TEST BANK for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences 2nd Edition By Mar by ACADEMIAMILL

Chapter 1 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition.

Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: D Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 01 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is a phenotypical characteristic used for classifying bacteria? A) Staining characteristics B) Macroscopic morphology C) Nutritional needs D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Classification and Taxonomy Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy: Recall

2. Which of the following is written correctly using the binomial system of nomenclature? A) STAPHYLOCOCCUS aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Staphylococcus Epidermidis D) enterococcus faecalis Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Classification and Taxonomy Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

3. The bacterial cell: A) does not have any organelles. B) contains DNA within the cytoplasm. C) contains 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits.

Chapter 1 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) has double-stranded DNA that is bound to histones. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial Components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

4. Which of the following extensions enable the bacterial cell to attach to host cells? A) Flagella B) Pili C) Plasmids D) Ribosomes Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Bacterial Components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy: Recall

5. The gram-positive cell wall contains all of the following, except: A) O antigen. B) peptidoglycan. C) teichoic acids. D) lipoteichoic acids. Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial Components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

6. Exotoxins: A) are secreted by gram negative bacteria. B) may be extracellular enzymes. C) consist of LPS. D) can induce fever upon cell lysis. Ans:B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial Components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

7. Gram-positive bacteria contain __________, which are not found in gram-negative bacteria. A) capsules B) periplasmic space and an outer membrane C) teichoic acids

Chapter 1 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) cross-linked peptidoglycans Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial Components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

8. The __________ are important for motility of the bacterial cell. A) pili B) capsules C) flagella D) LPS Ans: C Complexity:Easy Ahead: Bacterial Components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

9. The morphology of those bacteria that are round and arranged in pairs is known as: A) diplococci. B) streptococci. C) bacilli. D) coccobacilli. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Characteristics of Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

10. Microorganisms that are of the same species, but have different physiologic characteristics, are known as: A) subspecies. B) biotypes. C) serovars. D) strains. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Classification and Taxonomy Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recll

11. Those bacteria that can use aerobic respiration or fermentative processes for metabolism are categorized as: A) microaerophiles.

Chapter 1 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) obligate aerobes. C) obligate anaerobes. D) facultative anaerobes. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial metabolism Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:

12. The process whereby DNA is copied to messenger RNA, providing the information for protein synthesis, is known as: A) transposon. B) transcription. C) translation. D) recombination. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Introduction to Genetics Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

Fill in the Blank

1. Those bacteria that are rod shaped are also known as __________. Ans: bacilli Complexity:Easy Ahead:Characteristics of Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

2. The __________ is the bacterial component that is antiphagocytic. Ans: capsule Complexity:easy Ahead:Bacterial components Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

3. Genetic exchange where a bacteriophage introduces DNA into a bacterial cell is known as __________. Ans: transduction Complexity: moderate Ahead:Introduction to Genetics

Chapter 1 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

4. Actual changes to the genetic code that occur spontaneously during DNA replication are known as __________. Ans: mutations Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Introduction to Genetics Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

5. During fermentation processes, electrons are accepted by __________ compounds. Ans: organic Complexity:Easy Ahead:Bacterial metabolism Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

True/False

1. True or False? In the classification system, a group of genera is known as a family. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Classification and Taxonomy Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? Prokaryotes contain a nuclear membrane and 80S ribosomes. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Characteristics of Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? Gram-negative bacteria contain an outer LPS layer of endotoxin, core polysaccharide, and antigenic O polysaccharide. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial components

Chapter 1 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

4. True or False? The most common and efficient energy pathway for bacteria is the pentose phosphate shunt. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial metabolism Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Application

5. True or False? In the DNA molecule, the purine adenine always pairs to the pyrimidine, guanine. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Introduction to Genetics Subject: Chapter 1 Title: Taxonomy, the Microbial Cell, Metabolism, and Genetics Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 2 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: E Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 02 - Quiz

Essay

1. List the components of the exposure control plan. Ans: Safety education Universal precautions and standard precautions Engineering controls Personal protective equipment Disposal of hazardous waste Postexposure procedures Complexity:Easy Ahead:Exposure control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy:Application

True/False

1. True or False? It is acceptable to store food in the laboratory refrigerator provided that it is covered. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

2. True or False? Smoking is prohibited in the clinical laboratory. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Exposure Control © Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company 1

Chapter 2 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

3. True or False? Prescription glasses are appropriate protective eyewear in the clinical laboratory. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

4. True or False? Laboratory workers can wear their laboratory coats in nonlaboratory areas. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Exposure control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? Eyewash stations must be within 100 feet of all areas where testing with chemicals is done. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

6. True or False? Gloves do not need to be changed between patients as long as they are not soiled. Ans: False Complexity Easy Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

7. True or False? Mouth pipetting is strictly prohibited. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

8. True or False? All laboratory accidents must be reported immediately and recorded properly. Ans: True © Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company 2

Chapter 2 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Complexity: Easy Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

9. True or False? M. tuberculosis should be handled at Biosafety Level 1. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Biosafety Levels Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy : Application

10. True or False? Work surfaces should be decontaminated after any spill of potentially infectious materials. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

Multiple Choice

1. Preventative measures designed to reduce the risk of hepatitis B, HIV, and other bloodborne pathogens are known as: A) standard precautions. B) infection control. C) universal precautions. D) personal protective equipment. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Exposure Control Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

2. Which Biosafety Level provides for maximum containment and includes a class II biological safety cabinet and decontamination of all personnel and materials prior to leaving the area. A) BSL 1 B) BSL 2 C) BSL 3 D) BSL 4 Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Biosafety Levels Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory © Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company 3

Chapter 2 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Taxonomy: Recall

3. A Type __________ fire extinguisher should be used on fires involving combustible metals, such as sodium and potassium. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Fire Safety Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

4. The __________ is the legal limit for exposure to a chemical substance or physical compound for an employee. A) biosafety level B) permissible exposure limit C) short-term exposure limit D) postexposure level Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Chemical safety Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

5. The __________ contains information on hazardous chemicals, including manufacturer's information, physical and chemical properties, and information on health hazards and precautions. A) Material Safety Data Sheet B) Permissible Exposure Limit Sheet C) Exposure Control Plan D) Safety Manual Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Chemical Safety Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

6. __________ chemicals have the ability to induce a malignant tumor. A) Corrosive B) Toxic C) Carcinogenic D) Ignitable Ans: C © Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company 4

Chapter 2 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Complexity:Easy Ahead:Chemical Safety Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Application

Matching

1. Match each chemical germicide with its description. 1. Destroys or inactivates microorganisms on inanimate objects, but not the spores Ans: disinfectant 2. Germicide for use on skin or tissues Ans: antiseptic 3. Destroys microorganisms and their spores Ans: sterilizer Complexity:Easy Ahead:Control of Microbial Growth Subject: Chapter 2 Title: Safety in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory Taxonomy: Recall

Chapter 3 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: E Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 03 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following pairs of terms does not correctly match a site with normal microbiota that would be found there? A) Oral cavity = viridans streptococci B) Large intestine = E. coli C) Blood = Staphylococcus aureus D) Distal urethra = diphtheroids Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead:The Infectious Process Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Analysis

2.The State Department of Health reports that there have been 1,500 cases of influenza virus in the state thus far this year. This statistic describes __________ of influenza. A) the incidence B) the prevalence C) an epidemic D) a pandemic Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Epidemiologic Terms Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Analysis

3. Cilia and mucus in the respiratory tract, which prevent bacteria from establishing infection, are both examples of: A) inflammatory mechanisms.

Chapter 3 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) humoral immunity. C) acquired immunity. D) innate immunity. Ans: D Complexity:moderate Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms- The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

4. A foreign compound that elicits an immune response is known as a(n): A) antibody. B) antigen. C) cytokine. D) complement. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms- The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

5. Which white blood cell assists in the regulation of the immune response? A) Neutrophil B) Null cell C) B lymphocyte D) T suppressor Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

6 A school-age child acquires a streptococcal infection from a classmate. This infection is best described as: A) an endogenous infection. B) a nosocomial infection. C) colonization. D) a community-acquired infection. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Healthcare Associated Infections Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Moderate

7. Which of the following host factors leads to increased susceptibility to infection?

Chapter 3 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

A) Compromised immune system B) Poor nutritional status C) Medical instrumentation D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Primary Pathogens versus Opportunistic Pathogens Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

8. A neonate acquires Streptococcus agalactiae from his mother. This route of infection is categorized as: A) direct – sexual. B) indirect – fomite. C) direct – congenital. D) indirect – airborne. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Modes of Transmission- Routes of Infection Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

9. Which of the following organisms are typically spread through the ingestion of contaminated food or water? A) Neisseria meningitidis and S. pyogenes B) Salmonella and Shigella C) Herpes simplex virus and Treponema pallidum D) Plasmodium and Borrelia Ans. B Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Modes of Transmission-Routes of Infection Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

10. Antibody-producing white blood cells are known as: A) macrophages. B) neutrophils. C) T regulator lymphocytes. D) plasma cells. Ans. D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms – The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 3 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

11. The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in normal serum is: A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Ans. D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Immune Mechanisms – The Immune Reponse Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:REcall

Matching

1. Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. 1. Infection Ans: Entrance and multiplication of a microorganism in a host 2. Infectious disease Ans: Condition associated with functional and structural harm to the host, accompanied by signs and symptoms 3. Opportunistic infection Ans: Infection in an immunocompromised host that does not cause infection in an immunocompetent individual 4. Healthcare-associated infection Ans: Infection acquired in a health care setting 5. Colonization Ans: Presence and multiplication of a microorganism in a host with no clinical signs of infection Complexity:Moderate Ahead:The Infectious Process, Primary Pathogens versus Opportunistic Pathogens, Healthcare Associated Infections Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

Fill in the Blank

1. __________ are inanimate objects that may serve as vehicles of infection. Ans: Fomites Complexity:Easy Ahead:Modes of Transmission-Routes of Infection Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

2. COVID-19 is an example of a(n) __________, or a world-wide epidemic.

Chapter 3 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: pandemic Complexity:Easy Ahead: Epidemiologic Terms Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

3. The __________ lymphocyte is the predominant white cell in the cellular immune response. Ans. T Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms – The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

4. The origin of a systemic infection is known as the __________. Ans. locus Complexity:Easy Ahead:Categories of Infections Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

5. __________ is a system of 20 serum proteins that is involved in humoral immunity. Ans. Complement Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms: The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

True/False

1. True or False? T helper cells enhance the differentiation of B lymphocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms- The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Easy

2. True or False? An example of passively acquired immunity is immunization with an inactivated microorganism.

Chapter 3 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms – The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

3. True or False? Healthcare-associated infections have been referred to as nosocomial infections. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Healthcare Associated Infections Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Rcall

4. True or False? Exogenous infections result from bacteria that are a part of an individual's own normal microbiota. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Categories of Infections Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Application

5. True or False? Chemical mediators of inflammation include histamine, kinins, and interleukins. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Host Defense Mechanisms -The Immune Response Subject: Chapter 3 Title: Host and Microorganism Interactions Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: E Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 04 - Quiz

True/False

1. True or False? If possible, collect the specimen after antibiotics have been initiated. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:General Specimen Guidelines Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? The history and physiology of the infectious disease should be considered when collecting specimens for culture. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:General Specimen Guidelines Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? Swabs are suitable for culture of most anaerobes. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:General Specimen Guidelines Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? Most cases of pharyngitis are caused by bacteria. Ans: False

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Specimen Collection – Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

5. True or False? It is generally recommended to collect a single blood culture specimen to diagnose bacteremia. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Specimen Collection – Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

6. True or False? The normal appearance of cerebrospinal fluid is clear and colorless. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Specimen Collection – Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Recall

7. True or False? In general, cotton swabs are preferred for specimen collection. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:General Specimen Guidelines Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

Multiple Choice

1. Nasopharyngeal swabs are requested to: A) identify the carrier state of Staphylococcus aureus. B) diagnose pertussis. C) determine if an individual is carrying Neisseria meningitidis. D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead: Specimen Collection – Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. The Gram stain of a sputum shows mucus, 30 neutrophils, and 10 squamous epithelial cells per lowpower field. The total score using the Bartlett Classification is: A) +2. B) +1. C) 0. D) –1. E). None of these is correct. Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Specimen Collection – Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy :Analysis

3. Which of the following is not recommended for the culture of urine because of contamination? A) Clean catch midstream B) Catheterized urine C) Foley catheters D) Suprapubic aspiration Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Specimen Collection – Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

4. Which of the following is an example of enriched media? A) MacConkey agar B) Nutrient agar C) Thioglycollate D) Blood agar Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead: Initial Specimen Plating and Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Recall

5. A selective agar to isolate stool pathogens such as Salmonella and Shigella, which inhibits normal flora coliforms, is: A) selenite broth. B) Hektoen Enteric. C) eosin methylene blue. D) modified Thayer Martin. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Initial Specimen Plating and Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy:Recall

6. Colonial characteristics that should be examined include which of the following? A) Size B) Pigment C) Elevation D) All of these are correct Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead: Initial Specimen Plating and Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

7. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate is added to blood culture media: A) to promote coagulation. B) to inactivate neutrophils and some antibiotics. C) to promote the growth of fastidious bacteria. D) as a source of CO2. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Collection Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

8. Specimen collection, labeling, and transport are a part of the _________ phase of laboratory testing. A) preanalytical B) analytical C) post-analytical D) quality control Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead:Introduction Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

Matching

1. Indicate if the following specimens should be accepted (A) or rejected (R) for bacterial culture. 1. Needle aspirate of pus for anaerobes Ans: A 2. Specimen is not labeled with patient's name and identification information. Ans: R 3. Nonsterile container for a urine culture Ans: R

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

4. Clean catch midstream for urine culture Ans: A 5. Leaking container that contains feces for a stool culture Ans: R Complexity:Moderate Ahead: General Specimen Collection Guidelines and Collection Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

2. Match each primary isolation media with its purpose. Each response is used once. 1. MacConkey agar Ans: Differential; isolation of gram negative bacilli and identification of lactose fermentation 2. Colistin nalidixic acid Ans: Isolation of gram positive bacteria 3. Sheep blood agar Ans: Enriched, nonselective; determination of hemolytic patterns 4. Thioglycollate broth Ans: Growth at different oxygen levels 5. Middlebrook media Ans: Primary isolation of Mycobacterium spp. 6. Modified Thayer Martin Ans: Isolation of Neisseria gonorrheae 7. Chocolate agar Ans: Enriched; nonselective; isolation of fastidious bacteria 8. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar Ans: Isolation and differentiation of stool pathogens through inhibition of normal flora coliforms 9. Kanamycin-vancomycin anaerobic blood Ans: Isolation of gram negative anaerobes 10. Buffered charcoal yeast agar Ans: Primary isolation of Legionella pneumophilia 11. Anaerobic Blood Agar Ans. Isolation of gram negative and gram positive anaerobes 12. Selenite Broth Ans. . Enrichment broth used to isolate stool pathogens and suppress normal flora coliforms A F Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Initial Specimen Plating and Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Recall

