TEST BANK for M Information Systems 7th Edition By Paige Baltzan.

Test Bank For M Information Systems 7th Edition By Paige Baltzan Chapter 1-9 With Appendix [A B C D E F] Answers are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1 Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Companies today are successful when they combine the power of the information age with traditional business methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2) Diagnostic analytics is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers,

customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3) Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers,

customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false 4) The information age is a time infinite quantities of facts are widely available to anyone who

can use a computer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 5) Top managers use bits to define the future of the business, analyzing markets, industries and

economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain unprofitable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

6) A variable is a business intelligence characteristic that stands for a value that cannot change

over time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 7) A fact is the confirmation or validation of an event or object. In the past, people primarily

learned facts from books. ⊚ true ⊚ false 8) Zappos primary business focus is to sell books and competitive intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false 9) Order date, amount sold, and customer number are all forms of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 10) Choosing not to fire a sales representative who is underperforming while knowing that the

representative is experiencing family problems is a form of knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false 11) Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. The truth about

information is that its value is only as good as the people who use it. People using the same information can make different decisions depending on how they interpret or analyze the information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 12) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or

“things” can collect and share data without human intervention. ⊚ true ⊚ false 13) Machine-to-machine (M2M) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

14) The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false 15) Predictive analytics extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and

identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 16) Predictive analytics is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can

collect and share data without human intervention. ⊚ true ⊚ false 17) Top managers use predictive analytics to define the future of the business, analyzing markets,

industries, and economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain profitable. Tony will set the strategic direction for his firm, which might include introducing new flavors of potato chips or sports drinks as new product lines or schools and hospitals as new market segments. ⊚ true ⊚ false 18) A data analyst collects, queries, and consumers organizational data to uncover patterns and

provide insights for strategic business decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false 19) Knowledge workers are individuals valued for their ability to mitigate risk and implement

critical human resource and accounting rules and regulations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 20) Using only data and information to make decisions and solve problems is the key to finding

success in business. These are also the only core drivers of the information age and the building blocks of business systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

21) Big data is a collection of large complex datasets, which cannot be analyzed using traditional

database methods and tools. ⊚ true ⊚ false 22) The four common characteristics of big data include variety, veracity, volume, velocity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 23) Variety in big data includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 24) Veracity in big data includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and

abnormalities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 25) Volume in big data includes the scale of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 26) Velocity in big data includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 27) Velocity in big data includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 28) Volume in big data includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and

abnormalities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 29) Big data is a view of data at a moment in time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

30) A snapshot is a view of data at a particular moment in time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 31) A static report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available

inventory. ⊚ true ⊚ false 32) A dynamic report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of

available inventory. ⊚ true ⊚ false 33) Business analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better

decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 34) Descriptive analytics describes past performance and history. ⊚ true ⊚ false 35) Predictive analytics extracts information from data to predict future trends and identify

behavioral patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 36) Prescriptive analytics creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action

to take. ⊚ true ⊚ false 37) Knowledge assets, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded

resources available to the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Knowledge assets reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and

include physical structures and recorded media. ⊚ true ⊚ false 39) Knowledge facilitators help harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false 40) Descriptive analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making

better decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 41) Diagnostic analytics describes past performance and history. ⊚ true ⊚ false 42) Prescriptive analytics extracts information from data to predict future trends and identify

behavioral patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 43) Analytics, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded resources

available to the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false 44) Knowledge facilitators reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and

include physical structures and recorded media. ⊚ true ⊚ false 45) Structured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify

behavioral patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Unstructured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and

identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 47) Structured data is data that has a defined length, type, and format and includes numbers,

dates, or strings such as Customer Address. ⊚ true ⊚ false 48) Unstructured data is data that is not defined and does not follow a specified format and is

typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. ⊚ true ⊚ false 49) Unstructured data is data that has a defined length, type, and format and includes numbers,

dates, or strings such as Customer Address. ⊚ true ⊚ false 50) Structured data is data that is not defined and does not follow a specified format and is

typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. ⊚ true ⊚ false 51) Unstructured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and

identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 52) A business unit is a segment of a company representing a specific business function. ⊚ true ⊚ false 53) The terms department, functional area, and business unit are used interchangeably. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Companies update business strategies continuously as internal and external environments

change. ⊚ true ⊚ false 55) The finance department performs the function of selling goods or services. ⊚ true ⊚ false 56) The marketing department supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or

services. ⊚ true ⊚ false 57) The operations management department manages the process of converting or transforming

resources into goods or services. ⊚ true ⊚ false 58) The accounting and finance departments primarily use monetary data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 59) The sales and marketing departments primarily use monetary data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 60) A data silo occurs when one business unit is able to freely communicate with other business

units from silo to silo. ⊚ true ⊚ false 61) A data silo occurs when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other

business units, making it difficult or impossible for organizations to work cross-functionally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) A data silo is beneficial because it helps keep all the data for a company organized in one

place. ⊚ true ⊚ false 63) For an organization to succeed, every department or functional area must work independently

to be most effective. ⊚ true ⊚ false 64) Successful companies today operate cross-functionally, integrating the operations of all

departments. ⊚ true ⊚ false 65) MIS is a tool that is most valuable when it leverages the talents of people who know how to

use and manage it effectively. ⊚ true ⊚ false 66) The chief technology officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and

developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 67) The chief security officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and

developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 68) The chief data officer is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and

reliability for MIS. ⊚ true ⊚ false 69) The chief privacy officer is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information

within a company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70) The business decisions made by the marketing department include promotional data, sales

data, and advertising data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 71) The business decisions made by the human resources department include employee data,

promotion data, and vacation data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 72) The business decisions made by the finance department include investment data, monetary

data, and reporting data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 73) The business decisions made by the accounting department include transactional data,

purchasing data, payroll data and tax data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 74) The business decisions made by the sales department include potential customer data, sales

report data, commission data, and customer support data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 75) The business decisions made by the operations management department include

manufacturing data, distribution data, and production data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 76) The business decisions made by the finance department include promotion data, sales data,

and advertising data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 77) The business decisions made by the accounting department include employee data,

promotion data, and vacation data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

78) The business decisions made by the human resources department include investment data,

monetary data, and reporting data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 79) The business decisions made by the marketing department include transactional data,

purchasing data, payroll data and tax data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 80) The business decisions made by the human resources department include potential customer

data, sales report data, commission data, and customer support data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 81) The business decisions made by the accounting department include manufacturing data,

distribution data, and production data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 82) The chief data officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS

strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false 83) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing

company knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false 84) Most organizations maintain positions such as chief executive officer (CEO), chief financial

officer (CFO), and chief operations officer (COO) at the strategic level. ⊚ true ⊚ false 85) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that

MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing

company knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false 87) The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for determining the types of information the

enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share. ⊚ true ⊚ false 88) The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for ensuring the throughput, speed, accuracy,

availability, and reliability of an organization’s information technology. ⊚ true ⊚ false 89) The chief technology officer (CTO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems

and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 90) The chief privacy officer (CPO) is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of

information within an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false 91) The chief intellectual property officer (CIPO) is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and

distributing the organization’s knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false 92) The chief security officer (CSO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems and

developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 93) According to Fast Company magazine, a few executive levels you might see created over the

next decade include chief intellectual property officer, chief automation officer, and chief user experience officer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) The difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to

fulfill the business goals and strategies is called a data analyst certification. ⊚ true ⊚ false 95) Most chief technology officers do not possess a well-rounded knowledge of all aspects of

MIS, such as hardware, software, and telecommunications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 96) Many chief privacy officers (CPOs) are lawyers by training, enabling them to understand the

often-complex legal issues surrounding the use of information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 97) MIS skills gap is the difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the

knowledge required to fulfill the business goals and strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false 98) In many instances, an MIS job will remain unfilled for an extended period when an employer

needs to hire someone who has a very specific set of skills. In recruiting lingo, such candidates are referred to as purple turtles. ⊚ true ⊚ false 99) Goods are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. ⊚ true ⊚ false 100)

Waiting tables, teaching, and cutting hair are all examples of services that people pay for to fulfill their needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101)

An overview of systems thinking includes input, process, output, and finances. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

A stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. It is not uncommon to find stakeholder’s business strategies have conflicting interests such as investors looking to increase profits by eliminating employee jobs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

Cars, groceries, and clothing are all examples of goods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

Production is the process by which a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105)

Productivity is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106)

Lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in the output of making a hamburger. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107)

Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in the process of making a hamburger. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108)

Bread, cheese, and butter are included in the process of making a grilled cheese sandwich. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109)

A grilled cheese sandwich is considered the final output of a making-a-sandwich process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110)

If a business could produce the same hamburger with less expensive inputs, it would probably see a decrease in profits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111)

If a business could produce more hamburgers with the same inputs, it would see a rise in productivity and possibly an increase in profits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112)

A leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives is a business strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

113)

To combat business challenges, leaders communicate and execute business strategies; the word strategy comes from the Greek stratus for army and ago for leading. ⊚ true ⊚ false

114)

Businesses rarely need to update business strategies as the business environment remains relatively stable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115)

Attracting new customers, decreasing costs, and entering new markets are all examples of successful business strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116)

Decreasing customer loyalty, increasing costs, and decreasing sales are all examples of business strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

117)

A first-mover advantage is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

118)

FedEx created a first-mover advantage by developing its customer self-service software, which allows people to request parcel pickups, print mailing slips, and track parcels online. ⊚ true ⊚ false

119)

A SWOT analysis will evaluate potential internal strengths, internal weaknesses, and external opportunities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

120)

A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

121)

A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats. ⊚ true ⊚ false

122)

A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, worries, opportunities, and technologies to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

123)

In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization, or internally. Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization, or externally, and cannot always be anticipated or controlled. ⊚ true ⊚ false

124)

In a SWOT analysis, potential internal strengths are helpful when they identify all key strengths associated with the competitive advantage, including cost advantages, new and/or innovative services, special expertise and/or experience, proven market leader, improved marketing campaigns, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

125)

In a SWOT analysis, potential internal weaknesses are harmful when they identify all key areas that require improvement. Weaknesses focus on the absence of certain strengths, including absence of an Internet marketing plan, damaged reputation, problem areas for service, outdated technology, employee issues, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

126)

In a SWOT analysis, potential external opportunities are helpful when they identify all significant trends along with how the organization can benefit from each, including new markets, additional customer groups, legal changes, innovative technologies, population changes, competitor issues, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

127)

In a SWOT analysis, potential external threats are harmful when they identify all threats or risks detrimental to your organization, including new market entrants, substitute products, employee turnover, differentiating products, shrinking markets, adverse changes in regulations, economic shifts, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

128)

Competitive advantages provide the same product or service either at a lower price or with additional value that can fetch premium prices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

129)

Mark Peterson identified Porter’s Five Forces Model, which analyzes the competitive forces within a business environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

130)

131)

Porter’s Five Forces Model outlines the process for a sales strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

With the Five Forces Model, companies should watch the forces in the market. If the forces are strong, competition generally increases, and if the forces are weak, competition typically decreases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

132)

There are many challenges to changing doctors, including transferring medical records and losing the doctor-patient relationship along with the doctor’s knowledge of the patient’s history. Changing doctors provides a great example of switching costs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

133)

Supplier power is one of Porter’s five forces, and it measures the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services). ⊚ true ⊚ false

134)

Polaroid had a unique competitive advantage for many years until it forgot to observe competitive intelligence. The firm went bankrupt when people began taking digital pictures. Polaroid provides a great example of Porter’s supplier power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

135)

Product differentiation occurs when a company develops unique differences in its products or services with the intent to influence demand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

136)

Buyer power is the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. ⊚ true ⊚ false

137)

Rivalry among existing competitors refers to the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. ⊚ true ⊚ false

138)

The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of customers to purchase alternatives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

139)

The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of competitors to enter a new market. ⊚ true ⊚ false

140)

Tiffany & Company competes in the marketplace by offering high-cost, custom jewelry. Tiffany & Company is following a broad market and cost leadership strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

141)

Porter has identified three generic business strategies, including focused, broad cost leadership, and switching strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

142)

According to Porter’s three generic strategies, Walmart is following a business strategy that focuses on broad market and low cost. ⊚ true ⊚ false

143)

According to Porter, it is recommended to adopt only one of the three generic strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

144)

Buyer power is included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

145)

Value chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

146)

A standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task is called a supply chain component. ⊚ true ⊚ false

147)

The value chain will group a company’s activities into two categories: primary value activities and support value activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

148)

A digital value chain digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. It allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

149)

A digital data silo digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

150)

A business process is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. ⊚ true ⊚ false

151)

A primary value activity is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. ⊚ true ⊚ false

152)

Inbound logistics and operations are part of the primary value activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

153)

Inbound logistics and operations are part of the support value activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

154)

Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the primary value activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

155)

Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the support value activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 156) Which of the following is NOT considered a core driver of the information age? A) information B) business intelligence C) competitive facts D) data 157)

Which of the following is NOT considered a core driver of the information age? A) information B) business intelligence C) knowledge D) variables

158)

Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age? A) fact B) goods C) competitive intelligence D) data

159)

Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age? A) business analytics B) unstructured data C) analytics D) knowledge

160)

Why do students need to study management information systems? A) Management information systems are everywhere in business. B) Management information systems are rarely discussed in business. C) Management information systems are rarely used in organizations. D) Management information systems are found in only a few businesses.

161)

What is the confirmation or validation of an event or object? A) fact B) data C) data scientist D) business intelligence

162)

The age we live in has infinite quantities of facts that are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. What is this age called? A) data age B) information age C) business intelligence age D) data scientist age

163)

Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of selling books? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

164)

Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of renting videos? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

165)

Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of selling shoes? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

166)

What is data? A) raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object B) data converted into a meaningful and useful context C) information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making D) skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources

167)

What is information? A) raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object B) data converted into a meaningful and useful context C) information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making D) skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources

168)

What is business intelligence? A) raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object B) data converted into a meaningful and useful context C) information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making D) skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources

169)

What is knowledge? A) raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object B) data converted into a meaningful and useful context C) information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making D) skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources

170)

Which of the following is considered information? A) quantity sold B) date sold C) best-selling item by month D) product sold

171)

Which of the following is considered data? A) quantity sold B) best customer by month C) best-selling item by month D) worst-selling item by month

172)

Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of a piece of data Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) compare the costs of supplies, including energy, over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

173)

Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of the type of information Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) Flour Power is supplier number 8745643. C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

174)

Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of knowledge that Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) Flour Power is supplier number 8745643. C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

175)

Data is useful for understanding individual sales, but to gain deeper insight into a business, data needs to be turned into information. Which of the following offers an example of turning data into information? A) Who are my best customers? B) What is my best-selling product? C) What is my worst-selling product? D) All answers provide an example of turning data into information.

176)

Which of the following provides an example of information? A) Who is customer number 12345XX? B) What is product number 12345XX? C) What customer number is Bob Smith? D) What is my worst-selling product?

177)

Which of the following provides an example of data? A) Who are my best customers? B) What is my best-selling product? C) What is my worst-selling product? D) Who is customer number 12345XX?

178)

Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources. Which of the following provides an example of a source that would be included in business intelligence? A) supplier source systems B) customer source systems C) competitor source systems D) All of the answers are correct.

179)

Which of the following represents the core drives of the information age? A) data, information, business intelligence, knowledge B) fact, data, intelligence, experience C) fact, intelligence, business skills, knowledge D) data, intelligence, business information, knowledge

180)

Which of the following represents the definition of a variable? A) a data characteristic that is collected through competitive intelligence and cannot change over time B) a data characteristic that stands for a value that changes or varies over time C) a data characteristic that stands for a value that does not change or vary over time D) a data characteristic that is collected only through competitive intelligence and can change over time

181)

Today’s workers are referred to as________, and they use BI along with personal experience to make decisions based on both information and intuition, a valuable resource for any company. A) knowledge workers B) knowledge thinkers C) knowledge resources D) fact workers

182)

What is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making? A) supplier’s intelligence B) social intelligence C) employee intelligence D) business intelligence

183)

Information is data converted into useful, meaningful context. What are data characteristics that change or vary over time? A) facts B) variables C) supplies D) services

184)

What is data converted into a meaningful and useful context? A) competitive intelligence B) information C) buyer power D) first-mover advantage

What is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention? A) Internet of Things B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) fourth industrial revolution

185)

186)

What refers to devices that connect directly to other devices? A) information age B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) descriptive analytics

187)

What extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns? A) Internet of Things B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) fourth industrial revolution

188)

What is the Internet of Things? A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

189)

Which of the following definitions describes machine-to-machine? A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

190)

What is predictive analytics? A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) techniques that extract information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

191)

Who collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions? A) business intelligence manager B) data scientist C) data worker D) data analyst

192)

What role does a data analyst perform? A) collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions B) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information C) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions D) supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services

193)

What are the three key skills required for a data analyst? A) understanding of math and statistics B) coding skills to work with data C) business area subject matter expertise D) All of the answers are correct.

194)

What is the science of fact-based decision making? A) business intelligence B) information C) knowledge D) analytics

195)

What is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions? A) business analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

196)

What describes past performance and history? A) diagnostic analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

197)

What extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns? A) diagnostic analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

198)

What creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take? A) diagnostics analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

199)

What are business analytics? A) the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

200)

What are descriptive analytics? A) examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?” B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

201)

What are diagnostic analytics? A) examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?” B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

202)

What are predictive analytics? A) examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?” B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

203)

What are prescriptive analytics? A) examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?” B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

204)

What are the four primary areas of analytics? A) descriptive analytics, diagnostics analytics, predictive analytics, prescriptive analytics B) descriptive analytics, primary analytics, secondary analytics, response analytics C) descriptive analytics, diagnostics analytics, future analytics, past analytics D) technique analytics, diagnostics analytics, future analytics, past analytics

205)

What are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

206)

What resides within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

207)

What helps harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) data analysts D) business analytics

208)

What helps acquire and catalog the knowledge assets in an organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

209)

What data is created by a machine without human intervention? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) structured data D) facts

210)

What data is generated by humans in interaction with computers? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine D) big data

211)

What type of structured data includes sensor data, point-of-sale data, and web log data? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) collective intelligence D) systems thinking

212)

What type of structured data includes input data, click-stream data, or gaming data? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine (M2M) D) systems thinking

213)

Which of the following describes structured data? A) data that has a defined length, type, and format B) data that includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address C) data that is typically stored in a relational database or spreadsheet D) All of the answers are correct.

214)

What refers to devices that connect directly to other devices? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine D) systems thinking

215)

What is the characteristic of unstructured data? A) does not follow a specified format B) free-form text C) emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages D) All of the answers are correct.

216)

Which of the following does not describe unstructured data? A) does not follow a specified format B) a defined length, type, and format C) free-form text D) emails, twitter tweets, and text messages

217)

Which of the following does not describe structured data? A) data with a defined length B) emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages C) typically stored in a relational database or spreadsheet D) data with a defined format

218)

Which of the following represent machine-generated unstructured data? A) satellite images B) scientific atmosphere data C) radar data D) All of the answers are correct.

219)

Which of the following represent human-generated unstructured data? A) text messages B) social media data C) emails D) All of the answers are correct.

220)

Which of the following does not represent machine-generated unstructured data? A) satellite images B) radar data C) social media data D) All of the answers are correct.

221)

Which of the following does not represent human-generated unstructured data? A) text messages B) social media data C) scientific atmosphere data D) All of the answers are correct.

222)

What is a snapshot? A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) a view of data at a particular moment in time C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

223)

What is a view of data at a particular moment in time? A) knowledge B) big data C) snapshot D) unstructured data

224)

What is a report? A) a document containing data organized in a table, matrix, or graphical format allowing users to easily comprehend and understand information B) a collection of large complex datasets, including structured and unstructured, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools C) a view of data at a particular moment in time D) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention

225)

What type of report is created based on data that does not change? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

226)

What type of report changes automatically during creation? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

227)

What type of report can include a sales report from last year or salary report from five years ago? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) unstructured report

228)

What type of report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

229)

Who extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends? A) data scientist B) knowledge worker C) data analyst D) chief sustainability officer

230)

What area does a data scientist extract knowledge from to identify trends? A) statistical analysis B) data mining C) advanced analytics on big data D) All of the answers are correct.

231)

Which of the following terms is synonymous with analytics? A) data analyst B) business analytics C) structured data D) data scientist

232)

What is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions? A) business analytics B) Internet of Things C) machine-to-machine D) big data

233)

Which of the following definitions represents a data scientist? A) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information B) collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions C) individuals valued for their ability to interpret and analyze information D) All of the answers are correct.

234)

Who extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information? A) data scientist B) data analyst C) data worker D) knowledge facilitator

235)

In terms of big data, what is variety? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

236)

In terms of big data, what is veracity? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

237)

In terms of big data, what is volume? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

238)

In terms of big data, what is velocity? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

239)

In terms of big data, what includes different forms of structured and unstructured data? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

240)

In terms of big data, what includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

241)

242)

In terms of big data, what includes the scale of data? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

In terms of big data, what includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

243)

What is a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools? A) big data B) data scientist C) data analyst D) descriptive analytics

244)

What is big data? A) a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools B) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment C) focuses on forecasting future trends and producing insights using sophisticated quantitative methods, including statistics, descriptive and predictive data mining, simulation, and optimization D) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information

245)

In Lou’s Pizza Planet Inc., each department works independently. The sales and marketing department focuses on providing goods and services to customers and maintains transactional data, the finance and accounting department focuses on managing the organization’s resources and maintains monetary data, and the human resources department focuses on hiring and training people and maintains employee data. In the context of how Lou’s functions, which of the following best describes the situation? A) data silos B) data democratization C) data digitization D) data science

246)

What of the following terms describes a situation at a company when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units? A) data silos B) data democratization C) competitive advantage D) productivity

247)

How are most companies today typically organized? A) by departments or functional areas B) by departments or financial areas C) by degree or financial areas D) by manager or knowledge area

248)

How does a company operate if it wants to be successful in the information age? A) functionally independent between departments B) interdependently between departments C) together as one department with little or no independence D) each department acting as its own individual business unit

249)

Most companies are typically organized by departments or functional areas. Which of the following is not a common department found in a company? A) accounting B) payroll C) marketing D) human resources

250)

The sales department needs to rely on information from operations to understand A) inventory. B) customer orders. C) demand forecasts. D) All of the answers are correct.

251)

Which of the following is the department that maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees? A) human resources B) sales resources C) employee resources D) employee relations

252)

Greg works for Geneva Steel Corporation. Greg’s duties include managing the overall processes for the company and transforming the steel resources into goods. Which department would Greg most likely work in? A) accounting B) operations management C) marketing D) chief information officer

253)

The department within a company that records, measures, and reports monetary transactions is called A) accounting. B) marketing. C) human resources. D) operations management.

254)

The department within a company that performs the function of selling goods or services is called A) marketing. B) sales. C) finance. D) operations management.

255)

The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is called A) sales. B) operations management. C) accounting. D) marketing.

256)

Which department tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

257)

Which department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

258)

Which department records, measures, and reports monetary transactions? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

259)

Which department maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) human resources

260)

Which activities belong in the accounting department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

261)

Which activities belong in the finance department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

262)

Which activities belong in the marketing department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

263)

Which activities belong in the sales department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

264)

Which activities belong in the human resources department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees

265)

Which activities belong in the operations management department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees

266)

Which data types are typically found in the marketing department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

267)

Which data types are typically found in the human resources department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

268)

Which data types are typically found in the finance department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

269)

Which data types are typically found in the accounting department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

270)

Which data types are typically found in the sales department? A) sales data, customer data, commission data, customer support data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

271)

Which data types are typically found in the operations management department? A) manufacturing data, distribution data, production data B) sales data, customer data, commission data, customer support data C) employee data, promotion data, vacation data D) investment data, monetary data, reporting data

272)

Which of the following describes the relationship between functional areas in a business? A) independent B) autonomous C) interdependent D) self-sufficient

273)

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the accounting department? A) tax data B) payroll data C) transactional data D) All of the answers are correct.

274)

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the finance department? A) monetary data B) technology data C) production data D) employee data

275)

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the human resource department? A) financial data B) technology data C) production data D) employee data

276)

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the sales department? A) customer data B) sales report data C) commission data D) All of the answers are correct.

277)

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the marketing department? A) promotional data B) payroll data C) tax data D) employee data

278)

Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the operations management department? A) monetary data B) payroll data C) production data D) employee data

279)

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

280)

Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

281)

Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the management information systems? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

282)

Who is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

283)

Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

284)

Trina Hauger works for Johnson Electric as a corporate lawyer, and part of her duties are to ensure the ethical and legal use of information within the company. Which of the following represents Trina’s role at Johnson Electric? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

285)

The challenge that companies today sometimes have is that they are departmentalized into functions that act independently of each other. One solution that can help a company work________ includes management information systems. A) variables B) human resource data C) interdepartmentally D) resource information systems

286)

Susan Stewart is an executive at Equity Title, where she is responsible for collecting, maintaining and distributing knowledge for the company. What is Susan’s role at Equity Title? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief technology officer (CTO) C) chief information officer (CIO) D) chief security officer (CSO)

287)

What is the primary responsibility of the CTO? A) overseeing all uses of MIS B) ensuring the security of business systems C) ensuring speed, accuracy, and reliability for MIS D) collecting and distributing company information

288)

Jeremy Bridges is an executive for Green Web Designs, where his primary role is to ensure the security of business systems and develop strategies to protect the company from online viruses and hackers. What is Jeremy’s role within the company? A) chief executive officer (CEO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief procurement officer (CPO) D) chief technology officer (CTO)

289)

Which role within a company is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategic aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief information officer (CIO) D) chief security officer (CSO)

290)

Recently, 150 of the Fortune 500 companies added which of the following positions to their list of senior executives? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief data officer (CDO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

291)

Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief data officer (CDO)

292)

Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

293)

Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

294)

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A) chief data officer (CDO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

295)

Who is responsible for (1) overseeing all uses of MIS and (2) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief information officer (CIO) B) chief data officer (CDO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

296)

Who is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share? A) chief information officer (CIO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief data officer (CDO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

297)

Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief technology officer (CTO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

298)

Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief information officer (CIO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

299)

Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief privacy officer (CPO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

300)

Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief security officer (CSO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

301)

Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief data officer (CDO)? A) determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

302)

Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief knowledge officer (CKO)? A) determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share B) collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

303)

Which of the following executive levels might we see created over the next decade? A) chief intellectual property officer B) chief automation officer C) chief user experience officer D) All of the answers are correct.

304)

The chief intellectual property officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

305)

The chief automation officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

306)

The chief user experience officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

307)

Which of the following is not a broad function of a chief information officer? A) manager B) follower C) communicator D) leader

308)

What is the difference between the chief information officer and chief data officer? A) the CIO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system; the CDO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed B) the CIO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed; the CDO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system C) their roles and relationships are identical D) All of the answers are correct.

309)

What is the difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill business goals and strategies? A) off-site training B) MIS skills gap C) social recruiting D) information security

310)

311)

In recruiting lingo, what are perfect MIS candidates sometimes called? A) turquoise turtles B) red rabbits C) purple squirrels D) white unicorns

Eric Eberly holds an executive position at Parker Industries. He has designed and implemented a system to collect, maintain, and share information across the many departments of Parker Industries. He’s also instilled an updating protocol requiring department heads to keep the system up-to-date. Based on this description, what position does Eric hold? A) chief information officer B) chief security officer C) chief data officer D) chief knowledge officer

312)

Cody Osterman holds an executive position at Trek Enterprises. His role is the newest senior executive position at the organization. He has advised the company on privacy procedures and processes, and has initiated a training program for employees about the privacy policy, customer confidentiality, and data security. Based on this description, what position does Cody hold at Trek Enterprises? A) chief information officer B) chief security officer C) chief data officer D) chief privacy officer

313)

Sara McGuire holds an executive position at Henry Commerce. She is a big-picture thinker, and makes sure the technology strategy at Henry Commerce serves its business strategy. She has a well-rounded knowledge of MIS, and her primary responsibilities include the efficiency of Henry Commerce’s MIS systems. Based on this description, what position does Sara hold? A) chief user experience officer B) chief technology officer C) chief data officer D) chief privacy officer

314)

Allana Nation holds an executive position at PH Corporation. He has an extensive understanding of networks and telecommunications. Adam is aware of the informationtechnology threats the company faces and institutes security protocols and safeguards to secure the MIS systems at PH Corporation. Based on this description, what position does Allana hold? A) chief security officer B) chief user experience officer C) chief data officer D) chief automation officer

315)

Jasmine Coleman holds an executive position at Keck-Howes Group. Jasmine has improved the quality of the data gathered by the organization and has created a model to decrease the cost of managing data while increasing the value of the data gathered. Based on this description, what position does Jasmine hold at Keck-Howes Group? A) chief security officer B) chief user experience officer C) chief data officer D) chief automation officer

316)

What is the ability for data to be collected, analyzed, and accessible to all users (the average end users)? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge democratization D) business data

317)

What is a segment of a company representing a specific business function? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge democratization D) business data

318)

You are working for a new boss, Jill Slater. Jill believes that all employees in the company should have access to the data they need when they need it for analysis and to make data-driven business decisions. Which term best describes Jill’s business belief? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge dissemination D) business data

319)

Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter’s actions. What would the original transmitter include? A) input, transform, output B) input, transform, outnumber C) output, input, perform D) All of the answers are correct.

320)

MIS is a business function. Which of the following does MIS perform to help aid the company in decision making and problem solving? A) moves information about people B) moves processes across the company to improve systems C) moves information about products D) All of the answers are correct.

321)

In terms of system thinking, what is data entered in a computer? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

322)

In terms of system thinking, what controls to ensure correct processes? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

323)

In terms of system thinking, what is the resulting information from the computer program? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

324)

In terms of system thinking, what is the computer program that processes the data? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

325)

In terms of system thinking, what is input? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

326)

In terms of system thinking, what is output? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

327)

In terms of system thinking, what is feedback? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

328)

In terms of system thinking, what is process? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

329)

A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose. Systems thinking is a way of monitoring A) the entire system B) a division within the sales role C) the executive team D) the company’s competitors

330)

MIS can be an important enabler of business success and innovation. Which of the below statements is accurate when referring to MIS? A) MIS equals business success and innovation. B) MIS represents business success and innovation. C) MIS is not a valuable tool that leverages talent. D) MIS is a valuable tool that can leverage the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively.

331)

What is a way of monitoring the entire system in a company by viewing the multiple inputs being processed to produce outputs? A) feedback thinking B) systems thinking C) output management D) operational thinking

332)

Which of the following statements is true? A) MIS equals business success. B) MIS equals business innovation. C) MIS represents business success and innovation. D) MIS enables business success and innovation.

333)

What is the name of a company’s internal computer department? A) management information systems B) information systems C) information technology D) All of the answers are correct.

334)

What are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

335)

What are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

336)

What is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

337)

What is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

338)

What are goods? A) material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need B) tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need C) the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services D) the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

339)

What are services? A) material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need B) tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need C) the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services D) the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

340)

What is production? A) material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need B) tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need C) the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services D) the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

341)

What is productivity? A) material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need B) tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need C) the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services D) the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

342)

Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in which category? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

343)

Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in which category? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

344)

Which of the following is considered a good? A) cars B) groceries C) clothing D) All of the answers are correct.

345)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) teaching B) waiting tables C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

346)

Which of the following is considered a good? A) cars B) teaching C) waiting tables D) All of the answers are correct.

347)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) cars B) groceries C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

348)

Which of the following is considered goods? A) milk and eggs B) managing a team C) selling groceries D) All of the answers are correct.

349)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) selling groceries B) managing a team C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

350)

The lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

351)

Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

352)

The actual hamburger is included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

353)

Assume you are in the business of producing and selling hamburgers. If you could produce more hamburgers with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your hamburgers remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

354)

Assume you are in the business of producing and selling T-shirts. If you could produce more T-shirts with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your T-shirts remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

355)

Assume you are in the business of producing and selling cars. If you could produce more cars with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your cars remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

356)

Which four elements are included in systems thinking? A) output, process, feedback, and accounting B) process, output, operations, and accounting C) input, process, output, and feedback D) input, output, sales, and feedback

357)

MIS is a business function, like accounting or sales, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. What does MIS stand for? A) management information strategy B) management intelligence system C) management information system D) management information strategist

358)

Shelby Black runs a very successful hair salon in downtown Los Angeles. One of Shelby’s tasks is to input positive and negative customer reviews into her computer system. What type of information is Shelby gathering? A) feedback B) processing C) output management D) sales processing

359)

Which of the following provides an accurate definition of systems thinking? A) a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part B) a way of monitoring individual components including an input, the process, and an output while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system C) a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system D) a way of monitoring singular parts of a system by viewing a single input that is processed or transformed to produce an entire system that is continuously monitored to gather feedback on each individual part

360)

If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the inputs? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

361)

If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the process? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

362)

If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

363)

If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the outputs? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

364)

If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the input? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

365)

If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the output? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

366)

If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the process? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

367)

If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

368)

If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the inputs? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

369)

If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the outputs? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

370)

If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the process? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

371)

If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

372)

Which of the following is not a typical way that a company would duplicate a competitive advantage? A) acquiring the new technology B) copying the business operations C) hiring away key employees D) carrying large product inventories

373)

When a company is the first to market with a competitive advantage, this is called a firstmover advantage. All of the following companies were first-movers except A) FedEx—Online Self-Service Software. B) Apple—iPad. C) Apple—iPod. D) Microsoft—Bing Search Engine.

374)

Which of the following is a tool a manager can use to analyze competitive intelligence and identify competitive advantages? A) the three generic strategies B) the threat of substitute buyer power C) differentiated costs D) supplier loyalty

375)

Identifying competitive advantages can be difficult, which explains why they are typically A) temporary. B) satisfactory. C) terminated. D) unsuccessful.

376)

Updating business strategies is a continuous undertaking as internal and external environments A) become less competitive. B) remains stagnant. C) rapidly changes. D) become more consistent.

377)

Which of the following represents a reason why competitive advantages are typically temporary? A) The competitor will hire away your key employees. B) The competitor quickly seeks ways to duplicate your business operations. C) The competitor will purchase new technology. D) All of the answers are correct.

378)

What is a competitive advantage? A) a product that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from a competitor B) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a lesser value than they do on similar offerings from another supplier C) a service that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from another supplier D) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors

379)

Which of the following is not a common tool used in industry to analyze and develop competitive advantages? A) Five Forces Model B) three generic strategies C) competitive analysis model D) value chain analysis

380)

What is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed? A) feedback B) information C) competitive intelligence D) data

381)

Who is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization? A) stakeholder B) business strategy C) supplier D) partner

382)

Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include reliable contracts, ethical materials handling, and responsible production? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

383)

Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include adhering to regulations/laws, increasing employment, and ethical taxation reporting? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

384)

Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include maximizing profits, growing market share, and high return on investment? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

385)

Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include exceptional customer service, high-quality products, and ethical dealings? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

386)

Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include fair compensation, job security, and ethical conduct/treatment? A) employees B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

387)

Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include professional associations, ethical recycling, and increasing employment? A) employees B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

388)

What is a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors? A) competitive advantage B) competitor advantage C) power advantage D) first-mover advantage

389)

Which of the following evaluates a project’s position? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

390)

What is a SWOT analysis? A) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies B) analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry C) views a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

391)

What evaluates industry attractiveness? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

392)

What is Porter’s Five Forces Model? A) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies B) analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry C) views a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

393)

What executes business strategy? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

394)

What is a value chain analysis? A) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies B) analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry C) views a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

395)

Which strategy below helps an organization choose its business focus? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

396)

What are Porter’s three generic strategies? A) evaluate an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. B) analyze the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry. C) view a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service. D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

397)

Which of the following describes a stakeholder? A) a leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives B) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value C) a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization D) information about a competitive environment

398)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for customers? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

399)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for employees? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

400)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for the community? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

401)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for partners/suppliers? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

402)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for the government? A) maximized profits B) adherence to regulations/laws C) exceptional customer service D) reliable contracts

403)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for shareholders/investors? A) maximized profits B) adherence to regulations/laws C) exceptional customer service D) reliable contracts

404)

There are many different stakeholders found in an organization with common business interests. Depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is not a main concern for shareholders/investors? A) maximized profits B) grow market share C) job security D) high return on investment

405)

What is included in a SWOT analysis? A) strengths, weaknesses, organizations, and technology B) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats C) success, willingness, opportunities, and technology D) success, weaknesses, organizations, and threats

406)

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a SWOT analysis? A) Strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization. B) Opportunities and threats originate inside an organization. C) Strengths and threats originate inside an organization. D) Opportunities and weaknesses originate outside an organization.

407)

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a SWOT analysis? A) Strengths and weaknesses originate outside an organization. B) Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization. C) Strengths and threats originate inside an organization. D) Opportunities and weaknesses originate outside an organization.

408)

Which of the following are included as potential internal strengths in a SWOT analysis that are helpful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

409)

Which of the following are included as potential internal weaknesses in a SWOT analysis that are harmful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

410)

Which of the following are included as potential external opportunities in a SWOT analysis that are helpful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

411)

Which of the following are included as potential external weaknesses in a SWOT analysis that are harmful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

412)

How would you categorize strengths in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

413)

How would you categorize weaknesses in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

414)

How would you categorize opportunities in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

415)

How would you categorize threats in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

416)

What does a SWOT analysis perform? A) evaluates an organizations strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats B) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats C) evaluates an organization’s supporters, weaknesses, opportunities, and technology D) evaluates an organization’s systems, warehouses, outputs, and technology

417)

In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses originate________ an organization. A) inside (internally) B) outside (externally) C) both inside (internally) and outside (externally) D) All of the answers are correct.

418)

In a SWOT analysis, opportunities and threats originate________ an organization. A) inside (internally) B) outside (externally) C) both inside (internally) and outside (externally) D) All answer choices are correct.

419)

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential internal strengths (helpful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) competitor issues

420)

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential inner weaknesses (harmful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) competitor issues

421)

In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential external opportunities (helpful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) improved marketing campaigns

422)

Managers use four common tools to analyze competitive intelligence and develop competitive advantages. Which of the following is not one of these tools? A) three generic strategies B) Five Forces Model C) first-mover advantage D) SWOT analysis

423)

The Victory Wireless store in Denver is currently offering a fabulous marketing strategy for potential new iPhone customers. Victory Wireless offers customers who purchase an iPhone with a 2-year subscription a free Otter phone case, car charger, ear phones, and speakers. In terms of Porter’s Five Forces Model, what is Victory Wireless attempting to achieve with this marketing strategy? A) increased buyer power B) increased substitute products C) decreased supplier power D) decreased buyer power

424)

Gina Brooks works for Aquarium Retail Services selling high-end salt water fish and tank supplies. Aquarium Retail Services is the current market leader in Gina’s city. Gina has recently been approached by Deep Blue Incorporated with an opportunity to run its corporate nation-wide marketing and sales division. Gina decides to jump at the opportunity. Deep Blue is attempting to gain a competitive________ by stealing its competitor’s key employees. A) power B) entry barrier C) advantage D) loyalty

425)

The banking industry has implemented several competitive advantages including ATMs, online bill pay services, and electronic statements. Of course, these competitive advantages were quickly duplicated by any competitor that wanted to remain in the banking industry. These were all examples of seeking competitive advantages through A) acquiring new technology products and services. B) hiring new employees. C) reducing expenses. D) gaining invaluable feedback from customers.

426)

Michael Porter defined the Five Forces Model and the potential pressures that can hurt sales. Which of the following is not one of the potential pressures that can hurt sales? A) Suppliers can drive down profits by charging more for supplies. B) New market entrants can steal potential investment capital. C) Substitute products can steal customers. D) Competition can steal customers.

427)

Kevin Campbell is an incoming freshman at your college. Kevin is frustrated by the cost of books, tuition, and expenses, and he needs to purchase a rather expensive laptop. In an effort to save money, Kevin begins a Facebook group finding other college students who need to purchase laptops. Soon, Kevin’s Facebook group has close to 100,000 students. Kevin decides to collectively approach different computer companies to see if his group qualifies for a special discount. What business strategy is Kevin using to purchase laptops? A) collecting business intelligence B) decreasing entry barriers C) purchasing a substitute product D) increasing buyer power

428)

What are costs that make customers reluctant to switch to another product or service? A) support activities B) switching costs C) loyalty rewards D) value chain activities

429)

Callie Crystal owns and operates one of the most successful local coffee shops in Denver, called the Edgewater Café. Each time a customer purchases their 100th cup of coffee at the Edgewater Café, they receive a free pound of coffee of their choice. What is Callie attempting to create with her unique “Free Pound of Coffee” marketing program? A) reducing buyer power with a loyalty program B) increasing buyer power with a loyalty program C) decreasing supplier power with a differentiated product D) creating a substitute product

430)

What includes all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product? A) support chain B) supply chain C) system chain D) supply choice

431)

432)

Which of the below represents a company in a supply chain? A) customer and competitor B) supplier and competitor C) knowledge worker and supplier D) supplier and customer

In the center of Porter’s Five Forces Model is competition. Which of the below represents the four outer boxes? A) buyer power, systems power, threat of false entrants, and threat of substitute products or services B) buyer power, systems power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services C) buyer power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services D) business power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of powerful services

433)

Shawn McGill is on the executive board for ABC Pharmaceuticals. The company produces the top-selling cancer-fighting drug on the market. Due to its incredible success, ABC Pharmaceuticals has decided to increase the cost of the drug from $8 a pill to $15 a pill. Which force is ABC Pharmaceuticals using to increase its drug price? A) supplier power B) buyer power C) threat of false entrants D) business power

434)

What is one of the most common ways a company can decrease supplier power? A) charge lower prices B) charge higher prices C) use MIS to find and create alternative products D) companies cannot impact supplier power

435)

If a supplier has high power, what can it do to influence its industry? A) charge higher prices B) shift costs to industry participants C) limit quality or services D) All of the answers are correct.

436)

How can a company reduce the threat of substitute products or services? A) market the product to fewer than 10 customers B) ignore competitive forces C) offer additional value through wider product distribution D) offer less value making the product far more generic and similar to the competition

437)

Which one of Porter’s five forces is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market? A) threat of new entrants B) threat of substitute products or services C) threat of buyer power D) supply chain competition

438)

John Cleaver is the CEO of Tech World, a retail store that sells computers, monitors, cameras, televisions, and many other electronic products. John and his executive team are meeting to brainstorm new ideas on how to grow the business. One idea is to mimic a competitor product that is attempting to sell a new product in a different industry. After performing a Porter’s Five Forces Model analysis, John determines that all of the forces are high in this new industry. What should John do? A) explode into the market with an overflow of the product B) contemplate other products to introduce at the same time in this new market C) compare the competitor’s prices and offer his product at a lower price in this new market D) not introduce the product because all five forces are strong and this would be a highly risky business strategy

439)

What is a feature of a product or service that customers have come to expect and entering competitors must offer the same if they want to survive? A) significant barrier B) entry barrier C) product differentiation D) entry chain

440)

441)

Which of the following represents a typical supply chain? A) company – customers – suppliers B) company – suppliers – customers C) suppliers – company – customers D) suppliers – customers – company

Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the following statements indicates that it would be easy for you as the new entrant to compete in this market? A) The threat of new entrants’ force is high in the up-and-coming market. B) The threat of new entrants’ force is low in the up-and-coming market. C) The threat of new entrants’ force is impossible to define in the up-and-coming market. D) All of the answers are correct depending on the time of year.

442)

Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the following statements indicates that it would be difficult for you to enter this new market? A) The threat of new entrants’ force is high in the up-and-coming market. B) The threat of new entrants’ force is low in the up-and-coming market. C) The threat of new entrants’ force is high during the summer months in the up-andcoming market. D) All of the answers are correct depending on the time of year.

443)

Which of the following is an example in which Porter’s five forces are mostly strong and competition is high? A) dog-walking business B) ski resort C) professional hockey team D) All of the answers are correct.

444)

Which of the following offers an example in which Porter’s five forces are mostly weak and competition is low? A) an international hotel chain purchasing milk B) a coffee shop C) a single consumer purchasing milk D) a dog-walking business

445)

Some industries’ competition is much more intense than others. Retail grocery stores such as Kroger, Safeway, and Albertson’s in the United States experience fierce competition and offer similar marketing campaigns to compete. What is this an example of in terms of Porter’s Five Forces Model? A) rivalry among new entrants B) rivalry among existing competitors C) threat of substitute products or services D) buyer power

446)

Amazon.com uses a customer profiling system whenever a customer visits its website. Using this system, Amazon can offer products tailored to that particular customer’s profile and buying pattern. What is Amazon using to achieve this competitive advantage? A) rivalry B) buyer power C) product differentiation D) substitute product

447)

Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) Walmart, Target, iTunes C) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook. D) Taylor Swift,Beyoncé, The Beatles, The Stones

448)

Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) Walmart, Target, iTunes C) independent record labels D) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook

449)

Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents the threat of substitute products or services in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) independent record labels C) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook D) Taylor Swift,Beyoncé, The Beatles, The Stones

450)

Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

451)

Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

452)

Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents a threat of a new entrant in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

453)

Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents a substitute product in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

454)

What is buyer power? A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose

455)

What is supplier power? A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose

456)

What is the threat of substitute products or services? A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose

457)

What is the threat of new entrants? A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose

458)

What is the rivalry among existing competitors? A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when competition is fierce in a market and low when competitors are more complacent

459)

Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents rivalry in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) Coke and Pepsi submit bids to the owner of a football stadium for the exclusive sale of their products during games.

460)

Porter identified three generic strategies that a business could follow after identifying a market it wanted to enter. Which of the following is not included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies? A) broad differentiation B) supplier cost differentiation C) focused strategy D) broad cost leadership

461)

When analyzing Porter’s three generic strategies for entering a market, if you have a focused strategy, what market should you target? A) a niche market B) a broad market C) neither niche nor broad markets D) both niche and broad markets

462)

Which of the following offers an example of a company operating in a narrow focused market as the low-cost provider? A) Walmart B) Tiffany & Co. C) Neiman Marcus D) Payless Shoes

463)

Broad differentiation, broad cost leadership, and________ create the three generic strategies identified by Porter. A) narrow market leadership B) high cost versus low cost C) focused strategy D) None of the answer choices are correct.

464)

Jennifer Bloom is writing a paper, and she must determine which of Porter’s three generic strategies The Museum Company has implemented. Jennifer finds out that The Museum Company offers specialty products found only in museums around the world to affluent customers. What would Jennifer determine The Museum Company is using as its generic strategy? A) broad market, low cost B) narrow market, high cost C) broad market, high cost D) narrow market, low cost

465)

According to Porter, companies that wish to dominate broad markets should operate using a________ strategy. A) cost leadership with a low cost B) differentiation with a low cost C) cost leadership with a high cost D) All answer choices are correct.

466)

Which of the following demonstrates a company that has implemented a low-cost, broad market strategy? A) Neiman Marcus B) Payless Shoes C) the Sharper Image D) Walmart

467)

468)

If a business is following a focused strategy, then its competitive scope is A) broad market. B) narrow market. C) broad range products. D) broad range of services.

When applying Porter’s three generic strategies, Tiffany & Co. has a competitive scope and cost strategy that is A) broad market, high cost. B) narrow market, low cost. C) narrow market, high cost. D) broad market, low cost.

469)

When analyzing the book store industry, some of today’s businesses compete with different business strategies and cost strategies. Which of the following is using a broad market competitive scope along with a low-cost strategy? A) Amazon.com B) local independent bookstore specializing in antique books C) Barnes & Noble D) bookstore at the airport

470)

Which of the following is similar to a focused strategy versus a broad strategy? A) large market versus leadership B) large market versus uniqueness C) niche market versus large market D) niche market versus generic

471)

Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a cost leadership strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

472)

Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a differentiation strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

473)

Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a focused strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

474)

A(n)________ allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. A) SWOT analysis B) digital distribution platform C) management information system D) digital value chain

475)

Baltzan bike manufacturing needed to decrease the amount of time it took to develop a customized bike. Many customers requested special parts to be assembled for the one-time creation for a bike. By connecting the sales systems to the manufacturing systems and adding 3D printing to its manufacturing process, it was able to cut down on the amount of time it took between sales and production. What type of technology is this called? A) digital value chain B) buyer power C) first-mover advantage D) SWOT analysis

476)

When reviewing Porter’s value chain analysis, which of the following provides customer support after the sale of goods and services? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) operations D) service

477)

Which of the following represents procurement as part of the support value activities in a value chain analysis? A) purchases inputs such as raw materials, resources, equipment and supplies B) applies MIS to processes to add value C) distributes goods and services to customers D) promotes, prices, and sells products to customers

478)

What includes support value activities and primary value activities and is used to determine how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A) supplier power B) operations management C) Porter’s Five Forces Model D) value chain analysis

479)

What is a standardized set of activities that accomplishes a specific task? A) business strategy B) business outcome C) business process D) knowledge process

480)

Which of the following analyzes a company’s business processes and is useful for determining how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A) product analysis B) primary supplier power C) value chain analysis D) buyer chain analysis

481)

The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself, with a________ or________. A) focused strategy; product differentiation B) focused strategy; cost advantage C) cost advantage; primary value activities D) cost advantage; product differentiation

482)

What are the two main categories in a value chain analysis? A) primary value activities and secondary value activities B) primary value activities and support value activities C) primary value activities and strengthening value activities D) None of the answer choices are correct.

483)

Which of the following is not considered a category within the primary value activities in a value chain analysis? A) inbound logistics B) firm infrastructure C) operations D) service

484)

Which of the following is not considered a category within the support value activities in a value chain analysis? A) technology development B) outbound logistics C) human resource management D) firm infrastructure

485)

What is the support value activity that provides employees with training, hiring, and compensation? A) procurement B) operations resource management C) human resource management D) firm infrastructure

486)

Sandy Fiero works as the chief knowledge officer for Bend Lumbar Company. She has been given the responsibility to create a product or service that will bring an added value to its customers to increase the company’s revenue. Sandy determines that the best value she can add is by creating a service that offers free next-day shipping on any order over $50. Where in the value chain is Sandy adding value? A) primary value activity outbound logistics B) primary value activity inbound logistics C) primary value activity marketing and sales D) primary value activity operations

487)

When evaluating the value chain, all of the following are included in the primary value activities except A) inbound activities. B) operations. C) service. D) MIS development.

