. Cloud security is organized according to the ____________________ model.

ANSWER: shared responsibility POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 260 76. A(n) ____________________ is a type of simulated attack that begins with a vulnerability scan and then attempts to exploit identified vulnerabilities.

ANSWER: penetration testing POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 260 77. In the context of security policies, a(n) ____________________ specifically defines the characteristics of an event that qualifies as a formal incident and the steps that should be followed as a result.

ANSWER: incident response plan POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 261 78. In the context of network security technologies, the ____________________ approach combines multiple layers of security to cover gaps and increase the network’s over- all resistance to harm.

ANSWER: defense in depth Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 262 79. ____________________ define the network resources that a user or set of users can access.

ANSWER: Access rights POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 280 80. The basic operation of the DES encryption method applies ___________________ levels of encryption.

ANSWER: sixteen 16 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 274 81. ____________________ is the study of creating and using encryption and decryption techniques.

ANSWER: Cryptography POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 82. The ____________________ is the data after the encryption algorithm has been applied.

ANSWER: ciphertext POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 83. The ____________________ substitution-based cipher uses multiple alphabetic strings to encode the plaintext, rather than one alphabetic string.

ANSWER: polyalphabetic POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 272 84. A(n) ____________________ differs from a substitution-based cipher because the plaintext is not preserved.

ANSWER: transposition-based cipher POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 273 85. Public key cryptography is also called ____________________ encryption.

ANSWER: asymmetric POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 86. ____________________ (TLS) is the modern and improved version of the older SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) protocol.

ANSWER: Transport Layer Security POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 87. With ____________________, the data is encrypted using DES three times, and this algorithm is just as powerful as Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance the AES algorithm.

ANSWER: triple-DES POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 274 88. The ___________________________________ was selected by the U.S. government to replace DES. ANSWER: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) Advanced Encryption Standard AES POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 274 89. In 2000, the U.S. government approved the _________________________ Act, a legislation that grants digital signatures and e-signatures in electronic documents the same legal standing as that of handwritten signatures on pieces of paper.

ANSWER: Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce (ESIGN) Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce ESIGN POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 278 90. A digital certificate, or simply a(n) ____________________, is an electronic document, similar to a passport, that establishes your credentials when you are performing transactions on the World Wide Web. ANSWER: certificate POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 91. A(n) ______________________________ is either specialized software on a network or a trusted third-party organization or business that issues and manages certificates.

ANSWER: certificate authority (CA) certificate authority CA POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 92. A(n) ____________________ is a stand-alone device, an application, or a built-in feature running on a workstation, server, switch, router, or firewall that monitors network traffic, generating alerts about suspicious activity.

ANSWER: Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Intrusion Detection System IDS POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 267 93. The idea behind ____________________ spread spectrum transmission is to bounce the signal around on random frequencies rather than transmit it on one fixed frequency.

ANSWER: frequency hopping POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 288 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance 94. The country where that data is collected, processed, or stored imposes its own privacy and security laws, which is called ____________________.

ANSWER: data sovereignty POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 271 95. A(n) ____________________ is a system or combination of systems that supports an access control policy between two networks.

ANSWER: firewall POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 265 96. How does phishing work?

ANSWER: One common attack method is to try to guess or intercept valid IDs and passwords from authorized users. Hackers will try to steal passwords by guessing simple combinations or eavesdropping on transmissions in which a password is being transmitted. Some hackers will even go so far as to create an application that appears to be legitimate and prompts users for an ID and password. Once an individual enters his or her ID and password, the software displays a message that gives the appearance of a system failure. The user moves on, not knowing that his or her ID and password have just been passed to a bogus program. In the last few years, there have been a number of attempts to steal IDs and passwords.

In several instances, hackers created an e-mail that seemed to be a legitimate request coming from a well-known company. The e-mail even included the official-looking corporate logos and emblems. In the e-mail, the unsuspecting user was asked to provide private information such as a Social Security number or credit card number. The hacker would collect this personal information and use it illegally to purchase items or, even worse, commit identity theft.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 257 97. What are some of the standard rules for creating or changing a password?

ANSWER: The standard rules that an individual should follow when creating or changing a password include: * Change your password often. * Pick a good password by using at least 10 characters, mixing uppercase and lowercase if the computer system is case-sensitive, and mixing letters with numbers. * Don’t choose passwords that are similar to your first or last names, pet names, car names, or other choices that can be easily guessed. * Don’t share your password with others; doing so invites trouble and misuse.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 98. Describe some examples of systems that use biometric techniques to authenticate users.

ANSWER: England has a large database of earprints. Research shows that no two ears are the same; thus, an earprint is useful in helping to identify an individual. Fingerprints have, of course, long been used to distinguish one individual from another. Now, desktop devices the size of a computer mouse can scan a user’s thumbprint and allow or disallow the user access to a computer system. Systems also are available that can record and digitize your voice. The digital voice pattern is compared to a stored sample, and the software determines if the match is close enough for validation. Retinal scans (the retina is the inside back lining of the eye) have been commonly featured in movies and do exist in the real world as a security technique, although to a small degree due to complexity and cost. An additional impediment has been that people are squeamish when told a laser is going to scan the inside of their eyeballs. Another Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance part of the eye that is unique among all individuals is the iris or the colored portion of the eye. Some security devices use the iris to identify people who are allowed to access a given system. Because the technology needed to perform iris scans is less expensive than retinal scan technology, it is more likely that we will see iris scans performed in the near future. Other research in the field of biometric techniques has been aimed at digitizing the features of the entire face and comparing this digital representation with a stored image. Companies that manufacture 24-hour automatic teller machines are interested in replacing the credit-card-sized automatic teller machine (ATM) card and corresponding PIN with something that cannot be as easily stolen, such as a fingerprint, faceprint, or eyeprint. To enhance their security, many companies require combinations of forms of identification, such as a password and a thumbprint.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 281 99. How does public key cryptography work?

ANSWER: Consider a business that has its headquarters in New York. A branch office in Atlanta wishes to send secure data to the New York office. The New York office sends the public key to Atlanta and keeps the private key locked up safe in New York. The Atlanta office uses the public key to encrypt the data and sends the encrypted data to New York. Only the New York office can decode the data because it is the only one possessing the private key. Even if other parties intercept the transmission of the public key to Atlanta, nothing will be gained, because it is not possible to deduce the private key from the public key.

Likewise, interception of the encrypted data will lead to nothing because the data can be decoded only with the private key.

For a more familiar example, consider a situation in which a person browsing the Web wishes to send secure information (such as a credit card number) to a Web server. The user at a workstation clicks on a secured Web page and sends the appropriate request to the server. The server returns a “certificate,” which includes the server’s public key, and a number of preferred cryptographic algorithms. The user’s workstation selects one of the algorithms, generates a set of public and private keys, keeps the private key, and sends the public key back to the server. Now both sides have their own private keys, and they both have each other’s public keys. Data can now be sent between the two endpoints in a secure fashion.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 275 100. What information does a certificate contain?

ANSWER: All X.509 certificates contain the following pieces of information: * Version—Identifies the version of the X.509 standard that applies to this certificate * Serial number—A unique value that identifies a particular certificate; when a certificate is revoked, its serial number is placed in a certificate revocation list (CRL) * Signature algorithm identifier—Identifies the algorithm used by the certificate authority (an entity that will be defined shortly) to sign the certificate * Issuer name—The name of the entity, normally a certificate authority, that signed the certificate (in some instances, the issuer signs his or her own name) * Validity period—The limited amount of time for which each certificate is valid (a period that can be as short as a few seconds or as long as a century), denoted by a start date and time and an end date and time * Subject name—The name of the entity whose public key this certificate identifies * Subject public key information—The public key of the entity being named, together with an algorithm identifier that specifies to which public key encryption system this key belongs * Digital signature—The signature of the certificate authority that will be used to verify a legitimate certificate POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 276 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Risk, Security, and Compliance