Fill in the Blank

1. Bacteria that require special cultivation measures, such as enriched media, are known as __________ bacteria. Ans: fastidious Complexity:easy Ahead: Initial Specimen Plating and Identification Methods

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy recall

2, During the early part of typhoid fever, the specimen that should be cultured is the __________. Ans: blood Complexity:easy Ahead: General Specimen Collection Guidelines Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:application

3. The most common etiologic agent of urinary tract infections is __________. Ans. E. coli Alternate ans: Escherichia coli Complexity:Easy Ahead: Collection Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Recall

4. The proliferation of bacteria throughout the blood and body, so that the immune system is overwhelmed, is known as __________. Ans: septicemia Complexity:easy Ahead: Collection Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:recall

5. __________ wound infections are those that are attributed to an individual’s own microbiota. Ans.: Endogenous Complexity:easy Ahead: Collection Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

Essay

1. Determine the colony count per ml for a urine specimen if 85 colonies were observed after incubation of 24 hours at 35ºC. A 1 μL-calibrated inoculating loop was used. Ans: 85,000 CFU/mL or 8.5 X 104 CFU/mL Complexity:Moderate

Chapter 4 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead: Collection Requirements for Specific Sites Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Analysis

2. List the components of quality control used in the microbiology laboratory. Ans: Monitoring of laboratory equipment Procedure manual Culture media and reagents Education and training of personnel Complexity:Easy Ahead:Quality Control Subject: Chapter 4 Title: Specimen Collection and Management Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 5 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: D Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 05 - Quiz

Matching

1. Match each microscope component with its description or function. 1. Objective Ans: Magnifying element located on nosepiece 2. Ocular Ans: Eyepiece 3. Condenser Ans: Gathers light rays and focuses on object 4. Diaphragm Ans: Disk with an opening that adjusts amount of light that contacts specimen Complexity:Easy Ahead:Microscopy Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:Recall

2. Match each reagent of the Gram stain with its description or purpose. 1. Crystal violet Ans: Primary stain 2. Gram's iodine Ans: Mordant 3. Acid alcohol Ans: Decolorizer 4. Safranin Ans: Secondary or counterstain Complexity:Easy Ahead:Bacterial morphology and staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 5 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

3. Match each microorganism with its typical microscopic arrangement. 1. Neisseria Ans: Small diplococci that resemble kidney beans 2. Streptococcus pneumoniae Ans: Diplococci that resemble lancets 3. Staphylococcus Ans: Cocci in clusters 4. Streptococcus Ans: Cocci in chains 5. Treponema Ans: Spirochetes 6. Bacillus Ans: Large, square-ended bacilli 7. Campylobacter Ans: Curved bacilli Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:Application

Multiple Choice

1. __________ is used to directly stain parasitic ova and nuclei. A) KOH preparation B) Gram stain C) Iodine mount D) India ink Ans: C Complexity:easy Ahead: Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:recall page 73

2. Which of the following is an example of a fluorescent stain used to stain mycobacteria? A) Acridine orange B) Rhodamine-auramine C) Calcofluor white D) Fluorescein isothiocyanate Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens

Chapter 5 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Taxonomy:Application

3. Gram-positive bacteria stain A) pink to red. B) blue. C) purple. D) green. Ans: C Complexity:Easy Ahead: Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:Recall

4. Gram-negative bacteria: A) retain the primary stain and lose the secondary stain. B) lose the primary stain and retain the secondary stain. C) lose both the primary and secondary stain. D) retain both the primary and secondary stains. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:Application

5. While performing the quality control on a Gram stain procedure using a control slide of Staphylococcus and E. coli, the laboratory professional notices that all of the bacteria are staining pink. This may be due to: A) inadequate decolorization. B) over decolorization. C) failure to add acid alcohol. D) failure to add safranin. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens Taxonomy:Analysis

6. Gram-positive bacteria retain the primary stain because of the: A) high content of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. B) low content of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. C) high amount of lipopolysaccharide in the cell wall. D) mycolic acid and waxy compounds in the cell wall. Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Bacterial Morphology and Staining Subject: Chapter 5 Title: Microscopy, Staining, and Direct Examination of Specimens

Chapter 5 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 6 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 06 - Quiz

Matching

1. Match each of the preliminary tests with its main purpose. 1. Catalase Ans: Differentiates Staphylococcus from Streptococcus 2. Coagulase Ans: Differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci 3. Cytochrome oxidase Ans: Produced by Neisseria and Pseudomonas and other oxidative bacilli 4. Spot Indole Ans: Differentiates E.coli from other lactose-positive members of Enterobacteriaceae 5. PYR Hydrolysis Ans: Differentiates Group D Enterococcus from Non-Enterococcus Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Preliminary Biochemical Testing Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy Application

Multiple Choice

1. Colonial characteristics that should be examined include: A) size. B) pigment. C) elevation. D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead: Colonial Morphology Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods

Chapter 6 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy:Recall

2. Carbohydrate use in the absence of oxygen is known as: A) fermentation. B) oxidation. C) deamination. D) reduction. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Preliminary Biochemical Testing Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Recall

3. An organism that produced a zone of greening on the surface of sheep blood agar is exhibiting: A) alpha hemolysis. B) beta hemolysis. C) gamma hemolysis. D) streptolysin S. Ans. A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Colonial Morphology Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Application

4. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in working up gram-positive cocci isolated from a urine culture? A) Catalase B) Spot indole C) Cytochrome oxidase D) PYR hydrolysis Ans. A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Preliminary Biochemical Testing Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

5. Current versions of the BACTEC measure __________ to detect positive blood cultures. A) colorimetric changes from CO2 production. B) fluorometric changes from oxygen production. C) radioactive changes from release of 14CO2. D) fluorometric changes from production of CO2. Ans. D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Automated Identification Systems Subject: Chapter 6

Chapter 6 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Recall

6. Benefits of multitest systems include all of the following, except: A) shorter incubation time. B) smaller amount of inoculum needed. C) high specificity because of use of DNA probes. D) more reproducible results. Ans: C Complexity: moderate Ahead:Multitest Systems Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy: analysis

7. Automated systems in microbiology can be used: A) to identify bacteria. B) to determine antibiotic susceptibility patterns. C) to identify yeast. D) All of these are correct Ans: D Complexity:easy Ahead:Automated Identification Systems Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy: application

Fill in the Blank

1. MALDI-TOF MS is based on the principle of mass __________. Ans. spectrometry Complexity:Easy Ahead:MALDI-TOF MS Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Recall

2. Time of __________ refers to the time that ions travel through the vacuum tube in MALDI-TOF MS. Ans. flight Complexity:Easy Ahead:MALDI-TOF MS Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 6 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

3. A colony with a density that permits no light to pass though would be described as __________. Ans. opaque Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Colonial Morphology Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

4. If gram-negative bacilli are isolated that produce swarming on primary isolation on blood agar, __________ should be suspected. Ans. Proteus Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Colonial Morphology Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

5. In __________, the amount of light scatter is measured. Ans. nephelometry Complexity:easy Ahead:Detection of Metabolic Activity Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:recall

True/False

1. True or False? A direct smear from a wound specimen with gram-negative bacilli and neutrophils would correlate with growth on blood agar and CNA. Ans. False Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Colonial morphology Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

2. True or False? Features of the Vitek include growth-based technology and a reader/incubator module. Ans. True Complexity:easy Ahead:Automated Identification Systems Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:recall

Chapter 6 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

3. True or False? One example of a fully automated blood culture system is the Oxoid SIGNAL system. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Automated Identification Systems Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? Some automated identification systems, such as the MicroScan Walkaway, incorporate antibiotic susceptibility testing along with identification of bacteria. Ans. True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Automated Identification Systems Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Application

5. True or False? Some specimens of Serratia marcescens produce a brown-black pigment, which is an important colonial characteristic. Ans. False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Colonial Morphology Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Recall

6. True or False? All automated microbiology analyzers utilize the principle of colorimetry for measurement. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Automated Identification Systems Subject: Chapter 6 Title: Traditional Culture and Identification Methods Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 7 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 07 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Latex is a commonly used carrier molecule for agglutination because: A) it has relatively few binding sites. B) it is easily degradable. C) it can covalently bond to many proteins. D) there are never false-positive reactions. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Agglutination Assays Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

2. In EIA techniques: A) antigen or antibody is bound to an enzyme that acts as a catalyst. B) antigens and antibodies can be detected C) methods are sensitive and not labor intensive D) All of these are correct. Ans: D. Complexity:Easy Ahead:Labeled Immunoassays Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

3. Which of the following is correct for acute- and convalescent-phase specimens? A) The convalescent-phase specimen must have a lower amount of antibody than the acute-phase specimen. B) The acute specimen is collected 1 week after the patient displays symptoms. C) A four-fold increase between the acute- and convalescent-phase specimens is diagnostic.

Chapter 7 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) Any antibody titer is diagnostic for infection. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Immunoserology Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

4. Foreign compounds that stimulate an immune response are known as: A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) precipitins. D) agglutinins. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Immunochemical Methos Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Recall

5. An assay is designed to use red blood cells as a carrier for a viral antigen, "X," to determine the presence of viral antibody, "Anti-X." When mixed with serum that contains the antibody, hemagglutination occurs. This assay is an example of: A) direct latex agglutination. B) coagglutination. C) indirect hemagglutination. D) neutralization. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Agglutination Assays Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

6. Membrane-bound SPIA is one application of: A) enzyme-linked immunoassay. B) immunofluorescence. C) immunochemistry. D) immunoserology. Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Labeled Immunoassays Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

7. An application of PCR technology that combines target nucleic acid amplification with measurement of the amplified product as it is being generated is called:

Chapter 7 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

A) nested PCR. B) reverse transcriptase PCR. C) multiplex testing. D) real-time PCR. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Introduction to Molecular Techniques Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

8. The nucleic acid strand that is complementary to the nucleic acid of the suspected microorganism is known as the: A) amplicon. B) probe. C) duplex. D) target. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead:Introduction to Molecular Techniques Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Recall

9. In a polymerase chain reaction assay, several viral and bacterial pathogens associated with gastroenteritis are detected within one reaction. This assay is best categorized as: A) quantitative PCR. B) real-time PCR. C) nested PCR. D) multiplex PCR. Ans. D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Introduction to Molecular Techniques Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

10. Which of the following statements is correct for hybridization formats? A) The solution format is used most often because there is minimal background noise. B) In situ hybridization is performed on paraffin-embedded tissues. C) Sandwich methods generally use nitrocellulose for the support system. D) Filter hybridization first requires mixing of the probe and target before fixation. Ans. B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Intoduction to Molecular Techniques Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 7 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

True/False

1. True or False? RT-PCR is used to amplify DNA targets. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Introduction to Molecular Techniques Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? Antibodies with low specificity are associated with false positives due to cross-reactivity. Ans: True Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Immunochemical Methods Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Analysis

3. True or False? Systems that have low sensitivity are able to detect small amounts of antigen. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Immunochemical Methods Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? Applications of direct immunofluorescence involve detection of bacteria antigens. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Labeled Immunoassays Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

5. True or False? Hybridization may be detected by reporter molecules that are bound to the DNA probe. Ans: True Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Introduction to Molecular Techniques Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 7 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Matching

1. Match each term with its definition. 1. Avidity Ans: Strength of binding between all antigenic determinants and antibody binding sites 2. Affinity Ans: Strength of reaction between antibody and single antigenic determinant 3. Specificity Ans: Ability of an antibody to distinguish between epitopes 4. Sensitivity Ans: Ability of system to detect small amounts of antigen or antibody 5. Cross-reactivity Ans: Antigens that share a common epitope react with the same antibody Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Immunochemical Methods Subject: Chapter 7 Title: Immunochemical and Molecular Methods Taxonomy: Recall

Chapter 8 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 08 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is an example of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic that inhibits cell wall formation? A) Erythromycin B) Penicillin G C) Tobramycin D) Amoxicillin Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy: Application

2. All of the following antibiotics inhibit cell wall formation, except: A) penicillin. B) cephalosporins. C) chloramphenicol. D) vancomycin. Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy: Application

3. Which of the following is correct regarding vancomycin? A) It inhibits protein synthesis. B) It has a gram-positive spectrum, including MRSA, coagulase-negative staphylococci infections, and Clostridium difficile colitis.