488)

When evaluating the value chain, which of the following is included in the support value activities? A) inbound activities B) marketing and sales C) firm infrastructure D) finance and sales

489)

Which of the following decisions does a firm need to make as soon as it has identified the activities from the value chain that are bringing the highest added value to their customers? A) target high value-adding activities to further enhance their value B) target low value-adding activities to increase their value C) perform some combination of the two D) All of the answers are correct.

490)

MIS can add value to both primary activities and support activities in the value chain. Which of the following is not an example of adding value by the use of MIS in a primary activity? A) creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items B) a system for the sales and marketing departments to track specific sales targets and follow-up processes C) an easy electronic survey, similar to the Survey Monkey, to be sent to the customer right after a service is completed D) using a custom order and delivery system through an easily accessible web portal for the customer to track delivery status

491)

MIS can add value to both primary and support activities within a business. Which of the following is not an example of adding value by the use of MIS in a support activity? A) creating a business strategy for the video rental market that delivers videos via the mail B) creating a tracking system to efficiently reward employees based on their performance C) creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items D) creating a program to automatically order office supplies such as pens and pads of paper for employees

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 492) Describe the information age and the differences between data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge.

493)

Identify the different departments in a company and why they must work together to achieve success.

494)

Explain the concept of data silos and provide an example of their effect on a company.

495)

Define the six primary MIS-related strategic positions in an organization along with their associated responsibilities.

496)

Explain systems thinking and how management information systems enable business communications.

497)

Explain why competitive advantages are temporary.

498)

Describe Porter’s Five Forces Model and explain each of the five forces.

499)

Compare Porter’s three generic strategies.

500)

Demonstrate how a company can add value by using Porter’s value chain analysis.

501)

Explain a digital value chain and explain how it benefits a company.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) TRUE

Companies today are successful when they combine the power of the information age with traditional business methods. 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE

35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE

75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE

115) 116) 117) 118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126) 127) 128) 129) 130) 131) 132) 133) 134) 135) 136) 137) 138) 139) 140)

TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE Tiffany & Company is following a focused market with a high-cost differentiation strategy. 141) 142) 143) 144) 145) 146) 147) 148) 149) 150) 151) 152)

FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE

153) 154) 155) 156)

FALSE FALSE TRUE C The core drivers of the information age include data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge. 157)

D The core drivers of the information age include data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge. 158)

D The core drivers of the information age include data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge. 159)

D The core drivers of the information age include data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge. 160)

A Management information systems are everywhere in business. 161)

A A fact is the confirmation or validation of an event or object. 162)

B The information age has infinite quantities of facts that are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. 163)

D Amazon used technology to revamp the business process of selling books. 164)

A Netflix used technology to revamp the business process of renting videos. 165)

C Zappos used technology to revamp the business process of selling shoes. 166)

A Data are raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object.

167)

B Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. 168)

C Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. 169)

D Knowledge includes skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources. 170)

C Best-selling item by month is information. 171)

A Quantity sold is data. 172)

A Data is raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object. Data for Cheryl would include “Craig Newmark is customer number 15467.” 173)

C Best-selling product by day is an example of information. 174)

D Knowledge would include knowing that the best baker is Tony and that when he works, the bestselling product changes. 175)

D Questions outlined in the book include: Who are my best customers? Who are my leastprofitable customers? What is my best-selling product? What is my slowest-selling product? Who is my strongest sales representative? Who is my weakest sales representative? 176)

D “What is my worst-selling product?” is an example of taking data and turning it into information. 177)

D “Who is customer number 12345XX?” is an example of data. 178)

D

Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. 179)

A Data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge are the core drivers of the information age. 180)

B A variable is a data characteristic that stands for a value that changes or varies over time and can be manipulated to help improve profits. 181)

A Today’s workers are commonly referred to as knowledge workers, and they use BI along with personal experience to make decisions based on both information and intuition, a valuable resource for any company. 182)

D Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. 183)

B A variable is a data characteristic that stands for a value that changes or varies over time. 184)

B Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. 185)

A The Internet of Things is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention. 186)

C Machine-to-machine (M2M) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. 187)

B Predictive analytics extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. 188)

A

The Internet of Things is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention. 189)

C Machine-to-machine (M2M) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. 190)

B Predictive analytics are techniques that extract information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. 191)

D A data analyst collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions. 192)

A A data analyst collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions. 193)

D A data analyst must understand math and statistics, coding skills to work with data, and business area subject matter expertise. 194)

D Analytics is the science of fact-based decision making 195)

A Business analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. 196)

B Descriptive analytics describe past performance and history. 197)

D Predictive analytics extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. 198)

C Prescriptive analytics creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take. 199)

A

Business analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. 200)

B Descriptive analytics describe past performance and history. 201)

A Diagnostic analytics examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?". 202)

C Predictive analytics extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. 203)

D Prescriptive analytics creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take. 204)

A The four primary areas of analytics include descriptive analytics, diagnostic analytics, predictive analytics, and prescriptive analytics. 205)

A Knowledge assets, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization. 206)

A Knowledge assets reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media. 207)

B Knowledge facilitators help harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization. 208)

B Knowledge facilitators help acquire and catalog the knowledge assets in an organization. 209)

B Machine-generated data is created by a machine without human intervention 210)

A Human-generated data is data that humans, in interaction with computers, generate.

211)

B Machine-generated data includes sensor data, point-of-sale data, and web log data. 212)

A Human-generated data includes input data, click-stream data, or gaming data. 213)

D Structured data has a defined length, type and format and includes numbers, dates, or strings, such as Customer Address. Structured data is typically stored in a traditional system such as a relational database or spreadsheet. 214)

C Machine-to-machine (M2M) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. 215)

D Unstructured data does not follow a specified format and is typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. 216)

B Unstructured data does not follow a specified format and is typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. 217)

B Structured data has a defined length, type and format and includes numbers, dates, or strings, such as Customer Address. Structured data is typically stored in a traditional system such as a relational database or spreadsheet. 218)

D Machine-generated unstructured data includes satellite images, scientific atmosphere data, and radar. 219)

D Human-generated unstructured data includes text messages, social media data, and emails. 220)

C Machine-generated unstructured data includes satellite images, scientific atmosphere data, and radar data. 221)

C Human-generated unstructured data includes text messages, social media data, and emails.

222)

B A snapshot is a view of data at a particular moment in time. 223)

C A snapshot is a view of data at a particular moment in time. 224)

A A report is a document containing data organized in a table, matrix, or graphical format allowing users to easily comprehend and understand information. 225)

A A static report is created based on data that does not change. 226)

B A dynamic report changes automatically during creation. 227)

A A static report is created based on data that does not change. Static reports can include a sales report from last year or salary report from five years ago. 228)

B A dynamic report changes automatically during creation. Dynamic reports can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory. 229)

A A data scientist extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends. 230)

D A data scientist extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends. 231)

B Business analytics is synonymous with analytics. 232)

A Business analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. 233)

A

A data scientist extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information. 234)

A A data scientist extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information. 235)

A Variety includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. 236)

B Veracity includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities. 237)

C Volume includes the scale of data. 238)

D Velocity includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet. 239)

A Variety includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. 240)

B Veracity includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities. 241)

C Volume includes the scale of data. 242)

D Velocity includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet. 243)

A Big data is a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools. 244)

A Big data is a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools.

245)

A A data silo occurs when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units, making it difficult or impossible for organizations to work cross-functionally. 246)

A A data silo occurs when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units, making it difficult or impossible for organizations to work cross-functionally. 247)

A Companies today are typically organized by departments or functional areas. 248)

B For companies to operate as a whole and be successful in our business environment today, they must operate interdependently between departments. 249)

B Payroll is part of the accounting department. 250)

D Sales needs to rely on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand. 251)

A Human resources maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees. 252)

B Operations management manages the process of converting or transforming of resources into goods or services. 253)

A The department within a company that records, measures, and reports monetary transactions is accounting. 254)

B The department with a company that performs the function of selling goods or services is sales. 255)

D The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is marketing.

256)

D Finance department tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets. 257)

B Operations management department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services. 258)

C Accounting records, measures, and reports monetary transactions. 259)

D The human resources department maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees. 260)

A Accounting records, measures, and reports monetary transactions. 261)

B Finance department tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets. 262)

C The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is marketing. 263)

D Sales needs to rely on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand. 264)

D Human resources maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees. 265)

B Operations management manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services. 266)

A The marketing department includes promotion data, sales data, and advertising data.

267)

B The human resources department includes employee data, promotion data, and vacation data. 268)

C The finance department includes investment data, monetary data, and reporting data. 269)

D The accounting department includes transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, and tax data. 270)

A The sales department has sales data, customer data, commission data, and customer support data. 271)

A The operations management department has manufacturing data, distribution data, and production data. 272)

C Functional areas are interdependent. 273)

D Tax, payroll and transactional data are all found in the accounting department. 274)

A Monetary data is most commonly found in the finance department. 275)

D Employee data is most commonly found in the human resource department. 276)

D All of these data types are found in the sales department. 277)

A Promotional data is most commonly found in the marketing department. 278)

C Production data is most commonly found in the operations management department. 279)

A The CKO is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge.

280)

B The CPO is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company. 281)

C The CTO is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the management information systems. 282)

D The CIO is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. 283)

B The CSO is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses. 284)

B The CPO is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company. 285)

C Management information systems is a business function, like accounting and human resources, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. 286)

A The chief knowledge officer (CKO) is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. 287)

C The chief technology officer is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability for MIS. 288)

B The chief security officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses. 289)

C The chief information officer (CIO) is responsible for (1) overseeing all uses of MIS and (2) ensuring that MIS strategic aligns with business goals and objectives. 290)

C

Recently, 150 of the Fortune 500 companies added the CPO position to their list of senior executives. 291)

A The CTO is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS. 292)

C The CPO is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company. 293)

B The CSO is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses. 294)

D The CKO is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. 295)

A The CIO is responsible for (1) overseeing all uses of MIS and (2) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. 296)

C The CDO is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share. 297)

A The CTO is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS. 298)

D The CIO is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. 299)

B The CPO is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company. 300)

C The CSO is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses. 301)

A

The CDO is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share. 302)

B The CKO is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. 303)

D According to Fast Company magazine, chief intellectual property officer, chief automation officer, and chief user experience officer are a few executive levels we might see created over the next decade. 304)

A The chief intellectual property officer will manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents. The world of intellectual property law is vast and complicated as new innovations continually enter the market. 305)

B The chief automation officer determines if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software. As we continue to automate jobs, a member of the core leadership team of the future will be put in charge of identifying opportunities for companies to become more competitive through automation. 306)

C The chief user experience officer will create the optimal relationship between user and technology. User experience used to be an afterthought for hardware and software designers. 307)

B Broad functions of a CIO include manager, leader, and communicator. 308)

B The CIO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed; the CDO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system. 309)

B This is the definition of MIS skills gap. 310)

C Purple squirrels. Squirrels in the real world are not purple: Recruiters use this term to imply that finding the perfect job candidate with exactly the right qualifications, education, and salary expectations can be a daunting task.

311)

D Based on this description, Eric is the chief knowledge officer (CKO) at Parker Industries. 312)

D Based on this description, Cody is the chief privacy officer (CPO) at Trek Enterprises. 313)

B Based on this description, Sara is the chief technology officer (CTO) of Henry Commerce. 314)

A Based on this description, Allana is the chief security officer (CSO) of PH Corporation. 315)

C Based on this description, Jasmine is the chief data officer (CDO) of Keck-Howes Group. 316)

A Data democratization is the ability for data to be collected, analyzed, and accessible to all users (the average end users). 317)

B A business unit is a segment of a company representing a specific business function. 318)

A Data democratization is the ability for data to be collected, analyzed, and accessible to all users (the average end users). 319)

A Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter’s actions. The original transmitter includes input – transform – output. 320)

D MIS is a business function that moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. 321)

A Input is data entered in a computer. 322)

D Feedback is the control that ensures correct processing. 323)

B

Output is the resulting information from the computer program. 324)

C Process is the computer program that processes the data. 325)

A Input is data entered in a computer. 326)

C Output is the resulting information from the computer program. 327)

B Feedback is the control that ensures correct processes. 328)

D Process is the computer program that processes the data. 329)

A A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose, whereas systems thinking is a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part. 330)

D MIS is a valuable tool that can leverage the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively. 331)

B Systems thinking is a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part. 332)

D MIS is an important enabler of business success and innovation. 333)

D Typical organizations have an internal MIS department often called information technology (IT), information systems (IS), or management information systems (MIS). 334)

A Goods are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. 335)

B

Services are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. 336)

C Production is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. 337)

D Productivity is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs. 338)

A Goods are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. 339)

B Services are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. 340)

C Production is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. 341)

D Productivity is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs. 342)

A Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in the goods category. 343)

B Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in the services category. 344)

D Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in the goods category. 345)

D Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in the services category. 346)

A Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in the goods category. 347)

C

Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in the services category. 348)

A Milk and eggs are groceries. Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in the goods category. 349)

D Selling groceries, managing a team, teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in the services category. 350)

A Lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are all included in the input category of making a hamburger. 351)

B Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are all included in the process category of making a hamburger. 352)

C The hamburger is the output in the process of making a hamburger. 353)

B If you could produce more hamburgers with the same input and the price of your hamburgers remains the same, productivity would increase and profits would increase. 354)

B If you could produce more T-shirts with the same input and the price of your T-shirts remains the same, productivity would increase, and profits would increase. 355)

B If you could produce more cars with the same input and the price of your cars remains the same, productivity would increase, and profits would increase. 356)

C The systems thinking process includes input, process, output, and feedback. 357)

C MIS stands for management information systems. 358)

A

Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter (input, transform, or output) and modifies the transmitter’s actions. 359)

A Systems thinking is a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part. 360)

A The inputs for a washing machine include the dirty clothes, water, and detergent. 361)

C The process for a washing machine includes the wash and rinse cycles. 362)

D The feedback for a washing machine includes a light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped. 363)

B The output for a washing machine includes clean clothes. 364)

A The input for an oven includes the uncooked food. 365)

B The output for an oven includes the cooked food. 366)

D The process for an oven includes running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes. 367)

C The feedback for an oven includes a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature. 368)

A A home theater system requires inputs of the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity. 369)

B The output of a home theater system includes playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV.

370)

D The process of a home theater system includes spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward. 371)

C The feedback from a home theater system includes a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played. 372)

D Ways that companies duplicate competitive advantages include acquiring new technology, copying the business operations, and hiring away key employees. 373)

D First-mover advantage is an advantage that occurs when a company can significantly increase its market share by being first with a competitive advantage. Google was first to market with search engine technology. 374)

A Managers utilize three common tools to analyze competitive intelligence and develop competitive advantages: (1) the Five Forces Model, (2) the three generic strategies, and (3) value chain analysis. 375)

A Competitive advantages are typically temporary. 376)

C Updating business strategies is a continuous undertaking as internal and external environments rapidly change. 377)

D Competitive advantages are typically temporary because competitors often quickly seek ways to duplicate them by acquiring new technology, copying the business operations, and hiring away key employees. 378)

D This is the definition of competitive advantage. 379)

C A competitive analysis model is not discussed in this text. 380)

C

Competitive intelligence is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed. 381)

A A stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization. 382)

A Partners/suppliers are primarily interested are in reliable contracts, ethical materials handling, and responsible production. 383)

D The primary interests of government include adhere to regulations/laws, increase employment, and ethical taxation reporting. 384)

B The primary interests of shareholders/investors include maximize profits, grow market share, and high return on investment. 385)

D Customers’ primary interests includes exceptional customer service, high-quality products, and ethical dealings. 386)

A Employees’ primary interests include fair compensation, job security, and ethical conduct/treatment. 387)

C The community’s primary interests include professional associations, ethical recycling, and increasing employment. 388)

A A competitive features a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors. 389)

A A SWOT analysis evaluates a project’s position. 390)

A

A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. 391)

B The Five Forces Model evaluates industry attractiveness. 392)

B The Five Forces Model analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry. 393)

C The value chain analysis executes business strategy. 394)

C Value chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service. 395)

D The three generic strategies choose the business focus. 396)

D Porter’s three generic strategies are generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service. 397)

C A stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization. 398)

A Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Customers of an organization are generally concerned with exceptional customer service, high-quality products, and ethical dealing. 399)

B Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Employees of an organization are generally concerned with fair compensation, job security, and ethical conduct/treatment. 400)

C

Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. The community around an organization is generally concerned with professional associations, ethical recycling, and increase in employment. 401)

D Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Partners/suppliers of an organization are generally concerned with reliable contracts, ethical materials handling, and responsible production. 402)

B Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. The government is generally concerned that organizations adhere to regulations/laws, increase employment, and ethically report taxation. 403)

A Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Shareholder’s/investors are generally concerned that organizations maximize profits, grow the market share, and have a high return on investment. 404)

C Shareholder’s/investors are generally concerned that organizations maximize profits, grow the market share, and have a high return on investment. It is not uncommon to find stakeholders’ business strategies have conflicting interests such as investors looking to increase profits by eliminating employee jobs. 405)

B SWOT includes strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. 406)

A Strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization. 407)

B Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization. 408)

A Internal strengths include core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, and excellent management. 409)

B

Internal weaknesses that are harmful to an organization include lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, and an outdated product line. 410)

C Potential external opportunities that are helpful include expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, and new regulations. 411)

D External weaknesses that are harmful to an organization include new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, and costly regulatory requirements. 412)

A Strengths are internal and helpful. 413)

B Weaknesses are internal and harmful. 414)

C Opportunities are external and helpful. 415)

D Threats are external and harmful. 416)

B A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. 417)

A Strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization, or internally. Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization, or externally, and cannot always be anticipated or controlled. 418)

B Strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization, or internally. Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization, or externally, and cannot always be anticipated or controlled. 419)

A Potential internal strengths (helpful) identify all key strengths associated with the competitive advantage, including cost advantages.

420)

B Potential internal weaknesses (harmful) identify all key areas that require improvement, including a damaged reputation. 421)

C Potential internal weaknesses (harmful) identify all significant trends along with how the organization can benefit from each, including new markets. 422)

C Managers use four common tools to analyze competitive intelligence and develop competitive advantages: SWOT analysis, the Five Forces Model, the three generic strategies, and value chain analysis. 423)

D Victory Wireless is attempting to decrease buyer power by offering products at a lower price or competing on price. 424)

C Ways that companies duplicate competitive advantages include acquiring the new technology, copying business processes, and hiring away employees. 425)

A The banking industry, for example, has utilized competitive advantage by all now offering ATMs, online bill pay services, and electronic statements. These are all examples of ways they duplicated each other by acquiring new technology products and services. 426)

A Michael Porter defined the Five Forces Model. Before formally presenting his model, he identified pressures that can hurt potential sales, which include: (1) knowledgeable customers can force down prices by pitting rivals against each other, (2) influential suppliers can drive down profits by charging higher prices for supplies, (3) competition can steal customers, (4) new market entrants can steal potential investment capital, and (5) substitute products can steal customers. 427)

D Buyer power is one of Porter’s five forces, which measures the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. Kevin’s group is attempting to increase its buyer power. 428)

B Switching costs are costs that make customers reluctant to switch to another product or service.

429)

A One way to reduce buyer power is with a loyalty program, which rewards customers based on their spending. 430)

B The supply chain includes all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product. 431)

D In a typical supply chain, a company will be both a supplier and a customer. 432)

C The four competitive forces that work among the power of competitors are buyer power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services. 433)

A Supplier power, one of Porter’s five forces, measures the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services). 434)

C Using MIS to find alternative products is one way of decreasing supplier power. 435)

D If the supplier power is high, the supplier can influence the industry by: (1) charging higher prices, (2) limiting quality or services, and/or (3) shifting costs to industry participants. 436)

C One way a company can reduce the threat of substitute products or services is to offer additional value through wider product distribution. 437)

A Threat of new entrants, one of Porter’s five forces, is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market. 438)

D When the five forces are all strong or high, it is a poor business strategy; when the forces are low, this is a great time to execute the business strategy. 439)

B

Entry barrier is a feature of a product or service that customers have come to expect, and entering competitors must offer the same for survival. 440)

C A traditional business supply chain operates like this: supplier – company – customers. 441)

A The threat of new entrants is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market. 442)

B The threat of new entrants is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market. 443)

A With Porter’s Five Forces Model, these are all examples of strong forces that increase competition: (1) a single consumer purchasing milk, (2) a company that makes pencils, (3) coffee from McDonalds, (4) a dog-walking business, and (5) a coffee shop. 444)

A With Porter’s Five Forces Model, these are all examples of weak forces that decrease competition: (1) an international hotel chain purchasing milk, (2) a company that makes airline engines, (3) cancer drugs from a pharmaceutical company, (4) a professional hockey team, and (5) a Department of Motor Vehicles. 445)

B Some industries’ competition is much more intense than others. Retail grocery stores such as Kroger, Safeway, Albertson’s, and Ralph’s in the United States have fierce competition and similar programs to compete with each other. 446)

C Product differentiation is an advantage that occurs when a company develops unique differences in its products with the intent to influence demand. 447)

A An example of supplier power in the music industry includes established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal. 448)

B

Buyer power in the music industry includes Walmart, Target, and iTunes, which purchase music from record labels to sell online and in stores. 449)

C Game systems such Xbox and social networks such as Facebook offer alternatives or substitute products to purchasing music for a consumer. 450)

A Supplier power in the soft drink industry is represented by Pepsi. 451)

B Buyer power in the soft drink industry is represented by Walmart. 452)

C Zevia Natural Diet Soda represents a new entrant in the soft drink industry. 453)

D Vitamin water, fruit juice, and coffee are all substitute products to a soft drink. 454)

A Buyer power is the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. 455)

B Supplier power is the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies. 456)

D The threat of substitute products or services is high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose. 457)

C The threat of new entrants is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market. 458)

D Rivalry is high when competition is fierce in a market and low when competitors are more complacent. 459)

D The rivalry between Coke and Pepsi is famous in the soft drink industry. 460)

B

Porter has identified three generic business strategies for entering a new market: (1) broad cost leadership, (2) broad differentiation, and (3) focused strategy. 461)

A When analyzing Porter’s three generic strategies for entering a market, if you have a focused strategy, you should target a narrow market, niche market, or unique market. 462)

D Payless competes by offering a specific product (narrow market): shoes at low prices. Their strategy is to be the low-cost provider of shoes. 463)

C The three strategies proposed by Porter are (1) broad cost leadership, (2) broad differentiation, and (3) focused strategy. 464)

B The Museum Company competes using a narrow market and high-cost focus. 465)

A According to Porter, broad markets should utilize cost leadership with a low cost and differentiation with a high cost. 466)

D Walmart competes by offering a broad range of products at low prices. Its business strategy is to be the low-cost provider of goods for the cost-conscious consumer. 467)

B When the business has a market segment, their competitive scope should be a narrow market, and the cost strategy should be a focused strategy. 468)

C Tiffany & Co. competes by offering a differentiated product, jewelry, at high prices. Its business strategy allows it to be a high-cost provider of premier designer jewelry to affluent consumers. 469)

A Amazon.com competes by offering a broad range of differentiated products at low prices. 470)

C Focused strategies versus broad strategies is synonymous to niche market versus large markets. 471)

A

Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, and JetBlue all use cost leadership business strategies. 472)

B British Airways, Singapore Airlines, and Virgin Atlantic all compete using differentiation strategies. 473)

C Sky Taxi is using a focused strategy targeting individuals who want to hire private planes. 474)

D A digital value chain digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. It allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. 475)

A A digital value chain digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. It allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. 476)

D The service activity within the primary value activities will provide customer support after the sale of goods and services. 477)

A Procurement is the process of the support value activity that purchases inputs such as raw materials, resources, equipment and supplies. 478)

D The support activity firm infrastructure coupled with the primary value activity of outbound logistics is a part of the value chain analysis. 479)

C A business process is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task. 480)

C The value chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service. 481)

D

The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself, with a cost advantage or product differentiation. 482)

B The value chain groups a firm’s activities into two categories: primary value activities and support value activities. 483)

B Primary value activities are found at the bottom of the value chain; these include business processes that acquire raw materials and manufacture, deliver, market, sell, and provide aftersales services. 484)

B Support value activities are found along the top of the value chain and include business processes, such as firm infrastructure, human resource management, technology development, and procurement, that support the primary value activities. 485)

C Human resource management provides employee training, hiring, and compensation. 486)

A Outbound logistics distributes goods and services to customers. 487)

D Primary value activities include (1) inbound logistics, (2) operations, (3) outbound logistics, (4) marketing and sales, and (5) service. 488)

C The support value activities found along the top of the value chain include (1) firm infrastructure, (2) human resource management, (3) technology development, and (4) procurement. 489)

D When a firm has identified the activities from the value chain that are bringing the highest added value to their customers, they need to make decisions regarding the competitive advantage by determining whether to (1) target high value-adding activities to further enhance their value, (2) target low value-adding activities to increase their value, and (3) perform some combination of the two. 490)

A

MIS can add value to both primary and support activities within a business. All are primary activities except creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items. This is a support value activity. 491)

A MIS can add value to both primary and support activities within a business. All are support activities except for creating a business strategy for the video rental market that simplifies renting a movie with quick mail delivery. This is a primary value activity. 492)

Essay We live in the information age, when infinite quantities of facts are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. The core drivers of the information age include data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge. Data are raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object. Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. Business intelligence (BI) is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. Knowledge includes the skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence that creates a person’s intellectual resources. As you move from data to knowledge, you include more and more variables for analysis, resulting in better, more precise support for decision making and problem solving. 493)

Essay Companies are typically organized by department or functional area such as accounting, finance, human resources, marketing, operations management, and sales. Although each department has its own focus and own data, none can work independently if the company is to operate as a whole. It is easy to see how a business decision made by one department can affect other departments. Functional areas are anything but independent in a business. In fact, functional areas are interdependent. Sales must rely on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, calculate transportation costs, and gain insight into product availability based on production schedules. For an organization to succeed, every department or functional area must work together sharing common information and not be a “silo.” Information technology can enable departments to more efficiently and effectively perform their business operations. 494)

Essay A data silo occurs when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units, making it difficult or impossible for organizations to work cross-functionally. As a result, sales may not have accurate, current information from production on product availability, and production may not fully understand the demand for the product.

495)

Essay The chief information officer (CIO) is responsible for overseeing all uses of information technology and ensuring the strategic alignment of MIS with business goals and objectives. The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share. The chief technology officer (CTO) is responsible for ensuring the throughput, speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of an organization’s information technology. The chief security officer (CSO) is responsible for ensuring the security of the MIS systems and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. The chief privacy officer (CPO) is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within an organization. The chief knowledge officer (CKO) is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing the organization’s knowledge. 496)

Essay A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose. Systems thinking is a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part. Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter (input, transform, or output) and modifies the transmitter’s actions. Feedback helps the system maintain stability. Management information systems (MIS) is a business function, like accounting and human resources, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. MIS incorporates systems thinking to help companies operate cross-functionally. For example, to fulfill product orders, an MIS for sales moves a single customer order across all functional areas including sales, order fulfillment, shipping, billing, and finally customer service. Although different functional areas handle different parts of the sale, thanks to MIS, to the customer the sale is one continuous process. 497)

Essay A competitive advantage is a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors. Competitive advantages provide the same product or service either at a lower price or with additional value that can fetch premium prices. Unfortunately, competitive advantages are typically temporary because competitors often quickly seek ways to duplicate them. In turn, organizations must develop a strategy based on a new competitive advantage. Ways that companies duplicate competitive advantages include acquiring the new technology, copying business processes, and hiring away employees. 498)

Essay

Porter’s Five Forces Model analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates, to assess the potential for profitability in an industry. Buyer power is the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. Supplier power is the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services). Threat of substitute products or services is high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose. Threat of new entrants is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to entering a market. Rivalry among existing competitors is high when competition is fierce in a market and low when competition is more complacent. 499)

Essay Organizations typically follow one of Porter’s three generic strategies when entering a new market: (1) broad cost leadership, (2) broad differentiation, or (3) focused strategy. Broad strategies reach a large market segment. Focused strategies target a niche market. Focused strategies concentrate on either cost leadership or differentiation. 500)

Essay To identify competitive advantages, Michael Porter created value chain analysis, which views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service. The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself with a cost advantage or product differentiation. The value chain groups a firm’s activities into two categories: primary value activities and support value activities. Primary value activities acquire raw materials and manufacture, deliver, market, sell, and provide after-sales services. Support value activities, include firm infrastructure, human resource management, technology development, and procurement. Not surprisingly, these support the primary value activities. 501)

Essay Digital value chain: Digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. A digital value chain allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing. Advances in production equipment used in robotics and 3D printing speed up production to smart finished products (such as connected cars and IoT devices).

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 502) At the operational level, employees are continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change. ⊚ true ⊚ false 503)

At the operational level, employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities required to run the day-to-day operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

504)

Operational decisions are considered structured decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

505)

Asking how many employees are out sick is a type of operational question. ⊚ true ⊚ false

506)

Strategic decisions are highly structured decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

507)

One of the most important and challenging questions confronting managers today is how to lay the foundation for tomorrow’s success while competing to win in today’s business environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

508)

The structure of a typical organization is similar to a pyramid, with different levels that require one consistent type of information to assist with all managerial decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

509)

Operational decisions or semistructured decisions arise in situations where established processes offer potential solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

510)

Unstructured decisions occur in situations in which no procedures or rules exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

511)

At the strategic decision-making level, employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

512)

Key performance indicators can focus on external and internal measurements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

513)

The proportion of the market that a firm captures is called market share. ⊚ true ⊚ false

514)

Benchmarks are baseline values the system seeks to attain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

515)

Effectiveness MIS metrics include throughput, transaction speed, and system availability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

516)

Measuring the amount of website traffic is the best way to determine an organization’s success. ⊚ true ⊚ false

517)

A project is a temporary activity a company undertakes to create a unique product, service, or result. ⊚ true ⊚ false

518)

Metrics are temporary activities a company undertakes to create a unique product, service, or result. ⊚ true ⊚ false

519)

Metrics are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

520)

Efficiency MIS metrics include throughput, speed, and availability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

521)

Effectiveness MIS metrics measure the impact MIS has on business processes and activities, including customer satisfaction and customer conversion rates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

522)

Efficiency MIS metrics measure the impact MIS has on business processes and activities, including customer satisfaction and customer conversion rates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

523)

Best practices are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a specific organization or industry. ⊚ true ⊚ false

524)

Return on investment indicates the earning power of a project. ⊚ true ⊚ false

525)

MIS support systems rely on models for computational and analytical routines that mathematically express relationships among variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

526)

A pie chart is a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represent a proportion of the whole. ⊚ true ⊚ false

527)

Streamlining information encompasses all of the information contained within a single business process or unit of work, and its primary purpose is to support the performing of daily operational or structured decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

528)

A bar chart is a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

529)

A histogram is a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. ⊚ true ⊚ false

530)

A sparkline is a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend. Sparklines are often used in reports, presentations, dashboards, and scoreboards. They do not include axes or labels; context comes from the related content. ⊚ true ⊚ false

531)

An infographic (information graphic) is a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance. People use infographics to quickly communicate a message, to simplify the presentation of large amounts of data, to see data patterns and relationships, and to monitor changes in variables over time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

532)

A time-series chart is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time. Time-series charts are used for data that changes continuously, such as stock prices. They allow for a clear visual representation of a change in one variable over a set amount of time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

533)

Managers use transactional information when making structured decisions at the operational level. ⊚ true ⊚ false

534)

The manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making is referred to as OLTP or online transaction processing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

535)

A model is a simplified representation or abstraction of reality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

536)

Source documents are simplified representations or abstractions of reality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

537)

Source documents are the original transaction records. ⊚ true ⊚ false

538)

Granularity refers to the level of detail in the model or the decision-making process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

539)

Visualization produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

540)

A digital dashboard produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

541)

A neural network is a category of efficiency and effectiveness MIS metrics where it attempts to measure the way a computer network sends and receives data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

542)

A genetic algorithm is an operational system that uses human cellular information to mimic evolution for better solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

543)

A genetic algorithm mimics the evolutionary, survival-of-the-fittest process to generate increasingly better solutions to a problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

544)

Investment companies use effectiveness MIS metrics to help in trading decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

545)

Fuzzy logic is a mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

546)

Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

547)

An algorithm refers to a set of instructions that completes a task. ⊚ true ⊚ false

548)

Machine learning is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

549)

Affinity bias is when someone acts similar to those around them regardless of their own personality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

550)

Affinity bias is when a person who enjoys critical thinking, chess and strategic board games, hires someone who enjoys them as well. ⊚ true ⊚ false

551)

Conformity bias is when a person tries to mimic the behavior and thinking of their manager regardless of their own personality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

552)

Conformity bias is when a person researching a project looks for data that supports their current assumptions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

553)

Confirmation bias is when a person believes their coworker to be lazy and looks for signs that they come in late, procrastinate, and try to get out of work projects. ⊚ true ⊚ false

554)

Name bias is when a person prefers certain types of names. ⊚ true ⊚ false

555)

Conformity bias is when a person prefers certain types of names. ⊚ true ⊚ false

556)

Affinity bias a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with dissimilar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. ⊚ true ⊚ false

557)

Virtual reality is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world. ⊚ true ⊚ false

558)

Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

559)

Augmented reality is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world. ⊚ true ⊚ false

560)

Virtual reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

561)

A machine-vision system uses a video camera to capture data and send it to the robot controller. Machine vision is similar in complexity to voice recognition and can be used for handwriting recognition, signature identification, and currency inspection. Two important specifications in any vision system are the sensitivity and the resolution. ⊚ true ⊚ false

562)

Deep learning is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets. ⊚ true ⊚ false

563)

Business-facing processes or back-office processes are invisible to the external customer but essential to the effective management and operation of the business. ⊚ true ⊚ false

564)

When evaluating the five steps in the order-to-delivery business process, step one includes creating a campaign and checking inventory, which are both part of the human resources function. ⊚ true ⊚ false

565)

Strategic planning is a customer-facing business process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

566)

Product delivery is a customer-facing business process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

567)

Improving the efficiency and effectiveness of its business processes will improve a firm’s value chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

568)

Core processes are business processes, such as manufacturing goods, selling products, and providing services, that make up the primary activities in a value chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

569)

Core processes are patents that protect a specific set of procedures for conducting a particular business activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

570)

A static process uses a systematic approach in an attempt to improve business effectiveness and efficiency continuously. Managers constantly attempt to optimize static process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

571)

Examples of static processes include running payroll, calculating taxes, and creating financial statements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

572)

Examples of dynamic processes include running payroll, calculating taxes, and creating financial statements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

573)

A dynamic process continuously changes and provides business solutions to everchanging business operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

574)

A static process continuously changes and provides business solutions to ever-changing business operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

575)

As the business and its strategies change, so do the dynamic processes. Examples of dynamic processes include managing layoffs of employees, changing order levels based on currency rates, and canceling business travel due to extreme weather. ⊚ true ⊚ false

576)

A business process patent is a patent that protects a specific set of procedures for conducting a particular business activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

577)

A payroll management system is a graphic description of a process, showing the sequence of process tasks, which is developed for a specific purpose and from a selected viewpoint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

578)

To-Be process models show the results of applying change improvement opportunities to the current (As-Is) process model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

579)

Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) is a graphical notation that depicts the steps in a business process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

580)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) event is anything that happens during the course of a business process. An event is represented by a circle in a business process model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

581)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) activity is a task in a business process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

582)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) gateway is used to control the flow of a process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

583)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) flow displays the path in which the process flows. ⊚ true ⊚ false

584)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) flow is anything that happens during the course of a business process. An event is represented by a circle in a business process model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

585)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) event is a task in a business process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

586)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) activity is used to control the flow of a process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

587)

A Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) gateway displays the path in which the process flows. ⊚ true ⊚ false

588)

The primary goal of an As-Is process model is to simplify, eliminate, and improve the To-Be processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

589)

Business processes should never drive MIS choices and should be based on business strategies and goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

590)

A swim lane layout arranges the steps of a business process into a set of rows depicting the various elements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

591)

Redundancy occurs when a task or activity is never repeated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

592)

Robotic process automation (RPA) is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform. ⊚ true ⊚ false

593)

Business process reengineering is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises. ⊚ true ⊚ false

594)

Robotic process automation (RPA) is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform. ⊚ true ⊚ false

595)

Operational business processes are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

596)

Managerial business processes are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

597)

Strategic business processes are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

598)

Strategic business processes are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

599)

Operational business processes are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

600)

Operational business processes are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 601) Which of the following is NOT a type of organizational information system? A) executive information system B) decisions support system C) analysis processing system D) transactional processing system 602)

Which of the following is an important challenge facing managers today? A) making business decisions B) solving business problems C) competing to win in today’s market D) All of the answers are correct.

603)

Imagine an important customer shows up at a hotel that is fully booked, and the reservation is missing. The manager must decide how to respond to the customer. At which level would this decision be made? A) operational level B) structured level C) strategic level D) analysis level

604)

Which of the following is not a step in the six-step decision-making process? A) data collection B) employee decisions C) solution generation D) solution test

605)

When evaluating the six-step decision-making process, what occurs during the solution implementation step? A) the process will begin again if the decisions made were incorrect B) defining the problem as clearly and precisely as possible C) identifying details of every solution possible, including ideas that seem far-fetched D) selecting the question that best solves the problem

606)

Which of the following is a step in the six-step decision-making process? A) employee engagement B) data collection C) detail collection D) data-driven decision management

607)

Which of the following represents the structure of a typical organization? A) flat line B) pyramid C) circle D) cube

608)

Which of the following represents the three different levels of a company pyramid from the top to the bottom? A) managerial—strategic—operational B) strategic—managerial—operational C) operational—managerial—strategic D) strategic—operational—managerial

609)

Which of the following would you include as decisions and responsibilities typically found at the managerial level of a company? A) monthly plans B) monthly budgets C) monthly staffing D) All of the answers are correct.

610)

Data collection, solution generation, and solution implementation are all concepts associated which of the following processes? A) the three-step problem identification process B) the six-step decision-making process C) the four-step problem-solving process D) the four-step decision-making process

611)

Review the following key terms. Which one defines an operational decision that involves situations where established processes offer potential solutions? A) optimization analysis decision B) artificial intelligence decision C) structured decision D) unstructured decision

612)

Which of the following is considered a structured decision or strategic decision? A) reordering inventory B) deciding to enter a new market C) creating the employee weekly staffing schedule D) creating the employee weekly production schedule

613)

Which of the following is considered an operational decision or structured decision? A) determining how many employees are out sick B) determining the impact of last month’s marketing campaign C) allocating resources to a department for a new system D) monitoring performance of a project team over the last six months

614)

Which of the following is considered a managerial decision or semistructured decision? A) determining how many employees are out sick B) determining the impact of last month’s marketing campaign C) determining which employee makes the least amount of errors per day D) tracking how much inventory is in the warehouse

615)

Which of the following key terms represents the types of decisions made at the operational, managerial, and strategic levels of a company? A) structured decisions B) unstructured decisions C) semistructured decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

616)

At which level do managers develop the overall business strategies and monitor the performance of the organization and the competitive business environment? A) operational level B) strategic level C) managerial level D) All of the answers are correct.

617)

Jenny Welch works at a retail store selling sports equipment. Her daily tasks include opening the store, creating the work schedules, processing payroll, overseeing sales and inventory, and training employees. At what level of the organizational pyramid would you categorize Jenny? A) managerial level B) operational level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

618)

Andy Benton works at the local Starbucks coffee shop, and his responsibilities include taking orders, fulfilling orders, and ringing in sales. At what level of the organizational pyramid would you categorize Andy? A) strategic level B) owner level C) operational level D) managerial level

619)

Bill Schultz works at a high-powered investment firm in Los Angeles. Bill is responsible for promoting the firm’s vision and creating the companywide goals and strategies. He also monitors the overall strategic performance of the company and its direction for future business strategies. At what level of the organizational pyramid would you categorize Bill? A) strategic level B) owner level C) operational level D) managerial level

620)

Chuck Biggs has been hired to oversee all of the plans that the city of Denver has created to expand its train transportation system by adding six more lines in the metropolitan area. Chuck will be responsible for planning the project, managing the processes, and finalizing each new line as it is completed. How would you categorize the majority of the decisions Chuck will have to make to complete his job? A) unstructured decisions B) semistructured decisions C) structured decisions D) key performance indicators

621)

What occurs in situations in which a few established processes help to evaluate potential solutions, but not enough to lead to a definite recommended decision? A) key performance indicators B) structured decisions C) critical success factors D) semistructured decisions

622)

What occurs in situations in which no procedures or rules exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice? A) key performance indicators B) structured decisions C) unstructured decisions D) semistructured decisions

623)

624)

What arises in situations where established processes offer potential solutions? A) analytics B) structured decisions C) unstructured decisions D) key performance indicators

The structure of an organization is similar to a pyramid. The different levels require different types of information to assist with which of the following? A) decision making B) problem solving C) opportunity capturing D) All of the answers are correct.

625)

At which level will a manager use analytics to make decisions? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

626)

At which level of an organization do employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities required to run the day-to-day operations? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

627)

At which level of an organization are employees continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

628)

At which level of an organization do managers develop overall business strategies, goals, and objectives as part of the company’s strategic plan? A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

629)

Lower management, department managers, analysts, and staff are all employees at the ________ level. A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

630)

Middle management, managers, and directors are all employees at the ________ level. A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

631)

Senior management, presidents, leaders, and executives are all employees at the ________ level. A) operational level B) managerial level C) strategic level D) All of the answers are correct.

632)

What is the typical timeframe for decisions at the operational level? A) day-to-day decisions B) monthly decisions C) yearly decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

633)

What is the typical timeframe for decisions at the managerial level? A) day-to-day decisions B) monthly decisions C) yearly decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

634)

What is the typical time frame for decisions at the strategic level? A) day-to-day B) monthly C) yearly D) All of the answers are correct.

635)

What are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals? A) models B) metrics C) benchmarks D) genetic algorithms

636)

What are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies? A) critical success factors B) crucial success factors C) key performance indicators D) key performance factors

637)

Which of the following is an example of a critical success factor? A) increase customer satisfaction B) number of new customers C) number of new products D) percentage of employee turnover

638)

Which of the following statements is accurate? A) key performance indicators can have no more than four critical success factors B) critical success factors can have no more than four key performance indicators C) key performance indicators can have several critical success factors D) critical success factors can have several key performance indicators

639)

Key performance indicators are the metrics a company uses to evaluate progress toward critical success factors. Which of the following represents a key performance indicator? A) create high-quality products B) reduce product costs C) percentage of help-desk calls answered in the first minute D) hire the best business professionals

640)

Critical success factors (CSFs) and key performance indicators (KPIs) are the two core metrics used within a business to track progress or success. What is the relationship between CSFs and KPIs? A) CSFs are business strategy elements, whereas KPIs measure the progress of the CSFs. B) CSFs build the business environment, whereas KPIs explain how to build the CSFs. C) KPIs are used first, and CSFs are applied later. D) KPIs promote employees on their performance, whereas CSFs demote employees based on their performance.

641)

Market share measures a firm’s external performance relative to that of its competitors. Which of the following represents how a firm measures market share? A) multiplying the firm’s sales by the industries total sales B) dividing the firm’s sales by the total market sales for the entire industry C) subtracting competitor’s sales from the firm’s total sales D) subtracting the industry’s total sales from the firm’s total sales

642)

Anne-Marie Cole runs the sales division for a local auto insurance firm. One of her key duties is to calculate her company’s market share. When evaluating the prior-year numbers, she found that her firm achieved total sales of $3 million and the entire industry had $30 million in sales. What is the current market share of Anne-Marie’s company? A) 1 percent B) 10 percent C) 18 percent D) 20 percent

643)

Anne-Marie Cole runs the sales division for a local auto insurance firm. One of her key duties is to ensure the company has 10 percent market share by the end of the year. When evaluating the current sales numbers, she determines that her sales division has total sales of $3 million and the entire industry has total sales of $50 million. What additional sales must Anne-Marie’s division meet to ensure they have 10 percent of the market by the end of the year? A) $1 million B) $2 million C) $5 million D) $10 million

644)

Which of the following represents an internal key performance indicator that shows the earning power of a project? A) market share B) return on intelligence C) sensitivity analysis D) return on investment

645)

What could a manager use to measure the success of an MIS project? A) effectiveness MIS metrics, efficiency MIS metrics B) effectiveness MIS metrics, expert MIS metrics C) expert MIS metrics, executive MIS metrics D) All of the answers are correct.

646)

What type of metrics measure throughput, transaction speed, and system availability? A) efficiency MIS metrics B) effectiveness MIS metrics C) ROI D) benchmarks

647)

What types of metrics measure customer satisfaction? A) efficiency MIS metrics B) effectiveness MIS metrics C) both efficiency and effectiveness MIS metrics D) both ROI and market share

648)

According to Peter Drucker, what are managers who do things right addressing? A) efficiency B) effectiveness C) both efficiency and effectiveness D) customer satisfaction only

649)

According to Peter Drucker, what are managers who do the right things addressing? A) efficiency B) effectiveness C) both efficiency and effectiveness D) customer satisfaction only

650)

Which of the following is a type of effectiveness MIS metric? A) transaction speed B) system availability C) usability D) throughput

651)

Which of the following is a type of efficiency MIS metric? A) customer satisfaction B) conversion rates C) financial transactions D) web traffic

652)

Which term is used to describe the ease with which people perform transactions and/or find information? A) usability B) customer satisfaction C) financial D) conversion rates

653)

What is measured by such benchmarks as satisfaction surveys, percentage of existing customers retained, and increases in revenue dollars per customer? A) usability B) customer satisfaction C) financial D) conversion rates

654)

What would a company like eBay or Amazon be constantly benchmarking? A) financial metrics B) MIS input, process, output C) MIS efficiency and MIS effectiveness D) All of the answers are correct.

655)

When considering the graph depicting the interrelationships between efficiency and effectiveness, where does an organization ideally want to operate? A) upper right-hand corner B) lower right-hand corner C) upper left-hand corner D) lower left-hand corner

656)

657)

Which of the following would efficiency MIS metrics measure? A) response time B) system availability C) transaction speed D) All of the answers are correct.

Drew Savage is an MIS manager for an international consulting firm. Drew travels to different European countries where he implements news response tracking systems. Some of the metrics he uses to track the performance of his system include tracking the response time it takes to respond to Twitter posts mentioning the news station, as well as the speed and accuracy of content posted on numerous websites and social media sites. What type of metrics is Drew using to measure his system? A) customer satisfaction metrics B) efficiency metrics C) effectiveness metrics D) benchmarking metrics

658)

Efficiency MIS metrics focus on the extent to which a firm is using its resources in an optimal way, whereas effectiveness MIS metrics focus on A) understanding how successful a firm is at achieving its goals and objectives. B) analyzing if a firm is doing the right things. C) setting the right goals and ensuring they are accomplished. D) All of the answers are correct.

659)

Which of the following describes the efficiency MIS metric of throughput? A) the number of hours a system is available for users B) the time it takes to respond to user interactions such as a mouse click C) the amount of information that can travel through a system at any point in time D) the ease with which people perform transactions and/or find information

Which of the following tracks the number of customers an organization “touches” for the first time and persuades to purchase its products or services? A) customer satisfaction B) usability C) conversion rates D) financial

660)

661)

What do usability effectiveness MIS metrics measure? A) the ease with which people perform transactions and find information B) the number of customers an organization “touches” for the first time and persuades to purchase its products or services C) the amount of time a system takes to perform a transaction D) the number of hours a system is available for users

662)

A common mistake that many managers make is focusing on only one type of metrics because they are easier to measure. Which type of metrics do they focus on? A) effectiveness MIS metrics B) efficiency MIS metrics C) endurance MIS metrics D) product sales metrics

663)

When analyzing the interrelationships between efficiency and effectiveness, where would a company ideally want to operate? A) with high efficiency B) in the upper right-hand corner of the interrelationship graph C) with high effectiveness D) All of the answers are correct.

664)

What is the process of continuously measuring system results, comparing those results to optimal system performance, and identifying steps and procedures to improve system performance? A) benchmarking B) bottlenecking C) consolidation D) All of the answers are correct.

665)

Which of the following is not included as part of a benchmark? A) benchmarks help assess how an MIS project performs over time B) when measured against MIS projects, benchmarks can provide feedback so managers can control the system C) benchmarks help to establish baseline values the system seeks to attain D) All of the answers are correct.

666)

As a manager for your company, some of your responsibilities include measuring metrics and overseeing company strategies. You observe some critical success factors and see large increases in productivity. What would you suspect would be the primary reason for the large increases in productivity? A) decreases in effectiveness B) increases in effectiveness C) increases in executive roles D) decreases in efficiency

667)

What are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a specific organization or industry? A) return on investment B) metrics C) best practices D) key performance indicators

668)

What indicates the earning power of a project? A) return on investment B) metrics C) best practices D) key performance indicators

669)

What are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals? A) return on investment B) metrics C) best practices D) key performance indicators

670)

What are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies? A) return on investment B) critical success factors C) best practices D) key performance indicators

671)

What are the quantifiable metrics a company uses to evaluate progress toward critical success factors? A) return on investment B) critical success factors C) key performance indicators D) return on performance

672)

What type of decision is the following: How many employees do we need to staff for Memorial Day? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

673)

What type of decision is the following: What was the impact of last month’s loyalty 10 percent discount on all grocery sales? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

674)

What type of decision is the following: What was the difference between forecasted sales and actual sales last year? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

675)

What type of decision is the following: How will new data laws impact the business? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

676)

What type of decision is the following: Which employee should we let go home since business is slow? A) operational decision B) managerial decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

677)

What type of decision is the following: How many temporary employees do we need to hire for the holiday season? A) operational decision B) government decision C) strategic decision D) All of the answers are correct.