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks 1. Wide area networks share a few characteristics with local area networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 303 2. WANs can cover large geographic distances, including the entire Earth. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 304 3. Many of the same technologies and communications protocols found in local area networks are used to create metropolitan area networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 304 4. LANs cover much greater distances than MANs do. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 304 5. A WAN’s infrastructure consists of a collection of nodes and interconnecting telecommunications links. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 305 6. MANs cannot be used to support high-speed disaster recovery systems and real-time transaction backup systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 304 7. Because there are so many devices in a WAN, and they are spread over large distances, using a LAN-type connection is not feasible. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 305 8. WANs require specialized technology designed to manage traffic across a wide variety of devices and connection types. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 306 9. In frequency division multiplexing, the combined signals are always digital. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 315 10. Time-division multiplexing (TDM) allows only one user at a time to transmit. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 313 11. WDM supports multiple lambdas. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 316 12. Both frequency division multiplexing and synchronous time division multiplexing avoid waste of unused transmission space. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 315 13. Code division multiplexing is based upon a class of modulation techniques known as spread spectrum technology. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 318 14. The big advantage of frequency division multiplexing over synchronous TDM is the lower noise due to the use of digital signals during transmission. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 315 15. Synchronous time-division multiplexing does not require as high-speed a line as statistical time-division multiplexing does. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 313 16. CDM technology falls into two categories: frequency hopping and direct sequence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 318 17. The Lempel-Ziv algorithm can be fairly effective in compressing data. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 321 18. The basic way to perform compression is to look for some common pattern in the data and replace each data pattern with a symbol or symbols that will consume less space during transmission or storage. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 320 19. The JPEG encoder produces a data stream that has a much faster data rate than that of conventional CD-quality music. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 322 20. A video device displays multiple (typically 30) frames per second. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 325 21. Most wide area networks use some form of Dijkstra’s algorithm to determine a least-cost route through a network. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 307 22. Bellman-Ford algorithm, the Floyd-Warshall algorithm, and Johnson’s algorithm are alternatives to Dijkstra’s leastcost routing algorithm. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 308 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks 23. One advantage of dynamic routing is that it never adds to network congestion. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 308 24. Using a distance-vector protocol, a router monitors each link and the number of hops from that link to network destinations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 309 25. A network administrator assigns each routing protocol an AD (administrative distance); the higher the values are, the higher will be the priority. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 309 26. The first routing algorithm used within the Internet was called a distance vector routing algorithm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 309 27. Routing Information Protocol is a link-state protocol. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 309 28. Cisco’s EIGRP is a hybrid routing protocol. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 309 29. RIP delivers a very small convergence time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 309 30. Like RIP, OSPF has hop limits, but it calculates more efficiently the best paths than RIP. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 311 31. IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is a distance-vector protocol. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 311 32. A ____ area network is typically confined to a single building or a couple floors within one building. a. personal b. local c. metropolitan d. wide ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 304 33. A network that expands beyond a metropolitan area is a ____ area network. a. personal b. local c. metropolitan d. wide ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 304 34. ____ area networks can cover large geographic distances, including the entire Earth. a. Personal b. Local c. Wide d. Universal ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 304 35. MANs are almost exclusively ____ networks, and thus capable of supporting data rates into the tens of millions and hundreds of millions of bits per second. a. fiber-optic b. copper-wired c. twisted-paired d. coaxial-cabled ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 304 36. ____ is the assignment of nonoverlapping frequency ranges to each “user” of a medium.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks a. Time division multiplexing (TDM) b. Transmission code multiplexing (TCM) c. Amplitude division multiplexing (ADM) d. Frequency division multiplexing (FDM) ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 315 37. To allow multiple users to share a single medium, FDM assigns each user a separate ____. a. time slot b. transmission code c. channel d. amplitude ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 315 38. The device that is attached to the receiving end of the medium and splits off each signal to deliver it to the appropriate receiver is called the second multiplexor, or ____. a. multiplexor b. endplexor c. splitxor d. demultiplexor ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 313 39. In FDM, ____ take up frequencies that might be used for other data channels, thus introducing a certain level of wastefulness. a. guard bands b. channels c. multiplexors d. demultiplexors ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 316 40. Since time division multiplexing was introduced, it has split into two roughly parallel but separate technologies: synchronous time division multiplexing and ____ time division multiplexing. a. fixed b. statistical c. inverse d. empirical ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 314 41. ____ gives each incoming source signal a turn to be transmitted, proceeding through the sources in round-robin fashion. a. Statistical time division multiplexing (Stat TDM) b. Empirical time division multiplexing (ETDM) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks c. Synchronous time division multiplexing (Sync TDM) d. Fixed time division multiplexing (FTDM) ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 313 42. Under normal circumstances, the synchronous time division multiplexor maintains a simple ____ sampling order of the input devices. a. round-robin b. FIFO c. LIFO d. FILO ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 313 43. A wide area network connects its workstations through the use of a ____ design and requires routing to transfer data across the network. a. bus b. star c. mesh d. ring ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 305 44. A network that is connected in a ____ is one in which neighbors are connected only to neighbors. a. star b. mesh c. bus d. star-bus ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 305 45. All wide area networks infrastructure are collections of ____ and interconnecting communication links. a. servers b. users c. switches d. nodes ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 305 46. Statistical time-division multiplexing is sometimes called ____ time-division multiplexing. a. empirical b. random c. asynchronous d. synchronous ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks REFERENCES: page 314 47. ____ multiplexes multiple data streams onto a single fiber-optic line. a. Statistical time division multiplexing (Stat TDM) b. Wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) c. Time division multiplexing (TDM) d. Channel division multiplexing (CDM) ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 316 48. ____ uses different wavelength (frequency) lasers to transmit multiple signals at the same time over a single medium. a. Wave division multiplexing b. Statistical time division multiplexing c. Channel division multiplexing d. Time division multiplexing ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 316 49. ____ is designed for short-distance connections and has only a few lambdas, with greater space between lambdas. a. Dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) b. Fixed wavelength division multiplexing (FWDM) c. Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) d. Inverse wavelength division multiplexing (IWDM ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 316 50. ____ division multiplexing is a good choice for connecting several lower-speed devices that do not transmit data on a continuous basis to a remote computer system. a. Statistical time b. Time c. Discrete tone d. Frequency ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 314 51. ____ division multiplexing is a good technique for transmitting multiple concurrent signals over a fiber-optic line. a. Statistical time b. Synchronous time c. Frequency d. Wavelength ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 316 52. ____ replaces any repetitions of the same bit or byte that occur in a sequence of data with a single occurrence of the bit/byte and a run count, or simply with a run count. a. Run-length encoding Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks b. Lossy compression c. Random compression d. Full encoding ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 321 53. A technique that can be used to compress data when a ____ compression is necessary is the Lempel-Ziv technique. a. random b. random c. lossy d. lossless ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 321 54. ____ is a common form of audio compression. a. MPEG b. GIF c. MP3 d. JPEG ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 322 55. ______ is a technique that is very commonly used to compress video images. a. JPEG b. MPEG c. MP3 d. AAA ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 322 56. MPEG-1 and MPEG-2—or simply MPEG—are common examples of ____ compression. a. wavelength encoding b. differential encoding c. code division d. frequency encoding ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 325 57. A classic algorithm that calculates a least-cost path through a network is ____ algorithm. a. Dijkstra’s router-finder b. Dijkstra’s safest-path c. Dijkstra’s min-path d. Dijkstra’s least-cost ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 307 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks 58. The ____ protocol has a limit of 15 hops between routers. a. routing information b. OSPF c. IS-IS d. enhanced interior gateway routing ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 309 59. Within OSPF, the ____link connects exactly two routers. a. dual b. bi-directional c. transient d. point-to-point ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 311 60. Path-vector routing protocol communicates via ____-specific messages. a. BGP b. OSPF c. IS-IS d. RIP ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 311 61. Cable television is still one of the more commonly found applications of ____ multiplex technique. a. TDM b. FDM c. WDM d. GSM ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 315 62. In the context of multiplexing, ____ is sometimes used to send the same signal across multiple antennas. a. CWDM b. FDM c. MIMO d. TDM ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 316 63. When used by 3G phone networks, the code division multiplexing is called ____. a. GSM b. DWDM c. CWDM Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks d. CDMA ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 318 64. When routing tables adapt to network changes, the routing system is called ____. a. mobile b. adaptative c. dynamic d. static ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 308 65. With ____ routing, routing tables are created once, typically when the network is installed, and then never updated again. a. mobile b. adaptative c. dynamic d. static ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 308 66. When something on the network changes, such as a failure or a configuration change, routers must identify the change and adjust their routes, the time it takes for this to happen is called ____ time. a. rerouting b. overhead c. convergence d. reconfiguration ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 309 67. RIP has a 15 hops limit, and for its newer version (RIPv2), the hops limit is ____. a. decreased b. the same c. increased d. variable ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 310 68. RIP has a ____ hops limit, unlike OSPF. a. 7 b. 15 c. 31 d. 63 ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 309 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks 69. Unlike OSPF, ____ can adapt to IPv6. a. GSM b. CDM c. IS-IS d. RIP ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 311 70. ____ is the only routing protocol used across the open Internet and can span multiple autonomous systems. a. OSPF b. BGP c. IS-IS d. RIP ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 311 71. ____ is the underlying technology behind applications such as GIF, PKZIP, WinZip, gzip, UNIX’s compress utility, and Microsoft’s compressed folders. a. Run-length encoding b. LZ77 c. MP3 d. MPEG ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 321 72. A network that expands into a metropolitan area and exhibits high data rates, high reliability, and low data loss is called a(n) ___________________________________.

ANSWER: metropolitan area network (MAN) metropolitan area network MAN MAN (metropolitan area network) REFERENCES: page 304 73. The technique of transmitting multiple signals over a single medium is ____________________.

ANSWER: multiplexing REFERENCES: page 312 74. A(n) ____________________ is an assigned set of frequencies that is used to transmit the user’s signal.

ANSWER: channel REFERENCES: page 315 75. In general, the device that accepts input from one or more users and transmits all these signals through a medium is called the ____________________.

ANSWER: multiplexor mux REFERENCES: page 313 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks 76. To keep one signal from interfering with another signal, a set of unused frequencies called a(n) ____________________ is usually inserted between the two signals, to provide a form of insulation.

ANSWER: guard band REFERENCES: page 316 77. In ____________________, the sharing of the medium is accomplished by dividing available transmission time among users.

ANSWER: time division multiplexing (TDM) time division multiplexing TDM REFERENCES: page 313 78. ____________________, transmits data only from active users and does not transmit empty time slots.

ANSWER: Statistical time division multiplexing (Stat TDM) Statistical time division multiplexing Stat TDM REFERENCES: page 314 79. A(n) _________________________ is a collection of computers and computer-related equipment interconnected to perform a given function or functions and typically using local and long-distance telecommunications systems.

ANSWER: wide area network (WAN) wide area network WAN WAN (wide area network) REFERENCES: page 303 80. In Statistical TDM, the ____________________, provides information that the receiving multiplexor can use to detect transmission errors within the frame.

ANSWER: frame check sequence (FCS) frame check sequence FCS REFERENCES: page 315 81. In WDM, the wavelength of each differently colored laser is called the ____________________.

ANSWER: lambda REFERENCES: page 316 82. When WDM can support a large number of lambdas, it is often called ____________________.

ANSWER: dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) dense wavelength division multiplexing DWDM REFERENCES: page 316 83. When WDM can support a small number of lambdas, it is often called ____________________.

ANSWER: coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) coarse wavelength division multiplexing CWDM REFERENCES: page 316 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks 84. Code division multiplexing uses frequency hopping or ____________________ spread spectrum technology.

ANSWER: direct sequence REFERENCES: page 318 85. Code division multiplexing uses ____________________ or direct sequence spread spectrum technology.

ANSWER: frequency hopping REFERENCES: page 318 86. ____________________ is the process of taking data and somehow packing more of it into the same space.

ANSWER: Compression REFERENCES: page 320 87. With a(n) ____________________ compression technique, no data is lost due to compression.

ANSWER: lossless REFERENCES: page 320 88. With a(n) ____________________ compression technique, some portions of data may be lost due to compression.

ANSWER: lossy REFERENCES: page 320 89. One of the more common and simpler examples of lossless compression is ____________________-length encoding.