Chapter 8 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

C) It is effective against anaerobes and intracellular pathogens. D) It inhibits DNA gyrase activity. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy: Application

4. Because of narrow therapeutic index and toxicity concerns, peak and trough levels must be performed when administering: A) vancomycin and amoxicillin. B) rifampin and chloramphenicol. C) tetracycline and gentamycin. D) tobramycin and gentamycin. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

5. All of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis, except: A) tetracycline. B) erythromycin. C) cefoxitin. D) chloramphenicol. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy: Application

6. Aplastic anemia may be a serious side effect of administration of which of the following? A) Methicillin B) Tobramycin C) Chloramphenicol D) Sulfonamide Ans: C Complexity:Easy Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Recall

7. Which of the following is used for systemic antifungal infections? A) Isoniazid

Chapter 8 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) Amphotericin B C) Nystatin D) Zidovudine Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

8. In which type resistance is the antibiotic actively pumped out of the bacterial cell, such that sufficient levels cannot be attained? A) Restrictive enzyme channels B) Enzyme inactivation C) Efflux D) Modification of target site Ans.: C Complexity: Easy Ahead:Resistance to Antimicrobial Agents Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

9. Which of the following is correct regarding plasmids? A) They are dependent on the bacterial chromosome. B) They are also known as transposons. C) They can only be transferred between organisms in the same genus. D) They are extrachromosomal DNA associated with virulence and resistance. Ans,: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Resistance to Antimicrobial Agents Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Analysis

True/False

1. True or False? The second-generation cephalosporins have primarily a gram-positive spectrum. Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? Important side effects of the aminoglycosides include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

Chapter 8 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Overview of Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? An example of intrinsic resistance is the emergence of MRSA. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Resistance to Antimicrobial Agents Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? The disk diffusion susceptibility test requires that the media has a pH between 7.4 and 7.6 Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Laboratory Methods for Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? When measuring the zones around sulfonamides in disk diffusion susceptibility testing, measure the outer zone of heavy growth. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Laboratory Methods for Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

Fill in the Blank

1. A group of bacterial enzymes that break down the beta-lactam ring of penicillin and similar antibiotics is beta lactamase or __________. Ans: penicillinase Complexity:Easy Ahead:Resistance to Antimicrobial Agents Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 8 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. The minimal __________ concentration is the minimal concentration of antibiotic that gives 99.9% killing of the inoculum. Ans: bactericidal Complexity:easy Ahead: Laboratory Methods for Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy: recall

3. __________ refers to those antibiotics that inhibit the bacterial growth, but require the host immune system to kill the microorganism. Ans: Bacteriostatic Complexity:Easy Ahead:Overview of Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Recall

4. The sulfonamides inhibit bacterial growth by forming folic acid __________. Ans: antimetabolites Complexity:Easy Ahead:Overview of Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy: Recall

5. __________ resistance results when a previously susceptible organism becomes resistant to an antibiotic because of prior exposure. Ans: Acquired Complexity: Easy Ahead:Resistance to Antimicrobial Agents Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

Matching

1. Match the laboratory method with its specific purpose. 1. Cefoxitin disk diffusion screen Ans: MRSA 2. ESBL screen Ans: Extended-spectrum beta lactamase–resistance in Enterobacteriaceae 3. Oxacillin screen agar Ans: Penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae 4. Vancomycin screen agar Ans: VRE 5. Cefinase Ans: Beta lactamase production

Chapter 8 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity :Moderate Ahead: Laboratory Methods for Susceptibility Testing Subject: Chapter 8 Title: Antimicrobial Agents and Susceptibility Testing Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: D Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 09 - Quiz

True/False

1. True or False? Staphylococci have a high lipid content in the cell wall. Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gram-Positive Cocci Subject: Ch. 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? All staphylococci are catalase positive. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Gram-Positive Cocci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy: Recall

3. True or False? Staphylococcus epidermidis is always considered to be normal microbiota and is not clinically significant. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus epidermidis Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy: Application

4. True or False? Staphylococcus saprophyticus does not grow on mannitol salt agar. Ans: False

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staphylococcus saprophyticus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? Staphylococcus aureus is DNAse positive. Ans:True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Recall

Matching

1. Match each virulence factor of S. aureus with its correct description. 1. Hydrolyzes lipid in skin, promoting colonization Ans: Lipase 2. Pyogenic exotoxins, such as toxic shock syndrome toxin Ans: Superantigens 3. Interferes with opsonization and phagocytosis by binding to Fc portion of IgG Ans: Protein 4. Heat stable proteins which are associated with food poisoning Ans: Enterotoxins 5. Inactivates hydrogen peroxide in neutrophils, affecting myeloperoxidase enzymes Ans: Catalase Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy: Recall

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following best describes the current taxonomy of the genus Staphylococcus? A) Classified with the Micrococcus in the family Micrococcaceae B) Classified with the Streptococcus in the family Staphylococcaceae C) Classified in the family Staphylococcaceae in the order Bacillales D) A member of the family Dermacoccaceae in the order Bacillales Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gram-positive cocci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. Characteristics of S. epidermidis include which of the following? A) Catalase negative B) Ferments mannitol C) Produces bound coagulase D) DNase negative Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus epidermidis Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Recall

3. MRSA can be detected using the ___________ disk screen test. A) methicillin B) penicillin C) cefoxitin D) cefotaxime Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy: Application

4. Vancomycin-intermediate S. aureus: A) gives an MIC of greater than 16 μg/mL. B) is resistant to methicillin. C) gives an MIC of 4–8 μg/mL. D) is found very frequently in the clinical setting. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Application

5. A coagulase-negative Staphylococcus that was isolated from a biofilm on a prosthetic hip grew as smooth, buttery, beta hemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar. Of the following, which species do you suspect? A) S. aureus B) S. epidermidis C) S. hemolyticus D) S. lugdunensis Ans. C Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Coagulase Negative Staphylococci Subject: Chapter 9

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

6. Which of the following is an opportunistic staphylococcal pathogen that is the etiologic agent in aggressive infections such as bacteremia and endocarditis; produces smooth, glossy colonies that may be pigmented cream to yellow-orange; and may be confused with S. aureus because of its production of bound coagulase? A) S. saprophyticus B) S. lugdunensis C) S. schleiferi subsp. coagulans D) S. warneri Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Staphylococcus lugdunensis Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

7. A veterinarian assistant develops a wound infection after being bitten by a dog. The specimen grows as large, smooth, glossy, unpigmented colonies on sheep blood agar, which are nonhemolytic. Which of the following might be the cause of this infection? A) S. intermedius B) S. lugdunensis C) S. hominis D) S. hemolyticus Ans. A Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Coagulase Negative Staphylococci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

8. A laboratory professional is working up a wound specimen. He notes Gram positive cocci in clusters and a moderate number of neutrophils. This specimen most likely indicates: A) Contamination B) Normal microbiota C) An infection or inflammatory state D) Colonization Ans: C Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Gram positive Cocci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

9. A wound specimen is plated onto sheep blood agar, MacConkey agar and CNA. Cream to goldencolored colonies that are narrowly beta hemolytic are observed on the blood agar and CNA. There is no growth on the MacConkey agar. This specimen contains:

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

A) A Gram positive organism B) A Gram negative organism C) A mixed culture of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria D) A mixed culture of Haemophilus and a Gram positive organism Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Gram positive cocci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

10. Cream to golden-colored colonies that are narrowly beta hemolytic are observed on the blood agar from a sputum specimen. Bubbling is observed when a few of the isolated colonies are added to hydrogen peroxide. This indicates: A) a positive slide coagulase reaction B) a positive catalase reaction C) a negative slide coagulase reaction D) a negative catalase reaction Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

11. Cream to golden-colored colonies that are narrowly beta hemolytic are observed on the blood agar from a surgical wound specimen . A few of the colonies are mixed with rabbit plasma. A control is performed by mixed a few of the colonies with distilled water. There is no clumping in either the test or control which indicates: A) the procedure was not performed correctly and cannot be interpreted. B) the rabbit plasma reagent is contaminated. C) the organism is not producing bound coagulase. D) the organism is not producing free coagulase. Ans: C Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

12. Cream-colored colonies that are narrowly beta hemolytic are observed on the blood agar from a boil. A few of the colonies are mixed with 0.5 ml of rabbit plasma and incubated at 37oC. The tube is checked periodically at 1/2 hour intervals and no clot is observed. The tube is left to incubate for a full 24 hours at 37oC at which time it is examined and not clot is evident. Which of the following is correct? A) The procedure was not performed correctly and cannot be interpreted. B) The rabbit plasma is contaminated. C) The organism is not producing bound coagulase. D) The organism is not producing free coagulase. Ans: A Complexity: Difficult

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead: Staphylococcus aureus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy: Analysis

13. A clean-catch midstream urine was inoculated onto sheep blood agar CNA and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours incubation, there were white, creamy and nonhemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar and CNA). There was no growth on the MacConkey agar plate. Which of the following would be most helpful in identification of this organism? 13.. A) Catalase and novobiocin B) Catalase and coagulase C) Catalase and oxidase D) Coagulase and novobiocin Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Gram positive Cocci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

14. A clean-catch midstream urine was inoculated onto sheep blood agar with a 1-μl inoculating loop. It was also plated onto CNA and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours incubation, there were 85 colonies counted on the sheep blood agar. This organism is ______________ and the e colony count that should be reported is ___________. A) A gram positive organism: 850,000 CFU/mL B) A gram positive organism; 85,000 CFU/mL C)A gram negative organism; 85,000 CFU/ml D) A gram negative organism; 8,500 CFU/mL Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead:Gram positive cocci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

15. An isolate from a biofilm growing on a prosthetic joint produced creamy, white nonhemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar. It was catalase positive and coagulase negative. Of the following choices, which do you suspect? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus C) Staphylococcus hemolyticus D) Staphylococcus epidermidis. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead :Coagulase Negative Staphylococci Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 9 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

16. An isolate is identified as Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Which of the following sets of results would lead you to this conclusion? A) Catalase positive and coagulase negative B) Catalase positive and novobiocin resistant C) Coagulase negative and growth on MSA D) Catalase positive and novobiocin susceptible Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Staphylococcus saprophyticus Subject: Chapter 9 Title: Staphylococci and Other Catalase-Positive Gram-Positive Cocci Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition al Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: E Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 10 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Streptococci are gram-positive cocci that: A) are catalase positive. B) arrange microscopically in pairs or chains. C) produce raised, pigmented colonies on sheep blood agar. D) are obligate aerobes. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

2. The classification of streptococci based on group-specific cell wall carbohydrates is known as: A) Brown’s classification. B) Sherman’s divisions. C) Lancefield groupings. D) None of these is correct. Ans: C Complexity:Easy Ahead: Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

3. Incomplete hemolysis: A) produces a greening or browning of the media surrounding the colony. B) is known as alpha () hemolysis. C) produces no apparent change in color of the media surrounding the colony.

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition D) is typically seen with Streptococcus pyogenes. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

4. A primary infection associated with Group A streptococcus is: A) bacterial pharyngitis. B) neonatal sepsis. C) urinary tract infections. D) pneumonia. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus) Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

5. Which of the following Lancefield groups may be classified as beta hemolytic streptococci? A) A B) B C) C D) F E) All of these are correct. Ans: E. Complexity:Easy Ahead:Beta hemolytic streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

6. Viridans streptococci: A) are susceptible to optochin. B) are bile esculin positive. C) may be identified by exclusion. D) are beta hemolytic. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Viridians streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

7. __________ are virulence factors of Streptococcus pyogenes that are associated with invasive infections, such as necrotizing fasciitis. A) Streptolysins

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition B) Streptokinase and streptodornase C) Fibrinolysin and M protein D) Pyogenic exotoxins Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus)Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

8. The Streptococcus bovis group: A) belongs to Lancefield Group F. B) includes one species, which is S. equinus. C) can grow in 6.5% salt broth. D) cannot grow on bile esculin media. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Viridans streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

9. Which of the following viridans streptococci require cysteine and pyridoxal for growth and were previously known as nutritionally variant streptococci? A) Gemella and Streptococcus equinus B) Pediococcus and Lactococcus C) Abiotrophia and Granulicatella D) Leuconostoc and Aerococcus Ans. C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Abiotrophia and Granulicatella Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

10. Which of the following are the streptococcal-like bacteria that resemble the viridans streptococci, may be confused with Enterococcus because of salt tolerance, and are associated with opportunistic infections transmitted through the air? A) Aerococcus B) Gemella C) Leuconostoc D) Pediococcus Ans. A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Other Catalase-Negative Streptococcal-Like Organisms Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Fill in the Blank

1. Streptococcus agalactiae is also known as Lancefield Group __________ streptococcus. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

2. Those colonies of Streptococcus pyogenes that are mucoid contain __________ protein. Ans: M Alternate ans: emm Complexity:Easy Ahead: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

3. After incubation for 48 hours, colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae collapse due to the process of __________. Ans: autolysis Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Streptococcus pneumoniae Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

4. The virulence factor of Group A streptococcus that lyses fibrin clots is known as __________. Ans. streptokinase Complexity:Easy Ahead: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

5. The acronym VRE stands for __________-resistant enterococci. Ans: vancomycin Complexity:Easy Ahead: Enterocococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

True/False

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition 1. True or False? Streptococcus pyogenes is resistant to 0.02 to 0.04 units of bacitracin. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus) Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Applcation

2. True or False? Streptococcus pneumoniae typically produces beta () hemolysis. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Streptococcus pneumoniae Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:REcall

3. True or False? Streptolysin O is oxygen labile. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus) Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

4. True or False? The enterococci are bile esculin positive and salt tolerant. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Enterococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? Enterococcus most often exhibit beta () hemolysis. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Enterococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

6. The Gram stain of the spinal fluid of a neonate shows gram positive cocci in chains and neutrophils. Which of the following is a suitable combination for primary plating of this specimen? A) Blood agar, CNA, Chocolate and MacConkey B) Blood agar, MacConkey and Hektoen Enteric C) CNA, Thayer Martin, and chocolate D) Blood agar with SXT, Chocolate, and MacConkey

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus) Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

2. Small, clear colonies that have a narrow zone of Beta () hemolysis are observed following incubation of a CSF from a newborn, following incubation for 24 hours at 37oC. Which of the following do you suspect? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Streptococcus pneumonia Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Analysis

3. The best group of tests to identify small, transparent colonies that are narrowly beta hemolytic on sheep blood agar, isolated the a blood culture of a premature neonate would be : A) Bacitracin, Bile Esculin, PYRase B) Optochin, Salt Broth and CAMP C) Bacitracin, CAMP, PYRase D) CAMP, Bile Esculin, Catalase Ans: C Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Analysis

4. An arrowhead was observed when the isolate was streaked at a right angle to a Beta hemolytic strain of S. aureus which demonstrates the presence of: A) PYRase B) the CAMP factor C) Hyaluronic acid D) pneumolysin Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Application

5. Gram positive cocci that are catalase, PYRase, and Bile Esculin negative , resistant to bacitracin, and hippurate positive are most likely ____________.