678)

What type of decision is the following: What is the best route for dropping off products customers ordered in your neighborhood? A) efficiency decision B) effectiveness decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

679)

What type of decision is the following: Did we meet sales quotas? A) efficiency decision B) effectiveness decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

680)

What type of decision is the following: Should we reduce costs by buying lower-quality ingredients? A) efficiency decision B) KPI metric decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

681)

What type of decision is the following: What was the turnover rate for employees? A) efficiency decision B) effectiveness decision C) AI decision D) All of the answers are correct.

682)

What is a time-series chart? A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a chart that is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time D) All of the answers are correct.

683)

What is an infographic? A) a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a chart that is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time D) All of the answers are correct.

684)

Which of the following represent the top-down (executives to analysts) organizational levels of information technology systems? A) TPS, DSS, EIS B) DSS, TPS, EIS C) EIS, DSS, TPS D) All of the answers are correct.

685)

What can a model accomplish? A) calculate risks B) understand uncertainty C) manipulate time D) All of the answers are correct.

686)

What compiles information from multiple sources and tailors it to meet user needs? A) algorithm B) digitization C) deep learning D) digital dashboard

687)

What captures transaction and event information using technology to (1) process the information according to defined business rules, (2) store the information, and (3) update existing information to reflect the new information? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

688)

What is the basic business system that serves the operational level and assists in making structured decisions? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

689)

What encompasses all organizational information and its primary purpose is to support the performance of managerial analysis or semistructured decisions? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) analytical information D) transactional information

690)

What encompasses all the information contained within a single business process or unit of work and its primary purpose is to support the performance of daily operational or structured decisions? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) analytical information D) transactional information

691)

What is the manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

692)

What models information and provides assistance in evaluating and choosing among different courses of action? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) transaction processing system D) decision support system

693)

694)

What refers to the level of detail in the model or the decision-making process? A) granularity B) visualization C) digital dashboard D) All of the answers are correct.

What produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data? A) granularity B) visualization C) digital dashboard D) All of the answers are correct.

695)

What tracks KPIs and CSFs by compiling information from multiple sources and tailoring it to meet user needs? A) granularity B) visualization C) digital dashboard D) All of the answers are correct.

696)

What is a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

697)

What is a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

698)

What is a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

699)

What is a graphical display of data using bars of different heights that groups numbers into ranges? A) infographic B) pie chart C) bar chart D) histogram

700)

What is a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend? A) bar chart B) histogram C) time-series chart D) sparkline

701)

What is a graphical representation showing the change of a variable over time? A) bar chart B) histogram C) time-series chart D) sparkline

702)

What is a pie chart? A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

703)

What is a bar chart? A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

704)

What is a histogram? A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights that groups numbers into ranges D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

705)

What is a sparkline? A) a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole B) a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent C) a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. D) a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend

706)

Which of the following is correct in terms of granularity? A) refers to the level of detail in the model B) the greater the granularity, the deeper the level of detail of the data C) the greater the granularity, the deeper the level of fineness of the data D) All of the answers are correct.

707)

Which of the following is a potential feature of a digital dashboard? A) a hot list of key performance indicators refreshed every 15 minutes B) a running line graph of planned versus actual production for the past 24 hours C) a graph of stock market prices D) All of the answers are correct.

708)

What is a simplified representation or abstraction of reality? A) model B) metric C) redundancy D) All of the answers are correct.

709)

What can a manager use a model to do? A) calculate risk B) change variables C) understand uncertainty D) All of the answers are correct.

710)

What would managers use to make structured decisions at the operational level? A) transactional information B) analytical information C) executive information system D) neural network

711)

Which of the following would create transactional information? A) projecting future sales growth B) making an airline reservation C) hiring part-time employees for the holiday season D) generating payroll reports

712)

What are the three primary types of management information systems available to support decision making across the company levels? A) transaction processing systems, decision support systems, executive information systems B) analytical information, decision support systems, executive information systems C) transaction processing systems, drill-down systems, expert systems D) what-if analysis, sensitivity analysis, goal-seeking analysis

713)

A transaction processing system (TPS) is the basic business system that assists operational level analysts when making structured decisions. Which of the following is not an example of a TPS? A) Target’s internal payroll system B) Comfort Dental’s patient diagnosis system C) First Bank’s ATM D) Stewart Sport’s order-entry system

714)

What is the management information system that manipulates information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making? A) online transaction processing B) online analytical processing C) digital dashboard D) visualization

715)

When viewing systems thinking, source documents are the original transaction records. What would the source documents for a medical doctor’s payroll system include? A) employee time sheets B) employee benefit reports C) employee wage rates D) All of the answers are correct.

716)

Online transaction processing (OLTP) and online analytical processing (OLAP) are similar MIS strategies used to help with business decision making. What is the primary difference between OLTP and OLAP? A) OLTP is used at the operational level; OLAP is used at the managerial level B) OLTP is used to capture transactional and event data; OLAP is used to manipulate information C) OLTP is used to support structured decisions; OLAP is used to support semistructured decisions D) All of the answers are correct.

717)

Decision making at the executive or strategic level requires business intelligence and knowledge to support the uncertainty and complexity of the business. What is a specialized decision support system that supports senior-level executives and unstructured decisions requiring judgment, evaluation, and insight? A) online transaction processing B) executive information system C) transaction support system D) decision support system

718)

Executives of a company deal less with details of the operational activities and more with the higher, meaningful aggregations of information or “coarser” information. What refers to the level of detail in the model? A) digital dashboard B) visualization C) granularity D) consolidation

719)

How does a decision support system typically differ from an executive information system? A) an executive information system requires data from external sources to support unstructured decisions, whereas a decision support system typically uses internal sources to support semistructured decisions B) a decision support system typically uses external sources, and an executive information system uses internal sources to support decisions C) a decision support system never uses external sources D) an executive information system always uses internal sources to support structured decisions

720)

What is a graphical display of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data? A) visualization B) model C) table D) digital dashboard

721)

What is a category of AI that attempts to emulate the way the human brain works? A) intelligent agent B) artificial intelligence C) expert systems D) neural network

722)

What is the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

723)

What occurs when you add additional training examples by transforming existing training examples? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

724)

What occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

725)

What occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data? A) digitization B) data augmentation C) overfitting D) underfitting

726)

Which of the following best describes affinity bias? A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views C) looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone D) a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests or backgrounds

727)

Which of the following is an example of affinity bias? A) Javier focuses on hiring people who have similar experience and backgrounds required by the job description. B) Brian tries to hire people with an affinity for the daily requirements of the job. C) Sonequa focuses on hiring people who accept the first salary offer due to tight budgets. D) Emily often hires people who have similar backgrounds and interests as her because she believes it improves collaboration.

728)

Surveys have found that voters tend to ignore information from news broadcasters that contradicts their existing beliefs and views. Which of the following types of bias best describes such type of voter behavior? A) preference bias B) confirmation bias C) affinity bias D) conformity bias

729)

Which of the following best describes confirmation bias? A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone C) acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views D) a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds

730)

Which of the following refers to the tendency to prefer certain types of names? A) affinity bias B) confirmation bias C) name bias D) preference bias

731)

Which of the following best describes name bias? A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone C) acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views D) All of the answers are correct.

732)

Which of the following best describes conformity bias? A) the tendency to prefer certain types of names B) the tendency to look for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone C) the tendency to act similarly to those around you, regardless of your own views D) the tendency to hire those with similar work experiences

733)

Which type of bias refers to the tendency of someone to match the behavior of their team members, regardless of their personality? A) name bias B) confirmation bias C) conformity bias D) affinity bias

734)

What is digitization? A) the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format B) occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples C) occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data D) occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data

735)

What is data augmentation? A) the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format B) occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples C) occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data D) occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data

736)

What is overfitting? A) the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format B) occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples C) occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data D) occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data

737)

What is underfitting? A) the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format B) occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples C) occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data D) occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data

738)

What is a problem with using incorrect training data to train a machine? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) All of the answers are correct.

739)

Which type of bias occurs as a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) variance bias

740)

What type of bias occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) variance bias

741)

Which type of bias represents a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds? A) sample bias B) prejudice bias C) measurement bias D) affinity bias

742)

What is sample bias? A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a mathematical property of an algorithm; this is the only bias not associated with the input or training data

743)

What is prejudice bias? A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a mathematical property of an algorithm; this is the only bias not associated with the input or training data

744)

What is measurement bias? A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a mathematical property of an algorithm; this is the only bias not associated with the input or training data

745)

What is variance bias? A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a mathematical property of an algorithm; this is the only bias not associated with the input or training data

746)

What is affinity bias? A) a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine B) a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes C) occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction D) a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds

747)

Which of the following is NOT a type of machine learning? A) supervised machine learning B) unsupervised machine learning C) transfer machine learning D) market share machine learning

748)

What is a robot capable of making its own decisions and performing an action accordingly? A) digitization B) autonomous robotics C) deep learning D) reinforcement learning

749)

What is the training of machine learning models to make a sequence of decisions? A) digitization B) autonomous robotics C) deep learning D) reinforcement learning

750)

What is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets? A) digitization B) autonomous robotics C) deep learning D) reinforcement learning

751)

Which type of AI system assigns values of 0 and 1 to vague or ambiguous information? A) genetic algorithms B) artificial intelligence C) fuzzy logic D) reinforcement learning

752)

Artificial Intelligence stimulates human thinking and behavior, such as the ability to reason and learn. What is the ultimate goal of AI? A) to build an information system B) to build an intelligent agent C) to build a system that can mimic human intelligence D) to build a system that can mimic an expert agent

753)

Which of the following does not represent a category of AI? A) genetic algorithms B) neural networks C) expert systems D) consolidation

754)

What is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it? A) augmented reality B) deep learning C) neural network D) virtual reality

755)

What is augmented reality? A) the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it B) a wearable computer with an optical head-mounted display C) uses technology allowing humans to interact with a computer through bodily sensations and movements D) a work environment that is not located in any one physical space

756)

Which of the following categories of AI is used extensively in the finance industry to analyze situations in which the logic or rules are unknown? A) expert system B) virtual reality C) neural network D) genetic algorithm

757)

Which of the following is not a feature of a neural network? A) Neural networks can cope with huge volumes of information with many variables. B) Neural networks can function without complete or well-structured information. C) Neural networks can analyze linear relationships only. D) Neural networks can learn and adjust to new circumstance on their own.

758)

What is the mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective information? A) fuzzy logic B) virtual reality C) expert system D) genetic algorithm

What is the ability of a computer to “see” by digitizing an image, processing the data it contains, and taking some kind of action? A) case-based reasoning B) machine vision C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

759)

760)

What is the ability of a machine to see in dim light or to detect weak impulses at invisible wavelengths? A) case-based reasoning B) machine vision C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

761)

What is the extent to which a machine can differentiate between objects? A) case-based reasoning B) machine vision C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

762)

What is an optimizing system that can find and evaluate solutions with many more possibilities, faster, and more thoroughly than a human? A) genetic algorithm B) robotic process automation C) overfitting D) virtual reality

763)

What is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets? A) reinforcement learning B) deep learning C) machine-vision sensitivity D) machine-vision resolution

764)

What refers to a set of instructions that completes a task? A) algorithm B) machine learning C) sample bias D) name bias

765)

What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn? A) algorithm B) machine learning C) sample bias D) reinforcement learning

766)

What is machine learning? A) refers to a set of instructions that completes a task B) a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn C) machines that can still make their own decisions based on reasoning and past sets of data D) refers to the field of artificial intelligence that works toward providing brainlike powers to AI machines; in effect, it works to make machines as intelligent as the humans.

767)

For what types of business decisions would an executive information system use artificial intelligence? A) semistructured decisions B) multistructured decisions C) structured decisions D) unstructured decisions

768)

Which of the following business ideas is not using AI? A) Best Buy implements a software system that will determine how many customers are needed to increase gross profits to $5 million. B) McDonald’s unveils a robot that cleans and tidies the restaurant, while also asking guests if it can take their trays to the trash. C) Starbucks creates a system that works like a hand and lifts and moves the mixing pots for the coffees to and from the coffee machines to the counters. D) A golf course creates an automated golf cart that can offer swing and club suggestions and even navigate the course for the driver.

769)

What is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it? A) virtual reality B) augmented reality C) virtual workforce D) information reality

770)

What is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world? A) virtual reality B) augmented reality C) virtual workforce D) information reality

771)

Which of the following business processes would you find in the marketing and sales division? A) manufacturing inventory B) enrolling employees in a health care plan C) promoting of discounts D) creating financial statements

772)

Which of the following departments is primarily responsible for promoting discounts, attracting customers, and communicating marketing campaigns? A) accounting and finance B) marketing and sales C) operations management D) human resources

773)

Which of the following represents a business process you would find in the operations management department? A) ordering inventory B) processing sales C) promoting of discounts D) paying of accounts payable

774)

The accounting and finance department performs processes such as creating financial statements, paying accounts payables, and collecting accounts receivables. What form of processes do these represent? A) customer-facing processes B) business-facing processes C) industry-specific customer-facing processes D) all answers are correct

775)

What form of processes include loan processing for a bank, claims processing for an insurance company, reservation processing for a hotel, and baggage handling for an airline? A) customer-facing processes B) business-facing processes C) industry-specific customer-facing processes D) All of the answers are correct.

776)

What type of processes includes order processing, customer service processing, sales processing, customer billing processing, and order shipping processing? A) customer-facing processes B) business-facing processes C) industry-specific customer-facing processes D) All of the answers are correct.

777)

Which of the following represents business processes you would find in the human resources department? A) hiring employees B) enrolling employees in benefit plans C) tracking vacation and sick time D) All of the answers are correct.

778)

What is the difference between customer-facing processes and business-facing processes? A) Business-facing processes are front-office processes; customer-facing processes are back-office processes. B) Customer-facing processes are front-office processes; business-facing processes are back-office processes. C) Customer-facing processes are back-office processes; industry-specific customerfacing processes are back-office processes. D) Customer-facing processes are back-office processes; industry-specific customerfacing processes are front-office processes.

779)

Which of the following is a customer-facing process? A) communicating with customers B) strategic goal setting C) providing performance feedback and rewards D) purchasing raw materials

780)

Which of the following represents a business-facing process? A) loan processing B) order processing C) strategic planning D) customer billing

781)

Which of the following processes would be found in the operations management department? A) creating production schedules B) communicating marketing campaigns C) hiring employees D) processing sales

782)

Which of the following should a business follow for success? A) technology choices should drive business processes B) business processes should drive technology choices C) technology choices should drive business strategies and goals D) All of the answers are correct.

783)

What uses a systematic approach in an attempt to improve business effectiveness and efficiency continuously? A) static process B) dynamic process C) sales process D) customer service process

784)

What continuously changes and provides business solutions to ever-changing business operations? A) static process B) dynamic process C) financial process D) sales process

785)

Which of the following are examples of static processes? A) running payroll B) calculating taxes C) creating financial statements D) All of the answers are correct.

786)

Which of the following are examples of dynamic processes? A) employee layoffs B) order level changes based on currency rates C) canceling business travel due to extreme weather D) All of the answers are correct.

787)

Which of the following is an example of a dynamic process? A) running payroll B) calculating taxes C) creating financial statements D) employee layoffs

788)

Which of the following is an example of a static process? A) employee layoffs B) order level changes based on currency rates C) canceling business travel due to extreme weather D) creating financial statements

789)

What is a graphical notation that depicts the steps in a business process? A) Business Process Model Nation B) Business Practice Model Notation C) Business Process Model Notation D) Business Practice Management Notes

790)

What displays the path in which the process flows? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

791)

What is a task in a business process? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

792)

What is anything that happens during the course of a business process? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

793)

What is used to control the flow of a process? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

794)

What is represented by a circle in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

795)

What is represented by a rounded-corner rectangle in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

796)

What is represented by a diamond shape in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

797)

What is represented by arrows in a business process model? A) BPMN event B) BPMN activity C) BPMN flow D) BPMN gateway

798)

Jessica Ulta works for City Service Credit Union and is responsible for consulting on loans, talking clients through the loan process, and providing loans to members. What type of processes does Jessica primarily work with? A) business-facing processes B) industry-specific customer-facing processes C) customer-facing processes D) industry-specific business-facing processes

799)

Sarah Smith was recently hired by Bank West as the Global Director of Human Resources. Her job duties include determining employment policies as well as overseeing all hiring, firing, and training of employees. What type of processes does Sarah’s new job demonstrate? A) business-facing processes B) industry-specific customer-facing processes C) customer-facing process D) industry-specific business-facing processes

800)

What is a model that represents the current state of the operation without any specific improvements or changes to existing processes? A) As-Is process model B) To-Be process model C) competitive business process model D) workflow model

801)

What is the business process model that ensures the process is fully and clearly understood before the details of a process solution are decided upon? A) As-Is process model B) business process reengineering model C) customer-facing process D) To-Be process model

802)

What is the difference between the As-Is process model and the To-Be process model? A) The As-Is process model begins with what the process problem is, and the To-Be process model displays how the problem will be solved. B) The process models are not related. C) Both process models determine when to solve the problem. D) The As-Is process model begins with where to implement the solution, and the To-Be process model displays why the problem needs to be fixed.

803)

What is the primary goal of the As-Is process model? A) to outline the process elements for the To-Be process B) to create process choices for the As-Is process C) to simplify, eliminate, and improve the To-Be process D) to analyze the To-Be process elements

804)

Local florist Cheryl Steffan has been in business for over 20 years. Recently, Cheryl has noticed several complaints about delivery errors. Cheryl decides to investigate the errors in her business delivery process and finds that most of the inaccuracies occur during order taking. Cheryl decides to implement an electronic ordering system to help improve order efficiency and effectiveness. What method did Cheryl follow to solve her delivery issues? A) modeled the As-Is process, fixed the errors, and then created the To-Be process B) modeled the To-Be process, fixed the errors, and then created the As-Is process C) moved directly to implementing the To-Be process without analyzing the As-Is process D) moved directly to implementing the As-Is process without analyzing the To-Be process

805)

806)

What is the primary goal of using As-Is and To-Be process models? A) to determine employee specific errors B) to determine measurement metrics C) to determine the worst way to solve a problem D) to determine what the problem is and then how to solve it

Which of the following typically occurs during operational business process improvement? A) automation B) streamlining C) reengineering D) improvement

807)

Which of the following typically occurs during managerial business process improvement? A) automation B) streamlining C) reengineering D) improvement

808)

Which of the following typically occurs during strategic business process improvement? A) automation B) streamlining C) reengineering D) improvement

809)

What does business process reengineering assume about the current process? A) the current process is irrelevant B) the current process is broken C) the current process must be overhauled from scratch D) All of the answers are correct.

810)

What is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform? A) data augmentation B) robotic process automation C) deep learning D) machine learning

811)

812)

What improves managerial level business processes? A) performance measures B) bottlenecks C) redundancy D) streamlining

What is the point at which resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands? A) optimization analysis B) bottleneck C) redundancy D) swim lane

813)

Automating a business process that contains ________ or _________ will magnify or amplify these problems if they are not corrected first. A) bottlenecks; regulations B) redundancies; regulations C) bottlenecks; redundancies D) redundancies; swim lanes

814)

What is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises? A) critical success factors B) benchmarking metrics C) business process reengineering D) decision support interfaces

815)

Changing business processes with MIS outlines how to improve the three levels of business processes, which include operational, managerial, and strategic. From operational to strategic, what are the three major improvement strategies that the author describes? A) automation—streamlining—reengineering B) artificial intelligence—streamlining—reengineering C) automation—workflow—reinvention D) automation—consolidating—restructuring

816)

Which of the following explains why a company would implement a business process reengineering strategy? A) to encourage competition B) to decrease customers C) to create value for the customer D) All of the answers are correct.

817)

What includes the tasks, activities, and responsibilities required to execute each step in a business process? A) workflow B) swim lane C) automation D) streamlining

818)

What is the process of computerizing manual tasks, making them more efficient and effective and dramatically lowering operational costs? A) workflow B) swim lane C) automation D) streamlining

819)

What improves business process efficiencies by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps? A) workflow B) swim lane C) automation D) streamlining

820)

What occur(s) when resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands, limiting throughput and impeding operations? A) bottlenecks B) redundancy C) automation D) streamlining

821)

What occur(s) when a task or activity is unnecessarily repeated? A) bottlenecks B) redundancy C) automation D) streamlining

822)

What are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes? A) operational business processes B) managerial business processes C) strategic business processes D) success business processes

823)

What are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions? A) operational business processes B) managerial business processes C) strategic business processes D) success business processes

824)

What are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements? A) operational business processes B) managerial business processes C) strategic business processes D) success business processes

825)

What are managerial business processes? A) dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions B) semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements C) static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes D) None of the answer choices are correct.

826)

What are strategic business processes? A) dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions B) semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements C) static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes D) None of the answer choices are correct.

827)

What are operational business processes? A) dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions B) semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements C) static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes D) None of the answer choices are correct.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 828) Explain the importance of decision making for managers at each of the three primary organization levels along with the associated decision characteristics.

829)

Define critical success factors (CSFs) and key performance indicators (KPIs) and explain how managers use them to measure the success of MIS projects.

830)

Classify the different operational support systems, managerial support systems, and strategic support systems, and explain how managers can use these systems to make decisions and gain competitive advantages.

831)

Define bias and provide two examples of personal bias. Bias is a disproportionate weight in favor of or against an idea or thing, usually in a way that is closed-minded, prejudicial, or unfair. [Student may choose two of the four personal biases identified in his chapter]

832)

Explain the value of business processes for a company, and differentiate between customer-facing and business-facing processes.

833)

Demonstrate the value of business process modeling, and compare As-Is and To-Be models.

834)

Differentiate among business process improvements, streamlining, and reengineering.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) FALSE

At the managerial level, employees are continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change. 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE

35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE

75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) C

Analysis processing system is not a type of organizational IS. 101)

D The most important challenges facing management of a company are (1) decision making, (2) cultivating strategies for the future business, and (3) competing to win in today’s market. 102)

A An important customer shows up at a hotel that is fully booked and the reservation is missing is an example of why managers must make decisions quickly. 103)

B The six-step decision-making process is (1) problem identification, (2) data collection, (3) solution generation, (4) solution test, (5) solution selection, and (6) solution implementation. 104)

A

The six-step decision-making process is (1) problem identification, (2) data collection, (3) solution generation, (4) solution test, (5) solution selection, and (6) solution implementation. The final step is where the solution solves the problem or if wrong decisions were made then the process begins again. 105)

B The six-step decision-making process is (1) problem identification, (2) data collection, (3) solution generation, (4) solution test, (5) solution selection, and (6) solution implementation. The final step is where the solution solves the problem or, if wrong decisions were made, the process begins again. 106)

B The structure of today’s business organizations is typically a pyramid. At each level, different types of information are used to assist the business with (1) decision-making, (2) problem solving, and (3) opportunity capturing. 107)

B The three different levels on the structure of a company pyramid are, from top to bottom, strategic—managerial—operational. 108)

D Some of the decisions and responsibilities of managerial level employees include short-term or medium-range plans, scheduling, budgeting, policies and procedures, and business objectives for the firm. 109)

B The six-step decision-making process is (1) problem identification, (2) data collection, (3) solution generation, (4) solution test, (5) solution selection, and (6) solution implementation 110)

C A structured decision involves situations where established processes offer potential solutions. 111)

B Structured decisions are made frequently and are almost repetitive in nature; they affect shortterm business strategies. Reordering inventory and creating the employee staffing and weekly production schedules are examples of routine structured decisions, whereas entering a new market is a type of unstructured decision. 112)

A

Structured decisions are made frequently and are almost repetitive in nature; they affect shortterm business strategies. Reordering inventory and creating the employee staffing and weekly production schedules are examples of routine structured decisions, whereas entering a new market is a type of unstructured decision. 113)

B Managerial decisions concern how an organization should achieve the goals and objectives set by its strategy, and they are usually the responsibility of mid-level management. Managerial decisions are considered semistructured decisions. 114)

D The three types of decisions made at the operational, managerial, and strategic levels are (1) structured decisions, (2) unstructured decisions, and (3) semistructured decisions. 115)

B The strategic level, managers develop overall business strategies, goals, and objectives as part of the company’s strategic plan. They also monitor the performance of the organization and its overall direction in the political, economic, and competitive business environment. 116)

A Managerial level duties include evaluating operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change. They also cover schedules, budgets, policies, procedures, and business objectives. 117)

C At the operational level, employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities to run the day-to-day operations. 118)

A At the strategic level, managers develop overall business strategies, goals, and objectives. They also monitor the strategic performance of the organization and its overall direction. 119)

B Chuck will be faced with many semistructured decisions as he manages the transportation system expansion. 120)

D Semistructured decisions occur in situations in which a few established processes help to evaluate potential solutions, but not enough to lead to a definite recommended decision. 121)

C

Unstructured decisions occur in situations in which no procedures or rules exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice. 122)

B Structured decisions arise in situations in which established processes offer potential solutions. 123)

D The structure of an organization is similar to a pyramid. The different levels require different types of information to assist with decision making, problem solving, and opportunity capturing. 124)

D Analytics are used at every level of an organization to make decisions. 125)

A At the operational level of an organization employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities required to run the day-to-day operations. 126)

B At the managerial level of an organization employees are continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change. 127)

C At the strategic level managers develop overall business strategies, goals, and objectives as part of the company’s strategic plan. 128)

A Lower management, department managers, analysts, and staff are all employees at the operational level. 129)

B Middle management, managers, and directors are all employees at the managerial level. 130)

C Senior management, presidents, leaders, and executives are all employees at the strategic level. 131)

A Decisions at the operational level are made daily. 132)

B Decisions at the managerial level are made monthly.

133)

C Decisions at the strategic level are made yearly. 134)

B Metrics are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals. 135)

A Critical success factors are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies. 136)

A Critical success factors include (1) create high-quality products, (2) retain competitive advantages, (3) reduce product costs, (4) increase customer satisfaction, and (5) hire and retain the best business professionals. 137)

D One critical success factor can have several key performance indicators. 138)

C Examples of key performance indicators are (1) turnover rates of employees, (2) percentage of help-desk calls answered in the first minute, (3) number of product returns, (4) number of new customers, and (5) average customer spending. 139)

A Critical success factors are elements crucial for a business strategy’s success, whereas key performance indicators measure the progress of the CSFs. 140)

B To calculate market share, you divide the firm’s sales by the total market sales for the entire industry. 141)

B Market share is the proportion of the market that a firm captures. It is calculated by dividing the firm’s sales by the total market sales for the entire industry. In this case, $3 million divided by $30 million is 10 percent. 142)

B

Market share is the proportion of the market that a firm captures. It is calculated by dividing the firm’s sales by the total market sales for the entire industry. In this case,10 percent of $50 million is $5 million. Since Anne-Marie’s division already has $3 million, she needs an additional $2 million in sales. 143)

D An internal key performance indicator that indicates the earning power of a project is return on investment or ROI. 144)

A MIS projects can be difficult to measure, so managers utilize the higher-level metrics such as efficiency and effectiveness. 145)

A Efficiency MIS metrics measure throughput, speed, and availability. 146)

B Effectiveness MIS metrics measure customer satisfaction. 147)

A “Doing things right” addresses efficiency. 148)

B “Doing the right things” addresses effectiveness. 149)

C Usability is an effectiveness MIS metric. 150)

D Web traffic is an efficiency MIS metric. 151)

A This is the definition of usability. 152)

B This is the definition of customer satisfaction. 153)

C eBay and Amazon depend on their MIS systems for business and constantly monitor and measure both efficiency and effectiveness MIS metrics to ensure success.

154)

A The upper right-hand corner is the ideal place for an organization to operate. 155)

D Common types of efficiency metrics are (1) throughput, (2) transaction speed, (3) system availability, (4) information accuracy, and (5) response time. 156)

B Efficiency metrics include (1) throughput, (2) transaction speed, (3) system availability, (4) information accuracy, and (5) response time. 157)

D Efficiency MIS metrics focus on the extent to which a firm is using its resources in an optimal way, doing things right, and getting the most from each resource. Effectiveness MIS metrics focus on how well a firm is achieving its goals and objectives, doing the right things, setting the right goals and objectives, and ensuring they are accomplished. 158)

C Within the efficiency metrics, the type throughput is the amount of information that can travel through a system at any point in time. 159)

C The effectiveness metrics that track the number of customers an organization “touches” for the first time and persuades to purchase its products or services are conversion rates. 160)

A The usability effectiveness metrics measure the ease with which people perform transactions and find information. 161)

B A common mistake that many managers make is focusing on efficiency MIS metrics because they are easier to measure. 162)

D When analyzing the interrelationships between efficiency and effectiveness, a company ideally wants to operate in the upper right-hand corner of the interrelationship graph, where they see significant increases in efficiency and effectiveness metrics. 163)

A

The process of continuously measuring system results, comparing those results to optimal system performance, and identifying steps and procedures to improve system performance is benchmarking. 164)

D The role of benchmarks within a company includes (1) to help assess how an MIS project performs over time, (2) when measured against MIS projects, to provide feedback so managers can control the system, and (3) to establish baseline values the system seeks to attain. 165)

B Large increases in productivity typically result from increases in effectiveness, which focus on critical success factors. 166)

C Best practices are the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a specific organization or industry. 167)

A ROI indicates the earning power of a project. 168)

B Metrics are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals. 169)

B Critical success factors are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies. 170)

C Key performance indicators are the quantifiable metrics a company uses to evaluate progress toward critical success factors. 171)

A This is an operational decision. 172)

B This is a managerial decision. 173)

C This is an example of a strategic decision.

174)

C This is an example of a strategic decision. 175)

A This is an operational decision. 176)

A This is a type of operational decision. 177)

A This is a type of efficiency decision. 178)

B This is a type of effectiveness decision. 179)

A This is a type of efficiency decision. 180)

B This is a type of effectiveness decision. 181)

C A time-series chart is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time. 182)

A An infographic (information graphic) is a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance. 183)

C Executive information systems, decision support systems, and transaction processing systems are the top-down organizational levels of information technology systems. 184)

D A model can do all of these. 185)

D Digital dashboard compiles information from multiple sources and tailors it to meet user needs. 186)

A

Online transaction processing captures transaction and event information using technology to (1) process the information according to defined business rules, (2) store the information, and (3) update existing information to reflect the new information. 187)

C A transaction processing system is the basic business system that serves the operational level and assists in making structured decisions. 188)

C Analytical information encompasses all organizational information, and its primary purpose is to support the performance of managerial analysis or semistructured decisions. 189)

D Transactional information encompasses all the information contained within a single business process or unit of work, and its primary purpose is to support the performance of daily operational or structured decisions. 190)

B Online analytical processing is the manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making. 191)

D A decision support system models information and provides assistance in evaluating and choosing among different courses of action. 192)

A Granularity refers to the level of detail in the model or the decision-making process. 193)

B Visualization produces graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data. 194)

C Digital dashboards track KPIs and CSFs by compiling information from multiple sources and tailoring it to meet user needs. 195)

A An infographic (information graphic) is a representation of information in a graphic format designed to make the data easily understandable at a glance. 196)

B

A pie chart a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole. 197)

C A bar chart is a chart or graph that presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. 198)

D A histogram is a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. 199)

D A sparkline is a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend. 200)

C A time-series chart is a chart is a graphical representation showing change of a variable over time. 201)

A A pie chart a type of graph in which a circle is divided into sectors that each represents a proportion of the whole. 202)

B A bar chart presents grouped data with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. 203)

C A histogram is a graphical display of data using bars of different heights. It is similar to a bar chart, but a histogram groups numbers into ranges. 204)

D A sparkline is a small embedded line graph that illustrates a single trend. 205)

D All of these are correct in terms of granularity. 206)

D All of these are potential features of a digital dashboard. 207)

A

A simplified representation or abstraction of reality is a model. 208)

D Models help managers calculate risks, understand uncertainty, change variables, and manipulate time to make decisions. 209)

A Transactional information is the basic business system that serves the operational level (analysts) and assists in making structured decisions. 210)

B Transactional information is created, for example, when customers are purchasing stocks, making an airline reservation, or withdrawing cash from an ATM. 211)

A The three primary types of management information systems available to support decision making across the company levels are (1) transaction processing systems, (2) decision support systems, and (3) executive information systems. 212)

B A transaction processing system (TPS) is the basic business system that assist operational level analysts make structured decisions. The most common examples of a TPS include (1) a company payroll system, (2) an operational accounting system, and (3) an order-entry system. Answer B is an example of decision support system (DSS). 213)

B Online analytical processing (OLAP) is the manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making. 214)

D When viewing systems thinking, source documents are the original transaction records. Source documents for a medical doctor’s payroll system, for example, would include (1) employee time sheets, (2) employee benefit reports, and (3) wage rates. 215)

D

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is the capturing of transaction and event information using technology to (1) process the information according to defined business rules, (2) store the information, and (3) update existing information to reflect the new information. It is used at the operational level and to support structured decisions. Online analytical processing (OLAP) is the manipulation of information to create business intelligence in support of strategic decision making. It is used at the managerial level and to support semistructured decisions. 216)

B An executive information system (EIS) is a specialized DSS that supports senior-level executives and unstructured, long-term, nonroutine decisions requiring judgment, evaluation, and insight. 217)

C Granularity refers to the level of detail in the model or the decision-making process. 218)

A A decision support system (DSS) differs from an executive information system (EIS) primarily because an EIS requires data from external sources to support unstructured decisions, whereas a DSS typically uses internal sources to support semistructured decisions. 219)

A Visualizations produce graphical displays of patterns and complex relationships in large amounts of data. 220)

D Neural network is a category of AI that attempts to emulate the way the human brain works. 221)

A Digitization is the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format. 222)

B Data augmentation occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples. 223)

C Overfitting occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data. 224)

D

Underfitting occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data. 225)

D Affinity bias is a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. 226)

D Affinity bias is a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. 227)

B Confirmation bias refers to actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone. 228)

B Confirmation bias refers to actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone. 229)

C Name bias is the tendency to prefer certain types of names. 230)

A Name bias: The tendency to prefer certain types of names 231)

C Conformity bias is the tendency to act similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views. 232)

C Conformity bias is the tendency to act similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views. 233)

A Digitization is the automation of existing manual and paper-based processes and workflows to a digital format. 234)

B Data augmentation occurs when adding additional training examples by transforming existing examples.

235)

C Overfitting occurs when a machine learning model matches the training data so closely that the model fails to make correct predictions on new data. 236)

D Underfitting occurs when a machine learning model has poor predictive abilities because it did not learn the complexity in the training data. 237)

A Sample bias is a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine. 238)

B Prejudice bias is a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes. 239)

C Measurement bias occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction. 240)

D Affinity bias is a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. 241)

A Sample bias is a problem with using incorrect training data to train the machine. 242)

B Prejudice bias is a result of training data that is influenced by cultural or other stereotypes. 243)

C Measurement bias occurs when there is a problem with the data collected that skews the data in one direction. 244)

D Variance bias is a mathematical property of an algorithm. This is the only bias not associated with the input or training data. 245)

D Affinity bias a tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. 246)

D

Market share machine learning is not a type of machine learning. 247)

B A robot is capable of making its own decisions and performing an action accordingly. 248)

D Reinforcement learning is the training of machine learning models to make a sequence of decisions. 249)

C Deep learning is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets. 250)

C Fuzzy logic systems assign values of 0 and 1 to vague and ambiguous information. 251)

C The ultimate goal of AI is to build a system that can mimic human intelligence. 252)

D The five most familiar AI systems are (1) expert systems, (2) neural networks, (3) genetic algorithms, (4) intelligent agents, and (5) virtual reality. Consolidation is a category of a digital dashboard. 253)

A Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. 254)

A Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. 255)

C The finance industry is a veteran in the use of neural networks to emulate the way the human brain works by analyzing large quantities of information to establish patterns and characteristics in situations in which the logic or rules are unknown. 256)

C

Neural networks’ many features include (1) learning and adjusting to new circumstances on their own, (2) learning and adjusting to new circumstances on their own, (3) functioning without complete or well-structured information, (4) coping with huge volumes of information with many dependent variables, and (5) analyzing nonlinear relationships in information. 257)

A The mathematical method of handling imprecise or subjective information is fuzzy logic. 258)

B Machine vision is the ability of a computer to “see” by digitizing an image, processing the data it contains, and taking some kind of action. 259)

C Machine-vision sensitivity is the ability of a machine to see in dim light or to detect weak impulses at invisible wavelengths. 260)

D Machine-vision resolution is the extent to which a machine can differentiate between objects. 261)

A The artificial intelligence system that is an optimizing system that can find and evaluate solutions with many more possibilities, faster, and more thoroughly than a human is genetic algorithm. 262)

B Deep learning is a process that employs specialized algorithms to model and study complex datasets; the method is also used to establish relationships among data and datasets. 263)

A An algorithm refers to a set of instructions that completes a task. 264)

B Machine learning is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn. 265)

B Machine learning is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and to learn. 266)

D

Executive information systems are utilizing artificial intelligence to support unstructured strategic decision making. 267)

A Artificial intelligence simulates human thinking and behavior such as the ability to reason and learn. Its ultimate goal is to build a system that can mimic human intelligence. 268)

B Augmented reality is the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. 269)

A Virtual reality is a computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world. 270)

C Samples of business processes for the marketing and sales division of a company include (1) promoting of discounts, (2) communicating marketing campaigns, (3) attracting customers, and (4) processing sales. 271)

B The marketing and sales division is responsible for the business processes of promoting of discounts, communicating marketing campaigns, attracting customers, and processing sales. 272)

A Samples of business processes for the operations management division of a company include (1) ordering inventory, (2) creating production schedules, and (3) manufacturing goods. 273)

B The accounting and finance division in a company creates financial statements, pays the accounts payables, and collects accounts receivables. All of these processes are business-facing processes. 274)

C Loan processing for a bank, claims processing for an insurance company, reservation processing for a hotel, and baggage handling for an airline are all examples of industry-specific customerfacing processes. 275)

A Order processing, customer service processing, sales processing, customer billing processing, and order shipping processing are all customer-facing processes.

276)

D Some business processes within the human resources division of a company include (1) hiring employees, (2) enrolling employees in health care or other benefit plans, and (3) tracking vacation and sick time. 277)

B Customer-facing processes, also called front-office processes, result in product service received by and organization’s external customer. Business-facing processes, also called back-office processes, are invisible to the external customer but essential to the effective management of the business. 278)

A Business-facing processes, also called back-office processes, are invisible to the external customer but essential to the effective management of the business; they include goal setting, day-to-day planning, giving performance feedback and rewards, and allocating resources. 279)

C Customer-facing processes result in a product or service received by an organization’s external customer and include fulfilling orders, communicating with customers, sending out bills, and marketing information. 280)

A Some business processes within the operational management division of a company include (1) ordering inventory, (2) creating production schedules, and (3) manufacturing goods. 281)

B Business processes should drive technology choices. 282)

A A static process uses a systematic approach in an attempt to improve business effectiveness and efficiency continuously. 283)

B A dynamic process continuously changes and provides business solutions to ever-changing business operations. 284)

D Managers constantly attempt to optimize static processes. Examples of static processes include running payroll, calculating taxes, and creating financial statements. 285)

D

All of these are examples of dynamic processes. 286)

D Employee layoffs are examples of dynamic processes. 287)

D Creating financial statements is an example of a static process. 288)

C Business Process Model Notation is a graphical notation that depicts the steps in a business process. 289)

C A BPMN flow displays the path in which the process flows. 290)

B A BPMN activity is a task in a business process. 291)

A A BPMN event is anything that happens during the course of a business process. 292)

D A BPMN gateway is used to control the flow of a process. 293)

A A BPMN event is represented by a circle in a business process model. 294)

B An activity is represented by a rounded-corner rectangle in a business process model. 295)

D Gateways are represented by a diamond shape in a business process model. 296)

C Flows are represented by arrows in a business process model. 297)

B When considering the business process modeling chart, Jessica is taking part in the industryspecific customer-facing processes depicted in the example. 298)

A

The business-facing processes are (1) strategic planning, (2) tactical planning, (3) budget forecasting, (4) training, and (5) purchasing raw material. 299)

A The model that represents the current state of the operation that has been mapped, without any specific improvements or changes to existing processes is the As-Is process model. 300)

D The To-Be process model approach ensures that the process is fully and clearly understood before the details of a process solution are decided upon. 301)

A The business process modeling usually begins with a functional process representation. The differences between the two models is that the As-Is process model begins with what the process problem is and the To-Be process model displays how the problem will be solved. 302)

C The primary goal of the As-Is process model is to simplify, eliminate, and improve the To-Be processes. 303)

A The As-Is process model has the primary goals to simplify, eliminate, and improve the processes by defining the most efficient and effective process. 304)

D The primary goal of the As-Is and the To-Be process models is to determine what the problem is and how to solve it. 305)

A Automation typically occurs during operational business process improvement. 306)

B Streamlining typically occurs during managerial business process improvement. 307)

C Reengineering typically occurs during strategic business process improvement. 308)

D Business process reengineering in the extreme assumes the current process is irrelevant, broken, or must be overhauled.

309)

B Robotic process automation is the use of software with artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning capabilities to handle high-volume, repeatable tasks that previously required a human to perform. 310)

D The factor for improving managerial level business processes is streamlining, which improves business process efficiencies by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps. 311)

B Bottlenecks occur when resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands; they limit throughput and impede operations. 312)

C Automating a business process that contains bottlenecks or redundancies will magnify or amplify these problems if they are not corrected first. 313)

C Business process reengineering is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises 314)

A Changing business processes with MIS outlines how to improve the three levels of business processes, which include operational, managerial, and strategic. From operational to strategic, the three major improvement strategies are automation—streamlining—reengineering. 315)

C To create value for the customer is the leading reason a company would implement a business process reengineering strategy, and MIS often plays an important enabling role. 316)

A Workflow includes the tasks, activities, and responsibilities required to execute each step in a business process. 317)

C Automation is the process of computerizing manual tasks, making them more efficient and effective and dramatically lowering operational costs. 318)

D

Streamlining improves business process efficiencies by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps. 319)

A Bottlenecks occur when resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands limiting throughput and impeding operations. 320)

B Redundancy occurs when a task or activity is unnecessarily repeated. 321)

A Operational business processes are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes. 322)

C Strategic business processes are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions. 323)

B Managerial business processes semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements 324)

B Managerial business processes are semidynamic, semiroutine, monthly business processes such as resource allocation, sales strategy, or manufacturing process improvements. 325)

A Strategic business processes are dynamic, nonroutine, long-term business processes such as financial planning, expansion strategies, and stakeholder interactions. 326)

C Operational business processes are static, routine, daily business processes such as stocking inventory, checking out customers, or daily opening and closing processes. 327)

Essay

Decision-making skills are essential for all business professionals, at every company level, who make decisions that run the business. At the operational level, employees develop, control, and maintain core business activities required to run the day-to-day operations. Operational decisions are considered structured decisions, which arise in situations in which established processes offer potential solutions. Structured decisions are made frequently and are almost repetitive in nature; they affect short-term business strategies. At the managerial level, employees are continuously evaluating company operations to hone the firm’s abilities to identify, adapt to, and leverage change. Managerial decisions cover short- and medium-range plans, schedules, and budgets along with policies, procedures, and business objectives for the firm. These types of decisions are considered semistructured decisions; they occur in situations in which a few established processes help to evaluate potential solutions, but not enough to lead to a definite recommended decision. At the strategic level, managers develop overall business strategies, goals, and objectives as part of the company’s strategic plan. They also monitor the strategic performance of the organization and its overall direction in the political, economic, and competitive business environment. Strategic decisions are highly unstructured decisions, occurring in situations in which no procedures or rules exist to guide decision makers toward the correct choice. They are infrequent, extremely important, and typically related to long-term business strategy. 328)

Essay Metrics are measurements that evaluate results to determine whether a project is meeting its goals. Two core metrics are critical success factors and key performance indicators. CSFs are the crucial steps companies perform to achieve their goals and objectives and implement their strategies and include creating high-quality products, retaining competitive advantages, and reducing product costs. KPIs are the quantifiable metrics a company uses to evaluate progress toward critical success factors. KPIs are far more specific than CSFs; examples include turnover rates of employees, percentage of help-desk calls answered in the first minute, and number of products returned. It is important to understand the relationship between critical success factors and key performance indicators. CSFs are elements crucial for a business strategy’s success. KPIs measure the progress of CSFs with quantifiable measurements, and one CSF can have several KPIs. Of course, both categories will vary by company and industry. Imagine improved graduation rates as a CSF for a college. 329)

Essay

Being able to sort, calculate, analyze, and slice-and-dice information is critical to an organization’s success. Without knowing what is occurring throughout the organization, there is no way that managers and executives can make solid decisions to support the business. The different operational, managerial, and strategic support systems include: (1) operational: A transaction processing system (TPS) is the basic business system that serves the operational level (analysts) in an organization. The most common example of a TPS is an operational accounting system such as a payroll system or an order-entry system; (2) managerial: A decision support system (DSS) models information to support managers and business professionals during the decision making process; and (3) strategic: An executive information system (EIS) is a specialized DSS that supports senior-level executives within the organization. 330)

Essay Affinity bias: A tendency to connect with, hire, and promote those with similar interests, experiences, or backgrounds. Conformity bias: Acting similarly, or conforming to those around you, regardless of your own views. Confirmation bias: Actively looking for evidence that backs up preconceived ideas about someone. Name bias: The tendency to prefer certain types of names 331)

Essay A business process is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. Business processes transform a set of inputs into a set of outputs (goods or services) for another person or process by using people and tools. Without processes, organizations would not be able to complete activities. Customer-facing processes result in a product or service that is received by an organization’s external customer. Business-facing processes are invisible to the external customer but essential to the effective management of the business. 332)

Essay

Business process modeling (or mapping) is the activity of creating a detailed flowchart or process map of a work process showing its inputs, tasks, and activities in a structured sequence. A business process model is a graphic description of a process, showing the sequence of process tasks, which is developed for a specific purpose and from a selected viewpoint. Business process modeling usually begins with a functional process representation of what the process problem is, or an As-Is process model. As-Is process models represent the current state of the operation that has been mapped, without any specific improvements or changes to existing processes. The next step is to build a To-Be process model that displays how the process problem will be solved. ToBe process models show the results of applying change improvement opportunities to the current (As-Is) process model. This approach ensures that the process is fully and clearly understood before the details of a process solution are decided upon. 333)

Essay Business process improvement attempts to understand and measure the current process and make performance improvements accordingly. Streamlining improves business process efficiencies by simplifying or eliminating unnecessary steps. Bottlenecks occur when resources reach full capacity and cannot handle any additional demands; they limit throughput and impede operations. Streamlining removes bottlenecks, an important step if the efficiency and capacity of a business process are being increased. Business process reengineering (BPR) is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises and occurs at the systems level or companywide level and the end-to-end view of a process.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 835) Disruptive technology tends to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products. ⊚ true ⊚ false 836)

Disruptive and new technologies typically cut into the low-end of the marketplace and eventually evolve to displace high-end competitors and their reigning technologies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

837)

In terms of disruptive technology, what is best for an organization’s current business could ruin it in the long term. ⊚ true ⊚ false

838)

Ebusiness is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

839)

Ebusiness is something that a business can just go out and buy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

840)

Future managers and workers need to understand the benefits MIS and ebusiness can offer a company if it wants to take advantage of sustaining technologies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

841)

A disruptive technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

842)

A sustaining technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

843)

A sustaining technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

844)

A disruptive technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

845)

The universal resource locator (URL) contains the address of a file or resource on the web such as www.apple.com or www.microsoft.com. ⊚ true ⊚ false

846)

The Innovator’s Dilemma, a book by Clayton Christensen, discusses how established companies can take advantage of disruptive technologies without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders. ⊚ true ⊚ false

847)

The Internet provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML. ⊚ true ⊚ false

848)

The WWW provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML. ⊚ true ⊚ false

849)

The Internet is a massive network that connects computers all over the world and allows them to communicate with one another. ⊚ true ⊚ false

850)

Hypertext markup language (HTML) links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link. ⊚ true ⊚ false

851)

The World Wide Web, such as Internet Explorer or Mozilla’s Firefox, allow users to access organization systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

852)

Hypertext transport protocol (HTTP) is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators. ⊚ true ⊚ false

853)

A universal resource locator (URL) identifies a URL address, and apple.com is an example of a domain name. ⊚ true ⊚ false

854)

URLs use domain names to identify particular websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false

855)

Domain name hosting (web hosting) is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

856)

Ecommerce is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet. Ecommerce refers only to online transactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

857)

Ecommerce includes ebusiness along with all activities related to internal and external business operations, such as servicing customer accounts, collaborating with partners, and exchanging real-time information. During Web 1.0, entrepreneurs began creating the first forms of ecommerce. ⊚ true ⊚ false

858)

A paradigm shift occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave. ⊚ true ⊚ false

859)

A few examples of ebusiness advantages can include opening new markets, reducing costs, and expanding global reach. ⊚ true ⊚ false

860)

Intermediaries occur when a customer sells directly to another customer online, cutting out the intermediary. ⊚ true ⊚ false

861)

Net neutrality’s founding principle includes the idea that all consumers should be able to use the Internet and its resources. ⊚ true ⊚ false

862)

Interactivity measures advertising effectiveness by counting visitor interactions with the target ad, including time spent viewing the ad, number of pages viewed, and number of repeat visits to the advertisement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

863)

Information richness refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

864)

Information richness measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world. ⊚ true ⊚ false

865)

Mass customization is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications. For example, customers can order M&Ms in special colors or with customized sayings such as “Marry Me.” ⊚ true ⊚ false

866)

Mass customization occurs when a company knows enough about a customer’s likes and dislikes that it can fashion offers more likely to appeal to that person, say by tailoring its website to individuals or groups based on profile information, demographics, or prior transactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

867)

Cybermediation refers to the creation of new kinds of intermediaries that simply could not have existed before the advent of ebusiness, including comparison-shopping sites and bank account aggregation services. ⊚ true ⊚ false

868)

Information reach refers to the number of people a business can communicate with on a global basis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

869)

An example of showrooming would include a person finding a book they like at a local book store and then ordering it on Amazon for a cheaper amount. ⊚ true ⊚ false

870)

An ebusiness clickstream is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

871)

A business model shows the hierarchy and organization of the employees in a division or company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

872)

An ebusiness model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

873)

Content providers are companies that generate revenue by providing digital content such as news, music, photos, or videos and examples include Netflix and Spotify. ⊚ true ⊚ false

874)

Transaction brokers process online sales transactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

875)

Business-to-consumer applies to any business that sells its products or services directly to consumers online. ⊚ true ⊚ false

876)

A click-and-mortar business operates on the Internet only, without a physical store. ⊚ true ⊚ false

877)

The majority of eBay’s customers are using a business-to-business (B2B) ebusiness model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

878)

A business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

879)

Dot-com was the original term for a company operating on the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

880)

A search engine is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google. ⊚ true ⊚ false

881)

Search engine ranking evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

882)

Adwords are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

883)

Search engine optimization are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

884)

Pay-per-call are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

885)

Search engine optimization (SEO) combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines, resulting in higher search engine ranking. ⊚ true ⊚ false

886)

Pay-per-call generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website. ⊚ true ⊚ false

887)

Pay-per-click generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call. ⊚ true ⊚ false

888)

Pay-per-conversion generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

889)

Many businesses are using instant messaging as a way to answer and resolve questions or problems quickly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

890)

An Internet service provider (ISP) is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. ⊚ true ⊚ false

891)

Real-time communication occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

892)

Instant messaging (IMing) is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

893)

Instant messaging converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player. ⊚ true ⊚ false

894)

Video chat is an online face-to-face, visual communication performed with other Internet users by using a webcam and dedicated software. ⊚ true ⊚ false

895)

Web 2.0 is the next generation of Internet that uses a more mature, distinctive communications platform characterized by new qualities such as collaboration, sharing, and free cost. ⊚ true ⊚ false

896)

Source code is software made available free for any third party to review and modify. ⊚ true ⊚ false

897)

The most common form of collective intelligence found outside the organization is crowdsourcing, or the wisdom of the crowd. ⊚ true ⊚ false

898)

An open system consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

899)

An open system contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software. ⊚ true ⊚ false

900)

Open source refers to any software whose source code is made available free (not on a fee or licensing basis as in ebusiness) for any third party to review and modify. ⊚ true ⊚ false

901)

User-contributed content (or user-generated content) is created and updated by many users for many users. ⊚ true ⊚ false

902)

User-contributed content is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by facilitating the sharing and flow of information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

903)

Open systems tap into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

904)

Closed source is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder. ⊚ true ⊚ false

905)

Native advertising is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

906)

Open source is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder. ⊚ true ⊚ false

907)

Closed source is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

908)

Knowledge can be a real competitive advantage for an organization. The most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization is knowledge management (KM), which involves capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

909)

Crowdfunding sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

910)

Native advertising sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

911)

The primary objective of knowledge management is to be sure that a company’s knowledge of facts, sources of information, and solutions are readily available to all employees whenever it is needed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

912)

A knowledge management system (KMS) supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization. KMS can distribute an organization’s knowledge base by interconnecting people and digitally gathering their expertise. ⊚ true ⊚ false

913)

Tacit knowledge consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of MIS. Examples of tacit knowledge are assets such as patents, trademarks, business plans, marketing research, and customer lists. ⊚ true ⊚ false

914)

Explicit knowledge is the knowledge contained in people’s heads. The challenge inherent in explicit knowledge is figuring out how to recognize, generate, share, and manage knowledge that resides in people’s heads. ⊚ true ⊚ false

915)

Social media refers to websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook, YouTube, and Digg. ⊚ true ⊚ false

916)

Social tagging is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tags or keyword-based classification system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

917)

A hashtag is a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#). For example, the hashtag #sandiegofire helped coordinate emergency responses to a fire. ⊚ true ⊚ false

918)

A network effect is a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#). ⊚ true ⊚ false

919)

A social network is an application that connects people by matching profile information. Providing individuals with the ability to network is by far one of the greatest advantages of Business 2.0. ⊚ true ⊚ false

920)

Social networking is the practice of expanding your business and/or social contacts by constructing a personal network. ⊚ true ⊚ false

921)

Social media maps group contacts (personal and professional), identifying who knows each other and who works together. In a company, it can provide a vision of how employees work together. ⊚ true ⊚ false

922)

Tags are specific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for means of classification or taxonomy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

923)

Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search. ⊚ true ⊚ false Wiki is a Hawaiian word for “quick” and is a type of a collaborative web page that allows users to add, remove, and change content. ⊚ true ⊚ false

924)

925)

Microblogging is the practice of sending brief posts (140 to 200 characters) to a personal blog, either publicly or to a private group of subscribers who can read the posts as IMs or as text messages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

926)

The network effect describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

927)

Misinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact without an intent to deceive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

928)

Information about 5G allegedly causing cancer is an example of misinformation spread through the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

929)

Disinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact, with an intent to deceive and mislead. ⊚ true ⊚ false

930)

The hackings and distribution of information conducted by Russia to mislead and influence the American elections is an example of disinformation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

931)

Fake news refers to news stories created to be widely shared or distributed for the purpose of promoting or discrediting a public figure, political movement, or a company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

932)

Ads run by the CDC to explain the effectiveness and safety of the COVID 19 vaccine is an example of Fake news. ⊚ true ⊚ false

933)

A selfie is a self-photograph placed on a social media website. ⊚ true ⊚ false

934)

A hashtag is a self-photograph placed on a social media website. ⊚ true ⊚ false

935)

Web 3.0 refers to static, text-based information websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 936) Which of the following terms implies that organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction? A) collective intelligence B) digital Darwinism C) joint venture D) sole proprietorship 937)

Which of the following produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive? A) sustaining technology B) disruptive technology C) reputation system D) personalization

938)

Which of the follow are characteristics of disruptive technology? A) enters the marketplace at the low end B) initially doesn’t meet the needs of existing customers C) tends to open new markets and destroy old ones D) All of the answers are correct.

