Test Bank for General Chemistry Principles and Modern Applications, 11th Edition by Ralph Petrucci, by ACADEMIAMILL

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 1 Matter: Its Properties and Measurement 1) A theory is a model used to explain natural laws and make predictions about natural phenomena. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-1

2) The scientific method is used to make theories that can no longer be changed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-1

3) The composition refers to the components of a sample of matter and their relative proportions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

4) A physical property is the ability of a sample of matter to undergo a change in composition under certain conditions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

5) On a very cold day in Alaska, the temperature was -40 °F. The temperature in Celsius on the same day was also -40 °C. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

6) A homogeneous mixture has regions that are different in composition or phase. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

7) The SI unit of mass is 1 gram. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

8) An intensive property is dependent of the amount of matter observed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

9) Several values close together guarantee good accuracy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-6

10) Systematic errors are consequence of inherent errors in measuring devices. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-6

11) The result of addition can have more significant figures than any of the numbers added. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

12) Which statement is INCORRECT? A) Natural laws are concise statements about natural phenomena. B) Induction is to infer a set of naturals laws from a set of observations. C) The key to the scientific method is valid assumptions. D) A hypothesis is a tentative explanation of a natural law. E) A pattern of thinking is known as a paradigm. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-1

13) A model that explains and makes predictions about natural phenomena is referred to as a: A) natural law B) hypothesis C) theory D) generalization E) deduction Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-1

14) The scientific method involves: I) observations II) generalizations III) experiments IV) deduction V) induction A) I, III, IV B) I, II, III C) I, II, III, IV D) I, II, III, V E) I, III, V Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-1

15) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A natural law is a generalization of natural phenomena. B) A hypothesis is a conclusion that must follow logically from observations of nature. C) A theory is a model of nature that can be used to describe natural phenomena. D) An experiment is a test of conclusions about natural law. E) The scientific method is the combination of observations, experimentation, and the formulation of laws, hypothesis, and theories. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-1

16) Which of the following is a physical property? A) the density of lead B) sulfur burns in oxygen to form sulfur trioxide C) ozone reacts with silver to give silver oxide D) platinum metal does not react with hydrochloric acid Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

17) A physical property is: A) the ability of a sample to undergo change B) a substance comprised of a single type of atom C) a property the sample displays without changing its composition D) always visible E) a property the sample displays that results in a change in composition Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

18) A chemical change always involves a change in: I) appearance II) state III) composition IV) temperature A) I and II B) I, II, IV C) III only D) II and IV E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

19) Which of the following is a chemical property of gold? A) does not react with hydrochloric acid B) is a good conductor of electricity C) is malleable D) is a good conductor of heat Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

20) Which of the following is a physical change? A) the freezing of water to form ice B) the burning of paper C) the sodium metal reacts vigorously with water D) the reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid E) the inability of gold to react with water Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-2

21) Oxygen is: A) a mixture B) a compound C) an element D) a solution E) always combined with hydrogen Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

22) Sulfur dioxide gas is: A) a homogeneous mixture B) a compound C) an element D) a heterogeneous mixture E) a solid at room temperature Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

23) Sulfuric acid is: A) a homogeneous mixture B) a compound C) an element D) a heterogeneous mixture E) an atom Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

24) The term substance should be used for: A) chemical elements B) compounds C) both chemical elements and compounds D) chemical elements, compounds, and mixtures E) any mixture Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

25) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Matter is made of tiny units called atoms. B) An element is a substance made of one type of atom. C) A compound contains regions that are unlike other regions of the compound. D) Homogeneous mixtures are solutions. E) Elements and compounds are substances. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

26) Which of the following are forms of matter? I) hydrogen gas II) sunlight III) ice IV) wind V) iron A) III and V B) I, III and V C) I and V D) II and IV E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

27) Which one of the following would be classified as a heterogeneous mixture? A) salt water B) copper nitrate solution C) brass D) mix of table salt and black pepper E) a sugar solution Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

28) Which of the following is a chemical change? A) the freezing of water to form ice B) hammering zinc into a thin film C) crushing of lump of sulfur into yellow powder D) the boiling of water to form steam E) the reaction of chlorine gas and sodium to form salt Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

29) From ammonia gas, one can obtain two different gases, each of which is a pure substance. Using only this information, it can be said with certainty that: A) one of the products is an element B) neither of the products can be an element C) ammonia cannot be an element D) both products are elements E) gases do not produce solids Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

30) Which of the following is a compound? A) water B) oxygen C) heat D) salad dressing E) nitrogen Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

31) The content of a container filled with sand and water would best be described as: A) elements B) a homogeneous mixture C) a heterogeneous mixture D) a compound E) a solution Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

32) Water is: A) a mixture B) a compound C) an element D) a molecule E) an atom Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

33) Saltwater is: A) a mixture B) only one compound C) an element D) a molecule E) an atom Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-3

34) The SI unit for mass is: A) kilogram B) gram C) pound D) ounce E) newton Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

35) Which of the following represents a base unit in the SI system of measurements? A) m2 B) kg

C) g/cm3 D) m/s E) liter Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

36) The quantity of matter in an object is the object's ________ and is measured on a ________. A) weight, scale B) mass, scale C) weight, balance D) mass, balance E) Any of the above since the terms are interchangeable. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

37) One inch is equal to: A) 2.54 cm B) 2.54 m C) 1/(2.54) cm D) 1.09 m E) 100 cm Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

38) The prefix "milli" and the prefix "micro" correspond, respectively, to the factors: A) 10-3 and 10-6 B) 10-6 and 10-9 C) 10-3 and 10-12 D) 10-1 and 10-6 E) 103 and 106 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

39) Which of the following is longest? A) 3.0 nm B) 300 pm C) 3.0 × 10-4 m D) 3.0 × 10-10 cm E) 3.00 × 10-9 km Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

40) If gasoline costs 98.5 cents per liter in Canada, what is the price in dollars per gallon? A) $3.73 B) $3.94 C) $1.04 D) $4.16 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

41) In Europe, the volume of soda is given in cL. How many mL are contained in a can of soda labeled "75 cL"? A) 750 mL B) 75 mL C) 7.5 mL D) 7500 mL E) 0.75 mL Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

42) Which of the following is the proper set of conversion factors for changing lb/in2 to pascals? (Hint: A pascal is a unit of force equal to 1 N/m2.) A) (1 lb/4.45 N)(1 m2/1550 in2) B) (4.45 N/1 lb)(1 m2/1550 in2) C) (1 lb/4.45 N)(1550 in2/1 m2) D) (4.45 N/1 lb)(1550 in2/1 m2) E) (1 lb/4.45 N) Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

43) Without doing a calculation, find which of the following represents the highest temperature. A) 20 °F B) 0 °C C) 0 K D) 270 K E) 0 °F Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

44) Convert 82 °F to the Kelvin scale. A) 452 K B) 245 K C) 195 K D) 301 K E) 373 K Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

45) One centimeter is equal to: A) 1.09 yards B) 0.30 ft C) 2.54 inches D) 0.0109 yards E) 0.109 yards Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

46) If the density of aviation fuel is 1.77 lb/L, how many liters must be added to a tank to give 16,131 kg? A) 2.01 × 104 L B) 9.11 × 103 L C) 1.30 × 103 L

D) 1.61 × 104 L E) 1.30 × 104 L Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

47) 1.00 oz of gold (density = 19.3 g/mL) can be hammered into a sheet that would cover a area. How thick would such a sheet be in centimeters? (1 oz= 28.350 g) A) 1.58 × 10-5 cm B) 4.82 × 10-4 cm C) 4.02 × 10-5 cm D) 6.33 × 104 cm E) 2.11 × 10-5 cm Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

48) An extensive property is: A) dependent on the quantity of matter observed B) difficult to measure C) independent of the quantity of matter observed D) is a unique value regardless of the measurement conditions E) always strongly dependent on the external conditions Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

49) Which of the following defines or expresses the concept of accuracy? A) the closest value to the expected answer B) deviation of the average C) average of the data D) reproducibility of a measurement E) difference between the accepted answer and the average value of the data Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-6

50) The following measurements were made by a group of students using the same balance and a 25.00 gram weight. Trial 1 2 3 4

Mass (g) 23.96 24.01 23.98 23.97

The data would be considered: I) accurate and precise II) accurate but not precise III) precise but not accurate IV) neither precise nor accurate V) evidence of a systematic error VI) evidence of large random errors A) I only B) II and VI C) III and V D) IV and VI E) IV, V, VI Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-6

51) The definition of pH is pH = -log[H3O+], where [H3O+] is the hydronium ion concentration. If [H3O+] = 1.2 × 10-5, the pH, expressed to the correct number of significant figures, is: A) 4.92 B) 4.9 C) 5.08 D) 5.1 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

52) How many significant figures should the answer to the following calculation have? (1.4312 - 1.1 × 10-2) ÷ (1.0712 × 10-4) A) 4 B) 5 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

53) One centimeter is equal to how many meters? A) 100 m B) 1000 m C) 10 m D) 0.10 m E) 0.01 m Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

54) During a winter blizzard the temperature was -20 °F. What temperature is this on the Celsius scale? A) -29 °C B) -94 °C C) -6.2 °C D) -22 °C E) -20 °C Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

55) Convert 1400 mm to inches. A) 5500 in B) 550 in C) 36 in D) 360 in E) 55 in Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

56) A sprinter runs exactly 200 meters in 19.98 seconds. What is his/her average speed in miles per hour? A) 22.39 miles/h B) 22.4 miles/h C) 10.01 miles/h D) 0.373 miles/h E) 10.0 miles/h Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

57) It takes light one second to travel 2.998 × 108 m. How many kilometers does light travel in a day? A) 1.086 × 109 km B) 2.590 × 1010 km C) 7.195 × 109 km D) 4.317 × 108 km E) 1.086 × 108 km Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

58) A track star ran exactly 400 meters in 45.23 seconds. What was the average speed in miles per hour? A) 19.8 miles/h B) 19.78 miles/h C) 8.844 miles/h D) 0.3297 miles/h E) 8.84 miles/h Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

59) What is 21.1 miles/hour in furlongs/fortnight? (8 furlongs = 1 mile; 14 days = 1 fortnight) A) 0.502 furlongs/fortnight B) 8.862 × 103 furlongs/fortnight C) 5.67 × 104 furlongs/fortnight D) 8.86 × 103 furlongs/fortnight E) 5.672 × 104 furlongs/fortnight Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

60) At what temperature will the numerical values of the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales be the same? A) 0 ° B) -40 ° C) 40 ° D) -273 ° E) 80 ° Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

61) Convert -41.0 °F to degrees Celsius. A) -40.6 °C B) -57.6 °C C) -73.0 °C D) -9.0 °C E) -117 °C Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

62) A field is 100.0 yd long and 50.0 yd wide. If covered with water to a uniform depth of 2.00 in, what volume of water is present in U.S. gallons? A) 8.70 × 103 gal B) 5.61 × 104 gal C) 5.31 × 104 gal D) 2.42 × 102 gal E) 1.56 × 103 gal Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

63) The temperature in the core of the warp drive of the starship Enterprise is supposedly 3 million (3.00 × 106) degrees Celsius. What is this in degrees Fahrenheit? A) 5.40 × 106 °F B) 2.99 × 106 °F C) 1.67 × 106 °F D) 3.27 × 106 °F E) 8.13 × 106 °F Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

64) A weatherman incorrectly stated that the temperature was 85 °F, 35 °C. If the Fahrenheit temperature was correct, how far off was the Celsius temperature? A) 8 °C B) 6 °C C) 29 °C D) 31 °C E) 3 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

65) Determine the number of cm2 in one in2. A) 64.5 cm2 B) 6.45 cm2 C) 100 cm2

D) 8.95 cm2 E) 39.7 cm2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

66) Determine the number of cm3 in 21.0 U.S. qt. A) 19,900 B) 5.548 C) 20.0 D) 0.0199 E) 10.0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

67) Convert 35 ft/s to SI derived units. A) 4.2 m/s B) 1100 m/s C) 1.65 m/s D) 0.074 m/s E) 11 m/s Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

68) An elephant's bathtub is 8.0 feet long, 2.5 yards wide, and 70 inches deep. What is the capacity of the elephant's bathtub in U.S. quarts? A) 9.3 × 103 qt B) 1.1 × 104 qt C) 3.4 × 104 qt D) 34 qt

E) 2.2 × 104 qt Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

69) At what temperature does the Fahrenheit reading equal twice the Celsius temperature? A) 160 °C, 320 °F B) 12 °C, 24 °F C) -12 °C, -24 °F D) -288 °C, -576 °F E) 40 °C, 80 °F Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

70) Convert 21.8 in3 to liters. (2.54 cm = 1.00 in) A) 0.0554 L B) 1.33 × 103 L C) 8.58 L D) 0.357 L

E) 8.58 × 103 L Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-4

71) Ethylene glycol has a density of 1.11 g/mL. What is the volume occupied by 30.0 g of ethylene glycol? A) 33.3 mL B) 27.0 mL C) 31.1 mL D) 0.037 mL E) 30.0 mL Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

72) What is the mass of a 468 mL sample of ethanol? The density of ethanol is 0.789 g/mL. A) 234 g B) 739 g C) 468 g D) 593 g E) 369 g Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

73) Two hundred mL of solution has a mass of 198 g. What is the density of the solution? A) 1.01 g/mL B) 3.98 g/mL C) 99.0 g/mL D) 0.990 g/mL E) 1.98 g/mL Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

74) A 14-karat gold ring contains 58.3% gold and weighs 12.41 g. If gold sells for $308.00/ounce, what is the value of the gold in the ring? A) $116 B) $135 C) $231 D) $58.90 E) $78.60 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

75) A briefcase 4.5 in × 22 in × 11 in is filled with gold, which has a density of 19.3 g/cm3 and costs $308/oz. What is the dollar value of this gold? A) $5.80 × 105 B) $1.56 × 103 C) $3.74 × 106

D) $1.00 × 104 E) $2.81 × 106 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

76) A briefcase 4.5 in × 22 in × 11 in is filled with gold, which has a density of 19.3 g/cm3 and costs $308/oz. What is the mass of this gold in kg? A) 460 kg B) 53.5 kg C) 136 kg D) 344 kg E) 17.9 kg Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

77) What mass, in g, of a solution containing 12% by mass sodium chloride is needed for a process that requires 8 g of sodium chloride? A) 12 g B) 150 g C) 67 g D) 0.96 g E) 8 g Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

78) A jewelry alloy has a density of 12.412 g/mL and is 75.0% gold by weight. If 522 g of gold are available, what volume of this alloy can be produced? A) 8.64 × 103 mL B) 31.5 mL

C) 4.86 × 103 mL D) 335 mL E) 56.1 mL Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

79) What mass of sugar, in grams, would be obtained from the evaporation of water from 1.5 kg of a sugar solution which is 10.5% sugar by mass? A) 0.1575 g B) 0.158 g C) 157.5 g D) 15.8 g E) 160 g Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

80) A solution of 34.5% sulfuric acid by weight in water has a density of 1.26 g/mL. How many grams of sulfuric acid are needed to make 3.22 L of this solution? A) 1.20 × 105 g B) 882 g C) 135 g

D) 1.40 × 103 g E) 1.40 × 105 g Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

81) A block of wood has dimensions of density of the wood? A) 1400 g/mL B) 0.071 g/mL C) 0.71 g/mL D) 1.4 g/mL E) 140 g/mL Answer: C

and has a mass of 3.0 kg. What is the

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

82) A 2.0 gal flask weighs 4.0 lbs when empty. When it is filled with liquid, the flask weighs 4536.0 g. What is the density of the liquid in g/mL? (1 gal = 3.785 L, 1 lb = 453.6 g) A) 0.36 g/mL B) 0.72 g/mL C) 0.60 g/mL D) 0.14 g/mL E) 0.071 g/mL Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

83) Calculate the density in g/cm3 of a 15 lb block of aluminum with a displacement volume of 0.6657 U.S. gal. A) 22.5 g/cm3 B) 11.47 g/cm3 C) 0.371 g/cm3 D) 2.25 g/cm3 E) 2.70 g/cm3 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

84) Two hundred thirty-seven pounds of ethanol with a density of 0.789 g/cm3 occupies what volume in U.S. quarts? A) 144 qt B) 108 qt C) 136 qt D) 84.9 qt E) 129 qt Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-5

85) A 16.0 g sample of iron has a volume of 2.035 cm3. What is its density expressed to the correct number of significant figures? A) 0.127 g/cm3 B) 32.6 g/cm3 C) 7.86 g/cm3

D) 7.862 g/cm3 E) 7.9 g/cm3 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

86) Perform the following calculation and express the result with the appropriate number of significant figures: A) 4.80 × 102 B) 477

C) 4.8 × 102 D) 477.3 E) 477.25 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

87) What is the correct number of significant figures in the answer to the following multiplication: 1.022 × 0.0011. A) one B) three C) four D) two E) cannot be determined Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

88) Using the proper number of significant figures, how should the answer to the multiplication of the measurements be written? A) 83.8148 B) 83.8 C) 83.81 D) 83.815 E) 83.82 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

89) Calculate the length of a steel cable (density 7.91 g/cm3) with a mass of 160.0 g and cross-sectional area of 0.500 cm2. A) 40.5 cm B) 20.23 cm C) 40.46 cm D) 20.2 cm E) 10.1 cm Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

90) What is the answer, to the correct number of significant figures, of the following calculation?

A) 16.7068 B) 16.707 C) 16.71 D) 16.7 E) 16 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

91) A 15.0 g sample of hydrated copper sulfate was heated to dryness and the new mass measured to be 9.59 g. Calculate the percentage of water in the hydrated crystal. Express your answer to the correct number of significant digits. A) 36.1% B) 36% C) 63.3% D) 63% E) 45% Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

92) What is the answer to the correct number of significant figures of the following calculation?

A) 2.3 B) 2.3001 C) 2.300 D) 2.30004 E) 2.30011 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

93) What is the answer to the correct number of significant figures of the following calculation?

A) 7.6 B) 7.57 C) 7.58 D) 7.578 E) 7.582 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

94) What is the answer to the correct number of significant figures of the following calculation?

A) 2.84 B) 30 C) 25.01 D) 25.0 E) 25 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 1-7

95) Which of the following is the smallest volume? A) 11 cm3 B) 0.25 dL

C) 1.4 × 103 mL D) 2.5 × 107 nL Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

96) What is the volume (in cm3) of a 43.6 g piece of metal with a density of 2.71 g cm-3? A) 16.1 cm3 B) 19.5 cm3 C) .425 cm3 D) 6.65 cm3 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 9

97) A piece of metal ore weighs 8.25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21.25 mL to 26.47 mL. What is the density of the ore? A) 0.312 g mL-1 B) 0.633 g mL-1 C) 1.58 g mL-1 D) 3.21 g mL-1 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

98) A mass of mercury occupies 0.750 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0.789 g mL-1. A) 0.0437 L B) 0.0777 L C) 12.9 L D) 22.9 L Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

99) If the melting point of vanadium metal is 1910 °C, what is its melting point in kelvin? A) 1029 K B) 1637 K C) 2183 K D) 3470 K Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

100) Which of the following is the lowest temperature? A) 42 °C B) 57 °F C) 318 K D) All of these temperatures are equal. Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

101) How many significant figures are in the measurement 5 g? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4 E) 2 Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 4

102) What is the correct answer, with the proper number of significant figures, for the following calculation? 6.3 × 3.78 Answer: 24 Diff: 2

Type: SA

Var: 10

103) Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 29,724.33 A) 29,720

B) 29.72 × 103

C) 0.2972 × 105 D) 2.972 × 104 E) 2.972 × 10-4 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 4

104) Which of the following numbers has the greatest number of significant figures? A) 0.5070 B) 0.201 C) 418000 D) 6.02 × 1024 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) How many of the following numbers contain three significant figures? 0.408 A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Diff: 2

9.040

Type: MC

0.0400 9.05 × 1024

Var: 5

106) How many significant figures are there in the answer to the following problem? (9.992 × 3.200) + 0.610 A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) How many significant figures are there in the answer to the following problem? 57.5 + 0.9933 + 31 A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) How many significant figures are there in the answer to the following problem?

A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) An acetylene molecule contains 2 atoms of carbon. The number 2 represents how many significant figures? A) one B) two C) three D) infinite Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. A) 0091 B) 9076 C) 9100 D) 9.075 × 105 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) The width, length, and height of a large, custom-made shipping crate are 1.22 m,

and

respectively. The volume of the box using the correct number of significant figures is ________ A) 3.26057 B) 3.3 C) 3.26 D) 3.261 E) 3.2606 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

112) What is the correct answer, with the proper number of significant figures, for the following calculation? (1815 - 1806) × (9.11 × 7.92) Answer: 600 Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

113) Without using a calculator, solve the following problem:

A) 1 × 10-4 B) 1 × 105

C) 1 × 1023 D) 1 × 1032

Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) Without using a calculator, solve the following problem:

A) 1 × 106 B) 1 × 100

C) 1 × 10-12 D) 1 × 10-18 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) Which of the following is the greatest mass? A) 1000 µg B) 1.000 × 10-4 kg C) 1.000 × 10-4 cg D) 1.000 × 10-8 mg Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) The mass of a proton is 1.67 × 10-27 kg. What is the mass of a proton in picograms? A) 1.67 × 10-18 pg B) 1.67 × 10-15 pg C) 1.67 × 10-12 pg D) 1.67 × 10-9 pg Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) The mass of a single zinc atom is 1.086 × 10-22 g. This is the same mass as: A) 1.086 × 10-16 mg B) 1.086 × 10-25 kg C) 1.086 × 10-28 µg

D) 1.086 × 10-31 ng Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) A student weighed 30.00 µg of sulfur in the lab. This is the same mass as: A) 3.000 × 10-8 g B) 3.000 × 10-5 kg C) 3.000 × 10-5 mg D) 3.000 × 104 ng Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) Convert 4 µm to metres. A) 4 × 10-9 m B) 4 × 10-6 m C) 4 × 10-3 m D) 4 × 106 m Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) The average distance between nitrogen and oxygen atoms is 115 pm in a compound called nitric oxide. What is this distance in millimeters? A) 1.15 × 10-8 mm B) 1.15 × 10-7 mm C) 1.15 × 1013 mm

D) 1.15 × 1017 mm Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 × 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? A) 1 × 10-16 mm B) 1 × 10-13 mm C) 1 × 10-7 mm D) 1 × 10-4 mm Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) Which of the following volumes is equal to 40 mL? A) 40 cm3 B) 40 dm3 C) 0.40 L D) 0.00040 kL Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) Convert 10 cm3 to m3. A) 1 × 10-5 m3 B) 1 × 10-1 m3 C) 1 × 103 m3 D) 1 × 107 m3 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) Convert 35 m3 to litres. A) 3.5 × 10-2 L B) 3.5 L

C) 3.5 × 102 L D) 3.5 × 104 L Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) 38.325 lbs = ________ grams. (1 lb = 454 g) Answer: 17400 Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

126) If 1.4% of the mass of a human body is calcium, how many kilograms of calcium are there in a 185pound man? A) 1.2 kg Ca B) 5.7 kg Ca C) 1.2 × 102 kg Ca D) 5.7 × 102 kg Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) A fishing boat accidentally spills 3.0 barrels of diesel oil into the ocean. Each barrel contains 42 gallons. If the oil film on the ocean is 2.5 × 102 nm thick, how many square metres will the oil slick cover? A) 1.9 × 10-3 m2 B) 1.9 × 106 m2 C) 1.9 × 107 m2 D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

128) Because of the high heat and low humidity in the summer in Death Valley, California, a visitor requires about one quart of water for every two miles travelled on foot. Calculate the approximate number of litres required for a person to walk 10 kilometres in Death Valley. A) 7.4 L B) 295 L C) 76 L D) 117 L Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

129) The estimated costs for remodelling the interior of an apartment are three 1-gallon cans of paint at each, two paint brushes at each, and for a helper. The total estimated cost with the appropriate significant figures is A) 193.72 B) 1.9 × C) 194 D) 2 × E) 193.7 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

130) How many litres of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 25.0 gal? A) 1.51 × L B) 0.151 L C) 94.6 L D) 6.60 × L E) 6.60 L Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

131) The recommended adult dose of Elixophyllin , a drug used to treat asthma, is 6.00 mg kg-1 of body mass. Calculate the dose in milligrams for a 112-lb person. (1 lb = 453.59 g) A) 24 mg B) 1,482 mg C) 1.5 mg D) 305 mg E) 3.0 × mg Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

132) The density of air under ordinary conditions at 25 °C is 1.19 g L-1. How many kilograms of air are in a room that measures and has a 8.00 ft ceiling? (exactly); ) A) 2.93 B) 0.121 C) 3.26 × D) 0.0770 E) 32.6 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 12

133) How many litres of air are in a room that measures A) 3.26 × B) 121 C) 35.1 D) 3.51 × E) 9.75 × 105 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 12

134) Crude oil is an example of: A) a compound B) an element C) a heterogeneous mixture D) a homogeneous mixture Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

and has an 8.00 ft ceiling?

135) Gasoline is an example of: A) a compound B) an element C) a heterogeneous mixture D) a homogeneous mixture Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

136) Gold is an example of: A) a compound B) an element C) a heterogeneous mixture D) a homogeneous mixture Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 2 Atoms and the Atomic Theory 1) Atoms retain their identity during a chemical reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

2) All matter is composed of atoms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

3) Atoms combine in small, whole-numbered ratios. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

4) All atoms of a given element are identical. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

5) Different ratios of atoms produce different compounds. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

6) J. J. Thomson suggested the "plum pudding" model of the atom. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-2

7) Robert Millikan determined the charge on an electron. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-2

8) The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of a given atom is called the atomic number. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-3

9) Isotopes have different atomic number (Z) but the same mass number (A). Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

10) The vertical columns in the periodic table of the elements are called groups. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

11) A 25 g sample of sugar is found to contain 51.4% oxygen by mass. Another 250 g sample of the same sugar is also 51.4% oxygen by mass. This is consistent with the: A) law of conservation of mass B) law of constant composition C) law of multiple proportions D) first assumption of Dalton's atomic theory E) second assumption of Dalton's theory Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

12) When a chemical reaction is carried out in a sealed container, the substances may change in color, temperature, or state, but no change in mass is detected. This is evidence of the: A) law of conservation of mass B) law of constant composition C) law of definite proportions D) existence of electrons E) existence of protons Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

13) When decomposed chemically, 73.0 grams of a sample of HCl produce 71.0 g of Cl2 and 2.0 g of H2, while 34.0 g of a sample of H2S produce 32.0 g of S and 2.0 g of H2. This is an example of the law: A) of conservation of mass B) of multiple proportions C) of definite proportions D) of constant composition E) of simple whole numbers Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement from those given below. A) Atoms retain their identity during a chemical reaction. B) All matter is composed of atoms. C) Atoms combine in small, whole-numbered ratios. D) All atoms of a given element have same mass. E) Different ratios of atoms produce different compounds. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

15) A 0.920-gram sample of magnesium is allowed to burn in 0.321 g of oxygen gas. The sole product is magnesium oxide. After the reaction, no oxygen remains and 0.809 g of magnesium oxide has been formed. What mass of magnesium is left unreacted? A) 0.210 g B) 0.432 g C) 1.408 g D) 0.111 g E) 0.488 g Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

16) Dalton's atomic theory is based on several assumptions, which are listed below. Which of these assumptions is strictly correct? I) All atoms of the same element are identical. II) Atoms are indivisible and unchangeable. III) Chemical changes are the result of the combination, separation, and rearrangement of atoms. A) I, II, and III are correct. B) I and III are correct. C) II and III are correct. D) I and II are correct. E) III is correct. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

17) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The law of constant composition is the law of definite proportions. B) Objects of like charge repel each other. C) Electrons were once known as cathode rays. D) Alpha particles are the same mass as a helium nucleus. E) Gamma rays are the same as electrons. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-2

18) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Michael Faraday discovered cathode rays. B) J .J. Thomson suggested the "plum pudding" model of the atom. C) Robert Millikan determined the charge on an electron. D) J. J. Thomson determined the mass-to-charge ratio for electrons. E) Michael Faraday determined that cathode rays were the fundamental negatively charged particles and called them electrons. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-2

19) Which of the following would be unaffected by an electric field? A) alpha particles B) beta particles C) gamma rays D) protons E) electrons Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-2

20) Choose the correct statement. A) Neutrons have no charge and no mass. B) An electron has 1/1837 the mass of a proton. C) The atomic number is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. D) The charge of a proton is 1837 times the charge of an electron. E) Electrons and protons have about the same mass. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-3

21) Which of the following is a correct feature of the nuclear atom proposed by Rutherford? A) All atoms of an element have the same mass. B) The atom is mostly empty space. C) The number of neutrons and electrons in the atom are equal. D) The majority of alpha particles to strike the foil "bounced back." E) It is like the "plum pudding" model. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-3

22) Beta particles: A) have a mass of 4 and a charge of +2 B) are like X-rays C) are repelled by a positively charged plate D) can be electrons E) have the same mass as a neutron Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-3

23) Ernest Rutherford is credited with: I) the nuclear model of the atom II) the identification of alpha and beta particles III) the discovery of protons IV) the prediction of a third, neutral, subatomic particle A) I and II B) I and III C) I, II, III D) II, III, IV E) I, II, III, IV Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-3

24) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Gamma rays are bent by magnetic fields as a ray of positive charges. B) Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus. C) Protons and neutrons are close to the same mass. D) The atomic number is the proton number. E) The mass number is the number of protons plus neutrons. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

25) What is the mass number of the most abundant form of oxygen atom? A) 15.9994 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24 E) 32 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

26) Which of these atoms has the greatest number of neutrons in its nucleus? A)

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

27) Choose the information a mass spectrometer is unable to provide. A) the relative abundance of two isotopes of potassium B) the number of protons in potassium C) the atomic mass of a single isotope of potassium D) the mass of a proton E) the number of stable isotopes of potassium Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

28) A species that differs in charge from another atom of the same element: I) is called an isotope II) has more or less neutrons III) has lost or gained electrons IV) is called an ion V) has the same number of protons A) I and II B) I and III C) II and IV D) III and IV E) III, IV, V Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

29) Which of the following statements is true concerning the masses of individual Cl atoms? A) All atoms have a mass of 35.45 u. B) Most of the atoms have a mass of 35.45 u. C) Some of the atoms have a mass of 35.45 u. D) None of the atoms have a mass of 35.45 u. E) All atoms have a mass of 17 u. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

30) A hypothetical element, E, has two stable isotopes: E-46 = 46.046 u E-51 = 50.826 u

64.08% 35.92%

What is the average atom weight of the element? A) 47.76 u B) 48.44 u C) 49.11 u D) 48.50 u E) 47.44 u Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

31) A hypothetical element, E, has two stable isotopes. E-38 = 38.012 u E-46 = 45.981 u

75.68% 24.32%

The element's atomic mass would be closest to which of the elements? A) K B) Ar C) Ca D) Sc E) Cl Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

32) The atomic weight of chlorine is very close to 35.5. This means that: A) chlorine occurs with a variable number of protons B) a variable number of electrons gives the fractional weight C) on the average, an atom of chlorine weighs almost 3 times as much as carbon D) the actual weight of a chlorine atom is not known very precisely E) chlorine atoms contain half of a proton Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

33) An element has 5 stable isotopes. The mass and percentage of each are: 69.9243 71.9217 72.9234 73.9219 75.9214

20.52% 27.43% 7.76% 36.54% 7.76%

The element is which of the following? A) As B) Se C) Ge D) Ga E) Zn Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

34) An element has 5 stable isotopes. The mass and percentage of each are: 89.9043 90.9053 91.9046 93.9061 95.9082

51.46% 11.23% 17.11% 17.40% 2.80%

The element is which of the following? A) Nb B) Y C) Sr D) Zr E) Rb Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

35) The atomic mass interval for carbon is given as [ 12.0096; 12.0116 ]. Which of the below statements is correct regarding this atomic mass interval? A) 12.0106 represents the most likely value of the atomic mass of carbon B) 0.00207 represents the uncertainty in the value of atomic mass of carbon C) The upper and lower bound of the atomic weight interval are based on the periodic table D) This interval indicates that the atomic mass of carbon would not be lower than 12.0096 and it would not be higher than 12.0116 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

36) Which statement below is true? A) Metals gain electrons to have a positive charge. B) Metals gain electrons to have a negative charge. C) Metals lose electrons to have a positive charge. D) Nonmetals are more likely to lose than to gain electrons. E) Transition metals can gain 2 or more electrons to become metal ions. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

37) Groups, or families, on the periodic table are: A) vertical columns of elements with similar properties B) horizontal rows of elements with increasing atomic numbers C) named for the first elements in the series; such as "actinides" D) extremely reactive with each other E) elements that all occur naturally in the same state Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

38) Which of the following is a metalloid? A) mercury B) selenium C) bismuth D) radium E) calcium Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

39) What is the mass in grams of 1 atom of sulfur A) 1.661 × 10-24 g B) 1.931 × 10-25 g C) 5.325 × 10-23 g D) 5.179 × 10-26 g E) 5.989 × 10-23 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-7

40) 31.0 grams of the element phosphorus contain: A) 6.02 × 1023 P4 molecules B) 31.0 × (6.02 × 1023) P atoms C) 6.02 × 1023 P atoms D) 31.0 P atoms E) 31.0 moles of P Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

41) How many arsenic atoms are in 5.21 g of arsenic? A) 0.0695 atoms B) 9.51 × 1022 atoms C) 3.14 × 1024 atoms D) 2.10 × 1022 atoms E) 4.19 × 1022 atoms Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

42) A cubic centimeter of lead weighs 11.35 g. How many atoms are in the block? A) 6.8 × 1024 atoms B) 2.4 × 1023 atoms C) 3.3 × 1022 atoms

D) 5.3 × 1022 atoms E) 1.1 × 1025 atoms Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

43) How many moles are represented by 2.5 × 1015 Na atoms? A) 3.8 × 10-10 mol B) 1.8 × 10-10 mol C) 1.5 × 1039 mol D) 4.2 × 10-9 mol E) 1.1 × 1014 mol Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

44) The natural abundance of calcium in the earth's crust is 3.4% by mass. How many calcium atoms are present in a 1.50 g sample of the earth's crust? A) 6.6 × 1023 atoms B) 3.1 × 1022 atoms C) 7.7 × 1020 atoms

D) 7.7 × 1022 atoms E) 5.1 × 1020 atoms Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

45) 57.7 g Ni contains how many atoms? A) 6.13 × 1023 atoms B) 3.47 × 1023 atoms C) 5.92 × 1023 atoms

D) 1.24 × 1024 atoms E) 0.983 atoms Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

46) How many atoms of silicon are contained in 8.50 × 10-5 grams? A) 1.44 × 1023 atoms B) 1.82 × 1018 atoms C) 5.02 × 1030 atoms D) 5.02 × 1018 atoms E) 1.82 × 1020 atoms Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

47) If the density of lead is 11.34 g/cm3, how many atoms are in a piece of lead that is 2.00 cm wide, 1.00 m long, and 2.00 mm thick? A) 1.32 × 1024 atoms B) 1.16 × 1023 atoms C) 1.32 × 1023 atoms D) 1.16 × 1022 atoms E) 6.60 × 1023 atoms Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

48) How many atoms of rubidium-85 are in 87.2 g of rubidium? Rubidium-85 is 72.2 % abundant. A) 5.16 × 1046 atoms B) 4.46 × 1023 atoms C) 8.51 × 1023 atoms D) 6.14 × 1022 atoms E) 1.02 × 1024 atoms Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

49) How many atoms of hydrogen are present in 1.5 lb of hydrogen peroxide, which is 5.93% hydrogen? A) 2.4 × 1025 atoms B) 1.21 × 1025 atoms

C) 1.2 × 1025 atoms D) 2.41 × 1025 atoms E) 1.2 × 1020 atoms Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

50) How many atoms of sulfur are in 280 g of a 50% by mass H2SO4 solution? A) 8.6 × 1025 atoms B) 8.6 × 1023 atoms C) 8.0 × 1025 atoms D) 8.0 × 1023 atoms E) 2.8 × 1029 atoms Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

51) How many Cu atoms are present in a 75.0 cm length of 20-gauge copper wire? A 20-gauge wire has a diameter of 0.03196 in. Copper's density is 8.92 g/cm3. A) 1.31 × 1021 B) 3.28 × 1022 C) 8.08 × 1021 D) 1.04 × 1022 E) 2.08 × 1022 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

52) How many atoms of lead are required to cover a 33.0 cm by 45.0 cm area with a sheet of lead that is 0.140 mm thick? The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3. A) 6.86 × 1023 B) 2.29 × 1026 C) 2.29 × 1025 D) 6.86 × 1022 E) 1.42 × 1026 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

53) A 3.214 g sample of magnesium reacts with 8.416 g of bromine. The only product is magnesium bromide. If 1.934 g of magnesium is left unreacted, how much magnesium bromide is formed? A) 1.280 g B) 5.202 g C) 9.696 g D) 7.136 g E) 3.268 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

54) What mass of magnesium is necessary to make 10.5 g of magnesium bromide if 1.04 g of magnesium makes 7.88 g of magnesium bromide? A) 1.39 g B) 79.9 g C) 1.58 g D) 3.66 g E) 7.89 g Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

55) A sample of pure carbon weighing 1.48 g was burned in an excess of air. The mass of carbon dioxide, the sole product, was . In a second experiment, 11.62 g of carbon dioxide was obtained. What mass of carbon was burned in the second experiment? A) 42.6 g B) 3.17 g C) 3.54 g D) 0.866 g E) 11.6 g Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

56) A 1.4 g sample of calcium is reacted with 3.2 g of oxygen. The only product after the reaction is 1.96 g of CaO. How many grams of oxygen remains unreacted? A) 0.56 g B) 0.224 g C) 2.64 g D) 0.264 g E) 0.203 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

57) A certain mass of nickel reacts with sulphur to produce 2.83 g of NiS. The same mass of nickel reacts completely with 0.5 g of oxygen to produce 2.33 g of NiO. How many grams of sulfur reacted in the first reaction? A) 0.5 g B) 1 g C) 1.5 g D) 10-1 g E) 1.25 g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-1

58) Write the symbol for the radioactive isotope phosphorus-32. A)

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

59) The total number of neutrons in an A) 115 B) 77 C) 192 D) 75 E) 269 Answer: A

is ________.

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

60) With mass spectral data the ratio of the mass of the 14N atom?

was found to be 1.167. What is the mass of

A) 14.017 u B) 10.292 u C) 14.004 u D) 17.000 u E) 14.007 u Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

61) Which is the proper chemical symbol for tungsten? A) Te B) Ti C) Tm D) W E) Tc Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

62) The total numbers of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 31P3- are: A) 15 neutrons, 31 protons, 15 electrons B) 16 neutrons, 15 protons, 18 electrons C) 31 neutrons, 15 protons, 18 electrons D) 15 neutrons, 16 protons, 12 electrons E) 16 neutrons, 16 protons, 18 electrons Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

63) The total numbers of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 35Cl- are ________. A) 17 neutrons, 35 protons, 36 electrons B) 35 neutrons, 17 protons, 18 electrons C) 18 neutrons, 17 protons, 16 electrons D) 18 neutrons, 17 protons, 18 electrons E) 17 neutrons, 17 protons, 17 electrons Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

64) The total numbers of neutrons, protons, and electrons in 138Ba2+ are ________. A) 138 neutrons, 56 protons, 54 electrons B) 82 neutrons, 56 protons, 54 electrons C) 56 neutrons, 82 protons, 80 electrons D) 82 neutrons, 56 protons, 58 electrons E) 82 neutrons, 82 protons, 82 electrons Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

65) A cation has 13 neutrons and 10 electrons. If it has a charge of +1, what is its correct symbol? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

66) A cation has 28 neutrons and 21 electrons. If it has a +3 charge, what is its correct symbol? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

67) An anion has 45 neutrons and 36 electrons. If it has a -1 charge, what is its correct symbol? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

68) How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in A) 12 protons, 10 electrons, 12 neutrons B) 12 protons, 12 electrons, 12 neutrons C) 12 protons, 12 electrons, 24 neutrons D) 24 protons, 10 electrons, 12 neutrons E) 10 protons, 12 electrons, 24 neutrons Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

Mg2+?

69) Write the appropriate symbol for the species containing 18 neutrons, 17 protons, and 16 electrons. A) B) C) D) E) Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

70) What is the proper

E notation for an ion having 35 protons, 36 electrons and 45 neutrons?

A) B) C) D) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

71) Write the symbol for the most common ion formed by sulfur. A) S1B) S2C) S1+ D) S2+ E) requires experimental data Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

72) An isotope with mass number 81 has eleven more neutrons than protons. This is an isotope of what element? A) Tl B) Yb C) Zr D) Br E) Nb Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

73) The following ratios of masses were obtained with a mass spectrometer: Cl/

F = 1.8406,

What is the mass of a

C = 1.5832

Cl atom in atomic mass units?

A) 35.45 u B) 36.36 u C) 13.95 u D) 35.00 u E) 34.97 u Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-4

74) Copper occurs in an isotopic mixture of 69.09% 63Cu (mass = 62.93 u per atom) and 30.91% 65Cu (mass = 64.93 u per atom). What is the average atomic mass of copper? A) 64.00 u B) 63.55 u C) 63.45 u D) 64.31 u E) 29.00 u Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

75) There are two stable isotopes of supposium (Su). Su-191 = 190.9609 u (27.30%)

Su-194 = 193.9633 u (72.70%)

Compute the atomic mass of supposium. A) 190.9 u B) 194.0 u C) 191.8 u D) 192.5 u E) 193.1 u Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

76) A new element is discovered. It has two isotopes. The relative abundance of the isotopes and their masses are 18% isotope 1, mass 350.0 u and 82% isotope 2, mass 352.0 u. What is the atomic mass of the element? A) 351.6 B) 351.0 C) 350.4 D) 352.0 E) 350.0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

77) Rubidium possesses two stable forms and has an average mass of 85.5. 85Rb has a mass of 84.9 and a percent abundance of 72.2%. What is the mass of the other form of Rb? A) 86.1 u B) 85.7 u C) 88.3 u D) 87.1 u E) 89.4 u Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

78) The three naturally occurring isotopes of magnesium are 24Mg (23.985042 u, 78.99%), 25Mg (24.985837, 10.00%), and 26Mg. What is the atomic mass of 26Mg? A) 25.98 u B) 48.67 u C) 23.94 u D) 26.43 u E) 24.31 u Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

79) The average atomic mass of B is 10.80 u. Boron has only two stable forms What is the natural percent abundance of

and

A) 80.0% B) 20% C) 1.0% D) 3.8% E) 75% Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

80) Silver possesses two stable isotopes: 107Ag (106.90 u) and 109Ag (108.90 u). If the average atomic mass of Ag is 107.87 u, what is the percent abundance of 107Ag? A) 48.5% B) 50.0% C) 51.5% D) 46.3% E) 53.8% Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

81) A certain element contains eleven atoms of mass 95.952 u for every four atoms of mass 98.949 u. Compute the average atomic weight of this element. A) 97.451 u B) 96.751 u C) 98.150 u D) 105.16 u E) 96.952 u Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

82) Calculate the percent abundance of the two isotopes of a fictional element, georgium, if it has an average atomic mass of Go-290 Go-292

289.86 u 292.07 u

A) Go-290, 38% and Go-292, 62% B) Go-290, 62% and Go-292, 38% C) Go-290, 42% and Go-292, 58% D) Go-290, 58% and Go-292, 42% E) cannot be determined Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

83) Magnesium has 3 stable isotopes with masses of 23.98504, 24.98584, and 25.98259 respectively. Mg-25 is 10.13%. What are the percentages of the other two isotopes? A) 78.8% and 10.9% B) 50% and 50% C) 44.9% and 44.9% D) 83.6% and 16.4% E) 78.9% and 21.1% Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

84) Lead has 4 stable isotopes with masses of 203.973 (1.48%), 205.9745 (23.6%), 206.9759, and 207.9766 respectively. What are the percentages of the last two isotopes? A) 77% and 23% B) 50% and 50% C) 37% and 38% D) 64% and 11% E) 24% and 50% Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-5

85) Iodine is a member of the family called ________. A) metals B) metalloids C) noble gasses D) halogens E) actinides Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

86) Sodium is a member of the family called ________. A) alkali metals B) earth alkali metals C) metalloids D) actinide metals E) transition metals Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

87) Main group elements are those in groups ________. A) 1 and 2 B) 1, 2, and 13 to 18 C) 13 to 18 D) 1 and 18 E) 3 to 12 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-6

88) What is the average mass in kilograms of one atom of arsenic? A) 74.922 kg B) 0.074922 kg C) 5.48 × 10-23 kg D) 1.24 × 10-25 kg E) 1.24 × 10-22 kg Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-7

89) What is the mass of a sample containing 1.2 moles of Ni? A) 49 g B) 59 g C) 34 g D) 61 g E) 70 g Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

90) How many moles of Fe is present in 1.2 grams of Fe? A) 2.15 × 10-2 mol B) 0.215 mol C) 4.30 × 10-2 mol

D) 2.15 × 10-1 mol E) 0.430 mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

91) 24.9 g of Mn is equivalent to how many moles of Mn? A) 2.21 moles B) 0.453 moles C) 0.461 moles D) 0.996 moles E) 1.00 mole Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

92) How many moles of lead are present in a piece of lead with a volume of 0.600 cm3? The density of Pb is 11.34 g/cm3. A) 6.80 moles B) 0.0328 moles C) 11.0 moles D) 0.547 moles E) 0.0912 moles Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

93) What is the density (g/cm3) of tin if 4.56 × 1020 atoms make a cube 2.31 mm on each side? A) 0.00729 g/cm3 B) 169 g/cm3 C) 3.28 g/cm3

D) 0.0142 g/cm3 E) 7.29 g/cm3 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

94) What is the isotopic atomic mass of an isotope if 9.7023 × 1022 atoms weighs 4.0256 g? A) 0.64858 g B) 24.305 g C) 24.986 g D) 13.728 g E) 4.0256 g Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

95) What is the atomic weight of an element if 4.00 grams of it contain A) 20.2 u B) 80.8 u C) 19.7 u D) 8.08 u E) 2.02 u Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

atoms?

96) A solution contains 12.5% NaCl by mass. What mass of solution is required to obtain atoms? A) 0.013 g B) 30 g C) 1.2 g D) 95 g E) 78 g Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

97) A lead cube that is 3.00 cm on each side contains g/cm3?

atoms. What is the density of this cube in

A) 34.1 g/cm3 B) 11.4 g/cm3

C) 0.0550 g/cm3 D) 0.990 g/cm3 E) 26.7 g/cm3 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

98) Lead-204 has a relative abundance of 1.48%. What size block of lead (in cubic centimeters) will contain atoms of lead-204? The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3. A) 3.75 × 10-3 cm3 B) 0.253 cm3 C) 194 cm3 D) 17.1 cm3 E) 16.8 cm3 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

99) Lead-206 has a relative abundance of 23.6%. What size block of lead (in cubic centimeters) will contain atoms of lead-206? The density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3. A) 0.0107 cm3 B) 0.253 cm3 C) 1.07 cm3 D) 0.330 cm3 E) 12.1 cm3 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

100) What is the thickness in mm of the sheet density of lead is 11.35 g/cm3.

formed by

atoms of lead? The

A) 9.10 mm B) 0.0910 mm C) 1.88 × 104 mm D) 0.273 mm E) 2.73 mm Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 2-8

101) An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has: A) an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42 B) an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40 C) 22 neutrons and 20 protons D) 22 protons and 20 neutrons Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Which of the following represent isotopes? A:

A) A and B B) A and C C) A and D D) C and D Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of A) 38 p, 52 n B) 38 p, 90 n C) 52 p, 38 n D) 90 p, 38 n Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Sr?

Var: 5

104) How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of barium-130? A) 56 p, 74 n B) 56 p, 130 n C) 74 p, 56 n D) 130 p, 56 n Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) What is the element symbol for an atom that has 5 protons and 6 neutrons? A) B B) C C) H D) Na Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) How many electrons are in a neutral atom of bromine-81? A) 1 B) 35 C) 36 D) 81 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) Identify the chemical symbol of element Q in A) Br B) Hg C) Pd D) Se Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) An atom of 131I contains ________ neutrons. A) 53 B) 184 C) 78 D) 124 E) 131 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 17

109) The mass number of an atom of 14C is: A) 6 B) 20 C) 8 D) 14 E) 10 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 17

110) What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? A) C B) O C) Ne D) Mg Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) How many electrons are in the ion P3-? A) 12 B) 18 C) 28 D) 34 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? A) F-, Ne, Mg2+ B) Ge, Se2-, BrC) K+, Rb+, Cs+ D) Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of protons? A) F-, Ne, Mg2+ B) Ge, Se2-, BrC) K+, Rb+, Cs+ D) Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) Cesium belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. A) alkali metal B) alkaline earth metal C) halogen D) noble gas Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) Iodine belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. A) alkali metal B) alkaline earth metal C) halogen D) noble gas Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. A) alkali metal B) alkaline earth metal C) halogen D) noble gas Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) Barium belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. A) alkali metal B) alkaline earth metal C) halogen D) noble gas Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? A) fluorine B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) sulfur Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) Which of the following elements is a gas at room temperature? A) bromine B) carbon C) helium D) sodium Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 3 Chemical Compounds 1) A molecule is a group of bonded atoms that exist as an entity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-1

2) The structural formula is the simplest formula. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-1

3) For an ionic compound, the term formula mass is more appropriate than the term molecular mass. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

4) Combustion analysis is one way to determine the simplest formula of some compounds. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

5) Oxidation state is related to the number of protons involved in bonding. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

6) Organic chemistry refers to compounds of oxygen, and hydrogen. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-5

7) Chemical nomenclature is a systematic way of assigning names to chemical compounds. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-5

8) Only metals in binary compounds use prefixes such as di-, tri-, tetra-, etc. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

9) Polyatomic ions end in -ate or -ite. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

10) Hydrocarbons contain only carbon and hydrogen. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

11) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A molecule is a group of bonded atoms that exist as an entity. B) Ionic compounds result from combinations of metals and nonmetals. C) An anion is a positive ion. D) The empirical formula is the simplest formula of the ratio of atoms. E) The molecular formula is the listing of the atoms in an actual molecule. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-1

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A structural formula shows which atoms are bonded together and by what type of bond. B) Formula mass is the mass of a formula unit. C) Molecular mass is the mass of a molecular compound. D) The molecular mass of hydrogen is 1.008 u. E) The molecular formula is the same as, or a multiple of, the empirical formula. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-1

13) A 200.0 g sample of pure MgCl2 contains: A) 95.211 formula units MgCl2 B) 2.101 formula units MgCl2 C) 1.265 × 1024 formula units MgCl2 D) 1.204 × 1026 formula units MgCl2 E) 5.734 × 1025 formula units MgCl2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

14) A mole of the substance water, H2O, refers to: A) 12.0000 g H2O

B) one H2O molecule C) 6.02 × 1023 g H2O D) 6.02 × 1023 H2O molecules E) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H and O Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

15) A 10.0 g sample of bismuth tribromide, BiBr3, contains: A) 5.37 × 1022 total number of ions B) 0.322 mol BiBr3 C) 3.14 × 1022 formula units BiBr3 D) 1.34 × 1022 bromide ions E) 4.020 × 1022 total number of ions Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

16) The number of atoms in 10.0 g of CaCO3 (100.0 g/mol) is: A) 18.1 × 1022 atoms B) 30.1 × 1022 atoms C) 6.02 × 1022 atoms D) 12.1 × 1023 atoms E) 12.1 × 1022 atoms Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

17) Aspartame, C14H18N2O5, a low-calorie sweetener, is about 200 times sweeter than sugar. How many molecules of aspartame are there in a one-gram packet of sweetener containing 36 mg aspartame? A) 2.0 × 1018 molecules of aspartame B) 4.0 × 1020 molecules of aspartame C) 7.2 × 1025 molecules of aspartame

D) 1.4 × 1022 molecules of aspartame E) 7.4 × 1019 molecules of aspartame Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

18) How many hydrogen atoms are present in 2.84 moles of water? A) 3.42 × 1024 H atoms B) 1.71 × 1024 H atoms C) 4.24 × 1023 H atoms

D) 9.44 × 1024 H atoms E) 3.42 × 1023 H atoms Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

19) Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms? A) 1 mole of S8 molecules B) 2 moles of P4 molecules

C) 4 moles of chlorine molecules D) 8 moles of H atoms E) 3 moles of ozone, O3 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

20) Which of the following could be an empirical formula? A) C9H8O4 (aspirin) B) C6H8O6 (vitamin C) C) C8H10N4O2 (caffeine) D) C10H14N2 (nicotine) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

21) The explosive, trinitrotoluene, TNT, C6H3N3O6, has the same proportion of: A) N to H atoms as does NH3 B) H to O atoms as does H2O

C) N to O atoms as does NO2 D) C to H atoms as does C6H6 E) C to O atoms as does CO2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

22) White phosphorus, P4, spontaneously bursts into flame in oxygen. If 6.500 g of white phosphorus reacts with oxygen to form 11.54 g of a phosphorus oxide, what is the empirical formula of this oxide? A) P2O3 B) PO3

C) P2O6

D) P4O6 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

23) Combustion analysis of a 22.0 mg sample of the painkiller morphine produced 13.2 mg of water. What is the percentage by mass of hydrogen in morphine? A) 6.71% B) 3.36% C) 13.4% D) 60.0% Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

24) In the following group, the compound with the greatest percentage of oxygen by mass is: A) ClO2 B) Na2CO3 C) P4O6 D) SO2

E) As2O3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

25) Nitroglycerin, C3H5N3O3: A) has equal amounts of C and N by mass B) has less than 50% O by mass C) has the same proportion of N to H atoms as does NH3 D) has the same mass percent of C and N E) has higher mass percent of H than O Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

26) Crystals from evaporation of urine analyze to 22.6% phosphorus. Which compound is probably present? A) NaNH4HPO4 B) (NH4)3PO4 C) Na3PO4 D) H3PO4

E) Ca3(PO4)2 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

27) In which compound does iodine have an oxidation state of +3? A) HIO3 B) IF5

C) Ca(IO2)2 D) HI E) I2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

28) In which compound does carbon have an oxidation state of zero? A) C2H2 B) CH2O

C) CH3OH D) Na2CO3 E) CO2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

29) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state. A) Cl is +5 in HClO3 B) C is +4 in CS2

C) S is +6 in H2SO3

D) C is -2 in CH3OH E) Br is +3 in BrF3 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

30) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state. A) C is 0 in H2CO B) S is +4 in H2SO3

C) C is +2 in HCOOH D) Fe is +2 in Fe2O3

E) Mn is +7 in KMnO4 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

31) The name of which compound ends in -ite? A) HIO3 B) Na2SO3 C) H2SO3

D) Na2CO3 E) CaH2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

32) Choose the INCORRECT name formula combination. A) Fe2O3 iron(III) oxide B) H2SO3 sulfurous acid

C) NH4ClO3 ammonium chlorate D) CaH2 calcium hydride E) SiO2 silicon oxide Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

33) Choose the INCORRECT name formula combination. A) CaH2 calcium hydroxide B) SiO2 silicon dioxide

C) HClO hypochlorous acid D) Cu3(PO4)2 copper(II) phosphate E) AlCl3 aluminum chloride Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

34) Choose the INCORRECT name formula combination. A) HNO2 nitrous acid B) Fe2(SO4)3 iron(III) sulfite

C) LiCN lithium cyanide D) Na2CO3 sodium carbonate

E) Ba(OH)2 barium hydroxide Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

35) Choose the INCORRECT name/formula combination. A) NaClO sodium hypochlorite B) NaClO4 sodium chlorate C) NaClO2

sodium chlorite

D) Sr(IO3)2

strontium iodate

E) SCl4

sulfur tetrachloride

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

36) Choose the INCORRECT name formula combination. A) Fe2(SO4)3 iron(III) sulfate B) HBrO3 bromic acid

C) PCl5 phosphorus chloride D) SCl4 sulfur tetrachloride E) Sr(IO3)2 strontium iodate Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

37) Hydrates are: A) moisture sensitive hygroscopic inorganic salts B) compounds in which each formula unit has one or more water molecules associated with it C) readily soluble in water and release energy D) organic compounds that contain oxygen together with usual carbon and hydrogen E) concentrated solutions of salts in water Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

38) Which of the following functional groups gives acidic properties to organic molecules? A) -C(O)CH3 B) -COOCH3 C) -COOH D) -C(O)H E) -CH2OH Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

39) Which of the following is(are) isomer(s) of organic compound with formula C5H12O?

A) 4 B) 1 and 2 C) 1 and 3 D) 6 E) 5 and 4 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

40) Which of the following are isomers? A) CH3CH(CH2CH3)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3

C) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(OH)CH2CH(CH3)CH3 D) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2OH

E) CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH(CH3)CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

41) Which of the following is the correct definition of an isomer? A) Isomers are molecules that have the same empirical formula but different arrangements of atoms in space. B) Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms in space. C) Isomers are molecules that have the same arrangements of atoms in space but different empirical and molecular formulas. D) Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but contain different isotopes. E) Isomers are molecules with the same empirical formula but have different isotopes. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

42) Which of the following can be one of the isomers of a compound with molecular formula C4H10? A) 2-methylpropane (methylpropane) B) 2-methylbutane C) 3-methylpentane D) 3-methylbutane E) 2-methylpentane Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

43) Which of the following substances contains the greatest number of atoms? A) 5 mol H2O B) 6 mol CS2

C) 3 mol NaNO3 D) 2 mol NH4OH E) 6 mol NaH Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

44) The formula mass of arachidic acid,

a fatty acid found in peanut oil, is ________.

A) 176.000 u B) 312.538 u C) 92.079 u D) 306.126 u E) 352.000 u Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

45) How many hydrogen atoms are there in 12.4 g of Al2(HPO4)3? A) 6.55 × 1022 H atoms B) 1.09 × 1022 H atoms C) 6.07 × 1022 H atoms D) 1.32 × 1023 H atoms E) 4.39 × 1022 H atoms Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-2

46) The molecular formula for caffeine is C8H10O2N4. How many moles of C atoms are present in a 2.0 g sample of caffeine? A) 0.32 mole B) 0.27 mole C) 0.041 mole D) 0.082 mole E) 0.010 mole Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

47) The material Styrofoam is made by blowing a gas into the polymer polystyrene made from styrene. Styrene has the percent composition of C 92.26% and H 7.74% and molecules weigh 2.44 grams. What is the molecular formula for styrene? A) CH B) C2H2 C) C8H8

D) C4H4 E) C6H6

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

48) An unknown organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen, and bromine only. The mass percentages of C and H are 12.77% C and 1.60% H. Bromine from 1.87 g of this compound has been completely converted into 3.70 g of AgBr. The molar mass of unknown organic compound is 188 u. Determine the molecular formula of the unknown. A) CH3Br B) C2H3Br2

C) C2H2Br2 D) C2H2Br4 E) C4H6Br4 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

49) Nitrogen forms at least three stable oxides: N2O, NO, and NO2. How many grams of nitrogen reacts with 32 grams of oxygen to form NO? A) 16 grams B) 28 grams C) 14 grams D) 32 grams E) 8 grams Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

50) How many grams of K are found in 1.00 × 102 g of K2Cr2O7? A) 18.3 g B) 36.5 g C) 53.2 g D) 13.3 g E) 26.6 g Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

51) How many grams of Cr are found in 1.00 × 102 g of K2Cr2O7? A) 35.4 g B) 24.3 g C) 12.2 g D) 48.6 g E) 33.8 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

52) How many grams of O are found in 1.00 × 102 g of K2Cr2O7? A) 14.9 g B) 38.1 g C) 5.44 g D) 11.3 g E) 78.8 g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

53) A 2.000 g sample of water contains 11.19% H by mass and 88.81% O by mass. What percent of H by mass will be found in a 6.00 g sample of water? A) 33.33% B) 88.81% C) 5.60% D) 33.57% E) 11.19% Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

54) A 2.000 g sample of water contains 11.19% H by mass and 88.81% O by mass. What mass of H will be found in a 27.000 g sample of water? A) 3.021 g B) 1.511 g C) 2.413 g D) 1.206 g E) 23.98 g Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

55) Fumaric acid, C4H4O4, can be extracted from plants and can be used as a substitute for citrus acid in fruit drinks. The percent composition by mass of fumaric acid is ________. A) C 33.33% H 33.33% O 33.33% B) C 39.80% H 6.68% O 53.52% C) C 40.00% H 6.67% O 53.33% D) C 41.39% H 3.47% O 55.14% E) C 0.25% H 0.25% O 0.50% Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

56) Determine the mass percent H in NH4Cl. A) 1.9% B) 14% C) 7.5% D) 3.6% E) 67% Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

57) A sample contains 43.7% phosphorus and 56.3% oxygen. The molar mass is 284 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of the compound? A) P2O5 B) PO3

C) P4O10 D) P4O5 E) P5O8

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

58) The simplest formula of a substance is found to be CH2O, and its approximate molar mass is found by experiment to be 93 grams/mole. What is the exact molar mass of this substance in grams/mole? A) 30.0 B) 87.0 C) 90.1 D) 93.0 E) 93.1 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

59) What is the percentage by weight of phosphorus in calcium phosphate, Ca3(PO4)2? A) 20% B) 10% C) 36% D) 29% E) 40% Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

60) Complete combustion of a 0.500 g sample of a pure hydrocarbon yielded 0.973 g CO2 and 0.319 g H2O. The empirical formula of this hydrocarbon is ________. A) C3H5 B) C2H3

C) C4H6

D) C5H8 E) C6H9 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

61) Maprotiline, a tetracyclic drug prescribed for the treatment of depression, has the following mass composition: . The empirical formula of maprotiline is ________. A) C7H8N3 B) C20H23N C) C87H8N5 D) C3H3N E) C14H14N Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

62) A strip of electrolytically purified copper weighing 3.178 grams is strongly heated in a stream of oxygen until it is all converted to a black oxide. The resultant black powder weighs 3.978 g. What is the formula of the oxide? A) CuO2 B) Cu2O3 C) CuO3

D) Cu2O E) CuO Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

63) The magnesium in a sample of mineral water weighing 110.520 g is first converted to MgNH4PO4

and then to Mg2P2O7. The mass of Mg2P2O7 obtained is 0.0216 g. Express the quantity of magnesium in the mineral water in parts per million (that is in g Mg per 106 g H2O). A) 1.95 × 103 ppm B) 8.95 ppm C) 234 ppm D) 42.7 ppm E) 21.4 ppm Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

64) 2.404 g of a compound were burned in oxygen and found to produce only 3.520 g CO2(g), 2.564 g SO2(g) and 1.440 g H2O(l). Determine the empirical formula of the compound. A) CSH B) C2SH4 C) C4SH2

D) C2S2H4 E) C2SH2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

65) The molecular formula for a sugar molecule is C12H22O11. What is the percent of carbon in the molecule? A) 2.37% B) 67.88% C) 42.12% D) 8.34% E) 26.67% Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

66) The complete combustion of 0.285 g of a pure hydrocarbon yielded 0.878 g CO2 and 0.405 g H2O. What is the mass % C in this hydrocarbon? A) 27.3% B) 24.0% C) 84.1% D) 32.4% E) 72.7% Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

67) Elemental analysis of 50.0000 g of a compound showed that it contained 12.7520 g C, 3.2105 g H, and the rest was S. The empirical formula of this compound is ________. A) CHS B) CH2S C) CH3S

D) C2H2S

E) C2H3S2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

68) A 4.05 g sample of a compound containing only C, H, and O was burned completely. The only combustion products were 10.942 g CO2 and 4.476 g H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C7H14O B) C7H7O

C) C7H14O7 D) CH2O

E) C6H12O Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

69) Naphthalene, commonly found in mothballs, is 93.75% carbon and 6.25% hydrogen by mass. If naphthalene's molecular formula is twice its empirical formula, what would its molecular mass be? A) 64 u B) 96 u C) 128 u D) 192 u E) 160 u Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

70) An organic compound contains C, H, and O. The percentages of H and C are 6.73% H, and 39.99% C by mass. The molecular mass is 60.06 u. What is the molecular formula of the compound? A) CH2O B) C3H6O3

C) C2H3O2 D) C2H4O2 E) C4H8O4 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

71) From the following percent by mass compositions, determine the empirical formula of the compound. A) LiPO2 B) Li3PO4 C) LiPO3

D) Li3PO3 E) LiPO4

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

72) A compound is found to have the following percent composition by mass: 38.7% K, 13.8% N, 47.5% O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) KNO3 B) KNO2

C) K2NO2 D) K2NO3

E) K2N2O3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

73) What is the oxidation state of chlorine in sodium hypochlorite? A) +1 B) -1 C) +2 D) +3 E) +5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

74) The element M forms the chloride MCl4 containing 75.0% Cl by mass. What is the molar mass of M? A) 22.7 g/mol B) 21.2 g/mol C) 11.8 g/mol D) 39.55 g/mol E) 47.3 g/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

75) How many grams of H2O are there in 10.0 g of tetraphenylarsonium chloride dihydrate,

A) 0.860 g B) 0.792 g C) 0.430 g D) 0.396 g E) 0.239 g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

76) A 1.500 g sample of compound containing only C, H, and O was burned completely. The only combustion products were 1.738 g CO2 and 0.711 g H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) CH2O2 B) CH2O

C) C2H4O3 D) CHO E) CH4O Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

77) A compound has the following percentage composition, by weight: 22.0% Cu, 12.9% Fe, 16.6% C, 19.4% N, and 29.1% H2O. Write a plausible (empirical) formula for this hydrate. A) CuFe(CN)4 · 4 H2O B) CuF(CN)4 · 5 H2O

C) Cu3Fe2(CN)12 · 14 H2O D) CuF(CN)4 E) Cu3Fe2(CN)12 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

78) To produce ferrocene one requires 2.33 g of C5H5 (65.0 g/mol) for every 1.00 g of Fe used (55.9 g/mol). What is the value of x in the formula of ferrocene: A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

79) 4.72 g of a compound of carbon, hydrogen, and silver was burned in an atmosphere of oxygen, yielding 7.95 g of CO2, 1.02 g of H2O, and 3.02 g of a mixture of silver and silver oxide. Because the production of this mixture yielded an indeterminate value for the amount of silver, another sample of the compound weighing 8.12 g was reacted with a solution of NaCl, yielding 5.57 g of AgCl. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C5H5Ag B) C8H8Ag C) C8H5Cl

D) C8H5Ag E) C5H8Ag Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

80) The analysis of 0.246 g of organic compound gives 0.656 g CO2, 0.134 g H2O, and 1.86 × 10-3 mol N2 gas. What would be the empirical formula of this organic compound? A) C3H3N B) C4H4N C) C2H2N2 D) C2H2N

E) C3H3N2 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

81) What is the mass percent of H2O in magnesium chloride hexahydrate? A) 10.7% B) 64.4% C) 8.86% D) 26.6% E) 53.2% Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-3

82) The oxidation state of silver in the complex ion Ag(CN) is ________. A) -1 B) +1 C) 0 D) +2 E) -2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

83) The oxidation state of iodine in orthoparaperiodic acid, H5IO6, is ________. A) +1 B) -1 C) +5 D) +7 E) -7 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

84) The oxidation state of vanadium in VO2+ is ________. A) -2 B) +2 C) +1 D) -4 E) +4 Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

85) The oxidation state of oxygen in oxygen difluoride, OF2, is ________. A) -1 B) +1 C) -2 D) +2 E) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

86) Arrange the following in order of increasing oxidation state of chlorine: NaClO, NaClO3, NaClO2, and NaClO4. A) NaClO, NaClO2, NaClO3, NaClO4 B) NaClO4, NaClO3, NaClO2, NaClO

C) NaClO, NaClO3, NaClO2, NaClO4

D) NaClO4, NaClO, NaClO3, NaClO2 E) NaClO3, NaClO2, NaClO, NaClO4 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-4

87) What is the formula of sodium hypochlorite? A) NaCl B) NaClO C) NaClO2 D) NaClO3 E) NaClO4

Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

88) What is the formula of sodium bicarbonate? A) NaHCO3 B) Na2CO3

C) NaHCO2 D) Na2C2

E) Na2C2O4 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

89) The correct chemical name for the compound SbCl3 is ________. A) tin trichloride B) tin chloride C) stannous trichloride D) antimony(IV) chloride E) antimony(III) chloride Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

90) The correct chemical name for the substance Al(OH)3 is ________. A) aluminum hydroxide B) aluminum trihydroxide C) aluminum oxytrihydrate D) aluminum(II) hydroxide E) aluminum trihydrogenoxide Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

91) The correct chemical name for the compound KNO2 is ________. A) potassium nitrate B) potassium nitrite C) potassium nitrogen dioxide D) potassium nitrous oxide E) potassium hyponitrite Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

92) The formula of barium nitride is ________. A) Ba3N2 B) Ba2N2 C) BaN D) Ba2N Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

93) The name of the compound Cr(ClO4)3·6H2O is ________. A) chromium(III) perchlorate hexahydrate B) chromium(II) perchlorate hexahydrate C) chromate perchlorate hydrate D) chromate(III) perchlorate hexahydrate Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

94) The correct chemical name for the compound HIO is ________. A) periodic acid B) hydrogen iodide oxide C) hydrogen iodite D) hypoiodous acid E) hypoiodic acid Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-6

95) What is the correct name for the following organic structure? CH3CH2CHBrCH2CH3 A) 3-bromopentane B) 3-bromopropane C) 1-bromo-1-ethylpropane D) pentane E) pentylbromide Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

96) What is the correct name for the following organic structure? CH3C(CH3)2CH3 A) pentane B) 2,2-dimethylpropane C) 2-methylbutane D) 1,3-dimethylpropane E) 2-ethylpropane Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

97) What is the correct name for the following organic structure? CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH2CH3 A) pentyl alcohol B) 5-hexanol C) 2-hexanol D) 1-methylpentanol E) 2-methylpentanol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

98) What is the correct name for the following organic structure? CH3CH2CH2CHClCH2CH2CH2COOH A) octanoic acid B) octylchloride C) 5-octylchloride D) 5-chlorooctanoic acid E) 4-chlorooctanoic acid Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

99) What is the correct name for the following organic structure? CH2 CHCH2CH(CH3)CH3 A) hexene B) hexane C) 1-hexene D) 4-methyl-2-pentene E) 4-methyl-1-pentene Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

100) The suffix -ol designates the presence of which functional group? A) -OH B) -COOH C) -CH3 D) -COOCH3 E) -C(O)H Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 3-7

101) In which set do all elements tend to form anions in binary ionic compounds? A) C, S, Pb B) K, Fe, Br C) Li, Na, K D) N, O, I Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? A) covalent bonding B) hydrogen bonding C) ionic bonding D) metallic bonding Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) Which one of the following compounds contains ionic bonds? A) SrO B) HBr C) PBr3 D) SiO2

Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) Which of the following is the correct chemical formula for a molecule of astatine? A) At B) AtC) At+ D) At2

Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) Which of the compounds, Li3N , N H3, C3H8, IF3, are ionic compounds? A) only C3H8

B) only LiN C) LiN and NH3

D) NH, C3H8, and IF3 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) Which of the compounds, C4H10, BaCl2, Ni(NO3)2, SF6, are expected to exist as molecules? A) only C4H10

B) C4H10 and SF6

C) C4H10, Ni(NO3)2, and SF6 D) BaCl2 and Ni(NO3)2 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) Which of the following elements has the LEAST tendency to form an ion? A) Ca B) K C) Kr D) Se Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? A) K, Ga, O B) Sr, Ni, Hg C) N, P, Bi D) O, Br, I Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) The solid compound Na3PO4 contains: A) Na+, P5+, and O2- ions B) Na+ and PO42- ions C) Na3+ and PO42- ions D) Na3PO4 molecules Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 4

110) What is the chemical formula for iron(III) sulfate? A) Fe3S B) Fe3SO4 C) Fe2S3

D) Fe2(SO4)3 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) Rb2S is named: A) rubidium disulfide B) rubidium sulfide C) rubidium(II) sulfide D) rubidium sulfur Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) What is the chemical formula for calcium hydroxide? A) CaH2 B) CaOH C) CaOH2

D) Ca(OH)2 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) What is the chemical formula for magnesium hydride? A) MgH2 B) MgOH C) MgOH2 D) Mg(OH)2 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) The chemical formula for lithium peroxide is: A) LiOH B) LiO2 C) Li2O

D) Li2O2 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) The compound Cu(N O3 )2,is named: A) copper nitrate(II) B) copper(I) nitrate C) copper(I) nitrate(II) D) copper(II) nitrate Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) The compound NO is named: A) nitrate B) nitrite C) nitrogen monoxide D) nitrogen(IV) oxide Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) The chemical formula for calcium nitride is: A) Ca(NO3)2 B) Ca(NO2)2 C) Ca3N2 D) CaN2 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) An aqueous solution of H2S is named: A) hydrosulfuric acid B) hydrosulfurous acid C) sulfuric acid D) sulfurous acid Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) The chemical formula for the selenite ion is: A) SeB) Se2-

C) SeO32-

D) SeO42Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) The ion IO2- is named: A) iodate ion B) iodite ion C) iodine dioxide ion D) iodine(II) oxide ion Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) The chemical formula for sulfurous acid is: A) H2S B) H2SO3 C) HSO4

D) H2S2O7 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) What is the charge on the Cr ions in Cr2O3? A) -2 B) +1 C) +2 D) +3 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) What is the molar mass of chlorine gas? A) 35.5 g mol-1 B) 71.0 g mol-1 C) 6.02 × 1023 g mol-1

D) 1.20 × 1023 g mol-1 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) What is the mass of a single fluorine molecule, F2? A) 3.155 × 10-23 g B) 6.310 × 10-23 g C) 19.00 g D) 38.00 g Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) What is the mass of 0.500 mol of dichlorodifluoromethane, CCl2F2? A) 4.14 × 10-3 g B) 60.5 g C) 121 g D) 242 g Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

126) How many moles are there in 3.00 g of ethanol, CH3CH2OH? A) 0.00725 mol B) 0.0652 mol C) 15.3 mol D) 138 mol Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) What is the mass of 8.50 × 1022 molecules of NH3? A) 0.00829 g B) 0.417 g C) 2.40 g D) 121 g Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

128) What is the molar mass of 1-butene if 5.38 × 1016 molecules of 1-butene weigh 5.00 µg? A) 56.0 g mol-1 B) 178 g mol-1 C) 224 g mol-1 D) 447 g mol-1 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

129) What mass of ammonia, N H3, contains the same number of molecules as 3.00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? A) 0.0412 g B) 0.331 g C) 2.69 g D) 24.2 g Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

130) What mass of phosphorus pentafluoride, PF5, has the same number of fluorine atoms as 25.0 g of oxygen difluoride, OF2? A) 0.933 g B) 10.0 g C) 23.3 g D) 146 g Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

131) How many anions are there in 2.50 g of MgBr2? A) 8.18 × 1021 anions B) 1.64 × 1022 anions C) 4.43 × 1025 anions D) 8.87 × 1025 anions Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

132) Which of the following has the greatest mass? A) 3.88 × 1022 molecules of O2 B) 1.00 g of O2

C) 0.0312 mol of O2 D) All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

133) Which of the following has the smallest mass? A) 3.50 × 1023 molecules of I2 B) 85.0 g of Cl2 C) 2.50 mol of F2

D) 0.050 kg of Br2 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

134) The molecular weight of sucrose ( C12H22O11 ), table sugar, is ________ amu (rounded to one decimal place). A) 330.3 B) 29.0 C) 342.3 D) 45.0 E) 182.0 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 9

135) A sample of pure lithium nitrate contains 10.1% lithium by mass. What is the % lithium by mass in a sample of pure lithium nitrate that has twice the mass of the first sample? A) 5.05% B) 10.1% C) 20.2% D) 40.4% Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

136) A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15.0 g contains 7.70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40.0 g of calcium fluoride? A) 2.27 g B) 7.70 g C) 15.0 g D) 20.5 g Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

137) Which one of the following contains 39% carbon by mass? A) C2H2 B) CH4

C) CH3NH2 D) CO2

Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

138) Determine the mass percent (to the hundredths place) of H in sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3). Answer: 1.20 Diff: 2

Type: SA

Var: 4

139) What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62.0% C, 10.4% H, and 27.5% O by mass? A) B) C) D) E) Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 11

140) How many Fe(II) ions are there in 20.0 g of FeSO4? A) 2.19 × 10-25 iron(II) ions B) 7.92 × 1022 iron(II) ions C) 4.57 × 1024 iron(II) ions D) 1.82 × 1027 iron(II) ions Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

141) How many oxygen atoms are there in 7.00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? A) 0.187 oxygen atoms B) 2.30 × 1021 oxygen atoms

C) 1.60 × 1022 oxygen atoms D) 1.13 × 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

142) How many chloride ions are there in 4.50 mol of aluminum chloride? A) 3.00 chloride ions B) 13.5 chloride ions C) 2.71 × 1024 chloride ions D) 8.13 × 1024 chloride ions Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

143) How many cations are there in 10.0 g of sodium phosphate? A) 3.67 × 1022 cations B) 1.10 × 1023 cations C) 9.87 × 1024 cations

D) 2.96 × 1025 cations Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

144) What is the empirical formula of a substance that contains 5.28 g of C, 1.11 g of H, and 3.52 g of O? A) C2H O5 B) C2H4O2

C) C2H4O3 D) C3H4O4 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

145) Which one of the following is NOT an empirical formula? A) CHO B) CH2O C) C2H4O

D) C2H4O2 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

146) Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 1.6 g of methane reacts with 6.4 g of oxygen to produce 4.4 g of carbon dioxide? A) 3.6 g B) 4.4 g C) 7.4 g D) 8.0 g E) 2.7 g Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

147) Combustion analysis of an unknown compound containing only carbon and hydrogen produced 0.2845 g of CO2 and 0.1451 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) CH2

B) C2H5 C) C4H10 D) C5H2

Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

148) Combustion analysis of 1.200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2.086 g of CO2 and 1.134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A) C2H5O

B) C2H5O2

C) C2H10O3 D) C3H8O2 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

149) A certain alcohol contains only three elements, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Combustion of a 50.00 g sample of the alcohol produced 95.50 g of CO2 and 58.70 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the alcohol? Answer: C2H6O Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 6

150) What is the oxidation number of the sulfur atom in K2SO4? A) -2 B) +2 C) +4 D) +6 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

151) What is the oxidation number of the chromium atom in K2CrO4? A) -2 B) +2 C) +6 D) +7 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

152) What is the oxidation number of the oxygen atom in Na2O2? A) -2 B) -1 C) +1 D) +2 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 4 Chemical Reactions 1) A formula is a shorthand way of representing a chemical reaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

2) In a balanced equation, the number of atoms of each element in the products must equal to the number of atoms of each element in the reactants. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

3) (aq) indicates that the compound is dissolved in alcohol. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

4) In a chemical equation, Δ above the yield sign means the reaction will produce heat. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

5) Stoichiometric factor relates the amounts, in moles, of any two substances involved in chemical reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

6) In a solution of alcohol and water that is 70% water, alcohol is the solvent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

7) A chemical equation is a shorthand way of representing a chemical reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

8) The numbers in front of formulas in balanced equations are called stoichiometric coefficients. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

9) Molarity is defined as moles of solute per kg of solution. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

10) The reactant that is in excess determines the amount of products formed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

11) When the equation K2S2O3 + I2 → K2S4O6 + KI is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients, the coefficient of KI is: A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

12) When the equation Fe2(C2O4)3 → FeC2O4 + CO2 is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients, the coefficient of CO2 is: A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 3 E) 5 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

13) When the equation CS2 + Cl2 → CCl4 + S2Cl2 is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients, the sum of the coefficients is: A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 3 E) 7 Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

14) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? K2O + H2O → KOH A) 2 B) 6 C) 3 D) 8 E) 4 Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

15) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? Na + HCl → NaCl + H2 A) 7 B) 4 C) 2 D) 10 E) 9 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

16) What is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation that represents the complete combustion of the relatively new gasoline additive "MTBE," for which the molecular formula is C5H12O? A) 39 B) 37 C) 29 D) 24 E) 20 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

17) How many grams of N2 are required to react with 2.30 moles of Mg in the following process? 3 Mg + N2 → Mg3N2? (Mg = 24.3 g/mol, N = 14.0 g/mol) A) 21.5 g B) 0.767 g C) 64.4 g D) 0.027 g E) 193.2 g Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

18) How many moles of H3PO4 are produced when 20.0 g of HCl are produced by the reaction A) (20.0/36.5) g B) (20.0/35.5)/5 g C) (20.0/36.5)/5 g D) (20.0/98.0) g E) (20.0/98.0)/5 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

19) For the reaction

and 7.2 g of Fe2O3 (159.8 g/mol)

produce how many g of Fe (55.9 g/mol)? A) 2.5 (55.9/27.0) g B) 2.5 (55.9)(2)/(27.0)(2) g C) 7.2 (55.9)(2)/159.8 g D) 7.2 (55.9/159.8) g E) 2.5 (55.9/159.8) g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

20) Which metal will produce the most hydrogen per gram of metal? A) 2 Li + 2 HCl → 2 LiCl + H2 B) Sn + 4 HCl → SnCl4 + 2 H2

C) 2 Fe + 6 HCl →2 FeCl3 + 3 H2 D) Mg + 2 HCl → MgCl2 + H2

E) 2 Cr + 6 HCl → 2 CrCl3 + 3H2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

21) Potassium superoxide (KO2) can simulate a plant-type action by consuming carbon dioxide (CO2) gas and releasing oxygen (O2) gas. The other product is potassium carbonate (K2CO3). When the equation for this process is balanced, it shows that: A) 3 mol oxygen is produced per mol KO2 consumed B) 2 mol KO2 is consumed per mol carbon dioxide

C) moles of reactants equals moles of product D) 3 g of oxygen is produced per 2 g CO2 consumed E) moles of products exceed moles of reactants Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

22) Gases emitted during volcanic activity often contain high concentrations of hydrogen sulfide and sulfur dioxide. These gases may react to produce deposits of sulfur according to the equation:

For the complete reaction of 6.41 mol of hydrogen sulfide: A) 308 g of sulfur is formed B) 410 g of sulfur dioxide is consumed C) 231 g of water vapor is produced D) 320 g of total products result E) 628 g of total reactants are consumed Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

23) Which of the following processes could theoretically produce the maximum mass of oxygen per gram of metal salt reactant? A) 2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2 B) 4 KO2 + 2 CO2 → 2 K2CO3 + 3 O2

C) 2 Na2O2 + 2 H2SO4 → 2 H2O + O2 D) 2 HgO → 2 Hg + O2

E) NaBrO2 → NaBr + O2 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

24) Iron metal reacts with chlorine gas as follows: 2 Fe(s) + 3 Cl2(g) → 2 FeCl3(s) How many moles of FeCl3 are obtained when 4.6 mol of Cl2 reacts with excess Fe? A) 3.1 mol B) 4.6 mol C) 1.5 mol D) 2.3 mol E) 6.9 mol Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

25) 24.0 g of ethane (C2H6) are burned to form CO2 and H2O. How many grams of CO2 are produced? A) 32.8 g B) 14.4 g C) 43.2 g D) 35.1 g E) 70.3 g Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

26) Given the following reaction: Na2SO4(s) + 2 C(s) → Na2S(s) + 2 CO2(g) How many grams of carbon are required to produce 18.4 g Na2S(s)? A) 11.3 g B) 5.66 g C) 2.83 g D) 239 g E) 142 g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

27) A 1.900 g sample of C6H12 is burned in an excess of oxygen. What mass of CO2 and H2O should be obtained? A) 0.994 g CO2, 0.407 g H2O B) 2.98 g CO2, 1.22 g H2O

C) 5.96 g CO2, 2.44 g H2O D) 10.45 g CO2, 4.27 g G H2O E) 5.23 g CO2, 2.38 g H2O Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

28) Given the reaction: 2KMnO4 + 10 KI + 8 H2SO4 → 6 K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 I2 + 8 H2O How many moles of H2SO4 are required to produce 2.0 moles of I2, given the other reactants are in excess? A) 0.80 mol B) 1.3 mol C) 3.2 mol D) 4.0 mol E) 1.6 mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

29) Which of the following represents a 1.00 M aqueous solution of glucose (C6H12O6)? A) 90.0 g glucose per 500 mL water B) 10.0 g glucose per 10.0 mL water C) 0.180 g glucose per mL solution D) 0.100 g glucose per mL solution E) 4.5 g glucose per 4.5 g water Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

30) What is the molarity of 10.9 g KCl dissolved in 150.0 mL of water? A) 0.0727 M B) 0.146 M C) 0.975 M D) 0.0219 M E) 0.667 M Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

31) 45.8 mL of a 3.14 M sodium chloride solution were used to react completely with 50.0 mL of an aqueous silver nitrate solution. What is the molarity of the silver nitrate solution? A) 2.88 M B) 1.50 M C) 3.14 M D) 3.42 M E) 1.71 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

32) For the reaction symbolized as HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) water is both: A) a reactant and the solute B) a reactant and the solvent C) a product and the solute D) a product and the solvent E) a liquid and the intermediate Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

33) How many mL of 0.024 M solution can be produced from 14.1 mL of 3.0 M solution? A) (14.1)(0.024)(3.0) mL B) 14.1(0.024/3.0) mL C) 14.1(3.0/0.024) mL D) (14.1/0.024)/3.0 mL E) (0.024×3)/14.1 mL Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

34) 52.5 mL of a solution were diluted to a volume of 6.25 L and then had a concentration of 3.16 M. What was the molarity of the initial solution? A) 3.16(52.5/6.25) M B) 3.16(6.25/52.5) M C) (3.16)(52.5)(6.25) M D) 3.16(52.5/6250) M E) (6.25)(3.16)/0.0525 M Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

35) If 85.6 mL of a 6.75 M solution are diluted to 6.20 L with water, what is the concentration of the final solution? A) 6.75 (6.20/85.6) M B) 6.75 (8.56/6.20) M C) 6.75 (6200/85.6) M D) 6.75 (85.6/6200) M E) 8.56 (6.20/6.75) M Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

36) What volume of 6.0 M sulfuric acid is required for the preparation of 500.0 mL of 0.30 M solution? A) 100 mL B) 50 mL C) 40 mL D) 30 mL E) 25 mL Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

37) If 5.97 mL of a solution of NaCl contains 2.54 mg of sodium ion, what is the molarity of the sodium chloride solution? A) 0.425 M B) 1.85 × 10-2 M C) 1.85 × 10-5 M D) 7.28 × 10-3 M E) 0.102 M Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

38) What mass of trisodium phosphate is required to prepare 250.0 mL of a solution that is sodium ion? A) 37 g B) 12 g C) 7.7 g D) 4.1 g E) 3.0 g Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

39) What volume of concentrated acetic acid

is needed to prepare 250

mL of a 0.30 M aqueous solution? A) 4.7 mL B) 4.3 mL C) 3.0 mL D) 2.5 mL E) 2.2 mL Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

40) What volume of 2.0 M HCl, in mL, is required to dissolve a 10.0 g piece of Zn? Zn(s) + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2(g) A) 76 mL B) 330 mL C) 170 mL D) 310 mL E) 150 mL Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

41) How many grams of a solid mixture containing strontium chloride would one need to make 558 mL of a 0.100 M strontium chloride solution, if the solid mixture contains 58.6% strontium chloride by weight? A) 6.62 g B) 15.1 g C) 8.85 g D) 5.19 g E) 9.52 g Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

42) How many grams of CrSO4 will be made from 25.0 grams each of Zn, K2Cr2O7, and H2SO4? 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4 → 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 + K2SO4 + 7 H2O A) 10.8 g B) 28.3 g C) 25.2 g D) 12.6 g E) 37.8 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

43) Given the reaction:

How many moles of K2SO4 are produced by allowing five moles each of KMnO4, KI, and H2SO4 to react? A) 3 mol B) 1 mol C) 2 mol D) 4 mol E) 5 mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

44) How many grams of ZnSO4 will be made from 41.0 grams each of Zn, K2Cr2O7, and H2SO4? 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4 → 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 + K2SO4 + 7 H2O A) 67.6 g B) 38.6 g C) 101 g D) 20.6 g E) 82.5 g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

45) 42.6 g Cu are combined with 84.0 g of HNO3 according to the reaction: 3 Cu + 8 HNO3 → 3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2 NO + 4 H2O Which reagent is limiting and how many grams of Cu(NO3)2 are produced? A) Cu, 93.8 g B) HNO3, 93.8 g C) Cu, 125.6 g D) HNO3, 125.6 g E) Cu(NO3)2, 125.6 g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

46) Consider the gaseous reaction: N2H4(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) + 2 H2O(g) If the above reaction has a percent yield of 98.5%, what mass in grams of oxygen is needed to produce 49.0 g of NO2(g), assuming an excess of N2H4? A) 50.4 g B) 51.9 g C) 25.9 g D) 23.1 g E) 11.5 g Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

47) If 0.500 mol of CaCl2 is mixed with 0.200 mol Na3PO4, the maximum amount in moles of Ca3(PO4)2 that can be formed is: A) 0.17 B) 0.20 C) 0.10 D) 0.67 E) 0.50 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

48) The Haber Process for the production of ammonia is represented by: 3 H2(g) + N2(g) → 2 NH3(g) If a mixture of 30 g of hydrogen with 10 g of nitrogen produced 8.4 g of ammonia, what was the percent yield? A) 84% B) 69% C) 49% D) 28% E) 20% Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

49) Given the reaction: P4(l) + 6 Cl2(g) → 4 PCl3(l) If the percent yield is 82%, what mass of P4 is required to obtain 2.30 g PCl3 (Cl2 in excess)? A) 0.63 g B) 0.52 g C) 0.43 g D) 0.16 g E) 0.95 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

50) Cryolite is a compound needed for the Hall-Heroult process for producing aluminum. Cryolite is produced by the following reaction: 6 HF + Al(OH)3 + 3 NaOH → Na3AlF6 + 6 H2O How many grams of cryolite are produced if the reaction has a 94.3% yield and a limiting reagent of 27.8 grams of HF? A) 275 g B) 48.6 g C) 45.9 g D) 15.0 g E) 15.9 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

51) One source of iodine is sodium iodate. Iodine is produced by a series of reactions. The first reaction is a reduction reaction with sodium hydrogen sulfite. IO3-( aq) + 3 HSO3- (aq) → I- (aq) + 3 SO42- (aq) + 3 H+(aq) 5 I- (aq) + IO3- (aq) + 6 H+ (aq) → 3 I2(s) + 3 H2O How many grams of iodine are produced from 1.00 × 102 grams of NaHSO3 if each reaction has a 95.0% yield? A) 48.8 g B) 51.4 g C) 185 g D) 46.3 g E) 44.0 g Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

52) If 8.52 g each of zinc, potassium dichromate, and sulfuric acid are reacted by the reaction: 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O how many grams of potassium dichromate will be left unreacted? A) 1.05 g B) 2.84 g C) 7.30 g D) 4.87 g E) 3.65 g Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

53) Given the following reactions: Fe + Br2 → FeBr2 3 FeBr2 + Br2 → Fe3Br8 If each reaction is 82.0% efficient, what mass of iron is necessary to make 8.45 g of Fe3Br8? A) 0.870 g B) 3.73 g C) 2.14 g D) 1.75 g E) 2.61 g Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

54) For the reaction A) +2 B) +1 C) -1 D) -2 E) 0 Answer: B

the stoichiometric number for Al2O3 is:

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

55) For the reaction

and 7.2 g of Fe2O3 (159.8 g/mol)

produce 5.03 g of Fe (55.9 g/mol). Calculate the extent of reaction , x. A) 0.362 B) 0.089 C) 0.045 D) 0.092 E) 0.405 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

56) If 0.500 mol of CaCl2 is mixed with 0.200 mol Na3PO4, the maximum amount in moles of Ca3(PO4)2 that can be formed is 0.10 moles. Calculate the extent of reaction , x. A) 0.2 B) 0.10 C) 0.35 D) 0 E) 0.65 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

57) The Haber Process for the production of ammonia is represented by: 3 H2(g) + N2(g) → 2 NH3(g) If 30 g of hydrogen is mixed with 10 g of nitrogen and the extent of reaction is 0.247, what is the amount of ammonia produced? A) 4.19 g B) 2.47 g C) 7.41 g D) 8.41 g E) 3.70g Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

58) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + Fe A) 4 B) 6 C) 12 D) 9 E) 8 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

59) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? CaC2(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g) A) 8 B) 4 C) 5 D) 10 E) 9 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

60) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? KClO3(s) → KCl(s) + O2(g) A) 11 B) 10 C) 5 D) 7 E) 6 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

61) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? PCl3(l) + Cl2(g) + P4O10(s) → POCl3(l) A) 3 B) 18 C) 45 D) 10 E) 23 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

62) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? Al(s) + HCl(aq) → AlCl3(aq) + H2(g) A) 13 B) 11 C) 18 D) 19 E) 21 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

63) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l) A) 4 B) 5 C) 8 D) 9 E) 7 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

64) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? C2H6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 5 B) 10 C) 19 D) 21 E) 25 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

65) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? CH3OH → CO + H2 A) 3 B) 8 C) 5 D) 4 E) 7 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

66) What is the sum of the coefficients when the following equation is balanced with the smallest integer coefficients? H2SO3 + Al(OH)3 → Al2(SO3)3 + H2O A) 4 B) 5 C) 11 D) 12 E) 14 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

67) Write the complete balanced equation for the complete combustion reaction expected to occur between C3H7OH and O2. A) C3H7OH + O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O

B) 3 C3H7OH + 9 O2 → 6 CO2 + 8 H2O + 3 C C) 2 C3H7OH + 6 O2 → CO + 8 H2O

D) 2 C3H7OH + 9 O2 → 6 CO2 + 8 H2O

E) 2 C3H7OH + 9 O2 → 6 C + 8 H2 + 10 O2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-1

68) The chemical reaction occurring during the discharge of a lead storage battery can be represented by the equation: What mass of lead sulfate would result from the complete reaction of 41.4 g of lead? A) 57.6 g B) 60.5 g C) 105 g D) 115 g E) 121 g Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

69) How much Cl2, in g, is required to produce 12.0 g CCl4 according to the following reaction?

A) 12.0 g B) 5.52 g C) 22.1 g D) 1.38 g E) 11.0 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

70) What mass of water is produced in the metathesis reaction 75.2 g Zn(OH)2 with 43.4 g HCl? A) 13.6 g B) 27.3 g C) 10.7 g D) 21.4 g E) 31.8 g Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

71) What mass of oxygen gas would be consumed by the complete combustion of 7.5 g of a mixture of propane (C3H8) and butane (C4H10) in the mole ratio of A) 3.9 g B) 11 g C) 14 g D) 21 g E) 27 g Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-2

72) Our task is to measure the volume of blood in an elephant. One way to do this would be to drain its blood into a suitable container. Aside from harmful side effects which this method has on the elephant, it will not be successful, as blood will still remain behind in the tissues. Hence, we will inject 2.00 ml of a 2.00 M solution of a dye which the elephant will not appreciably metabolize or excrete in one hour and then measure the concentration of this dye in the bloodstream (our sample being taken from another leg than the point of injection) after 30 minutes, a sufficient time to thoroughly mix the dye in the bloodstream. The concentration of dye at this point is What is the volume of blood in the elephant? A) 320 L B) 320000 L C) 3.2 L D) 80 L E) 800 L Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

73) What is the molarity of formaldehyde in a solution containing 0.25 g of formaldehyde (CH2O) per mL? A) 2.5 M B) 25 M C) 8.3 M D) 83 M E) 4.0 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

74) "Washing soda" (sodium carbonate) may be used to "soften" water by the removal of certain ions that would otherwise react with common soaps. When the "hardness" is due to calcium ion, the "softening" process may be represented as: Ca2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → CaCO3(s) What mass of sodium carbonate would be required to remove essentially all of the calcium ion from 750 L of solution containing 43 mg Ca2+ per liter? A) 85 g B) 67 g C) 12 g D) 48 g E) 22 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

75) If an aqueous solution containing 46 g of sodium carbonate per liter is mixed with an equal volume of 0.20 M aqueous hydrochloric acid, what would be the molarity of sodium chloride in the final solution, assuming volumes were additive? A) 0.10 M B) 0.20 M C) 0.22 M D) 0.43 M E) 0.50 M Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

76) The molarity of a solution that contains 14.7 g of H2SO4 in 200.0 mL solution is ________. A) 1.5 M B) 0.75 M C) 0.77 M D) 7.4 M E) 3.0 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

77) What is the molarity of methanol,

if 150.0 mL is dissolved in enough water

to make 4.00 L of solution? A) 3.71 M B) 1.17 M C) 1.48 M D) 0.927 M E) 0.734 M Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

78) What is the molarity of a sucrose solution (C12H22O11) if 110.0 g of a 92.0% pure solid is dissolved per 250.0 mL of water? A) 0.296 M B) 1.29 M C) 0.321 M D) 1.40 M E) 1.18 M Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

79) What mass of MgCl2 in grams must be added to 250.0 mL of a 0.25 M MgCl2 solution to produce a 0.40 M solution, assuming no change of volume upon addition? A) 9.5 g B) 6.0 g C) 2.2 g D) 3.6 g E) 19 g Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

80) You have 10.00 L of a 0.350 M KCl solution, but you need a solution that is 0.450 M. What volume of water, in L, would you evaporate from the solution? A) 4.38 L B) 3.50 L C) 2.85 L D) 7.77 L E) 2.22 L Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-3

81) To measure the volume of an irregularly shaped container filled with water, 1.00 mL of 2.00 M potassium chloride solution is added. After stirring, a 5.00 mL sample was removed from the container and found to contain 2.54 × 10-2 mg of potassium ion. What is the volume of the container? A) 15.4 L B) 29.4 L

C) 2.94 × 104 L D) 3.97 × 10-4 L E) 2.54 L Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

82) Given the reaction: 2 KMnO4 + 10 KI + 8 H2SO4 → 6 K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 I2 + 8 H2O How many moles of I2 are produced by reacting 28.0 g KMnO4, 18.0 g KI, and 46.0 g H2SO4? A) 0.108 mol B) 0.0542 mol C) 0.293 mol D) 0.443 mol E) 0.886 mol Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

83) The chemical reaction during low current discharge of a simple "dry cell" involves: (unbalanced) Zn + MnO2 + NH4Cl → ZnCl2 + Mn2O3 + NH3 + H2O What is the coefficient for zinc in the balanced equation that uses the lowest whole number ratios, and what is the limiting reagent for a process in which equal masses of reactants are mixed? A) coefficient 1 and limiting reagent Zn B) coefficient 2 and limiting reagent Zn C) coefficient 1 and limiting reagent MnO2 D) coefficient 2 and limiting reagent MnO2

E) coefficient 2 and limiting reagent NH4Cl Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-4

84) The chemical reaction occurring during the discharge of a lead storage battery can be represented by the equation: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) +2 H2SO4(aq) → 2 PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l) Which is the limiting reagent and the amount of PbSO4 produced if 53.0 g of Pb, 77.3 g of PbO2, and 534 mL of 0.544 M solution of H2SO4 is used? A) limiting reagent PbO2, 196 g PbSO4 B) limiting reagent Pb, 77.6 g PbSO4 C) limiting reagent Pb, 155 g PbSO4

D) limiting reagent H2SO4, 88.1 g PbSO4 E) limiting reagent H2SO4, 176 g PbSO4 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

85) The chemical reaction occurring during the discharge of a lead storage battery can be represented by the equation: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2 H2SO4(aq) → 2 PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l) Which is the limiting reagent and the amount of PbSO4 produced if 39.8 g of Pb, 57.9 g of PbO2, and 352 mL of 0.375 M solution of H2SO4 is used? A) limiting reagent PbO2, 146 g PbSO4 B) limiting reagent Pb, 58.2 g PbSO4 C) limiting reagent Pb, 116 g PbSO4

D) limiting reagent H2SO4, 80.0 g PbSO4 E) limiting reagent H2SO4, 40.0 g PbSO4 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

86) What is the percent yield if 185 grams of SiO2 are made from 328 g of Cr2O3 by the following equation? 3 Si(s) + 2 Cr2O3(s) → 3 SiO2(s) + 4 Cr(l) A) 142% B) 70% C) 56% D) 105% E) 95% Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

87) What is the percent yield if 122 grams of SiO2 are made from 246 g of Cr2O3 by the following equation? 3 Si(s) + 2 Cr2O3(s) → 3 SiO2(s) + 4 Cr(l) A) 83.6% B) 49.6% C) 125% D) 33.1% E) 59.3% Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

88) Consider the equation: 2 Na + 2 H2O → 2 NaOH + H2 If 92.0 g of sodium is reacted with 76.0 g of water until the reaction goes to completion, which reactant will remain and in what quantity? A) 72.0 g water B) 43.5 g sodium C) 3.9 g water D) 10.0 g sodium E) 10.0 g water Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

89) How many grams of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, can be obtained from 578 grams of iron ore if the ore is 76.0% by mass FeS? The reactions involved are given below. Each reaction is 92.0% efficient. 4 FeS + 7O2 → 2 Fe2O3 + 4 SO2 2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3

SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 A) 502 g B) 307 g C) 382 g D) 95.5 g E) 629 g Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

90) Sulfuric acid can be prepared by a multistep process summarized as: 2 SO2 + O2 + 2 H2O → 2 H2SO4 What mass of sulfuric acid could be produced daily by a process using 38 kg per day of sulfur dioxide with a 70% conversion efficiency ("yield"), assuming that sulfur dioxide is the limiting reagent? A) 27 kg/day B) 41 kg/day C) 54 kg/day D) 58 kg/day E) 83 kg/day Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

91) Nitroglycerin, used both in medicine and as an explosive, can be prepared by the carefully controlled reaction of glycerol (C3H8O3) with nitric acid, as symbolized by: C3H8O3 + 3 HNO3 → C3H5N3O9 + 3 H2O What mass of nitric acid is required for the production of 2.8 g of nitroglycerin by a process having a 67% yield? A) 2.3 g B) 0.39 g C) 1.6 g D) 3.5 g E) 1.2 g Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

92) Chromium in its +VI oxidation state is considered a hazardous, carcinogenic species, destruction of which may be accomplished by the process symbolized as: 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4 → 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 + K2SO4 + 7 H2O If 1.0 mol of each reactant is mixed, what is the limiting reagent, and what is the theoretical yield in moles of chromium(II) sulfate? A) limiting reagent Zn, 0.50 mol chromium(II) sulfate B) limiting reagent K2Cr2O7, 2.0 mol chromium(II) sulfate C) limiting reagent H2SO4, 0.29 mol chromium(II) sulfate D) limiting reagent H2, 1.0 mol chromium(II) sulfate E) no limiting reagent, 1.0 mol chromium(II) sulfate Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

93) In the following reaction: 2 KClO3(s) → 2 KCl(s) + 3 O2(g) 14.0 g KClO3 yielded 1.40 g KCl. What is the percent yield? A) 6.08% B) 16.4% C) 11.0% D) 32.9% E) 10.0% Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

94) Cryolite is a compound needed for the Hall-Heroult process for producing aluminum. Cryolite is produced by the following reaction: 6 HF + Al(OH)3 + 3 NaOH → Na3AlF6 + 6 H2O How many grams of cryolite are produced if the reaction has a 67.3% yield and a limiting reagent of 35.4 grams of NaOH? A) 61.9 g B) 41.7 g C) 125 g D) 186 g E) 20.2 g Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

95) One source of iodine is sodium iodate. Iodine is produced by a series of reactions. The first reaction is a reduction reaction with sodium hydrogen sulfite. IO3- (aq) + 3 HSO3- (aq) → I- (aq) + 3 SO42- (aq) + 3 H+ (aq) 5 I- (aq) + IO3- (aq) + 6 H+ (aq) → 3 I2(s) + 3 H2O How many grams of iodine are produced from 1.00 × 102 grams of NaHSO3? A) 81.3 g B) 243 g C) 62.6 g D) 48.8 g E) 205 g Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

96) If 8.52 g each of zinc, potassium dichromate, and sulfuric acid are reacted by the reaction: 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O How many grams of zinc will be left unreacted? A) 0.94 g B) 3.65 g C) 5.27 g D) 1.89 g E) 3.25 g Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

97) In the reaction: 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O, if 25.4 g of zinc sulfate is to be made, how many grams of potassium dichromate is required? A) 13.9 g B) 3.48 g C) 46.3 g D) 6.35 g E) 11.6 g Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

98) If the percent yield is 82.0%, how many grams of silicon is needed to make 105 g of chromium by the reaction: 3 Si (s) + 2 Cr2O3 (s) → 3 SiO2 (s) + 4 Cr (l)? A) 51.9 g B) 92.2 g C) 42.5 g D) 34.9 g E) 13.0 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

99) Acetylene gas may be produced by carefully adding water to calcium carbide, according to the equation: CaC2(s) + 2 H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g) When a 37 g sample of an impure calcium carbide was treated with excess water, 13 g of acetylene gas was produced. If the reaction is essentially 100% efficient, what was the percentage of nonreacting impurity in the carbide sample? A) 86% B) 58% C) 42% D) 35% E) 13.5% Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

100) Given the following reactions: Fe + Br2 → FeBr2 3 FeBr2 + Br2 → Fe3Br8 If each reaction is 82.0% efficient, what mass of Fe3Br8 is produced from 1.00 g Fe? A) 4.81 g B) 3.94 g C) 2.65 g D) 3.24 g E) 2.57 g Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

101) 306 mL of a 0.208 M solution of silver nitrate will react with 146 mL of a 0.170 M solution of sodium phosphate to produce how many grams of silver phosphate precipitate? The balanced reaction is: 3 AgNO3 + Na3PO4 → Ag3PO4 + 3 NaNO3 A) 8.88 g B) 26.6 g C) 14.2 g D) 10.4 g E) 1.51 g Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

102) How many grams of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, can be obtained from 400 grams of iron ore if the ore is 80.0% by mass FeS? The reactions involved are given below. 4 FeS + 7O2 → 2 Fe2O3 + 4 SO2 2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3

SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 A) 557 g B) 446 g C) 357 g D) 287 g E) 89.3 g Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

103) How many grams of iron(II) sulfide is required to make 225 g of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? The reactions involved are given below. 4 FeS + 7O2 → 2 Fe2O3 + 4 SO2 2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3

SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 A) 101 g B) 251 g C) 126 g D) 202 g E) 502 g Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

104) What thickness (in cm) is the silicon block (density = 2.33 g/cm3) that is 2.87 cm wide and long necessary to react with 91.3 g of Cr2O3 by the reaction: 3 Si (s) + 2 Cr2O3 (s) → 3 SiO2 (s) + 4 Cr (l)? A) 2.05 cm B) 1.32 cm C) 3.08 cm D) 8.98 cm E) 3.79 cm Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 4-5

105) In the reaction: 4 Zn + K2Cr2O7 + 7 H2SO4→ 4 ZnSO4 + 2 CrSO4 +K2SO4 + 7 H2O, if the extent of reaction, x, is 0.0393, how many grams of potassium dichromate is required? A) 13.9 g B) 3.48 g C) 46.3 g D) 6.35 g E) 11.6 g Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: BI

Var: 1

106) What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? ________ CH14O(l) + ________ O2(g) → ________ CO2(g) + ________ H2O(l) A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 4 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 4

107) Aluminum metal reacts with aqueous iron(II) chloride to form aqueous aluminum chloride and iron metal. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for aluminum when the chemical equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number stoichiometric coefficients? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) A solution is prepared by adding 1.60 g of solid NaCl to 50.0 mL of 0.100 mol L-1

. What is the

molarity of chloride ion in the final solution? Assume that the volume of the final solution is 50.0 mL. A) 0.747 mol L-1 B) 0.647 mol L-1 C) 0.132 mol L-1 D) 0.232 mol L-1 E) 0.547 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 20

110) How many millilitres of 0.132 mol L-1 mol L-1 NaOH? A) 0.521 B) 0.0120 C) 83.7 D) 0.0335 E) 29.9 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

solution are needed to neutralize 50.00 mL of 0.0789

Var: 14

111) What is the oxidation number change for the manganese atom in the following unbalanced reduction half-reaction: Mn O4- (aq) + H+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + H2O(l) A) -7 B) -5 C) +5 D) +7 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 3

112) What are the smallest, whole-number coefficients in front of NO3-(aq) and Zn(s) when the following redox equation is balanced? The reaction occurs in acidic solution. ________ NO3-(aq) + ________ Zn(s) → ________ NO(g) + ________ Zn2+(aq)?