Chapter 10 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Ans: Streptococcus agalactiae. Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus Subject: Chapter 10 Title: Streptococci, Enterococcus, and Related Organisms Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 11 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 11 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following best describes Neisseria? A) Oxidase-negative, gram-negative diplococci B) Oxidase-negative, gram-positive diplococci C) Oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococci D) Oxidase-positive, gram-positive cocci in chains Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Characteristics of Neisseria Subject: Ch. 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

2. Urogenital specimens submitted to diagnose gonorrhea should be plated onto: A) blood agar and chocolate agar. B) CNA and Modified Thayer Martin. C) blood agar and Modified Thayer Martin. D) chocolate agar and Modified Thayer Martin. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:application

3. Which of the following is incorrect for Neisseria meningitidis? A) Oxidase positive B) Cannot grow on chocolate agar C) Utilizes glucose and maltose

Chapter 11 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) Can be isolated on sheep blood agar Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead :Neisseria meningitidis Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

4. The Neisseria species that produces large amounts of polysaccharide when grown on sucrose agar is: A) N. elongata. B) N. polysaccharea. C) N. sucrosarea. D) N. subflava. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Miscellaneous Neisseria Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Application 1

5. Which of the following organisms that resembles Neisseria is unable to utilize any carbohydrates and is DNase positive? A) Moraxella catarrhalis B) Neisseria sicca C) Acinetobacter D) Alcaligenes Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Moraxella catarrhalis Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Analysis

True/False

1. True or False? The pathogenic Neisseria are generally fastidious. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead:Characteristics of Neisseria Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? In the CTA reactions, Neisseria gonorrhoeae will utilize glucose and maltose. Ans: False Complexity:Easy

Chapter 11 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead: Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Application

3. True or False? Type 1 and type 2 colonies of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are less virulent than types 3, 4, and 5. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

4. True or False? Most gonorrhea infections are effectively treated with penicillin. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? Most of the nonpathogenic Neisseria can grow on nutrient agar. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Characteristics of Neisseria Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Application

Fill In The Blank

1. __________ refer to nutritionally variant stains of N. gonorrhoeae that have different growth requirements. Ans: Auxotypes Complexity:Easy Ahead: Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

2. The presence of Neisseria meningitidis in the blood is termed __________. Ans: meningococcemia Complexity:Easy

Chapter 11 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead: Neisseria meningitidis Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

3. The major virulence factor for Neisseria meningitidis is the __________, which is anti-phagocytic. Ans: capsule Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Neisseria meningitidis Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy: Application

4. Neisseria __________ is the Neisseria species that utilizes glucose, maltose, and lactose. Ans: lactamica Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Miscellaneous Neisseria Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Application

Essay

1. The meningococcal conjugate vaccine offers protection against which serotypes? Ans: A,C, Y, and W135 Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Neisseria meningitidis Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Recall

A joint fluid from the knee of a 30-year-old male patient is received in the laboratory. It is plated onto blood, MacConkey, and chocolate agar. After 24 hour incubation, small, translucent colonies are observed on both the blood agar and chocolate agar plates. There is no growth on the MacConkey agar plate. 1. This specimen A) may contain Gram negative bacilli B) may contain Gram negative diplococci C) contains Gram negative bacilli and Gram positive cocci D) contains only Gram positive cocci Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 11 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. The Gram stain of an arthrocentesis shows a moderate amount of Gram negative diplococci occurring intracellularly to a moderate amount of neutrophils. The organism is isolated on modified Thayer Martin agar, producing mucoid grey colonies. It was oxidase positive and utilized only glucose in the carbohydrate reactions. Which organism do you suspect? A) Neisseria lactamica B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Moraxella catarrhalis Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead:Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Analysis

3. An isolate is mixed with a few drops of tetramethyl-para-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride and a purple color develops which indicates: A) oxidation of glucose B) production of DNase C) a positive catalase reaction D) a positive oxidase reaction Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Identification of Neisseria Species Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy: Analysis

Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:

5. Gram negative diplococci isolated from the eye of a newborn whose mother received no prenatal care were isolated on chocolate and modified Thayer Martin Agars were oxidase and glucose positive. This condition is known as ____________ and the isolate is most likely A) invasive meningococcal disease; Neisseria meningitidis B) urogenital gonorrhea; Neisseria gonorrheae C purulent conjunctivitis; Moraxella catarrhalis D) ophthalmia neonatorum; Neisseria gonorrhoeae Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead :Neisseria gonorrhoeae Subject: Chapter 11 Title: Neisseria Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 12 - Quiz

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Enterobacteriaceae? A) All members ferment lactose. B) All members are gram-negative bacilli or coccobacilli. C) All members are cytochrome oxidase negative. D) All members grow on MacConkey agar. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Characteristics of Enterobacteriaceae Subject: Ch. 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Recall

2. Swarming colonies on sheep blood agar would lead one to suspect which of the following bacteria? A) E. coli B) Salmonella C) Klebsiella D) Proteus Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Isolation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Application

3. Which of the following does not produce H2S gas? A) Salmonella B) E. coli C) Proteus D) Citrobacter Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Identification

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Application

4. The production of deaminase is found in which of the following groups of bacteria? A) E. coli, Proteus, and Salmonella B) Shigella, Providentia, and Salmonella C) Proteus, Morganella, and Providentia D) Providentia, Salmonella, and Klebsiella Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Identification Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Recall

5. The species of Shigella that causes most of the infections in the United States is: A) S. dysenteriae. B) S. boydii. C) S. flexneri. D) S. sonnei. Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Gastrointestinal Pathogens Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Recall

6. Which of the following is true of enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)? A) Also known as verocytoxic E. coli B) May be associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome C) May often serotype as O157: H7 D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Identification and Infections of Clinically Significant Enterobacteriaceae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Application

7. A stool specimen shows abundant gram-negative bacilli in the direct smear with no white cells or red cells. The primary culture grows only pink colonies on MacConkey and salmon colonies on Hektoen Enteric. Which of the following is the most correct action? A) Work up salmon colonies from Hektoen Enteric as they are most likely a pathogen. B) Specimen most likely shows normal microbiota and no work-up is needed C) Request a new specimen, as this sample is contaminated. D) Work up the pink colonies from MacConkey’s; lactose-positive colonies from a stool specimen indicate a pathogen.

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans. B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Isolation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Analysis

8. __________ is the only oxidase positive member of the Enterobacteriaceae. A) Pseudomonas B) Klebsiella C) Plesiomonas D) Yersinia Ans:C Complexity:Easy Ahead:Proteae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Recall

9. Which of the following statements correctly describes the antigens of Enterobacteriaceae? A) The O antigen is heat labile. B) The O antigen is located on the cell wall. C) The Vi antigen is an example of a flagellar antigen. D) The K antigen is also known as the somatic antigen. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Serologic Characteristics Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Application

10. Salmonella has been isolated as the source of contamination in an outbreak of gastroenteritis associated with eggs. Which of the following sets of reactions is correct for this genus? Potassium H2S

Urease

Motility

ONPG

LDC

cyanide

–

Ans: B Complexity :Difficult Ahead: Gastrointestinal Pathogens Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Analysis

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

True/False

1. True or False? A noninvasive diarrheagenic E. coli syndrome that is most often found in neonates and in day care is enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC). Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: : Identification and Infections of Clinically Significant Enterobacteriaceae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? On Hektoen Enteric agar, Shigella appears as green, clear colonies. Ans: True Complexity :Easy Ahead: Isolation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Application

3. True or False? Members of the tribe Klebsielleae are VP negative. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Tribe Klebsielleae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Recall

4. True or False? Most Salmonella that are pathogenic to humans are in Subgroup 5. Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gastrointestinal Pathogens Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? Proteus mirabilis is indole negative. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Proteeae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Fill In The Blank

1. In the __________ pathway for glucose fermentation, acetoin is produced. Ans: Voges -Proskauer Complexity: Easy Ahead :Identification Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Application

2. Rapid urease activity is characteristic of the genus __________. Ans: Proteus Complexity: Easy Ahead: Identification Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Recall

3. causes plague, which is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Ans: Yersinia pestis Complexity:Easy Ahead: Gastrointestinal Pathogens Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Recall

4. __________ is a member of the Enterobacteriaceae that produces DNase, lipase, gelatinase, and sometimes a red pigment. Ans: Serratia marcescens Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Tribe Klebsielleae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Application

5. __________ media is used to isolate Yersinia enterocolitica. Ans: Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin Complexity:Easy Ahead: Isolation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

A surgical wound specimen produces pink colonies on MacConkey agar. There is no growth on CNA and abundant flat, spreading gray mucoid colonies on blood agar. 1. This specimen contains: A) both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria B) a Gram negative bacillus that ferments lactose C) a Gram negative bacillus that cannot ferment lactose D) a Gram negative bacillus that produces H2S Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Isolation Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Analysis

2. A TSI is yellow over yellow with cracks but no blackening. This would be interpreted as: A) ferments glucose with gas production, ferments lactose and/or sucrose B) ferments glucose with gas production, but not lactose or sucrose C) unable to ferment glucose, lactose or sucrose. D) ferments glucose with gas production, ferments lactose and/or sucrose with production of H2S Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead:Identification Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy: Analysis

3. IMVC reactions which are --++ which would eliminate___________ as a possible organism. A) Enterobacter cloacae B) Enterobacter aerogenes C) E.coli D) Klebsiella pneumoniae ssp. pneumoniae Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: : Identification and Infections of Clinically Significant Enterobacteriaceae Subject: Chapter 12 Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Analysis

4. A gram negative bacillus that is nonmotile, VP +, LDC+, ODC-, and ADH-is most likely be A) Enterobacter cloacae B) Enterobacter aerogenes C) E.coli D) Klebsiella pneumoniae ssp. pneumoniae Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Tribe Klebsielleae Subject: Chapter 12

Chapter 12 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Title: Enterobacteriaceae Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 13 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 13 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following might lead one to suspect that an organism is a nonfermenter? A) Pink colonies on MacConkey agar B) Cytochrome oxidase negative C) Gram-negative bacillus D) Alkaline slant and deep in TSI Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Characteristics of Nonfermenters Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Application

2. OF reactions show a yellow color in both the open and closed tubes for glucose, which would indicate: A) the organism is oxidizing glucose. B) the organism cannot utilize glucose. C) the organism is fermentative. D) the organism is a facultative aerobe. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Isolation and Identification of Nonfermenters Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Application

3. Which virulence factor of P. aeruginosa is associated with capsule production and resistance to phagocytosis? A) Elastase B) Alginate C) Exotoxin A

Chapter 13 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) Collagenase Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead :Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Recall

4. Which of the following is true of Chryseobacterium? A) Grows well on MacConkey agar B) Is motile C) Is oxidase negative D) Produces yellow colonies on sheep blood agar Ans: D Complexity :Moderate Ahead: Flavobacteriaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Application

5. The most frequently isolated nonfermenter is: A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Acinetobacter lwoffi. C) Alcaligenes faecalis. D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead: Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Recall

6. A nonfermentative, gram-negative bacillus that was oxidase positive and grew on MacConkey agar was isolated from the blood culture from a leukemic patient. The bacterium oxidized glucose and xylose and was unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl. Which of the following is the most likely bacterium? A) Alcaligenes faecalis B) Achromobacter xylosoxidans C) Elizabethkingia meningosepticum D) Acinetobacter baumannii Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Analysis

Chapter 13 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

7. Nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli associated with environmental infections from contaminated medical devices that are oxidase positive, oxidize glucose, and produce yellow pigmented colonies include which of the following genera? A) Chryseobacterium and Elizabethkingia B) Chromobacterium and Comamonas C) Sphingomonas and Oligella D) Pseudomonas and Acidovorax Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Flavobacteriaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Analysis

8. An oxidative, gram-negative bacillus isolated from a wound infection of a diabetic patient grew on sheep blood agar, producing feathery, alpha hemolytic colonies with a fruity odor of pears. OF media were very alkaline. This organism is most likely: A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and will grow at 42ºC. B) Moraxella lacunata and will give a negative oxidase reaction. C) Pseudomonas fluorescens and will produce 3yoverdine pigment. D) Alcaligenes faecalis and will grow in 6.5% NaCl. Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:

Matching

1. Indicate the correct group for each species listed. 1. P. aeruginosa Ans: Fluorescent group 2. P. mendocina Ans: Stutzeri group 3. B. cepacia Ans: Pseudomallei group 4. B. pseudomallei Ans: Pseudomallei group 5. P. putida Ans: Fluorescent group Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Application

True/False

Chapter 13 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

1. True or False? The oxidase reaction can be used to differentiate Moraxella from Acinetobacter. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Analysis

2. True or False? OF media has a high content of peptone and a low content of carbohydrate. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead :Isolation and Identification of Nonfermenters Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? Most nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli are facultative anaerobes. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Characteristics of Nonfermenters Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Application

4. True or False? Both Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cepacia have been implicated in cases of pneumonia in those with cystic fibrosis. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? Moraxella can be differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhoeae using carbohydrate testing, such as CTA reactions. Ans: True Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Application

The aspirated sputum collected from a patient on a ventilator showed a Gram stain with many Gram negative bacilli and a moderate amount of neutrophils. The specimen was plated onto blood, chocolate,

Chapter 13 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

and MacConkey agars. There was a moderate amount of growth on each plate. The colonies on blood agar were shiny, resembling ground lead, with a zone of beta hemolysis. The colonies on MacConkey agar were colorless. 1. The Gram stain indicates that the sputum A) is contaminated B) contains normal microbiota C) seems to indicate an infectious state D) was collected improperly Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy :Analysis

2. Colonies isolated on sheep blood agar were oxidase positive and were found to utilize glucose, fructose and xylose in the open OF tubes which would lead one to suspect A) a lactose fermenter from the family Enterobacteriaceae B) a nonlactose fermenter from the family Enterobacteriaceae C) a glucose fermenter D) an oxidative organism Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Isolation and Identification of Nonfermenters Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Analysis

3. A gram negative nonfermentative gram negative bacillus which had the odor of over ripened grapes, a green pigment, and was ADH +, LDC -, and ODC+. is most likely: A) Proteus vulgaris B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Burkholderia cepacia D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13 Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy: Analysis

4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A)Produces pyocyanin and pyoverdin pigments B) Is susceptible to most antibiotics C) Is unable to grow at 42oC D) Is unable to convert nitrates to nitrites Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Family Pseudomonadaceae Subject: Chapter 13

Chapter 13 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Title: Nonfermentative Gram-Negative Bacilli and Similar Bacteria Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 14 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 14 - Quiz

Matching

1. Match each term with its definition. 1. Halophilic Ans: Preferring increased NaCl for growth 2. Capnophilic Ans: Growth is enhanced in increased CO2 3. Microaerophilic Ans: Preferring an environment with small amounts of oxygen 4. Zoonosis Ans: Infection transmitted from animals to humans Complexity:Easy Ahead: Vibrio, Campylobacter Subject: Ch. 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Recall

True/False

1. True or False? There has been a decrease in the incidence of infections from unusual gram-negative bacilli in recent years. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Introductory section (there is no Ahead) Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

2. True or False? Vibrio cholerae is halophilic.

Chapter 14 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Recall

3. True or False? An epidemic is a widespread infectious disease that affects an entire continent or the whole world. Ans. False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

4. True or False? Aeromonas hydrophilia is found in fresh water, sea water, and tap water. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Aeromonas Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? Campylobacter is catalase positive and oxidase negative. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead :Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Recall

Multiple Choice

1. The classic strain of Vibrio cholerae 01: A) is associated with more recent pandemics. B) is resistant to polymyxin. C) is nonhemolytic on sheep blood agar. D) agglutinates chicken red blood cells. Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