939)

Which of the following is a challenge of sustaining technology? A) provides a cheaper product for current customers B) provides a product that does not meet existing customer’s future needs C) provides a better product for current customers D) provides a faster product for current customers

940)

The Innovator’s Dilemma suggests that established companies can take advantage of ________ without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders. A) sustaining technology B) existing investments C) collective intelligence D) disruptive technology

941)

Which of the following began as an essential emergency military communications system operated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DARPA)? A) Internet B) ecommerce C) ebusiness D) World Wide Web

942)

Which of the following is the founding principle of net neutrality? A) All consumers should be able to generate revenue by providing digital content such as news, music, photos, or videos. B) Consumers should be able to use the Internet and be free to access its resources without any form of discrimination. C) Companies should be able to manage the creation, storage, editing, and publication of their website content. D) All companies should be able to use masked Internet Protocol (IP) addresses.

943)

Which of the following is a description of net neutrality? A) net neutrality ensures that all information on the net is neutral and free of bias B) net neutrality ensures that everyone has equal access to the Internet C) net neutrality ensures that everyone always sees the same information on the Internet D) net neutrality protects people on the Internet from scams

944)

Which of the following terms could you use synonymously when referring to the web? A) network, paradigm shift B) URL, domain name C) HTML, Internet D) web browser, blog

945)

At a local marketing firm, Steve is the lead Web developer and is responsible for working with customers on their web designs, development, and graphics. Which of the following would be a critical skill Steve must have to be able to perform his job? A) understanding that he must create a unique domain name for each client B) being able to work with HTML C) understanding the World Wide Web and how hyperlinks work D) All of the answers are correct.

946)

Which of the following is not a reason for the explosive growth of the WWW? A) basic web pages are easy to create and extremely flexible B) the microcomputer revolution made it possible for an average person to own a computer C) digital Darwinism D) the speed, convenience, and low cost of email

947)

Which term describes the WWW during its first few years of operation between 1991 and 2003? A) Web 1.0 B) eshop C) open source D) All of the answers are correct.

948)

What is the difference between ecommerce and ebusiness? A) Ecommerce includes Internet network effects; ebusiness includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations. B) Ecommerce is buying and selling of goods or services online; ebusiness includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations. C) Ecommerce includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations; ebusiness includes all of the knowledge management systems. D) Ebusiness is buying and selling of goods or services online; ecommerce includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations.

949)

What is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators? A) hypertext markup language (HTML) B) URL C) hypertext transport protocol (HTTP) D) DARPA

950)

What allows users to access the WWW? A) web conferencing B) web browser C) Web 2.0 D) web business

951)

Which of the following is a type of web browser? A) Microsoft Word and Excel B) Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox C) Facebook and YouTube D) All of the answers are correct.

952)

What caused Polaroid to go bankrupt? A) it failed to have innovative technology and a captive customer base B) one-hour film processing and digital cameras stole its market share C) people who want instant access to their pictures also want a third party involved D) Internet websites such as Flickr and Facebook stole its market share

953)

Many social media sites today allow you to customize your web address, for example www.facebook.com/Womenwithdrive. What is an alternate name for a web address such as www.apple.com? A) digital bookmark B) Internet bookmark C) universal resource locator D) web browser

954)

Universities were among some of the first users of the Internet. What was the Internet first called? A) HTML B) ARPANET C) OPT D) WWO

955)

What links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link? A) digital Darwinism B) web browser C) hypertext transport protocol D) universal resource locator

956)

What is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity? A) domain name B) domain name hosting C) dot-com D) paradigm shift

957)

What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave? A) domain name B) domain name hosting C) click-thru D) paradigm shift

958)

What does digital Darwinism imply? A) Organizations that can adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. B) Organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. C) Organizations that can adapt to new information systems are doomed to extinction. D) Organizations that cannot adapt to new information systems are doomed to exile.

959)

Which of the following is an example of a disruptive technology? A) Oracle’s database software B) Sony’s transistor-based consumer electronics (transistor radio) C) Intel’s low-end microprocessor D) All of the answers are correct.

960)

Which of the following is an example of a sustaining technology? A) Porsche’s faster car B) Intel’s low-end microprocessor C) Sony’s transistor-based consumer electronics (transistor radio) D) All of the answers are correct.

961)

Which of the following is a reason for the growth of the World Wide Web? A) the microcomputer revolution B) advancements in networking hardware C) web pages being easy to create and flexible D) All of the answers are correct.

962)

What is information richness? A) a global public network of computer networks that pass information from one to another using common computer protocols B) refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information C) refers to the number of people a business can communicate with on a global basis D) occurs when those with access to technology have great advantages over those without access to technology

963)

What is information reach? A) a global public network of computer networks that pass information from one to another using common computer protocols B) refers to the depth and breadth of information transferred between customers and businesses C) measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world D) occurs when those with access to technology have great advantages over those without access to technology

964)

What are agents, software, or businesses that provide a trading infrastructure to bring buyers and sellers together? A) intermediaries B) showrooming C) disinformation D) disintermediation

965)

What occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online and cuts out the middleman? A) intermediaries B) disintermediation C) cookie D) showrooming

966)

Which of the following are reasons why both individuals and organizations have embraced ebusiness? A) enhance productivity B) maximize convenience C) improve communication D) All of the answers are correct.

967)

What is the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video? A) information richness B) information age C) information reach D) All of the answers are correct.

968)

What is a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

969)

What is the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

970)

What uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

971)

What uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-tomarket? A) heat map B) clickstream analytics C) website traffic analytics D) website ebusiness analytics

972)

What is a heat map? A) a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors B) the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order C) uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level D) uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market

973)

What are clickstream analytics? A) a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors B) the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order C) uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level D) uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market

974)

What are website traffic analytics? A) a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors B) the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order C) uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level D) uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market

975)

What are website ebusiness analytics? A) a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors B) the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order C) uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level D) uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market

976)

What measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world? A) information richness B) information age C) information reach D) information browser

977)

Which of the below would not be considered an advantage of ebusiness? A) expanding global reach B) opening new markets C) reducing costs D) reducing information reach

978)

What is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications? A) personalization B) long tail C) mass customization D) information reach

979)

Which of the below would not be considered a company operating in the long tail of a typical sales curve? A) Walmart B) Netflix C) iTunes D) Amazon

980)

Mars, Inc., offers people the opportunity to order M&Ms in special colors or with customized sayings. How would you classify Mars’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

981)

Amazon creates a unique recommendation listing for each customer who revisits its website. How would you classify Amazon’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

982)

Netflix creates a unique recommendation listing for each customer who revisits its website. How would you classify Netflix’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

983)

Nike offers people the opportunity to visit its website to create running shoes in the style and color they choose. How would you classify Nike’s ebusiness strategy? A) information richness B) mass customization C) personalization D) interactivity

984)

When evaluating the business value of disintermediation, the more ________ that are cut from the distribution chain, the lower the product price. A) users B) customers C) data D) intermediaries

985)

A company can reduce its costs by using ebusiness to change its business processes. Which of the following represents an example of a company reducing its costs through ebusiness? A) creating an online travel reservation B) ordering office supplies online and picking it up at the store C) purchasing a book online and picking it up in the store D) researching products to find the lowest price and visiting the store to purchase the item

986)

Which of the below statements is correct? A) Just putting up a website can create tremendous ebusiness value. B) Just putting up a website can create tremendous business buzz. C) Just putting up a website can limit product availability. D) Just putting up a website does not create an ebusiness.

987)

What is the exact pattern of a consumer’s navigation through a site? A) web browsing B) hypertext C) clickstream data D) web data

988)

What is the best way to measure a company’s ebusiness success? A) effective MIS metrics B) interactivity C) clickstream data D) All of the answers are correct.

989)

Which of the following is an ebusiness marketing technique? A) cookies B) pop-up ad C) banner ad D) All of the answers are correct.

990)

Which type of ebusiness marketing technique induces websites or users to pass on a marketing message to other websites or users, creating exponential growth in the message’s visibility and effect? A) cookies B) click-through C) viral marketing D) pop-up ad

991)

Bonnie Flat is a real estate agent who specializes in the luxury home market in the Seattle area. Bonnie is highly technical and uses many types of online marketing techniques to increase business. One of her most successful online marketing techniques is to place a box advertising her services along the top of real estate and luxury custom furniture websites. What type of marketing technique is Bonnie using? A) cookie B) banner ad C) pop-up ad D) click-through ad

992)

What is the business strategy that lets a company shorten the order process and add value with reduced costs or a more responsive and efficient service, and occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online? A) disintermediation B) intermediaries C) freemium D) All of the answers are correct.

993)

Which of the following is an example of a clickstream data metric? A) dates and times of visits B) number of customers with shopping carts C) number of page views D) All of the answers are correct.

994)

What measures the amount of time visitors spend on a website or application? A) freemium B) cookie C) paradigm shift D) stickiness

995)

What is the difference between a business model and an ebusiness model? A) A business model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; an ebusiness model does all of the same except on the Internet. B) A business model and an ebusiness model are identical. C) A business model and an ebusiness model are complete opposites. D) An ebusiness model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; a business model does all the same except on the Internet.

996)

What are the four main types of ebusiness models? A) business-to-borrower, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-business, and consumer-toconsumer B) business-to-business, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-business, and consumer-toconsumer C) business-to-business, business collaboration, collective business, and consumer-toconsumer D) ebusiness-to-ebusiness, e business-to-ebusiness, econsumer-to-ebusiness, and econsumer-to-econsumer

997)

What is the difference between a B2C and a C2B? A) B2C focuses on companies as customers, and C2B focuses on consumers as customers. B) B2C focuses on collaboration, and C2B focuses on consumers. C) B2C focuses on business to consumers, and C2B focuses on consumers to business. D) B2C focuses on consumers as customers, and C2B focuses on companies as customers.

998)

What is the ebusiness model that applies to customers offering goods and services to each other over the Internet? A) C2C B) C2B C) B2B D) B2C

999)

What is the ebusiness model that represents 80 percent of all online businesses and is typically more complex, requiring greater security needs? A) consumer-to-consumer B) business-to-consumer C) consumer-to-business D) business-to-business

1000) Which of the following represents businesses buying from and selling to each other over

the Internet? A) B2B B) B2C C) C2B D) C2C 1001) Carfax is an example of a company that sells its products or services directly to its

consumers online. Which ebusiness model is Carfax using? A) C2B B) C2C C) B2C D) B2B

1002) John and Jenny have been saving for two years to take their six children on a vacation to

Disneyworld. They are surprised to find out that airline tickets are far more expensive than they had anticipated. They decide to try to find cheaper tickets on Priceline, where they are allowed to set the price they are willing to pay for the airline tickets. What form of ebusiness model are John and Jenny using? A) CBC B) B2B C) C2B D) C2C 1003) What type of revenue generation model is Google using when it generates revenue by

allowing advertisers to bid on common search terms? A) disintermediation B) personalization C) mass customization D) adwords 1004) What is the practice of artificially inflating traffic statistics for online advertisements? A) click fraud B) hitbots C) affiliate program D) botnets 1005) What creates the illusion that a large number of potential customers are clicking the

advertiser’s links, when in fact there is no likelihood that any of the clicks will lead to profit for the advertiser? A) click fraud B) hitbots C) affiliate program D) botnets 1006) What allows a business to generate commissions or referral fees when a customer visiting

its website clicks a link to another merchant’s website? A) click fraud B) hitbots C) affiliate program D) adwords

1007) What is a business that operates in a physical store without an Internet presence? A) brick-and-mortar business B) click-and-mortar business C) virtual business D) pure-play business 1008) What is a pure-play business? A) a business that operates only on the Internet without a physical store B) a business that sells products only in a physical store C) a business that sells services only in a physical store D) a business that does not have any employees 1009) Which type of ebusiness model does Amazon use? A) pure-play B) brick-and-mortar C) click-and-click D) Internet provider 1010) Which type of ebusiness model is Barnes & Noble using? A) pure-play B) brick-and-mortar C) click-and-mortar D) virtual 1011) Which type of ebusiness model best describes Apple? A) pure-play B) brick-and-mortar C) click-and-mortar D) virtual 1012) What is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on

the Internet? A) ebusiness B) ebusiness model C) ecommerce D) ecommerce model

1013) What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way

companies and organizations behave? A) ecommerce model B) eshop sale C) paradigm shift D) Web 1.0 1014) Which of the following represents a brick-and-mortar business? A) The Gap B) Amazon C) Google D) McDonald’s 1015) Which of the following is not a valid form of an ebusiness revenue model? A) transaction fees B) subscription fees C) advertising fees D) service provider 1016) For the past 20 years, Perry has been an owner of several Coldwell Banker Real Estate

franchises. To increase business, Perry spends a great deal of money marketing and advertising his businesses online. Perry decides he would like to move beyond just marketing and create an actual ebusiness that acts like a search engine but only focuses on the real estate industry. The main revenue source for this Perry’s ebusiness will be a charge of $50 a month for each property that is listed on the website. What is the primary revenue model for Perry’s new business? A) transaction fees B) advertising fees C) subscription fees D) All of the answers are correct. 1017) What was the original term for a company operating on the Internet? A) dot-com B) search engine C) search engine ranking D) search engine optimization

1018) What is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to

Google? A) dot-com B) search engine C) search engine ranking D) search engine optimization 1019) What evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on

the list of search results? A) dot-com B) keyword C) search engine D) search engine ranking 1020) What combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to

search engines, resulting in higher search engine ranking? A) dot-com B) search engine C) search engine ranking D) search engine optimization 1021) What generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct. 1022) What generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an

online agent waiting for a call? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct. 1023) What generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct.

1024) What are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on

the Google results pages? A) organic search B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) adwords 1025) Websites can generate revenue by using which of the following? A) pay-per-click B) pay-per-call C) pay-per-conversion D) All of the answers are correct. 1026) What are the unpaid entries in a search engine results page that were derived based on

their content’s relevance to the keyword query? A) organic search B) paid search C) keyword D) search engine optimization 1027) What are links a company paid to have displayed based on a users’ keywords? A) organic search B) paid search C) keyword D) search engine optimization 1028) What is a word used in a performing a search? A) organic search B) paid search C) keyword D) search engine optimization

1029) Which of the following represents adwords? A) email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and

web conferencing B) content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, and transaction brokers C) keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on Google results pages D) advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, and value-added services fees 1030) Which of the following represents the primary ebusiness revenue models? A) email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and

web conferencing B) content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, and transaction brokers C) B2B, B2C, C2C, and C2B D) advertising fees, subscription fees, and transaction fees 1031) Which of the following represents the categories for ebusiness models? A) email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and

web conferencing B) content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, and transaction brokers C) B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B D) advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, and value-added services fees 1032) What is an ISP? A) An instant service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a

monthly fee. B) An Internet service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. C) An Internet sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee. D) An instant sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

1033) Who studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing how technology

can shape humans’ lives? A) cyborg anthropologist B) cyborg anthropology C) web real-time communications D) telepresence robots 1034) Who is a cyborg anthropologist? A) an individual who studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing

how technology can shape humans’ lives B) a discipline originated at the 1993 annual meeting of the American Anthropological Association C) an open source project that seeks to embed real-time voice, text, and video communications capabilities in web browsers D) a remote-controlled, wheeled device with a display to enable video chat and videoconferencing 1035) What is cyborg anthropology? A) an individual who studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing

how technology can shape humans’ lives B) a discipline originated at the 1993 annual meeting of the American Anthropological Association C) an open source project that seeks to embed real-time voice, text, and video communications capabilities in web browsers D) a remote-controlled, wheeled device with a display to enable video chat and videoconferencing 1036) What occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives the

information? A) collective intelligence system B) collaboration system C) real-time communication D) knowledge management system

1037) What is the primary business advantage of using email? A) increasing the speed of order entry B) the ability to inform and communicate with many people simultaneously,

immediately, and with ease C) the ability to have friends all over the globe D) increasing the number of computers required in an office 1038) What is another term for instant messaging? A) IMing B) HTML C) Podcasting D) Webbing 1039) What is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people? A) URL B) instant messaging C) tacit knowledge D) elicit knowledge 1040) What were some of the immediate results businesses found from using instant

messaging? A) the ability to transmit messages as fast as naturally flowing conversation B) the ability to easily hold simultaneous IM sessions with multiple people C) the ability to resolve questions or problems immediately D) All of the answers are correct. 1041) What converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player? A) podcasting B) video chat C) photo sharing D) email

1042) As a trainer for Exempla Healthcare, Tina is faced with many challenges to properly train

her new hires. Exempla employees work at over 40 different locations across the Chicago metropolitan area. Tina decides to implement some valuable ebusiness tools to help reduce traveling costs, increase speed, and provide flexibility for completing training sessions with all the new hires. Tina primarily uses PowerPoints and videos during her training modules. What is the most effective ebusiness tool for Tina to implement to accomplish all of her training goals? A) IMing B) Video chat C) Blog D) Email 1043) What do companies use as marketing communication channels discussing everything

from corporate strategies to detailed product overviews? A) IMing B) web browsing C) email D) podcasting 1044) What is a well-planned strategy that ensures the search and navigation functions are easy

to use and user-friendly on a website? A) blog B) taxonomy C) email D) podcast 1045) Which ebusiness tool increases the speed of business by allowing the transfer of

documents with the same speed as the telephone? A) knowledge management system B) podcasting C) email D) ebusiness 1046) What is the ebusiness tool that can increase marketing reach and build customer loyalty

through audio broadcasting? A) IMing B) email C) taxonomy D) podcasting

1047) Which ebusiness tool plays a crucial role in getting site visitors to view more than just the

home page by providing clear navigation choices? A) organic search B) content management system C) open system D) open source 1048) What are the four most common Business 2.0 characteristics? A) content sharing through open source B) user-contributed content C) collaboration inside and outside the organization D) All of the answers are correct. 1049) What is the system that consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on

publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system? A) management system B) reputation system C) knowledge system D) open system 1050) What is Mozilla Firefox? A) a competitor to Microsoft Word B) a competitor to Microsoft Excel C) a competitor to Adobe Photoshop D) a competitor to Internet Explorer 1051) What is an ebusiness model in which companies build, market, sell, and ship their

products themselves, without relying on traditional stores or intermediaries? A) showrooming B) direct-to-consumer C) source code D) viral marketing 1052) What is a marketing phenomenon that facilitates and encourages people to pass along a

marketing message? A) paid search B) direct-to-consumer C) source code D) viral marketing

1053) What are the three main drivers of the direct-to-consumer sales channel? A) customer experience B) data collection C) reduced costs D) All of the answers are correct. 1054) What is software whose source code is available free for any third party to review and

modify? A) freemium B) open source C) code source D) network source 1055) What is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright

holder? A) B) C) D)

closed source open source closed system open system

1056) What is closed source? A) any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder B) any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review

and modify C) contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software D) consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allow third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate 1057) What is open source? A) any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder B) any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review

and modify C) contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software D) consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allow third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate

1058) What is source code? A) any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder B) any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review

and modify C) contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software D) consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allow third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate 1059) What is an open system? A) any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder B) any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review

and modify C) contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software D) consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allow third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate 1060) Erik is the president and owner of Watch Out, a local website development company that

helps clients create and build unique websites. Many of his daily tasks are heavily technical in nature and require a high level of computer programming and Internet knowledge. Which of the following would Erik primarily use when performing his daily tasks? A) source code B) brick-and-mortar C) information reach D) explicit knowledge 1061) Ebusiness was characterized by few companies or users posting content for the masses.

What characterizes Business 2.0? A) a select few posting content for high-level executives only B) the masses posting content for a select few C) the masses posting content for the masses D) a select few posting specific content for the masses 1062) What is web content that is created and updated by many users for many users? A) cybermediation contributed content B) user-contributed content C) executive-generated content D) customer-generated content

1063) eBay buyers voluntarily comment to other users and sellers on the quality of service,

promptness of shipping, and their general satisfaction with the product. This is one of the most popular examples of user-generated content and is called A) reputation system. B) knowledge system. C) explicit system. D) tacit knowledge. 1064) What is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by

providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement? A) reputation system B) knowledge system C) explicit system D) native advertising 1065) What is native advertising? A) an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by

providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement B) buyers posting feedback on sellers C) content created and updated by many users for many users D) the wisdom of the crowd 1066) What is a reputation system? A) an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by

providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement B) buyers posting feedback on sellers C) content created and updated by many users for many users D) the wisdom of the crowd 1067) What is user-contributed content? A) an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by

providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement B) buyers posting feedback on sellers C) content created and updated by many users for many users D) the wisdom of the crowd

1068) What is crowdsourcing? A) an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by

providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement B) buyers posting feedback on sellers C) content created and updated by many users for many users D) the wisdom of the crowd 1069) What is the most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization? A) crowdsourcing B) tacit management C) knowledge management D) tagging 1070) What is the difference between asynchronous and synchronous communication? A) asynchronous communication occurs in real time; synchronous communication is

one-way technology B) asynchronous communication does not occur at the same time; synchronous communication occurs at the same time C) asynchronous communication includes instant messaging; synchronous communication includes email D) asynchronous communication is fast and instant; synchronous communication is collected at a single point in time 1071) Which of the below is not a characteristic of Business 2.0? A) knowledge management B) collaboration system C) web browser D) explicit knowledge 1072) Which of the following is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by

facilitating the sharing and flow of information? A) collaboration system B) collective system C) competitive system D) All of the answers are correct.

1073) Lisa loves her job as an executive recruiter for a large hospital located in Dallas, Texas.

Part of Lisa’s job is to gather industry information, collaborate with partners, compare competitors, and tap into the knowledge of prospective employees, partners, and customers. Which of the following would Lisa use to perform her job? A) interactivity metrics B) source code C) network effect D) collective intelligence 1074) Which system supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge

throughout an organization? A) affiliate program B) knowledge management system C) source code system D) social media system 1075) Which of the following focuses on user-generated content? A) YouTube B) Wikipedia C) LinkedIn D) All of the answers are correct. 1076) What are the two categories that include intellectual and knowledge-based assets? A) explicit knowledge; tacit knowledge B) efficient knowledge; tacit knowledge C) intelligent knowledge; explicit knowledge D) open knowledge; closed knowledge 1077) What is the type of knowledge that is contained in people’s heads? A) explicit knowledge B) virtual knowledge C) tacit knowledge D) pure knowledge 1078) What sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of

individuals, typically via the Internet? A) explicit knowledge B) crowdfunding C) tacit knowledge D) crowdsourcing

1079) What is the type of knowledge that consists of anything that can be documented,

archived, and codified, often with the help of a MIS department? A) tacit knowledge B) explicit knowledge C) pure knowledge D) virtual knowledge 1080) What is crowdsourcing? A) the wisdom of the crowd B) sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of

individuals, typically via the Internet C) collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers D) capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions 1081) What is crowdfunding? A) the wisdom of the crowd B) sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of

individuals, typically via the Internet C) collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers D) capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions 1082) What is collective intelligence? A) the wisdom of the crowd B) sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of

individuals, typically via the Internet C) collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers D) iCapturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions

1083) What is knowledge management? A) the wisdom of the crowd B) sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of

individuals, typically via the Internet C) collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers D) capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions 1084) Which of the following is not an example of explicit knowledge? A) patent B) trademark C) employee opinion D) marketing research 1085) What do Netflix and Amazon use to drive their recommendation tools? A) Web 1.0 content B) open source content C) virtual content D) user-generated content 1086) What are websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as

Facebook, LinkedIn, and YouTube? A) synchronous communication B) social media C) social networking D) asynchronous communication 1087) What is the practice of expanding your business and social contacts by constructing a

personal network? A) network effects B) tagging C) social taxonomy D) social networking

1088) Which of the following represents an example of why an employer would use social

media? A) B) C) D)

to find potential job candidates via LinkedIn to review potential job candidates by viewing their Facebook page to attract new job candidates via YouTube All of the answers are correct.

1089) What are the two basic functions that social networking sites provide? A) the ability to create and publish your own software B) the ability to create and maintain a profile that is your online identity and create

connections between other people within the network C) the ability to capture and create URLs and RSSs D) the ability to create URLs and edit RSS software 1090) What is an SNA? A) strong network application B) social needs analysis C) social networking analysis D) steady network areas 1091) What is a social networking analysis? A) represents the interconnection of relationships in a social network B) maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together C) describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords

or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search D) a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#) 1092) What is social tagging? A) represents the interconnection of relationships in a social network B) maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together C) describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords

or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search D) a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#)

1093) What is a hashtag? A) represents the interconnection of relationships in a social network B) maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together C) describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords

or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search D) a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#) 1094) What maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together? A) social network effects B) mashup networking analysis C) web network effects D) social networking analysis 1095) Many social media websites use ________ or specific keywords or phrases incorporated

into website content for means of classification or taxonomy. A) conferencing B) tags C) long tails D) categories 1096) Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with

keywords or tags as a way to A) organize it for future navigation. B) organize it for future filtering. C) organize it for future search. D) All of the answers are correct. 1097) Cell phone manufacturers often refer to their products as mobile devices. Which of the

below would not be included in the folksonomy for a cell phone? A) cell B) iPhone C) Galaxy D) technology platform

1098) What is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tag or keyword-

based classification system? A) podcasting B) network effects C) folksonomy D) social bookmarking 1099) How do the majority of potential customers find ebusiness websites? A) through radio B) through search terms that match the content C) through magazines D) through newspapers 1100) How would a company like Flickr use social tagging on its website? A) by applying keywords that do not match user content B) by building a tagging game for customers to participate in C) by allowing users to upload images and tag the images with their own keywords D) by selecting the keywords to associate with each image a customer uploads 1101) Using the collective power of a community to identify and classify content significantly

________ content categorization costs. A) eliminates B) raises C) lowers D) balances 1102) False information about the COVID-19 vaccine or about 5G allegedly causing cancer are

two examples of ________ spread through the Internet. A) snackable content B) the net neutrality affect C) misinformation D) asynchronous communication

1103) Which of the following is a difference between misinformation and disinformation? A) Misinformation refers to spreading false information to a few people, while

disinformation refers to spreading false information to as many users as possible. B) Misinformation is the result of the network effect, while disinformation is the result of Metcalfe’s law. C) Misinformation is found on the deep web, while disinformation is found on the dark web. D) Misinformation is presented as fact without an intent to deceive, while disinformation is created to deceive the audience intentionally and maliciously. 1104) The purpose of ________ is often to promote or discredit a public figure, political

movement, or a company. A) fake news B) microblogging C) folksonomy D) crowdsourcing 1105) What is one simplification that has occurred with Business 2.0? A) helping online users create anonymity B) limiting the sharing capabilities of devices C) improving access to information D) communicating via email 1106) What is an online journal that allows users to post their own opinions, comments,

graphics, and video? A) web masters B) folksonomy C) disintermediation D) blog or web log 1107) Why are Fortune 500 companies engaging in blogging? A) to order supplies B) to review favorite Internet providers C) to gather feedback and share ideas D) to pay employees

1108) What type of website is Twitter? A) blog B) search engine C) microblogging D) All of the answers are correct. 1109) What is the practice of sending brief posts of 140-200 characters to a personal blog either

publicly or to a private group of subscribers? A) ebusiness model B) tagging C) blogging D) microblog 1110) Unlike traditional HTML, which of the following lets writers communicate and readers

respond on a regular basis through a simple online journal? A) instant messaging B) HTTP C) blog D) email 1111) What is the difference between a wiki and a blog? A) A wiki is free and a blog has a subscription fee. B) A wiki user can alter the original content of an article, whereas a blog user can only

add information as a comment. C) A wiki is original content, whereas a blog is used sources. D) All of the answers are correct. 1112) Large wikis, such as Wikipedia, can protect the quality and accuracy of their information

by assigning users roles such as A) reader. B) subject matter expert. C) editor. D) All of the answers are correct. 1113) What is a self-photograph placed on a social media website? A) selfie B) blog C) wiki D) mashup

1114) What is an online journal that allows users to post their own comments, graphics, and

videos? A) selfie B) blog C) wiki D) mashup 1115) What is a collaborative website that allows users to add, remove, and change content? A) selfie B) blog C) wiki D) mashup 1116) What is a selfie? A) a self-photograph placed on a social media website B) the practice of sending brief posts to a personal blog C) a web format used to publish frequently updated works D) a magazine published only in electronic form on a computer network 1117) What is microblogging? A) a self-photograph placed on a social media website B) the practice of sending brief posts to a personal blog C) a web format used to publish frequently updated works D) a magazine published only in electronic form on a computer network 1118) What describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of

users increase? A) network effect B) RSS C) mashup editor D) knowledge management 1119) Which of the following is one of the largest wikis on the web and one of the 10 most

popular web destinations? A) Google B) eBay C) Wikipedia D) Yahoo

1120) Some of the benefits for a company to operate an internal wiki are that they are great

tools for all of the following except A) collecting and disseminating knowledge. B) building software applications. C) sharing information between functional business areas. D) distributing information to employees or partners across geographical distances. 1121) Which of the following best describes Web 1.0? A) static text-based information websites B) static electricity and connectivity C) social media D) technology intelligence 1122) Which of the following best describes Web 2.0? A) static websites B) intelligent websites C) social media and user-generated web content D) hypertext markup language 1123) Which of the following best describes Web 3.0? A) user-generated online business B) based on “intelligent” web applications using natural language processing C) collaboration and social media D) All of the answers are correct. 1124) What is the large part of the Internet that is inaccessible to conventional search engines? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web 1125) What is also referred to as the invisible web? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web

1126) What is the portion of the Internet that is intentionally hidden from search engines, uses

masked IP addresses, and is accessible only with a special web browser? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web 1127) What is content that is designed to be easy for readers to consume and to share? A) deep web B) dark web C) snackable content D) semantic web 1128) What is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can

understand? A) social tagging B) sustaining web C) social web D) semantic web 1129) Which statement below is inaccurate? A) Web 2.0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users. B) Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information-using machines. C) Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information. D) Web 3.0 is a rich, “intelligent” understanding and relationships among concept and

topics. 1130) What is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can

understand? A) social tagging B) sustaining web C) social web D) semantic web 1131) Which statement below is incorrect? A) the semantic web captures, organizes, and disseminates knowledge (i.e., know-how)

throughout an organization B) the semantic web describes the relationships between things C) the semantic web describes the properties of things D) the semantic web is not about links between web pages

1132) Which of the following is not a topic or feature that is included in Web 3.0? A) a worldwide database B) intelligent applications C) social networking D) integration of legacy devices 1133) What statement below describes Web 3.0’s feature that ensures the “integration of legacy

devices”? A) the ability to use current devices such as iPhones and laptops as credit cards or tickets B) the design of websites and other software so they can be easily integrated and work together C) the ability for software to be distributed and accessed from anywhere D) the design of software to be easily integrated and work together ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 1134) Compare disruptive and sustaining technologies, and explain how the Internet and the World Wide Web caused business disruption.

1135) Explain net neutrality and its potential benefits.

1136) Describe Web 1.0 along with ebusiness and its associated advantages.

1137) Compare the four categories of ebusiness models.

1138) Describe ebusiness tools for connecting and communicating.

1139) Explain how Business 2.0 is helping communities’ network and collaborate.

1140) Explain how Business 2.0 is helping communities’ network and collaborate.

1141) Compare blogs and wikis.

1142) Explain the terms misinformation, disinformation, and fake news and their differences.

1143) Describe Web 3.0 and the next generation of online business.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) FALSE

Sustaining technology tends to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products. 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE

36) FALSE

A business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues. 37) FALSE

A business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues. 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE

73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) B

Digital Darwinism implies that organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. 103)

A Sustaining technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. 104)

D

Disruptive technology is a new way of doing things that (1) initially doesn’t meet the needs of existing customers, (2) tends to open new markets and destroy old ones, and (3) enters the marketplace at the low end and eventually evolves to displace high-end competitors and their reigning technologies. 105)

B Sustaining technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. They tend to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products in established markets. 106)

D The book The Innovator’s Dilemma” discusses how established companies can take advantage of disruptive technologies without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders. 107)

A Originally, the Internet was essentially an emergency military communications system operated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DARPA). 108)

B Net neutrality is about ensuring that everyone has equal access to the Internet. Its founding principle is that all consumers should be able to use the Internet and be free to access its resources without any form of discrimination. 109)

B Net neutrality is about ensuring that everyone has equal access to the Internet. Its founding principle is that all consumers should be able to use the Internet and be free to access its resources without any form of discrimination. 110)

B When referring to the Web, URL (universal resource locator) and a domain name mean the same thing or are the most interchangeable. 111)

D At a local marketing firm, Steve is the lead Web Developer. Among his responsibilities are working with customers, web design and development, and graphic design techniques. More than likely, he will be required to utilize URLs, domain names, HTML, World Wide Web knowledge, web browsers, and HTTP. 112)

C

Some of the reasons for the growth of the World Wide Web are (1) the microcomputer revolution made it possible for an average person to own a computer, (2) advancements in networking hardware, software, and media made it possible for business computers to be connected to larger networks at a minimal cost, (3) browser software gave computer users an easy-to-use interface to download, find, and display web pages, (4) the speed, convenience, and low cost of email, and (5) basic web pages are easy to create and extremely flexible. Digital Darwinism implies that organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. 113)

A Web 1.0 refers to the World Wide Web during its first few years of operation from 1991-2003. 114)

B Ecommerce is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet and refers only to online transactions; Ebusiness includes ecommerce along with all activities related to internal and external business operations such as servicing customer accounts, collaborating with partners, and exchanging real-time information. 115)

C Hypertext transport protocol is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators. 116)

B A web browser allows users to access the WWW. 117)

B Internet Explorer and Firefox are two of the most well-known web browsers. 118)

B Polaroid went bankrupt because of one-hour film processing and digital cameras stole its market share. 119)

C Many social media sites today allow you to customize your web address, for example www.facebook.com/Womenwithdrive. This address is also called a universal resource locator (URL). 120)

B The first name of the Internet was ARPANET. 121)

C

Hypertext transport protocol links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link. 122)

B Domain name hosting (web hosting) is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity. 123)

D A paradigm shift occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave. 124)

B Digital Darwinism implies that organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction. 125)

D All of these are examples of disruptive technologies as displayed in the figure on companies that capitalize on disruptive technology. 126)

A Sustaining technologies tend to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products such as a faster car or larger hard drive. 127)

D All of these are reasons for the growth of the WWW. 128)

B Information richness refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information. 129)

C Information reach measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world. 130)

A Intermediaries are agents, software, or businesses that provide a trading infrastructure to bring buyers and sellers together. 131)

B

Disintermediation occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online and cuts out the middleman. 132)

D Both individuals and organizations have embraced ebusiness to enhance productivity, maximize convenience, and improve communications. 133)

A Information richness refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information. 134)

A A heat map is a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors. 135)

B Clickstream analytics is the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order. 136)

C Website traffic analytics uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level. 137)

D Website ebusiness analytics uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market. 138)

A A heat map is a two-dimensional representation of data in which values are represented by colors. 139)

B Clickstream analytics is the process of collecting, analyzing and reporting aggregate data about which pages a website visitor visits—and in what order. 140)

C Website traffic analytics uses clickstream data to determine the efficiency of the site for the users and operates at the server level. 141)

D

Website ebusiness analytics uses clickstream data to determine the effectiveness of the site as a channel-to-market. 142)

C Information reach measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world. 143)

D Ebusiness advantages include (1) expanding global reach, (2) opening new markets, (3) reducing costs, (4) improving operations, and (5) improving effectiveness. 144)

C Mass customization is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications. 145)

A Niche markets that are excellent examples of long tail sales include Netflix, Amazon, and iTunes. 146)

B Mars, Inc., offers people the opportunity to order M&Ms in special colors or with customized sayings. This is an example of a mass customization ebusiness strategy. 147)

C Amazon uses personalization to create unique recommendations for each customer. 148)

C Netflix uses personalization to create unique recommendations for each customer. 149)

B Nike’s customized shoes are an example of mass customization. 150)

D When evaluating the business value of disintermediation, the more intermediaries that are cut from the distribution chain, the lower the product price. 151)

D

Some examples that demonstrate how a company can reduce costs by changing some of their business processes and utilizing ebusiness include making air travel reservations online instead of over the phone and putting the process for ordering a product online, Researching cost savings online does not help the company; it only helps the customer. Going to the store and purchasing the product does not take advantage of ebusiness. 152)

D Just putting up a website doesn’t create an ebusiness. The website must also create buzz, be innovative, add value, and provide useful information. It must build a sense of community and collaboration. 153)

C Clickstream data is the exact pattern of a consumer’s navigation through a site. 154)

D The best way to measure a company’s ebusiness success is by using different effective MIS metrics, such as interactivity and clickstream data. 155)

D Ways of marketing through ebusiness include (1) an associate program, (2) banner ads, (3) clickthrough, (4) cookies, (5) pop-up ads, and (6) viral marketing. 156)

C Viral marketing is a marketing technique that induces websites or users to pass on a marketing message to other websites or users, creating exponential growth in the message’s visibility and effect. 157)

B A banner ad is a box running across a website that advertises the products and services of another business, usually another ebusiness. The banner often contains a hyperlink to the advertiser’s website. 158)

A Disintermediation is the business strategy that lets a company shorten the order process and add value with reduced costs or a more responsive and efficient service, and occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online. 159)

D

Examples of clickstream data metrics include (1) the number of page views, (2) the pattern of websites visited, including most frequent exit page and prior website, (3) length of stay on the website, (4) dates and times of visits, (5) number of registrations filled out per 100 visitors, (6) number of abandoned registrations, (7) demographics of registered visitors, (8) number of customers with shopping carts, and (9) number of abandoned shopping carts. 160)

D Stickiness measures the amount of time visitors spend on a website or application. 161)

A A business model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; ebusiness does all the same except on the Internet. 162)

B The four main types of ebusiness models are (1) business-to-business (B2B), (2) business-toconsumer (B2C), (3) consumer-to-business (C2B), and (4) consumer-to-consumer (C2C). 163)

C B2C is Business-to-consumer, C2b consumer-to-business. 164)

A The customer-to-customer (C2C) ebusiness model applies to customers offering goods and services to each other over the Internet. 165)

D B2B relationships represent 80 percent of all online businesses and are typically more complex, requiring greater security needs than the other types. 166)

A B2B represents businesses buying from and selling to each other over the Internet. 167)

C This is the definition of B2C. 168)

C C2B applies to any consumer who sells a product or service to a business on the Internet. 169)

D

Adwords, a part of the Google site, allows advertisers to bid on common search terms. The advertisers simply enter in the keywords they want to bid on and the maximum amounts they want to pay per click per day. 170)

A Click fraud is the practice of artificially inflating traffic statistics for online advertisements. 171)

B Hitbots create the illusion that a large number of potential customers are clicking the advertiser’s links, when in fact there is no likelihood that any of the clicks will lead to profit for the advertiser. 172)

C Affiliate programs allow a business to generate commissions or referral fees when a customer visiting its website clicks a link to another merchant’s website. 173)

A This is the definition of a brick-and-mortar business. 174)

A Pure-play or virtual business is a business that operates only on the Internet without a physical store, such as Google or Amazon. 175)

A Amazon.com is an example of a B2C pure-play business. 176)

C Barnes & Noble is a click-and-mortar business as it operates on the Internet and has physical stores. 177)

C Apple is a click-and-mortar business as it operates on the Internet and has physical stores. 178)

B This is the definition of an ebusiness model. 179)

C This is the definition of paradigm shift. 180)

D

McDonald’s operates using a brick-and-mortar business model. 181)

D Examples of ebusiness revenue models are (1) advertising fees, (2) subscription fees, and (3) transaction fees. 182)

C This is an example of using the subscription fees ebusiness revenue model. 183)

A Dot-com was the original term for a company operating on the Internet. 184)

B A search engine is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google. 185)

D Search engine ranking evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results. 186)

D Search engine optimization (SEO) combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines, resulting in higher search engine ranking. 187)

A Pay-per-click generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website. 188)

B Pay-per-call generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call. 189)

C Pay-per-call generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call. 190)

D Adwords are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on the Google results pages. 191)

D

Websites can generate revenue by using all of these. 192)

A Organic search is the unpaid entries in a search engine results page that were derived based on their content’s relevance to the keyword query. 193)

B Paid search are links a company paid to have displayed based on a users’ keywords. 194)

C A keyword is a word used in performing a search. 195)

C Adwords are keywords that advertisers choose to pay for and appear as sponsored links on Google results pages. 196)

D The primary ebusiness revenue models include advertising fees, subscription fees, and transaction fees. 197)

C The categories for ebusiness models include B2B, B2C, C2C, and C2B. 198)

B This is the definition of an ISP. 199)

A A cyborg anthropologist studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing how technology can shape humans’ lives. 200)

A A cyborg anthropologist studies the interaction between humans and technology, observing how technology can shape humans’ lives. 201)

B Cyborg anthropology as a discipline originated at the 1993 annual meeting of the American Anthropological Association. 202)

C This is the definition of real-time communication.

203)

B The primary business advantage to email is the ability to inform and communicate with many people simultaneously, immediately, and with ease. 204)

A Instant messaging is also abbreviated to IMing. 205)

B This is the definition of instant messaging. 206)

D All of these were results businesses found from using instant messaging. 207)

A This is the definition of podcasting. 208)

B Web conferencing blends videoconferencing with document sharing and allows the user to deliver a presentation over the web to a group of geographically dispersed participants. 209)

D Companies use podcasting as marketing communication channels discussing everything from corporate strategies to detailed product overviews. 210)

B A well-planned taxonomy ensures search and navigation are easy and user-friendly on a website. 211)

C Email is the ebusiness tool that increases the speed of business by allowing the transfer of documents with the same speed as the telephone. 212)

D Podcasting is the ebusiness tool that can increase marketing reach and build customer loyalty through audio broadcasting. 213)

B A content management system is the ebusiness tool that plays a crucial role in getting site visitors to view more than just the home page by having clear navigation choices for visitors. 214)

D

The four most common business 2.0 characteristics are (1) content sharing through open source, (2) user-contributed content, (3) collaboration inside the organization, and (4) collaboration outside the organization. 215)

D This is the definition of open system. 216)

D Mozilla Firefox is a web browser and a competitor to Internet Explorer. 217)

B Direct-to-consumer is an ebusiness model in which companies build, market, sell, and ship their products themselves, without relying on traditional stores or intermediaries. 218)

D Viral marketing is a marketing phenomenon that facilitates and encourages people to pass along a marketing message. 219)

D The three drivers of the direct-to-consumer sales channel include customer experience, data collection, and reduced costs. 220)

B This is the definition of open source. 221)

A Closed source is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder. 222)

A Closed source is any proprietary software licensed under exclusive legal right of the copyright holder. 223)

B Open source is any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review and modify. 224)

C Source code contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software.

225)

D An open system consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allow third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate. 226)

A Source code contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software. This is Erik’s main role or responsibility. 227)

C Ebusiness was characterized by few companies or users posting content for the masses. Business 2.0 is characterized by the masses posting content for the masses. 228)

B This is the definition of user-contributed content or user-generated content. 229)

A One of the most popular forms of user-generated content is reputation system, in which buyers post feedback on sellers. 230)

D Native advertising is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement. 231)

A Native advertising is an online marketing concept in which the advertiser attempts to gain attention by providing content in the context of the user’s experience in terms of its content, format, style, or placement. 232)

B A reputation system is one in which buyers post feedback on sellers. 233)

C User-contributed content is content created and updated by many users for many users. 234)

D Crowdsourcing refers to the wisdom of the crowd. 235)

C

The most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization is knowledge management. 236)

B Asynchronous is communication such as email in which the message and the response do not occur at the same time, whereas synchronous is communications that occur at the same time, such as IMs or chats. 237)

C Business 2.0 includes (1) a collaboration system, (2) collective intelligence, (3) knowledge management, (4) a knowledge management system, (5) explicit knowledge, and (6) tacit knowledge. A web browser is part of Business 1.0. 238)

A This is the definition of collaboration system. 239)

D Collective intelligence is collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers. 240)

B This is the definition of a knowledge management system. 241)

D Some real-life ebusinesses that operate with the help of user-generated content include YouTube, Wikipedia, Flickr, Digg, Yelp, Amazon, Netflix, and eBay. 242)

A The two categories that intellectual and knowledge-based assets fall into are (1) explicit knowledge and (2) tacit knowledge. 243)

C This is the definition of tacit knowledge. 244)

B Crowdfunding sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet. 245)

B This is the definition of explicit knowledge.