ANSWER: run REFERENCES: page 321 90. ________ technique forms the basis of many modern algorithms, such as LZW (Lempel- Ziv-Welch) and LZSS (Lempel-Ziv-Storer-Szymanski).

ANSWER: Lempel-Ziv LZ77 REFERENCES: page 321 91. ____________________ is the first phase of the compression performed by the JPEG format.

ANSWER: Discrete cosine transformation REFERENCES: page 323 92. ____________________ is a less expensive wavelength division multiplexing technology because it is designed for short-distance connections and has a greater space between a few lambdas.

ANSWER: Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing CWDM REFERENCES: page 316 93. To determine best paths, routers using ____________________ protocols focus less on the number of hops between networks and more on the state of each of its connections.

ANSWER: link state routing REFERENCES: page 309 94. ______________________________ protocol is a link state algorithm with no hop limits, and it is still used today by many Internet routers.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks ANSWER:

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Open Shortest Path First OSPF REFERENCES: page 311 95. _________________________ are techniques applied to WANs and they include caching, data compression, and multiplexing.

ANSWER: WAN optimization REFERENCES: page 312 96. ________________ multiplexing allows only one user at a time to transmit, and the sharing of the medium is accomplished by dividing available transmission time among users.

ANSWER: Time division REFERENCES: page 313 97. What is the difference between a multiplexor and a demultiplexor?

ANSWER: In general, the device that accepts input from one or more users is called the multiplexor. The device that is attached to the receiving end of the medium and splits off each signal to deliver it to the appropriate receiver is called the second multiplexor, or demultiplexor. In all frequency division multiplexing systems, the multiplexor accepts input from the user(s), converts the data streams to analog signals using either fixed or dynamically assigned frequencies, and transmits the combined analog signals over a medium that has a wide enough bandwidth to support the total range of all the assigned frequencies. The demultiplexor then accepts the combined analog signals, separates out one or more of the individual analog signals, and delivers these to the appropriate user(s).

REFERENCES: page 313 98. How does time division multiplexing work?

ANSWER: Suppose an instructor in a classroom poses a controversial question to students. In response, a number of hands shoot up, and the instructor calls on each student, one at a time. It is the instructor’s responsibility to make sure that only one student talks at any given moment, so that each individual’s response is heard. In a relatively crude way, the instructor is a time division multiplexor, giving each user (student) a moment in time to transmit data (express an opinion to the rest of the class). In a similar fashion, a time division multiplexor calls on one input device after another, giving each device a turn at transmitting its data over a high-speed line. Suppose two users, A and B, wish to transmit data over a shared medium to a distant computer. We can create a rather simple time division multiplexing scheme by allowing user A to transmit during the first second, then user B during the following second, followed again by user A during the third second, and so on.

REFERENCES: page 313 99. How does Wavelength division multiplexing work?

ANSWER: The technique assigns a uniquely colored laser to each input source and combines the multiple optical signals of the input sources so that they can be amplified as a group and transported over a single fiber. It is interesting to note that because of the properties of the signals and glass fiber, plus the nature of light itself, each signal carried on the fiber can be transmitted at a different rate from the other signals. This means that a single fiber-optic line can support simultaneous transmission speeds.

REFERENCES: page 316 100. What are the major disadvantages of frequency division multiplexing?

ANSWER: Frequency division multiplexing suffers from two major disadvantages. The first disadvantage is found in computer-based systems that multiplex multiple channels over a single medium. Because Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Wide Area Networks the frequencies are usually statically assigned, devices that do not have anything to transmit are still assigned frequencies, and thus bandwidth is wasted. The second disadvantage of frequency division multiplexing is due to the fact that the technique uses analog signals, and analog signals are more susceptible to noise disruption than digital signals. Nonetheless, many different types of applications (such as television and radio) use frequency division multiplexing because of its simplicity, and the technique is probably going to be with us for a long time.

REFERENCES: page 315 101. How is routing through a wide area network accomplished?

ANSWER: Consider the Internet as an example: It is a massive collection of networks, routers, and communications lines (various types of telephone lines). When a data packet enters a router, the router examines the IP address encapsulated in the network layer of the packet and determines where the packet should go next.

When there are multiple routes through a network such as the Internet, how is any one particular route selected? Although routing on the Internet is fairly complex, it is possible to examine the basic routing techniques that all types of wide area networks employ. But keep in mind that a wide area network does not use only one form of routing. The routing algorithms used within the Internet, for example, are actually combinations of several types of basic routing techniques.

To begin to understand the often-complex issue of routing, it is helpful to think of the sub-network as a graph consisting of nodes (computers, routers, or telephone switches) and edges (the communications links between the nodes).

REFERENCES: page 306

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources 1. The Internet can transfer conventional data and voice data. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 336 2. It wasn’t until the 1950s that POTS began carrying computer data signals as well as voice signals. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 3. A cost-saving factor to provide Internet connection to consumers and small businesses is the fact that many Internet connectivity options take advantage of existing network infrastructure. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 4. The telephone system actually allocates 2000 Hz to a channel and uses filters to remove frequencies that fall above and below each 2000-Hz channel. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 5. Near the end of the twentieth century, the POTS carried more data than voice. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 6. In DSLs, the distance of your house or business from the phone company’s CO (central office) does not impact the speed of the signal you experience. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 7. Telephone systems were originally designed to transmit the human voice.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 8. In DSLs, the type of connection, either symmetric or asymmetric, directly affects transfer speed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 9. DSLAM is an acronym for Discrete State Line Access Multiplexer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 10. VDSL is an acronym for Very high data rate DSL. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 11. An asymmetric service is useful for an Internet connection in which the bulk of the traffic comes down from the Internet to the workstation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 12. Most residential DSL services are symmetric. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 13. There is only one DSL format in use today. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 14. A cable modem is a physical device that separates the computer data from the cable television video signal. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 15. Cable modem connections are typically symmetric. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 340 16. Much of the cable television network has been converted to fiber and so is called an HFC network. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 17. Most cable modems connect to a private network through a common Ethernet NIC. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 18. An advantage of cable modems is that, as traffic to and from each customer’s location increases, there is an increase in available bandwidth for each network connection. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 340 19. A DOCSIS 3.1 modem might be capable of supporting speeds nearing 100 Gbps. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources REFERENCES: page 340 20. Cable companies that offer a cable modem service use a standard called DOCSIS. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 340 21. MONs are a sort of WAN implemented over satellite communication medium. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 341 22. The proximity of the fiber cable termination to its point of use does not impact the cost of fiber Internet. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 341 23. LEO (low Earth orbit) satellites maintain an altitude of 3,000 to 10,000 miles. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 343 24. GPS is a global positioning system supported by MEO satellites. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 343 25. GEO satellites are also known as high Earth orbit satellites. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 343 26. Typically, FTTC represents a nearby fiber Internet service junction that serves a few hundred customers.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 341 27. Getting fiber closer to your own network increases your fiber Internet speeds. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 342 28. 3G will make cellular networking relevant to all kinds of connections, not just for checking your email or streaming a YouTube video on your phone. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 345 29. MPLS enables multiple types of layer 3 protocols to travel over any one of several layer 2 protocols. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 30. MPLS labels are sometimes called a shim because of their placement between layer 3 and layer 4 headers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 31. MPLS connections are highly scalable for businesses, which means a business can add more and longer connections for less cost than similarly scaled leased lines. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 32. With 1 to 2 Mbps for the downlink and 300 Kbs for uplink, ____ Internet works well when low-speed, asymmetrical service is sufficient for the customer’s purposes. a. cable modem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources b. satellite c. fiber d. DSL ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 344 33. The growing trend in ISP offerings is to provide ____ closer and closer to the customer’s location. a. cable modem b. satellite c. fiber d. DSL ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 341 34. ____ provides high-speed connections to the Internet profiting from television distribution infrastructure. a. Cable modem b. Satellite c. Fiber d. DSL ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 340 35. ____ allows existing twisted pair telephone lines to transmit multimedia materials and high-speed data. a. cable modem b. satellite c. fiber d. DSL ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 36. ____ is when two computers create a VPN tunnel directly between them, and they don’t serve as a gateway to other hosts or resources on their respective networks. a. Host-to-host VPN b. Client-to-site VPN c. Site-to-site VPN d. VPN headend ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 353 37. When tunnels connect multiple sites on a WAN, this is known as ____.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources a. host-to-host VPN b. client-to-site VPN c. site-to-site VPN d. VPN headend ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 352 38. ____ is also known as host-to-site VPN. a. Host-to-host VPN b. Client-to-site VPN c. Site-to-site VPN d. VPN headend ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 352 39. It is called ____ when an SD-WAN controller can manage network configurations at multiple locations throughout the world, regardless of the type of connection each segment uses to reach the SD-WAN. a. zero-touch provisioning b. intent-based management c. active-active load balancing d. transport agnostic ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 356 40. It is called ____ when an SD-WAN edge device can be shipped to a branch location where a non-technical person can plug in the device without any configuration needed on-site. a. zero-touch provisioning b. intent-based management c. active-active load balancing d. transport agnostic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 356 41. Rather than managing each network’s cloud connections separately, ____ provides cloud-based management of WAN, LAN, and cloud connections. a. VPN b. SD-WAN c. SASE d. SD-branch ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources REFERENCES: page 358 42. A(n) ____ solution can evaluate the remote LAN’s traffic as it makes decisions about which traffic should be transmitted on which WAN connection. a. VPN b. SD-WAN c. SASE d. SD-branch ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 357 43. A(n) ____ connection is one in which the transfer speeds to download and upload are equal. a. symmetric b. asymmetric c. balanced d. equal ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 44. A(n) ____ connection has a faster downstream transmission speed than its upstream speed. a. symmetric b. uneven c. asymmetric d. unbalanced ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 45. ____ satellites are found exactly 22,236 miles (35,786 kilometers) from the Earth and are always positioned over the same longitude at a point near the Earth’s equator. a. LEO b. MEO c. GEO d. HEO ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 343 46. ____ is implemented as a leased telephone line (or group of lines) that maintains a constant, all-digital data connection between two locations and can transfer either voice or data at speeds up to 1.544 Mbps. a. DSL b. T-1 line c. Frame relay Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources d. ATM ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 316 47. Digital subscriber line comes in a variety of formats. Often collectively referred to as ____. a. ADSL b. VDSL c. SDSL d. xDSL ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 48. ____ is a popular format that transmits the downstream data at a faster rate than the upstream rate. a. ADSL b. VDSL c. SDSL d. xDSL ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 49. ____ is a very fast format (up to 100 Mbps downstream and upstream) over very short distances (less than 300 meters). a. ADSL b. VDSL c. SDSL d. xDSL ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: 316-317 50. ____ is an enterprise-grade WAN service that is sometimes said to belong to “layer 2.5”. a. DSL b. VPN c. Ethernet d. MPLS ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 51. ____ is a packet-switched network that was designed for transmitting data over fixed lines. a. DSL b. T-1 line Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources c. Frame relay d. ATM ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 52. ____ is a data transfer service that can connect one business to another business (or businesses) using a standard Ethernet connection. a. Metro Ethernet b. Business Ethernet c. Ethernet 2.5 d. Multi Ethernet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 350 53. When a VPN captures all network traffic, whether destined for the Internet or for the corporate network, it is called ____. a. all traffic VPN b. broad traffic c. full tunnel VPN d. split tunnel VPN ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 353 54. ____ is an effective tool to increase privacy and security when using an insecure Wi-Fi network, such as when using an open Wi-Fi connection at a café or coffee shop. a. SASE b. VPN c. cloud connectivity d. DSL ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 354 55. The standard called ____ was created by the MEF to allow the use of Ethernet for WANs. a. WAN Ethernet b. Carrier Ethernet c. Wide Area Ethernet d. Extended Ethernet ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 349 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources 56. There are two basic ways a business can create a tunnel through the Internet: Software or ____. a. Hardware b. Virtual Hardware c. Hardware and Software d. Cloud Hardware ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 351 57. ____ is the option offered by cloud platform for connecting back to the customer's datacenter that maximizes predictability and minimizes latency. a. Private or dedicated direct connection b. Leased line c. Remote access connection d. Internet ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 354 58. ____ is an effective way to appear to connect to a website from some location other than where you are located. a. Cellular network b. Ethernet c. Cloud connectivity d. VPN ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 354 59. ____ does not allow users to set their own data transfer rates, as they must simply accept the one rate corresponding to the particular brand. a. Cloud services b. LAN Ethernet c. Hardware firewall d. Virtual firewall ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 350 60. While MPLS does offer decreased ____, this benefit is not quite as noticeable today as it was when MPLS first became available. a. unreliability b. failure rate c. latency d. scalability ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 349 61. Each region covered by cellular service is broken down into adjacent ____. a. networks b. cells c. domains d. channels ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 344 62. Besides fiber Internet connection, ____ Internet connection also makes frequent use of optic fiber cabling. a. DSL b. satellites c. cellular networks d. cable modem ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 340 63. The ____ is located at the main facility of the cable operator and translates the incoming data packets into radio frequencies. a. DOCSIS b. ISP c. CMTS d. CTSO ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 340 64. ____ is an advanced router (gateway) placed at each end of the tunnel to provide the necessary VPN security software. a. VPN headend b. Multiplexor c. Firewall d. Demultiplexor ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 352 65. ____ only captures traffic destined for the corporate network. a. Corporate tunnel VPN b. Split tunnel VPN c. Selective tunnel VPN d. Full tunnel VPN Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 354 66. To establish a client-to-site VPN, only the ____ needs a static public IP address. a. Encoder b. Server c. Decoder d. VPN headend ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 352 67. The basic telephone system, or ________________________________________, has been in existence since the early 1900s.