Chapter 14 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. When grown on TCBS agar, Vibrio parahaemolyticus appears __________ because it cannot ferment __________. A) green, glucose B) orange, sucrose C) pink, lactose D) green, sucrose Ans: D Complexity:moderate Ahead: Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

3. Helicobacter is differentiated from Campylobacter by its rapid: A) lactose fermentation. B) urease production. C) hydrolysis of bile esculin. D) catalase production. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Helicobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

4. Which Vibrio species is found in marine sources and is the agent of wound infections and septicemia that produces a cytolysin, causing severe infections in those with liver disease. A) V. mimicus B) V. fluvialis C) V. parahaemolyticus D) V. vulnificus Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Analysis

5. Darting motility in wet preps is characteristic of: A) Vibrio cholerae. B) Campylobacter jejuni. C) Aeromonas hydrophilia. D) Plesiomonas. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms

Chapter 14 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy:Recall

6. Arcobacter species: A) are isolated as significant human pathogens more often than Campylobacter. B) prefer a temperature of 35ºC to 37ºC for growth. C) are found in swine and bulls. D) require a capnophilic environment and are intolerant to oxygen. Ans. C Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Analysis

7. Which of the following Campylobacter species is an emerging periodontal pathogen? A) C. coli B) C. curvus C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni D) C. fetus subsp. fetus Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

8. Which of the following is true of choleragen? A) It is an enterotoxin that causes hypersecretion of water and electrolytes. B) It penetrates the bowel mucosa with red cells present in the stool. C) It is produced by both toxigenic and nontoxigenic strains of Vibrio cholerae.. D) It is an exotoxin that causes dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Application

9. All of the following Vibrio would be expected to grow in salt water, except: A) V. fluvialis. B) V. parahaemolyticus. C) V. vulnificus. D) V. mimicus. Ans. D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Vibrio Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms

Chapter 14 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy: Application

10. A case of cellulitis in a fisherman produced large, opaque, beta hemolytic colonies on sheep blood agar. The organism also grew on MacConkey agar, but failed to grow in 6.5% NaCl. This gram-negative bacillus was oxidase positive, indole positive, and fermented and produced gas from glucose. Of the following choices, which organism is most likely described? A) Aeromonas hydrophilia complex B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Aeromonas caviae complex D) Alcaligenes faecalis Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Aeromonas Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Analysis

1. Campylobacter jejuni ssp. jejuni has been identified as the cause of gastroenteritis in a small child..The child had eaten barbecued chicken, a hamburger, potato salad, and ice cream at a picnic. Based on the incidence of Campylobacter is these foods, which item was the most likely cause of the infection? A) chicken B) hamburger C) potato salad D) ice cream Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

2. Campylobacter are y isolated on _________________. A) Sheep blood agar B) TCBS agar C) Blood agar with antibiotics, (vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B) added D) MacConkey agar Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Recall

3. The Gram stain of Campylobacter would most likely show: A) Gram negative curved rods B) Gram negative rods with bipolar staining C) Gram negative coccobacilli D) Gram negative S-shaped forms that resemble gull wings

Chapter 14 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

4. Campylobacter jejuni ssp. jejuni has been isolated in an outbreak of foodborne disease. Which of the following sets of reactions correctly identify this organism? : Urease

Hippurate

Growth

Growth Growth

Nalidixic

Hydrolysis

at 25o C

at 37oC at 42o

Acid

Cephalothin

C a

Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Campylobacter Subject: Chapter 14 Title: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Campylobacter, and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Analysis

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 15 - Quiz

Matching

1. Identify the Haemophilus species by matching each with its correct biochemical reactions. Requirement for Fermentation of X factor V factor Hemolysis ALA Glucose Sucrose Lactose Fructose 1. – + – + + + – + 2. + + – – + – – – 3. + – Wk + – – – – – 4. + + + + Wk + 1. H. __________ Ans: parainfluenzae 2. H. __________ Ans: influenzae 3. H. __________ Ans: ducreyi 4. H. __________ Ans: haemolyticus Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

True/False

1. True or False? All species of Haemophilus are pathogenic. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Haemphilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy: Application

2. True or False? Brucella abortus is the cause of shipping fever. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Brucella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Recall

3. True or False? Francisella may be isolated on blood-cysteine glucose agar with thiamine. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Francisella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

4. True or False? Haemophilus parainfluenzae requires V factor, but not X factor. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? Streptobacillus is the etiologic agent of Haverhill fever. Ans: True Complexity :Easy Ahead: Streptobacillus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

6. True or False? Capnocytophaga are normal microbiota of the oral cavity and may be associated with periodontitis. Ans. True Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Capnocytophaga Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

Multiple Choice

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

1. Which of the following is true of V factor? A) It is heat stable. B) It is obtained from hemolyzed red cells. C) It contains coenzyme I. D) All of these are correct. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Recall

2. Haemophilus influenzae cannot grow on sheep blood agar because: A) NADase inactivates NAD. B) there is no source of hematin. C) it is porphyrin positive. D) it does not require NAD. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy :Analysis

3. Legionella species: A) require iron and L-cysteine to grow. B) are associated with zoonotic infections. C) are transmitted in respiratory droplets from person to person. D) are isolated on blood-cysteine glucose agar. Ans: A Complexity :Moderate Ahead: Legionella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

4. The __________ stage of pertussis is characterized by bacterial multiplication, paroxysmal coughing, and complications. A) catarrhal B) paroxysmal C) convalescent D) None of these is correct. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead:Bordetella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy:Application

5. The etiologic agent of undulant fever is: A) Brucella. B) Bordetella. C) Pasteurella. D) Streptobacillus. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Brucella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Recall

6. The most frequent type of infection attributed to Pasteurella is: A) pneumonia. B) wound infection. C) meningitis. D) endocarditis. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Pasteurella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Recall

7. A Brucella species gave the following reactions: Urease positive in 1.5 hours H2S negative Growth in presence of 20 μg thionine: Positive Growth in presence of 20 μg basic fuchsin: Positive This Brucella species is most likely: A) B. abortus. B) B. melitensis. C) B. suis. D) B. canis. Ans:B Complexity: Difficult Ahead:Brucella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

8. Which of the following is true of those Haemophilus species that are porphyrin positive? A) Require exogenous NAD B) Do not require exogenous NAD C) Require exogenous hemin D) Do not require exogenous hemin

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans:D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Analysis

9. The infectious agent of chancroid is: A) Haemophilus aegyptius. B) Eikenella corrodens. C) Haemophilus ducreyi. D) Cardiobacterium hominis. Ans:C Complexity:Easy Ahead :Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Recall

10. Which set of reactions is correct for Pasteurella multocida? Growth on Glucose Acid from Oxidase Catalase blood agar fermented glucose A) + + – – – B) – + + + – C) – – + + + D) + + + + – Ans:D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Pasteurella Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

11. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Bartonella species? A) B. quintana may be transmitted through the body louse. B) B. henselae is a cause of cat scratch disease. C) Bartonella species are oxidase positive and catalase positive. D) Bartonella are intracellular parasites in host red blood cells. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Bartonella and Afipia Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

Essay

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

1. List the genera that comprise the acronym HACEK. Ans: Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella Complexity:Moderate Ahead: HACEK Group Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:Recall

Fill in the blank

1. 1. The HACEK bacteria show slow and relatively poor growth, which is termed ______________. Ans: dysgonic Complexity: Easy Ahead: HACEK Group Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Recall

2. __________ is a beta hemolytic, gram-negative bacillus that may be mistaken for group A streptococcus in throat cultures. Ans: Haemophilus haemolyticus Complexity: Ahead: Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy:

A cerebrospinal fluid was collected from a 3 year old child. The Gram stain showed a thin GNB with a moderate amount of neutrophils. The specimen was plated onto sheep blood agar, CNA, chocolate agar and MacConkey agar. Small, grey colonies were observed only on the chocolate agar plate. 1. This specimen contains A) Gram positive cocci B) a nonfermentative Gram negative bacillus C) a fastidious Gram negative bacillus D) a member of Enterobacteriaceae Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead:Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Analysis

2. A small gram negative bacillus from a CSF specimen was inoculated onto a Haemophilus Quad plate Carbohydrate tests were also performed. There was no growth in the quadrant with hemin and no growth in the quadrant with NAD. There were small, grey colonies in the quadrant with both hemin and NAD. The horse blood quadrant showed growth with no hemolysis. These results align most closely with:

Chapter 15 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Haemophilus parainfluenzae C) Haemophilus haemolyticus D) Hemophilus ducreyi Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Analysis

3. An isolate has been identified as Haemophilus influenzae. It will likely give a positive reaction for: A) (ALA) porphyrin B) Glucose C) Sucrose D) Beta hemolysis Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Haemophilus Subject: Chapter 15 Title: Haemophilus, HACEK, Legionella, Bordetella, and other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli Taxonomy: Analysis

Chapter 16, Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 03 - Quiz

Matching

1. Match each GPB with its description or characteristics. 1. Gardnerella vaginalis Ans: Pleomorphic gram-positive to gram-variable bacillus 2. Bacillus anthracis Ans: Large spore-forming GPB 3. Listeria monocytogenes Ans: Tiny motile GPB that can grow at 25ºC and 35ºC 4. Lactobacillus acidophilus Ans: GPB with simple branching that produces acid 5. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Ans: Thin GPB appearing in chains that is H2S positive 6. Nocardia asteroides Ans: Partially acid fast, branching GPB 7. Corynebacterium diphtheriae Ans: Pleomorphic, club-shaped, non-branching GPB Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Throughout Chapter Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

Multiple Choice

1. All of the following are nonspore-forming gram-positive bacilli, except: A) Bacillus. B) Listeria. C) Corynebacterium. D) Erysipelothrix. Ans: A

Chapter 16, Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Spore Forming Gram Positive Bacteria Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

2. Bacillus cereus is isolated in a case of gastroenteritis. Which of the following is incorrect for this organism? A) Motile B) Nonhemolytic on sheep blood agar C) Starch hydrolysis positive D) Produces acid from glucose, maltose, and salicin Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Spore Forming Gram Positive Bacteria Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

3. Which of the following is associated with mycetoma? A) Gardnerella B) Erysipelothrix C) Nocardia D) Corynebacterium Ans: C Complexity:Easy Ahead:Nocardia Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy :Application

4. Which of the following bacteria are nonspore formers with a pleomorphic or diphtheroid appearance? A) Bacillus and Listeria B) Corynebacterium and Listeria C) Lactobacillus and Nocardia D) Actinomyces and Gardnerella Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Analysis

5. Listeriosis may include which of the following? A) Meningitis and conjunctivitis B) Conjunctivitis and anthrax C) Pneumonia and erysipeloid D) Bacterial vaginosis and meningitis

Chapter 16, Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Application

6. Which species of Corynebacterium was first characterized in 1976 as a multidrug-resistant agent in a variety of clinical infections and is now a significant opportunistic pathogen? A) C. diphtheriae B) C. ulcerans C) C. pseudotuberculosis D) C. jeikeium Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Recall

7. Which Corynebacterium species produces a diphtheria-like toxin and is most often a zoonotic pathogen associated with cattle and unpasteurized milk? A) C. urealyticum B) C. ulcerans C) C. pseudodiphtheriticum D) C. jeikeium Ans: C. Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Application

8. Which of the following is true of Streptomyces? A) Is a cause of actinomycetoma B) Is a thermophilic actinomycete C) Is a non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycete D) Is a rare cause of zoonotic infections Ans: A Complexity :Moderate Ahead:Non-spore Forming, Branching Gram-Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

True/False

Chapter 16, Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

1. True or False? The lactobacilli are generally considered to be normal microbiota. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Negative Gram Positive Bacteria Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

2. True or False? Pulmonary anthrax is commonly known as woolsorter's disease. Ans: True Complexity :Easy Ahead: Spore – Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Recall

3. True or False? Emetic toxin of Bacillus cereus is heat labile. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Spore – Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Recall

4. True or False? The virulence of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is attributed to its destructive endotoxin. Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Spore – Forming Gram-Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? Nocardia is partially acid fast. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Non-spore Forming, Branching Gram-Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Recall

1- The spinal fluid of a newborn is received in the laboratory.. The Gram stain shows a moderate amount of a tiny Gram positive diphtheroid along with neutrophils. The specimen is plated onto sheep blood agar, chocolate agar and MacConkey agar. You would expect it to grow on A) all three of these agar plates

Chapter 16, Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) the blood agar and MacConkey agar plates C) the blood agar and chocolate agar plates D) none of these agar plates Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy: Analysis

2. A Gram-positive diphtheroid whish is not acid fast, and is a nonspore former, that a narrow zone of beta hemolysis was noted on the sheep blood agar plate. Which of the following is most correct? A) The organism may be Bacillus anthracis B) Nocardia can be eliminated as a possible choice. C) This may be an aerotolerant Actinomyces D) The organism may likely be Listeria or Lactobacillus Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

3. The spinal fluid of a one week old infant is received in the laboratory.. The Gram stain shows a moderate amount of a tiny Gram positive diphtheroid along with neutrophils . The mother has been working in a pet store and has been suffering from gastroenteritis for about a week. Additional testing of the isolate revealed it to be catalase positive, oxidase negative, bile esculin positive, and H2S negative. A co-worker suggests that considering the mother's occupation this organism should be worked up as an Erysipelothrix. You disagree because Erysipelothrix is A) catalase negative B) nonhemolytic or alpha hemolytic C) H2S positive D) all of these are correct Ans: D Complexity :Difficult Ahead: : Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16 Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

4. An organism is identified as Listeria monocytogenes and additional testing on thie isolate would reveal it to: A) be nonmotile B) show umbrella-like growth in semisolid motility media C) be unable to grow at 25oC D) all of these are correct Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Non-Spore-Forming, Nonbranching, Catalase-Positive Gram Positive Bacilli Subject: Chapter 16

Chapter 16, Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Title: Gram-Positive Bacilli Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 17 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 17 - Quiz

True/False

1. True or False? The pathogenic treponemes are strict anaerobes. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Treponemes Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? Currently, Lyme disease is the most common tickborne disease in the United States. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Borrelia Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? Leptospira biflexa is usually nonpathogenic. Ans: True Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Leptospira Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? Most cases of leptospirosis are diagnosed through isolating in rabbit or bovine serum. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate

Chapter 17 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead :Leptospira Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy: Analysis

5. True or False? Ixodes ticks serve as the arthropod vectors for Lyme borreliosis. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Borrelia Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Recall

Multiple Choice

1. Relapsing fever is due to infection with: A) Borrelia recurrentis. B) Borrelia burgdorferi. C) Treponema pertenue. D) Leptospira interrogans. Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Borrelia Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy: Recall