A) 2, 3 B) 2, 6 C) 3, 4 D) 3, 6 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6 Li(s) +

(g) →

N(s)

How many moles of lithium nitride are produced when 0.450 mol of lithium react in this fashion? A) 0.150 B) 0.900 C) 0.0750 D) 1.35 E) 0.225 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

114) Lithium and nitrogen react in a combination reaction to produce lithium nitride: 6 Li(s) +

(g) →

N(s)

How many moles of lithium are needed to produce 0.60 mol of

N when the reaction is carried out in

the presence of excess nitrogen? A) 0.30 B) 1.8 C) 0.20 D) 0.40 E) 3.6 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 11

115) Automotive air bags inflate when sodium azide decomposes explosively to its constituent elements: (s) → 2 Na(s) + How many moles of A) 1.92 B) 8.64 C) 4.32 D) 0.960 E) 1.44 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

(g)

are produced by the decomposition of 2.88 mol of sodium azide?

Var: 10

116) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6 Li(s) +

(g) →

How many moles of A) 3.00 mol B) 0.500 mol C) 0.167 mol D) 1.50 mol E) 0.0833 mol Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

N(s)

are needed to react with 0.500 mol of lithium?

Var: 10

117) Magnesium burns in air with a dazzling brilliance to produce magnesium oxide: 2 Mg(s) +

(g) → 2 MgO(s)

How many moles of A) 0.0317 mol B) 2.60 mol C) 0.770 mol D) 1.54 mol E) 0.385 mol Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

are consumed when 0.770 mol of magnesium burns?

Var: 10

118) Automotive air bags inflate when sodium azide decomposes explosively to its constituent elements: (s) → 2 Na(s) +

(g)

How many grams of sodium azide are required to produce 33.0 g of nitrogen? A) 1.77 g B) 0.785 g C) 76.6 g D) 51.1 g E) 114.9 g Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

119) Magnesium burns in air with a dazzling brilliance to produce magnesium oxide: 2 Mg(s) +

(g) → 2 MgO(s)

When 4.00 g of magnesium burns, what is the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide? A) 4.00 g B) 6.63 g C) 0.165 g D) 3.32 g E) 13.3 g Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

120) How many moles of CuO can be produced from 0.900 mol of Cu2O in the following reaction? 2 Cu2O(s) + O2(g) → 4 CuO(s) A) 0.450 mol B) 0.900 mol C) 1.80 mol D) 3.60 mol Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) How many moles of BCl3 are needed to produce 10.0 g of HCl(aq) in the following reaction? BCl3(g) + 3 H2O(l) → 3 HCl(aq) + B(OH)3(aq) A) 0.0914 mol B) 0.274 mol C) 0.823 mol D) 10.9 mol Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) How many grams of calcium chloride are needed to produce 1.50 g of potassium chloride? CaCl2(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → 2 KCl(aq) + CaCO3(aq) A) 0.896 g B) 1.12 g C) 2.23 g D) 4.47 g Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) Identify the coefficient of I2(s) when the following reaction is balanced, and determine the number of moles of iodine that reacts with 30.0 g of aluminum. (unbalanced) Al(s) + I2(s) → Al2I6(s) A) coefficient 1, amount 0.741 mol B) coefficient 3, amount 1.67 mol C) coefficient 2, amount 2.22 mol D) coefficient 4, amount 3.33 mol Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) Identify the coefficient of Fe2O3(s) when the following reaction is balanced, and determine the number of grams of MgO needed to produce 10.0 g of Fe2O3. (unbalanced) MgO(s) + Fe(s) → Fe2O3(s) + Mg(s) A) coefficient 2, mass 0.312 g B) coefficient 3, mass 0.841 g C) coefficient 4, mass 2.52 g D) coefficient 1, mass 7.57 g Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) Dinitrogen monoxide gas decomposes to form nitrogen gas and oxygen gas. How many grams of oxygen are formed when 10.0 g of dinitrogen monoxide decomposes? A) 0.275 g B) 3.64 g C) 7.27 g D) 14.5 g Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

126) If the density of ethanol, C2H5OH, is 0.789 g mL-1. How many millilitres of ethanol are needed to produce 15.0 g of CO2 according to the following chemical equation? C2H5OH(l) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l) A) 6.19 mL B) 9.95 mL C) 19.9 mL D) 39.8 mL Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) If the percent yield for the following reaction is 65.0%, how many grams of KClO3 are needed to produce 32.0 g of O2?

2 KClO3(s) → 2 KCl(s) + 3 O2(g) A) 53.1 g B) 81.7 g C) 126 g D) 283 g Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

128) If the percent yield for the following reaction is 75.0%, and 45.0 g of NO2 are consumed in the reaction, how many grams of nitric acid, HNO3(aq), are produced? 3 NO2(g) + H2O(l) → 2 HNO3(aq) + NO(g) A) 30.8 g B) 41.1 g C) 54.8 g D) 69.3 g Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

129) Lithium and nitrogen react in a combination reaction to produce lithium nitride: 6 Li(s) +

(g) →

N(s)

In a particular experiment, 3.50 g samples of each reagent are reacted. What is the theoretical yield of lithium nitride? A) 3.52 g B) 2.93 g C) 17.6 g D) 5.85 g E) 8.7 g Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

130) Calcium oxide reacts with water in a combination reaction to produce calcium hydroxide: CaO(s) +

O(l) →

(s)

A 4.50 g sample of CaO is reacted with 4.34 g of

O. How many grams of water remain after the

reaction is complete? A) 0.00 B) 0.00892 C) 2.90 D) 1.04 E) 0.161 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

131) If 294 grams of FeS2 is allowed to react with 176 grams of O2 according to the following unbalanced equation, how many grams of Fe2O3 are produced? FeS2 + O2 → Fe2O3 + SO2 Answer: 160 g Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 8

132) Calcium oxide reacts with water in a combination reaction to produce calcium hydroxide: CaO(s) +

O(l) →

(s)

In a particular experiment, a 5.00 g sample of CaO is reacted with excess water and 6.11 g of

recovered. What is the percent yield in this experiment? A) 122% B) 1.22% C) 7.19% D) 92.5% E) 81.9% Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

133) Sodium metal and water react to form hydrogen and sodium hydroxide. If 5.98 g of sodium react with water to form 0.26 g of hydrogen and 10.40 g of sodium hydroxide, what mass of water was involved in the reaction? A) 4.68 g B) 5.98 g C) 10.14 g D) 10.66 g Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

134) Which substance is the limiting reactant when 2.0 g of sulfur reacts with 3.0 g of oxygen and 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide according to the following chemical equation? 2 S(s) + 3 O2(g) + 4 NaOH(aq) → 2 Na2SO4(aq) + 2 H2O(l) A) S(s) B) O2(g) C) NaOH(aq) D) None of these substances is the limiting reactant. Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

135) When 7.00 × 1022 molecules of ammonia react with 6.00 × 1022 molecules of oxygen according to the chemical equation shown below, how many grams of nitrogen gas are produced? 4 NH3(g) + 3 O2(g)→ 2 N2(g) + 6 H2O(g) A) 1.63 g B) 1.86 g C) 4.19 g D) 6.51 g Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

136) When silver nitrate reacts with barium chloride, silver chloride and barium nitrate are formed. How many grams of silver chloride are formed when 10.0 g of silver nitrate reacts with 15.0 g of barium chloride? A) 8.44 g B) 9.40 g C) 11.9 g D) 18.8 g Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

137) When 11.0 g of calcium metal is reacted with water, 5.00 g of calcium hydroxide is produced. Using the following balanced equation, calculate the percent yield for the reaction. Ca(s) + 2 H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g) A) 12.3% B) 24.6% C) 45.5% D) 84.0% Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

138) 7.0 g of nitrogen is reacted with 5.0 g of hydrogen to produce ammonia according to the chemical equation shown below. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) A) 3.5 g of hydrogen are left over. B) Hydrogen is the excess reactant. C) Nitrogen is the limiting reactant. D) The theoretical yield of ammonia is 15 g. Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

139) 5.0 g of iron is reacted with 5.0 g of water according to the chemical equation shown below. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(l) → Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) A) 6.91 g of Fe3O4 are produced. B) 2.85 g of H2O are left over.

C) Mass is conserved in this reaction. D) Water is the limiting reactant. Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

140) Calculate the number of grams of solute in 500.0 mL of 0.189 mol L-1 KOH. A) 148 g B) 1.68 g C) 5.30 × g D) 5.30 g E) 1.68 × 10-3 g Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 14

141) What is the concentration of FeCl3 in a solution prepared by dissolving 20.0 g of FeCl3 in enough water to make 275 mL of solution? A) 4.48 × 10-4 mol L-1 B) 0.448 mol L-1 C) 2.23 mol L-1

D) 2.23 × 103 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

142) How many grams of AgNO3 are needed to make 250 mL of an aqueous solution that is 0.135 mol L1? A) 0.0917 g B) 0.174 g C) 5.73 g D) 91.7 g Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

143) What volume of a 0.540 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) solution contains 11.5 g of NaOH? A) 0.155 L B) 0.532 L C) 1.88 L D) 6.44 L Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

144) What is the concentration (M) of sodium ions in 4.57 L of a 0.398 mol L-1

P(aq) solution?

Answer: 1.19 mol L-1 Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

145) What is the concentration (M) of C

OH in a solution prepared by dissolving 16.8 g of C

OH in

sufficient water to give exactly 230 mL of solution? Answer: 2.28 M Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

146) How many grams of Answer: 39.0 g Diff: 3

Type: SA

are in 265 mL of a 1.50 mol L-1 solution of

(aq)?

Var: 10

147) What is the concentration (M) of a NaCl solution prepared by dissolving 7.2 g of NaCl in sufficient water to give 425 mL of solution? Answer: 0.29 M Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

148) How many grams of NaOH (MW = 40.0 g mol-1) are there in 250.0 mL of a 0.275 mol L-1 NaOH solution? Answer: 2.75 g Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

149) How many grams of C L-1 C

OH must be added to water to prepare 150 mL of a solution that is 2.0 mol

OH?

Answer: 9.6 g Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

150) What is the concentration of HCl in the final solution when 65 mL of a 12 mol L-1 HCl(aq) solution is diluted with pure water to a total volume of 0.15 L? A) 2.8 × 10-2 mol L-1 B) 5.2 mol L-1 C) 28 mol L-1

D) 5.2 × 103 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

151) How many millilitres of a 9.0 mol L-1 H2SO4(aq) solution are needed to make 0.35 L of a 3.5 mol L-1 solution? A) 0.14 mL B) 0.90 mL C) 140 mL D) 900 mL Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

152) A student prepared a stock solution by dissolving 10.0 g of KOH in enough water to make 150 mL of solution. She then took 15.0 mL of the stock solution and diluted it with enough water to make 65.0 mL of a final solution. What is the concentration of KOH for the final solution? A) 0.274 mol L-1 B) 0.356 mol L-1 C) 2.81 mol L-1 D) 3.65 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

153) How many millilitres of a stock solution of 11.1 mol L-1 L of 0.500 mol L-1

(aq) would be needed to prepare 0.500

A) 0.0444 mL B) 22.5 mL C) 2.78 mL D) 44.4 mL E) 0.0225 mL Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

154) A stock solution of

is prepared and found to contain 13.5 mol L-1 of

(aq). If 25.0 mL of

the stock solution is diluted with water to a final volume of 0.500 L, what is the concentration of the diluted solution? A) 0.270 mol L-1 B) 1.48 mol L-1 C) 0.675 mol L-1 D) 675 mol L-1 E) 270 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

155) A FeCl3 solution is 0.175 mol L-1. How many mL of a 0.175 mol L-1 FeCl3 solution are needed to make 550 mL of a solution that is 0.300 mol L-1 in Cl- ion? A) 0.943 mL B) 314 mL C) 943 mL D) 0.314 mL Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

156) Pure acetic acid (

COOH) is a liquid and is known as glacial acetic acid. Calculate the molarity of

a solution prepared by dissolving 10.00 mL of glacial acetic acid at 25 °C in sufficient water to give 500.0 mL of solution. The density of glacial acetic acid at 25 °C is 1.05 g mL-1. A) 1.26 × 103 mol L-1 B) 21.0 mol L-1

C) 0.0210 mol L-1 D) 0.350 mol L-1

E) 3.50 × 10-4 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

157) What is the concentration of NO3- ions in a solution prepared by dissolving 25.0 g of Ca(NO3)2 in enough water to produce 300 mL of solution? A) 0.254 mol L-1 B) 0.508 mol L-1 C) 0.672 mol L-1 D) 1.02 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

158) If the reaction of phosphate ion with water is ignored, what is the total concentration of ions in a solution prepared by dissolving 3.00 g of K3PO4 in enough water to make 350 mL of solution? A) 0.0101 mol L-1 B) 0.0404 mol L-1 C) 0.162 mol L-1 D) 0.323 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

159) What is the concentration of an AlCl3(aq) solution if 150 mL of the solution contains 450 mg of Clion? A) 2.82 × 10-2 mol L-1 B) 6.75 × 10-2 mol L-1 C) 8.46 × 10-2 mol L-1 D) 2.54 × 10-1 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

160) A student dissolved 4.00 g of Co(NO3)2 in enough water to make 100 mL of stock solution. He took 4.00 mL of the stock solution and then diluted it with water to give 275 mL of a final solution. How many grams of NO3- ion are there in the final solution? A) 0.0197 g B) 0.0394 g C) 0.0542 g D) 0.108 g Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

161) There are ________ mol of bromide ions in 0.900 L of a 0.500 mol L-1 solution of Al Answer: 1.35 Diff: 3

Type: SA

(aq).

Var: 10

162) How many moles of

(aq) are present in 0.150 L of a 0.200 mol L-1 solution of Co (aq)?

Answer: 0.0300 mol Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

163) What is the molar concentration of sodium ions in a 0.450 mol L-1 Na3PO4(aq) solution? A) 0.150 mol L-1 B) 0.450 mol L-1 C) 1.35 mol L-1 D) 1.80 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

164) Calculate the concentration (M) of sodium ions in a solution made by diluting 40.0 mL of a 0.474 mol L-1 of an aqueous solution of sodium sulfide with water to a total volume of 300 mL. Answer: 0.126 M Diff: 3

Type: SA

Var: 10

165) Identify the coefficient of NO(g) when the following reaction is balanced, and calculate the volume of nitrogen monoxide gas produced when 8.00 g of ammonia is reacted with 12.0 g of oxygen at 25 °C. The density of nitrogen monoxide at is 1.23 g L-1. (unbalanced) NH3(g) + O2(g) → NO(g) + H2O(l) A) coefficient 4, volume 7.32 L B) coefficient 1, volume 11.1 L C) coefficient 2, volume 11.5 L D) coefficient 3, volume 17.3 L Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

166) How many millilitres of 0.260 mol L-1 Na2S(aq) are needed to react with 40.00 mL of 0.315 mol L-1 AgNO3(aq)?

Na2S(aq) + 2 AgNO3(aq) → 2 NaNO3(aq) + Ag2S(s) A) 24.2 mL B) 48.5 mL C) 66.0 mL D) 96.9 mL Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

167) How many grams of CaCl2 are formed when 15.00 mL of 0.00237 mol L-1 Ca(OH)2(aq) reacts with excess Cl2 gas?

2 Ca(OH)2(aq) + 2 Cl2(g) → Ca(OCl)2(aq) + CaCl2(s) + 2 H2O(l) A) 0.00197 g B) 0.00394 g C) 0.00789 g D) 0.0507 g Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

168) When 31.2 mL of 0.500 mol L-1 AgNO3(aq) is added to 25.0 mL of 0.300 mol L-1 NH4Cl(aq), how many grams of AgCl are formed? AgNO3(aq) + NH4Cl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NH4NO3(aq) A) 1.07 g B) 2.24 g C) 3.31 g D) 6.44 g Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

169) How many millilitres of 0.200 mol L-1 FeCl3(aq) are needed to react with an excess of Na2S(aq) to produce 1.38 g of Fe2S3 if the percent yield for the reaction is 65.0%? 3 Na2S(aq) + 2 FeCl3(aq) → Fe2S3(s) + 6 NaCl(aq) A) 25.5 mL B) 43.1 mL C) 51.1 mL D) 102 mL Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

170) If 100. mL of 0.400 mol L-1 Na2SO4(aq) is added to 200 mL of 0.600 mol L-1 NaCl(aq), what is the concentration of Na+ ions in the final solution? Assume that the volumes are additive. A) 0.534 mol L-1 B) 0.667 mol L-1 C) 1.00 mol L-1 D) 1.40 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

171) How many grams of H2 gas can be produced by the reaction of 54.0 grams of Al(s) with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid in the reaction shown below? 2 Al(s) + 6 HCl(aq) → 2 AlCl3(aq) + 3 H2(g) A) 2.68 g B) 4.04 g C) 6.05 g D) 12.1 g Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 5 Introduction to Reactions in Aqueous Solutions 1) Soluble ionic compounds form strong electrolytes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

2) The hydrated proton attracts only one water molecule. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

3) An insoluble compound will dissolve to an appreciable amount in water. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

4) A solid forming from a mixture of solutions is called a precipitate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

5) Weak acids almost completely dissociate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

6) In 0.20 M NH3(aq), the concentration of NH4+(aq) and OH-(aq) are approximately 0.20 M. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

7) Oxidation never occurs alone. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

8) For redox reactions to be balanced, electrons should be present on the reactant side. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

9) An oxidizing agent is reduced during a redox reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

10) A reducing agent causes itself to be reduced. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

11) A titration is a method of adding small amounts of one reactant until the reaction is complete. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A non-electrolyte does not form ions in aqueous solution and does not conduct an electric current. B) A strong electrolyte is completely ionized in aqueous solution. C) A strong electrolyte in aqueous solution is a good electrical conductor. D) A weak electrolyte in aqueous solution is a good electrical conductor. E) A weak electrolyte is partially ionized in a aqueous solution. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

13) Most water-soluble compounds of Group 1A or 2A elements are: A) strong electrolytes B) strong acids C) weak electrolytes D) weak acids E) nonelectrolytes Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

14) Which of the following solutions has the highest fluoride concentration? A) 0.05 M CaF2 B) 2.1 mg/L NaF

C) a solution having 1.5 mg/L FD) a solution having 0.06 M FE) 0.05 M NaF Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

15) Which of the following aqueous solutions is probably the poorest electrical conductor? A) 0.5 M K2SO4 B) 0.5 M CaCl2 C) 0.5 M HF D) 0.5 M CH3OH E) 0.5 M NH3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

16) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the lowest concentration of sulfate ion? A) 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3 B) 0.2 M MgSO4 C) 0.3 M Li2SO4 D) 0.4 M K2SO4 E) 0.5 M CuSO4 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

17) What concentration of Fe2(SO4)3(aq) is required for the solution to have [Fe3+(aq)] = 0.32 M? A) 0.16 M B) 0.32 M C) 0.64 M D) 0.080 M E) 0.12 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

18) What is the concentration of Br-(aq) in a solution prepared by mixing 75.0 mL of 0.62 M iron(III) bromide with 75.0 mL of water? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive. A) 0.93 M B) 0.31 M C) 1.9 M D) 0.62 M E) 1.23 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

19) To precipitate Cd2+(aq) from solution one could add: A) H2S(aq) B) HCl(aq) C) HNO3(aq) D) KI(aq) E) NaCl(aq) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

20) Which statement below best describes net ionic equations? A) A net ionic equation lists all ions in the solution. B) A net ionic equation is obtained when the ions forming the precipitate are removed from the molecular equation. C) A net ionic equation is a balanced chemical equation that includes only ions that participate in a reaction. D) A net ionic equation is a balanced chemical equation that includes all the ions present in a reaction mixture. E) A net ionic reaction is a balanced chemical equation that clearly shows spectator ions in a reaction. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

21) To precipitate Ba2+(aq) from solution, one could add: A) HCl(aq) B) (NH4)2CO3(aq) in NH3(aq) C) H2S(aq) in NH3/NH4+(aq) D) H2S(aq) in 0.3 M HCl(aq) E) NaCl(aq) Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

22) Which of the following pairs of aqueous solutions will give a precipitate when mixed? A) K3PO4 and CaCl2 B) LiClO4 and Ba(OH)2

C) AgNO3 and Ca(ClO4)2 D) NaCl and K(CH3COO) E) Sr(NO3)2 and KI Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

23) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Most molecular compounds are either nonelectrolytes or weak electrolytes. B) Most ionic compounds are strong electrolytes. C) A precipitate is formed when certain anions and cations react to form an insoluble ionic solid. D) Net ionic equations include only the actual participants of the reaction. E) An acid produces hydride ions in solution. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

24) Which of the following, in aqueous solution, is most likely to behave as a weak acid? A) HCl B) HCN C) NaCl D) NaCN E) NH3 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

25) The substance HI is a: A) strong acid B) weak base C) strong base D) salt E) weak acid Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

26) The substance KOH is a: A) weak acid B) salt C) weak base D) strong base E) strong acid Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

27) The substance HNO2 is a: A) strong base B) strong acid C) weak acid D) weak base E) salt Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

28) The substance BaCl2 is a: A) salt B) weak acid C) strong base D) weak base E) strong acid Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

29) The substance NH3 is a: A) weak acid B) strong acid C) salt D) weak base E) strong base Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

30) The substance NaOH in water solution is a: A) nonelectrolyte B) weak electrolyte C) weak base D) strong electrolyte E) weak acid Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

31) The substance CH3COOH in water is a: A) strong electrolyte B) weak electrolyte C) nonelectrolyte D) strong acid E) strong base Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

32) The substance C5H5OH in water solution is a: A) weak electrolyte B) strong acid C) strong electrolyte D) nonelectrolyte E) strong base Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

33) The substance KClO4 in water solution is a: A) strong electrolyte B) nonelectrolyte C) weak electrolyte D) strong base E) weak acid Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

34) Which of the following would have the strongest tendency for producing H+ ions in an aqueous solution? A) NH3 B) HNO2 C) H2S

D) HNO3

E) CH3COOH Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

35) Which of the following would have the strongest tendency of producing OH- ions in an aqueous solution? A) Fe(OH)2 B) Fe(OH)3

C) Ba(OH)2 D) NaOH E) HOCl Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

36) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A base produces hydrogen ions in solution. B) A strong acid is a strong electrolyte. C) Weak acids are weak electrolytes. D) In a neutralization reaction, an acid reacts with a base. E) Acids contain ionizable hydrogens. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

37) Which of the following represents a neutralization reaction? A) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) B) NH3(aq) + HCl(aq) → NH4Cl(aq)

C) 2 NaOH(aq) + CuCl2(aq) → 2 NaCl(aq) + Cu(OH)2(s) D) HBr(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → HNO3(aq) + AgBr(s) E) 2 H2O2(aq) → 2 H2O(l) + O2(g) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

38) Assuming that the proposed aqueous reactants are mixed in stoichiometric ratios, and at moderate concentrations, which of the following is least likely to represent an observable (e.g., gas evolution or precipitation) reaction? A) Ca2+ + 2 Cl- + 2 K+ + CO32- → ? B) 2 Na+ + CO32- + 2 HC2N3O2 → ? C) H2S + Cu2+ + SO42- → ? D) H2SO3 + Li+ + Cl- → ? E) Pb2+ + 2 NO3- + 2 Na+ + 2 OH- → ? Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

39) Which of the following compounds is quite insoluble in water, but would liberate a gas when treated with aqueous acetic acid? A) K2CO3 B) K2SO4

C) CaCO3 D) CaSO4 E) AgCl Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

40) Which of the following combinations is correct? A) NaOH/weak base B) H3PO4/strong acid C) HNO3/weak acid D) NH3/strong base

E) HClO4/strong acid Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

41) Which of the following pairs react to give both a precipitation and a neutralization reaction? A) Ca(OH)2(aq) and H2SO4(aq) B) Mg(OH)2(aq) and H2SO4(aq) C) Sr(OH)2(aq) and HNO3(aq)

D) Ba(OH)2(aq) and HNO3(aq) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Sections 5-2, 5-3

42) Select a statement that best describes the oxidation process. A) In the oxidation process all elements change oxidation state. B) In the oxidation process all elements experience an increase in oxidation state. C) In the oxidation process some elements change their oxidation state. D) In the oxidation process some elements experience oxidation state increase. E) In the oxidation process only oxygen increases its oxidation state. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

43) In which of the following pairs is the oxidation number for the underlined element INCORRECT? A) MnO4-/(+7 ) B) SO42-/(+4) C) NH4+/(-3) D) NO3-/(+5) E) Cr2O72-/(+6) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

44) In which of the following pairs is the oxidation number for the underlined element INCORRECT? A) MnO2/(+4 ) B) SO32-/(+4)

C) ClO3-/(+7) D) NO2-/(+3) E) Cr2O3/(+3) Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

45) In which of the following pairs is the oxidation number for the underlined element INCORRECT? A) ClO4-/(+7) B) S2O32-/(+2) C) Fe2O3/(+3)

D) HCO3-/(+3) E) CO2/(+4) Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

46) Among the following reactions, find those that are redox reactions: 1) MnO4-(aq) + 5 Fe2+(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 5 Fe3+(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) 2) 6 HF(aq) + Al(OH)3(s) + 3 NaOH(aq) → Na3AlF6(s) + 6 H2O(l) 3) Au(s) + 4 H+ (aq)+ NO3-(aq)+ 4 Cl-(aq)→ [AuCl4]- (aq)+ 2 H2O + NO(g) 4) FeS(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2S(g) 5) SiO2(s) + 4HF(aq) → SiF4(g) + H2O(l) A) reaction 1) B) reaction 2) C) reactions 1) and 3) D) reactions 2) and 5) E) reaction 4) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

47) Among the following reactions, find those that are redox reactions: 1) HOCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaOCl(aq) + H2O(l) 2) 5 I-(aq) + IO3-(aq) + 6 H+(aq) → 3 I2(s) + 3 H2O(l) 3) 2NaCl(s) + H2SO4(aq) →2 HCl(g) + Na2SO4(s) 4) CaO(s) + H2O(l)→ Ca(OH)2(aq) 5) 2 H2O2(aq) → 2 H2O(l) + O2(g) A) reactions 1) and 3) B) reactions 1) and 5) C) reactions 2) and 4) D) reactions 2) and 5) E) reactions 3) and 4) Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

48) Which of the following reactions is an oxidation-reduction reaction? A) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g) B) 2 NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + H2O(g) + CO2(g) C) N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g)

D) 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) E) 2 CH3COOH(aq) + Ba(OH)2(aq) → Ba(CH3COO)2(aq) + 2 H2O(l) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

49) In which of the following pairs is the oxidation number for the underlined element INCORRECT? A) BrO4-/(+7) B) CO32-/(+4) C) FeO/ (+2) D) IO3-/(+5 ) E) Mg(OH)2/(+3 ) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

50) Which of the following reactions is an oxidation-reduction reaction? A) NH3(g) + H2O(l) → NH4OH(aq) B) HCl(aq) + NaH2PO4(aq) → H3PO4(aq) + NaCl(aq) C) 2 H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + OH-(aq) D) Mg(OH)2(s) → Mg2+(aq) + 2 OH-(aq) E) CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2(g) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

51) A disproportionation reaction is one in which: A) the equation is not balanced B) the same substance is oxidized and reduced C) more of one substance reacts than another D) water must be added E) both reactants are reduced Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

52) Which of the following represents a disproportionation reaction? A) Br2(l) + H2O(l) → HOBr(aq) + Br-(aq) + H+(aq) B) S(s) + SO2(g) + H2O(l) → S2O32-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) C) HOCl(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l) + OCl-(aq) D) 3 S2-(aq) + 2 CrO42-(aq) + 8 H2O(l) → 3 S(s) + 2 Cr(OH)3(s) + 10 OH-(aq) E) HF(aq) → H+(aq) + F-(aq) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

53) Which of the following is most likely to act as a reducing agent? A) H2S B) H2SO5 C) SO3

D) H2SO4 E) H2S2O8 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

54) Which of the following is most likely to be a strong oxidizing agent? A) MnO B) MnO2 C) KMnO4 D) Mn2O3 E) Mn3O4 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

55) Trace amounts of oxygen gas can be "scrubbed" from gases using the following reaction: 4 Cr2+(aq) + O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) → 4 Cr3+(aq) + 2 H2O(l) Which of the following statements is true regarding this reaction? A) Oxygen gas is reduced to water. B) Cr2+(aq) is the oxidizing agent. C) O2(g) is the reducing agent.

D) Electrons are transferred from O2 to Cr2+. Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

56) 12.5 mL of 0.280 M HNO3(aq) and 5.0 mL of 0.920 M KOH(aq) are mixed. Is the resulting solution acidic, basic, or neutral? A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) HNO3 and KOH don't mix. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

57) Iron in the form FeCl2 can be determined by titration with potassium dichromate: 6 FeCl2(aq) + K2Cr2O7(aq) + 14 HCl(aq) → 6 FeCl3(aq) + 2 CrCl3(aq) + 2 KCl(aq) + 7 H2O(l) An iron sample of mass 0.800 g required 18.80 mL of 0.0120 M K2Cr2O7(aq) to reach the end point. How many moles of FeCl2 were in the sample? A) 1.43 × 10-2 mol B) 1.35 × 10-3 mol C) 3.75 × 10-5 mol D) 2.26 × 10-4 mol E) 1.13 × 10-4 mol Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

58) A solution is 0.660 M in HNO3(aq) and 1.02 M in Ca(NO3)2(aq). What is the molarity of NO3-(aq) in the solution? A) 2.70 M B) 1.68 M C) 1.02 M D) 0.660 M E) 0.360 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-1

59) Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of aqueous solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulfate. A) BaCl(aq) + NaSO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + NaCl(aq) B) BaCl(aq) + SO42- (aq)→ BaSO4(s) + Ba2+ (aq) C) Ba2+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → BaSO4(aq) D) Ba2+ (aq)+ SO42- (aq)→ BaSO4(s) E) no reaction Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

60) Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of lead(II) nitrate and sodium iodide. A) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2 NaI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2 NaNO3(aq) B) Pb2+(aq)+ 2 NaI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2 Na C) Pb2+(aq)+ 2 I-(aq)→ PbI2(s) D) Pb2+(aq)+ 2 I-(aq)→ Pb2+(aq)+ 2 I-(aq) E) no reaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

61) Indicate whether a precipitate forms by completing equation Li+(aq) + Br-(aq) + Pb2+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → ? A) PbBr2(s) + LiNO3(s) B) Pb2+(aq) + 2 Br-(aq) + LiNO3(s) C) Pb(NO3)2(s) + Li+(aq) + 2 Br-(aq) D) PbBr2(s) + Li+(aq) + NO3-(aq) E) no reaction Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

62) Indicate whether a precipitate forms by completing equation Ag+(aq) + Br-(aq) + NO3-(aq) + K+(aq) → ? A) AgBr(s) + K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) B) AgNO3(s) + K+(aq) + Br-(aq) C) AgBr(s) + KNO3(s) D) KNO3(s) + Ag+(aq) + Br-(aq) E) no reaction Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

63) Indicate whether a precipitate forms by completing equation Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) + NO3-(aq) + K+(aq) → ? A) NaCl(s) + NO3-(aq) + K+(aq) B) NaNO3(s) + K+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

C) KCl(s) + Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) D) KNO3(s) + Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) E) no reaction Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

64) Complete the equation and indicate if a precipitate forms. Na+(aq) + OH-(aq) + Mg2+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → A) NaCl(s) + Mg2+(aq) + 2 OH-(aq) B) Mg(OH)2(s) + Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq) C) MgCl2(s) + Na+(aq) + OH-(aq) D) MgCl2(s) + NaOH(s) E) no reaction Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-2

65) Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of magnesium carbonate and nitric acid. A) MgCO3(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) B) MgCO3(s) + 2 HNO3(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) C) MgCO3(s) + 2 HNO3(aq) → Mg(NO3)2(aq) + H2CO3(aq)

D) Mg2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) E) no reaction Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

66) Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of ammonium chloride and potassium hydroxide. A) NH4Cl(aq) + KOH(aq) → NH3(aq) + KCl(aq) + H2O(l) B) NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H2O(l)

C) NH4Cl(aq) + OH-(aq) → NH3(aq) + Cl-(aq) + H2O(l) D) NH4+(aq) + KOH(s) → NH4OH(aq) + K+(aq) E) no reaction Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

67) Write the net ionic equation for the reaction of ammonium chloride and iron(III) hydroxide. A) 3 NH4Cl(aq) + Fe(OH)3(s) → 3 NH3(aq) + 3 H2O(l) + FeCl3(s) B) 3 NH4+(aq) + 3 OH-(aq) → 3 NH3(aq) + 3 H2O(l)

C) 3 NH4Cl(aq) + 3 OH-(aq) → 3 NH3(aq) + 3 H2O(l) + 3 Cl-(aq) D) 3 NH4+(aq) + Fe(OH)3(s) → 3 NH3(aq) + 3 H2O(l) + Fe3+(aq) E) no reaction Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

68) In a solution that is 0.50 M CH3COOH(aq) (acetic acid), the species with a concentration of approximately 0.50 M is ________. A) CH3COOH B) C2H3O2C) H+ D) H+ and C2H3O2Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

69) For the reaction between aqueous potassium hydroxide and aqueous nitric acid, the so-called "spectator" ions are ________. A) K+ and OHB) H+ and NO3C) K+ and NO3D) H+ and OHAnswer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-3

70) How many electrons are transferred when the perchlorate ion is converted to chloride? A) 8 B) 7 C) 9 D) 6 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-4

71) When the following equation is completed and balanced for the reaction in acidic aqueous solution, what is the proper coefficient for H+? Zn(s) + Cr2O72- (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cr2+ (aq) A) 22 B) 18 C) 14 D) 11 E) 7 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

72) What is the proper coefficient for water when the following equation is completed and balanced for the reaction in basic solution? C2O42- (aq) + MnO4- (aq) → CO32- (aq) + MnO2(s) A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 0 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

73) Balance the following equation for an oxidation-reduction reaction occurring in an acidic solution: HCl(aq)+ H2C2O4(aq) + MnO2(s) → MnCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 7 B) 15 C) 45 D) 12 E) 9 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

74) Balance the following equation for an oxidation-reduction reaction occurring in an acidic solution: CuS(s) + HNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l) + NO(g) + S(s) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 23 B) 18 C) 35 D) 33 E) 45 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

75) Balance the following equation for an oxidation-reduction reaction occurring in an acidic solution: HNO3(aq) + I2(s) → HIO3(aq) + NO2(g) + H2O(l) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 26 B) 27 C) 28 D) 33 E) 45 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

76) Balance the following equation for an oxidation-reduction reaction occurring in an acidic solution: ClO4-(aq) + SO32-(aq) → SO42-(aq) + Cl-(aq) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 8 B) 12 C) 10 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

77) Balance the following equation for an oxidation-reduction reaction occurring in an acidic solution: IO3-(aq) + N2H4(aq) → I-(aq) + N2(g) + H2O(l) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 8 B) 25 C) 18 D) 16 E) 32 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

78) Balance the following oxidation-reduction reaction in acid solution: SO32-(aq) + MnO4-(aq) → SO42-(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + H2O(l) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 23 B) 30 C) 13 D) 45 E) 28 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

79) Balance the following oxidation-reduction reaction in acid solution: Fe(s) → Fe2+ + H2(g) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 2 B) 5 C) 8 D) 7 E) 9 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

80) Balance the following oxidation-reduction reaction in acid solution: MnO4-(aq) + H2C2O4(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 25 B) 47 C) 33 D) 18 E) 21 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

81) Balance the following equation in basic solution: Br2 + Mn2+ → MnO2 + BrThe sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 8 B) 15 C) 12 D) 17 E) 11 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

82) Balance the following equation in basic solution: Cr3+ + O22- → CrO42The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 13 B) 53 C) 27 D) 18 E) 38 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

83) What is the sum of all coefficients in the complete and balanced net equation for the reaction occurring when chlorine gas is bubbled through aqueous sodium hydroxide to form aqueous sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) and sodium chloride? A) 15 B) 11 C) 10 D) 8 E) 6 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

84) Balance the following equation in basic solution: Al(s) + O2(g) → [Al(OH)4]-(aq) The sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 6 B) 12 C) 21 D) 25 E) 33 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-5

85) Gold does not react with either nitric acid or hydrochloric acid but with a combination of both called aqua regia. Identify the reducing agent in the following equation: Au(s) + 4 H+(aq)+ NO3-(aq)+ 4 Cl-(aq) → [AuCl4]-(aq) + 2 H2O(l)+ NO(g) A) Au B) H+

C) NO3D) Cl-

E) Au and ClAnswer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

86) Gold does not react with either nitric acid or hydrochloric acid but with a combination of both called aqua regia. Identify the oxidizing agent in the following equation: Au(s) + 4 H+(aq) + NO3-(aq) + 4 Cl-(aq) → [AuCl4]-(aq) + 2 H2O(l) + NO(g) A) Au B) H+

C) NO3D) Cl-

E) NO3- and H+ Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

87) The analysis for iron usually is done by titration with permanganate. Identify the oxidizing agent in the following equation: MnO4-(aq) + 5 Fe2+(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 5 Fe3+(aq) + Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) A) MnO4B) Fe2+ C) H+

D) Mn2+ E) It is not a redox reaction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

88) Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction: 2 NO2(g) + 7 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) + 4 H2O(g) A) NO2 B) NH3

C) H2O D) H2 E) There is no reducing agent. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-6

89) A 5.00 mL sample of a nitric acid solution is titrated with 33.5 mL of 0.201 M NaOH. What is the molarity of the nitric acid solution? A) 0.0300 M B) 0.149 M C) 1.35 M D) 6.7 M E) 0.522 M Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

90) A solution is 0.20 M Ba(OH)2(aq). How many moles of HCl(aq) must be added to neutralize 100.0 mL of the solution? A) 0.020 mol B) 0.080 mol C) 0.040 mol D) 0.40 mol E) 0.80 mol Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

91) What volume of 0.110 M H2SO4 is required to exactly neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.085 M NaOH? A) 7.7 mL B) 1.9 mL C) 0.39 mL D) 3.9 mL E) 0.19 mL Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

92) The neutralization of 25.0 mL of 0.24 M HCl requires 5.0 mL of NaOH. What is the molarity of the NaOH solution? A) 0.6 M B) 2.4 M C) 5.0 M D) 0.048 M E) 1.2 M Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

93) A piece of iron wire weighing 1.63 g is converted to Fe2+(aq) and requires 21.9 mL of KMnO4 solution for its titration. What is the molarity of the KMnO4 solution? The reaction occurring during the titration is:

5 Fe2+ (aq) + MnO4- (aq) + 8 H+ (aq) → 5 Fe3+ (aq) + Mn2+ (aq) + 4 H2O

A) 1.33 M B) 0.267 M C) 2.67 × 10-4 M D) 14.9 M E) 1.33 × 10-3 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

94) What volume of 0.38 M hydrochloric acid is required for complete neutralization of 15 mL of 0.19 M calcium hydroxide? A) 38 mL B) 30 mL C) 19 mL D) 15 mL E) 7.5 mL Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

95) A 5.000 mL aqueous sample containing hydrogen peroxide was diluted to 25 mL and analyzed by titration with permanganate: 2 MnO4-(aq) + 5 H2O2(aq) + 6 H+(aq) → 5 O2(g) + 2 Mn2+(aq) + 8 H2O(l) The sample required 42.8 mL of 0.0175 M permanganate to reach the end point. What is the concentration of hydrogen peroxide in the original sample? A) 0.150 M B) 0.0748 M C) 0.375 M D) 0.0599 M Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

96) A sample of magnesium oxide was dissolved in 50.0 mL of 0.183 M hydrochloric acid, and the excess acid was titrated to a phenolphthalein end-point by 13.4 mL of 0.105 M sodium hydroxide. What was the mass of the magnesium oxide sample? A) 312 mg B) 184 mg C) 156 mg D) 104 mg E) 77.8 mg Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

97) A solution of potassium permanganate was standardized by titration of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.268 g of pure sodium oxalate in approximately 25 mL of distilled water. A 31.4 mL volume of titrant was required to reach the end-point. The reaction is: 2 MnO4- + 5 C2O42- + 16 H+ → 2 Mn2+ + 10 CO2 + 8 H2O What is the molarity of MnO4-? A) 0.0174 M B) 0.0255 M C) 0.0348 M D) 0.0637 M E) 0.159 M Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

98) A 0.411 g sample of powdered copper mixed with an inert, soluble additive was fully consumed by 23.4 mL of 0.602 M nitric acid, producing copper(II) nitrate, water, and nitric oxide (NO) gas. What was the percent copper (by mass) in the sample? 3 Cu + 8 HNO3 → 3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2 NO + 4 H2O A) 81.7% B) 68.3% C) 65.3% D) 56.9% E) 34.4% Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

99) Reactive metals such as iron will reduce arsenic acid (H3AsO4) to the highly poisonous arsine gas

(AsH3) in the presence of acid. What mass of iron would be required for such a reaction with 250 mL of 0.90 M arsenic acid, assuming that the iron is oxidized to Fe3+? 3 H3AsO4 + 8 Fe + 24 H+ → 3 AsH3 + 12 H2O + 8 Fe3+ A) 45 g B) 38 g C) 34 g D) 21 g E) 13 g Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 5-7

100) Aqueous solutions of HBr , HI , HNO3, NaBr , and KNO3 are all classified as: A) acids B) nonelectrolytes C) strong electrolytes D) weak electrolytes Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

101) Which one of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) K2Br B) NaNO3

C) AgBr D) Rb2CO3 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Which one of the following compounds is soluble in water? A) Cu3(PO4)2 B) CoS C) Pb(NO3)2 D) ZnCO3

Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) Which pair of compounds is soluble in water? A) HgBr2 and Hg2I2 B) CuS and Na2S

C) LiI and Ca(NO3)2

D) KNO3 and CaCO3 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 3

104) The mixing of which pair of reactants will result in a precipitation reaction? A) CsI(aq) + NaOH(aq) B) HCl(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) C) K2SO4(aq) + Hg2(NO3)2(aq) D) NaNO3(aq) + NH4Cl(aq) Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) The mixing of which pair of reactants will result in a precipitation reaction? A) Ba(NO3)2(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) B) K2SO4(aq) + Cu(NO3)2(aq) C) NaClO4(aq) + (NH4)2S(aq) D) NH4Br(aq) + NH4I(aq) Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) What reagent could be used to separate Br- from CH3CO2- when added to an aqueous solution containing both? A) AgNO3(aq) B) Ba(OH)2(aq) C) CuSO4(aq) D) NaI(aq)

Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) What reagent could not be used to separate Br- from CO32- when added to an aqueous solution containing both? A) AgNO3(aq)

B) Ca(NO3)2(aq)

C) Cu(NO3)2(aq) D) Fe(NO3)2(aq) Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) Lead ions can be precipitated from aqueous solutions by the addition of aqueous iodide: (aq) +

(aq) →

(s)

Lead iodide is virtually insoluble in water so that the reaction appears to go to completion. How many millilitres of 3.550 mol L-1 HI(aq) must be added to a solution containing 0.700 mol of to completely precipitate the lead? A) 2.54 × 10-3 mL B) 394 mL C) 197 mL D) 0.197 mL E) 0.394 mL Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

109) Silver ions can be precipitated from aqueous solutions by the addition of aqueous chloride: (aq) +

(aq) → AgCl(s)

Silver chloride is virtually insoluble in water so that the reaction appears to go to completion. How many grams of solid NaCl must be added to 25.0 mL of 0.366 mol L-1 (aq) solution to completely precipitate the silver? A) 9.15 × g B) 1.57 × 10-4 g C) 0.535 g D) 0.157 g

E) 6.39 × 103 g Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

110) Which of the following compounds is an Arrhenius base? A) CH3CO2H B) CH3CH2NH2 C) HNO2

D) H2SO4 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) Which of the following compounds is an Arrhenius base? A) C6H12O6 B) HOCl C) H2SO4

D) C6H5NH2 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) Which of the following compounds is an Arrhenius base? A) CH3OH B) CH3CO2H C) HOCl D) CsOH Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) Which of the compounds of H2C2O4, Ca(OH)2, KOH, and HI behave as acids when they are dissolved in water? A) Ca(OH)2 and KOH B) O4 and HI C) only HI D) only KOH Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) Which of the compounds H2C2O4, Ca(OH)2, KOH, and HI behave as bases when they are dissolved in water? A) Ca(OH)2 and KOH B) H2C2O4 and HI C) only HI D) only KOH Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) Which one of the following compounds behaves as an acid when dissolved in water? A) RaO B) C4H10 C) HI D) RbOH Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) When dissolved in water, KOH behaves as: A) an acid that forms K+ and OH- ions B) an acid that forms KO- and H+ ions C) a base that forms K+ and OH- ions D) a base that forms KO- and H+ ions Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) In an acid-base neutralization reaction, 38.74 mL of 0.500 mol L-1 potassium hydroxide reacts with 50.00 mL of sulfuric acid solution. What is the concentration of the H2SO4 solution? A) 0.194 mol L-1 B) 0.387 mol L-1 C) 0.775 mol L-1 D) 1.29 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) When 280 mL of 1.50 × 10-4 mol L-1 hydrochloric acid is added to 105 mL of 1.75 × 10-4 mol L-1 Mg(OH)2, the resulting solution will be: A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) It is impossible to tell from the information given. Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 6

119) A solution is prepared by mixing 50.0 mL of 0.100 mol L-1 HCl and 10.0 mL of 0.200 mol L-1 NaCl. What is the molarity of chloride ion in this solution? A) 0.183 B) 8.57 C) 3.50 D) 0.0500 E) 0.117 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

120) How many millilitres of 0.550 mol L-1 hydriodic acid are needed to react with 15.00 mL of 0.217 mol L-1 CsOH? HI(aq) + CsOH(aq) → CsI(aq) + H2O(l) A) 0.0263 mL B) 0.169 mL C) 5.92 mL D) 38.0 mL Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) Identify the coefficient of Ca(OH)2(aq) when the following reaction is balanced, and determine the number of millilitres of 0.00300 mol L-1 phosphoric acid required to neutralize 45.00 mL of 0.00150 mol L1 calcium hydroxide. (unbalanced) Ca(OH)2(aq) + H3PO4(aq) → Ca3(PO4)2(aq) + H2O(l) A) Coefficient 1, volume 3.04 mL B) Coefficient 3, volume 15.0 mL C) Coefficient 2, volume 22.5 mL D) Coefficient 4, volume 33.8 mL Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) According to the balanced equation shown below, 4.00 moles of oxalic acid, H2C2O4, reacts with ________ moles of permanganate, MnO4-.

5 H2C2O4(aq) + 2 MnO4-(aq) + 6 H+(aq) → 10 CO2(g) + Mn2+(aq) + 8 H2O(l) A) 1.60 B) 4.00 C) 8.00 D) 9.00 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) Based on the balanced chemical equation shown below, what volume of 0.250 mol L-1 K2S2O3(aq) is needed to completely react with 24.88 mL of 0.125 mol L-1 KI3(aq), according to the following chemical equation: 2 S2O32-(aq) + I3-(aq) → S4O62-(aq) + 3 I-(aq) A) 6.22 mL B) 12.4 mL C) 24.9 mL D) 99.5 mL Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) What is the molarity of a potassium triiodide solution, KI3(aq), if 30.00 mL of the solution is required to completely react with 25.00 mL of a 0.200 mol L-1 thiosulfate solution, K2S2O3(aq)? The chemical equation for the reaction is 2 S2O32-(aq) + I3-(aq) → S4O62-(aq) + 3 I-(aq) A) 0.0833 mol L-1 B) 0.120 mol L-1 C) 0.167 mol L-1 D) 0.333 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) Based on the balanced chemical equation shown below, determine the molarity of a solution containing Fe2+(aq) if 40.00 mL of the Fe2+(aq) solution is required to completely react with 30.00 mL of a 0.250 mol L-1 potassium bromate, KBrO3(aq), solution. The chemical equation for the reaction is 6 Fe2+(aq) + BrO3-(aq) + 6 H+(aq) → 6 Fe3+(aq) + Br-(aq) + 3 H2O(l) A) 0.0312 mol L-1 B) 0.188 mol L-1 C) 1.12 mol L-1 D) 2.00 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

126) Based on the balanced chemical equation shown below, determine the mass percent of Fe3+ in a sample of iron ore if 22.40 mL of a 0.1000 mol L-1 stannous chloride, SnCl2(aq), solution is required to completely react with the Fe3+ present in the ore sample. The chemical equation for the reaction is 2 Fe3+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Sn4+(aq) A) 5.365% B) 8.396% C) 16.79% D) 33.58% Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 6 Gases 1) Pressure is a force per unit area with the SI unit of 1 pascal. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

2) The relationship between the "absolute temperature" on the Kelvin scale and the Celsius temperature is given by T(K) = 5/8[t(°C)] - 32. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

3) Liquid mercury freezes at a temperature of -39 °C. The freezing point of mercury on the Kelvin scale is 234 K. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

4) The statement, "For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure" is known as Charles' Law. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

5) The ideal gas equation connects three basic variables: volume, amount, and temperature of a gas. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

6) Gas densities depend strongly on gas temperature and pressure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

7) A gaseous mixture consists of 50.0% O2, 25.0% N2, and 25.0% Cl2, by mass. At standard temperature and pressure, the partial pressure of N2(g) is equal to 0.20 atm. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

8) According to the kinetic-molecular theory of gases, at constant temperature, all particles have equal translational kinetic energy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

9) If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of effusion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

10) The mutual attraction of gas molecules is an important aspect of van der Waals equation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-9

11) Convert 8.50 kg/cm2 to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres. A) 8.78 atm B) 1.12 atm C) 9.53 atm D) 8.23 atm E) 7.47 atm Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

12) Convert to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres, A) 4.26 atm B) 4.38 × 1010 atm C) 4.26 × 103 atm D) 3.31 × 105 atm E) 0.235 atm Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

13) To increase the volume of a fixed amount of gas from 100 cm3 to 200 cm3: A) increase the temperature from 25.0 to 50.0 °C at constant pressure B) increase the pressure from 1.00 to 2.00 atm at constant temperature C) reduce the temperature from 400 K to 200 K at constant pressure D) reduce the pressure from 608 mmHg to 0.40 atm at constant temperature E) decrease the temperature from 600 K to 400 K Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

14) If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant: A) the pressure stays the same B) the molecules move faster C) the final pressure is twice the pressure before the volume change. D) the molecules move slower E) the final pressure is 1/2 of the pressure before the volume change. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

15) The relationship between the "absolute temperature" on the Kelvin scale and the Celsius temperature is given by: A) T(K) = t(°C) + 273.15 B) t(°C) = T(K) + 273.15 C) T(K) = 5/8[t(°C)] - 32 D) T(K) = 8/5[t(°C)] + 32 E) t(°C) = 98.6 + T(K) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

16) The statement, "For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure." is known as: A) Avogadro's Law B) Boyle's Law C) Charle's Law D) Graham's Law E) Kelvin's Law Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

17) Two containers are connected by an open tube. One container (A) is at 300 K, the other (B) is at 600 K. These two containers must have: A) equal number of moles B) greater pressure in A than B C) greater pressure in B than A D) equal volume E) none of these Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

18) Of the following values, the most likely to be observed for the volume of 1.00 mole of He(g) at 0 °C and 1000 atm is: A) 17.4 mL B) 46 mL C) 22.4 mL D) 11.2 mL E) 22.4 L Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

19) 2.24 L NH3(g) at 2.0 atm and 0 °C: A) contains 0.050 mole NH3 B) weighs 1.70 g

C) contains 6.02 × 1022 molecules of NH3 D) contains 3.6 × 1023 H atoms E) contains 3.6 × 1023 N atoms Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

20) Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at standard temperature and pressure? A) SF6 B) CF2Cl2 C) CO2 D) N2 E) Kr Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

21) 53.5 g of an ideal gas of molecular weight = 30.5 g/mol is confined at a pressure of 133 mmHg. The density of the gas is Compute the temperature of the gas in degrees Celsius. A) 261 °C B) 12 °C C) -57 °C D) 285 °C E) -12 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

22) What volume of acetylene gas, C2H2, would be required at 0 °C and 1 atm to obtain a 200.0 g C2H2 sample? A) 4480 L B) 1.309 × 105 L C) 320.0 L D) 0.6304 L E) 172.1 L Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

23) What volume would be occupied by 4.8 g of oxygen gas at 0.50 atm and 133 °C? A) 19 L B) 13 L C) 10 L D) 6.7 L E) 3.3 L Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

24) Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is: A) CH4 B) NH3 C) Ne D) H2 E) He Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

25) In the reaction

how many liters of hydrogen at STP are

produced from 50.0 grams of sodium A) (55.0/18.0)(22.4) L B) (50.0/23.0)(22.4/2) L C) (50.0/23.0)(2)(22.4) L D) (50.0/23.0)(22.4) L E) (55.0/23.0)(22.4) L Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

26) When one volume of CO reacts with one volume of Cl2 phosgene is obtained as the only product. What is empirical formula of phosgene? A) COCl2 B) C2O2Cl2 C) C2O2Cl

D) C3O3Cl2 E) COCl4

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

27) In the reaction

how many moles of iron can be produced

using 17.4 liters of hydrogen at STP? A) (17.4/22.4)(2/3) mol B) (17.4/22.4)(3/2) mol C) (17.4)(2/3) mol D) (17.4/22.4) mol E) (17.4)(22.4/3) mol Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

28) In the reaction: 2 Al(s) + 6 HCl(aq) → 2 AlCl3(aq) + 3 H2(g) A) 67.2 L of H2(g) at STP is collected for every mole of Al(s) reacted B) 33.6 L of H2(g) is collected for every mole of Al(s) reacted, regardless of the temperature and pressure C) 1.24 cm3 H2(g) at STP is collected for every milligram of Al(s) reacted D) 6 L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3 L H2(g) produced

E) 22.4 L of H2(g) is produced for every mole of Al(s) reacted Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

29) Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is an example of the application of: A) Avogadro's Hypothesis B) Dalton's Law C) Graham's Law D) van der Waals Theory E) ideal gas law Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

30) The addition of 2.0 g He(g) to a vessel of 10.0 L fixed volume already containing O2(g) at 25 °C and 740 mmHg will: A) have no effect on the final gas pressure B) cause the final pressure to exceed 2 atm C) produce a 20% increase in gas pressure D) bring the final pressure to just slightly more than 1 atm E) cause the final pressure to exceed 4 atm Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

31) If a liter of CO2 is compared to a liter of H2, both at 25 °C and one atmosphere pressure, then: A) the CO2 and H2 molecules have the same average speed B) there are more H2 molecules than CO2 molecules

C) the average kinetic energy of the CO2 molecules is greater than that of the H2 molecules D) the CO2 molecules are, on the average, moving more slowly than the H2 molecules E) the mass of one liter of CO2 equals the mass of one liter of H2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

32) A gaseous mixture consists of 50.0% O2, 25.0% N2, and 25.0% Cl2, by mass. At standard temperature and pressure, the partial pressure of: A) Cl2(g) is greater than 0.25 atm B) O2(g) is equal to 380 torr

C) Cl2(g) is less than 0.25 atm D) N2(g) is equal to 0.20 atm E) O2(g) is equal to 1.6 atm Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

33) Three volumes of O2 and one volume of CH4 are placed in a sealed container. The temperature and pressure of this mixture are 120 °C and 600 kPa. What is the pressure in the same container after the explosion of the mixture and after it was cooled to the initial temperature? A) 350 kPa B) 600 kPa C) 950 kPa D) 750 kPa E) 575 kPa Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

34) A balloon with volume 750 cm3 is filled with O2 at 27 °C has a mass of 83.3 g. The mass of empty balloon is 82.1 g. Calculate the pressure of O2. A) 125 kPa B) 150 kPa C) 250 kPa D) 75 kPa E) 400 kPa Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

35) The energy of molecules of a gas: A) is dependent on concentration B) is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature C) is the same for all molecules at constant temperature D) increases with a decrease in temperature E) increases with an increase in pressure Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

36) Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideal gas? A) The gas cannot be compressed infinitely. B) Inter-particle forces are prominent. C) Collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic. D) Collisions between gas particles and container walls are not elastic. E) Individual gas particles occupy fixed volume. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

37) Calculate urms, in m/s, for H2(g) molecules at 30 °C. A) 6.09 × 102 m/s B) 5.26 × 103 m/s C) 6.12 × 101 m/s D) 1.94 × 103 m/s E) 2.74 × 103 m/s Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

38) At 27 °C and 750 Torr, both a 16 g sample of methane gas (CH4) and a 16 g sample of oxygen gas (O2) will have the same: A) average molecular velocities B) average molecular kinetic energies C) number of gaseous particles D) total gaseous volumes E) average effusion rates Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

39) According to the kinetic-molecular theory of gases: A) gaseous particles are in constant, nonlinear motion B) at constant temperature, all particles have equal translational kinetic energy C) the faster a given particle is moving, the greater its translational kinetic energy D) at constant temperature, average kinetic energy is a function of gas volume E) all interparticle collisions are completely inelastic Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

40) If 0.50 mole H2(g) and 1.0 mole He(g) are compared at standard temperature and pressure, the two gases will: A) have equal effusion rates B) have equal average molecular velocities C) have equal average molecular kinetic energies D) occupy equal volumes E) have equal weights Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

41) If 4.800 × 10-5 mol of uranium-238 at 4500 K effuses through a hole in 125 seconds, how many mol of uranium-235 will effuse through the same hole, at the same temperature and in the same amount of time? A) 4.74 × 10-5 mol B) 4.77 × 10-5 mol C) 4.80 × 10-5 mol

D) 4.86 × 10-5 mol E) 4.83 × 10-5 mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

42) The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing: A) Avogadro's Hypothesis B) Dalton's Law C) Graham's Law D) van der Waals Theory E) ideal gas law Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

43) If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of: A) monometry B) ideality C) effusion D) diffusion E) barometry Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

44) Under conditions for which chlorine gas has an effusion rate of 2.4 × 10-6 mol/sec, what would be the effusion rate for bromine gas, in mol/sec? A) 1.1 × 10-6 mol/sec B) 1.6 × 10-6 mol/sec C) 2.3 × 10-6 mol/sec

D) 3.6 × 10-6 mol/sec E) 5.4 × 10-6 mol/sec Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

45) The volume correction term in the van der Waals equation is present because: A) barometers are inaccurate B) molecules are diatomic C) molecules attract each other D) molecules occupy volume E) molecules repel each other Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-9

46) The mutual attraction of gas molecules is an important aspect of: A) Avogadro's Hypothesis B) Dalton's Law C) Graham's Law D) van der Waals Theory E) ideal gas law Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-9

47) Gases tend to behave ideally at: A) low temperature and low pressure B) low temperature and high pressure C) high temperature and low pressure D) high temperature and high pressure E) gases always behave ideally Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-9

48) In which of the following cases is the gas most likely to behave as an ideal gas? A) H2O(g), 375 K, 750 Torr B) He(g), 37.5 K, 7500 Torr C) CH4(g), 37.5 °C, 7.5 atm D) Ne(g), 375 °C, 0.75 atm E) SF6, -37.5 °C, 0.75 atm Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-9

49) Calculate the height of a column of liquid glycerol (d = 1.26 g/cm3), in meters, required to exert the same pressure as 4.91 m of water. A) 4.91 m B) 3.90 m C) 6.19 m D) 3.65 m E) 5.16 m Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

50) Convert 1250 mmHg to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres. A) 9.50 × 105 atm B) 490 atm C) 1.64 atm D) 0.608 atm E) 1.22 atm Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

51) Convert 421 kPa to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres. A) 4.27 × 105 atm B) 320 atm C) 0.554 atm D) 0.00415 atm E) 4.15 atm Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

52) Convert 780 Torr to the equivalent pressure in atmospheres. A) 0.974 atm B) 1.03 atm C) 20 atm D) 5.93 × 105 atm E) 5.85 atm Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

53) Calculate the height in meters of a column of liquid glycerol (d = 1.26 g/cm3) required to exert the same pressure as 760 mmHg (d = 13.60 g/cm3). A) 8.20 m

B) 8.20 × 103 m C) 70.4 m D) 0.704 m E) 44.4 m Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

54) Calculate the height in meters of a column of liquid ethanol (d = 0.7893 g/cm3) required to exert the same pressure as 760 mmHg (d = 13.60 g/cm3). A) 1.31 × 104 m B) 13.1 m C) 70.8 m D) 0.0708 m E) 44.1 m Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-1

55) A 40.2 L constant-volume cylinder containing 2.21 mol He is heated until the pressure reaches 4.20 atm. What is the final temperature? A) 258 K B) 658 K C) 931 K D) 804 K E) 1074 K Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

56) Liquid mercury freezes at a temperature of -39 °C. The freezing point of mercury on the Kelvin scale is ________. A) 234 K B) 39 K C) 312 K D) 273 K E) -39 K Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

57) A 50.0 mL canister of Freon-12 (CF2Cl2) was heated in boiling water (100.0 °C) until the canister burst. If the canister was not defective, and had a burst rating of 103.4 bar, what minimum amount of Freon-12 was in the canister, assuming no volume change before bursting? A) 9.63 g B) 11.5 g C) 20.2 g D) 27.5 g E) 75.0 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

58) A 4.0 L sample of N2(g) at 760 mmHg is compressed, at constant temperature, to 3.2 atm. What is the final gas volume? A) 950 L B) 13 L C) 59 L D) 1.3 L E) 0.77 L Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-2

59) A sample of helium gas occupies a volume of 38 L at 780 torr and 25 °C. What volume would the gas occupy at 0 °C and 1 atm? A) 40 L B) 38 L C) 36 L D) 34 L E) 25 L Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

60) A sample of gas has a volume of 2.5 L at 30 °C and 720 mmHg. What will be the volume of this gas at 22 °C and 750 mmHg? A) 1.8 L B) 3.3 L C) 2.7 L D) 2.3 L E) 2.5 L Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

61) A 500.0 mL sample of O2(g) is at 780 mmHg and 30 °C. What will be the new volume if, with constant pressure and amount of gas, the temperature is decreased to -15 °C? A) 587 mL B) 250 mL C) 437 mL D) 426 mL E) 500 mL Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

62) An automobile tire at 32.0 psi at 25.0 °C is driven on a trip. At the end of the trip the pressure is 35.0 psi. What is the temperature of the tire in degrees Celsius? A) 27.3 °C B) 22.8 °C C) 52.9 °C D) 57.0 °C E) 60.0 °C Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-3

63) A gaseous hydrocarbon weighing 0.290 g occupies a volume of 125 mL at 25 °C and 760 mmHg. What is the molar mass of this compound? A) 113 g/mol B) 4.76 × 103 g/mol C) 43.1 g/mol D) 10.5 g/mol E) 56.7 g/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

64) A 5.00 L container of unknown gas at 25.0 °C has a pressure of 2.45 atm. The mass of the gas is 32.1 g. What gas is in the container? A) Cl2 B) F2 C) NO2 D) SO3 E) SO2

Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

65) A 10.0 L container of unknown gas at 25.0 °C contains 87.1 g of gas at 12.5 atm. What gas is in the container? A) NH3 B) C2H2 C) SO2 D) F2

E) NO2 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

66) Chloroform (CHCl3) became popular as an anesthetic after Queen Victoria delivered her eighth child while anesthetized by chloroform in 1853. What is the density in grams per liter of chloroform at and 850 Torr? A) 4.21 g/L B) 0.190 g/L C) 2.14 g/L D) 4.00 × 103 g/L E) 5.28 g/L Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

67) Halothane (CHBrClCF3) is one of the modern anesthetics that is nonflammable and relatively safe for patients. What is the density of halothane in grams per liter at A) 8.64 g/L B) 7.68 g/L C) 6.55 × 103 g/L

and 805 Torr?

D) 19.3 g/L E) 0.130 g/L Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

68) A sample of gas weighs 0.250 g and occupies a volume of 112 cm3 at 0 °C and 1 atm. The molar mass of the gas is ________. A) 25.0 g/mol B) 50.0 g/mol C) 2.23 g/mol D) 8.0 g/mol E) 200 g/mol Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

69) What mass of water vapor would occupy a volume of 54 L at 200 °C and 76 Torr, assuming ideal behavior? A) 1.8 g B) 2.5 g C) 4.3 g D) 5.4 g E) 7.2 g Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

70) How many liters of gas is 23.4 grams of nitrogen at 750 mmHg and 28.0 °C? A) 586 L B) 20.9 L C) 0.771 L D) 20.4 L E) 1.94 L Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

71) Butane (C4H10) is used as a fuel where natural gas is not available. How many grams of butane will fill a 3.50 liter container at 35.6 °C and 758 Torr? A) 0.138 g B) 69.5 g C) 422 g D) 8.01 g E) 0.0105 g Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

72) Butane (C4H10) is used as a fuel where natural gas is not available. How many grams of butane will fill a 45.0 liter container at 27 °C and 3.05 atm? A) 26.6 g B) 3.60 × 103 g C) 5.58 g D) 10.4 g E) 324 g Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

73) How many liters of gas is 10.8 grams of nitrogen at 780 mmHg and 38.0 °C? A) 10.1 L B) 1.17 L C) 9.59 L D) 269 L E) 0.353 L Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

74) Diethyl ether was the first general anesthetic. It was first used in 1846 for surgical procedures. What is the molar mass of diethyl ether if 3.54 grams is 1.06 liters at 27 °C and 1.11 atm? A) 74.1 g/mol B) 6.67 g/mol C) 103 g/mol D) 91.3 g/mol E) 84.7 g/mol Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

75) Chloroform became popular as an anesthetic after Queen Victoria delivered her eighth child while anesthetized by chloroform in 1853. What is the molar mass of chloroform if 4.85 grams is 0.918 liters at 35 °C and 850 Torr? A) 149 g/mol B) 119 g/mol C) 123 g/mol D) 134 g/mol E) 110 g/mol Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

76) Halothane is one of the modern anesthetics which is nonflammable and relatively safe for patients. What is the molar mass of halothane if 456 milligrams is 52.8 milliliters at 22 °C and 805 Torr? A) 1.06 × 103 g/mol B) 209 g/mol C) 197 g/mol D) 221 g/mol E) 14.7 g/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

77) Diethyl ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) was the first general anesthetic. It was first used in 1846 for surgical procedures. What is the density in g/L of diethyl ether at 27 °C and 1.11 atm? A) 37.1 g/L B) 2.03 × 103 g/L C) 2.71 g/L D) 3.34 g/L E) 0.299 g/L Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

78) What is the density of carbon dioxide gas at -15 °C and 728 Torr? A) 2.17 g L-1 B) 2.08 g L-1 C) 1.99 g L-1

D) 1.84 g L-1 E) 1.27 g L-1 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

79) What pressure must be applied to N2(g) to obtain a density of 2.00 g/L at 25 °C? A) 1.75 atm B) 0.146 atm C) 111 atm D) 3.49 atm E) 2.29 atm Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-4

80) Calculate the volume of H2(g) expressed at STP, required to react with 3.00 L of CO(g) at STP in the following reaction: 3 CO(g) + 7 H2(g) → C3H8(g) + 3 H2O(l) A) 3.00 L B) 7.00 L C) 10.0 L D) 22.4 L E) 1.00 L Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

81) Consider the following reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) What volume of NH3(g) can be produced from 200.0 L of H2(g) if the gases are measured at 350 °C and 400 atm pressure? A) 300.0 L B) 66.7 L C) 133.3 L D) 400.0 L E) 200.0 L Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

82) What volume of oxygen gas, at 533 °C and 750 Torr, could be produced by the decomposition of 38.1 g of potassium chlorate? The other product is potassium chloride. A) 35.9 L B) 31.3 L C) 30.4 L D) 20.7 L E) 10.4 L Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

83) How many liters of H2 are needed to make 327 L of NH3 by the reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), if the gases are at the same temperature and pressure? A) 654 L B) 491 L C) 218 L D) 38.5 L E) 327 L Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

84) If 250. L of nitrogen reacts with 582 L of hydrogen by the reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), how much nitrogen is unreacted? All gases are at the same temperature and pressure. A) 1.9 × 102 L B) 3.3 × 102 L C) 56 L D) 3.0 × 102 L E) 41 L Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

85) Phosphine gas oxidizes spontaneously on exposure to air, as represented by: 2 PH3(g) + 3 O2(g) → P2O3(s) + 3 H2O(g) What volume of oxygen gas, at 720 Torr and 37 °C, would be consumed in the formation of 22.0 g of P2O3 by this process? A) 16.1 L B) 12.5 L C) 11.2 L D) 8.05 L E) 1.92 L Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

86) When 8.21 L of C3H8(g) is completely burned in oxygen, how many liters of oxygen are consumed? All gas volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure but not at STP. A) 57.5 L B) 41.1 L C) 1.17 L D) 1.64 L E) 23.7 L Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

87) In the reaction

how many liters of O2 react with 5.0 liters of CH4? All gas

volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure but not at STP. A) 0.22 L B) 10 L C) 5.0 L D) 2.5 L E) 20 L Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

88) The volume in L H2(g) (measured at 22 °C and 745 mmHg) required to react with 30.0 L CO(g) (measured at 0 °C and 760 mmHg) in the reaction 3 CO(g) + 7 H2(g) → C3H8(g) + 3 H2O(l) is: A) 63.5 L B) 74.1 L C) 77.2 L D) 70.0 L E) 33.1 L Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

89) The complete combustion of octane, a component of gasoline, is represented by the equation: 2 C8H18(l) + 25 O2(g) → 16 CO2(g) + 18 H2O(l) How many liters of CO2(g), measured at 63.1 °C and 688 mmHg, are produced for every gallon of octane burned?

A) 7.48 L B) 7.11 × 102 L C) 5.68 × 103 L D) 5.68 L

E) 1.07 × 103 L Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-5

90) A sample of oxygen gas is collected over water at 23 °C at a barometric pressure of 751 mmHg (the vapor pressure of water at 23 °C = 21 mmHg). The partial pressure of oxygen gas in the sample collected is ________. A) 0.96 atm B) 21 mmHg C) 751 mmHg D) 1.02 atm E) 44 mmHg Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

91) What volume would be occupied by a mixture of 0.33 g of hydrogen gas and 0.67 g of nitrogen gas at 157 °C and 4.4 atm? A) 12 L B) 4.2 L C) 3.1 L D) 1.5 L E) 0.55 L Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

92) What is the volume, in L, occupied by a mixture of 16.0 g Ne(g) and 42.0 g Ar(g) at 15.0 atm pressure and 25 °C? A) 94.6 L B) 3.01 L C) 1.71 L D) 1.29 L E) 0.252 L Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

93) A 31.4 mL sample of nitrogen gas was collected over water at 23.7 °C and a barometric pressure of 706 mmHg. What mass of nitrogen was collected? [The vapor pressure of water at 23.7 °C is 22 mmHg.] A) 39.3 mg B) 37.7 mg C) 34.6 mg D) 33.4 mg E) 32.5 mg Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

94) A 34.8 mL sample of an unknown, water-insoluble gas was collected over water at 22.6 °C and a barometric pressure of 0.895 atm. When the gas was dried and chilled, it formed 114.6 mg of liquid. What was the molar mass of this substance? [The vapor pressure of water at 22.6 °C is 20. mmHg] A) 22.9 g/mol B) 38.4 g/mol C) 57.3 g/mol D) 84.2 g/mol E) 92.0 g/mol Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

95) A 1.37 L vessel contains He at a temperature of 24.5 °C and a pressure of 205 mmHg. A 721 mL vessel contains Ne at a temperature of 36.2 °C and a pressure of 0.185 atm. Both of these gases are placed in a 2.00 L vessel at 302 K. What is the final pressure (in atm) in the 2.00 L vessel? A) 0.253 atm B) 0.187 atm C) 0.0657 atm D) 0.455 atm E) 0.390 atm Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-6

96) In a sample of air at STP, the ratio of the root-mean-square velocity of O2 to that of N2, that is urms(O2)/urms(N2), is equal to ________. A) 0.88 B) 0.94 C) 1.00 D) 1.07 E) 1.14 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-7

97) A gas of twice the molecular mass as CO2 will pass through a small hole how much faster than CO2? A) 1/2 as fast B) 2 times as fast C) as fast D) (1/ ) as fast E) 4 times as fast Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

98) A sample of N2(g) effuses through a tiny hole in 19.0 s. How long would it take for a sample of N2O2(g) to effuse under the same conditions? A) 27.8 s B) 13.0 s C) 8.87 s D) 40.7 s E) 19.0 s Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

99) What is the effusion ratio of equal volumes of uranium-238 to uranium-235 at 4500 K? A) 1.000 B) 0.987 C) 1.02 D) 0.994 E) 1.01 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

100) What is the ratio of the diffusion rates of Cl2 and O2? (Rate)Cl2/ (Rate)O2 = A) 0.45 B) 0.69 C) 0.47 D) 1.5 E) 0.67 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 6-8

101) What is the pressure in a gas container that is connected to an open-end U-tube manometer if the pressure of the atmosphere is 742 Torr and the level of mercury in the arm connected to the container is 8.60 cm higher than the level of mercury open to the atmosphere? A) 656 mmHg B) 733 mmHg C) 751 mmHg D) 828 mmHg Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) If the pressure in a gas container that is connected to an open-end U-tube manometer is 116 kPa and the pressure of the atmosphere at the open end of the tube is 752 mmHg, the level of mercury in the tube will: A) be 118 mm higher in the arm open to the atmosphere B) be 118 mm higher in the arm connected to the gas cylinder C) be 870 mm higher in the arm open to the atmosphere D) be 870 mm higher in the arm connected to the gas cylinder Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) A container filled with gas is connected to an open-end manometer that is filled with mineral oil. The pressure in the gas container is 753 mmHg and atmospheric pressure is 724 mmHg. How high will the level rise in the manometer if the densities of Hg and mineral oil are 13.6 g mL-1 and 0.822 g mL-1, respectively? A) 1.75 mm B) 23.8 mm C) 29.0 mm D) 480 mm Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) A balloon filled with helium gas at 20 °C occupies 4.91 L at 1.00 atm. The balloon is immersed in liquid nitrogen at -196 °C, while the pressure is raised to 5.20 atm. What is the volume of the balloon in the liquid nitrogen? A) 0.25 L B) 3.6 L C) 6.7 L D) 97 L Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) The volume of 350. mL of gas at 25 °C is decreased to 135 mL at constant pressure. What is the final temperature of the gas? A) -158 °C B) 9.6 °C C) 65 °C D) 500 °C Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) Three identical flasks contain three different gases at standard temperature and pressure. Flask A contains flask B contains O3, and flask C contains F2. Which flask contains the largest number of molecules? A) flask A B) flask B C) flask C D) All contain the same number of molecules. Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) You have three cylinders containing O2 gas at the same volume and pressure. Cylinder A is at -15 °C, cylinder B is at -5 °F, cylinder C is at 255 K. Which cylinder contains the largest mass of oxygen? A) cylinder A B) cylinder B C) cylinder C D) All cylinders contain the same mass of O2. Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) The mole fraction of nitrous oxide in dry air near sea level is 1.818 × , where the molar mass of nitrous oxide is 44.013. The concentration of nitrous oxide in the atmosphere is ________ ppm. A) 2.0 × 1012 B) 5.0 × 10-5 C) 500 D) 18.18 E) 5.0 × 10-13 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

109) What is the average speed (actually the root mean square speed) of a neon atom at 27 °C? A) 5.78 m s-1 B) 19.3 m s-1 C) 183 m s-1 D) 609 m s-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) Which of the following gases has the highest average speed at 400 K? A) N2 B) O2 C) F2

D) Cl2

Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) Which of the following gases has the lowest average speed at 25 °C? A) C3H8 B) Kr C) CH3NH2 D) SO2

Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) What is the temperature of NO2 gas if the average speed (actually the root mean square speed) of the molecules is 750 m s-1? A) 1.38 K B) 1.04 × 103 K C) 1.38 × 103 K D) 1.04 × 106 K Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) If CO2 and NH3 are allowed to effuse through a porous membrane under identical conditions, the rate of effusion for NH3 will be ________ times that of CO. A) 0.39 B) 0.62 C) 1.6 D) 2.6 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 7 Thermochemistry 1) A closed system can exchange matter but not energy with the surroundings. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-1

2) Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-1

3) Heat is usually transferred from a cold object to a hot object. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

4) A system that absorbs heat is an exothermic system. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

5) An expansion of gas by a system means that the system does work. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-4

6) An expansion of gas by a system means that the internal energy of the system increases. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-5

7) The maximum amount of work is provided by a reversible process because equilibrium between the system and the surroundings is always maintained. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-5

8) The enthalpy of a system is the internal energy minus the pressure-volume product. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

9) Enthalpy is an extensive property. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

10) The standard enthalpy for diamond and graphite are the same value. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

11) Although CO is not toxic, there is concern that it causes global warming. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-9

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. B) Potential energy is energy in action. C) Heat is energy transferred as a result of a temperature difference. D) Pressure-volume work is calculated by w = −PΔV. E) Heat is transferred from a warmer body to a colder one. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-1

13) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The surroundings are the part of the universe that is studied. B) Thermal energy is energy associated with random molecular motion. C) Chemical energy is associated with chemical bonds and intermolecular forces. D) Energy is the capacity to do work. E) Work is done when a force acts through a distance. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-1

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Temperatures of two bodies are equal when the average kinetic energies of the two bodies become the same. B) The heat capacity is the quantity of heat required to change the temperature of the system by one degree. C) The specific heat is the heat capacity for one mole of substance. D) The law of conservation of energy can be written: qsystem + qsurroundings = 0. E) Most metals have low specific heats, as metals can be heated quickly. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

15) When power was turned off to a 30.0 gal. water heater, the temperature of the water dropped from 75.0 °C to 22.5 °C. How much heat was lost to the surroundings? A) -2.49 × 103 kJ B) -2.49 × 107 kJ C) -2.49 × 104 kJ D) -2.49 × 1010 kJ E) -2.49 kJ Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

16) 14.0 g of metal at 24.0 °C has 250 joules of heat added to it. The metal's specific heat is 0.105 J/g °C. What is its final temperature? A) (250)(14.0)/0.105 °C B) [250/(14.0)(0.105)] °C C) [250 /(14.0)(0.105)] + 24.0 °C D) (14.0)(0.105)/250 °C E) (14.0)(0.105)(250) °C Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

17) 1219 joules of heat raise the temperature of 250 g of metal by 64 °C. What is the specific heat of the metal in J/(g °C?) A) (1219)(250)(64) J/(g °C) B) (64)(250/1219) J/(g °C) C) (1219)(64/250) J/(g °C) D) (1219)(250/64) J/(g °C) E) (1219)/(250 × 64) J/(g °C) Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

18) Lead, water, sulfur and arsenic have specific heats of 0.128, 4.18, 0.706, and 0.329 J g-1 °C-1, respectively. Which of the following would need the smallest quantity of heat to change the temperature of 5 g by 10 °C? A) lead B) water C) sulfur D) arsenic Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

19) What is the final temperature in the bomb calorimeter if 1.785 grams of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) is combusted in a calorimeter with a heat capacity of 5.02 kJ/ °C and initial temperature of 24.62 °C? The heat of combustion of benzoic acid is -26.42 kJ/g. A) 51.0 °C B) 29.8 °C C) 31.2 °C D) 15.5 °C E) 34.0 °C Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

20) The complete combustion of 1 mole of nitrobenzene, C6H5NO2, in a bomb calorimeter liberates 3088 kJ of heat and increases the temperature of the calorimeter assembly by 140.0 °C. What is the heat capacity of this bomb calorimeter? A) 1.25 kJ/ °C B) 4.53 kJ/ °C C) 22.1 kJ/ °C D) 432 kJ/ °C E) 43.1 kJ/ °C Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

21) The combustion of 90.0 g of oxalic acid, C2H2O4(s) in a bomb calorimeter whose heat capacity is 4.60 kJ/ °C causes the temperature to rise from 25.0 °C to 79.6 °C. What is the heat of combustion of oxalic acid? A) -21.2 kJ/mol B) -54.6 kJ/mol C) -126 kJ/mol D) -211 kJ/mol E) -251 kJ/mol Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

22) What is the work done in joules by the system when H2 expands against a constant pressure of 75 atm at 45.3 °C? The change in volume is 24.0 L. A) 1.8 × 103 J B) -8.2 × 104 J C) 8.2 × 104 J D) 1.8 × 105 J E) -1.8 × 105 J Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-4

23) Oxygen gas at 34.5 °C expands from 34.5 L to 45.7 L against a constant pressure of 750 mmHg. What is the work done in joules by the system? A) 1.12 × 103 J B) -1.12 × 103 J C) 9.09 × 104 J D) -9.09 × 104 J E) 4.55 × 103 J Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-4

24) Two solutions, 50.0 mL of 1.00 M BaCl2(aq) and 50.0 mL of 1.00 M Na2SO4(aq), both initially at 21.5 °C, are added to a calorimeter with a total heat capacity, after the solutions are added, of 1.10 kJ/ °C and the temperature rises to 22.7 °C. Determine qrxn per mole of BaSO4(s) formed in the reaction. A) -26.4 kJ/mol B) +26.4 kJ/mol C) -2.64 kJ/mol D) +2.64 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

25) Oxygen gas at 34.5 °C is compressed from 45.7 L to 34.5 L against a constant pressure of 750 mmHg. What is the work done in joules by the system? A) 1.12 × 103 J B) -1.12 × 103 J C) 9.09 × 104 J D) -9.09 × 104 J E) 4.55 × 103 J Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-4

26) How much work, in joules, is done when the pressure is suddenly released from 4.56 atm to 1.23 atm on 45.4 g of O2 at 44 °C? A) 386 J B) -477 J C) -2.74 × 103 J D) 2.74 × 103 J E) 477 J Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-4

27) Which of the following are thermodynamic state functions? I) heat II) volume III) temperature IV) enthalpy V) density A) II, III, IV, V B) I, II, IV, V C) I, II, III, V D) II, IV E) I, III, V Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-5

28) A system absorbs 623 J of heat while doing 457 J of work. What is the value of ΔU? A) +1080 J B) -166 J C) +166 J D) -1080 J E) +623 J Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-5

29) Enthalpy is defined as: A) the heat of combustion B) the energy contained within a system C) the sum of the internal energy and the pressure-volume product of a system D) the sum of the kinetic and potential energies E) the work not limited to pressure volume work Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

30) Calculate the work needed to make room for products in the combustion of sulfur, S8(s), to SO2(g) at STP. A) 0 kJ B) -2.27 kJ C) -4.54 kJ D) -18.2 kJ E) +182 kJ Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

31) Given the following reactions: 2 NOCl(g) → 2 NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g)

ΔrH° = +75.56 kJ/mol ΔrH° = -113.05 kJ/mol ΔrH° = -58.03 kJ/mol

Compute ΔrH° of N2O4(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 NOCl(g) + O2(g) in kJ/mol. A) +246.65 kJ/mol B) -95.52 kJ/mol C) -246.65 kJ/mol D) +95.52 kJ/mol E) +130.58 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

32) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of Cl-(aq), given the following thermochemical data at 1 atm, and knowing that the standard enthalpies of formation of H2(g) and H+(aq) are both zero. HCl(g) → H+(aq) + Cl-(aq) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)

ΔrH° = -75.15 kJ/mol ΔrH° = -184.62 kJ/mol

A) -167.46 kJ/mol B) +109.47 kJ/mol C) -17.16 kJ/mol D) +34.32 kJ/mol E) + 167 kJ ?mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

33) From the following thermochemical equations, calculate ΔrH° for the reaction: SO2(g) + NO2(g) → SO3(g) + NO(g) 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) ΔrH° = -197.8 kJ/mol 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g)

ΔrH° = -114.14 kJ/mol

A) -83.66 kJ /mol B) -311.9 kJ/mol C) +155.9 kJ/mol D) -155.9 kJ/mol E) -41.83 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

34) 2 LiOH(s) → Li2O(s) + H2O(l)

LiH(s) + H2O(l) → LiOH(s) + H2(g)

ΔrH° = 379.1 kJ/mol ΔrH° = -111.0 kJ/mol

2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l)

ΔrH° = -285.9 kJmol

Compute ΔrH° in kJ/mol for 2 LiH(s) + O2(g) → Li2O(s) + H2O(l) A) +125.2 kJ/mol B) -17.7 kJ/mol C) -128.8 kJ/mol D) -303.6 kJ/mol E) + 128.8 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

35) Which of the following has a standard enthalpy of formation of zero? A) Ar(g) B) I2(g) C) Br2(g) D) O3(g) E) P(s, red) Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

36) The standard enthalpy of formation of NiSO4(s) at 25 °C is -872.9 kJ/mol. The chemical equation to which this value A) 1/2 Ni(s) + 1/2 S(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → 1/2 NiSO4(s) B) Ni(s) + S(s) + 4 O(g) → NiSO4(s)

C) Ni(s) + S(s) + 2 O2(g) → NiSO4(s) D) Ni(s) + 1/8 S8(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → NiSO4(s) E) NiSO4(s) → Ni(s) + S(s) + 4 O(g) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

37) The standard enthalpy of formation for CuSO4 · 5 H2O(s) is -2278.0 kJ/mol at 25 °C. The chemical equation to which this value applies is: A) Cu(s) + S(s) + 5 H2O(g) + 2 O2(g) → CuSO4 · 5 H2O(s) B) Cu(s) + S(s) + 9/2 O2(g) + 5 H2(g) → CuSO4 · 5 H2O(s) C) Cu(s) + SO4(g) + 5 H2O(g) → CuSO4 · 5 H2O(s)

D) Cu(s) + S(s) + 5/9 O2(g) + 5 H2(g) → CuSO4 · 5 H2O(s) E) 2 Cu(s) + 2 SO2(g) + 5 H2O(g) → 2 CuSO4 · 5 H2O(s) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

38) The standard enthalpy of formation of NH4Cl(s) is -315.4 kJ/mol. The equation that describes this △fH° is:

A) NH4+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → NH4Cl(s) B) 1/2 N2(g) + 2 H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) → NH4Cl(s) C) N2(g) + H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 NH4Cl(s)

D) 1/2 N2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) + 1/2 H2(g) → NH4Cl(s) E) N2(g) + Cl2(g) + 4 H2(g) → 2 NH4Cl(s) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

39) To have a standard enthalpy of formation referenced to 0 J/mol, the substance must: I) be a simple substance (chemical element) II) be in its most stable form III) be under 1 bar of pressure IV) have a concentration of 1.0000 M A) I, III, IV B) I, II, III C) II, IV D) I, III E) II, III, IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

40) Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction at 25 °C. The value of ΔfH° in kJ/mol is given below each species:

2 Fe2O3(s) + 6 CO(g) → 4 Fe(s) + 6 CO2(g) -824.2

-110.5

-393.5

A) -49.6 kJ/mol B) 541 kJ/mol C) -1380 kJ/mol D) -3350 kJ/mol E) -24.8 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

41) Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction at 25 °C. The value of ΔfH° in kJ/mol is given below each species:

Al3+ (aq) + 3 OH- (aq) → Al(OH)3(s) -531

-230.0

-1276

A) -515 kJ/mol B) -55 kJ/mol C) -975 kJ/mol D) -1120 kJ/mol E) -2040 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

42) Consider the reaction: 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) → 4 NO2(g) + 6 H2O(l) ΔfH° -46.19

0.00

90.37

-285.85 kJ/mol

Compute ΔrH° for this reaction. A) -622.62 kJ/mol B) 984.10 kJ/mol C) -1168.9 kJ/mol D) -241.67 kJ/mol E) -149.29 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

43) Calculate ΔfH° of octane, C8H18(l), given the enthalpy of combustion of octane to CO2(g) and H2O(l), -5471 kJ/mol, and the standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l), -393.5 kJ/mol and -285.8 kJ/mol, respectively. A) -249.2 kJ/mol B) +4792 kJ/mol C) +249.2 kJ/mol D) -4792 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

44) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for HCl(g)? A) H+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → HCl(g) B) 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(l) → HCl(s) C) NH3(g) + Cl2(g) → NH2Cl(g) + HCl(g) D) 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) → HCl(g) E) 1/2 H2(l) + 1/2 Cl2(g) → HCl(l) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

45) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for CdSO4(s)? (Cd(s) is the stable form of cadmium.) A) Cd(NO3)2(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → 2 HNO3(aq) + CdSO4(s) B) Cd2+ (aq) + 2 SO42-(aq) → CdSO4(s)

C) Cd(s) + 1/8 S8 (s) + 2O2(g) → CdSO4(s) D) CdO(s) + SO3(l) → CdSO4(s)

E) Cd(s) + 1/8 S8 (s) + 4O(g) → CdSO4(s) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

46) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for Mn2O3(s)? (Mn(s) is the stable form of manganese.) A) Mn(s) + 3/4 O2(g) → 1/2 Mn2O3(s) B) MnO(s) + MnO2(s) → Mn2O3(s) C) 2 Mn(s) + O3(g) → Mn2O3(s)

D) 2 MnO(s) + 1/2 O3(g) → Mn2O3(s) E) 2Mn (s) + 3/2 O2 (g) → Mn2O3(s) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

47) An example of a fossil fuel is: A) the sun B) chlorophyll C) water D) natural gas E) carbon dioxide Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-9

48) Coal contains an impurity that reacts with oxygen during the combustion process, producing oxides that are major environmental pollutants. This impurity is: A) acid rain B) nitrogen C) sulfur D) carbon dioxide E) peat Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-9

49) The heat of combustion of several fuels are listed in the table below. On a per gram basis, which fuel releases the most energy? Fuel C(s) CH4(g)

△rHcomb (kJ/mol) -393.5 -890.8

CH3OH(l) C3H8(g)

726.1 2219.2

H2(g)

-285.8

A) C(s) B) CH4(g)

C) CH3OH(l) D) C3H8(g) E) H2(g)

Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-9

50) How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 5.28 gal of water from 25.0 °C to 88.0 °C (1 gal = 3.785 L)? A) 5260 kJ B) 997 kJ C) 1390 kJ D) 316 kJ E) 133 kJ Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

51) The final temperature when 150 mL of water at 90.0 °C is added to 100.0 mL of water at 30.0 °C is around ________. A) 90 °C B) 120 °C C) 30 °C D) 70 °C E) 25 °C Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

52) 1674 J of heat are absorbed by 25.0 mL of NaOH (d = 1.10 g/mL, specific heat = 4.10 J/g °C). The temperature of the NaOH goes up by how many degrees? A) 14.8 °C B) 18.0 °C C) 17.2 °C D) 14.2 °C E) 19.1 °C Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

53) Calculate the quantity of heat, in kJ, required to raise the temperature of a 2.15 kg iron bar 24.0 °C (specific heat of iron = 0.473 J/g °C). A) 109 kJ B) 51.6 kJ C) 23.6 kJ D) 24.4 kJ E) 11.3 kJ Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

54) How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 175 g of aluminum from 21.0 °C to 145 °C? The specific heat of aluminum is 0.903 J g-1 °C-1. A) 19.6 kJ B) 24.0 kJ C) 1.27 J D) 22.9 kJ Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

55) A 12-inch diameter ball of pure cobalt metal at 225 °C was placed in 10.0 gal. of water at 15.0 °C. What is the final temperature of the water? Assume no heat is lost to the surroundings. (specific heat for cobalt is 0.421 J/g °C, density of cobalt = 8.862 g/cm3, 1 gal. = 3.785 L, 1 in = 2.54 cm, V(sphere) = 4/3 πr3) A) 169 °C B) 120 °C C) 69.5 °C D) 22.5 °C E) 45.6 °C Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

56) 100.0 g of nickel at 150 °C was placed in 1.00 L of water at 25.0 °C. The final temperature of the nickelwater mixture was 26.3 °C. What is the specific heat of the nickel? A) 0.14 J/g °C B) 0.13 J/g °C C) 0.55 J/g °C D) 0.44 J/g °C E) 0.23 J/g °C Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

57) 500 g of Al is heated to 100.0 °C and dropped into a l00.0 g glass beaker that contains 200.0 g of H2O. The temperature of the glass and water is 20.0 °C. What is the final temperature? (Specific heat of Al = 0.29 J/g °C, specific heat of glass = 0.84 J/g °C) A) 46.6 °C B) 50.0 °C C) 25.0 °C D) 30.9 °C E) 28.9 °C Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

58) 100.0 g of Cu (specific heat = 0.385 J/g °C) at 100.0 °C is added to 140.0 mL of H2O (specific heat = 4.184 J/g °C) at 25.0 °C. What is the final temperature of the mixture? A) 56.3 °C B) 29.6 °C C) 62.5 °C D) 91.4 °C E) 33.7 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

59) Calculate the amount of heat absorbed by a 40.0 g sample of water at 21 °C when the temperature is raised to 35 °C. A) 5.9 kJ B) -0.56 kJ C) 0.56 kJ D) -2.3 kJ E) 2.3 kJ Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

60) A mixture of 125 g of iron and 250 g of water is heated from 25.0 °C to 70.0 °C. How much heat is absorbed by the mixture? (Specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g °C; iron = 0.473 J/g °C) A) 49.7 kJ B) 59.6 kJ C) 47.0 kJ D) 2.66 kJ E) 27.6 kJ Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

61) 246 g of hot coffee at 86.0 °C are placed in a 137 g mug at 20.0 °C. The specific heat of coffee is 4.00 J/g °C, while that of the mug is 0.752 J/g °C. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, what is the final temperature of the system: mug + coffee? A) 79.7 °C B) 93.7 °C C) 98.4 °C D) 76.0 °C E) 53.0 °C Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

62) 250.0 g of hot coffee at 95.0 °C are placed in a 0.2000 kg mug at 20.0 °C. The specific heat of the coffee is 4.00 J/g °C, while that of the mug is 0.80 J/g °C. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, what is the final temperature of the system: mug + coffee? A) 61.7 °C B) 117 °C C) 76.0 °C D) 57.5 °C E) 84.7 °C Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

63) Many people believe that coffee may be cooled by placing a silver spoon in the coffee. If 250 ml of coffee at 200 °F had a spoon at 70 °F placed in it, what would be the final Celsius temperature of the spoon and coffee, assuming that no heat is lost to the surroundings? The mass of the spoon is 35 g. A) 92.8 °C B) 72.2 °C C) 57.2 °C D) 82.0 °C E) 199 °C Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-2

64) A sample gives off 2505 cal when burned in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the calorimeter assembly increases by 2.24 °C. What is the heat capacity of the calorimeter? A) 8.92 kcal/ °C B) 1.12 kcal/ °C C) 2.51 kcal/ °C D) 5.61 kcal/ °C E) 2.65 kcal/ °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

65) What is the heat of combustion in kJ/g of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) if the initial temperature was 22.62 °C, the final temperature was 31.10 °C, the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter was 4.88 kJ/ °C, and 1.567 grams were combusted? A) -26.4 kJ/g B) -64.8 kJ/g C) -9.99 kJ/g D) -41.4 kJ/g E) 35.5 kJ/g Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

66) Cyclohexanol, C6H12O, has a heat of combustion of -890.7 kcal/mol. A sample containing 0.708 g of cyclohexanol undergoes complete combustion in a bomb calorimeter that has a heat capacity of 2.70 kcal/ °C. What is the final temperature if the initial water temperature is 27.0 °C? A) 24.7 °C B) 29.3 °C C) 27.4 °C D) 26.6 °C E) 31.4 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

67) 5.04 × 10-3 mole of a compound is added to 41.0 g of water in a styrofoam cup and stirred until it dissolves. The temperature of the solution changes from 23.460 °C to 23.420 °C. What is the heat of solution of the compound expressed in kJ/mol? Assume the specific heat of the solution is 4.18 J/g °C. A) -0.035 kJ/mol B) 1.4 kJ/mol C) -1.4 kJ/mol D) -2.8 kJ/mol E) 2.8 kJ/mol Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

68) Two solutions, 250.0 mL of 1.00 M CaCl2(aq) and 250.0 mL of 1.00 M K2SO4(aq), are added to a calorimeter with a total heat capacity, after the solutions are added, of 1.25 kJ/ °C and the temperature decreased by 2.40 °C. Determine qrxn per mole of CaSO4(s) formed in the reaction. A) +12.0 kJ/mol B) -12.0 kJ/mol C) +6.00 kJ/mol D) -6.00 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-3

69) What is the work in joules done on the system to compress He gas from 24.0 L to 12.5 L against a pressure of 1.5 atm at a constant temperature of 37.4 °C? A) 5.5 × 103 J B) -17 J C) 17 J

D) 1.7 × 103 J E) -1.7 × 103 J Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-4

70) Calculate ΔU for a system that loses 475 kJ of heat and does 155 kJ of expansion work on the surroundings. A) -630 kJ B) -320 kJ C) +630 kJ D) +320 kJ Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-5

71) If 356 J of work is done by a system while it loses 289 J of heat, what is the value of A) +645 J B) -645 J C) +67 J D) -67 J E) +134 J Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-5

72) The complete combustion of propane, C3H8(g), is represented by the equation: C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l) ΔrH° = -2220 kJ/mol How much heat is evolved in the complete combustion of 2.50 g C3H8(g)? A) 245 kJ B) 50.4 kJ C) 126 kJ D) 5.56 kJ E) 2.22 kJ Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

73) Complete combustion of 75.0 g acetylene, C2H2, liberated 3750 kJ of heat. What is the heat of combustion, ΔrHcomb, of acetylene? A) -50.0 kJ/mol B) +50.0 kJ/mol C) +1302 kJ/mol D) -1302 kJ/mol E) -0.521 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

74) The heat of combustion of methane is -50.38 kJ/mol. How many moles of methane must be burned to produce 137 kJ of heat? A) 6.90 mol B) 0.367 mol C) 2.72 mol D) 1.37 mol E) 0.272 mol Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

75) A certain reaction releases 10.1 kJ at constant volume and at constant pressure releases 8.4 kJ. What is △U for the reaction? A) -10.1 kJ B) -8.4 kJ C) +8.4 kJ D) -1.7 kJ Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

76) The complete combustion of propane, C3H8(g), is represented by the equation: C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l) ΔrH° = -2220 kJ /mol How much heat is evolved in the complete combustion of 20.0 L C3H8(g) at STP? A) 2486 kJ B) 1007 kJ C) 994 kJ D) 1957 kJ E) 495 kJ Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

77) For the reaction H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g) ΔrH° = -241.8 kJ/mol, what mass of H2(g) is required to liberate 1.00 × 103 kJ of heat? A) 66.2 g B) 4.17 g C) 8.34 g D) 2.05 g E) 16.7 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

78) The complete combustion of propane, C3H8(g), is represented by the equation: C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l)

ΔrH° = -2220 kJ /mol

How much heat is evolved in the complete combustion of 12.5 L C3H8(g) at 25 °C and 790 mmHg? A) 8.27 × 104 kJ B) 1.41 × 104 kJ C) 653 kJ D) 168 kJ E) 1180 kJ Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

79) For the reaction H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g) ΔrH° = -241.8 kJ/mol,

what quantity of heat is liberated by the reaction of 10.0 L of O2 measured at 22.0 °C and 742 mmHg? A) 120 kJ B) 2610 kJ C) 1310 kJ D) 195 kJ E) 97.5 kJ Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

80) For the reaction H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g) ΔrH° = -241.8 kJ/mol,

what quantity of heat, in kJ, evolved when a 72.0 g mixture containing equal parts of H2 and O2, by mass, is burned? A) 8630 kJ B) 4860 kJ C) 1088 kJ D) 272 kJ E) 544 kJ Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

81) How much heat is involved in the complete combustion of 2.50 kg propane, C3H8? ΔrHcomb = -2219 kJ/mol A) 1.26 × 105 kJ B) 5.55 × 103 kJ C) 126 kJ D) 503 kJ E) 49.7 kJ Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-6

82) Determine △rH° for the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. H2O2(l) →

O2(g) + H2O(l)

Given: H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2(l) H2(g) +

△rH° = -187.78 kJ/mol

O2(g) → H2O(l)

△rH° = -285.83 kJ/mol

A) -98.05 kJ/mol B) +93.89 kJ/mol C) -191.94 kJ/mol D) -93.89 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

83) Given the reactions below, compute ΔrH° for the reaction: (ΔH's are all given in kJ/mol)

2 MnO2(s) + CO(g) → Mn2O3(s) + CO2(g) Reaction MnO2(s) + CO(g) Mn3O4(s) + CO(g)

→ MnO(s) + CO2(g)

ΔrH° -150.6

→ 3 MnO(s) + CO2(g)

-54.4

3 Mn2O3(s) + CO(g)

→ 2 Mn3O4(s) + CO2(g)

-142.3

A) -347.3 kJ/mol B) -46.1 kJ/mol C) -217.1 kJ/mol D) -104.5 kJ/mol E) -389.1 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

84) Combine the reactions: P4(s) + 6 Cl2(g) → 4 PCl3(g) ΔrH°298 = -1225.0 kJ/mol PCl3(g) + 3 H2O(l) → H3PO3(aq) + 3 HCl(g) = -853.5 kJ/mol 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l) = -571.5 kJ/mol H2(g) + Cl2(g)

→ 2 HCl(g)

= -184.9 kJ/mol

to obtain the reaction: P4(s) + 6 H2(g) + 6 O2(g) → 4 H3PO3(aq). What is the value of ΔrH°298 for this reaction? A) -2465.1 kJ/mol B) -6958.6 kJ/mol C) -2834.9 kJ/mol D) -9177.4 kJ/mol E) 8605.9 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

85) Some "beetles" defend themselves by spraying hot quinone, C6H4O2(l), at their enemies. Calculate △rH° for this reaction. C6H4(OH)2(l) + H2O2(l) → C6H4O2(l) + 2 H2O(l) Given: C6H4(OH)2(l) → C6H4O2(l) + H2(g) +177.4 kJ/mol The standard enthalpies of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are -187.4 and -285.8 kJ/mol, respectively. A) -206.8 kJ/mol B) -384.2 kJ/mol C) -561.6 kJ/mol D) +79.00 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Sections 7-7, 7-8

86) H2S(g) +

O2(g) → H2O (l) + SO2(g)

ΔrH° = -562.3 kJ/mol

1/8 S8(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)

ΔrH° = -297.0 kJ/mol

H2(g) +

ΔrH° = -266.9 kJ/mol

O2 → H2O (l)

Compute ΔrH° for H2(g) + 1/8 S8 (s) → H2S(g) in kJ/mol. A) 562.3 kJ/mol B) 276.6 kJ/mol C) 265.3 kJ/mol D) 20.5 kJ/mol E) -1.6 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

87) Given the following thermochemical equations: 4 FeS2(s) + 11 O2(g) → 2 Fe2O3(s) + 8 SO2(g) 2 H2S(g) + 3 O2(g)

→ 2 H2O(l) + 2 SO2(g)

4 FeO(s) + O2(g)

→ 2 Fe2O3(s)

H2(g) + S(s) 2 H2(g) + O2(g)

→ H2S(g)

2 Fe(s) + O2(g)

(kJ/mol) ΔrH° = -3307.9 - 1125.2 - 578.2

→ 2 FeO(s)

- 544 - 20.2

→ 2 H2O(l)

- 571.7

Compute the ΔfH° for FeS2(s) in kJ/mol. A) -1233.9 kJ/mol B) -2893.9 kJ/mol C) -24.3 kJ/mol D) -183.5 kJ/mol E) -70.0 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

88) Using the heat of combustion of methanol as -726.6 kJ/mol and the following data: C(graphite) + 1/2 O2 →CO(g)

ΔH° = -110.5 kJ/mol

C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l)

ΔH° = -393.5 kJ/mol ΔH° = -285.8 kJ/mol

Determine ΔrH° for the following reaction: CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(l)

A) -349 kJ/mol B) 157.8 kJ/mol C) -157.8 kJ/mol D) 128 kJ/mol E) -128 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-7

89) Compute ΔrH° for the following reaction. The value of ΔfH° in kJ/mol is given below each species: 2 CaO(s) + 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 CaSO4(s) -635.5

-296.9

0.0

-1432.7

A) -1000.6 kJ/mol B) -500.3 kJ /mol C) 500.3 kJ /mol D) -2365.1 kJ /mol E) -1094.1 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

90) Consider the reaction: CO2(g) + 2 HCl(g) → COCl2(g) + H2O(l) ΔfH° -393.51

-92.30

-223.01

Compute ΔrH° for this reaction. A) -994.67 kJ/mol B) 23.05 kJ /mol C) -23.05 kJ /mol D) 69.25 kJ /mol E) -69.25 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

-285.85 kJ/mol

91) Given the heat of formation of the following compounds: CO2(g) ΔfH° = -393.5 kJ/mol H2O(l) CH3OH(l)

ΔfH° = -285.9 kJ/mol ΔfH° = -238.6 kJ/mol

What is the value of ΔrH° for the reaction:

CH3OH(l) + 3/2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)

A) -440.8 kJ/mol B) -416.9 kJ/mol C) -1203.9 kJ/mol D) -346.2 kJ/mol E) -726.7 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

92) Given that ΔfH°[CO(g)] = -110.5 kJ/mol and ΔfH° [COCl2(g)] = -219.1 kJ/mol, what is the enthalpy of reaction for the formation of phosgene, COCl2 from carbon monoxide, CO, and chlorine gas, Cl2(g)? A) +110.5 kJ /mol B) -110.5 kJ/mol C) +329.6 kJ /mol D) -108.6 kJ/mol E) -219.1 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

93) Determine the enthalpy change in the following equation: 2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ΔfH° NH3(g) = -46.11 kJ/mol A) 92.22 kJ/mol B) 46.11 kJ/mol C) 5.42 kJ/mol D) -92.22 kJ/mol E) -46.11 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

94) Compute ΔrH° for the following reaction. The value of ΔfH° in kJ/mol is given below each species: PCl5(g) + 4 H2O(l) → H3PO4(s) + 5 HCl(g) -398.9 -285.9 -1281.1 -92.30 A) -688.6 kJ/mol B) -200.1 kJ/mol C) -74.9 kJ/mol D) -1000.6 kJ/mol E) -900.3 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

95) The heat of combustion, ΔrHcomb, of 1-butene(l), C4H8(l), is -2696.9 kJ/mol. From the following

values of ΔfH° CO2(g) = -393.5 kJ/mol and ΔfH° H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol, calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of butene(l). A) +2017 kJ/mol B) -2017 kJ/mol C) -3376 kJ/mol D) -107.7 kJ/mol E) -20.30 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

96) Given that ΔfH° [Ag2S(s)] = -32.6 kJ/mole, what is the enthalpy change for the precipitation of argentite, Ag2S(s)? ΔfH° [Ag+(aq)] = +105.6 kJ/mol ΔfH° [S2-(aq)] = +33.05 kJ/mol A) -276.9 kJ/mol B) -106.1 kJ/mol C) +171.2 kJ/mol D) +106.1 kJ/mol E) +138.7 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

97) What is the enthalpy of reaction for the neutralization reaction occurring between dilute Ba(OH)2(aq) and dilute HNO3(aq)? Values of ΔfH° from data tables are given below.