ANSWER: plain old telephone service (POTS) plain old telephone service POTS POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 68. Any data transmission that is performed over a standard telephone line must fit within one or more fairly narrow bands of ________ Hz. ANSWER: 4000 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 69. The closer your house or business is to the __________, the faster the possible transmission speed.

ANSWER: central office (CO) central office CO POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 70. A given _____________ DSL service provides download speeds around 35 Mbps, while upload speeds are about 10 Mbps.

ANSWER: asymmetric POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 338 71. A DSL in which the transfer rate can vary depending on noise levels within the telephone line’s local loop is called ____________________ (R-ADSL).

ANSWER: rate-adaptive DSL POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 72. Because ______________is not readily available from older telecommunications systems, this service option is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources typically more expensive, and its availability is limited.

ANSWER: fiber cable POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 341 73. Signals via satellite travel from a ground station on Earth to a satellite in orbit around the Earth and back to another ground station on Earth, thus traversing great distances across the globe, farther than Earth-bound ______________ transmissions.

ANSWER: line-of-sight POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 342 74. MEO (middle Earth orbit) satellites are typically found roughly 3,000 to _________ miles from the Earth.

ANSWER: 15,000 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 343 75. By 2019, nearly _________ LEO satellites were in orbit, including the International Space Station and the Hubble Space Telescope.

ANSWER: 1,500 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 343 76. Much of the cable television network has been converted to _________ and so is called an HFC (hybrid fiber-coaxial) network.

ANSWER: fiber POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 347 77. In an ATM, all data is sent in small, 53-byte packages called ___________.

ANSWER: cells POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 78. As its name implies, MPLS enables multiple types of layer ____ protocols to travel over any one of several layer 2 protocols.

ANSWER: 3 POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 79. _________________________ is a technology that allows existing twisted pair telephone lines to transmit multimedia materials and high-speed data.

ANSWER: Digital subscriber line (DSL) Digital subscriber line DSL POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources 80. ____________________ is a slower format compared to VDSL. ANSWER: Asymmetric DSL (ADSL) Asymmetric DSL ADSL POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 81. ______________________________ is also known as very high-speed DSL and very high bit-rate DSL. ANSWER: Very high data rate DSL (VDSL) Very high data rate DSL VDSL POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 82. A(n) ____________________ is a high-speed communications service that allows high-speed access to wide area networks such as the Internet via a cable television connection.

ANSWER: cable modem POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 339 83. With MPLS, the first ISP router (the provider’s edge router, also called the MPLS ______________) receives a message in a data stream and adds one or more labels to the layer 3 packet.

ANSWER: ingress router POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 84. ______________________________ , like frame relay, is a very high-speed, packet-switched service that is offered by the telephone companies.

ANSWER: Asynchronous Transfer Mode POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 85. Most often, remote workers will use a(n) __________ over the Internet to securely connect to the company network.

ANSWER: Virtual Private Network (VPN) Virtual Private Network VPN POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 352 86. Client-to-site VPN is also called ________________.

ANSWER: host-to-site VPN POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 352 87. Two common approaches to VPN ____________ either require all network traffic to traverse the VPN tunnel or only some of that traffic.

ANSWER: tunneling POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources REFERENCES: page 353 88. Some of the larger cloud service providers maintain multiple ______ (Points of Presence) around the world.

ANSWER: PoPs POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 354 89. ______________________ relies on abstracted, centralized control of networking devices to manage network functions across a diverse infrastructure, including managing network connections across a variety of WANs. ANSWER: SD-WAN (software-defined WAN) software-defined WAN SD-WAN POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 356 90. SD-branch implements network _____________ similar in concept to VLANs but with simpler management that can be handled from the home office.

ANSWER: segmentation POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 357 91. What is the reason for existing Full Tunnel VPN and Split Tunnel VPN? ANSWER: When a remote site or a remote worker uses a VPN to connect to the company’s main network, that connection might also handle the remote site’s or employee’s connection to the Internet. In that case, the VPN must be capable of supporting higher bandwidths, as today’s employees use many tools accessed through the Internet. Two common approaches to VPN tunneling either require all network traffic to traverse the VPN tunnel or only some of that traffic. Full tunnel VPN captures all network traffic, whether destined for the Internet or for the corporate network. The client has no access to its local network and is assigned an IP address from the remote network. Split tunnel VPN only captures traffic destined for the corporate network. The client can communicate with local network resources directly and with Internet resources, such as Google or Zoom, through a local Internet connection. The client is assigned an IP address from the local network.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 353 92. What is active-active load balancing and automatic failover?

ANSWER: An SD-WAN managed network offers active-active load balancing where it can choose the best physical WAN connection for different types of traffic according to traffic prioritization and current network conditions. For example, suppose a branch office has three Internet connections as shown in Figure 1019: an MPLS connection, a broadband connection, and a 5G wireless connection. SD-WAN can route traffic over each of these connections according to each data stream’s configured priority. If one WAN connection goes down, the SD-WAN controller can switch traffic to another WAN connection.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 356 93. What does a business or home user need to establish a DSL connection?

ANSWER: At the present time, four components are required. The local telephone company (LEC) must install a special router called a DSLAM (digital subscriber line access multiplexer) within the telephone company’s central office. This device bypasses the central office switching equipment and creates and Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources decodes the DSL signals that transfer on the telephone local loop. Next, the local telephone company may also install a DSL splitter on its premises, which combines or splits the DSL circuits (the upstream and downstream channels) with the standard telephone circuit of POTS. Some DSL systems transmit over the same telephone line that runs from a central office to a home or business. Because it is the same telephone line, DSL must share the line with a POTS signal.

On the user end, a DSL modem is required to convert the DSL signals into a form that the user workstation or network can understand. If the DSL circuit is also carrying a POTS telephone circuit, the user will also need a splitter to separate the regular telephone line from the DSL data line. Finally, the DSLAM router at the telephone company’s central office must be connected to an Internet service provider via a high-speed line. Because this highspeed line will be supporting the Internet service requests from multiple users, the line needs to be a very fast service, such as ATM. POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 337 94. What are the advantages of frame relay?

ANSWER: A frame relay service provides many attractive alternatives to leased lines. One of the first noticeable characteristics of a frame relay network is its very high transfer speeds. The data transfer speeds can be very fast, up to 45 Mbps and sometimes even higher. Along with the high data transfer rates, there is high throughput—the network as a whole is also very fast. Using fiber-optic cables, frame relay switches quickly transfer data so that it travels from one end of the network to the other in a relatively short period of time. Frame relay networks also provide very good security. Because of the encryption techniques used to transmit data between frame relay switches, it is extremely difficult to intercept and decode the transmitted data. In addition, frame relay connections are permanent connections. Because the connection is fixed, it is always available.