246)

A Crowdsourcing refers to the wisdom of the crowd. 247)

B Crowdfunding sources capital for a project by raising many small amounts from a large number of individuals, typically via the Internet. 248)

C Collective intelligence involves collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers. 249)

D Knowledge management involves capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions. 250)

C Examples of explicit knowledge include patents, trademarks, business plans, marketing research, and customer lists. 251)

D Both Netflix and Amazon use user-generated content to drive their recommendation tools. 252)

B This is the definition of social media. 253)

D This is the definition of social networking. 254)

D Companies are utilizing all of these strategies to expand, develop and grow their businesses via social media sites. 255)

B The two basic functions that social networking sites provide are the ability to create and maintain a profile that is your online identity and seco the ability to create connections between other people within the network. 256)

C SNA means social networking analysis. 257)

B

SNA maps group contacts, identifying who knows each other and who works together. 258)

C Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search. 259)

D A hashtag is a keyword or phrase used to identify a topic and is preceded by a hash or pound sign (#). 260)

D This is the definition of social networking analysis (SNA). 261)

B This is the definition of tags. 262)

D Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize them for future navigation, filtering, or search. 263)

D The folksonomy could include mobile phone, wireless phone, smart phone, iPhone, Blackberry, Droid, and many others. 264)

C This is the definition of folksonomy. 265)

B The majority of websites are found online through search terms that match the content. 266)

C Flickr allows users to upload images and tag them with appropriate keywords. After enough people have done so, the resulting tag collection will identify images correctly and without bias. 267)

C Using the collective power of a community to identify and classify content significantly lowers content categorization costs, because there is no complicated nomenclature to learn. 268)

C Misinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact without an intent to deceive.

269)

D While both misinformation and disinformation can deceive audiences, the distinction is that disinformation is created to intentionally and maliciously deceive the audience. 270)

A Fake news refers to false news stories created to be widely shared or distributed for the purpose of promoting or discrediting a public figure, political movement, or a company. 271)

C Business 2.0 simplifies access to information and improves the ability to share it. 272)

D This is the definition of a blog. 273)

C Many Fortune 500 companies are engaging in blogging for the purpose of marketing, sharing ideas, gathering feedback, press response, and image shaping. 274)

C Twitter is one of the largest examples of microblogging. 275)

D This is the definition of microblogging. 276)

C Unlike traditional HTML, blogs or web logs let writers communicate, and readers respond on a regular basis through a simple online journal. 277)

B The difference between a wiki and a blog is that a wiki user can alter the original content of an article, whereas a blog user can only add information as a comment. 278)

D Large wikis can protect the quality and accuracy of their information by assigning users roles such as reader, editor, administrator, patroller, policy maker, subject matter expert, content maintainer, software developer, and system operator. 279)

A A selfie is a self-photograph. 280)

B

This is the definition of blog. 281)

C This is the definition of wiki. 282)

A A selfie is a self-photograph. 283)

B Microblogging is the practice of sending brief posts to a personal blog. 284)

A This is the definition of a network effect. 285)

C Wikipedia is one of the largest wikis on the web and one of the 10 most popular web destinations. 286)

B Benefits for a company to operate an internal wiki are that they are great tools for collecting and disseminating knowledge throughout an organization, across geographic distances, and between functional business areas. 287)

A Web 1.0 refers to static text-based information websites, Web 2.0 is about user-contributed content, and Web 3.0 is based on “intelligent” web applications using natural language processing, machine-based learning and reasoning, and intelligent applications. 288)

C Web 1.0 refers to static text-based information websites, Web 2.0 is about user-contributed content, and Web 3.0 is based on “intelligent” web applications using natural language processing, machine-based learning and reasoning, and intelligent applications. 289)

B Web 1.0 refers to static text-based information websites, Web 2.0 is about user-contributed content, and Web 3.0 is based on “intelligent” web applications using natural language processing, machine-based learning and reasoning, and intelligent applications. 290)

A

Deep web, sometimes called the invisible web, is a large part of the Internet that is inaccessible to conventional search engines. 291)

A Deep web, sometimes called the invisible web, is a large part of the Internet that is inaccessible to conventional search engines. 292)

B The dark web is the portion of the Internet that is intentionally hidden from search engines, uses masked IP addresses, and is accessible only with a special web browser. 293)

C Snackable content is content that is designed to be easy for readers to consume and to share. 294)

D The semantic web is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can understand. 295)

A The differences between Web 2.0 and Web 3.0 include: (1) Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information-using machines; (2) Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information; and (3) Web 3.0 is a rich, “intelligent” understanding and relationships among concept and topics. 296)

D This is the definition of the semantic web. 297)

A To understand the semantic web, you need to understand that it is not about links between web pages; rather, it describes the relationship between things (such as A is a part of B and Y is a member of Z) and the properties of things (size, weight, age, price). 298)

C Topics or features that are sure to be included in Web 3.0 include (1) integration of legacy devices, (2) intelligent applications, (3) open ID, (4) open technologies, and (5) a worldwide database. 299)

A Web 3.0’s feature “integration of legacy devices” means or includes the ability to use current devices such as iPhones, laptops, and so on, as credit cards, tickets, and reservation tools.

300)

Essay Disruptive technologies offer a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers. Disruptive technologies redefine the competitive playing fields of their respective markets, open new markets and destroy old ones, and cut into the low end of the marketplace, and eventually evolve to displace high-end competitors and their reigning technologies. Sustaining technologies produce improved products customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive. Sustaining technologies tend to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products in established markets and virtually never lead in markets opened by new and disruptive technologies. The Internet and the World Wide Web caused business disruption by allowing people to communicate and collaborate in ways that were not possible before the information age. They completely disrupted how businesses operate, employees communicate, and products are developed and sold. 301)

Essay Net neutrality is about ensuring that everyone has equal access to the Internet. Its founding principle is that all consumers should be able to use the Internet and be free to access its resources without any form of discrimination. This ensures bandwidth usage is treated equally whether the user is accessing a news article or a video on Netflix. It also ensures that new or innovative resources are not stifled due to users’ heavy bandwidth needs. 302)

Essay Web 1.0 is a term that refers to the World Wide Web during its first few years of operation between 1991 and 2003. Ebusiness includes ecommerce along with all activities related to internal and external business operations, such as servicing customer accounts, collaborating with partners, and exchanging real-time information. During Web 1.0, entrepreneurs began creating the first forms of ebusiness. Ebusiness advantages include expanding global reach, opening new markets, reducing costs, and improving operations and effectiveness. 303)

Essay Business-to-business (B2B) applies to businesses buying from and selling to each other over the Internet. Business-to-consumer (B2C) applies to any business that sells its products or services to consumers over the Internet. Consumer-to-business (C2B) applies to any consumer that sells a product or service to a business over the Internet. Consumer-to-consumer (C2C) applies to sites primarily offering goods and services to assist consumers interacting with each other over the Internet. The primary difference between B2B and B2C are the customers; B2B customers are other businesses, whereas B2C markets to consumers. Overall, B2B relations are more complex and have higher security needs; plus, B2B is the dominant ebusiness force, representing 80 percent of all online business.

304)

Essay As firms began to move online, more MIS tools were created to support ebusiness processes and requirements. The ebusiness tools used to connect and communicate include email, instant messaging, podcasting, video chatting, and content management systems. 305)

Essay Web 2.0, or Business 2.0, is the next generation of Internet use: a more mature, distinctive communications platform characterized by new qualities such as collaboration, sharing, and free cost. Web 2.0 encourages user participation and the formation of communities that contribute to the content. In Web 2.0, technical skills are no longer required to use and publish information to the World Wide Web, eliminating entry barriers for online business. The four characteristics of Web 2.0 include content sharing through open sourcing, user-contributed content, collaboration inside the organization, and collaboration outside the organization. 306)

Essay A social network is an application that connects people by matching profile information. Providing individuals with the ability to network is by far one of the greatest advantages of Business 2.0. Social networking is the practice of expanding your business and/or social contacts by constructing a personal network. Business 2.0 simplifies the way individuals communicate, network, find employment, and search for information. 307)

Essay A blog, or web log, is an online journal that allows users to post their own comments, graphics, and video. Blog websites let writers communicate—and readers respond—on a regular basis through a simple yet customizable interface that does not require any programming. A wiki is a type of collaborative web page that allows users to add, remove, and change content, which can be easily organized and reorganized as required. While blogs have largely drawn on the creative and personal goals of individual authors, wikis are based on open collaboration with any and everybody. A wiki user can generally alter the original content of any article, whereas the blog user can only add information in the form of comments. 308)

Essay

Misinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact without an intent to deceive. Misinformation about the COVID-19 vaccine or about 5G allegedly causing cancer are two examples of misinformation spread through the Internet. Disinformation refers to false information that is presented as fact, with an intent to deceive and mislead. This includes disinformation and outright fabrication about events, statements, or outcomes. The hackings and distribution of misinformation conducted by Russia to influence the American elections is an example. While both misinformation and disinformation can deceive audiences, the distinction is that disinformation is created to intentionally and maliciously deceive the audience. Both forms intend to spread the information to as many users as possible around the globe. Fake news refers to false news stories created to be widely shared or distributed for the purpose of promoting or discrediting a public figure, political movement, or a company. Fake news campaigns are also created to generate revenue. While fake news may use misinformation or disinformation, it tends to take the form of news promoting or discrediting a person or organization. 309)

Essay Web 3.0 is based on “intelligent” web applications using natural language processing, machinebased learning and reasoning, and intelligent applications. Web 3.0 is the next step in the evolution of the Internet and web applications. Business leaders who explore its opportunities will be the first to market with competitive advantages. Web 3.0 offers a way for people to describe information such that computers can start to understand the relationships among concepts and topics.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1144) Ethics and security are two fundamental building blocks for all organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1145) Privacy is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or

video game. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1146) Information governance is a method or system of government for information

management or control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1147) Confidentiality is the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your

own personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1148) Digital rights management is a technological solution that allows publishers to control

their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1149) The Child Online Protection Act was passed to protect minors from accessing

inappropriate material on the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1150) Counterfeit software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of

copyrighted software. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1151) Pirated software is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as

such. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1152) A patent is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or

video game. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1153) Intellectual property is intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and

includes copyrights, trademarks, and patents. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1154) Copyright is an exclusive right to make, use, and sell an invention and is granted by a

government to the inventor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1155) Rule 41 is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers

the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1156) Information management examines the organizational resource of information and

regulates its definitions, uses, value, and distribution, ensuring it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1157) Information compliance is the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1158) Information property is an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about

individuals and how information can be sold and exchanged. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1159) Information secrecy is an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about

individuals and how information can be sold and exchanged. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1160) Information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of

data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1161) Information property is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of

data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1162) Epolicies are policies and procedures that address information management along with

the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1163) An acceptable use policy (AUP) requires a user to agree to follow it to be provided access

to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1164) Companies do not need a privacy policy for email because an employee’s work email is

private and cannot be viewed by the company. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1165) A social media policy outlines the corporate guidelines or principles governing employee

online communications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1166) An ethical computer use policy contains general principles to guide computer user

behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1167) Employee monitoring policies explicitly state how, when, and where the company

monitors its employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1168) Workplace MIS monitoring tracks people’s activities by such measures as number of

keystrokes, error rate, and number of transactions processed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1169) Cybervandalism is the electronic defacing of an existing website. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1170) Cybervandalism is a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled

variations of well-known domain names. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1171) Website name stealing is the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing

as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1172) Internet governance is government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing

some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1173) Cybervandalism includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted

via the Internet or posted on the website. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1174) Bring your own device is a policy that allows employees to use their personal mobile

devices and computers to access enterprise data and applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1175) Fair information practices are policies that allow employees to use their personal mobile

devices and computers to access enterprise data and applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1176) Fair information practices is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection

and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1177) Bring your own devices is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection

and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1178) BYOD policies offer four basic options, including unlimited access for personal devices;

access only to nonsensitive systems and data; access, but with IT control over personal devices, apps, and stored data; and access, but preventing local storage of data on personal devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1179) Teergrubing is an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a

return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1180) Click-fraud is the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue

models by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1181) Competitive click-fraud is a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee

increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1182) A user can opt out of receiving emails by choosing to deny permission to incoming

emails. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1183) A user can opt in to receive emails by choosing to allow permissions to incoming emails. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1184) A user can opt out of receiving emails by choosing to allow permissions to incoming

emails. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1185) A user can opt in to receive emails by choosing to deny permissions to incoming emails. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1186) Social media monitoring is the process of monitoring and responding to what is being

said about a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1187) A social media manager is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor,

contribute, filter, and guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1188) A social media manager refers to the process of monitoring and responding to what is

being said about a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1189) Cyberbullying is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor, contribute,

filter, and guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1190) Cyberbullying is an act or object that poses a danger to assets. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1191) Spyware is software that, while purporting to serve some useful function and often

fulfilling that function, also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1192) The Trojan-horse virus hides inside other software, usually as an attachment or a

downloadable file. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1193) Information security is a broad term encompassing the protection of information from

accidental or intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1194) A hacker weapon called a splog (spam blog) is a fake blog created solely to raise the

search engine rank of affiliated websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1195) Information security is a high priority for protection of the company’s information, and it

is critical to implement an information security procedure to combat misuse of this information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1196) Smoking areas are targeted by hackers as they regularly use smoking entrances to gain

building access where they pose as employees to gain access to the company network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1197) Troll farms are groups of many people whose job is to infiltrate message boards and

comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1198) Botnets are groups of people whose job infiltrate message boards to advance national

aims or seed discord and disharmony. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1199) Downtime refers to a period of time when a system is unavailable, and unplanned

downtime can strike at any time for various reasons. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1200) Drive-by hacking is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer

network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1201) White-hat hackers break into other people’s computer systems and may just look around

or may steal and destroy information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1202) Black-hat hackers work at the request of the system owners to find system vulnerabilities

and plug the holes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1203) Ransomware is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for

money. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1204) Simplelocker is a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and

demands payment for the files’ decryption keys. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1205) A worm is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1206) A worm spreads itself not only from file to file but also from computer to computer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1207) Script-kiddies have criminal intent when hacking. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1208) Cyberterrorists seek to cause harm to people or to destroy critical systems or information

and use the Internet as a weapon of mass destruction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1209) White-hat hackers have philosophical and political reasons for breaking into systems and

will often deface the website as a protest. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1210) Script-kiddies or script-bunnies find hacking code on the Internet and click-and-point

their way into systems to cause damage or spread viruses. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1211) The primary difference between a virus and a worm is that a virus must attach to

something, such as an executable file, to spread. Worms do not need to attach to anything to spread and can tunnel themselves into computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1212) Backdoor programs change their form as they propagate. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1213) Backdoor programs open a way into the network for future attacks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1214) A denial-of-service attack (DoS) floods a website with so many requests for service that

it slows down or crashes the site. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1215) Legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment

and cause some kind of business-affecting incident are called insiders. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1216) Insiders are illegitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the

environment to do business. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1217) Information security policies detail how an organization will implement the information

security plan. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1218) Dumpster diving is another security breach for companies and is where people not

associated with the company jump into the company’s outside garbage bins and try to gather and steal any valuable company products they can resell on eBay. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1219) Organizations address security risks through two lines of defense: The first is people and

the second is technology. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1220) Pretexting is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain

confidential data about another individual. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1221) Ransomware is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain

confidential data about another individual. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1222) Through social engineering, hackers use their social skills to trick people into revealing

access credentials or other valuable information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1223) Through pretexting, hackers use their social skills to trick people into revealing access

credentials or other valuable information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1224) The three primary information security areas are (1) authentication and authorization, (2)

policies and rewards, and (3) detection and response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1225) Tokens are small electronic devices that change user passwords automatically. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1226) The technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, often through

fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses, is called phishing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1227) A process of providing a user with permission including access levels and abilities such

as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space is called authentication. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1228) One of the most ineffective ways to set up authentication techniques is by setting up user

IDs and passwords. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1229) Biometrics is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a

fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1230) A firewall scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password

to decrypt. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1231) Identity theft is the forging of someone’s identity for the purpose of fraud. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1232) Identity theft is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data

from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1233) A phishing expedition is a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. The

perpetrator sends millions of spam emails that appear to be from a respectable company. The emails contain a link to a website that is designed to look exactly like the company’s website. The victim is encouraged to enter his or her username, password, and sometimes credit card information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1234) Spear phishing is a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to

target a particular person or organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1235) Spear phishing is a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a

bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1236) Phishing reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1237) A zombie is a program that secretly takes over another computer for the purpose of

launching attacks on other computers. Zombie attacks are almost impossible to trace back to the attacker. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1238) A zombie farm is a group of computers on which a hacker has planted zombie programs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1239) A pharming attack uses of a zombie farm, often by an organized crime association, to

launch a massive phishing attack. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1240) Worms are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their

instructions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1241) Time bombs are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their

instructions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1242) Decrypting information is to decode it and is the opposite of encrypting. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1243) Cryptography is the science that studies encryption, which is the hiding of messages so

that only the sender and receiver can read them. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1244) A certificate authority is a trusted third party, such as VeriSign, that validates user

identities by means of digital certificates. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1245) A certificate authority is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and

is comparable to a digital signature. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1246) A voiceprint is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is

comparable to a digital signature. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1247) A voiceprint is a set of measurable characteristics of a human voice that uniquely

identifies an individual. These characteristics, which are based on the physical configuration of a speaker’s mouth and throat, can be expressed as a mathematical formula. Unfortunately, biometric authentication such as voiceprints can be costly and intrusive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1248) Single-factor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a username

and password. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1249) Two-factor authentication requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what

the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1250) Multifactor authentication requires more than two means of authentication such as what

the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1251) Multifactor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a username

and password. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1252) Single-factor authentication requires more than two means of authentication such as what

the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1253) Single-factor authentication requires the user to provide two means of authentication:

what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1254) The goal of multifactor authentication is to make it difficult for an unauthorized person to

gain access to a system because if one security level is broken, the attacker will still have to break through additional levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1255) Which of the following represents the two fundamental building blocks that protect organizational information? A) security and anti-spam B) confidentiality and security C) ethics and security D) ethics and technology 1256) What is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or

video game? A) privacy B) confidentiality C) intellectual property D) copyright 1257) What is the intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes

trademarks and patents? A) intellectual software B) intellectual property C) trademark property D) ethical property 1258) Trust between companies, customers, partners, and suppliers is the support structure of

which of the following? A) ebusiness B) ediscovery C) antivirus software D) epolicies 1259) In relation to privacy, which of the following is the assurance that messages and

information remain available only to those authorized to view them? A) contentment B) ethical standard C) confidentiality D) firewall security

1260) Which of the following represents the principles and standards that guide our behavior

toward other people? A) ethics B) intellectual property C) standards of living D) security 1261) What is the difference between pirated and counterfeit software? A) Counterfeit software is fake technology products, whereas pirated is invisible

technological cameras placed online. B) Pirated software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software, whereas counterfeit is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as such. C) Counterfeit software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software, whereas pirated is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as such. D) Pirated software is stolen and used to hack into a company’s classified material, whereas counterfeit is a fake version of firewall software. 1262) Which of the following governs the ethical and moral issues arising from the

development and use of information technologies and the creation, collection, duplication, distribution, and processing of information? A) ethical information B) information technology C) information policies D) information ethics 1263) Which of the following means the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have

control over your personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent? A) safety B) ethical standard C) privacy D) confidentiality

1264) Determining what is ethical can sometimes be difficult because certain actions can be

justified or condemned depending on how you view the relationship between which of the following? A) legal and confidential B) legal and ethical C) legal and technical D) confidential and open 1265) What is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to

discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution? A) digital rights management B) counterfeit software C) privacy D) pirated software 1266) Which of the following examines the organizational resource of information and

regulates its definitions, uses, value, and distribution, ensuring it has the types of data or information required to function and grow effectively? A) information code B) information technology C) information management D) information governance 1267) Sophie Black works as a computer programmer for a software company. Her boss, Mike

Jones, is responsible for developing a new software game Nintendo After completion of the project, Mike gives all of the team members a free copy of the game without consent from the company. Sophie is unsure about accepting the game because legally it would be considered A) counterfeit software. B) pirated software. C) ethical software. D) governance software. 1268) What is the method or system of government for information management or control? A) information management B) information compliance C) information governance D) information secrecy

1269) What is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from

unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity? A) information management B) information compliance C) information secrecy D) information ethics 1270) Which of the following represents the definition of information property? A) an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about individuals and how

information can be sold and exchanged B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively 1271) Which of the following represents the definition of information governance? A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from

unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively 1272) Which of the following represents the definition of information secrecy? A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from

unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively

1273) Which of the following represents the definition of information management? A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from

unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively 1274) Which of the following represents the definition of information compliance? A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) a method or system of government for information management or control C) information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection

of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity D) examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively 1275) Which of the following represents the definition of information compliance? A) the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information B) the ability to comply with software C) the understanding of technology D) the verbalization of information governance in a company’s policies and procedures 1276) Which of the following serves as key evidence in many legal cases today and also

provides a faster, easier way to search and organize paper documents? A) confidentiality B) digital information C) privacy policies D) information ethics 1277) Which of the following refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather,

seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or an information inquiry? A) email privacy policy B) cybersecurity C) ediscovery D) epolicies

1278) In the information technology world, which of the following are examples of ethical

issues that a company may have to manage? A) employees copying and distributing company-owned software B) employees searching other employees’ private information without their consent C) employees intentionally creating or spreading viruses to confuse IT D) All of the answers are correct. 1279) When studying the figure of the four quadrants of ethical and legal behavior, the goal is

for organizations to make decisions in which of the following quadrants? A) quadrant IV B) quadrant II and III C) quadrant I D) quadrant III 1280) Which of the following is included in the four quadrants of ethical and legal behavior? A) legal behavior and ethical behavior B) illegal behavior and ethical behavior C) legal behavior and unethical behavior D) All of the answers are correct. 1281) What is intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes

copyrights, trademarks, and patents? A) ethics B) intellectual property C) privacy D) confidentiality 1282) Which of the following describes privacy? A) the assurance that messages and data are available only to those who are authorized to

view them B) policies and procedures that address the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment C) the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your own personal possessions, and to not be observed without your consent D) the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people

1283) Which of the following is an example of acting ethically? A) Individuals copy, use, and distribute software. B) Employees search organizational databases for sensitive corporate and personal

information. C) Individuals hack into computer systems to steal proprietary information. D) None of the answers are correct. 1284) Which of the following describes confidentiality? A) the assurance that messages and information are available only to those who are

authorized to view them B) policies and procedures that address the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment C) the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your own personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent D) the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people 1285) What refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital

information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry? A) ediscovery B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) pirated software 1286) What was passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet? A) Rule 41 B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) pirated software 1287) What is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers the

search and seizure of physical and digital evidence? A) ediscovery B) Child Online Protection Act C) Rule 41 D) pirated software

1288) Which rule is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that

covers the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence? A) Rule 4 B) Rule 1 C) Rule 41 D) Rule 4.2 1289) What is the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s

ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals? A) digital trust B) Child Online Protection Act C) Rule 41 D) digital child 1290) What is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to

discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution? A) ediscovery B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) digital trust 1291) What is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software? A) digital trust B) Child Online Protection Act C) digital rights management D) pirated software 1292) What is ediscovery? A) the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital

information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) a law passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet D) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals

1293) What is the Child Online Protection Act? A) the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital

information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) a law passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet D) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals 1294) What is digital rights management? A) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s

ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) a law passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet D) a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution 1295) What is pirated software? A) the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software B) the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital

information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry C) the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals D) a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution 1296) What are policies and procedures that address information management along with the

ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment? A) information systems policy B) epolicies C) technology applied policy D) data scraping 1297) Which of the below is not one of the six epolicies that a company should implement for

information protection as discussed in the text? A) information privacy policy B) workplace monitoring policy C) acceptable use policy D) GDPR monitoring policy

1298) Which of the following contains general principles to guide computer user behavior? A) information technology code B) technology policy C) ethical computer use policy D) information systems 1299) Which of the following clauses is typically contained in an acceptable use policy? A) nonrepudiation clause B) digital trust clause C) confidentiality clause D) employee use clause 1300) Which of the following would not be found in a typical acceptable use policy? A) not using the service as part of violating any law B) not posting commercial messages to groups where the employee has received user

consent C) not performing any nonrepudiation D) not attempting to break the security of any computer network 1301) Which of the following terms refers to a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness

participants do not deny their online actions? A) compliance B) noncommittal C) nonrepudiation D) digital trust 1302) According to the ethical computer use policy, users should ________ the rules and, by

agreeing to use the system on that basis, ________ to abide by the rules. A) be informed of; collaborate B) consent to; be informed C) be informed; consent D) consent to; be informed 1303) Which of the following policies states that users agree to follow it in order to be given

access to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet? A) acceptable use policy B) social media policy C) information privacy policy D) email privacy policy

1304) Which of the following is not considered an epolicy? A) acceptable use policy B) Internet use policy C) ethical computer use policy D) anti-hacker use policy 1305) Which policy contains general principles regarding information privacy? A) information privacy policy B) acceptable use policy C) Internet use policy D) antispam policy 1306) Which of the following represents the classic example of unintentional information

reuse? A) B) C) D)

phone number Social Security number address driver’s license number

1307) What is also called web scraping? A) data scraping B) data security C) fair information practices D) biometrics 1308) What is the process of extracting large amounts of data from a website and saving it to a

spreadsheet or computer? A) data scraping B) data security C) fair information practices D) biometrics 1309) What is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of

personal information of individuals within the European Union? A) Rule 41 B) the right to be forgotten C) fair information practices D) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

1310) What occurs when you allow an individual to request to have all content that violates

their privacy removed? A) data scraping B) the right to be forgotten C) fair information practices D) General Data Protection Regulation 1311) What is one of the guidelines an organization can follow when creating an information

privacy policy? A) adoption and implementation of an antispam policy B) notice and disclosure C) choice and quality D) None of the answer choices are correct. 1312) What is one of the major problems with email? A) intellectual property B) nonrepudiation C) user’s expectation of privacy D) None of the answer choices are correct. 1313) If an organization implemented only one policy, which one would it want to implement? A) information privacy policy B) acceptable use policy C) Internet use policy D) ethical computer use policy 1314) Jackie is the head teller at ABC Bank, and her responsibilities include overseeing and

managing the tellers, resolving customer issues, and developing and implementing systems for an optimal and efficient team. She notices a steady increase in customer complaints and tracks back to find that the complaints started right around the time ABC Bank provided Internet access to all employees. Jackie watched the tellers closely and found that they were spending significant amounts of time playing Internet games and posting on Facebook. Which policy should the company implement to help eliminate this problem? A) information privacy policy B) email privacy policy C) Internet use policy D) All of the answers are correct.

1315) Which of the below would you find in a typical Internet use policy? A) user ramifications if the policy is violated B) user responsibility for properly handling offensive material C) user responsibility for protecting the company’s good name D) All of the answers are correct. 1316) Which of the following policies details the extent to which email messages may be read

by others? A) email privacy policy B) email confidential policy C) right to be forgotten policy D) spam policy 1317) Employees need to understand that corporate email is solely owned by the A) individual user. B) company. C) human resources department. D) individual user’s department. 1318) Which of the following should a company email privacy policy do? A) define legitimate email users and explain what happens to accounts after a person

leaves the organization B) discourage sending junk email or spam to anyone who doesn’t want to receive it C) inform users that the organization has no control over email once it has been transmitted outside the organization D) All of the answers are correct. 1319) What sends massive amounts of email to a specific person or system that can cause that

user’s server to stop functioning? A) mail bomb B) spam C) digital trust D) junk mail 1320) What is unsolicited email that plagues employees at all levels and clogs email systems? A) spyware B) spam C) adware D) All of the answers are correct.

1321) What kind of policy can a company implement that can help diminish the activity of

sending unsolicited email? A) email privacy policy B) spam policy and procedures C) antispam policy D) information privacy policy 1322) To find out your company policy regarding such websites as YouTube, Facebook, and

Twitter, you would have to refer to the ________ policy. A) Internet use policy B) social media policy C) information use policy D) employee monitoring policy 1323) Which policy can protect a company’s brand identity and outlines the corporate principles

governing employee online communication? A) Internet workplace policy B) social media policy C) technology information policy D) YouTube policy 1324) With so much information and moving parts within a company, technology has made it

possible for employers to monitor many aspects of employee jobs and duties. Which policy informs an employee that the company might track employee’s activities by such measures as keystrokes, error rate, and number of transactions processed? A) antispam system B) information intelligence system C) workplace MIS monitoring D) ebusiness monitoring 1325) Which of the following is a common Internet monitoring technology? A) key logger B) hardware key logger C) cookie D) All of the answers are correct.

1326) What is an Internet monitoring technique that captures keystrokes on their journey from

the keyboard to the motherboard? A) spyware B) web log C) adware D) hardware key logger 1327) What type of Internet monitoring technique records information about a customer during

a web surfing session such as what websites were visited and how long the visit was, what ads were viewed, and what was purchased? A) key logger B) spyware C) clickstream D) web log 1328) Which of the following is not included as a common stipulation an organization would

follow when creating an employee monitoring policy? A) be as specific as possible stating when and what will be monitored B) do not state the consequences of violating the policy C) always enforce the policy the same for everyone D) expressly communicate that the company reserves the right to monitor all employees 1329) What is a mail bomb? A) sending a massive amount of email to a specific person or system, resulting in filling

up the recipient’s disk space B) a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants do not deny their online actions C) sending a few emails to a specific person or system, resulting in filling up the recipient’s disk space D) a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants deny their online actions 1330) Which policy details the extent to which email messages may be read by others? A) acceptable use policy B) email privacy policy C) Internet use policy D) GDPR policy

1331) Which of the following measures are included in workplace MIS monitoring that tracks

people’s activities? A) number of keystrokes B) error rate C) number of transactions processed D) All of the answers are correct. 1332) What program, when installed on a computer, records every keystroke and mouse click? A) key logger software B) spyware C) cookie D) adware 1333) What is a small file deposited on a hard drive by a website containing information about

customers and their web activities? A) key logger B) hardware key logger C) cookie D) adware 1334) What includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the

Internet or posted on a website? A) cyberbullying B) information vandalism C) cookie D) mail bomb 1335) What is the electronic defacing of an existing website? A) information bullying B) cybervandalism C) cookie D) nonrepudiation 1336) What includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the

Internet or posted on a website? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

1337) What is the electronic defacing of an existing website? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud 1338) What is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection and use of personal

data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy? A) cyberbullying B) fair information practices C) click-fraud D) bring your own device 1339) What is a policy that allows employees to use their personal mobile devices and

computers to access enterprise data and applications? A) cyberbullying B) fair information practices C) click-fraud D) bring your own device 1340) Which of the following is one of the four basic options included in a bring your own

device policy? A) unlimited access for personal devices B) access only to nonsensitive systems and data C) access but preventing local storage of data on personal devices D) All of the answers are correct. 1341) What refers to denying permissions to incoming emails? A) opt out B) opt in C) BYOD D) nonrepudiation 1342) What refers to choosing to allow permissions to incoming emails? A) opt out B) opt in C) BYOD D) nonrepudiation

1343) What is the process of monitoring and responding to what is being said about a company,

individual, product, or brand? A) social media monitoring B) social media manager C) social media policy D) antispam policy 1344) Who is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor, contribute, filter, and

guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand? A) social media monitoring B) social media manager C) social media policy D) information privacy manager 1345) What outlines the corporate guidelines or principles governing employee online

communications? A) social media monitoring B) social media manager C) social media policy D) information privacy manager 1346) What is the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models

by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud 1347) What is a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a

company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link? A) cyberbullying B) cybervandalism C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud 1348) What is an act or object that poses a danger to assets? A) cyberbullying B) threat C) click-fraud D) competitive click-fraud

1349) What is cybervandalism? A) the electronic defacing of an existing website B) the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by

repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser C) a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link D) an act or object that poses a danger to assets 1350) What is click-fraud? A) the electronic defacing of an existing website B) the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by

repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser C) a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link D) an act or object that poses a danger to assets 1351) What is competitive click-fraud? A) the electronic defacing of an existing website B) the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by

repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser C) a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link D) an act or object that poses a danger to assets 1352) What is a threat? A) the electronic defacing of an existing website B) the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by

repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser C) a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link D) an act or object that poses a danger to assets 1353) What is a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names? A) typosquatting B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing

1354) What is the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s

administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner? A) typosquatting B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing 1355) What is government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material

from being viewed by a country’s citizens? A) typosquatting B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing 1356) What is an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack

against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam? A) cyber duty B) website name stealing C) Internet censorship D) teergrubing 1357) What occurs when a person chooses to deny permission to incoming emails? A) opt out B) website name stealing C) opt in D) digital trust

1358) Which of the following definitions represents typosquatting? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam 1359) Which of the following definitions represents website name stealing? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam 1360) Which of the following definitions represents Internet censorship? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam

1361) Which of the following definitions represents teergrubing? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam 1362) Which of the following definitions represents opt-out? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) allowing permission to incoming emails D) denying permission to incoming emails 1363) Which of the following definitions represents opt-in? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner C) allowing permission to incoming emails D) denying permission to incoming emails 1364) Which of the following defines physical security? A) a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of

well-known domain names B) tangible protection such as alarms, guards, fireproof doors, fences, and vaults C) government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens D) denying permission to incoming emails

1365) Which of the following refers to a period of time when a system is unavailable? A) downtime B) down MIS C) data down D) downtown 1366) Which of the following is not an example of unplanned downtime? A) power outage B) tornado C) system upgrade D) flood 1367) Which of the following is a cost of downtime in addition to lost revenue? A) legal expenses B) loss in financial performance C) damage to reputation D) All of the answers are correct. 1368) A company should be able to calculate the cost of downtime by which of the following? A) per hour, per day, and per week B) per employee, per computer, and per company C) per stock, per stockholder, and per investment capital D) All of the answers are correct. 1369) Which quadrant in the cost of downtime includes equipment rental, overtime costs, and

travel expenses? A) fiscal responsibility B) damaged reputation C) other expenses D) regeneration 1370) Jensen is a senior developer for HackersRUs, a company that helps secure management

information systems. Jensen’s new task is to break into the computer system of one of HackersRUs’s top clients to identify system vulnerabilities and plug the holes. What type of hacker is Jensen? A) cracker B) white-hat hacker C) script bunny D) black-hat hacker

1371) Which of the following defines information security? A) a broad term encompassing the protection of information B) protects information from accidental misuse C) protects information from intentional misuse D) All of the answers are correct. 1372) What are experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and

networks for profit or just as a challenge known as? A) elevation of privilege B) viruses C) hackers D) worms 1373) What is a hacker who breaks into other people’s computer systems and may just look

around or steal and destroy information? A) script-kiddies B) black-hat hacker C) white-hat hacker D) cracker 1374) Which of the following is the correct list of the six different types of hackers listed in

your text? A) black-hat, crackers, cyberterrorists, hacktivists, script-kiddies, and white-hat B) black-top, cookie, script-kiddies, environment, web 3.0, and white-top C) black-hat, script-kiddies, script bats, spider crawlers, ad spiders, and white-hat D) All of the answers are correct. 1375) What is software written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage? A) elevation of privilege B) spoofing C) sniffer D) virus 1376) What are malicious attempts to access or damage a computer system? A) cyberattacks B) spoofing C) information attacks D) information ethics

1377) What involves prevention, detection, and response to cyberattacks that can have wide-

ranging effects on the individual, organization, community, and at the national level? A) cyberattacks B) cybersecurity C) sniffer D) information attacks 1378) What builds the national capacity to defend against cyberattacks and works with the

federal government to provide cyber security tools, incident response services, and assessment capabilities to safeguard .gov networks? A) cyberattacks B) data security C) Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency D) information attacks 1379) What includes a variety of threats such as viruses, worms, and Trojan horses? A) malicious code B) hoaxes C) spoofing D) sniffers 1380) What is the forging of the return address on an email so that the email message appears to

come from someone other than the actual sender? A) malicious code B) hoax C) spoofing D) sniffer 1381) What is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the

Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission? A) sniffer B) spyware C) spoofware D) splog

1382) What is a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands

payment for the files’ decryption keys? A) sniffer B) spyware C) spoofware D) simplelocker 1383) What is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money? A) sniffer B) spyware C) spoofware D) ransomware 1384) What is ransomware? A) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money B) a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment

for the files’ decryption keys C) software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user D) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission 1385) What is simplelocker? A) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money B) a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment

for the files’ decryption keys C) software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user D) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission 1386) What is adware? A) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money B) a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment

for the files’ decryption keys C) software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user D) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission

1387) What is spyware? A) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money B) a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment

for the files’ decryption keys C) software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user D) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission 1388) What is the primary difference between a worm and a virus? A) A worm must attach to something to spread, whereas a virus does not need to attach

to anything to spread and can tunnel itself into the computer. B) A virus is copied and spread by a person, whereas a worm takes a string of tag words and deletes websites. C) A virus must attach to something to spread, whereas a worm does not need to attach to anything to spread and can tunnel itself into the computer. D) All of the answers are correct. 1389) What is a process by which a user misleads a system into granting unauthorized rights,

usually for the purpose of compromising or destroying the system? A) elevation of privilege B) packet tampering C) spoofing D) spyware 1390) DDoS stands for one of the common forms of viruses that attack multiple computers to

flood a website until it slows or crashes. What does DDoS stand for? A) data distribution of systems attack B) data denial-of-software attack C) distributed data online systems attack D) distributed denial-of-service attack 1391) Which of the following are all common forms of viruses? A) packet tampering, worms, cakes, and Trojan viruses B) polymorphic, sniffer, splogs, and denial-of-service viruses C) backdoor program, worm, and Trojan-horse viruses D) All of the answers are correct.

1392) What is the software called that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements

without the consent of the computer user? A) sploging B) adware C) spygloss D) CPU buzzer 1393) Who are hackers with criminal intent? A) crackers B) black-hat hackers C) hoaxes D) cyberterrorists 1394) Who are those who seek to cause harm to people or to destroy critical systems or

information and use the Internet as a weapon of mass destruction? A) white-hat hackers B) black-hat hackers C) cyberterrorists D) script bunnies 1395) Which of the following types of viruses spread themselves not just from file to file but

also from computer to computer? A) polymorphic virus B) worm C) Trojan-horse virus D) backdoor program 1396) What is the one of the most common forms of computer vulnerabilities that can cause

massive computer damage? A) virus B) white-hat hackers C) dumpster diving D) All of the answers are correct. 1397) Which of the following change form as they propagate? A) backdoor programs B) strikers C) polymorphic viruses and worms D) splogs

1398) Which of the following is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless

computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network? A) backdoor program B) drive-by hacking C) polymorphic virus or worm D) hacker 1399) What is a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or

intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization? A) information security B) physical security C) drive-by hacking D) adware 1400) Who is an expert in technology who uses their knowledge to break into computers and

computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge? A) information spy B) hacker C) spyware D) adware 1401) What is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network,

intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network? A) spyware B) hacker C) drive-by hacking D) adware 1402) What is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the

Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission? A) spyware B) hacker C) drive-by hacking D) adware

1403) What is software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling

that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user? A) spyware B) hacker C) drive-by hacking D) adware 1404) What is spyware? A) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the

Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission B) experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user 1405) What is adware? A) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the

Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission B) experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user

1406) What is drive-by hacking? A) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the

Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission B) experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user 1407) What is a hacker? A) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the

Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission B) experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user 1408) Which of the following terms refers to groups of many people whose job is to infiltrate

message boards and comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony? A) black-hat hackers B) cyberterrorists C) troll farms D) script bunnies 1409) What is it called if a group of people organize and plan to follow a politician’s Twitter

account and bombard it with misinformation or extreme opinions? A) troll farms B) botnets C) black-hat hackers D) script bunnies

1410) What is the primary goal of a troll farm? A) infiltrate message boards to create discord B) take control of computer access for ransom C) look through people’s trash to obtain personal information D) deface websites as a form of protest 1411) What is information security? A) a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or

intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization B) a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission C) a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network D) software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user 1412) What is a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting

software bugs? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware 1413) What is software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware 1414) What is a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information

to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware

1415) What is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money? A) bug bounty program B) malware C) scareware D) ransomware 1416) What is a bug bounty program? A) a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting

software bugs B) software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems C) a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software D) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money 1417) What is malware? A) a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting

software bugs B) software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems C) a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to

purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software D) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money 1418) What is scareware? A) a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting

software bugs B) software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems C) a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software D) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money 1419) What is ransomware? A) a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting

software bugs B) software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems C) a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software D) a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money

1420) What are the first two lines of defense a company should take when addressing security

risks? A) B) C) D)

technology first, customers second technology first, people second innovation first, technology second people first, technology second

1421) Which of the following represents the biggest problem of information security breaches? A) people misusing organizational information B) technology failures C) customers misusing organizational systems D) company departments missing sales goals 1422) Angela works for an identity protection company that maintains large amounts of

sensitive customer information such as usernames, passwords, personal information, and Social Security numbers. Angela and a coworker decide to use the sensitive information to open credit cards in a few of her customer’s names. This is a classic example of which of the following security breaches? A) social engineer B) insider C) spammer D) dumpster diver 1423) What is it called when you use your social skills to trick people into revealing access

credentials or other valuable information? A) social engineering B) social media C) social viruses D) social processes 1424) What is it called when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information? A) striker bunny B) dumpster diving C) trash retrieval D) approved consent

1425) What is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential

data about another individual? A) dumpster texting B) dumpster diving C) trash retrieval D) pretexting 1426) What are malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm

email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines? A) dumpster texting B) dumpster diving C) trash retrieval D) destructive agents 1427) What is pretexting? A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data

about another individual B) when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment

and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines 1428) What is dumpster diving? A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data

about another individual B) a hacker looking through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines 1429) What are insiders? A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data

about another individual B) a hacker looking through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines

1430) What are destructive agents? A) a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data

about another individual B) hackers looking through your trash to find personal information C) legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident D) malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines 1431) Working at a ski resort in the mountains has its own unique security issues. Kenny is the

chief information officer for Sundance Ski Resort, and he is faced with both physical and information security threats every month. Since the resort implemented a new software system, they have been having larger number of threats and breaches of company information. He suspects that an internal employee may be causing this. He needs to clarify and establish what type of plan to help reduce further problems? A) information security plan B) ethical information policy C) antivirus plan D) None of the answer choices are correct. 1432) eBay is an example of an online company that has been faced with numerous security

issues. For example, imagine you purchase a digital camera on eBay. Three months later, you might receive an email asking you to log in to the system to update your credit card or PayPal information. This email is not actually from eBay, and as soon as you log in, your information will be stolen. What type of information security breach would you consider this to be? A) an insider B) dumpster diving C) social engineering D) phishing 1433) Which of the following is an example of a way to maintain information security that a

company should include in their information security policies? A) requiring computer users to log off before leaving for lunch B) never sharing user or password information with anyone C) changing passwords every 30 to 60 days D) All of the answers are correct.

1434) Janet is a financial aid counselor at a local community college, and she shares an office

with three coworkers. Janet feels safe in her office environment and frequently leaves her username and password on a sticky note next to her computer. Without realizing it, Janet is creating the potential for which type of information security breach to occur? A) insiders to hack into the college system B) dumpster diving to find usernames and passwords C) viruses and worms to spread through the college system D) All of the answers are correct. 1435) Applications allowed to be placed on the corporate network, such as IM software, and

corporate computer equipment used for personal reasons on personal networks are two areas that should be addressed by managers in which of the following company policies? A) information ethics policy B) information security policy C) Information technology plan D) All of the answers are correct. 1436) Which of the following represents the three areas where technology can aid in the defense

against information security attacks? A) authentication and authorization, prevention and resistance, prevention and response B) authentication and authorization, prevention and response, detection and response C) analyzing and authenticating, prevention and repositioning, detection and response D) authentication and authorization, prevention and resistance, detection and response 1437) What is the forging of someone’s identity for the purpose of fraud? A) identity crisis B) identity theft C) ediscovery D) All of the answers are correct. 1438) What is the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or

service? A) personally identifiable information (PII) B) astroturfing C) sensitive PII D) sock puppet marketing

1439) What includes any data that could potentially identify a specific individual? A) personally identifiable information (PII) B) nonsensitive PII C) astroturfing D) sock puppet marketing 1440) What is information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected

from public records, phone books, corporate directories, or websites? A) astroturfing B) nonsensitive PII C) sensitive PII D) sock puppet marketing 1441) What is information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach

of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm? A) astroturfing B) nonsensitive PII C) sensitive PII D) sock puppet marketing 1442) What is sensitive PII? A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from

public records, phone books, corporate directories, websites, etc. C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service 1443) What is nonsensitive PII? A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from

public records, phone books, corporate directories, websites, etc. C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service

1444) What is personally identifiable information (PII)? A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from

public records, phone books, corporate directories, websites, etc. C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service 1445) What is sock puppet marketing? A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) the practice of artificially stimulating online conversation and positive reviews about

a product, service, or brand C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service 1446) What is astroturfing? A) any data that could potentially identify a specific individual B) the practice of artificially stimulating online conversation and positive reviews about

a product, service, or brand C) information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm D) the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service 1447) Imagine you accidentally mistype the URL for your bank and you are redirected to a fake

website that collects your information. What type of identity theft were you just a victim of with this attack? A) pharming B) worm holes C) phishing D) insider hacking

1448) What area of information security focuses on preventing identity theft, phishing, and

pharming scams? A) prevention and resistance B) detection and authorizing C) detection and response D) authentication and authorization 1449) What is the process that provides a user with permission including access levels and

abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space? A) pharming B) authentication C) authorization D) programming 1450) What is a method for confirming users’ identities? A) phishing B) authentication C) authorization D) programming 1451) The most secure procedures combine which of the following authentication and

authorization techniques? A) something the user knows, such as a user ID and password B) something the user has, such as a smart card or token C) something that is part of the user, such as a fingerprint or voice signature D) All of the answers are correct. 1452) A smart card is a device the size of a credit card that contains embedded technology that

stores information and small amounts of software and can act as a(n) A) identification instrument. B) form of digital cash. C) data storage device. D) All of the answers are correct. 1453) The best and most effective way to manage authentication is through A) smart technology card. B) tokens. C) biometrics. D) passwords.

1454) Which of the following is not considered a form of biometrics? A) iris scan B) password C) fingerprint D) handwriting 1455) Which of the following is the main drawback of biometrics? A) it is considered illegal B) it is viewed as an invasion of privacy C) it can be costly and intrusive D) it requires constant monitoring and upgrading 1456) How do prevention and resistance technologies stop intruders from accessing and reading

sensitive information? A) content filtering, encryption, and firewalls B) calculating, locking, and firewalls C) content prohibiting and cookies D) All of the answers are correct. 1457) Which of the following occurs when organizations use software that filters content, such

as email, to prevent the accidental or malicious transmission of unauthorized information? A) antivirus software B) content filtering C) encryption D) firewalls 1458) What prevention technique scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a

key or password to decrypt? A) encryption B) content filtering C) firewalls D) antivirus software 1459) What can encryption technology perform? A) switching the order of characters B) replacing characters with other characters C) inserting or removing characters D) All of the answers are correct.

1460) What type of encryption technology uses multiple keys, one for public and one for

private? A) private key encryption B) policy key encryption C) public key encryption D) protective key code 1461) What is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to

a digital signature? A) digital code B) digital sign C) digital certificate D) digital card 1462) Charles Mott works for a company called VeriSign that acts a trusted third party to verify

information. One of Charles’ largest clients is CheckMd, which holds and authenticates customer reviews of doctors and dentists online. Having a third party validating the reviews is critical to CheckMd’s success. What type of authentication technique is VeriSign providing for CheckMD? A) firewall B) certificate authority C) online certificate D) digital content certificate 1463) What is hardware or software that guards a private network by analyzing incoming and

outgoing information for the correct markings? A) firewall B) certificate authority C) online certificate D) digital certificate 1464) Which of the following protection techniques scans and searches hard drives to prevent,

detect, and remove known viruses, adware, and spyware? A) firewall B) digital certificate C) virus software D) antivirus software

1465) What must you do with antivirus software to make it protect effectively? A) never upgrade or change vendors B) download a portable button for it to activate C) frequently update it to protect against viruses D) All of the answers are correct. 1466) Which of the following systems is designed with full-time monitoring tools that search

for patterns in network traffic to identify intruders and to protect against suspicious network traffic that attempts to access files and data? A) interconnected data software (IDS) B) intrusion detection software (IDS) C) security information system (SIS) D) Internet detection scanner (IDS) 1467) What is the most secure type of authentication? A) something the user knows such as a user ID and password B) something the user has such as a smart card or token C) something that is part of the user such as a fingerprint or voice signature D) All of the answers are correct. 1468) What is a device that is around the same size as a credit card and contains embedded

technologies that can store information and small amounts of software to perform some limited processing? A) token B) password C) smart card D) biometrics 1469) What is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a

fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting? A) smart card B) token C) biometrics D) content filtering 1470) Which of the following is considered a type of biometrics? A) voice B) face C) iris D) All of the answers are correct.

1471) What is a set of measurable characteristics of a human voice that uniquely identifies an

individual? A) voiceprint B) face C) iris D) All of the answers are correct. 1472) What is single-factor authentication? A) the traditional security process, which requires a username and password B) requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows

(password) and what the user has (security token) C) requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification) D) the identification of a user based on physical characteristic such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice or handwriting 1473) What is multifactor authentication? A) the traditional security process, which requires a username and password B) requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows

(password) and what the user has (security token) C) requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification) D) the identification of a user based on physical characteristic such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice or handwriting 1474) What is two-factor authentication? A) the traditional security process, which requires a username and password B) requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows

(password) and what the user has (security token) C) requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification) D) the identification of a user based on physical characteristic such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice or handwriting

1475) What gathers an organization’s computer network traffic patterns to identify unusual or

suspicious operations? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage 1476) What includes individuals who seek notoriety or want to make a social or political point

such as WikiLeaks? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage 1477) What includes governments that are after some form of information about other

governments? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage 1478) What is the use of computer and networking technologies against persons or property to

intimidate or coerce governments, individuals, or any segment of society to attain political, religious, or ideological goals? A) network behavior analysis B) cyber-vigilantes C) cyberterrorism D) cyber-espionage 1479) What is the traditional security process that requires a username and password? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures

1480) What requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows

(password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification)? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures 1481) What requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows

(password) and what the user has (security token)? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures 1482) What are actions, processes, devices, or systems that can prevent, or mitigate the effects

of, threats to a computer, server, or network? A) single-factor authentication B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) counter measures 1483) What are biometrics? A) the traditional security process, which requires a username and password B) requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows

(password) and what the user has (security token) C) requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification) D) the identification of a user based on physical characteristic such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice or handwriting 1484) Which of the following authentication methods is 100 percent accurate? A) smart card B) fingerprint authentication C) user ID D) No authentication method is 100 percent accurate.