2. The current recommended method for a clinical laboratory to detect Borrelia infections is: A) culture of modified Kelly's medium. B) thick blood films stained with Giemsa. C) antigen detection. D) PCR. Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead :Borrelia Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy: Application

3. Lyme disease is most generally diagnosed by: A) PCR and growth on modified Kelly's medium. B) patient medical history and biopsy of primary lesion. C) serology and patient medical history. D) thick blood films stained with Giemsa and PCR. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate

Chapter 17 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead:B Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy: Application

4. In the two-tier system for serological diagnosis of Lyme Disease: A) a Western blot is performed if the EIA or IFA test is positive or equivocal. B) the site of infection is biopsied if the EIA or IFA test is positive or equivocal. C) if the EIA or IFA test is negative, it is confirmed that the patient is negative for Lyme disease. D) qualitative PCR is performed followed by quantitative PCR. Ans: A Complexity :Difficult Ahead: Borrelia Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy: Analysis

5. In early primary syphilis, which of the following are most helpful in diagnosis? A) RPR and VDRL B) Clinical symptoms and darkfield of chancre C) FTA followed by RPR D) Clinical symptoms and thick blood films stained with Giemsa Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Treponemes Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy: Analysis

Fill In The Blank

1. T. pallidum subsp. endemicum is the cause of bejel or endemic __________. Ans: syphilis Complexity:Easy Ahead:Treponemes Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Recall

2. The RPR test detects __________, a nonspecific antibody-like compound. Ans: reagin Complexity:Easy Ahead:Treponemes Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 17 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

3. __________ disease is a rare, but severe form of icteric leptospirosis. Ans: Weil’s Complexity:Easy Ahead:Leptospira Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Recall

4. In __________ syphilis , there is a widespread rash of the skin and mucous membranes and early systemic signs of the infection. Ans: secondary Complexity:Easy Ahead:Treponemes Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Application

5. The __________________rash is a characteristic of early Lyme disease infection. Ans: erythema chronicum migrans Complexity:Easy Ahead: Borrelia Subject: Chapter 17 Title: Spirochetes Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 18 - Quiz

Matching

1. For each of the following, indicate whether the specimen is acceptable (A) or unacceptable (U) for anaerobic culture: 1. Necrotic tissue Ans: A 2. Sputum Ans: U 3. Tissue from liver abscess Ans: A 4. Swab of wound Ans: U Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Specimen Collection and Transport Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Application

True/False

1. True or False? Most anaerobic infections occur from an exogenous source. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Overview of Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? Those anaerobes that produce superoxide dismutase are more resistant to oxygen.

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Overview of Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

3. True or False? The clostridia produce true exotoxins. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Recall

4. True or False? Peptococcus niger is an anaerobic, gram-negative coccus. Ans: False Complexity :Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? Clostridia are catalase negative and have swollen spores. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Recall

Multiple Choice

1. Of the following specimens, which should be rejected for anaerobic work-up? A) Cerebrospinal fluid B) Abdominal abscess C) Necrotic tissue D) Sputum Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Specimen Collection and Processing Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Analysis

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. An anaerobic bacterium growing on anaerobic blood agar, but not on kanamycin-vancomycin, could be: A) Bacteroides. B) Fusobacterium. C) Peptococcus. D) Prevotella. Ans: C Complexity :Difficult Ahead: Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

3. The purpose of the palladium in the anaerobic jar is that it: A) produces hydrogen ions. B) acts as a catalyst. C) determines if oxygen is in the system. D) generates CO2. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Recall

4. __________ is susceptible to sodium polyanethol sulfonate. while other gram-positive anaerobic cocci are resistant. A) Finegoldia magna B) Staphylococcus asaccharolyticus C) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius D) Veillonella Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Recall

5. Growth in 20% bile is useful in the identification of: A) Clostridioides difficile. B) Bacteroides fragilis. C) Clostridium perfringens. D) Fusobacterium necrophorum. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

6. After the incubation of cultures in an anaerobic jar, the methylene blue strip has reverted to its original blue color. This indicates: A) anaerobiosis has been achieved. B) oxygen may have entered the system. C) the system has failed. D) oxygen may have entered the system and the system has failed. E) anaerobiosis has been achieved, oxygen may have entered the system, and the system has failed. Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Analysis

7. An organism that cannot use oxygen as the final electron acceptor and is inhibited by its presence is known as a(n): A) obligate aerobe. B) obligate anaerobe. C) facultative anaerobe. D) microaerophile. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Overview of Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Recall

8. The spores of Clostridium tetani are located: A) centrally. B) subterminally. C) terminally. D) C. tetani does not have spores. Ans: C Complexity:Easy Ahead :Identification; Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Recall

9. Which of the following reactions is incorrect for Clostridium perfringens? A) Lecithinase positive B) Ferments glucose and maltose C) Motile D) Double zone of hemolysis on anaerobic blood agar Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

10. Endogenous anaerobes of the skin include which of the following? A) Bacteroides fragilis group, Prevotella, and Lactobacillus B) Fusobacterium and Peptostreptococcus C) Cutibacterium and Peptostreptococcus D) Clostridium ramosum and Propionibacterium Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead :Overview of Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Application

11. Growth from an abscess showed light growth on chocolate agar when incubated in ambient air at 35ºC, which was enhanced when grown on anaerobic blood agar and incubated anaerobically at 35ºC. This colony type is best categorized as a(n): A) obligate anaerobe. B) facultative anaerobe. C) aerotolerant anaerobe. D) obligate aerobe. Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Analysis

12. A diarrheal stool specimen with a diagnosis of “Rule-out C. diff” is received in the microbiology laboratory from a skilled nursing facility. Glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH) is positive and the Toxin A and Toxin B by EIA is negative. Which of the following actions should be taken? A) The Toxin A may be a false negative if the specimen has been held at room temperature and is older than 2 hours. Verify proper specimen storage and transport. B) The GDH may be a false positive if the specimen has not been stored and processed correctly. Verify proper specimen storage and transport. C) Report the specimen as positive for active Clostridioides difficile infection. D) Plate the specimen onto cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar. Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

13. Which anaerobic gram-positive coccus is catalase negative, resistant to SPS, unable to ferment carbohydrates, and is the cause of chronic wound and soft-tissue infections?

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

A) Peptococcus niger B) Aerococcus tetradus C) Finegoldia magna D) Peptoniphilus asaccharolyticus Ans: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Analysis

Fill In The Blank

1. Both lipase and __________ activity can be determined using egg yolk agar. Ans: lecithinase Complexity:Easy Ahead:Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Recall

2. __________ is used for the selective isolation of Clostridioides difficile. Ans: Cycloserine-cefoxitin fructose agar Complexity:Easy Ahead: Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Recall

3. An organism that grew on chocolate agar at 35ºC as well as on anaerobic blood agar is classified as a(n) __________ anaerobe. Ans: facultative Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy: Analysis

4. __________ produce a brick-red fluorescence when viewed under the ultraviolet light. Ans: Prevotella and Porphyromonas Alternate ans: Porphyromonas and Prevotella Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation or Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy:Recall

5. __________, or gas gangrene, produces severe tissue destruction. Ans: Myonecrosis Complexity: Easy Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Recall

1, A 65-year-old male has developed an abdominal abscess following surgery for a bowel resection. The specimen is sent to the laboratory and the Gram stain shows many pleomorphic Gram negative bacilli. 1. Based on the information given, which of the following are possible genera? A) Clostridium or Peptostreptococcus B) Bacteroides or Prevotella C) Peptostreptococcus or Porphyromonas D) Clostridium or Bacteroides Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

2. Which of the following is the best combination for primary isolation of an abdominal abscess that showed pleomorphic gram negative bacilli on the direct Gram stain? A) Anaerobic Blood Plate, Kanamycin-Vancomycin, Thioglycollate and Bacteroides Bile Esculin B) Anaerobic Blood Plate, chocolate agar, and Cycloserine-cefoxitin fructose agar C) MacConkey Agar, Kanamycin-Vancomycin, Bacteroides Bile Esculin, and Anaerobic Blood plate D) Anaerobic Blood Plate, Colistin Nalidixic Acid, and Thioglycollate Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Anaerobic Culture Media and Incubation Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobe Taxonomy:Application

3. Peritoneal fluid produced anaerobic growth on the Kanamycin-Vancomycin plate when incubated anaerobicall. Which of the following responses is correct? A) the presence of an obligate gram positive anaerobe B) the presence of an obligate or facultative gram negative anaerobe C) the presence of an obligate gram negative anaerobe D) that the specimen contains Clostridioides difficile. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes

Chapter 18 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy: Analysis

4Black growth on the Bacteroides Bile Esculin plate A) indicates growth in 20% bile and production of H2S B) indicates pigment production by Prevotella or Porphyromonas C) is useful in ruling out all of the species of Bacteroides D) is useful as a presumptive identification for the Bacteroides fragilis group Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Application

5. A gram negative pleomorphic bacillus that produced black colonies on Bacteroides Bile Esculin agar and was positive for catalase and negative for lipase, lecithinase, and indoleis most likely: A) Prevotella intermedia B) Fusobacterium necrophorum C) Clostridium perfringens D) Bacteroides fragilis Ans: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

6. Consider the following results. An organism identified as Bacteroide fragilis would be expected to A) ferment glucose and lactose B) show susceptibility to penicillin, vancomycin, kanamycin and colistin C) produce a red fluorescent pigment visible with the ultraviolet light D) produce DNAse and digest milk Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Clinically Relevant Anaerobes Subject: Chapter 18 Title: Anaerobes Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 19 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Import Settings: Base Settings: Brownstone Default Information Field: Complexity Information Field: Ahead Information Field: Subject Information Field: Title Information Field: Feedback Information Field: Taxonomy Information Field: Objective Highest Answer Letter: D Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No NAS ISBN13: 9781284202212, add to Ahead, Title tags

Chapter: Chapter 19 - Quiz

True/False

1. True or False? The mycobacteria are easily stained using the Gram stain method. Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead : None (introductory text) Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: Recall

2. True or False? The photochromogens are pigmented yellow when exposed to a constant light source. Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Identification Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Application

3. True or False? Twenty-four hour sputum collections are preferred for diagnosis of tuberculosis. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Specimen Collection Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: Application

4. True or False? Fluorochrome stains for mycobacteria are more sensitive than carbolfuchsin stains. Ans: True Complexity:Easy

Chapter 19 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Ahead: Direct Microscopic Methods: Staining Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? All mycobacteria grow optimally at 35ºC to 37ºC. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Culture Media Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: Application

Multiple Choice

1. Safety practices that must be followed when working with mycobacteria include which of the ofllowing? A) Personnel must use personal protective equipment. B) Employees are screened annually with tuberculin skin test and chest X-ray. C) Biosafety Level 3 precautions are recommended. D) all of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead :Classification Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: Application

2. Sputum samples can be digested with: A) 2% NaOH. B) N-acetyl-L-cysteine. C)1% HCL. D) urease. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Specimen Processing Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Recall

3. The cell walls of mycobacteria: A) are rich in peptidoglycan. B) can be easily decolorized. C) have a high percentage of lipids, such as mycolic acid and cord factor wax D. D) have characteristics of a gram-negative cell wall. Ans: C Complexity: moderate

Chapter 19 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Ahead:Direct Microscopic Methods- Staining Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: application

4. A laboratory professional determines that there are an average of 5 AFB per every 100 microscopic fields while using the carbolfuchsin stain. According to CDC guidelines, this would be reported as: A) doubtful. B) rare or 1+. C) few or 2+. D) moderate or 3+. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Direct Microscopic Methods- Staining Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Analysis

5. Which of the following is an example of a nonselective, egg-based mycobacterial media? A) Löwenstein-Jensen B) Middlebrook 7H10 C) Gruft modified LJ slant D) Mitchison's Middlebrook 7H11 Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Culture Media Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Application

6. Mycobacterium leprae: A) grows in 6–8 weeks on Löwenstein-Jensen. B) is the cause of bovine tuberculosis. C) cannot be cultured in vitro. D) is known as the Battey bacillus. Ans: C Complexity:moderate Ahead :Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:application

7. Which of the following mycobacteria causes skin infections from contact with contaminated water and produces a yellow pigment when exposed to light? A) M. gordonae B) M. avium-intracellular complex C) M. xenopi D) M. marinum

Chapter 19 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Nontuberculosis Mycobacterium (NTM) Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Analysis

8. Which mycobacterium is a common contaminant of water sources; is rarely pathogenic, except in the immunosuppressed; and produces smooth yellow to orange colonies in the light and in the dark. A) M. gordonae B) M. malmoense C) M. xenopi D) M. marinum Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Nontuberculosis Mycobacterium (NTM) Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Analysis

9. Which mycobacterium is associated with pulmonary, gastrointestinal, and disseminated disease in those with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? A) M. bovis B) M. avium complex (MAC) C) M. ulcerans D) M. szulgai Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Nontuberculosis Mycobacterium (NTM) Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Recall

10. Which of the following statements is true about tuberculosis? A) It is a chronic infection. B) It only occurs in the lungs. C) It has shown no antibiotic resistance. D) It is a rare infectious disease in the world. Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Application

11. Which of the following reactions is not correct for M. tuberculosis? A) Nonpigmented, rough, granular colonies B) Reduces nitrates to nitrites

Chapter 19 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition C) Niacin positive D) Heat stable catalase positive Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy: Analysis

12. In the two-step testing for tuberculosis, a patient care aid at a skilled nursing facility has an initial negative TST with a positive result for the second skin test given 2 weeks later. This most likely indicates: A) a boosted reaction and the individual is probably not infected. B) a false-negative reaction due to a diminished ability to react to PPD. C) a positive reaction indicating, the individual has been recently infected. D) active tuberculosis disease. Ans: A Complexity :Difficult Ahead: Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Analysis

13. An isolate of M. tuberculosis is found to be resistant to isoniazid, rifampin, fluoroquinolone, and amikacin. This should be would be classified as: A) multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. B) extensively drug resistant tuberculosis. C) secondary drug resistant tuberculosis. D) unsusceptible tuberculosis. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Analysis

Matching

1. Match each mycobacterial species with its NTM group. 1. M. gordonae Ans: Scotochromogen 2. M. avium complex Ans: Nonphotochromogen 3. M. kansasii Ans: Photochromogen 4. M. fortuitum Ans: Rapid Grower 5. M. haemophilum Ans: Nonphotochromogen