Another advantage associated with frame relay (and other modern high-speed wide area networks) is that their error rates during transmission are low. In fact, the error rate of frame relay networks is so low that the network does not have any form of error control. If an error occurs, the frame relay network simply discards the frame. It is the responsibility of the application, and not the frame relay network, to perform error control.

Last, frame relay networks are reasonably priced. Fixed monthly pricing is based on three charges: a port charge for each access line that connects a business into the frame relay network; a charge for each permanent connection that runs through the frame relay network between two endpoints (companies using the service); and a charge for the access line, which is the high-speed telephone line that physically connects the business to the frame relay port. Because a port and access line are capable of supporting multiple permanent connections, a user may pay one port charge, one access line charge, and several permanent connection charges.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348 95. What are the advantages and disadvantages of ATM? ANSWER: Due to its range of features, such as high transfer speeds, various classes of service, and the ability to operate over many types of media and network topologies (LANs as well as WANs), ATM has a number of significant advantages. ATM can support a wide range of applications with varying bandwidths, at a wide range of transmission speeds. Cell switching, which is performed by ATM’s high-speed, hardwarebased switches that route cells down the appropriate path, is so fast that it provides short delays and high bandwidths. ATM’s different classes of service allow customers to choose service type and pricing individually for each data connection (VCC). Finally, ATM is extremely versatile. It can carry voice, packet data, and video over the same facilities.

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Chapter 10: Connecting Networks and Resources As you might expect, ATM also has a number of disadvantages. It is often more expensive than other data transmission options. The cost of ATM equipment is high. This is because the cell-switching equipment, to be capable of delivering such a fast connection, is by necessity relatively complex. Due to the complexity of ATM, there is a high learning curve for setting up and managing the network. Lastly, compatible hardware and software may not be widely available.

ATM is now being heavily used by the large telecommunications carriers (AT&T, Sprint, and so on) to provide voice and Internet services. Because of its complexity and cost, smaller businesses have been reluctant to use ATM. Alternate technologies that can offer reasonably comparable speeds at much lower costs have, however, attracted much attention from smaller businesses. One attractive alternative to ATM on a local area network is high-speed Ethernet, which has transfer speeds hitting 100 Mbps to 10 Gbps. Metropolitan area networks are also seeing a growth in high-speed Ethernet, as it is chosen over ATM. Recently, ATM networks are starting to lose ground to MPLS over Internet routers and virtual private networks (VPNs).

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 348

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management 1. Computer network technology changes at breakneck speed. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 372 2. The software development cycle more commonly in use today is a one-time one. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 375 3. Computer networks are constantly increasing in complexity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 372 4. Not all analysis and design projects require all three network connectivity maps. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 5. In a wide area connectivity map, a dotted line between two sites indicates the desired path for data (or voice) transmission. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 6. A metropolitan area connectivity map shares some of the characteristics of wide area maps and some of the characteristics of local area maps. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 7. Latency, delivery rate, and failover are usually significant factors that are included at the local area level. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 380 8. The streamlining and built-in repetition of the application lifecycle, along with the increased collaboration between the teams working on each app, has come to be known as DevOps. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 375 9. The term “feasible” has several meanings when it’s applied to computer-based projects. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 381 10. When calculating computer system benefits, you do not need to include intangible benefits. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 388 11. Project management is the application of specific skills, tools, and techniques to manage processes in such a way that the desired outcome is achieved. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 373 12. A new method, called waterfall, is starting to be employed by organizations, and it takes a linear path to SDLC. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 374 13. Computer networks are mission-critical systems and designing a new computer network or increasing the capacity of a current system requires careful planning. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 14. Capacity planning is a fairly easy and fast operation. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 15. A local area overview connectivity map can show how individual workstations or groups of workstations are clustered with switches, routers, and server farms. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 380 16. Computer simulations are easy to create, mainly because it is difficult to make mistakes in the modeling process and easy to discover them. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 17. Compared to simulation, benchmarking is a relatively straightforward technique and can provide useful information when it’s used to analyze a network. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 18. Setting up a benchmark test can be quite time-consuming. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 19. Many experts feel analytical modeling is a good way to determine network capacity. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 20. The advantage of analytical modeling is that it is extremely difficult to create inaccurate analytical models and thus generate results that are invalid. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 21. Once a baseline is created, the results can be used to identify network weaknesses and strengths. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 22. Baseline studies are most effective when they are initiated during a time when the network is experiencing severe problems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 23. A system’s time feasibility is the extent to which the system can be installed in a timely fashion that meets organizational needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 24. Capacity planning involves trying to determine the amount of workstation memory necessary to support an application or a set of applications. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 25. Load testing places the full force of anticipated demand on a system to determine if it can handle the load. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 384 26. Regression testing cannot confirm that changes to one system haven’t negatively impacted other systems or functionality. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 384 27. Puppet is a configuration management tool similar to Chef. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 399 28. Ansible is an open-source and free automation tool. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 399 29. NetFlow is a proprietary traffic monitoring protocol from Cisco. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 390 30. With the increasing speed of technological advancement, organizations are finding the ____ method for SDLC can no longer keep up with demand. a. agile b. AL c. waterfall d. ALM ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 374 31. ____ is a proprietary traffic monitoring protocol from Cisco that tracks all IP traffic crossing any interface where it is enabled. a. NetFlow b. TCP Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management c. SNMP d. IP ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 390 32. Change ____ consists of carefully defined processes to evaluate the need for a change, the cost of the change, a plan for making the change with minimal disruption, and a backup plan if the change does not work as expected. a. evaluation b. management c. assessment d. analysis ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 376 33. One technique used to model a corporation’s network environment is to create ____. a. link shadows b. node approaches c. dots model d. connectivity maps ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 34. Three different modeling techniques can be used: ____ area connectivity maps, metropolitan area connectivity maps, and local area connectivity maps. a. personal b. wide c. world d. universal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 35. In a wide area connectivity map, mobile or wireless sites are indicated by circles containing the letter ____. a. A b. E c. M d. X ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 36. In a wide area connectivity map, external sites, such as suppliers or external agents, are denoted by circles containing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management the letter ____. a. E b. F c. M d. X ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 37. Data rate and security are still important parameters at the metropolitan layer, but ____is probably not as important as it was in the wide area map. a. link b. connectivity c. bandwidth d. distance ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 38. To examine the nodes in a wide area connectivity map in more detail, an analyst can expand each individual site into a ____ area connectivity map. a. personal b. local c. world d. universal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 39. A ____ map can show how individual workstations or groups of workstations are clustered with switches, routers, hubs, and server farms. a. local area detailed connectivity b. local area overview connectivity c. metropolitan area connectivity d. wide area connectivity ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 380 40. A system’s ____ feasibility is the extent to which the system can be created, given the company’s current finances. a. technical b. operational c. financial d. time ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 41. When a company is evaluating a project’s ____ feasibility, the company must ask: Will the proposed system produce the expected results? a. financial b. technical c. time d. operational ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 42. When a company is evaluating a project’s ____ feasibility, the company must ask: Can the proposed system be designed, built, tested, and installed in an amount of time that all parties find reasonable and to which they can agree? a. financial b. technical c. time d. operational ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 43. ____ projection involves predicting one or more network capacities based on the current network parameters and multiplying those capacities by some constant. a. Linear b. Multiplicative c. Geometric d. Addictive ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 44. A ____ is an isolated environment where you can experiment with changes or potentially dangerous software without exposing sensitive resources to risk of damage. a. fenced box b. sandbox c. safe box d. testbox ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 384 45. ____ testing confirms that changes to one system haven’t negatively impacted other systems or functionality. a. Load b. Leaking Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management c. Side effect d. Regression ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 384 46. ____ testers can verify connectivity and test for line faults, such as open circuits, short circuits, reversed circuits, and crossed circuits. a. Cable b. Electrical c. Network d. Connector ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 385 47. ____ testers measure AC and DC volts, resistance, and continuity. a. Cable b. Electrical c. Network d. Connector ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 385 48. ____ testers have a display that graphically shows a network segment and all the devices attached to it. a. Cable b. Electrical c. Network d. Connector ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 386 49. A(n) ____ can monitor traffic at a specific interface between a server or client and the network. a. optical power meter b. continuity tester c. protocol analyzer d. network monitor ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 386 50. It is called ____ when a NIC transmits continuously but does not send valid data. a. flood Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management b. jabber c. macaw d. nicker ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 386 51. ____ is a standard for generating, storing, and processing messages about events on many networked systems. a. Agent b. NetFlow c. Syslog d. SNMP ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 387 52. Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily reviewing and filtering the information in system ____. a. users b. networks c. alerts d. logs ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 388 53. The cloud migration strategy ____ can also be called rip and replace. a. Repurchase b. Rehost c. Retain d. Refactor ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 395 54. There are ___ phases in the process of cloud migration. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 394 55. The advantage of using a ____ is that it can mimic conditions that would be extremely difficult, if not impossible, to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management create on a real network. a. computer simulation b. linear projection c. time projection d. benchmark ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 56. ____ involves generating system statistics under a controlled environment and then comparing those statistics against known measurements. a. Linear projection b. Benchmarking c. Computer simulation d. Analytical modeling ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 57. ____ involves the creation of mathematical equations to calculate various network values. a. Linear projection b. Benchmarking c. Computer simulation d. Analytical modeling ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 58. The cloud migration strategy ____ can also be called do-nothing. a. Repurchase b. Rehost c. Retain d. Refactor ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 395 59. Network personnel create a ____ to determine the normal and current operating conditions of the network. a. linear projection b. computer projection c. timeline d. baseline ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management 60. To collect baseline information on ____, you create a list of the number and types of system nodes in the network. a. operational protocol b. system users c. system nodes d. network application ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 61. Collecting baseline information on ____ involves listing the types of operational protocols used throughout the system. a. system users b. operational protocols c. network application d. system nodes ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 62. The cloud migration strategy ____ can also be called lift and shift. a. Repurchase b. Rehost c. Retain d. Refactor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 395 63. The cloud migration strategy ____ can also be called rebuild and rearchitect. a. Repurchase b. Rehost c. Retain d. Refactor ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 395 64. ____ refers to the use of software-based solutions to perform a process or procedure with minimal human intervention. a. Deployment b. Code c. Automation d. Management ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management REFERENCES: page 396 65. A ____ is a collection of physical or digital documents that outline the precise steps to complete procedures or operations in a specific IT environment. a. shell b. runbook c. program d. script ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 398 66. ____ are important information to know for cloud migration because countries and states have different laws for data protection. a. Baselines b. Target hosts c. Business continuity d. Legal restrictions ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 394 67. ____ is an industry standard created by the Internet Engineering Task Force and designed originally to manage Internet components. a. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 388 68. The ____ software controls the operations of a managed element and maintains a database of information about all managed elements. a. SNMP agent b. SNMP manager c. SMTP manager d. SMTP agent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 388 69. We call ____ when one environment is active while the other environment receives updates, allowing for further testing, or serving as a backup. a. blue-green deployment b. double net Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management c. double deployment d. safe net ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 384 70. The most active portion of the ALM is the _________________ phase.