Hint: Balance the equation so the coefficients are the lowest possible set of whole numbers. Species

ΔfH°(kJ/mol)

Ba2+(aq) OH-(aq)

-537.6

H+(aq) NO3-(aq)

H2O(l)

-230.0 -205.0 -285.8

A) +426.0 kJ/mol B) -111.6 kJ/mol C) -426.0 kJ/mol D) -571.6 kJ/mol E) -460.0 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

98) Determine the enthalpy change in the following equation: 2/3 H2S(g) + O2(g) → 2/3 SO2(g) + 2/3 H2O(l) ΔfH° H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol Δf H° H2S(g) = -20.63 kJ/mol Δf H° SO2(g) = -296.8 kJ/mol A) -562 kJ/mol B) -375 kJ/mol C) 375 kJ /mol D) -402 kJ/mol E) 402 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

99) Determine the enthalpy change in the following equation: Cl2(g) + H2O(l) → 2 HCl(g) + 1/2 O2(g) ΔfH° H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol ΔfH° HCl(g) = -92.31 kJ/mol

A) 193.5 kJ/mol B) -470.4 kJ/mol C) 470.4 kJ/mol D) 101.2 kJ/mol E) -101.2 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

100) The standard heat of formation of solid ammonium bromide is -270.8 kJ/mol. Write the chemical equation for the reaction to which this value applies. Answer:

N2(g) + 2 H2(g) +

Br2(l) → NH4Br(s)

Diff: 2 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 7-8

101) For a process at constant pressure, 49,600 calories of heat are released. This quantity of heat is equivalent to: A) 4.82 × 10-6 J B) 1.19 × 104 J C) 1.24 × 104 J

D) 2.08 × 105 J Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Calculate the kinetic energy of a 150 g baseball moving at a speed of 39. m A) 5.8 J B) 1.1 × 102 J

(87 mph).

C) 5.8 × 103 J D) 1.1 × 105 J Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) Calculate the work, w, gained or lost by the system when a gas expands from 15 L to 40 L against a constant external pressure of 1.5199 bar. A) -6.1 kJ B) -3.8 kJ C) +3.8 kJ D) +6.1 kJ Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) The specific heat capacity of liquid mercury is 0.14 J . How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 5.00 g of mercury from 15.0 °C to 36.5 °C? A) 7.7 × 102 J B) 15 J C) 36 J D) 0.0013 J E) 1.7 J Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

105) The specific heat capacity of solid copper metal is 0.385 J . How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of a 1.55 kg block of copper from 33.0 °C to 77.5 °C? A) 1.79 × J B) 26.6 J C) 2.66 × J D) 5.58 × E) 0.00558 J Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

106) A 5.00 g sample of liquid water at 25.0 °C is heated by the addition of 145 J of energy. The final temperature of the water is ________ °C. The specific heat capacity of liquid water is A) 146 B) 25.1 C) -18.1 D) 31.9 E) 6.94 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 20

107) A 5.00 g sample of copper metal at 25.0 °C is heated by the addition of 96.0 J of energy. The final temperature of the copper is ________ °C. The specific heat capacity of copper is A) 32.3 B) 25.0 C) 25.5 D) 75.5 E) 50.5 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 20

108) The specific heat capacity of liquid water is 4.184 J . How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 6.00 g of water from 36.0 °C to 75.0 °C? A) 56.0 J B) 978 J C) 2.78 × J D) 1.79 × E) 52.3 J Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

109) The specific heat capacity of methane gas is 2.20 J . How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 5.00 g of methane from 36.0 °C to 75.0 °C? A) 88.6 J B) 429 J C) 1221 J D) 0.0113 J E) 22.9 J Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

110) The specific heat of copper is 0.385 J . If 34.2 g of copper, initially at 21.0 °C, absorbs 4.689 kJ, what will be the final temperature of the copper? A) 21.4 °C B) 23.8 °C C) 356 °C D) 377 °C Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) A 50.0 g sample of liquid water at 25.0 °C is mixed with 23.0 g of water at 89.0 °C. The final temperature of the water is ________ °C. A) 132 B) 27.3 C) 57.0 D) 260 E) 45.2 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 30

112) What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) of a chemical reaction that raises the temperature of 250.0 mL of solution having a density of 1.25 g by 10.2 °C? (The specific heat of the solution is 3.733 J .) A) -7.43 kJ B) -12.51 kJ C) 8.20 kJ D) -11.9 kJ E) 6.51 kJ Answer: D Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 10

113) The combustion of titanium with oxygen produces titanium dioxide: Ti(s) +

(g) →

(s)

When 2.060 g of titanium is combusted in a bomb calorimeter, the temperature of the calorimeter increases from 25.00 °C to 91.60 °C. In a separate experiment, the heat capacity of the calorimeter is measured to be 9.84 kJ . The heat of reaction for the combustion of a mole of Ti in this calorimeter is ________ kJ A) 14.3 B) 19.6 C) -311 D) -0.154 E) -1.52 × Answer: E Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 15

114) For a particular process that is carried out at constant pressure, q = 145 kJ and w = -35 kJ. Therefore: A) ΔU = 110 kJ and ΔH = 145 kJ B) ΔU = 145 kJ and ΔH = 110 kJ C) ΔU = 145 kJ and ΔH = 180 kJ D) ΔU = 180 kJ and ΔH = 145 kJ Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) 8.000 moles of H2(g) reacts with 4.000 mol of O2(g) to form 8.000 mol of H2O(l) at 25 °C and a constant pressure of 1.0133 bar. If 546.4 kJ of heat are released during this reaction, and PΔV is equal to 29.60 kJ, then: A) ΔH° = +546.4 kJ and ΔU = +576.06 kJ B) ΔH° = +546.4 kJ and ΔU = +516.8 kJ C) ΔH° = -546.4 kJ and ΔU = -516.8 kJ D) ΔH° = -546.4 kJ and ΔU = -576.0 kJ Answer: C Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) At 1.0133 bar, the heat of sublimation of gallium is 277 kJ

and the heat of vaporization is 271 kJ

. To the correct number of significant figures, how much heat is required to melt 5.50 mol of gallium at 1.0133 bar? A) 6 kJ B) 33 kJ C) 244 kJ D) 274 kJ Answer: B Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) How much heat is absorbed/released when 40.00 g of NH3(g) reacts in the presence of excess

(g)

to produce NO(g) and H2O(l) according to the following chemical equation? 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) → 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O(l)

H° = 1168 kJ

A) 685.8 kJ of heat are absorbed. B) 685.8 kJ of heat are released. C) 2743 kJ of heat are absorbed. D) 2743 kJ of heat are released. Answer: A Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) How much heat is absorbed when 45.00 g of C(s) reacts in the presence of excess SO2(g) to produce CS2(l) and CO(g) according to the following chemical equation? 5 C(s) + 2 SO2(g) → CS2(l) + 4 CO(g) A) 179.8 kJ B) 239.9 kJ C) 898.5 kJ D) 2158 kJ Answer: A Diff: 4

Type: MC

H° = 239.9 kJ

Var: 5

119) At constant pressure, the combustion of 20.0 g of C2H6(g) releases 1036 kJ of heat. What is ΔH for the reaction given below? 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) A) -173 kJ B) -779 kJ C) -1560 kJ D) -3115 kJ Answer: D Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) When 1.50 mol of CH4(g) reacts with excess Cl2(g) at constant pressure according to the chemical equation shown below, 1062 kJ of heat are released. Calculate the value of ΔH for this reaction, as written. 2 CH4(g) + 3 Cl2(g) → 2 CHCl3(l) + 3 H2(g)

H° = ?

A) -1420 kJ B) -708 kJ C) +708 kJ D) +1420 kJ Answer: A Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) In the presence of excess oxygen, methane gas burns in a constant-pressure system to yield carbon dioxide and water: (g) +

(g) →

(g) +

O (l)

H = -890.0 kJ

Calculate the value of q (kJ) in this exothermic reaction when 1.90 g of methane is combusted at constant pressure. A) -105.7 kJ B) 0.0342 kJ C) -0.0095 kJ D) 29.3 kJ E) -1.06 × 105 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

122) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes to water and oxygen at constant pressure by the following reaction: (l) →

O(l) +

(g)

H = -196 kJ

Calculate the value of q (kJ) in this exothermic reaction when 4.00 g of hydrogen peroxide decomposes at constant pressure? A) -23.1 kJ B) -11.5 kJ C) -0.0217 kJ D) 1.44 kJ E) -2.31 × 104 kJ Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

123) When 2.50 g of Ba(s) is added to 100.00 g of water in a container open to the atmosphere, the reaction shown below occurs and the temperature of the resulting solution rises from 22.00 °C to 40.32 °C. If the specific heat of the solution is 4.18 J , calculate for the reaction, as written. Ba(s) + 2 H2O(l) → Ba(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)

A) -431 kJ B) -3.14 kJ C) +3.14 kJ D) +431 kJ Answer: A Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) Sodium metal reacts with water to produce hydrogen gas and sodium hydroxide according to the chemical equation shown below. When 0.015 mol of Na is added to 100.00 g of water, the temperature of the resulting solution rises from 25.00 °C to 31.45 °C. If the specific heat of the solution is 4.18 J , calculate ΔH for the reaction, as written. 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) → 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) A) -5.41 kJ B) -90.0 kJ C) -180 kJ D) -360 kJ Answer: D Diff: 4

Type: MC

H=?

Var: 5

125) When 50.0 mL of 0.400 mol L-1 Ca(NO3)2 is added to 50.0 mL of 0.800 mol L-1 NaF, CaF2 precipitates, as shown in the net ionic equation below. The initial temperature of both solutions is 23.0 °C. Assuming that the reaction goes to completion, and that the resulting solution has a mass of 100.00 g and a specific heat of 4.18 J , calculate the final temperature of the solution. Ca2+(aq) + 2 F-(aq) → CaF2(s)

H = -11.5 kJ

A) 22.45 °C B) 23.55 °C C) 24.10 °C D) 24.65 °C Answer: B Diff: 4

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 8 Electrons in Atoms 1) The symbol "n" in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to the number of electrons in an orbit. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

2) The symbol "n" in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to the orbit in which an electron is found. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

3) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an interaction between electrons in atoms. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

4) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an electron losing energy and changing orbits. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

5) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an electron losing energy but keeping the same values of its four quantum numbers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

6) When an electron goes from a high energy state to a low one, another electron goes from a low energy state to a high one. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

7) When an electron in an atom goes from a high energy state to a low one, light is given off. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

8) Four of the 3d orbitals are alike except for the orientation with respect to the axes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-7

9) The following orbitals are placed in the correct filling order: 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

10) The following orbitals are placed in the correct filling order: 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-9

11) Light passing through a transparent medium has a wavelength of 466 nm and a frequency of 6.20 × 1014 s-1. What is the speed of the light in the medium? A) 2.89 × 108 m/s B) 2.89 × 1017 m/s

C) 1.33 × 1012 m/s D) 1.33 × 1021 m/s

E) 7.52 × 10-22 m/s Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

12) What is the frequency of radiation with a wavelength of 440. nm? A) 6.81 × 1014 s-1 B) 6.81 × 105 s-1 C) 1.51 × 10-27 s-1 D) 4.95 × 10-12 s-1 E) 2.02 × 10-11 s-1 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

13) What is the frequency associated with radiation of 4.59 × 10-8 cm wavelength? A) 6.54 × 1017 s-1 B) 6.54 × 1015 s-1 C) 1.53 × 10-8 s-1 D) 13.8 s-1 E) 2.18 × 107 s-1 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

14) What is the wavelength in nm associated with radiation of frequency 2.8 × 1013 s-1? A) 840 nm B) 2.8 × 104 nm C) 299 nm

D) 9.3 × 104 nm E) 1.1 × 104 nm Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

15) Frequency and wavelength are related by the equation: A) λ = c · v B) λ = c/v C) v = λ/c D) λ = v/c E) c = λ/v Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning electromagnetic radiation. A) Infrared light has a longer wavelength than ultraviolet light. B) The greater the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation, the greater the energy of the radiation. C) A photon with a wavelength of 5000 angstroms has one-half as much energy as a photon with a wavelength of 2500 angstroms. D) The speed of ultraviolet light rays is faster than X-rays in a vacuum. E) Electromagnetic radiation is energy transmission in which electric and magnetic fields are propagated as waves. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

17) The relationship between the frequency of light and the energy of the light was postulated by: A) Max Planck B) Johann Balmer C) Johannes Rydberg D) Albert Einstein E) Robert Bunsen Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

18) A radiation detector exposed to sunlight records the energy falling on a given area per unit time. If such a detector has a reading of 0.698 cal cm-2 min-1, how many photons of sunlight are striking each cm2 in one minute? Assume the average wavelength of sunlight is 460. nm. (4.184 J = 1 calorie) A) 1.62 × 1018 photons B) 4.32 × 1019 photons C) 6.76 × 1018 photons

D) 2.31 × 1018 photons E) 9.63 × 1019 photons Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

19) A radiation detector exposed to sunlight records the energy falling on a given area per unit time. If such a detector has a reading of 0.430 cal cm-2 min-1, how many photons of sunlight are striking each cm2 in one minute? Assume the average wavelength of sunlight is 460. nm. (4.184 J = 1 calorie) A) 2.02 × 107 photons B) 8.46 × 107 photons C) 4.17 × 1018 photons

D) 1.02 × 1027 photons E) 4.25 × 1027 photons Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

20) Use Planck's equation to determine the energy, in J/photon, of radiation of frequency 5.8 × 1015 s-1. A) 3.8 × 10-18 J B) 1.7 × 1024 J C) 5.8 × 10-25 J D) 1.7 × 10-16 J E) 5.2 × 10-8 J Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

21) Calculate the energy in kJ/mol of light with a wavelength of 360 nm. A) 5.52 × 10-22 kJ/mol B) 5.52 × 10-19 kJ/mol C) 332 kJ/mol D) 6.63 × 103 kJ/mol E) 0.332 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

22) How many photons of light with frequency 5.50 × 1015 Hz are required to provide 1 kJ of energy? A) 3.64 × 10-18 photons B) 2.74 × 1020 photons C) 4.56 × 10-4 photons D) 1.65 × 1044 photons E) 3.64 × 10-16 photons Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

23) The existence of discrete (quantized) energy levels in an atom may be inferred from: A) diffraction of electrons by crystals B) X-ray diffraction by crystals C) atomic line spectra D) experiments on the photoelectric effect E) visible spectrum Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

24) The photoelectric effect: A) was discovered by Max Planck B) describes the phenomenon of producing light by shining a beam of electrons by on any metal surface C) contradicted the view that light energy was dependent upon intensity only D) is not the same principle used in modern electric eyes and solar calculators E) results in a beam of electrons which increases in number, but not velocity, as the wavelength of incident light decreases Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

25) The mathematical equation deduced by Johann Balmer and subsequently rewritten in another form by Johannes Rydberg gives us: A) the relationship between wavelengths of spectral lines and the electrons' energies responsible for them B) the relationship between wavelength and frequency of spectral lines C) the relationship between frequencies of spectral lines and the energy values associated with them D) a model for finding the limited numbers of wavelengths associated with atomic spectral lines E) an explanation for the continuous range of energy values associated with atomic spectra Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

26) The symbol "n" in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to: A) the energy of the electrons B) the total energy of the atom C) the number of electrons in an orbit D) the orbit in which an electron is found E) the number of orbits in an atom Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

27) For the Bohr hydrogen atom determine the energy level corresponding to n = 3. A) 7.26 × 10-19 J B) 7.36 × 10-35 J C) -2.42 × 10-19 J D) 3.33 × 107 J E) 1.96 × 10-17 J Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

28) Which statement regarding the wave function as suggested by Erwin Schrodinger is INCORRECT? A) It is the lowest energy value of a particle. B) It's value can be zero. C) It is denoted by psi (Ψ). D) Zero-point energy corresponds to n = 1. E) The zero-point energy is an allowable value of the energy of the particle. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-2

29) What is the energy in joules of the 656 nm spectral line of hydrogen? A) 4.35 × 10-31 J B) 3.03 × 10-19 J C) 1.30 × 10-22 J D) 3.03 × 10-28 J E) 1.45 × 10-48 J Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

30) What is the energy in joules of the 434 nm spectral line of hydrogen? A) 1.53 × 10-27 J B) 4.58 × 10-28 J C) 1.04 × 1048 J

D) 4.58 × 10-19 J E) 9.59 × 10-49 J Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

31) What is the energy in joules of a mole of photons with the energy of the 434 nm spectral line of hydrogen? A) 2.76 × 105 J B) 9.21 × 10-4 J C) 2.76 × 10-4 J

D) 5.78 × 10-25 J E) 434 J Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

32) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is: A) due to an electron losing energy but keeping the same values of its four quantum numbers B) due to an electron losing energy and changing orbits C) due to an interaction between electrons in two different principal orbits D) due to an electron gaining energy and changing orbits E) due to an increase in the principal quantum number n of an electron Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

33) When an electron in an atom goes from a high energy state to a low one, what occurs? A) Another electron goes from a low energy state to a high one. B) The atom moves faster. C) Light is given off. D) Light is absorbed. E) This process is not possible. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

34) Calculate the wavelength in meters of light absorbed by an electron in an atom of hydrogen as it moves that makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 6. A) 1.09 × 10-6 m B) 8.22 × 10-7 m C) 3.28 × 10-6 m D) 1.83 × 10-7 m E) 1.65 × 10-11 m Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

35) The fact that we cannot simultaneously measure the exact position and precise momentum of an electron is referred to as: A) Pauli Exclusion Principle B) The Aufbau Principle C) Hund's Rule D) The DeBroglie Relationship E) Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

36) What is the wavelength associated with electrons traveling at one one-hundredth the speed of light? A) 243 nm B) 0.243 nm C) 412 nm D) 7.98 × 10-2 nm E) 12.5 nm Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

37) What is the wavelength of a ball that is 25.0 g traveling at 40.2 m/s? A) 6.59 × 10-37 m B) 6.59 × 10-34 m C) 1.07 × 10-30 m D) 4.12 × 10-37 m E) 2.42 × 10-11 m Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

38) What is the wavelength of a bullet that is 0.450 g traveling at 2000. m/s? A) 2000. m B) 2.94 × 10-24 m C) 7.36 × 10-34 m D) 7.36 × 10-37 m E) 1.49 × 10-40 m Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

39) Calculate the deBroglie wavelength of a ball of mass 125 grams and velocity 90 m/s. A) 0.59 m B) 5.9 × 10-31 m C) 5.9 × 10-35 m D) 590 m E) 1.7 × 1034 m Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

40) What is the wavelength, in nm, associated with a 2000. kg truck traveling at a speed of 20 m/s, that is, considering the truck to be a "matter" wave? A) 1.33 × 10-29 nm B) 2.65 × 10-29 nm C) 6.02 × 10-29 nm D) 7.50 × 103 nm E) 1.66 × 10-29 nm Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

41) Which statement regarding the wave function as suggested by Erwin Schrodinger is INCORRECT? A) It has fluctuating values at all points on the curve. B) It is a mathematical equation. C) It is denoted by psi (Ψ). D) It can describe any particle with wavelike motions. E) It corresponds to a standing wave within the boundary of the system. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

42) An atomic orbital represents: A) the shape of an atom B) the repulsion of all the electrons among themselves C) a fixed path that an electron follows around the nucleus of an atom D) the region of electron density for a covalent bond E) the region of high probability for an electron to exist near the nucleus of an atom Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

43) An atomic orbital: I) describes a region of high electron density. II) describes a region in an atom where an electron is likely to be found. III) is a wave function resulting from specific values assigned to quantum numbers in wave equations. IV) describes a spherical region around a nucleus where an electron can be found. A) II only B) I and II C) II and III D) I, II, and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

44) Which of the following is not possible? A) 2p B) 4d C) 5p D) 3f E) 2s Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

45) The possible value(s) of the orbital angular momentum quantum number of a 3p electron are: A) +1/2, -1/2 B) -1, 0, +1 C) -1 D) 0 E) 1 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

46) The possible values of the magnetic quantum number, mℓ , of a 3p electron are: A) 0, 1, 2 B) 2, 1, 0, -1, -2 C) 0 D) -1, 0, +1 E) +1, -1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

47) Give the appropriate values of n and ℓ for the orbital designation 3p. A) n = 3, ℓ = 0 B) n = 1, ℓ = 3 C) n = 3, ℓ = 3 D) n = 3, ℓ = 1 E) n = 3, ℓ = 2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

48) Give the appropriate values of n and ℓ for the orbital designation 3s. A) n = 3, ℓ = 1 B) n = 0, ℓ = 3 C) n = 3, ℓ = 3 D) n = 3, ℓ = 2 E) n = 3, ℓ = 0 Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

49) What is the smallest acceptable value for the missing quantum number? n = ?, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 1 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

50) What is the orbital designation for the quantum numbers n = 2, ℓ = 1? A) 3s B) 2s C) 2d D) 2p E) 3p Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

51) Which of the following orbitals have their lobes aligned along the y axis? I) dxy II) dx2-y2 III) py

IV) dyz A) II and III B) I and IV C) I and II D) II and IV E) I and III Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

52) Which of the following orbitals have lobes aligned along the x axis? A) dxy B) dx2-y2 C) dxz

D) dyz E) s Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-7

53) Which two orbitals are located between the axes of a coordinate system and not along the axes? A) dxy, py B) dyz, px C) dx2-y2, pz D) dxy, dz2 E) dxy, dyz Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-7

54) Which of the following statements about orbital shapes is NOT true? A) A 1s orbital is spherical. B) 2p orbitals have a node at r = 0. C) There are only two 2p orbitals, each directed along and x or y axis. D) There are five 3d orbitals. E) Four of the 3d orbitals are alike except for the orientation with respect to the axes. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-7

55) All of the terms below are quantum numbers EXCEPT: A) principal B) magnetic C) spin D) valence E) orbital angular momentum Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

56) Which of the following statements concerning quantum numbers is NOT correct? A) "n" relates the most probable distance from the nucleus. B) "l" denotes geometric shape. C) "m" denotes orientation of an orbital with respect to the others. D) The fourth quantum number refers to electron spin. E) The four quantum numbers are derived from wave mechanics. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

57) Which one of the following set of quantum numbers would not be allowed? A) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1 B) n = 3, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0

C) n = 3, ℓ = 3, mℓ = 1

D) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = -1 E) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = -1 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

58) Which of the following statements about the electron spin quantum number is FALSE? A) ms denotes the spin quantum number. B) The value of the spin quantum number can be +1/2 or -1/2. C) The value of the spin quantum number does not depend on other quantum numbers. D) The value of the spin quantum number can be indicated by arrows to the right and to the left. E) The spin quantum number is an indication that electrons generate a magnetic field. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

59) Which of the following statements about electron spin is FALSE? A) An electron produces a magnetic field. B) The electron's magnetic field can be oriented in two directions in the presence of an external magnetic field. C) Paired electrons produced no net magnetic field. D) An experiment with silver atoms passing through a magnetic field seems to prove that electron spin exists. E) Electron spin only exists when mℓ = 0. Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

60) Experimental evidence for electron spin: A) has not yet been found B) was provided by Uhlenbeck and Goudsmit in 1925 C) came as the result of an experiment with vaporized silver atoms, which was originally designed for another purpose D) is provided each time we make mirror-image molecules, called left and right-handed isomers E) is not needed because the concept is only for our convenience Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

61) What is an acceptable value for the missing quantum number? n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = ? A) 0 B) +1/2 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3/2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-8

62) Which series below represents the correct order of orbital filling in a multielectron atom? A) 5d, 4f, 6s, 6p B) 4f, 6s, 5d, 6p C) 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p D) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p E) 6s, 6p, 5d, 4s Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-10

63) "One places electrons into orbitals one by one from low energy to high energy" is one way of stating the: A) Aufbau principle B) Hund's Rule C) Heisenberg Principle D) Pauli Exclusion Principle E) Rydberg's Principle Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-10

64) The principle that is based on electrons attempting to be as far apart as possible is the: A) Heisenberg Principle B) Pauli Exclusion Principle C) Bohr Theory D) Hund's Rule E) Aufbau principle Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-10

65) Which of the following subshells is correctly designated? A) 1p5 B) 3s3 C) 3f2

D) 4d11 E) 2p6

Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-10

66) Exceptions to ________ are represented by chromium and copper in the 4th row of the periodic table. A) the Aufbau Principle B) Hund's Rule C) the Bohr Theory D) the Heisenberg Principle E) the Pauli Exclusion Principle Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

67) Niels Bohr promoted the connection between the periodic table and quantum theory. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) The link between the table arrangement and quantum theory is electron configuration. B) Elements in the same group have similar electron configurations. C) Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons in the outer orbit. D) Elements in the same group have the same principle quantum number. E) Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

68) The fact that the valence orbital configuration of nitrogen in the ground state is 2s2, 2px12py12pz1 is an illustration of: A) the Bohr Theory B) Hund's Rule C) the Aufbau Principle D) the Pauli Exclusion Principle E) the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

69) The quantum numbers of the last electron of arsenic could be: A) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2 B) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2

C) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2 D) n = 4, ℓ = 3, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2 E) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1/2, ms = 0 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

70) The quantum numbers of the last electron of nickel could be: A) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = -1/2 B) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2

C) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 D) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = 0 E) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1/2, ms = +1/2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

71) Arrange the following in order of increasing ENERGY: UV radiation, visible radiation, X-rays, and microwaves. A) X-rays < microwave < UV < visible B) X-ray < microwave < visible < UV C) microwave < visible < UV < X-rays D) visible < UV < X-rays < microwave E) UV < X-rays < microwave < visible Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

72) A television signal has a wavelength of 10.0 km. What is its frequency in kilohertz? A) 30.0 kHz B) 3.00 × 104 kHz C) 3.00 × 107 kHz D) 3.33 × 10-7 kHz E) 3.33 × 10-2 kHz Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-1

73) Use the Balmer equation to determine n for the spectral line of wavelength 656 nm. The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

74) Use the Balmer equation to determine n for the spectral line of wavelength 434 nm. The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

75) Use the Balmer equation to determine the wavelength, in nm, of the line in the Balmer series corresponding to n = 4. The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1. A) 365 nm B) 45.6 nm C) 205 nm D) 486 nm E) 1459 nm Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

76) What is the wavelength, in nm, of the spectral line resulting from the transition of an electron from n = 3 to n = 2 in a Bohr hydrogen atom? The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1. A) 18.3 nm B) 656 nm C) 547 nm D) 152 nm E) 252 nm Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

77) What is the wavelength of the line in the Balmer series of hydrogen corresponding to the transition from n = 5 to n = 2? The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1. A) 304 nm B) 30.4 nm C) 329 nm D) 535 nm E) 434 nm Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

78) Calculate the wavelength, in nm, of the first line of the Balmer series. The constant for Balmer's equation is 3.2881 × 1015 s-1. A) 18.3 nm B) 656 nm C) 547 nm D) 152 nm E) 252 nm Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

79) What is the wavelength, in nm, of light with an energy content of 550 kJ/mol? A) 0.218 nm B) 0.419 nm C) 157 nm D) 218 nm E) 6579 nm Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

80) Use Planck's equation to determine the wavelength, in nm, of radiation with 200.0 kJ/mol of energy. A) 167 nm B) 598 nm C) 5.98 × 105 nm D) 1.67 × 105 nm E) 242 nm Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-4

81) What is the energy in joules of a mole of photons with the energy of the 656 nm spectral line of hydrogen? A) 2.62 × 10-7 J B) 78.3 J C) 3.03 J

D) 8.73 × 10-25 J E) 1.82 × 105 J Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-3

82) To what uncertainty, in pm, can the position of an electron traveling at 1.89 × 105 m/s be measured if the uncertainty of the speed is 2.00%? A) 765 B) 654 C) 8.33 × 104 D) 1.53 × 105 E) 1.53 × 104 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-5

83) What is the total number of orbitals possible for n = 3? A) 9 B) 6 C) 5 D) 3 E) 11 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-6

84) Chlorine (atomic number = 17) has the electronic configuration: ________. A) 1s22s22p63s23d5 B) 1s22s22p62d53s2 C) 1s22s22p63s23p5 D) 1s22s22d103s2 E) 1s22s22p62d63s1 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

85) The ground state electron configuration of Sc is ________. A) 1s22s22p62d103s1 B) 1s21p62s22p63d5 C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d3 D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1 E) 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

86) The ground state electron configuration of phosphorus is ________. A) 1s22s22p43p63d1 B) [Ar] 3s23p3 C) 1s22s22p63s23p3

D) 1s22s22p63s43p1 E) 1s22s22p63s22d3 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

87) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 is the ground state electronic configuration of ________. A) scandium B) niobium C) chromium D) vanadium E) molybdenum Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

88) [Kr]5s24d105p5 is the ground state electronic configuration of ________. A) Te B) I C) Br D) At E) S Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

89) Use the basic rules for electron configuration to indicate the number of unpaired electrons in phosphorus. A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) 5 E) 2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

90) How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration of chromium? A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 E) 0 Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

91) How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration of calcium? A) 5 B) 2 C) 0 D) 1 E) 3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

92) The correct electron configuration for A) [Br] 3d104s24p6

is ________.

B) [Ar] 3d104s24p6 C) [Br] 4s23d104p5

D) [Ar] 3d104s24p5 E) [Ne] 3d104s24p6 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

93) The ground state electron configuration for antimony is ________. A) [Kr] 5s25d105p3 B) [Kr] 4s24d105p3 C) [Xe] 5s24d105p2

D) [Kr] 4d105s25p3 E) [Xe] 5s25d105p3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

94) Use the spdf notation to write out the complete electron configuration of Br. A) [Ar] 3d104s24p5 B) [Kr] 3d104s24p4 C) [Ar] 3d94s24p6

D) [Ar] 3d104p65s2 E) [Ar] 4s24p24d9 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

95) The four quantum numbers of the LAST electron to be placed into a Ca atom are ________. A) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = -1/2 B) n = 3, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = -1/2

C) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 D) n = 4, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = -1/2

E) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

96) The quantum numbers of the last electron of cerium are ________. A) n = 6, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2 B) n = 5, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2

C) n = 4, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2

D) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2 E) n = 4, ℓ = 4, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

97) The quantum numbers of the last electron of cesium are ________. A) n = 5, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 B) n = 6, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2

C) n = 6, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2 D) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 E) n = 6, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 2, ms = +1/2 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

98) The quantum numbers of the last electron of silicon are ________. A) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = 1 B) n = 2, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2

C) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2 D) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 E) n = 2, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

99) The quantum numbers of the last electron of barium are ________. A) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = 1 B) n = 5, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2

C) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2

D) n = 6, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 E) n = 6, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = -1/2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 8-11

100) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 640 nm appears as orange light to the human eye. The frequency of this light is ________ . A) 4.69 × B) 4.69 × C) 1.92 × D) 1.92 × E) 2.13 × Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 12

101) An FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic radiation at a frequency of 100.6 MHz. The wavelength of this radiation is ________ m. A) 2.982 × B) 2.982 C) 3.018 × D) 3.018 × E) 0.3353 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 9

102) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 525 nm appears as green light to the human eye. The energy of one photon of this light is ________ J. A) 1.04 × 10-31 B) 3.79 × C) 3.79 × D) 1.04 × 10-22 E) 2.64 × Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 12

103) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 531 nm appears as green light to the human eye. The energy of one photon of this light is 3.74 × J. Thus, a laser that emits of energy in a pulse of light at this wavelength produces ________ photons in each pulse. A) 2.9 × B) 9.2 × 10-24 C) 1.8 × D) 3.5 × E) 6.5 × Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 12

104) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron with a velocity of 6.00 × 106 m s-1 is ________ m. The mass of the electron is 9.11 × g. A) 8.25 × 109 B) 8.25 × 1012 C) 1.21 × 10-16

D) 1.21 × 10-13 E) 1.21 × 10-10 Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

105) What are the possible values of n and ml for an electron in a 4p orbital? A) n = 1, 2, 3, or 4 and ml = 1

B) n = 1, 2, 3, or 4 and ml = -2, -1, 0, +1, or +2 C) n = 4 and ml = 1

D) n = 4 and ml = -1, 0, +1 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 4

106) How many subshells are there in the shell with n = 4? A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 18 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) What are the possible values of l if n = 6? A) 6 B) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5 C) -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, or +4 D) -5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4, or +5 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) How many orbitals are there in the fourth shell? A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 16 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) For a hydrogen atom, which electronic transition would result in the emission of a photon with the highest energy? A) 2s → 3p B) 2p → 6d C) 6p → 4s D) 7f → 5d Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) For hydrogen, what is the wavelength of the photon emitted when an electron drops from a 4d orbital to a 2p orbital in a hydrogen atom? The Rydberg constant is 1.097 × 10-2 nm-1. A) 656.3 nm B) 486.2 nm C) 364.6 nm

D) 2.057 × 10-3 nm Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) Which ion does not have a noble gas configuration in its ground electronic state? A) Sc3+ B) Al3+ C) Ga3+

D) As3Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) The element that corresponds to the electron configuration 1s22s22p3 is: A) carbon B) lithium C) beryllium D) boron E) nitrogen Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

113) The complete electron configuration of phosphorous, element 15, is: A) 1s22s22p63s23p3 B) C) D)

2p103s1 2p63s1

2s42p7 2s62p23s1

E) Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 8

114) The complete electron configuration of nickel, element 28, is: A) 3p12 3d84s2 3p84s2

B) C) D) E) Answer: B Diff: 2

3s43p6 3p8

Type: MC

Var: 8

115) The condensed electron configuration of sulfur, element 16, is: A) [Ne]3s2 B) [Ar]3s2 C) [Ne]3s23p4

D) [He]2s42p8 E) [He]3s2 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

116) The condensed electron configuration of krypton, element 36, is: A) [Kr]4s23d8 B) [Ar]4s4 C) [Kr]4s43d8

D) [Ar]3d104s24p6 E) [Ar]4s43d4 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

117) How many electrons are in the outermost shell of the Ga3+ ion in its ground state? A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 18 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) How many valence shell electrons does an atom of boron have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 13 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) Which of the following have their valence electrons in the same shell? A) Li, N, F B) B, Si, As C) N, As, Bi D) He, Ne, F Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) Which of the following have the same number of valence electrons? A) Rb, Sb, I B) Ga, Sn, Bi C) As, Sb, Bi D) Ar, Kr, Br Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) What is the general valence-electron ground-state electron configuration for neutral alkaline earth metals? A) ns1 B) ns2 C) 1s22s1 D) 1s22s2

Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 2

122) Which element has the ground-state electron configuration [Rn]7s2 6d 2? A) Rf B) Sg C) Th D) Pa Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) How many valence electrons does a neutral tellurium atom have? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 52 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 9 The Periodic Table and Some Atomic Properties 1) The inner transition elements include the actinides and the lanthanides. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

2) Moseley used X-rays to determine the atomic mass of each element. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

3) Ions always adopt the electron configuration of a noble gas. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

4) The covalent radius, metallic radius, and the ionic radius are all equal. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

5) The ionization energy is the energy required for a gaseous atom to lose an electron. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

6) The electron affinity is opposite to the ionization energy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

7) The electron affinity is the energy for an atom in its standard state to gain an electron. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

8) An atom with an even number of electrons is always diamagnetic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

9) Paramagnetic is not the same as magnetic. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

10) Polarizability decreases with the size of the atom. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-7

11) Why was Moseley so sure from his X-ray work that there were no other undiscovered elements besides the three that he predicted in the range of atomic numbers 13-79? A) The rows on the periodic table were filled. B) The columns of the periodic table were full. C) All of the possible atomic weights were assigned. D) All of the integer atomic numbers were assigned. E) Mendeleev didn't predict any more. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

12) Elements in the first two groups are part of the main-group elements along with which of the following groups? A) d-block elements B) s-block elements C) actinides D) lanthanides E) p-block elements Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

13) The transition elements refer to what group of elements? A) s-block elements B) d-block elements C) actinides D) lanthanides E) p-block elements Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

14) The actinides refer to what group of elements? A) s-block elements B) d-block elements C) f-block elements of atomic number 58 through 71 D) f-block elements of atomic number 90 through 103 E) p-block elements Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

15) Plutonium is among a group of elements referred to as: A) actinides B) alkalides C) chalcocides D) halides E) lanthanides Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-1

16) Which of the following pairs of elements are classified as metalloids? A) aluminum and silicon B) argon and neon C) arsenic and germanium D) bromine and sulfur E) copper and silver Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

17) Which of the following could never be isoelectronic species? A) anions of two different elements B) cations of two different elements C) an anion and a cation D) an anion and an atom E) atoms of two different elements Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

18) Most transition elements form monatomic ions that are not: A) isoelectronic with any other cations B) isoelectronic with any noble gas C) isoelectronic with any neutral atom D) isoelectronic with any other species E) isoelectronic with any other transition metal ion Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

19) The ion represented as

Ti4+ has:

A) 22 electrons B) 48 neutrons C) 26 protons D) 4 3d electrons E) 0 4s electrons Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

20) The similar chemical behavior of the elements in a given group in the periodic table is best accounted for by the fact that atoms of these elements have: A) the same number of isotopes B) the same number of electrons C) the same number of electrons in the outermost (valence) shell D) similar nuclear structures E) the same number of protons Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

21) What is the ground state electron configuration for iron(III)? A) [Ar]3d5 B) [Ar]4s23d3 C) [Ar]4s13d4 D) [Ar]4s24p3 E) [Ar]4p5 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

22) What is the general valence electronic configuration (where n = principal quantum number) that best describes the halogens as a group? A) ns1np6 B) ns2np4 C) ns2np5 D) ns2np6 E) ns2np3

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

23) Which statement best describes relationships in a modern periodic table? A) Each transition element is placed in the column of the main group element that it most closely resembles. B) The fourteen elements in the "lanthanide" series form a new independent period. C) Metalloids usually are the cations in ionic compounds. D) Nonmetallic properties tend to predominate for elements at the far right portion of the table. E) Elements are always arranged in order of increasing atomic weights. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

24) Which ground state electronic configuration will most readily produce an ion with a charge of 2+? A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2 B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 C) 1s22s22p63s23p4

D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p2 E) 1s2s22p63s23p63d104s24p6 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

25) Which of the following has the largest radius? A) ClB) Ar C) Sc3+ D) K+ E) P3-

Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

26) Which of the following has the largest radius? A) Se2B) Kr

C) Rb+ D) BrE) Y3+ Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

27) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) The atomic radius decreases from left to right through a period of elements. B) Cations are larger than the atoms from which they are formed. C) The metallic character of elements decreases from left to right through a period of elements. D) The ionization energy increases from left to right through a period of elements. E) The atomic radius increases down the periodic table. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

28) Which of the following has the largest atomic radius? A) Rb B) Br C) Mo D) I Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

29) A is the sequence Na, Mg, Al, Si, and P. B is the sequence He, Ne, Ar, Kr, and Xe. Which statement below is true? A) The members of A are decreasing in size. B) The members of B have larger radii than those of A, respectively. That is He > Na, Ne > Mg, etc. C) The members of A have larger radii than those of B, respectively. D) The members of B are decreasing in size. E) All the members of A are isoelectronic. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

30) Among the alkali metals, cesium reacts more rapidly than sodium because: A) cesium has more electrons B) cesium has more neutrons C) the valence electron of cesium is at a greater average distance from the nucleus D) cesium has a higher atomic weight E) cesium has more protons Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

31) Which of the following isoelectronic species has the largest radius? A) Ne B) FC) Mg2+ D) Na+

E) O2Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

32) Which comparison of atomic and/or ionic radii is correct? A) K+ > K B) K+ > Ca2+ C) S > Si D) Kr > Xe E) Cl > ClAnswer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

33) Which of the following has the smallest radius? A) Yb3+ B) Ho3+ C) Nd3+ D) Gd3+ E) Ce3+

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

34) Which of the following has the largest radius? A) As3B) Br

C) Sr2+ D) ClE) Se2Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

35) Which of the following occurs for the representative elements going left to right across the period? A) Electronegativity decreases. B) Atomic size increases. C) Forces of attraction between electron and nucleus increase because the effective nuclear charge increases. D) The outer electrons are held more weakly. E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

36) The effective nuclear charge for sodium is: A) +10 B) +9 C) +1 D) +11 E) 0 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

37) Which series of elements shows the smallest difference in atomic radii? A) Li......F B) Be......Ra C) He......Xe D) C......Pb E) Sc......Zn Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

38) The first ionization energy for rubidium is +403.0 kJ/mol. How much energy would be required to convert 17.1 g of gaseous rubidium to its gaseous +1 monatomic ion at constant temperature? A) 185 kJ B) 80.6 kJ C) 68.9 kJ D) 40.4 kJ E) 34.5 kJ Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

39) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Within a given subshell, each orbital is usually occupied by a single electron before any orbital has two electrons. B) When a metallic element unites with a nonmetallic element, electrons are lost by atoms of the metal and gained by atoms of the nonmetals. C) The noble gas atoms complete the filling of the p orbitals. D) The ionization energy of Ca+ is greater than that for Ca2+. E) The radius of Ba2+ is smaller than the radius of Ba+. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

40) Choose the species from which one electron could most easily be removed. A) Cl B) K+ C) K

D) Ca+ E) Ar Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

41) Which comparison of ionization energies is correct? A) Cs > Na B) Na > Mg C) Ca > Mg D) Ca+ > Ca E) Ar > He Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

42) The first ionization potential for S is lower than the first ionization potential for P because: A) Hund's rule is violated B) P has a p3 configuration C) ionization potentials decrease across a representative period D) P is to the right of S on the periodic table E) P is below S on the periodic table Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

43) What is the relationship between ionization energy and atomic radii? A) Energy increases as radii increase. B) Energy is negative for all large radii. C) Energy decreases as radii decrease. D) Energy decreases as radii increase E) Energy increases as radii decrease Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

44) Which of the following elements is likely to have the largest second ionization energy? A) Na B) Mg C) Al D) Si Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

45) Which of the following has the smallest second ionization energy? A) Si B) Mg C) Al D) P Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

46) Which of the following reactions gives a positive value for the electron affinity? A) S-(g) + e- → S2-(g) B) O(g) + e- → O-(g) C) S(g) + e- → S-(g)

D) Br(g) + e- → Br-(g) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

47) Can alkali metal atoms form negative ions in the gaseous state? Explain. A) No, an electron cannot be added. B) No, only a liquid can be ionized. C) Yes, an electron can be added to a Li half-filled 2s orbital. D) Yes, an electron can be removed from a Li half-filled 2s orbital. E) No, the 2s orbital is completely filled. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

48) Why is the electron affinity so positive for the noble gas elements? A) The added electron would have to go into a new shell. B) The added electron would have to be added into the half-filled p subshell. C) The added electron would have to be added into the p subshell. D) The noble gas elements are diatomic elements. E) Electrons can't be added to gases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

49) Why is the electron affinity slightly positive for some of the group 2 elements? A) The added electron would have to go into a new shell. B) The added electron would have to be added into the half-filled p subshell. C) The added electron would have to be added into the p subshell. D) The groups 2 elements are diatomic elements. E) Electrons can't be added to metals. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

50) What is the general relationship between electron affinity and atomic radii for neutral atoms in their ground electronic states? A) Electron affinity becomes more negative as radii increases. B) Electron affinity becomes more negative as radii decreases. C) Electron affinity becomes positive as radii decreases. D) Electron affinity becomes positive as radii increases. E) The two quantities are unrelated. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

51) Which of the following species is diamagnetic? A) FB) C C) Al D) S-

E) Na Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

52) Which species is diamagnetic? A) atomic sodium B) atomic fluorine C) iron(III) ion D) calcium(II) ion E) cobalt(II) ion Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

53) Which of the following species is most likely to be diamagnetic? A) Fe B) I C) Mn+ D) W3+ E) Zn2+

Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

54) Which of the following has the greatest number of unpaired electrons? A) Cr2+ B) Ti3+ C) Co2+

D) Ni Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

55) List in order of increasing charge of the most common ion: S, Na, F, Ca, Al A) S2-, Na-, F+, Ca2+, Al3+ B) Ca2-, F-, Al+, Na2+, S3+ C) F2-, S-, Ca+, Al2+, Na3+ D) S2-, F-, Na+, Ca2+, Al3+ E) Al2-, Ca-, F+, Na2+, S3+ Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

56) The number of valence electrons for atomic potassium is ________. A) 1 B) 5 C) 6 D) 15 E) 19 Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

57) If the formula of an oxide is X2O3, what is the formula of the chloride of X? A) XCl B) X3Cl C) XCl3

D) XCl6 E) X2Cl3 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-2

58) List in order of increasing atomic size: F, Na, K, Mg, Ne. A) K < Mg < Ne < Na < F B) Ne < Mg < K < Na < F C) Ne < F < Mg < Na < K D) Mg < F < Ne < Na < K E) K < Na < Mg < F < Ne Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

59) Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius: Br, K, Fe, Cu, Bi? A) Br B) K C) Fe D) Cu E) Bi Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

60) List in order of increasing size: Cl-, Ar, K+, S2-, Ca2+. A) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- < S2B) S2- < Cl- < Ar < K+ < Ca2+ C) Ca2+ < S2- < K+ < Ar < ClD) Cl- < Ar < K+ < S2- < Ca2+ E) K+ < S2- < Ar < Cl- < Ca2+ Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

61) List in order of increasing atomic size: Sr, Se, Cs, Ga, In. A) Se < Ga < In < Sr < Cs B) Ga < In < Se < Cs < Sr C) Sr < In < Ga < Se < Cs D) In < Ga < Cs < Se < Sr E) Cs < Ga < Se < Sr < In Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

62) List in order of increasing size: K+, Se2-, Cl-, Na+, S2-. A) Cl- < S2- < K+ < Na+ < Se2B) Na+ < K+ < Cl- < S2- < Se2C) S2- < Na+ < Cl- < Se2- < K+

D) Cl- < Se2- < K+ < Na+ < S2E) K+ < Na+ < Cl- < Se2- < S2Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

63) Which main group atom or ion should be included in the following list? Br-, Se2-, Kr, Sr2+ A) As3B) Ar C) K+

D) S2Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

64) List in order of increasing ionization energy: Na, K, F, Mg, Ne. A) Na < K < F < Ne < Mg B) K < Na < Mg < F < Ne C) Ne < Mg < F < K < Na D) F < Mg < Ne < K < Na E) Ne < Na < Mg < F < K Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

65) The energy difference between atomic cesium and its most stable ion, in the gaseous state, is referred to as ________. A) atomic energy B) electron affinity C) entropy of vaporization D) ionization energy E) magnetic moment Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

66) Which of the following has the highest first ionization potential: K, Ge, Kr, Ca, Br? A) K B) Ge C) Kr D) Ca E) Br Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

67) Which of the following has the highest first ionization potential: Sb, I, In, Xe, Rb? A) Sb B) I C) In D) Xe E) Rb Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

68) Which of the following has the smallest value of the first ionization energy: Ar, Cs, N, Cu, Rb? A) Ar B) Cs C) N D) Cu E) Rb Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

69) List in order of increasing ionization potential: O, Mg, Rb, S, Si. A) Si < O < Mg < Rb < S B) Si < S < Rb < Mg < O C) Mg < O < Rb < S < Si D) Rb < Mg < Si < S < O E) S < Si < Mg < O < Rb Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

70) Arrange the following in order of increasing ionization energy: Li, Cs, K. A) K < Li < Cs B) Cs < K < Li C) Li < Cs < K D) Cs < Li < K E) K < Cs < Li Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

71) Arrange the following elements in order of increasing ionization energy: Cs, Sc, Mn. A) Sc < Mn < Cs B) Sc < Cs < Mn C) Cs < Mn < Sc D) Cs < Sc < Mn E) Mn < Cs < Sc Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

72) How much energy, in joules, must be absorbed to convert all the atoms present in 1.00 mg of gaseous Na into Na+? The first ionization energy of Na is 495.8 kJ/mol. A) 21.6 J B) 0.0464 J C) 46.4 J D) 0.0216 J

E) 1.14 × 104 J Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-4

73) List in order of more negative electron affinity: F, Br, Sb, Rb, Se. (more positive → more negative) A) Br < Se < Sb < Rb < F B) Se < Rb < Sb < Br < F C) Sb < Br < Rb < Se < F D) Br < F < Rb < Sb < Se E) Rb < Sb < Se < Br < F Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

74) Which of the following has the most negative electron affinity: Li, Be, N, O, F? A) Li B) Be C) N D) O E) F Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-5

75) Choose the paramagnetic atom or ion: Ca, Ne, Sc3+, Cl-, Na. A) Ca B) Ne C) Sc3+ D) ClE) Na Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

76) Which of the following has the most unpaired electrons: Na, Mn2+, S, N, Ar? A) Na B) Mn2+ C) S D) N E) Ar Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

77) Choose the paramagnetic atom or ion: Zn, Zn2+, Mn2+, Ar, Al3+. A) Zn B) Zn2+ C) Mn2+ D) Ar E) Al3+

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

78) List in order of increasing number of unpaired electrons: N, Na, Si, Cr, Ar. A) Cr < Si < Na < N < Ar B) Ar < Cr < N < Na < Si C) Ar < Cr < Si < Na < N D) N < Na < Cr < Si < Ar E) Ar < Na < Si < N < Cr Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

79) Which of the following has the largest number of unpaired electrons: S, Cr2+, N, K, Ne? A) S B) Cr2+ C) N D) K E) Ne Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-6

80) Which 1+ ion is isoelectronic with S2-? Answer: K+ Diff: 2 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 9-3

81) Of the following, which atom has the largest atomic radius? A) Rb B) I C) Cs D) At Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

82) Of the following, which atom has the smallest atomic radius? A) K B) As C) Rb D) Sb Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

83) Which atom in each group (I and II) has the smallest atomic radius? (I) Ba, Hf, At A) Ba; As B) Ba; Bi C) At; As D) At; Bi Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

(II) As, Sb, Bi

Var: 5

84) Of the following, which element has the highest first ionization energy? A) beryllium B) boron C) carbon D) lithium Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

85) Of the following, which element has the highest first ionization energy? A) Al B) Cl C) Na D) P Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

86) Of the following, which element has the highest first ionization energy? A) magnesium B) potassium C) aluminum D) sodium Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

87) Of the following, which element has the highest first ionization energy? A) Sr B) Rb C) Na D) Ca Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

88) Of the following, which element has the highest first ionization energy? A) Sr B) Br C) K D) Te Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

89) Which ionization process requires the most energy? A) W(g) → W+(g) + eB) W+(g) → W2+(g) + eC) W2+(g) → W3+(g) + eD) W3+(g) → W4+(g) + eAnswer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

90) Which ionization process requires the most energy? A) O(g) → O+(g) + eB) O+(g) → O2+(g) + eC) F(g) → F+(g) + eD) F+(g) → F2+(g) + eAnswer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

91) Which of the following species will have the highest ionization energy? A) K+ B) Ar C) Cl-

D) S2Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

92) Which of the following represents the change in electronic configuration that is associated with the first ionization energy of strontium? A) [Kr]5s15p1 → [Kr]5s1 + eB) [Kr]5s2 → [Kr]5s15p1 C) [Kr]5s2 → [Kr]5s1 + eD) [Kr]5s2 + e- → [Kr]5s25p1 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

93) Which element has the highest first electron affinity? A) Na B) Mg C) O D) Ne Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 10 Chemical Bonding I: Basic Concepts 1) A Lewis structure is a combination of Lewis symbols representing either the transfer or the sharing of electrons in a chemical bond. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

2) Covalent bonds are formed by atoms sharing electrons. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

3) The core electrons are called valence electrons. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

4) A chemical bond for which one of the bonded atoms provides both electrons for the bond is referred to as a coordinate covalent bond. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-2

5) Polar bonds are caused by the bonding pair of electrons being attracted more to one atom than the other. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

6) Bonds between identical atoms are nonpolar bonds. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

7) In a Lewis structure, a terminal atom is bonded to two or more atoms. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

8) In a Lewis structure, usually each atom acquires an outer-shell octet of electrons; H has 2 outer shell electrons. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

9) In a Lewis structure, the central atom is typically the atom with the highest electronegativity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-5

10) In a Lewis structure, the number of valence electrons shown is one less for each negative charge. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-5

11) Valence electrons are: A) all electrons of the last noble gas configuration B) electrons in filled orbits C) electrons in the shell of the highest principal quantum number D) unpaired electrons E) paired electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The core electrons are called valence electrons. B) Ionic bonds are formed by the attraction between cations and anions. C) Ionic bonds are formed from atoms by a transfer of electrons. D) Covalent bonds are formed by atoms sharing electrons. E) An octet is 8 outer-shell electrons. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

13) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A Lewis symbol consists of a chemical symbol and the outer shell electrons. B) In a Lewis symbol, the chemical symbol represents the nucleus of the atom. C) A Lewis structure is a combination of Lewis symbols that represent the transfer or sharing of electrons in a chemical bond. D) An ion written as a Lewis symbol has brackets outside the electrons. E) An ion written as a Lewis symbol has the charge written as a superscript outside the closing bracket. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) In a Lewis structure, a covalent bond can be represented by a pair of electrons or a dash. B) Pairs of electrons not involved in bonding are called lone pairs. C) A molecule comprised of two atoms is called a diatomic molecule. D) Two electrons involved in a bond produce a double bond. E) Three electron pairs involved in a bond produce a triple bond. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-2

15) A chemical bond for which one of the bonded atoms provides both electrons for the bond is referred to as a: A) double covalent bond B) coordinate covalent bond C) formal covalent bond D) free radical bond E) VSEPR bond Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

16) In which of the following molecules would you expect the nitrogen-to-nitrogen bond to be the shortest? A) N2H4 B) N2 C) N2O4 D) N2O E) NH3 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-2

17) Which of the following species contains a triple bond? A) NH3 B) HCCl3 C) NO3D) CO32E) CNAnswer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-2

18) Which of the following is least likely to form multiple bonds? A) phosphorus B) oxygen C) nitrogen D) carbon E) barium Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-2

19) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Bonds between like atoms are nonpolar bonds. B) Polar bonds are caused by the bonding pair of electrons being attracted more to one atom than the other. C) Electronegativity is the ability of an atom to attract electrons when involved in a bond. D) A difference in electronegativity between two atoms causes a polar bond to be formed. E) If the difference in electronegativity between two atoms value is large the bond is polar covalent. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

20) Which chloride should have the greatest covalent character? A) NaCl B) BeCl2 C) KCl D) BaCl2 E) CaCl2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

21) Which of the following exhibits covalent bonding? A) NaF B) SrO C) LiH D) OF2 E) K2S Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

22) Which of the following exhibits ionic bonding? A) C2H6 B) Na2S C) H2CO D) SiCl4 E) SF4 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

23) Which of the following would be properly classified as a set of covalent molecules? A) NaClO4, C4H10, NH3 B) NaCl, CH4, S8

C) CO2, HCN, O2

D) CO2, NH4Cl, C2H6 E) AgCl, ScF3, P4 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

24) Which of the following bonds is probably the most polar? A) N—H in NH3 B) O—H in H2O C) P—H in PH3

D) Se—H in SeH2 E) C—H in CH4 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

25) With the representations of "I" for ionic bond, "PC" for polar covalent bond, and "NP" for nonpolar covalent bond, which of the following descriptive combinations is correct? A) CsF/PC B) F2/I C) NO/NP D) HCl/PC E) BrCl/NP Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

26) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) In a Lewis structure, a terminal atom is bonded to two or more atoms. B) In a Lewis structure all valence electrons must appear. C) In a Lewis structure, usually all electrons are paired. D) In a Lewis structure, usually each atom acquires an outer-shell octet of electrons; H has 2 outer shell electrons. E) In Lewis structures, most multiple covalent bonds are formed by C, N, O, P, and S. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

27) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of HCN, pick the INCORRECT statement from the following. A) The C-N bond is a double bond. B) There are no lone pairs on C. C) The C-H bond is a single bond. D) There is a lone pair of electrons on N. E) There are no lone pairs on H. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

28) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of HCOOH, pick the INCORRECT statement from the following. A) The oxygen not bonded to hydrogen has a double bond to carbon. B) The carbon has a lone pair. C) Both oxygens have two lone pairs. D) The O-H bond is a single bond. E) The C-H bond is a single bond. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

29) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of HOClO2, pick the INCORRECT statement of the following. A) The oxygen bonded to the hydrogen has two lone pairs. B) The oxygens not bonded to hydrogen have two lone pairs. C) The O—Cl bonds are all double bonds. D) The H—O bond is a single bond. E) Chlorine has an expanded octet. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

30) After drawing the Lewis dot structure of CH2CCl2, pick the INCORRECT statement of the following. A) The C—C bond is a double bond. B) The H—C bonds are single bonds. C) The Cl—C bonds are single bonds. D) Each carbon has a lone pair. E) Each chlorine has three lone pairs. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

31) As indicated by Lewis structures, which of the following molecules would probably be unstable? A) NH3 B) N2H6 C) SF4

D) CH2F2 E) SiH4 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

32) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) In a Lewis structure, the number of valence electrons shown is one more for each negative charge. B) The central atom is typically the atom with the highest electronegativity. C) One atom supplies both electrons for a coordinate covalent bond. D) Formal charges are apparent charges associated with atoms in a Lewis structure. E) Resonance is when more than one plausible structure can be written but the "correct" structure cannot be written. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

33) Which of the following species exhibits resonance? A) OF2 B) ClO3C) N2

D) PCl5 E) BrF3 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-5

34) Based on the Lewis structures, which of the following molecules would you expect to exhibit resonance? A) LiH B) CH4 C) HNO2 D) OF2 E) none of these Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-5

35) Which of the following species is best represented by a resonance hybrid having two contributing structures? A) nitric acid B) nitrous acid C) nitride ion D) nitrate ion E) nitrogen Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-5

36) An expanded octet may occur: A) in the 1st and 2nd period only B) in families IA, IIA, and IIIA only C) anywhere except period 1 and 2 D) in all families except IA E) in the 3rd and 4th period only Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

37) Which of the following is diamagnetic? A) N2 B) O2-

C) SO2+ D) O2

E) NO2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

38) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Molecules with all paired electrons are diamagnetic. B) Highly reactive molecular fragments with unpaired electrons are free radicals. C) An expanded octet has larger electron clouds. D) Electron pairs repel each other. E) VSEPR stands for valence-shell electron pair repulsion. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

39) Which of the following is diamagnetic? A) ClO2 B) NO C) CO D) NO2 E) CH3

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

40) Which of the following must be paramagnetic? A) F2 B) N2 C) SO2+ D) H2

E) ClO2Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

41) Which of the following has a molecular structure best described as involving an "incomplete octet"? A) OF2 B) BF3

C) CF4 D) NF3 E) F2

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

42) Which of the following has a molecular structure that can be represented without use of an "expanded octet"? A) Fe(CN)63B) C2Cl6 C) SF6

D) PF5 E) PtCl5Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

43) Which of the following statements correctly describe the basic concepts and uses of VSEPR theory: I) The VSEPR theory is used for estimating bond angles. II) The VSEPR theory is used for predicting electronegativities. III) The VSEPR theory is helpful in predicting polarity. IV) The VSEPR theory states that electron pairs repel each other. V) The VSEPR theory uses valence electron counting for structure prediction. A) I), II), III), IV) B) I), II), IV), V) C) I), II), III), V) D) II), III), IV), V) E) I), III), IV), V) Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

44) Choose the correct statement about the compound SO2. A) The S atom has an unshared electron pair. B) The S—O bonds are ionic in character. C) The two S—O bonds have different lengths since one is a single bond and the other a double bond. D) The molecule has a linear structure. E) The O atoms have no unshared electron pairs. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

45) Which of the following molecules is nonpolar? A) HCN B) CHCl3 C) H2O D) HClO4 E) BCl3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

46) Which of the following molecules is polar? A) NBr3 B) CH4 C) CS2 D) NH4+ E) PCl5

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

47) Which of the following is a bent (nonlinear) molecule? A) CO2 B) CS2

C) BeF2 D) OF2

E) XeF2 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

48) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Molecules with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic. B) The bond order describes whether a covalent bond is single, double or triple. C) A larger bond order means a shorter bond length. D) Polar covalent bonds involve equal sharing of electrons in a bond. E) Bonds between like atoms share electrons equally. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

49) Which of the following species has a trigonal pyramidal structure? A) ClO3B) ClO4-

C) ClO2D) ClO2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

50) Which of the following sets contains only linear molecules? A) CO2, HCN, O2 B) H2S, HCN, CO2 C) H2O, CO, Cl2

D) H2S, CO, CO2 E) BF3, Cl2, O2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

51) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The geometrical distribution of electron groups is the electron-group geometry. B) The geometrical arrangement of the atomic nuclei is the molecular geometry. C) A polar molecule has a dipole moment. D) A dipole moment is the product of the number of atoms and the charge. E) A nonpolar molecule can have polar bonds. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

52) Choose the groups of molecules below in which all the molecules have a net dipole moment. A) SiHCl3, O2, H2O B) HF, H2C=CH2, H2O C) HF, CH3Cl, H2O D) CCl4, HCl, NH3 E) HF, H2O, N2 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

53) Which of the following molecules has both an electron group geometry and a molecular geometry described as trigonal planar? A) SiH4 B) PF3

C) OF2 D) CHF3 E) BF3

Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

54) Which of the following molecules contains polar bonds but has a zero dipole moment? A) N2 B) NH3 C) CO2

D) CH3Cl E) BrCl Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

55) Which compound would be expected to have the shortest carbon-carbon bond? A) H3CCH3 B) HCCH C) H2CCH2 D) F3CCF3

E) Cl2CCCl2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-8

56) Which compound would be expected to have the shortest nitrogen-nitrogen bond? A) H2NNH2 B) HNNH C) N2 D) O2NNO2

E) (CH3)2NNH2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-8

57) Given the bond enthalpies C—C (348), C O (707), O O (498), H—O (464), C—H (414) all in kJ/mol, compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for the complete combustion of C7H16. A) -3.13 × 103 kJ/mol B) -2.93 × 103 kJ/mol C) -2.57 × 103 kJ/mol D) -2.43 × 103 kJ/mol E) +2.57 × 103 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

58) How many "dots" should be shown in the Lewis symbol for phosphorus? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

59) How many "dots" should be shown for the oxygen symbol in lithium oxide? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

60) Write a Lewis structure for BaO. A)

D) [Ba—O] E) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

61) Write a Lewis structure for sodium iodide. A)

D) Na—I E) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

62) Write a Lewis structure for calcium hydride. A)

D) H—Ca—H E) Ca—H Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

63) Write a Lewis structure for potassium oxide. A)

B) K—O C) K—O—K D)

E) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

64) Write a Lewis structure for barium fluoride. A)

B) F—Ba—F C)

E) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-1

65) How many bond pairs ("bp") and how many lone pairs ("lp") should be shown in the Lewis structure for carbon monoxide? A) 1 bp/4 lp B) 2 bp/3 lp C) 3 bp/2 lp D) 4 bp/1 lp E) 5 bp/0 lp Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-2

66) Arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Cs, F, As, Cl. A) As < Cl < Cs < F B) Cl < As < F < Cs C) As < F < Cs < Cl D) Cl < Cs < F < As E) Cs < As < Cl < F Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-3

67) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for PCl3, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 1 B) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 C) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 2 D) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 E) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

68) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for CO2, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 0 B) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 2 C) single bond(s) = 0, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 0 D) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 E) single bond(s) = 0, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

69) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for CH3Cl, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 B) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 C) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 D) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 E) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

70) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for CH2O, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 1, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 0 B) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 1 C) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 D) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 E) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

71) What is the formal charge on B in BF4-? A) +1 B) -1 C) +2 D) 0 E) -2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

72) What is the formal charge on N in NO3-? A) +2 B) -2 C) +1 D) -1 E) 0 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

73) What is the formal charge on P in PCl5? A) +5 B) +2 C) +1 D) 0 E) -1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

74) What is the formal charge on carbon in the bicarbonate ion HOCO2-? A) +2 B) -2 C) +1 D) -1 E) 0 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-4

75) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for BeCl2, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 B) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 2 C) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 D) single bond(s) = 0, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 0 E) single bond(s) = 1, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

76) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for XeCl4, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 B) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 2 C) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 D) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 1, lone pair(s) = 0 E) single bond(s) = 1, double bond(s) = 3, lone pair(s) = 0 Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

77) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for XeCl2, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 2 B) single bond(s) = 0, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 0 C) single bond(s) = 0, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 1 D) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 3 E) single bond(s) = 2, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

78) After drawing the Lewis dot structure for IF7, determine the number of single bond(s), double bond(s), and lone pair(s) on the central atom. A) single bond(s) = 3, double bond(s) = 2, lone pair(s) = 1 B) single bond(s) = 7, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 1 C) single bond(s) = 7, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 D) single bond(s) = 1, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 E) single bond(s) = 4, double bond(s) = 0, lone pair(s) = 0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-6

79) The electron-group geometry of H2O is ________. A) tetrahedral B) linear C) trigonal planar D) bent E) V-shaped Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

80) What is the molecular shape of BrF5? A) linear B) square pyramidal C) square planar D) octahedral E) trigonal bipyramidal Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

81) What is the correct molecular geometry for SeBr3+? A) trigonal pyramidal B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) bent E) T-shaped Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-7

82) What is the correct molecular geometry for the carbon atom in urea (NH2)2CO? A) Tetrahedral B) T-Shaped C) Trigonal planar D) Trigonal pyramidal E) Trigonal bipyramidal Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

83) What is the correct molecular geometry for each silicon atom in disilane Si2H6? A) Tetrahedral B) Square planar C) Octahedral D) Linear E) Bent Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-7

84) Given the following bond lengths in pm: N—N, 145; N N, 123; Br—Br, 228 What is the best estimate of the N—Br bond length in NBr3 in pm? A) 373 pm B) 125 pm C) 351 pm D) 216 pm E) 561 pm Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-8

85) Given the following bond lengths in pm: C—C, 154; C C, 134; Cl—Cl, 199 What is the best estimate of the C—Cl bond length in CCl4 in pm? A) 353 pm B) 706 pm C) 167 pm D) 333 pm E) 177 pm Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-8

86) What is the bond order for the carbon-oxygen bond in formaldehyde (CH2O), which has no O—H bonds? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-8

87) Given the listed bond lengths, what would be the most reasonable estimate for the carbon-oxygen bond length in carbon dioxide? C—C/154 pm

C C/120 pm

C—O/143 pm O—O/145 pm O O/121 pm

A) ca. 120 pm B) ca. 130 pm C) ca. 140 pm D) ca. 150 pm E) > 150 pm Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-8

88) Given the bond enthalpies N—H (389), Cl—Cl (243), N—Cl (201), and H—Cl (431) in kJ/mol, compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for: NH3(g) + Cl2(g) → NH2Cl + HCl(g). A) -393 kJ/mol B) -1100 kJ/mol C) +71 kJ/mol D) +393 kJ/mol E) 0 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

89) Given the bond enthalpies I—Cl (209), H—H (435), H—I (297), and H—Cl (431) in kJ/mol, compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for: ICl3(g) + 2 H2(g) → HI(g) + 3 HCl(g). A) +264 kJ/mol B) -84 kJ/mol C) -93 kJ/mol D) -523 kJ/mol E) +84 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

90) Given the bond enthalpies Cl—Cl (243), C—Cl (339), H—Cl (431),C—H (414) all in kJ/mol, estimate ΔH° for the following reaction: CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g). A) -113 kJ/mol B) -356 kJ/mol C) 301 kJ/mol D) -1427 kJ/mol E) -30 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

91) Given the bond enthalpies C C (611), C C (837), H—H (436),C—H (414) all in kJ/mol, estimate ΔH° for the following reaction: C2H2(g) + H2(g) → C2H4(g). A) -60 kJ/mol B) -166 kJ/mol C) -994 kJ/mol D) +166 kJ/mol E) 98 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

92) Compound EX4 reacts with Y2 giving two products: EX3Y and XY. Calculate the E-X bond enthalpy if the reaction liberates 243.6 kJ/mol and other bond enthalpies are: Y-Y 109 kJ/mol, X-Y 123.1 kJ/mol and EY 290 kJ/mol. A) 60.5 kJ/mol B) 547.7 kJ/mol C) 20.6 kJ/mol D) 234.7 kJ/mol E) 176.9 kJ/mol Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

93) Given the bond enthalpies N N (946), H—H (436), H—N (389), all in kJ/mol, estimate ΔH° for the following reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2NH3(g). A) -215 kJ/mol B) -863 kJ/mol C) -80 kJ/mol D) 568 kJ/mol E) -1476 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

94) Given the bond enthalpies H—O (464), Cl—Cl (243), Cl—O (205), and H—Cl (431) in kJ/mol, compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for: H2O(g) + Cl2(g) → HOCl(g) + HCl(g). A) -393 kJ/mol B) -1100 kJ/mol C) +71 kJ/mol D) +393 kJ/mol E) +1100 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

95) Given the bond enthalpies C—O (360), C O (707), O O (498), H—O (464), C—H (414), all in kJ/mol, estimate ΔH° for the following reaction: CH3OCH3(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g). A) -2332 kJ/mol B) -242 kJ/mol C) 870 kJ/mol D) -2106 kJ/mol E) -914 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

96) Given the bond enthalpies C O (707), O O (498), H—O (464), and C—H (414) in kJ/mol, compute ΔH° in kJ/mol for: CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g). A) +618 kJ/mol B) +259 kJ/mol C) -519 kJ/mol D) -618 kJ/mol E) -259 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

97) Given the listed average bond energies, calculate the enthalpy change for the production of methanol by the reaction: CO2(g) + 3 H2(g) → CH3OH(g) + H2O(g) C—O(360 kJ/mol) H—O(464 kJ/mol) A) +214 kJ B) +639 kJ C) 0 kJ D) -214 kJ E) -108 kJ Answer: D

C O(736 kJ/mol) H—C(414 kJ/mol)

H—H(436 kJ/mol)

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 10-9

98) Of the following elements, which has the highest electronegativity? A) S B) Cl C) Ti D) Se Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

99) Of the following elements, which has the lowest electronegativity? A) Sr B) I C) Ba D) At Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

100) The electronegativity is 2.1 for H and 1.9 for Pb. Based on these electronegativities, PbH4 would be expected to:

A) be ionic and contain H- ions B) be ionic and contain H+ ions

C) have polar covalent bonds with a partial negative charge on the H atoms D) have polar covalent bonds with a partial positive charge on the H atoms Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

101) The compound ClF contains: A) ionic bonds B) nonpolar covalent bonds C) polar covalent bonds with partial negative charges on the F atoms D) polar covalent bonds with partial negative charges on the Cl atoms Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) The phosphorus atom in PCl3 would be expected to have a: A) partial positive (δ+) charge B) partial negative (δ-) charge C) 3+ formal charge D) 3- formal charge Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) The iodine atom in I2 would be expected to have a: A) formal charge of 1B) partial charge δC) partial charge δ+ D) formal charge of 0 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) In the best Lewis structure for CN-, what is the formal charge on the N atom? A) -1 B) 0 C) +1 D) +2 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) How many lone pairs of electrons are on the As atom in AsCl3? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) How many lone pairs of electrons are on the S atom in SF4? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) How many lone pairs are on the Br atom in BrCl2-? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 11 Chemical Bonding II: Valence Bond and Molecular Orbital Theories 1) The valence-bond method describes covalent bonding as the overlap of partially filled orbitals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-2

2) The valence-bond method provides energy information about molecules. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-2

3) A double bond is two sigma bonds. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

4) A triple bond is two sigma bonds and one pi bond. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

5) Molecular orbitals can be formed by adding and subtracting atomic orbitals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

6) Unhybridized p orbitals must be present for electron delocalization to occur. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

7) Resonance structures and delocalized orbitals are different ways to describe the same bonding. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

8) The description of covalent bond formation as a region of high electronic charge density resulting from overlap of atomic orbitals between the two bonded atoms is referred to as: A) atomic orbital theory B) the electron-sea model C) hybridization theory D) valence-bond method E) VSEPR method Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-2

9) Which of the following statements concerning the carbon dioxide molecule is correct? A) The molecule contains two lone pairs of valence electrons. B) The molecule contains two σ bonds. C) The molecule contains four π bonds. D) The carbon is described by sp2 hybridization. E) Each oxygen is described by sp3 hybridization. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

10) Which statement regarding VB theory is INCORRECT? A) d orbitals are not included in hybrid orbitals. B) Hybrid orbitals use atomic orbitals from the outermost shell. C) Sigma bonds are formed by the end-to-end overlap of orbital lobes. D) Pi bonds are overlaps of parallel p orbitals. E) A double bond is a sigma bond and a pi bond. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

11) According to the principles of VSEPR applied on ICl5, which of the following is INCORRECT? A) VSEPR formula = AX5E

B) molecular geometry = square pyramidal C) hybridization = sp3d D) electron-group geometry = octahedral E) one lone pair and 5 bonding pairs Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

12) According to principles of VSEPR theory applied on AsCl52-, which of the following is INCORRECT? A) VSEPR formula = AX5E B) molecular geometry = square planar C) electron-group geometry = octahedral D) hybridization = sp3d2 E) one lone pair and 5 bonding pairs Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

13) Which statement is INCORRECT? A) The bond length is the internuclear distance. B) The covalent bond is a region of high electron charge density between two atoms. C) Hybrid orbitals are combinations of atomic orbitals. D) There are the same number of hybrid orbitals produced as the number of atomic orbitals combined. E) An sp hybridization produces a tetrahedral molecule. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

14) Which statement is correct for the structure shown?

A) Carbon no. 1 is described by sp3 hybridization. B) The molecule contains 19 σ bonds. C) Carbon no. 2 is described by sp2 hybridization. D) The molecule contains a total of five π bonds. E) Carbon no. 7 is described by sp hybridization. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

15) Which of the pairs of molecules below have the same hybridization on the central atom? (The central atom is underlined.) A) HOCl, ClF3 B) H2O, HNO C) HCN, CO2

D) BeH2, NH3

E) H3COH, CH2O Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

16) Which statement is correct for the structure shown?

A) The molecule contains a total of 16 σ bonds. B) Carbon no. 1 is described by sp hybridization. C) The molecule contains a total of four π bonds. D) Carbon no. 3 is described by sp3 hybridization.

E) The molecule contains a delocalized π bond system. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

17) Which combination of hybrid orbital descriptions and electron-group geometry descriptions is INCORRECT? A) sp/linear B) sp2/trigonal planar C) sp3/tetrahedral D) sp3d/square planar E) sp3d2/octahedral Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

18) Which hybrid orbitals are impossible in electrically neutral molecules containing only the elements shown? A) sp3/Al and H B) sp2/B and F C) sp/C and H D) sp2/N and O E) sp3/O and F Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

19) Three of the molecular shapes which a sp3d hybridized molecule can have are: A) triangular, trigonal bipyramid, linear B) linear, square planar, T-shaped C) irregular tetrahedron, T-shaped, bent D) T-shaped, linear, trigonal bipyramid E) linear, tetragonal pyramid, octahedral Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

20) For BeCl2, the dipole moment of the molecule, hybridization on the central atom, and number of lone pairs on the central atom, respectively, are: A) toward Be, sp2, none B) away from Be, sp2, one C) none, sp, none D) toward Be, sp, one E) none, sp3, two Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

21) For the molecule

A) the hybridization for C is sp3 B) the hybridization for N is sp2

C) the hybridization for O is sp3 D) N is not hybridized E) the hybridization for C is sp2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

22) Which of the pairs of molecules below have the same hybridization on the central atom? (The central atom is underlined in each molecule.) A) CO2, CH4 B) H2CO, BeH2 C) BCl3, HNO D) H2O, HF

E) NH3, HNO Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

23) Find the correct statements about the bonding in methane, CH4. I) The carbon s and p orbitals combine to form four equivalent sp3 orbitals II) All C-H bonds have the same strength III) Molecular geometry is different from electron group geometry IV) Four C sp3 orbitals combine with the s orbitals of the hydrogens to form bonds A) I), II), III) B) I), II), IV) C) II), III), IV) D) I), III) IV) E) I), II) Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

24) Choose the INCORRECT statement about PCl5. A) There are no π bonds. B) P has one lone pair. C) P has sp3d hybridization. D) Each Cl has 3 lone pairs. E) There are 5 σ bonds. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

25) Choose the INCORRECT statement about HCN. A) There are two π bonds. B) There are two σ bonds. C) N has a lone pair. D) The molecule is bent. E) C has sp hybridization. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

26) Choose the INCORRECT statement about

A) There are no π bonds. B) There are two σ bonds. C) N is sp3 hybridization.

D) The molecule is bent. E) There is one lone pair on N. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

27) Which of the following carbon molecules has sp hybridization? A) CH4 B) C2H2

C) Cl2CS D) E) CO2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

28) Choose the INCORRECT statement about SnCl2. A) The hybridization of Sn is sp2. B) The molecule is linear. C) There is one lone pair of electrons on Sn. D) There are no π bonds. E) There are two σ bonds. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

29) For the molecule H —

—

—H

A) the geometry about O is linear B) the hybridization on O is sp C) O is not hybridized D) both carbons are sp2 hybridized

E) there are two π bonds between the two carbons Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

30) Which statement regarding VB theory is INCORRECT? A) A single bond is a sigma bond. B) A triple bond is two sigma bonds and a pi bond. C) A double bond requires each atom to have an unhybridized p orbital. D) Both atoms in a triple bond have linear geometry. E) sp3 hybridization produces tetrahedral geometry. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

31) According to VB theory, sigma bonds are: A) always present in double bonds B) formed only by p orbitals C) formed only by hybrid orbitals D) formed only by s orbitals E) formed only by unhybridized orbitals Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

32) π bonds: A) are the only kind of bonds present in double bonds B) have very little electron density along the internuclear axis C) are formed by endwise overlap of p orbits D) are formed from hybrid orbitals E) are formed from s orbitals Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

33) A σ bond: A) can only be formed by s orbitals B) is weaker than a pi bond C) has high electron probability along the axis between atoms D) cannot be formed by two p orbitals E) is formed through side-on overlap of two atomic orbitals Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

34) The double covalent bond between two carbon atoms in ethylene (C2H4): A) is free to rotate because of delocalized electrons B) is a sigma bond C) consists of one sigma and one pi bond D) has a low electron density E) includes a "lone pair" of electrons on one of the carbons Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

35) Choose the INCORRECT statement about H3O+. A) There is one π bond. B) There are 3 σ bonds. C) There is one lone pair of electrons on O. D) The hybridization on O is sp3. E) The OH bonds are O(sp3) - H(1s). Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

36) A pi bond is: A) formed from two s orbitals B) formed from two p orbitals C) formed from hybridized orbitals D) formed from one s and one p orbital E) stronger than a sigma bond Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

37) According to VB theory, a double bond that results from the sharing of four electrons consists of: A) 2 sigma bonds B) one sigma and one pi bond C) one sigma bond D) two pi bonds E) one sigma bond and one coordinate bond Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

38) Choose the INCORRECT statement about NH4+. A) The hybridization of N is sp3. B) The molecule is tetrahedral. C) There is one lone pair of electrons on N. D) There are no π bonds. E) There are four σ bonds. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

39) Choose the INCORRECT statement about AsF6-. A) The hybridization is sp3d2. B) The molecule is octahedral. C) There are no π bonds. D) There is one lone pair of electrons. E) There are six σ bonds. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

40) Choose the INCORRECT statement about CO2. A) There are two π bonds. B) There are two σ bonds. C) C has one lone pair. D) The hybridization on C is sp. E) The molecule is linear. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

41) Choose the INCORRECT statement about NO2+. A) There is one π bond. B) There are two σ bonds. C) The hybridization is sp. D) There are no lone pairs on N. E) There are two lone pairs on each O. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

42) The structure of aspirin is given below. (Note that lone pairs of electrons are not shown.)

Which set of hybrid orbitals best describes the O-C bond, labeled "a," "b," in aspirin? A) sp3-sp2 B) sp3-sp3 C) sp2-sp2 D) sp-sp2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

43) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) A double bond is stronger than a single bond for the same atoms. B) A double bond is less than twice as strong as a single bond for the same atoms. C) Bonded atoms cannot rotate freely around a double bond. D) Molecular geometry depends on the σ bond framework. E) There are no hybridized orbitals in multiple bonds. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

44) According to the molecular orbital (MO) theory, when two oxygen atoms bond together, their 2p orbitals combine to form: A) two sigma molecular orbitals (MOs) and four pi MOs B) two sigma MOs and two pi MOs C) four pi MOs only D) one sigma and one pi MO E) a delocalized set of MO Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

45) Which statement is INCORRECT about molecular orbital theory? A) The number of molecular orbitals produced is equal to the number of atomic orbitals combined. B) Each pair of sigma molecular orbitals is a bonding orbital and an antibonding orbital. C) The antibonding orbital is at a lower energy than the bonding orbital. D) The bond order (BO) is

E) Hund's rule says that each orbital of identical energy has one electron before pairs are formed. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

46) According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, which statement below is true? A) A molecule with an even number of electrons must be diamagnetic. B) There are as many sigma bonds as pi bonds in a molecule. C) There are as many molecular orbitals as there are atomic orbitals. D) There are as many bonding as antibonding electrons in a molecule. E) All molecules contain pi bonds. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

47) According to MO theory, assuming that the molecular orbitals are the same as a diatomic molecule, which is an INCORRECT statement for CN-? A) The BO is 2. B) There are no unpaired electrons. C) The σ2p is the highest filled level.

D) The molecule is diamagnetic. E) There are 10 electrons in the n = 2 level orbitals. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

48) According to MO theory, which is an INCORRECT statement for

A) The B.O. is 1/2. B) There are no unpaired electrons. C) The σ1s* orbital has one electron. D) The molecule is paramagnetic. E) There are 3 electrons in the molecular orbitals. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

49) According to MO theory, which is the INCORRECT statement for

A) The BO is 2.5. B) There is one unpaired electron. C) The σ2p orbital has two electrons. D) The molecule is paramagnetic. E) There are 9 electrons in the molecular orbitals. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

50) According to MO theory, which is the INCORRECT statement for A) The BO is 2.5. B) There is one unpaired electron. C) The σ2p orbital has one electron in it. D) The molecule is diamagnetic. E) There are 9 electrons in the molecular orbitals. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

51) Which of the following species is paramagnetic? A) B2 B) C2

C) N2 D) CO Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

52) The concept of an anti-bonding orbital is unique to the: A) theory of bond hybridization B) valence bond theory C) molecular orbital theory D) concept of resonance E) electrostatic repulsion theory Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

53) According to MO theory, all of the following have a bond order of 2 EXCEPT: A) NO B) CN+ C) C2

D) O2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

54) Which of the following statements concerning molecular orbital (MO) theory is FALSE? A) The number of MOs formed equals the number of atomic orbitals combined. B) Any set of MOs from 2 atomic orbitals involves 1 bonding and 1 antibonding orbital. C) Electrons normally enter the lowest energy MO available to them. D) No more than two electrons can enter a particular MO. E) Electrons enter MOs of identical energies in pairs before any enter singly. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

55) Which of the following statements concerning the relative energy levels of molecular orbitals for the O2 molecule is INCORRECT? A) σ1s < σ1s* B) σ2s < σ2p

C) π2p < σ2p D) π2p* < σ2p* E) σ1s* < σ2s Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

56) The extra stability that a molecule gains due to electron delocalizations (the electrons being free to move throughout large parts of the molecule) is called: A) ionization energy B) lattice energy C) covalent strength D) resonance energy E) bond energy Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

57) Which of the following involves delocalized π bonds? A) acetylene (C2H2) B) benzene (C6H6)

C) carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)

D) dichlorodifluoromethane (CF2Cl2) E) ethylene (C2H4) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

58) If the HCOO- ion is described using delocalized electrons, why can the oxygen atoms not have sp3 hybrids? A) There must be an unhybridized p orbital to form the pi bond system. B) The s orbital must be unhybridized to form the pi bond system. C) There is no hybridization in systems with delocalized electrons. D) Molecular orbital theory does not include hybridization. E) The four lobes repel each other too strongly. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

59) How would replacing one of benzene's C atoms and the H atom attached to it with an N atom (C5H5N) affect the delocalized electrons? A) The molecule would not be stable. B) The N can have delocalized electrons like C. C) Only the five C atoms would be included in the delocalized electrons. D) There would be no delocalized electrons but a double bond between the N and a C. E) There would be no delocalized electrons but a double bond between the N and the C on each side of the N. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

60) Which of the following does NOT involve any delocalized π bonds? A) acetate ion B) carbonate ion C) nitric acid D) nitrous acid E) ozone Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

61) If the wave functions describing the 2s and two of the 2p orbitals are combined, the identical orbitals derived form bond angles of ________. A) 90° B) 120° C) 180° D) 109.5° E) 360° Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

62) The hybridization of N in NO2- is ________. A) sp B) sp2

C) sp3d D) sp3

E) sp3d2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

63) What are the ideal bond angles for H2O? A) 120° B) 109.5° C) 90° D) 180° E) 75° Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

64) The octahedral hybrid configuration is composed of which orbital combination? A) sp3d2 B) sp2d3 C) spd2 D) sp3d E) sp3

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

65) According to the valence bond theory, in the ion A) sp3 B) p C) sp2d

D) sp E) s Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

66) The geometry of sp2 hybridized orbitals is ________. A) linear B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) octahedral E) T-shaped Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

, nitrogen is using which orbitals for bonding?

67) The hybridization on Xe in XeF4 is ________. A) not hybridized B) sp3 C) sp3d D) sp3d2 E) sp2d Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

68) What is the hybridization of the S atom in SF4? A) sp3d B) sp3

C) sp3d2 D) spd2

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

69) What is the hybridization of the Xe atom in XeF2? A) sp3d B) sp C) sp3

D) sp2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

70) The three molecular shapes an sp3 hybridized molecule can have are ________. A) triangular, bent, T-shaped B) irregular tetrahedral, T-shaped, linear C) octahedral, square pyramidal, square planar D) tetrahedral, trigonal pyramidal, bent E) tetrahedral, T-shaped, bent Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

71) For XeF4, what are the dipole moment orientation, hybridization on the central atom, and the number of lone pairs, respectively, on the central atom? A) none, sp3d2, two B) none, sp3, none

C) away from one pair, sp3d, one D) toward one pair, sp3d, one E) toward Xe, sp3d2, one Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-3

72) The structure of aspirin is given below. (Note that lone pairs are not shown.)