1485) Where do organizations typically place firewalls? A) between a personal computer and the server B) between a personal computer and a printer C) between the server and the content filtering software D) between the server and the Internet 1486) What is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from

unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity? A) information secrecy B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing 1487) What is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually

by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing 1488) What is a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing 1489) What is a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus

telephone number to “confirm” their account information? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) vishing 1490) What reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites? A) pharming B) phishing C) phishing expedition D) spear phishing

1491) What is information secrecy? A) the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from

unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization 1492) What is phishing? A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by

means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization 1493) What is a phishing expedition? A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by

means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization 1494) What is spear phishing? A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by

means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization 1495) What is vishing? A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by

means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information

1496) What is pharming? A) reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites B) a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by

means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses C) a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing D) a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information 1497) What reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) pharming 1498) What is a program that secretly takes over another computer for the purpose of launching

attacks on other computers? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) time bomb 1499) What is a group of computers on which a hacker has planted zombie programs? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) time bomb 1500) What uses a zombie farm, often by an organized crime association, to launch a massive

phishing attack? A) zombie B) zombie farm C) pharming attack D) time bomb 1501) What are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their

instructions? A) zombies B) zombie farms C) pharming attacks D) time bombs

1502) What is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to

a digital signature? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography 1503) What scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to

decrypt? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography 1504) What decodes information? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography 1505) What is the science that studies encryption, which is the hiding of messages so that only

the sender and receiver can read them? A) digital certificate B) encryption C) decryption D) cryptography ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 1506) Explain the ethical issues in the use of information technology.

1507) Identify the six epolicies organizations should implement to protect themselves.

1508) Describe the relationships and differences between hackers and viruses.

1509) Describe the relationship between information security policies and an information

security plan.

1510) Provide an example of each of the three primary information security areas: (1)

authentication and authorization, (2) prevention and resistance, and (3) detection and response.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) TRUE

Ethics and security are two fundamental building blocks for all organizations. 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE

36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE

Insiders are legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident.

73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) C

The two fundamental building blocks to protecting any organization should include ethics and security. 113)

D Copyright is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, book, or video game. 114)

B Intellectual property is the intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes trademarks and patents. 115)

A Trust between companies, customers, partners, and suppliers is the support structure of ebusiness. 116)

C Confidentiality is the assurance that messages and information remain available only to those authorized to view them. 117)

A Ethics are the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people. 118)

B Pirated software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software, whereas counterfeit is software that is manufactured to look like the real thing and sold as such. 119)

D Information ethics governs the ethical and moral issues arising from the development and use of information technologies and the creation, collection, duplication, distribution, and processing of information. 120)

C Privacy means the right to be left alone when you want to be, to have control over your personal possessions, and not to be observed without your consent. 121)

B When discussing information ethics, determining what is ethical can sometimes be difficult because certain actions can be justified or condemned depending on how you view the relationship between legal and ethical.

122)

A Digital rights management is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution. 123)

C Information management examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, value, and distribution, ensuring it has the types of data or information required to function and grow effectively. 124)

B Pirated software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software. 125)

C Information governance is the method or system of government for information management or control. 126)

C Information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. 127)

A Information property is an ethical issue that focuses on who owns information about individuals and how information can be sold and exchanged. 128)

B Information governance is a method or system of government for information management or control. 129)

C Information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. 130)

D Information management examines the organizational resource of information and regulates its definitions, uses, values, and distribution, ensuring that it has the types of data/information required to function and grow effectively. 131)

A Information compliance is the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information.

132)

A Information compliance is the act of conforming, acquiescing, or yielding information. 133)

B Digital information in today’s world often serves as key evidence in many legal cases and provides a faster, easier way to search and organize paper documents. 134)

C Ediscovery or electronic discovery refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or an information inquiry. 135)

D All of these are examples of ethical issues companies face today with IT. 136)

C When studying the figure of the four quadrants of ethical and legal behavior, the goal is for organizations to make decisions in quadrant I that are both legal and ethical. 137)

D All of these are contained in the four quadrants of ethical and legal behavior. 138)

B Intellectual property is intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form and includes copyrights, trademarks, and patents. 139)

C This is the definition of privacy. 140)

D None of these is an example of acting ethically. 141)

A This is the definition of confidentiality. 142)

A Ediscovery (or electronic discovery) refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry. 143)

B

The Child Online Protection Act was passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet. 144)

C Rule 41 is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence. 145)

C Rule 41 is the part of the United States Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure that covers the search and seizure of physical and digital evidence. 146)

A Digital trust is the measure of consumer, partner, and employee confidence in an organization’s ability to protect and secure data and the privacy of individuals. 147)

C Digital rights management is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution. 148)

D Pirated software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software. 149)

B Ediscovery refers to the ability of a company to identify, search, gather, seize, or export digital information in responding to a litigation, audit, investigation, or information inquiry. 150)

C The Child Online Protection Act was passed to protect minors from accessing inappropriate material on the Internet. 151)

D Digital rights management is a technological solution that allows publishers to control their digital media to discourage, limit, or prevent illegal copying and distribution. 152)

A Pirated software is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software. 153)

B

Epolicies are policies and procedures that address information management along with the ethical use of computers and the Internet in the business environment. 154)

D The six epolicies the book suggests are (1) ethical computer use policy, (2) information privacy policy, (3) acceptable use policy, (4) email privacy policy, (5) social media policy, and (6) workplace monitoring policy. 155)

C Ethical computer use policy contains general principles to guide computer user behavior. 156)

A An acceptable use policy usually contains a nonrepudiation clause, which is a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants do not deny their online actions. 157)

B A typical acceptable use policy includes (1) not using the service as part of violating any law, (2) not attempting to break the security of any computer network or user, (3) not posting commercial messages to groups without prior permission, and (4) not performing any nonrepudiation. 158)

C A nonrepudiation clause, which is a contractual stipulation to ensure that ebusiness participants do not deny their online actions. 159)

C Users should be informed of the computer rules and, by agreeing to use the system on that basis, consent to abide by the rules. 160)

A Acceptable use policy states that users agree to follow it in order to be given access to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet. 161)

D Anti-hacker use policy is not discussed in this text and not an epolicy. 162)

A Information privacy policy contains general principles regarding information privacy. 163)

B The Social Security number is the classic example of unintentional information reuse.

164)

A Data scraping, also known as web scraping, is the process of extracting large amounts of data from a website and saving it to a spreadsheet or computer. 165)

A Data scraping is the process of extracting large amounts of data from a website and saving it to a spreadsheet or computer. 166)

D GDPR is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union. 167)

B The right to be forgotten occurs when you allow an individual to request to have all content that violates their privacy removed. 168)

B Notice and disclosure is the second guideline for creating an information privacy policy. 169)

C Users typically expect to receive the same type of privacy as is found in first-class mail. 170)

D The ethical computer use policy is the starting point and umbrella for any other policies that the organization might establish. 171)

C An Internet use policy contains general principles to guide the proper use of the Internet. 172)

D An Internet use policy should contain these four: (1) the Internet services available to users, (2) the company’s position on the purpose of Internet access and what restrictions, if any, are placed on that access, (3) user responsibility for citing sources, properly handling offensive material, and protecting the company’s good name, and (4) the ramifications if the policy is violated. 173)

A This is the definition of email privacy policy. 174)

B

Employees need to understand that email privacy exists to an extent. Corporate email is the sole property of the company. 175)

D A company email privacy policy should (1) define legitimate email users and explain what happens to accounts after a person leaves the organization, (2) explain backup procedure so users will know that at some point, even if a message is deleted from their computer, it is still stored by the company, (3) describe the legitimate grounds for reading email and the process required before such action is performed, (4) discourage sending junk email or spam to anyone who doesn’t want to receive it, (5) prohibit attempting to mail bomb a site, and (6) inform users that the organization has no control over email once it has been transmitted outside the organization. 176)

A This is the definition of a mail bomb. 177)

B Spam is unsolicited email that plagues employees at all levels and clogs email systems. 178)

C An antispam policy helps diminish the activity of sending unsolicited email. 179)

B YouTube, Facebook pages, and Twitter are all sites included in a social media policy. 180)

B A social media policy can protect a company’s brand identity and outlines the corporate principles governing employee online communication. 181)

C Workplace MIS monitoring can track employee’s activities by such measures as keystrokes, error rate, and number of transactions processed. 182)

D Common Internet monitoring technologies include (1) key logger or key trapper software, (2) hardware key logger, (3) cookie, (4) adware, (5) spyware (sneakware or stealthware), (6) web log, and (7) clickstream. 183)

D Hardware key logger is a device that captures keystrokes on their journey from the keyboard to the motherboard.

184)

C This is the definition of the Internet monitoring technology called clickstream. 185)

B You should always state the consequences of violating the policy. 186)

A A mail bomb sending a massive amount of email to a specific person or system, resulting in filling up the recipient’s disk space. 187)

B Email privacy policy details the extent to which email messages may be read by others. 188)

D This is the definition of workplace MIS monitoring. 189)

A Key logger software, when installed on a computer, records every keystroke and mouse click. 190)

C Cookie is a small file deposited on a hard drive by a website containing information about customers and their web activities. 191)

A Cyberbullying includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the Internet or posted on a website. 192)

B Cybervandalism is the electronic defacing of an existing website. 193)

A Cyberbullying includes threats, negative remarks, or defamatory comments transmitted via the Internet or posted on a website. 194)

B Cybervandalism is the electronic defacing of an existing website. 195)

B Fair information practices is a general term for a set of standards governing the collection and use of personal data and addressing issues of privacy and accuracy.

196)

D Bring your own device is a policy that allows employees to use their personal mobile devices and computers to access enterprise data and applications. 197)

D BYOD policies offer four basic options, including unlimited access for personal devices; access only to nonsensitive systems and data; access, but with IT control over personal devices, apps, and stored data; and access, but preventing local storage of data on personal devices. 198)

A With opt out a user can stop receiving emails by choosing to deny permission to incoming emails. 199)

B With opt in a user can receive emails by choosing to allow permissions to incoming emails. 200)

A Social media monitoring is the process of monitoring and responding to what is being said about a company, individual, product, or brand. 201)

B A social media manager is a person within the organization who is trusted to monitor, contribute, filter, and guide the social media presence of a company, individual, product, or brand. 202)

C A social media policy outlines the corporate guidelines or principles governing employee online communications. 203)

C Click-fraud is the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser. 204)

D Competitive click-fraud is a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link. 205)

B A threat is an act or object that poses a danger to assets. 206)

A

Cybervandalism is the electronic defacing of an existing website. 207)

B Click-fraud is the abuse of pay-per-click, pay-per-call, and pay-per-conversion revenue models by repeatedly clicking on a link to increase charges or costs for the advertiser. 208)

C Competitive click-fraud is a computer crime where a competitor or disgruntled employee increases a company’s search advertising costs by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser’s link. 209)

D A threat is an act or object that poses a danger to assets. 210)

A Typosquatting is a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names. 211)

B Website name stealing is the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner. 212)

C Internet censorship is government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens. 213)

D Teergrubing is an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam. 214)

A Opt out occurs when a person chooses to deny permission to incoming emails. 215)

A Typosquatting is a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names. 216)

B

Website name stealing is the theft of a website’s name that occurs when someone, posing as a site’s administrator, changes the ownership of the domain name assigned to the website to another website owner. 217)

C Internet censorship is government attempts to control Internet traffic, thus preventing some material from being viewed by a country’s citizens. 218)

D Teergrubing is an antispamming approach where the receiving computer launches a return attack against the spammer, sending email messages back to the computer that originated the suspected spam. 219)

D Opt-out is choosing to deny permission to incoming emails. 220)

C Opt-in is choosing to allow permission to incoming emails. 221)

B Physical security is tangible protection such as alarms, guards, fireproof doors, fences, and vaults. 222)

A This is the definition of downtime. 223)

C There are many examples of unplanned downtime, including power outages, tornados, network failures, fires, floods, fraud, strikes, terrorism, snowstorms, theft, smoke damage, wind, viruses, insects, hail, hackers, and many more. A system upgrade is planned downtime. 224)

D The costs of downtime are not only associated with lost revenues, but also with financial performance, damage to reputations, and even travel or legal expenses. 225)

A When calculating the cost of downtime, you should know your costs of downtime by per hour, per day, and per week. 226)

C

The other expenses quadrant of the cost of downtime figure includes: temporary employees, equipment rental, overtime costs, extra shipping charges, travel expenses, and legal obligations. 227)

B A white-hat hacker works at the request of the system owners to find system vulnerabilities and plug the holes. 228)

D All of these are included in the definition of information security. 229)

C This is the definition of a hacker. 230)

B Black-hat hackers break into other people’s computer systems and may just look around or steal and destroy information. 231)

A The common types of hackers listed in the book are (1) black-hat hackers, (2) cracker hackers, (3) cyberterrorist hackers, (4) hacktivist hackers, (5) script-kiddies or script-bunnies, and (6) white-hat hackers. 232)

D Virus is software written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage. 233)

A Cyberattack are malicious attempts to access or damage a computer system. 234)

B Cybersecurity involves prevention, detection, and response to cyberattacks that can have wideranging effects on the individual, organization, community, and at the national level. 235)

C Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency builds the national capacity to defend against cyberattacks and works with the federal government to provide cyber security tools, incident response services, and assessment capabilities to safeguard .gov networks. 236)

A Malicious code includes a variety of threats such as viruses, worms, and Trojan horses. 237)

C

Spoofing the forging of the return address on an email so that the email message appears to come from someone other than the actual sender. 238)

B Spyware is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission. 239)

D Simplelocker is a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment for the files’ decryption keys. 240)

D Ransomware is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. 241)

A Ransomware is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. 242)

B Simplelocker is a new ransomware program that encrypts your personal files and demands payment for the files’ decryption keys. 243)

C Adware is software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user. 244)

D Spyware is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission. 245)

C A virus must attach to something to spread, whereas a worm doesn’t need to attach to anything to spread and can tunnel itself into the computer. 246)

A Elevation of privilege is a process by which a user misleads a system into granting unauthorized rights, usually for the purpose of compromising or destroying the system. 247)

D

DDoS stands for distributed denial-of-service attack, which is one of the common forms of viruses that attacks multiple computers to flood a website until it slows or crashes. 248)

C The types of viruses listed in the book are (1) backdoor programs, (2) denial-of-service attack (DoS), (3) distributed denial-of-service attack (DDoS), (4) polymorphic viruses and worms, (5) Trojan-horse, and (6) worm viruses. 249)

B Adware is software that allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user. 250)

A Crackers are hackers with criminal intent. 251)

C Cyberterrorists are those who seek to cause harm to people or to destroy critical systems or information and use the Internet as a weapon of mass destruction. 252)

B Worm spread themselves not just from file to file but also from computer to computer. 253)

A One of the most common forms of computer vulnerabilities that cause massive computer damage are viruses. 254)

C Polymorphic viruses and worms change form as they propagate. 255)

B Drive-by hacking is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network. 256)

A Information security is a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization. 257)

B

A hacker is an expert in technology who uses their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge. 258)

C Drive-by hacking is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network. 259)

A Spyware is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission. 260)

D Adware is software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user. 261)

A Spyware is a special class of adware that collects data about the user and transmits it over the Internet without the user’s knowledge or permission. 262)

D Adware is software that while purporting to serve some useful function and often fulfilling that function also allows Internet advertisers to display advertisements without the consent of the computer user. 263)

C Drive-by hacking is a computer attack where an attacker accesses a wireless computer network, intercepts data, uses network services, and/or sends attack instructions without entering the office or organization that owns the network. 264)

B Hackers are experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just motivated by the challenge. 265)

C Troll farms are groups of hundreds of people whose job is to infiltrate message boards and comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony. 266)

A

Troll farms are groups of hundreds of people whose job is to infiltrate message boards and comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony. 267)

A Troll farms are groups of hundreds of people whose job is to infiltrate message boards and comments sections to advance national aims or seed discord and disharmony. 268)

A Information security is a broad term encompassing the protection of information from accidental or intentional misuse by persons inside or outside an organization. 269)

A A bug bounty program is a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting software bugs. 270)

B Malware is software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems. 271)

C Scareware is a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software. 272)

D Ransomware is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. 273)

A A bug bounty program is a crowdsourcing initiative that rewards individuals for discovering and reporting software bugs. 274)

B Malware is software that is intended to damage or disable computers and computer systems. 275)

C Scareware is a type of malware designed to trick victims into giving up personal information to purchase or download useless and potentially dangerous software. 276)

D Ransomware is a form of malicious software that infects your computer and asks for money. 277)

D

The first two lines of defense a company takes in addressing security risks are people first and technology second. 278)

A The biggest problem of information security breaches results from people misusing organizational information. 279)

B Insiders are legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident. 280)

A Social engineering uses one’s social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or other valuable information. 281)

B Dumpster diving occurs when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information. 282)

D Pretexting is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual. 283)

D Destructive agents are malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines. 284)

A Pretexting is a form of social engineering in which one individual lies to obtain confidential data about another individual. 285)

B Dumpster diving is when a hacker looks through your trash to find personal information. 286)

C Insiders are legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incident. 287)

D Destructive agents are malicious agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm email addresses off websites or deposit spyware on machines.

288)

A A strong information security plan would detail and outline how the company will implement and maintain information security. 289)

D Phishing is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. 290)

D All of these are examples of ways to maintain information security and should be included in a company’s information security policy. 291)

A Insiders are legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the environment and cause some kind of business-affecting information security incident; for example, leaving your user and password in an area that anyone could see and steal for the purpose of breaching information security. 292)

B Both should be addressed in the information security policy. 293)

D The three areas where technology can aid in the defense against information security attacks include authentication and authorization, prevention and resistance, and detection and response. 294)

B Identity theft is the forging of someone’s identity for the purpose of fraud. 295)

D Sock puppet marketing is the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service. 296)

A Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that could potentially identify a specific individual. 297)

B Nonsensitive PII is information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from public records, phone books, corporate directories, websites, etc. 298)

C

Sensitive PII is information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm. 299)

C Sensitive PII is information transmitted with encryption and, when disclosed, results in a breach of an individual’s privacy and can potentially cause the individual harm. 300)

B Nonsensitive PII is information transmitted without encryption and includes information collected from public records, phone books, corporate directories, websites, etc. 301)

A Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that could potentially identify a specific individual. 302)

D Sock puppet marketing is the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service. 303)

B Sock puppet marketing is the use of a false identity to artificially stimulate demand for a product, brand, or service. 304)

A This is an example of pharming. 305)

D Authentication and authorization can prevent identity theft, phishing, and pharming. 306)

C Authorization is the process that provides a user with permission including access levels and abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space. 307)

B Authentication is a method for confirming users’ identities. 308)

D

The most secure procedures combine authentication and authorization techniques that include (1) something the user knows, such as a user ID and password, (2) something the user has, such as a smart card or token, and (3) something that is part of the user, such as a fingerprint or voice signature. 309)

D Smart cards can act as identification instruments, a form of digital cash, and a data storage device with the ability to store an entire medical record. 310)

C Biometrics is the most effective way to manage authentication. 311)

B Biometrics, narrowly defined, is an authentication technique that is based on a physical characteristic, such as fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting. 312)

C Biometrics authentication can be costly and intrusive. 313)

A These are all types of prevention and resistance. 314)

B Content filtering occurs when organizations use software that filters content, such as email, to prevent the accidental or malicious transmission of unauthorized information. 315)

A Encryption prevention technique scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to decrypt. 316)

D Encryption can perform all of the above, as well as use a mathematical formula to convert the information into a code. 317)

C Public key encryption uses multiple keys, one for public and one for private. 318)

C A digital certificate a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature.

319)

B This is an example of a certificate authority, which is defined as a trusted third party that validates user identities by means of digital certificates. 320)

A A firewall is hardware or software that guards a private network by analyzing incoming and outgoing information for the correct markings. 321)

D Antivirus software scans and searches hard drives to prevent, detect, and remove known viruses, adware, and spyware. 322)

C You must frequently update antivirus software to protect against newly created viruses. 323)

B Intrusion detection software (IDS) is designed with full-time monitoring tools that search for patterns in network traffic to identify intruders and to protect against suspicious network traffic that attempts to access files and data. 324)

D The most secure type of authentication involves a combination of all three. 325)

C Smart card is a device that is around the same size as a credit card and contains embedded technologies that can store information and small amounts of software to perform some limited processing. 326)

C Biometrics is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting. 327)

D All of these are considered biometrics. 328)

A A voiceprint is a set of measurable characteristics of a human voice that uniquely identifies an individual. 329)

A

Single-factor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a username and password. 330)

C Multifactor authentication requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification). 331)

B Two-factor authentication requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token). 332)

A Network behavior analysis gathers an organization’s computer network traffic patterns to identify unusual or suspicious operations. 333)

B Cyber-vigilantes include individuals who seek notoriety or want to make a social or political point such as WikiLeaks. 334)

D Cyber-espionage includes governments that are after some form of information about other governments. 335)

C Cyberterrorism is the use of computer and networking technologies against persons or property to intimidate or coerce governments, individuals, or any segment of society to attain political, religious, or ideological goals. 336)

A Single-factor authentication is the traditional security process, which requires a username and password. 337)

C Multifactor authentication requires more than two means of authentication such as what the user knows (password), what the user has (security token), and what the user is (biometric verification). 338)

B

Two-factor authentication requires the user to provide two means of authentication: what the user knows (password) and what the user has (security token). 339)

D Counter measures are actions, processes, devices, or systems that can prevent, or mitigate the effects of, threats to a computer, server, or network. 340)

D Biometrics include the identification of a user based on physical characteristic such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice or handwriting. 341)

D None of these authentication methods is 100 percent accurate. 342)

D Firewalls are typically placed between a server and the Internet. 343)

A Information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. 344)

B Phishing is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. 345)

C Phishing expedition is a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. 346)

D Vishing (or voice phishing) is a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information. 347)

A Pharming reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. 348)

A Information secrecy is the category of computer security that addresses the protection of data from unauthorized disclosure and confirmation of data source authenticity. 349)

B

Phishing is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent emails that look as though they came from legitimate businesses. 350)

C Phishing expedition is a masquerading attack that combines spam with spoofing. 351)

D Spear phishing is a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization. 352)

D Vishing (or voice phishing) is a phone scam that attempts to defraud people by asking them to call a bogus telephone number to “confirm” their account information. 353)

A Pharming reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. 354)

D Pharming reroutes requests for legitimate websites to false websites. 355)

A A zombie is a program that secretly takes over another computer for the purpose of launching attacks on other computers. Zombie attacks are almost impossible to trace back to the attacker. 356)

B A zombie farm is a group of computers on which a hacker has planted zombie programs. 357)

C A pharming attack uses a zombie farm, often by an organized crime association, to launch a massive phishing attack. 358)

D Time bombs are computer viruses that wait for a specific date before executing their instructions. 359)

A A digital certificate is a data file that identifies individuals or organizations online and is comparable to a digital signature. 360)

B

Encryption scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to decrypt. 361)

C Decryption is the decoding of information and is the opposite of encryption. 362)

D Cryptography is the science that studies encryption, which is the hiding of messages so that only the sender and receiver can read them. 363)

Essay Information ethics govern the ethical and moral issues arising from the development and use of information technologies, as well as the creation, collection, duplication, distribution, and processing of information itself (with or without the aid of computer technologies). Ethical dilemmas in this area usually arise not as simple, clear-cut situations but as clashes between competing goals, responsibilities, and loyalties. Inevitably, there will be more than one socially acceptable or "correct" decision. For this reason, acting ethically and legally are not always the same. 364)

Essay An ethical computer use policy contains general principles to guide computer user behavior. For example, it might explicitly state that users should refrain from playing computer games during working hours. An information privacy policy contains general principles regarding information privacy. An acceptable use policy is a policy that a user must agree to follow in order to be provided access to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet. An email privacy policy details the extent to which email messages may be read by others. A social media policy outlines the corporate guidelines or principles governing employee online communications. An employee monitoring policy states explicitly how, when, and where the company monitors its employees. 365)

Essay Hackers are experts in technology who use their knowledge to break into computers and computer networks, either for profit or just for the challenge. A virus is software written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage. Some hackers create and leave viruses, causing massive computer damage. 366)

Essay

Information security policies identify the rules required to maintain information security, such as requiring users to log off before leaving for lunch or meetings, never sharing passwords with anyone, and changing passwords every 30 days. An information security plan details how an organization will implement the information security policies. The best way a company can safeguard itself is by implementing and communicating its information security plan. 367)

Essay Authentication and authorization: Authentication is a method of confirming users’ identities. Once a system determines the authentication of a user, it can then determine the access privileges (or authorization) for that user. Authorization is the process of providing a user with permission, including access levels and abilities such as file access, hours of access, and amount of allocated storage space. Prevention and resistance: Content filtering occurs when organizations use software that filters content, such as emails, to prevent the accidental or malicious transmission of unauthorized information. Encryption scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or password to decrypt. In a security breach, a thief is unable to read encrypted information. A firewall is hardware and/or software that guards a private network by analyzing incoming and outgoing information for the correct markings. Detection and intrusion detection software features full-time monitoring tools that search for patterns in network traffic to identify intruders.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1511) MIS infrastructure is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology for communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1512) Every company, regardless of size, relies on some form of MIS infrastructure, whether it

is a few personal computers networked together or many interconnected around the world. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1513) Hardware consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system, where

software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1514) Software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1515) Software consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system, where

software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1516) Hardware is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1517) A network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and

establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1518) A client is a computer designed to request information from a server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1519) A server is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1520) A server is a computer designed to request information from a server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1521) A client is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1522) A good way to understand the client-server relationship is when someone uses a web

browser (this would be the client) to access a website (this would be a server that would respond with the web page being requested by the client). ⊚ true ⊚ false

1523) There are three primary areas where enterprise architects focus when maintaining a firm’s

MIS infrastructure, including information MIS infrastructure, agile MIS infrastructure, and sustainable MIS infrastructures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1524) If you want to support business operations, you will focus on building a strong

information MIS infrastructure, which identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1525) If you want to support organization change, you will focus on building a strong

information MIS infrastructure, which identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1526) If you want to support the environment, you will focus on building a strong, sustainable

MIS infrastructure, which identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1527) Software is a computer designed to request information from a server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1528) Hardware is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1529) An enterprise architect is a person grounded in technology, fluent in business, and able to

provide the important bridge between MIS and the business. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1530) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure that

includes restoring the company information is called a failover. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1531) Failback occurs when the primary machine recovers and resumes operations, taking over

from the secondary server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1532) Fault tolerance is an exact copy of a system’s information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1533) The three primary areas of support provided by information infrastructure are backup and

recovery, disaster recovery plan, and the business continuity plan. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1534) Failover backs up an exact copy of a system’s information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1535) A backup is an exact copy of a system’s information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1536) Recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or

failure that includes restoring the information backup. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1537) Failover is a specific type of fault tolerance that occurs when a redundant storage server

offers an exact replica of the real-time data and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to the secondary server or backup server. This is a high-speed and high-cost method of backup and recovery. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1538) Failover occurs when the primary machine recovers and resumes operations, taking over

from the secondary server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1539) Failback is a specific type of fault tolerance that occurs when a redundant storage server

offers an exact replica of the real-time data, and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to the secondary server or backup server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1540) Disasters such as power outages, fires, floods, hurricanes, and even malicious activities

such as hackers and viruses strike companies every day. Disasters can disrupt communications, damage physical infrastructures, halt transportation, and block utilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1541) A hot site is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move

immediately after a disaster and resume business. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1542) A cold site is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place

where employees can move after a disaster. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1543) A warm site is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and

configuration. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1544) A warm site is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move

immediately after a disaster and resume business. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1545) A warm site is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a

place where employees can move after a disaster. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1546) A cold site is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and

configuration. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1547) An emergency is a sudden, unexpected event requiring immediate action due to potential

threat to health and safety, the environment, or property. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1548) Emergency preparedness ensures a company is ready to respond to an emergency in an

organized, timely, and effective manner. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1549) Business impact analysis details how a company recovers and restores critical business

operations and systems after a disaster or extended disruption. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1550) A business impact analysis identifies all critical business functions and the effect that a

specific disaster may have upon them. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1551) A business continuity planning identifies all critical business functions and the effect that

a specific disaster may have upon them. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1552) A business impact analysis occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired

because of a hardware, software, or data outage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1553) A cold site can destroy large amounts of vital data, often causing incidents and an

unplanned interruption of a service. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1554) An emergency contains all of the details of an incident. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1555) Incident management is the process responsible for managing how incidents are

identified and corrected. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1556) Technology recovery strategies focus specifically on prioritizing the order for restoring

hardware, software, and data across the organization that best meets business recovery requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1557) Accessibility refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or

perform when operating a system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1558) Top-level MIS employees require administrator access, or unrestricted access to the

entire system. Administrator access can perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and shutting down entire systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1559) High availability occurs when a system is continuously operational at all times. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1560) Availability refers to the time frames when the system is operational. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1561) A system is called unavailable when it is not operating and cannot be used. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1562) Portability refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or

software platforms, such as different operating systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1563) Scalability describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of

growth. If a company grows faster than anticipated, it might experience a variety of problems, from running out of storage space to taking more time to complete transactions. Anticipating expected, and unexpected, growth is key to building scalable systems that can support that development. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1564) Reliability means the system functions correctly and provides accurate information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1565) Usability is the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1566) Maintainability means the system quickly transforms to support environmental changes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1567) Performance measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1568) Capacity planning determines future environmental infrastructure requirements to ensure

high-quality system performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1569) Vulnerability is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1570) Serviceability is how quickly a third party or vendor can change a system to ensure it

meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability, or availability. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1571) Capacity represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the

capacity of a hard drive represents the size or volume. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1572) Web accessibility means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical,

speech, cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1573) The Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) brings together people from industry, disability

organizations, government, and research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1574) Availability refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or

perform when operating a system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1575) Unavailability occurs when a system is continuously operational at all times. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1576) Accessibility refers to the time frames when the system is operational. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1577) A system is called available when it is not operating and cannot be used. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1578) Scalability refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or

software platforms, such as different operating systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1579) Portability describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of

growth. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1580) Maintainability means the system functions correctly and provides accurate information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1581) Web accessibility is the degree to which a system is easy to learn and efficient and

satisfying to use. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1582) Serviceability means the system quickly transforms to support environmental changes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1583) Scalability measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1584) Maintainability determines future environmental infrastructure requirements to ensure

high-quality system performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1585) Reliability is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1586) Usability is how quickly a third party or vendor can change a system to ensure it meets

user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability or availability. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1587) Flexibility represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the

capacity of a hard drive represents the size or volume. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1588) Availability means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical,

speech, cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1589) Administrator access initiative brings together people from industry, disability

organizations, government, and research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1590) Gordon Moore, cofounder of Intel, observed in 1965 that continued advances in

technological innovation made it possible to reduce the size of a computer chip while doubling its capacity every two years. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1591) Tim Berners-Lee, cofounder of Intel, observed in 1965 that continued advances in

technological innovation made it possible to reduce the size of a computer chip while doubling its capacity every two years. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1592) Unsustainable, or green, MIS describes the production, management, use, and disposal of

technology in a way that maximizes damage to the environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1593) Sustainable, or green, MIS describes the production, management, use, and disposal of

technology in a way that minimizes damage to the environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1594) Ewaste is discarded electronics and is growing with the growth of innovation; for

example, a personal computer has a life expectancy of only three to five years and that of a cell phone is less than two years. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1595) Upcycle refers to discarded electronics and is growing with the growth of innovation; for

example, a personal computer has a life expectancy of only three to five years and that of a cell phone is less than two years. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1596) Large increases in technology use, by both consumers and businesses, have greatly

amplified energy consumption. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1597) Sustainable MIS disposal refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life

cycle. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1598) Unsustainable MIS disposal refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their

life cycle. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1599) Clean computing is a subset of sustainable MIS and refers to the environmentally

responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1600) A green personal computer (green PC) is built using environmentally friendly materials

and is designed to save energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1601) An upcycle reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1602) Corporate social responsibility is a subset of sustainable MIS and refers to the

environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1603) A black personal computer (black PC) is built using environmentally friendly materials

and is designed to save energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1604) Ewaste reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1605) Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1606) Energy consumption is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and

systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1607) Carbon emissions include the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere

produced by business processes and systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1608) Carbon emission is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1609) Energy consumption includes the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere

produced by business processes and systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1610) A sustainable MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of

computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1611) A smart grid delivers electricity using two-way digital technology and is meant to solve

the problem of outdated electrical grids. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1612) Grid computing is a collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are

coordinated to solve a common problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1613) Cloud computing delivers electricity using two-way digital technology and is meant to

solve the problem of outdated electrical grids. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1614) Virtualization is a collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are

coordinated to solve a common problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1615) Virtualization creates multiple virtual machines on a single computing device. A good

analogy is a computer printer. In the past, you had to purchase a fax machine, copy machine, answering machine, and computer printer separately. This was expensive, required enough energy to run four machines, and created additional amounts of ewaste. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1616) Storage virtualization combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a

single storage device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1617) Network virtualization combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into

independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1618) Server virtualization combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and

operating systems, from the applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1619) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) offers backup services that use cloud resources

to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1620) Network virtualization combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a

single storage device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1621) Server virtualization combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into

independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1622) Storage virtualization combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and

operating systems, from the applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1623) Virtualization offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and

data from disruption caused by disaster. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1624) A data center is a facility used to house management information systems and associated

components, such as telecommunications and storage systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1625) Cloud computing stores, manages, and processes data and applications over the Internet

rather than on a personal computer or server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1626) Dynamic scaling means the MIS infrastructure can be automatically scaled up or down

based on needed requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1627) Single-tenancy in the cloud means that a single instance of a system serves multiple

customers. In the cloud, each customer is called a tenant, and multiple tenants can access the same system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1628) Multi-tenancy occurs when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an

individual system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1629) Multi-tenancy in the cloud means that a single instance of a system serves multiple

customers. In the cloud, each customer is called a tenant, and multiple tenants can access the same system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1630) Single-tenancy occurs when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an

individual system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1631) Cloud computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as

gas or electricity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1632) Utility computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such

as gas or electricity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1633) A public cloud promotes massive, global, industry-wide applications offered to the

general public. In a public cloud, customers are never required to provision, manage, upgrade, or replace hardware or software. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1634) A private cloud serves only one customer or organization and can be located on or off the

customer’s premises. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1635) A community cloud serves a specific community with common business models, security

requirements, and compliance considerations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1636) A hybrid cloud includes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but each

cloud remains separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and application portability. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1637) A hybrid cloud serves a specific community with common business models, security

requirements, and compliance considerations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1638) Cloud bursting is when a company uses its own computing infrastructure for normal

usage and accesses the cloud when it needs to scale for high or peak load requirements, ensuring a sudden spike in usage does not result in poor performance or system crashes. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1639) What is an information MIS infrastructure? A) identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured B) includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals C) identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption D) includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets 1640) What is an agile MIS infrastructure? A) identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is

maintained and secured B) includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals C) identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption D) includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets

1641) What is a sustainable MIS infrastructure? A) identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is

maintained and secured B) includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals C) identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption D) includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets 1642) What is an MIS infrastructure? A) identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is

maintained and secured B) includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals C) infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption D) includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets 1643) Who is a person who is grounded in technology, fluent in business, and able to provide

the important bridge between MIS and the business? A) MIS Infrastructure manager B) MIS specialist C) enterprise architect D) enterprise manager 1644) Which of the following is a benefit of a solid MIS infrastructure? A) reduces costs B) improves productivity C) optimizes business operations D) All of the answers are correct.

1645) What is the difference between hardware and software? A) Hardware is the physical devices associated with a computer system, whereas

software is the instructions the hardware executes to carry out tasks. B) They are both specific forms of clients. C) Hardware executes the instructions to carry out tasks, whereas software is the physical devices associated with a computer system. D) All of the answers are correct. 1646) What consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server 1647) What is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server 1648) What is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and

establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate? A) network B) software C) client D) server 1649) What is a computer designed to request information from a server? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server 1650) What is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests? A) hardware B) software C) client D) server

1651) What is hardware? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests 1652) What is software? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests 1653) What is a network? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a

standard methodology in which they can communicate 1654) What is a client? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests 1655) What is a server? A) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system B) the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) a computer designed to request information from a server D) a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests 1656) John works for Internal Computer Specialists, which focuses on helping small business

owners resolve MIS infrastructure issues. John’s tasks include cleaning and replacing motherboards, cables, and internal components such as hard drives. What does John’s role at Internal Computer Specialists focus on fixing? A) hardware B) clients C) backup D) recovery

1657) Jessica started her own online company that specializes in selling items for bachelorette

parties, wedding parties, and baby showers. Due to the fact that she only operates online, her MIS infrastructure needs to be fast, efficient, and accurate to ensure the best possible experience for her customers. Which of the following is a critical component in Jessica’s MIS infrastructure? A) hardware and software B) clients C) server D) All of the answers are correct. 1658) What are the three business functions an MIS infrastructure supports? A) operations, change, and the environment/sustainability B) operations, customers, and ewaste C) information, clients, and viruses D) information, change, and business continuity planning 1659) Which of the following include the three components of an MIS infrastructure? A) information, aggregated, and sustainable MIS infrastructures B) information, operational, and changing MIS infrastructures C) information, agile, and sustainable MIS infrastructures D) varies depending on the industry 1660) Which characteristics support an agile MIS infrastructure? A) accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and

usability B) backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity planning C) grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization D) storage, network, and server virtualization 1661) Which characteristics support a sustainable MIS infrastructure? A) accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and

usability B) backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity planning C) grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization D) storage, network, and server virtualization

1662) Which characteristics support an information MIS infrastructure? A) accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and

usability B) backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity planning C) grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization D) storage, network, and server virtualization 1663) Grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization are all elements of a(n) ________

Blank MIS infrastructure. A) agile B) sustainable C) information D) virtualized 1664) Accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and

usability are all elements of a(n)________ MIS infrastructure. A) agile B) sustainable C) information D) virtualized 1665) Backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity planning are

all elements of a(n) ________ Blank MIS infrastructure. A) agile B) sustainable C) information D) virtualized 1666) A(n) ________ Blank MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in

terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. A) sustainable B) information C) virtualized D) agile

1667) What type of MIS infrastructure identifies where and how important information, such as

customer records, is maintained and secured? A) sustainable B) information C) virtualized D) agile 1668) What type of MIS infrastructure includes the hardware, software, and

telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation? A) information B) virtualized C) agile D) sustainable 1669) Francis works in the human resources division of a large oil and gas company in Texas.

Francis’s tasks include maintaining payroll and vacation records, employment histories, and benefit information along with ensuring the security of all sensitive employee information. Which MIS infrastructure is most important to Francis? A) information MIS infrastructure B) agile MIS infrastructure C) sustainable MIS infrastructure D) virtualized MIS infrastructure 1670) The information MIS infrastructure supports the day-to-day business operations and plans

for A) B) C) D)

security breaches and theft. floods and earthquakes. malicious Internet attacks. All of the answers are correct.

1671) Each year, businesses lose time and money because of system crashes and failures.

Which of the following offers the best way to protect a system from crashes and failures? A) backup and recovery plan B) fault tolerance C) failover D) All of the answers are correct.

1672) Which of the following describes the difference between a backup plan and a recovery

plan? A) Recovery is an exact copy of a system’s information, whereas backup is the ability to

get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure. B) Backup is mandatory, whereas recovery is optional. C) Backup is an exact copy of a system’s information, whereas recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure. D) Recovery is mandatory, whereas backup is optional. 1673) What occurs when a redundant storage server offers an exact replica of the real-time data

and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to a secondary server? A) failover B) disaster recovery cost curve C) reliability D) maintainability 1674) What occurs when a primary machine recovers and resumes operations, taking over from

a secondary server? A) failback B) disrupted communications C) warm site D) hot site 1675) What has the ability to recover information or systems in the event of catastrophic

disasters? A) recovery B) disaster recovery C) backup D) failback

1676) Shawn works at the local electrical company in Nampa, ID, which provides electricity to

the entire city of Boise. This area is prone to floods, high winds, and tornados. As the lead enterprise architect on the night shift, Shawn has been asked to suggest ways the company can protect its information MIS infrastructure. Shawn notices that the company does not have the ability for its systems to respond to unexpected failures or crashes and lacks a backup system that can automatically take over without a loss of service to Boise residents. What should Shawn recommend his company implement? A) accessibility B) Moore’s law C) antivirus software D) fault tolerance 1677) What creates a way for a company to recover and restore partially or completely

interrupted critical functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption? A) disaster recovery plan B) disaster recovery cost curve C) business continuity planning D) emergency notification system 1678) What is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure

that includes restoring the information backup? A) failure tolerance B) recovery C) reliability D) capacity planning 1679) What type of backup method does a thumb drive offer? A) low cost, high speed B) low cost, low speed C) high cost, high speed D) All of the answers are correct. 1680) What question below would a company need to answer when first establishing a backup

and recovery plan? A) What types of storage mechanism will meet the needs of the company? B) How often does the company need to backup its information? C) What types of recovery systems does the company infrastructure need? D) All of the answers are correct.

1681) Which of the following is an effect a company could experience because of a disaster

such as a fire, flood, or hurricane? A) disrupted communications B) damaged physical infrastructures C) halted transportation D) All of the answers are correct. 1682) To combat disasters, a company can create a ________ that details the process for

recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster. A) disaster recovery plan B) database lookup initiative C) management recovery plan D) tornado threat plan 1683) Among the sites that support disaster recovery, a ________ is a separate facility that does

not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster. A) hot site B) cold site C) warm site D) All of the answers are correct. 1684) Among the sites that support disaster recovery, a ________ is a separate and fully

equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business. A) hot site B) cold site C) warm site D) disaster site 1685) Among the sites that support disaster recovery, a ________ is a separate facility with

computer equipment that requires installation and configuration. A) hot site B) cold site C) warm site D) disaster site

1686) What is a hot site? A) a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after

a disaster and resume business B) a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster C) a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration D) a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster 1687) What is a cold site? A) a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after

a disaster and resume business B) a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster C) a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration D) a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster 1688) What is a warm site? A) a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after

a disaster and resume business B) a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster C) a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration D) a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster 1689) What is a disaster recovery plan? A) a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after

a disaster and resume business B) a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster C) a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration D) a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster

1690) What charts the cost to the company of the unavailability of information and technology

and the cost to the company of recovering from a disaster over time? A) disaster organizational cost analysis B) disaster recovery improvements C) disaster financial costs D) disaster recovery cost curve 1691) What is a more comprehensive and all-encompassing plan that details how a company

recovers and restores critical business operations and systems after a disaster or extended disruption? A) business continuity plan B) database management plan C) incident recovery plan D) emergency recovery plan 1692) What is an infrastructure built for notifying people in the event of an emergency? A) business operational plan B) business continuity plan C) emergency notification service D) emergency continuity plan 1693) What are the different options for how an emergency notification service can be

deployed? A) through the firm’s own infrastructure B) by an outside service provider on company premises C) by an outside service provider hosted remotely D) All of the answers are correct. 1694) Which of the following is an example of an emergency notification system? A) radio stations’ occasional tests of the national alert system B) wireless alerts for promotional discounts C) text messages from your local grocery store D) All of the answers are correct. 1695) What is a sudden, unexpected event requiring immediate action due to potential threat to

health and safety, the environment, or property? A) emergency B) preparedness C) impact analysis D) technology failure

1696) What ensures a company is ready to respond to an emergency in an organized, timely,

and effective manner? A) technology success B) emergency preparedness C) business impact analysis D) technology failure 1697) What identifies all critical business functions and the effect that a specific disaster may

have upon them? A) emergence B) emergency preparedness C) business impact analysis D) technology failure 1698) What occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware,

software, or data outage? A) technology success B) technology preparedness C) business impact analysis D) technology failure 1699) What contains all of the details of an incident? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy 1700) What occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware,

software, or data outage? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy 1701) What is the process responsible for managing how incidents are identified and corrected? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy

1702) What focuses specifically on prioritizing the order for restoring hardware, software, and

data across the organization that best meets business recovery requirements? A) technology failure B) incident record C) incident management D) technology recovery strategy 1703) Which term refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or

perform when operating a system? A) availability B) accessibility C) usability D) responsibility 1704) Enterprise architects require ________ access so they can perform such functions as

resetting passwords or deleting accounts. A) functional B) infrastructure C) restricted D) administrator 1705) Which term refers to the time frames when the system is operational? A) administrator access B) accessibility C) availability D) portability 1706) What is the difference between unavailable and high availability? A) High availability is when the system is not operating and can’t be used, whereas

unavailable is when a system is continuously operating at all times. B) Unavailable only refers to clients, whereas high availability refers to servers. C) Unavailable is when the system is not operating and can’t be used, whereas high availability is when a system is continuously operating at all times. D) High availability only refers to clients, whereas unavailable refers to servers.

1707) What is a widely held but difficult to achieve standard of availability for a system? A) “five 9s” availability B) “1%” minimum availability C) “five’s accessibility” code D) “five 10s” availability 1708) Which of the following agile MIS infrastructure characteristics refers to how quickly a

system can transform to support environmental changes? A) maintainability B) scalability C) capacity planning D) portability 1709) Which of the following agile MIS infrastructure characteristics refers to the ability of an

application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems? A) reliability B) portability C) maintainability D) usability 1710) What does reliability ensure? A) the system has the ability to operate in many different operating systems B) the system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use C) the system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information D) the time frames when the system is operational 1711) Which of the following describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the

increased demands or growth? A) flexibility B) scalability C) reliability D) affordability 1712) What measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction? A) portability B) capacity planning C) performance D) sustainability

1713) What determines future environmental infrastructure requirements that ensure high-

quality system performance? A) capacity system B) capacity planning C) capacity function D) performance indicators 1714) What is the primary reason a company has a failover system? A) to use different systems continuously at the same time B) to allow employees to work virtually C) to take down the primary system for maintenance while the secondary system

activates to ensure continuous operations D) All of the answers are correct. 1715) What is usability? A) the system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use B) the system functions correctly and provides accurate information C) the system allows varying levels of access D) the system quickly transforms to support environmental changes 1716) What refers to how well a system can adapt to increased demands? A) scalability B) capacity planning C) reliability D) availability 1717) What represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the capacity

of a hard drive represents the size or volume? A) capacity B) web accessibility C) web accessibility initiative D) vulnerability 1718) What means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical, speech,

cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web? A) capacity B) web accessibility C) web usability D) vulnerability

1719) What brings together people from industry, disability organizations, government, and

research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities? A) capacity B) web usability C) web accessibility initiative D) vulnerability 1720) What is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat? A) capacity B) web usability C) web accessibility initiative D) vulnerability 1721) Which of the following terms represents how quickly a third party or vendor can change

a system to ensure it meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability or availability? A) capacity B) web accessibility C) serviceability D) vulnerability 1722) What is administrator access? A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and

shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) time frames when the system is operational D) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes 1723) What is accessibility? A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and

shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) time frames when the system is operational D) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes

1724) What is availability? A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and

shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) time frames when the system is operational D) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes 1725) What is maintainability? A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and

shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes D) ability to ensure that a system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information 1726) What is reliability? A) ability to perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and

shutting down entire systems B) varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system C) how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes D) ability to ensure that a system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information 1727) What does it mean if a system is unavailable? A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms,

such as different operating systems C) how quickly a system performs a process or transaction D) the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use 1728) What does it mean if an application has portability? A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms,

such as different operating systems C) how quickly a system performs a process or transaction D) the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use

1729) What is performance? A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms,

such as different operating systems C) how quickly a system performs a process or transaction D) the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use 1730) What is usability? A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms,

such as different operating systems C) the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use D) how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth 1731) What is scalability? A) a system that is not operating and cannot be used B) the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms,

such as different operating systems C) the degree to which a system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use D) how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth 1732) Gordon Moore, the cofounder of Intel, established which MIS law? A) Intel’s law B) George’s law C) Moore’s law D) Lee’s law 1733) Which of the following reflects Moore’s law? A) the computer chip performance per dollar doubles every 18 months B) a company’s ability to acquire small amounts of MIS equipment for cheaper cost C) a company’s ability to acquire small amounts of capital for spending on innovative

ideas every two years D) the computer chip performance per dollar doubles every 6 months

1734) What describes the production, management, use, and disposal of technology in a way

that minimizes damage to the environment? A) environmental MIS B) holistic MIS C) green designation for technology D) sustainability or green MIS 1735) Sustainable MIS is a critical part of ________ Blank within a company. A) company standard for the Green Initiative B) corporate social responsibility C) social expectations D) societal concerns 1736) Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to A) shareholders. B) employees. C) society. D) governments. 1737) What is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society? A) corporate social responsibility B) employee social responsibility C) society social responsibility D) government social responsibility 1738) Miranda White likes taking old computer parts and remaking them into products such as

earrings and clocks. Which of the following represents what Miranda is doing? A) upcycle B) recycle C) ewaste D) sustainable MIS 1739) What is clean computing? A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use,

manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy C) reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product D) a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society

1740) What is a green personal computer? A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use,

manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy C) reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product D) a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society 1741) What is upcycle? A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use,

manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy C) reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product D) storing, managing, and processing data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server 1742) What is corporate social responsibility? A) a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use,

manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment B) a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society C) reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creates a new product D) storing, managing, and processing data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server 1743) What is cloud computing? A) built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy B) reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product C) a companies’ acknowledged responsibility to society D) storing, managing, and processing data and applications over the Internet rather than

on a personal computer or server 1744) What is a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use,

manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment? A) clean computing B) green personal computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility

1745) What is built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy? A) clean computing B) green personal computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility 1746) What reuses or refurbishes ewaste and creates a new product? A) clean computing B) green personal computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility 1747) What is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society? A) cloud computing B) clean computer C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility 1748) What stores, manages, and processes data and applications over the Internet rather than

on a personal computer or server? A) clean computing B) cloud computing C) upcycle D) corporate social responsibility 1749) The increased demand in technology devices has caused an increase in discarded devices,

a phenomenon known as A) ewaste. B) grid computing. C) ergonomic code. D) electronic sustainability. 1750) Which of the following is not contributing to ewaste? A) printer B) coal C) microwave D) computer

1751) What are the three pressures driving sustainable MIS infrastructures? A) decreases in electronic waste, energy waste, and carbon emissions B) increases in ewaste, energy waste, and dynamic scaling C) increases in electronic waste, energy waste, and carbon emissions D) decreases in ewaste, energy waste, and carbon footprints 1752) What is the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle called? A) sustainable MIS disposal B) sustainable device disposal C) sustainable software disposal D) sustainable enterprise disposal 1753) What are the ramifications of improper electronic recycling when analyzing the example

of a single desktop computer? A) one computer contains more than 700 chemicals that can be toxic to the environment B) computers in landfills can leak toxic chemicals into our land, water, and air C) computers contain high levels harmful toxins including mercury, lead. and cadmium D) All of the answers are correct. 1754) Increased energy consumption poses new and growing sustainable infrastructure

pressure. The energy consumed by a computer is estimated to produce as much as 10 percent of the amount of carbon dioxide produced by a A) house. B) school. C) car. D) cell phone. 1755) Cheap electricity is great for keeping business energy costs down, but this means that we

have to rely more on ________ for power. A) cars B) coal C) gasoline D) All of the answers are correct. 1756) What refers to discarded, obsolete, or broken electronic devices? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS

1757) What is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS 1758) What includes the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere, produced by

business processes and systems? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS 1759) What refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle? A) ewaste B) energy consumption C) carbon emissions D) sustainable MIS 1760) Which of the following sustainable infrastructure components is a collection of

computers, often geographically dispersed, that are coordinated to solve a common problem? A) cloud computing B) grid computing C) virtualized computing D) database computing 1761) With grid computing, a problem is broken into pieces and distributed to many machines,

allowing ________ processing than could occur with a single system. A) more moderate B) slower C) faster D) cleaner

1762) What is storage virtualization? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

device B) combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device C) combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications D) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster 1763) What is network virtualization? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

device B) combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device C) combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications D) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster 1764) What is server virtualization? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

device B) combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device C) combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications D) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster 1765) What is Disaster Recovery as a Service? A) combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

device B) combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device C) combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications D) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster

1766) What combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage

device? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) storage virtualization 1767) What combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels

that can be assigned in real time to a specific device? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) storage virtualization 1768) What combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating

systems, from the applications? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) storage virtualization 1769) What creates a virtual version of computing resources, such as an operating system,

server, storage device, or network resource? A) community cloud B) virtualized system C) grid computing D) Software as a Service 1770) A virtualized system creates a virtual version of computing resources, including A) network resource. B) server. C) storage device. D) All of the answers are correct. 1771) What offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data

from disruption caused by disaster? A) server virtualization B) network virtualization C) Disaster Recovery as a Service D) All of the answers are correct.