ANSWER: software development POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 374 71. When a(n) ______________________ or architect is asked to design or update an IT system, they will typically create a set of models for both the existing system (if there is one) and the proposed system.

ANSWER: systems analyst POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 72. In order to create a(n) ____________________ connectivity map, the modeler begins by identifying each site or location in which the company has an office.

ANSWER: wide area POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 73. If a company desires a metropolitan area network connection between one of its offices and another business, it can use a(n) ____________________ connectivity map to outline this connection and define the desired network characteristics.

ANSWER: metropolitan area POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 379 74. A(n) ___________________ is a study used to compare current conditions with desired conditions.

ANSWER: gap analysis POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 381 75. If only an overview of a local network is desired, then the analyst can create a(n) ____________________ connectivity map.

ANSWER: local area overview POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 380 76. The ____________________ feasibility of a system is the extent to which the system can be created and implemented using currently existing technology.

ANSWER: technical POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management 77. When a system demonstrates ____________________ feasibility, it operates as designed and implemented.

ANSWER: operational POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 78. A system’s ____________________ feasibility is the extent to which the system can be installed in a timely fashion and meets organizational needs.

ANSWER: time POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 79. ____________________ involves generating system statistics under a controlled environment and then comparing those statistics against known measurements.

ANSWER: Benchmarking POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 80. Planned changes should never be deployed directly in the active _________________ environment that is currently supporting users and work processes without extensive testing first.

ANSWER: production POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 81. ________________ places the full force of anticipated demand on a system to determine if it can handle the load.

ANSWER: Load testing POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 384 82. A(n) _______________ monitor is a tool that continuously monitors network traffic and might receive data from monitoring devices that are configured to report their statistics.

ANSWER: network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 386 83. ____________________ involves trying to determine the amount of network bandwidth necessary to support an application or a set of applications.

ANSWER: Capacity planning POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 382 84. ____________________ involves predicting one or more network capacities based on the current network parameters and multiplying those capacities by some constant.

ANSWER: Linear projection POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 85. A(n) ____________________ involves modeling an existing system or a proposed system using a computer-based Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management simulation tool and subjecting the model to varying degrees of user demand (called load).

ANSWER: computer simulation POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 86. Creating a(n) ____________________ for an existing computer network involves measuring and recording a network’s state of operation over a given period of time.

ANSWER: baseline POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 87. The _________________ study should also generate a list of all network applications found on the network, including the number, type, and utilization level of each application ANSWER: baseline POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 391 88. Automated tools can also deploy, replicate, or resize resources quickly to efficiently meet increasing or decreasing demand, which, as you might recall, is called ____________________.

ANSWER: auto-scaling POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 397 89. Computers, however, are very good at doing exactly what you tell them to do and doing it exactly the same way every time, thus _________________ is a good option.

ANSWER: automation POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 397 90. The application of the runbook concept in an automated environment is called ____________________.

ANSWER: IaC (infrastructure as code) IaC infrastructure as code POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 398 91. ____________________ deploys changes in small increments on a short time schedule, such as every 24 hours, rather than being delayed for larger, less frequent updates.

ANSWER: Continuous delivery POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 376 92. A(n) ______________________________ facilitates the exchange of management information between network devices.

ANSWER: network management protocol POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 388 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management 93. A managed element has management software, called a(n) ____________________, running in it.

ANSWER: agent POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 388 94. The database that holds the information about all managed devices is called the ____________________________________.

ANSWER: Management Information Base (MIB) Management Information Base MIB POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 389 95. Mention some of the major goals every company has.

ANSWER: Every company, whether it’s a for-profit or nonprofit organization, usually has several major goals, some of which may include: * Increasing the company’s customer base * Keeping customers happy by providing the company’s services as well as possible * Increasing the company’s profit level, or, in a nonprofit organization, acquiring the funds necessary to meet the organization’s goals and objectives * Conducting business more efficiently and effectively From these major goals, systems planners and management personnel within a company try to generate a set of questions that, when satisfactorily answered, will assist their organization in achieving its goals and move the organization forward. For example, someone in management might ask: Is there a way to streamline the order system to allow the company to conduct business more efficiently and effectively?

Can we automate the customer renewal system, to better serve customers and keep them happy? Is there a more efficient way to offer new products to help the company increase the customer base? Is there a better way to manage our warehouse system to increase company profits?

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 373 96. What are the SDLC phases?

ANSWER: Although virtually every company that uses SDLC and every textbook that teaches SDLC has its own slightly different variation of the methodology, most agree that the SDLC includes the following phases: * Planning—Identify problems, opportunities, and objectives. * Analysis—Determine information requirements, analyze system needs, and prepare a written systems proposal. * Design—Design and build the system recommended at the end of the analysis phase and create the documentation to accompany the system. * Implementation—Install the system and prepare to move from the old system to the new system; train the users. * Maintenance—Correct and update the installed system as necessary.

POINTS: 1 97. What implies risk management in the context of project management?

ANSWER: Accepting some risks in a project will increase the likelihood that the endeavor is relevant and innovative while minimizing unhealthy risks will prevent detrimental surprises that undermine confidence in the project’s goals. Effective risk management, to a great degree, requires experience and maturity. Project management training teaches how to identify the most relevant factors when Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Network Design and Management considering a particular risk and promotes greater skill in choosing risks wisely.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 374 98. Provide an example of capacity planning using linear projection.

ANSWER: For an example of capacity planning—using a linear projection—suppose you work for a company that allows its employees to access the Internet. Informal studies performed in the late 1990s showed that the average Internet user requires a transmission link of 50 kbps. As a precaution, let’s double that figure to 100 kbps to allow room for growth. Additional studies have shown that the peak hour for Internet access is around 11:00 a.m., at which time about 40 percent of the potential users are on the system. If your system has 1000 potential users, your peak capacity would correspond to 400 concurrent users, each of whom requires a 100-kbps connection. To satisfy this demand, network capacity would need to be 40 Mbps (400 x 100 kbps). Can your local area network support this much traffic? In this example, capacity planning indicates that if your company is not willing to install communications links totaling 40 Mbps, it may have to apply restrictions on how its employees use the Internet. For example, the company may have to limit the number of simultaneous users or not give the full 100-kbps capacity to each user.

Alternatively, the company can simply hope that no more than 40 percent of all its users will access the Internet at the same moment in time.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 383 99. Cite some automation tools available in cloud platforms as well as some third-party tools.

ANSWER: Each major cloud platform includes its own automation tool, such as AWS’s CloudFormation, Azure’s Resource Manager, and GCP’s Deployment Manager. Templates are typically configured using YAML or JSON, both of which are machine readable while also being human-reader friendly. A third-party provisioning tool is Terraform. Terraform was developed by HashiCorp (hashicorp.com) and provides cloud-agnostic infrastructure provisioning. The open-source version is free to the public while the enterprise version offers additional features, such as GUI, collaboration, and governance capabilities that work well in an enterprise environment where many teams rely on the same tools. Terraform works with AWS, Azure, GCP, and more than 150 other service providers.

POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: page 399

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT 1. Nearly every decision regarding a company’s network must be made in the context of its effect on the business. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 414 2. Business processes, principles, and priorities are not integrated into how companies handle technology. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 414 3. Network admins' work involves repairing failed components, installing new applications and updating the existing ones, keeping the system’s existing users up-to-date, and looking for new ways to improve the overall system and service level. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 415 4. To make effective use of limited resources, a network admin should also possess interpersonal, training, and budget management skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 415 5. A network admin does not need to possess policy creation and enforcement skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 415 6. CompTIA Network+ is a vendor-neutral certification. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 415 7. VMware VCP (VMware Certified Professional) is a vendor-neutral certification. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 416 8. To increase vertical movement within a company, employers can provide on-the-job training to pre-qualify their Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT existing employees for positions the company needs to be filled. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 416 9. Companies that invest in their employees are more frequently able to promote from within, which streamlines business processes as employees are cross-trained in various job roles. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 416 10. Many experts in their field enjoy guiding less-experienced coworkers at their own company or colleagues at other companies. This is called on-the-job training. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 416 11. The pursuit of higher-level certifications ensures you will continually challenge your current abilities and will help you keep up with changes and new technologies a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 417 12. Instructional videos can provide simulated hands-on experience with the flexibility of eLearning. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 418 13. Instructional videos can give how-to demonstrations of specific tasks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 418 14. Simulations can be used as a reference resource. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 418 15. SOP is an acronym for Secure Operational Policies.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 419 16. SOP is never concerned by employees' use of social media, except by concerns about the passwords defined for accessing social media. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 419 17. Many vendors require a close working relationship to ensure a company’s network functions reliably and benefits from their products and services. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 420 18. In addition to training, large service providers offer other support services to ease a customer’s migration onto their platform, for example. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 421 19. The middle tier AWS support plan Business is designed for slightly larger businesses that need support for a failed production system within an hour. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 421 20. The lowest tier AWS support plan Developer is designed for individual developers, startups, or small businesses that need support for a failed production system within three hours. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 421 21. Existing team skills are not the only compatibility factor when considering how long it will take to migrate services from on-prem to the cloud. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 422 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT 22. When migrating services from on-prem to the cloud, the initial transition is the only important timeline to consider. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 422 23. Also in cloud services, we call “managed services” where a company takes over the responsibility of caring for a resource owned and used by someone else. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 422 24. Managed services cannot help fill the gap between the talent existing team members offer and the company’s needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 422 25. Once a vendor is selected, it can be difficult and expensive to shift to a different vendor later. This phenomenon is called vendor lock-in. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 422 26. SLA (Service-Level Agreement) is a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 423 27. An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) documents in detail the work that must be completed for a particular project, and includes specifics such as tasks, deliverables, standards, payment schedule, and work timeline. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 423 28. There are two kinds of RFI: RFP and RFQ. a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 423