What is the O-C-C bond angle, "x," in aspirin? A) ~120° B) ~109° C) ~90° D) ~180° Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

73) How many σ bonds and how many π bonds are present in the carbonic acid molecule, H2CO3? A) 2σ/4π B) 3σ/3π C) 4σ/2π D) 5σ/1π E) 6σ/0π Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

74) One resonance structure of N2O is

The hybridized atomic orbitals of the central nitrogen atom which are consistent with this structure are ________. A) four sp3 orbitals B) three sp2 orbitals and a p orbital C) two sp2 orbitals and two sp orbitals D) two sp orbitals and two p orbitals E) one sp orbital and two p orbitals Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-4

75) Which is the correct molecular orbital diagram for O2- ion? A) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓, ↑ B) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↑, ↑ C) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓ D) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2ss* ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ E) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2ss* ↑ σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

76) Which is the correct molecular orbital diagram for carbon monoxide? A) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ ↓ B) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ σ2p ↑ π2p* ↑

C) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑ ↓, σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓ D) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2p ↑, ↑, σ2p ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓ E) σ 2s ↑ ↓ σ 2s* ↑ ↓ π2pp ↑ ↓, ↑ ↓ π2p* ↑ ↓ Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-5

77) How many σ- and π-bonds, respectively, are there in phenylisothiocyanate, C6H5NCS? Ignore the C—H bonds in your counting. A) 9 and 5 B) 8 and 4 C) 5 and 5 D) 9 and 2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

78) How many π-electrons are there in S2O where S is the central atom? A) 4 B) 2 C) 6 D) 0 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

79) The HCOO- ion can be described by using delocalized electrons. What is the hybridization of the C atom? A) sp B) sp3 C) sp2d D) sp3d

E) sp2 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

80) What would be the hybridization of the N in the benzene-like molecule (C5H5N)? A) sp B) sp3

C) sp3d2 D) sp3d

E) sp2 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

81) What would be the bond order of the N-C bonds in the benzene-like molecule (C5H5N)? A) 0 B) 1 C) 1/2 D) 3/2 E) 2 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 11-6

82) What geometric arrangement of charge clouds is expected for an atom that has four charge clouds? A) trigonal bipyramidal B) octahedral C) tetrahedral D) square planar Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

83) What is the molecular geometry of ClF4 -? A) seesaw B) square planar C) square pyramidal D) tetrahedral Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

84) What is the molecular geometry of NCl3? A) T-shaped B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

85) What is the molecular geometry of SF5-? A) octahedral B) seesaw C) square pyramidal D) trigonal bipyramidal Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

86) Which of the following best describes ClF2-? It has a molecular geometry that is: A) linear with no lone pairs on the Cl atom B) linear with lone pairs on the Cl atom C) nonlinear with no lone pairs on the Cl atom D) nonlinear with lone pairs on the Cl atom Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

87) What is the molecular geometry of TeCl4? A) seesaw B) square planar C) square pyramidal D) tetrahedral Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

88) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-domain geometry of the central atom in SF6 is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 6

89) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in N2O is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 8

90) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in NO3- is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

91) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in NH4+ is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 6

92) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in H2Se is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 6

93) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in NCl3 is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) bent E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 7

94) Using the VSEPR model, the molecular geometry of the central atom in XeF4 is: A) tetrahedral B) seesaw C) square planar D) trigonal bipyramidal E) square pyramidal Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

95) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-group geometry of the central atom in BF3 is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 7

96) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-group geometry of the central atom in CF4 is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

97) Using the VSEPR model, the electron-group geometry of the central atom in SF4 is: A) linear B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) trigonal bipyramidal E) octahedral Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 8

98) What is the O-B-O bond angle in BO33-? A) less than 109.5° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) greater than 120° Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

99) What are the F-Po-F bond angles in PoF6 ? A) 60° B) 90° C) 109.5° D) 120° Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

100) The VSEPR model predicts the H—O—H bond angle in H3O+ to be: A) 60° B) 90° C) less than 109.5° but greater than 90° D) 109.5° Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

101) The orbital hybridization on the carbon atoms in C2H2 is: A) sp B) sp2

C) sp3 D) sp3d2

Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in NO3- is: A) sp B) C) D)

E) Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 7

103) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in NCl3 is: A) sp B) C) D)

E) Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 16

104) The hybrid orbital set used by the central atom in KrF2 is: A) sp B) C) D)

E) Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 8

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 12 Intermolecular Forces: Liquids and Solids 1) Van der Waals forces are a type of London force. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

2) H2NCH2CH2NH2 probably has a higher boiling point at 1.00 atm pressure than CH3CH2CH2NH2. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

3) The property of a liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called resistivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

4) Surface tension of a liquid is the work or energy required to increase the surface area of a liquid. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

5) The heat of deposition equals the negative of the heat of sublimation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

6) The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

7) The process in which a gas is transformed into a solid is called solidification. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

8) CH4 probably has a lower boiling point at 1 atm than SnH4. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

9) Consider a parallelepiped with all edges being equal in length. There is an atom at each corner and one in the center. This is a simple cubic cell. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

10) Consider a parallelepiped with all edges being equal in length. There is an atom at each corner and one at the center of each face. This is a face-centered cubic cell. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

11) Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true? A) Cohesive forces are not important. B) The molecules contract to fit the size of the container. C) The molecules have no motion. D) The molecules are in a patterned (oriented) arrangement. E) The molecules are mobile and relatively close together. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

12) Which probably has the lowest boiling point at 1.0 atm pressure? A) PbH4 B) SnH4 C) SiH4

D) GeH4 E) CH4 Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

13) Which probably has the lowest boiling point at 1.0 atm pressure? A) C2H6 B) C4H10

C) C6H14 D) C3H8 E) C5H12 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

14) If one compares compound A, composed of nonpolar molecules, with compound B, composed of polar molecules, and both molecules have the same molecular formula, then it is true that: A) both compounds have the same boiling point B) A boils at a lower temperature than B C) B will not boil D) B boils at a lower temperature than A E) we have to know the structural formula to determine the differences in boiling points of A and B Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

15) Below are given the Lewis structures of five molecules. Which one displays the LEAST hydrogen bonding? A)

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

16) Below are given the Lewis structures of five molecules. Which one displays the MOST hydrogen bonding? A)

E) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

17) Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? A) NH3 B) H2O C) HF D) CH4 E) HBr Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

18) Which probably has the highest boiling point at 1.00 atm pressure? A) H2NCH2CH2NH2 B) CH3CH2CH2NH2 C) (CH3)2CHNH2

D) CH3CH2NHCH3 E) (CH3)3N Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

19) A liquid will "wet" a surface if: A) the liquid has a lesser density than the surface B) the forces between the liquid molecules are weak C) the liquid has a low vapor pressure D) the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater than the forces between the molecules of the liquid E) The liquid has low viscosity and the surface is smooth Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

20) Surface tension is thought to be due to: A) surface area trying to increase B) air absorbed on the surface C) solute concentrated on the surface D) surface molecules having lower energy than bulk molecules E) surface molecules having higher energy than molecules in the bulk Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

21) What is the difference between "normal boiling point" and "boiling point" of a liquid? A) "Normal boiling point" is a boiling point of a liquid at normal (standard) pressure and temperature, while "boiling point" is measured at any other conditions of pressure and temperature. B) "Normal boiling point" is a boiling point of 1 mol of a liquid with a surface of 1 m2, while "boiling

point" is boiling temperature for any other amount of a substance. C) "Normal boiling point" is a boiling point a liquid has at 1 atm of pressure; "boiling point" is a boiling temperature of a liquid at any other pressure. D) "Normal boiling point" and "boiling point" are synonyms. E) "Normal boiling point" refers to 1 g of substance; "boiling point" refers to any other amount of substance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

22) Which of the following describe the critical point of a liquid? I) the temperature and pressure at which a liquid's meniscus disappears II) the point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature curve III) the highest temperature and pressure at which a liquid can exist IV) the highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid from its vapor by increasing pressure A) I), II), III) B) I), III), IV) C) II), III) D) II), III), IV) E) I), IV) Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

23) A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the immediate result? A) The condensation rate decreases. B) The vaporization rate increases. C) The condensation rate increases. D) The vaporization rate decreases. E) The rates of condensation and vaporization are not effected. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

24) When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following conditions could exist: I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor. II) The vapor pressure has a unique value. III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates. IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time. Which of the above choices are applicable? A) I B) II and III C) I, II, and III D) II and IV E) II, III and IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

25) When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container: A) the rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules from the gas phase pass into the liquid phase B) a change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container C) the amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid D) molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of liquid in the container is constant E) the vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be left Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

26) Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur? A) high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy B) weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area C) high molecular energy, small surface area D) low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area E) small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

27) Which of the following keeps the rate of vaporization unchanged? A) closing container lid B) increasing forces between molecules C) increasing mass of molecule D) decreasing temperature E) decreasing surface area Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

28) A liquid has a normal boiling point of 78 °C and its vapor pressure is 400 mmHg at 50 °C. To compute the molar heat of vaporization, one needs: A) the mole weight B) the vapor pressure at another temperature C) the specific heat D) molarity E) all information has been provided Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

29) The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquids known as: A) compressibility B) polarizability C) surface tension D) triple point E) viscosity Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

30) Which of the following statements about viscosity are true: I) Viscosity is liquid's resistance to flow. II) Viscosity decreases with a decrease in temperature. III) Viscosity is not related to the forces between molecules in a liquid. IV) Viscous liquids have low rate flows. A) I) and IV) B) I) and III) C) I) and II) D) II) and IV) E) III and IV) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

31) Vaporization occurs more readily with: A) increased temperature, increased surface area, decreased volume B) increased temperature, increased surface area, increased intramolecular forces C) increased temperature, decreased surface area, decreased intermolecular forces D) increased temperature, increased surface area, decreased intermolecular forces E) decreased temperature, decreased surface area, decreased intermolecular forces Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

32) The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable: A) liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point B) liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point C) liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point D) gas at a temperature below that of its critical point E) two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

33) The enthalpy of fusion is: A) the quantity of heat required to melt one mole of a solid B) the quantity of heat released when a solid melts C) the quantity of heat when two elements are fused together to produce binary compound D) the quantity of heat required to fuse two atomic nuclei E) the quantity of heat released when an organic compound burns in an atmosphere of pure oxygen Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

34) A passage of substance directly from the vapor to the solid state is known as: A) deposition B) decomposition C) sublimation D) solidification E) fusion Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

35) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) At the temperature and pressure of point 2, substance Z exists as a three-phase equilibrium system. B) At the temperature and pressure of point 3, substance Z exists as a one-phase gaseous system. C) If the Z(s) = Z(l) = Z(g) system is maintained at the temperature of point 2 while pressure is decreased, more Z will vaporize. D) If liquid Z is maintained at the pressure of point 4 while the temperature is decreased to 30 °C, the liquid will vaporize. E) The existence of liquid Z at -50 °C and 2 atm represents the metastable condition of "supercooling." Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-4

36) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) At the temperature and pressure of point 1, substance U exists as a three-phase equilibrium system. B) At the temperature and pressure of point 2, substance U exists as a one-phase gaseous system. C) At the temperature and pressure of point 3, substance U exists as a two-phase system. D) If the U(s)⇔ U(l) system is maintained at the temperature of point 4 while pressure is decreased steadily to about 300 Torr, more U will freeze. E) There are no conditions of temperature and pressure under which solid U will vaporize without melting first. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-4

37) According to the phase diagram given, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) At the temperature and pressure of point 1, W exists as a three-phase equilibrium system. B) At the temperature of point 2, a pressure of 500 Torr will cause W to liquefy. C) If the system is maintained at the temperature of point 3 while pressure is decreased, more W will vaporize. D) If W is maintained at the pressure of point 4 while the temperature is increased to 80 °C, the liquid will vaporize. E) The existence of liquid W at -40 °C and 500 Torr represents the metastable condition of "supercooling." Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-4

38) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) In a network covalent solid, covalent bonds extend throughout the crystalline solid. B) Diamond has sp3 hybridization. C) Graphite has sp hybridization. D) Fullerenes are a recently discovered allotropic form of carbons. E) Nanotubes are an allotropic form of carbon. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

39) Which of the following ionic compounds should have the highest melting point? A) NaI B) MgO C) NaCl D) LiBr E) CaS Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

40) There are no types of crystalline solids that are held together by: A) dipole-dipole interactions B) ionic attractions C) hydrogen bonds D) covalent bonds E) pi bonds only Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

41) Which of the substances below would produce the hardest crystals? A) SiC B) Xe C) Cu D) KNO3 E) H2O

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

42) Which combination of "type of solid" and specific example is INCORRECT? A) ionic/"table salt" B) metallic/copper wire C) molecular/"dry ice" D) network covalent/iodine E) network covalent/silicon carbide Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

43) A crystal and its melt readily conduct electricity. The crystal also has a luster and is easily deformed. Thus, it is: A) a covalent network crystal B) an ionic crystal C) a metallic crystal D) a molecular crystal E) a covalent crystal Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

44) Find a FALSE statement about X-rays. A) diffracted by crystals B) radiation of wavelength approximating 1 angstrom C) visible to the naked eye D) used to determine the structure of molecules E) produced using high-energy electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

45) A compound of iron and sulfur crystallizes in a lattice pattern described as cubic closest packed sulfide ions, with iron ions in all octahedral sites. What is its empirical formula? A) FeS B) FeS2 C) Fe3S4 D) Fe2S E) Fe2S3 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

46) Three types of holes of the cubic closest packed structure are: A) trigonal, tetrahedral and octahedral B) tetrahedral, pyramidal and octahedral C) tetrahedral, bipyramidal and octahedral D) cubic, tetrahedral, and octahedral E) tetragonal, tetrahedral and octahedral Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

47) Coordination number is: A) the number of atoms per unit cell B) the number of atoms in the corners of the unit cell C) the number of atoms in contact with a given atom D) the number of atoms in the holes of closest packed structures E) the number of layers in close packed structures Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

48) An atom at the corner of cubic unit cell is shared among: A) six adjoining unit cells B) four adjoining unit cells C) eight adjoining unit cells D) ten adjoining unit cells E) twelve adjoining unit cells Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

49) Arrange in order by decreasing boiling point: Cl2,

I2,

A) I2, Cl2, HI B) Cl2, I2, HI C) Cl2, HI, I2

D) HI, Cl2, I2 E) HI, I2, Cl2 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

50) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point: pentane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3), methyl butane (CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3), neopentane (CH3C(CH3)3). A) pentane, methyl butane, neopentane B) neopentane, methyl butane, pentane C) neopentane, pentane, methyl butane D) pentane, neopentane, methyl butane E) methyl butane, pentane, neopentane Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

51) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point: HCl, HBr, HI. A) HCl, HBr, HI B) HBr, HI, HCl C) HI, HBr, HCl D) HCl, HI, HBr E) HI, HCl, HBr Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

52) Arrange in order by decreasing boiling point: CH3CH2OH, HOCH2CH2OH, C4H10 A) HOCH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH, C4H10 B) C4H10, HOCH2CH2OH, CH3CH2OH

C) HOCH2CH2OH, C4H10, CH3CH2OH

D) C4H10, CH3CH2OH, HOCH2CH2OH E) CH3CH2OH, C4H10, HOCH2CH2OH Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

53) What is the maximum number of glycerol molecules [HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH] that could form hydrogen bonds to a single molecule of the compound? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 9 E) 14 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-1

54) The property that causes water to have a concave meniscus but mercury to have a convex meniscus is ________. A) heat of vaporization B) sublimation C) surface tension D) vapor pressure E) critical point Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

55) The property of a liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called ________. A) capillarity B) polarizability C) resistivity D) viscosity E) wettability Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

56) Which of the following compounds is the most viscous? CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2CH3, HOCH2CH2OH, CH3OCH2CH3 A) CH3CH2OH

B) CH3CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3OCH2CH3

D) HOCH2CH2OH Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

57) The enthalpy of condensation is equal to, but opposite in sign from, the enthalpy of ________. A) crystallization B) formation C) fusion D) sublimation E) vaporization Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

58) The enthalpy of vaporization at 298 K for diethylether (C4H10O) is 26.0 kJ/mol. How much heat would be required to vaporize 1.00 L of the ether at 298 K if its density is 0.714 g/L? A) 440 J B) 250 J C) 186 J D) 130 J E) 74.1 J Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

59) Flask A has a volume of 0.50 L and contains 50 g of a volatile liquid. Flask B has a volume of 1.0 L and contains 25 g of the same liquid. Both flasks are stoppered and both are at 30 °C. The ratio of the vapor pressure of the liquid in Flask A to that in Flask B is: A) 4:1 B) 2:1 C) 1:1 D) 1:2 E) 1:4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

60) The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure is called the ________. A) boiling point B) critical point C) melting point D) sublimation point E) thermal point Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

61) When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid equals ________. A) 100 °C B) the boiling point C) the normal boiling point D) the vaporization point E) the sublimation point Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

62) How much heat would be released by the condensation of 5.40 g of steam at 100 °C and the

subsequent cooling of the water to 25 °C? [ΔvapH = 40.7 kJ/mol at 100 °C; Cp for H2O(l) is 4.18 J g-1 °C-1] A) 12.2 kJ B) 12.8 kJ C) 13.9 kJ D) 18.3 kJ E) 23.7 kJ Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

63) The normal boiling point of acetone is 56.2 °C and the molar heat of vaporization is 32.0 kJ/mol. At what temperature will acetone boil under a pressure of 50.0 mmHg? A) 156 °C B) 6.0 °C C) -6.0 °C D) 40.7 °C E) 73.6 °C Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

64) A liquid has a molar heat of vaporization of 22.7 kJ/mol. Its normal boiling point is 459 K. What is the vapor pressure, in mmHg, at 70 °C? A) 102 mmHg B) 7.48 mmHg C) 56.8 mmHg D) 742 mmHg E) 580 mmHg Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

65) Given the data below, determine the molar enthalpy of vaporization of COCl2. COCl2, P1 = 40 mmHg, t1 = -50.3 °C, P2 = 100 mmHg, t2 = -35.6 °C A) 0.518 kJ/mol B) 27.4 kJ/mol C) 4.32 kJ/mol D) 0.928 kJ/mol E) 0.112 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

66) Given the data below, determine the molar enthalpy of vaporization of liquid Rb. Rb, P1 = 1.00 mmHg, t1 = 297 °C, P2 = 400 mmHg, t2 = 620 °C A) 5.49 kJ/mol B) 28.4 kJ/mol C) 78.5 kJ/mol D) 12.8 kJ/mol E) 4.62 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

67) Given the data below, determine the normal boiling point of COCl2. P1 = 100 mmHg, t1 = -35.6 °C, ΔvapH = 27.4 kJ/mol A) 278 °C B) -65.1 °C C) -36.4 °C D) 5.0 °C E) -5.0 °C Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

68) Given the data below, determine the normal boiling point of liquid Rb. P1 = 400 mmHg, t1 = 620 °C, ΔvapH = 78.5 kJ/mol A) 374 °C B) 920 °C C) 647 °C D) 951 °C E) 678 °C Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

69) The maximum temperature at which a gas can be liquefied is just below the ________. A) boiling temperature B) critical temperature C) melting temperature D) normal temperature E) superheating temperature Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

70) Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the ________. A) triple point B) normal point C) permanent point D) critical point E) absolute point Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

71) The relationship between the vapor pressure of a liquid and temperature can be expressed by the Clausius-Clapeyron equation: ln[P2/P1] = [ΔvapH/R] × [1/T1 - 1/T2] Ethanol (C2H5OH) has a normal boiling point of 78.3 °C and, with ΔvapH = 39.3 kJ/mol. What is the vapor pressure of ethanol at 50.0 °C? A) 118 Torr B) 234 Torr C) 354 Torr D) 485 Torr E) 670 Torr Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

72) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing viscosity: I) 1-propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH; II) 1,2-propanediol, CH3CH(OH)CH2OH;

III) 1,2,3-propanetriol, (glycerol), HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH. A) I, II, III B) II, III, I C) III, I, II D) III, II, I E) I, III, II Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

73) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point: I) 1-propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH; II) 1,2-propanediol, CH3CH(OH)CH2OH;

III) 1,2,3-propanetriol, (glycerol), HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH. A) II, III, I B) I, II, III C) III, I, II D) III, II, I E) I, III, II Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

74) A 0.90 g sample of liquid water was introduced into an evacuated 2.00 L flask, which was then sealed and heated to 37 °C. What percentage, by mass, of the water remained as liquid? [Vapor pressure of water at 37 °C = 48.2 Torr.] A) 10% B) 18% C) 82% D) 90% E) 0% Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

75) What would be the appropriate equilibrium temperature of a system obtained by adding 25.0 g of ice at 0 °C to 250.0 mL of "hot" (80 °C) coffee, assuming that the heat capacity and density of the coffee are the same as for pure water (4.18 J g-1 °C-1 and 0.997 g mL-1), and also assuming negligible heat transfer with the surroundings? [For water, ΔfusH = 6.02 kJ/mol.] A) 33 °C B) 40 °C C) 65 °C D) 73 °C E) 79 °C Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

76) The factor that has the largest effect on the vapor pressure of a molecular substance is ________. A) liquid surface area B) molecular dipole moment C) presence of H-bonding D) liquid mole weight E) volume available for vapor Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-2

77) The heat of deposition equals the negative of the heat of ________. A) fusion B) condensation C) sublimation D) solidification E) reposition Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

78) A substance has a heat of fusion of 61.5 kJ/mol and a heat of deposition of -167.4 kJ/mol. What is the heat of sublimation in kJ/mol? A) -61.5 kJ/mol B) 61.5 - 167.4 kJ/mol C) 61.5 + 167.4 kJ/mol D) 167.4 - 61.5 kJ/mol E) 167.4 kJ/mol Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

79) If a substance has a heat of condensation of -1.46 kJ/g and a heat of sublimation of 4.60 kJ/g, what is its heat of solidification in kJ/g? A) 4.60 - 1.46 kJ/g B) -(4.60 + 1.46) kJ/g C) 1.46 - 4.60 kJ/g D) 4.60 + 1.46 kJ/g E) 0 kJ/g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

80) If 34 g of a solid with a molar mass = 174 g/mol requires 21.3 kJ to melt it, what is the molar heat of fusion in kJ/mol? A) (21.3)(174)(34) kJ/mol B) (21.3/174)(34) kJ/mol C) (21.3/174)/34 kJ/mol D) (21.3)(174/34) kJ/mol E) (34/21.3)(174) kJ/mol Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

81) Ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) has a heat of fusion of 5.01 kJ/mol. How much heat in kJ is required to melt 137 g of ethyl alcohol? A) 1.70 × 103 kJ B) 129 kJ C) 686 kJ

D) 5.01 kJ E) 14.9 kJ

Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

82) The heat of fusion for water is 6.01 kJ/mol and for ethyl alcohol is 5.01 kJ/mol. The amount of heat that would melt 25.0 grams of water would melt how many grams of ethyl alcohol? A) 76.7 g B) 53.3 g C) 11.7 g D) 8.2 g E) 30.0 g Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

83) The heat of fusion for napthalene (C10H8) is 18.98 kJ/mol and for sodium is 2.60 kJ/mol. The amount of heat that would melt 37.0 grams of napthalene would melt how many grams of sodium? A) 0.909 g B) 1510 g C) 28.3 g D) 48.4 g E) 270. g Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-3

84) The process in which a gas is transformed into a solid is called ________. A) vaporization B) condensation C) solidification D) deposition E) fusion Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-4

85) The triple point of H2O is at 4.58 mmHg and +0.01 °C. Some H2O at -50 °C is heated to 120 °C at a constant pressure of 0.5 atm. The changes of state occurring in this process are: A) solid to gas B) solid to liquid to gas C) liquid to gas D) solid to liquid E) gas to liquid to solid Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-4

86) List the following ionic compounds in order of increasing solubility in water: RbI,

CaO,

KCl

A) RbI, CaO, KCl B) KCl, CaO, RbI C) KCl, RbI, CaO D) CaO, KCl, RbI E) RbI, KCl, CaO Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

87) Which of the following compounds has the largest lattice energy? MgCO3,

Na2CO3,

Al2(CO3)3

A) Na2CO3 B) MgCO3

C) Al2(CO3)3 D) They all have the same lattice energy. E) Not enough information is available to determine which is largest. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

88) Consider a parallelepiped with all edges being equal in length. There is an atom at each corner and one in the absolute center. This is a ________. A) face-centered cubic cell B) simple cubic cell C) unit cell D) body-centered cubic cell E) hexagonal unit cell Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

89) Consider a parallelepiped with all edges being equal in length. There is an atom at each corner and one at the center of each face. This is a ________. A) body-centered cubic cell B) simple cubic cell C) unit cell D) face-centered cubic cell E) hexagonal unit cell Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

90) An arrangement in which every other layer is identical (ABABABAB) is ________. A) octahedral holes B) tetrahedral holes C) hexagonal close packed D) cubic close packing E) cubic face centered Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-6

91) A crystal does not conduct electricity, yet its melt and aqueous solutions do. It is hard and brittle and melts at a high temperature. What type of crystal is it? A) a molecular crystal B) a network covalent crystal C) a metallic crystal D) an ionic crystal E) an intermetallic crystal Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

92) A crystal does not conduct electricity, even after melting. It is hard and brittle and melts at a very high temperature. What type of crystal is it? A) an ionic crystal B) an intermetallic (alloy) crystal C) a network covalent crystal D) a metallic crystal E) a molecular crystal Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-5

93) Given the following information, calculate ΔH° (in kcal mol-1) for: Cl(g) + e- → Cl-(g) Process Li(s) → Li(g) Li(g) → Li+(g) + e-

Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) LiCl(s) → Li+(g) + Cl-(g) 2Li(s) + Cl2(g) → 2LiCl(s)

ΔH° (kcal mol-1) +37 +124 +58 (per mole Cl2) +216 -109 (per mole LiCl)

A) + 83 kcal mol-1 B) -83 kcal mol-1 C) 161 kcal mol-1 D) -112 kcal mol-1 E) 190 kcal mol-1 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

94) Given the following information, calculate ΔH° (in kcal mol-1) for: LiCl(s) → Cl-(g) + Li+(g) Process Li(s) → Li(g) Li(g) → Li+(g) + e-

Cl2(g) → 2 Cl(g) Cl(g) + e- → Cl-(g)

2 Li(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 LiCl(s)

ΔH° (kcal mol-1) +37 +124 +29 (per mole Cl) -83 -109 (per mole LiCl)

A) +73 kcal mol-1 B) +148 kcal mol-1 C) +216 kcal mol-1 D) -96 kcal mol-1 E) -49 kcal mol-1 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

95) Given the following information, calculate ΔH° (in kcal mol-1) for: NaI(s) → Na+(g) + I-(g) Process Na(s) → Na(g) I2(g) → 2 I(g)

ΔH° (kcal mol-1) +26 +36 (per mole I2)

I2(s) → I2(g) Na(g) → Na+(g) + e-

+15

I(g) + e- → I-(g) 2 Na(s) + I2(s) → 2 NaI(s)

-71 -699 (per mole NaI)

+118

A) 816 kcal mol-1 B) 823 kcal mol-1 C) 562 kcal mol-1 D) 746 kcal mol-1 E) 798 kcal mol-1 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

96) Given the following information, calculate ΔH° (in kcal mol-1) for: I(g) + e- → I-(g) Process Na(s) → Na(g) I2(g) → 2 I(g)

ΔH° (kcal mol-1) +26 +36 (per mole I2)

I2(s) → I2(g) Na(g) → Na+(g) + e-

+15

NaI(s) → Na+(g) + I- (g) 2 Na(s) + I2(s) → 2NaI(s)

+798 -699 (per mole NaI)

+118

A) -633 kcal mol-1 B) -450 kcal mol-1 C) -71 kcal mol-1 D) -696 kcal mol-1

E) +712 kcal mol-1 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

97) Given the following information, calculate ΔH° (in kcal mol-1) for: I(g) + e- → I-(g) Process Ca(s) → Ca(g) I2(g) → 2 I(g) I2(s) → I2(g)

ΔH° (kcal/mole) +178 +36 (per mole I2) +15

Ca(g) → Ca+(g) + eCa+(g) → Ca+2(g) + e-

+590 +1145

CaI2(s) → Ca+2(g) +2 I- (g) Ca(s) + I2(s) → CaI2(s)

+1288 +534 (per mole CaI2)

A) -715 kcal mol-1 B) -338 kcal mol-1 C) -89 kcal mol-1 D) -71 kcal mol-1

E) -142 kcal mol-1 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

98) Given the following information, calculate ΔH° (in kcal mol-1) for: CaI2(s) → Ca+2(g) +2 I-(g) Process Ca(s) → Ca(g) I2(g) → 2 I(g) I2(s) → I2(g)

ΔH° (kcal mol-1) +178 +36 (per mole I2) +15

Ca(g) → Ca+(g) + eCa+(g) → Ca+2(g) + e-

+590 +1145

I(g) + e- → I-(g) Ca(s) + I2(s) → CaI2(s)

-71 +534 (per mole CaI2)

A) 1359 kcal mol-1 B) 1270 kcal mol-1 C) 2356 kcal mol-1 D) 1572 kcal mol-1 E) 1288 kcal mol-1 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

99) Given the tabulated data, what is the lattice energy of crystalline calcium chloride? heat of sublimation for calcium first ionization energy for calcium second ionization energy for calcium heat of dissociation for chlorine

+178 kJ/mol +590 kJ/mol +1145 kJ/mol +122 kJ/mol(Cl2)

electron affinity for chlorine heat of formation for calcium chloride

-349 kJ/mol -796 kJ/mol

A) -1996 kJ/mol B) -2101 kJ/mol C) -2255 kJ/mol D) -2345 kJ/mol E) -2450 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

100) Given the tabulated data, what is the electron affinity for chlorine? heat of sublimation for calcium first ionization energy for calcium second ionization energy for calcium heat of dissociation for chlorine

+178 kJ/mol +590 kJ/mol +1145 kJ/mol +122 kJ/mol(Cl2)

heat of formation for calcium chloride lattice energy of crystalline calcium chloride

-796 kJ/mol -2255 kJ/mol

A) -508 kJ/mol B) -288 kJ/mol C) -698 kJ/mol D) -349 kJ/mol E) -983 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 12-7

101) Which has the smallest dipole-dipole forces? A) CH3Cl B) HBr C) O2 D) NO Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Which is expected to have the largest dispersion forces? A) C3H8 B) C12H26 C) F2

D) BeCl2

Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) Which of the following compounds exhibits hydrogen bonding? A) CH3Cl B) HI C) CH3OC H3 D) NH3

Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 3

104) In liquid propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH which intermolecular forces are present? A) Dispersion, hydrogen bonding and dipole-dipole forces are present. B) Only dipole-dipole and ion-dipole forces are present. C) Only dispersion and dipole-dipole forces are present. D) Only hydrogen bonding forces are present. Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) Which of the following compounds exhibits only dispersion and dipole-dipole intermolecular interactions? A) H2 B) HI C) CO2

D) CH3NH2 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) The normal boiling point for H2Se is higher than the normal boiling point for H2S . This can be explained by: A) larger dipole-dipole forces for H2Se B) larger dispersion forces for H2Se

C) larger hydrogen-bond forces for H2Se

D) larger dipole-dipole forces, larger dispersion forces, and larger hydrogen-bond forces for H2Se Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) Based on the figure above, the boiling point of diethyl ether under an external pressure of approximately ________ °C. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 0 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) Based on the figure above, the boiling point of ethyl alcohol under an external pressure of is approximately A) 80 B) 60 C) 70 D) 40 E) 20 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) Based on the figure above, the boiling point of water under an external pressure of approximately A) 80 B) 40 C) 60 D) 70 E) 50 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? A) H2O B) HI C) Sb H3 D) SnH4

Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) The heat of vaporization of water at 100 °C is 40.66 kJ mol-1. Calculate the quantity of heat that is absorbed/released when 9.00 g of steam condenses to liquid water at 100 °C. A) 20.3 kJ of heat are absorbed. B) 20.3 kJ of heat are released. C) 81.3 kJ of heat are absorbed. D) 81.3 kJ of heat are released. Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) What is the edge length of a face-centred cubic unit cell made up of atoms having a radii of 128 pm? A) 181 pm B) 362 pm C) 512 pm D) 1020 pm Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) Nickel has a face-centred cubic structure and has a density of 8.90 g cm-3. What is its atomic radius? A) 125 pm B) 249 pm C) 353 pm D) 997 pm Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) Gold crystallizes in a face-centred cubic structure. What is the edge length of the unit cell if the atomic radius of gold is 144 pm? A) 204 pm B) 288 pm C) 333 pm D) 407 pm Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) Cesium has a radius of 272 pm and crystallizes in a body-centred cubic structure. What is the edge length of the unit cell? A) 314 pm B) 385 pm C) 544 pm D) 628 pm Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) Lithium crystallizes in a body-centred cubic structure. What is the coordination number of each atom? A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 12 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) NaCl crystallizes in a cubic unit cell with Cl- ions on each corner and each face. How many Na+ and Cl- ions are in each unit cell of NaCl? A) 1 Na+ ion and 1 Cl- ion B) 2 Na+ ions and 2 Cl- ions

C) 4 Na+ ions and 4 Cl- ions D) 8 Na+ ions and 8 Cl- ions Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) How many H- ions are around each Na+ ion in NaH, which has a cubic unit cell with H- ions on each corner and each face? A) 1 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) Which of the following forms a molecular solid? A) NH4NO3 B) C6H4Cl2 C) SiO2

D) copper Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) Which of the following forms an ionic solid? A) Cu B) C2H5NH2 C) NH4NO3 D) NO2

Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) Which type of bonding does Sr form upon solidification? A) covalent network B) ionic C) metallic D) molecular Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 13 Spontaneous Change: Entropy and Gibbs Energy 1) A microstate is a specific microscopic configuration describing how particles of a system are distributed among the available energy levels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

2) Entropy is related to the way in which the energy of a system is distributed among the available microscopic energy levels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

3) If a process is spontaneous, the reverse process is non spontaneous. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

4) An increase in entropy is observed when a liquid forms from a gas. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

5) An increase or a decrease in the number of microstates parallels an increase or decrease in the number of microscopic particles and the space available to them. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

6) Entropy changes depend on the quantities of substances involved. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

7) The entropy of a pure perfect crystal at 25 K is zero. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

8) Standard molar entropy, S∘, increases as molecular complexity increases. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

9) A spontaneous process will occur only if an external action is continually applied. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

10) ΔG is positive for a spontaneous reaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

11) A zero ΔG means the system is at equilibrium. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

12) The entropy of a system always increases for a spontaneous process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

13) Standard Gibbs energy of formation requires the reactants be compounds in their standard state. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

14) In a reversible reaction, a forward spontaneous reaction corresponds to a negative ΔG. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

15) ΔrG∘ is independent of temperature. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

16) A non spontaneous reaction can be made to occur by coupling it with a spontaneous reaction to form an overall spontaneous reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-7

17) Non spontaneous reactions and spontaneous reactions cannot be coupled. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-7

18) As the activity a of a substances increases so does its chemical potential m. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-8

19) The chemical potential of a substance, m, represents the ability of a substance to change the Gibbs energy of a system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-8

20) A spontaneous process: A) will happen quickly B) releases large amounts of energy C) requires an external action in order to begin reacting D) will continue on its own once begun E) is never endothermic Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

21) Find correct statements. I) A spontaneous process is a process that occurs in a system left to itself. II) A non spontaneous process will not occur unless some external force is applied. III) If a reaction is spontaneous, the reverse is also spontaneous. IV) Only spontaneous processes occur naturally. V) Entropy is inversely proportional to the degree of randomness. A) I), II) and V) B) II), III), and IV) C) I), II), and IV) D) I), III) and IV) E) I), IV), and V) Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

22) Which of the following statements are true? I) Liquids have more entropy than their solids. II) Solutions have more entropy than the solids dissolved. III) Gases and their liquids have equal entropy. IV) Gases have less entropy than their solids. V) Entropy of a substance increases as its temperature increases. A) II), III), and V) B) I), III), and V) C) I), IV), and V) D) I), II), and V) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

23) Which material has the largest entropy? A) pure water B) powdered sugar C) salt water D) crystalline salt E) cannot be determined Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

24) Which of the following processes would result in a decrease in system entropy? A) melting of an ice cube B) sublimation of a moth ball C) evaporation of a puddle of gasoline D) a glass of cool lemonade warming in the sun E) condensation of water vapor on a cold windshield Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

25) Which of the following has the highest entropy? A) 1 mole of liquid water at 30 °C B) 1 mole of water vapor at 30 °C C) 1 mole of regular ice at -10 °C D) 1 mole of "dry ice" at -10 °C E) 1 mole of water under 10 atm of pressure at -10 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-1

26) Choose the correct statements concerning entropy. I) Following the mixing of two gases, ΔS is positive. II) Entropy is a thermodynamic property related to the degree of disorder. III) If the temperature of a gas is decreased, ΔS is positive. IV) Molecules in the liquid state have higher entropy than the same molecules in the gaseous state. A) I and III B) I, II, III C) I and II D) I, II, IV E) II and III Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

27) Indicate the statement(s) which is (are) true for the process: Al+3(aq) + 3 OH-(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) if it occurs in a closed container. I) ΔS increases because the final molecule is more complicated. II) Entropy decreases because the product is in the solid phase. III) The two ions achieve a high degree of order as they crystalize, therefore ΔS is positive. IV) Entropy of the system is unchanged because the system is sealed and at a constant temperature. A) I and II B) I and III C) II only D) I, II, IV E) I and IV Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

28) Which of the following best expresses the increase in entropy associated with melting and sublimation, respectively? A) ΔfusS - ΔsubS = 0 B) ΔfusS = 144.3 J/mol-K, ΔsubS = 9.0 J/mol-K

C) ΔfusS = 9.0 J/mol-K, ΔsubS = -144.3 J/mol-K D) ΔH for both processes is zero E) ΔfusS = 9.0 J/mol-K, ΔsubS= 144.3 J/mol-K Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

29) The normal melting and boiling points of SO2 are 198 and 263 K, respectively. For a plot of the standard molar entropy of SO2 versus temperature, which of the following is INCORRECT? A) At 263 K, S° is constant. B) S° increases with increasing temperature. C) S° equals zero at 0 K. D) At 198 K, S° increases by the value of △fusS.

E) At 263 K, S° jumps suddenly as SO2 undergoes phase change. Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

30) Which of the following has the largest molar entropy? A) I2(g) B) Xe(g) C) H2(g) D) He(g) E) O2(g)

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

31) Which of the following relations is true for the molar entropy of sublimation of a substance? A) ΔsubS = ΔfusS + ΔvapS B) ΔsubS < ΔvapS

C) ΔsubS = ΔfusS - ΔvapS

D) ΔsubS < (ΔfusS + ΔvapS) E) ΔsubS > (ΔfusS + ΔvapS) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

32) Which of the following substances under equal conditions and in the same phase has the greatest molar entropy? A) NO B) NO2 C) N2O3 D) N2O4 E) N2O5 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

33) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) One form of the second law of thermodynamics is all spontaneous processes produce an increase in the entropy of the universe. B) Gibbs energy is defined by: G = H - TS. C) If ΔG < 0, the process is spontaneous. D) If ΔG > 0, the process is nonspontaneous. E) If ΔG = 0, the process is spontaneous. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

34) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystal at 298 K is zero. B) ΔrS° = Σ (ν S°) products - Σ (ν S°) reactants. C) The activity of pure liquids or pure solids is 1. D) ΔrG ° = -RT ln Keq. E) ΔrG ° = ΔrH° - TΔrS°. Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

35) The change in Gibbs energy of a reaction: A) = work B) predicts speed C) = ΔH + TΔS D) depends on the standard state chosen E) tells us if the reaction is spontaneous or not Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

36) If ΔG < 0 for a reaction, then the reaction is said to be: A) endothermic B) reversible C) spontaneous D) exothermic E) fast Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

37) The maximum quantity of energy available for useful work is: A) constant B) Gibbs energy change C) the entropy change D) the internal energy change E) the enthalpy change Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

38) The change in Gibbs energy for a reaction: A) = ΔH - TΔS B) = q (heat) C) = ΔS + TΔH D) = ΔS - TΔH E) = ΔH + TΔS Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

39) The Gibbs energy change for a reaction is -298 kJ. The reaction is therefore: A) exothermic B) irreversible C) spontaneous D) endothermic E) nonspontaneous Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

40) In a sealed container, the rate of dissolving is equal to the rate of crystallization. Therefore we would expect: A) ΔG < 0 B) ΔG > 0 C) ΔG = 0 D) ΔS = 0 E) must know ΔH to determine Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

41) If ΔG is positive for a certain reaction, then: A) the reaction is spontaneous B) the reverse of the reaction is spontaneous C) the system is in equilibrium D) one would need to know the Kelvin temperature to determine spontaneity E) there would be no reaction possible for a negative value Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

42) A reaction is spontaneous if: I) ΔG is a negative value II) both enthalpy and entropy increase III) ΔH is negative and ΔS is positive IV) both enthalpy and entropy decrease V) ΔH is positive and ΔS is negative A) I and III B) I and II C) II and V D) III and IV E) II and IV Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

43) Which of the following combinations of signs for △H and △S will always result in a reaction being non spontaneous? A) ΔH+, ΔSB) ΔH-, ΔS+ C) ΔH-, ΔSD) ΔH+, ΔS+ E) cannot determine without temperature Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

44) The following reaction is exothermic. 2 N2O(g) → 2 N2(g) + O2(g) This means the reaction: A) will be spontaneous at all temperatures B) will be spontaneous only at high temperature C) will be spontaneous only at low temperatures D) is not spontaneous at any temperature E) cannot determine without temperature Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

45) The following reaction is endothermic. 2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3 H2(g) This means the reaction: A) will be spontaneous at high temperature B) will be spontaneous at low temperature C) is not spontaneous at any temperature D) is spontaneous at all temperatures E) cannot determine without temperature Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

46) For an exothermic reaction to be non spontaneous at high temperatures, the enthalpy must be ________ while the entropy is ________. A) positive, also positive B) positive, negative C) a relatively small negative value, also negative D) a relatively large negative value, positive E) a very large negative value, also negative Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

47) Which of the following quantities for an element has a value of zero in the standard state? I) DfH° II) DfG° III) S° A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I, II, and III Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

48) Which of the following quantities is practically independent of temperature? I) ΔH II) ΔS III) ΔG A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I, II, and III Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

49) For Cl2O(g) + 3/2 O2(g) → 2 ClO2 △rH° = 126 kJ/mol, and ΔrS° = -74.9 J/(mol K) at 377 °C. What is Keq? A) 0.97

B) 6.12 × 10-7 C) 4.27 × 10-22 D) 9.17 × 10-15 E) 1.07 × 1014 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

50) Consider the reaction: N2(g) + 3 X2(g) → 2 NX3(g) △fH° (kJ/mol) S° (J/(mol K))

0.0

192

210

172

What is Keq for this reaction at 591 K? A) 2.3 × 1017 B) 4.3 × 10-18 C) 1.04 D) 0.96 E) 132 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

51) For the reaction PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 298 K, Keq = 1.87 × 10-7, what is ΔrG ° and is the reaction spontaneous? A) 3.84 × 104 kJ/mol, no B) 7.68 kJ/mol, no C) -7.68 kJ/mol, yes D) 38.4 kJ/mol, no E) -38.4 kJ/mol, yes Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

52) If the vapor pressure of water in an open system at 25 °C is 23.8 mmHg, what is ΔrG for the reaction below at 25 °C?

H2O(l) → H2O(g, 23.8 mmHg) A) 0 kJ/mol B) -8.58 kJ/mol C) +8.58 kJ/mol D) -0.720 kJ/mol E) +0.720 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

53) Consider the reaction of 25.0 mL of 0.20 M AgNO3(aq) with 25.0 mL of 0.20 M NaBr(aq) to form AgBr(s) at 25 °C. What is ΔG for this reaction? The Ksp of AgBr is 5.0 × 10-13 at 25 °C. A) -58.8 kJ/mol B) -70.2 kJ/mol C) +58.8 kJ/mol D) +70.2 kJ/mol E) -28.3 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

54) The equilibrium constant for the reaction below is 7.2 × 10-4 at 298 K and 1 atm. HNO2(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ NO2-(aq) + H3O+(aq) When [HNO2(aq)] = 1.0 M and [NO2-(aq)] = [H3O+(aq)] = 1.0 × 10-5 M, calculate ΔG. A) -39.1 kJ/mol B) +17.9 kJ/mol C) -17.9 kJ/mol D) +39.1 kJ/mol E) -23.02 kJ/mol Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

55) The equilibrium constant for the reaction below is 7.2 × 10-4 at 298 K and 1 atm. HNO2(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ NO2-(aq) + H3O+(aq) Which of the below statements is TRUE under the following conditions: [HNO2(aq)] = 1.0 M and [NO2-(aq)] = [H3O+(aq)] = 1.0 × 10-5 M A) the reaction is at equilibrium B) the forward reaction is spontaneous C) the reverse reaction is spontaneous D) the forward reaction is endothermic E) the reverse reaction is exothermic Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

56) For the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) , Kc = 0.0454 at 261 °C. If a vessel is filled with theses

gases such that the initial concentrations are [PCl5] = 0.2 M, [PCl3] = 0.2 M, and [Cl2] = 2.25 M, the value of the reaction quotient is: A) Qc = 1.8 B) Qc = 0.56 C) Qc = 2.8

D) Qc = 0.0454 E) Qc = 1

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

57) For the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) , Kc = 0.0454 at 261 °C. If a vessel is filled with theses

gases such that the initial concentrations are [PCl5] = 0.2 M, [PCl3] = 0.2 M, and [Cl2] = 2.25 M, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) the reaction is at equilibrium B) the forward reaction is spontaneous C) the reverse reaction is spontaneous D) the forward reaction is exothermic E) the reverse reaction is exothermic Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

58) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The van't Hoff equation is ln

B) Keq is independent of temperature. C) In a thermodynamic equilibrium constant expression, the activity of a gas is replaced by its partial pressure in atmosphere. D) In a Keq expression, the activity of an aqueous species can be approximated by the numerical value of its molarity. E) If ΔG = 0, the process is at equilibrium. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

59) For the reaction: CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g) Kp = 91.4 at 350 K and Kp = 2.05 × 10-4 at 298 K. What is the value of ΔrH°? A) 49.9 kJ/mol B) 2.08 × 103 kJ/mol

C) 3.74 × 10-2 kJ/mol D) 217 kJ/mol E) 446 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

60) Choose the INCORRECT statement about coupled reactions. A) The usual practice of coupling reactions is to join two nonspontaneous reactions. B) The usual reason to couple reactions is to produce an overall spontaneous reaction. C) The reaction added to a nonspontaneous reaction needs to be spontaneous. D) The reaction added to a nonspontaneous reaction needs to be more spontaneous than the original reaction is nonspontaneous. E) One of the coupled reactions has a negative ΔG, the other a positive ΔG. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-7

61) Which of the listed reactions would couple with the following reaction to produce silver? Ag2O(s) → 2 Ag(s) + 1/2 O(g) A) Ag(s) + 1/2 Br2 → AgBr(s) B) C + 1/2 O2 → CO C) N + 1/2 O2 → NO D) N + O2 → NO2 E) C + 2 S → CS2(l) Answer: B

ΔrG° = 11.2 kJ/mol

ΔrG° = 96.9 kJ/mol ΔrG° = -137.2 kJ/mol

ΔrG° = 149.3 kJ/mol ΔrG° = 51.3 kJ/mol ΔrG° = 65.3 kJ/mol

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-7

62) Order the following by increasing entropy. CO(g), COCl2(g), CO2(g), CaO(s) A) CO2 < CO < CaO < COCl2 B) CaO < CO < CO2 < COCl2

C) COCl2 < CO < CaO < CO2

D) CO2 < CaO < COCl2 < CO E) CO < CaO < COCl2 < CO2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

63) Predict whether ΔS is positive or negative for the following process: H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g) A) negative B) positive C) ΔS doesn't change. D) There is not enough information to determine. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

64) Predict whether ΔS is positive or negative for the following process: 2 Cl2O7(g) → 2 Cl2(g) + 7 O2(g) A) negative B) positive C) ΔS doesn't change. D) There is not enough information to determine. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

65) Predict whether ΔS is positive or negative for the following process: H2O(g) → H2O(s) A) negative B) positive C) ΔS doesn't change. D) There is not enough information to determine. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

66) For the reaction, N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g) S° (J/mol K)

304.2

240.0

what is DrS°?

A) 544.2 J/mol · K B) -64.2 J/mol · K C) 175.8 J/mol · K D) -175.8 J/mol · K E) 64.2 J/mol · K Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

67) If the enthalpy of vaporization of chloromethane, CH3Cl, is 21.5 kJ/mol at the normal boiling point, 249 K, calculate Δvap S°. A) 86.3 J mol-1 K-1 B) 5.35 J mol-1 K-1 C) 11.6 J mol-1 K-1 D) 896 J mol-1 K-1 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

68) Calculate the entropy change for methanol at its normal boiling point of 64.5 °C. ΔrH° = 38.0 kJ/mol. A) 0.589 kJ/mol · K B) 0.112 kJ/mol · K C) 589 kJ/mol · K D) 112 kJ/mol · K E) 0.589 × 10-2 kJ/mol · K Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-2

69) For the reaction, CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) S° (J/mol K)

88.70

39.75

213.6

what is DrSo?

A) 262.5 J/mol · K B) -85.1 J/mol · K C) -164.7 J/mol · K D) 164.7 J/mol · K E) 85.1 J/mol · K Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

70) For the reaction, CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g) S° (J/mol K)

197.6

130.6

239.7

what is DrSo?

A) -88.5 J/mol · K B) -176.7 J/mol · K C) 219 J/mol · K D) 176.7 J/mol · K E) -219.1 J/mol · K Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

71) Consider the following reaction: C(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH4(g) S° (J/mol K)

5.69

130.58

186.19

What is ΔrS° for the above reaction in J/mol K? A) -49.9 J/mol K B) 49.9 J/mol K C) 80.7 J/mol K D) 115.2 J/mol K E) -80.7 J/mol K Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

72) Consider the following reaction: NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s) S° (J/mol K) 192.51 186.69 94.56 What is ΔrS° for this reaction in J/mol K? A) -284.6 J/mol K B) 284.6 J/mol K C) -92.3 J/mol K D) 94.6 J/mol K E) 92.3 J/mol K Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

73) Consider the following reaction: C3H4(g) + 2 H2(g) → C3H8(g) S° (J/mol K) 266.9 130.6 269.9 What is ΔrS° in J/mol K? A) 127.6 J/mol K B) -127.6 J/mol K C) 3.0 J/mol K D) -258.2 J/mol K E) -3.0 J/mol K Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

74) For the reaction, 2 O3(g) → 3 O2(g) S° (J/mol K) 238.8

205.0

what is ΔrS°?

A) 137.4 J/mol · K B) -137.4 J/mol · K C) 33.8 J/mol · K D) 171.2 J/mol · K E) -33.8 J/mol · K Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-3

75) What is ΔrG° at 25 °C? N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g)

ΔrH° = 58.03 kJ

ΔrS° = 176.7 J/K

A) 58.21 kJ B) 62.45 kJ C) 53.6 kJ D) 5.37 kJ E) 111 kJ Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

76) What is ΔrG° at 25 °C? CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

ΔrH° = 177.8 kJ

ΔrS° = 160.7 J/K

A) 1779 kJ B) 173.8 kJ C) 225.7 kJ D) 181.8 kJ E) 129.9 kJ Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

77) What is ΔrG° at 25 °C? CO2(g) → CO2(aq)

ΔrH° = -19.4 kJ

ΔrS° = 92.3 J/K

A) 2.1 kJ B) -46.9 kJ C) -17.1 kJ D) -19.5 kJ E) -21.7 kJ Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

78) What is ΔrG° at 25 °C? CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g)

ΔrH° = -90.7 kJ

ΔrS° = -221 J/K

A) -90.9 kJ B) -24.8 kJ C) -156.6 kJ D) -96.2 kJ E) -85.2 kJ Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

79) What is ΔrG° at 25 °C? 2O3(g) → 3 O2(g)

ΔrH° = -284 kJ

ΔrS° = 139 J/K

A) -145 kJ B) -243 kJ C) -325 kJ D) -281 kJ E) -287 kJ Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

80) Consider the following reaction. S2Cl2(g) + 2 OCl2(g) → 2 SOCl2(g) + Cl2(g) ΔfG° (kJ/mol) -32 97.9 -320 0.0 What is ΔrG° for this reaction in kJ? A) -804 B) -476 C) -386 D) -413 E) -799 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

81) Consider the following reaction: 4 NH3(g) + 7 O2(g) → 4 NO2(g) + 6 H2O (l) ΔfG° (kJ/mol)

-16.7

0.0

51.8

What is ΔrG° for this reaction in kJ? A) -1282 B) -1149 C) -169 D) 169 E) 1149 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

82) What is ΔrG°? ΔfG° (kJ/mol)

N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g) 97.8 51.3

A) 149.1 kJ B) -4.8 kJ C) -46.5 kJ D) 4.8 kJ E) 46.5 kJ Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

83) What is ΔrG°? ΔfG° (kJ/mol)

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) -1128 -604 -394.4

A) 1338 kJ B) 918 kJ C) -130 kJ D) -918 kJ E) 130 kJ Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

-237.2

84) What is ΔrG°? ΔfG° ( kJ/mol)

CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(g) -137.2

-162.0

A) -24.8 kJ B) -299.2 kJ C) +24.8 kJ D) 149.6 kJ E) +299.2 kJ Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

85) What is ΔrG°? ΔfG° (kJ/mol)

2 O3(g) → 3 O2(g) 163.2

A) 326.2 kJ B) -326.4 kJ C) -163.2 kJ D) 163.2 kJ E) 54.4 kJ Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

86) Consider the reaction: ΔfH° (kJ/mol) S° (J/mol K)

3 N2(g) + 2 O3(g) → 6 NO(g) 0.00

142.26

90.37

191.5

237.7

210.6

What is ΔrG° for this reaction in kJ at 500 K? A) 93 kJ B) 151 kJ C) 365 kJ

D) -1.00 × 105 kJ E) 441 kJ Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

87) Calculate ΔrG° for the reaction Cu(s) + H2O(g) → CuO(s) + H2(g) at 500 K.

Cu(s) H2O(g) CuO(s) H2(g)

ΔfH° (kJ/ mol) 0 -241.8

S° (J/mol K)

-155.2 0

43.5 130.6

33.3 188.7

A) 231.8 kJ B) -135.4 kJ C) -58.6 kJ D) 110.6 kJ E) 86.74 kJ Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

88) For the reaction I2(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 ICl(g) , ΔrH° = 36 kJ and ΔrS° = 158.8 J/K at 25 °C. Calculate ΔrG° for the process at 25 °C. A) -11.3 kJ B) -4730 kJ C) -393 kJ D) 32 kJ E) 83.3 kJ Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

89) For CO(g) + H2(g) → H2CO(g), ΔrH° = -5.36 kJ/mol, and ΔrS° = -109.8 J/mol K. What is ΔrG° in kJ/mol at 300 K? A) -38.3 kJ/mol B) 57.6 kJ/mol C) 38.3 kJ/mol D) 27.6 kJ/mol E) -57.6 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

90) For CdO(s) + SO3(g) → CdSO4(s), ΔrH° = -279.4 kJ/mol, and ΔrS° = -118.4 J/mol K. What is ΔrG° in kJ/mol at 127 K? A) -256 kJ/mol B) -303 kJ/mol C) -264 kJ/mol D) -355 kJ/mol E) -460 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

91) For Cl2O(g) + 3/2 O2(g) → 2 ClO2 , ΔrH° = 126 kJ/mol, and ΔrS° = -74.9 J/mol K at 377 °C. What is ΔrG° in kJ/mol? A) 77.8 B) 51.4 C) 98.3 D) 175 E) 129.2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-4

92) Consider the reaction: N2(g) + 3 X2(g) → 2 NX3(g) ΔfH° 0.0 0.0 -43 kJ/mol S°

192

210

172 J/mol K

What is ΔrG° for this reaction at 591 K? Is the reaction spontaneous at 591 K? A) -196 kJ/mol, no B) 196 kJ/mol, yes C) 196 kJ/mol, no D) 239 kJ/mol, yes E) -239 kJ/mol, no Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

93) Consider the following reaction: 4 NH3(g) + 7 O2(g) → 4 NO2(g) + 6 H2O (l) ΔfG°

-16.7

0.0

51.8

-237.2 kJ/mol

What is Keq for this reaction at 25 °C? A) e-464 B) e464

C) 1.59 D) 0.63 E) 252 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

94) Consider the following reaction: S2Cl2(g) + 2 OCl2(g) → 2 SOCl2(g) + Cl2(g) ΔfG° -32 97.9 -320 0.0 kJ/mol What is Keq for this reaction at 25 °C? A) e324 B) e-324 C) e162 D) e-162

E) 1.38 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

95) Consider the reaction: H2X(g) → HX(g) + X(g) ΔrH° = 18.4 kJ/mol

ΔrS°= 23.1 J/mol K

What is Keq for this reaction at 525 K? A) 0.387 B) 0.993 C) 0.238 D) 4.23 E) 1.01 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

96) For a reaction Keq = 1.2 × 10-6 at T = 200 K. What is ΔrG° for the reaction? A) -22.7 kJ/mol B) 53.6 kJ/mol C) 22.7 kJ/mol D) -53.6 kJ/mol E) 170 kJ/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

97) For the reaction SO2(g) + Cl2(g) → SO2Cl2(g) Keq = 0.377 at 25 °C, what is ΔrG° for the reaction? A) 202.7 J/mol B) 88.02 J/mol C) 2420 J/mol D) 1049 J/mol E) -1049 J/mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

98) Consider the reaction: N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g) Keq = 0.1134 at 20 °C

ΔrH°= 58.03 kJ/mol

What is ΔrG° for this reaction at 20 °C? A) 0.36 kJ/mol B) -5.4 kJ /mol C) 4.9 kJ/mol D) 5.3 kJ/mol E) 5.4 kJ/mol Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

99) For the reaction N2O3(g) → NO(g) + NO2(g) ΔrG° = -4.78 kJ/mol. Calculate Keq at 25 °C. A) 1.023 B) 1.002 C) 1.005 D) 0.9484 E) 0.9981 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

100) For the reaction PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 298 K, Keq = 1.87 × 10-7, ΔrS° = 181.92 J/mol K. Compute ΔrH° for this reaction. A) 15.8 kJ/mol B) 220 kJ/mol C) 143 kJ/mol D) 54.2 kJ/mol E) 92.6 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

101) For the reaction PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) at 298 K, Keq = 1.87 × 10-7, ΔrS° = 181.92 J/mol K, what is Keq at 200 K if ΔrH° = 92.6 kJ/mol? A) 2.08 × 10-15 B) 16.8

C) 1.87 × 10-7 D) 5.35 × 106 E) 5.95 × 10-2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-5

102) What is ΔrH° for a reaction that has Kp = 1.456 at 273 K and Kp = 14.2 at 298 K? A) 8.42 × 10-5 kJ/mol B) 61.6 kJ/mol C) -61.6 kJ/mol D) 462 kJ/mol E) -462 kJ/mol Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

103) Consider the reaction: AB(g) → A(g) + B(g) (Keq = 0.729 at 20 °C

ΔrH° = 45.9 kJ/mol)

What is Keq for this reaction at 425 K? A) 476 B) 0.733 C) 0.725 D) 254 E) 2.10 × 10-3 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

104) Consider the reaction: AB(g) → A(g) + B(g) (Keq = 0.729 at 20 °C ΔrH° = 45.9 kJ/mol) What is Keq for this reaction at 377 K? A) 45.9 B) 191 C) 91.2 D) 66.6 E) 48.5 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

105) For the reaction I2(s) + Cl2(g) → 2 ICl(g) , ΔrH = 36 kJ/mol, and ΔrS = 158.8 J/mol K at 25 °C. Calculate the temperature at which Keq is 4.0 × 103. A) 128 °C B) -115 °C C) 83 °C D) 25 °C E) -175 °C Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

106) For CO(g) + H2(g) → H2CO(g) , ΔrH° = -5.36 kJ/mol, and ΔrS° = -109.8 J/mol K. What is the temperature at which Keq is 1.0 × 10-2? A) 5.19 × 103 °C B) 218 °C C) 25 °C D) -198 °C E) -237 °C Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

107) For CdO(s) + SO3(g) → CdSO4(s) , ΔrH° = -279.4 kJ/mol, and ΔrS° = -118.4 J/mol · K. What is the temperature at which Keq is 1.0 × 104? A) 1890 °C B) 6950 °C C) 1160 °C D) 1710 °C E) 6410 °C Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

108) Consider the endothermic reaction: N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g), ΔrH° = 192.5 kJ/mol At 2000 K the equilibrium constant is 5.0 × 10-4. At 2500 K the value of the equilibrium constant: A) is greater than 5.0 × 10-4 B) depends on the concentration of oxygen C) is 10.0 × 10-4 D) is 5.0 × 10-4

E) is less than 5.0 × 10-4 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

109) Calculate the temperature for which Keq for a reaction is 1.04 × 103 where ΔrH° = -83.2 kJ/mol and ΔrS° = -246 J/mol K. A) 0.274 K B) 307 K C) 0.307 K D) 274 K E) cannot be determined without ΔrG° Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-6

110) Calculate the total quantity of heat required to convert 25.0 g of liquid CCl4(l) at 35.0 °C to gaseous CCl4 at 76.8 °C (the normal boiling point for CCl4). The specific heat of CCl4(l) is of fusion is and its heat of vaporization is A) 0.896 kJ B) 1.43 kJ C) 5.74 kJ D) 6.28 kJ Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) The enthalpy change for converting 1.00 mol of ice at -50.0 °C to water at 70.0 °C is specific heats of ice, water, and steam are and -1 For O, = 6.01 kJ mol , and . A) 12.28 B) 6.41 C) 13.16 D) 7154 E) 9.40 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

its heat

Var: 10

The respectively.

112) The enthalpy change for converting 10.0 g of ice at -25.0 °C to water at 80.0 °C is ________ kJ. The specific heats of ice, water, and steam are and respectively. -1 For O, = 6.01 kJ mol , and . A) 12.28 B) 6.16 C) 3870 D) 7.21 E) 9.88 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

113) The fluorocarbon

has a normal boiling point of 47.6 °C. The specific heats of

and

(g) are 0.91 J g-1 °C-1 and 0.67 J g-1 °C-1, respectively. The heat of vaporization of the compound is 27.49 kJ mol-1. The heat required to convert 50.0 g of the compound from the liquid at at 80.0 °C is ________ kJ. A) 8.19 B) 1454 C) 30.51 D) 3031 E) 10.36 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

114) Ethanol (

to the gas

Var: 10

OH) melts at -114 °C. The enthalpy of fusion is 5.02 kJ mol-1. The specific heats of

solid and liquid ethanol are 0.97 J g-1 °C-1 and 2.3 J g-1 °C-1, respectively. How much heat (kJ) is needed to convert 25.0 g of solid ethanol at -135 °C to liquid ethanol at -50 °C? A) 207.3 kJ B) -12.7 kJ C) 6.91 kJ D) 4192 kJ E) 9.21 kJ Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

115) Ethyl chloride, C2H5Cl, is used as a local anesthetic. It works by cooling tissue as it vaporizes; its heat of vaporization is 26.4 kJ mol-1. How much heat could be removed by 20.0 g of ethyl chloride? A) 8.19 kJ B) 341 kJ C) 528 kJ D) 3410 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) How much heat is released when 85.0 g of steam at 100.0 °C is cooled to ice at -15.0 °C? The enthalpy of vaporization of water is 40.67 kJ mol-1, the enthalpy of fusion for water is 6.01 kJ mol-1, the molar heat capacity of liquid water is 75.4 J mol-1 °C-1, and the molar heat capacity of ice is 36.4 J mol-1 °C-1. A) 54.8 kJ B) 221 kJ C) 258 kJ D) 281 kJ Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) Which one of the following would be expected to have the lowest standard molar entropy, S°, at 25 °C? A) C10H22(s) B) C10H22(l)

C) C14H30(s) D) C14

OH(l)

Diff: 2

Type: MC

Answer: A

Var: 3

118) The value of ΔfG at 100.0 °C for the formation of phosphorus trichloride from its constituent elements, (g) +

(g) →

(g)

is ________ kJ mol-1. At 25.0 °C for this reaction, ΔfH° is -720.5 kJ mol-1 and A) -622.1 B) 2.56 × C) 9.77 × 104 D) -694.1 E) -818.9 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

119) The value of ΔfG at 100.0 °C for the formation of calcium chloride from its constituent elements, Ca(s) +

(g) →

(s)

is ________ kJ mol-1. At 25.0 °C for this reaction, ΔfH° is -795.8 kJ mol-1l, ΔfG ° is -748.1 kJ mol-1, and is A) -855.4 B) -736.2 C) 5.88 × D) -779.8 E) 1.52 × Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

120) For a given reaction, ΔrH = -19.9 kJ mol-1 and ΔrS = -55.5 J K-1 mol-1. The reaction will have at

Assume that ΔrH and ΔrS do not vary with temperature.

A) 359 B) 2789 C) 298 D) 2.79 E) 0.359 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

121) For a given reaction, ΔrH = -26.6 kJ mol-1 and ΔrS = -77.0 J K-1 mol-1. The reaction is spontaneous ________. Assume that ΔrH and ΔrS do not vary with temperature. A) at T > 345 K B) at T < 345 K C) at T > 298 K D) at T < 298 K E) at all temperatures Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 4

122) Under which of the following conditions would one mole of He have the highest entropy, S? A) 17 °C and 15 L B) 127 °C and 15 L C) 17 °C and 25 L D) 127 °C and 25 L Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) In the Haber process, ammonia is synthesized from nitrogen and hydrogen: (g) +

(g) →

(g)

ΔrG ° at 298 K for this reaction is -33.3 kJ mol-1. The value of ΔrG at 298 K for a reaction mixture that consists of 1.9 atm , 1.6 atm , and 0.65 atm is ________ kJ mol-1. A) -1.8 B) -3.86 × C) -7.25 × 103 D) -104.5 E) -40.5 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

124) Phosphorus and chlorine gases combine to produce phosphorus trichloride: (g) +

(g) →

(g)

ΔrG° at 298 K for this reaction is -642.9 kJ mol-1. The value of ΔrG at 298 K for a reaction mixture that consists of and is ________ kJ mol-1. A) -44.2 B) -3.88 × C) -7.28 × 103 D) -708.4 E) -649.5 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 15

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 14 Solutions and Their Physical Properties 1) In the solution, a solute is present in the greatest quantity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-1

2) Molality is independent of temperature, molarity is dependent on temperature. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

3) For the formation of an ideal solution from two liquid hydrocarbons, ΔHsoln < 0. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

4) The stronger the forces between solute and solvent molecules, the more exothermic the solution process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

5) An unsaturated solution will have some undissolved solid in the bottom of the container. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

6) Gas solubility always increases with temperature. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

7) Most volatile liquids can be separated from each other by fractional distillation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

8) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

9) Adding a solute to a solvent lowers the freezing point of the solution compared to the pure solvent. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

10) The van't Hoff factor is due to ions being attracted to each other enough that they don't react as individual molecules. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

11) A sweetened cup of coffee is an example of a: A) heterogeneous mixture B) homogeneous mixture C) solid solution D) pure liquid E) gaseous solute in a liquid solvent Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-1

12) A solid solution of zinc in copper is an example of: A) a solvent B) a solute C) the U.S. five-cent nickel D) a non-uniform solute E) an alloy Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-1

13) A solution prepared by dissolving 4.00 g KCl in 36.0 g H2O is said to be: A) 11.1% KCl by mass B) 0.100% KCl by mass C) 0.111% KCl by mass D) 10.0% KCl by mass E) 9.00% KCl by mass Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

14) Which definition is INCORRECT? A) mole fraction = moles of solute/mole of solution B) molality = moles of solute/kilogram of solvent C) weight percent = grams of solute/100 grams of solution D) molarity = moles of solute/volume of solution (in L) E) volume percent = volume of solute/volume of solvent Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

15) An aqueous solution containing 1.0 g ephedrine in 20.0 mL solution is said to be: A) 5.0% ephedrine (mass/vol) B) 1.0% ephedrine (mass/vol) C) 0.50% ephedrine (mass/vol) D) 0.050% ephedrine (mass/vol) E) 20.0% ephedrine (mass/vol) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

16) A 1.00 molal solution of NaCl in water contains: A) 1.00 g NaCl per 1000.0 g H2O B) 1.00 mol NaCl per 1000.0 g H2O

C) 1.00 mol NaCl per 1000.0 kg H2O D) 1000.0 g NaCl per 1000.0 g H2O

E) 1.00 mol NaCl per 1000.0 mol H2O Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

17) A magnesium sulfate heptahydrate solution, which is 18.00% by weight in the anhydrous compound, has a density at 20 °C of 1.20 g/mL. What is the molality of the anhydrous compound in the solution? (Atomic masses in amu: H = 1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.1, Mg = 24.3) A) 5.54 M B) 1.79 M C) 1.82 M D) 1.25 M E) 1.49 M Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

18) Liquid Q is a polar solvent and liquid R is a nonpolar solvent. On the basis of this information, you would expect: A) both liquids to be miscible with a third liquid T B) liquid Q to be miscible with liquid R C) NaCl to be soluble in both Q and R D) liquid Q and H2O to be miscible E) liquid R and H2O to be miscible Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

19) Which of the following pairs are more likely to form a solution? A) chloroform (CHCl3) and acetone (CH3COCH3) B) water and octane (C8H18)

C) methanol (CH3OH) and hexane (C6H14) D) water and octyl alcohol (C8H17OH)

E) acetone (CH3COCH3) and octane (C8H13) Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

20) Which compound is likely to be the most soluble in water? A) butyl alcohol (CH3CH2CH2CH2OH) B) ethylene glycol (HOCH2CH2OH) C) hexane (C6H14)

D) benzene (C6H12) E) iodine (I2) Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

21) Which compound is likely to be the most soluble in hexane? A) water B) acetone (CH3COCH3) C) benzene (C6H12)

D) ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) E) chloroform (CHCl3) Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

22) Which of the following pairs of liquids would likely form a nonideal solution? A) CS2 and (CH3)2CO B) C6H5-CH3 (toluene) and C6H6 (benzene) C) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH(OH)CH3

D) H5C6-C6H5 (diphenyl) and C6H6 (benzene) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

23) A solution is called "ideal" when: A) all intermolecular forces of attraction are the same, resulting in no net enthalpy change when the solution is formed from its components B) the forces of attraction between solute molecules exceed those between solute and solvent molecules C) the forces of attraction between solute and solvent molecules are somewhat smaller than between solute-solute molecules or solvent-solvent molecules D) the forces of attraction between solvent molecules exceed those between solute and solvent molecules E) the forces of attraction between solute molecules and solvent molecules are much smaller than between solute-solute molecules or solvent-solvent molecules Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

24) Which of the following compounds has the highest aqueous solubility? A) CaCl2 B) SrI2

C) CaI2

D) MgI2 E) CaBr2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

25) Which of the following organic substances is most readily soluble in water?

A) benzene B) pyridine C) octane D) carbon tetrachloride E) toluene Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

26) Which of the following statements about ideal solutions are true? I) Entropy effects are important for the formation of ideal solutions. II) The heat of solution is zero. III) The vapor pressure varies linearly with the composition. IV) The forces between like kinds of molecules are (almost) equal to the forces between unlike kinds of molecules. A) I), II), IV) B) I), III), IV) C) II), III), IV) D) I), II), III) E) I), II), III), IV) Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-3

27) A solution that can dissolve no more solute is called: A) unsaturated B) saturated C) concentrated D) supersaturated E) oversaturated Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

28) A crystal is placed into a solution and the solution seems to solidify while getting much warmer at the same time. The solution must have been: A) supersaturated B) dilute C) saturated D) unsaturated E) concentrated Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

29) The solubilities of ammonium bromide, NH4Br, in water at 0 °C, 20 °C, and 80 °C are as follows: T (°C)

Sol. g NH4Br/100 g H2O

0 20 80

60.5 76.4 125

Which of the following fractional crystallization schemes would produce the highest percent yield for the recrystallization of ammonium bromide? A) A solution containing 50.5 g NH4Br in 100.0 g H2O at 20 °C is cooled to 0 °C. B) A solution containing 115 g NH4Br in 200 g H2O at 80 °C is cooled to 0 °C.

C) A solution containing 120 g NH4Br in 100 g H2O at 80 °C is cooled to 20 °C. D) A solution containing 100 g NH4Br in 100.0 g H2O at 80 °C is cooled to 20 °C. E) A solution containing 95 g NH4Br in 175 g H2O at 80 °C is cooled to 0 °C. Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

30) Henry's Law states that: A) a supersaturated solution is unstable B) the solubility of a gas increases as the gas pressure is increased C) the solubility of a gas decreases as the gas pressure is increased D) a concentrated solution lowers the freezing point of a solution E) a concentrated solution increases the boiling point of a solution Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

31) Henry's Law constants for aqueous solutions at 25 °C are 8.20 × 10-7 m/mmHg for N2 and 1.62 × 10-6 m/mmHg for O2. Determine the solubility of nitrogen in water under an atmospheric pressure of 760 mmHg, assuming that air is 80% N2 and 20% O2. A) 6.23 × 10-4 m B) 7.79 × 10-4 m C) 4.99 × 10-4 m D) 1.25 × 10-4 m E) 6.16 × 10-3 m Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

32) Henry's Law constants for aqueous solutions at 25 °C are 8.20 × 10-7 m/mmHg for N2 and 1.62 × 10-6 m/mmHg for O2. Determine the solubility of oxygen in water under an atmospheric pressure of 760 mmHg, assuming that air is 80% N2 and 20% O2. A) 6.2 × 10-3 m B) 2.5 × 10-4 m C) 1.3 × 10-4 m D) 5.0 × 10-4 m E) 1.2 × 10-3 m Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

33) Nitrogen gas has a Henry's law constant k = 6.3 × 10-4 M/atm at 25 °C. The "bends" in divers results from bubbles of N2(g) being rapidly released from body fluids when a diver ascends to the surface too

quickly. Which of the following would be a good substitute for N2(g) in order to make the "bends" less severe? A) He(g), k = 3.7 × 10-4 M/atm B) Ar(g), k = 1.5 × 10-3 M/atm C) H2(g), k = 8.1 × 10-4 M/atm

D) CO2(g), k = 3.4 × 10-2 M/atm Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

34) The solubility of CO in water at 0 °C and 1 atm CO pressure is 0.0354 mg of CO in 1 mL of water. Calculate the molarity of aqueous CO solution at the normal partial pressure of CO of 0.00036 atm? A) 4.5 × 10-7 M B) 1.6 × 10-3 M C) 1.3 × 10-5 M D) 2.9 × 10-4 M E) 3.2 × 10-3 M Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

35) The solubility of CO in water at 0 °C and 1 atm CO pressure is 0.0354 mg of CO in 1 mL of water. Calculate the molarity of aqueous CO solution at 2 atm CO pressure. A) 1.58 × 10-3 M B) 6.32 × 10-2 M C) 1.59 M D) 2.53 × 10-3 M E) 3.16 × 10-3 M Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

36) Which of the following is a correct statement about azeotropes? A) The components boil at distinct temperatures. B) The mixture cannot be separated by fractional distillation. C) The solution behaves as an ideal solution. D) The vapor has a different composition than the liquid. E) The solution has the same pressure as the pure solvent. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-5

37) An azeotropic mixture is a: A) mixture of two or more substances where boiling point cannot be determined B) solution of two or more substances present in the same amounts in the liquid phase C) liquid mixture of two or more substances in which the vapor has the same composition as the liquid D) liquid mixture of two or more substances linked by azide functional groups E) solution of two or more substances that cannot be made to freeze Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

38) A solution composed of 5 moles of acetone (CH3COCH3, P°A = 324 mmHg) and 5 moles of chloroform (CHCl3, P° = 274 mmHg) has a vapor pressure of 236 mmHg. Which one of the following statements is completely true about this solution? A) The solution shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law and thus possesses a maximum boiling azeotrope. B) The solution process is exothermic because the forces between unlike molecules are weaker than those between like molecules. C) The solution shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law. D) The solution possesses a minimum boiling azeotrope because it shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law. E) The solution obeys Raoult's Law. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

39) The vapor pressures of pure propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol are 21.0 mmHg and 45.2 mmHg, respectively, at 25 °C. What is the composition of the vapor in equilibrium with a propyl alcohol isopropyl alcohol solution in which the mole fraction of propyl alcohol is 0.250? A) xiso = 0.866, xprop = 0.134 B) xiso = 0.750, xprop = 0.250

C) xiso = 0.317, xprop = 0.683

D) xiso = 0.512, xprop = 0.488 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

40) What is the osmotic pressure in mmHg of 6.00 L of a 0.108 M solution at 30 °C if three moles of ions are produced in aqueous solution for every mole of solute dissolved? A) 8.05 mmHg B) 3.68 × 104 mmHg C) 2.04 × 103 mmHg D) 0.0612 mmHg E) 6.12 × 103 mmHg Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

41) Arrange the following three aqueous solutions (all 250 cm3 in volume) according to decreasing osmotic pressure at 273 K: 5 g of C2H5OH, 5 g C6H12O6 ,and 5 g C12H22O11. A) C2H5OH > C6H12O6 > C12H22O11 B) C2H5OH > C6H12O6 = C12H22O11

C) C6H12O6 > C2H5OH > C12H22O11 D) C12H22O11 > C6H12O6 > C2H5OH E) C12H22O11 > C2H5OH> C6H12O6 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

42) Colligative properties are similar in that they all: A) are due to solvent chemical interactions B) depend on the number of solute particles in solution C) depend on the solvent D) have no effect on the properties of solution E) describe colloids Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

43) Which of the following is a non-colligative property? A) freezing point depression B) boiling point elevation C) osmotic pressure D) solubility E) vapour pressure lowering Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

44) A solution containing 3.24 g of sulfur in 40 g of benzene boils 0.81 °C above the boiling point of pure benzene. Determine the number of S atoms in one molecule of dissolved sulfur. Kb for benzene is 2.53 °C m-1. A) 10 B) 12 C) 6 D) 8 E) 4 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

45) Solutions are made that contain 0.10 moles of each of the following compounds in 100 g of H2O. Choose the compound whose solution will have the highest freezing point. A) K2SO4 B) NaI C) Mg(CH3CO2)2 D) Ca3(PO4)2 E) Sr(NO3)2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

46) Solutions are made that contain 0.1 moles of each of the following compounds below in 100 g of H2O. Choose the compound whose solution will have the lowest freezing point. A) MgCl2 B) KClO3 C) CO2

D) MgSO4 E) NaBr Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

47) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the lowest freezing point? A) 1.5 m aluminum perchlorate. B) 1.0 m magnesium phosphate C) 1.5 m calcium nitrate D) 2.0 m potassium chloride Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

48) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point? A) 1.0 m magnesium phosphate B) 1.5 m sodium sulfate C) 2.0 m lithium perchlorate D) 1.5 m magnesium sulfate Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 13-9

49) We wish to lower the freezing point of the water in an automobile radiator to -40 °C. The total mass of water present is 12.0 kg. For which one of the following compounds would we have to use the greatest mass of solute to achieve this? You may assume that Kf for water = -1.86 °C/m and that all ionizable solutes are completely ionized with unit activity even at this high concentration. A) AlF3 (M.W. = 84 g/mol) B) C2H5OH

(M.W. = 46 g/mol)

C) CaCl2

(M.W. = 111 g/mol)

E) NaCl Answer: D

(M.W. = 58.5 g/mol)

D) C3H6(OH)2 (M.W. = 76 g/mol)

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

50) Which of the following is a true solution with particles less than 1 nm in size? A) calcium chloride in water B) oil in water C) whipped cream D) milk Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-10

51) Which of the following combination of dispersed phase in a dispersion medium with the colloid type is INCORRECT? A) Solid in liquid is a solution. B) Solid in solid is a solid solution. C) Solid in gas is an aerosol. D) Liquid in solid is a solid foam. E) Liquid in gas is an aerosol. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-10

52) Choose the correct statement. A) Colloids are homogeneous solutions. B) A true colloidal particle will not settle out of the dispersing membrane. C) Colloidal particles can usually pass through a semipermeable membrane. D) Electrolytes are protective colloids. E) Dispersion is the method of preparing colloids from ions or molecules. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-10

53) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Colloidal particles are large aggregates of atoms they are electrically neutral. B) Colloidal suspensions can be prepared in which the particles do not settle. C) The addition of electrolytes to a colloidal suspension will sometimes cause the particles to coalesce and precipitate. D) Colloidal particles reflect light from a beam. E) Colloidal suspensions exhibit the Tyndall effect. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-10

54) Which of the following material-colloid type combinations is INCORRECT? A) mayonnaise - emulsion B) whipped cream - foam C) smoke - aerosol D) lava - solid foam E) opal - solid solution Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-10

55) Which of the following is an example of a colloid? A) sucrose in water B) whipped cream C) steel D) salt in water Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-10

56) A solution component present in lesser quantity than the solvent is called ________. A) a diluent B) an alloy C) a heterogeneous solid D) a solute E) a mixture Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-1

57) Moles of solute per mole of solution is a definition of ________. A) molarity B) mole fraction C) percent by weight D) molality E) normality Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

58) An aqueous solution contains 64.0 g of ethanol (C2H5OH) in 122.0 g of solution. What is the mole fraction of ethanol in the solution? A) 0.301 B) 0.432 C) 0.205 D) 0.698 E) 0.317 Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

59) Moles of solute per liter of solution is the definition of ________. A) molality B) solubility C) molarity D) normality E) mole fraction Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

60) 85.0 grams of potassium bromide are to be used to produce a 0.300 M solution. What will be the total volume of this solution? A) 2.38 L B) 2.83 L C) 283 L D) 0.214 L E) 0.420 L Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

61) Commercial nitric acid is 16.0 M HNO3(aq) and has a density of 1.42 g/mL. What is the mole fraction of HNO3 in this solution? A) 0.412 B) 0.699 C) 0.589 D) 0.704 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

62) Commercial perchloric acid is 70.0% by mass, HClO4(aq). Calculate the mole fraction of perchloric acid in the solution. A) 0.295 B) 0.420 C) 0.705 D) 0.697 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

63) Commercial perchloric acid is 70.0% by mass, HClO4(aq), and has a density of 1.67 g/mL. Calculate the molarity of perchloric acid in the solution. A) 11.6 M B) 1.17 M C) 23.7 M D) 16.5 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

64) 252 mL of 3.00 M H2SO4(aq) are added to 1.50 L of 0.500 M H2SO4(aq). What is the concentration of the resulting solution? A) 1.50 M B) 0.860 M C) 2.64 M D) 1.75 M E) 1.25 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

65) What is the mass/vol % ethanol in an ethanol-water solution with a density of 0.875 g/mL and containing 65.0% ethanol by volume? The density of pure ethanol is 0.789 g/mL. A) 90.2% ethanol (mass/vol) B) 56.9% ethanol (mass/vol) C) 51.3% ethanol (mass/vol) D) 58.6% ethanol (mass/vol) E) 74.5% ethanol (mass/vol) Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

66) An aqueous solution containing 12.0% MgCl2 by mass. What is the mol fraction of water in this solution? A) 0.975 B) 0.880 C) 0.868 D) 0.133 E) 0.952 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

67) 138.0 grams of ethanol (46.0 g/mol), 99.0 grams of water (18.0 g/mol), and 80.0 grams of methanol (32.0 g/mol) comprise a solution. What is the mole fraction of methanol present in the solution? A) 0.273 B) 0.338 C) 0.294 D) 0.252 E) 0.227 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

68) A magnesium sulfate heptahydrate solution, which is 18.00% by weight in the anhydrous compound, has a density at 20 °C of 1.20 g/mL. What is the molarity of the anhydrous compound in the solution? (Atomic masses in au: H = 1.0, O = 16.0, S = 32.1, Mg = 24.3) A) 5.54 M B) 1.79 M C) 1.82 M D) 1.25 M E) 1.49 M Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

69) 100 mL of LiNO3(aq), 0.241 M is mixed with 240 mL of 0.618 M Ca(NO3)2(aq). What is the final concentration of NO3-(aq) in the solution? A) 0.508 M B) 1.01 M C) 0.943 M D) 0.756 M E) 1.38 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

70) A 1.38 M solution of nitric acid (63. g/mol) in water (18.0 g/mol) has a density of 1.04 g/mL. What is the mole fraction of nitric acid in the solution? A) 0.0254 B) 0.0239 C) 0.0261 D) 0.0228 E) 0.0233 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-2

71) What is the molarity of a saturated solution of potassium sulfate if the solubility is 13 g per 100 g H2O at 25 °C? The density of the solution is 1.1 g/mL A) 0.14 M B) 1.1 M C) 0.96 M D) 0.73 M E) 0.79 M Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

72) The solubility of ammonium permanganate is 7.90 g/100 mL of water. 29.0 grams of ammonium permanganate are placed in a container and 220 mL of water is added. The liquid is allowed to stand in contact with the solid until equilibrium is achieved and then the liquid is poured off. What is the weight of solid left? A) 17.4 g B) 79.0 g C) 7.90 g D) 11.6 g E) 29.0 g Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

73) A saturated solution of ammonium sulfate, (NH4)2SO4, in water at 30 °C contains 78.0 g (NH4)2SO4 per 100.0 g H2O. What is the molality of this solution? A) 0.780 m B) 1.69 m C) 0.590 m D) 0.0590 m E) 5.90 m Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-4

74) The vapor pressures of pure propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol are 21.0 mmHg and 45.2 mmHg, respectively, at 25 °C. Calculate the partial pressure of isopropyl alcohol above a solution in which the mole fraction of propyl alcohol is 0.250. A) 33.9 mmHg B) 11.3 mmHg C) 5.25 mmHg D) 15.8 mmHg Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

75) The concentration unit used in Raoult's Law calculations is ________. A) mole fraction B) percent by weight C) molarity D) molality E) grams per L Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

76) If a solution containing 4 mols of A and 6 mol of B boils at 85 °C and 1 atm of pressure, and the vapor pressure of pure A at 85 °C is 500 mmHg, what is the vapor pressure of pure B at this temperature? A) 933 mmHg B) 336 mmHg C) 260 mmHg D) 576 mmHg E) 960 mmHg Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

77) Given that the vapor pressure of pure n-hexane and pure n-heptane at 25 °C are 151.4 mmHg and 45.62 mmHg respectively, calculate the total vapor pressure above a solution containing only n-hexane and n-heptane in which the mole fraction of n-hexane is 0.600. A) 87.9 mmHg B) 197 mmHg C) 106 mmHg D) 109 mmHg E) 170 mmHg Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

78) The vapor pressures of pure hexane and pure heptane at 25 °C are 151.4 mmHg and 45.62 mmHg respectively. A solution contains 0.800 mol fraction n-hexane and 0.200 mol fraction n-heptane. What is the composition of the vapor in equilibrium with this solution at 25 °C? A) 80.0% hexane, 20.0% heptane B) 50.0% hexane, 50.0% heptane C) 77.0% hexane, 23.0% heptane D) 45.0% hexane, 55.0% heptane E) 93.0% hexane, 7.0% heptane Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

79) A mixture of benzene and toluene has a total vapor pressure at 25 °C of 45.06 mmHg. What is the partial pressure of benzene in this solution? The vapor pressure of pure benzene and pure toluene at 25 °C are 95.03 mmHg and 28.40 mmHg respectively. A) 0.7500 mmHg B) 23.76 mmHg C) 0.3217 mmHg D) 21.30 mmHg E) 16.66 mmHg Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-6

80) What is the correct value for the weight of Na3PO4 needed to make 100 mL of a 0.50 molar aqueous solution? A) 16.4 g B) 8.2 g C) 0.05 g D) 82 g E) 4.1 g Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

81) Determine the osmotic pressure at 25 °C of an aqueous solution that is 0.028 M NaNO3. A) 1.37 atm B) 0.685 atm C) 0.0729 atm D) 0.0364 atm E) 2.06 atm Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

82) A solution of nonvolatile solute has an osmotic pressure of 141 mmHg at 25 °C. What is the molarity of the solution? A) 0.00759 M B) 5.76 M C) 0.0904 M D) 0.0339 M E) 0.174 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

83) An isotonic solution will produce an osmotic pressure of 7.84 atm measured against pure water at human body temperature (37.0 °C). How many grams of sodium chloride must be dissolved in a liter of water to produce an isotonic solution? A) 75.5 g B) 151 g C) 2.58 g D) 9.00 g E) 18.0 g Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

84) A membrane permeable to water but not to glucose (C6H12O6) separates two aqueous solutions. Solution A is 0.156 M glucose and solution B contains pure water. There will be a net flow of water molecules across the membrane from solution B to solution A until equilibrium is established across the membrane. What pressure would have to be applied to solution A to prevent osmosis flow across the membrane at 25 °C? A) 1.00 atm B) 3.82 atm C) 0.320 atm D) 1.91 atm E) 0.382 atm Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

85) What is the osmotic pressure in mmHg of 2.00 L of a 1.34 × 10-3 M solution at 25 °C if four moles of ions are produced in aqueous solution for every mole of solute dissolved? A) 62.3 mmHg B) 1.99 × 103 mmHg C) 99.6 mmHg D) 1.31 mmHg E) 9.96 × 103 mmHg Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

86) Exactly 375.0 mg of an unknown protein is dissolved in enough water to give 50.00 mL of solution and the osmotic pressure determined as 3.25 mmHg at 298 K. Estimate the molar mass of this protein. A) 42,900 g/mol B) 3,600 g/mol C) 56,400 g/mol D) 139,000 g/mol Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

87) The concentration unit used in determining freezing point depression and boiling point elevation is ________. A) molality B) mole fraction C) normality D) molarity E) weight fraction Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

88) The concentration unit used to calculate boiling point elevation is ________. A) molarity B) solubility C) molality D) mole fraction E) weight fraction Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-7

89) The freezing point of pure benzene was measured as 5.49 °C. With the same benzene and the same equipment, the freezing point of a solution containing 6.60 g of an unknown molecular compound in 140 g of benzene was found to be 2.35 °C. The cryoscopic constant, Kf, for benzene is 5.12 °C kg/mol. Calculate the mole weight of the unknown. A) 103 g/mol B) 76.9 g/mol C) 44.0 g/mol D) 28.9 g/mol E) 17.4 g/mol Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

90) 0.25 mol of a nonvolatile, nonionic solute dissolved in 300 g of water (Kf = 1.86 °C m-1) will lower the freezing point how many degrees? A) 0.65 °C B) 2.2 °C C) 0.14 °C D) 1.6 °C E) 3.2 °C Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

91) How many moles of ethylene glycol must be dissolved in 500 g of water (Kf = 1.86 °C m-1) to lower the freezing point to -5.00 °C? A) 18.6 mol B) 2.69 mol C) 0.268 mol D) 3.73 mol E) 1.34 mol Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

92) Predict the freezing point of a solution prepared by dissolving 8.9 g MgCl2 in 98 g H2O. Kf for water is 1.86 °C m-1. A) 3.5 °C B) -3.5 °C C) 5.3 °C D) -5.3 °C E) -0.51 °C Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

93) The freezing point of pure benzene was measured as 5.49 °C. With the same benzene and same equipment, the freezing point of a solution containing 6.582 g of an unknown molecular compound (sold in the store as "moth crystals") in 100.203 grams of benzene was found to be 3.48 °C. The cryoscopic constant, Kf, for benzene is 5.12 °C kg/mole. Calculate the molar mass weight of the unknown. A) 37.5 g/mol B) 16.7 g/mol C) 96.6 g/mol D) 70.4 g/mol E) 167 g/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

94) What mass in grams of a molecular substance (molar mass = 50.0 g/mol) must be added to 500 g of water to produce a solution that boils at 101.56 °C? [Kb(water) = 0.512 °C m-1] A) 76.2 g B) 150.0 g C) 100.0 g D) 30.0 g E) 152.4 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

95) 0.0800 g of a compound with the empirical formula C2H2N is dissolved in 10.00 g benzene. The resulting solution freezes at 4.99 °C. Benzene freezes at 5.48 °C and has a freezing point depression constant of Kf = 4.90 °C/m. What is the molecular formula of the compound? A) C3H2N B) C3H3N

C) C4H4N2

D) C6H6N3 E) C8H8N4 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

96) An unknown compound is composed of 65.44% C, 29.07% O, and 5.49% H. A sample weighing 5.34 g, when dissolved in 60.00 g H2O, lowers the freezing point to -0.600 °C. What is the molecular formula of the compound? (Kf for water = 1.86 °C/m; C = 12.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0 g/mol). A) C3H3O B) CHO C) C14H11O6 D) C5H5O5 E) C7H5O3 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

97) A saline solution begins to freeze at -1.13 °C. Express the concentration of NaCl in this solution in mass %. Kf for water is 1.86 °C m-1. A) 3.48% B) 1.74% C) 0.870% D) 17.8% E) 8.90% Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

98) Two solutions contain the same amount of water as a solvent. One solution contains 0.5 mol glucose (C6H12O6) while the other one contains 0.2 mol of CaCl2 . If the freezing points of both solutions are the same, determine the van't Hoff i factor for CaCl2 solution. A) 2.50 B) 3 C) 1.50 D) 2.75 E) 0.75 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-8

99) 3.2 grams of a compound with a molar mass of 96 g/mol dissolved in 50 grams of water gave a solution that freezes at -1.50 °C. Kf for water is 1.86 °C/m. The van't Hoff i factor for this solution is ________. A) 0.83 B) 1.2 C) 0.21 D) 0.17 E) 2.0 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

100) The freezing point of a solution made by dissolving 8.9 g of MgCl2 in 98 g H2O is -4.3 °C. Kf for water is 1.86 °C m-1. The van't Hoff i factor for this solution is ________. A) 1.2 B) 2.7 C) 2.4 D) 2.0 E) 3.0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 14-9

101) What volume of an aqueous solution of 0.716 mol L-1 KBr is needed to provide 30.5 g of KBr? A) 21.8 mL B) 42.7 mL C) 184 mL D) 357 mL Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) What volume of an aqueous solution of 3.00 mol L-1 CH3OH is needed to provide 0.220 mol of CH3OH? A) 1.52 mL B) 13.6 mL C) 73.3 mL D) 660 mL Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) To make a 0.500 mol L-1 solution, one could take 0.500 moles of solute and add: A) 1.00 L of solvent B) 1.00 kg of solvent C) enough solvent to make 1.00 L of solution D) enough solvent to make 1.00 kg of solution Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) How many grams of KBr are required to make 350. mL of a 0.115 mol L-1 KBr aqueous solution? A) 0.338 g B) 3.04 g C) 4.79 g D) 40.3 g Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) What is the molality of a glucose solution prepared by dissolving 18.0 g of glucose, C6H12O6, in 125.9 g of water? A) 7.94 × 10-4 mol kg-1 B) 0.143 mol kg-1 C) 0.695 mol kg-1

D) 0.794 mol kg-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) To make a 2.00 mol kg-1 solution, one could take 2.00 moles of solute and add: A) 1.00 L of solvent B) 1.00 kg of solvent C) enough solvent to make 1.00 L of solution D) enough solvent to make 1.00 kg of solution Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) What molality of pentane is obtained by dissolving 15 g pentane, C5H12, in 245.0 g hexane, C6H14? A) 0.058 mol kg-1 B) 0.068 mol kg-1 C) 0.85 mol kg-1 D) 61 mol kg-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) A solution of LiCl in water has xLiCl = 0.0900. What is the molality? A) 4.46 mol kg-1 LiCl B) 5.00 mol kg-1 LiCl C) 5.49 mol kg-1 LiCl D) 9.89 mol kg-1 LiCl Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) A solution is prepared by adding 1.43 mol of KCl to 889 g of water. The concentration of KCl is ________ mol kg-1. A) 1.61 × 10-3 B) 622 C) 0.622 D) 1.27 × 103 E) 1.61 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

110) A solution is prepared by dissolving 16.2 g of benzene (

) in 282 g of carbon tetrachloride

The concentration of benzene in this solution is ________ molal. The molar masses of and A) 7.36 × B) 0.736 C) 0.102 D) 0.0543 E) 5.43 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

respectively.

Var: 10

and

are

111) What is the weight percent of vitamin C in a solution made by dissolving 6.50 g of vitamin C, C6H8O6, in 55.0 g of water? A) 0.547% B) 1.21% C) 10.6% D) 11.8% Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) What is the weight percent of a caffeine solution made by dissolving 8.35 g of caffeine, C8H10N4O2, in 75 g of benzene, C6H6? A) 0.010% B) 0.011% C) 10% D) 11% Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) How much water must be added to 40.0 g of CaCl2 to produce a solution that is 35.0 wt% CaCl2? A) 54.0 g B) 74.3 g C) 87.5 g D) 114 g Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) A solution of LiCl in water is 20.0 wt% LiCl. What is the mole fraction of LiCl? Assume the density of the solution is 1.00 g mL-1. A) 0.0960 B) 0.106 C) 0.472 D) 4.44 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution made by dissolving 29.2 g of ethanol, C2H5OH, in 53.6 g of water? A) 0.176 B) 0.213 C) 0.352 D) 0.545 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) What is the mole fraction of I2 in a solution made by dissolving 55.6 g of I2 in 245 g of hexane, C6H14? A) 0.0715 B) 0.0770 C) 0.133 D) 0.154 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) What is the mole fraction of oxygen in a gas mixture that is 37% oxygen and 63% nitrogen by volume? A) 0.34 B) 0.37 C) 0.25 D) 0.52 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) A solution is 2.25% by weight NaHCO3. How many grams of NaHCO3 are in 150.0 g of solution? A) 1.50 g B) 3.38 g C) 66.7 g D) 225 g Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) At 20 °C, an aqueous solution that is 24.0% by mass in ammonium chloride has a density of What is the molarity of ammonium chloride in the solution? The formula weight of is A) 5.90 B) 0.479 C) 4.79 D) 0.0445 E) 22.5 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 16

120) At 20 °C, a 2.32 mol L-1 aqueous solution of ammonium chloride has a density of What is the molality of ammonium chloride in the solution? The formula weight of A) 2.55 B) 0.0449 C) 2.32 D) 0.446 E) 12.00 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 16

Cl is

121) At 20 °C, a 0.376 mol L-1 aqueous solution of ammonium chloride has a density of What is the mass % of ammonium chloride in the solution? The formula weight of Cl is A) 0.381 B) 0.705 C) 0.374 D) 2.68 E) 2.00 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 16

122) A solution is prepared by dissolving 40.0 g of sucrose, C12H22O11, in 250. g of water at 25 °C. What is the vapour pressure of the solution if the vapour pressure of water at 25 °C is 23.76 mmHg? A) 0.198 mmHg B) 20.5 mmHg C) 23.6 mmHg D) 24.0 mmHg Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) A KCl solution is prepared by dissolving 25.0 g KCl in 250.0 g of water at 25 °C. What is the vapour pressure of the solution if the vapour pressure of water at 25 °C is 23.76 mmHg? A) 21.6 mmHg B) 22.7 mmHg C) 23.2 mmHg D) 24.9 mmHg Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) At a given temperature the vapour pressures of benzene and toluene are 183 mmHg and 59.2 mmHg, respectively. Calculate the total vapour pressure over a solution of benzene and toluene with xbenzene = 0.580. A) 106 mmHg B) 121 mmHg C) 131 mmHg D) 242 mmHg Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) Which of the following solutions will have the lowest freezing point? A) 0.010 mol kg-1 K Br B) 0.010 mol kg-1 Na2CO3

C) 0.035 mol kg-1 CH3CH2OH D) 0.015 mol kg-1 BaCl2 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

126) What is the expected freezing point of a 0.50 mol kg-1 solution of Li2SO4 in water? Kf for water is 1.86 °C m-1. A) -0.93 °C B) -1.9 °C C) -2.8 °C D) -6.5 °C Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) Calculate the freezing point of a solution of 40.0 g methyl salicylate, C7H6O2, dissolved in 800. g of benzene, C6H6. A) -2.09 °C B) 2.09 °C C) 3.41 °C D) 7.59 °C Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

and the freezing point is 5.50 °C for benzene.

Var: 5

128) What is the freezing point of a solution of 7.15 g MgCl2 in 100 g of water? Kf for water is A) -0.140 °C B) -1.40 °C C) -2.80 °C D) -4.18 °C Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

129) An aqueous solution has a normal boiling point of 103.0 °C. What is the freezing point of this solution? For water and A) -0.82 °C B) -3.0 °C C) -3.6 °C D) -11 °C Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

130) A solution is prepared by adding 30.00 g of lactose (milk sugar) to 110.0 g of water at The partial pressure of water above the solution is ________ Torr. The vapour pressure of pure water at 55 °C is 0.1553 bar. The MW of lactose is A) 1.670 B) 94.1 C) 169.4 D) 116.3 E) 92.7 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

131) A solution is prepared by dissolving 7.00 g of glycerin (

) in 201 g of ethanol

The

freezing point of the solution is ________ °C. The freezing point of pure ethanol is . The molal freezing point depression constant ( ) for ethanol is The molar masses of glycerin and of ethanol are 92.1 g mol-1 and 46.1 g mol-1, respectively. A) -121.3 B) 0.752 C) -107.9 D) -113.8 E) -115.4 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

132) Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 5.0 grams of KCl and 550.0 grams of water. The molal freezing point depression constant ( ) for water is A) -0.45 °C B) +0.45 °C C) -0.23 °C D) +0.23 °C E) 1.23 °C Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 15 Principles of Chemical Equilibrium 1) In a system in equilibrium, two opposing reactions occur at equal rates. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-1

2) For a solute (X) aq, in an ideal aqueous solution, its activity equals its concentration. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-1

3) In an equilibrium process, the concentrations of products and of reactants are equal. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

4) Equilibrium reactions are noted by a single straight arrow for a yield sign. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

5) The value of the equilibrium constant for a given reaction depends on the initial concentrations of reactants. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

6) The concentration of a pure solid is left out of a equilibrium constant expression but a pure liquid is included. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

7) Large value for equilibrium constant K means the reaction will be less complete at the equilibrium point. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-4

8) Both products and reactants will be present in an equilibrium reaction unless K is very small or very large. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-4

9) Reaction quotient Q will always be equal to the reaction's equilibrium constant K. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

10) Changes in temperature cause change in the equilibrium position. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

11) One method to aid in working out equilibrium problems is the ICE table. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A certain amount of energy, called the activation energy, must be available if a reaction is to take place. B) A reversible chemical reaction is one in which equilibrium is never established due to the constant decomposition of the products. C) When the rate of the reverse reaction equals the rate of the forward reaction, equilibrium has been established. D) Changes in temperature will change the value of an equilibrium constant. E) Chemical equilibrium is a dynamic equilibrium. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-1

13) What is the value for Kc if [CO] = 0.025 M, [H2] = 0.013 M and [CH3OH] = 0.0028 M for the following reaction? CH3OH(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 2 H2(g) A) 1.5 × 10-3 B) 0.12 C) 6.6 × 102 D) 8.6

E) 9.1 × 10-7 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

14) What is the value for Kc for the reaction below if the equilibrium concentrations are [N2] = 0.025 M, [H2] = 0.0013 M and [NH3] = 0.028 M for the following reaction? N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) A) 8.6 × 102 B) 1.4 × 107 C) 1.2 × 10-3 D) 7.1 × 10-8 E) 7.4 × 105 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

15) For the reaction: H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 92.0

When equilibrium concentrations of HI and I2 are [HI] = 0.115 M and [I2] = 0.250 M, the equilibrium concentration of [H2] is: A) 5.00 × 10-3 M B) 5.75 × 10-4 M C) 1.74 × 103 M D) 0.135 M E) 9.56 M Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

16) Given that the equilibrium concentrations of [N2] = 0.035 M, [C2H2] = 0.057 M, and [HCN] = 6.8 × 10-4 M, find the value of the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction: N2(g) + C2H2(g) ⇌ 2 HCN A) 3.4 × 10-1 B) 2.9 C) 4300 D) 2.3 × 10-4 E) 6.8 × 10-1 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

17) For which of the following reactions does Kp = Kc? A) 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) B) C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g) C) 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g) D) H2(g) + I2(s) ⇌ 2 HI(g) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

18) Which of the following substances present in the chemical reaction would be excluded from the equilibrium constant expression? A) Na+(aq) B) H2O(g) C) Cl-(aq) D) H2O(l) (reactant and solvent) E) CO(g) Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

19) Given the following: I) N2O(g) + 1/2 O2(g) ⇌ 2 NO(g) II) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 NO(g)

Kc = 1.7 × 10-13 Kc = 4.1 × 10-31

Find the value of the equilibrium constant for the following equilibrium reaction: N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) ⇌ N2O(g) A) 7.0 × 10-44 B) 4.2 × 1017 C) 2.4 × 10-18 D) 1.6 × 10-9 E) 2.6 × 10-22 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

20) For the following chemical equilibrium, Kp = 4.6 × 10-14 at 25 °C, find the value of Kc for this reaction at 25 °C. 2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ 4 HCl(g) + O2(g) A) Kc = 1.9 × 10-15 B) Kc = 2.2 × 10-14 C) Kc = 1.1 × 10-12 D) Kc = 9.4 × 10-14 E) Kc = 4.6 × 10-14 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

21) Which of the following equilibrium constants-reaction types is INCORRECT? A) 1.4 × 1083 equilibrium reaction-goes to completion. B) 1.6 × 10-23 equilibrium reaction-does not occur. C) 1.8 × 10-5 equilibrium reaction-more reactants than products at equilibrium. D) 1.0 equilibrium reaction-equal amounts of products and reactants. E) 3.2 × 103 equilibrium reaction-more reactants than products at equilibrium. Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-4

22) For the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) Kc = 0.0454 at 261 °C. If a vessel is filled with these gases such that the initial concentrations are [PCl5] = 0.20 M, [PCl3] = 0.20 M, and [Cl2] = 2.5 M, in which direction will a reaction occur and why? A) toward products because Qc = 0.56 B) toward reactants because Qc = 2.5

C) toward products because Qc = 2.8 D) toward reactants because Qc = 0.0454 E) it is at equilibrium because Qc = 1 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

23) For the reaction 2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 SO3 (g), Kc = 2.8 × 102 at 1000 K. If a vessel is filled with these gases such that the initial concentrations are [SO2] = 0.025 M, [O2] = 0.035 M, and [SO3] = 0.046 M, in which direction will a reaction occur and why? A) toward products because Qc = 53 B) toward reactants because Qc = 0.019 C) toward products because Qc = 97

D) toward reactants because Qc = 2.8 × 103 E) it is at equilibrium because Qc = 1 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

24) For the reaction CO(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ H2O(g) + CH4(g) , Kc = 190 at 1000 K. If a vessel is filled with these gases such that the initial concentrations are [CO] = 0.025 M, [H2] = 0.045 M, [H2O] = 0.025, M and [CH4] = 0.046 M, in which direction will a reaction occur and why? A) toward products because Qc = 0.17 B) toward reactants because Qc = 0.0029 C) toward products because Qc = 0.35 D) toward reactants because Qc = 505 E) it is at equilibrium because Qc = 1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

25) For the reaction CO(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ H2O(g) + CH4(g), Kc = 190 at 1000 K. If a vessel is filled with these gases such that the initial concentrations are [CO] = 0.036 M, [H2] = 0.045 M, [H2O] = 0.020, M and [CH4] = 0.031 M, in which direction will a reaction occur and why? A) toward products because Qc = 0.38 B) toward reactants because Qc = 0.24 C) toward products because Qc = 4.1 D) toward reactants because Qc = 61

E) it is at equilibrium because Qc = 190 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

26) Consider the following reaction. C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g) At equilibrium at a certain temperature, [H2O] = 0.12 M, and [CO] = [H2] = 1.2 M. If suddenly these concentrations are increased by 0.50 M, which of the following is true? A) more products are formed B) Kc = 4.66 C) more H2O(g) will be formed

D) Since Kc does not change, nothing happens. Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

27) Which factor influences the value of the equilibrium constant for a reversible reaction? A) addition of a catalyst B) raising the temperature C) removing product D) removing reactant E) increase in mixing rate Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

28) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g), ΔrH° = +190 kJ, when catalyst is added: A) the reaction shifts to the right B) the reaction shifts to the left C) the ΔH° increases D) the temperature increases E) there is no change, catalyst changes reaction rate only Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

29) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g) ,ΔrH° = +190 kJ, when CH4 is added: A) the reaction shifts to the right B) the reaction shifts to the left C) the ΔrH° increases

D) the temperature increases E) there is no change in equilibrium position Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

30) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g), ΔH° = +190 kJ,when H2(g) is added: A) the reaction shifts to the right B) the reaction shifts to the left C) the ΔrH° increases

D) the temperature increases E) there is no change in equilibrium position Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

31) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g), ΔrH° = +190 kJ,when the temperature is raised to 1200 K: A) the reaction shifts to the right B) the reaction shifts to the left C) the ΔrH° increases

D) the temperature increases E) there is no change in equilibrium position Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

32) In a reaction at equilibrium involving only gases, a change in pressure of the reaction mixture shifts the position of equilibrium only when: A) heat is absorbed by the reaction proceeding to the right B) the gases are impure C) the collision rate increases D) the reaction is exothermic as written E) the moles of gas are not equal on the two sides of the equation Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

33) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) what is the effect of removing H2? A) The reaction shifts to the right. B) There is no change. C) The reaction shifts to the left. D) The Kp is decreased. E) The Kp is doubled. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

34) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) what is the effect on equilibrium of increasing temperature of an exothermic reaction? A) The reaction shifts to the right. B) There is no change. C) The reaction shifts to the left. D) The Kp is decreased. E) The Kp is doubled. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

35) According to Le Chatelier's Principle: A) an increase in pressure always causes a change in the position of equilibrium for any reaction B) the greatest yield of ammonia in the exothermic reaction N2 + 3 H2 ⇌ 2 NH3 is attained at a high temperature C) the equilibrium constant is increased for the reaction A + B ⇌ C if the concentration of A is increased D) an increase of temperature causes a decrease in the value of the equilibrium constant for an exothermic reaction E) when an equilibrium system is stressed, the system reacts to offset the stress Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

36) Which of the following keep the equilibrium position unchanged? A) temperature decrease B) concentration change C) temperature D) pressure change E) homogeneous catalyst Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

37) Consider the reaction: CH4(g) + 4 Cl2(g) ⇌ CCl4(l) + 4 HCl(g), ΔrH° = -398 kJ/mol The equilibrium is displaced to the right if: A) the temperature is raised B) the pressure is lowered C) some carbon tetrachloride is removed D) some hydrogen chloride is added E) some chlorine gas is removed Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

38) Choose the correct statement about a container in which the chemical equilibrium is established: 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g) + heat A) A decrease in amount of O2 will decrease the amount of SO2 present. B) A decrease in the volume will decrease the amount of SO2 present.

C) An increase in temperature will decrease the amount of SO2 present.