1772) Grid computing takes advantage of the available 75 percent of unused processing power

of a computer and links thousands of individual computers around the world, creating a ________ that can process intensive tasks. A) personal computer B) employee client C) company server D) virtual supercomputer 1773) Which of the following delivers electricity using two-way digital technology? A) smart grid B) systematic grid C) collective grid D) interactive grid 1774) DreamWorks Animation Company used which sustainable infrastructure component to

complete many of its films, including Shrek, Madagascar, and Antz? A) agile computing B) grid computing C) cloud computing D) server computing 1775) What is cloud computing services changing? A) the way people access information B) the way people deliver information C) the way people use information D) All of the answers are correct. 1776) What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or

electricity? A) grid computing B) smart phones C) utility computing D) computing services

1777) In what category would you put a cloud computing benefit that allows a customer to store

fewer applications on a client computer, freeing up the memory and allowing for increases in performance? A) Internet features B) increased costs C) increased performance D) increased software updates 1778) What is a challenge for cloud computing that could cause employee performance to

decrease? A) limited Internet features B) required Internet connectivity C) decreased dynamic scaling D) decreased job stability 1779) What service delivers hardware networking capabilities, including the use of servers,

networking, and storage, over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model? A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Platform as a Service (PaaS) 1780) What is dynamic scaling? A) the ability for the system to cut back on expenses when needed B) the infrastructure that is fixed and has no surprises C) MIS infrastructure that can be automatically scaled up or down based on needed

requirements D) the flexibility to charge more or less, depending on the market 1781) What are the three-cloud computing service delivery models? A) Independent as a Service, Supportive as a Service, and Partnering as a Service B) Infrastructure as a Service, Software as a Service, and Platform as a Service C) Innovation as a Service, Server as a Service, and Platform as a Service D) All of the answers are correct. 1782) Which cloud computing model offers applications on a pay-per-use basis? A) Infrastructure as a Service B) Platform as a Service C) Software as a Service D) Information as a Service

1783) What is a Platform as a Service (PaaS)? A) setup and storage systems, including servers, and a database management model B) innovation leads to new programs for business on an ongoing basis C) salesforce.com is an example of PaaS D) the deployment of entire systems including hardware, networking, and applications

using pay-per-use revenue model 1784) What enables computers to run multiple operating systems and multiple software

applications at the same time and creates multiple ‘virtual’ machines all on a single computing device? A) virtualization B) innovation C) availability D) viral computing 1785) What is a facility used to house management information systems and associated

components, such as telecommunications and storage systems? A) call center B) data center C) delivery base D) central center 1786) What does a single instance of a system serving multiple customers mean in the cloud? A) multi-tenancy B) single-tenancy C) noisy neighbor D) rapid elasticity 1787) What occurs when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an individual

system? A) multi-tenancy B) single-tenancy C) noisy neighbor D) rapid elasticity

1788) What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or

electricity? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud 1789) What promotes massive, global, industry-wide applications offered to the general public? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud 1790) What serves only one customer or organization and can be located on or off the

customer’s premises? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud 1791) What serves a specific community with common business models, security requirements,

and compliance considerations? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) public cloud 1792) What includes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but each cloud remains

separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and application portability? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) utility computing D) hybrid cloud

1793) What occurs when a company uses its own computing infrastructure for normal usage

and accesses the cloud when it needs to scale for high or peak load requirements, ensuring a sudden spike in usage does not result in poor performance or system crashes? A) community cloud B) private cloud C) cloud bursting D) hybrid cloud 1794) What offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data

from disruption caused by disaster? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS) 1795) What offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or

electricity? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) utility computing 1796) What facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and

affordable manner? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS) 1797) What delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)

1798) What offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive

amounts of data to solve business dilemmas? A) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) B) Data as a Service (DaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Big Data as a Service (BDaaS) 1799) What is Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)? A) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from

disruption caused by disaster B) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model C) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner D) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas 1800) What is Data as a Service (DaaS)? A) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from

disruption caused by disaster B) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model C) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner D) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas 1801) What is Software as a Service (SaaS)? A) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from

disruption caused by disaster B) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model C) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner D) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas

1802) What is Big Data as a Service (BDaaS)? A) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from

disruption caused by disaster B) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model C) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner D) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 1803) Explain MIS infrastructure and its three primary types.

1804) Identify the three primary areas associated with an information MIS infrastructure.

1805) Describe the characteristics of an agile MIS infrastructure.

1806) Identify the environmental impacts associated with MIS.

1807) Explain the three components of a sustainable MIS infrastructure along with their

business benefits.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) FALSE

A network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology for communication. 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) TRUE 28) FALSE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE

35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE

75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE

115) 116) 117) 118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126) 127) 128) 129)

TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE A Information MIS infrastructure identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. 130)

B An agile MIS infrastructure includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals. 131)

C A sustainable MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. 132)

D An MIS infrastructure includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes and MIS assets. 133)

C An enterprise architect is a person who is grounded in technology, fluent in business, and able to provide the important bridge between MIS and the business. 134)

D The MIS infrastructure includes the plans for how a firm will build, deploy, use, and share its data, processes, and MIS assets. A solid MIS infrastructure can reduce costs, improve productivity, optimize operations, generate growth, and increase profits. It protects systems from failures or crashes. 135)

A

These are the definitions of hardware and software. 136)

A Hardware consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system. 137)

B Software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. 138)

A Network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate. 139)

C A client is a computer designed to request information from a server. 140)

D A server is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. 141)

A Hardware consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system. 142)

B Software is the set of instructions the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. 143)

D Network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology in which they can communicate. 144)

C A client is a computer designed to request information from a server. 145)

D A server is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. 146)

A Hardware consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system. John’s company primarily works on the physical devices, which include motherboards, cables, and hard drives. 147)

D Jessica needs hardware, software, clients, and a server to support her online business.

148)

A The three primary areas of an MIS infrastructure are (1) supporting operations, (2) supporting change, and (3) supporting the environment. 149)

C The three primary types of MIS infrastructure are (1) information, (2) agile, and (3) sustainable. 150)

A The agile MIS infrastructure includes accessibility, availability, flexibility, performance, portability, reliability, scalability, and usability. 151)

C A sustainable MIS infrastructure includes grid computing, cloud computing, and virtualization. 152)

B The information MIS infrastructure supports backup and recovery planning, disaster recovery planning, and business continuity planning. 153)

B Grid computing, cloud computing, autonomic computing, and virtualization are all elements of the sustainable MIS infrastructure. 154)

A Accessibility, availability, maintainability, portability, reliability, scalability, and usability are all elements of an agile MIS infrastructure. 155)

C Backup and recovery plan, disaster recovery plan, and business continuity plan are all elements of an information MIS infrastructure. 156)

A A sustainable MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. 157)

B Information MIS infrastructure identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. 158)

C

Agile MIS infrastructure includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation. 159)

A The information MIS infrastructure identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured. 160)

D The information MIS infrastructure supports the day-to-day business operations and plans for emergencies such as power outages, floods, earthquakes, malicious attacks via the Internet, theft, and security breaches. 161)

D Each year, businesses lose time and money because of system crashes and failures. The way to minimize this damage from crashes or failures is with strong backup and recovery plans in place as well as fault tolerance and failover. 162)

C Backup is an exact copy of a system’s information, whereas recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure. 163)

A Failover occurs when a redundant storage server offers an exact replica of the real-time data and, if the primary server crashes, the users are automatically directed to a secondary server. 164)

A This is the definition of failback. 165)

B Within the area of support provided by information infrastructure, the disaster recovery area has the ability to recover information or systems in the event of a catastrophic disaster. 166)

D Fault tolerance is the ability for a system to respond to unexpected failures or system crashes as the backup system immediately and automatically takes over with no loss of service. 167)

C This is the definition of the business continuity planning area of the information infrastructure. 168)

B

Recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure that includes restoring the information backup. 169)

B DVDs, thumb drives, and external hard drives are low-speed and low-cost backup methods often used by students and business professionals. 170)

D All of the questions are critical to ask and answer when a company is trying to establish their backup and recovery plans. 171)

D Within the disaster recovery plan, there are four potential effects outlined in the book that can have damaging effects on a company’s business operations: (1) disrupted communications, (2) damaged physical infrastructures, (3) halted transportation, and (4) blocked utilities. 172)

A To combat disasters, a company can create a disaster recovery plan that details the process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster. 173)

B A cold site is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster. 174)

A A hot site is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business. 175)

C A warm site is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration. 176)

A A hot site is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after a disaster and resume business. 177)

B A cold site is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where employees can move after a disaster. 178)

C

A warm site is a separate facility with computer equipment that requires installation and configuration. 179)

D A disaster recovery plan is a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster. 180)

D The disaster recovery cost curve charts (1) the cost to the company of the unavailability of information and technology and (2) the cost to the company of recovering from a disaster over time. 181)

A This is the definition of business continuity planning. 182)

C This is the definition of an emergency notification service. 183)

D The three options for how an emergency notification service can be deployed are (1) through the firm’s own infrastructure, (2) supplied by an outside service provider on company premises, or (3) hosted remotely by an outside service provider. 184)

A Radio stations’ tests of the national alert system are an example of an emergency notification system. 185)

A An emergency is a sudden, unexpected event requiring immediate action due to potential threat to health and safety, the environment, or property. 186)

B Emergency preparedness ensures a company is ready to respond to an emergency in an organized, timely, and effective manner. 187)

C A business impact analysis identifies all critical business functions and the effect that a specific disaster may have upon them. 188)

D

A technology failure occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware, software, or data outage. 189)

B An incident record contains all of the details of an incident. 190)

A A technology failure occurs when the ability of a company to operate is impaired because of a hardware, software, or data outage. 191)

C Incident management is the process responsible for managing how incidents are identified and corrected. 192)

D Technology recovery strategies focus specifically on prioritizing the order for restoring hardware, software, and data across the organization that best meets business recovery requirements. 193)

B This is the definition of accessibility. 194)

D Administrator access or unrestricted access allows an enterprise architect to perform such functions as resetting passwords or deleting accounts. 195)

C Availability refers to the time frames when the system is operational. 196)

C These are the definitions for unavailable and high availability. 197)

A A widely held but difficult to achieve standard of availability for a system is known as “five 9s” (99.999 percent) availability. 198)

A This is the definition of maintainability or flexibility. 199)

B

Portability refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems. 200)

C This is the definition of reliability or accuracy, the system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information. 201)

B Scalability describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands or growth. 202)

C Performance measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction. 203)

B Capacity planning determines future environmental infrastructure requirements that ensure highquality system performance. 204)

C Companies often deploy failover systems to take down the primary system for maintenance while the secondary system activates to ensure continuous operation. 205)

A Usability occurs when the system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use. 206)

A Scalability refers to how well a system can adapt to increased demands. 207)

A Capacity represents the maximum throughput a system can deliver; for example, the capacity of a hard drive represents the size or volume. 208)

B Web accessibility means that people with disabilities, including visual, auditory, physical, speech, cognitive, and neurological disabilities, can use the web. 209)

C

The Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) brings together people from industry, disability organizations, government, and research labs from around the world to develop guidelines and resources to help make the web accessible to people with disabilities, including auditory, cognitive, neurological, physical, speech, and visual disabilities. 210)

D Vulnerability is a system weakness that can be exploited by a threat. 211)

C Serviceability is how quickly a third party or vendor can change a system to ensure it meets user needs and the terms of any contracts, including agreed levels of reliability, maintainability or availability. 212)

A Administrator access can perform functions such as resetting passwords, deleting accounts, and shutting down entire systems. 213)

B Accessibility refers to the varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system. 214)

C Availability refers to the time frames when the system is operational. 215)

C Maintainability (or flexibility) refers to how quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes. 216)

D Reliability (or accuracy) ensures that a system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information. 217)

A A system is called unavailable when it is not operating and cannot be used. 218)

B Portability refers to the ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems. 219)

C

Performance measures how quickly a system performs a process or transaction. 220)

C Usability is the degree to which a system is easy to learn, efficient, and satisfying to use. 221)

D Scalability describes how well a system can scale up or adapt to the increased demands of growth. 222)

C Gordon Moore, the cofounder of Intel, established that continued advances in technological innovation made it possible to reduce the size of a chip while doubling its capacity every two years. 223)

A Moore’s law states the computer chip performance per dollar doubles every 18 months. 224)

D Sustainability or green MIS describes the production, management, use, and disposal of technology in a way that minimizes damage to the environment. 225)

B Sustainable MIS is a critical part of corporate social responsibility. 226)

C This is part of the definition of corporate social responsibility. 227)

A Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society. 228)

A Upcycle refers to reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product. 229)

A Clean computing is a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment. 230)

B A green personal computer (green PC) is built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy.

231)

C Upcycle refers to reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product. 232)

B Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society. 233)

D Cloud computing stores, manages, and processes data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server. 234)

A Clean computing is a subset of sustainable MIS that refers to the environmentally responsible use, manufacture, and disposal of technology products and computer equipment. 235)

B A green personal computer (green PC) is built using environment friendly materials and designed to save energy. 236)

C Upcycle refers to reusing or refurbishing ewaste and creating a new product. 237)

D Corporate social responsibility is a company’s acknowledged responsibility to society. 238)

B Cloud computing stores, manages, and processes data and applications over the Internet rather than on a personal computer or server. 239)

A This is the definition of ewaste. 240)

B Ewaste includes CDs, DVDs, thumb drives, printers, printer cartridges, computers, cell phones, iPods, external hard drives, TVs, VCRs, DVD players, microwaves, and many more electronic devices. 241)

C Three pressures driving sustainable MIS infrastructures include increased electronic waste, increased energy waste, and increased carbon emissions. 242)

A

This is the definition of sustainable MIS disposal. 243)

D Just a single computer contains more than 700 chemicals that can be toxic to the environment, such as high levels of the mercury, lead and cadmium. If they end up in the landfill, the toxins can leach into our land, water, and air. 244)

C The energy consumed by a computer is estimated to produce as much as 10 percent of the amount of carbon dioxide produced by a car. 245)

B Cheap electricity is great for keeping business energy costs down, but this means that we have to rely more on coal for power. 246)

A Ewaste refers to discarded, obsolete, or broken electronic devices. 247)

B Energy consumption is the amount of energy consumed by business processes and systems. 248)

C Carbon emissions include the carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the atmosphere produced by business processes and systems. 249)

D Sustainable MIS refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle 250)

B Grid computing is a collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are coordinated to solve a common problem. 251)

C With grid computing, a problem is broken into pieces and distributed to many machines, allowing faster processing than could occur with a single system. 252)

A Storage virtualization combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage device. 253)

B

Network virtualization combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device. 254)

C Server virtualization combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications. 255)

D Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. 256)

D Storage virtualization combines multiple network storage devices so they appear to be a single storage device. 257)

B Network virtualization combines networks by splitting the available bandwidth into independent channels that can be assigned in real time to a specific device. 258)

A Server virtualization combines the physical resources, such as servers, processors, and operating systems, from the applications. 259)

B A virtualized system creates a virtual version of computing resources, such as an operating system, server, storage device, or network resource. 260)

D A virtualized system creates a virtual version of computing resources, such as an operating system, server, storage device, or network resource. 261)

C Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. 262)

D Grid computing takes advantage of the available 75 percent of unused processing power of a computer and links thousands of individual computers around the world to create a virtual “supercomputer” that can process intensive tasks. 263)

A

Smart grid delivers electricity using two-way digital technology. 264)

B DreamWorks Animation Company utilized grid computing to complete many of its films, including Shrek, Madagascar, Antz, and How to Train Your Dragon. 265)

D Cloud computing services are changing the way everyone can access, deliver, and use information. 266)

C Utility computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity. 267)

C This is the definition of increased performance. 268)

B An Internet connection is required for cloud computing. 269)

A This is the definition of Infrastructure as a Service. 270)

C This is the definition of dynamic scaling. 271)

B The three-cloud computing service delivery models are Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Software as a Service (SaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS). 272)

C Software as a service (SaaS) offers applications on a pay-per-use basis. 273)

D Platform as a Service (PaaS) the deployment of entire systems including hardware, networking, and applications using pay-per-use revenue model. 274)

A

Virtualization enables computers to run multiple operating systems and multiple software applications at the same time and creates multiple ‘virtual’ machines all on a single computing device. 275)

B Data center is a facility used to house management information systems and associated components, such as telecommunications and storage systems. 276)

A Multi-tenancy in the cloud means that a single instance of a system serves multiple customers. In the cloud, each customer is called a tenant, and multiple tenants can access the same system. 277)

B Single-tenancy is when each customer or tenant must purchase and maintain an individual system. 278)

C Utility computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity. 279)

D A public cloud promotes massive, global, industry-wide applications offered to the general public. In a public cloud, customers are never required to provision, manage, upgrade, or replace hardware or software. 280)

B A private cloud serves only one customer or organization and can be located on or off the customer’s premises. 281)

A A community cloud serves a specific community with common business models, security requirements, and compliance considerations. 282)

D A hybrid cloud includes two or more private, public, or community clouds, but each cloud remains separate and is only linked by technology that enables data and application portability. 283)

C

Cloud bursting is when a company uses its own computing infrastructure for normal usage and accesses the cloud when it needs to scale for high or peak load requirements, ensuring a sudden spike in usage does not result in poor performance or system crashes. 284)

A Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. 285)

D Utility computing offers a pay-per-use revenue model similar to a metered service such as gas or electricity. 286)

B Data as a Service (DaaS) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner. 287)

C Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model. 288)

D Big Data as a Service (BDaaS) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas. 289)

A Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) offers backup services that use cloud resources to protect applications and data from disruption caused by disaster. 290)

C Data as a Service (DaaS) facilitates the accessibility of business-critical data in a timely, secure, and affordable manner. 291)

B Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers applications over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model. 292)

D Big Data as a Service (BDaaS) offers a cloud-based big data service to help organizations analyze massive amounts of data to solve business dilemmas. 293)

Essay

The three primary areas where enterprise architects focus when maintaining a firm’s MIS infrastructure are: (1) Supporting operations: Information MIS infrastructure identifies where and how important information, such as customer records, is maintained and secured; (2) Supporting change: Agile MIS infrastructure includes the hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment that, when combined, provides the underlying foundation to support the organization’s goals; (3) Supporting the environment: Sustainable MIS infrastructure identifies ways that a company can grow in terms of computing resources while simultaneously becoming less dependent on hardware and energy consumption. 294)

Essay The three primary areas an information infrastructure provides to support continuous business operations are: (1) Backup and recovery: A backup is an exact copy of a system’s information. Recovery is the ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure and includes restoring the information backup; (2) Disaster recovery plan: This plan provides a detailed process for recovering information or a system in the event of a catastrophic disaster; (3) Business continuity plan: This details how a company recovers and restores critical business operations and systems after a disaster or extended disruption. 295)

Essay Accessibility: The varying levels that define what a user can access, view, or perform when operating a system Availability: The time frames when the system is operational Maintainability (or flexibility): How quickly a system can transform to support environmental changes Portability: The ability of an application to operate on different devices or software platforms, such as different operating systems Reliability (or accuracy): Ensures a system is functioning correctly and providing accurate information Scalability: How well a system can “scale up” or adapt to the increased demands of growth Usability: The degree to which a system is easy to learn and efficient and satisfying to use 296)

Essay Increased energy consumption, increased electronic waste, and increased carbon emissions are all associated with MIS. Ewaste refers to discarded, obsolete, or broken electronic devices. Sustainable MIS disposal refers to the safe disposal of MIS assets at the end of their life cycle. 297)

Essay

The components of a sustainable MIS infrastructure include: Grid computing: A collection of computers, often geographically dispersed, that are coordinated to solve a common problem Cloud computing: The use of resources and applications hosted remotely on the Internet. The term comes (at least in part) from the image of a cloud to represent the Internet or some large networked environment. Virtualized computing: The creation of multiple “virtual” machines on a single computing device

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1808) Data granularity refers to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse and abstract). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1809) Data timeliness refers to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse

and abstract). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1810) Organizational data has three primary areas including levels, formats, and granularities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1811) The four primary traits of the value of data include type, timeliness, quality, and

governance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1812) The four primary traits of the value of data include levels, formats, granularities, and

type. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1813) There are only two main primary traits that help you determine the value of data:

timeliness and quality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1814) If a manager identifies numerous data integrity issues, they should consider the reports

generated from that data as invalid and not use them when making decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1815) Real-time systems refer to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse

and abstract). ⊚ true ⊚ false 1816) Data granularity means immediate, up-to-date data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1817) Real-time systems provide real-time data in response to requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1818) Data integrity issues occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate

data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1819) Data governance refers to the overall management of the availability, usability, integrity,

and security of company data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1820) Transactional data is used when performing operational tasks and repetitive decisions

such as analyzing daily sales reports and production schedules to determine how much inventory to carry. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1821) Organizational data comes at the same level, formats, and granularities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1822) Reports for each salesperson, product, and part are examples of detail or fine data

granularities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1823) Master data management (MDM) is the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is

uniform, accurate, consistent, and complete, including such entities as customers, suppliers, products, sales, employees, and other critical entities that are commonly integrated across organizational systems. MDM is commonly included in data governance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1824) Accurate data asks if there is an incorrect value in the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1825) Complete data asks if there is a value missing from the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1826) Consistent data asks if the aggregate or summary data is in agreement with detailed data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1827) Timely data asks if the data is current with respect to the business needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1828) Unique data asks if each transaction and event are represented only once in the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1829) Complete data asks if there is an incorrect value in the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1830) Consistent data asks if there is a value missing from the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1831) Accurate data asks if the aggregate or summary data is in agreement with the detailed

data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1832) Unique data asks if the data is current with respect to the business needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1833) Timely data asks if each transaction and event is represented only once in the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1834) Determining if there are any duplicate customers in the data is an example of a unique

characteristic of high-quality data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1835) Determining if all total columns equal the true total of the individual item is an example

of a consistent characteristic of high-quality data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1836) A data steward is responsible for ensuring the policies and procedures are implemented

across the organization and acts as a liaison between the MIS department and the business. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1837) Data stewardship is the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets to help

provide business users with high-quality data that is easily accessible in a consistent manner. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1838) Data validation includes the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data

governance polices to ensure correctness of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1839) Determining if a name is spelled correctly is an example of an accurate characteristic of

high-quality data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1840) Determining if data is updated weekly, daily, or hourly is an example of an accurate

characteristic of high-quality data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1841) A foreign key is a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in a

table. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1842) The core component of any system, regardless of size, is a database and a database

management system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1843) A foreign key provides details about data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1844) A data element (or data field) is the smallest or basic unit of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1845) Data elements can include a customer’s name, address, email, discount rate, preferred

shipping method, product name, quantity ordered, and so on. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1846) Data models are logical data structures that detail the relationships among data elements

by using graphics or pictures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1847) Metadata provides details about data. For example, metadata for an image could include

its size, resolution, and date created. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1848) A data dictionary compiles all of the metadata about the data elements in the data model. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1849) Relational database models store data in the form of logically related two-dimensional

tables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1850) Relational database management systems allow users to create, read, update, and delete

data in a relational database. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1851) Attributes (also called columns or fields) are the data elements associated with an entity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1852) A record is a collection of related data elements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1853) A primary key is a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given record in a

table. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1854) A foreign key is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table

and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1855) Metadata are logical data structures that detail the relationships among data elements by

using graphics or pictures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1856) A DBMS provides details about data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1857) Entities are the data elements associated with an attribute. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1858) A field is a collection of related data elements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1859) A foreign key uniquely identifies a given record in a table. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1860) A primary key is a foreign key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table

and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1861) Databases offer many security features including passwords to provide authentication,

access levels to determine who can access the data, and access controls to determine what type of access they have to the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1862) Data redundancy is the duplication of data, or the storage of the same data in multiple

places. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1863) Relational databases offer many advantages over using a text document or a spreadsheet,

which include decreased flexibility and decreased scalability and performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1864) The physical view of data deals with the physical storage of data on a storage device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1865) The logical view of data focuses on how individual users logically access data to meet

their own particular business needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1866) The logical view of data deals with the physical storage of data on a storage device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1867) The physical view of data focuses on how individual users logically access data to meet

their own particular business needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1868) A business rule defines how a company performs certain aspects of its business and

typically results in either a yes/no or true/false answer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1869) Data redundancy is the duplication of data, or the storage of the same data in multiple

places. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1870) Data integrity is a measure of the quality of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1871) Integrity constraints are rules that help ensure the quality of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1872) Relational integrity constraints are rules that enforce basic and fundamental information-

based constraints. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1873) Data integrity are rules that help ensure the quality of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1874) Data latency is the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1875) Business-critical integrity constraints enforce business rules vital to an organization’s

success and often require more insight and knowledge than relational integrity constraints. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1876) One of the advantages found in a relational database is increased data redundancy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1877) Relational integrity constraints are rules that enforce basic and fundamental information-

based constraints. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1878) A comparative analysis can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1879) A dataset is an organized collection of data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1880) The banking industry uses business intelligence to understand customer credit card usage

and nonpayment rates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1881) Many organizations find themselves in the position of being data rich and information

poor. Even in today’s electronic world, managers struggle with the challenge of turning their business data into business intelligence. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1882) Many organizations find themselves in the position of being data poor and information

rich. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1883) Competitive monitoring can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1884) A data lake is a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original

format until the business needs it. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1885) Source data identifies the primary location where data is collected. It can include

invoices, spreadsheets, timesheets, transactions, and electronic sources such as other databases. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1886) A data point is an individual item on a graph or chart. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1887) Organizational data includes simple structured data elements in a database. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1888) A dataset is an individual item on a graph or chart. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1889) A data mart contains a subset of data warehouse data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1890) Data aggregation is the collection of data from various sources for the purpose of data

processing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1891) An example of a data aggregation is to gather data about particular groups based on

specific variables such as age, profession, or income. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1892) The complete removal of dirty data from a source is practical and possible. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1893) Dirty data is an MIS problem, not a business problem. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1894) Dirty data is erroneous or flawed data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1895) A repository is a central location in which data is stored and managed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1896) A data warehouse is a central location in which data is stored and managed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1897) A data warehouse is a logical collection of data, gathered from many different operational

databases, that supports business analysis activities and decision-making tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1898) Data warehouses struggle with combining too much standardized data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1899) The primary purpose of a data warehouse is to perform transactional processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1900) The primary purpose of a data warehouse is to perform analytical process. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1901) Within the data warehouse model, the internal databases could include marketing, sales,

inventory, and billing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1902) A data mart contains a subset of data warehouse data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1903) ETL, within a data warehouse model, stands for exit, track, and load. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1904) ETL, within a data warehouse model, stands for extraction, transformation, and loading. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1905) Within the data warehouse model, the external databases could include competitor data,

industry data, and stock market analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1906) Dirty data is erroneous or flawed data. The complete removal of dirty data from a source

is impractical or virtually impossible. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1907) Data cleansing or scrubbing is a process that weeds out and fixes or discards inconsistent,

incorrect, or incomplete data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1908) Duplicate data, inaccurate data, misleading data, and incorrect data are all problems

associated with dirty data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1909) Many firm’s complete data quality audits to determine the accuracy and completeness of

their data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1910) Infographics present the results of data analysis by displaying patterns and relationships

in a graphical format. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1911) Data Artists are experts at creating a story from the information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1912) Analysis paralysis occurs when there is not enough information to perform an analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1913) Data visualization describes technologies that allow users to see or visualize data to

transform information into a business perspective. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1914) Data visualization tools are primarily limited to Excel. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1915) Distributed computing processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a

computing environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1916) A ledger records classified and summarized transactional data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1917) A blockchain is a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data that maintain a

permanent and tamper-proof record of transactional data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1918) Proof-of-stake is a way to validate transactions based and achieve the distributed

consensus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1919) Proof-of-work is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called

mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1920) Proof-of-work is a way to validate transactions based and achieve the distributed

consensus. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1921) Proof-of-stake is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called

mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1922) Bitcoin is a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and

new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it operates independently of a central bank. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1923) A blockchain is formed by linking together blocks, data structures containing a hash,

previous hash, and data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1924) The genesis block is the first block created in the blockchain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1925) The hash is the first block created in the blockchain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1926) A hash is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an encrypted

output of a fixed length. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1927) A genesis block is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an

encrypted output of a fixed length. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1928) Hashes are the links in the blockchain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1929) Immutable simply means unchangeable. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1930) Immutable simply means changeable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

1931) Immutability is the ability for a blockchain ledger to remain a permanent, indelible, and

unalterable history of transactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1932) A non-fungible token (NFT) is a digital signature backed by blockchain technology that

proves ownership of something. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1933) Just like bitcoins, non-fungible tokens are unique and create scarcity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1934) It is possible to buy an NFT (non-fungible token) that represents physical objects but also

digital assets such as a tweet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 1935) Much of the current market for NFTs is centered around collectibles, such as digital

artwork, sports cards, and rarities. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1936) Employees need to compare different types of data for what they commonly reveal to make strategic decisions. Which of the following represents the three common types of data found throughout an organization? A) levels, facts, granularities B) levels, facts, data C) levels, formats, granularities D) data, formats, governance 1937) Which of the following represents the different organizational levels of data? A) detail, summary, aggregate B) document, presentation, spreadsheet, database C) individual, department, enterprise D) executives, managers, operational employees

1938) Which of the following represents the different data formats? A) detail, summary, aggregate B) document, presentation, spreadsheet, database C) individual, department, enterprise D) executives, managers, operational employees 1939) Which of the following represents the different data granularities? A) detail, summary, aggregate B) document, presentation, spreadsheet, database C) individual, department, enterprise D) executives, managers, operational employees 1940) Which of the following is not a primary trait of the value of data? A) governance B) type C) timeliness D) cost 1941) What encompasses all of the data contained within a single business process or unit of

work and its primary purpose is to support the performing of daily operational tasks? A) transactional data B) analytical data C) timeliness D) quality 1942) What encompasses all organizational data and its primary purpose is to support the

performing of managerial analysis tasks? A) transactional data B) analytical data C) timeliness D) quality 1943) What is immediate, up-to-date data? A) real-time data B) real-time systems C) data granularity D) data governance

1944) What provides real-time data in response to query requests? A) real-time data B) real-time systems C) data level D) data quality 1945) What is one of the biggest pitfalls associated with real-time data? A) it is only available to high-level executives due to the expense B) it is only available in aggregate levels C) it continually changes D) it rarely changes 1946) Which of the following is not one of the five characteristics common to high-quality

data? A) B) C) D)

accuracy completeness quantity consistency

1947) What is a real-time system? A) provides the same data elements with different values B) provides real-time data in response to query requests C) automates tasks for organizational systems D) provides all of the data contained within a single business process or unit of work 1948) Which of the following implies that aggregate or summary data is in agreement with

detailed data? A) uniqueness B) completeness C) consistency D) integrity 1949) Which of the following implies that data is current with respect to the business

requirement? A) uniqueness B) accuracy C) consistency D) timeliness

1950) What is it called when each transaction, entity, and event is represented only once in the

data? A) B) C) D)

uniqueness accuracy consistency timeliness

1951) Which of the following refers to the extent of detail within the data? A) knowledge data B) data granularity C) data intelligence D) data analytics 1952) Which of the following represent the four primary traits that help determine the value of

data? A) B) C) D)

type, timeliness, quality, governance statistics, tracking, quality, governance type, cost, governance, policy timeliness, quality, quantity, governance

1953) What are the two different categories of data type? A) analytical and productive B) analytical and analysis C) transactional and analytical D) transactional and productive 1954) Which of the following encompasses all of the data contained within a single business

process or unit of work, and its primary purpose is to support daily operational tasks? A) targeted data B) analytical data C) productive data D) transactional data 1955) Which of the following encompasses all organizational data, and its primary purpose is to

support the performing of managerial analysis tasks? A) analytical data B) transactional data C) statistical data D) targeted data

1956) Ben works at a top accounting firm in Salt Lake City, and his responsibilities include

writing letters, memos, and emails along with generating reports for financial analysis and marketing materials for products. Ben’s duties provide value-added to his company and would be categorized as occurring in different data A) lists. B) formats. C) granularities. D) focuses. 1957) Ben works at a top accounting firm in Salt Lake City, and his responsibilities include

developing individual and departmental goals and generating financial analysis across departments and the enterprise as a whole for the executive team to review. Ben’s duties provide value-added to his company and would be categorized as occurring in different data A) levels. B) formulas. C) granularities. D) focuses. 1958) Ben works at a top accounting firm in Salt Lake City, and his responsibilities include

developing reports for each salesperson, product, and part as well as departmental-wide sales reports by salesperson, product, and part. Ben’s duties provide value-added to his company and would be categorized as occurring in different data A) levels. B) formulas. C) granularities. D) focuses. 1959) Which of the following refers to immediate, up-to-date data? A) daily data B) strategic data C) real-time data D) crisis data 1960) Which of the following does not represent a company or group that requires up-to-the-

second data? A) 911 responders B) stock traders C) banks D) construction companies

1961) Which of the following provides real-time data in response to requests? A) sales system B) transactional system C) real-time system D) salary system 1962) Which of the following are examples of transactional data? A) airline tickets, sales receipts, packing slips B) trends, sales statistics C) product sales results, grocery receipts, growth projections D) airline tickets, sales growth spreadsheets 1963) Which of the following are examples of analytical data? A) airline tickets, sales receipts, packing slips B) hotel reservations, sales receipts, packing slips C) future growth analysis, sales projections, product statistics D) packing slips, grocery receipts, competitor data 1964) Most people request real-time data without understanding that continual ________ is one

of its biggest pitfalls. A) improvements B) change C) clustering D) cleansing 1965) Which of the following occurs when the same data element has different values? A) data modeling issue B) data gap analysis issue C) data governance issue D) data inconsistency issue 1966) Which of the following occurs when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or

duplicate data? A) data inconsistency issue B) data integrity issue C) data cost issue D) data gap analysis issue

1967) Which of the following includes all of the five characteristics common to high-quality

data? A) B) C) D)

accuracy, completeness, strength, support, positive feedback accuracy, association, referral, sales, marketing accuracy, competition, support, customer service, visibility accuracy, completeness, consistency, timeliness, uniqueness

1968) Which of the following would not be considered for the complete characteristic of high-

quality data? A) Is a value missing from the personal data? B) Is each transaction represented only once in the data? C) Is the address incomplete? D) Is the area code missing for the phone data? 1969) Which of the following would not be considered for the timely characteristic of high-

quality data? A) Is the zip code missing in the address? B) Is the data current with respect to business needs? C) Is the customer address current? D) Is the data updated weekly or hourly? 1970) Which of the following would not be considered for the accurate characteristic of high-

quality data? A) Is the name spelled correctly? B) Is the email address invalid? C) Do the name and phone values have the exact same data? D) Is aggregate data in agreement with detailed data? 1971) Which of the following would not be considered for the unique characteristic of high-

quality data? A) Are there any duplicate orders? B) Are there any duplicate customers? C) Is aggregate data in agreement with detailed data? D) Is each transaction and event represented only once in the data?

1972) Which of the following would not be considered for the consistent characteristic of high-

quality data? A) Do all sales columns equal the total for the revenue column? B) Is the two-digit state code missing in the data? C) Is all summary data in agreement with detailed data? D) Does the order number match the item and the color options available? 1973) Which of the following is a reason for low-quality data? A) online customers intentionally enter inaccurate data to protect the privacy B) different systems have different data entry standards and formats C) third-party and external data contains inaccuracies and errors D) All of the answers are correct. 1974) Some of the serious business consequences that occur due to using low-quality data to

make decisions are all of the following, except A) inability to accurately track customers. B) inability to identify selling opportunities. C) the success of the organization. D) lost revenue opportunities from marketing to nonexistent customers. 1975) What is the overall management of the availability, usability, integrity, and security of

company data? A) data intelligence B) data governance C) data lake D) data map 1976) What occurs when the same data element has different values? A) data inconsistency B) data integrity issues C) data governance D) master data management 1977) What occurs when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data? A) data inconsistency B) data integrity issues C) data governance D) master data management

1978) What is the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent,

and complete, including such entities as customers, suppliers, products, sales, employees, and other critical entities that are commonly integrated across organizational systems? A) data inconsistency B) data integrity issues C) data governance D) master data management 1979) What is data inconsistency? A) occurs when the same data element has different values B) occurs when a system produces correct and consistent data C) refers to the overall management of the availability and usability of company data D) the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, and consistent 1980) What are data integrity issues? A) occur when the same data element has identical values B) occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data C) refer to the overall management of the availability and usability of company data D) the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, and consistent 1981) What role does a data steward fulfill? A) acts as a liaison between the finance and accounting departments B) ensures policies and procedures are never implemented across the organization C) acts as a liaison between the MIS department and the business and ensures policies

and procedures are implemented across the organization D) ensures data is clean and consistent 1982) What is the term for the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets to

help provide business users with high-quality data that is easily accessible in a consistent manner? A) data steward B) data stewardship C) data master management D) data governance

1983) What is the term for the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data

governance policies to ensure correctness of data? A) data steward B) data stewardship C) data validation D) data master management 1984) What is data stewardship? A) the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved B) the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets C) the person responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented across

the organization D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps 1985) What is a data steward? A) the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved B) the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets C) the person responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented across

the organization D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps 1986) What is data validation? A) the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved B) the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets C) the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data governance policies

to ensure correctness of data D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps 1987) What maintains data about various types of objects, events, people, and places? A) database B) data model C) data mart D) data point

1988) What does a database maintain data on? A) inventory B) transactions C) employees D) All of the answers are correct. 1989) In the relational database model, what is a person, place, thing, transaction, or event

about which data is stored? A) entity B) relationships C) attribute D) foreign key 1990) Why do relational databases use primary keys and foreign keys? A) create an entity B) create physical relationships C) create logical relationships D) create an attribute 1991) What is a primary key? A) a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to

provide a logical relationship among the two tables C) a characteristic or property of an entity D) a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given attribute in a table 1992) What is a foreign key? A) a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to

provide a logical relationship among the two tables C) a characteristic or property of an entity D) a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given attribute in a table 1993) Which of the following creates, reads, updates, and deletes data in a database while

controlling access and security? A) database element B) database management system C) data governance D) data master management

1994) Which of the following asks users to write lines of code to answer questions against a

database? A) structured query language B) relational query language C) structured elements D) data cube 1995) What is the primary tool that retrieves data and helps users graphically design the answer

to a question? A) data visualization tool B) structured tool C) query-by-example tool D) relational fact tool 1996) What is the smallest or basic unit of data? A) database B) data element C) data model D) data integrity issue 1997) What is a logical data structure that details the relationship among data elements using

graphics or pictures? A) data model B) data element C) data cube D) data mart 1998) What compiles all of the metadata about the data elements in the data model? A) data entity B) data element C) data attribute D) data dictionary 1999) Which of the following allows users to create, read, update, and delete data in a relational

database? A) infographic system B) bitcoin system C) relational database management system D) blockchain

2000) Which of the following illustrates the primary concepts of the relational database model? A) ethics, applications, keys, relationships B) entities, attributes, keys, relationships C) endeavor, aspire, control, regulate D) early, after, before, future 2001) Which of the following stores data about a person, place, thing, transaction, or event and

is usually referred to as a table? A) entity B) extraction C) attribute D) foreign key 2002) What type of keys do you need to use to create a relational database model? A) primary keys, secondary keys B) primary keys, foreign keys C) entity keys, attribute keys D) relational keys, structured keys 2003) What is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table? A) foreign key B) primary key C) secondary key D) block key 2004) What is the role of a foreign key? A) it is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to

provide a logical relationship between the two tables B) it is a unique way to identify each record C) it is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table D) it supports a secondary key 2005) Your textbook discussed a record store example in which one user could perform a query

to determine which recordings had a track length of four minutes or more and another user could perform an analysis to determine the distribution of recordings as they relate to the different categories. This is an advantage of which database advantage? A) decreased scalability and performance B) decreased data security C) increased data redundancy D) increased flexibility

2006) Which of the following is not an advantage of database-stored data? A) increased flexibility B) increased performance C) increased data redundancy D) increased data integrity 2007) What is the logical view of data? A) deals with the physical storage of data on a storage device such as a hard disk B) deals with the logical storage of data on a storage device such as a hard disk C) focuses on how users logically access data to meet their particular business needs D) focuses on how users physically access data to meet their particular business needs 2008) Which of the following is correct in reference to a database? A) a database can support only one logical view B) a database can support many physical views C) a database can support many logical views D) a database can support up to three logical views 2009) Which of the below is not an advantage of using a relational database? A) increased data quality B) increased flexibility C) decreased data redundancy D) decreased data security 2010) What is the term for the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved? A) data governance B) data latency C) data validation D) data gap analysis 2011) What is data latency? A) the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved B) the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets C) the person responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented across

the organization D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps

2012) What is data redundancy? A) duplication of data B) storing the same data in multiple places C) storing duplicate data in multiple places D) All of the answers are correct. 2013) What is the primary problem with redundant data? A) it is difficult to determine which values are the most current. B) it is often inconsistent. C) it is difficult to determine which values are the most accurate. D) All of the answers are correct. 2014) Which of the following is true in regard to the elimination of redundant data? A) uses additional hard disk space B) makes performing data updates harder C) improves data quality D) All of the answers are correct. 2015) What are the rules that help ensure the quality of data? A) data integrity B) integrity constraints C) relational integrity constraints D) business-critical integrity constraints 2016) What are rules that enforce basic and fundamental information-based constraints? A) data integrity B) integrity constraint C) business-critical integrity constraint D) relational integrity constraint 2017) What type of integrity constraint does not allow someone to create an order for a

nonexistent customer? A) relational integrity constraint B) business-critical integrity constraint C) data-critical integrity constraint D) mission-critical integrity constraint

2018) Which of the following is a business-critical integrity constraint? A) system will not allow an entry for an order for a nonexistent customer B) system will not allow returns of fresh produce after 15 days past delivery C) system will not allow shipping a product to a customer who does not have a valid

address D) systems will not allow shipping of a nonexistent product to a customer 2019) What is identity management? A) enforces business rules vital to an organization’s success B) the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent, and

complete C) a broad administrative area that deals with identifying individuals in a system and controlling their access to resources within that system D) when a company examines its data to determine if it can meet business expectations, while identifying possible data gaps 2020) What is the term for a broad administrative area that deals with identifying individuals in

a system and controlling their access to resources within that system by associating user rights and restrictions with the established identity? A) identity management B) master data management C) data validation D) data latency 2021) Which of the following focuses on how individual users logically access data to meet

their own particular business needs? A) physical view B) logical view C) foreign key view D) business view 2022) The book cited www.EllisIsland.org, which generates more than 2.5 billion hits, as a

website that offers a database that can easily adjust to handle massive volumes of data. What is this an example of? A) increased scalability and performance B) increased data security C) reduced data redundancy D) increased flexibility

2023) One of the primary goals of a database is to eliminate data redundancy by recording each

piece of data in only one place in the database. What does the elimination of data redundancy do for a database? A) reduces disk space requirements B) makes updating data easier C) improves data quality D) All of the answers are correct. 2024) What are rules that help ensure the quality of data? A) data integrity B) integrity constraints C) data quality D) data ethics 2025) What are the rules that enforce basic and fundamental information-based constraints? A) responsibly integrity constraints B) quality constraints C) web integrity constraints D) relational integrity constraints 2026) What is an organized collection of data? A) dataset B) dirty data C) data cube D) data point 2027) What is an individual item on a graph or a chart? A) dataset B) dirty data C) data cube D) data point 2028) What is a central location in which data is stored and managed? A) repository B) data warehouse C) data lake D) data element

2029) What is a collection of data from various sources for the purpose of data processing? A) repository B) data warehouse C) data aggregation D) data cube 2030) What can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends? A) comparative analysis B) competitive monitoring C) data-driven decision management D) competitive analysis 2031) What can help managers keep tabs of competitor’s activities on the web using software

that automatically tracks all competitor website activities such as discounts and new products? A) comparative analysis B) competitive monitoring C) data governance D) source data 2032) Which of the following represents the data analysis cycle? A) compare, contrast, cost, concept B) collect, analyze, communicate, visualize C) fact, data, information, intelligence D) raw, cooked, source, set 2033) Which of the following is included in the data analysis cycle? A) collect B) analyze C) communicate D) All of the answers are correct. 2034) Which of the following identifies the primary location where data is collected? A) comparative analysis B) competitive monitoring C) data governance D) source data

2035) What includes invoices, spreadsheets, time sheets, and transactions? A) data aggregation B) competitive monitoring C) data compliance D) source data 2036) What is data that has not been processed for use? A) raw data B) competitive monitoring C) data cube D) source data 2037) What is another name for raw data that has undergone processing? A) data lake B) cooked data C) data cube D) source data 2038) What is a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format

until the business needs it? A) data latency B) data lake C) data governance D) data point 2039) What is a data lake? A) a business that can answer questions using the why approach B) a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until

the business needs it C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data

2040) What is a data map? A) a business that can answer questions using the why approach B) a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until

the business needs it C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data 2041) What is data-driven decision management? A) a business that can answer questions using the why approach B) a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until

the business needs it C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data 2042) What is source data? A) identifies the primary location where data is collected B) a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until

the business needs it C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data 2043) What is a data point? A) identifies the primary location where data is collected B) an individual item on a graph or chart C) a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the

target data warehouse D) an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data

2044) Which of the following questions is an example of how managers can use business

intelligence (BI) to answer tough business questions? A) where has the business been? B) where is the business now? C) where is the business going? D) All of the answers are correct. 2045) Businesses collect a tremendous amount of ________ data as part of their routine

operations. A) operational B) transactional C) aggregate D) comparative 2046) Kassandra Young is a business manager at Weith Productions. Although she does not

have a background in technology, her job requires her to work with analytical tools to make data-driven decisions. To make her job easier, what can she customize to display data quickly and run custom reports? A) data point B) data cleansing C) dashboard D) dataset 2047) What is it called when a manager has so much data that they cannot make a decision? A) data rich, information poor B) data rich, content poor C) data rich, communication poor D) data rich, intelligence 2048) A data warehouse is a ________ collection of data, gathered from many different

________ databases, that supports business analysis activities and decision-making tasks. A) logical; operational B) physical; operational C) logical; transactional D) physical; transactional

2049) Which of the following is incorrect in terms of data warehousing and business

intelligence? A) they do not include data from other operational systems B) operational systems are always integrated C) operational data is mainly current D) operational data frequently has quality issues 2050) What do data warehouses support? A) OLAP and transactional processing B) analytical processing and transactional processing C) online transactional systems D) OLAP and analytical processing 2051) What is the primary purpose of a data warehouse? A) combines strategic data B) organizes departments C) integrates computers and employees D) combines departments 2052) The status of a lightbulb can be referred to in many ways (on, off, O/F, 1/0) in a data

warehouse. What is the name for ensuring status is referenced in the same way throughout the warehouse? A) data scaling B) streamlining data points C) standardizing data D) standardizing protocols 2053) Why were data warehouses created? A) The numbers and types of operational databases increased as businesses grew. B) Many companies had data scattered across multiple systems with different formats. C) Completing reporting requests from numerous operational systems took days or

weeks to fulfill. D) All of the answers are correct.