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT 29. Request for Proposal is a kind of RFI that asks for detailed pricing information specific to the project. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 423 30. The Proof of Concept answers the question: Will a solution effectively address the problem they’re trying to solve? a. True b. False ANSWER: True REFERENCES: page 424 31. The Proof of Value answers the question: Will a solution effectively address the problem they’re trying to solve? a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 424 32. Although every device is different, the shorter the mean time between failures, the better. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 433 33. A reliability of exactly 1.0 means the network or device is reliable 1 percent of the time. a. True b. False ANSWER: False REFERENCES: page 334 34. ____ are the kind of network admin skill that includes knowing how to prepare a budget to justify continuing funds or to request additional funds. a. Basic statistical skills b. Interpersonal skills c. Budget management skills d. Training skills ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 415 35. ____ are the kind of network admin skill that collects and uses system statistics to justify the performance of existing systems or to validate the addition of new ones. a. Basic statistical skills b. Interpersonal skills c. Budget management skills d. Training skills ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT REFERENCES: page 415 36. ____ are the kind of network admin skill that requires the ability to talk with users to service problems and explore new applications. a. Basic statistical skills b. Interpersonal skills c. Budget management skills d. Training skills ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 415 37. ____ are the kind of network admin skill that is required for providing education related to the network. a. Basic statistical skills b. Interpersonal skills c. Budget management skills d. Training skills ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 415 38. ____ covers the topics of installing, configuring, operating, and troubleshooting enterprise-level routers and switched networks. a. AWS Cloud Practitioner b. Cisco CCNA c. VMware VCP d. CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 415 39. ____ validates a candidate’s ability to install, configure, and administer virtual networking in the vendor environment. a. AWS Cloud Practitioner b. Cisco CCNA c. VMware VCP d. CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 416 40. ____ certification addresses basic concepts and services in a specific cloud provider and serves as a gateway to many, highly respected certifications from this provider. a. AWS Cloud Practitioner b. Cisco CCNA c. VMware VCP d. CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 416 41. ____ is a vendor-neutral certification.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT a. AWS Cloud Practitioner b. Cisco CCNA c. VMware VCP d. CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 416 42. One of the kinds of professional development options are the ____ that are usually half-day or full-day training covering a focused skill set with a specific purpose. a. conferences b. workshops c. certifications d. mentoring ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 416 43. One of the kinds of professional development options are the ____ which offers professionals the opportunity to network with others in their field, learn from experts during sessions that address current trends and concerns, and identify emerging technologies that can benefit the company. a. conferences b. workshops c. certifications d. mentoring ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 416 44. One of the kinds of professional development options are the ____ that ensure you will continually challenge your current abilities and will help you keep up with changes and new technologies a. conferences b. workshops c. certifications d. mentoring ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 417 45. One of the kinds of professional development options are the ____ which can be invaluable as you make difficult decisions about job opportunities or as you face challenges in your existing position. a. conferences b. workshops c. certifications d. mentoring ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 416 46. Among the AWS support plans, Developer is the lowest tier, and it provides general guidance within ___ or assistance with an impaired system within 12 hours.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT a. 15 minutes b. 1 hour c. 3 hours d. 24 hours ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 421 47. Among the AWS support plans, Enterprise is the most expensive support plan, and it requires a response time of less than ____ if a business-critical system is down. a. 15 minutes b. 1 hour c. 3 hours d. 24 hours ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 421 48. Among the AWS support plans, Business is the middle tier, and it is designed for slightly larger businesses that need support for a failed production system within ____. a. 15 minutes b. 1 hour c. 3 hours d. 24 hours ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 421 49. Because most of the cloud infrastructure is managed through ____, changes can be tracked in detail and made quickly while a rollback to a previous state if something goes wrong requires only a few clicks. a. SLA b. SOP c. MSP d. IaC ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 422 50. One way to reduce the expense and difficulty of changing vendors later is to investigate formatting options for data, especially data in a ____ cloud service. a. SaaS or PaaS b. PaaS c. IaaS or PaaS d. IaaS ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 423 51. While open-source standards encourage freedom of movement between platforms, ____ prevent data portability, which is the ability to export data from one service and import it to a different vendor’s service. a. SOWs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT b. managed services c. SLAs d. proprietary standards ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 423 52. ___ is a form of a request for information that asks for more detailed responses from the vendor that are specific to the project. a. RFQ b. RFP c. MSA d. SLA ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 423 53. ___ is a form of a request for information that asks for detailed pricing information specific to the project. a. RFQ b. RFP c. MSA d. SLA ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 423 54. A(n) ____ is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements. a. RFQ b. RFP c. MSA d. SLA ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 423 55. A(n) ____ is a legally binding contract or part of a contract that defines, in plain language and in measurable terms, the aspects of a service provided. a. RFQ b. RFP c. MSA d. SLA ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 423 56. ____ is a draft-scale product allowing for initial user testing without needing to incorporate real data or compatibility with other systems. a. Pilot b. Prototype c. MVP Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT d. PoV ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 424 57. ____ is a larger scale product expanding the earlier test versions and it likely reflects some widespread changes to the overall design based on early user feedback. a. Pilot b. Prototype c. MVP d. PoV ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 424 58. ____ is a stable, functioning product that incorporates the core functionality of the product and is built with the intention of expanding functionality before releasing to full production. a. Pilot b. Prototype c. MVP d. PoV ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 424 59. ____ quantifies anticipated costs, savings, workflow changes, and effects on employee or customer satisfaction. a. Pilot b. Prototype c. MVP d. PoV ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 424 60. ____ is not one of the success criteria of the iron triangle. a. Cost b. Skill c. Time d. Scope ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 425 61. ____ is one of the success criteria of the iron triangle that answers, for example, if any additional functionality will increase user satisfaction and efficiency? a. Cost b. Skill c. Time d. Scope ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT REFERENCES: page 425 62. ____ is one of the success criteria of the iron triangle that answers, for example, if the product will bring a greater return than it costs? a. Cost b. Skill c. Time d. Scope ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 425 63. ____ is one of the success criteria of the iron triangle that answers, for example, how those work hours will affect the overall cost of the project? a. Cost b. Skill c. Time d. Scope ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 425 64. When companies invest large amounts of money at a time into purchasing expensive hardware and software, this is called ____. a. PoV b. PoC c. CapEx d. OpEx ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 426 65. When companies use the pay-as-you-go model, like in cloud services, this is called ____. a. PoV b. PoC c. CapEx d. OpEx ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 426 66. A cloud resource that assists with moving data from one resource, application, or storage space to another is typically identified as a ____ service. a. computing b. networking c. storage d. chargeback ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 427 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT 67. A simpler example is serverless computing, such as AWS’s ____, where you input code directly into the cloud service. a. Lambda b. EC2 c. S3 d. VPC ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 427 68. A ____ is a key-value pair that attaches a customized label to cloud resources. a. label b. chargeback c. tag d. spot ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 428 69. The ____ includes the time needed to bring the system back up to normal operation. a. mean time between failures b. mean time to repair c. availability d. reliability ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 433 70. The primary benefit of ____ is that expenditures fluctuate with demand, which is usually closely related to company income. a. VM instance b. EC2 c. CapEx over OpEx d. OpEx over CapEx ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 427 71. ____ is the pricing option that offers the most freedom to respond to fluctuating demand on cloud resources. a. VM instance b. Reserved instance c. On-demand instance d. Spot instance ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 429 72. ____ is the pricing option that offers lower prices in exchange for a commitment to use the instance over a longer period of time. a. VM instance b. Reserved instance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT c. On-demand instance d. Spot instance ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 429 73. ____ is the pricing option that allows customers to then sell their reserved instance in the cloud provider’s marketplace for a market-enabled rate. a. VM instance b. Reserved instance c. On-demand instance d. Spot instance ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 429 74. At the beginning of the usage of a new system it is necessary to do a(n) ____ . a. full backup b. incremental backup c. disposable backup d. differential backup ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 435 75. We call it a(n) ____ when it is backed up with only the data that has changed since the last backup of any kind. a. full backup b. incremental backup c. disposable backup d. differential backup ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 435 76. We call it a(n) ____ when it is backed up with all the data that has changed since the last full backup. a. full backup b. incremental backup c. disposable backup d. differential backup ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 435 77. It is called the 3-2-1 rule when you do three copies, store on two different kinds of media, and with one copy stored in ____. a. a cloud storage instance of the same cloud service provider b. a partition of the main network server machine c. a location geographically separate from the original data d. the same physical location where the original is ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT REFERENCES: page 436 78. ____shows at what point in the future full functionality will be restored (less any lost data). a. RPO b. RTO c. MTTR d. MTBF ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 437 79. ____shows at what point in the past data was most recently backed up, and so this is the point before which data will be recovered. a. RPO b. RTO c. MTTR d. MTBF ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 437 80. ____is a form of BC/DR test that involves a team of representatives from each department reviewing the plan together and looking for gaps. a. Benchmark trial b. Structured walk-through c. Tabletop exercise d. Disaster simulation testing ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 438 81. ____is a form of BC/DR test that requires each department to analyze the plan in detail, usually with a specific disaster scenario in mind. a. Benchmark trial b. Structured walk-through c. Tabletop exercise d. Disaster simulation testing ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 438 82. ____is a form of BC/DR test that requires the presence and participation of all personnel, including business partners and vendors. a. Benchmark trial b. Structured walk-through c. Tabletop exercise d. Disaster simulation testing ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 438 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT 83. ____is not a form of BC/DR test. a. Benchmark trial b. Structured walk-through c. Tabletop exercise d. Disaster simulation testing ANSWER: a REFERENCES: page 438 84. ____ refers to the strategies and tools that facilitate an organization’s recovery from an adverse event. Typically, it is considered a subset of business continuity planning. a. Recovery point objective b. Disaster recovery c. Recovery time objective d. Load balance ANSWER: b REFERENCES: page 438 85. ____is composed of existing computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network, but they are not appropriately configured, updated, or connected. a. Warm site b. Plug’n’Play site c. Cold site d. Hot site ANSWER: c REFERENCES: page 432 86. ____is composed of existing computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network, and all are not appropriately configured, updated, and connected to match the network’s current state. a. Warm site b. Plug’n’Play site c. Cold site d. Hot site ANSWER: d REFERENCES: page 433 87. Data saved within the cloud, whether as files, objects, databases, or volumes, takes up space. This space is collectively referred to as ________________ and usually represents a separate expense from other types of cloud services. storage ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 428 88. A cloud resource that assists with moving data from one resource, application, or storage space to another is typically identified as a _________________ service. networking ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 427 89. Vendor _________________ refers to the ominous expense of changing vendors that often prevents customers from Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT considering any competitors’ products. lock-in ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 422 90. If a company has an AWS business support plan and wants to increase the support it should get a(n) _________________ support plan. enterprise ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 421 91. In addition to ______________, large service providers offer other support services to ease a customer’s migration onto their platform. training ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 421 92. Many corporations establish _____________________________ to ensure consistency as different employees perform the same complex tasks.