D) A decrease in the amount of SO3 present will increase the amount of SO2 present. E) An increase in amount of O2 will increase the amount of SO2 present. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

39) Choose the correct statement about the equilibrium: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), Kp = 1 × 10-4 A) The rate constant for the forward reaction is greater than that of the reverse reaction. B) Since the reaction has a high activation energy, a catalyst is not needed. C) The equilibrium constant is given by Kp = [N2][H2]3/[NH3]2. D) Conducting the reaction under high pressures will increase the yield of ammonia. E) The Kp is independent of temperature. Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

40) Consider the exothermic reaction: 4 HCl(aq) + MnO2(s) ⇌ Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + MnCl2(aq) The equilibrium is displaced to the left if: A) catalyst is added B) pressure is lowered C) temperature is lowered D) MnCl2(aq) is added E) MnO2(s) is added Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

41) Consider the reaction: 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), ΔrH° = -196.6 kJ/mol The equilibrium is displaced to the left if: A) some sulfur trioxide is removed B) the temperature is raised C) some sulfur dioxide is added D) the pressure is raised E) the temperature is lowered Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

42) In a reaction at equilibrium involving only gases, a pressure change will shift the reaction only when: A) heat is absorbed by the reaction proceeding to the right B) the number of molecules on one side is greater than the number on the other side of the balanced equation C) the number of molecules increases during the chemical reaction D) the gases are impure E) the collision rate increases Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

43) Equilibrium constant K is constant except when one varies the: A) concentrations of the reactants B) temperature of the reaction C) concentration of the products D) partial pressures of the reactants E) K always remains constant Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

44) For the reaction; N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), the equilibrium amount of NH3 will be increased by: I) increasing the pressure II) adding H2 III) removing N2 IV) decreasing the pressure A) I, III B) III only C) II, III D) I, II E) II, IV Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

45) For the reaction: CH4(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4 H2(g), ΔrH° = +190 kJ, add N2(g) at constant volume and: A) the reaction reacts to the right B) the reaction reacts to the left C) the ΔH° increases D) the temperature increases E) there is no change Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

46) What will happen to the equilibrium in the reaction 2 A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g), Kc = 1.25 at 300 K, if a catalyst is added? A) The reaction is forced to the right. B) The reaction is forced to the left. C) No change, catalyst only changes the rate. D) Kc is increased. E) Kc is decreased. Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

47) Consider the following chemical reaction at equilibrium: 2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ 4 HCl(g) + O2(g) This equilibrium can be shifted to the right by: A) removing H2O(g) from the mixture B) adding more O2(g) to the mixture C) adding Ne(g) to the mixture D) decreasing the volume of the mixture E) increasing the volume of the mixture Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

48) For the following reaction O2(g) ⇌ 2 O(g) what conditions favor production of oxygen atoms? A) high temperature and low pressure B) high temperature and high pressure C) low temperature and low pressure D) low temperature and high pressure Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

49) 0.75 mol of N2 and 1.20 mol of H2 are placed in a 3.0 liter container. When the reaction

N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) reaches equilibrium, [H2] = 0.100 M. Which of the following is true? A) [NH3] = 0.150 M B) [NH3] = 0.200 M C) [N2] = 0.650 M

D) [N2] = 0.250 M E) [NH3] = [H2] = 0.05 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

50) 2.5 moles H2O and 100 g of C are placed in a 50-L container. At equilibrium for the reaction C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g), [H2] = 0.040 M. Which of the following is true? A) [CO] = 0.020 M B) [H2O] = 0.010 M C) no carbon is left D) [H2O] = 0.020 M E) [C(s)] = 0.04 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

51) Consider the following reaction at a certain temperature. 2 SO3(g) ⇌ 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) When the initial concentration of SO3(g) is 0.128 M, the concentration of oxygen gas at equilibrium is found to be 0.0130 M. Calculate Kc for this reaction. A) 8.45 × 10-4 B) 1.62 × 10-2 C) 7.64 × 10-5 D) 1.47 × 10-3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

52) Consider the following equation: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) , Kc = 5.8 × 10-3 If the initial concentration of N2O4(g) = 0.040 M and the initial concentration of NO2(g) is 0 M, what is the equilibrium concentration of N2O4(g)? A) 1.7 × 10-2 M B) 1.9 × 10-2 M C) 3.3 × 10-2 M D) 2.6 × 10-2 M E) 2.3 × 10-6 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

53) Consider the following gas phase reaction at 25 °C. N2(g) + C2H2(g) ⇌ 2 HCN(g) 1.600 mol N2(g) and 1.750 mol C2H2(g) are placed in a 1.000 L vessel and the mixture is allowed to react. At equilibrium, there are 1.587 mol N2(g) in the mixture. What is Kc for this reaction at 25 °C? A) 9.8 × 10-4 B) 9.4 × 10-3 C) 2.5 × 10-4 D) 4.7 × 10-3 E) 6.7 × 10-5 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

54) For the reaction below CO(g) + 2 H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) the equilibrium concentrations at 483 K are [CO] = 0.0753 M, [H2] = 0.151 M, and [CH3OH] = 0.0247 M. Calculate the value of Kc. A) 14.4 B) 1.09 C) 2.17 D) 0.0694 E) 0.917 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

55) For the decomposition of SO3(g), Kc = [SO2]2[O2]/[SO3]2, at equilibrium, there are 0.090 mol SO2, 0.110 mol O2, 0.100 mol SO3 in a 25.0-L container. What is the value of Kc? A) 3.6 × 10-3 B) 0.040 C) 2.23 D) 0.089 E) 7.89 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

56) Consider the following equilibrium reaction: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) Kc = 96.2 The equilibrium constant for the decomposition of PCl5(g) to PCl3(g) and Cl2(g) is ________. A) -Kc B) C) D) E) Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

57) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the following reaction: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) A) B) C) D) E) Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

58) What is the equilibrium constant expression for: 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) ⇌ 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O(g) A) B) C) D) E) Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

59) For the production of NO2, Kc = [NO2]2/[NO]2[O2]. At equilibrium in a 2.50 L container, there are 3.00 mol NO, 4.00 mol O2 and 22.0 mol NO2. The value of Kc is ________. A) 13.4 B) 33.6 C) 5.38 D) 0.0116 E) 3.75 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

60) For CO2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g), Kc = [CO][H2]/[CO2][H2], if there are 1.43 mols each of CO and H2O, 0.572 mol H2 and 4.572 mols CO2, in a 4.0 L container at equilibrium, what is Kc? A) 0.547 B) 0.782 C) 1.28 D) 0.137 E) 2.34 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

61) For 2 NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g), Kc = [N2O4]/[NO2]2. At equilibrium there are 0.0270 mol N2O4 and 0.450 mol NO2 in a 50.0-L container. What is Kc? A) 0.00267 B) 6.81 C) 6.67 D) 0.133 E) 2.45 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

62) Consider the following hypothetical equilibrium reaction: A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2 AB(g)

where Kc =

The equilibrium constant for the reaction: 2 A2(g) + 2 B2(g) ⇌ 4 AB(g) is ________. A) B) Kc4 C) D) E) Kc2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-2

63) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the following reaction: 2 KI(aq) + H2O2(aq) ⇌ 2 KOH(aq) + I2(aq) A) Kc = B) Kc = [I2] C) Kc = [I2]2 D) Kc = E) Kc = Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

64) For the reaction 2 NO2(g)⇌ N2O4(g) Kp equals ________. A) Kc

B) RT/Kc

C) Kc(RT) D) Kc/RT E) Kc(RT)2 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

65) Write the equilibrium expression Kc for the reaction: sodium sulfite(aq) + chloric acid (aq) ⇌ sodium chlorate(aq) + sulfur dioxide(g) + water(l). A) B) C) D) E) Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

66) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) write the expression for Kp. A) B) C) D) E) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

67) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the following reaction: 6 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(l) ⇌ C6H12O6(s) + 6 O2(g) A) Kc = B) Kc = C) Kc = D) Kc = E) Kc = Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

68) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) write the expression for Kc in terms of Kp. A) Kc = Kp B) Kc = C) Kc = KpRT D) Kc = E) Kc = Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

69) What is the relationship between Kp and Kc for the reaction below? 4 NH3(g) + 7 O2(g) ⇌ 2 N2O4(g) + 6 H2O(g) A) Kp = Kc(RT)-3 B) Kc = Kp(RT)-3 C) Kp = Kc(RT)3 D) Kp = Kc(RT) E) Kp = Kc

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

70) Given the following reactions, 2 PCl3(g) ⇌ 2 P(g) + 3 Cl2(g)

Kc = 0.0667 Kc = 4.0

PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) calculate Kc for the reaction below. 2 P(g) + 5 Cl2(g) ⇌ 2 PCl5(g) A) 240 B) 1.1 C) 60 D) 23 E) 0.41 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

71) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction: 3 Sn(s) + 4 HNO3(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ 3 H2SnO3(s) + 4 NO(g) A) Kc = B) Kc = C) Kc = D) Kc = E) Kc = Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

72) Find Kp for the following reaction at 25.0 °C. SbCl5(g) ⇌ SbCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

Kc = 2.51 × 10-2

A) 0.614

B) 1.03 × 10-3 C) 5.15 × 10-2 D) 9.74 × 102 E) 39.8 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-3

73) For a reaction, the reaction quotient, Qc > Kc ,the reaction ________. A) is at equilibrium B) is exothermic C) shifts to the right D) shifts to the left E) is endothermic Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

74) For the reaction: 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), Kc = 6.9 × 1024 at 25 °C. If a reaction vessel is filled with these gases, such that [SO2] = 6.0 M, [O2] = 6.0 M and [SO3] = 6.0 M, in which direction will the reaction proceed? A) The reaction proceeds to the right. B) The reaction proceeds to the left. C) The reaction is already at equilibrium. D) The reaction volume must be specified to answer this question. E) The value of Kp must be specified to answer this question. Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

75) For the reaction: 2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) ⇌ 4 HCl(g) + O2(g), Kp = 6.4 × 10-6 at 500 K. If a fixed volume is filled with initial concentrations of these gases at 227 °C such that [Cl2] = 0.5 M, [H2O] = 0.40 M, [HCl] = 0.5 M, and [O2] = 0.015 M, in which direction will the reaction proceed? A) The reaction proceeds to the right. B) The reaction proceeds to the left. C) The reaction is already at equilibrium. D) The reaction volume must be specified to answer this question. E) The value of Kp at 25 °C must be specified to answer this question. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

76) For the reaction 2 A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g), Kc = 1.25 at 300 K. If a 1.00 L mixture contains 0.619 mol A, 0.693 mol B, and 0.689 mol C at 300 K, will the mixture be in equilibrium? If not, in what direction will a net reaction occur? A) Yes, reaction is at equilibrium. B) No, net reaction proceeds to the left. C) No, net reaction proceeds to the right. D) No, but there is no net reaction. E) Yes, net reaction proceeds to the right Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-5

77) For the reaction: 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g) ⇌ Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) what is the effect of adding Fe(s)? A) The reaction shifts to the right. B) There is no change. C) The reaction shifts to the left. D) Kp is decreased. E) Kp is doubled. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

78) At a certain temperature, Kc = 0.0500 and △rH° = +39.6 kJ for the reaction below. 2 MgCl2(s) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 MgO(s) + 2 Cl2(g)

Calculate Kc for the reaction MgO(s) + Cl2(g) ⇌ MgCl2(s) +

O2(g)

and indicate whether its value will be larger or smaller at a lower temperature. A) 4.47, larger B) 400, smaller C) 0.224, larger D) 0.224, smaller E) 0.0025, smaller Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

79) Two moles of NH3 are initially present for the reaction: 2 NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3 H2(g) At equilibrium there is 1.00 mol NH3. How many moles of H2 are present at equilibrium? A) 3.00 moles B) 1.00 moles C) 1.50 moles D) 0.67 moles E) 0.75 moles Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

80) In the reaction: 2 N2O(g) + N2H4(g) ⇌ 3 N2(g) + 2 H2O(g), one starts with 0.10 mol N2O and 0.25 mol N2H4 in a 10.0 L container. If there are 0.06 mol N2O at equilibrium, how many moles of N2 are present? A) 0.02 B) 0.04 C) 0.06 D) 0.09 E) 0.07 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

81) For the reaction: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) at 70.5 °C, Kp = 1.05. If one starts with 1.80 atm pressure of PCl3(g), 1.72 atm pressure of Cl2(g), and no PCl5(g), what is the partial pressure of PCl5(g) at equilibrium? A) 0.827 atm B) 0.856 atm C) 0.818 atm D) 0.599 atm E) 0.080 atm Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

82) A mixture containing 0.392 M A(g) and 0.452 M B(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium at 300 K. The reaction 3 A(g) + 2 B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g) occurs. At equilibrium, [C] = 0.00128 M. What is the value of Kc? A) 7.35 × 10-3 B) 1.39 × 10-4 C) 1.36 × 102 D) 9.24 × 10-6 E) 7.19 × 106 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

83) A mixture containing 0.0392 M A(g) and 0.0452 M B(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium at 300 K. The reaction: 3 A(g) + 2 B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g) occurs. At equilibrium, [C] = 0.00128 M. What is the value of Kc? A) 2.13 × 10-3 B) 0.849 C) 20.4 D) 4.91 × 10-2 E) 470 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

84) For the decomposition of ammonium carbamate NH4(NH2CO2)(s) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) + CO2(g) Kp = 0.0596 at a certain temperature. A solid sample of ammonium carbamate is introduced into an evacuated container and at equilibrium some solid remains in the container. What is the total pressure in the container? A) 0.738 atm B) 1.17 atm C) 0.930 atm D) 0.179 atm E) 0.358 atm Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

85) Consider the following equilibrium. A(g) + 3 B(g) ⇌ 2 C(g) If the initial concentrations are [A] = 1.00 M, [B] = 3.00 M, and [C] = 0, at equilibrium it is found that [C] = 0.980 M. Calculate Kc for this reaction. A) 0.526 B) 0.268 C) 1.26 D) 0.131 E) 1.901 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

86) Consider the following reversible reaction: POCl3(g) ⇌ POCl(g) + Cl2(g)

Kc = 0.450

The following initial amounts of reactants and products were mixed: [POCl3] = 0.750 M, [POCl] = 0.550 M, and [Cl2] = 0.150 M. What is the equilibrium concentration of POCl? A) 0.395 M B) 0.155 M C) 0.740 M D) 0.945 M E) 0.360 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

87) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25 °C and ΔrH° =

58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 1.00 atm at equilibrium and that initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute at equilibrium. A) 0.398 atm B) 0.113 atm C) 0.602 atm D) 0.285 atm E) 0.715 atm Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

88) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25 °C and ΔrH° =

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

89) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25 °C and ΔrH° =

58.03 kJ/mol. Assume that 1 mole of N2O4 and 2 moles of NO2 are introduced into a 5.0 liter container. What will be the equilibrium value of [N2O4]? A) 0.928 M B) 0.0822 M C) 0.358 M D) 0.379 M E) 0.042 M Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

90) At 35 °C, Kp = 0.315 for the reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), if the initial pressure of NO2(g) in a container is 3.00 atm, what is the equilibrium pressure of N2O4(g)? A) 1.88 atm B) 0.315 atm C) 0.471 atm D) 1.19 atm E) 0.685 atm Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

91) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25 °C and ΔrH° =

58.03 kJ/mol. Assume that 1 mole of N2O4 and 2 moles of NO2 are introduced into a 5.0 liter container. What will be the equilibrium value of [N2O]? A) 0.928 M B) 0.0822 M C) 0.358 M D) 0.379 M E) 0.042 M Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

92) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25 °C and ΔrH° = 58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 10 atm at equilibrium and that initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute at equilibrium. A) 7.98 atm B) 8.88 atm C) 1.12 atm D) 1.01 atm E) 8.99 atm Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

93) Consider the equilibrium system: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) for which Kp = 0.1134 at 25 °C and ΔrH° = 58.03 kJ/mol. Assuming that the total pressure inside the container is 10 atm at equilibrium and that initially only N2O4 was present inside the container, compute at equilibrium. A) 7.98 atm B) 8.88 atm C) 1.12 atm D) 1.01 atm E) 8.99 atm Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

94) A mixture, containing 0.0750 M HCl(g) and 0.0330 M O2(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium at 480 °C. 4 HCl(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 Cl2(g) + 2 H2O(g) At equilibrium [Cl2] = 0.030 M. What is the value of Kc? A) 1.1 × 10-3 B) 890 C) 0.13 D) 1.3 E) 480 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

95) 4.000 mol chlorine and 2.000 mol bromine were placed in a 50.0 L container and kept at 293 K until equilibrium was achieved for the reaction: Br2(l) + Cl2(g) ⇌ BrCl(g) At the point of equilibrium there were 82.63 g of Br2(l). Compute the value of Kc for this reaction. A) 0.0699 B) 1.18 C) 0.849 D) 3.50 E) 2.36 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

96) 4.000 mol chlorine and 2.000 mol bromine were placed in a 50.0 L container and kept at 293 K until equilibrium was achieved for the reaction: Br2(l) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2 BrCl(g) At the point of equilibrium there were 82.63 g of Br2(l). Determine the total pressure in the 50.0 L container at equilibrium. A) 0.110 atm B) 2.64 atm C) 0.180 atm D) 1.43 atm E) 1.21 atm Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

97) For the reaction: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) at 85 °C, Kp = 1.19 If one starts with 2.00 atm pressure of PCl3, 1.00 atm pressure of Cl2 and no PCl5, what is the partial pressure of PCl5(g) at equilibrium? A) 0.167 atm B) 0.739 atm C) 0.621 atm D) 0.465 atm E) 0.553 atm Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

98) Consider the following reaction: POCl3(g) ⇌ POCl(g) + Cl2(g) with Kc = 0.450 A sample of pure POCl3(g) was placed in a reaction vessel and allowed to decompose according to the above reaction. At equilibrium, the concentrations of POCl(g) and Cl2(g) were each 0.150 M. What was the initial concentration of POCl3(g)? A) 0.225 M B) 0.200 M C) 0.633 M D) 0.483 M E) 0.350 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

99) Consider the following reaction occurring at 960 K: CO2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g) At equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products are: [CO2] = 0.0400 M, [H2] = 0.0220 M, [CO] = 0.0240 M, and [H2O] = 0.0190 M. This equilibrium is perturbed by adding CO2(g) to the system such

that when a new equilibrium is reached, the concentration of CO2 is 0.050 M. What is the concentration of H2(g) at this equilibrium? A) 0.050 M B) 0.482 M C) 0.462 M D) 0.300 M E) 0.0504 M Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-7

100) One of the reactions in the gasification of coal is CO(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g) + H2O(g)

ΔrH° = -237 kJ

For each of the following changes, explain the effect (increase, decrease, no effect) on the number of moles of CH4(g) produced. (a) increase the concentration of H2O(g)

(b) decrease the volume of the container (c) add a catalyst (d) decrease the temperature Answer: (a) decrease, (b) increase, (c) no effect, (d) increase Diff: 3 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 15-6

101) For the reaction: N2(g) + 2 O2(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), Kc = 8.3 × 10-10 M-1 at 25 °C. What is the concentration of N2 gas at equilibrium when the concentration of NO2 is five times the concentration of O2 gas? A) 3.3 × 10-11 mol L-1 B) 1.7 × 10-10 mol L-1 C) 6.0 × 109 mol L-1 D) 3.0 × 1010 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

102) The

Var: 5

for the reaction below is 1.49 × 108 at 100.0 °C:

CO(g) +

(g) →

(g)

In an equilibrium mixture of the three gases, product, phosgene (

= 2.22 × 10-4 bar. The partial pressure of the

), is ________ bar.

A) 7.34

B) 3.02 × 1015 C) 3.31 × 10-16 D) 3.31 × 104 E) 6.67 × 1011 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

103) At 900.0 K, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the following reaction is 0.345: +

(g) →

(g)

At equilibrium, the partial pressure of

is 35.0 bar and that of

is 15.9 bar. The partial pressure of

is ________ bar. A) 82.0 B) 4.21 × C) 192

D) 6.20 × 10-4 E) 40.2 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

104) The decomposition of ammonia is 2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3 H2(g). If Kp is 1.5 × 103 at 400 °C, what is the partial pressure of ammonia at equilibrium when the partial pressure of N2(g) is 0.10 bar and that of H2(g) is 0.15 bar? A) 2.2 × 10-7 bar B) 4.7 × 10-4 bar C) 2.1 × 103 bar D) 4.4 × 106 bar Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) Phosphorus trichloride and phosphorus pentachloride equilibrate in the presence of molecular chlorine according to the following reaction: (g) +

(g) →

(g)

An equilibrium mixture at 450 K contains = 0.124 bar, = 0.157 bar, and = 1.30 bar. What is the value of Kp at this temperature? A) 66.8 B) 1.50 × C) 2.53 × 10-2 D) 1.02 E) 4.63 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

106) An equilibrium mixture of CO, O2, and CO2 at a certain temperature contains 0.0010 mol L-1 CO2 and 0.0015 mol L-1 O2. At this temperature, Kc equals 1.4 × 102 L for the reaction: 2 CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 CO2(g) What is the equilibrium concentration of CO? A) 4.8 × 10-6 mol L-1 B) 8.5 × 10-3 mol L-1 C) 9.3 × 10-2 mol L-1 D) 3.1 × 10-1 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) At a certain temperature, Kc equals 1.40 × 102 M-1 for the reaction: 2 CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 CO2(g) If a 3.00 L flask contains 0.400 mol of CO2 and 0.100 mol of O2 at equilibrium, how many moles of CO are also present in the flask? A) 0.555 mol B) 0.185 mol C) 0.107 mol D) 0.0114 mol Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) At a certain temperature, nitogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia: N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g) When initial amounts of N2, H2, and NH3 are mixed, the concentration of NH3 increases. Which statement below is TRUE? A) Kc < Q B) Kc > Q

C) Kc = Q D) Kc = Q = 0 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 3

109) For the isomerization reaction: butane ⇌ isobutane Kp equals 25.0 at 500 °C. If the initial pressures of butane and isobutane are 20.0 atm and 0.0 atm, respectively, what are the pressures of the two gases at equilibrium? A) P(butane) = 0.77 atm and P(isobutane) = 19.2 atm B) P(butane) = 0.80 atm and P(isobutane) = 20. atm C) P(butane) = 19.2 atm and P(isobutane) = 0.77 atm D) P(butane) = 20 atm and P(isobutane) = 0.80 atm Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) Cyclohexane, C6H12, undergoes a molecular rearrangement in the presence of AlCl3 to form methylcyclopentane, CH3C5H9, according to the equation: C6H12 ⇌ CH3C5H9 If Kc = 0.143 at 25 °C for this reaction, find the equilibrium concentrations of C6H12 and CH3C5H9 if the initial concentrations are 0.200 mol L-1 and 0.075 mol L-1, respectively. A) [C6H12] = 0.041 mol L-1, [CH3C5H9] = 0.041 mol L-1 B) [C6H12] = 0.159 mol L-1, [CH3C5H9] = 0.116 mol L-1 C) [C6H12] = 0.241 mol L-1, [CH3C5H9] = 0.034 mol L-1 D) [C6H12] = 0.253 mol L-1, [CH3C5H9] = 0.022 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) At a certain temperature the equilibrium constant, Kc, equals 0.11 for the reaction: 2 ICl(g) ⇌ I2(g) + Cl2(g) What is the equilibrium concentration of ICl if 0.45 mol of I2 and 0.45 mol of Cl2 are initially mixed in a 2.0 L flask? A) 0.14 mol L-1 B) 0.17 mol L-1 C) 0.27 mol L-1 D) 0.34 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) The equilibrium constant, Kp, equals 3.40 for the isomerization reaction: cis-2-butene ⇌ trans-2-butene If a flask initially contains 0.250 bar of cis-2-butene and 0.165 bar of trans-2-butene, what is the equilibrium pressure of each gas? A) P(cis-2-butene) = 0.0485 bar and P(trans-2-butene) = 0.165 bar B) P(cis-2-butene) = 0.0458 bar and P(trans-2-butene) = 0.156 bar C) P(cis-2-butene) = 0.0735 bar and P(trans-2-butene) = 0.250 bar D) P(cis-2-butene) = 0.0943 bar and P(trans-2-butene) = 0.321 bar Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) Phosphorus pentachloride decomposes to phosphorus trichloride at high temperatures according to the equation:

At 250 °C 0.125 mol L-1 PCl5 is added to the flask. If Kc = 1.80, what are the equilibrium concentrations of each gas?

A) [PCl5] = 0.00765 mol L-1, [PCl3] = 0.117 mol L-1, and [Cl2] = 0.117 mol L-1 B) [PCl5] = 0.0625 mol L-1, [PCl3] = 0.335 mol L-1, and [Cl2] = 0.335 mol L-1 C) [PCl5] = 1.80 mol L-1, [PCl3] = 1.80 mol L-1, and [Cl2] = 1.80 mol L-1 D) [PCl5] = 3.96 mol L-1, [PCl3] = 3.83 mol L-1, and [Cl2] = 3.83 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) Kc is 1.67 × 1020 at 25 °C for the formation of iron(III) oxalate complex ion: Fe3+(aq) + 3C2O42-(aq) ⇌ [Fe(C2O4)3]3-(aq) If 0.0200 mol L-1 Fe3+ is initially mixed with 1.00 mol L-1 oxalate ion, what is the concentration of Fe3+ ion at equilibrium? A) 1.44 × 10-22 mol L-1 B) 0.0100 mol L-1 C) 8.35 × 1019 mol L-1

D) 6.94 × 1021 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) Dinitrogen tetroxide partially decomposes according to the following equilibrium: (g) ⇌

(g)

A 1.000 L flask is charged with 3.00 × 10-2 mol of remains.

. At equilibrium, 2.36 × 10-2 mol of

for this reaction is:

A) 0.723 mol L-1 B) 0.391 mol L-1 C) 0.212 mol L-1 D) 6.94 ×

mol L-1

E) 1.92 × 10-4 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

116) Cyclohexane (C6H12) undergoes a molecular rearrangement in the presence of AlCl3 to form methylcyclopentane (MCP) according to the equation: C6H12 ⇌ MCP If Kc = 0.143 at 25 °C for this reaction, predict the direction in which the system will shift if the initial concentrations of C6H12 and MCP are 0.0400 mol L-1 and 0.0200 mol L-1, respectively. The system: A) will shift left B) will shift right C) is already at equilibrium D) is not at equilibrium and will remain in an unequilibrated state Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) The equilibrium constant Kc is equal to 5.00 L at 1300 K for the reaction: 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g) If initial concentrations are [SO2] = 6.00 mol L-1, [O2] = 0.45 mol L-1, and [SO3] = 9.00 mol L-1, the system is: A) at equilibrium B) not at equilibrium and will remain in an unequilibrated state C) not at equilibrium and will shift to the left to achieve an equilibrium state D) not at equilibrium and will shift to the right to achieve an equilibrium state Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) The equilibrium constant, Kp, equals 3.40 at 25 °C for the isomerization reaction: cis-2-butene ⇌ trans-2-butene If a flask initially contains 5.00 bar of each gas, in what direction will the system shift to reach equilibrium? A) It will shift left. B) It will shift right. C) The system is already at equilibrium. D) The system is not at equilibrium and will remain in an unequilibrated state. Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 16 Acids and Bases 1) According to the Arrhenius theory, a neutralization reaction involves the combination of an acid with a base to make only water. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

2) According to the Arrhenius theory, a neutralization reaction involves the combination of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions to form water. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

3) Br∅nsted and Lowry suggested that bases be defined as proton acceptors. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

4) The term pH = -ln [H+]. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-2

5) HNO3 is a strong acid. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

6) Amine bases are known as strong bases. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

7) The first ionization step is approximately 100% for H2SO3. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

8) H2SO4 is a weaker acid than H2SO3. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

9) When comparing binary acids of the elements in the same row of the periodic table, acid strength increases as the polarity of the element-hydrogen bond increases. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

10) In the reaction BF3 + NH3 → F3B:NH3, BF3 acts as a Br∅nsted acid. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

11) The definition of a neutralization reaction as a reaction in which an acid reacts with a base to produce water and a salt is inherent in: A) only the Arrhenius theory B) both the Arrhenius and the Br∅nsted-Lowry theories C) only the Br∅nsted-Lowry theory D) both the Br∅nsted-Lowry and the Lewis theories E) only the Lewis theory Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

12) According to the Arrhenius theory, a neutralization reaction involves: A) the combination of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions to form water B) the dissociation of a strong acid to hydrogen ions and an anion C) the dissociation of a strong base into hydroxide ions and a cation D) the addition of water to ammonia to make ammonium hydroxide E) the combination of an acid with a base to make only water Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

13) Proton acceptor is an abbreviated definition of: A) Br∅nsted-Lowry base B) Br∅nsted-Lowry acid C) Lewis base D) Lewis acid E) Arrhenius acid Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

14) In the equilibrium system described by: theory would designate: A) PO43- and H2O as the bases

B) H2O and OH- as a conjugate pair C) HPO42- and OH- as the acids D) HPO42- and H2O as a conjugate pair E) PO43- as amphiprotic Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

15) Which of the following are Br∅nsted-Lowry acids? I) CH3COOH II) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ III) H2O IV) CH3NH2

V) H3O+ A) I), II) and III) B) II), III), and IV) C) I), II), III) and IV) D) I), II), III), and V) E) II), III) and V) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

16) Choose the Br∅nsted-Lowry acids and bases in the following equation: HCN + OH- ⇌ H2O + CNA) acids HCN, CN-

bases OH-, H2O

B) acids CN-, OH-

bases HCN, H2O

C) acids HCN, H2O

bases OH-, CN-

D) acids OH-, H2O

bases CN-, HCN

E) acids HCN, OH-

bases H2O, CN-

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

17) Choose the Br∅nsted-Lowry acids and bases in the following equation: NH4+ + OH- ⇌ H2O + NH3 A) acids NH4+, OH-

bases H2O, NH3

B) acids OH-, H2O

bases NH3, NH4+

C) acids NH4+, OH-

bases NH4+, H2O

D) acids NH4+, H2O

bases OH-, NH3

E) acids NH4+, NH3

bases OH-, H2O

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

18) Choose the Br∅nsted-Lowry acids and bases in the following equation: H2O + NH2- ⇌ NH3 + OHA) acids H2O, OH-

bases NH3, NH2-

B) acids NH2-, NH3

bases H2O, OH-

C) acids H2O, NH2-

bases OH-, NH3

D) acids NH3, NH2-

bases OH-, H2O

E) acids H2O, NH3

bases NH2-, OH-

Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

19) Choose the Br∅nsted-Lowry acids and bases in the following equation: HCO3- + OH- ⇌ H2O + CO32A) acids HCO3-, H2O

bases OH-, CO32-

B) acids OH-, CO32-

bases HCO3-, H2O

C) acids H2O, OH-

bases HCO3-, CO32-

D) acids HCO3-, OH-

bases CO32-, H2O

E) acids H2O, CO32-

bases HCO3-, OH-

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

20) Choose the Br∅nsted-Lowry acids and bases in the following equation: HSO4- + C2H3O2- ⇌ HC2H3O2 + SO42A) acids HSO4-, SO42-

bases HC2H3O2, C2H3O2-

B) acids HSO4-, HC2H3O2 bases SO42-, C2H3O2C) acids SO42-, HC2H3O2 bases HSO4-, C2H3O2D) acids SO42-, C2H3O2-

bases HSO4-, HC2H3O2

E) acids HSO4-, C2H3O2-

bases HC2H3O2, SO42-

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

21) Consider the reaction: HC2H3O2 + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + C2H3O2Choose the pair of substances that are both bases in the reaction. A) HC2H3O2 and H3O+ B) H2O and C2H3O2C) H2O and H3O+ D) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2E) H3O+ and HC2H3O2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

22) pOH = 3.14 is equivalent to: A) pH = 11 B) [H+] = 1.4 × 10-10 M C) [OH-] = 7.2 × 10-4 M D) [H+} = 7.0 × 10-4 M E) [OH-] = 3.14 × 10-7 M Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-2

23) A solution has pOH of -0.47. This means that: A) the solution has a pH of 13.53 B) the solution has an [OH-] = 0.34 M C) the solution has an [OH-] greater than 10.0 M D) the solution has an [OH-] = 2.95 M E) The solution has an [H+] = 2.95 M Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-2

24) At 25 °C, the pH of pure water is: A) 0 B) >0, <7 C) 7 D) >7, <14 E) 14 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-2

25) Choose the INCORRECT statement. The term pH: A) refers to the "potential" of hydrogen ion B) = -ln [H+] C) = 14 - pOH D) is more convenient than exponential notation E) = -log [H3O+] Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-2

26) Choose the strongest acid. A) HF B) H2CO3 C) HCN D) HC2H3O2 E) HClO4 Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-3

27) Which of the following is the strongest base? A) ClB) ClO4C) F-

D) NO3E) H2O

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-3

28) A saturated aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide has a pH of 12.25. What is the [Ca2+] in such a solution? A) 0.018 B) 5.6 × 10-13 C) 2.3 × 10-5 D) 0.035 E) 8.9 × 10-3 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

29) 0.272 g of a monoprotic acid (MW = 189 g/mol) is dissolved in water to produce 25.0 mL of a solution with pH = 4.93. Determine the ionization constant of the acid. A) 4.1 × 10-8 B) 1.4 × 10-10 C) 2.1 × 10-4 D) 2.8 × 10-7 E) 2.4 × 10-9 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

30) 0.375 g of a monoprotic acid (MW = 245 g/mol) is dissolved in water to produce 25.0 mL of a solution with pH = 3.28. Determine the ionization constant of the acid. A) 8.56 × 10-3 B) 4.5 × 10-6 C) 7.4 × 10-5 D) 4.5 × 10-3 E) 2.3 × 10-2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

31) 0.653 g of a monoprotic acid (MW= 157 g/mol) is dissolved in water to produce 50.0 mL of a solution with pH = 2.13. Determine the ionization constant of the acid. A) 7.9 × 10-3 B) 8.9 × 10-2 C) 6.6 × 10-4 D) 3.9 × 10-2 E) 3.6 × 10-6 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

32) A 0.632 M aqueous solution of a monoprotic base has a pH of 11.53. What is the ionization constant of this base? A) 1.8 × 10-5 B) 2.1 × 10-3 C) 1.6 × 10-23

D) 5.0 × 10-12 E) 5.3 × 10-3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

33) A 0.214 M aqueous solution of a monoprotic base has a pH of 11.48. What is the ionization constant of this base? A) 1.4 × 10-2 B) 4.3 × 10-5 C) 1.5 × 10-11 D) 5.1 × 10-23 E) 2.0 × 10-6 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

34) A 0.505 g sample of a monoprotic base (mm = 45.09 g/mol) was dissolved in water to produce 100.0 mL of solution with a pH = 11.84. What is the ionization constant of this base? A) 4.3 × 10-5 B) 1.9 × 10-23 C) 4.3 × 10-4 D) 3.4 × 10-1 E) 1.3 × 10-11 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

35) A 0.0925 g sample of a monoprotic base (mm = 17.03 g/mol) was dissolved in water to produce 100 mL of solution with a pH = 11.00. What is the ionization constant of this base? A) 1.8 × 10-6 B) 1.8 × 10-11 C) 1.8 × 10-21 D) 1.8 × 10-5 E) 1.1 × 10-6 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

36) For which of the following polyprotic acids is the first ionization step approximately 100%? A) H2S B) H2SO3

C) H2CO3 D) H2SO4 E) H3PO4

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

37) What is the [HPO4-2] of a solution labeled "0.10 M phosphoric acid"? [Ka1 = 7.1 × 10-3; Ka2 = 6.3 × 10-8; Ka3 = 4.2 × 10-13] A) 4.2 × 10-13 M B) 6.3 × 10-8 M C) 7.1 × 10-3 M D) 1.6 × 10-9 M E) 1.6 × 10-16 M Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

38) What is the [AsO43-] for a solution labeled "0.10 M arsenic acid (H3AsO4)"? [Ka1 = 6 × 10-3, Ka2 = 1 × 10-7, Ka3 = 3 × 10-12] A) 1 × 10-7 M B) 1 × 10-17 M C) 3 × 10-12 M D) 3 × 10-19 M E) 6 × 10-10 M Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

39) Which of the following is a logical inference from the fact that a 0.10 M solution of potassium acetate, KC2H3O2, is less alkaline than a 0.10 M solution of potassium cyanide, KCN? A) Hydrocyanic acid is a weaker acid than acetic acid. B) Cyanides are less soluble than acetates. C) Hydrocyanic acid is less soluble in water than acetic acid. D) Acetic acid is a weaker acid than hydrocyanic acid. E) 0.10 M potassium acetate is more concentrated than 0.10 M potassium cyanide. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

40) The pH of a solution of NH4C2H3O2 is approximately 7. The best explanation is: A) This salt does not react with water. B) Ammonium acetate is a weak electrolyte. C) All salts of weak acids and weak bases are neutral. D) Aqueous ammonia and acetic acid have approximately equal ionization constants. E) The salt is a product of a strong acid and a strong base. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

41) Which of the following statements concerning aqueous solutions of salts is FALSE? A) For any salt of a strong acid and a strong base, the pH will be about 7. B) For any salt of a strong acid and a weak base, the pH will be <7. C) For any salt of a weak acid and a strong base, the pH will be >7. D) For any salt of a weak acid and a weak base, the pH will be about 7. E) Salt solutions can have a pH of 7. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

42) Which indication of relative acid strengths is INCORRECT? A) HCl > HF B) HClO2 > HClO C) H2SO4 > H2SO3 D) H2SO3 > HNO3

E) CH3CO2H > CH3CH2OH Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

43) Which of the following are Lewis bases? I) BCl3 II) HIII) H2O

IV) NH3 V) AlCl3 A) II), III) and IV) B) I), II), and III) C) III), IV) and V) D) I), II), and V) E) I), II), and IV) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

44) The concept of an acid not limited to H+ or species containing one or more protons is inherent in: A) only the Arrhenius theory B) both the Arrhenius and the Br∅nsted-Lowry theories C) only the Br∅nsted-Lowry theory D) both the Br∅nsted-Lowry and the Lewis theories E) only the Lewis theory Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

45) In the reaction BF3 + NH3 ⇌ F3B:NH3, BF3 acts as: A) an Arrhenius base B) a Lewis base C) a Br∅nsted acid D) a Lewis acid E) an Arrhenius acid Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

46) Which species in the following reaction acts as a Lewis acid? CuSO4(s) + 4 NH3(aq) ⇌ [Cu(NH3)4]2+(aq) + SO42-(aq) A) SO42B) Cu2+ C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+(aq) D) NH3 E) [Cu(NH3)4]2+(aq) and SO42Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

47) In which of the following cases is water acting as a base under the Lewis definitions, but not under the Bronsted-Lowry definitions? A) H2O(l) + HF(g) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + F-(aq) B) H2O(l)+ CN-(aq) ⇌ OH-(aq) + HCN(aq) C) 2 H2O(l) + Cu2+(aq) ⇌ Cu(H2O)22+(aq) D) 2 H2O(l) + PO43-(aq) ⇌ 2 OH-(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) E) 2 H2O(l) [electrolysis] ⇌ 2 H2(g) + O2(g) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

48) In the following reversible reaction the Br∅nsted acids are ________. HCO3-(aq) + OH-(aq) ⇌ CO32-(aq) + H2O A) HCO3- and H2O B) HCO3- and CO32C) OH- and CO32D) OH- and H2O E) H2O and CO32Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

49) Complete the following equation. List the conjugate acid base pairs. Put the base first in each pair. HCl + NH3 ⇌ A) Cl- + NH4+ B) Cl- + NH4+ C) H2 + Cl- + NH2-

(NH3, NH4+) (Cl-, HCl) (NH3, HCl) (Cl-, NH4+)

D) H2Cl+ + NH2-

(NH3, NH2-) (Cl-, HCl) (NH3, NH2-) (HCl, H2Cl)

E) Cl- + NH4+

(NH3, Cl-) (NH4+, HCl)

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-1

50) What is the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.140 g of potassium hydroxide in sufficient pure water to prepare 250.0 ml of solution? A) 2.000 B) 6.000 C) 10.000 D) 12.000 E) 14.000 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

51) What is the [OH-] of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.0912 g of hydrogen chloride in sufficient pure water to prepare 250.0 ml of solution? A) 1.00 × 10-2 M B) 1.00 × 10-8 M C) 1.00 × 10-12 M D) 1.00 × 10-4 M E) 1.0 M Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

52) What is the [K+] of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.140 g of potassium hydroxide in sufficient pure water to prepare 250.0 ml of solution? A) 10-5 M B) 10-8 M C) 10-12 M D) 10-4 M E) 10-2 M

Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

53) What would be the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 14.4 g NaOH (MW = 40.0 g/mol) in enough water to make 1.05 L of solution? A) 13.54 B) 0.46 C) 13.58 D) 13.66 E) 7.00 Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

54) For HI, predict whether the solution is acidic, basic or neutral and why. A) acidic because HI is a strong acid B) basic because HI is a weak base C) neutral because there is no hydrolysis D) basic because HI is the salt of a weak acid E) acidic because HI is the salt of a weak base Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

55) What is the [Cl-] of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.1824 g of hydrogen chloride in sufficient pure water to prepare 500.0 ml of solution? A) 1.00 × 10-2 M B) 1.00 × 10-8 M C) 1.00 × 10-12 M D) 1.00 × 10-4 M E) 1.0 M Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

56) If one mole of Ba(OH)2 is added to enough water to make 10 liters of solution, the pH of the resulting solution is ________. A) 13.3 B) 1.0 C) 0.7 D) 13.0 E) 12.5 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

57) A 250.0 ml sample of gaseous hydrogen bromide, measured at 22.9 °C and 0.930 atm, was dissolved in sufficient pure water to form 250.0 ml of solution. What was the pH of that solution? A) 1.42 B) 2.58 C) 3.83 D) 4.18 E) 5.68 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

58) A saturated aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide is approximately 0.13% calcium hydroxide, by mass, and has a density of 1.02 g ml-1. What is the pH of such a solution? A) 11.95 B) 12.25 C) 12.55 D) 12.75 E) 13.00 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-4

59) For NH3, predict whether a 1 M aqueous solution is acidic, basic or neutral and why. A) acidic because NH3 is a strong acid B) basic because NH3 is a weak base C) neutral because there is no hydrolysis D) basic because NH3 is the salt of a weak acid E) acidic because NH3 is the salt of a weak base Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

60) What is the pH of a 0.470 M aqueous solution of pyridine? Kb = 1.5 × 10-9 A) 9.0 B) 11.2 C) 2.8 D) 9.4 E) 4.6 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

61) What is the pH of a 0.570 M aqueous solution of aniline? Kb = 7.4 × 10-10 A) 11.4 B) 2.6 C) 9.8 D) 4.7 E) 9.3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

62) What is the pH of a 0.380 M aqueous solution of ethylamine? Kb = 4.3 × 10-4 A) 12.1 B) 1.9 C) 10.2 D) 5.5 E) 8.5 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

63) What is the pH of a 0.250 M aqueous solution of formic acid? Ka = 1.8 × 10-4 A) 11.8 B) 2.2 C) 0.60 D) 5.4 E) 8.6 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

64) What is the pH of a 0.375 M aqueous solution of benzoic acid? Ka = 6.3 × 10-5 A) 8.9 B) 5.1 C) 2.3 D) 0.43 E) 11.7 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

65) What is the pH of a 0.530 M aqueous solution of hypochlorus acid? Ka = 2.9 × 10-8 A) 10.6 B) 3.4 C) 10.1 D) 3.9 E) 0.28 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

66) The ionization constant for ammonia is 1.8 × 10-5. What is the pH of an aqueous solution labeled 0.50 M ammonia? A) 7.30 B) 9.12 C) 10.26 D) 11.48 E) 12.52 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

67) The Kb value for methylamine is 4.2 × 10-4. What is the pH of an aqueous solution for which the label reads "0.042 M CH3NH2"? A) 2.4 B) 4.8 C) 9.2 D) 11.6 E) 12.3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

68) Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) has an ionization constant of 3.2 × 10-8. What is its percent ionization in 1.0 M and 0.10 M solutions, respectively? A) 0.018% and 0.057% B) 0.032% and 0.0032% C) 0.57% and 0.18% D) 0.57% in both E) 0.32% in both Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-5

69) What is the pH for a solution labeled "0.10 M arsenic acid (H3AsO4)"? [Ka1 = 6 × 10-3, Ka2 = 1 × 10-7, Ka3 = 3 × 10-12] A) 1.6 B) 4.0 C) 6.3 D) 1.0 E) 3.2 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

70) What is the concentration of free sulfate ion in an aqueous solution labeled "3.6 M H2SO4"? [Ka2 = 1.1 × 10-2] A) 0.011 M B) 0.040 M C) 0.20 M D) 0.60 M E) 1.8 M Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

71) What is the pH of an aqueous solution labeled "0.10 M phosphoric acid"? [Ka1 = 7.1 × 10-3; Ka2 = 6.3 × 10-8; Ka3 = 4.2 × 10-13] A) 5.7 B) 4.3 C) 3.1 D) 2.3 E) 1.6 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

72) What is the [H2PO4-] of an aqueous solution labeled "0.10 M phosphoric acid"? [Ka1 = 7.1 × 10-3; Ka2 = 6.3 × 10-8; Ka3 = 4.2 × 10-13] A) 0.023 M B) 6.3 × 10-8 M

C) 7.1 × 10-3 M D) 4.2 × 10-13 M E) 0.013 M Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

73) What is the [H2AsO4-] for an aqueous solution labeled "0.10 M arsenic acid (H3AsO4)"? [Ka1 = 6 × 10-3, Ka2 = 1 × 10-7, Ka3 = 3 × 10-12] A) 1 × 10-7 M B) 6 × 10-3 M

C) 0.02 M D) 0.08 M E) 6 × 10-10 M Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-6

74) For NaCl, predict whether the aqueous solution is acidic, basic or neutral and why. A) acidic because NaCl is a strong acid B) basic because NaCl is a weak base C) neutral because there is no hydrolysis D) basic because NaCl is the salt of a weak acid E) acidic because NaCl is the salt of a weak base Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

75) For NaC2H3O2, predict whether the aqueous solution is acidic, basic or neutral and why. A) acidic because NaC2H3O2 is a strong acid B) basic because NaC2H3O2 is a weak base C) neutral because there is no hydrolysis D) basic because NaC2H3O2 is the salt of a weak acid

E) acidic because NaC2H3O2 is the salt of a weak base Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

76) For Na2CO3, predict whether the aqueous solution is acidic, basic or neutral and why. A) acidic because Na2CO3 is a strong acid B) basic because Na2CO3 is a weak base C) neutral because there is no hydrolysis D) basic because Na2CO3 is the salt of a weak acid

E) acidic because Na2CO3 is the salt of a weak base Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

77) For NH4Cl, predict whether the aqueous solution is acidic, basic or neutral and why. A) acidic because NH4Cl is a strong acid B) basic because NH4Cl is a weak base

C) neutral because there is no hydrolysis D) basic because NH4Cl is the salt of a weak acid

E) acidic because NH4Cl is the salt of a weak base Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

78) A certain acid, HA, has a Ka given by:

HA + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + A- Ka = 6.80 × 10-6

What is the pH of a 0.247 M aqueous solution of the acid's potassium salt, KA, which undergoes the hydrolysis reaction? A- + H2O ⇌ OH- + HA A) 4.72 B) 9.28 C) 4.11 D) 9.89 E) 9.44 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

79) What is the pH of an aqueous solution labeled "0.50 M sodium fluoride" if the ionization constant of hydrofluoric acid is 6.0 × 10-4? A) 10.8 B) 8.5 C) 7.1 D) 6.9 E) 5.5 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

80) What is the pH of a 0.052 M aqueous solution of sodium acetate? Ka (acetic acid)= 1.8 × 10-5 A) 10.0 B) 5.3 C) 11.0 D) 8.7 E) 3.0 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

81) What is the pH of a 0.120 M aqueous solution of the sodium salt of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)? Ka (aspirin) = 3.3 × 10-4 A) 7.0 B) 11.8 C) 2.2 D) 5.7 E) 8.3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

82) What is the pH of a 0.240 M aqueous solution of potassium cyanide? Ka (HCN) = 6.2 × 10-10 A) 11.3 B) 2.7 C) 4.9 D) 9.1 E) 9.4 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

83) Determine the pH of 263 ml of an aqueous solution which has [NH4I] = 0.300 M. Kb = 1.74 × 10-5 for NH3(aq). A) 2.6 B) 11.4 C) 4.9 D) 9.1 E) 4.6 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

84) What is the pH of a 0.253 M aqueous solution of ammonium chloride? Kb (NH3) = 1.2 × 10-5 A) 2.7 B) 4.8 C) 9.2 D) 11.3 E) 9.9 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

85) What is the pH of a 0.375 M aqueous solution of methylammonium chloride? Kb (CH3NH2) = 4.2 × 10-4 A) 12.1 B) 1.9 C) 5.5 D) 8.5 E) 11.0 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

86) What is the pH of a 0.175 M aqueous solution of potassium benzoate? Ka (benzoic acid) = 6.3 × 10-5 A) 9.10 B) 3.44 C) 10.56 D) 5.28 E) 8.72 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

87) What is the pH of a 0.475 M aqueous solution of sodium nitrite? Ka (nitrous acid) = 7.2 × 10-4 A) 8.58 B) 8.41 C) 12.27 D) 5.42 E) 5.59 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

88) What is the pH of a 0.235 M aqueous solution of potassium fluoride? Ka (HF) = 6.6 × 10-4 A) 8.28 B) 11.45 C) 8.59 D) 5.41 E) 5.72 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

89) What is the pH of a 0.563 M aqueous solution of ammonium bromide? Kb (NH3) = 1.8 × 10-5 A) 2.50 B) 11.50 C) 4.75 D) 4.63 E) 9.25 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

90) What is the pH of a 0.361 M aqueous solution of pyridinium bromide? Kb (pyridine) = 1.5 × 10-9 A) 8.38 B) 5.62 C) 4.63 D) 2.81 E) 11.19 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

91) What is the pH of a 0.563 M aqueous solution of ethylammonium bromide? Kb (ethylammonia) = 4.3 × 10-4 A) 8.58 B) 1.79 C) 8.68 D) 5.32 E) 5.44 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-8

92) What is the indication of the relative acid strengths of the following acids? CH3CH2CHClCOOH

CH3CHClCH2COOH

CH2ClCH2CH2COOH

A) CH3CHClCH2COOH > CH2ClCH2CH2COOH > CH3CH2CHClCOOH B) CH2ClCH2CH2COOH > CH3CH2CHClCOOH > CH3CHClCH2COOH C) CH2ClCH2CH2COOH > CH3CHClCH2COOH > CH3CH2CHClCOOH

D) CH3CH2CHClCOOH > CH3CHClCH2COOH > CH2ClCH2CH2COOH E) CH3CH2CHClCOOH > CH2ClCH2CH2COOH > CH3CHClCH2COOH Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

93) List the following acids in order of increasing strength: HClO2

HClO3

HClO4

A) HClO2 < HClO4 < HClO3 B) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2

C) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3

D) HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO4 E) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

94) List the following acids in order of increasing strength: HBrO

HIO

HClO

A) HIO < HClO < HBrO B) HClO < HIO < HBrO C) HBrO < HIO < HClO D) HIO < HBrO < HClO E) HClO< HBrO < HIO Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

95) List the following acids in order of increasing strength: H2SO4

H2SeO4

H2TeO4

A) H2SeO4 < H2TeO4 < H2SO4 B) H2SeO4 < H2SO4 < H2TeO4

C) H2SO4 < H2TeO4 < H2SeO4

D) H2SO4 < H2SeO4 < H2TeO4 E) H2TeO4 < H2SeO4 < H2SO4 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

96) List the following acids in order of increasing strength: H3PO4

H2SO4

HClO4

A) HClO4 < H3PO4 < H2SO4 B) H2SO4 < HClO4 < H3PO4

C) H2SO4 < H3PO4 < HClO4 D) H3PO4 < H2SO4 < HClO4 E) HClO4 < H2SO4 < H3PO4 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

97) What is the indication of the relative base strengths of the following bases? CH3NH2

CHBr2NH2

CH2BrNH2

A) CH2BrNH2 > CHBr2NH2 > CH3NH2 B) CHBr2NH2 > CH2BrNH2 > CH3NH2

C) CHBr2NH2 > CH3NH2 > CH2BrNH2

D) CH2BrNH2 > CH3NH2 > CHBr2NH2 E) CH3NH2 > CH2BrNH2 > CHBr2NH2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-10

98) CO2 acts as an acid in the reaction CaO(s) + CO2 ⇌ CaCO3(s) because it ________. A) turns blue litmus red B) reacts with a metal C) is a proton donor D) is an electron-pair acceptor E) is a gas containing a non-metal Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 16-11

99) When dissolved in water, which compound is generally considered to be an Arrhenius acid? A) CH3CO2H B) NaOH C) Na2CO3

D) CH3CH2OH Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

100) Which Bronsted-Lowry acid is not considered to be a strong acid in water? A) HBr B) HI C) HIO4 D) HNO3

Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

101) Calculate the hydronium ion concentration in an aqueous solution that contains 2.50 × 10-6 mol L-1 in hydroxide ion. A) 4.00 × 10-7 mol L-1 B) 4.00 × 10-8 mol L-1 C) 4.00 × 10-9 mol L-1 D) 5.00 × 10-9 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Calculate the hydroxide ion concentration in an aqueous solution that contains 3.50 × 10-4 mol L-1 in hydronium ion. A) 2.86 × 10-3 mol L-1 B) 2.86 × 10-10 mol L-1 C) 2.86 × 10-11 mol L-1

D) 3.50 × 10-11 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) A solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 3.25 × 10-6 mol L-1 is ________ and has a hydroxide ion concentration of ________. A) acidic, 3.08 × 10-8 mol L-1 B) acidic, 3.08 × 10-9 mol L-1 C) basic, 3.08 × 10-8 mol L-1 D) basic, 3.08 × 10-9 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) A solution with a hydroxide ion concentration of 4.15 × 10-6 mol L-1 is ________ and has a hydrogen ion concentration of ________. A) acidic, 2.41 × 10-8 mol L-1 B) acidic, 2.41 × 10-9 mol L-1 C) basic, 2.41 × 10-8 mol L-1 D) basic, 2.41 × 10-9 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) Calculate the pH for an aqueous solution of acetic acid that contains 5.15 × 10-3 mol L-1 hydronium ion. A) 1.94 × 10-12 B) 5.15 × 10-3 C) 2.288 D) 11.712 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) Calculate the pH for an aqueous solution of pyridine that contains 4.15 × 10-4 mol L-1 hydroxide ion. A) 2.41 × 10-11 B) 4.15 × 10-4 C) 3.382 D) 10.618 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) What is the hydroxide ion concentration and the pH for a hydrochloric acid solution that has a hydronium ion concentration of A) 6.7 × 10-12 mol L-1, 2.82 B) 6.7 × 10-12 mol L-1, 11.18

C) 6.7 × 10-13 mol L-1, 1.82 D) 6.7 × 10-13 mol L-1, 12.17 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) What is the hydronium ion concentration and the pH for an aqueous solution of NH3 that has a hydroxide ion concentration of A) 4.44 × 10-12 mol L-1 and 2.648 B) 4.44 × 10-12 mol L-1 and 11.352

C) 4.44 × 10-13 mol L-1 and 1.648 D) 4.44 × 10-13 mol L-1 and 12.352 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) What is the hydronium ion concentration of an acid rain sample that has a pH of 3.35? A) 2.2 × 10-11 mol L-1 B) 4.5 × 10-4 mol L-1 C) 3.35 mol L-1 D) 10.65 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) What is the hydroxide ion concentration of a lye solution that has a pH of 9.20? A) 6.3 × 10-10 mol L-1 B) 1.6 × 10-5 mol L-1 C) 4.8 mol L-1 D) 9.2 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) What is the pH of a 0.020 mol L-1 HClO4 solution? A) 0.020 B) 0.040 C) 1.70 D) 12.30 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) An aqueous solution at 25.0 °C contains [ A) 1.07 B) -1.07 C) 13.0 D) 0.0850 E) 1.20 × Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

] = 0.085 mol L-1. What is the pH of the solution?

Var: 10

113) The pH of an aqueous solution at 25.0 °C is 10.55. What is the molarity of A) 2.8 × 10-11

in this solution?

B) 3.5 × 10-4 C) 3.3 D) 1.1 × 10-13 E) 3.5 × 1010 Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 10

114) Calculate the molarity of hydroxide ion in an aqueous solution that has a pOH of 5.00. A) 1.0 × 10-5 B) 9.00

C) 1.0 × 10-9 D) 5.0 × E) 9.0 × 10-14 Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 10

115) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.500 mol L-1 aqueous acetic acid solution with Ka = 1.8 × 10-5? The equation for the dissociation of acetic acid is below:

A) 3.0 × 10-2 mol L-1 B) 4.2 × 10-2 mol L-1 C) 3.0 × 10-3 mol L-1 D) 4.2 × 10-3 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.150 mol L-1 aqueous hypochlorous acid solution with The equation for the dissociation of hypochlorous acid is below:

A) 1.9 × 10-4 mol L-1 B) 7.2 × 10-4 mol L-1 C) 2.8 × 10-5 mol L-1 D) 7.2 × 10-5 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) The acid-dissociation constant at 25.0 °C for hypochlorous acid (HClO) is 3.0 × the molarity of in a 0.010 mol L-1 aqueous solution of HClO is: A) 1.7 × B) 0.010 C) 5.8 × D) 4.76 E) 2.00 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

. At equilibrium,

Var: 10

118) Calculate the pH of a 0.800 mol L-1 aqueous NaCH3CO2 solution. Ka for acetic acid, CH3CO2H, is A) 2.42 B) 4.68 C) 9.32 D) 11.58 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) Calculate the pH of a 1.60 mol L-1 aqueous KBrO solution. Ka for hypobromous acid, HBrO, is A) 2.55 B) 4.25 C) 9.75 D) 11.45 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) A 7.0 × 10-3 mol L-1 aqueous solution of

at 25.0 °C has a pH of:

A) 12.15 B) 1.85

C) 1.4 × 10-2 D) 7.1 × 10-13 E) 11.85 Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 10

121) What is the pH of a 0.040 mol L-1 aqueous Ba(OH)2 solution? A) 1.10 B) 1.40 C) 12.60 D) 12.90 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) What is the pH of a 0.500 mol L-1 NH3 aqueous solution that has Kb = 1.8 × 10-5? The equation for the dissociation of NH3 is below:

A) 2.22 B) 2.52 C) 11.48 D) 10.48 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) What is the pH of a 0.30 mol L-1 pyridine solution that has Kb = 1.9 × 10-9? The equation for the dissociation of pyridine is below:

A) 4.62 B) 8.72 C) 9.38 D) 10.38 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) Determine the ammonia concentration of an aqueous solution that has a pH of 11.00. The equation for the dissociation of NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10-5) is below:

A) 3.0 mol L-1 B) 0.056 mol L-1

C) 1.8 × 10-2 mol L-1 D) 1.0 × 10-3 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) The acid-dissociation constant of hydrocyanic acid (HCN) at 25.0 °C is 4.9 × an aqueous solution of 0.080 mol L-1 sodium cyanide (NaCN)?

. What is the pH of

A) 11.11 B) 2.89

C) 1.3 × 10-3 D) 7.8 × 10-12 E) 3.9 × 10-11 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

126) Calculate the pH of a 1.60 mol L-1 CH3NH3Cl solution. Kb for methylamine, CH3NH2, is A) 1.61 B) 5.18 C) 8.82 D) 12.39 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) The base-dissociation constant of ethylamine (

) is 6.4 ×

at 25.0 °C. The [

] in a

aqueous solution of ethylamine is ________ mol L-1. A) 3.5 × B) 2.9 × C) 3.1 × D) 3.2 × E) 11.46 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

128) Which one of the following salts, when dissolved in water, produces the solution with the highest pH? A) NaHCO3 B) KClO4

C) Na2CO3 D) CH3NH3Cl Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

129) If an equal number of moles of the weak acid HCN and the strong base KOH are added to water, is the resulting solution acidic, basic, or neutral? A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) Depends on the solution volume Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 4

130) Which one of the following salts, when dissolved in water, produces the solution with the highest pH? A) RbI B) RbBr C) RbCl D) RbF Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

131) Which one of the following salts, when dissolved in water, produces the solution with a pH closest to 7.00? A) CsCl B) CaO C) KH CO3 D) NH4l

Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

132) Which one of the following salts, when dissolved in water, produces the solution with the lowest pH? A) NaCl B) KCl C) MgCl2 D) AlCl3 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

133) Calculate the pH of a 0.080 mol L-1 aqueous carbonic acid solution, H2CO3(aq), that has the stepwise dissociation constants Ka1 = 4.3 × 10-7 and Ka2 = 5.6 × 10-11. A) 1.10 B) 3.73 C) 6.37 D) 10.25 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

134) Calculate the pH of a 0.60 mol L-1 aqueous H2SO3 solution that has the stepwise dissociation constants Ka1 = 1.5 × 10-2 and A) 1.02 B) 1.06 C) 1.82 D) 2.04 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

135) Calculate the concentration of bicarbonate ion, HCO3-, in a 0.010 mol L-1 aqueous H2CO3 solution that has the stepwise dissociation constants Ka1 = 4.3 × 10-7 and Ka2 = 5.6 × 10-11. A) 6.6 × 10-5 mol L-1 B) 4.3 × 10-7 mol L-1

C) 4.3 × 10-9 mol L-1 D) 5.6 × 10-11 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

136) What is the pH of a 0.40 mol L-1 aqueous H2Se solution that has the stepwise dissociation constants Ka1 = 1.3 × 10-4 and A) 2.14 B) 3.89 C) 4.28 D) 5.57 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

137) What is the selenide ion concentration [Se2-] for a 0.100 mol L-1 aqueous H2Se solution that has the stepwise dissociation constants of

and

A) 3.6 × 10-3 mol L-1 B) 1.3 × 10-4 mol L-1

C) 1.3 × 10-5 mol L-1 D) 1.0 × 10-11 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 17 Additional Aspects of Acid–Base Equilibria 1) The common ion in an aqueous solution mixture of a weak base and a strong base is the hydronium ion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

2) The common ion in an aqueous solution of a weak acid and a strong acid is the hydronium ion. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

3) The pH of a buffer solution changes only slightly with addition of a small amount of acid or base. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

4) Mixing comparable amounts of a strong acid and its conjugate base will form a buffer. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

5) The pH of a buffer depends mainly on the pKa of the weak acid component of the buffer. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

6) The color change range of most acid-base indicators is 1 pH unit. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

7) Acid-base indicators have two forms: an acid of one color and a base of another color. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

8) In the titration of a solution of HCN(aq) with NaOH(aq), the equivalence point occurs at a pH greater than 7. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

9) For an accurate titration, the end point needs to match the equivalence point. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

10) The neutralization of a weak acid with a strong base will produce a longer vertical section of a titration curve than will a strong acid with a strong base. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

11) It is easier to calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate than for sodium hydrogen carbonate because there is only one hydrolysis reaction instead of two. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

12) A salt of a polyprotic acid such as NaHCO3 cannot act as a source of an acid. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

13) How will addition of sodium acetate to an aqueous acetic acid solution affect the pH? A) It will lower the pH. B) The pH will not change. C) The solution becomes hotter. D) The pH cannot be measured. E) It will raise the pH. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

14) How will addition of sodium chloride affect the pH of a HCl(aq) solution? A) It will lower the pH. B) The pH will not change. C) The solution becomes hotter. D) The pH cannot be measured. E) It will raise the pH. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

15) What is the [H3O+] of an aqueous solution measured to be 0.20 M in sodium acetate and 0.40 M in acetic acid? (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5) A) 1.8 × 10-5 M B) 9.0 × 10-6 M C) 3.6 × 10-5 M D) 7.2 × 10-5 M E) 4.7 M Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

16) What is the concentration of the acetate ion of an aqueous solution measured to be 0.20 M acetic acid in 0.20 M hydrochloric acid? (Ka for acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5) A) 3.6 × 10-5 M B) 9.0 × 10-6 M C) 1.8 × 10-5 M D) 7.2 × 10-5 M E) 0.20 M Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

17) Ten milliliters of 0.10 M NH3(aq) (Kb = 1.8 × 10-5) is mixed with 10 mL of 0.10 M NH4Cl(aq). Neglecting the differences between activities and concentrations, the resulting solution: A) has a pH = 4.74 B) has a [H+] of approximately 10-3 M C) has a [NH4+] greater than that of the NH4Cl(aq) D) has an [OH-] of 1.8 × 10-5 M E) is acidic Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

18) If some NH4Cl is added to an aqueous solution of NH3: A) the pH of the solution will increase B) the pH of the solution will decrease C) the solution will not have pH D) the pH of the solution will not change E) NH4Cl cannot be added to NH3 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

19) In 0.100 M HC2H3O2(aq), [H3O+(aq)] = [C2H3O2-(aq)] = 1.3 × 10-3 M. If a few drops of concentrated HCl(aq) are added to this solution, the C2H3O2-(aq) concentration is: A) < 1.3 × 10-3 M B) > 1.3 × 10-3 M C) = 1.3 × 10-3 M D) 0.100 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

20) Which among the following pairs is inefficient as buffer pair? A) ammonia and ammonium chloride B) sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide C) boric acid and sodium borate D) potassium carbonate and potassium bicarbonate E) potassium bromide and hydrobromic acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

21) An aqueous solution containing equimolar amounts of a weak acid with Ka = 10-5 and its sodium salt has: A) pH > 7 B) pH < 7 C) pH = 7 D) pH dependent on concentration ratios E) pH dependent on the nature of the acid anion Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

22) Which of the following can act as buffer solutions? I) 0.1 M HC2H3O2/0.1 M NaC2H3O2 II) 0.1 M NH3/0.1 M NH4Cl

III) 0.1 M HNO3/0.1 M NaNO3 IV) 0.1 M H2SO3/0.1 M NaHSO3 V) 0.1 M KHSO4/ 0.1 M H2SO4 A) I), II), and III) B) II), III) and IV) C) III) and IV) D) I), II) and IV) E) III), IV) and V) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

23) The Henderson-Hasselbach equation, used to calculate the pH of simple conjugate-pair buffer systems, would be expressed for an ammonia/ammonium chloride buffer, for which Kb(NH3) is 1.8 × 10-5, as:

A) pH = 4.74 + log([NH3]/[NH4+]) B) pH = 4.74 + log([NH4+]/[NH3])

C) pH = 9.25 + log([NH3]/[NH4+]) D) pH = 9.25 + log([NH4+]/[NH3]) E) pH = 14.0 - log(1.8 × 10-5) Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

24) What is the buffer range (for an effective 2.0 pH unit) for a benzoic acid/sodium benzoate buffer? [Ka for benzoic acid is 6.3 × 10-5] A) 8.8 - 10.8 B) 7.4 - 9.4 C) 5.3 - 7.3 D) 4.7 - 6.7 E) 3.2 - 5.2 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

25) Which of the following mixtures would you dismiss as a potential buffer in a laboratory? A) mixing equal volumes of 0.10 M NaC2H3O2(aq) and 0.10 M HCl(aq) B) mixing equal volumes of 0.10 M NaC2H3O2(aq) and 0.050 M HCl(aq)

C) mixing equal volumes of 0.10 M NaC2H3O2(aq) and 0.10 M HC2H3O2(aq) D) mixing equal volumes of 0.10 M HC2H3O2(aq) and 0.050 M NaOH(aq) E) mixing equal volumes of 0.10 M NH3(aq) and 0.10 M of NH4Cl(aq) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

26) The following compounds are available as 0.10 M aqueous solutions: pyridine (pKb = 8.82), triethylamine (pKb = 3.25), HClO4, phenol (pKa = 9.96), HClO (pKa = 7.54), NH3 (pKb = 4.74) and NaOH. Identify two solutions that could be used to prepare a buffer with a pH of approximately 5. A) pyridine and HClO4 B) triethylamine and HClO4 C) phenol and NaOH D) HClO and NaOH E) HClO and NH3 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

27) Phenol red indicator changes from yellow to red in the pH range from 6.6 to 8.0. State what color the indicator will assume in the following solution: 0.20 M KOH(aq). A) red B) yellow C) red-yellow mixture D) orange E) The indicator keeps its original color. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

28) Phenol red indicator changes from yellow to red in the pH range from 6.6 to 8.0. State what color the indicator will assume in the following solution: 0.1 M NaCl(aq). A) red B) yellow C) red-yellow mixture D) orange E) The indicator keeps its original color. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

29) Phenol red indicator changes from yellow to red in the pH range from 6.6 to 8.0. State what color the indicator will assume in the following solution: 0.10 M NH4NO3(aq). A) red B) yellow C) red-yellow mixture D) The indicator is its original color. E) There is not enough information to answer this question. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

30) Phenol red indicator changes from yellow to red in the pH range from 6.6 to 8.0. State what color the indicator will assume in the following solution: 0.10 M HC2H3O2(aq). A) red B) yellow C) red-yellow mixture D) The indicator is its original color. E) There is not enough information to answer this question. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

31) What factor governs the selection of an indicator for a neutralization titration? A) the final volume of the solution B) the volume of titrant C) the molarity of the standard solution D) the pH at the stoichiometric (equivalence) point E) the solubility of the indicator Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

32) Phenolphthalein may be used as an indicator for the titration of: A) a weak base with a strong acid B) a weak acid with a weak base C) any acid and base D) a weak acid with a strong base E) phenolphthalein cannot be used as an indicator Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

33) Which of the following statements correctly describe a typical titration curve for the titration of a strong acid by a strong base? I) The beginning pH is low. II) The pH change is slow until near the equivalence point. III) At the equivalence point, pH changes by a large value. IV) Beyond the equivalence point, pH rises rapidly. V) The equivalence point would be at a pH less than 3.5. A) I), III) and V) B) II), III) and IV) C) I), III) and IV) D) III), IV) and V) E) I), II) and III) Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

34) Phenol red indicator changes from yellow to red in the pH range from 6.6 to 8.0. State what color the indicator will assume in the following solution: 0.10 M NaCN(aq). A) red B) yellow C) red-yellow mixture D) The indicator is its original color. E) There is not enough information to answer this question. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

35) methyl orange: red at pH < 3.1: orange at pH 3.1-4.4: yellow-orange above pH 4.4 litmus: red at pH < 4.5: purple at pH 4.5-8.3: blue above pH 8.3 thymol blue: yellow at pH < 8.0: green at pH 8.0-9.6: blue above pH 9.6 trinitrobenzene: colorless at pH < 12: yellow at pH 12.0-1: orange above pH 14.0 Which of the pH indicators from the list above would be most appropriate for the titration of 0.30 M aqueous acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5) with 0.15 M aqueous sodium hydroxide? A) methyl orange B) litmus C) thymol blue D) trinitrobenzene E) Both thymol blue and litmus can be used. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-3

36) Which condition characterizes the stoichiometric point of a neutralization titration? A) Equivalent amounts of acid and base have reacted. B) The pH is exactly 7.0. C) The indicator changes color. D) A slight excess of titrant is present. E) A slight excess of indicator is present. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

37) Choose the correct statement. A) 30 mL of 2 molar H3PO4(aq) will exactly react with 15 mL of a 2 molar NaOH(aq) solution. B) One liter of 1 molar HCl(aq) will exactly neutralize 2 liters of 0.5 molar NaOH(aq). C) A 1 molal solution always contains exactly 1 mole in a liter of solution. D) One liter of a 1 molar solution of an acid always exactly neutralizes one liter of a one molar solution of a base. E) A 1 molar solution requires 2 moles of H2SO4(aq) per liter of solution. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

38) The solution that is added from the buret during a titration is the: A) buffer B) titrant C) indicator D) base E) titrator Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

39) In the titration of 50.0 mL of 0.0200 M C6H5COOH(aq) with 0.100 M NaOH(aq), what is/are the major species in the solution after the addition of 5.0 mL of NaOH(aq)? A) C6H5COOH, C6H5COO-, and Na+ B) C6H5COOH

C) C6H5COO- and Na+ D) C6H5COOH, OH-, and Na+ E) C6H5COOH, OH-, Na+,C6H5COOAnswer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

40) For the following titration, determine whether the solution at the equivalence point is acidic, basic or neutral and why: HCl(aq) is titrated with NH3(aq) A) acidic because of hydrolysis of NH4+ B) basic because of hydrolysis of NH3 C) acidic because of hydrolysis of ClD) acidic because of hydrolysis of HCl E) neutral salt of strong acid and strong base Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

41) For the following titration, determine whether the solution at the equivalence point is acidic, basic or neutral and why: KOH(aq) is titrated with HI(aq) A) basic because of hydrolysis of K+ B) basic because of hydrolysis of KOH C) acidic because of hydrolysis of OH-

D) acidic because of hydrolysis of HI E) neutral salt of strong acid and strong base Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

42) The titration curve for 10.0 mL of 0.100 M H3PO4(aq) with 0.100 M NaOH(aq) is given below.

Estimate the pKa2 of H3PO4. A) 7.2 B) 4.8 C) 9.8 D) 2.2 E) 6.5 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

43) Choose the expression that gives the molar concentration of a H2SO4(aq) solution if 24.3 mL of a 0.105 M NaOH(aq) solution is required to titrate 60 mL of the acid. A) (60 × 24.3)/0.105 B) (60 × 2)/(24.3 × 0.105) C) (24.3 × 0.105)/(60) D) (24.3 × 0.105)/(60 × 2) E) (60 × 0.105)/(2 × 24.3) Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

44) Why do we avoid titrating ammonia with acetic acid? A) The change in pH near the end point is not large enough to be accurately detected. B) There is no known indicator which changes color at the right pH. C) The reaction is too slow. D) There is not enough difference between the ionization constants of ammonia and acetic acid. E) Ammonia does not react with acetic acid. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

45) An aqueous solution of an unknown acid had a pH of 3.70. Titration of a 25.0 mL aliquot of the acid solution required 21.7 mL of 0.104 M aqueous sodium hydroxide for complete reaction. Assuming that the acid is monoprotic, what is its ionization constant? A) 9.0 × 10-2 B) 2.0 × 10-4 C) 4.4 × 10-7 D) 3.6 × 10-9 E) 2.7 × 10-11 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

46) For the following titration, determine whether the solution at the equivalence point is acidic, basic, or neutral and why: NaHCO3(aq) titrated with NaOH(aq) A) basic because of excess OH-

B) acidic because of hydrolysis of HCO3C) acidic because of hydrolysis of Na+ D) neutral salt of strong acid and strong base E) basic because of hydrolysis of CO32Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

47) In a solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.20 M aqueous acetic acid and 0.20 M aqueous hydrobromic acid, the common ion is ________. A) BrB) C2H3O22-

C) H2C2H3O2 D) H2Br+ E) H3O+ Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

48) Determine the pH of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [HC2H3O2] = 0.250 M, [HCl] = 0.120 M

Ka (acetic acid) = 1.8 × 10-5

A) 0.60 B) 0.92 C) 0.43 D) 4.74 E) 13.08 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

49) Determine the [C2H3O2-] of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [HC2H3O2] = 0.250 M, [HI] = 0.120 M

Ka (acetic acid)= 1.8 × 10-5

A) 8.6 × 10-6 M B) 3.8 × 10-5 M C) 1.8 × 10-5 M D) 0.25 M E) 0.37 M Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

50) Determine the pH of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [HF] = 1.296 M, [HCl] = 1.045 M

Ka for HF is 6.6 × 10-4

A) 14 B) 3.1 C) 3.2 D) -0.019 E) 0.60 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

51) Calculate the pH of a 1.00 L solution of 0.100 M NH3(aq) after the addition of 0.010 mol HCl(g). For NH3, pKb = 4.74. A) 10.21 B) 9.26 C) 8.31 D) 11.46 E) 7.00 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

52) Determine the [F-] of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [HF] = 1.296 M, [NaF] = 1.045 M, Ka for HF is 6.6 × 10-4 A) 1.046 M B) 2.344 M C) 5.3 × 10-4 M

D) 8.2 × 10-4 M E) 0.251 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

53) Calculate the pH of a 1.00 L solution of 0.100 M NH3(aq) after the addition of 0.010 mol NH4Cl(s). For NH3, pKb = 4.74. A) 10.26 B) 9.26 C) 8.26 D) 11.56 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

54) What is the pH of a solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.10 M aqueous hydrochloric and 0.1 M aqueous hydrofluoric acid? (Ka for HF is 6.6 × 10-4) A) 1.0 B) 1.3 C) 1.6 D) 2.2 E) 5.0 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

55) Assuming no volume change on mixing, what mass of ammonium chloride should be added to 250.0 mL of 0.25 M aqueous ammonia to produce a solution of pH 10.70? (Kb for ammonia is 1.8 × 10-5) A) 3.7 mg B) 120 mg C) 40 mg D) 30 mg E) 80 mg Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-1

56) Determine the pH of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [HC2H3O2] = 0.250 M, [NaC2H3O2] = 0.120 M , Ka ( acetic acid) = 1.8 × 10-5 A) 5.1 B) 4.4 C) 8.9 D) 9.6 E) 7.0 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

57) Determine the pH of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [HF] = 1.296 M, [NaF] = 1.045 M, Ka for HF is 6.6 × 10-4 A) 10.73 B) 3.27 C) 3.18 D) 3.09 E) 11.91 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

58) A weak acid has Ka = 4.2 × 10-3. If [A-] = 2.0 M, what must [HA] be so that [H+] = 2.1 × 10-3 M? A) 1.5 M B) 2.0 M C) 1.0 M D) 0.5 M E) 0.25 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

59) A weak acid has Ka = 1.00 × 10-3. If [HA] = 1.00 M what must be [A-] for the pH to be 2.7? A) 0.50 M B) 2.0 M C) 2.7 M D) 0.37 M E) 0.75 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

60) A buffer was prepared by adding 2.4 g of ammonium nitrate to 100.0 mL of 0.30 M aqueous ammonia (Kb = 1.8 × 10-5). To this solution was then added 10.0 mL of 0.30 M aqueous sodium hydroxide, which caused a pH change of ________. A) 3.0 pH units B) 0.30 pH units C) 0.90 pH units D) 0.09 pH units E) zero Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

61) A pH 4.88 buffer was prepared by dissolving 0.10 mol of benzoic acid (Ka = 6.3 × 10-5) and 0.50 mol of sodium benzoate in sufficient pure water to form a 1.00 L solution. To a 70.0 mL aliquot of this solution was added 2.00 mL of 2.00 M aqueous HI solution. What was the pH of the new 72.0 mL solution? A) 2.84 B) 3.16 C) 3.36 D) 4.65 E) 4.90 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

62) The buffer capacity of a solution may be defined as the number of moles of H+ that will change the pH of 1.00 L of the buffer by 1.00 pH units. What is the buffer capacity of an aqueous solution which is 0.10 M in acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5) and 0.30 M in sodium acetate, in units of mol (H+) per liter? A) 0.20 B) 0.10 C) 0.087 D) 0.009 E) zero Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

63) For HClO2, Ka = 1.2 × 10-2. What is the pH of an aqueous solution in which [NaClO2] = 0.193 M and [HClO2] = 0.203 M? A) 3.32 B) 0.11 C) 1.92 D) 1.94 E) 1.90 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

64) An acid has a Ka = 1 × 10-6. At what pH would this acid and its corresponding salt make a good buffer? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 5 E) 4 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

65) An aqueous solution has [HC7H5O2] = 0.100 M and [Ca(C7H5O2)2] = 0.200 M. Ka = 6.3 × 10-5 for HC7H5O2. The solution volume is 5.00 L. What is the pH of this solution after 5.00 mL 10.0 M HCl(aq) is added? A) 4.80 B) 4.86 C) 4.65 D) 4.70 E) 4.75 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

66) An aqueous solution has [HC7H5O2] = 0.100 M and [Ca(C7H5O2)2] = 0.200 M. Ka = 6.3 × 10-5 for HC7H5O2. The solution volume is 5.00 L. What is the pH of the solution after 10.00 mL of 5.00 M NaOH is added? A) 4.80 B) 4.86 C) 4.65 D) 4.70 E) 4.75 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

67) What is the pH of a buffer solution prepared by dissolving 25.5 g NaC2H3O2 in a sufficient volume of 0.550 M aqueous HC2H3O2 to make 500.0 mL of buffer? A) 4.74 B) 4.68 C) 4.91 D) 4.57 E) 4.79 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

68) A handbook states that to prepare a particular buffer solution mix 63.0 mL of 0.200 M aqueous

HC2H3O2 with 37.0 mL of 0.200 M aqueous NaC2H3O2. What is the pH of this buffer? (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5) A) 4.74 B) 4.51 C) 4.98 D) 5.33 E) 7.00 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

69) What is the pH of a solution made by dissolving 2.16 g of sodium benzoate (NaC6H5CO2) in a sufficient volume of 0.033 M aqueous benzoic acid solution to prepare 500.0 mL of buffer? [Ka for benzoic acid is 6.3 × 10-5] A) 4.16 B) 4.37 C) 4.64 D) 5.77 E) 6.30 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

70) If 30.0 mmol HCl(g) is added to 1.00 L of a buffer that is 0.340 M NH3(aq) and 0.290 M NH4Cl(aq),

what are the final concentrations of NH3(aq) and NH4Cl(aq), respectively? Assume no volume change. A) 0.310 M and 0.320 M B) 0.310 M and 0.290 M C) 0.370 M and 0.290 M D) 0.370 M and 0.320 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

71) What is the pH of a buffer that is 0.88 M HCN(aq) and 0.53 M NaCN(aq)? The Ka of HCN is 6.2 × 1010. A) 8.99 B) 9.21 C) 9.43 D) 4.79 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

72) A buffer is 0.282 M C6H5COOH(aq) and 0.282 M C6H5COONa(aq). Calculate the pH after the addition of 0.150 moles of nitric acid to 1.0 L of the buffer. For C6H5COOH, pKa = 4.20. A) 3.69 B) 4.20 C) 4.71 D) 3.87 E) 7.00 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

73) How many mL of 0.200 M aqueous acetic acid are mixed with 13.2 mL of 0.200 M aqueous sodium acetate to give a buffer with pH = 4.2? (Ka for acetic acid is 1.8 × 10-5) A) 37 mL B) 18 mL C) 3.8 mL D) 14 mL E) 46 mL Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

74) What mass of sodium acetate should be dissolved in 250.0 mL of 0.30 M aqueous acetic acid to form a buffer of pH 5.0? (Ka for acetic acid is 1.8 × 10-5) A) 11 g B) 8.0 g C) 7.5 g D) 5.0 g E) 1.4 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

75) What is the change in pH after addition of 10.0 mL of 1.0 M aqueous sodium hydroxide to 90.0 mL of an aqueous 1.0 M NH3/1.0 M NH4+ buffer? (Kb for ammonia is 1.8 × 10-5) A) 1.0 pH unit B) 0.1 pH unit C) 0.01 pH unit D) 0.001 pH unit E) zero Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

76) A pH 9.56 buffer was prepared by mixing 2.00 moles of ammonia (Kb for ammonia is 1.8 × 10-5) and 1.00 mol of ammonium chloride in water to form a solution with a volume of 1.00 L. To a 200.0 mL aliquot of this solution was added 10.0 mL of 10.0 M aqueous sodium hydroxide. What was the resulting pH? A) 9.28 B) 9.56 C) 9.95 D) 10.50 E) 13.7 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

77) A handbook states that to prepare a particular buffer solution mix 39.0 mL of 0.20 M aqueous NaH2PO4 with 61.0 mL of 0.20 M aqueous Na2HPO4. What will be the pH of this buffer? For phosphoric acid Ka2= 6.2 × 10-8 A) 7.2 B) 7.4 C) 7.0 D) 6.8 E) 6.6 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-2

78) Twenty-five milliliters of 0.10 M HCl(aq) is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH at equivalence? A) 7.0 B) 6.2 C) 7.5 D) 8.6 E) 7.1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

79) What will the pH at the neutralization point of 0.00812 M Ba(OH)2(aq) be when titrated with HCl(aq)? A) 7.0 B) 12.2 C) 8.0 D) 9.0 E) 6.0 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

80) What volume in mL of 2.0 M H2SO4(aq) is needed to neutralize 7.8 g of Al(OH)3(78.0 g/mol)? Al2(SO4)3(aq) and water are the titration products. A) 150 mL B) 75 mL C) 300 mL D) 500 mL E) 250 mL Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

81) Twenty-five milliliters of 0.10 M HCl(aq) is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH when 30 mL of NaOH(aq) have been added? A) 2.0 B) 12.0 C) 12.2 D) 1.8 E) 12.3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

82) 25 ml of 0.10 M aqueous acetic acid is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH before any NaOH(aq) is added? Ka for acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5. A) 1.0 B) 5.7 C) 2.9 D) 4.3 E) 2.2 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

83) What is the pH at the equivalence point for the titration of 0.20 M aqueous nitrous acid by 0.20 M aqueous sodium hydroxide? Ka for nitrous acid is 4.5 × 10-4 A) 5.83 B) 7.00 C) 8.17 D) 9.00 E) 10.67 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

84) Determine the pH of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [NaCHO2] = 0.815 M, [HBr] = 0.105 M, Ka for HCHO2= 1.8 × 10-4 A) 2.91 B) 4.63 C) 4.57 D) 9.43 E) 11.09 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

85) Twenty-five milliliters of 0.10 M HCl(aq) is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH before any NaOH(aq) is added? A) 0.40 B) 2.5 C) 0.1 D) 1.0 E) 25 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

86) Twenty-five milliliters of 0.10 M HCl(aq) is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH after 15 mL of NaOH(aq) has been added? A) 1.4 B) 1.2 C) 1.0 D) 2.0 E) 1.6 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

87) If 25 mL of 0.20 M NaOH(aq) is added to 50 mL of 0.10 M aqueous HC2H3O2 (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5), what is the pH? A) 5.33 B) 10.21 C) 8.78 D) 13.56 E) 1.34 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

88) 25 mL of 0.10 M aqueous acetic acid is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH after 15 mL of NaOH(aq) have been added? Ka for acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5. A) 7.0 B) 4.3 C) 4.7 D) 4.9 E) 4.6 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

89) 25 mL of 0.10 M aqueous acetic acid is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH at the equivalence point? Ka for acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5. A) 7.0 B) 10.6 C) 5.3 D) 8.7 E) 9.4 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

90) 25 mL of 0.10 M aqueous acetic acid is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq). What is the pH after 30 mL of NaOH have been added? Ka for acetic acid = 1.8 × 10-5. A) 12.0 B) 2.0 C) 12.2 D) 8.7 E) 12.3 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

91) What volume in mL of 0.05 M NaOH(aq) would have to be added to 50.0 mL of 0.10 M H2SO4(aq) in order to affect complete neutralization of the acid? A) 50 mL B) 20 mL C) 100 mL D) 150 mL E) 200 mL Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

92) 1.80 grams of an impure mixture containing sodium carbonate required 84.0 mL of 0.125 M H2SO4(aq) for complete neutralization. What percent of the mixture is sodium carbonate? A) 62% B) 31% C) 120% D) 57% E) 1.1% Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

93) Determine the pH of the following aqueous solution. Initial concentrations are given. [NH3] = 1.20 M, [KOH] = 0.320 M, Kb for NH3= 1.8 × 10-5 A) 13.5 B) 8.7 C) 9.8 D) 11.7 E) 12.2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-4

94) What is the pH of a 0.30 M aqueous trisodium phosphate solution? Ka for monohydrogen phosphate ion is 4.2 × 10-13 A) 13.3 B) 12.9 C) 10.5 D) 9.8 E) 8.6 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

95) What is the pH of a 1.0 M aqueous solution of Na3AsO4?(Ka1 = 6 × 10-3, Ka2 = 1 × 10-7, Ka3 = 3 × 1012) A) 2.5 B) 7.0 C) 8.2 D) 11.5 E) 5.8 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

96) What is the pH of a 1.0 M aqueous solution of Na2SO3? Ka1 = 1.3 × 10-2, Ka2 = 6.2 × 10-8? A) 6.8 B) 7.2 C) 7.0 D) 10.4 E) 3.6 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

97) What is the pH of a 1.0 M aqueous solution of trisodium phosphate? Ka1 = 7.1 × 10-3, Ka2 = 6.3 × 10-8, Ka3 = 4.2 × 10-13 A) 1.6 B) 7.0 C) 12.4 D) 6.2 E) 7.8 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

98) Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution that is 1.0 M Na2CO3. Ka2 for H2CO3 is 4.7 × 10-11. A) 8.8 B) 10.3 C) 3.7 D) 12.2 E) 1.8 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 17-5

99) An aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 0.23 mol of hydrazoic acid and 0.27 mol of sodium azide in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution.The addition of 0.05 mol of NaOH to this buffer solution causes the pH to increase slightly. The pH does not increase drastically because the NaOH reacts with the ________ present in the buffer solution. The of hydrazoic acid is 1.9 × 10-5. A)

B) C) azide D) hydrazoic acid E) This is a buffer solution: the pH does not change upon addition of acid or base. Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 11

100) An aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 0.23 mol of nitrous acid and 0.27 mol of sodium nitrite in water sufficient to yield 1.00 L of solution. The addition of 0.05 mol of HCl to this buffer solution causes the pH to drop slightly. The pH does not decrease drastically because the HCl reacts with the ________ present in the buffer solution. The of nitrous acid is 1.36 × 10-3. A)

B) C) nitrite ion D) nitrous acid E) This is a buffer solution: the pH does not change at all upon addition of acid or base. Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 11

101) Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution that is 0.295 mol L-1 in sodium formate (HCOONa) and in formic acid (HCOOH). The of formic acid is 1.77 × . A) 3.910 B) 3.587 C) 13.84 D) 10.10 E) 4.963 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

102) Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution that is 0.210 mol L-1 in nitrous acid ( L-1 in potassium nitrite ( A) 3.487 B) 3.210 C) 13.86 D) 10.51 E) 4.562 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

). The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is 4.50 ×

) and 0.290 mol .

Var: 10

103) Calculate the percent ionization of nitrous acid in an aqueous solution that is 0.266 mol L-1 in nitrous acid and 0.112 mol L-1 in potassium nitrite ( ). The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is A) 29.6 B) 0.402 C) 11.2 D) 1.34 × E) 1.55 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

104) Calculate the percent ionization of nitrous acid in an aqueous solution that is 0.249 mol L-1 in nitrous acid. The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is A) 1.12 × 10-4 B) 0.0450 C) 4.25 D) 0.342 E) 5.53 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

105) What is the pH of an aqueous buffer solution that is 0.211 mol L-1 in lactic acid and 0.111 mol L-1 in sodium lactate? The of lactic acid is 1.4 × . A) 14.28 B) 10.43 C) 5.48 D) 3.57 E) 4.13 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

106) What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.255 mol L-1 in hypochlorous acid (HClO) and 0.333 mol L-1 in sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)? The of hypochlorous acid is 3.8 × . A) 13.88 B) 6.46 C) 8.49 D) 7.30 E) 7.54 Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

107) What is the pH of an aqueous solution prepared by mixing 25.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 CH3COOH

with 25.00 mL of 0.010 mol L-1 CH3COONa? Assume that the volume of the solutions are additive and that Ka = 1.8 × 10-5 for CH3COOH. A) 2.87 B) 3.74 C) 4.75 D) 5.74 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) What is the pH of an aqueous solution prepared by mixing 50.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 NH3 with 5.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 NH4Cl? Assume that the volume of the solutions are additive and that Kb = 1.8 × 10-5 for NH3.

A) 8.25 B) 9.28 C) 10.26 D) 11.13 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) What is the pH of an aqueous solution prepared by mixing 50.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 methylamine, CH3NH2, with 20.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 methylammonium chloride, CH3NH3Cl? Assume that the volume of the solutions are additive and that Kb = 3.70 × 10-4 for methylamine. A) 10.17 B) 10.57 C) 10.97 D) 11.78 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) What is the pH of a buffer system prepared by dissolving 10.70 grams of NH4Cl and 25.00 mL of 12 mol L-1 NH3 in enough water to make 1.000 L of solution? Kb = 1.80 × 10-5 for NH3. A) 9.08 B) 9.26 C) 9.43 D) 11.32 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) What is the pH of an aqueous solution prepared by mixing 100.00 mL of 0.020 mol L-1 Ca(OH)2 with 50.00 mL of 0.300 mol L-1 NaOH? Assume that the volumes are additive. A) 13.05 B) 13.10 C) 13.28 D) 13.58 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) What is the hydronium ion concentration in an aqueous solution prepared by mixing 50.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 HCN with 50.00 mL of 0.010 mol L-1 NaCN? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive and that Ka = A) 4.9 × 10-11 mol L-1 B) 4.9 × 10-10 mol L-1 C) 4.9 × 10-9 mol L-1 D) 7.0 × 10-6 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) What is the [CH3COO-]/[CH3COOH] ratio necessary to make an aqueous buffer solution with a pH of 4.34? Ka = 1.8 × 10-5 for CH3COOH. A) 0.39:1 B) 0.91:1 C) 1.09:1 D) 2.5:1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) What volume of 5.00 × 10-3 mol L-1 HNO3(aq) is needed to titrate 80.00 mL of 5.00 × 10-3 mol L-1 Ca(OH)2(aq) to the equivalence point? A) 10.0 mL B) 40.0 mL C) 80.0 mL D) 160. mL Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) What is the pH of an aqueous solution made by mixing 25.00 mL of 0.100 mol L-1 HCl with 40.00 mL of 0.100 mol L-1 KOH? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive. A) 0.64 B) 1.64 C) 12.36 D) 13.36 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) How many millilitres of 0.0850 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) are required to titrate 25.0 mL of (aq) to the equivalence point? A) 21.2 B) 0.245 C) 3.92 D) 0.153 E) 29.5 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

117) How many millilitres of 0.120 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) are required to titrate 50.0 mL of 0.0998 mol L-1 aqueous butanoic acid to the equivalence point? Butanoic acid is monoprotic. The of butanoic acid is 1.5 × 10-5. A) 4.90 B) 50.0 C) 41.6 D) 60.1 E) 4.65 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 11

118) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 mol L-1 aqueous hydrofluoric acid is titrated with a 0.150 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) solution. What is the pH at the equivalence point? The

of hydrofluoric acid is 3.5 × 10-4.

A) 10.17 B) 10.83 C) 3.17 D) 7.00 E) 8.17 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 11

119) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 mol L-1 aqueous butanoic acid is titrated with a 0.150 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) solution. What is the pH before any base is added? Butanoic acid is monoprotic. The of butanoic acid is 1.5 × 10-5. A) 2.82 B) 1.5 × 10-3 C) 4.82 D) 4.00

E) 1.0 × 104 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 6

120) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 mol L-1 aqueous hypochlorous acid is titrated with a 0.150 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) solution. What is the pH after 26.0 mL of base is added? The of hypochlorous acid is 3.0 × 10-8. A) 2.54 B) 11.47 C) 7.00 D) 7.51 E) 7.54 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 11

121) What is the approximate pH at the equivalence point of a weak acid-strong base titration if 25 mL of aqueous formic acid (HCOOH) requires 29.80 mL of 0.3567 mol L-1 NaOH(aq)? Ka =1.8 × 10-4 for formic acid. A) 2.06 B) 5.48 C) 8.52 D) 11.94 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) What is the approximate pH at the equivalence point of a weak acid-strong base titration if 25 mL of aqueous hydrofluoric acid requires 30.00 mL of 0.400 mol L-1 NaOH(aq)? Ka = 6.76 × 10-4 for HF. A) 1.74 B) 5.75 C) 8.25 D) 12.26 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) Formic acid (HCOOH, Ka = 1.8 × 10-4) is the principal component in the venom of stinging ants. What is the molarity of a formic acid solution if 25.00 mL of the aqueous formic acid solution requires 29.80 mL of 0.0567 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) to reach the equivalence point? A) 0.0134 mol L-1 B) 0.0476 mol L-1 C) 0.0567 mol L-1 D) 0.0676 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

124) Sodium hypochlorite, NaOCl, is the active ingredient in household bleach. What is the concentration of hypochlorite ion if 20.00 mL of bleach requires 32.00 mL of 0.500 mol L-1 HCl(aq) to reach the equivalence point? A) 0.300 mol L-1 B) 0.312 mol L-1 C) 0.800 mol L-1 D) 1.30 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) What is the pH of the resulting solution if 25.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 aqueous acetic acid is added to 10.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 NaOH(aq)? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive. Ka = 1.8 × 105 for CH3COOH A) 9.43 B) 9.08 C) 4.92 D) 4.57 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

126) What is the pH of a solution made by mixing 10.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 aqueous acetic acid with 10.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 KOH(aq)? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive. Ka = for CH3COOH. A) 5.28 B) 7.00 C) 8.72 D) 10.02 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) What is the pH of a solution made by mixing 30.00 mL of 0.10 mol L-1 aqueous acetic acid (CH3COOH) with 50.00 mL of 0.100 mol L-1 KOH(aq)? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive. Ka = 1.8 × 10-5 for A) 8.26 B) 9.26 C) 11.13 D) 12.40 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

128) What is the pH at the equivalence point of a weak base-strong acid titration if 20.00 mL of NaOCl(aq) requires 28.30 mL of 0.50 mol L-1 HCl(aq) for complete neutralization? Ka = 3.0 × 10-8 for HOCl. A) 0.30 B) 3.18 C) 3.76 D) 4.03 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

129) What is the pH of the resulting solution if 45 mL of 0.432 mol L-1 aqueous methylamine, CH3NH2, is added to 15 mL of 0.234 mol L-1 HCl(aq)? Assume that the volumes of the solutions are additive. Ka = 2.70 × 10-11 for CH3NH3+. A) 2.77 B) 4.09 C) 9.91 D) 11.23 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

130) A 25.0 mL sample of 0.150 mol L-1 aqueous hydrazoic acid is titrated with a 0.150 mol L-1 NaOH(aq) solution. What is the pH after 13.3 mL of base is added? The of hydrazoic acid is 1.9 × 10-5. A) 4.45 B) 1.34 C) 3.03 D) 4.78 E) 4.66 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 11

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 18 Solubility and Complex-Ion Equilibria 1) Some solid in a solution at equilibrium means the solution is saturated. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

2) A solute's molar solubility and its molarity are not the same in a saturated aqueous solution. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

3) The common ion effect is a case of Hess's law. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

4) The diverse ion effect is also called the salt effect. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-4

5) Ion pairs as a limitation to Ksp are more likely to be a problem with NaCl than with MgSO4. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-4

6) If Qsp is larger than Ksp, precipitation should occur. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

7) Fractional precipitation is a method to precipitate only part of the concentration of an ion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

8) The pH of a solution may affect solubility only if the salt contains the OH- ion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

9) Qualitative cation analysis has been replaced in recent years by instrumental analysis. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

10) A small amount of solid calcium hydroxide is shaken vigorously in a test tube almost full of water until no further change occurs and most of the solid settles out. The resulting solution is: A) concentrated and saturated B) dilute and saturated C) dilute and unsaturated D) dilute and supersaturated E) concentrated and supersaturated Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

11) The molar solubility of SrSO4 (Ksp = 7.6 × 10-7) is: A) 2.8 × 10-5 M B) 7.6 × 10-7 M C) 8.7 × 10-8 M D) 8.7 × 10-4 M E) 9.1 × 10-3 M Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

12) What is the molar solubility of barium carbonate in pure water? (Ksp = 5.1 × 10-9) A) 5.1 × 10-9 M B) 7.1 × 10-5 M C) 1.1 × 10-3 M D) 1.7 × 10-3 M E) 2.6 × 10-17 M Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

13) The solubility of magnesium fluoride is 1.17 × 10-3 M. Find the value of Ksp for this compound. A) 1.17 × 10-3 B) (1.17 × 10-3)2

C) 4(1.17 × 10-3)3 D) (1.17 × 10-3)3 E) 3(1.17 × 10-3)3 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

14) The solubility of CaF2 is 0.00021 mole per liter. What is the solubility product constant for CaF2? A) 7.3 × 10-12 B) 3.7 × 10-11 C) 8.5 × 10-8 D) 4.4 × 10-8

E) 1.9 × 10-11 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

15) The solubility of copper(II) iodate Cu(IO3)2 is reported as 0.12 g per 100 mL. What is the solubility product constant for this salt? A) 9.8 × 10-8 B) 8.6 × 10-7 C) 7.3 × 10-6

D) 6.4 × 10-5 E) 1.2 × 10-4 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

16) The solubility of magnesium fluoride in water at 18 °C is tabulated as 0.0076 g per 100 mL. What is the solubility product for this salt? A) 7.6 × 10-6 B) 6.8 × 10-7 C) 8.0 × 10-8

D) 7.3 × 10-9 E) 3.8 × 10-10 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

17) The solubility product constant of Li3PO4 is 3.2 × 10-9. What is the molar solubility of Li3PO4 in water? A) 3.3 × 10-3 M B) 9.3 × 10-4 M C) 7.5 × 10-3 M D) 1.5 × 10-3 M E) 5.7 × 10-5 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

18) The solubility of a salt MX2 with a molar mass of 114 g/mol is 3.42 g/L. Calculate Ksp. A) 2.70 × 10-5 B) 1.08 × 10-4 C) 9.00 × 10-4 D) 2.25 × 10-4 E) 6.75 × 10-8 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

19) The solubility of cerium iodate, Ce(IO3)3, molar mass = 664.83 g/mol, in pure water is 124 mg per 100 mL of water. Calculate the solubility product constant for cerium iodate. A) 4.9 × 10-19 B) 2.6 × 10-14 C) 8.6 × 10-15

D) 3.3 × 10-10 E) 3.5 × 10-18 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

20) A saturated solution of silver iodide has a concentration of 9.1 × 10-9 M. What is Ksp of this compound? A) 9.1 × 10-18 B) 9.1 × 10-3 C) 9.12 × 10-3 D) (2 × 9.2 × 10-3)2 E) (9.1 × 10-9)2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

21) The solubility product constant of silver sulfate is 1.6 × 10-5. What is the molar solubility of this compound? A) 1.6 × 10-5 M B) (16/2)1/2 × 10-2 M C) (16/4)1/3 × 10-2 M D) (16)1/2 × 10-3 M E) (16/4)2/3 × 10-2 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

22) A saturated solution of silver chromate has a concentration of 7.4 × 10-5 M. What is Ksp of this compound? A) (7.4 × 10-5)2

B) (7.4 × 10-5)3 C) 3(7.4 × 10-5)3 D) 7.4 × 10-5 E) 4(7.4 × 10-5)3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

23) The solubility product constant of silver bromide is 5.0 × 10-13. What is the molar solubility of this compound? A) 5.0 × 10-13 M B) (50)1/2 × 10-6 M C) (50)1/2 × 10-7 M D) (5.0/2)1/2 × 10-7 M E) (5.0 × 10-13)2 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

24) The solubility of a salt MX2 with a molar mass of 170 g/mol is 12.7 g/L. Calculate the Ksp. A) 4.17 × 10-4 B) 5.58 × 10-3 C) 9.59 × 103 D) 2.23 × 10-2 E) 1.67 × 10-3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

25) Which of the following salts, each of which has a solubility product equal to 1.0 × 10-6, has the greatest molar solubility? A) MX B) MX2 C) MX3

D) M2X Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

26) Which of the following has the largest molar solubility? A) BaSO4, Ksp = 1.1 × 10-10 B) AgCl, Ksp = 1.6 × 10-10 C) Mg(OH)2, Ksp = 2 × 10-11 D) Cr(OH)2, Ksp = 6.3 × 10-11 E) Fe(OH)3, Ksp = 4 × 10-38 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

27) Which of the following is least soluble? A) NiS (Ksp = 8 × 10-37) B) MnS (Ksp = 8 × 10-16) C) PtS (Ksp = 8 × 10-73)

D) FeS (Ksp = 4 × 10-19) E) Hg2Cl2 (Ksp = 1.3 × 10-18) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

28) When solid silver chloride is shaken with a 0.1 molar aqueous solution of potassium iodide, most of the silver chloride is converted to silver iodide. This transformation takes place because: A) silver iodide is less soluble than silver chloride B) I- is a better reducing agent than ClC) I- has a larger radius than ClD) the Ksp of AgI is larger than the Ksp of AgCl E) potassium chloride precipitates Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

29) Which of the following is most soluble? A) CuS (Ksp = 8 × 10-37) B) Bi2S3 (Ksp = 1 × 10-70) C) Ag2S (Ksp = 6 × 10-51) D) MnS (Ksp = 7 × 10-16) E) PbS (Ksp = 3 × 10-28) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

30) Which of the following should dissolve the smallest amount of silver sulfide per liter, assuming no complex formation? A) 0.1 M HNO3 B) 0.1 M Na2S

C) 0.1 M AgNO3 D) 0.10 M NaNO3 E) pure water Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

31) Which of the following soil additives would best reduce the concentration of dissolved Fe3+ in ground water? A) lime [Ca(OH)2] B) saltpeter [KNO3]

C) ferric chloride [FeCl3] D) ammonium nitrate E) ammonium sulfate Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

32) The solubility product constant of M2CrO4(s) is 7.11 × 10-15. How many moles of M2CrO4(s) will dissolve in 744 mL of aqueous solution in which [CrO42-] = 0.056 M? A) 2.7 × 10-7 mol B) 1.8 × 10-7 mol C) 1.2 × 10-5 mol D) 9.0 × 10-5 mol E) 3.6 × 10-7 mol Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

33) Predict the molar solubility of the following salt in an aqueous solution that contains the given concentration of one of its ions: BaSO4; [SO42-] = 4.3 × 10-5 M; Ksp = 1.1 × 10-10 A) 4.7 × 10-15 M B) 6.9 × 10-8 M C) 8.0 × 10-4 M D) 2.6 × 10-6 M E) 1.6 × 10-3 M Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

34) Predict the molar solubility of the following salt in an aqueous solution that contains the given concentration of one of its ions: AgI; [I-] = 7.2 × 10-6 M; Ksp = 8.5 × 10-17 A) 2.4 × 10-11 M B) 9.2 × 10-9 M C) 1.7 × 10-6 M D) 2.7 × 10-4 M

E) 1.2 × 10-11 M Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

35) What is the molar solubility of PbI2 (Ksp = 7.1 × 10-9) in 0.10 M Pb(NO3)2(aq)? A) 1.3 × 10-4 M B) 2.6 × 10-3 M C) 7.1 × 10-8 M D) 2.7 × 10-4 M E) 2.7 × 10-5 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

36) The Ksp of AgCl is 1.7 × 10-10. How many moles of MnCl2 can be dissolved in one liter of an aqueous solution in which [AgNO3] = 3.4 × 10-4 M before a precipitate appears? A) 5.0 × 10-7 mol B) 5.8 × 10-14 mol C) 2.4 × 10-7 mol D) 2.0 × 106 mol E) 2.5 × 10-7 mol Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

37) The solubility product constant for iron(III) hydroxide at 22 °C is 6.0 × 10-38. What mass of this compound will dissolve in 100 mL of 0.20 M aqueous sodium hydroxide, assuming no complex formation? A) 6 × 10-39 g B) 7 × 10-37 g C) 8 × 10-35 g

D) 9 × 10-33 g E) 1 × 10-30 g Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-3

38) Which of the following reduces the solubility of calcium fluoride? A) presence of "uncommon ions" such as Na+ and ClB) formation of the ion-pair CaF+

C) formation of the complex ion CaF42D) decreasing the pH E) cooling the solution Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-4

39) Fe(OH)3 is most soluble in which aqueous solution? A) 0.2 M HCl B) 0.1 M KOH C) pure water D) 0.1 M FeCl3 E) 0.2 M CaCl2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-4

40) When equal volumes of the indicated aqueous solutions are mixed, precipitation should occur only for:

barium fluoride calcium carbonate calcium fluoride magnesium fluoride silver carbonate

1.0 × 10-6 2.8 × 10-9 5.3 × 10-9 3.7 × 10-8

8.5 × 10-12

A) 2 × 10-5 M Ag+ + 2 × 10-5 M CO32B) 2 × 10-5 M Ca2+ + 2 × 10-5 M CO32C) 2 × 10-4 M Ca2+ + 2 × 10-2 M FD) 2 × 10-5 M Mg2+ + 2 × 10-6 M FE) 2 × 10-3 M Ba2+ + 2 × 10-3 M FAnswer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

41) When equal volumes of the indicated aqueous solutions are mixed, precipitation should occur only for:

barium fluoride calcium carbonate calcium fluoride magnesium fluoride silver carbonate

1.0 × 10-6 2.8 × 10-9 5.3 × 10-9 3.7 × 10-9

8.5 × 10-12

A) 2 × 10-5 M Ag+ + 2 × 10-5 M CO32-

B) 2 × 10-4 M Ca2+ + 2 × 10-4 M CO32C) 2 × 10-5 M Ca2+ + 2 × 10-3 M FD) 2 × 10-5 M Mg2+ + 2 × 10-6 M FE) 2 × 10-3 M Ba2+ + 2 × 10-3 M FAnswer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

42) When equal volumes of the indicated aqueous solutions are mixed, precipitation should occur only for:

1.0 × 10-6 2.8 × 10-9

barium fluoride calcium carbonate

5.3 × 10-9 3.7 × 10-8

calcium fluoride magnesium fluoride

8.5 × 10-12

silver carbonate

A) 2 × 10-5 M Ag+ + 2 × 10-5 M CO32B) 2 × 10-5 M Ca2+ + 2 × 10-5 M CO32C) 2 × 10-5 M Ca2+ + 2 × 10-3 M FD) 2 × 10-2 M Mg2+ + 2 × 10-3 M FE) 2 × 10-3 M Ba2+ + 2 × 10-3 M FAnswer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

43) A homeowner in Boston becomes concerned that there may be appreciable amounts of lead in her drinking water due to 150-year old water pipes in her house. Consequently, she takes a sample of her drinking water in to be analyzed. The laboratory technician, who is new on the job, has been told to analyze by precipitating the lead ion as the iodide (Ksp = 7.1 × 10-9 for PbI2(s)) by slowly adding small portions of 1.00 M NaI(aq) solution. If we assume that the concentration of lead in the solution is 1.00 mg/liter or approximately 4.8 × 10-6 M (this would be 1.0 part per million) is it possible to detect the lead in the drinking water by adding a total of no more than 10.0 mL of NaI(aq) solution to a 100 mL sample of drinking water? You must of course consider dilution effects. What is Qsp? A) yes, Qsp = 4.0 × 10-7 B) yes, Qsp = 3.6 × 10-8

C) no, Qsp = 1.6 × 10-13 D) no, Qsp = 3.6 × 10-8 E) no, Qsp = 4.0 × 10-7 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

44) When 100 mL each of 2.0 × 10-4 M Ca2+(aq) and 2.0 × 10-2 M F-(aq) are mixed, what is the remaining Ca2+(aq) ion concentration and is precipitation complete? The solubility product constant of CaF2(s) is 5.3 × 10-9. A) 5.6 × 10-4 M, no B) 1.7 × 10-8 M, yes C) 4.3 × 10-7 M, no D) 1.7 × 10-6 M, yes E) 5.3 × 10-5 M, no Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

45) When 100 mL each of 2.0 × 10-5 M Ca2+(aq) and 2.0 × 10-3 M CO32-(aq) are mixed, what is the remaining Ca2+(aq) ion concentration and is precipitation complete? The solubility product constant of CaCO3(s) is 2.8 × 10-9. A) 2.8 × 10-6 M, no B) 1.0 × 10-3 M, no C) 6.9 × 10-5 M, no D) 2.8 × 10-3 M, no E) 2.8 × 10-6 M, yes Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

46) When 100 mL each of 2.0 × 10-6 M Ag+(aq) and 2.0 × 10-3 M Br-(aq) are mixed, what is the remaining Ag+(aq) ion concentration and is precipitation complete? The solubility product constant of AgBr(s) is 5.0 × 10-13.