Chapter 19 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition 6. M. marinum Ans: Photochromogen Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Nontuberculosis Mycobacterium (NTM) Subject: Chapter 19 Title: Mycobacterium Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 20 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 20 - Quiz

Fill In the Blank

1. In the life cycle of chlamydia, the __________ is the infective particle that attaches to the host cells. Ans: elementary body Complexity: easy Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: application

2. The smallest free-living organisms known are the __________. Ans: mycoplasmas Complexity: easy Ahead: Mycoplasmataceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: application

3. Nonspecific antibodies produced by some individuals infected with Mycoplasma pneumoniae are known as __________. Ans: cold agglutinins Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mycoplasmataceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Application

4. Epidemic typhus and Brill-Zinser disease are caused by __________. Ans: Rickettsia prowazekii

Chapter 20 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Rickettsiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

5. Round to oval bacterial clusters found in blood cells from infections of Ehrlichia and Anaplasma are known as __________. Ans: morulae Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Anaplasmataceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

Multiple Choice

1. Chlamydia trachomatis is the etiologic agent of A) nongonococcal urethritis. B) endemic trachoma. C) lymphogranuloma venereum. D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:easy Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:recall

2. Chlamydiae: A) can survive outside of the host cell. B) contain DNA, but not RNA. C) are unable to synthesize proteins or lipids. D) are obligate intracellular parasites. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Application

3. Which of the following is true of psittacosis? A) Is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae B) Is an occupational hazard for pet shop workers and veterinarians C) Is spread through direct contact with infected respiratory droplets D) Requires a tick vector for transmission

Chapter 20 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Application

4. Which of the following are types of rickettsial disease? A) Q fever and scrub typhus B) Spotted fevers and scrub typhus C) Walking pneumonia and spotted fevers D) Ehrlichiosis and spotted fevers. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Rickettsiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

5. Which of the following does not require a vector for transmission? A) Orientia tsutsugamushi B) Anaplasma phagocytophilum C) Rickettsia akari D) Coxiella burnetti Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Rickettsiaceae and Anaplasmataceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Application

6. Which of the following is correct about lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)? A) It is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3. B) It is a sexually transmitted disease found in Asia, Africa, and South America due to infection with Ureaplasma urealyticum C) It is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States and may be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D through K. D) It is caused by the genital mycoplasma, Mycoplasma genitalium, and has been declining in prevalence. Ans. A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

7. Currently, the recommended method to identify Chlamydia trachomatis is A) serology.

Chapter 20 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) nucleic acid amplification, such as polymerase chain reaction. C) cell culture with McCoy’s heteroploid murine cells. D) enzyme immunoassay for chlamydia antigen. Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Application

8. The iodine stain for identification of C. trachomatis stains: A) the glycogen in the inclusion brown. B) the periplasmic space purple. C) the cell membrane brown. D) the DNA in the inclusion purple. Ans: A Complexity: moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: application

9. The DFA technique for Chlamydia trachomatis detects: A) the patient’s antibodies to C. trachomatis. B) elementary bodies of C. trachomatis. C) cold-agglutinating antibodies produced in response to C. trachomatis infection. D) febrile agglutinins. Ans. B Complexity:moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: application

True/False

1. True or False? The preferred specimen to culture for chlamydia is a cotton swab of the site of infection. Ans: False Complexity:moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:application

2. True or False? To diagnose chlamydia infection, detection of chlamydial antigen is considered to be more diagnostic than detection of antibody.

Chapter 20 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Chlamydiaceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Application

3. True or False? Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the etiologic agent of primary atypical pneumonia. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Mycoplasmataceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy: Recall

4. True or False? The cause of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is Rickettsia typhi. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Rickettsieceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? The etiologic agent of human monocytic ehrlichiosis is Ehrlichia chaffeensis. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead: Anaplasmataceae Subject: Chapter 20 Title: Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Similar Organisms Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 21 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is used in superficial fungal infections to dissolve the skin, hair, or nails so that the fungal structures can be observed? A) KOH B) NaOH C) Cellufluor D) 70% alcohol Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead: Specimen Collection – Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

2. Which of the following stains is used to visualize fungal structures in tease preparations and slide cultures? A) India ink B) Lactophenol cotton blue C) Giemsa D) Periodic acid – Schiff Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead: Specimen Collection – Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

3. One drawback of using SDA with cycloheximide and chloramphenicol is that: A) bacterial growth is inhibited. B) dermatophytes cannot grow.

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

C) it is not suitable for systemic infections. D) Cryptococcus and other yeast may be inhibited. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead :Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Application

4. Growth characteristics of most fungi include all of the following, except: A) molds grow in temperature range of 25ºC to 30ºC. B) most are facultative anaerobes. C) most prefer increased humidity. D) yeasts grow best at 35ºC to 37ºC. Ans: B Complexity :Moderate Ahead: Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Analysis

5. Macroscopic growth characteristics of the fungi include: A) topography. B) texture. C) pigmentation. D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead :Identification Methods Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Application

6. Which dermatophyte typically produces two- to four-celled smooth, club-shaped macroconidia, but does not produce microconidia? A) Microsporum B) Trichophyton C) Epidermophyton D) Both Microsporum and Epidermophyton Ans: C Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Fungal Infectionsn Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:

7. The dematiaceous fungi: A) have hyaline hyphae.

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) are agents of superficial mycoses. C) are pigmented brown to black. D) are dimorphic. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Application

8. Which of the following fungi associated with subcutaneous fungal infections is also considered to be a dimorphic fungus? A) Phialophora verrucosa B) Cladosporium carrionii C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi D) Sporothrix schenckii Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Application

9. The dimorphic fungi with rectangular arthrospores: A) would most likely be found in South America. B) produces small, budding yeast cells within white cells in the tissue phase. C) produces large, round, thick-walled spherules with endospores in the tissue phase. D) is transmitted by inhalation of spores in bat or pigeon droppings. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Recall

10. The most outstanding characteristic of Candida albicans is its: A) capsule. B) production of germ tubes. C) assimilation of carbohydrates. D) abundant red pigment. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Recall

11. The vegetative hyphae: A) absorb nutrients and water for the fungus.

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

B) extend into the air. C) are known also as the reproductive hyphae. D) contain the spores or conidia. Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead:Fungal Morphology and Reproduction Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

12. Small, oval, intracellular yeast cells appearing in Giemsa-stained preparations of bone marrow or peripheral blood should most likely be worked up as: A) Candida albicans. B) Microsporum gypseum. C) Blastomyces dermatitidis. D) Histoplasma capsulatum. Ans. D Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Analysis

13. An agent of chromoblastomycosis that is a very slow-growing, black-olive or gray mold and that microscopically produces dark, septate hyphae with primary conidia forming at the tip of the conidiophore with secondary and tertiary conidia is most likely: A) Cladophialophora carrionii. B) Exophiala jeanselmi. C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi. D) Pseudoallescheria boydii. Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Analysis

14. Which of the following is characterized by aseptate hyphae, stolons with rhizoids, and sporangiophores giving rise to sporangia in an internodal attachment? A) Aspergillus B) Mucor C) Rhizopus D) Lichtheimia Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

15. Which atypical fungus, originally classified as a protozoan parasite, is a cause of pneumonia in the immunosuppressed, especially those with HIV-AIDS? A) Pneumocystis jiroveci B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Pseudoallescberia boydii D) Blastomyces dermatitidis Ans. A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

16. Characteristics of Candida auris include all of the following, except: A) asymptomatically colonizes patients. B) usually susceptible to fluconazole and most first-line antifungal treatments. C) oval to elongated budding yeast. D) can tolerate high salt concentrations and temperatures of 40ºC to 42ºC. Ans. B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Analysis

Fill In the Blank

1. Tinea pedis refers to ringworm of the __________. Ans: foot Complexity:Easy Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

2. A chronic granulomatous infection of the tissue and bone with draining sinuses is known as a(n) __________. Ans: mycetoma Complexity:Easy Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

3. Dimorphic fungi exhibit a(n) __________ or tissue phase at 35ºC to 37ºC. Ans: yeast Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Fungal Morphology and Reproduction Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Application

4. Thick-walled resistant spores that represent enlarged terminal hyphae are known as __________. Ans: chlamydoconidia Alternate ans: chlamydospores Complexity: moderate Ahead: Fungal Morphology and Reproduction Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

5. The primary isolation media for fungi is __________ dextrose agar. Ans: Sabouraud Complexity: Easy Ahead: Specimen Collection Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

True/False

1. True or False? Zoophilic fungal infections are transmitted through contact with an infected animal. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? Trichophyton species can infect the skin and hair, but not the nails. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? The agent of Black Piedra is Trichosporon beigelii.

Chapter 21 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Application

4. True or False? The Mucormycetes produce septate hyphae. Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy: Application

5. True or False? Cryptococcus is an encapsulated yeast that is urease positive. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Fungal Infections Subject: Chapter 21 Title: Introduction to Clinical Mycology Taxonomy:Application

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 22 - Quiz

Multiple Choice

1. When concentrating specimens, one problem with the zinc sulfate flotation method is: A) the concentrate may be obscured with fecal debris. B) larva are destroyed. C) operculated eggs and some protozoans do not float. D) helminth eggs cannot be collected using this method. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Laboratory Diagnosis of Parasite Infections Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy: Application

2. An advantage of sedimenting stool specimens using formalin-ether concentration is: A) there is a clear concentrate to visualize the parasites. B) all eggs and larvae can be concentrated using this method. C) there is no need to centrifuge. D) the eggs are easily skimmed from the surface. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Laboratory Diagnosis of Parasite Infections Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

3. The trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica: A) exhibits sluggish, nonprogressive motility. B) has coarsely granular, vacuolated cytoplasm. C) may have ingested red cells or bacteria. D) is binucleate.

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy Application

4. __________ is the intestinal amoeba whose cyst contains a glycogen mass. A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Entamoeba hartmanni C) Endolimax nana D) Iodamoeba butschlii Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

5. Which of the following is correct about Naegleria? A) Its trophozoites can transform into a pear-shaped flagellates. B) It is the cause of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis. C) It shows progressive motility. D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy: Application

6. Which intestinal flagellate’s trophozoite form has two nuclei with central karyosomes, a ventral sucking disk with a pointed anterior end, and bilateral symmetry? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Trichomonas hominis C) Dientamoeba fragilis D) Giardia lamblia Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Analysis

7. The sexual cycle of Toxoplasma gondii occurs in: A) dogs. B) humans. C) cats.

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) rats. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

8. Plasmodium falciparum: A) is the agent of benign tertian malaria. B) has a crescent shaped gametocyte. C) typically shows one single parasite per cell. D) shows red cells that are up 1 1/2 to 2 times the normal size. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Sporozoa from Blood and tissue Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

9. Chagas disease is diagnosed by observation of which of the following? A) C-shaped trypomastigotes in blood smears B) Embryonated egg in stool C) Microfilariae in tissue D) Piriform stage in blood smears Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Hemoflagellates Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Analysis

10. The first intermediate host for the flatworms is: A) water vegetation. B) snails. C) fresh water fish. D) tse tse flies. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead:Trematode Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

11. The intestinal coccidians: A) do not have a sexual phase in the life cycle. B) require an arthropod vector. C) may be identified using the modified acid fast stain.

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) are nonpathogenic. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

12. The Plasmodium species that is the agent of a quartan malaria: A) is P. ovale. B) produces multiple ring forms in red blood cells. C) produces low levels of parasitism. D) is associated with red cells enlarged up to two times the normal size. Ans. C Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Sporozoa from blood and tissue Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

13.Trypanosoma cruzi: A) is the etiologic agent of kalaazar. B) is transmitted through the bite of an infected sand fly from the genus Phlebotomus. C) causes African sleeping sickness following the bite of an infected tsetse fly. D) is transmitted through infected reduviid bugs, causing Chagas disease.. Ans. D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Hemoflagellates Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

14. Which roundworm has a thick, bile-stained albuminous coat that measures 60 mm by 45 mm? A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Necator americanus D) Trichuris trichiura Ans. A Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Nematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Analysis

15. An amoeba isolated from a patient with keratitis has spiny pseudopods and well-defined ectoplasm and endoplasm, but no flagellar phase noted. It is most likely: A) Iodamoeba butschlii. B) Acanthamoeba. C) Cryptosporidium.

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

D) Naegleria. Ans. B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy: Analysis

16. Diagnosis of African sleeping sickness is based on the observation of: A) the amastigote form in reticuloendothelial cells. B) trypomastigotes in peripheral blood. C) a marked increase in serum IgG. D) xenodiagnosis. Ans. B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Hemoflagellates Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Analysis

17. The etiologic agent of Old World leishmaniasis is : A) Trypanosoma brucei subspecies rhodesiense. B) Trypanosoma brucei subspecies gambiense. C) Leishmania donovani complex. D) Leishmania tropica. Ans. D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Hemoflagellates Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

18. In a suspected infection from a trematode, eggs are found only in the urine, which would most likely indicate: A) Schistosoma mansoni. B) Schistosoma haematobium. C) Schistosoma japonicum. D) Paragonimus westermani. Ans. B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Trematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Analysis

19. Which of the following is the vector for Plasmodium? A) Anopheles mosquitoes B) Sand flies

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

C) Ticks D) Tsetse flies Ans: A Complexity:Easy Ahead: Sporozoa from blood and tissue Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

20. A coccidian parasite is isolated from the stool of an individual who was experiencing severe abdominal bloating and watery diarrhea in a suspected outbreak from contaminated blackberries. The sporocysts were very small, staining bright pink with the modified acid-fast stain. The sporocysts exhibited autofluorescence, appearing blue when exposed to ultraviolet light of 365 nm and green under 450–490 nm. This parasite is most likely: A) Cystoisospora. B) Cyclospora. C) Cryptosporidium. D) Microsporidium. Ans. B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Protozoa Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Analysis

True/False

1. True or False? The thick blood film is used to identify the parasitic species. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Laboratory Diagnosis of Parasite Infections Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

2. True or False? The sexual reproductive phase of the parasite occurs in the definitive host. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Introduction and Definitions Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

3. True or False? Bladder worms are characteristic of Dipylidium caninum. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead:Cestodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? The gravid proglottid of Taenia saginata has more uterine branches than that of T. solium. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Cestodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:recall

5. True or False? The first larval stage of the flukes is known as the cercaria stage. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Trematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

6. True or False? The eggs of Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale are easily differentiated. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Nematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

7. True or False? Enterobius vermicularis is most often isolated from perianal folds. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Nematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