SOPs (standard operating procedures) ANSWER: standard operating procedures (SOPs) standard operating procedures SOPs REFERENCES: page 419 93. Policies concerning ________________, usually enforce how long they must be, how often they need to be changed, and what kinds of complexity they will need. passwords ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 419 94. CompTIA’s Cloud Essentials+ is an example of a vendor-neutral __________________. certification ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 416 95. When choosing a vendor for a network it is important to determine what skills do the __________________ currently offer that might make one vendor easier for the company to use than another. internal team ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 421 96. _______________________ help network admins to be better managers. Managing people requires the ability to talk with users to service problems and explore new applications.

Interpersonal skills ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 415 97. ________________ are required from the network admins to provide education related to the network.

Training skills ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 415 98. CCNA (_____________________) certification covers the topics of installing, configuring, operating, and troubleshooting enterprise-level routers and switched networks.

Cisco Certified Network Associate ANSWER: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT REFERENCES: page 415 99. _______________________ are programs that provide short-term or part-time training, and they are often required to maintain certain certifications or licenses.

Continuing education ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 416 100. _________________________ enables employees to improve and update their skills in ways that contribute to the company’s well-being.

Professional development ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 416 101. An example of ____________________ training is giving a user a sandbox environment to practice new skills before needing to apply those skills in the production environment. simulation ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 418 102. A small business has contracted the business support plan, but they realized that they could reduce the cost by changing the support plan to the lowest tier, which is ________________. developer ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 421 103. Currently, most of the cloud infrastructure is managed through ___________________________.

IaC (infrastructure as code) ANSWER: infrastructure as code (IaC) infrastructure as code IaC REFERENCES: page 422 104. To thoroughly consider vendor options for a new cloud service or platform and make the best selection for the company’s needs, a significant amount of information must be collected, which usually starts with a(n) ___________________________.

RFI (Request for Information) ANSWER: Request for Information (RFI) Request for Information RFI REFERENCES: page 423 105. ___________________________________ is the average time a device or system will operate before it fails.

Mean time between failures (MTBF) ANSWER: Mean time between failures MTBF REFERENCES: page 433 106. ______________________________ is the average time necessary to repair a failure within the computer network.

Mean time to repair (MTTR) ANSWER: Mean time to repair MTTR REFERENCES: page 433 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT 107. ____________________ is the probability that a particular component or system will be available during a fixed time period.

Availability ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 434 108. ____________________ calculates the probability that a component or system will be operational for the duration of a transaction of time t.

Reliability ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 434 109. A(n) ____________________ backs up data that has changed since the last full backup. differential backup ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 435 110. Some cloud resources are ______________________, meaning they can be replaced with another resource if something goes wrong. disposable resources ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 435 111. ____________________ states that a company should keep at least three copies of their data stored on at least two different kinds of media with one copy stored in a location geographically separate from the original data.

3-2-1 rule ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 436 112. The amount of data generated since the last RPO until the disaster is called ___________________. acceptable data loss ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 437 113. The time elapsed since the disaster until the RTO is called ___________________. acceptable downtime ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 437 114. ___________________ states that a company should keep four copies of data, stored on two different kinds of media, with one backup stored locally and two in geographically isolated locations in the cloud.

4-2-3 rule ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 436 115. ___________________ states that a company should keep three copies of data, stored on one kind of media at two geographically isolated locations in the cloud.

3-1-2 rule ANSWER: REFERENCES: page 436 116. What is the difference between PoC and PoV? When exploring the possibilities of a new project or acquisition with vendors, the customer will also ANSWER: need to gather and organize information about the project itself in addition to the nature of the agreement between their company and the vendor. Two usual documents to fulfill that function are PoC (Proof of Concept) and PoV (Proof of Value).

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT The PoC answers the question: Will a solution effectively address the problem they are trying to solve?

The PoC might not be particularly detailed and is often one of the first documents to be produced when exploring a new product or service. The PoC takes more of a qualitative approach in describing the ideas, concepts, and “what if...” scenarios that led to the company’s interest in the solution.

The PoV builds on evidence from the PoC and answers the question: What value will the solution bring to the company in terms of financial savings, workflow efficiency, or satisfaction improvements?

The PoV quantifies anticipated costs, savings, workflow changes, and effects on employee or customer satisfaction.

REFERENCES: page 424 117. What is the iron triangle of project management?

In project management, the combination of cost, time, and scope as success criteria for a project is ANSWER: sometimes referred to as the “iron triangle” or the “triple constraint.” Various stakeholders in a project will prioritize each of these criteria differently. The project manager must balance tradeoffs between these three factors to achieve desired quality. Too great an emphasis on any one point of this triangle will result in compromises to the budget, the schedule, or functionality.

REFERENCES: page 425 118. In the context of cloud service vendors, what implicates the over the time to market?

When choosing a vendor for a network, cloud platform, or third-party service within the cloud, several ANSWER: factors affect the decision-making process. One of the first questions to ask is, what skills does the internal team currently offer that might make one vendor easier for the company to use than another?

However, existing team skills are not the only compatibility factor when considering how long it will take to migrate services from on-prem to the cloud. How compatible are existing applications and workflows with cloud-native design? What kinds of refactoring or replacements should be incorporated into the migration timeline? How much user retraining will the migration require?

The initial transition is not the only important timeline to consider. Migrating to the cloud can significantly decrease a company’s time to market with business innovations, website or application updates, and overall network and application performance optimizations. Because most of the cloud infrastructure is managed through IaC (infrastructure as code), changes can be tracked in detail and made quickly while a rollback to a previous state if something goes wrong requires only a few clicks.

Similarly, changes can be tested in full-scale test environments that exactly duplicate the production environment rather than being limited to a small-scale representation of the production network. The ability to adapt quickly to emerging trends and new technology decreases the time to market for future changes.

REFERENCES: page 422 119. What can a cloud service do to reduce the effect of vendor lock-in from other vendors?

When a company is committed to a cloud service vendor, it can be difficult and expensive to shift to a ANSWER: different vendor later. This phenomenon is called vendor lock-in and specifically refers to the ominous expense of changing vendors that often prevents customers from considering any competitors’ products later. Knowing this is often a concern, and many vendors are increasingly offering portability options to attract customers. They instead rely on other factors, such as competitive pricing and excellent customer service, to earn customer loyalty.

Still, while a company might initially feel confident that they’ve made a good selection of vendors and services from what is currently available, they should anticipate needing to change vendors for any of several reasons, including the following: - The vendor goes out of business.

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Chapter 12: Business Principles in IT - The vendor increases prices or reduces needed features.

- Another vendor offers better services for better prices.

- Technology evolves.

One way to reduce the expense and difficulty of changing vendors later is to investigate formatting options for data, especially data in a SaaS or PaaS cloud service, as many vendors require proprietary data formats.

REFERENCES: page 422 120. What are the skills needed by a network administrator?

Because many network administrators are dealing with both computers and people, they need the skills ANSWER: necessary to work with both. A checklist of skills for the network administrator would include a wide platform of technology skills, including, but not limited to, knowledge of local area networks, wide area networks, voice telecommunications systems, data transmission systems, video transmission, basic hardware concepts, and basic software skills. A network administrator should also have interpersonal skills, including the ability to talk to users in order to service problems and explore new applications. Along with interpersonal skills, a network administrator also needs training skills, which involve the ability to train users or other network support personnel.

To make effective use of limited resources, a network administrator should also possess several common management skills. For one, the network administrator should have budget management skills, which include knowing how to prepare a budget to justify continuing funds or to request additional funds. Along with those skills, a network administrator needs basic statistical skills, which means that he or she must know how to collect and use system statistics to justify the performance of existing systems or to validate the addition of new ones. Time management skills are also a necessity.

These include the ability to manage not only one’s own time but also that of projects and any information technology workers who may be working for the administrator. Just as valuable as time management skills are project management skills, which center on the ability to keep a project on schedule and to use project-estimating tools, project-scheduling tools, and other methods for continuous project assessment. Finally, a network administrator should possess policy creation and enforcement skills, which include the ability to create policies concerning the use of the computer systems, access to facilities, password protection, access to applications, access to databases, distribution of hardware and software, replacement of hardware and software, and the handling of service requests.

REFERENCES: page 415

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