A) 7.1 × 10-7 M, no B) 5.0 × 10-10 M, yes

C) 1.0 × 10-3 M, no D) 5.0 × 10-13 M, yes E) 2.5 × 10-10 M, yes Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

47) When 100 mL each of 2.0 × 10-4 M Ag+(aq) and 2.0 × 10-1 M CO32-(aq) are mixed, what is the remaining Ag+(aq) ion concentration and is precipitation complete? The solubility product constant of Ag2CO3(s) is 8.5 × 10-12. A) 4.2 × 10-8 M, yes B) 2.0 × 10-4 M, no C) 9.2 × 10-6 M, no D) 1.0 × 10-3 M, no E) 8.5 × 10-9 M, yes Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

48) Consider an aqueous solution which is 0.020 M in Pb2+ and 0.20 M in Ag+. Concentrated aqueous potassium iodide solution (so that volume changes may be neglected) is added gradually with good stirring to this solution. Eventually the iodide ion concentration should increase enough to cause precipitation of the second ion. What will be the concentration of the ion that precipitates first when the second ion just begins to precipitate? A) 2.0 × 10-17 M B) 1.2 × 10-8 M C) 5.0 × 10-20 M D) 1.4 × 10-13 M E) 1.2 × 10-5 M Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

49) An aqueous solution contains [Ba2+] = 5.0 × 10-5 M, [Ag+] = 3.0 × 10-5 M, and [Zn2+] = 2.0 × 10-7 M. Sodium oxalate is slowly added so that [C2O42-] increases. Salt Ksp

BaC2O4 1.5 × 10-8

ZnC2O4 1.35 × 10-9

Ag2C2O4 1.1 × 10-11

What is the concentration of the first cation to precipitate when the second cation just begins to precipitate? A) 1.3 × 10-6 M B) 2.2 × 10-6 M C) 5.0 × 10-5 M

D) 1.35 × 10-9 M E) 1.1 × 10-11 M Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

50) To a saturated aqueous solution of barium carbonate is added just enough sodium sulfate to achieve a maximum sulfate concentration without precipitation of barium sulfate. If no complexes form and the "salt effect" is negligible, what is the concentration of the sulfate ion in this solution? [Ksp for barium carbonate is 1.6 × 10-9; Ksp for barium sulfate is 7.9 × 10-11] A) 2.8 × 10-5 M B) 6.7 × 10-6 M C) 2.0 × 10-6 M D) 4.0 × 10-5 M E) 8.9 × 10-5 M Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

51) In which of the following one molar aqueous solutions would you expect cadmium sulfide, CdS, to be the most soluble? A) NaCl B) HCl C) NaOH D) C2H5OH E) KOH Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

52) The solubility product constant of Mg(OH)2 is 9.0 × 10-12. If an aqueous solution is 0.010 M with respect to Mg2+ ion, the amount of [OH-] required to start the precipitation of Mg(OH)2(s) is: A) 1.5 × 10-7 M B) 3.0 × 10-5 M

C) 3.0 × 10-7 M D) 9.0 × 10-10 M E) 1.5 × 10-5 M Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

53) To a concentrated buffer of pH 9.0 was added an equal volume of an aqueous solution that was 0.20 M in each of the ions Ca2+, Cd2+, and Cu2+. The expected precipitate would consist of: salt: Ksp:

calcium hydroxide 4.0 × 10-6

cadmium hydroxide 2.0 × 10-14

copper(II) hydroxide 1.8 × 10-19

A) only Ca(OH)2 B) only Cd(OH)2

C) only Cu(OH)2

D) only Cd(OH)2 and Cu(OH)2 E) Ca(OH)2, Cd(OH)2, and Cu(OH)2 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

54) If iron(III) acetate is added to be 1 × 10-10 M in an aqueous solution that is 0.10 M NH3, what is Qsp and will Fe(OH)3 precipitate? The Ksp of Fe(OH)3(s) is 4 × 10-38 and Kb for NH3 is 1.8 × 10-5. A) 1.3 × 10-13, yes B) 1.7 × 10-16, yes C) 1.7 × 10-16, no D) 2.4 × 10-19, yes E) 2.4 × 10-19, no Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

55) If chromium(III) chloride is added to be 1 × 10-12 M in an aqueous solution that is 0.10 M NH3, what is Qsp and will Cr(OH)3(s) precipitate? The Ksp of Cr(OH)3 is 6.3 × 10-31 and Kb for NH3 is 1.8 × 10-5. A) 1.0 × 10-16, yes B) 2.4 × 10-23, no C) 2.2 × 10-19, no D) 2.2 × 10-19, yes E) 2.4 × 10-21, yes Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

56) What is the concentration of free Zn2+(aq) if 0.020 M Zn2+ solution is mixed with an equal volume of 2.0 M NH3(aq)? Kf for [Zn(NH3)4]2+ is 4.1 × 108. A) 2.5 × 10-11 M B) 2.9 × 10-11 M C) 1.7 × 10-10 M D) 9.6 × 10-11 M E) 2.4 × 10-9 M Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

57) What is the free Cu2+(aq) concentration if 0.020 M Cu2+(aq) solution is mixed with an equal volume of 4.0 M NH3(aq)? Kf for [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 1.1 × 1013. A) 5.7 × 10-15 M B) 2.8 × 10-16 M C) 6.2 × 10-17 M D) 4.5 × 10-15 M E) 1.7 × 10-16 M Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

58) What is the free Ag+(aq) concentration of 0.020 M Ag+(aq) solution mixed with an equal volume of 2.0 M NH3(aq)? Kf for [Ag(NH3)2]+ is 1.6 × 107. A) 1.3 × 10-10 M B) 2.0 × 10-14 M C) 6.3 × 10-8 M D) 6.5 × 10-10 M E) 3.1 × 10-10 M Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

59) What is the approximate concentration of free Fe3+(aq) ion in a solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.06 M Fe3+(aq) and 4.0 M F-(aq) solutions? [The net formation constant for FeF5(H2O)2- is 2.0 × 1015.] A) 2.8 × 10-23 M B) 6.7 × 10-21 M C) 6.9 × 10-19 M D) 4.0 × 10-15 M E) 8.9 × 10-10 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

60) In which of the following solutions will the concentration of dissolved silver species be the highest if solid AgNO3 is stirred with 1.00 L of solution? A) 1.00 M NH3(aq)

B) 1.00 M NaOH C) 1.00 M Na2SO4(aq) D) 1.00 M NaCl(aq) E) 1.00 M NaC2H3O2(aq) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

61) Equal volumes of a 0.020 M Zn2+(aq) solution and a 2.0 M NH3(aq) solution are mixed. Kf for [Zn(NH3)4]2+ is 4.1 × 108. If enough sodium oxalate is added to make the solution 0.10 M in oxalate, will ZnC2O4(s) precipitate? What is Qsp? Ksp ZnC2O4 = 2.7 × 10-8 A) yes, Qsp = 11 B) yes, Qsp = 2.9 × 10-12 C) no, Qsp = 2.9 × 10-12 D) yes, Qsp = 2.4 × 10-9 E) no, Qsp = 2.4 × 10-9 Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

62) Equal volumes of 0.020 M Ag+(aq) solution and 2.0 M NH3(aq) solution are mixed. Kf for [Ag(NH3)2]+ is 1.6 × 107. If trisodium arsenate is added so that the arsenate ion concentration is 0.10 M, will silver arsenate precipitate? What is Qsp? Ksp for silver arsenate is 1.0 × 10-22. A) no, Qsp = 6.3 × 10-9 B) no, Qsp = 1.9 × 10-29 C) yes, Qsp = 6.5 × 10-9 D) yes, Qsp = 4.2 × 10-20 E) no, Qsp = 2.6 × 10-29 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

63) What is the minimum concentration of CN-(aq) that will prevent the precipitation of AgX(s) from a solution that is 0.149 M in X-(aq) and 0.0184 M in Ag+(aq)? (Ksp for AgX(s) = 5.2 × 10-17; Kf for Ag(CN)2= 5.6 × 1018) A) 3.1 × 10-3 M

B) 9.4 × 10-6 M C) 1.8 × 10-10 M D) 1.2 × 10-3 M E) 9.6 × 10-3 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-8

64) Choose the compound that is most soluble in water. A) K2S B) HgS C) ZnS D) SnS E) PbS Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

65) What is the composition of the precipitate formed when H2S gas is bubbled through 1.0 litre of a solution of 0.010 M Zn2+, 0.010 M Pb2+, and 0.010 M Mn2+, buffered at pH 2.0, until 0.10 mol of H2S has been added? (Ksp values are: ZnS: 1.6 × 10-23; MnS: 7.0 × 10-16; PbS: 7.0 × 10-29. For H2S, Ka1 = 1.0 × 10-7; Ka2 = 1.3 × 10-13 ). A) only ZnS B) only MnS C) only PbS D) only MnS and PbS E) only ZnS and PbS Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

66) Write the solubility product constant for KAl(SO4)2(s)? A) ([K+] × [Al3+] × 2[SO42-]/[KAl(SO4)2]) B) ([K+] × [Al3+] × [SO42-]/[KAl(SO4)2]) C) ([K+] × [Al3+] × [SO42-]) D) ([K+] × [Al3+] × [SO42-]2) E) none of these Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

67) Write the solubility product constant expression for the following salt: Na2CO3(s). A) [Na+][CO32-]

B) [Na+][CO32-]2 C) [Na+]2[CO32-]2 D) [Na+]2[CO32-] E) 4[Na+]2[CO32-] Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

68) Write the solubility product constant expression for the following salt: Ca(OH)2(s). A) [Ca2+][OH-] B) [Ca2+]2[OH-]

C) [Ca2+]3[OH-] D) [Ca2+]2[OH-]2 E) [Ca2+][OH-]2 Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

69) Write the solubility product constant expression for the following salt: PbC2O4(s). A) [Pb2+][C2O42-] B) [Pb2+]2[C2O42-]

C) [Pb2+]2[C2O42-]2 D) [Pb2+][C2O42-]2 E) 4[Pb2+][C2O42-] Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

70) Write the solubility product constant expression for the following salt: Ag2SO4(s). A) [Ag+][SO42-]

B) [Ag+]2[SO42-] C) 4[Ag+]2[SO42-] D) [Ag+][SO42-]2 E) [Ag+]2[SO42-]2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

71) Write the solubility product constant expression for the following salt: Ca3(PO4)2(s). A) [Ca2+][PO43-]

B) [Ca2+]2[PO43-]3 C) [Ca2+]3[PO43-]2 D) [Ca2+]2[PO43-] E) [Ca2+][PO43-]2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-1

72) Write the solubility product constant expression for the following salt: CoS(s). A) [Co2+]2[S2-]2 B) [Co2+]2[S2-] C) [Co2+][S2-]

D) [Co2+][S2-]2 E) [Co2+]1/2[S2-] Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

73) At a temperature for which the solubility product constant of calcium carbonate is 4.7 × 10-9, what mass of the salt will dissolve in 100 mL of water? A) 0.69 mg B) 0.94 mg C) 1.2 mg D) 2.4 mg E) 4.7 mg Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

74) The following table lists five compounds and their Ksp value. Which is least soluble? ZnS TlBr AgCl FeS CuI

2 × 10-25 3.4 × 10-6

1.8 × 10-10 6 × 10-19 1.1 × 10-12

A) ZnS B) TlBr C) AgCl D) FeS E) CuI Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

75) What is the concentration of Ca2+ in ppm (mg/L) in cave water saturated with calcite (calcium carbonate, Ksp = 4.7 × 10-9)? A) 7.5 ppm B) 6.9 ppm C) 5.0 ppm D) 3.8 ppm E) 2.7 ppm Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

76) The relationship between the molar concentration of silver ion in a saturated solution of silver phosphate and the solubility product constant for silver phosphate is ________. A) Ksp = 9[Ag+]3 B) Ksp = 27[Ag+]4 C) Ksp = [Ag+]1/3

D) Ksp = 0.125[Ag+] E) Ksp = 0.333[Ag+]4 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-2

77) What molar concentration of silver ion could exist in a solution in which the concentration of CrO42is 1.0 × 10-4 M? (Ksp of Ag2CrO4 = 1.1 × 10-12) A) 9.0 × 10-8 M B) 4.5 × 10-3 M C) 1.0 × 10-4 M D) 2.1 × 10-4 M E) 7.5 × 10-5 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

78) When 200 mL of 0.10 M BaCl2(aq) is added to 100 mL of 0.30 M Na2SO4(aq), the number of moles of BaSO4 (solubility product = 1.1 × 10-10) precipitated is ________. A) 0.020 mol B) 0.010 mol C) 0.20 mol D) 0.030 mol E) 0.10 mol Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

79) The solubility product constant of PbI2(s) is 7.1 × 10-9. How many moles of PbI2 will precipitate if 250 mL of a 0.200 M solution of NaI(aq) are added to 150 mL of 0.100 M solution of Pb(NO3)2(aq)? You may neglect hydrolysis. A) 0.050 mol B) 1.3 × 10-5 mol C) 0.015 mol D) 5.6 × 10-3 mol E) 0.040 mol Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-5

80) A concentrated buffer of pH 8.0 is added to an equal volume of an aqueous solution that is 0.080 M in each of the ions Zn2+, Ni2+, and Mn2+. The expected precipitate would consist of ________. salt Ksp

zinc hydroxide 1.2 × 10-17

nickel hydroxide 2.0 × 10-15

manganese hydroxide 1.9 × 10-13

A) Zn(OH)2, Ni(OH)2 and Mn(OH)2 B) Ni(OH)2 and Mn(OH)2 C) Mn(OH)2

D) Ni(OH)2 and Zn(OH)2 E) Zn(OH)2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

81) Consider an aqueous solution which is 0.020 M in Pb2+ and 0.20 M in Ag+. If concentrated aqueous potassium iodide solution (so that volume changes may be neglected) is added gradually with good stirring to this solution, which precipitate will form first? Ksp for PbI2 = 7.1 × 10-9; for AgI = 8.31 × 10-17 A) PbI2 B) KI C) AgI D) PbI2 and AgI precipitate together E) Ag2[PbI4] Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

82) To a concentrated buffer of pH 4.0 is added an equal volume of an aqueous solution that is 0.020 M in Cr3+, Cd2+ and Al3+. The expected precipitate would consist of ________. salt Ksp

chromium(III) hydroxide 6.3 × 10-31

cadmium hydroxide 2.5 × 10-14

A) Al(OH)3

B) Al(OH)3 and Cr(OH)3 C) Cd(OH)2

D) Cd(OH)2 and Cr(OH)3 E) Cd(OH)2, Cr(OH)3 and Al(OH)3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

aluminum hydroxide 1.3 × 10-33

83) A swimming pool was sufficiently alkaline so that the carbon dioxide absorbed from the air produced a solution in the pool that was 2 × 10-4 M in carbonate ion. If the pool originally contained 4 × 10-3 M Mg2+, 6 × 10-4 M Ca2+, and 8 × 10-7 M Fe2+, then the precipitate that was formed consisted of ________. (Ksp values are: CaCO3, 4.7 × 10-9; MgCO3, 4.0 × 10-5; FeCO3, 2.0 × 10-11) A) only MgCO3 B) only CaCO3 C) only FeCO3

D) only CaCO3 and FeCO3 E) MgCO3, CaCO3, and FeCO3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

84) An aqueous solution contains [Ba2+] = 5.0 × 10-5 M, [Ag+] = 3.0 × 10-5 M, and [Zn2+] = 2.0 × 10-7 M. Sodium oxalate is slowly added so that [C2O42-] increases. Salt Ksp

BaC2O4 1.5 × 10-8

ZnC2O4 1.35 × 10-9

Ag2C2O4 1.1 × 10-11

Which one of the oxalates precipitates first? A) BaC2O4 B) Na2C2O4 C) ZnC2O4 D) Ag2C2O4

E) ZnC2O4 and Ag2C2O4 precipitate together Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-6

85) What ratio of [NH4+]/[NH3] would provide a buffer of pH low enough to avoid precipitation of Co(OH)2(s) from a 0.50 M Co2+(aq) solution? (Kb for NH3 = 1.8 × 10-5 and Ksp for Co(OH)2= 2.0 × 10-14 A) 1/50 B) 1/90 C) 1/1 D) 90/1 E) 50/1 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

86) What is the minimum pH at which cobalt(II) hydroxide (Ksp = 2.0 × 10-16) will precipitate from an aqueous solution of 0.020 M in Co2+? A) 5.8 B) 6.2 C) 7.0 D) 7.8 E) 8.2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-7

87) Concentrated aqueous solutions of sodium sulfate, ammonium carbonate, and nickel (II) nitrate are mixed together. The precipitate which forms is ________. A) nickel (II) carbonate B) nickel (II) sulfate C) sodium carbonate D) ammonium sulfate E) nothing precipitates Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

88) Concentrated aqueous solutions of iron (III) chloride, sodium hydroxide, and potassium nitrate are mixed together. The precipitate which forms is ________. A) potassium hydroxide B) sodium chloride C) iron (III) hydroxide D) iron (III) nitrate E) nothing precipitates Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

89) Concentrated aqueous solutions of copper (I) nitrate, sodium sulfate and silver acetate are mixed together. The precipitate which forms is ________. A) copper (I) acetate B) silver nitrate C) silver sulfate D) sodium acetate E) nothing precipitates Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

90) Saturated aqueous solutions of sodium sulfate, ammonium carbonate, and nickel (II) nitrate are mixed together. The precipitate that forms is ________. A) nickel (II) carbonate B) sodium carbonate C) nickel (II) sulfate D) ammonium sulfate E) sodium nitrate Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

91) In a qualitative cation analysis, the unknown ion is precipitated by HCl(aq), remains as a chloride solid in hot water, and the precipitate turns black upon addition of aqueous ammonia. The unknown ion is ________. A) Hg22+ B) Pb2+ C) Ag+ D) K+ E) Cd2+

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

92) In a qualitative cation analysis, the unknown ion is unaffected by HCl(aq), but is precipitated by aqueous hydrogen sulfide. The unknown ion is ________. A) NH4+ B) Cu2+ C) Ag+ D) K+ E) Na+

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

93) In a qualitative cation analysis, the unknown ion is not precipitated by HCl or H2S, but is precipitated by CO32-. The unknown ion is ________. A) Ag+ B) Mn2+ C) Ca2+ D) K+

E) Al3+ Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

94) In a qualitative cation analysis, the unknown ion is not precipitated by aqueous solutions of HCl(aq), H2S(aq), or CO32-(aq). A flame test produced a violet flame. The unknown ion is ________. A) Ag+ B) Pb2+ C) Fe2+ D) K+ E) NH4+ Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 18-9

95) Calculate the solubility (in g L-1) of calcium fluoride in water at 25 °C if the Ksp for

is 1.5 ×

. A) 9.6 × 10-4 g L-1 B) 2.6 × 10-2 g L-1 C) 3.3 × 10-2 g L-1 D) 4.1 × 10-2 g L-1 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 3

96) Calculate the Ksp for silver carbonate if the solubility of Ag2CO3(s) in pure water is 3.5 × 10-2 g L-1. A) 1.3 × 10-4 B) 8.4 × 10-12

C) 4.6 × 10-7 D) 5.8 × 10-10 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 3

97) What is the molar solubility of Mg(OH)2(s) in a basic aqueous solution with a pH of 12.50? Ksp for Mg(OH)2(s) is A) 1.8 × 10-10 mol L-1 B) 5.6 × 10-9 mol L-1 C) 2.4 × 10-6 mol L-1

D) 1.1 × 10-4 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

98) Calculate the molar solubility of thallium chloride (TlCl) in 0.30 mol L-1 NaCl(aq) at 25 °C. Ksp for TlCl(s) is A) 5.1 × 10-5 mol L-1 B) 5.7 × 10-4 mol L-1 C) 7.1 × 10-3 mol L-1 D) 1.3 × 10-2 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

99) In which of the following aqueous solutions would solid AgCl be expected to be the least soluble at 25 °C? A) 0.1 mol L-1 HCl B) 0.1 mol L-1 KCl C) 0.1 mol L-1 BaCl2 D) 0.1 mol L-1 KNO3 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

100) What is the molar solubility of manganese carbonate ( MnCO3 ) in water? The solubility-product constant for MnCO3 (s)is 5.0 × 10-10 at 25 °C. A) 2.5 × 10-10 mol L-1 B) 1.0 × 10-9 mol L-1 C) 9.3 mol L-1 D) 3.2 × 10-5 mol L-1 E) 2.2 × 10-5 mol L-1 Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 7

101) What is the molar solubility of barium fluoride ( BaF2 ) in water? The solubility-product constant for BaF2 (s) is 1.7 × 10-6 at A) 6.5 × 10-4 mol L-1 B) 1.2 × 10-2 mol L-1 C) 1.8 × 10-3 mol L-1

D) 7.5 × 10-3 mol L-1 E) 5.7 × 10-7 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 4

102) What is the molar solubility of AgCl in 0.40 mol L-1 NH3(aq)? Ksp for AgCl(s) is 1.8 × 10-10 and Kf for Ag(NH3)2+ is A) 1.3 × 10-5 mol L-1 B) 2.0 × 10-5 mol L-1 C) 2.2 × 10-2 mol L-1 D) 5.5 × 10-2 mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) What is the molar solubility of AgCl(s) in 0.10 mol L-1 NaCN(aq) if the colourless complex ion Ag(CN)2-(aq) forms? Ksp for AgCl(s) is 1.8 × 10-10 and Kf for Ag(CN)2-(aq) is 1.0 × 1021. A) 0.050 mol L-1 B) 0.10 mol L-1 C) 0.20 mol L-1 D) 0.40 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) Solid potassium chromate (K2CrO4) is slowly added to a solution containing 0.50 mol L-1 AgNO3(aq) and 0.50 mol L-1 Ba(NO3)2(aq). What is the Ag+(aq) concentration when BaCrO4(s) just starts to precipitate? The Ksp for Ag2CrO4(s) and BaCrO4(s) are 1.1 × 10-12 and respectively. A) 6.5 × 10-5 mol L-1 B) 1.3 × 10-4 mol L-1 C) 3.2 × 10-4 mol L-1 D) 6.8 × 10-2 mol L-1 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) A solution of NaF(aq) is added dropwise to a solution that is 0.0102 mol L-1 in (aq). When the concentration of (aq) exceeds ________ mol L-1, (s) will precipitate. Neglect volume changes. For (s), A) 8.6 × B) 1.3 × 10-2 C) 1.7 × D) 3.3 × E) 1.7 × 10-4 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 19 Electrochemistry 1) In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the cathode. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

2) E°cell is the standard cell potential. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

3) When Ecell < 0, the reaction is spontaneous. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

4) The Ecell for the following concentration cell at 25 °C is 0.006 V. Pt ∣ H2 (g, 0.025 atm) ∣ H+ (0.012 M) H+ (1 M) ∣ H2 (g, 1 atm) ∣ Pt 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g)

E° = 0. V

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

5) The hydrogen standard electrode is the most convenient standard electrode to use. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

6) Primary batteries' cell reactions cannot be reversed. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-5

7) A primary battery is recharged by passing electricity through the battery. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-5

8) The active metal is called a sacrificial cathode. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-6

9) Cathodic protection is attaching a more active metal to the protected metal. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-6

10) Corrosion of metals is an oxidation-reduction process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-6

11) In the electrolysis of water, oxygen is evolved at the cathode. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Electrons are transferred in oxidation-reduction reactions. B) A strip of metal in a solution of ions of that metal is an electrode potential. C) Reduction is the gain of electrons. D) Oxidation is the loss if electrons. E) A salt bridge maintains electrical contact between two half cells. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

13) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) An electrode is often a strip of metal. B) An electrode in a solution of its ions is a half cell. C) An electrochemical cell is a half cell. D) The electromotive force (emf) is the cell potential. E) The cell potential is the potential difference between the half cells. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A cell diagram is a symbolic way to show cell components. B) An anode is where oxidation occurs. C) A cathode is where reduction occurs. D) Half cells in a cell diagram are separated by a single vertical line. E) The anode is on the left in a cell diagram. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

15) In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the: A) anode B) cathode C) salt bridge D) electrolyte E) in cathodic space Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A double vertical line separates half cells in a cell diagram. B) A single vertical line separates phases in a cell diagram. C) A voltaic cell is a galvanic cell. D) Voltaic cells produce an electron flow. E) Electrolytic cells are cells where electron flow is caused by spontaneous reactions. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

17) In a zinc-lead cell the reaction is: Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq)

E° = 0.637 V

Which of the following statements about this cell is FALSE? A) The zinc electrode is the cathode. B) The reaction will go in the direction indicated. C) The shorthand notation is Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Pb2+(aq) ∣ Pb(s). D) The actual cell voltage is less than +0.637 volts because of concentration polarization and possible other factors. E) The lead electrode is positively charged. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

18) Choose the correct statement based on the following oxidation potentials. Mg/Mg2+ Zn/Zn2+

+2.37 v +0.76 v

Fe/Fe2+ Sn/Sn2+

+0.44 v +0.14 v

Cu/Cu2+ Ag/Ag+

-0.34 v -0.80 v

A) Mg will not displace Zn2+ from solution B) Cu will displace Sn2+ from solution C) Fe will displace Zn2+ from solution D) Fe will displace H+ from solution E) Sn will displace Fe2+ from solution Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

19) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) SHE stands for Standard Helium Electrodes. B) E° is the standard electrode potential. C) The standard electrode potential is the reduction potential of a half cell. D) The standard cell potential is the potential difference between two half cells. E) E°cell is the standard cell potential. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

20) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) When a half reaction is reversed, the sign of the potential is changed. B) Reversing a half reaction makes it a reduction potential. C) Each electrochemical cell consists of a reduction half cell and an oxidation half cell. D) A voltaic cell is also called a battery. E) The potential difference of a cell is the voltage of the cell. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

21) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Al(aq) + 3 Zn2+(aq) → 2 Al3+(aq) + 3 Zn(s). The half reactions are: Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = -1.676 V E° = -0.763 V

A) 0.913 V B) -2.439 V C) 2.439 V D) -1.063 V E) -0.913 V Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

22) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Ag+(aq) + Mg(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Mg2+(aq). The half reactions are: Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s)

E° = -2.356 V E° = 0.800 V

A) 0.756 V B) -0.756 V C) 3.156 V D) -1.556 V E) 1.556 V Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

23) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq). The half reactions are: Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = -0.125 V E° = -0.763 V

A) 0.638 V B) -0.638 V C) 0.888 V D) -1.276 V E) -0.888 V Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

24) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The work available in a cell = -zFEcell. B) ΔG ° = -zFE°cell

C) When Ecell < 0, the reaction is spontaneous. D) When Ecell = 0, the reaction is at equilibrium.

E) Reversing a cell reaction changes the sign of Ecell. Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

25) For the reaction: Mg(s) + AgNO3(aq) → Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s)

E° = 0.800 V E° = -2.356 V

Is the reaction spontaneous and why? A) No, Mg(s) does not react with Ag+. B) No, E° is a positive value. C) No, E° is a negative value. D) Yes, E° is a positive value. E) Yes, E° is a negative value. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

26) What is the cell diagram for the spontaneous cell involving the Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Pt(s) (0.771V) half cell and the Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s) (-0.763 V) half cell? A) Fe2+(aq) ∣ Fe3+(aq) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s) B) Pt(s) ∣ Fe2+(aq), Fe3+(aq) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s)

C) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Pt(s) D) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq) E) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

27) If the voltage of an electrochemical cell is negative then the cell reaction is: A) nonspontaneous B) slow C) exothermic D) spontaneous E) fast Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

28) For the reaction: Mg(s) + AgNO3(aq) → Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s)

E° = 0.800 V E° = -2.356 V

Estimate Keq at 25 °C. A) 5.7 × 10106 B) 2.0 × 1053 C) 3.7 × 1052 D) 1.1 × 1027 E) 10-107 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

29) Calculate the Ksp of lead iodide from the following standard electrode potentials, at 25 °C: 2 e- + PbI2(S) → Pb(s) + 2 I-(aq)

E° = -0.365 V

2 e- + Pb2+(aq) → Pb(s)

E° = -0.126 V

A) 8 × 10-9 B) 9 × 10-5 C) 2 × 10-17 D) 5 × 10-13 E) 6 × 10-5 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

30) In the cell Pt(s) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Fe3+(aq) Cu2+(aq) ∣ Cu(s) which will increase the cell voltage the most? A) Halve [Cu2+]. B) Halve [Fe2+]. C) Double [Cu2+].

D) Double [Fe2+]. E) Cut Cu electrode in half. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

31) Which of the following are commonly used as alternate standard electrodes: I) Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl- ((aq, 1.0 M) II) Hg(l) | HgCl2(s) | Cl- (aq, 1.0 M)

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

32) Glass electrodes are used for direct measurement of: A) pH B) pKa C) Ksp D) Q E) pKw Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

33) Determine the Ksp at 25 °C of AgCl(s). The half-reactions are: Ag+(aq) + 1 e- → Ag(s) AgCl(s) + 1 e- → Ag(s) + Cl-(aq)

E° = +0.771 V E° = +0.222 V

A) 1 × 10-2 B) 0.771 C) 4 × 1011

D) 5 × 10-10 E) 4 × 10-11 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

34) Consider the cell: Ni(s) ∣ Ni2+ (aq, ?M) Cu2+ (aq, 0.136 M) ∣ Cu(s) Ni2+(aq)/Ni(s) E° = -0.257 V Cu2+(aq)/Cu(s)

E° = 0.340 V

The measured potential of the cell is 0.621 V. What is [Ni2+] at 25 °C? A) 2 × 10-2 M B) 1 M

C) 4 × 10-42 M D) 0.05 M E) 0.4 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

35) What is the concentration of Cu2+(aq) in the following cell at 25 °C if the cell voltage is 1.253 V? Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+ (aq, 0.125 M) Cu2+(?) ∣ Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s) E° = 0.340 V Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V A) 0.6 M B) 1 × 10-2 M

C) 1 × 10-6 M D) 9 × 10-4 M E) 4 × 10-4 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

36) What is the concentration of Al3+(aq) in the following cell at 25 °C if the cell voltage is 1.486 V? Al(s) ∣ Al3+(aq, ?) Sn2+(aq, 3.21 × 10-4 M) ∣ Sn(s) Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V Sn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Sn(s)

E° = -0.137 V

A) 2.8 × 10-3 M B) 1.6 × 10-5 M C) 4.5 × 10-5 M D) 2.4 × 10-2 M E) 7.8 × 10-6 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

37) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A concentration cell consists of half cells with identical electrodes but different ion concentrations. B) Primary batteries' cell reactions cannot be reversed. C) Secondary batteries' cell reaction can be reversed. D) A primary battery is recharged by passing electricity through the battery. E) Cells can be joined in series to increase the total voltage. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-5

38) The lithium-ion battery is based on: A) Li+(aq)/Li(s) couple

B) Co3+(aq)/Co2+(aq) couple C) Co(III)/Co(IV) couple D) both Li+(aq)/Li(s) and Co3+(aq)/Co2+(aq) E) both Li+(aq)/Li(s) and Co(III)/Co(IV) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-5

39) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Corrosion of metals is an oxidation reduction process. B) Rust is a form of corrosion. C) Metals can be protected by cathodic protection. D) Cathodic protection is attaching a more active metal to the protected metal. E) The active metal is called a sacrificial cathode. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-6

40) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) One mole of hydrogen ions will have a positive charge of one Faraday. B) One Faraday of charge will release 35.5 g of Cl2(g) in the electrolysis of a chloride solution. C) One Faraday of charge will plate out two moles of Cu(s) from a solution of CuSO4(aq). D) One mole of electrons has a charge of l Faraday. E) One mole of hydrogen gas requires 2 Faradays. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

41) One mole of electrons has a charge of: A) 96,485 A B) 1.60 × 10-19 C) 6.02 × 1023 A D) 96,485 C E) 96,485 F Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

42) An electrolysis is carried out by passing an electric current through a solution of copper sulfate using inert electrodes. This causes: A) Cu(s) to plate out on the negative electrode B) Cu(s) to plate out on the anode C) oxygen to form on the negative electrode D) H2(g) to form at the negative electrode E) sulfur to form on the positive electrode Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

43) Choose the INCORRECT completion of the following sentence: "In the electrolysis of water... A) ...a direct current must be used." B) ...oxygen is evolved at the cathode." C) ...electrical energy must be supplied continuously because it is an endothermic reaction." D) ...the volume of hydrogen produced is twice the volume of oxygen produced." E) ....one mole of H2(g) is produced for each two moles of electrons." Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

44) How many coulombs would be needed to deposit all of the Ag+(aq) ion from 600 mL of a solution 0.250 M in Ag+(aq)? A) 1.45 × 107 C B) 1.56 × 106 C C) 1.45 × 104 C D) 2.41 × 104 C E) 1.56 × 104 C Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

45) The following half-reactions are used in the zinc-air battery. (aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) + 4 OH-(aq)

E° = -1.199 V

O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + 4 e- → 4 OH-(aq)

E° = +0.401 V

How much charge is transferred per gram Zn(s) in this voltaic cell? A) 5.90 × 103 C B) 2.95 × 103 C C) 1.47 × 103 C D) 3.39 × 10-4 C E) 1.69 × 10-4 C Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

46) Write the net redox reaction that occurs in the galvanic cell. Zn(s) ∣ Zn+2(aq) Pb+2(aq) ∣ Pb(s) A) Pb(s) + Zn(s) → Pb+2(aq) + Zn+2(aq) + 4 eB) Pb(s) + Zn+2(aq) → Pb+2(aq) + Zn(s) C) Pb+2(s) + Zn+2(s) → Pb(s) + Zn(s) + 4 eD) Pb+2(aq) + Zn(s) → Zn+2(aq) + Pb(s) E) Pb(s) + Zn(s) + 4 e- → Pb+2(aq) + Zn+2(aq) Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

47) For the reaction: Mg(s) + 2 AgNO3(aq) → 2 Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq) Write a voltaic diagram for the reaction. A) Ag(s) | Ag(aq) Mg2+(aq) | Mg(s) B) Mg(s) ∣ Mg2+ Ag+ (aq) ∣ Ag (s) C) Mg(s) ∣ Mg2+ Ag(s) ∣ Ag+ (aq) D) Ag(aq) ∣ Ag(s) Mg(s) ∣ Mg2+ (aq) E) Ag(s) ∣ Mg2+ (aq) Ag+ (aq) ∣ Mg(s) Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

48) Write the net redox reaction that occurs in the following galvanic cell. Ti(s) ∣ Ti3+(aq) Se(s) | Se2-(aq) A) Ti(s) + Se2-(aq) + 1 e- → Ti3+(aq) + Se(s) B) 2 Ti(s) + 3 Se(s) → 2 Ti3+(aq) + 3 Se2-(aq) C) Ti(s) + Se(s) → Ti3+(aq) + Se2-(aq) + 1 eD) 2 Ti3+(aq) + 3 Se(s) → 2 Ti(s) + 3 Se2-(aq) E) 2 Ti3+(aq) + 3 Se(s) + 1 e- → 2 Ti(s) + 3 Se2-(aq) Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-1

49) For the reaction: Mg(s) + AgNO3(aq) → Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s)

E° = 0.800 V E° = -2.356 V

For the reaction, determine E° for the cell. A) 1.556 V B) -3.156 V C) 3.156 V D) 0.800 V E) 2.356 V Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

50) Given the table below predict the numerical value of the standard cell potential for the reaction: 2 Cr(s) + 3 Cu2+(aq) → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 Cu(s) Half Reaction (1) Cr3+(aq) + 3 e- → Cr(s)

E° (volts)

(2) Cr3+(aq) + e- → Cr2+(aq) (3) Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l)

-0.41

(4) Cu+(aq) + e- → Cu(s) (5) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s)

0.52

-0.74

0.34

(6) Cu2+(aq) + e- → Cu+(aq)

0.16

A) 2.50 volts B) 0.417 volts C) -1.08 volts D) 1.08 volts E) -0.40 volts Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

1.33

51) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Pb(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Pb2+(aq) + Zn(s). The half reactions are: Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = -0.125 V E° = -0.763 V

A) 0.638 V B) -0.638 V C) 0.888 V D) -1.276 V E) -0.888 V Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

52) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Pb(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Pb2+(aq) + Cu(s). The half reactions are: Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s)

E° = -0.125 V E° = 0.340 V

A) 0.215 V B) 0.465 V C) 0.930 V D) -0.215 V E) -0.465 V Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

53) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Al3+(aq) + 3 Zn(s) → 2 Al + 3 Zn2+(aq). The half reactions are: Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = -1.676 V E° = -0.763 V

A) 0.913 V B) -2.439 V C) 2.439 V D) -1.063 V E) -0.913 V Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

54) Determine E°cell for the reaction: 2 Ag(s) + Mg2+(aq) → 2 Ag+(aq) + Mg.(s) The half reactions are: Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s)

E° = -2.356 V E° = 0.800 V

A) 0.756 V B) -0.756 V C) 3.156 V D) -3.156 V E) 1.556 V Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

55) Determine E°cell for the reaction: I2(s) + Cu(s) → 2 I-(aq) + Cu2+(aq). The half reactions are: I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s)

E° = +0.535 V E° = 0.340 V

A) 0.730 V B) -0.875 V C) 0.875 V D) 0.195 V E) -0.195 V Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

56) Determine E°cell for the reaction: Cl2(g) + 2 F-(aq) → 2 Cl-(aq) + F2(g). The half reactions are: F2(g) + 2 e- → 2 F-(aq) Cl2(g) + 2 e- → 2 Cl-(aq)

E° = +2.866 V E° = 1.358 V

A) 3.016 V B) -4.224 V C) 1.508 V D) 4.224 V E) -1.508 V Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

57) Determine E°cell for the reaction: MnO4-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) + 5 Fe2+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) + 5 Fe3+(aq). The half reactions are: Fe3+(aq) + e- → Fe2+(aq) MnO4-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) + 5 e- → Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l)

E° = +0.771 V E° = 1.507 V

A) -2.34 V B) -2.28 V C) 2.28 V D) -0.74 V E) 0.74 V Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

58) Will magnesium metal displace Al3+(aq) ion from an aqueous solution? Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s) Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s)

E° = -2.356 V E° = -1.676 V

A) No, since E°cell is negative.

B) Yes, since E°cell is negative. C) No, the reverse reaction is spontaneous. D) Yes, since E°cell is positive. E) No, the system is at equilibrium. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

59) Determine E°cell at 25 °C for the following reaction: Pb2+(aq) + Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + Pb(s) The half-reactions are: Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s)

Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s)

E° = -0.125 V E° = +0.337 V

A) 0.212 V B) -0.462 V C) 0.462 V D) -0.212 V E) 0.424 V Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

60) Determine E°cell at 25 °C for the following reaction: 3 Sn2+(aq) + 2 Al(s) → 2 Al3+(aq) + 3 Sn(s) Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V Sn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Sn(s)

E° = -0.137 V

A) 2.941 V B) -1.813 V C) 1.813 V D) -1.539 V E) 1.539 V Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-2

61) For the cell reaction at 25 °C Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq), E°cell = +1.100 V. What is the equilibrium constant for this reaction? A) 3 × 10-19 B) 2 × 1037 C) 2 × 10-37 D) 3 × 1018 E) 3 × 10-18 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

62) The following galvanic cell has a measured cell potential E°cell = 0.646 V. Pt(s) ∣ Sn4+(aq), Sn2+(aq) Ag+(aq) ∣ Ag(s) Given that the standard reduction potential for the reduction of Ag+(aq) to Ag(s) is +0.800 V, what is the standard reduction potential for the Sn4+/Sn2+ half-reaction? A) +0.154 V B) -0.154 V C) +1.45 V D) -1.45 V E) +0.308 V Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

63) What is the cell diagram for the spontaneous cell involving the Cl2(g) ∣ Cl-(aq) (1.358 V) and the Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s) (-0.137V) half cells? A) Pt(s) ∣ Cl2(g) ∣ Cl-(aq) Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s) B) Sn(s) ∣ Sn2+(aq) Cl-(aq) ∣ Cl2(g) ∣ Pt(s) C) Cl2(g) ∣ Cl-(aq) Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s) D) Sn(s) Sn2+(aq) Cl-(aq) ∣ Cl2(g) E) Sn(s) ∣ Cl-(aq) Sn2+(aq) ∣ Sn(s) Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

64) What is the cell reaction of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+(aq)/Zn(s) (-0.76 V) and Br2(l)/2 Br-(aq)(1.07 V) half cells? A) 2Br-(aq) + Zn2+(aq) → Zn + Br2(l) B) Br2(l) + Zn → Zn2+(aq) + 2Br-(aq)

C) 2Br-(aq) + Zn → Br2(l) + Zn2+(aq) D) Br2(l) + Zn → Zn2+(aq) + Br-(aq) E) Br2(l) + Zn2+(aq) → Zn + 2Br-(aq) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

65) What is E° of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+(aq)/Zn(s) (-0.76 V) and Br2(l)/2 Br-(aq) (1.07 V) half cells? A) -1.83 V B) 0.31 V C) 1.83 V D) -0.31 V E) -0.76 V Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

66) Using the following reduction half-reactions and their respective standard reduction potentials at 25 °C, draw a diagram of a galvanic cell. Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l) Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = +1.33 V E° = -0.763 V

A) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s), H+(aq) Cr2O72-(aq), Cr(s) ∣ Cr3+(aq) B) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) H+(aq), Cr3+(aq) ∣ Cr(s) C) Cr(s) ∣ Cr3+(aq), H+(aq), Cr2O72-(aq) Zn(S) ∣ Zn2+(aq) D) Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Cr2O72-(aq), H+(aq), Cr3+(aq) ∣ Pt(s) E) Pt(s) ∣ Cr3+(aq), Cr2O72-(aq), H+(aq) Zn2+(aq) ∣ Zn(s) Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

67) Which two of the following half-reactions will combine to give the galvanic cell with the highest cell potential? 1) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g)

E° = 0

2) Pb+2(aq) + 2 e- → Pb(s) 3) I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) 4) Zn+2(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = -0.125 V E° = +0.535 V E° = -0.763 V

A) 1 and 4 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 4 D) 1 and 3 E) 2 and 3 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

68) What is E° of the spontaneous cell made from Ag+(aq)/Ag(s) (0.80 V) and Cl2(g)/Cl-(aq) (1.36 V) half cells? A) 2.16 V B) -2.16 V C) -0.56 V D) 0.56 V E) 1.36 V Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

69) The net reaction in a voltaic cell with E°cell = +0.726 V is, 2 Fe3+(aq) + 3 Zn(s) → 2 Fe(s) + 3 Zn2+(aq) What is ΔG° for this reaction at 25 °C? A) -210 kJ B) -140 kJ C) -700 kJ D) -463 kJ E) -420 kJ Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

70) The standard Gibbs energy change for the following voltaic cell is ΔG° = -89.3 kJ at 25 °C. What is E°cell? Ag(s) A) +0.463 V B) -0.926 V C) -0.463 V D) +0.926 V E) +0.231 V Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

71) What is Keq at 25 °C of the spontaneous cell made from Ag+(aq)/Ag(s) (0.80 V) and Cl2(g)/Cl-(aq) (1.36 V) half cells? A) 9 × 10-74 B) 1 × 10-19 C) 1 × 1073 D) 9 × 1018 E) 1 × 1027

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

72) What is Keq at 25 °C of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+(aq)/Zn(s) (-0.76 V) and Br2(l)/2Br(aq) (1.07 V) half cells? A) 3 × 1010 B) 3 × 10-11 C) 8 × 1061 D) 2 × 1036 E) 5 × 1025

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

73) Determine Keq at 25 °C for the following reaction: Pb2+(aq) + Cu(s) ⇌ Cu2+(aq) + Pb(s) The half-reactions are: Pb2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇌ Pb(s)

E° = -0.125 V

Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇌ Cu(s)

E° = +0.337 V

A) 2 × 1069 B) 3 × 10-16 C) 2 × 1016 D) 2 × 10-8

E) 6 × 107 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

74) For the reaction: Mg(s) + AgNO3(aq) → Ag(s) + Mg(NO3)2(aq) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Mg(s)

E° = 0.800 V E° = -2.356 V

Determine ΔG°. A) -300.3 kJ/mol B) 304.5 kJ/mol C) 609.0 kJ/mol D) -304.5 kJ/mol E) -609.0 kJ/mol Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

75) What is ΔG° at 25 °C for the reaction (not balanced): C3H8(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) if the standard cell potential is 1.092 V? A) -105 kJ B) -211 kJ C) 105 kJ D) -2107 kJ E) 211 kJ Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

76) What is the standard cell potential if the Gibbs energy is -2108 kJ in the reaction: C3H8(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) (not balanced)? A) -10.92 V B) 10.92 V C) 21.85 V D) -1.092 V E) 1.092 V Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-3

77) Calculate Ecell at 25 °C for the following voltaic cell. Ksp for NiCO3(s) is 1.42 × 10-7. Ni(s) ∣ Ni2+(aq) [sat'd NiCO3(s)] Ni2+(aq) (0.010M) ∣ Ni(s) The half-reaction is: Ni2+(aq) + 2 e- → Ni(s) A) +0.257 V B) -0.257 V C) 0.000 V D) +0.0844 V E) +0.0422 V Answer: E

E° = -0.257 V

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

78) Find Ecell for the following voltaic cell at 25 °C:

Ti(s) ∣ Ti2+(aq) (0.550M) Sn2+(aq) (0.005 M) ∣ Sn(s)

The half-reactions are: Ti2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇔ Ti(s)

E° = -1.630 V

Sn2+(aq) + 2 e- ⇔ Sn(s)

E° = -0.137 V

A) 1.372 V B) 1.707 V C) 1.646 V D) 1.433 V E) -1.646 V Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

79) Determine Ecell at 25 °C for the following reaction at 25 °C: Al(s) ∣ Al3+(0.435 M) Sn2+(2.12 × 10-3 M) ∣ Sn(s) 3 Sn2+(aq) + 2 Al(s) → 2 Al3+(aq) + 3 Sn(s) Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) Sn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Sn(s)

E° = -1.676 V E° = -0.137 V

A) 1.227 V B) 1.611 V C) 1.562 V D) 1.487 V E) 1.467 V Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

80) What is Ecell at 25 °C of the spontaneous cell made from Ag+(aq)/Ag(s) (0.80 V) and Cl2(g)/Cl-(aq) (1.36 V) half cells if [Ag+] = 1 × 10-2 M and [Cl-] = 1 × 10-4 M with P(Cl2) = 1.1 atm? A) 0.65 V B) 0.38 V C) 0.74 V D) 0.92 V E) 0.20 V Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

81) Find Ecell at 25 °C for the following voltaic cell: Cu(s) ∣ Cu2+(aq) (0.10 M) Cu2+(aq) (0.85 M) ∣ Cu(s) The half-reaction is: Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s)

E° = +0.377 volts

A) +0.0209 V B) +0.0550 V C) +0.0275 V D) -0.0209 V E) +0.310 V Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

82) Consider the following reaction: 2 Al(s) + 3 Ni2+(aq) → 2 Al3+(aq) + 3 Ni(s)

E° = 1.410 V

What would be the cell potential at 25 °C as calculated from the Nernst equation if [Ni2+] = 0.020 M, [Al3+] = 3.60 M? A) 1.388 volts B) 1.034 volts C) 1.471 volts D) 1.349 volts E) 1.410 volts Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

83) What is the cell potential for the following cell at 25 °C? Al(s) ∣ Al3+(0.00212 M) Sn2+(0.435 M) ∣ Sn(s) Al3+(aq) + 3 e- → Al(s) E° = -1.676 V Sn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Sn(s

E° = -0.137 V

A) 1.517 V B) 1.668 V C) 1.410 V D) 1.497 V E) 1.581 V Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

84) What is the cell potential for the following cell at 25 °C? Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+ (0.0456 M) Cu2+(0.120 M) ∣ Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s) E° = 0.340 V Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s)

E° = -0.763 V

A) 1.088 V B) 1.114 V C) 1.106 V D) 1.094 V E) 1.129 V Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

85) What is the Ecell for the following cell at 25 °C? Pt(s) ∣ Fe2+ (aq, 0.0562 M), Fe3+ (aq, 0.253 M) Ag+ (aq, 0.334 M) ∣ Ag(s) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V Fe3+(aq) + e- → Fe2+

E° = -0.771 V

A) -0.038 V B) 1.500 V C) -0.004 V D) 0.096 V E) 0.039 V Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

86) What is the [H+] in a concentration cell at 25 °C if the cell potential is 0.0451 V and cell diagram: Pt(s) ∣ H2 (g, 1 atm) ∣ H+(?) H+ (aq, 1 M) ∣ H2(g, 1 atm) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g)

E° = 0. V

A) 0.51 M B) 0.42 M C) 0.030 M D) 0.17 M E) 5.7 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

87) What is Ecell at 25 °C of the spontaneous cell made from the Zn2+(aq)/Zn(s) (0.76 V) and Br2(l)/Br-(aq) (1.07 V) half cells if [Zn2+] = 1 × 10-2 M and [Br-] = 1 × 10-4 M? A) 0.40 V B) 0.13 V C) 0.61 V D) 0.01 V E) 0.49 V Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

88) For the following voltaic cell, determine the [Cl-] when

= 0.500 atm, [Zn2+] = 1.77 × 10-2 M, and

Ecell = 2.250 V. The half-reactions at 25 °C are: Cl2(g) + 2 e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = +1.358 V Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) E° = -0.763 V Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) Cl-(aq), Cl2(g) ∣ Pt(s) A) 5.48 × 10-6 M B) 2.32 × 10-3 M C) 0.0296 M D) 0.0939 M E) 0.0352 M Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

89) What is the Ecell for the following concentration cell at 25 °C: Pt(s) ∣ H2(g, 0.025 atm) ∣ H+ (0.012 M) H+ (aq, 1 M) ∣ H2(g, 1 atm) ∣ Pt(s) 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → H2(g)

E° = 0. V

A) -0.16 V B) +0.066 V C) -0.132 V D) 0.16 V E) -0.066 V Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

90) What is the Ecell for the following cell at 25 °C? Pt(s) ∣ Sn2+ (aq, 0.233 M), Sn4+ (aq, 1.05 M) Ag+ (aq, 2.22 × 10-2 M) ∣ Ag(s) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.800 V Sn4+(aq) + 2 e- → Sn2+(aq)

E° = 0.154 V

A) 0.763 V B) 0.529 V C) 0.412 V D) 0.680 V E) 0.578 V Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-4

91) Given the following half-reactions occurring in the silver-zinc hearing aid battery, calculate the voltage at 25 °C of this battery. ZnO(s) + H2O(l) + 2 e- → Zn(s) + 2 OH-(aq)

E° = -1.260 V

Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) + 2 e- → 2 Ag(s) + 2 OH-(aq)

E° = +0.342 V

A) +1.602 V B) +1.402 V C) +0.858 V D) -0.858 V E) -1.602 V Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-5

92) Calculate the mass of I2(s) produced at the anode if a current of 2.85 A is passed through a solution of KI(aq) for 56 minutes. A) 0.42 g B) 0.13 g C) 13 g D) 25 g E) 4.3 g Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

93) A constant current of 10.0 A is passed through an electrolytic cell for 90.0 min. How many Coulombs of charge are passed through the cell? A) 0.00933 B) 0.560 C) 0.00560 D) 900 E) 15 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

94) A constant current of 15.0 A is passed through an electrolytic cell for 60.0 min. How many Coulombs of charge are passed through the cell? A) 0.00933 B) 0.560 C) 0.00560 D) 900 E) 15 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

95) A solution of Al(NO3)3(aq) is electrolyzed by passing 144 A of current for 102 min. What mass of aluminum plates out? A) 27.4 g B) 760 g C) 82.1 g D) 2.3 g E) 75.3 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

96) What mass of silver can be deposited by the passage of a constant current of 5.00 A through a AgNO3(aq) solution for 2.00 hours? A) 40.3 g B) 0.0112 g C) 0.671 g D) 0.373 g E) 10.06 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

97) What mass of aluminum can be deposited by the passage of a constant current of 5.00 A through a Al(NO3)3(aq) solution for 2.00 hours? A) 3.36 g B) 1.12 g C) 0.0559 g D) 0.672 g E) 0.125 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

98) A solution of AgNO3(aq) is electrolyzed by passing 144 A of current for 102 min. What mass of silver plates out? A) 16.4 g B) 5.91 × 104 g C) 985 g D) 9.13 g E) 6.84 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

99) Two cells containing solutions of AgNO3(aq) and CuSO4(aq), respectively, were connected in series and electrolyzed. The cathode in the AgNO3(aq) cell was found to gain 1.078 grams in weight. How much had the cathode in the other cell gained? A) 0.127 g B) 0.6354 g C) 3.175 g D) 0.318 g E) 0.254 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

100) 3.53 L of 0.362 M CuCl2(aq) solution are electrolyzed for 55.6 minutes with a current of 14.0-amperes. What is [CuCl2] when the electrolysis ends? A) 0.361 M B) 0.328 M C) 0.120 M D) 0.171 M E) 0.293 M Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

101) How long would it take to deposit 15.0 g copper metal at the cathode of an electrolysis cell running with a current of 150 mA? A) 42.2 h B) 4.22 h C) 12.7 h D) 84.4 h E) 19.0 h Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

102) A copper electrode weighs 35.42 g before the electrolysis of a copper (II) sulfate solution and 36.69 g after the electrolysis has run for 20.0 s. What was the amperage of the current used? A) 2.12 A B) 0.0335 A C) 48.2 A D) 96.4 A E) 193 A Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

103) A solution of AuCl3(aq) is electrolyzed by passing 85.0 A of current for 17.6 min. What mass of gold plates out? A) 61.1 g B) 1.02 g C) 183 g D) 0.483 g E) 290 g Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 19-7

104) What is the reduction half-reaction for the following overall galvanic cell reaction? Co2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) → Co(s) + 2 Ag+(aq) A) Ag(s) + e- → Ag+(aq) B) Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) C) Co2+(aq) + 2 e- → Co(s) D) Co2+(aq) + e- → Co(s) Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) What is the shorthand notation that represents the following galvanic cell reaction? Pb(s) + Cu(NO3)2(aq) → Pb(NO3)2(aq) + Cu(s) A) Pb(s) ∣ Pb2+(aq) ∣∣ Cu2+(aq) ∣ Cu(s) B) Cu(s) ∣ Cu2+(aq) ∣∣ Pb2+(aq) ∣ Pb(s)

C) Pb(s) ∣ NO3-(aq) ∣∣ NO3-(aq) ∣ Cu(s)

D) Cu(s) ∣ Cu(NO3)2(aq) ∣∣ Pb(NO3)2(aq) ∣ Pb(s) Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) What is the shorthand notation that represents the following galvanic cell reaction? 2 Fe2+(aq) + F2(g) → 2 Fe3+(aq) + 2 F-(aq) A) Fe2+(aq) ∣ Fe3+(aq) ∣∣ F2(g) ∣ F-(aq)

B) Fe(s) ∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣∣ Fe3+(aq) F2(g) ∣ F-(aq) ∣ C(s) C) Pt(s) ∣ Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq), F2(g) ∣∣ F-(aq) ∣ C(s)

D) Pt(s) ∣ Fe2+(aq), Fe3+(aq) ∣∣ F2(g) ∣ F-(aq) ∣ C(s) Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) For the galvanic cell reaction, expressed below using shorthand notation, what half-reaction occurs at the cathode? Zn(s) ∣ Zn2+(aq) ∣∣ Ni2+(aq) ∣ Ni(s) A) Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2 eB) Zn2+(aq) + 2 e- → Zn(s) C) Ni(s) → Ni2+(aq) + 2 eD) Ni2+(aq) + 2 e- → Ni(s) Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) What is the balanced chemical equation for the galvanic cell reaction expressed using shorthand notation below? Al(s) ∣ Al3+(aq) ∣∣ Fe2+(aq) ∣ Fe(s) A) 2 Al(s) + 3 Fe2+(aq) → 2 Al3+(aq) + 3Fe(s) B) 3 Al(s) + 2 Fe2+(aq) → 3 Al3+(aq) + 2 Fe(s) C) 2 Fe(s) + 3 Al3+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + 3 Al(s) D) 3 Fe(s) + 2 Al3+(aq) → 3 Fe2+(aq) + 2 Al(s) Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) What is the balanced equation for the galvanic cell reaction expressed using shorthand notation below? Ni(s) ∣ Ni2+(aq) ∣∣ Cl2(g) ∣ Cl-(aq) ∣ C(s) A) Ni(s) + 2 Cl-(aq) → Ni2+(aq) + Cl2(g) B) Ni(s) + Cl2(g) → Ni2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq)

C) Ni2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq) → Ni(s) + Cl2(g) D) Ni2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq) → NiCl2(s) Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) A galvanic cell consists of a Ni2+(aq)/Ni(s) half-cell and a standard hydrogen electrode. If the Ni2+/Ni half-cell standard cell functions as the anode, and the standard cell potential is 0.26 V, what is the standard reduction potential for the Ni2+(aq)/Ni(s) half-cell? A) -0.26 V B) -0.13 V C) +0.13 V D) +0.26 V Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) A galvanic cell consists of one half-cell that contains Ag(s) and Ag+(aq), and one half-cell that contains Cu(s) and Cu2+(aq). What species are produced at the electrodes under standard conditions? Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e- → Cu(s)

E° = +0.80 V E° = +0.34 V

A) Ag(aq) is formed at the cathode, and Cu(s) is formed at the anode. B) Ag(s) is formed at the cathode, and Cu2+(aq) is formed at the anode. C) Cu(s) is formed at the cathode, and Ag+(aq) is formed at the anode. D) Cu2+(aq) is formed at the cathode, and Cu(s) is formed at the anode. Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) Consider the following standard reduction potentials: Ni2+(aq) + 2 e- → Ni(s) E° = -0.26 V I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) E° = +0.54 V Under standard conditions: A) Ni2+(aq) is a stronger oxidizing agent than I2(s), and I-(aq) is a stronger reducing agent than Ni(s) B) I2(s) is a stronger oxidizing agent than Ni2+(aq), and Ni(s) is a stronger reducing agent than I-(aq)

C) Ni(s) is a stronger oxidizing agent than I-(aq), and Ni2+(aq) is a stronger reducing agent than I2(s)

D) I-(aq) is a stronger oxidizing agent than Ni(s), and I2(s) is a stronger reducing agent than Ni2+(aq) Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) Consider the galvanic cell,

Which one of the following changes to

the cell would cause the cell potential to increase (i.e., become more positive)? A) increase the [Zn2+] concentration B) increase the [Pb2+] concentration C) increase the mass of Zn(s) D) decrease the mass of Zn(s) Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) Based on the following information, F2(g) + 2 e- → 2 F-(aq) Li +(aq) + e- → Li(s)

E° = +2.87 V E° = -3.04 V

which of the following chemical species is the strongest reducing agent? A) F2(g) B) Li +(aq) C) F-(aq)

D) Li(s) Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) Using the following standard reduction potentials, Fe3+(aq) + e- → Fe2+(aq) Ni2+(aq) + 2 e- → Ni(s)

E° = +0.77 V E° = -0.23 V

calculate the standard cell potential for the galvanic cell reaction given below and determine whether or not this reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions. Ni2+(aq) + 2 Fe2+(aq) → 2 Fe3+(aq) + Ni(s) A) E° = -1.00 V, nonspontaneous B) E° = -1.00 V, spontaneous C) E° = +1.00 V, nonspontaneous D) E° = +1.00 V, spontaneous Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) The gas OF2 can be produced from the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of KF, as shown in the equation below: OF2(g) + 2 H+(aq) + 4 e- → H2O(l) + 2 F-(aq)

E° = +2.15 V

Using the given standard reduction potential, calculate the amount of OF2 that is produced, and the electrode at which the OF2 is produced, upon the passage of 0.480 faradays through an aqueous KF solution. A) 6.48 g of OF2 at the anode B) 26.0 g of OF2 at the anode

C) 6.48 g of OF2 at the cathode

D) 26.0 g of OF2 at the cathode Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) Given that E°red = -1.66 V for Al3+(aq)/Al(s) at 25 °C, find E° and E for the concentration cell expressed using shorthand notation below: Al(s) ∣ Al3+(aq, 1.0 × 10-5 mol L-1) ∣∣ Al3+(aq, 0.100 mol L-1) ∣ Al(s) A) E° = 0.00 V and E = +0.24 V B) E° = 0.00 V and E = +0.0789 V C) E° = -1.66 V and E = -1.42 V D) E° = -1.66 V and E = -1.54 V Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) The standard cell potential (E°) of a voltaic cell constructed using the cell reaction below is 0.76 V: Zn(s) + With

(aq) →

= 1.0 atm and [

(aq) +

(g)

] = 1.0 mol L-1, the cell potential is 0.66 V. The concentration of

(aq) in

the cathode compartment is ________ mol L-1. A) 2.0 × 10-2 B) 4.2 × 10-4 C) 1.4 × 10-1

D) 4.9 × 101 E) 1.0 × 10-12 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

119) A voltaic cell is constructed with two silver-silver chloride electrodes, where the half-reaction is AgCl(s) +

→ Ag(s) +

(aq)

E° = +0.222 V

The concentrations of chloride ion in the two compartments are 0.0222 mol L-1 and 2.22 mol L-1, respectively. The cell emf is ________ V. A) 0.212 B) 0.118 C) 0.00222 D) 22.2 E) 0.232 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

120) A voltaic cell is constructed with two (aq) +

→ Zn(s)

-Zn electrodes, where the half-reaction is

E° = -0.763 V

The concentrations of zinc ion in the two compartments are 5.50 mol L-1 and 1.11 × respectively. The cell emf is ________ V. A) -1.54 × B) -378 C) 0.0798 D) 0.160 E) -0.761 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

121) The standard emf for the cell using the overall cell reaction below is +2.20 V: 2 Al(s) +

(s) →

(aq) +

The emf generated by the cell when [ A) 2.20 B) 2.30 C) 2.10 D) 2.41 E) 2.23 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

(aq) mol L-1 and [ ] = 0.10 mol L-1 is

] = 5.0 ×

Var: 10

122) The standard emf for the cell using the overall cell reaction below is +0.48 V: Zn(s) +

(aq) →

(aq) + Ni(s)

The emf generated by the cell when [ A) 0.40 B) 0.50 C) 0.52 D) 0.56 E) 0.44 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

] = 2.50 mol L-1 and [

Var: 10

] = 0.100 mol L-1 is

mol L-1,

123) The electrolysis of molten

(aq) for 3.25 hr with an electrical current of 15.0 A produces

of aluminum metal. A) 147 B) 0.606 C) 4.55 × D) 16.4 E) 49.1 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 10

124) For a galvanic cell that uses the following two half-reactions, Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l) Pb(s) → Pb2+(aq) + 2 ehow many moles of Pb(s) are oxidized by three moles of Cr2O72-(aq)? A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 18 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

125) How many seconds are required to produce 4.00 g of aluminum metal from the electrolysis of molten (l) with an electrical current of 12.0 A? A) 27.0 B) 9.00

C) 1.19 × 103 D) 2.90 × E) 3.57 × Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

126) How many grams of chromium metal are plated out when a constant current of 8.00 A is passed through an aqueous solution containing Cr3+ ions for 320. minutes? A) 27.6 g B) 49.2 g C) 82.4 g D) 248 g Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

127) How many grams of nickel metal are plated out when a constant current of 15.0 A is passed through aqueous NiCl2 for 60.0 minutes? A) 10.9 g B) 16.4 g C) 32.8 g D) 36.3 g Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

128) How long must a constant current of 50.0 A be passed through an electrolytic cell containing aqueous Cu2+ ions to produce 5.00 moles of copper metal? A) 0.187 hours B) 0.373 hours C) 2.68 hours D) 5.36 hours Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 20 Chemical Kinetics 1) If increasing the concentration of A in a chemical reaction causes no increase in the rate of the reaction, then we may say the reaction rate is first order in [A]. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

2) If the rate of a specific chemical reaction is independent of the concentrations of the reactants, the reaction is zero order. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-4

3) If the half-life of a reactant is independent of its initial concentration, the reaction order is 0. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

4) For a reaction with a second order rate constant, the correct unit is M · time-1. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-6

5) Energy of activation has no effect on reaction rate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

6) Temperature has no effect on reaction rate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

7) In the Arrhenius equation, ln k = -Ea/RT + ln A, the symbol A denotes the initial concentration of A. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

8) In the Arrhenius equation, ln k = -Ea/RT + ln A, the symbol A is a constant that represents the frequency of collisions with the proper orientation and other steric conditions favorable for a reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

9) Adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

10) A heterogeneous catalyst is a catalyst that is in two phases of matter. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

11) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate law is: = k[N2O5] At 300 K, the half-life is 2.50 × 104 seconds and the activation energy is 103.3 kJ/mol O2. At the time when N2O5 is being consumed at a rate of 1.2 × 10-4 M/s, what is the rate at which NO2 is being formed? A) 1.2 × 10-4 M/s B) 2.4 × 10-4 M/s C) 6.0 × 10-5 M/s D) 3.0 × 10-5 M/s E) 4.8 × 10-4 M/s Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

12) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) at the time when N2O5 is being consumed at a rate of 1.2 × 10-4 M/s, what is the rate at which O2 is being formed? A) 1.2 × 10-4 M/s B) 2.4 × 10-4 M/s C) 6.0 × 10-5 M/s D) 3.0 × 10-5 M/s E) 4.8 × 10-4 M/s Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

13) For the reaction: C2H4Br2 + 3 KI → C2H4 + 2 KBr + KI3, when the rate of disappearance of C2H4Br2 is 2.0 × 10-5 M/s, what is the rate of disappearance of KI? A) 0.67 × 10-5 M/s B) 2.0 × 10-5 M/s C) 4.0 × 10-5 M/s D) 6.0 × 10-5 M/s E) 1.0 × 10-5 M/s Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

14) For the reaction: C2H4Br2 + 3 KI → C2H4 + 2 KBr + KI3, when the rate of appearance of C2H4 is 2.0 × 10-5 M/s, what is the rate of disappearance of C2H4Br2? A) 0.67 × 10-5 M/s B) 2.0 × 10-5 M/s C) 4.0 × 10-5 M/s D) 6.0 × 10-5 M/s E) 1.0 × 10-5 M/s Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

15) For the reaction: C2H4Br2 + 3 KI → C2H4 + 2 KBr + KI3, when the rate of disappearance of C2H4Br2 is 2.0 × 10-5 M/s, what is the rate of appearance of C2H4? A) 0.67 × 10-5 M/s B) 2.0 × 10-5 M/s C) 4.0 × 10-5 M/s D) 6.0 × 10-5 M/s E) 1.0 × 10-5 M/s Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

16) For the reaction: C2H4Br2 + 3 KI → C2H4 + 2 KBr + KI3, when the rate of disappearance of C2H4Br2 is 2.0 × 10-5 M/s, what is the rate of appearance of KBr? A) 0.67 × 10-5 M/s B) 2.0 × 10-5 M/s C) 4.0 × 10-5 M/s

D) 6.0 × 10-5 M/s E) 1.0 × 10-5 M/s Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

17) In the reaction C4H9Cl(aq) + H2O(l) → C4H9OH(aq) + HCl(aq) the concentration of the reactant changes from 0.0562 M to 0.0431 M in 85 sec. What is the average rate of decomposition over this interval? A) 1.54 × 10-4 M/s B) 1.54 × 10-4 moles C) 1.54 × 10-4 moles/s D) 0.0154 M E) 0.0154 M/s Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-1

18) Define rate law. A) A theoretical equation that describes how the rate of reaction depends on the concentration of reactants. B) An experimentally determined equation that describes how the rate of reaction depends on the concentration of reactants. C) A theoretical equation that describes how the rate of reaction depends on temperature, orientation and number of collisions. D) An experimentally determined equation that describes how the rate of reaction depends on temperature, orientation and number of collisions. E) A statement that describes how the ratio of reaction depends on concentration of reactants developed from the balanced equation. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

19) If a reaction has a rate equation of rate = k[A][B][C] then it is: A) overall second order B) overall first order C) overall third order D) zero order in A E) second order in B Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

20) The reaction has the rate law Rate = k[A][B]2. Which will cause the rate to increase the most? A) doubling [A] B) lowering temperature C) tripling [B] D) quadrupling [A] E) doubling [B] Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

21) If increasing the concentration of A in a chemical reaction 2 A → B + C causes no increase in the rate of the reaction, then we may say: A) A is a catalyst B) the reaction rate is zero order in A C) the reaction rate is zero order in [A] D) the reaction rate is first order in [A] E) A is not involved in the reaction Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

22) Which of the following statements is true about the reaction 2 A → B + C which is first order in A and first order overall? A) The rate of the reaction will decrease at higher concentrations of B and C. B) The time required for one half of A to react is directly proportional to the quantity of A. C) The rate of formation of C is twice the rate of reaction of A. D) The rate of formation of B is the same as the rate of reaction of A. E) The initial rate doubles with doubling of initial concentration of A. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

23) The reaction A + B → C + D is second order in A and zero order in B. The value of k is 0.012 M-1 min1. What is the rate of this reaction when [A] = 0.125 M and [B] = 0.435 M? A) 5 × 10-4 M min-1 B) 3.4 × 10-3 M min-1

C) 1.3 M min-1 D) 1.9 × 10-4 M min-1 E) 1.5 × 10-3 M min-1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

24) For the reaction 2 HgCl2 + C2O42- → products, data are: [HgCl2]0 (in M) [C2O42-]0 (in M)

0.0836

0.0418

0.202

0.404

rate (M/hr)

0.26

1.04

0.53

The rate law is Rate = k[HgCl2]x[C2O42-]y. Thus: A) x = 2, y = 1 B) x = 2, y = 2 C) x = 1, y = 2 D) x = 1, y = 1 E) x = 0, y = 2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

25) For 2 NO + O2 → 2 NO2, initial rate data are: [NO]0 (in M) [O2]0 (in M)

0.010

0.030

0.010

0.020

rate (mM/sec)

2.5

5.0

45.0

The rate law is Rate = k[NO][O2]y: A) x = 1, y = 2 B) x = 2, y = 1 C) x = 1, y = 1 D) x = 2, y = 2 E) x = 0, y = 2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

26) Data for the reaction A + B → C are given below. Find the rate constant for this system.

0.030

0.060

0.030

0.020

2.5 × 10-5 2.5 × 10-5

0.060

10.0 × 10-5

A) 2.8 × 10-2 M-1s-1 B) 2.8 × 10-2 Ms-1 C) 2.8 × 10-2 M2s-1 D) 1.7 × 10-3 M-1s-1 E) 1.7 × 10-3 Ms-1 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

27) The rate of a specific chemical reaction is independent of the concentrations of the reactants. Thus the reaction is: A) first order in A B) second order C) first order in the product D) catalyzed E) overall zero order Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-4

28) Calculate rate constant k for a first order reaction with a half-life of 75.0 min. A) 52.0 min-1 B) 1.54 × 10-4 min-1 C) 1.33 × 10-2 min-1

D) 9.24 × 10-3 min-1 E) 2.67 × 10-2 min-1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

29) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) Radioactive decay is a first order reaction. B) Half-life in a first order reaction is constant. C) For a first order reaction ln [A]t/[A]o = kt. D) In gaseous reactions [A] can be expressed as concentration or as pressure. E) In a zero order reaction the rate remains constant throughout the reaction. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

30) In the first order reaction A → products, [A] = 0.400 M initially and 0.250 M after 15.0 min, what will [A] be after 175 min? A) 1.67 × 10-3 M B) 1.04 × 10-3 M C) 3.70 × 10-2 M

D) 6.024 × 10-3 M E) 2.31 × 10-1 M Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

31) For a reaction Rate = k[A][B]2, what factor will keep k unchanged? A) raising temperature B) adding inhibitor C) increasing [A] D) adding catalyst Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-6

32) In a second order reaction: I) the sum of the exponents in the rate law is equal to two. II) at least one of the exponents in the rate law is a two. III) the half-life is dependent on the initial concentration of the reactant species. IV) the half-life is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant species. V) k can be expressed as M-2s-1 or M-2min-1. A) I and IV B) II and IV C) I, III, and V D) I and III E) II and III Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-6

33) Which of the following is FALSE for a second order reaction? A) 1/[A]t - 1/[A]o = kt. B) t1/2 = 1/k[A]o. C) If 1/[A] versus time is a straight line, the reaction is second order. D) Each successive half-life is 4 times as long as the previous. E) The slope of 1/[A]t versus time is k. Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-6

34) For the second order reaction A → products, the following data are obtained: [A] = 3.024 M, t = 0 min [A] = 2.935 M, t = 1.0 min [A] = 2.852 M, t = 2.0 min What is the rate constant, k? A) 3.6 × 10-3 M-1 min-1 B) 1.4 × 10-2 M-1 min-1 C) 2.2 × 10-2 M-1 min-1

D) 9.7 × 10-3 M-1 min-1 E) 1.0 × 10-2 M-1 min-1 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

35) For the second order reaction A → products, the following data are obtained: [A] = 1.512 M, t = 0 min [A] = 1.490 M, t = 1.0 min [A] = 1.469 M, t = 2.0 min What is the rate constant, k, for the reaction? A) 3.6 × 10-3 M-1 min-1 B) 1.4 × 10-2 M-1 min-1 C) 2.2 × 10-2 M-1 min-1

D) 1.0 × 10-2 M-1 min-1 E) 9.7 × 10-3 M-1 min-1 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

36) Activation energy is: A) energy at the bottom of the reaction curve B) the heat energy in joules required to break the bonds in one reactant C) an energy that a catalyst brings to the system to activate one of the reactants D) the kinetic energy of solution stirring that brings the reaction to start E) minimum kinetic energy that molecules must bring to their collisions for a chemical reaction to occur Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

37) Choose the INCORRECT answer. The rate of a chemical reaction: A) usually is increased when the concentration of one of the reactants is increased B) is dependent on temperature C) may be increased by certain catalytic agents D) will be very rapid if the activation energy is large E) describes the rate of change in concentration of a reactant or product with time Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

38) Which of the following has no effect on the rate of a reaction? A) value of ΔH° B) activation energy C) presence of a catalyst D) temperature of reactants E) concentrations of reactants Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

39) Which of the following statements is correct? A) A zero order reaction depends on the concentration of reactants. B) A reaction rate cannot be calculated from the collision frequency alone. C) The activated complex is a chemical species that can be isolated and analysed. D) The number of collisions has no effect on the rate constant. E) The orientation of a collision does not affect the rate constant. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

40) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A reaction intermediate is produced and used up during the reaction. B) A transition state and a reaction intermediate are the same. C) An activated complex has partially formed bonds. D) A reaction intermediates have fully formed bonds. E) The rate-determining step is the slow-step. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

41) Define activation energy. A) the difference between the energy of the products and reactants B) the energy difference between the maximum energy of reaction and the energy of the products C) the minimum total kinetic energy that molecules must bring to their collisions for a chemical reaction to occur D) the total kinetic energy of molecules in collisions E) the total kinetic energy of molecules in a system Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

42) According to the collision theory in gaseous molecules, collision frequency is ________ and the rate of reaction is ________ because ________. A) low, low, molecules are so far apart B) high, high, each collision results in a reaction C) low, low, molecules must collide before they can react D) high, relatively low, only a fraction of the collisions lead to a reaction E) low, high, molecules are moving so fast that each reaction causes many others Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

43) Which statement is INCORRECT? A) Activation energy is always the same for forward and reverse reaction. B) If the forward reaction is endothermic, the reverse will be exothermic. C) In an endothermic reaction, activation energy is usually greater than the enthalpy. D) An activated complex has higher energy than any molecule contributing to it. E) The activated complex will be the highest on the energy profile. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

44) A factor that decreases the activation energy for a reaction: I) decreases the rate constant II) increases the rate constant III) has no effect on the rate constant IV) increases the product yield V) might be a catalyst A) I and IV B) II and IV C) I, IV, and V D) IV and III E) II and V Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-8

45) What is the rate constant at 305 K for the reaction: 2 N2O5 → 2 N2O4 + O2, if k = 3.46 × 10-5 s-1 at 298 K and Ea = 106 kJ/mol? A) 2.4 × 10-5 s-1 B) 4.8 × 10-5 s-1 C) 6.0 × 10-5 s-1 D) 1.2 × 10-5 s-1 E) 9.2 × 10-5 s-1 Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

46) In the Arrhenius equation, ln k = -Ea/RT + ln A, the symbol A denotes: A) the initial concentration of A B) the activation energy C) the rate constant D) a constant that represents the frequency of collisions with the proper orientation and other steric conditions favorable for a reaction E) the absolute temperature Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

47) Activation energy is: I) the minimum kinetic energy required for each molecule in a collision to produce a reaction. II) the minimum total kinetic energy required for the molecules in a collision to produce a reaction. III) a factor in determining the rate of a reaction. IV) high for fast reactions. A) I and III B) I, III, and IV C) II, III D) II and IV E) II, III, and IV Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

48) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate law is: = k[N2O5] At 300 K, the half-life is 2.50 × 104 seconds and the activation energy is 103.3 kJ/mol. What is the rate constant at 310 K? A) 2.78 × 10-5 s-1 B) 7.29 × 10-6 s-1 C) 7.29 × 10-8 s-1 D) 3.70 × 10-5 s-1 E) 1.05 × 10-4 s-1 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

49) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate law is: = k[N2O5] At 300 K, the half-life is 2.50 × 104 seconds and the activation energy is 103.3 kJ/mol. What is the rate constant at 350 K? A) 4.78 s-1 B) 2.79 × 10-5 s-1 C) 6.38 × 1016 s-1 D) 7.47 × 10-8 s-1 E) 1.03 × 10-2 s-1 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

50) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate law is: = k[N2O5] At 300 K, the half-life is 2.50 × 104 seconds and the activation energy is 103.3 kJ/mol. What is the half-life at 310 K? A) 2.49 × 104 s B) 9.51 × 104 s C) 9.51 × 106 s D) 6.57 × 103 s E) 1.87 × 10-1 s Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

51) What is the rate law for the following mechanism? N2O + NO → N2ONO (Slow) N2ONO → N2 + NO2 (Fast) A) Rate = k[N2O] B) Rate = k[NO] C) Rate = k[N2O][NO] D) Rate = k[N2][NO2] E) Rate = k[N2ONO] Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

52) What is the rate law for the following reaction and its mechanism? 2 HgCl2 + C2O42- → 2 Cl- + 2 CO2 + Hg2Cl2

(overall reaction)

HgCl2 + C2O42- ⇌ HgCl2C2O42HgCl2C2O42- + C2O42- → Hg + 2 C2O4Cl2-

(fast)

Hg + HgCl2 → Hg2Cl2

(fast)

2 C2O4Cl2- → C2O42- + 2Cl- + 2 CO2

(slow) (fast)

A) Rate = k[HgCl2][C2O42-]

B) Rate = k[HgCl2]2[C2O42-] C) Rate = k[Hg2Cl2] D) Rate = k[HgCl2][C2O42-]2 E) Rate = k[HgCl2]2[C2O42-]2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

53) What is the rate law for the following mechanism? CH3COOC2H5 + H2O → CH3COOC2H6+ + OHCH3COOC2H6+ → CH3COOH + C2H5+

(slow)

C2H5+ + OH- → C2H5OH

(fast)

A) Rate = k[CH3COOC2H5][H2O]2 B) Rate = k[C2H5OH]

C) Rate = k[CH3COOH] D) Rate = k[CH3COOC2H5] E) Rate = k[CH3COOC2H5][H2O] Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

(fast)

54) What is the rate law for the following reaction and its mechanism? 2 O3 → 3 O2

(overall reaction)

O3 → O2 + O· O· + O3 → 2 O2

(slow) (fast)

A) Rate = k[O3] B) Rate = k[O3]2 C) Rate = k[O3]2/[O2] D) Rate = k[O3]/[O2] E) Rate = k[O3][O2] Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

55) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The rate-determining step is always the first step. B) A unimolecular process is one in which a single molecule dissociates. C) A bimolecular process is one involving a collision of two molecules. D) A reaction mechanism is a step-by-step detailed description of a chemical reaction. E) An elementary process is a step in the mechanism. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

56) Why is rate = k[HgCl2] 2[C2O42-] not the rate law for the following mechanism? 2 HgCl2 + C2O42- → 2 Cl- + 2 CO2 + Hg2Cl2

(overall reaction)

HgCl2 + C2O42- ⇌ HgCl2C2O42HgCl2C2O42- + C2O42- → Hg + 2 C2O4Cl2-

(fast)

Hg + HgCl2 → Hg2Cl2

(fast)

2 C2O4Cl2- → C2O42- + 2 Cl- + 2 CO2

(fast)

(slow)

A) The rate law is not based on the slow step of the proposed mechanism. B) The steps do not add to the overall reaction. C) The rate law does not agree with the overall reaction. D) The exponents of HgCl2 and C2O42- are not equal. E) The first step is not the slow step. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

57) Which is a plausible mechanism for the following reaction if the rate law is 2 O3 → 3 O2 A) 2 O3 → O2 + O4

(slow)

O4 → 2 O2 B) 2 O3 → O6

(fast) (slow)

O6 → O4 + O2 O4 → 2 O2

(fast)

C) 2 O3 → O4- + O2+

(slow)

O4- → O2 + O2O2- + O2+ → 2 O2

(fast)

D) O3 ⇌ O2 + O·

(fast)

O· + O3 → 2 O2

(slow)

E) O3 ⇌ O2+ + O-

(fast)

O- + O3 → O2 + O2-

(slow)

O2- + O2+ → 2 O2 Answer: D

(fast)

(slow)

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-10

58) Which of the following lowers the activation energy of a reaction? A) adding reactants B) lowering the temperature C) removing products D) adding a catalyst E) raising the temperature Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

59) A catalyst alters the rate of a chemical reaction by: A) always providing a surface on which molecules react B) changing the products formed in the reaction C) inducing an alternate pathway for the reaction with generally lower activation energy D) changing the frequency of collisions between molecules E) increasing the number of collisions of molecules Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

60) What is the main difference between a Pt catalyst and an enzyme catalyst? A) An enzyme has greater substrate specificity. B) The Pt catalyst causes a faster reaction. C) The enzyme causes a faster reaction. D) A Pt catalyst is always a homogeneous catalyst. E) A Pt catalyst is an enzyme. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

61) A catalyst: I) lowers activation energy II) provides an alternate reaction pathway III) is consumed in the reaction and therefore does not appear in the chemical equation of each mechanism IV) speeds a reaction V) is heterogeneous if it is in a different phase than the reactants A) I, III, and IV B) I, IV, and V C) II, III, and IV D) II and IV E) I, II, IV, and V Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

62) If a catalyst is added to a reaction: I) the value of k is increased II) the value of k is decreased III) the rate is increased IV) the rate is decreased V) neither rate nor the constant are changed, only the order A) I and IV B) II and IV C) II and III D) I and III E) V only Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

63) Which of the following situations involves a heterogeneous catalysis? A) The catalyst is present in a different phase of matter than are the reactants and products. B) The catalyst is in two different phases of matter. C) The reactants and products are different phases of matter in a catalyzed reaction. D) The catalyst, reactants, and products are all different phases of matter. E) The catalyst changes phases during the reaction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-11

64) The reaction 2 H2 + NO → H2O + 1/2N2 is first order in H2 and second order in NO. The rate law is ________. A) k[H2]2[NO] B) k[H2][NO]2 C) k[H2]

D) k[H2][NO] E) k[H2][NO]-2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

65) The rate data from a chemical reaction shows that doubling the concentration of A with the concentration of B remaining constant causes the rate to increase by a factor of four. What is the reaction order for [A]? A) 0 B) 0.5 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

66) For the reaction: C2H4Br2 + 3 KI → C2H4 + 2 KBr + KI3 Initial rate data at 60 °C are: [C2H4Br2]0, M 0.500 0.500 1.50

Δ[KI3]/Δt (M min-1) 0.269 1.08 0.807

[KI]0, M 1.80 7.20 1.80

The rate law is ________. A) rate = k[KI] B) rate = k[C2H4Br2] C) rate = k[KI]2 D) rate = k[KI][C2H4Br2] E) rate = k[KI][C2H4Br2]2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

67) Data for the reaction A + B → C are given below. What is the correct rate law?

0.030

0.060

0.030

0.020

0.060

A) k [A] [B] B) k [A]2 [B] C) k [A]2 [B]2 D) k [B]2 E) k[A]2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

2.5 × 10-5 2.5 × 10-5

10.0 × 10-5

68) Given the following initial rate data, calculate the specific rate constant.

5.1 × 10-4 5.1 × 10-4

0.35 × 10-4 0.70 × 10-4

3.4 × 10-8 6.8 × 10-8

5.1 × 10-4 1.0 × 10-3

0.18 × 10-4 0.35 × 10-4

1.7 × 10-8 6.8 × 10-8

1.5 × 10-3

0.35 × 10-4

10.2 × 10-8

1 2 3

A) 1.9 M2/s2 B) 1.9 M-1 s-1 C) 3.6 M s-1 D) 1.1 × 108 M2/s2 E) 3.6 M2 s-1 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

69) Given the following initial rate data, write the rate law expression.

5.1 × 10-4 5.1 × 10-4

0.35 × 10-4 0.70 × 10-4

3.4 × 10-8 6.8 × 10-8

5.1 × 10-4 1.0 × 10-3

0.18 × 10-4 0.35 × 10-4

1.7 × 10-8 6.8 × 10-8

1.5 × 10-3

0.35 × 10-4

10.2 × 10-8

1 2 3

A) k [A] [B] B) k [A]2 [B]2 C) k [A]2 [B] D) k [B]2 E) k [A]2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-3

70) What is the order of reaction for the following reaction: Rate = k[A]-1/2 [B]1/2? A) first order B) zero order C) 1/2 order D) -1/2 order E) second order Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-4

71) The correct units of the specific rate constant for a zero order reaction are ________. A) L/mol s B) s-1 C) s

D) L2/mol2 s E) rate is a constant, so it has no units Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-4

72) The first order reaction A → products has

= 150 s. What percent of the sample remains unreacted

after 300 s? A) 25% B) 50% C) 12.5% D) 0.0% E) 100% Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-4

73) If the half-life of a reaction depends on the concentration of the reactant, then the reaction cannot be ________ order. A) second B) zero C) first D) third Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

74) Substance A decomposes by a first-order reaction. Starting initially with [A] = 2.00 M, after 150 min [A] = 0.50 M. For this reaction what is ? A) 150 min B) 37.5 min C) 75.0 min D) 15.0 min E) 300 min Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

75) If the half-life of a reactant is independent of its initial concentration, the reaction order is ________. A) 0 B) 0.5 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

76) If a reaction is first order with a rate constant of 5.48 × 10-2/s, how long is required for 3/4 of the initial concentration of reactant to be used up? A) 25.3 s B) 36.5 s C) 6.3 s D) 18.2 s E) 50.6 s Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

77) The rate constant at 160 °C for the first order decomposition of ore is 0.032/min. The half-life of the reaction is ________. A) 62.5 s B) 31.25 s C) 5000 s D) 111 s E) 1300 s Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

78) A reaction is first order. If its initial rate is 0.0200 M/s and 25.0 days later its rate is 6.25 × 10-4 M/s, then its half-life is ________. A) 12.5 days B) 5.0 days C) 25.0 days D) 50.0 days E) 2.5 days Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

79) The rate constant for a first-order reaction is k = 0.00073 s-1. Determine the percent of reactant that has decomposed after 500 s. A) 69% B) 57% C) 37% D) 31% E) 43% Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

80) In the first-order, reaction A → products, [A] = 0.400 M initially and 0.250 M after 15.0 min, what is the value of the rate constant, k? A) 3.06 min-1 B) 0.0136 min-1 C) 0.470 min-1 D) 7.05 min-1 E) 0.0313 min-1 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

81) In the first-order, reaction A → products, [A] = 0.400 M initially and 0.250 M after 15.0 min, what is the half-life of the reaction? A) 22.1 min B) 63.9 min C) 9.62 min D) 51.0 min E) 15.0 min Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

82) In the first-order, reaction A → products, [A] = 0.400 M initially and 0.250 M after 15.0 min, at what time will [A] = 0.200 M? A) 63.9 min B) 22.1 min C) 9.62 min D) 51.0 min E) 15.0 min Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-5

83) For a reaction with a second order rate constant, what is the correct unit? A) M time-1 B) M-1 time-1 C) time-1 D) M-2 time E) M time-2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-6

84) For the reaction: 2 NO2(g) → 2 NO(g) + O2(g) concentration-time data are: t(s)

[NO2]

log[NO2]

0.00 0.40 0.80 1.20 1.60 2.00

2.000 1.467 1.076 0.789 0.579 0.424

0.300 0.166 0.032 -0.103 -0.237 -0.373

0.500 0.682 0.929 1.267 1.727 2.358

What is the order of the reaction with respect to [NO2]? A) zero B) first C) second D) third E) 2 + 2 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

85) For the second order reaction A → products, the following data are obtained: [A] = 1.512 M, t = 0 min [A] = 1.490 M, t = 1.0 min [A] = 1.469 M, t = 2.0 min What is the concentration of [A] in the experiment after 4.0 min for the reaction? A) 1.43 M B) 1.35 M C) 1.61 M D) 1.39 M E) 1.37 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

86) For the second-order reaction A → products, the following data are obtained: [A] = 1.512 M, t = 0 min [A] = 1.490 M, t = 1.0 min [A] = 1.469 M, t = 2.0 min What is the initial rate of the reaction in the experiment? A) 0.40 M/min B) 0.022 M/min C) 0.089 M/min D) 9.8 × 10-3 M/min E) 0.046 M/min Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

87) For the second-order reaction A → products, the following data are obtained: [A] = 3.024 M, t = 0 min [A] = 2.935 M, t = 1.0 min [A] = 2.852 M, t = 2.0 min What is the initial rate of the reaction? A) 1.0 × 10-4 M min-1 B) 0.091 M min-1 C) 11.2 M min-1 D) 0.010 M min-1 E) 0.030 M min-1 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

88) For the second-order reaction A → products, the following data are obtained: [A] = 3.024 M, t = 0 min [A] = 2.935 M, t = 1.0 min [A] = 2.852 M, t = 2.0 min What is the concentration of [A] after 4 min? A) 2.70 M B) 2.66 M C) 0.76 M D) 2.76 M E) 2.62 M Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

89) For the reaction: A → Products concentration-time data are: [A]t t [A]t t

0.2000

0.1486

0.1182

0.0981

0.0839

0 0.0733

1 0.0650

2 0.0584

3 0.0531

4 0.0486

h M

What is the order of this reaction with respect to [A]? A) zero B) first C) second D) third E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-7

90) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate law is: = k[N2O5] At 300 K, the half-life is 2.50 × 104 seconds and the activation energy is 103.3 kJ/mol O2. What is the halflife at 350 K? A) 67.3 s B) 9.3 × 106 s C) 1.09 × 10-17 s D) 2.48 × 104 s E) 0.145 s Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

91) The first-order reaction A → Products has a half-life, t1/2, of 55.0 min at 25 °C and 6.8 min at 100 °C. What is the activation energy for this reaction? A) -25.8 kJ/mol B) -38.8 kJ/mol C) 347 kJ/mol D) 25.8 kJ/mol E) 38.8 kJ/mol Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

92) For the reaction: 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate law is: = k[N2O5] At 300 K, the half-life is 2.50 × 104 seconds and the activation energy is 103.3 kJ/mol. At what temperature is the half-life 400. seconds? A) 273 K B) 333 K C) 3.04 K D) 304 K E) 296 K Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 20-9

93) The decomposition of dinitrogen pentoxide is described by the chemical equation 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g). If the rate of disappearance of N2O5 is equal to 1.60 mol min-1 at a particular moment, what is the rate of appearance of NO2 at that moment? A) 0.800 mol min-1 B) 1.60 mol min-1 C) 3.20 mol min-1 D) 6.40 mol min-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

94) The decomposition of dinitrogen pentoxide is described by the chemical equation 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g). If the rate of appearance of NO2 is equal to 0.560 mol min-1 at a particular moment, what is the rate of appearance of O2 at that moment? A) 0.140 mol min-1 B) 0.280 mol min-1 C) 1.12 mol min-1 D) 2.24 mol min-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

95) The decomposition of dinitrogen pentoxide is described by the chemical equation 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g). If the rate of appearance of O2 is equal to 3.00 mol min-1 at a particular moment, what is the rate of disappearance of N2O5 at that moment? A) 0.750 mol min-1 B) 1.50 mol min-1 C) 6.00 mol min-1 D) 12.0 mol min-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

96) For a reaction that follows the general rate law, Rate = k[A][B]2, what will happen to the rate of reaction if the concentration of A is increased by a factor of 5.00? A) The rate will decrease by a factor of 1/25.0. B) The rate will decrease by a factor of 1/5.00. C) The rate will increase by a factor of 5.00. D) The rate will increase by a factor of 25.0. Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

97) For a reaction that follows the general rate law, Rate = k[A][B]2, what will happen to the rate of reaction if the concentration of B is increased by a factor of 3.00? A) The rate will decrease by a factor of 1/9.00. B) The rate will decrease by a factor of 1/3.00. C) The rate will increase by a factor of 3.00. D) The rate will increase by a factor of 9.00. Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

98) What is the overall reaction order for the reaction that has the rate law Rate = k[Cl ][N]2? A) zero order B) first order C) second order D) third order Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

99) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2 HBr(g) → is 0.301 mol L-1 A) 1.66 B) 0.151 C) 0.0906 D) 0.602 E) 0.549 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

(g) +

(g) is ________ mol L-1

at 150 °C. The rate of appearance of

Var: 10

100) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2 HBr(g) → is 0.130 mol L-1 A) 3.85 B) 0.0650 C) 0.0169 D) 0.260 E) 0.0860 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

(g) +

(g)

at 150 °C. The rate of reaction is ________ mol L-1

Var: 10

101) The combustion of ethylene proceeds by the reaction (g) +

(g) →

When the rate of disappearance of A) 0.19 B) 0.093 C) 0.84 D) 0.42 E) 0.56 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

(g) +

O(g)

is 0.28 mol L-1

Var: 10

, the rate of appearance of

is ________

102) The combustion of ethylene proceeds by the reaction (g) + 3

(g) → 2 C

(g) +

is 0.23 mol L-1

When the rate of disappearance of A) 0.15 B) 0.077 C) 0.69 D) 0.35 E) 0.46 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

O(g) , the rate of disappearance of

is ________

Var: 10

103) The isomerization of methylisonitrile to acetonitrile NC(g) → is first order in

CN(g)

NC. The rate constant for the reaction is 9.45 × 10-5

reaction when the initial [

at 478 K. The

of the

NC] is 0.030 mol L-1 is ________ s.

A) 1.06 × 104 B) 5.29 × 103

C) 3.53E × 105 D) 7.33 × 103 E) 1.36 × 10-4 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

104) The elementary reaction (g) → 2 NO(g) +

and the rate constant at 501 K is 7.93 × 10-3

is second order in this temperature when A) 3.6 × 10-3 B) 0.011 C) 126 D) 87 E) 280 Answer: E Diff: 2

Type: MC

(g)

= 0.45 mol L-1 is ________ s.

Var: 10

. The reaction half-life at

105) The isomerization of methylisonitrile to acetonitrile NC(g) →

CN(g)

NC. The half-life of the reaction is 5.20 × 101 s at 545 K. The rate constant when the

is first order in

NC] is 0.030 mol L-1 is ________

initial [

A) 75.1 B) 0.641 C) 0.0133 D) 1.56

E) 2.84 × 104 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

106) The decomposition of 2

(soln) →

in solution in carbon tetrachloride proceeds via the reaction (soln) +

(soln)

The reaction is first order and has a rate constant of 4.82 × at 64 °C. If the reaction is initiated with 0.058 mol in a 1.00 L vessel, how many moles remain after 151 s? A) 0.055 mol L-1 B) 0.060 mol L-1 C) 0.028 mol L-1 D) 12 mol L-1 E) 2.0 × mol L-1 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

107)

Var: 10

decomposes in the gas phase by the reaction (g) →

(g) +

The reaction is first order in with 2.4 atm of

(g) and the rate constant is 3.0 ×

at 600 K. The partial pressure of

A) 0.76 B) 2.2 C) 0.98 D) 0.29

E) 1.4 × 105 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

at 600 K. A vessel is charged is ________ atm.