Matching

Match each parasitic group with its common name. 1. Nematodes Ans: Roundworms 2. Cestodes

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: Tapeworms 3. Trematodes Ans: Flatworms Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction and Definitions Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

Match each parasite with its vector. 1. Plasmodium Ans: Anopheles mosquito 2. Trypanosoma brucei Ans: Glossina tse tse flies 3. Trypanosoma cruzi Ans: Reduviid or triatomid bugs 4. Babesia microti Ans: Ticks 5. Brugia malayi Ans: Mansonia and Aedes mosquitoes Complexity:Moderate Ahead :Hemoflagellates and Sporozoa from blood and tissue Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Application

Fill in the Blank

1. The parasite that is the etiologic agent of river blindness is __________ Ans: Onchocerca volvulus. Complexity: moderate Ahead:Nematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy: recall

2. The asexual reproduction of Plasmodium in the red cells, where merozoites develop into ring forms, is known as erythrocytic __________. Ans: schizogony Complexity:moderate Ahead:Sporozoa from blood and tissue Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy: application

Chapter 22 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

3. Toxocara canis is commonly known as the __________. Ans: Dog roundworm Complexity: Moderate Ahead:Nematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:Recall

4. Humans are accidental hosts for __________ by ingesting the larvae in infected pork, which encyst in striated muscle tissue. Ans: trichinosis Alternate ans: Trichinella spiralis Alternate ans: T. spiralis Complexity:moderate Ahead:Nematodes Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:application

5. Asexual reproduction of intestinal coccidia that occurs in the host cells is known as __________. Ans: merogony Alternate ans: schizogony Complexity:moderate Ahead:Sporozoa from blood and tissue Subject: Chapter 22 Title: Introduction to Clinical Parasitology Taxonomy:application

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 23 - Quiz

True/False

1. True or False? Viruses contain both DNA and RNA. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead :Viral Structure and characteristics Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Recall

2. True or False? Viruses with enveloped nucleocapsids are more resistant to drying than those with naked nucleocapsids. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Viral structure and characteristics Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

3. True or False? Specimens for viral analysis should be frozen if a delay in analysis is expected. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Specimen Collection and Processing Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

4. True or False? Rubivirus is a classified as a togavirus, but does not require an arthropod vector. Ans: True

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Recall

5. True or False? The Salk caccine for polio stimulates both serum and mucosal antibody production. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

Matching

Match the step of viral replication to its correct place in the order. 1. Assembly Ans: Second 2. Adsorption Ans: Third 3. Penetration Ans: Fifth 4. Release Ans: Sixty 5. Uncoating Ans: First 6. Eclipse Ans: Fourth Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Viral Structure and Characteristics Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy: Recall

Multiple Choice

1. The protein coat of the virus is known as the: A) virion. B) capsid. C) nucleocapsid. D) envelope. Ans: B Complexity:easy Ahead: Viral structure and characteristics Subject: Chapter 23

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:recall

2. Although dependent on the virus to be isolated, optimal specimen collection time to detect most viral infections is: A) early in the course of the disease. B) during the convalescent phase. C) during the latent phase. D) 1 week after the onset of symptoms. Ans: A Complexity:moderate Ahead:Specimen Collection and Processing Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:application

3. “Owl’s eye” cytological inclusions are characteristic of infection caused by: A) HIV. B) CMV. C) HSV. D) VZV. Ans: B Complexity:Easy Ahead:Specimen Collection and Procesing Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Analysis

4. The stage of viral replication in which the virus replicates and then expresses genetic material is known as: A) adsorption. B) uncoating. C) eclipse. D) assembly. Ans: C Complexity:moderate Ahead:Viral Structure and Characteristics Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

5. Heteroploid cell lines: A) are directly derived from the parent tissue. B) contain at least 75% of cells with the same karyotype as the primary cell culture. C) include human embryonic kidney and rabbit kidney cell lines. D) may be derived from malignant or transformed cells. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ahead:Specimen Collection and Processing Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

6. Serology for the diagnosis of viral infections: A) requires only an acute-phase specimen and any antibody titer is significant B) requires a two-fold increase between the acute-phase and convalescent-phase specimens C) is useful in the diagnosis of chronic viral infections. D) is most valuable when acute- and chronic-phase specimens are analyzed. Ans: D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Specimen Collection and Processing Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy: Application

7. All of the following hepatitis viruses are spread through the parenteral or sexual route, except: A) HAV. B) HBV. C) HCV. D) HDV. Ans: A Complexity Easy Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Analysis

8. Which of the following HBV markers is present in both acute and chronic hepatitis, is a marker of infectivity, and is associated with chronic liver disease? A) HBsAg B) HBeAg C) Anti-HBsAg D) Anti-HBcAg-IgM Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Analysis

9. Herpes viruses: A) contain RNA and have icosahedral symmetry. B) require an arthropod vector. C) remain latent in peripheral nerves and white cells. D) are associated with squamous dysplasia. Ans: C

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

10. Which of the following viruses is the etiologic agent of infectious mononucleosis? A) Cytomegalovirus B) Varicella virus C) Parainfluenza virus D) Epstein-Barr virus Ans: D Complexity:easy Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy: Recall

11. West Nile Virus: A) is transmitted through infected respiratory secretions. B) is carried by infected birds. C) dead ends in the human host. D) does not require an arthropod vector. Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

12. Hemorrhagic fevers may be caused by: A) Phlebovirus. B) Nairovirus. C) Hantavirus. D) All of these are correct. Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Recall

13. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the influenza virus? A) The hemagglutinin antigen permits viral entry into the host cell. B) It is an enveloped RNA virus. C) Major antigenic changes in the HA or NA antigens are known as antigenic drift. D) Antigenic shift may be associated with a pandemic. Ans: D

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Analysis

14. In the fifth-generation algorithm for the diagnosis of HIV-AIDS, which of the following is correct? A) An individual testing negative for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and HIVp24 ag requires testing for HIV nucleic acid. B) If an individual tests positive for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and HIVp24ag, confirmation for HIV nucleic acid is required. C) Those who have a positive screen test for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and HIV p24ag require antibody testing to differentiate HIV-1 from HIV-2. D) Western blot for p24ag is used to confirm a positive screen test for HIV-1 and HIV-2. Ans. C Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Analysis

15. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the coronaviruses? A). Genetically, these viruses resemble West Nile Virus. B) They are named for their crown-like projections. C) They are enveloped viruses with large RNA genomes and helical symmetry. D) Clinically, these viruses are associated with both mild and severe respiratory syndromes. Ans: A Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

16. Which molecular diagnostic method converts viral RNA to messenger RNA and then to DNA prior to PCR amplification and is used to identify RNA viruses? A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) B) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (real-time PCR) C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D) Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) Ans: D Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Specimen Collection and Processing Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Application

Fill in the Blank

Chapter 23 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

1. __________ is the viral agent of rubeola or measles. Ans: Morbillivirus Complexity:Easy Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:Recall

2. An enzyme unique to the Retroviruses is __________. Ans: reverse transcriptase Complexity:Easy Ahead: Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:recall

3. the virus associated with acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome is __________________. Ans: Human Immunodeficiency Virus -1 (HIV-1) Complexity:easy Ahead: Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:recall

4. __________ virus is an incomplete hepatitis virus requiring HBV for infectivity. Ans: Delta Alternate ans: Hepatitis D Complexity:moderate Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:application

5. The etiologic agent of smallpox is __________ virus. Ans: variola Complexity:easy Ahead: Selected Medically Important Viruses Subject: Chapter 23 Title: Introduction to Clinical Virology Taxonomy:recall

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Chapter: Chapter 24 - Quiz

True/False

1. True or False? The recommended number of specimens to be collected for blood cultures is one set every 24 hours. Ans: False Complexity:Easy Ahead:Blood Cultures and Bacteremia Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:application

2. True or False? In cases of bacteremia, the highest concentration of bacteria in blood occurs after the fever spikes. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Blood Cultures and Bacteremia Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy: Application

3. True or False? The isolation of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus from only one blood culture bottle most likely indicates contamination. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Blood Cultures and Bacteremia Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

4. True or False? An infection of the abdominal cavity is known as pericarditis. Ans: False Complexity:easy Ahead:Pleural, Peritoneal, Pericardial, and Synovial Fluids Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:recall

5. True or False? Cerebrospinal fluid should be refrigerated for storage. Ans: False Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Cerebrospinal Fluid- Meningitis and Central Nervous System Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Application

6. True or False? The acidic pH of the stomach protects parts of the gastrointestinal tract from infection. Ans: True Complexity:Easy Ahead:Gastrointestinal Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Application

7. True or False? Exudates are effusions with a high specific gravity and may result from infection. Ans: True Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Pleural, Peritoneal, Pericardial, and Synovial Fluids Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is correct for blood culture collection? A) Generally, a 1:20 dilution of blood in blood culture media is recommended. B) Isolation of Cutibacterium acnes from a single culture indicates bacteremia. C) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) acts as an anticoagulant, and also inactivates neutrophils and some antibiotics. D) 1% gelatin may inhibit the growth of fastidious bacteria. Ans. B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Blood Cultures and Bacteremia Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

2. Which of the following is not a possible source of extravascular bacteremia? A) Genitourinary infection B) Abscess C) Pneumonia D) Endocarditis Ans. D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Blood Cultures and Bacteremia Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy: Recall

3. Culture of the anterior nares may be performed to: A) identify infection by Streptococcus pyogenes. B) determine if Bordetella pertussis is present. C) identify Staphylococcus aureus carriers. D) determine if Haemophilus influenzae is present. Ans: C Complexity:Moderate Ahead: Respiratory Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Application

4. Symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis include which of the following? A) WBC of over 1,000/mL with an increase in neutrophils B) Total protein less than 100 mg/dL C) Glucose over 50 mg/dL D) Lymphocytosis with WBC over 500/mL Ans. A Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Cerebrospinal Fluid- Meningitis and Central Nervous System Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

5. The Gram stain of an expectorated sputum shows 25–30 PMNs/HPF and 0–4 SEC/HPF, and a moderate amount of gram-positive cocci in clusters. This indicates: A) contamination and an unacceptable specimen. B) an acceptable specimen and an infectious state. C) normal flora of the lower respiratory tract. D) None of these is correct. Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Respiratory Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Taxonomy:Analysis 6. A colony count is performed on a catheterized urine specimen using a 10 μl calibrated inoculating loop. The Gram stain of a urine specimen showed a moderate amount of PMNs and Gram negative bacilli. After incubation at 35oC for 24 hours, 55 colonies of a single bacterial type are counted. Which is correct?The colony count is _____ CFU/ml A) 550 B) 5500 C) 55,000 D) >105 Ans: B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Urinary Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

7 The direct examination of a stool specimen revealed a curved GNB with darting motility, which would lead one to suspect the presence of: A) verotoxic E. coli. B) Vibrio species. C) Shigella species. D) Campylobacter species. ANS. D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Gastrointestinal Tract Specimens and Infection Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

9. When processing specimens for Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which of the following should be done? A) Prepare the Gram stain immediately. B) Use transport media if the specimen cannot be immediately inoculated onto appropriate media. C) Inoculate a JEMBECTM plate by rolling the swab and spreading it in a "W" pattern. D) All of these are correct. Ans. D Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Genital Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Application

10. Which of the following bacteria, associated with community-acquired pneumonia, is an encapsulated gram-positive coccus? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Ans. B Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Respiratory Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

11. The etiologic agent of pseudomembranous colitis is: A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Verotoxic E. coli. C) Campylobacter jejuni. D) Clostridioides difficile. Ans: D Complexity:Easy Ahead:Gastrointestinal Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:recall

12. Catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci in chains isolated from the blood of a premature neonate produced small, greyish colonies on blood agar that were narrowly beta hemolytic. The CAMP reaction was positive and PYRase was negative. This organism is most likely: A) Streptococcus pyogenes. B) Streptococcus agalactiae. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. Ans: B Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Blood Cultures and Bacteremia Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

13. Lactose-positive, indole-positive, gram-negative bacilli isolated from a clean-catch midstream specimen can be presumptively identified as: A) Proteus vulgaris. B) Enterobacter cloacae. C) E. coli. D) Serratia marcescens. Ans: C Complexity:Difficult Ahead: Urinary Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

14. When incubated in ambient air at 35ºC, a postoperative wound infection grew many creamy, golden colonies on blood agar, which were beta hemolytic. A second distinct colonial type on blood agar showed opalescent colonies that resembled ground lead, which were also beta hemolytic. MacConkey’s agar revealed colonies with a greenish tinge and fruity odor. Of the following choices, which bacteria are most likely present? A) Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Staphylococcus epidermidis and E. coli C) Streptococcus pyogenes and Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides spp, Ans: A Complexity:Difficult Ahead:Skin and Wound Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis

Fill in the Blank

1. Throat cultures are most often performed to diagnose infection by __________ Ans: Streptococcus pyogenes. Complexity:Easy Ahead:Respiatory Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Recall

2. The most common cause of urinary tract infections in ambulatory individuals is __________. Ans: E. coli Alternate ans: Escherichia coli Complexity:Easy Ahead:Urinary Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Recall

3. The preferred specimen for bacteria culture of urine is a(n)________________. Ans: clean-catch midstream Alternate ans: clean catch Complexity:easy Ahead: Urinary Tract Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Recall

4. The most common etiologic agent of skin and wound infection is ______________.

Chapter 24 Test Bank for Introduction to Diagnostic Microbiology for the Laboratory Sciences, Second Edition

Ans: Staphylococcus aureus Complexity:moderate Ahead:Skin and Wound Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Recall

5. __________ is a severe bacterial skin infection with muscle destruction that most often occurs from infection with Streptococcus pyogenes. Ans: Necrotizingfasciitis Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Skin and Wound Specimens and Infections Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:

6. The collection of pleural fluid is termed __________. Ans: thoracentesis Complexity:easy Ahead:Pleural, Peritoneal, Pericardial and Synovial Fluids Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:recall

Matching

1. Indicate the most appropriate combination for primary plating of the following specimens. Responses are used once. 1. Urine Ans: SBA, MAC, colony count 2. Sputum Ans: SBA, CNA, MAC, CHOC 3. Stool Ans: SBA, MAC, HE, GN 4. Nonsurgical wound Ans: SBA, CNA, MAC 5. Synovial Fluid Ans: SBA, CNA, MAC, CHOC, AB, PEA, KV,THIO 6. Endocervical Ans: SBA, CHOC, MTM 7. 8 Complexity:Moderate Ahead:Introduction Subject: Chapter 24 Title: Clinical Specimens and Infections Taxonomy:Analysis