108) The reaction that occurs in a Breathalyzer, a device used to determine the alcohol level in a person's bloodstream, is given below. If the rate of appearance of Cr2(SO4)3 is 1.64 mol min-1 at a particular moment, what is the rate of disappearance of C2H6O at that moment? 2 K2Cr2O7(aq) + 8 H2SO4(aq) + 3 C2H6O(aq) → 2 Cr2(SO4)3(aq) + 2 K2SO4(aq) + 11 H2O(l) A) 0.547 mol min-1 B) 1.09 mol min-1 C) 2.46 mol min-1 D) 4.92 mol min-1 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) For a particular first-order reaction, it takes 24 minutes for the concentration of the reactant to decrease to 25% of its initial value. What is the value for rate constant (in s-1) for the reaction? A) 2.0 × 10-4 s-1 B) 9.6 × 10-4 s-1 C) 1.2 × 10-2 s-1 D) 5.8 × 10-2 s-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) The first-order reaction, SO2Cl2 → SO2 + Cl2, has a rate constant equal to 2.20 × 10-5 s-1 at 593 K. What percentage of the initial amount of SO2Cl2 will remain after 6.00 hours? A) 1.00% B) 37.8% C) 40.2% D) 62.2% Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) The first-order reaction, 2 N2O(g) → 2 N2(g) + O2(g), has a rate constant equal to 0.76 s-1 at 1000 K. How long will it take for the concentration of N2O to decrease to 12% of its initial concentration? A) 0.62 s B) 2.8 s C) 6.3 s D) 8.4 s Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) The isomerization reaction, CH3NC → CH3CN, is first order and the rate constant is equal to 0.46 s-1 at 600 K. What is the concentration of CH3NC after 0.20 minutes if the initial concentration is 0.30 mol L1?

A) 1.2 × 10-3 mol L-1 B) 2.7 × 10-3 mol L-1 C) 1.2 × 10-1 mol L-1 D) 2.7 × 10-1 mol L-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

113) The following reaction is first order, C2H6 → 2 CH3. If the rate constant is equal to 5.5 × 10-4 s-1 at 1000 K, how long will it take for 0.35 mol of C2H6 in a 1.00 L container to decrease to 0.20 mol in the same container? A) 4.5 min B) 17 min C) 53 min D) 65 min Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

114) The rate constant, k, for a first-order reaction is equal to 4.2 × 10-4 s-1. What is the half-life for the reaction? A) 2.9 × 10-4 s B) 1.2 × 103 s C) 1.7 × 103 s D) 2.4 × 103 s Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

115) The first-order reaction, SO2Cl2 → SO2 + Cl2, has a half-life of 8.75 hours at 593 K. How long will it take for the concentration of SO2Cl2 to fall to 16.5% of its initial value? A) 0.143 hr B) 2.28 hr C) 6.99 hr D) 22.7 hr Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

116) For the first-order reaction, 2 N2O(g) → 2 N2(g) + O2(g), what is the concentration of N2O after 3 half-lives if

mol of N2O is initially placed into a 1.00 L reaction vessel?

A) 1.6 × 10-2 mol L-1 B) 3.1 × 10-2 mol L-1 C) 6.2 × 10-2 mol L-1 D) 1.2 × 10-1 mol L-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

117) Carbon-14, which is present in all living tissue, radioactively decays via a first-order process. A onegram sample of wood taken from a living tree gives a rate for carbon-14 decay of 13.6 counts per minute. If the half-life for carbon-14 is 5720 years, how old is a wood sample that gives a rate for carbon-14 decay of 11.9 counts per minute? A) 5.3 × 102 yr B) 7.6 × 102 yr C) 1.1 × 103 yr

D) 9.4 × 103 yr Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

118) In aqueous solution, hypobromite ion, BrO-, reacts to produce bromate ion, BrO3-, and bromide ion, Br-, according to the following chemical equation:

A plot of 1/[BrO-] vs. time is linear and the slope is equal to 0.056 L mol-1 s-1. If the initial concentration of BrO- is 0.80 mol L-1, how long will it take one-half of the BrO- ion to react? A) 4.5 × 10-2 s B) 7.1 s C) 12 s D) 22 s Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

119) The second-order reaction 2 Mn(CO)5 → Mn2(CO)10 has a rate constant equal to 3.0 × 109 L mol-1 s1 at 25 °C. If the initial concentration of Mn(CO)5 is 2.0 × 10-5 mol L-1, how long will it take for 90.% of the reactant to disappear? A) 6.7 × 10-16 s B) 7.4 × 10-15 s C) 1.5 × 10-4 s D) 6.0 × 103 s Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

120) Nitrogen dioxide decomposes at 300 °C via a second-order process to produce nitrogen monoxide and oxygen according to the following chemical equation: 2 NO2(g) → 2 NO(g) + O2(g). A sample of NO2(g) is initially placed in a 2.50 L reaction vessel at 300 °C. If the half-life and the rate constant at 300 °C are 11 seconds and 0.54 L mol-1 s-1, respectively, how many moles of NO2 were in the original sample? A) 0.17 mol B) 0.42 mol C) 5.9 mol D) 15 mol Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

121) Hydrogen iodide decomposes at 800 K via a second-order process to produce hydrogen and iodine according to the following chemical equation: 2 HI(g) → H2(g) + I2(g) At 800 K it takes 142 seconds for the initial concentration of HI to decrease from 6.75 × 10-2 mol L-1 to 3.50 × 10-2 mol L-1. What is the rate constant for the reaction at this temperature? A) 5.12 × 10-4 L mol-1 s-1 B) 9.69 × 10-2 L mol-1 s-1 C) 10.3 L mol-1 s-1 D) 1.95 × 103 L mol-1 s-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

122) The aquation of tris (1,10-phenanthroline)iron(II) in acid solution takes place according to the equation: Fe(phen)32+ + 3 H3O+ + 3 H2O → Fe(H2O)62+ + 3 phenH+. If the activation energy, Ea, is 126 kJ mol-1 and the rate constant at 30 °C is 9.8 × 10-3 min-1, what is the rate constant at 35 °C? A) 4.4 × 10-3 min-1 B) 2.2 × 10-2 min-1 C) 4.5 × 101 min-1 D) 2.3 × 102 min-1 Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

123) A particular first-order reaction has a rate constant of 1.35 × of k at

at 25.0 °C. What is the magnitude

A) 9.56 × 103 s-1 B) 2.85 × 104 s-1 C) 576 s-1

D) 4.33 × 1087 s-1 E) 1.36 × s-1 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

124) A particular first-order reaction has a rate constant of 1.35 × of k at 75.0 °C if A) 3.47 ×

s-1

B) 1.92 × 104 s-1 C) 670 s-1 D) 3.85 × E) 1.36 × Answer: B Diff: 3

s-1 s-1

Type: MC

Var: 10

at 25.0 °C. What is the magnitude

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 21 Chemistry of the Main-Group Elements I: Groups 1, 2, 13, and 14 1) The chemistry of Be is different from that of the other group 2 metals due to the small size of Be2+. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

2) A magnesium fire can always be extinguished with carbon dioxide. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

3) The atomic radius of calcium is smaller than that of strontium. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

4) Strontium is a softer metal than calcium. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

5) Strontium hydroxide is classified as "basic." Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

6) Strontium hydroxide is more soluble in water than is calcium hydroxide. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

7) The first ionization energy of calcium is smaller than that of strontium. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

8) Metal oxides generally form an acidic solution in water. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

9) In a nonmetal hydroxide the oxygen-hydrogen bond is generally less polar than the nonmetal-oxygen bond. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

10) Hydrogen peroxide may act only as an oxidizing agent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

11) The formula for barium superoxide is BaO2. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

12) An amphoteric substance acts as an acid in strongly basic solution and as a base in strongly acidic solution. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

13) Which of the following is INCORRECT? A reaction typical for an alkali metal (M) is: A) M2O + H2O → 2 MOH B) M + X2 → MX2 (X = halogen)

C) 2 M + 2 NH3 → 2 MNH2 + H2 D) 2 M + O2 → M2O2 E) 2 M + H2 → 2 MH Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

14) The only by-product obtained in the Solvay process is: A) NH3 B) CO2 C) CaO D) CaCl2 E) NH4Cl Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

15) Sodium will most readily form which of the following compounds? A) Na3As B) Na3P

C) NaCl D) Na4P E) As3Na Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

16) Which of the following is uncharacteristic of the alkali metals? A) low ionization energy B) low electronegativity C) large negative electrode potential D) two electrons in the valence shell E) produce colored flames when heated Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

17) Which of the following is uncharacteristic of the alkali metals? A) large electronegativity B) soft C) produce visible color in flame test D) low melting points E) low ionization energies Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

18) Which of the following statements about lithium is FALSE? A) It is used as an alloying agent with aluminum and magnesium. B) Lithium alloys are high strength and low density. C) The alloys are important in aerospace and aircraft industries. D) Lithium is used in batteries because it is difficult to oxidize. E) An advantage to lithium batteries is light weight. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

19) Which of the following statements about the use of sodium is FALSE? A) Sodium vapor lamps are used outdoors. B) Sodium is used in reactors because it has a low melting point. C) Sodium is used in reactors because it has a high boiling point. D) Sodium is used in reactors because it has a high thermal conductivity. E) A typical sodium vapor lamp uses several grams of sodium. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

20) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Sodium chloride may be produced by electrolysis of sodium metal and chlorine gas. B) Sodium chloride is one of the most used minerals in the production of chemicals. C) Sodium chloride is used to preserve meat and fish. D) Sodium chloride is used to control ice on roads. E) Sodium chloride is used to regenerate water softeners. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

21) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Potassium chloride is used in fertilizers. B) All alkali metals react alike. C) Sodium carbonate is called soda ash. D) Sodium carbonate usually comes from natural sources such as dry lake beds. E) Sodium carbonate can be made by the Solvay process. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

22) Which of the following react with water without the formation of H2 gas as a product? A) KO2

B) NaH C) Li D) Sr Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

23) Which of the following metals reacts most violently with water? A) Cs B) Na C) Mg D) Ba Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

24) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The diagonal relationship is the similarity of properties of the top element of one group to the second element of the next group. B) Li - Mg is a diagonal relationship. C) C - P is a diagonal relationship. D) Be - Al is a diagonal relationship. E) B - Si is a diagonal relationship. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

25) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Sodium bicarbonate is sodium hydrogen carbonate. B) O22- occurs in a peroxide. C) O2- occurs in a superoxide. D) The hydroxides of alkali metals are amphoteric. E) Alkali metal hydroxides can be used to make soaps and detergents. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

26) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The class "detergents" does not include soaps. B) Detergents are cleansing agents. C) Detergents emulsify oils. D) Detergents usually mean synthetic products. E) A soap is a salt of a metal hydroxide and a fatty acid. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

27) The Solvay process involves a reaction of sodium chloride, ammonia and carbon dioxide in aqueous solution. Of the various possible products, the one least soluble in water is: A) ammonium bicarbonate B) "baking soda" (NaHCO3) C) "sal ammoniac" (NH4Cl) D) "table salt" (NaCl) E) "washing soda" (Na2CO3) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

28) Which incorrectly shows the main product of reaction of the indicated alkali metal with excess oxygen? A) Li/Li2O B) Na/Na2O2 C) K/K2O2

D) Rb/RbO2 E) Cs/CsO2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

29) Choose the INCORRECT statement about Na2CO3. A) A by-product from the production of Na2CO3 is CaCl2, which has a useful application in some localities. B) It is an important commercial compound used in the glass, soap and paper industries. C) It is produced by the Solvay process which utilizes NaCl and CaO as the primary raw materials in a multi-step synthesis. D) It is mined from large deposits in the western United States. E) Sodium carbonate can be formed by heating sodium bicarbonate. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

30) When sodium and potassium react with excess oxygen, the major products are: A) Na2O2 and KO2 B) NaO2 and KO2

C) Na2O and KO2

D) Na2O2 and K2O2 E) NaO2 and K2O2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

31) Write the general reaction for a group 1 (1A) metal with water. A) 2 M(s) + 2 H2O(l) → H2O2(aq) + 2 MH(s) B) 2 M(s) + 2 H2O(l) → 2 MOH(aq) + H2(g) C) M(s) + H2O(l) → MO(s) + H2(g)

D) 2 M(s) + H2O(l) → M2O(s) + H2(g) E) 2 M(s) + 2H2O(l) → M(OH)2(s) + H2(g) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

32) Lithium differs from other members of the group 1 (1A) elements in which way? A) It does not react with water under any conditions. B) It forms a nitride. C) Its hydroxide is very soluble. D) It is a rather soft metal. E) It is a good reducing agent. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

33) Finish the following reaction: Li(s) + O2(g) → A) 2 Li(s) + O2(g) → Li2O2(s) B) 2 Li(s) + O2(g) → 2 LiO(s)

C) 4 Li(s) + O2(g) → 2 Li2O(s) D) Li(s) + O2(g) → LiO2(s) E) There is no reaction. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

34) Finish the following reaction: Li(s) + N2(g) → A) 3 Li(s) + N2(g) → Li3N2(s)

B) 4 Li(s) + N2(g) → 2 Li2N(s) C) 2 Li(s) + N2(g) → 2 LiN(s)

D) 6 Li(s) + N2(g) → 2 Li3N(s) E) There is no reaction. Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

35) Finish the following reaction: SnO2 + NaOH(aq) + H2O(l) → A) SnO2(s) + 2 NaOH(aq) + 2 H2O(l) → Na2Sn(OH)6(s) B) SnO2(s) + 2 NaOH(aq) + 2 H2O(l) → Sn(OH)2(s) + 2 NaO(s) + 2 H2O(l) C) SnO2(s) + 2 NaOH(aq) + 2 H2O(l) → Sn(OH)4(s) + 2 NaO(s) + H2(g)

D) SnO2(s) + 2 NaOH(aq) + 2 H2O(l) → Sn(OH)2(s) + 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O2(aq) E) There is no reaction. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

36) In the production of magnesium metal by the Dow process, the other immediate product of the electrolysis of the molten magnesium chloride is: A) H2(g) B) HCl(g) C) Cl2(g) D) MgO(s) E) Mg(OH)2(s) Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

37) Choose the INCORRECT statement about magnesium. A) Magnesium is valued for its light weight. B) It has a lower density than any other structural metal. C) Aircraft parts are made from magnesium alloys. D) It is a good oxidizing agent. E) It is often used as a sacrificial anode. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

38) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Group 2 (2A) compounds are less soluble than Group 1 (1A) compounds. B) Group 2 (2A) compounds often form hydrates. C) Hydrates are compounds that have water molecules bonded to them. D) Group 2 (2A) elements react with halogens to form metal halides. E) Limestone is CaCl2. Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

39) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The production of limestone is called calcination. B) Limestone is mostly calcium carbonate. C) Stalactites are calcium carbonate formed as icicle-like deposits. D) Stalagmites form from the floor by deposition of calcium carbonate. E) Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

40) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Gypsum is CaSO4 · 2H2O. B) Plaster of Paris is calcium sulfate hexahydrate. C) Quicklime is calcium oxide. D) Slaked lime is calcium hydroxide. E) Mortar used in bricklaying is made of slaked lime, sand, and water. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

41) Both gypsum and plaster of Paris contain the same compound, but in different stages of hydration. That compound is: A) BaSO4 B) BaCO3 C) CaSO4

D) CaCO3 E) KAl(SO4)2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

42) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the alkaline earth metals. A) The heavier Group 2 (2A) metals are nearly as active as the Group 1 (1A) metals. B) They are the Group 1 (1A) family. C) Magnesium metal is produced by the Dow process. D) Salts of Sr and Ba provide vivid colors for pyrotechnic displays. E) The source of magnesium is seawater and natural brines. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

43) In the stepwise preparation of pure calcium carbonate from limestone, the step referred to as calcination involves: A) thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide B) addition of water to calcium oxide to form calcium hydroxide C) bubbling carbon dioxide through aqueous calcium hydroxide D) heating calcium oxide with carbon to form calcium metal E) melting of calcium oxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

44) In seawater, Mg2+ is about 1350 mg Mg2+/L. How many grams of magnesium are in a pool that is 25 ft by 12 ft by 6 ft? (1 ft = 12 inches and 1 inch = 2.54 cm) A) 4.78 × 102 g B) 74.1 g

C) 6.88 × 104 g D) 6.88 × 107 g E) 1.64 × 103 g Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

45) Which hydroxide is significantly more soluble in 0.10 M NaOH than in pure water? A) Mg(OH)2 B) Be(OH)2 C) NaOH D) Ca(OH)2 E) CsOH Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

46) Which of the following metal hydroxides has the lowest solubility? A) NaOH B) LiOH C) Mg(OH)2 D) Ba(OH)2 E) Sr(OH)2

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

47) Which of the following is used as a water softener? A) lithium carbonate B) sodium nitrate C) sodium carbonate D) potassium chloride E) hydrochloric acid Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

48) The difference between temporary hard water and permanent hard water is that only the former contains a significant concentration of: A) Ca2+ B) CO32-

C) HCO3D) Mg2+ E) OH-

Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

49) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Temporary hard water contains the bicarbonate ion. B) Permanent hard water also contains anions other than bicarbonate. C) Ion exchange is accomplished by mixing chemicals in the water to precipitate hard water ions. D) Deionized water is water with ions removed by ion exchange. E) Boiler scale is a mixed precipitate of CaCO3, MgCO3, and rust. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

50) Which of the following methods are unable to make water soft? A) add CaO B) add Na2CO3 C) boil D) pass through ion exchange E) pass through charcoal Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

51) Water treatment using a cation-exchange resin in the H+ form, followed by an anion-exchange resin in the OH- form, unlike the processes using typical zeolites or synthetic resins regenerated by sodium chloride, can produce: A) brine water B) deionized water C) distilled water D) hard water E) soft water Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

52) In diborane, B2H6, the hybridization of each boron is: A) sp3 B) sp2 C) sp3d D) sp E) sp3d2

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

53) Which of the following is a weak acid? A) B(OH)3 B) HI

C) B(OH)4D) B2(O2)2(OH)42Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

54) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The thermite reaction is: Fe2O3(s) + 2 Al(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2 Fe(l). B) Aluminum's chief ore is bauxite. C) Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide. D) Cryolite is Na3AlF6.

E) Alumina is Al(OH)3. Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

55) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A dimer is a molecule comprised of two like units. B) Adduct formation results in an ionic bond. C) Noncrystalline aluminum oxide is referred to as alumina. D) Crystalline aluminum oxide is called corundum. E) H- can be thought of as a pseudohalide. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

56) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the inert-pair effect. A) It explains why gallium tends to have the +3 oxidation state but thallium is most often in the +1 state. B) It can be explained that the bond energies and lattice energies associated with the atoms and ions at the bottom of the groups are not sufficiently large to off-set the ionization energies of the ns2 electron. C) The effect is manifested by ions not losing the outermost pair of electrons. D) Of the group 14 (4A) metals, only tin exhibits the inert-pair effect. E) For any group, the inert pair effect is more prominent as the period number increases. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

57) Which of the following is an indication that aluminum is a strong reducing agent? A) 2 Al(s) + 6 H+(aq) → 2 Al3+(aq) + 3 H2(g) B) 2 Al(s) + Fe2O3(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2 Fe(l) C) 2 Al(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → Al2O3(s)

D) 2 Al(s) + 2 OH- + 6 H2O(l) → 2 [Al(OH)4]-(aq) + 3 H2(g) E) All of these reactions indicate Al is a strong reducing agent. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

58) Which of the following compounds is invoked to demonstrate the inert-pair effect? A) Al(OH)3 B) GaAs C) InAs D) Tl2O

E) Al2O3 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

59) Which oxidation state is uncommon for a given element? A) Al/1+ B) Ga/3+ C) Al/3+ D) In/3+ E) In/1+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

60) Which of the following statements describes an uncommon use of an element? A) Aluminum is used in light-weight alloys. B) Gallium is used in the thermite reaction. C) Gallium is used in the electronics industry. D) Indium is used to make low-melting alloys. E) A possible use for thallium is in high-temperature superconductors. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

61) Which of the following metals has been used commercially in certain drain cleaners, along with solid sodium hydroxide, for the purpose of generating hydrogen gas by reaction with hydroxide ion after contact with water? A) Al B) Ba C) Cu D) Fe E) Ge Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

62) For which of the following elements would be wrong to call the oxide "amphoteric"? A) Tl B) Al C) Be D) Ga Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

63) Tl is different from Al, Ga, and In in that: A) Tl has a much different electronegativity B) Tl has a much different first ionization energy C) Tl commonly forms compounds with +1 oxidation state D) Tl forms metal hydroxides that are amphoteric E) Tl commonly forms compounds with +3 oxidation state Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

64) In the production of the metal by an electrolysis process, which of the following is the most costly in terms of amount of electricity required per ton of metal produced from its salt? A) Na B) Mg C) Cu D) Ba E) Al Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

65) One of the most important commercial processes for the semiconductor industry in recent years has been the gas phase reaction between arsine and trimethylgallium to form the solid product: A) trimethylarsine B) methyl hydride C) gallium hydride D) gallium arsenide E) superconductine Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

66) Pick the nonmetal in Group 13 (3A). A) Al B) Ga C) In D) B E) Tl Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

67) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Amphoteric means useful in photography. B) Tin disease, tin pest, or tin plague is actually just a second form of tin. C) A solder is a low melting alloy used to join wires or pieces of metal. D) Roasting an ore is heating that ore in air. E) Pewter is an alloy made mainly of tin. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

68) Write an equation for the roasting of PbS. A) 2 PbS(s) + 2 O2(g) → 2 PbO2(s) + S2(s) B) 2 PbS(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2 PbO(s) + 2 SO2(s) C) 8 PbS(s) + 4 O2(g) → 8 PbO(s) + S8(s) D) 2 PbS(s) + O2(g) → 2 PbO(s) + 2 S(s) E) There is no reaction. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

69) Which of the following elements forms a +4 oxidation state that is more stable than its +2 oxidation state, and is also found as a significant component of commercial bronze, pewter, red brass, and most solders? A) zinc B) tin C) magnesium D) lead E) carbon Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

70) Choose the molecular shape for BCl3. A) trigonal planar B) tetrahedral C) bent D) linear E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

71) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Diborane is B2H6.

B) B(OH)3 boric acid is a monoprotic acid. C) Being electron deficient makes boron compounds strong Lewis acids. D) The B-H-B three-center bond has only two electrons. E) Boron is one of several nonmetals in group 13. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

72) Choose the INCORRECT statement about boron. A) Boron is the only nonmetal in group 13 (3A). B) Many boron compounds are electron deficient. C) Borax actually contains no boron. D) Diborane B2H6 has three center-two atom bonds. E) The best formula for boric acid is B(OH)3. Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

73) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The strong C-C and C-H bonds are very important in organic chemistry. B) At standard temperature and pressure graphite is more stable than diamond. C) Graphite changes spontaneously but very slowly to diamond. D) Pencil lead is a graphite and clay mixture. E) No harder substance than diamond is known. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

74) Choose the INCORRECT statement about carbon. A) In addition to diamonds and graphite, fullerenes and nanotubes are allotropes. B) The finely divided soot from an incomplete combustion of natural gas is called carbon black. C) Coke is the result of heating coal in the absence of air. D) Charcoal is the result of heating wood in the absence of air. E) Diamond is an excellent conductor. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

75) Choose the INCORRECT equation. A) CaO + 3 C

CaC2 + CO B) CaC2 + 2 H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 C) CH4 + 4 S → CS2 + 2 H2S D) (CN)2 + 2 OH- → 2 HOCN

E) CH4 + 4 Cl2 → CCl4 + 4 HCl Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

76) Choose the INCORRECT statement about silicon. A) Silicon forms on stable oxide. B) Silicon exhibits more catenation than carbon. C) Sand and quartz are SiO2. D) The central feature of silicates is the SiO44- tetrahedron. E) A silicone is a compound with an alternating silicon and oxygen chain as a backbone with carbon containing groups as sidechains. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

77) Choose the INCORRECT statement about carbon. A) Carbon does not form multiple bonds. B) There are two very common allotropes: diamond and graphite. C) There is a strong tendency for catenation. D) Carbon can be hybridized into sp, sp2 and sp3 orbitals. E) Carbon primarily forms two gaseous oxides: CO and CO2. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

78) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Elemental silicon is produced by reduction of SiO2 with coke. B) In silica each silicon atom is bonded directly to four other silicon atoms. C) Coke is made by heating coal in the absence of air. D) Charcoal is made by heating wood in the absence of air. E) Allotropes of carbon include diamond, graphite, fullerenes and nanotubes. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

79) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A glass is an amorphous solid. B) An amorphous solid has order over relatively short distances. C) A sol is a colloidal dispersion of particles in a liquid. D) Silicones are materials consisting of molecules with long silicon-oxygen chains. E) Silicates are silicon-hydrogen containing compounds. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

80) Graphite and diamond are: A) allotropes B) amorphous substances C) bivalent D) elastomers E) very unstable Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

81) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Graphite and diamond are two allotropes of carbon. B) Graphite can be used as a lubricant because sheets of graphite slide over other sheets of graphite. C) Carbon black is finely divided soot used in tires, inks and pigments. D) All carbon containing compounds are the subject of inorganic chemistry. E) Certain groupings of atoms which have the characteristics of a halogen atom are called psuedohalogens. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

82) Predict the shape of cyanogen, (CN)2. A) linear B) bent C) tetrahedral D) trigonal pyramidal E) square planar Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

83) Which of the following metals is refined by some means other than electrolysis? A) Na B) Mg C) Sn D) Al E) Zn Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

84) Which of the following has more than one allotrope? A) Pb B) Cd C) Sn D) Mg E) Al Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

85) Quartz and mica are examples of: A) silanols B) silanes C) silicones D) silicates E) isomers Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

86) Write the equation for the electrolysis of molten NaCl. A) 2 NaCl(s) → 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) B) 2 NaCl(l) → 2 Na(l) + Cl2(g) C) 2 NaCl(l) → Na2Cl2(s)

D) 2 NaCl(l) → Na(s) + NaCl2(s) E) There is no reaction. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

87) Write the equation for the production of potassium metal from potassium chloride. A) KCl(s) + Na(s)

NaCl(s) + K(s)

B) KCl(s) + Na(s)

KNaCl(s)

C) KCl(l) + Na(l)

NaCl(l) + K(g)

D) KCl(l) + Na(g) E) There is no reaction. Answer: C

NaCl(s) + K(s)

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

88) Write the chemical equation for the reaction of potassium superoxide with carbon dioxide to produce oxygen. A) KO(s) + CO2(g) → O2(g) + K(s) + CO(g) B) K2O(s) + CO2(g) → O2(g) + K(s) + KCO(s) C) KO2 + CO2(g) → 2 O2(g) + KC(s)

D) 2 KO2(s) + 2 CO2(g) → K2CO3(s) + O2(g) E) There is no reaction. Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

89) What mass of potassium superoxide could be prepared from 15.6 g of potassium metal and excess oxygen? A) 37.6 g B) 15.6 g C) 22.0 g D) 28.4 g E) 0.399 g Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

90) What volume of oxygen gas, measured at STP, would be required for the preparation of 39.0 g of sodium peroxide from sufficient sodium metal? A) 11.2 L B) 9.6 L C) 7.4 L D) 5.6 L E) 2.2 L Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

91) An analysis of a Solvay plant show that for every 4.30 tons of NaCl consumed, 4.75 tons of NaHCO3 is obtained. What is the % efficiency of this process for converting NaCl to NaHCO3? A) 76.8% B) 61.8% C) 63.0% D) 158% E) 90.5% Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

92) What is the pH of a solution labeled "0.020 M Potassium Hypochlorite"? [Ka for hypochlorous acid is 2.9 × 10-8] A) 1.70 B) 4.62 C) 8.16 D) 9.92 E) 12.30 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-1

93) What potential would be expected from a galvanic cell using a solid magnesium/0.20 M Mg2+(aq) half-cell with a solid thallium/0.010 M Tl+(aq) half-cell [for Mg2+(aq) + 2 e- = Mg(s), E° = -2.36 V; for Tl+(aq) + e- = Tl(s), E° = -0.34 V]? A) 3.04 V B) 1.92 V C) 1.68 V D) 2.70 V E) 2.02 V Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

94) A sample of water has hardness expressed as 1.6 × 102 ppm Ca2+(aq). The sample is passed through an ion exchange column and the Ca2+(aq) ions are replaced by H+(aq) ions. What is the pH of the water after it has been treated? (1 ppm = 1 g solute/106 g solution) A) 2.09 B) -0.80 C) 1.10 D) 7.00 E) 2.40 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

95) A sample of water has hardness expressed as 81 ppm Ca2+(aq). The sample is passed through an ion exchange column and the Ca2+(aq) ions are replaced by H+(aq) ions. What is the pH of the water after it has been treated? (1 ppm = 1 g solute/106 g solution) A) 2.50 ppm B) 1.10 ppm C) 0.79 ppm D) 2.39 ppm E) 2.70 ppm Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

96) A sample of water has hardness expressed as 160 ppm Ca2+(aq). The sample is passed through an ion exchange column and the Ca2+(aq) ions are replaced by Na+(aq) ions. What is the [Na+] in ppm of the water after it has been treated? (1 ppm = 1 g solute/106 g solution) A) 46.0 ppm B) 92 ppm C) 184 ppm D) 320 ppm E) 80.0 ppm Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

97) A sample of water has hardness expressed as 185 ppm Ca2+(aq). The sample is passed through an ion exchange column and the Ca2+(aq) ions are replaced by Na+(aq) ions. What is the [Na+] in ppm of the water after it has been treated? (1 ppm = 1 g solute/106 g solution) A) 104 ppm B) 212 ppm C) 370 ppm D) 92.5 ppm E) 52.0 ppm Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-3

98) Calculate the number of grams of aluminum produced in the electrolytic process when 2.5 × 105 coulombs are provided to the reaction. Assume 100% efficiency. A) 23 g B) 7.7 g C) 70 g D) 3.5 g E) 11 g Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

99) What average current is required to form 5.7 grams of aluminum per hour by the electrolytic reaction? A) 1.9 A B) 5.7 A C) 17 A D) 0.024 A E) 7.9 × 10-3 A Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

100) At the start of 1980, the average lead content in blood had dropped to about 10 µg/dL blood. How many mg is that in 2.0 gallons of blood? (1 gallon = 3.7854 L) A) 760 mg B) 0.80 mg C) 0.76 mg D) 0.20 mg E) 80 mg Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

101) How much tin is needed to make a bronze piece that will contain 475 g of copper? Bronze is 90% Cu and 10% Sn by mass. A) 4.3 × 103 g B) 890 g C) 48 g D) 52.8 g E) 430 g Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

102) Complete the reaction: SiO2 + 2 C A) SiO + C2O B) SiC + CO2 C) Si + 2 CO D) SiCO + CO E) SiC2O2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

103) The molecular geometry for HCN is ________. A) trigonal planar B) trigonal bipyramid C) bent D) linear E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

104) The molecular geometry for CO2 is ________. A) trigonal planar B) trigonal bipyramid C) bent D) linear E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

105) Bronze is 90% Cu and 10% Sn by mass. What is the density of bronze if the density of Cu is 8.95 g/cm3 and the density of Sn is 5.77 g/cm3? A) 7.36 B) 6.07 C) 8.06 D) 14.72 E) 8.63 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

106) Complete the following reaction: B(OH)3(aq) + 2 H2O(l) → A) B · H2O + O2 + H3O+ B) HBO32- + 2 H3O+ C) B + H2 + 5 OH-

D) H3O+ + B(OH)4E) 2 H3O+ + HBO3 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

107) The Ka for boric acid is 5.6 × 10-10. What is the pH for 0.10 M sodium borate? A) 8.87 B) 5.13 C) 5.75 D) 2.87 E) 11.13 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

108) The production of lead is a two step process: 2 PbS(s) + 3 O2(g) 2 PbO(s) + C(s)

2 PbO(s) + 2 SO2(g) 2 Pb(l) + CO2(g)

How much ore that is 5.2% PbS is necessary to produce 12.0 kg of Pb? A) 0.721 kg B) 200 kg C) 2.67 kg D) 133 kg E) 267 kg Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

109) An aqueous solution of boric acid can be represented by the equilibrium system: B(OH)3(aq) + 2 H2O(l) ⇌ H3O+(aq) + B(OH)4-(aq) (Ka = 5.6 × 10-10) What is the pH of an eyewash solution which is 0.0018 M in boric acid? A) 3.75 B) 4.75 C) 6.00 D) 7.49 E) 9.25 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

110) If in a lead storage battery the reaction at the cathode is: PbO2(s) + 4 H+(aq) + SO4 (aq) + 2 e- → PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l) How many grams of lead sulfate are formed on one plate if 20. A average current occurs for 2.0 minutes? Assume 100% efficiency. A) 0.063 g B) 0.13 g C) 3.8 g D) 7.5 g E) requires additional information Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

111) How much tin is required to make a pewter dish if the dish is 85% Sn and weighs 185 g? A) 157 g B) 218 g C) 185 g D) 1.59 g E) 27.8 g Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

112) What weight of lead sulfate is produced during discharge of a lead storage battery over a 3.0 hour period at an average current of 0.50 A? [Hint: Consider both electrode processes.] A) 8.6 g B) 17 g C) 26 g D) 53 g E) 61 g Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

113) What average current must be maintained for a tin plating operation forming 2.4 kg of tin per hour from a solution of a tin(IV) complex, at an electrode efficiency of 90.0%? A) 750 A B) 1,000 A C) 1,600 A D) 2,400 A E) 3,000 A Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

114) What mass of borax [Na2B4O7(H2O)10] could be prepared from 25 kg of colemanite ore

[Ca2B6O11(H2O)5] by a process that is 95% efficient, assuming that no other boron-containing product is formed? A) 47 kg B) 42 kg C) 33 kg D) 31 kg E) 20 kg Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-5

115) Complete and balance the following equation. CaC2(s) + H2O(l) → Please include states. Answer: CaC2(s) + 2 H2O(l) → C2H2(g) + Ca(OH)2(s) Diff: 1 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-2

116) The acidity of the group 3 oxides ________ (increases, decreases, does not change) moving down the group. Answer: decreases Diff: 2 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 21-4

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 22 Chemistry of the Main-Group Elements II: Groups 18, 17, 16, 15, and Hydrogen 1) The noble gas Xe is obtained commercially from air by fractional distillation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

2) The noble gas Xe is completely unreactive. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

3) "Halogen" means "soluble salts." Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

4) Halogen molecules are diatomic. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

5) Oxygen is obtained commercially from air by fractional distillation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

6) Selenium is obtained by the Frasch process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

7) Both bismuth and arsenic are obtained from their sulfide ores. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

8) Hydrogen compounds are called hybrids. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

9) Hydrogen bonded with any metals form compounds called ionic hydrides. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-6

10) Nitrogen is obtained from air by fractional distillation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

11) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Compounds with xenon in several oxidation states have been formed. B) The eight outer shell electrons cause chemical inertness. C) Xenon reacts directly only with fluorine. D) Noble gases exist as diatomic molecules. E) Most noble gas compounds contain either fluorine or oxygen. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

12) Choose the INCORRECT oxidation state for xenon in the listed molecule. A) XeF2/+2 B) XeO3/+4 C) XeF6/+6

D) XeO4/+8

E) XeOF2/+4 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

13) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Xenon compounds in several different oxidation states have been formed. B) The noble gas compounds are very stable. C) Xenon compounds are excellent reducing agents. D) The Noble gas (except helium) electron configuration has ns2np6.

E) Although predicted in the 1930s, it was 1962 before noble gas compounds were made. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

14) The VSEPR theory predicts molecular shapes for the noble gas compounds. Which of these is correct? I) XeF2 is linear. II) XeOF2 is T-shaped. III) XeF4 is square planar. A) I, II and III B) I and II C) I only D) II only E) III only Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

15) Choose the INCORRECT name/symbol combination. A) Xe xenon B) Ne neon C) Kr krypton D) Ar argon E) Ra radon Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Argon forms compounds readily. B) Argon, xenon, krypton, neon, helium, and radon are called noble gases. C) Liquid helium is used to maintain low temperatures. D) Metals that lose their electrical resistivity are called superconductors. E) Radon is a radioactive element. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

17) Which of the following has the lowest boiling point? A) bromine B) fluorine C) iodine D) chlorine E) astatine Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

18) Bromine can be produced by: A) oxidizing Cl2 with BrB) oxidizing Br- with Cl2 C) oxidizing Br- with I2 D) oxidizing I- with BrE) oxidizing F- with BrAnswer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

19) Which of the following has the highest boiling point? A) bromine B) chlorine C) fluorine D) iodine E) astatine Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

20) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Halogens exist as diatomic molecules. B) Group 17 (7A) are the halogens. C) Halogens have relatively low melting and boiling points. D) Fluorine is the most reactive halogen. E) Fluorine has a low electronegativity and large radius. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

21) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) By electrode potentials, fluorine is the least reactive halogen. B) Chlorine is prepared industrially by the electrolysis of NaCl. C) Fluorine is usually prepared by electrolysis. D) Bromine can be extracted from seawater. E) Iodine is obtained commercially from inland brines or from sodium iodate deposits. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

22) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Chlorofluorocarbon production has been banned by many countries. B) Chlorine is used to make bleach, PVC, treat water, and make chemicals. C) Bromine is used in fire retardants, pesticides, dyes, pharmaceuticals, and film. D) Iodine is used in catalysts, medicine and film. E) Fluorinated organic compounds are very reactive. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

23) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) HI is a strong acid B) HF is a strong acid C) HCl is a strong acid D) HBr is a strong acid E) HF will etch glass Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

24) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Fluorine adopts the -1 oxidation state when it forms compounds. B) In binary compounds with metals, the oxidation state of halogens is -1. C) Halogen ions commonly exhibit a charge of +1. D) Iodine can have oxidation states of +1, +3, +5 and +7 in compounds where iodine is bonded to oxygen and/or fluorine. E) HClO is hypochlorous acid. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

25) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Perbromic acid is HBrO4. B) Bromite ion is BrO2-. C) Iodate ion is IO3-.

D) Hypochlorite ion is ClO-. E) Hydrochloric acid is HClO2. Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

26) Which of the following is found in Teflon, Freon-12, and in the acid commonly used to etch glass? A) carbon B) chlorine C) fluorine D) hydrogen E) oxygen Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

27) Which of the following forms a complete set of oxyacids in which it exhibits the oxidation states of +1, +3, +5, and +7? A) fluorine B) chlorine C) bromine D) iodine E) astatine Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

28) Iodine is only very slightly soluble in water, but it dissolves readily in an aqueous solution of sodium iodide, because molecular iodine acts as: A) a Lewis base to form a coordinate covalent bond with Na+ ion B) a reducing agent with water, to form the soluble I+ ion C) an oxidizing agent with I- ion to form the soluble I3+ ion D) a Lewis acid to form a coordinate covalent bond with I- ion E) a catalyst for the disproportionation of water Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

29) What is one of the important uses of KClO4? A) explosives B) adhesives C) lubricants D) metal finishing E) skin cleaning Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

30) Which element forms the largest variety of oxoanions? A) S B) Cl C) P D) Br E) I Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

31) HI(g) has a ΔGf° that is small and positive, so HI should dissociate to some extent but its activation energy is high. HI(g) is stable at room temperature. Chemists would describe the reason for the very slow dissociation reaction as: A) thermodynamically controlled B) the ΔGf° is wrong C) the reaction is not slow D) the reaction is kinetically controlled E) the molecules can collide with each other Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

32) Using VSEPR theory, which of the following descriptions of probable molecular geometry is INCORRECT? A) SF6/octahedral B) SiCl4/tetrahedral

C) BF3/trigonal planar D) SnCl4/tetrahedral E) ClF3/pyramidal Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

33) Which of these is the strongest oxidizing agent? A) HClO2 B) HClO3

C) HClO4 D) KClO3 E) KClO4 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

34) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) H2O has a high boiling point because of covalent bonding. B) Sulfur can form S8 molecules. C) Compounds with O-O bonds are reactive. D) H2O is a bent molecule. E) H2O is a polar molecule. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

35) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The Frasch process is a method of mining sulfur. B) Photoconductivity is the production of photons by the use of electricity. C) Selenium displays the property of photoconductivity. D) Polonium is a rare radioactive metal. E) Sulfur is used in vulcanizing rubber, as a pesticide and to produce sulfuric acid. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

36) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Oleum is SO3(g) dissolved in H2SO4. B) Oleum is called fuming sulfuric acid. C) Sulfuric and sulfurous acids are monoprotic. D) Acid salts are compounds formed from polyprotic acids by neutralizing one hydrogen. E) Thio in a name denotes that one oxygen is replaced by a sulfur. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

37) Choose the INCORRECT name/formula combination. A) carbon dioxide CO2 B) potassium superoxide C) dioxygen D) carbon monoxide E) trioxygen

KO2 O2 C2O O3

Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

38) Ozone and "ordinary" oxygen are examples of: A) allotropes B) isotopes C) isomers D) phalaropes E) tropomers Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

39) Which of the following name/formula combinations is INCORRECT? A) dioxygen/O2 B) familiar oxygen/O C) trioxygen/O3

D) carbon dioxide/CO2 E) potassium superoxide/KO2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

40) Which of the following exists in more different allotropic forms than any other element? A) xenon B) tellurium C) sulfur D) phosphorus E) oxygen Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

41) The Frasch process for the production of elemental sulfur has been largely supplanted by a gas-phase process using the reduction of sulfur dioxide by: A) H2S(g) B) H2O(g) C) CS2(g)

D) H2SO4(g) E) O3(g)

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

42) Which name/formula combination is INCORRECT? A) tetrathionate/S4O62B) sulfurous acid/H2SO3 C) thiosulfate/S2O32-

D) calcium sulfite/CaSO4 E) sodium sulfide/Na2S Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

43) Write the chemical equation for the reaction of potassium superoxide with carbon dioxide to produce oxygen. A) KO(s) + CO2(g) → O2(g) + K(s) + CO(g) B) K2O(s) + CO2(g) → O2(g) + K(s) + KCO(s) C) KO2 + CO2(g) → 2 O2(g) + KC(s)

D) 4 KO2(s) + 2 CO2(g) → 2 K2CO3(s) + 3 O2(g) E) 2 KO2(s) + CO2(g) → K2C(s) + 3O2(g) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

44) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Industrial smog consists of ash, smoke, SO2(g) and H2SO4 mist. B) Group 15 (5A) is interesting because it has both nonmetals and metals in the family. C) The Group 15 (5A) electron configuration is ns2np3. D) As, Sb, and Si occur in the -3 oxidation state. E) P, Ar and Sb exhibit allotropy. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

45) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Sb and As are usually referred to as metalloids. B) Nitrogen is obtained by fractional distillation of liquefied air. C) Phosphorus is important in fertilizers. D) As and Sb are used in semiconductor materials. E) Nitrides are compounds of nitrogen in the 3+ oxidation state. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

46) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Acid anhydrides plus water generate an acid. B) H5P3O10 is diphosphoric acid or pyrophosphoric acid. C) H3PO3 is phosphorous acid. D) H3PO4 is phosphoric acid.

E) Phosphorus is very important in biochemistry as ADP and ATP. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

47) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Eutrophication is the process by which a freshwater body becomes filled with algae and depleted of fish. B) Eutrophication can be hastened by phosphate fertilizers. C) P3H is phosphine. D) Carbon has the allotropes, graphite and diamond. E) Graphite can be used as a lubricant because layers of molecules slide over other layers of molecules. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

48) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Hydroxylammine, NH2OH, is a weak acid.

B) Laughing gas, an anesthetic used in dentistry, is N2O. C) Nitrogen forms oxides with oxidation states that range between +1 and +5. D) Azides contain the N3- ion. E) An acid anhydride reacts with water to form an acid. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

49) Choose the INCORRECT name/formula combination. A) dinitrogen pentoxide N2O5 B) nitrogen monoxide C) nitrogen dioxide

NO N2O2

D) dinitrogen monoxide

N2O HNO3

E) nitric acid Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

50) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Hydrazine is N2H2. B) Hydroxylamine is NH2OH. C) Hydrazine and its derivatives are used as rocket fuels. D) HN3 is hydrazoic acid. E) Nitrogen is a key element in organic and biochemical molecules. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

51) Which element is in a family that contains a metal, a nonmetal, and a metalloid? A) chlorine B) nitrogen C) iodine D) calcium E) none of these Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

52) Which of the following oxides is neither acidic nor amphoteric? A) As2O5 B) Bi2O3

C) N2O3 D) P4O6

E) Sb2O3 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

53) Which of the following is stored under water because of its property of igniting spontaneously upon contact with air? A) P4 (white phosphorus) B) S8 (yellow sulfur)

C) Pb3O4 ("red lead") D) K (potassium metal) E) I2 (crystalline iodine) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

54) Which formula/name combination is INCORRECT? A) NaN3/sodium nitride B) N2H4/hydrazine

C) HONH2/hydroxylamine

D) Mg(N3)2/magnesium azide E) PH3/phosphine Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

55) "Red" phosphorus is insoluble in carbon disulfide, has a broad melting range and a very low vapor pressure, and does not conduct electricity. This evidence suggests that this substance is probably: A) crystalline and metallic B) a crystal of P4 molecule units C) amorphous and polymeric D) P4+ ions in a "sea" of electrons

E) cubic closest-packed unbonded P atoms Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

56) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Hydrogen occurs in more compounds than any other element. B) The "water gas" reactions produce combustible gases (CO and H2) from steam and C(s). C) Metallic hydrides are always in fixed ratios of hydrogen to other elements. D) Binary compounds of hydrogen are called hydrides. E) Hydrogenation reactions are hydrogen added to double or triple bonds in presence of a catalyst. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-6

57) Choose the INCORRECT name/formula combination. A) hydrogen chloride HClO B) sodium hydride NaH C) sodium hydrogen carbonate NaHCO3 D) calcium hydride E) dihydrogen

CaH2 H2

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-6

58) Define "hydrogenation reaction." A) Hydrogen is produced chemically. B) Double bonds are formed by removing hydrogen. C) Hydrogen is removed from water. D) Hydrogen is separated from other gases in air. E) Hydrogen is added to carbon-carbon multiple bonds such that the bond order is reduced in the final product. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-6

59) What is the molecular shape for XeF2? A) trigonal planar B) tetrahedral C) bent D) linear E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

60) What is the molecular shape for XeOF2? A) trigonal planar B) tetrahedral C) trigonal bipyramid D) T-shape E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

61) The electron group geometry for XeF2 is ________. A) trigonal planar B) trigonal bipyramid C) bent D) linear E) trigonal pyramidal Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

62) On the average, air contains about 9.3 mL of argon per liter. What would be the partial pressure of argon in air when the barometric pressure is 780 Torr? A) 84 Torr B) 7.3 Torr C) 780 Torr D) 770 Torr E) 790 Torr Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

63) In a reaction between XeO3(aq) and Mn2+(aq) that occurred in 324 mL of aqueous solution, the gaseous Xe produced occupied a volume of 595 mL at STP. What is the molarity of the MnO4-(aq) solution resulting from the reaction? 9 H2O(l) + 6 Mn2+(aq) + 5 XeO3(aq) → 6 MnO4-(aq) + 5 Xe(g) + 18 H+(aq) A) 0.0983 M B) 0.0683 M C) 0.00292 M D) 0.0820 M E) 0.00203 M Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

64) Write an equation for the oxidation in aqueous acidic solution of Mn2+(aq) to MnO4-(aq) by XeO3(aq), which is reduced to Xe(g). A) 6 Mn2(aq)+ + 5 XeO3(aq) → 6 MnO4-(aq) + 5 Xe(g)

B) 24 H2O(l) + 6 Mn2+(aq) + 5 XeO3(aq) → 6 MnO4-(aq) + 5 Xe(g) + 18 H+(aq) C) H2O(l) + Mn2+(aq) + XeO3(aq) → MnO4-(aq) + Xe(g) + 2 H+(aq) D) 24 H2O(l) + 6 Mn2+(aq) + 5 XeO3(aq) + 30 H+(aq) → 6 MnO4-(aq) + 5 Xe(g) + 15 H2O + 48 H+(aq) E) 9 H2O(l) + 6 Mn2+(aq) + 5 XeO3(aq) → 6 MnO4-(aq) + 5 Xe(g) + 18 H+(aq) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

65) If a certain natural gas supply contains 2.13% helium by mass, what amount of the natural gas must be processed, at 96.2% efficiency of helium recovery, to produce sufficient helium to inflate 24 party balloons to a volume of 5.3 L each at an internal gas pressure of 1.25 atm and a temperature of 23.7 °C? A) 1.28 kg B) 1.18 kg C) 1.09 kg D) 0.82 kg E) 0.75 kg Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

66) The most reactive of the nonmetallic elements is ________. A) xenon B) nitrogen C) iodine D) helium E) fluorine Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

67) "Chlorine-type" laundry bleaches are in reality aqueous solutions of ________. A) NaOCl B) NaClO3 C) HOCl D) HOClO3 E) NaClO2

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

68) What is the formula for chloric acid? A) HClO B) HCl C) HClO3 D) HClO2 E) HClO4

Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

69) What is the skeletal structure for chloric acid? A) H-O-Cl-O-O B) H-Cl-O-O ∣ O C) H-O-O-Cl-O D) H-O-Cl-O ∣ O E)

O ∣ H-Cl-O ∣ O Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

70) Write the equation for commercially extracting bromine from seawater. A) Br2(l) + 2 Cl(aq) → Cl2(g) + 2 Br-(aq) B) 2 Br-(aq) + I2(s) → Br2(l) + 2 I-(aq) C) 4 Br-(aq) + Cl2(g) → Br2(l) + 2 BrCl(aq) D) 2 Br-(aq) + F2(g) → Br2(l) + 2 F-(aq) E) 2 Br-(aq) + Cl2(g) → Br2(l) + 2 Cl-(aq) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

71) What is the correct completion of the reaction: IO3-(aq) + HSO3-(aq) → A) IO3-(aq) + 3 HSO3-(aq) → I-(aq) + 3 SO42-(aq)+ 3 H+(aq) B) IO3-(aq) + HSO3-(aq) → IO2-(aq) + HSO4-(aq) C) 2 IO3-(aq) + 3 HSO3-(aq) → I2(s) + HSO4-(aq)+ O3-(aq) D) IO3-(aq) + HSO3-(aq) → IO4-(aq) + HSO2-(aq)

E) IO3-(aq) + 2 HSO3-(aq) → S2I(aq) + H2O(l) + 4 O2(g) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

72) What is the correct completion of the reaction: NaF + HC2H3O2 → A) NaF + HC2H3O2 → NaC2H3 + HFO2 B) NaF + HC2H3O2 ⇌ HF + NaC2H3O2 C) NaF + HC2H3O2 ⇌ NaC2O2 + H4F

D) NaF + HC2H3O2 → NaH3O2 + HFC2 E) NaF + HC2H3O2 → no reaction Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

73) What is the correct completion of the reaction: H2 + X2 → where X is a halogen A) 2 H2 + X2 → 2 H2X B) H2 + 2 X2 → 2 HX2 C) H2 + X2 → 2 HX

D) H2 + X2 → H2X2 E) H2 + X2 → no reaction Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

74) What is the correct completion of the reaction: X2 + OH- → where X is a halogen A) X2 + 2 OH- → 2 XOH B) X2 + 4 OH- → 2 X(OH)2 C) X2 + 2 OH- → XO2 + XH2 D) X2 + 2 OH- → OX- + X- + H2O E) X2 + OH- → no reaction Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

75) Give the molecular shape of BrO3-. A) trigonal pyramidal B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) linear E) octahedral Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

76) Write a balanced half equation for the following couple: ClO2-(aq)| Cl-(aq) (basic) A) ClO2-(aq) + 2 H2O(l) + 4 e- → Cl-(aq) + 4 OH-(aq) B) ClO2-(aq) + 4 H+(aq) + 4 e- → Cl-(aq) + 2 H2O(l) C) ClO2-(aq) + H2O(l) + e- → Cl-(aq) + OH-(aq) D) ClO2-(aq) + H+(aq) + e- → Cl-(aq) + H2O(l) E) ClO2-(aq) + 4 H2O(l) + 8 e- → Cl-(aq) + 4 OH-(aq) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

77) Arrange the following in order of decreasing acid strength: HClO2, HClO3, HClO, HClO4 A) HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO > HClO4 B) HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4

C) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO D) HClO2 > HClO > HClO4 > HClO3 E) HClO3 > HClO > HClO4 > HClO2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

78) Write a balanced half equation for the following couple: HClO2(aq) | Cl-(aq) (acidic) A) HClO2(aq) + 2 H2O(l) → Cl-(aq) + 3 H+(aq) + 4 eB) HClO2(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → Cl-(aq) + H2O(l) C) HClO2(aq) + 3 H+(aq) + 4 e- → Cl-(aq) + 2 H2O(l) D) HClO2(aq) + 3 H+(aq) → Cl-(aq) + H2O(l) + 4 eE) HClO2(aq) + e- → Cl-(aq) + H+(aq) + O2(g) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-2

79) A bleaching solution can be prepared by bubbling chlorine gas through dilute sodium hydroxide: Cl2(g) + 2 OH-(aq) → Cl-(aq) + OCl-(aq) + H2O(l) The chlorine required may be generated by the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride. What volume of 0.30 M hypochlorite solution could be prepared from the chlorine generated by such electrolysis using a current of 3.0 A for 25 minutes? Assume 100% efficiency. A) 78 mL B) 63 mL C) 40 mL D) 31 mL E) 26 mL Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

80) Given E°red = 1.05 V for XO4-/XO3-, E°red = 1.13 V for XO3-/X2 and E°red = 1.30 V for X2/X-, determine E°red for XO4-/X-. A) 0.435 V B) 1.13 V C) 3.48 V D) 2.05 V E) 1.16 V Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

81) Which element is used as antiseptic and in medication for thyroid gland? A) Cl2 B) Br2 C) F2

D) H2 E) I2 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-3

82) Pyrosulfuric is also called disulfuric H2S2O7. Pyrosulfuric acid may be synthesized by dissolving SO3 in ________. A) H2SO4 B) H2S2O8 C) H2SO3 D) H2O

E) H2S2O7 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

83) Give the molecular shape of SO2. A) trigonal pyramidal B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) linear E) bent Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

84) Give the molecular shape of SO42-. A) trigonal pyramidal B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) linear E) octahedral Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

85) Write a balanced half equation for the following couple: O2(g) | OH-(aq) (basic) A) O2(g) + OH-(aq) + 4 e- → 2 H2O(l) B) O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + 4 e- → 4 OH-(aq) C) O2(g) + H2O(l) + e- → 2 OH-(aq) D) O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 OH-(aq) + 4 eE) O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) + 4 e- → 8 OH-(aq) Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

86) Write a balanced half equation for the following couple: A) SO42-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → S(s) + H2O(l) B) SO42-(aq) + H2O(l) + 4e- → S(s) + 2 H+(aq) C) SO42-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → S(s) + H2SO4(aq) D) SO42-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) + 6 e- → S(s) + 4 H2O(l) E) SO42-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → S(s) + 4 H2O(l) + 6 eAnswer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

S(s) (acidic)

87) One of the natural processes that destroys ozone in the atmosphere is postulated to consist of two steps: O3(g) + UV radiation → O2(g) + O(g) O3(g) + O(g) → 2 O2(g) The standard enthalpies of formation for ozone and for atomic oxygen are +142.7 kJ/mol and +249.2 kJ/mol, respectively. What would be the standard energy change associated with the combination of ozone and atomic oxygen to form 50.0 L of molecular oxygen, measured at -75 °C and 0.12 atm? A) -38 kJ B) -72 kJ C) -150 kJ D) -196 kJ E) -600 kJ Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

88) The compound of which P4O6 is the anhydride is ________. A) HPO3

B) H3PO4 C) H3PO3

D) H4P2O7 E) H2P2O7 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-4

89) What is the main commercial source of nitrogen? A) fractional distillation of liquid air B) chemical reaction from NH3 C) chemical reaction from HNO3

D) from lightning or electrical motors E) separated from air by chemical traps Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

90) In certain automotive catalytic converters, one step involves the catalyzed reduction by carbon monoxide of nitric oxide (nitrogen monoxide) to nitrogen gas, with the carbon monoxide being converted to carbon dioxide. When the equation for this process is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is ________. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 11 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

91) Write a balanced half equation for the following couple:

NH4+(aq)(acidic)

A) NO3-(aq) + 3 H2O(l) → NH4+(aq) + 10 H+(aq) + 8 eB) NO3-(aq) + 4 H+(aq) + 3 e- → NH4+(aq) + 3 H2O(l) C) NO3-(aq) + 4 H+(aq) → NH4+(aq) + 3 H2O(l) + eD) NO3-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) + 8 e- → NH4+(aq) + 3 H2O(l) E) NO3-(aq) + 10 H+(aq) + 8 e- → NH4+(aq) + 3 H2O(l) Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

92) Write a balanced half equation for the following couple: A) NO3-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 e- → NO2-(aq) + H2O(l) B) NO3-(aq) + 2 H2O(l) + 2 e- → NO2-(aq) + 2 OH-(aq) + 2 H2O(l) C) NO3-(aq) + H2O(l) + 2 e- → NO2-(aq) + 2 OH-(aq) D) NO3-(aq) + H2O(l) + e- → NO2-(aq) + OH-(aq) E) NO3-v + H2(g) + e- → NO2-(aq) + OH-(aq) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

93) Give the molecular shape of NO3-. A) trigonal pyramidal B) trigonal planar C) tetrahedral D) linear E) octahedral Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

NO2-(aq) (basic)

94) The pollution process in which oxygen depletion of natural waters by increased algae growth occurs because of contaminants such as excess phosphates is referred to as ________. A) anoxia B) biodegradation C) eutrophication D) phosphorylation E) saponification Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

95) What is the pH of a solution labeled "0.30 M Hydroxylamine"? [Kb is 9.1 × 10-9] A) 4.38 B) 6.60 C) 7.38 D) 8.23 E) 9.72 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

96) What volume of 17 M nitric acid is required to dissolve 15 g of copper by a reaction for which the products are aqueous copper(II) nitrate, nitric oxide gas, and water? Assume 100% reaction. A) 93 mL B) 79 mL C) 53 mL D) 37 mL E) 21 mL Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

97) In the compound dinitrogen monoxide, sometimes used as a dental anesthetic, the oxidation state of nitrogen is ________. A) +1 B) -1 C) +2 D) -2 E) 0 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

98) How much H2 (in liters) is produced at 65 °C and 670. torr by the reaction of 75.7 g of zinc? Zn(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) A) 188 L B) 2.33 L C) 9.22 L D) 36.4 L E) 95.8 L Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-6

99) How much hydrogen (in liters at STP) is required to change 857 kg of diisobutylene to isooctane? Molar mass of diisobutylene is 112.2 grams. CH3C(CH3)2CH=C(CH3)2 + H2 → CH3C(CH3)2CH2CH(CH3)2 A) 15.4 L B) 1.71 × 105 L C) 8.55 × 104 L

D) 3.42 × 105 L E) 30.8 L Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-6

100) How much H2 (in liters) is produced at 45 °C and 770. torr by the reaction of 45.7 g of zinc? Zn(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) A) 139 L B) 15.7 L C) 18.0 L D) 31.4 L E) 11.8 L Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 22-5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 23 The Transition Elements 1) The atomic radius of Ru is approximately the same as that of Os. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

2) The lanthanide contraction is due to the poor shielding effect of the f-electrons and the higher nuclear charge. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

3) The high melting points of transition elements result from a lack of sufficient electrons and orbitals for good metallic bonding. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

4) Metallurgy is the general study of metals. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

5) For the reaction 2 Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2 MgO(s) a plot of ΔG ° versus temperature has a negative slope. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

6) Pig iron comes from the blast furnace. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-3

7) Titanium tetrachloride has replaced white lead as the pigment in white paints. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

8) Iron, cobalt, and nickel form the iron triad. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

9) The coinage metals are copper, silver, and zinc. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

10) A mercury alloy is called an amalgam. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

11) Galvanized steel is iron coated with cadmium to prevent rust. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

12) Lanthanides are very difficult to separate from each other because of the similarities in chemical properties. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-8

13) Lanthanides are also called rare earth elements. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-8

14) Which of the following is uncharacteristic for the elements of the first transition series? A) an inner core of electrons in the argon configuration B) two 4s electrons for eight elements, and one 4s electron for Cr and Cu C) a number of 3d electrons ranging from one for Sc to ten for Cu and Zn D) except for Sc and Ti, only minor variation in atomic radii E) only one possible oxidation state per element, different for each Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

15) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the transition elements. A) The atomic radii increases to the right across the periodic table. B) The first ionization energy is about the same as the Group 2 (IIA) elements. C) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the second and third series of transition elements being very similar in atomic radii. D) The lanthanide contraction is due to the f electrons not screening as well as other electrons. E) The electron configuration of cobalt and copper are anomalous. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the transition elements. A) They have high melting points. B) They are good electrical conductors. C) They have moderate to extreme hardness. D) They are d-block and f-block elements. E) They generally have positive reduction potentials. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

17) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the most common oxidation state of transition elements. A) For Ti, it is +4. B) For Sc, it is +2. C) For V, it is +5. D) For Cr, it is +6. E) For Mn, it is +7. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

18) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the first row transition elements. A) Elements on the right side of the transition series usually do not exhibit the wide range of oxidation states. B) Stability of higher oxidation states increases down a group. C) Electrode potentials decrease across to the right. D) All but Cu have negative reduction potentials. E) All but Cu(s) displace H+(aq) as H2(g). Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

19) Choose the INCORRECT statement about transition elements. A) The lower oxidation states usually form ionic compounds. B) The higher oxidation states usually form covalent compounds. C) Many transition elements and their compounds have catalytic activity. D) The catalytic activity is due to p-orbital availability. E) Transition metal ions are good Lewis acids. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

20) Choose the INCORRECT statement about transition elements. A) Coordination compounds are formed by coordinate covalent bonds. B) The metal ions provide empty d orbitals in coordination compounds. C) The ligand supplies one or more pairs of electrons that form coordinate bonds in coordination compounds. D) Colored compounds and solutions occur because of electronic transitions that occur within partially filled d orbitals. E) Paramagnetism is due to paired electrons. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

21) Choose the INCORRECT statement about transition elements. A) Ferromagnetism occurs only in elements with paired electrons. B) Ferromagnetism is unique to Fe, Co and Ni. C) Ferromagnetism occurs due to atoms combining in the solid state in domains. D) Paramagnetism is due to unpaired electrons. E) Ferromagnetism requires that interatomic distances be of the right magnitude to generate domains. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

22) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Most representative element bonding involves s and p orbitals. B) Most transition element bonding involves p orbitals. C) Most representative elements are single oxidation states. D) Most transition elements are multiple oxidation states. E) Metallurgy is the study of metals. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

23) Which of the following statements is true regarding the oxidation states of the transition elements? A) For group 8, only Os forms compounds with an oxidation state of +8. B) For group 6, Cr forms many compounds with an oxidation state of +6. C) The late transition metal elements form many compounds with oxidation states of 0 and -1. D) The most common oxidation state of Co is +7. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

24) Which of the following elements is likely to have an atomic radius of 124 pm? A) Fe B) Ru C) Os D) Mo Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

25) Which element displays ferromagnetism? A) Co B) Cu C) Ti D) Cr E) V Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

26) Which of the following metals form compounds with the highest oxidation states? A) V B) Ti C) Mn D) Y E) Sc Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

27) Choose the INCORRECT completion of the following sentence: "The transition elements are typically characterized by.... A) ...their ability to exist in several different oxidation states." B) ...poor electrical conductivity." C) ...moderate to extreme hardness." D) ...the formation of mostly colored compounds." E) ...high melting points." Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

28) The electronic transitions that take place within d or f subshells of transition metals: A) are responsible for their metallic character B) cause transition metals to be much better conductors than the very active metals C) occur only in ferromagnetic elements D) are responsible for their high density E) are responsible for their having highly colored compounds Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

29) The paramagnetism of transition element compounds is caused by: A) unshared valence electron pairs B) unpaired electrons located in d and f orbitals C) unshared valence electron pairs and optimum packing of the atoms in the crystal lattice D) paired electrons spinning in opposite directions E) shared valence electron pairs Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

30) Which of the following exhibits ferromagnetism? A) Ni B) Ru C) Rh D) Mn Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

31) Which of the following will be a good oxidizing agent? A) V2O5 B) Fe(OH2)62+ C) Zn D) CoCl2 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

32) A property that is common to both main group and transition metals is that both types: A) have high electronegativities B) include a very active metal C) are found in many oxidation states D) exhibit color in compounds E) exhibit at least one oxidation state equal to their periodic group number Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

33) Choose the INCORRECT statement about the electron configuration of transition elements. A) Cu: [Ar]3d104s1 B) Fe: [Ar]3d64s2 C) Cr: [Ar]3d44s2

D) V: [Ar]3d34s2 E) Zn: [Ar]3d104s2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

34) The phenomenon resulting from the weakly effective screening of outermost electrons from the nucleus by f subshell electrons, resulting in only small differences in atomic radii in elements of atomic number 58-71, is called the: A) actinide expansion B) f-subshell extension C) lanthanide contraction D) elemental transition E) lattice distortion Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

35) Transition group elements differ from main group metals in several ways. Which differences of the following are correct? A) many of the metals and their compounds having catalytic activity B) many of the hydrated cations having distinctive colors C) most of their compounds having bonds that involve d orbitals D) many of the metals being paramagnetic, but none ferromagnetic E) most having more than one common oxidation state Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

36) Which element has the lowest first ionization potential? A) Fe B) Ni C) Co D) Mn E) Ti Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

37) Which of the following transition elements is unreactive towards aqueous hydrochloric acid? A) zinc B) titanium C) scandium D) iron E) copper Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

38) Choose the INCORRECT statement about metallurgy. A) Extractive metallurgy is the removal of metals from their ores. B) Concentration is the separation of ore from waste rock. C) One method of concentration is flotation. D) Roasting converts an ore to its sulfide. E) Roasting involves heating the ore to a high temperature. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

39) Choose the INCORRECT statement about metallurgy. A) Roasting converts the ore to its oxide. B) Reduction reduces the oxide to metal. C) Carbon is often used as the reducing agent. D) Coke or powdered coal is often used as the reducing agent. E) Refining is the removal of metal from its ore. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

40) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Precipitation in hydrometallurgy is to precipitate the metal as an ionic solid or reduce it to the metal. B) Leaching for gold is done by the cyanidation process where Au(s) is complexed with cyanide ion. C) Electrolytic method is used to purify expensive metals. D) Pyrometallurgy uses low temperature to freeze out the metal from the ore. E) Hydrometallurgy uses water and aqueous solutions at moderate temperatures to handle materials. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

41) Choose the INCORRECT statement about metallurgy. A) Zone refining is refining to a certain zone of purity. B) Refining is the removal of impurities from a metal. C) The Kroll process uses Mg to reduce TiCl4 to titanium. D) Zone refining uses a heating coil which passes along the rod of material. E) In zone refining impurities remain in the molten area. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

42) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The extraction of copper is complicated by iron. B) Blister copper has bubbles of air on the surface of the copper. C) Refining to high purity copper is done electrolytically. D) Pyrometallurgy is the roasting of an ore followed by reduction of the ore to metal. E) "Pyro" as a prefix indicates high temperatures. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

43) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Hydrometallurgy handles materials as aqueous solutions. B) The three steps of hydrometallurgy are leaching, purification and/or concentration and precipitation. C) Leaching is adding chemicals to eat away the ore, leaving the metal. D) Purification in hydrometallurgy is to remove impurities and concentrate solutions. E) Purification in hydrometallurgy may include evaporation of water, ion exchange, and/or use of activated charcoal. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

44) Find the FALSE combination of a metallurgical process and its example: A) leaching: 4 Au(s) + 8 CN-(aq) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 [Au(CN)2]-(aq) + 4 OH-(aq) B) reduction: ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)

C) roasting: 2 Cu2S(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2 Cu2O(s) + 2 SO2(g) D) precipitation: Zn2+(aq) + S2-(aq) → ZnS(s) E) conversion: 2 Co(OH)3(s)

Co2O3(s) + 3 H2O(g)

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

45) What volume of carbon monoxide, measured at 1200 °C and 720 Torr, would be released when 5.0 kg of an ore containing 45% zinc oxide as the only reacting species is treated with excess carbon? [ZnO(s) + C(s) → Zn(s) + CO(g)] A) 1.2 × 102 L B) 1.5 × 103 L C) 3.5 × 103 L D) 7.8 × 103 L E) 7.0 × 1 04 L Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

46) What are the formulas of the missing compounds, 1 and 2, respectively, in the reaction below? This reaction is used in the production of metallic zinc. ZnO(s) + 1 → Zn(g) + 2 A) C(s) and CO(g) B) CO(g) and ZnCO3(s) C) CO(g) and C(s) D) C(s) and CO2(g) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

47) At 273 K, ΔG° for the reaction 2 C(s) + O2(g) → 2 CO(g) is about -280 kJ, and at 1480 K is about -580 kJ. For the reaction 2 Zn(s) + O2(g) → 2 ZnO(s) ΔG° at 273 K and 1480 K, respectively, is -640 and -280 kJ. Calculate ΔG° at 273 K and 1480 K, respectively, for the reduction of zinc oxide by carbon. A) +180 and -150 kJ B) +360 and -300 kJ C) -360 and +300 kJ D) -180 and +150 kJ Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

48) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Iron is the most widely used metal from the earth's crust. B) The simplified equation for the reduction of iron is Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) → 2 Fe(l) + 3 CO2(g). C) One process in the making of steel from pig iron is to reduce the carbon content. D) The product of a blast furnace is steel. E) The solid reactants in a blast furnace are iron ore, coke, and a slag-forming flux. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-3

49) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The product of a blast furnace is pig iron. B) Cast iron is pig iron poured directly into molds. C) Pig iron is converted to steel by reducing the carbon content, removing Si, Mn, P, and other impurities, and adding alloying elements. D) The most important method of steel-making today is the basic oxygen process. E) In the basic oxygen process, oxygen is bubbled into the blast furnace. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-3

50) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) In steel making, DRI stands for Detection and Recovery of Iron. B) In the basic oxygen process, a lance is a water cooled tube to deliver limestone and oxygen. C) Alloying elements with steel include Cr, Ni, Mn, V, Mo and W. D) The direct reduction of iron depends on the availability of natural gas. E) Steel is an alloy of iron. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-3

51) The main source of titanium is: A) seawater B) rutile ore, TiO2 C) oxide ores D) TiS2 E) atmospheric gases Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

52) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Titanium is valued for its low density, high structural strength and corrosion resistance. B) Titanium chloride is the most widely used white pigment for paints. C) Chromium is often used to plate other metals for decorative purposes. D) Dichromate is Cr2O72-. E) Chromate is CrO42-. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

53) Which of the following is amphoteric? A) V2O5 B) CrO

C) Al(H2O)63+ D) Fe(H2O)63+ Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

54) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) amalgam: a solid solution or alloy containing mercury B) coinage metals: the transition elements of Group 11 (1B) C) galvanized iron: iron which has been electroplated with tin D) lanthanides: elements of atomic number 58 through 71 E) pig iron: slightly impure iron as obtained directly from the blast furnace Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

55) Which of the following forms a colorless aqueous solution? A) CuClO4 B) CoSO4 C) NiCl2 D) FeCl3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

56) Order the following compounds from acidic to basic, with the most acidic on the left. CrO, Cr2O3, CrO3 A) CrO3 > Cr2O3 > CrO B) CrO3 > CrO > Cr2O3

C) Cr2O3 > CrO3 > CrO

D) CrO > Cr2O3 > CrO3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

57) Write the equation for the initial treatment of titanium ore. A) TiO2(s) + Cl2(g) + C(s) → TiCl2(g) + CO2(g) B) TiCl4(s) + 2 H2O(l) → TiO2(g) + HCl(g)

C) TiO2(s) + 2 Cl2(g) + C(s) → TiCl4(g) + 2 CO(g) D) Ti(s) + 2 Cl2(g) → TiCl4(g)

E) TiS(s) + 2H2O(l) → TiO2(g) + 2 H2S(g) Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

58) If an aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 1.6 mol Na2CrO4 in 1.0 L of a buffer at pH 8.24, what will be [Cr2O72-] in the solution? The resultant equilibria are: HCrO4-(aq) ⇌ H+(aq) + CrO42-(aq) 2 HCrO4-(aq) ⇌ Cr2O72-(aq)+ H2O(l)

Ka = 3.2 × 10-7 K = 33

A) 9.9 × 10-5 M B) 2.9 × 10-28 M C) 8.9 × 10-9 M D) 8.6 × 102 M E) 2.8 × 10-2 M Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

59) An iron plate of 0.559 m2 surface area is to be chrome plated using a chromic acid-sulfuric acid plating bath. The anode and cathode half-equations are: Cathode: Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 12 e- → 2 Cr(s) + 7 H2O(l)

E° = 0.320 V

Anode: 2 H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4 e-

E° = 1.229 V

Determine the minimum energy needed to produce a plating 0.115 mm thick on the iron plate. The density of chromium is 7.19 g/cm3. A) 526 kJ B) 780 kJ

C) 1.05 × 103 kJ D) 4.68 × 103 kJ E) 9.36 × 103 kJ Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

60) MnO4-(aq) produces what manganese-containing species when used as an oxidizing agent in weakly basic solution? A) MnO42B) Mn

C) Mn2+ D) Mn2O3 E) MnO2 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

61) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Iron's main use is in steel. B) The ferromagnetic metals are Fe, Co, Ni. C) Iron only exists in +1 and +2 oxidation states. D) Fe, Co, and Ni can all exist in the +2 oxidation state. E) Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+ because it has a half-filled d subshell. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

62) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The electron configuration of Fe2+ is [Ar]3d6.

B) The electron configuration of Co2+ is [Ar]3d7. C) The electron configuration of Fe3+ is [Ar]3d5.

D) The electron configuration of Ni2+ is [Ar]3d5. E) A metal carbonyl is a compound formed from a metal and carbon monoxide. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

63) Which element has the largest number of unpaired electrons? A) Cu2+ B) Fe3+ C) V3+

D) Ni2+ E) Zn2+

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

64) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The coinage metals are used for coins because of durability and resistance to corrosion. B) Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin. C) Coinage metals are excellent electrical conductors. D) Coinage metals have poor malleability and ductility. E) Gold does not react with any acid but aqua regia. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

65) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Aqua regia is a combination of HCl and HNO3. B) Malleable means that a metal can be beaten into a thin sheet. C) One of the most important property of Cu, Ag, and Au is resistance to corrosion. D) Because the ions of Cu, Ag, and Au are easy to reduce means that the metals are easy to oxidize. E) The coinage metals are Cu, Ag, and Au. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

66) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Cu, Ag, and Au are the preferred metals for coins because they are durable and resistant to corrosion. B) Cu, Ag, and Au are used in the electronics industry because of their conductivity. C) Cu, Ag, and Au do not readily react with HCl although most metals do. D) Tarnish is black Ag2S. E) Silver is the basis for the world's monetary reserve. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

67) Estimate the net formation constant for diamminesilver(I) ion from the following data: Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) Ag(NH3)2+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) + 2 NH3(aq)

E° = 0.80 V E° = 0.37 V

A) 6 × 1011 B) 5 × 1010 C) 4 × 109 D) 3 × 108 E) 2 × 107 Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

68) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Cu, Ag, and Au do not react with oxygen in the air. B) Cu will corrode in moist air. C) Ag will react with sulfur in the air to form tarnish. D) Copper is used as copper halide in photography. E) Copper is essential to life in trace amounts. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

69) Which of the following represents a disproportionation reaction? A) 2 Cu+(aq) + H2O(l) → Cu(s) + CuO(s) + 2 H+(aq) B) 2 CrO42-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) → Cr2O72-(aq) + H2O(aq) C) TiCl4(l) + 2 H2O(l) → TiO2(s) + 4 HCl(g)

D) MnO4-(aq) + 5 VO2+(aq) + H2O(l) → Mn2+(aq) + 5 VO2+(aq) + 2 H+(aq) E) 3MnO2(s) + 6 KOH(aq) + KClO3(aq)

3 K2MnO4(aq) + KCl(aq) + 3 H2O(l)

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

70) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Galvanized iron is iron coated with zinc. B) Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at 25 °C. C) Hatter's disease is a form of mercury poisoning, i.e., the Mad Hatter, the friend of Alice. D) Brass is an alloy of mostly copper and zinc. E) Amalgams are zinc alloys. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

71) Choose the INCORRECT statement.

A) Zn, Cd, and Hg all have electron configurations of (n-1)d10ns2. B) Because in Zn, Cd, and Hg only s electrons are participating, metallic bonding is strong. C) The low melting and boiling points of Zn, Cd, and Hg are due to the metallic bonding. D) Galvanized iron is iron coated with zinc. E) Cadmium and mercury compounds are poisonous. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

72) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Zinc is poisonous in trace amounts. B) ZnO, CdS and HgS are used as artist's pigments. C) The band gap is the energy difference between the conduction band and the valence band. D) The color of Zn, Cd, and Hg compounds depends on the width of the band gap. E) One proposed mechanism of mercury poisoning is that mercury compounds react with sulfur in enzymes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

73) Consider two metals, metal M and metal N. The reaction M + N2+ → M2+ + N will proceed if: A) M is Zn and N2+ is Pb2+ B) M is Cu and N2+ is Fe2+ C) M is Sn and N2+ is Ca2+

D) M is Ni and N2+ is Mg2+ E) M is Fe and N2+ is Ca2+ Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

74) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The inner transition elements include the lanthanides. B) The lanthanides are sometimes called rare earth elements. C) The lanthanides feature the filling of the 5f orbitals. D) The lanthanides have very similar chemical properties. E) Lanthanides are difficult to separate from each other. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-8

75) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The lanthanides often occur naturally as oxides. B) The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is +4. C) Most of the lanthanides are paramagnetic. D) Like the transition elements, aqueous solutions of the lanthanides are colored. E) Fractionated means to alter slightly the ratio of the concentration of one element to another. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-8

76) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Among the methods to separate the lanthanides are fractional precipitation and solvent extraction. B) Because the properties of the lanthanides are so similar, separation must be done in a series of repetitive steps. C) Lanthanides are reactive metals, that is they liberate H2(g) from acids. D) The 4f electrons play a major role in chemical bonding. E) The pure lanthanide metals can be produced by electrolytic reduction from the +3 oxidation state. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-8

77) Write the probable electron configuration for Ti2+. A) 3d2 B) 4s2 C) 4s13d5

D) 4s24d4 E) 5s2

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

78) List the following in order of increasing number of unpaired electrons: Fe, V, Sc, Mn A) Mn < Fe < V < Sc B) Sc < V < Fe < Mn C) Fe < V < Sc < Mn D) V < Sc < Mn < Fe E) Sc < Mn < Fe < V Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

79) In the group of elements Cr, Ni, Sn, Pt, Ti, the one which is a main group element is ________. A) Ni B) Sn C) Ti D) Pt E) Cr Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

80) List the following in order of increasing atomic radius: Ti, Cr, V, Ca. A) V < Ti < Ca < Cr B) Ca < V < Cr < Ti C) Ca < Ti < Cr < V D) Cr < V < Ti < Ca E) Cr < V < Ca < Ti Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

81) List the following in order of increasing atomic radius: V, Sc, Fe, Ti. A) Fe < V < Ti < Sc B) Sc < Ti < V < Fe C) Ti < V < Fe < Sc D) V < Fe < Sc < Ti E) Fe < Sc < Ti < V Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

82) List the following in order of increasing density: Ti, Pd, Nb, Pt. A) Ti < Pt < Pd < Nb B) Nb < Ti < Pt < Pd C) Pd < Nb < Ti < Pt D) Pt < Pd < Nb < Ti E) Ti < Nb < Pd < Pt Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-1

83) The metallurgical method for obtaining a metal from its ore by roasting the ore and then reducing the resulting metal oxide is called ________. A) zone melting B) pyrometallurgy C) leaching D) hydrometallurgy E) flotation Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

84) Zinc oxide, a useful fungicide, can be prepared from zinc blende ore by roasting the ore in air and then purifying the resulting oxide. What mass of zinc oxide could be obtained from 5.00 kg of a zinc blende ore that analyzed at 48.6% zinc sulfide, if the net conversion is 66.7% efficient? A) 0.98 kg B) 1.35 kg C) 1.51 kg D) 1.89 kg E) 2.07 kg Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

85) What average current must be maintained to electroplate 6.5 g of chromium per hour from a solution of chromium(III) complex? A) 3.4 A B) 6.9 A C) 10 A D) 12 A E) 15 A Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

86) What mass of manganese dioxide, from pyrolusite ore, is required for production of 25 kg of potassium permanganate by a process which is 78% efficient? A) 18 kg B) 14 kg C) 25 kg D) 29 kg E) 32 kg Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

87) Write the equation for treatment of Ag(s) with CN-(aq). A) 4 Ag(s) + 2 CN-(aq) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 AgO(s) + 4 CO(g) + 4 NH-(aq) B) 4 Ag(s) + 8 CN-(aq) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 [AgCN]- + 4 CO(g) + 4 NH+(aq) C) 4 Ag(s) + 8 CN-(aq) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → Ag3N(s) + 4 OH-(aq) + AgC8(s) D) 4 Ag(s) + 8 CN-(aq) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 [Ag(CN)2]-(aq) + 4 OH-(aq) E) 4 Ag(s) + 8 CN-(aq) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 AgO(s) + 2 H2(g) + 2 CO(g) + 6 CN-(aq) Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

88) What volume of 18 M sulfuric acid could be prepared from the sulfur dioxide formed by the smelting of 5.00 metric tons of copper(I) sulfide, assuming that only 50% of the sulfur dioxide can actually be converted to the acid? A) 790 L B) 870 L C) 940 L D) 1,200 L E) 1,600 L Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

89) Write the overall equation for reducing Cu2S to metallic copper. A) Cu2S(l) + C(s) → 2 Cu(l) + CS(g)

B) Cu2S(l) + CO(g) → 2 Cu(l) + CO(g) + S(s)

C) Cu2S(l) + 2 CO(g) + O2(g) → 2 Cu(l) + 2 CO2(g) + S(s) D) Cu2S(l) + 3 O2(g) → 2 Cu(l) + S(s) + 2 O3(g) E) Cu2S(l) + O2(g) → 2 Cu(l) + SO2(g) Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

90) A 0.535 g sample of pyrolusite ore (impure MnO2) is treated with 1.42 g oxalic acid (H2C2O4 · 2H2O)

in an acidic medium. Following this reaction, the excess oxalic acid is titrated with 0.1000 M KMnO4, 36.6 mL being required. What is the % MnO2 in the ore? The reactions are: H2C2O4 · 2 H2O(aq) + MnO2(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) + 2 CO2(g) 5 H2C2O4 · 2H2O(aq)+ 2 MnO4-(aq) + 6 H+(aq) → 2 Mn2+(aq) + 18 H2O(l) + 10 CO2(g) A) 34.4% B) 61.1% C) 2.33% D) 1.22% E) 38.9% Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-2

91) The simplified equation for the reduction of iron ore is: Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) → Fe(l) + CO2(g) When it is balanced, the coefficients are ________. A) 1, 3, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 1, 3 C) 1, 1, 1, 2 D) 2, 6, 3, 3 E) 1, 1, 2, 1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-3

92) How much carbon monoxide is required to reduce 2.00 metric tons (2000 kg) of iron ore if the ore is 5.03% iron? Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) → 2 Fe(l) + 3 CO2(g) A) 151 kg B) 75.7 kg C) 25.2 kg D) 40.7 kg E) 50.5 kg Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-3

93) Write the chemical equation for the reduction of Cr2O3 to chromium with silicon as the reducing agent. A) Si(s) + Cr2O3(s) → SiO3(s) + Cr(l) B) Si(s) + Cr2O3(s) → SiO2(s) + 2 CrO(s)

C) 3 Si(s) + 2 Cr2O3(s) → 3 SiO2(s) + 4 Cr(l) D) 3 Si(s) + Cr2O3(s) → 3 SiO(s) + 2 Cr(l)

E) 4 Si(s) + Cr2O3(s) → SiO3(s) + 2 CrO(s) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

94) Use the couples Cr2+(aq) | Cr3+(aq), -0.424 V and Cr3+(aq) | Cr2O72-(aq), -1.33 V to determine E° of Cr2+(aq). A) -0.02 V B) 1.75 V C) -1.75 V D) 0.81 V E) -1.10 V Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

95) When permanganate ion serves as an oxidizing agent in acidic aqueous solution the manganesecontaining product most likely to be formed is ________. A) Mn2+ B) MnO2

C) MnO4D) MnO E) Mn Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

96) A 25.0 mL aliquot of a solution containing Fe2+(aq), prepared during an assay of a pyrite ore, was

titrated to a faint purple endpoint by 32.2 mL of 0.020 M KMnO4(aq). What was the molarity of the Fe2+ solution? [The permanganate was reduced to Mn2+(aq).] A) 0.13 M B) 0.19 M C) 0.26 M D) 0.31 M E) 0.47 M Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-4

97) Write the electron configuration for Fe2+. A) [Ar]3d6 B) [Ar]4s23d4 C) [Ar]4s24p4 D) [Ar]4s14p1 E) [Ar]5s2 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

98) Write the electron configuration for Co3+. A) [Ar]3d6 B) [Ar]4s23d4 C) [Ar]4s24p4 D) [Ar]4s14p1 E) [Ar]5s2 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

99) Which is most probably the ground state electron configuration for the iron(III) ion? A) [Ar]4s23d3 B) [Ar]4s13d4 C) [Ar]4s03d33p3 D) [Ar]4s04p5 E) [Ar]4s03d5 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

100) What is the approximate pH of the H+(aq)/H2(g) electrode compartment through which H2 gas is bubbled at a pressure of 1.00 atm if this electrode, when coupled with a Ni(s)/(0.10 M) Ni2+(aq) electrode, forms a galvanic cell having an initial potential of 0.10 V? [The discharge reaction involves oxidation of nickel to Ni2+(aq).] A) 2.15 B) 4.65 C) 6.15 D) 3.15 E) 3.65 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-5

101) Gold does not react with either nitric acid nor hydrochloric acid alone, but can be dissolved by aqua regia to form the tetrachloroaurate(III) ion, water and nitric oxide. What is the sum of the coefficients when the net equation for this process is balanced? A) 17 B) 14 C) 11 D) 9 E) 7 Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-6

102) The net formation constant for tetraamminezinc(II) is 4.1 × 108. What would be the approximate potential of the galvanic cell symbolized below? Zn(s)/Zn(NH3)42+ (aq, 1.0 M), NH3(aq, 1.0 M)//Zn2+(aq, 1.0 M)/Zn(s) A) 0.76 V B) 0.00 V C) 0.51 V D) 0.25 V E) 1.02 V Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 23-7

103) Which substance is the best conductor of electricity? A) arsenic B) boron C) silver D) tellurium Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) What is the highest possible oxidation state for manganese? A) +2 B) +5 C) +6 D) +7 Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) What is the ground-state electron configuration for the element chromium (Z = 24)? A) [Ne] 4s23d4 B) [Ar] 4s23d4 C) [Ar] 4s13d5 D) [Ar] 3d6 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

106) What is the ground-state electron configuration for Cr3+ (Z = 24)? A) [Ar] 4s23d7 B) [Ar] 4s23d1 C) [Ar] 3d3

D) [Ar] 4s13d2 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

107) Which of the following species has the electron configuration [Ar]3d6? A) Cr B) Fe3+ C) Co3+ D) Ni3+

Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) How many d electrons are there in CrO72-? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 24 Complex Ions and Coordination Compounds 1) A complex is any species involving coordination of ligands to a metal center. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

2) A monodentate ligand can have only one lone pair of electrons. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

3) Enantiomers are isomers which are not chiral. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

4) High spin refers to the maximum number of ligands attached to the metal ion. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

5) Unpaired electrons cause a complex ion to be diamagnetic. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

6) Some wavelengths of light are the correct energy to be used to promote electrons to higher energy levels and are thus lost from white light. The loss of these wavelengths causes solutions of transition elements to be colored. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

7) The overall formation constant can be calculated by multiplying the constant for each step of the formation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

8) Complex-ion formation can be described in terms of Br∅nsted-Lowry acid-base reactions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-9

9) Complex-ions in which ligands are interchanged very slowly are called labile. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-10

10) Sequestering is using a chelating agents to reduce a free cation concentration to the point that the cation will not react to form objectionable products. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-11

11) Which combination of central species and net charge is FALSE for complex ions or coordination compounds? A) neutral metal atom, positive net charge B) neutral metal atom, zero net charge C) metal cation, zero net charge D) metal cation, positive net charge E) metal cation, negative net charge Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

12) Which of the following metal ions can have coordination numbers of either 4 or 6? A) Ag+ B) Ca2+ C) Cu+

D) Ni2+ E) Au+

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

13) Which of the following metal ions has coordination numbers of 2 or 4? A) Fe3+ B) Co3+ C) Cu+ D) Pt2+ E) Cr3+

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

14) The [Fe(CN)6]3- complex ion: A) exhibits square planar geometry B) is diamagnetic C) exhibits octahedral geometry D) has two unpaired electrons E) has four unpaired electrons Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

15) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The coordination number is the number of ligands which can attach to a metal center. B) A ligand supplies one or more electron pairs to bond to the metal ion. C) The ligand-metal ion bond is a coordinate covalent bond. D) A ligand is a Lewis base. E) A ligand that donates a pair of electrons is multidentate. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A ligand that bonds to the metal ion with more than one atom is unidentate. B) A chelate is produced by a ligand bonding to the metal ion with two or more donor atoms. C) In coordination nomenclature, the cations are named before the anions. D) In coordination nomenclature, the names of the ligands are followed by the name of the central metal ion. E) Anionic ligands end in -o in coordination nomenclature. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

17) Choose the INCORRECT formula/name combination for ligands. A) H2O / aqua B) NH3 / ammine

C) CO / carbonyl D) NO / nitrito-NE) CH3NH2 / methylamine Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

18) Choose the INCORRECT formula/name combination for ligands. A) C5H5N / pyridine B) F- / fluoro C) Cl- / chloro

D) OH- / hydroxo E) I- / iodino Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

19) Choose the INCORRECT formula/name combination for ligands. A) O2- / hydroxo B) NO / nitrosyl C) I- / iodo

D) CN- / cyano E) SO42- / sulfato Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

20) Choose the INCORRECT formula/name combination for ligands. A) Br- / bromo B) S2O32- / sulfato

C) NO2- bonded to N / nitrito-ND) NO2- bonded to O / nitrito-OE) en (ethylenediamine) / N2NCH2CH2NH2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

21) Choose the INCORRECT formula/name combination for ligands. A) -O2C-CO2- / oxalato (ox) B) S2O32- / thiosulfato

C) CH3NH2 / ammino D) SCN- bonded to S / thiocyanato-SE) NCS- bonded to N / thiocyanato-NAnswer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

22) It is known that the sulfhydryl group, -SH, forms strong coordinate bonds to certain heavy metal ions. Which of the following do you expect to be the best chelating agent for heavy metal ions? A) HS-CH2-CH(SH)-CH2-OH B) H-SH C) CH3-SH

D) CH3-S-S-CH3 E) SO42Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

23) Which one of the following could be a chelating ligand? A) NH3 B) CH3-CH2-NH2

C) NH2-CH2-CH2-NH2 D) CNE) any metal ion Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

24) Which of the following is a bidentate ligand? A) H2O B) NO2C) NH3

D) H2NCH2CH2NH2 E) [(O2C)2NCH2CH2N(CO2)2]4Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

25) Which of the following ligand names is INCORRECT? A) F-/fluoro B) OH-/hydroxo C) NH3/ammino D) NO2-/nitrito E) SO42-/sulfato Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

26) Which of the following ligands cannot act as a chelating agent? A) nitrite ion B) ethylenediamine C) ethylenediaminetetracetate ion D) hydrazine E) oxalate ion Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-2

27) Choose the INCORRECT statement about coordination nomenclature. A) Molecular ligands carry the molecule's name. B) The number of ligands is specified by a superscript. C) Ligands are named in alphabetical order. D) A Roman numeral designates the oxidation state of the metal ion. E) Complex anions have an ate ending on the central metal's name. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

28) Coordination isomerism could be shown by: A) Li[AlH4] B) [Ag(NH3)2][CuCl2] C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Br D) [Pt(H2O)4Cl2]

E) [Fe(CN)6](NH3)3 Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

29) Choose the INCORRECT statement about isomers. A) Structural isomers differ in structure or bond type. B) stereoisomers differ in the spatial arrangements among the ligands. C) Ionization isomers differ in the charge on the central ion. D) Linkage isomers differ in which atom is bonded to the central atom. E) Geometric isomerism is cis-trans isomerism. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

30) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Structures that are nonsuperimposable mirror images are enantiomers. B) Enantiomers are chiral. C) Enantiomers are optical isomers. D) Hydrates are molecules which do not react with water. E) Coordination complexes add the ligands one at a time. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

31) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) One popular chelating agent is EDTA. B) [Cr(NH3)4Br]Cl and [Cr(NH3)4Cl]Br are examples of ionization isomerism. C) Linkage isomers differ in the spatial arrangements among the ligands. D) A tetrahedral complex cannot have a geometric isomer. E) Enantiomers are optical isomers. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

32) The compound PtCl2(en)2 [en = H2NCH2NH2] is octahedral; therefore we know that: A) en must be a monodentate ligand B) two moles of Cl- per mole of PtCl2(en)2 can be precipitated rapidly by the addition of Ag+ C) the molecule is nonpolar D) the compound can have cis and trans isomers E) Pt always has a coordination of 4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

33) Choose the correct statement about isomers of [Pt(H2O)2(NH3)Cl]Br.

A) I is cis, II is trans. B) The two molecules are the same. C) The two molecules are the same but one is turned over. D) They are not isomers. E) I is trans, II is cis. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

34) When [Ni(NH3)4]2+ is treated with concentrated HCl(aq), two compounds having the same formula,

[Ni(NH3)4Cl2], designated I and II, are formed. Compound I can be converted to compound II by boiling it in dilute HCl(aq). A solution of I reacts with oxalic acid, H2C2O4, to form [Ni(NH3)4(C2O4)]. Compound II does not react with oxalic acid. Compound II is: A) the cis isomer B) tetrahedral in shape C) the trans isomer D) the same as compound I E) octahedral in shape Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

35) Which of the following ligands exerts the strongest field? A) IB) H2O C) ONOD) NH3 E) BrAnswer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

36) Which complex ion possesses the largest number of unpaired electrons? A) [CoCl4]2B) [Cr(NH3)6]2+ C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ D) [Mn(CN)6]4E) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

37) Which element possesses the smallest number of unpaired electrons? A) Co B) Cr C) Cu D) Mn E) Fe Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

38) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [Co(NH3)6]3+. A) square planar, strong, 6 B) square planar, weak, 0 C) tetrahedral, strong, 0 D) octahedral, strong, 0 E) octahedral, weak, 6 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

39) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [PtCl6]2-. A) square planar, weak, 0 B) square planar, strong, 4 C) tetrahedral, weak, 0 D) octahedral, weak, 1 E) octahedral, weak, 4 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

40) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [CoCl4]2-. A) square planar, strong, 3 B) square planar, strong, 0 C) tetrahedral, strong, 1 D) tetrahedral, weak, 3 E) square planar, weak, 0 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

41) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [Ni(C2O4)3]4-. A) square planar, strong, 4 B) octahedral, weak, 2 C) square planar, weak, 0 D) tetrahedral, weak, 0 E) octahedral, weak, 3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

42) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [Co(NH3)4]2+. A) octahedral, weak, 3 B) octahedral, strong, 3 C) square planar, strong, 1 D) tetrahedral, weak, 1 E) tetrahedral, strong, 1 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

43) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [Co(ox)3]4-. A) tetrahedral, weak, 3 B) tetrahedral, strong, 3 C) square planar, strong, 3 D) octahedral, weak, 3 E) octahedral, strong, 5 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

44) Choose the correct shape, weak or strong field, and number of unpaired electrons for [CoI6]3-. A) tetrahedral, strong, 2 B) tetrahedral, weak, 4 C) square planar, strong, 0 D) octahedral, strong, 5 E) octahedral, weak, 4 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

45) The hexaaquachromium(III) ion absorbs light in the green part of the visible spectrum, thereby appearing to have the color: A) blue B) cyan C) green D) purple E) yellow Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

46) Of the following complex ions, two appear violet in aqueous solution, one appears purple, one appears blue-green, and one appears yellow. Which is yellow? A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ B) [CrCl(H2O)5]2+ C) [CrCl(NH3)5]2+ D) [CrCl2(NH3)4]+ E) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

47) Using the stepwise formation constants given, calculate the net formation constant for the [Cu(H2NCH2CH2NH2)2]2+ complex. Cu2+ + en → [Cu(en)]2+ [Cu(en)]2+ + en → [Cu(en)2]2+

K1 = 5.2 × 1010 K2 = 2.0 × 109

A) 2.6 × 101 B) 2.5 × 109 C) 5.4 × 1010 D) 7.9 × 1019 E) 1.0 × 1020 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

48) What is the approximate concentration of free Ni2+(aq) remaining at equilibrium in a solution prepared by mixing 5.0 mL of 0.10 M NiCl(aq)2 with 5.0 mL of 2.0 M NH3(aq)? [The net formation constant for the hexamminenickel(II) ion is 5.5 × 108.] A) 1.8 × 10-9 M B) 7.7 × 10-10 M C) 1.3 × 10-10 M

D) 2.4 × 10-10 M E) 0.050 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

49) What is the approximate concentration of free Cu2+(aq) remaining at equilibrium in a solution prepared by mixing 5.0 mL of 0.10 M CuCl2(aq) with 5.0 mL of 2.0 M aqueous ethylenediamine? [The net formation constant for the bis(ethylenediaminecopper(II) ion is 1 × 1020.] A) 9 × 10-22 M B) 7 × 10-22 M C) 2 × 10-22 M

D) 1 × 10-21 M E) 6 × 10-22 M Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

50) What is the approximate concentration of free Ni2+(aq) remaining at equilibrium in a solution prepared by mixing 5.0 mL of 0.10 M NiCl2(aq) with 5.0 mL of 2.00 M aqeous ethylenediamine? [The net formation constant for the tris(ethylenediaminenickel(II) ion is 2.1 × 1018.] A) 0.050 M B) 1.4 × 10-19 M C) 4.8 × 10-19 M D) 3.9 × 10-20 M E) 2.8 × 10-20 M Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

51) What is the concentration of Ag+(aq) if 0.125 g of AgC2H3O2(s) is placed in 100.0 mL of 1.00 M NH3(aq)? Kf = 1.6 × 107 for [Ag(NH3)2]+ A) 4.8 × 10-10 M B) 5.6 × 10-10 M C) 8.0 × 10-8 M D) 8.3 × 10-6 M E) 7.5 × 10-3 M Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

52) What is the concentration of Zn2+(aq) if 0.254 g of ZnCl2(s) is dissolved in 200.0 mL of 2.00 M NH3(aq)?

Kf ([Zn(NH3)4]2+) = 4.1 × 108 A) 0.0093 M B) 1.5 × 10-12 M C) 2.4 × 10-9 M D) 2.3 × 10-12 M E) 0.0019 M Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

53) What is the concentration of Cu2+(aq) if 0.235 g of CuCl2(s) is dissolved in 300.0 mL of 0.550 M NH3(aq)?

Kf ([Cu(NH3)4]2+) = 1.1 × 1013 A) 5.8 × 10-15 M B) 1.0 × 10-15 M C) 6.9 × 10-15 M D) 5.8 × 10-3 M E) 1.2 × 10-12 M Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

54) What is the concentration of Ni2+(aq) if 0.223 g of NiCl2(s) is dissolved in 250.0 mL of 0.760 M NH3(aq)?

Kf ([Ni(NH3)6]2+) = 5.5 × 108 A) 6.9 × 10-3 M B) 7.6 × 10-11 M

C) 1.3 × 10-11 M D) 9.7 × 10-11 M E) 1.4 × 10-11 M Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

55) What is the approximate concentration of free Fe2+(aq) remaining at equilibrium in a solution prepared by mixing 5.0 mL of 0.10 M FeSO4(aq) with 5.0 mL of 2.0 M KCN(aq)? [The net formation constant for the hexacyanoferrate(II) ion is 1 × 1037.] A) 3 × 10-22 M B) 7 × 10-30 M C) 4 × 10-38 M

D) 5 × 10-37 M E) 4 × 10-40 M Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

56) In the compound K4[Fe(CN)6], the oxidation state of iron and its coordination number, respectively, are ________. A) -4 and ten B) 0 and ten C) +4 and four D) +2 and six E) -4 and six Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

57) In the cation [CrCl2(H2O)4]+, the oxidation state of chromium and its coordination number, respectively, are ________. A) -3 and two B) +3 and six C) 0 and four D) +2 and six E) -4 and six Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

58) In the cation [CoCl2(en)2]+, the oxidation state of cobalt and its coordination number, respectively, are ________. A) -3 and two B) +2 and six C) +4 and four D) +3 and six E) -4 and six Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

59) If a central ion has a coordination number of 4 we might expect the geometry of the complex ion to be ________. A) octahedral B) cubical C) trigonal bipyramidal D) square planar E) trigonal planar Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

60) A compound has the empirical formula CoCl3 · 5NH3. One mole of it yields two moles of silver chloride when treated with silver nitrate. Ammonia is not removed by treatment with concentrated sulfuric acid. A reasonable formula for the compound is ________. A) [Co(NH3)5]Cl3 B) CoCl3 · 5NH3

C) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2 · NH3 D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

E) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl · NH3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

61) A compound has the empirical formula CoCl3 · 5NH3. One mole of it yields three moles of silver chloride when treated with silver nitrate. Ammonia is not removed by treatment with concentrated sulfuric acid. A reasonable formula for the compound is ________. A) [Co(NH3)5]Cl3 B) CoCl3 · 5NH3

C) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2 · NH3 D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

E) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl · NH3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

62) Conductivity experiments indicate that dichlorotetraamine-palladium (IV) chloride is composed of 3 moles of ions per mole of compound. However, only 2 moles of AgCl per mole of compound are precipitated rapidly when silver nitrate solution is added to a solution of the palladium compound. What is the probable structure of the complex ion? A) octahedral B) square planar C) tetrahedral D) linear E) trigonal planar Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-1

63) The correct formula of triamminediaquachlorocobalt (III) iodide is ________. A) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)3Cl]I2 B) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]I3 C) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]I2 D) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]I

E) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2I]Cl2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

64) The correct name for [Ag(NH3)2]+ is ________. A) silver amide B) diamminesilver(I)ion C) silver ammoniate D) silver nitride E) silver(I) diammine ion Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

65) Write the correct formula for tetrachloroplatinate (II) ion. A) [PtCl4]2B) PtCl3Cl

C) [Pt4Cl]D) [PtCl3]-ClE) [PtCl2]42+ Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

66) What is the correct name of the following ion: [Zn(CN)4]2A) zinc quadracyanide B) tetracyanozincate(II) C) zinc cyanide D) tetracyanozinc(II) E) cyanozinc(IV) Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

67) Give the correct name for [Ni(NH3)4]2+. A) tetraamminonickelate(II) B) nickel amine C) tetraamminenickel(II) D) nickel tetraamine E) tetraamminonickel(IV) Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

68) Give the correct name for [Al(H2O)4]3+. A) hydrated aluminum B) aluminum hydrate C) tetraaquoaluminate(VI) D) tetraaquaaluminum(III) E) tetrawateraluminum(IV) Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

69) Give the correct name for [Fe(H2O)4(OH)2]+. A) diaquotetrahydroxoiron(III) B) tetrahydroxodiaquoferrate(III) C) hydrated iron hydroxide D) tetrawaterdihydroxoiron(III) E) tetraaquadihydroxoiron(III) Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

70) Give the correct name for [Fe(CO)4]. A) tetracarbonyliron(0) B) iron carbon monoxide C) carbonylferrate(IV) D) tetracarbonylferrate(0) E) iron carbonyl Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

71) Give the correct name for [AuF4]-. A) gold fluoride B) tetrafluoroaurate(III) C) gold tetrafluoride D) tetrafluorogold(III) E) tetrafluoride gold Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

72) Give the correct name for [Fe(CN)6]4-. A) hexayanoiron(II) B) iron hexacyanide C) hexacyanoferrate(II) D) hexacyanide iron(II) E) hexacyanoferrate(III) Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

73) What is the correct IUPAC name for [Co(NH3)6]2+? A) hexammoniacobaltate(II) B) hexaamminecobaltate(II) C) hexammoniacobalt(II) D) hexaamminecobalt(II) E) hexaamminecobaltium(II) Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

74) What is the correct IUPAC name for [AuCl4(H2O)2]-? A) diaquatetrachloroaurate(III) B) diaquatetrachloroaurate(I) C) diaquatetrachlorogold(III) D) diaquatetrachlorogold(I) E) diaquatetrachlorogoldate(III) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

75) What is the correct IUPAC name for K3[Co(NO2)6]? A) tripotassiumhexanitritocobalt(0) B) tripotassiumhexanitritocobalt(III) C) potassium hexanitritocobaltate(III) D) potassium hexanitritocobalt(III) E) potassium hexanitratocobalt(III) Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-3

76) The two different compounds [Cu(NH3)4][Fe(CN)4(H2O)2] and [Cu(CN)4]Fe(NH3)4(H2O)2] are examples of ________. A) optical isomers B) linkage isomers C) ionization isomers D) geometric isomers E) coordination isomers Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

77) The difference between coordination of Co2+ with NO2- by an oxygen-cobalt bonding compared to a nitrogen-cobalt bonding results in ________. A) coordination isomers B) geometric isomers C) ionization isomers D) linkage isomers E) optical isomers Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

78) Molecules which are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other are called ________. A) achiralomers B) enantiomers C) diastereomers D) cis/trans isomers E) geometers Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

79) Isomers such as the two forms of the ion [Co(NH3)2Cl4]- that differ only in the way the atoms are oriented in space are called, in general ________. A) ionization isomers B) crystal field isomers C) hybridization isomers D) optical isomers E) cis-trans isomers Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

80) Which of the following complexes has no geometric isomers? A) [Pt(NH3)4F2] B) [Pt(NH3)F5]-3 C) [Co(NH3)4F2]+ D) [Co(NH3)3F3]

E) [Co(NH3)2F4]Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

81) Ligands approaching in an octahedral pattern cause some orbitals to be raised in energy. How many orbitals are on the lower energy level? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

82) Ligands approaching in an octahedral pattern cause some orbitals to be raised in energy. How many orbitals are on the higher energy level? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

83) Ligands approaching in an square planar pattern cause some orbitals to be raised in energy. How many orbitals are on the highest energy level? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

84) Ligands approaching in a tetrahedral pattern cause some orbitals to be raised in energy. How many orbitals are on the lower energy level? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

85) Which of the following ions is highest in the spectrochemical series? en, I-, SCN-, OH-, CNA) en B) SCNC) CND) OH-

E) IAnswer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

86) Which of the following ions is highest in the spectrochemical series? NO2-, NH3, Br-, ox2-, H2O A) ox2B) Br-

C) H2O D) NO2E) NH3

Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

87) The model for bonding in complex ions that considers the metal-ion/ligand bonding as an electrostatic attraction of the metal ion nucleus for ligand electrons, with repulsions between ligand electrons and the electrons of the central metal ion, is called the ________. A) atomic orbital theory B) crystal field theory C) complexation theory D) molecular orbital theory E) VSEPR theory Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-5

88) [Fe(CN)6]4- has how many unpaired electrons? A) 2 B) 0 C) 4 D) 3 E) 1 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

89) Which of the following magnetic/geometric descriptions is most likely for the [ZnCl4]2- ion? A) diamagnetic/octahedral B) paramagnetic/tetrahedral C) paramagnetic/square planar D) diamagnetic/tetrahedral E) diamagnetic/square planar Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

90) Based on concepts from both crystal field theory and valence bond theory, the most likely combination of molecular orbital, magnetic and geometric descriptions for the [Fe(H2O)6]2+ ion is ________. A) sp2d/diamagnetic/square planar

B) sp2d/paramagnetic/square planar C) sp3d2/diamagnetic/octahedral D) sp3d2/paramagnetic/octahedral E) sp2d/paramagnetic/tetrahedral Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

91) Which is the most plausible and consistent combination of hybrid orbital notation and magnetic/geometric description of [CoF6]3-? A) sp2d/diamagnetic/square planar B) sp2d/paramagnetic/square planar C) sp3d2/diamagnetic/octahedral D) sp3d2/paramagnetic/octahedral E) sp2d/paramagnetic/tetrahedral Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-6

92) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ absorbs light in the yellow part of the visible spectrum, thereby appearing to have the color ________. A) blue B) cyan C) green D) purple E) yellow Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

93) [CuCl4]2- absorbs light in the blue part of the visible spectrum, thereby appearing to have the color ________. A) blue B) cyan C) green D) purple E) yellow Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

94) Of the following complex ions: [CrCl(NH3)5]2+, [Cr(NH3)6]3+, [CrCl(H2O)5]2+, [Cr(H2O)6]3+, one appears pink, one yellow, one blue-green and one violet. Which is blue-green? A) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ B) [CrCl(NH3)5]2+ C) [CrCl(H2O)5]2+ D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ E) both [CrCl(H2O)5]2+ and [CrCl(NH3)5]2+ Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

95) Of the following complex ions: [CoCl(NH3)5]2+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+, one appears pink, two are yellow, and one blue. Which is blue? A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ B) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ D) [Co(en)3]3+

E) both [Co(en)3]3+ and [Co(H2O)6]3+ Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

96) As ethylenediamine is added to an aqueous solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+, the water molecules are replaced two at a time by ethylenediamine to produce the sequence of ions: [Ni(H2O)6]2+, [Ni(en)(H2O)4]2+, [Ni(en)2(H2O)2]2+, and [Ni(en)3]2+. How does the color change through the sequence? A) The color changes toward red with the addition of ethylenediamine. B) The color changes toward purple with the addition of ethylenediamine. C) Red, yellow, purple, blue with the addition of ethylenediamine. D) There is no color change with the addition of ethylenediamine. E) The color change cannot be predicted with the addition of ethylenediamine. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-7

97) The net formation constant for tetrachloromercurate(II) ion is 1.2 × 1015. Calculate the approximate standard electrode potential for: [HgCl4]2-(aq) + 2 e- → Hg(l) + 4 Cl-(aq) Given: Hg2+(aq) + 2 e- → Hg(l) E° + 0.85 V A) -0.39 V B) -0.63 V C) +0.70 V D) +0.41 V E) zero Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-8

98) Why is an aqueous solution of Fe3+ acidic? A) Iron ions attract hydroxide ions from water leaving hydrogen ions. B) Iron ions react with water to produce hydrogen ions. C) Iron ions attract water molecules to form a complex. D) Iron ions form a complex with water then lose hydrogen ions from its water ligands. E) Iron ions force the dissociation of water. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-9

99) If it is assumed that [Fe(H2O)6]3+ can lose two hydrogens, what is the formula of the resulting ion when Fe3+ is placed in water? A) [Fe(H2O)2](OH)2]2B) [Fe(OH)(H2O)5]2+ C) [Fe(OH)2(H2O)4]2+ D) [Fe(OH)2(H2O)4]+ E) [Fe(OH)2(H2O)4]2Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-9

100) Chlorophyll is a green pigment involved in the growth of plants. One type of chlorophyll is a complex. What color of light should plants grow best in? A) blue B) cyan C) green D) magenta E) yellow Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-11

101) Which of the following can function as a bidentate ligand? A) CO B) OH C) N H3

D) C2O42-

Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Which of the following can function as a chelating agent? A) SHB) H2O

C) H2NCH2CO2D) SCN Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 4

103) Which ion would you expect to have the largest crystal field splitting, △? A) [Rh(CN)6]4B) [Rh(CN)6]3C) [Rh(H2O)6]2+ D) [Rh(H2O)6]3+ Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) Which of the following species is diamagnetic? A) an isolated gas-phase Cr3+ ion B) a high-spin octahedral Cr2+ complex C) an isolated gas-phase Cu2+ ion D) a low-spin octahedral Co3+ complex Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 25 Nuclear Chemistry 1) Radioactive decay series decay by alpha and positron emission. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-2

2) Artificially induced radioactivity is caused by bombarding a nucleus with another particle. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

3) Transuranium elements are elements with atomic numbers greater than 92. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-4

4) Radioactivity is a first order kinetics process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

5) The nuclear binding energy is the energy required to separate the neutrons and protons. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

6) Radioactive nuclides that lie above the band of stability become more stable by positron emission. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

7) Odd proton, odd neutron isotopes are generally more stable than even proton, even neutron isotopes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

8) Fission is the process of combining small nuclei into larger nuclei. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-8

9) Fusion is the process of combining small nuclei into larger nuclei. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-9

10) Ion production is the way radiation causes the most damage. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-10

11) Cancerous cells are more easily killed by radiation than normal cells. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-11

12) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Radioactivity is the emission of ionizing radiation. B) An alpha particle is the nucleus of a helium-4 atom. C) A beta particle is a neutron. D) A positron is like a beta particle but with a positive charge. E) Gamma rays are emitted from a nucleus in an excited state. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

13) Radioactive decay is: A) temperature independent B) a second-order process C) a zero-order process D) a process with a large activation energy Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

14) The most massive particle is: A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) neutron Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

15) Identify a reaction that follows a different decay process than the rest. A)

U→

Ra →

Cm →

Po →

Rn →

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

16) The most highly charged particle is: A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) neutron Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

17) When a nuclide undergoes positron emission, the change in the number of protons, neutrons, and mass number is, respectively: A) -1, +1, no change B) +1, -1, no change C) -1, +1, -1 D) +1, +1, -1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

18) Which of the following statements concerning alpha decay is INCORRECT? A) It involves nuclides with atomic number larger than 83 and mass number larger than 200. B) It has great penetrating power, but little ionizing power. C) It often leaves the nucleus in an excited state. D) The atomic number decreases by two. E) The alpha particle is made up of two protons and two neutrons. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

19) Which of the following is FALSE? A) A β- particle is essentially an e- originating from the nucleus. B) A β- decay results in a decrease in atomic number. C) A β- decay is accompanied by the emission of a neutrino.

D) A β+ decay converts a proton to a neutron in the nucleus of an atom. E) An e- capture converts a proton to a neutron in the nucleus of an atom. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

20) Which of the following are true for alpha particles? I)

α particles are equivalent to 2 p+ 2 n.

II) α decay decreases the atomic number by four. III) α particles are deflected more strongly than e- by magnetic fields, but in the opposite direction. IV) α particles are easily stopped as they strike matter. A) I and II B) I, II, III C) I and III D) I and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

21) Which of the following types of nuclear decay result in a decrease in nuclear charge? I) gamma emission II) beta emission III) positron emission IV) electron-capture A) I and II B) II and IV C) I and III D) III and IV E) IV only Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

22) Which of the following would have the greatest penetrating power through matter? A) gamma rays B) alpha particles C) protons D) beta particles E) positron particles Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

23) Most periodic tables indicate the elements for which all isotopes are radioactive. Which pair of elements with atomic number less than 83 have only radioactive isotopes? A) Pb and At B) Tc and Cd C) K and Pm D) Tc and Pm E) C and K Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-2

24) Consider the following nuclear reactions. Al + 1→

He → 1 +

Si + 2

What are the nuclides 1 and 2, respectively? A)

P and

Si and

S and

Mg and 2

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

25) Choose the possible products for the nuclear reaction 40Ca + 4He(alpha). A) 43Ar + n B) 43Sc + p C) 43Ca + n

D) 42Ca + 2H E) 42Ti + n Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

26) Transuranium elements can be produced by bombarding nuclei with: A) neutrons B) other nuclei C) alpha particles D) positrons E) neutrons and/or other nuclei Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-4

27) There have been two ways of making transuranium elements: neutron bombardment and: A) beta bombardment B) gamma bombardment C) positron bombardment D) photon bombardment E) heavy-atom bombardment Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-4

28) There have been two ways of making transuranium elements: heavy-atom bombardment and: A) beta bombardment B) gamma bombardment C) positron bombardment D) photon bombardment E) neutron bombardment Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-4

29) In the case of radioactive element X, which decays by electron emission with a half-life of 4 days to a stable nuclide of element Z: A) 2 g of element X is required to produce 1.5 g of element Z after 8 days B) element Z will weigh considerably less than element X after decay is complete because of the loss of electrons C) element Z will weigh more than element X when decay is complete since Z has the higher atomic number D) after 8 days the sample will consist of one-fourth element Z and three-fourths element X E) after 8 days element X will be all element Z Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

30) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Bi-209 has the highest mass number and atomic number of any stable isotope. B) The radioactive decay law is A = θN. C) Radioactive decay is a first-order process. D) The half-life is the length of time for all atoms of an isotope to decay. E) Wood can be dated by radiocarbon dating. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

31) What is the decay constant for 131I if the half-life is 8.04 d? A) 9.98 × 10-7 s-1 B) 9.31 × 10-5 s-1 C) 3.48 × 10-6 s-1 D) 4.81 × 10-4 s-1 Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

32) A nuclide has a decay constant of 4.28 × 10-4/h. If the activity of a sample is 3.14 × 105/s, how many atoms of the nuclide are present in the sample? A) 7.34 × 108 B) 2.64 × 1012 C) 4.84 × 105 D) 1.34 × 102 E) 2.34 × 1011 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

33) The charcoal from ashes found in a cave gave 3.34 14C counts per gram per minute. Wood from the outer portion of a growing tree gives a comparable count of 16.0. The half-life of 14C is 5700 years. How old are the ashes? A) 8.93 × 103 yr B) 6.87 × 103 yr C) 1.29 × 104 yr

D) 1.93 × 104 yr E) 1.90 × 104 yr Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

34) A wooden artifact is subjected to radiocarbon dating. The activity associated with its 14C content is 12 dis min-1 g-1. A sample of wood from a modern source gave 15 dis min-1 g-1. If the half-life of 14C is 5730 y, what is the age of the artifact? A) 1.8 × 103 y B) 800 y

C) 1.3 × 103 y D) 7.2 × 103 y Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

35) If the decay constant for 131I is 9.98 × 10-7 s-1, calculate the activity of a 1.00 mg sample. A) 4.59 × 1012 atoms/s B) 4.73 × 1012 atoms/s C) 4.61 × 1024 atoms/s D) 9.98 × 10-4 atoms/s Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

36) Half-life is: I) the time for a sample to decay completely. II) constant for a given radioisotope. III) the time required for half of a sample to decay. IV) inversely proportional to the decay constant. A) I and II B) I, II, and III C) I and III D) I, III, and IV E) II, III, and IV Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

37) The observation that a 30 g sample of C-14 has a decay rate faster than that of a 20 g sample of C-14 would be consistent with the: A) Half-Life Principle B) Disintegration Rule C) Radioactive decay law D) Mass-Rate Principle E) Mass-decay ratio Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

38) The half-life of 238U, which decomposes to 206Pb, is 4.51 × 109 y. A rock contains equal masses of these two isotopes. How old is this rock? A) 4.07 × 109 y B) 4.06 × 109 y C) 9.02 × 109 y D) 4.51 × 109 y E) 5.00 × 109 y Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

39) The following nuclear reaction is known to occur: 2

H→

He This reaction is used in a fusion

bomb or H bomb. How many joules of energy are produced by this reaction if 33.0 g of 2H are used? You are given the following masses: electron 0.00055 amu; proton 1.00782 amu; neutron 1.00867 amu; 2H atom 2.010410 amu;

He atom 4.00260 amu.

A) 3.82 × 10-12 J B) 2.30 × 1012 J C) 3.77 × 1013 J D) 7.60 × 1013 J E) 1.34 J Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

40) The masses of

He,

Li and

B are 4.0015, 6.0135 and 10.0102 amu, respectively. Splitting a boron-

10 nucleus to helium-4 and lithium-6 would: A) absorb energy B) evolve energy C) result in no energy change D) boron cannot be split E) cannot be determined Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

41) On forming the nuclide from the protons, neutrons and electrons, the mass loss per nucleon for the He is 0.00759 amu, whereas that for A)

Fe undergoes nuclear fission

He is more stable than

C) thirteen

Fe is 0.00944 amu. This means that:

He nuclei could react to form one

Fe is more stable than

He weighs more than

Fe nucleus

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

42) Nuclear binding energy is: I) the energy liberated when forming a nucleus II) related to "lost" mass by the relationship 1 amu = 28.4 MeV III) related to "lost" mass by the relationship 1 amu = 931.5 MeV IV) the force which holds the 3 atomic particles together A) I and II B) I and III C) I, II, and IV D) I, III, and IV E) III and IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

43) The binding energy per nucleon is largest for: A) 3He B) 59Co C) 235U D) 98Tc E) 1H

Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

44) In the reaction

C+

He →

in unified atomic mass units are:

O how much energy is produced per gram of carbon used? Masses, C= 12.00000,

He= 4.00260,

O = 15.99491.

Express your answer in Joules/gram of carbon. A) 2.10 × 1019 J/g B) 5.76 × 1010 J/g C) 7.77 × 104 J/g D) 2.80 × 1011 J/g E) 3.36 × 1015 J/g Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

45) An isotope which has too high a neutron-proton ratio can gain stability by: A) beta emission B) K-capture C) proton emission D) gamma emission E) alpha emission Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

46) Which of the following is true concerning the nuclei of stable heavier elements? A) # n = # p B) # n > # p C) # n < # p D) # n = # p > #eAnswer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

47) Find the INCORRECT nuclear reaction. A)

U+

n→

Ba +

Kr + 3 n

Pu +

n→

Cs +

U+

n→

Th +

U+

n→

Ba +

Kr +

U+

n→

Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

48) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The nuclear binding energy is the mass changed to energy that holds the nucleus together. B) Magic numbers are certain numbers of protons and/or neutrons which are especially stable. C) Even numbers of protons and neutrons are more stable. D) Particular ratios of neutrons to protons are more stable. E) All isotopes below Bi are stable. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

49) Which of the following nuclides is most likely to be stable? A)

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

50) The nuclear binding energy for cobalt-59 is the energy released when: A) 27 protons and 32 neutrons form cobalt-59 B) iron-56 and 2 protons form cobalt-59 C) 27 protons and 27 neutrons form cobalt-59 D) cobalt-58 and 1 neutron form cobalt -59 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

51) Choose the correct statement. A) Instability leading to decay by alpha particle emission is found mostly in nuclides of very large mass number. B) Decay by beta emission is confined to nuclides of very low mass number. C) Ejection of an electron by a nuclide results in a nuclide of next lower mass number. D) All radiations emitted by radioactive nuclides consist of charged, high energy particles. E) Many alpha and beta emissions are followed by gamma emissions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

52) Choose the correct word to describe the nuclear stability of the following isotope. If it is radioactive, choose the most likely mode of decay. 212Po A) radioactive, beta B) radioactive, fission C) radioactive, alpha D) radioactive, neutron E) stable Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

53) Choose the correct word to describe the nuclear stability of the following isotope. If it is radioactive, choose the most likely mode of decay. 197Au A) radioactive, beta B) radioactive, fission C) radioactive, alpha D) radioactive, neutron E) stable Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

54) Choose the correct word to describe the nuclear stability of the following isotope. If it is radioactive, choose the most likely mode of decay. 50Mn A) radioactive, beta plus (positron) B) radioactive, fission C) radioactive, alpha D) radioactive, neutron E) stable Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

55) Choose the correct word to describe the nuclear stability of the following isotope. If it is radioactive, choose the most likely mode of decay. 238U A) radioactive, beta B) radioactive, fission C) radioactive, alpha D) radioactive, neutron E) stable Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

56) Choose the correct word to describe the nuclear stability of the following isotope. If it is radioactive, choose the most likely mode of decay. 19F A) radioactive, beta B) radioactive, fission C) radioactive, alpha D) radioactive, neutron E) stable Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

57) Which of the following nuclear species would require the least amount of kinetic energy to penetrate the nucleus of a lead (Pb) atom? A)

Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-7

58) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Fission is the combining of small nuclei into a larger nucleus. B) Thermal neutrons induce more fission reactions than energetic neutrons. C) Water is a good moderator, it slows down neutrons. D) Control rods absorb neutrons. E) Breeder reactors generate new fuel as well as electricity. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-8

59) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) An isotope that will fission when hit by a neutron is said to be fertile. B) A moderator slows down neutrons. C) Control rods absorb energy to control the fission reaction. D) Electrons dislodged from an atom or molecule by alpha or beta particles are called primary electrons. E) Radiation exposes photographic film the same as light. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-8

60) What total energy is released when 0.75 grams of 235U undergo fission if each atom averages 3.2 × 1011 J of energy released? A) 1.45 × 1013 J B) 6.01 × 1031 J C) 6.15 × 1010 J D) 6.15 × 107 J E) 1.45 × 1010 J Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-8

61) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Fusion is the basis of the hydrogen bomb. B) Fusion is the splitting of a nucleus into two smaller nuclei. C) Fusion is a reaction that occurs on the sun. D) Fusion is not now used to produce electricity commercially. E) Fusion can produce an almost unlimited amount of energy. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-9

62) Which statement below is correct? A) In order for fusion to be sustained, the critical mass must be exceeded. B) Fission reactions with light nuclei, such as helium are easily controlled but do not produce as much energy as with heavy nuclei. C) Breeder reactors are able to convert fissile nuclides into fertile ones, thus "breeding" more fuel. D) In a pressurized water reactor, cadmium metal usually acts as the moderator. E)

U requires energetic neutrons in order to undergo fission and subsequently produces

Pu.

Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-9

63) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Geiger-M ller counters detect radiation by the ionization caused in the gas in the counter. B) Bubble chambers detect radiation by the ionization trail left by the radiation. C) Radiation causes no harm to the human body. D) Radiation kills cancer cells more easily than normal cells. E) Alpha particles are less penetrating than beta particles. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-10

64) An employee at a chemical laboratory studying radioisotopes would wear a badge to keep a check on the amount of radiation to which he is exposed. This radiation dosage would be measured in the unit: A) curie B) rad C) rem D) joules E) joules per kilogram Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-10

65) Which of the following instruments would be least suitable for detecting particles given off in radioactive decay? A) electron microscope B) bubble or cloud chamber C) film D) Geiger counter E) Geiger-M ller counter Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-10

66) The unit of radiation which is equivalent to 0.010 J/kg of matter is the: A) curie B) roentgen C) rad D) rem E) MeV Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-10

67) Radiation can be detected as it interacts with matter by the use of: I) photographic film II) a bubble chamber III) Geiger-M ller counter A) I, II, III B) I and II C) I and III D) II and III E) III only Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-10

68) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Cancer cannot be caused by ionizing radiation. B) Cancer can be treated with gamma rays. C) Radiation works against cancer because cancer cells are more easily damaged than normal cells. D) Protons, X-rays, and neutrons can also be used against cancer cells. E) Ionizing radiation tends to kill all cells. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-11

69) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Radioactive 32P as a phosphate can be used to trace the uptake of phosphorus in plants. B) The thyroid gland can be studied by the use of radioactive iodine. C) There is no difference in physical properties between isotopes.

D) The mechanism of a chemical reaction can be followed by a radioactive tracer such as 35S. E) Industrial catalysts can be followed by a tracer such as 192Ir. Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-11

70) The type of radioactive emission with the greatest penetrating power is ________. A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) positron E) neutrino Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

71)

Fe can be prepared by electron-capture from ________.

Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

72) 210Pb → 4He + ________. A) 214Pb B) 206Hg

C) 214Hg D) 206Pb

E) 206Br Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

73) 8Be → 4He + ________. A) 3Be B) 8He C) 4He D) 4Li E) 12C

Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

74) 6He →

+ ________.

A) 6H B) 5He C) 7He D) 6Li E) 7Be Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

75) 205Pb + ________ → 205Tl. A)

D) gamma E)

Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

76) ________ +

β → 37Cl.

A) 37Ar B) 38Ar C) 38Cl D) 37K

E) 36K Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

77) When a nitrogen nucleus containing six neutrons emits a positron, the product is ________. A)

Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

78) The beta decay of

Na produces an isotope of ________.

A) Al B) Mg C) Na D) Ne E) O Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

79) Emission of which one of the following leaves both atomic number and mass number unchanged? A) alpha particle B) positron C) neutron D) gamma radiation E) beta ray Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

80) The most ionizing radiation is of what type? A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) electron E) neutron Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

81) When A)

Sr undergoes positron emission, the product nucleus is ________.

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

82) There are three radioactive series: the thorium series, which begins with 232Th, the actinium series which starts with 235U and the uranium series which starts with what isotope? A) 223Fr B) 238U C) 221Rn D) 214Pb E) 232Th Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-2

83) There are three radioactive series: the thorium series, which begins with 232Th, the uranium series which starts with 238U and the actinium series which starts with what isotope? A) 235U B) 216Po

C) 221Rn D) 214Pb E) 226Ra Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-2

84) A certain radioactive series starts with

U and ends with

Pb. In the overall process, ________

alpha particles and ________ beta particles are emitted. A) 7, 10 B) 7, 4 C) 8, 6 D) 14, 10 E) 7, 8 Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-2

85) A certain radioactive series starts with

U and ends with

Pb. In the overall process, ________

alpha particles and ________ beta particles are emitted. A) 7, 5 B) 7, 4 C) 8, 6 D) 8, 7 E) 8, 3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-2

86) Alpha particle bombardment of 27Al followed by neutron emission produces ________. A) 30P B) 30Si C) 31Si D) 29P E) 32P

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

87) Bombardment of

As by a deuteron,

H, forms a proton and an isotope which has a mass number

of ________ and an atomic number of ________. A) 75, 32 B) 75, 33 C) 73, 32 D) 76, 33 E) 74, 34 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

88) In the following process, what is the missing particle? N+

He → ________ +

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

89) In the following process, what is the missing particle? ________ +

He →

O+

Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

90) The charcoal from ashes found in a cave gave 7.4 14C counts per gram per minute. Wood from the outer portion of a growing tree gives a comparable count of 15.3. The half-life of 14C is 5700 years. How old are the ashes? A) 5700 y B) 5437 y C) 3245 y D) 9220 y E) 5970 y Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

91) The initial decay rate of a nuclide is 1.77 × 1012/m. After 7.63 d, the decay rate is 1.82 × 1011/m. What is the half-life of the isotope? A) 139 d B) 0.298 d C) 0.207 d D) 2.32 d E) 2.50 d Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

92) If 1.0 gram of an isotope has a half-life of 15 hours, the half-life of a 0.50 gram sample of the same isotope is ________. A) 60 hours B) 30 hours C) 7.5 hours D) 15 hours E) 3.75 hours Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

93) A certain isotope has a half-life of 14.7 min. How long will it take for 24.2% of the isotope to decay? A) 5.88 min B) 30.1 min C) 4.07 min D) 0.0131 min E) 0.400 min Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

94) Approximately what mass of a 1.00 mg sample of 131I remains after 40.2 days? The half-life of 131I is 8.04 d. A) 0.0313 mg B) 0.200 mg C) 0.0249 mg D) 0.0156 mg Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

95) Phosphorus-32 has a half-life of 14.3 days. How many grams remain from a 10.0 gram sample after 30.0 days? A) 2.34 g B) 7.18 g C) 4.64 g D) 0.340 g E) 3.59 g Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

96) A newly synthesized element is found to have a half-life of 3.82 minutes. How long after its formation will the activity be only 10% of original activity? A) 12.1 min B) 6.03 min C) 0.603 min D) 12.7 min E) 1.27 min Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-5

97) What is the binding energy, in amu, of 13C? Masses are: proton = 1.00728 amu, neutron = 1.00867 amu, electron = 0.00055 amu, and 13C = 13.00335 amu. A) 0.10432 amu B) 0.0102 amu C) 0.10487 amu D) 0.10817 amu E) 0.00335 amu Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

98)

B decays via the reaction

Be →

B+ + λ

What is the maximum energy of the gamma ray produced if atomic masses are: B = 11.00931 amu,

Be = 11.0216 amu,

e = 0.00055 amu? Please express your answer in electron

volts, amu = 931.5 MeV. A) 11.4 MeV B) 0.0118 MeV C) 13.2 MeV D) 12.0 MeV E) 10.8 MeV Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-6

99) Complete the following fusion reaction: A)

He +

H+

D) 3

n+2

E) 5

n+2

H+

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-9

100) Fill in the blank in the following nuclear reaction. P → ________ + β Answer:

Diff: 1 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

Match the following nuclear changes with the particle emitted. A) positron B) α-particle C) β--particle 101)

Pu →

Diff: 2 Type: MA Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

102)

Rn →

Diff: 2 Type: MA Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

103)

Cu →

Diff: 2 Type: MA Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-1

Answers: 101) C 102) B 103) A 104) Beta decay of 60Co produces a beta particle and: A) 56Mn B) 59Co C) 60Fe

D) 60Ni Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) In addition to a beta particle, what is the other product of beta decay of A)

Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

Pb?

106) The number of nucleons in a A) 27 B) 33 C) 60 D) 87 Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Co nucleus is:

Var: 5

107) Which of the following elements would be expected to be particularly stable? A)

Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

108) Which of the following nuclides is most likely to undergo beta decay? A)

Answer: D Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

109) Which nuclide below is most likely to decay by electron capture? A)

Answer: A Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

110) Neptunium-239 has a half-life of 2.35 days. How many days must elapse for a sample of 239Np to decay to 0.100% of its original quantity? A) 0.0427 days B) 1.491 days C) 2.04 days D) 23.4 days Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

111) What percentage of a radioactive substance remains after 7.00 half-lives have elapsed? A) 0.391% B) 0.78% C) 1.56% D) 3.12% Answer: B Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

112) The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.20 y. How many milligrams of a 1.000-mg sample remain after 6.55 years? A) 0.418 B) 1.61 × 10-15 C) 2.390 D) 0.794 E) 0.582 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 6

113) Strontium-90 is a byproduct in nuclear reactors fuelled by the radioisotope uranium-235. The of is 28.8 y. What percentage of a strontium-90 sample remains after 75.0 y? A) 68.1 B) 16.4 C) 7.40 D) 38.4 E) 2.60 Answer: B Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

114) Carbon-11 is used in medical imaging. The half-life of this radioisotope is 20.4 min. What percentage of a sample remains after 60.0 min? A) 71.2 B) 5.28 C) 13.0 D) 34.0 E) 2.94 Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 10

115) A rock contains 0.313 mg of lead-206 for each milligram of uranium-238. The of uranium-238 to lead-206 is 4.5 × 109 y. The rock was formed ________ y. ago.

for the decay

A) 1.41 × 109 B) 1.08 × 109 C) 1.39 × 109 D) 2.00 × 109 E) 1.56 × 109 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

116) Potassium-40 decays to argon-40 with a half-life of 1.27 × 109 yr. The age of a mineral sample that has a mass ratio of 40Ar to 40K of 0.812 is ________ y. A) 1.56 × 109 B) 1.02 × 109 C) 1.47 × 109 D) 7.55 × 108 E) 1.09 × 109 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

117) If we start with 1.000 g of strontium-90, 0.908 g will remain after 4.00 y. This means that the of strontium-90 is ________ y. A) 3.05 B) 4.40 C) 28.7 D) 3.63 E) 41.6 Answer: C Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

118) If we start with 1.000 g of cobalt-60, 0.675 g will remain after 3.00 y. This means that the is ________ y. A) 3.08 B) 4.44 C) 2.03 D) 5.29 E) 7.65 Answer: D Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

119) A freshly prepared sample of curium-243 undergoes 3312 disintegrations per second. After 6.00 y., the activity of the sample declines to 2755 disintegrations per second. The of is ________ y. A) 4.99 B) 32.6 C) 7.21 D) 0.765 E) 22.6 Answer: E Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 10

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 26 Structures of Organic Compounds 1) A solid wedge line denotes a bond that sticks back behind the plane of the paper. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

2) Constitutional isomers have different bond connectivities, and as a consequence they have different skeletal structures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

3) Replacing the acidic hydrogen of a carboxylic acid with an organic group produces an amide. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

4) A conformation is a set of all possible optical isomers of an organic compound of a given molecular formula. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

5) Torsional or rotational energy is the difference in energy between the eclipsed and staggered conformations in alkane structure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

6) Cis-trans isomerism is a type of isomerism generally known as stereoisomerism. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

7) Different forms of isomerism in organic compounds can be summarized as follows: "Isomers can be constitutional or stereoisomers. Constitutional isomers are further divided in enantiomers and diastereomers." Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

8) When determining the priority of substituents is "A substituent atom of higher atomic number has higher priority over a substituent atom with lower atomic number." Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

9) In alkene nomenclature "trans" stands for "on the same side" while "cis" means "across." Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

10) Two structural features shared among all aromatic organic compounds are: 1) They all are flat, cyclic or linear molecules 2) They have a conjugated bonding system. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-6

11) In the rings of heterocyclic compounds we can find one or more atoms that are not carbon atoms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

12) The compound with formula C4H9N has two degrees of unsaturation. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-8

13) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Hydrocarbons are compounds of carbon and hydrogen. B) Skeletal isomerism is also called chain isomerism. C) Isomers have the same chemical formula but differ with respect to the arrangement of atoms. D) Saturated hydrocarbons have only single bonds connecting each atom. E) Organic compounds can be obtained only from living tissue. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Latin prefixes provide information on the numbers of C atoms in a chain. B) An alkane group used as a side chain group is called an alkyl group. C) Di, tri, and tetra can be used to designate the number of side chain groups. D) Positional isomers differ in the position on the main chain of the side chain group. E) Functional groups are distinctive groupings of one or more atoms. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

15) The IUPAC name of tert-butyl group is: A) 1,1-dimethylethyl B) 1,1-dimethylethane C) 1,2-dimethylethyl D) 1-methylpropyl E) 2-methylpropyl Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

16) What is the correct IUPAC name for the following structure?

A) 2-ethyl-3-methylheptane B) 3,5-dimethyloctane C) 4-methyl-6-ethylheptane D) 4,6-dimethyloctane E) 3,5-dimethyloctyl Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

17) Which of the following classes of organic compounds and their general structural formulas have been correctly matched? I) ester:

IV) carboxylic acid:

II) aldehyde:

V) amide:

III) ketone:

A) I), II), and V) B) II), III), and V) C) III), IV), and V) D) I), IV), and V) E) II), IV), and V) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

18) Find the structure for 2,3,5,7-tetramethyloctane A)

Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

19) How many primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbon atoms are there in the structure of 2,4,6-trimetylheptane? A) 5 primary, 2 secondary, 2 tertiary and 1 quaternary carbon atoms B) 5 primary, 3 secondary, 2 tertiary and 0 quaternary carbon atoms C) 4 primary, 4 secondary, 2 tertiary and 0 quaternary carbon atoms D) 4 primary, 2 secondary, 2 tertiary and 2 quaternary carbon atoms E) 5 primary, 2 secondary, 3 tertiary and 0 quaternary carbon atoms Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

20) Which compound is the lowest boiling? A) methane B) ethene C) ethane D) cyclopropane E) ethyne Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

21) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) In thermal cracking large hydrocarbon molecules are broken down into smaller molecules, ideally, molecules in the gasoline range. B) Reforming converts straight-chain hydrocarbons into branched-chain hydrocarbons. C) Branched-chain hydrocarbons have higher octane numbers. D) Alkylation is the joining of small hydrocarbon fragments to larger molecules. E) Engine knocking is caused by the smooth firing of gasoline. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

22) Define "conformation." A) Conformations are different arrangements of bonds in space. B) Conformations are different structural representations of the same molecule. C) Conformations are different spatial arrangements one structure can have. D) Conformations are two enantiomers. E) Conformations are all possible structural isomers for a given molecular formula. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

23) What are skew conformations? A) Skew conformations all possible conformations between the eclipsed and staggered extremes. B) Skew conformations in which linear molecules get twisted. C) Skew conformations are conformations that have the greatest energy. D) Skew conformations are conformations that have the lowest energy. E) Skew conformations are conformations that have the greatest energy barrier. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

24) Which of the following methods are used for the laboratory alkane synthesis? I) catalytic addition of hydrogen to multiple carbon - carbon bonds II) catalytic hydrogenation of aldehydes III) from halogenated hydrocarbons and sodium IV) from alkali metal salts of organic acids and alkali metal hydroxides V) dehydrohalogenation of organic halogen compounds A) I), II), and V) B) II), III), and V) C) I), III), and IV) D) II), III), and IV) E) III), IV) and V) Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

25) Reforming is: A) a process that joins low molecular mass hydrocarbons into higher molecular mass hydrocarbons B) a process that converts straight chain hydrocarbons to branched hydrocarbons C) a process that converts unsaturated organic compounds to saturated ones D) a process that breaks down high molecular mass hydrocarbons into low molecular mass hydrocarbons E) a process that converts branched hydrocarbons to straight chain hydrocarbons Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

26) Which of the following positions would result in the most stable molecule for a large group like tbutyl, -C(CH3)3? A) equatorial position in boat cyclohexane B) axial position in boat cyclohexane C) two or more of these answers are equally stable D) axial position in chair cyclohexane E) equatorial position in chair cyclohexane F) two or more of these answers are equally stable Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

27) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Axial H atoms are directed above and below the cyclohexane ring. B) A substitution reaction typically involves a functional group replacing a hydrogen atom on a chain or ring containing molecule. C) A free radical is a compound with an unpaired electron. D) LPG is linear polymerized gas. E) Unsaturated usually means a double, triple or delocalized electron system is present in the molecule. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

28) Which of the following represent two different chair forms of methylcyclohexane? A)

Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

29) Find the answer that has correct both the two structures of cis-1-isopropyl-4-methylcyclohexane and their relative stability (stability is indicated with ">" meaning "more stable than"). A)

Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

30) Which of the following structures represent the structure of trans-1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane? A)

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

31) Which of the following structures represents a structure of R isomer of 1-amino-2-propanol? A)

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

32) Which statements regarding chiral compounds are correct? I) "Chiral carbon" is synonymous with "asymmetric carbon." II) The presence of one chiral carbon in a structure results in two possible enantiomers. III) Two enantiomers can be interconverted without breaking any bonds. IV) Two chiral molecules are mirror images of each other. V) Two chiral molecules have significantly different chemical properties. A) II), III), and V) B) I), II), and IV) C) I), III), and IV) D) II), IV) and V) E) III), and V) Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

33) There are three rules for assigning priorities: Rule 1: A substituent atom of higher atomic number takes precedence over one of lower atomic number. Rule 2: If two substituent atoms attached to the stereocenter have the same priority, the atom on the right of a hydrogen atom bonded to chiral carbon is a substituent of higher priority. Rule 3: Double and triple bonds are treated as if they were single, and the atoms in them are duplicated or triplicated at each end by the particular atoms at the other end of the multiple bond. Which rule(s) is/are stated incorrectly? A) rule 2 B) rules 1 and 3 C) rule 3 D) rules 2 and 3 E) rules 1 and 2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

34) How many chiral carbon atoms can you find in the molecule below?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

35) How many chiral carbon atoms can you find in the molecule below?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

36) You found an organic compound containing chiral carbon atom with the following four substituents: HC≡C-, Cl-, O=C- and H2C=CH-. What would be the correct order of their priorities? A) HC≡C- > O=C- > Cl- > H2C=CHB) Cl- > HC≡C- > O=C- > H2C=CH-

C) Cl- > O=C- > HC≡C- > H2C=CHD) Cl- > O=C-> H2C=CH- > HC≡C-

E) O=C- > Cl- > HC≡C- > H2C=CHAnswer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

37) Give the name for CH3CH CHCH3. A) 3-butene B) 2-butene C) 2-propene D) 2-pentene E) 2-butane Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

38) Find the correct stereochemistries for the following four alkenes:

A) A is Z, B is Z, C is E, D is E B) A is Z, B is E, C is Z, D is E C) A is E, B is E, C is Z, D is E D) A is E, B is E, C is Z, D is Z E) A is Z, B is Z, C is E, D is Z Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

39) Choose the best configuration assignments for the three double bonds, labeled A, B and C, in the following compound:

A) A is E, B is E, and C is E B) A is E, B is E, and C is Z C) A is Z, B is Z, and C is E D) A is E, B is Z, and C is E E) A is Z, B is E, and C is Z Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

40) Why does benzene have a much higher boiling point (80 °C) than hexane (69 °C), even though they have the same number of carbons? A) Benzene has fewer hydrogens than hexane. B) Benzene is much more polar than hexane which enhances the attractive forces between molecules and raises the boiling point. C) Benzene is planar and has delocalized electron density which increases the attractive forces between molecules and raises the boiling point. D) Hexane has more Kekulé structures than benzene. E) Benzene can covalently bond to another benzene molecule which increases its boiling point. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-6

41) Can 1,3,5-hexatriene be considered an aromatic compound? Why do you think so? A) Yes, because it contains alternating double and single bonds. B) No, because the molecule is not a flat ring. C) Yes, because its double bonds contain 4n+2 electrons (n = 1). D) No, because the structure is not based on benzene ring. E) Yes, because the molecule has a delocalized π electron cloud. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-6

42) The terms ortho, meta and para are used to describe the substitution on benzene ring. What do they stand for? A) Ortho stands for two adjacent substituents, meta for two substituents with one carbon between them and para for two substituents with two carbon atoms between them. B) Ortho stands for two cis substituents, meta for two trans substituents and para for two opposite substituents. C) Ortho stands for two adjacent substituents, meta for two different adjacent substituents and para for two substituents with one carbon atoms between them. D) Ortho stands for two substituents with one carbon atom between them, meta for two substituents with two carbons between them and para for two substituents with three carbon atoms between them. E) Ortho stands for two substituents with two carbon atoms between them, meta for two substituents with three carbons between them and para for two substituents with four carbon atoms between them. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-6

43) CH3(C=O)CH3 is a(n): A) ether B) ketone C) ester D) aldehyde E) carboxylic acid Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

44) To produce an ether from methanol, one can use: A) reacting alkene with water in a presence of a strong mineral acid B) alcohol and concentrated H2SO4 C) KOH in alcohol D) Cu, heat E) reacting alcohol with sodium Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

45) The diol, ethylene glycol, is used extensively as an antifreeze additive in automobile radiators. What properties of ethylene glycol make it a good antifreeze? A) Ethylene glycol coats the radiator to prevent crystallization of ice at low temperatures. B) Ethylene glycol has a higher boiling point than water and is soluble in water. C) Ethylene glycol has a lower boiling point than water and is soluble in water. D) Ethylene glycol forms a film on the surface of the water to prevent ice formation in the radiator. E) Ethylene glycol will remain in the radiator after the water evaporates. This prevents freezing in cold climates. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

46) Which class of compounds is the least reactive? A) ethers B) alcohols C) ketones D) alkyl halides E) aldehydes Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

47) An alcohol of formula C3H8O in which there are only three different kinds of hydrogens is: A) 2-propanol B) 1-propanol C) cyclopropanol D) ethanol E) None of the above Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

48) Which methods can be used to prepare alcohols? I) addition of H2O to alkenes in the presence of H2SO4

II) reacting alkanes with a concentrated solution of CH3OH III) hydrolysis of alkyl halides IV) methanol can be prepared from CO(g) and H2(g) in the presence of a heterogeneous catalyst V) removing one oxygen atom from a carboxylic acid A) I), II) and IV) B) I), III), and IV) C) II), III), and V) D) I), II), and V) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

49) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 is an amine. B) CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 is an ether.

C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH is an alcohol. D)

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH is a ketone. E) CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2 is an alkene. Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

50) Provide names for compounds A, B and C:

A) A is 3-chloro-4-methylpentanal, B is meta-chlorophenol and C is 3-(2methylcyclohexyl)cyclopentanecarboxylic acid B) A is 3-chloro-4-methylpentanol, B is meta-chlorophenol and C is 3-(2methylcyclohexyl)cyclopentanecarboxylic acid C) A is 3-chloro-4-methylpentanal, B is ortho-chlorophenol and C is 3-(3methylcyclohexyl)cyclopentanecarboxylic acid D) A is 3-chloro-4-methylpentanone, B is meta-chlorophenol and C is 3-(2methylcyclohexyl)cyclopentanal E) A is 4-chloro-3-methylpentanal, B is para-chlorophenol and C is 3-(2methylcyclohexyl)cyclopentanecarboxylic acid Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

51) Which two simple functional groups make carboxyl group? A) aldehyde and keto groups B) aldehyde and hydroxyl groups C) keto and hydroxyl groups D) ester and hydroxyl groups E) ester and ether groups Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

52) Which class of compounds is most oxidized? A) alkanes B) alcohols C) carboxylic acids D) aldehydes E) ketones Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

53) What are heterocyclic compounds? A) They are cyclic compounds in which carbon has one or more substituents that are neither hydrogen or another carbon atom. B) They are cyclic compounds in which two or more carbon rings are connected by C-C bonds (for example biphenyl). C) They are cyclic compounds in which carbon ring is connected to another ring not containing carbon atoms. D) They are cyclic compounds in which one or more atoms are not carbon atoms. E) They are cyclic compounds that can have more than one stable conformation. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

54) Which of the following synthetic procedures are plausible? I) synthesis of esters from alcohols and acids II) synthesis of ethers from acids and alcohols III) synthesis of amides from acids and amines IV) synthesis of alcohols from alkanes and water V) synthesis of aldehydes from alcohols and oxidizing agents A) I), III), and IV) B) I), III), and V) C) II), III), and V) D) II), III), and IV) E) III), IV), and V) Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

55) Compound A easily reacts with water to give compound B. Compound B can be oxidized to produce compound C. Both B and C can be further oxidized to produce D. To which classes of organic compounds A, B, C and D most likely belong to, respectively? A) A is an alkane, B is an alcohol, C is an aldehyde and D is a carboxylic acid B) A is an alkene, B is an ether, C is an aldehyde and D is a carboxylic acid C) A is an alkene, B is an alcohol, C is a ketone and D is a carboxylic acid D) A is an alkene, B is an alcohol, C is an aldehyde and D is an ester E) A is an alkene, B is an alcohol, C is an aldehyde and D is a carboxylic acid Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

56) Calculate the degree of unsaturation for the following molecules: Molecule I: Molecule II:

C3H4 C5H10

Molecule III: C4H6

A) For molecule I the degree of unsaturation is 2, for molecule II the degree of unsaturation is 1 and for molecule III the degree of unsaturation is 1. B) For molecule I the degree of unsaturation is 2, for molecule II the degree of unsaturation is 0 and for molecule III the degree of unsaturation is 2. C) For molecule I the degree of unsaturation is 2, for molecule II the degree of unsaturation is 1 and for molecule III the degree of unsaturation is 2. D) For molecule I the degree of unsaturation is 2, for molecule II the degree of unsaturation is 2 and for molecule III the degree of unsaturation is 2. E) For molecule I the degree of unsaturation is 1, for molecule II the degree of unsaturation is 2 and for molecule III the degree of unsaturation is 1. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-8

57) What is the degree of unsaturation for the following compounds?

A) For A the degree of unsaturation is 1, for B is 6 and for C is 5. B) For A the degree of unsaturation is 1, for B is 5 and for C is 6. C) For A the degree of unsaturation is 0, for B is 6 and for C is 5. D) For A the degree of unsaturation is 1, for B is 6 and for C is 4. E) For A the degree of unsaturation is 1, for B is 4 and for C is 5. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-8

58) How many skeletal isomers for C6H14 can be drawn? A) 6 B) 3 C) 8 D) 5 E) 2 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

59) Name the functional groups in the molecule below:

A) ester, ether, amine, keto B) carboxyl, ether, amine, keto C) ester, ether, amine, aldehyde D) ester, ether, amide, aldehyde E) ester, carboxyl, amine, keto Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

60) What is the IUPAC name for the following molecule?

A) 2-bromo-4-isopropyl-3-methylbutane B) 2-bromo-3,5-dimethylhexane C) 3,5-dimethyl-2-bromohexane D) 2-bromo-3-methyl-4-propylbutane E) 2-bromo-5,5,3-trimethylpentane Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

61) C3H8O has how many skeletal isomers? A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

62) C4H10O has how many skeletal isomers? A) 11 B) 12 C) 8 D) 7 E) 6 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

63) How many different structural isomers are there of the compound dichlorobutane? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-1

64) Give the name for CH3CH2CHBrCH3. A) 2-bromobutane B) 3-bromobutane C) 2-bromopropane D) 3-bromopropane E) 3-bromylpentane Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

65) What are the possible positions for hydrogen on the chair conformation of cyclohexane? A) staggered and eclipsed B) axial and equatorial C) equatorial and apical D) longitudinal and latitudinal E) chair and boat Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

66) The burning of alkanes to produce carbon dioxide and water is known as what type of reaction? A) thermal cracking B) reforming C) radical substitution D) oxidation E) alkylation Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

67) Combustion of 493 mg of a hydrocarbon gave 1549 mg CO2 and 633.9 mg H2O. What is the molecular formula if the molecular weight is subsequently found to be 42? A) CO2 B) CH2 C) C6H12

D) C2H2O E) C3H6

Answer: E

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

68) Which of the following has the lowest melting point: cyclohexane, hexane, benzene? A) cyclohexane B) hexane C) benzene D) They have approximately the same melting point. E) There is not enough information to determine. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

69) Give the condensed structural formula for 3-bromopentane. A) CH3CH2CHBrCH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CHBrCH2CH2CH3 C) (CH3)3CHBrCH2CH3

D) CH3CH2CHBrCH2CH3 E) CH3CH2CBr3CH2CH3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-2

70) If an ethyl group is substituted for one hydrogen of cyclohexane, what would be the preferred position of that ethyl substituent on the ring? A) axial position B) equatorial position C) chair position D) boat position E) twist boat conformation Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-3

71) Which of the following compounds is(are) chiral?

A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

72) Which of the following compounds is(are) chiral?

A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) II and III Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

73) Which of the following chiral compounds is(are) S enantiomer(s)?

A) I B) II C) III D) I and II E) I and III Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

74) Which of the following chiral compounds is(are) R enantiomer(s)?

A) I B) II C) III D) II and III E) I and II Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

75) Are the following three pairs of structural formulas (pairs A, B, and C) representing identical molecules, conformers of the same molecule, or enantiomers?

A) A is a pair of identical molecules, B is a pair of diastereomers and C is a pair of conformers B) A and C are pairs of conformers, and B is a pair of enantiomers C) A is a pair of conformers, B is a pair of enantiomers and C is a pair of identical molecules D) A is a pair of identical molecules, B and C are pairs of enantiomers E) A and B are pairs of enantiomers, and C is a pair of conformers Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 24-4

76) Provide IUPAC names for the following compounds:

A) A is (3S)-3-bromo-2,3-dimethylpentane, B is (2S)-1,2-dibromopentane and C is (3R)-3-fluoro-3methylhexane B) A is (3R)-3-bromo-2,3-dimethylpentane, B is (2S)-1,2-dibromopentane and C is (3R)-3-fluoro-3methylhexane C) A is (3S)-3-bromo-2,3-dimethylpentane, B is (2R)-1,2-dibromopentane and C is (3R)-3-fluoro-3methylhexane D) A is (3S)-3-bromo-2,3-dimethylpentane, B is (2S)-1,2-dibromopentane and C is (3S)-3-fluoro-3methylhexane E) A is (3R)-3-bromo-2,3-dimethylpentane, B is (2S)-1,2-dibromopentane and C is (3S)-3-fluoro-3methylhexane Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-4

77) Give the condensed structural formula for 3-methyl-3-hexene. A) CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH=CHCH3 B) CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH=CHCH3 C) (CH3)3CCH=CHCH3

D) CH3CH2C(CH3)=CHCH2CH3 E) (CH3)6CCH2CH=CH2 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

78) What is the condensed structural formula for 2-pentyne? A) CH2 CHCH2CH2CH3 B) CH3C CCH2CH3 C) CH3CH CHCH2CH3 D) CH3C CCH3 E) CH3CH CCH2CH2CH3 Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

79) What is the complete systematic name for the following molecule?

A) 3-pentene B) 3-hexene C) cis-3-hexene D) trans-3-hexene E) cis-3-hexyne Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

80) Which of the following compounds is(are) E configuration(s)?

A) I B) II C) III D) I + II E) II + III Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

81) Which of the following compounds is(are) Z configuration(s)?

A) I B) II C) III D) I + II E) I + II + III Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-5

82) The two benzene substituents of the common analgesic shown below are considered in what relation to one another?

A) ortho B) para C) meta D) trans E) 1,3 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-6

83) Which of the following four molecules are aromatic?

A) A, C, D B) A, B, D C) B, D D) A, D E) B, C Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-6

84) Give the condensed structural formula for 2-butanone. A) HCOCH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH2CHO

C) HCOCH2CH2CHO D) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 E) CH3COCH2CH3 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

85) The common ether used in anesthesia has the IUPAC name ________. A) diethyl ether B) methyl ethyl ether C) methyl ether D) 2-butyl ether E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

86) Give the condensed structural formula for propanone. A) CH3COCH3 B) CH3CH2CHO

C) CH3OCH2CH3 D) CH3OCH3

E) CH3CH2CO Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

87) Give the name for CH3CH2CH2COCH2CH3. A) 4-hexanone B) 3-hexanone C) 3-butanone D) 3-hexanol E) 4-hexanoic acid Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

88) Give the name for (CH3)3CCHO. A) 2,2-dimethylpropanone B) 2-methylbutanol C) 1,1,1-trimethylethanol D) 2,2-dimethylpropanal E) ethylethanol Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

89) To produce an organic ester, one uses a carboxylic acid and a(n) ________. A) alkyl halide B) alkane C) alcohol D) aldehyde E) ketone Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

90) Give the name for HCOOH. A) methanone B) methanal C) ethanoic or acetic acid D) methanaldehyde E) methanoic or formic acid Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

91) Give the condensed structural formula for 2-methylpropanoic acid. A) (CH3)2CHCOOH B) (CH3)2CHCHO

C) (CH3)2CHCH2COOH D) (CH3)2COOH

E) CH3CH2COOH Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

92) Give the condensed structural formula for methyl butanoate. A) CH3COOCH2CH2CH2CH3 B) HCOOCH2CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2COOCH3

D) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOCH3 E) CH3CH2CH2COOH Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

93) What class of amine is found in the analgesic codeine (shown below)?

A) tertiary amine B) secondary amine C) aromatic amine D) quaternary amine E) dimethylamine Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

94) Which of the following is the most soluble in water?

A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

95) Name the following compound: CH3CH2NHCH3. A) aminopropane B) aminomethylethane C) methylaminoethane D) propylamine E) ethylmethylamine Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

96) Compounds I) to V) are all cyclic compounds. How many heterocyclic compounds are among them?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-7

97) How many noncyclic isomers including geometric isomers of C4H8 exist? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-8

98) Calculate the degree of unsaturation for the molecule below:

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 11 Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 26-8

99) Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon? A) 1-butyne B) cycloheptene C) 3-methylheptane D) 2-heptyne Answer: C Diff: 2

Type: MC

Var: 5

100) How many isomers are there for C5H12? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: A Diff: 3

Type: MC

Var: 5

101) Which one of the following molecules is the most polar? A) butane B) butanoic acid C) cyclohexane D) ethanol Answer: B Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 27 Reactions of Organic Compounds 1) In a substitution reaction an atom, an ion or a group in one molecule is replaced by another atom, ion or group. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-1

2) Molecules add across multiple bonds in another molecule in addition reactions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-1

3) Organic reactions in which atoms or groups that are bonded to adjacent carbon atoms are eliminated are called elimination reactions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-1

4) Nucleophiles are electron poor atoms, ions or groups. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

5) SN2 reactions are nucleophilic substitution reactions for which the rate determining step is bimolecular. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

6) Synthesis of alkanes from alkyl halides is a typical example of E2 reaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

7) Reactions between alkanes and HX compounds are typical examples of addition reactions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

8) Electrophilic substitution reactions are typical reactions of aromatic compounds. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

9) The alkanes are known for their reactivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

10) The step reaction polymerizations are fast polymerization reactions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

11) For which type of reaction is the following an example?

A) substitution B) elimination C) polymerization D) rearrangement E) addition Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-1

12) Which of the following trends in nucleophilicity are correct? I) Everything else being equal, a negatively charged nucleophile will react faster than a neutral one. II) Generally, species containing elements of high electronegativity are good nucleophiles. III) Anionic nucleophiles are more reactive in polar and aprotic solvents than in polar and protic solvents. IV) Generally, nucleophilicity is increasing with the increase in size of an atom. V) Bulky groups adjacent to the nucleophilic atom enhance the nucleophilicity and reactivity of the species. A) I), II), III), and V) B) II), III), IV) and V) C) I), II) and IV) D) II), III) and V) E) III), IV) and V) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

13) We can promote SN2 over SN1 reactions if we: I) use a substrate that gives a primary carbocation and not tertiary carbocation II) use a sterically hindered substrate III) use a polar protic solvent A) I) B) II) C) III) D) I) and III) E) II) and III) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

14) Arrange the following in the order of decreasing nucleophilicity: H2N-, HO-, HCOO-, CH3OA) H2N- > HO- > HCOO- > CH3OB) H2N- > CH3O- > HO- > HCOOC) H2N- > HO- > CH3O- > HCOOD) HO- > H2N- > CH3O- > HCOOE) CH3O- > HO- > H2N- > HCOOAnswer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

15) Arrange the following carbocations in order of decreasing stability:

A) A > B > C B) C > B > A C) B > C > A D) C > A > B E) B > A > C Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

16) Which of the following statements correctly describe SN2 and SN1 reactions? I)

SN2 reactions proceed with retention of configuration. II) SN1 reactions prefer polar protic solvents. III) SN1 reactions can produce racemic products.

IV) SN2 reactions are promoted in the presence of a substrate that produces a very stable carbocation. V) SN1 reactions have a unimolecular rate-determining step. A) I), II) and V) B) II), III), and IV) C) III), IV) and V) D) II), III) and V) E) I), III), and IV) Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

17) The following can be said about the reaction profile of an SN1 reaction: I) The rate determining step is the formation of a carbocation. II) The reaction profile has one transition state. III) The slow step is the first transition state. IV) The second step is attack of nuleophile on carbocation. V) The reaction proceeds in a polar aprotic solvent. A) I), III), and IV) B) I), II) and IV) C) II), III) and IV) D) I), II) and V) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

18) Find the combination of conditions that are the best for SN2 reactions. A) The substrate is a tertiary alkyl iodide, solvent is aprotic, polar and the nucleophile is a strong base. B) The substrate is a primary alkyl iodide, solvent is aprotic, polar and the nucleophile is a strong base. C) The substrate is a primary alkyl fluoride, solvent is protic, polar and the nucleophile is a strong base. D) The substrate is a primary alkyl iodide, solvent is non-polar and the nucleophile is a weak base. E) The substrate is a tertiary alkyl iodide, solvent is non-polar and the nucleophile is a strong base. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

19) Finish the sentence: "Elimination reactions... A) ...can follow two different mechanisms." B) ...do not compete with other reaction types." C) ...usually give a saturated product." D) ...always give only one product." E) ...have only one mechanistic path." Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

20) Which of the following steps can be found in E1 reaction mechanism? I) formation of a carbocation II) attack of the base and removal of a proton from carbocation III) attack of a nucleophile IV) formation of a carboanion A) I) and II) B) only II) C) I) and III) D) III) and IV) E) only III) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

21) Arrange the following alkenes according to their increasing stability:

A) A < B < C < D B) B < C < A < D C) B < A < C < D D) C < B < A < D E) C < A < B < D Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

22) Hyperconjugation is best described as: A) an interaction between the orbitals on a substrate and orbitals on a nucleophile B) an interaction between σ bonds and π network C) a resonance structure with separated charges D) an interaction between two π networks E) an electrostatic interaction between an electrophile and a nucleophile Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

23) What is the major product in the reaction between 2-bromo-3-methylbutane and KOtBu in ethanol? A)

Answer: C

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

24) The rate of E2 reaction between an alkyl halide RX and a base B is given by the following expression (k is a rate constant): A) k[RX] B) k[B] C) k[RX][B] D) k[RX]2 E) k[RX]2[B] Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

25) In which of the following reactions can alcohol participate? I) oxidation reactions II) elimination reactions III) amide synthesis IV) peptide synthesis V) ester synthesis A) I), III) and V) B) I), II) and V) C) II), III) and V) D) I), II) and IV) E) II), III) and IV) Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

26) What is a dehydration reaction? A) Dehydration is the elimination of water molecule from an alcohol molecule to produce alkene. B) A dehydration reaction is the removal of one equivalent of H2 from an alkane to produce alkene. C) A dehydration reaction is one of the steps in chain-reaction polymerization. D) A dehydration reaction is the removal of crystalline water. E) A dehydration reaction is the deprotonation of a substrate with a strong base in E2 mechanism. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

27) Which of the following roles can alcohols have in organic reactions? I) electrophile II) solvent III) base IV) substrate V) acid A) II), III) and IV) B) I), II), and III) C) I), III) and V) D) II), III) and V) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

28) What product would you expect to obtain from a reaction between one isomer of 3-methyl-1-pentanol and HI? A) a substitution product B) only one elimination product C) a substitution product with inversion of configuration D) two elimination products E) a racemic mixture of substitution products Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

29) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical reagent? A) Cl2 B) H2O

C) H2O and HCl D) HCl E) I2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

30) Markovnikof's rule predicts that when HBr is added to an unsymmetrical alkene or alkyne, the H atom will add to which carbon atom? A) the carbon with the fewest attached hydrogens B) the carbon with the Br C) the carbon with the most attached hydrogens D) the carbon next to the double or triple bond E) HBr does not react with unsymmetrical alkenes or alkynes Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

31) Which of the following could be added across carbon-carbon multiple bonds? I) H2SO4 II) H2

III) H2O IV) NO2 V) HBr A) II), III), and V) B) II), III), and IV) C) I), III), and V) D) I), III), and IV) E) I), II), and III) Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

32) From the following table select appropriate starting material and reagents required for the synthesis of 2-methyl-2-propanol (tert-butanol): Starting materials: A)

Reagents I) H2/Pt

II) H2O/ H2SO4

III) HBr

A) starting material B) and reactants II) B) starting material C) and reactants I) C) starting material A) and reactants II) D) starting material A) and reactants III) E) starting material B) and reactants I) Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

33) Which of the following steps would you expect to occur in the addition reaction mechanism? I) electrophilic attack on the unsaturated bond II) formation of carboanion III) formation of carbocation IV) nucleophilic attack on the carbocation V) elimination of a base A) I), III), and IV) B) I), II), and V) C) II), III) and IV) D) III), IV) and V) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

34) A hydrocarbon has a molecular weight 56 g/mol and contains 85.7% carbon. It easily adds one mol of HBr to produce a chiral alkyl bromide. Which of the following structures could be the hydrocarbon? A)

E) Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

35) Which of the following groups is a meta director during electrophilic aromatic substitution? A) -NH2 B) -OCH3

C) -Br D) -C≡N E) -OCOC2H5 Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

36) Find a group that is a ortho,para director in electrophilic aromatic substitution. A) -NO2 B) -SO3H C) -OH D) -COOH E) -COOCH3 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

37) What is arenium ion? A) a carbocation formed after the electrophilic attack on the benzene ring B) a carbocation formed from a molecule containing an arene ring C) a carbocation formed during the elimination reaction from an aromatic molecule D) a carboanion formed from deprotonation of benzene ring E) a carboanion formed after nucleophilic attack on the benzene ring Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

38) During the nitration of a benzene ring in a mixture of HNO3 and H2SO4 the following species reacts as an electrophile: A) H3O+ B) H3SO4+ C) H2NO3+ D) H+

E) NO2+ Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

39) Which of the following compounds could be used as catalysts in halogenation of benzene? I) AlCl3 II) NaCl III) FeBr3

IV) MgCl2 V) PbCl2 A) I) and V) B) II) and III) C) II) and IV) D) I) and III) E) III) and V) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

40) Which of the following mechanistic steps do you expect in bromination of benzene with Br2 and FeBr3 as a catalyst? I)

formation of Br+[FeBr4]-

II) attack of [FeBr4]- on benzene ring III) formation of arenium ion IV) deprotonation of arenium ion V) nucleophilic attack of Br+ A) I), III), and IV) B) I), II), and IV) C) II), III), and V) D) III), IV), and V) E) II), IV), and V) Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

41) Nitration of aromatic compound I with HNO3/H2SO4 theoretically can give four different products (A - D). In your opinion, which one(s) is(are) formed? Compound I:

Possible products:

A) products A and C B) products A and D C) only product B D) products C and D E) only product C Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

42) The chlorination of benzaldehyde is producing: A) m-chlorobenzaldehyde B) a mixture of o and p- chlorobenzaldehyde C) o -chlorobenzaldehyde D) p-chlorobenzaldehyde E) a mixture of m- and p-chlorobenzaldehyde Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

43) H3C· + ·Cl → H3C—Cl is an example of: A) polymerization B) neutralization reaction C) termination step in alkane chlorination D) addition reaction E) reforming reaction Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

44) Arrange the following radicals in the order of increasing stability:

A) B < A < C B) C < A < B C) A < B < C D) C < B < A E) B < C < A Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

45) Which of the following steps are a part of chain reaction during alkane substitution? I) propagation II) initiation III) competition IV) dehalogenation V) termination A) I), II) and V) B) I), III) and V) C) II), III) and V) D) I), II) and IV) E) III), IV) and V) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

46) The initiation step in chain reaction for alkene substitution produces: A) free halogen radicals B) free alkyl radicals C) both free halogen and alkyl radicals D) free halonium ions E) free halide ions Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

47) Chain reaction polymerization is typical for: A) monomers with carbon-carbon double bonds B) monomers with carbon oxygen double bonds C) monomers containing aromatic rings D) monomeric alkanes E) monomeric alcohols Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

48) What are the three characteristic steps in a chain-reaction polymerization? A) initiation, elongation and termination B) initiation, propagation and termination C) racemization, propagation and quenching D) propagation, formation and termination E) breaking, elongation and quenching Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

49) Which of the following statements correctly describe the step-reaction polymerization? I) It is also called condensation polymerization. II) It produces polymers of moderately high molecular masses. III) It requires that monomers have functional groups that can join together. IV) This type of polymerization is fast. V) It is accompanied with the addition of a small molecule. A) I), II) and III) B) I), and II) C) II), III) and IV) D) III), IV) and V) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

50) The physical properties of polymers depend on: I) the average molecular mass of a chain II) the strength of intermolecular forces between the chains III) the reaction temperature applied during synthesis IV) the degree of crystallinity V) the reaction pressure A) I), II), and IV) B) II), III), and IV) C) I), II), and V) D) III), IV), and V) E) II), IV), and V) Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

51) Classify the following polymers as atactic, isotactic or syndiotactic:

A) Polymer A is isotactic, polymer B is atactic and polymer C is syndiotactic. B) Polymer A is atactic, polymer B is isotactic and polymer C is syndiotactic. C) Polymers A and B are isotactic and polymer C is syndiotactic. D) Polymer A is isotactic and polymers B and C is syndiotactic. E) Polymer A is syndiotactic, polymer B is isotactic and polymer C is atactic. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

52) Which type of polymerization and which monomer(s) would you use to prepare poly(1,4phenylenediformamide) with the following structure?

with chain reaction polymerization B)

with condensation polymerization C)

with chain reaction polymerization

with step-reaction polymerization E)

with chain reaction polymerization Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

53) Suggest possible compounds for A and B in the following scheme: CH3CH2I + A → CH3CH2SH + B A) A is HS- and B is IB) A is H2S and B is I2 C) A is H2S and B is HI D) A is S2- and B is I-

E) A is H2S and B is IAnswer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-9

54) Suggest possible compounds for A, B and C in the following scheme:

A) A is Cl2, B is AlCl3 and C is meta chloronitrobenzene B) A is Cl2, B is FeCl3 and C is ortho chloronitrobenzene C) A is Cl2, B is FeBr3 and C is meta chloronitrobenzene D) A is HCl, B is AlCl3 and C is para chloronitrobenzene E) A is Cl2, B is AlBr3 and C is meta chloronitrobenzene Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-9

55) What is "retrosynthesis"? A) a chemical analysis followed by chemical synthesis B) a chemical synthesis followed by chemical analysis C) a synthetic procedure designed to check old synthetic procedure D) a synthetic strategy that works from the desired compound towards starting materials E) a synthetic strategy that works from the starting materials towards desired product Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-9

56) Which of the following are nucleophiles? I. CH3COCH3

II. CH3Br

III. CH3CH2C≡C-

A) I B) II C) III D) I + II E) I + III Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

57) Which of the following are electrophiles? I. CH3CH2NH2

II. Br+

III. CH3OH

A) I B) II C) III D) I + II E) I + III Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

58) What is the rate law for the SN1 reactions (S is substrate and N is nucleophile)? A) rate = k[S][N] B) rate = k[S] C) rate = k[N] D) rate = k[S]2

E) rate = k[S][N]2 Answer: B

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

59) Predict the product and mechanism type for the following reaction:

SN2 mechanism B)

SN2 mechanism C)

SN1 mechanism D)

SN1 mechanism E)

SN1 mechanism Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

60) Identify the product(s) and mechanism for the following reaction:

SN1 mechanism B)

SN2 mechanism C)

SN1 mechanism D)

SN2 mechanism E)

SN2 mechanism

Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

61) The formation of isopropanol (rubbing alcohol) through the following hydrolysis is known as what type of general reaction?

A) oxidation B) aromatic substitution C) addition reaction D) elimination E) substitution reaction Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

62) Complete the following reaction: NH3 + CH3Br → A) CH4 + NH2Br

B) CH2=NH + H2 + HBr C) CH3NH2 + NH4+BrD) CH3NH3+BrE) There is no reaction. Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

63) Order the following substrates according to the increase in SN2 reaction rate: (CH3)2CHBr, (CH3)3CBr, CH3CH2Br, CH3Br A) (CH3)2CHBr < (CH3)3CBr < CH3CH2Br < CH3Br B) (CH3)3CBr < (CH3)2CHBr < CH3CH2Br < CH3Br

C) (CH3)3CBr < (CH3)2CHBr < CH3Br < CH3CH2Br D) (CH3)3CBr < CH3CH2Br < (CH3)2CHBr < CH3Br

E) CH3CH2Br < (CH3)3CBr < (CH3)2CHBr < CH3Br Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-2

64) Identify the product for the following reaction:

A) 3-methyl-1-pentene B) 3-methyl-2-pentene C) 3-methyl-1-pentane D) 3-methyl-1-tert-butylpentante E) 3-methylpentane Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

65) Write down the rate law for E1 reactions (S is a substrate and B is a base). A) rate = k[S] B) rate = k[S][B] C) rate = k[B] D) rate = k[S]2 E) rate = k[S]1/2 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

66) What is the major product in the following transformation?

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

67) Which are the most probable reactions and mechanisms in which tertiary haloalkanes participate? I) Substitution, SN1 II)

Substitution SN2

III) Elimination E1 IV) Elimination E2 V) Addition A) II), III) and IV) B) I), IV) and V) C) II), III) and V) D) I), III) and IV) E) III), IV), V) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

68) When (CH3)3CBr reacts with CH3ONa in methanol, two products are formed: a major one is an alkene and minor one is an ether. Identify the two products and by what mechanism(s) they are formed? A)

Answer: B

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

69) Give the correct mathematical expression for the rate law for E2 reactions (S is a substrate and B is a base). A) rate = k[S] B) rate = k[B] C) rate = k[S][B] D) rate = k[S]1/2 E) rate = k[S]2 Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 25-3

70) What alkene(s) would be produced in the following reaction?

A) 3-methyl-2-pentene B) 2-methyl-2-butene C) 3-methylbutene D) pentene and 1-methylpentene E) 2-methyl-2-butene and 3-methylbutene Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

71) Which of the following alcohols can eliminate water to produce alkene? I) phenol II) HOC(CH3)3 III) HOCH(CH3)2 A) II) and III) B) I), II) and III) C) III) only D) I) and II) E) II) only Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

72) The common general anesthetic neothyl can be produced by the following dehydration reaction. What is the systematic name of neothyl? CH3CH2CH2OH + CH3OH

A) propanone B) propanal C) methyl propanoate D) methyl propyl ether E) ethyl methyl ether Answer: D

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

73) Oxidation of the following alcohol via the conditions below yields spearmint oil. What new functional group is formed in the reaction to yield spearmint?

A) aldehyde B) carboxylic acid C) ketone D) amine E) ester Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-4

74) Give the product(s) of the reaction: CH2 CHCH3 + HCl → product(s) A) CH3CH2CH3 + H2 B) CH2ClCHClCH3 + H2 C) CH3CHClCH3

D) CH2ClCH2CH3 E) none of these Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

75) Give the product(s) of the reaction (in H2SO4) : CH2 CHCH3 + H2O → product(s) A) CH2OHCH(OH)CH3 B) CH2OHCH2CH3

C) CH2OHCHOHCH3 + H2 D) CH3CH2CH3 + H2O2 E) CH3CH(OH)CH3 Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

76) Predict the major product for the reaction: 1-butene + HI → A) CH2ICH2CH2CH3 B) CH2ICH=CHCH3 C) CH2=CICH2CH3

D) CH3CHICH2CH3 E) CH3CI2CH2CH3 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

77) Predict the major product for the reaction: 2-methyl-2-pentene + HCl → A) (CH3)2CHCHClCH2CH3 B) CH2=C(CH3)CHClCH2CH3 C) (CH3)2CClCCl=CHCH3

D) (CH3)2CClCH2CH2CH3 E) no reaction Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

78) Predict the major product for the reaction: 2-methyl-2-butene + HBr → A) (CH3)2CBrCH2CH3 B) (CH3)2CBrCH=CH2

C) (CH3)2CHCHBrCH3

D) CH2=C(CH3)CH2CH3 E) no reaction Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

79) Predict the major product for the reaction: CH3C≡CH + 2 HBr → A) CH3CBr2CH3

B) CH3CH2CHBr2

C) CH3CHBrCH2Br D) CH2=CBrCH2Br E) no reaction Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

80) Lindlar's catalyst is used when ________. A) we want to reduce alkynes to alkanes B) we want to speed up HX addition reactions C) we have to promote elimination reactions over substitution reactions D) we need to activate Pd hydrogenation catalyst E) we want to reduce alkynes to Z alkenes Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

81) What is the main product of the following reaction?

A) 1-bromopropane B) 2-bromopropane C) propyl alcohol D) 2-bromopropene E) 1-bromo-2-methylethane Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-5

82) Suggest reagents for the synthesis of meta-chloronitrobenzene from nitrobenzene. A) Cl2 and AlCl3 B) HCl and AlCl3

C) Cl2 and H2SO4 D) HCl and HNO3 E) Cl2 and FeBr3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

83) Which of the following groups would be ortho, para directors in electrophilic aromatic substitution? I) -CN II) -SO3H III) -NH2 IV) -OH V) -Br A) III), IV), and V) B) II), III),and V) C) I), III), and IV) D) I), II) and IV) E) II), IV) and V) Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

84) Identify substituents that are meta directors in electrophilic aromatic substitution. I) -OR II) -NO2 III) -OCOCH3 IV) -CHO V) -COOH A) I), II) and V) B) III), IV), and V) C) I), IV), and V) D) II), IV), and V) E) I), III), and V) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

85) Which of the four positions 1-4 marked on the structure of aromatic compound shown below would be preferentially substituted in an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction?

A) 4 only B) 2 and 4 C) 2 only D) 1 and 3 E) 3 only Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

86) What is(are) the main product(s) of the following chlorination reaction?

A) 3-chloro-5-cyanobenzaldehyde B) 2, 6-dichloro-3-cyanobenzaldehyde C) 2-chloro-3-cyanobenzaldehyde D) 2-chloro-3-cyanobenzaldehyde and 2-chloro-5-cyanobenzaldehyde E) None of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

87) Predict major products for chlorination of the following three aromatic compounds:

Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

88) Predict major products for the following three reactions: I) nitration of bromobenzene II) bromination of nitrobenzene III) bromination of aniline (aminobenzene) A) Reaction I) gives ortho-bromonitrobenzene Reaction II) gives meta-bromonitrobenzene Reaction III) gives para-bromoaniline (para-aminobromobenzene) B) Reaction I) gives ortho-bromonitrobenzene and para-bromonitrobenzene Reaction II) gives meta-bromonitrobenzene Reaction III) gives ortho-bromoaniline (ortho-aminobromobenzene) and para-bromoaniline (paraaminobromobenzene) C) Reaction I) gives meta-bromonitrobenzene Reaction II) gives ortho-bromonitrobenzene and para-bromonitrobenzene Reaction III) gives ortho-bromoaniline (ortho-aminobromobenzene) and para-bromoaniline (paraaminobromobenzene) D) Reaction I) gives meta-bromonitrobenzene Reaction II) gives ortho-bromonitrobenzene and para-bromonitrobenzene Reaction III) gives meta-bromoaniline (meta-aminobromobenzene) E) Reaction I) gives 1,3-bromonitrobenzene Reaction II) gives 1,2-bromonitrobenzene and 1,4-bromonitrobenzene Reaction III) gives 1,2-aminobromobenzene and 1,4-aminobromobenzene Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-6

89) Classify the following reaction steps as initiation, propagation or termination. A: Br-Br → 2 Br· B: H3CH2C· + Br· → CH3CH2Br C: 2 H3CH2C· → CH3CH2CH2CH3 A) Step A is initiation and steps B and C are propagation B) Steps A and B are initiation and step C is termination C) Step A is initiation, step B is termination and step C is propagation D) Step A is initiation, step B is propagation and step C is termination E) Step A is initiation and steps B and C are termination Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

90) How many monobromo derivatives can be obtained from A) CH3CH3 and B) (CH3)3CH? A) Alkane A) gives one and alkane B) gives two. B) Alkane A) gives two and alkane B) gives two. C) Alkane A) gives one and alkane B) gives three. D) Alkane A) gives two and alkane B) gives three. E) Both alkane A) and B) give one. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-7

91) Which of the following steps can be found in any of the polymerization mechanisms you learned? I) initiation II) condensation III) propagation IV) dehydrohalogenation V) rearrangement A) I), III), V) B) II), III) and IV) C) III), IV), and V) D) I), II), and III) E) II), III), and V) Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

92) What type of polymerization reaction occurred to produce the following polymer?

A) step-reaction polymerization B) elimination reaction C) chain-reaction polymerization D) condensation polymerization E) propagation polymerization Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

93) What type of polymerization reaction occurred to produce the following polymer?

A) addition polymerization B) elimination reaction C) chain-reaction polymerization D) condensation polymerization E) propagation polymerization Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

94) What is the difference between atactic polymer and isotactic polymer? A) Atactic polymer has an irregular structure while in isotactic polymer identical functional groups have the same orientation on the polymer chain. B) Atactic polymer has a regular zig-zag structure while in isotactic polymer identical functional groups have the same orientation on the polymer chain. C) Atactic polymer has the same functional groups on one side of the polymer structure while in isotactic polymer has random distribution of functional groups in its structure. D) Atactic polymer has an irregular structure while in isotactic polymer identical functional alternate back and forth along the polymer chain. E) Atactic polymer has identical functional groups alternating back and forth along the polymer chain while in isotactic polymer identical functional groups have the same orientation on the polymer chain. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-8

95) Which reagents would you choose to carry out the following transformations? I)

II)

III) A) Reaction I use KOtBu Reaction II use MeOH Reaction III use NaOCH(CH3)2 B) Reaction I use NaOMe Reaction II use MeOH Reaction III use NaOC(CH3)3 C) Reaction I use NaOMe Reaction II use MeOH Reaction III use NaOMe D) Reaction I use KOtBu

Reaction II use HC(=O)H Reaction III use NaOCH(CH3)2 E) Reaction I use KOtBu Reaction II use Na2Cr2O7 or K2Cr2O7 Reaction III use NaOCH(CH3)2 Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-9

96) Which reagents would you use for the following transformations?

A) First H2O/H3O+ then conc. H2SO4 B) First H2O/H3O+ then conc. HCl C) First OH- then conc. H2SO4 D) First OH- then conc. HCl E) First H2O/H3O+ then dilute H2SO4 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-9

97) You need to substitute one hydrogen with bromine on an aromatic ring. What reagents do you use? A) HBr and FeBr3 as catalyst B) Br2 and heat

C) Br2 and FeBr3 as catalyst D) a mixture of HBr and conc. H2SO4 E) Br2 and radiation (hυ) Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-9

General Chemistry, 11e (Petrucci) Chapter 28 Chemistry of the Living State 1) The cell is the fundamental unit of all life. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-1

2) All of the known elements occur in measurable amounts in the human body. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-1

3) Lipids are those constituents of plant and animal tissue that are soluble in very polar solvents. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

4) Fats and oils differ in the nature of the acid components in the triglycerides. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

5) Diastereomers have the same chemical and physical properties. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

6) Enantiomers have the same chemical and physical properties. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

7) Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

8) Proteins are made up of 40 amino acids. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

9) Metabolic reactions in which substances are broken down are referred to as anabolism. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

10) The fundamental agents involved in energy transfer are adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate(ATP). Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

11) DNA contains the sugar ribose. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

12) In DNA, guanine always pairs with cytosine. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Type: TF Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

13) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) About 50 elements occur in measurable concentrations in living matter. B) About 25 elements have functions that are definitely known. C) Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen account for 96% of human body mass. D) Water is the most abundant compound in most living organisms. E) Mitochondria make up the nucleus of a cell. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-1

14) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Tissues are the fundamental unit of all life. B) Tissues group into organs. C) Organs combine into organ systems. D) A nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts are components of cells. E) Living tissue is synthesized from simple precursors: N2, H2O, CO2. Answer: A

Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-1

15) Triglycerides are composed of which two compounds linked through an ester functionality? A) glycerol and long chain monoalcohols B) glycine and carboxylic acids C) glycerol and long-chain monocarboxylic acids D) lauric acid and glucose E) ethylene glycol and dicarboxylic acids Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

16) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Fats become rancid when they hydrolyze and cleave at the double bonds by oxidation. B) Antioxidants retard oxidative rancidity of fats. C) Medical studies correlate a high intake of saturated fats and coronary heart disease. D) Healthy diets call for the substitution of saturated fatty acids with unsaturated fatty acids in foods. E) In general, mammal fats are unsaturated. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

17) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Lipids are hydrocarbons with basic properties. B) The acyl groups of triglycerides are fatty acids. C) A mixed triglyceride has different acyl groups. D) Lipids are constituents of plant and animal tissues that are soluble in solvents of low polarity. E) Triglycerides are esters of glycerol with long-chain monocarboxylic acids. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

18) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) When the long chain monocarboxylic acids are removed from a triglyceride they are called fatty acids. B) Saturated fatty acids have multiple double bonds. C) Triglycerides can be hydrolyzed in alkaline solution to glycerol and salts of fatty acids. D) Salts of fatty acids are called soaps. E) The hydrolysis of triglycerides is called saponification. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

19) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Triglycerides are glyceryl esters. B) Fats and oils are glyceryl esters. C) Oils have predominately saturated acid components. D) Oils are liquid at room temperature. E) Pure fats and oils are colorless, odorless and tasteless. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

20) A glycerol ester of unsaturated fatty acids best describes a(n): A) vegetable oil B) vegetable starch C) animal fat D) lipid E) wax Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

21) Which of the following readily dissolve in nonpolar solvents? A) proteins B) nucleic acids C) glycine D) lipids E) enzymes Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

22) Which of the following fatty acids is unsaturated? A) palmitic acid B) oleic acid C) myristic acid D) stearic acid Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

23) Saponification of 1 mole of glyceryl dibutyrooleate with excess potassium hydroxide would yield which of the following products? A) 2 moles of potassium butyrate, 1 mole of potassium oleate B) 1 mole of glycerol, 1 mole of potassium oleate, 2 moles of potassium butyrate C) 2 moles of potassium butyrate D) 1 mole of glycerol, 2 moles of butyraldehyde, 1 mole of olealdehyde E) 1 mole of glycerol, 1 mole of potassium decanoate, 2 moles of potassium butyrate Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

24) A typical E. coli bacterium is a cylindrical cell about 2 µm long and 1 µm in diameter, weighing about 1.8 × 10-12 g and containing 80% water by volume. Calculate the number of lipid molecules present, assuming their average molecular weight is 688 g/mol and the lipid content is 1.9%. A) 8.3 × 1010 B) 2.1 × 1010 C) 2.4 × 107 D) 1.6 × 109 E) 3.0 × 107 Answer: E

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

25) Enantiomers ALWAYS: A) have an asymmetric carbon B) have different physical properties C) change the color of light D) rotate polarized light E) have different chemical properties Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

26) Which of the following is a polysaccharide? A) ribose B) fructose C) glucose D) glycogen E) pentose Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

27) Compounds which are optical isomers of one another but differ in physical and chemical properties are known as what? A) geometric isomers B) enantiomers C) racemic compounds D) allotropes E) diastereomers Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

28) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Unsaturation in a fat or oil can be removed by hydrogenation. B) Unsaturation can be removed by the catalytic addition of hydrogen. C) Removing unsaturation raises the melting point of the fat or oil. D) Margarines are oils, fortified with color. E) Fats and oils become rancid when exposed to heat, air, and light. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

29) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The simplest carbohydrates are the oligosaccharides. B) Mono- and oligosaccharides are called sugars. C) Polysaccharides contain more than 10 monosaccharide units. D) Starch and cellulose are polysaccharides. E) The general term for all carbohydrates is glycoses. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

30) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Two molecules that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of one another are optical isomers. B) Enantiomers are molecules that are mirror images of one another which are superimposable. C) A dextrorotatory isomer rotates plane polarized light to the right. D) Optical isomers generally have one carbon with 4 different groups attached to it. E) A carbon atom with 4 different groups attached to it is called a chiral center. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

31) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A levorotatory isomer rotates plane polarized light to the left. B) A chiral atom is said to be asymmetric. C) The absolute configuration is the arrangement of atoms as determined by X-ray studies. D) Molecules that are optically active isomers but not mirror images are diastereomers. E) Enantiomer properties differ only in the direction they rotate plane polarized light. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

32) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) A 50/50 mixture of two enantiomers is a racemic mixture. B) A racemic mixture will not rotate plane polarized light. C) Separating the optical isomers is called resolution. D) Dextrorotatory optical isomers are designated as (-). E) Molecules that will rotate plane polarized light are optically active. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

33) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Glucose, galactose and mannose exist in straight-chain and in ring structures. B) Two monosaccharides combine by losing a water molecule to form a disaccharide. C) The important natural disaccharides are maltose, cellobiose, lactose and sucrose. D) Glycogen is the reserve carbohydrate of animals. E) Glycogen cannot be broken down by human digestion. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

34) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Glycogen is the main structural material of plants. B) Carbohydrates are produced in plants by the photosynthesis reaction. C) Oligosaccharides contain 2 to 10 monosaccharide units. D) Polysaccharides contain more than 10 monosaccharide units. E) Monosaccharides contain one saccharide unit. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 27-3

35) Which of the following do humans have difficulty digesting? A) cellulose B) proteins C) vegetable oils D) vegetable starch E) animal fats Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

36) Choose the correct statement. A) Fructose is a pentose. B) All sugars have oxygen and are good oxidizing agents. C) Reducing sugars don't open into the straight chain form. D) Sucrose is a disaccharide. E) Ribose and deoxyribose are hexoses. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

37) Which of the following is a monosaccharide? A) glycogen B) animal fat C) cellulose D) starch E) sucrose Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

38) Choose the molecule which may display optical isomerism. A) CH2OH-CH(OH)-CH2OH B) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 C) NH3CH2COOH D)

CH3(CH2)16COH E) O HOCH2CH2CH Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

39) Which molecule is optically active? A) 2-chlorobutane B) 1-chlorobutane C) trans-propene D) cis-propene Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

40) Which of the following contains less than six carbon atoms? A) deoxyribose B) glucose C) aldohexose D) methylcyclopentane E) benzene Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

41) What is the common name of the following glycose shown in Fischer notation?

A) D-glyceraldehyde B) L-glyceraldehyde C) S-glyceraldehyde D) (-)-glyceraldehyde E) D-erythrose Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

42) Which of the following compounds may display the property of optical isomerism? A) 3-pentanol B) 2-pentene C) 2-bromopropane D) 2-bromobutane E) acetone Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

43) Choose the INCORRECT prediction. By careful inspection of the formula of lactic acid, CH3CH(OH)COOH, one would predict: A) Molecules should have two forms. These forms are mirror images of one another. B) Molecule should show cis and trans isomerism. C) Molecule should have a chiral carbon atom. D) Molecule should show optical isomerism. E) Molecule should show acidic properties. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

44) Cellulose and starch are both polymers of glucose units, but most animals can only use starch as a source of carbohydrate in their diets. Why are most animals incapable of digesting cellulose? A) Starch contains α linkages between carbons 1 and 4, where as cellulose contains β linkages between carbons 1 and 2. B) The glucose units of cellulose are in the open chain form and cannot be hydrolyzed by the cyclic-sugar specific enzymes of animals. C) The polymer of cellulose is simply too long to be completely digested by animals. D) Most animals do not produce enzymes which are capable of hydrolyzing β linkages between cellulose. E) This statement is incorrect. Most animals can digest cellulose. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

45) Which of the following is unimportant for tertiary structure of the proteins? A) peptide bonds B) salt linkages C) hydrogen bonding D) disulfide linkages Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

46) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Peptides are amino acids joined by a peptide bond. B) A tripeptide has three peptide bonds. C) A protein is hydrolyzed to a mixture of α-amino acids. D) An α-amino acid is a carboxylic acid with an amine group on the α carbon atom. E) Proteins are a polymer of amino acid units. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

47) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Proteins make up the bulk of the body's nonskeletal structure. B) Enzymes are carbohydrates which speed up reactions. C) Except glycine, naturally occurring amino acids are optically active. D) Essential amino acids are necessary for proper health and growth. E) Essential amino acids must be ingested through foods because the body is unable to synthesize them. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

48) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) Amino acids can exist as dipolar ions. B) Dipolar ions are also called zwitterion. C) Isoelectric point is the pH at which an amino acid becomes a cation. D) Two amino acids joined by the elimination of a water molecule is a dipeptide. E) A large polypeptide of more than 10,000 u is called a protein. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

49) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The bond between amino acids is called a peptide bond. B) There are four levels of structure in a protein. C) Primary structure is the linear sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. D) Secondary structure is the bonding of more than one protein together. E) Enzymes are biological catalysts that contain protein. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

50) Which of the following examples of protein structure would be classified as the tertiary structure of a protein? A) β-pleated sheet B) gly-leu-trp-lys-lys-arg-met C) three identical subunits D) an elongated α-helix between two β-pleated sheets E) amorphous, globular peptide Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

51) Which of the following is an aromatic amino acid? A) leucine B) tryptophan C) arginine D) cysteine E) alanine Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

52) Which of the following is a basic amino acid? A) alanine B) cysteine C) lysine D) aspartic acid E) glycine Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

53) Glycine is a(n): A) nucleic acid B) optically active compound C) carbohydrate D) amino acid E) lipid Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

54) Which of the following are unimportant for tertiary structure of the proteins? A) salt linkage B) disulfide bonds C) hydrophobic interactions D) van der Waals forces E) hydrogen bonding Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

55) Amino acids are joined into proteins by: A) a 3'-5' linkage B) a beta 1-4 linkage C) DNA D) an ester E) peptide bonds Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

56) The R group CH2C6H5 belongs to which amino acid? A) aspartic acid B) phenylalanine C) cysteine D) tyrosine E) arginine Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

57) The R group CH2SH belongs to which amino acid? A) aspartic acid B) phenylalanine C) cysteine D) tyrosine E) arginine Answer: C

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

58) At the isoelectric point, an amino acid has what charges? A) + and B) none C) + only D) - only E) multiple charges Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

59) The R group -CH3 belongs to which amino acid? A) glycine B) lysine C) proline D) alanine E) histidine Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

60) Salt linkages: A) occur between acidic and basic R groups B) join two halves of cysteine C) occur between purine and pyrimidine bases D) occur in sugars E) connect the cell with the environment Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

61) The molecule on which an enzyme acts is commonly referred to as: A) reactant B) substrate C) metabolites D) active site E) coenzyme Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

62) Choose the INCORRECT statement about metabolism. A) Catabolism is when substances are broken down. B) Anabolism is the derivation of energy from substances. C) Metabolites are substances involved in metabolism. D) Endergonic reactions are nonspontaneous. E) Metabolism is the totality of an organism deriving energy from matter and excreting excess. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

63) Find a mismatch enzyme - substrate pair. A) amylases - starch B) amylase - polysaccharides C) lipase - fats and oils D) pepsin - diglycerides E) trypsin and chymotrypsin - polypeptides Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

64) Living cells are unable to convert glucose-6P into which of the following? A) glycogen B) glucose C) coenzyme A D) polysaccharide stored in liver E) it may be metabolized Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

65) By definition, exergonic reaction has: A) ΔG= positive value B) ΔG= negative value C) ΔH= positive value D) ΔH= negative value E) ΔS= positive value Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

66) Find a mismatch in the following body part - food metabolism pairs: A) mouth - starch B) small intestine - polysaccharides C) small intestine - fats and oils D) stomach - proteins E) stomach - small peptides Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

67) Which of the following represents an INCORRECT breakdown sequence for that food? A) carbohydrates - polysaccharides - coenzyme A B) starch - maltose and dextrins - maltose - glucose C) protein - polypeptides - small peptides - amino acids D) fats and oils - glycerol, glycerides, and fatty acids - fatty acids to CO2 and water E) fats and oils - glycerol, glycerides, and fatty acids - glycerol to triose phosphate Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

68) Apart from bringing the reactants close together, how does the binding of substrates in the active site of the enzyme serve to catalyze a reaction? A) Binding lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) Enzymes provide energy upon substrate binding to drive the reaction. C) Binding of the substrate maintains the optimal temperature for the reaction. D) Binding maintains the optimal pH for enzyme activity. E) Binding lowers the energy of the products increasing the reaction rate. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

69) Many insecticides contain compounds which inhibit the enzyme acetylcholine esterase which is essential for respiration and other vital functions in insects. These compounds exert their inhibitory effects by covalently bonding to active site amino acid side chains. What would be the most likely explanation for the inhibitory effects of these compounds? A) Bonding of these compounds denatures the enzyme disrupting its secondary and tertiary structure. B) Bonding changes the primary structure of the enzyme profoundly affecting the activity of the enzyme. C) These compounds compete for the active site of the enzyme where they bind covalently and block the subsequent binding of substrate molecules. D) Covalent bonding of these compounds changes the pI of the enzyme which causes it to become less soluble and precipitate. E) Bonding of these compounds raises the activation energy of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

70) Which of the following combinations make up the nucleic acid, RNA? A) phosphate ribose and the bases A, G, U, C B) phosphate ribose and the bases A, G, T, C C) phosphate deoxyribose and the bases A, G, T, C D) phosphate deoxyribose and the bases A, G, U, C Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

71) Which of the following is correct with respect to the purine and pyrimidine bases in nucleic acids? A) G + A = C + T B) A = C C) G = T D) T = C Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

72) Choose the INCORRECT statement. A) The nucleus of the cell contains chromosomes that cause replication from one generation to the next. B) Genes are portions of the chromosome that carry specific traits. C) The usual form for DNA is a double helix. D) Nucleic acids are made up of heterocyclic amines, a 5-carbon sugar and phosphate groups. E) The bases in the two chains of the double helix are randomly paired. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

73) Which of the following structural elements cannot be found in DNA? A) purine B) pentose C) phosphate D) heme E) pyrimidine Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

74) Which of the following is a pyrimidine? A) thymine B) adenine C) glycine D) arginine E) pyridine Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

75) Which of the following is a minor component of a cell? A) amino acids B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) nucleic acids E) hormones Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

76) Below is a double stranded DNA composed of one strand containing 15N atoms and the other strand containing 14N atoms. If the cell which contains this DNA is grown for one generation (replication) on 15N medium and then transferred to 14N media for a second generation, what would the resulting double stranded DNA molecules look like?

A) Four molecules; each containing one 14N strand and one 15N strand. B) Two molecules; one with a 15N and a 14N strand, the other with two 14N strands.

C) Four molecules; three containing one 14N strand and one 15N strand and one molecule with two 14N strands. D) Four molecules; one with two 15N strands, two molecules with two 14N strands, and one molecule with one 14N and one 15N strands.

E) Four molecules; all molecules have 14N strands. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

77) What four elements make up approximately 96% of the total human body mass? A) C, N, O, P B) C, O, Ca, N C) Mg, Cu, Fe, N D) C, O, N, H2O E) C, H, N, O Answer: E

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-1

78) What is the correct structure for glyceryl trilinolenate? A) CH2-OOC(CH2)7(CH=CHCH2)3CH3 ∣ CH-OOC(CH2)7(CH=CHCH2)3CH3 ∣ CH2-OOC(CH2)7(CH=CHCH2)3CH3 B) CH2-OOC(CH2)16CH3 ∣ CH-OOC(CH2)16CH3 ∣ CH2-OOC(CH2)16CH3 C) CH2OH ∣ CHOH ∣ CH2OH D) CH2-OOC(CH2)14CH3 ∣ CH-OOC(CH2)14CH3 ∣ CH2-OOC(CH2)14CH3 E) O HOC(CH2)2CH3 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

79) What is the common name of the following triglyceride?

A) glyceryl myristolaurolinoleneate B) glyceryl palmitostearooleate C) glycero laurostearooleate D) glycero palmitostearooleate E) glyco stearooleolaurate Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

80) β-D-N-Acetylglucosamine (shown below) is a glycose found in many glycoproteins which are an integral part of cell membranes. One chair conformation of this glycose is shown below. How many of the hydroxyl groups on the six-membered ring occupy equatorial positions?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 0 D) 3 E) 1 Answer: D

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

81) Lactose, the sugar found in milk, is a disaccharide of galactose and glucose in a 1,4 linkage. What is the configuration of the 1,4 linkage between the two glycoses in lactose?

A) β configuration B) α configuration C) D configuration D) axial configuration E) chair configuration Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

82) How many peptide bonds are present in a hexapeptide? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

83) What is the absolute configuration of the following amino acids?

A) 1L, 2D, 3D B) 1l, 2d, 3d C) 1D, 2D, 3D D) 1L, 2L, 3L E) 1d, 2l, 3l Answer: A

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

84) What is the name of the following tripeptide (the names of each amino acid are given directly below its position in the tripeptide)?

A) lysylserylaspartate B) aspartylserinyllysine C) aspartyllysinylserine D) aspartineserinelysine E) aspartylseryllysine Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

85) All amino acids always contain one chemical element which is absent in the structures of carbohydrates. This element is ________. A) carbon B) nitrogen C) phosphorus D) sulfur E) oxygen Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

86) Predict the isoelectric point for tyrosine, 4-OHC6H4CH2CH(NH2)CO2H, given pKa1 = 2.2 and pKa2 = 9.1. A) 5.7 B) 6.9 C) 11.3 D) 7.0 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

87) A tetrapeptide is known to contain four different amino acids (A, B, C, and D). How many different sequences are possible for this polypeptide? A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 12 E) 24 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-3

88) Partial hydrolysis of an eleven amino acid polypeptide containing an N-terminal glycine yielded the fragments shown below (shown N- to C-terminus from left to right). What is the sequence of the original peptide? gly ala-val-val his-trp-met val-ile

cys-met-cys ile-his gly-cys met-cys-ala-val

A) C-gly-cys-met-cys-ile-val-val-ala-his-trp-met-N B) N-gly-trp-met-cys-val-ile-ala-val-val-ile-his-C C) N-gly-cys-val-val-ile-trp-his-met-cys-ala-val-C D) N-gly-cys-met-cys-ala-val-val-ile-his-trp-met-C E) C-gly-cys-ala-val-ala-val-val-his trp-met-cys-N Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

89) A protein molecule has a molecular weight of 7.70 × 105 g/mol. The mass percent of magnesium in the protein is 3.16 × 10-3%. How many magnesium atom(s) are there in one protein molecule? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 24 E) 5 Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

90) What is the zwitterion form of the amino acid cysteine? A) NH3+-CH(CH2SH)CO2B) NH3+-CH(CH2S-)CO2H C) NH3+-CH(CH2SH)CO2H D) NH2-CH(CH2SH)CO2Answer: A

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

91) How many tripeptides can be formed from serine, alanine, and glycine? A) 6 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

92) The artificial sweetener Nutrasweet® (aspartame) is not a derivative of sugar, but is actually a small dipeptide. What two amino acids make up the basic structure of Nutrasweet®?

A) glutamic acid and phenylalanine B) asparagine and tyrosine C) aspartic acid and phenylalanine D) serine and glycine E) aspartic acid and tryptophan Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

93) A mixture of the three amino acids shown below was buffered to pH 7.0 and placed in the center of an electric field with the cathode to the left and the anode to the right. From left to right, what would be the positional order of the amino acids after sufficient time to allow migration?

A) A, B, C B) B, C, A C) B, A, C D) C, B, A E) C, A, B Answer: D

Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

94) When the equation for the oxidation of glucose is balanced, the coefficients are: ________. C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 2, 6, 12, 12 B) 1, 3, 6, 6 C) 1, 6, 6, 6 D) 1, 9, 6, 12 E) 4, 2, 4, 2 Answer: C

Diff: 1 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

95) ΔG° = -2880 kJ/mol for the oxidation of glucose (C6H12O6). What is ΔG° for the oxidation of 3.45 grams of glucose? A) -342 kJ B) -55.2 kJ C) -0.215 kJ D) -9.94 × 103 kJ E) -621 kJ Answer: B

Diff: 2 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-5

96) Below is a single stranded DNA sequence from an unwound chromosome that is in the process of replication. What would be the sequence of the complementary DNA strand produced during the replication of this strand? ATTGCGCTTATTCGCGTTAAAGGCCTCTGATG A) GCCATATCCGCCTATACCGGGAATTCTCAGCA B) CGGTATAGGCGGATATGGCCCTTAAGAGTCGT C) ACCTGTGTTAAGTGTACGTAAAGCTAATGGGT D) TAAGCGCAATAACGCGAATTTCCGGAGAGTAG E) TAACGCGAATAAGCGCAATTTCCGGAGACTAC Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: BI Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-6

97) The hydrolysis of tristearin produces the soap potassium stearate and ________. Answer: glycerol Diff: 1 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-2

98) What is the chemical structure of the tetrapeptide (H2N-end)-Ala-Cys-Asp-Glu? Answer: H2NCH(CH3)C(O)NHCH(CH2SH)C(O)NHCH(CH2COOH)C(O)NHCH(CH2CH2COOH)COOH Diff: 2 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

99) What is the direction of migration of the amino acid phenylalanine in a gel that is 0.25 M in NaH2PO4 and 0.50 M in Na2HPO4? For phenylalanine, pI = 5.74. Answer: toward the anode(+) Diff: 3 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

100) What is the complementary base sequence that corresponds to the following sequence of DNA bases? TCGAGTTG Answer: AGCTCAAC

Diff: 1 Type: SA Var: 1 Reference: Section 28-4

101) Which one of the following amino acids does not contain a basic side chain? A) arginine B) histidine C) lysine D) threonine Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

102) Which one of the following amino acids contains a polar side chain? A) alanine B) glycine C) threonine D) valine Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

103) Which one of the following amino acids contains a hydrophobic side chain? A) valine B) histidine C) glutamine D) glutamic acid Answer: A Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

104) In the sequence His-Tyr-Val-Pro, which amino acid contains the N-terminal group? A) valine B) tyrosine C) proline D) histidine Answer: D Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5

105) In the sequence Arg-Pro-Leu-Gln, which amino acid contains the C-terminal group? A) proline B) leucine C) glutamine D) arginine Answer: C Diff: 1

Type: MC

Var: 5