2054) What is extraction, transformation, and loading? A) It is a process of entering data, tracking data, and loading it into a database. B) It is a process that extracts data from internal and external databases, transforms it

using a common set of enterprise definitions, and loads it into a data warehouse. C) It is a process that is performed at the end of the data warehouse model prior to putting the data in a cube. D) It is a process that is performed at the beginning of all business processes. 2055) Which of the following are examples of external databases in the data warehouse model? A) marketing, sales, inventory, and billing B) accounting data mart C) competitor and industry data, mailing lists, and stock market analyses D) marketing data, sales data, and stock market analyses 2056) Which of the following is an example of data found in an external database in the data

warehouse model? A) marketing data B) sales data C) competitor data D) All of the answers are correct. 2057) Which of the following describes ETL? A) a process that extracts data from internal and external databases B) a process that transforms data using a common set of enterprise definitions C) a process that loads data into a data warehouse D) All of the answers are correct. 2058) Which of the following statements is true regarding customer data? A) Customer data can exist in several operational systems. B) Customer data in each operational system can change. C) Customer data in each operational system can be different. D) All of the answers are correct. 2059) Which of the following occurs during data cleansing? A) cleaning missing records B) cleaning redundant records C) cleaning inaccurate data D) All of the answers are correct.

2060) Which of the following occurs during data cleansing? A) cleaning data marts B) cleaning redundant customer data C) cleaning accurate data D) cleaning correct data 2061) Within the beginning stage of the data warehouse models process, which of the following

are included in the internal databases? A) marketing, sales, inventory, and accounting B) All of the answers are correct. C) competitor and industry data, mailing lists, and stock market analyses D) marketing data and stock market analysis numbers 2062) What is the ultimate outcome of a data warehouse? A) data keys B) data relationships C) data point D) data marts 2063) Which of the following contains a subset of data warehouse data? A) data point B) data mart C) data pool D) data lake 2064) What are the primary differences between a data warehouse and a data mart? A) data warehouses make quick decisions; data marts make slow decisions B) data warehouses tackle ethical issues; data marts tackle hypothetical issues C) data warehouses have a more organization-wide focus; data marts have a functional

focus D) data warehouses have a physical focus; data marts have a logical focus 2065) Which of the following is the common term for the representation of multidimensional

data? A) B) C) D)

block square column cube

2066) What is a data cube? A) multidimensional data B) storage repository C) column in a spreadsheet D) dirty data 2067) What is another term for data cleansing? A) data point B) data scrubbing C) data scrapping D) data aggregation 2068) What determines the accuracy and completeness of organizational data? A) data quantity audit B) data quality audit C) data intelligence audit D) data cost audit 2069) Which of the following is not a data cleansing activity? A) identifying redundant records B) identifying inaccurate or incomplete data C) identifying missing records or attributes D) identifying sales trends 2070) What is erroneous or flawed data? A) dirty data B) data cleansing C) data scrubbing D) data lake 2071) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) duplicate data B) incorrect data C) violates business rules D) All of the answers are correct.

2072) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) duplicate data B) correct data C) accurate data D) All of the answers are correct. 2073) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) inaccurate data B) misleading data C) nonformatted data D) All of the answers are correct. 2074) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) inaccurate data B) nonintegrated data C) violates business rules D) All of the answers are correct. 2075) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) accurate data B) integrated data C) violates business rules D) All of the answers are correct. 2076) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) nonformatted data B) misleading data C) incorrect data D) All of the answers are correct. 2077) Which of the following is a problem associated with dirty data? A) formatted data B) misleading data C) correct data D) All of the answers are correct.

2078) Business analysis is difficult to achieve from operational databases. Which of the

following is a reason why? A) inconsistent data definitions B) lack of data standards C) All of the answers are correct. D) poor data quality 2079) Which of the following is not a dirty data problem? A) duplicate data B) inaccurate data C) specific data D) nonintegrated data 2080) Which of the following is true of data artists? A) are experts at creating a story from any information B) have philosophical and political reasons for breaking into systems C) work at the request of system owners to find system vulnerabilities D) reward individuals for discovering and reporting software bugs 2081) What are the benefits of data artists? A) They help people understand complex data. B) They create music and sculpture from combinations of data. C) They are responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented properly. D) They record classified transactional data. 2082) What processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing

environment? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable 2083) What records classified and summarized transactional data? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable

2084) What is a type of distributed ledger consisting of blocks of data that maintains a

permanent and tamper-proof record of transactional data? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable 2085) What simply means unchangeable? A) distributed computing B) ledger C) blockchain D) immutable 2086) What is distributed computing? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing

environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable 2087) What are the three primary components in a blockchain? A) hash B) data C) previous hash D) All of the answers are correct. 2088) What are the three advantages of using blockchain technology? A) immutability B) digital trust C) Internet of Things integration D) All of the answers are correct. 2089) What is a ledger? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing

environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable

2090) What is a blockchain? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing

environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable 2091) What is immutable? A) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing

environment B) records classified and summarized transactional data C) a type of distributed ledger, consisting of blocks of data D) simply means unchangeable 2092) What is proof-of-work? A) a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that

needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain B) a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus C) a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it operates independently of a central bank D) All of the answers are correct. 2093) What is proof-of-stake? A) a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that

needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain B) a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus C) a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it which operates independently of a central bank D) All of the answers are correct.

2094) What is Bitcoin? A) a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that

needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain B) a way to validate transactions and achieve the distributed consensus C) a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it which operates independently of a central bank D) All of the answers are correct. 2095) What is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining,

that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain? A) distributed computing B) proof-of-work C) blockchain D) proof-of-stake 2096) What is a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus? A) distributed computing B) proof-of-work C) blockchain D) proof-of-stake 2097) What a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained, new units

of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems, and it operates independently of a central bank? A) distributed computing B) proof-of-work C) blockchain D) bitcoin 2098) What is the first block created in the blockchain? A) genesis block B) hash C) block D) proof-of-stake

2099) What is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an encrypted output

of a fixed length? A) genesis block B) hash C) block D) proof-of-stake 2100) What is the ability for a blockchain ledger to remain a permanent, indelible, and

unalterable history of transactions? A) genesis block B) hash C) immutability D) proof-of-stake 2101) What are links in a blockchain? A) genesis blocks B) hashes C) proofs-of-work D) bitcoins 2102) In a block in a blockchain, what represents the transactional data, sender, receiver, and

number of coins? A) data B) hash C) previous hash D) proof-of-stake 2103) In a block in a blockchain, what represents a block’s unique identifier like a fingerprint? A) data B) hash C) previous hash D) proof-of-stake 2104) In a block in a blockchain, what represents the hash of the previous block? A) data B) hash C) previous hash D) proof-of-stake

2105) Identify the correct statement about Ethereum. A) a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus B) the first block created in a blockchain C) the most actively used blockchain D) a block’s unique identifier such as a fingerprint 2106) Which of the following is a feature of a non-fungible token (NFT)? A) unique and irreplaceable B) cannot combine one NFT with another to “breed” a third, unique NFT C) does not contain ownership details D) All of the answers are correct. 2107) What is currently the most common use for NFTs (non-fungible tokens)? A) food and services B) expensive electronic devises C) sharing money amongst peers D) collectibles such as digital artwork 2108) Which of the following allows someone to own a tweet or digital image? A) non-fungible token B) Bitcoin token C) digital artist D) data steward

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 2109) Explain the four primary traits that determine the value of data.

2110) Describe a database, a database management system, and the relational database model.

2111) Identify the business advantages of a relational database.

2112) Explain blockchain and its advantages over a centralized relational database.

2113) Define a data warehouse and provide a few reasons it can make a manager more

effective.

2114) Explain ETL and the role of a data mart in business.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) TRUE

Data granularity refers to the extent of detail within the data (fine and detailed or coarse and abstract). 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE

35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE

Record is a collection of related data elements. 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE

A record is a collection of related data elements. 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE

72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE

Present the results of data analysis, displaying the patterns, relationships, and trends in a graphical format. 104)

TRUE Data artist: A business analytics specialist who uses visual tools to help people understand complex data. Data artists are experts at creating a story from the information. 105)

FALSE

Analysis paralysis: Occurs when the user goes into an emotional state of overanalyzing (or overthinking) a situation so that a decision or action is never taken, in effect paralyzing the outcome. 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117) 118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126) 127) 128) 129)

TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE C Levels, formats, and granularities are the different types of data. 130)

C The different organizational levels of data include individual, department, and enterprise. 131)

B The different data formats include document, presentation, spreadsheet, and database. 132)

A The different data granularities include detail, summary, and aggregate. 133)

D

Cost is a primary characteristic of the value of data, not quantity. 134)

A Transactional data encompasses all of the data contained within a single business process or unit of work, and its primary purpose is to support the performing of daily operational tasks. 135)

B Analytical data encompasses all organizational data, and its primary purpose is to support the performing of managerial analysis tasks. 136)

A Real-time data is immediate, up-to-date data. 137)

B Real-time systems provide real-time data in response to query requests. 138)

C Data continually changes, and this can cause issues with real-time data. 139)

C Accuracy, completeness, consistency, uniqueness, and timeliness are the characteristics of highquality data. 140)

B Real-time systems provide real-time data in response to query requests. 141)

C Consistency implies that aggregate or summary data is in agreement with detailed data. 142)

D Timeliness implies that data is current with respect to the business requirement. 143)

A Uniqueness is when each transaction, entity, and event is represented only once in the data. 144)

B Data granularity refers to the extent of detail within the data. 145)

A

The four primary traits that help determine the value of data are data type, data timeliness, data quality, and data governance. 146)

C Within the data type, there are two different categories: transactional and analytical. 147)

D This is the definition of transactional data. 148)

A This is the definition of analytical data. 149)

B Ben’s responsibilities include writing letters, memos, faxes, emails, reports, financial spreadsheets, and generating marketing materials, which are all examples of data formats. 150)

A Ben’s responsibilities include developing individual and departmental goals and generating financial analysis across departments and the enterprise as a whole, which are all at different data levels. 151)

C Ben’s responsibilities include developing reports for each salesperson, product, and part as well as departmental-wide sales reports by salesperson, product, and part, which all involve different data granularities. 152)

C This is the definition of real-time data. 153)

D 911 responders, stock traders, and banks are organizations or groups that require up-to-thesecond data to operate successfully. A construction company can perform successfully with daily data. 154)

C This is the definition of real-time systems. 155)

A In the transactional versus analytical data figure, airline ticket, sales receipts, and packing slips are all examples of transactional data.

156)

C In the transactional versus analytical data figure, trends, future growth, sales projections, and product statistics are all examples of analytical data. 157)

B Most people request real-time data without understanding one of the biggest pitfalls associated with real-time data is continual change. 158)

D Data inconsistency occurs when the same data element has different values. 159)

B Data integrity issues occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data. 160)

D Accuracy, completeness, consistency, timeliness, and uniqueness are the five characteristics common to high-quality data. 161)

B All of the following should be considered for the complete characteristic of high-quality data: (1) Is a value missing from the personal data? (2) Is the address incomplete? and (3) Is the area code missing for the phone data? 162)

A All of the following should be considered for the timely characteristic of high-quality data: (1) Is the data current with respect to business needs? (2) Is the customer address current? (3) Is the data updated weekly or hourly? 163)

D All of the following would be considered for the accurate characteristic of high-quality data: (1) Is the name spelled correctly? (2) Is the email address invalid? (3) Do the name and the phone values have the exact same data? 164)

C All of the following would be considered for the unique characteristic of high-quality data: (1) Is each transaction and event represented only once in the data?; (2) Are there any duplicate orders?; and (3) Are there any duplicate customers? 165)

B

All of the following would be considered for the consistent characteristic of high-quality data: (1) Do all sales columns equal the total of the revenue column?; (2) Is all summary data in agreement with detailed data?; and (3) Does the order number match the item and the color options available? 166)

D All of these options are primary reasons for low-quality data. 167)

C The success of the organization depends on appreciating and leveraging timely and high-quality data. 168)

B This is the definition of data governance. 169)

A Data inconsistency occurs when the same data element has different values. Consider, for example, the amount of work that needs to occur to update data on a customer who had changed her last name due to marriage. 170)

B Data integrity issues occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data. 171)

D Master data management (MDM) is the practice of gathering data and ensuring that it is uniform, accurate, consistent, and complete, including such entities as customers, suppliers, products, sales, employees, and other critical entities that are commonly integrated across organizational systems. 172)

A Data inconsistency occurs when the same data element has different values. Consider, for example, the amount of work that needs to occur to update data on a customer who had changed her last name due to marriage. 173)

B Data integrity issues occur when a system produces incorrect, inconsistent, or duplicate data. 174)

C A data steward is responsible for ensuring the policies and procedures are implemented across the organization and acts as a liaison between the MIS department and the business.

175)

B Data stewardship is the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets to help provide business users with high-quality data that is easily accessible in a consistent manner. 176)

C Data validation includes the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data governance polices to ensure correctness of data. 177)

B Data stewardship is the management and oversight of an organization’s data assets to help provide business users with high-quality data that is easily accessible in a consistent manner. 178)

C Data steward is the person responsible for ensuring policies and procedures are implemented across the organization and acts as a liaison between the MIS department and the business. 179)

C Data validation are the tests and evaluations used to determine compliance with data governance policies to ensure correctness of data. 180)

A A database maintains data about various types of objects, events, people, and places. 181)

D A database maintain data on inventory, transactions, and employees. 182)

A An entity in the relational database model is a person, place, thing, transaction, or event about which data is stored. 183)

C Keys are used to create logical relationships. 184)

A A primary key is a field (or group of fields) that uniquely identifies a given entity in a table. 185)

B A foreign key is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship among the two tables. 186)

B

A database management system creates, reads, updates, and deletes data in a database while controlling access and security. 187)

A Structured query language (SQL) asks users to write lines of code to answer questions against a database. 188)

C A query-by-example tool retrieves data and helps users graphically design the answer to a question. 189)

B This is the definition of data element (or data field). 190)

A A data model is a logical data structure that details the relationship among data elements using graphics or pictures. 191)

D A data dictionary compiles all of the metadata about the data elements in the data model. 192)

C This is the definition of relational database management system. 193)

B Entities, attributes, keys, and relationships illustrate the primary concepts of the relational database model. 194)

A An entity stores data about a person, place, thing, transaction, or event and is usually referred to as a table. 195)

B To effectively manage and organize various entities within the relational database model, you need to use primary keys and foreign keys to create logical relationships. 196)

B This is the definition of a primary key. 197)

A

This is the definition of a foreign key. 198)

D This is an increased flexibility advantage. 199)

C Database-stored data reduces or decreases data redundancy. 200)

C This is the definition of logical view. 201)

C A database can support many logical views. 202)

D All of them are advantages except decreased data security; the advantage is increased data security. 203)

B Data latency is the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved. 204)

A Data latency is the time it takes for data to be stored or retrieved. 205)

D Data redundancy is all of the answers. 206)

D All of the answers are problems with redundant data. 207)

C Eliminating redundant data improves the quality of the data, uses less hard disk space, and makes performing updates easier. 208)

B This is the definition of integrity constraints. 209)

D This is the definition of relational integrity constraints. 210)

A

This is an example of relational integrity constraints. 211)

B Business-critical integrity constraint will not allow a return of fresh produce after 15 days. A and C represent relational integrity constraints. 212)

C Identity management is a broad administrative area that deals with identifying individuals in a system (such as a country, a network, or an enterprise) and controlling their access to resources within that system by associating user rights and restrictions with the established identity. 213)

A Identity management is a broad administrative area that deals with identifying individuals in a system (such as a country, a network, or an enterprise) and controlling their access to resources within that system by associating user rights and restrictions with the established identity. 214)

B This is the definition of logical view. 215)

A The Ellis Island website is an example of increased scalability and performance. 216)

D One primary goal of a database is to eliminate data redundancy by recording each piece of data in only one place in the database, because it saves disk space, makes data updates easier, and improves data quality. 217)

B This is the definition of integrity constraints. 218)

D Relational integrity constraints are the rules that enforce basic and fundamental informationbased constraints. 219)

A A dataset is an organized collection of data. 220)

D A data point is an individual item on a graph or a chart. 221)

A

A repository is a central location in which data is stored and managed. 222)

C Data aggregation is a collection of data from various sources for the purpose of data processing. 223)

A Comparative analysis can compare two or more datasets to identify patterns and trends. 224)

B Business intelligence (BI) can help managers with competitive monitoring, in which a company keeps tabs of its competitor’s activities on the web using software that automatically tracks all competitor website activities such as discounts and new products. 225)

B Collect, analyze, communicate, and visualize is the data analysis cycle. 226)

D Collect, analyze, communicate, and visualize is the data analysis cycle. 227)

D Source data identifies the primary location where data is collected. 228)

D Source data includes invoices, spreadsheets, time sheets, and transactions. 229)

A Raw data is data that has not been processed for use. 230)

B Cooked data is another name for raw data that has undergone processing. 231)

B A data lake is a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until the business needs it. 232)

B A data lake is a storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its original format until the business needs it. 233)

C

A data map is a technique for establishing a match, or balance, between the source data and the target data warehouse. 234)

D Data-driven decision management is an approach to business governance that values decisions that can be backed up with verifiable data. 235)

A Source data identifies the primary location where data is collected. 236)

B A data point is an individual item on a graph or chart. 237)

D All of the answers are examples of how managers can use BI to answer tough business questions. 238)

B Businesses collect a tremendous amount of transactional data as part of their routine operations. 239)

C Business managers can customize dashboards to display the data they want to see and run custom reports on the fly. 240)

A The critical problem facing managers today when there is so much data to analyze and they have so many tools at their fingertips is being data rich, yet information poor. 241)

A This is the definition of data warehouse. 242)

B Operational systems are not integrated. 243)

D Data warehouses support OLAP, which is analytical processing. 244)

A The primary purpose of a data warehouse is to combine data, more specifically, strategic data, throughout an organization into a single repository in such a way that the people who need that data can make decisions and undertake business analysis.

245)

C Data warehouses standardize data. 246)

D Data warehouse evolved and was created because of these business challenges: (1) the numbers and types of operational databases increased; (2) many companies had data scattered across multiple systems with different file types; and (3) completing reporting requests from numerous operational systems took days or weeks to fulfill. 247)

B ETL is a process that extracts data from internal and external databases, transforms it using a common set of enterprise definitions, and loads it into a data warehouse. 248)

C Within the beginning stage of the data warehouse models process, competitor data, industry data, mailing lists, and stock market analyses are included in external databases. 249)

C Within the beginning stage of the data warehouse models process, competitor data, industry data, mailing lists, and stock market analyses are included in external databases. 250)

D All of the answer choices describe ETL. 251)

D All of the answers are true with respect to customer data. 252)

D The figure on data cleansing activities highlights the steps that occur during data cleansing. 253)

B The figure on data cleansing activities highlights the steps that occur during data cleansing, including cleaning customer data. 254)

A Within the beginning stage of the data warehouse models process, marketing, sales, inventory, and billing are included in the internal databases. 255)

D

Within the ending stage of the data warehouse models process, after the data warehouse step, the end results are a marketing data mart, inventory data mart, and sales data mart. 256)

B A data mart contains a subset of data warehouse data. 257)

C The primary difference between a data warehouse and data marts is that a data warehouse has a more organizational focus and a data mart has a functional focus. 258)

D This is the definition of a cube. 259)

A Data cube is the common term for the representation of multidimensional data. 260)

B Data cleansing or scrubbing is a process that weeds out and fixes or discards inconsistent, incorrect, or incomplete data. 261)

B This is the definition of a data quality audit. 262)

D Data cleansing activities include identifying (1) missing records or attributes, (2) redundant records, (3) missing keys or other required data, (4) erroneous relationships or references, and (5) inaccurate or incomplete data. 263)

A Dirty data is erroneous or flawed data. 264)

D Dirty data includes all of the answers. 265)

A Dirty data includes duplicate data. 266)

D Dirty data includes all of the answers. 267)

D

Dirty data includes all of the answers. 268)

C Dirty data includes violates business rules. 269)

D Dirty data includes all of the answers. 270)

B Dirty data includes misleading data. 271)

C Operational databases do not offer effective direct data access. 272)

C Specific data is not a dirty data problem. 273)

A Data artists are business analytics specialists who use visual tools to help people understand complex data. They are experts at creating a story from any information. 274)

A Distributed computing processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment. 275)

A Distributed computing processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment. 276)

B A ledger records classified and summarized transactional data. 277)

C A blockchain is a type of distributed ledger consisting of blocks of data that maintains a permanent and tamper-proof record of transactional data. 278)

D Immutable simply means unchangeable. 279)

A

Distributed computing processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment. 280)

D Hash, data, and previous hash are the blocks in a blockchain. 281)

D Immutability, digital trust, and Internet of things integration are the advantages of a blockchain. 282)

B A ledger records classified and summarized transactional data. 283)

C A blockchain is a type of distributed ledger consisting of blocks of data that maintains a permanent and tamper-proof record of transactional data. 284)

D Immutable simply means unchangeable. 285)

A Proof-of-work is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain. 286)

B Proof-of-stake is a way to validate transactions and achieve a distributed consensus. 287)

C Bitcoin is a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained and new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems; it which operates independently of a central bank. 288)

B Proof-of-work is a requirement to define an expensive computer calculation, also called mining, that needs to be performed in order to create a new group of trustless transactions (blocks) on the distributed ledger or blockchain. 289)

D Proof-of-stake is a way to validate transactions based and achieve the distributed consensus. 290)

D

Bitcoin is a type of digital currency in which a record of transactions is maintained, new units of currency are generated by the computational solution of mathematical problems, and it operates independently of a central bank. 291)

A The genesis block is the first block created in the blockchain. 292)

B A hash is a function that converts an input of letters and numbers into an encrypted output of a fixed length. 293)

C Immutability is the ability for a blockchain ledger to remain a permanent, indelible, and unalterable history of transactions. 294)

B Hashes are the links in the blockchain. 295)

A Data in a blockchain represents the transactional data, sender, receiver, and number of coins. 296)

B A hash in a block in a blockchain represents a block’s unique identifier like a fingerprint. 297)

C The previous hash holds the hash of the previous block. 298)

C Ethereum is a decentralized, open-source blockchain with smart contract functionality. It is the most actively used blockchain. 299)

A Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) shifts the crypto paradigm by making each token unique and irreplaceable, thereby making it impossible for one non-fungible token to equal another. 300)

D Much of the current market for NFTs is centered around collectibles, such as digital artwork, sports cards, and rarities. 301)

A

It’s possible to buy an NFT that represents art in the physical world, but NFTs also back digital assets such as an image or a tweet. 302)

Essay Data is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. Data can tell an organization how its current operations are performing and help it estimate and strategize about how future operations might perform. It is important to understand the different levels, formats, and granularities of data along with the four primary traits that help determine the value of data; these include (1) data type: transactional and analytical; (2) data timeliness; (3) data quality; (4) data governance. 303)

Essay A database maintains data about various types of objects (inventory), events (transactions), people (employees), and places (warehouses). A database management system (DBMS) creates, reads, updates, and deletes data in a database while controlling access and security. A DBMS provides methodologies for creating, updating, storing, and retrieving data in a database. In addition, a DBMS provides facilities for controlling data access and security, allowing data sharing and enforcing data integrity. The relational database model allows users to create, read, update, and delete data in a relational database. 304)

Essay Many business managers are familiar with Excel and other spreadsheet programs they can use to store business data. Although spreadsheets are excellent for supporting some data analysis, they offer limited functionality in terms of security, accessibility, and flexibility and can rarely scale to support business growth. From a business perspective, relational databases offer many advantages over using a text document or a spreadsheet, including increased flexibility, increased scalability and performance, reduced data redundancy, increased data integrity (quality), and increased data security. 305)

Essay Many organizations today find it next to impossible to understand their own strengths and weaknesses, let alone those of their biggest competitors, due to enormous volumes of organizational data being inaccessible to all but the MIS department. Organization data include far more than simple structured data elements in a database; the set of data also includes unstructured data such as voice mail, customer phone calls, text messages, video clips, along with numerous new forms of data, such as tweets from Twitter. Managers today find themselves in the position of being data rich and information poor, and they need to implement business intelligence systems to solve this challenge. 306)

Essay

A data warehouse is a logical collection of data, gathered from many different operational databases, that supports business analysis and decision making. The primary value of a data warehouse is to combine data, more specifically, strategic data, throughout an organization into a single repository in such a way that the people who need that data can make decisions and undertake business analysis. 307)

Essay Extraction, transformation, and loading (ETL) is a process that extracts data from internal and external databases, transforms it using a common set of enterprise definitions, and loads it into a data warehouse. The data warehouse then sends portions (or subsets) of the data to data marts. A data mart contains a subset of data warehouse data. To distinguish between data warehouses and data marts, think of data warehouses as having a more organizational focus and data marts as having a functional focus.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 2115) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2116) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or

country. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2117) A wide area network (WAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as

in an office building, school, or home. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2118) A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city.

Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2119) A local area network (LAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2120) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or

country. Perhaps the best example is the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2121) Wi-Fi infrastructure includes the inner workings of a Wi-Fi service or utility, including

the signal transmitters, towers, or poles and additional equipment required to send out a WiFi signal. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2122) A radio access network (RAN) is a technology that connects individual devices to other

parts of a network through radio connections. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2123) 5G is the fifth-generation wireless broadband technology based on the 802.11ac standard

engineered to greatly increase the speed and responsiveness of wireless networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2124) Mobile business (or mbusiness, mcommerce) is the ability to purchase goods and services

through a wireless Internet-enabled device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2125) Mobile business is also called low latency business or 5G. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2126) A bit (short for binary digit) is the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or

1. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2127) Bandwidth is measured in terms of bit rate (or data rate), the number of bits transferred or

received per unit of time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2128) Bandwidth is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a

unit of time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2129) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) is a communications

technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over metropolitan area networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2130) A personal area network (PAN) provides communication for devices owned by a single

user that work over a short distance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2131) Bluetooth is a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among

cell phones, computers, and other devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2132) A wireless LAN (WLAN) is a local area network that uses radio signals to transmit and

receive data over distances of a few hundred feet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2133) An access point (AP) is the computer or network device that serves as an interface

between devices and the network. Each computer initially connects to the access point and then to other computers on the network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2134) A wireless access point (WAP) enables devices to connect to a wireless network to

communicate with each other. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2135) Hotspots are designated locations where Wi-Fi access points are publicly available. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2136) A wireless MAN (WMAN) is a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to

transmit and receive data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2137) A wireless WAN (WWAN) is a wide area network that uses radio signals to transmit and

receive data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2138) Streaming is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way

that the user can view the file while it is being transferred. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2139) A satellite is a space station that orbits the Earth, receiving and transmitting signals from

Earth-based stations over a wide area. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2140) Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) a wireless security protocol to protect Wi-Fi networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2141) A Wi-Fi network is a space station that orbits the Sun, receiving and transmitting signals

from Mars-based stations over a wide area. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2142) Wi-Fi protected access (WAP) is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless

transmission data. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2143) Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is a wireless security protocol to protect Wi-Fi

networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2144) Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless

transmission data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2145) War Wi-Fi is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access

is available. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2146) War chalking is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2147) War chalking is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi

access is available. The codes for war chalking tell other users the kind of access available, the speed of the network, and if the network is secured. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2148) War driving is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2149) Pervasive computing is the growing trend of embedding computer capabilities into

everyday objects to make them effectively communicate and perform useful tasks in a way that minimizes the end user’s needs to interact with computers as computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2150) Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce

corporate epolicies while enabling employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2151) Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce

war chalking and war driving. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2152) Mobile application management (MAM) is a security strategy that administers and

enforces corporate epolicies for applications on mobile devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2153) Dual persona technology creates two completely separate user interfaces one the same

device, one for work and one for personal use. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2154) Mobile application development is the set of processes and procedures involved in

writing software for use on wireless devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2155) Mobile information management is the set of processes and procedures involved in

writing software for use on wireless devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2156) Progressive web application (PWA) is a website that looks and behaves as if it is a

mobile application, but it is just a normal website. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2157) Mobile information management (MIM) is a security strategy that involves keeping

sensitive data encrypted and allowing only approved applications to access or transmit it. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2158) An accelerometer is a security strategy that involves keeping sensitive data encrypted and

allowing only approved applications to access or transmit it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2159) Data at rest refers to all data in computer storage. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2160) Data in motion refers to all data in computer storage. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2161) Data in motion (also known as transit or flight) is a stream of data that is moving or being

transported between locations within or between computer systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2162) Data in use is data that is currently being updated, processed, erased, accessed, or read by

a system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2163) Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects

wirelessly over short distances. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2164) A global positioning system (GPS) consists of only hardware that provides location

information for display on a multidimensional map. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2165) A geographic information system (GIS) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data,

creating multidimensional charts or maps. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2166) A global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system providing

extremely accurate position, time, and speed information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2167) A great GIS example, Google Earth, combines satellite imagery, geographic data, and

Google’s search capabilities to create a virtual globe that users can download to a computer or mobile device. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2168) GPS utilizes location-based services (LBS), applications that use location information to

provide a service, whereas a GIS does not use LBS applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2169) Asset tracking occurs when a company places active or semipassive RFID tags on

expensive products or assets to gather data on the items’ location with little or no manual intervention. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2170) RFID tag is an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2171) RFID reader (RFID interrogator) is a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID

tags in the area. An RFID system is comprised of one or more RFID tags, one or more RFID readers, two or more antennas. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2172) Automatic vehicle location (AVL) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2173) Geographic information system (GIS) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data

creating multidimensional charts or maps. For example, GIS is monitoring global warming by measuring the speed of glaciers melting in Canada, Greenland, and Antarctica. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2174) Cartography is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users

to interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2175) GIS map automation links business assets to a centralized system where they can be

tracked and monitored over time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2176) Spatial data (geospatial data or geographic information) identifies the geographic location

of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more. Spatial data can be mapped and is stored as coordinates and topology. A GIS accesses, manipulates, and analyzes spatial data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2177) Wi-Fi is a coding process that takes a digital map feature and assigns it an attribute that

serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category). Wi-Fi professionals are certified in geocoding practices to ensure industry standards are met when classifying spatial data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2178) A geocoin, a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2179) Estimated time of arrival (ETA) is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain

destination and is typically used for navigation applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2180) Estimated time enroute (ETE) is the time remaining before reaching a destination using

the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2181) LBS differ from RFID in that an LBS cannot track and monitor objects such as inventory. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2182) With the power of a wireless network, business professionals can take advantage of

mobility allowing them to work from anywhere, at any time, using many different devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2183) Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) LAN, WAN, SAN B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) LAN, SAN, XAN D) LAN, WAN, XAN 2184) What is a large computer network usually spanning a city or a specific infrastructure like

a college? A) metropolitan area network (MAN) B) local area network (LAN) C) wide area network (WAN) D) secure area network (SAN) 2185) What spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country, similar to the

Internet? A) metropolitan area network (MAN) B) local area network (LAN) C) wide area network (WAN) D) All of the answers are correct. 2186) What connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in a school or office

setting? A) metropolitan area network (MAN) B) local area network (LAN) C) wide area network (WAN) D) All of the answers are correct.

2187) Which of the below offers a common example of a local area network? A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) All of the answers are correct. 2188) Which of the below offers an example of a wide area network? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the city of Denver’s court and police departments D) All of the answers are correct. 2189) Which of the below is an example of a wide area network? A) home office B) business office C) college dorm room D) the Internet 2190) What is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of

time? A) B) C) D)

bandwidth frequency wide area network All of the answers are correct.

2191) Which of the following terms refers to the smallest element of data and has a value of

either 0 or 1? A) bit B) bandwidth C) local area network D) metropolitan area network 2192) What measures bandwidth in terms of numbers transferred or received per unit of time? A) All of the answers are correct. B) Wi-Fi C) wide area network D) bit rate

2193) What is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of

time? A) B) C) D)

bandwidth bit rate bit wireless fidelity

2194) What is the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity 2195) What is the number of bits transferred or received per unit of time? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity 2196) What includes the inner workings of a Wi-Fi service or utility, including the signal

transmitters, towers, or poles and additional equipment required to send out a Wi-Fi signal? A) Wi-Fi infrastructure B) bit rate C) bit D) wireless fidelity 2197) What is a technology that connects individual devices to other parts of a network through

radio connections? A) radio area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) All of the answers are correct. 2198) What is the fifth-generation wireless broadband technology based on the 802.11ac

standard engineered to greatly increase the speed and responsiveness of wireless networks? A) 5G B) WiMAX C) Wi-Fi 6 D) All of the answers are correct.

2199) What is the next generation of Wi-Fi expected to operate at 9.6 Gbps? A) 2G B) Wi-Fi 6 C) radio area network D) bandwidth 2200) What is the ability to purchase goods and services through a wireless Internet-enabled

device? A) bandwidth B) mobile business C) All of the answers are correct. D) Wi-Fi 6 2201) Which two terms are synonymous but have different meanings? A) mobile and wireless B) bit and Wi-Fi 6 C) LAN and WAN D) All of the answers are correct. 2202) What means the technology can travel with the user; for instance, users can download

software, email messages, and web pages onto a laptop or other mobile device? A) mobile B) wireless C) ebusiness D) radio access network 2203) What refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired

connection? A) digital divide B) wireless C) actor D) bad actor 2204) Which of the following is a type of bandwidth speed? A) megabit B) wireless C) local area network D) radio access network

2205) What is a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area

network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves? A) Bluetooth B) wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi) C) wide area network (WAN) D) wireless data centers 2206) What is a wireless network that provides communication over a short distance that is

intended for use with devices that are owned and operated by a single user? A) professional area network B) All of the answers are correct. C) personal area network D) political area network 2207) What is a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell

phones, computers, and other devices? A) laptop B) digital divide C) Bluetooth D) camera 2208) Which network uses radio signals to transmit and receive data over distances of a few

hundred feet? A) wireless MAN B) wireless WAN C) All of the answers are correct. D) wireless LAN 2209) What are areas around access points where users can connect to the Internet via Wi-Fi? A) hotspots B) wireless WAN C) smart phone D) WiMax 2210) A wireless MAN (WMAN) is a metropolitan area network that uses ___________ to

transmit and receive data? A) hotspots B) kilobytes C) digital divide D) radio signals

2211) Which of the following is the correct definition for the acronym WiMAX? A) Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access B) World Interconnected through Mobile Awareness C) All of the answers are correct. D) Wide International for Misinformation Access 2212) What is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way that the

user can view the file while it is being transferred? A) streaming B) smart phone C) networking D) wireless 2213) What is data that is generated continuously by thousands of data sources, which typically

send in the data records simultaneously, and in small sizes (order of kilobytes)? A) streaming data B) smart phone C) networking D) wireless 2214) What is a space station that orbits the Earth receiving and transmitting signals from

Earth-based stations over a wide area? A) Wi-Fi B) satellite C) digital divide D) streaming data 2215) What is Bluetooth? A) means the technology can travel with the user; for instance, users can download

software, email messages, and web pages onto a laptop or other mobile device B) refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection C) a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices D) All of the answers are correct.

2216) What is a personal area network (PAN)? A) All of the answers are correct. B) refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired

connection C) a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices D) provides communication for devices owned by a single user that work over a short distance 2217) What is an access point (AP)? A) the computer or network device that serves as an interface between devices and the

network B) refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection C) a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices D) All of the answers are correct. 2218) What is a wireless MAN? A) a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data B) a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over

metropolitan area networks C) a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves D) All of the answers are correct. 2219) What is worldwide interoperability for microware access (WiMAX)? A) a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data B) a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over

metropolitan area networks C) a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves D) All of the answers are correct.

2220) What is wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi)? A) a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data B) a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over

metropolitan area networks C) a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves D) All of the answers are correct. 2221) What is war chalking? A) All of the answers are correct. B) the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is

available C) deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle D) remotely controls smart phones and tablets, ensuring data security 2222) What is war driving? A) All of the answers are correct. B) the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is

available C) deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle D) remotely controls smart phones and tablets, ensuring data security 2223) What is data that is generated continuously by thousands of data sources, which typically

send in the data records simultaneously, and in small sizes? A) streaming data B) Wi-Fi 6 C) voice over IP D) protected WiMax 2224) What is wired equivalent privacy (WEP)? A) a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data B) a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over

metropolitan area networks C) a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves D) an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data

2225) What is a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a web

server and a browser, ensuring that all data passed between them remain private? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy 2226) What is an electronic document that confirms the identity of a website or server and

verifies that a public key belongs to a trustworthy individual or company? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL Certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy 2227) What is a combination of HTTP and SSL to provide encryption and secure identification

of an Internet server? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL Certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy 2228) What is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data? A) secure sockets layer B) SSL certificate C) secure hypertext transfer protocol D) wired equivalent privacy 2229) What is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor 2230) What is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is

available? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor

2231) What is an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor 2232) What is an entity that is participating with ill-intentions? A) war chalking B) war driving C) actor D) bad actor 2233) What is an actor? A) the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network D) an entity that is participating with ill-intentions 2234) What is a bad actor? A) the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network D) an entity that is participating with ill-intentions 2235) What is IT consumerization? A) the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network D) an entity that is participating with ill-intentions 2236) What is the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and

applications? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization

2237) What is the growing trend of embedding computer capabilities into everyday objects to

make them effectively communicate and perform useful tasks in a way that minimizes the end user’s needs to interact with computers as computers? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization 2238) What is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling

employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization 2239) What isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device? A) IT consumerization B) pervasive computing C) enterprise mobility management D) containerization 2240) What are the three primary areas of an enterprise mobility management strategy? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) mobile pervasive management 2241) What is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling

employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management 2242) What is a security strategy comprised of products and services that offer remote support

for mobile devices, such as smart phones, laptops, and tablets? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management

2243) What is a security strategy that administers and enforces corporate epolicies for

applications on mobile devices? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management 2244) What is a security strategy that involves keeping sensitive data encrypted and allowing

only approved applications to access or transmit it? A) mobile device management B) mobile application management C) mobile information management D) enterprise mobility management 2245) Which policy allows employees to use their own device? A) bring your own device B) choose your own device C) company-issued, personally-enabled D) ePolicy 2246) Which policy allows employees to choose a company approved and configured device? A) bring your own device B) choose your own device C) company-issued, personally-enabled D) ePolicy 2247) Which policy provides employees with corporate devices? A) bring your own device B) choose your own device C) company-issued, personally-enabled D) ePolicy 2248) What isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device? A) containerization or application sandboxing B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) fast data

2249) What is another name for containerization, which isolates corporate applications from

personal applications on a device?

A) B) C) D)

application sandboxing dual persona technology accelerometer fast data

2250) What creates two completely separate user interfaces one the same device, one for work

and one for personal use? A) containerization B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) fast data 2251) What is a device that can measure the force of acceleration, whether caused by gravity or

by movement? A) containerization B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) fast data 2252) What is a website that looks and behaves as if it is a mobile application, but it is just a

normal website? A) containerization B) dual personal technology C) accelerometer D) progressive web application 2253) Which of the following is a characteristic of mobile application management? A) containerization B) accelerometer C) dual personal technology D) All of the answers are correct.

2254) What is the application of big data analytics to smaller data sets in near-real or real-time

in order to solve a problem or create business value? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use 2255) What refers to all data in computer storage? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use 2256) What is a stream of data that is moving or being transported between locations within or

between computer systems? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use 2257) What is another term for data in motion? A) fast data, slow data B) transit data, flight data C) All of the answers are correct. D) big data, data analytics 2258) What is data that is currently being updated, processed, erased, accessed, or read by a

system? A) fast data B) data in motion C) data at rest D) data in use 2259) Which of the below is experiencing rapid growth due to wireless technology? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) All of the answers are correct.

2260) Which business application uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly

over short distances? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services 2261) Which business application uses location information to provide a service and is designed

to give mobile users instant access to personalized local content? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services 2262) Which business application is a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely

accurate position, time, and speed information? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services 2263) Which business application consists of hardware, software, and data that provide location

information for display on a multidimensional map? A) radio-frequency identification B) global positioning systems C) geographic information systems D) location-based services 2264) Which of the following is not a primary use of GIS? A) finding what is nearby from a specific location B) mapping densities C) routing information D) ensuring safety equipment is on an airplane before a flight 2265) What uses GPS tracking to track vehicles? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) All of the answers are correct.

2266) What stores, views, and analyzes geographic data creating multidimensional charts or

maps. For example, GIS are monitoring global warming by measuring the speed of glaciers melting in Canada, Greenland, and Antarctica? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) All of the answers are correct. 2267) What is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users to

interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) dual persona technology 2268) What identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as

natural or constructed features, oceans, and more? A) automatic vehicle location B) geographic information system C) cartography D) spatial data 2269) What is a coding process that takes a digital map feature and assigns it an attribute that

serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category)? A) geocoding B) geocache C) geocoin D) All of the answers are correct. 2270) Who are certified in geocoding practices to ensure industry standards are met when

classifying spatial data? A) GIS professionals B) enterprise architects C) database engineers D) All of the answers are correct.

2271) What is a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location

for an item on the Internet for users to find? A) geocoding B) geocache C) geocoin D) All of the answers are correct. 2272) What is a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache? A) geocoding B) geocache C) geocoin D) All of the answers are correct. 2273) What is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically

used for navigation applications? A) estimated time of arrival B) estimated time enroute C) wireless MAN D) wireless LAN 2274) What is the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is

typically used for navigation applications? A) estimated time of arrival B) estimated time enroute C) wireless MAN D) wireless WAN 2275) What is an RFID tag? A) an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna B) a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID tags in the area C) does not have a power source D) have their own transmitter and a power source (typically a battery) 2276) What is an RFID reader (RFID interrogator)? A) an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna B) a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID tags in the area C) does not have a power source D) have their own transmitter and a power source (typically a battery)

2277) What is asset tracking? A) occurs when a company places active or semipassive RFID tags on expensive

products or assets to gather data on the items’ location with little or no manual intervention B) All of the answers are correct. C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed 2278) What is a global positioning system (GPS)? A) occurs when a company places active or semipassive RFID tags on expensive

products or assets to gather data on the items’ location with little or no manual intervention B) All of the answers are correct. C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information 2279) What is automatic vehicle location (AVL)? A) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles B) All of the answers are correct. C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and

is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information 2280) What is geocache? A) All of the answers are correct. B) a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an

item on the Internet for users to find C) a north/south measurement of position D) an east/west measurement of position

2281) What is a geocoin? A) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and

is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds B) an east/west measurement of position C) a north/south measurement of position D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache 2282) What is estimated time of arrival (ETA)? A) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and

is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds B) a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find C) a north/south measurement of position D) the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications 2283) What is estimated time enroute? A) the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is

typically used for navigation applications B) the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications C) a device that measures the acceleration (the rate of change of velocity) of an item and is used to track truck speeds or taxicab speeds D) a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find 2284) What is a geographic information system (GIS)? A) a north/south measurement of position B) an east/west measurement of position C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache 2285) What is cartography? A) an east/west measurement of position B) the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache

2286) What is a GIS map? A) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored

over time B) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache 2287) What is spatial data? A) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural

or constructed features, oceans, and more B) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time C) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache 2288) What is geocoding? A) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural

or constructed features, oceans, and more B) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time C) in spatial databases is a coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category) D) a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache 2289) What do both GPS and GIS use? A) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural

or constructed features, oceans, and more B) links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time C) in spatial databases is a coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category) D) both use location-based services (LBS) applications that use location information to provide a service

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) TRUE

A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE

Streaming is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way that the user can view the file while it is being transferred. 25) TRUE 26) TRUE

27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE

67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) B

Three of the most common networks are: (1) local area network (LAN), (2) wide area network (WAN), and (3) metropolitan area network (MAN). 70) A

A metropolitan area network (MAN) a large computer network usually spanning a city or a specific infrastructure like a college. 71) C

A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country, similar to the Internet. 72) B

A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in a school or office setting. 73) D

A common example of a local area network (LAN) is an office, local city library, or home. 74) D

Examples of a wide area network (WAN) include large companies, government organizations, cities, regions, and countries around the world. 75) D

All are examples of a MAN except the Internet, which is a WAN. 76) A

Bandwidth is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time. 77) A

A bit refers to the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1. 78) D

The definition of bit rate or data rate measures bandwidth in terms of numbers transferred or received per unit of time. 79) A

Bandwidth is the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time. 80) C

A bit (short for binary digit) is the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1. 81) B

A bit rate (or data rate), is the number of bits transferred or received per unit of time. 82) A

Wi-Fi infrastructure includes the inner workings of a Wi-Fi service or utility, including the signal transmitters, towers, or poles and additional equipment required to send out a Wi-Fi signal. 83) A

A radio access network (RAN) is a technology that connects individual devices to other parts of a network through radio connections. 84) A

5G is the fifth-generation wireless broadband technology based on the 802.11ac standard engineered to greatly increase the speed and responsiveness of wireless networks. 85) B

Wi-Fi 6 is the next generation of Wi-Fi expected to operate at 9.6 Gbps. Wi-Fi 6 will deliver an improved experience to address device and application needs in a range of consumer and enterprise environments. 86) B

Mobile business is the ability to purchase goods and services through a wireless Internet-enabled device. 87) A

Mobile and wireless terms are used synonymously but have different meanings. 88) A

Mobile means the technology can travel with the user; for instance, users can download software, email messages, and web pages onto a laptop or other mobile device. 89) B

Wireless refers to any type of operation accomplished without the use of a hard-wired connection.

90) A

Megabit is a type of bandwidth speed. 91) B

Wireless fidelity is a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves. 92) C

A personal area network (PAN) is a wireless network that provides communication over a short distance that is intended for use with devices that are owned and operated by a single user. 93) C

Bluetooth is a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and another device. 94) D

A wireless LAN (WLAN) is a network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data over distances of a few hundred feet. 95) A

Hotspots are areas around access points where users can connect to the Internet via Wi-Fi. 96) D

A wireless MAN (WMAN) is a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data. 97) A

The wireless technology WiMAX stand for Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access. 98) A

Streaming is a method of sending audio and video files over the Internet in such a way that the user can view the file while it is being transferred. 99) A

Streaming data is data that is generated continuously by thousands of data sources, which typically send in the data records simultaneously, and in small sizes (order of kilobytes). 100)

B A satellite is a space station that orbits the Earth receiving and transmitting signals from Earthbased stations over a wide area.

101)

C Bluetooth is a wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances among cell phones, computers, and other devices. 102)

D A personal area network (PAN) provides communication for devices owned by a single user that work over a short distance. 103)

A An access point (AP) is the computer or network device that serves as an interface between devices and the network. 104)

A A wireless MAN (WMAN) is a metropolitan area network that uses radio signals to transmit and receive data. 105)

B Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX), a communications technology aimed at providing high-speed wireless data over metropolitan area networks. 106)

C Wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi) is a means by which portable devices can connect wirelessly to a local area network, using access points that send and receive data via radio waves. 107)

B War chalking is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available. 108)

C War driving is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle. 109)

A Streaming data is generated continuously by thousands of data sources, which typically send in the data records simultaneously, and in small sizes. 110)

D Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data. 111)

A

Secure sockets layer (SSL) is a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a web server and a browser, ensuring that all data passed between them remain private. 112)

B SSL certificate is an electronic document that confirms the identity of a website or server and verifies that a public key belongs to a trustworthy individual or company. 113)

C Secure hypertext transfer protocol (SHTTP or HTTPS) is a combination of HTTP and SSL to provide encryption and secure identification of an Internet server. 114)

D Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an encryption algorithm designed to protect wireless transmission data. 115)

B War driving is deliberately searching for Wi-Fi signals while driving by in a vehicle. 116)

A War chalking is the practice of tagging pavement with codes displaying where Wi-Fi access is available. 117)

C Actor is an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network. 118)

D Bad actor is an entity that is participating with ill-intentions. 119)

C Actor is an entity that is capable of participating in an action or a network. 120)

D Bad actor is an entity that is participating with ill-intentions. 121)

A IT consumerization is the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications. 122)

A

IT consumerization is the blending of personal and business use of technology devices and applications. 123)

B Pervasive computing is the growing trend of embedding computer capabilities into everyday objects to make them effectively communicate and perform useful tasks in a way that minimizes the end user’s needs to interact with computers as computers. 124)

C Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. 125)

D Containerization, or application sandboxing, isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device. 126)

D Mobile pervasive management is not one of the three primary areas of an enterprise mobility strategy. 127)

D An enterprise mobility management strategy is an enterprisewide security strategy to enforce corporate epolicies while enabling employee use of mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. 128)

A Mobile device management (MDM) is a security strategy comprised of products and services that offer remote support for mobile devices, such as smart phones, laptops, and tablets. 129)

B Mobile application management (MAM) is a security strategy that administers and enforces corporate epolicies for applications on mobile devices. 130)

C Mobile information management (MIM) is a security strategy that involves keeping sensitive data encrypted and allowing only approved applications to access or transmit it. 131)

A Bring Your Own Device policy allows employees use their own device.

132)

B Choose your own device (CYOD) policy allows employees to choose a company approved and configured device. 133)

C Company-issued, personally-enabled (COPE) policy provides employees with corporate devices. 134)

A Containerization, or application sandboxing, isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device. 135)

A Containerization, or application sandboxing, which isolates corporate applications from personal applications on a device. 136)

B Dual persona technology creates two completely separate user interfaces one the same device, one for work and one for personal use. 137)

C Accelerometer is a device that can measure the force of acceleration, whether caused by gravity or by movement. 138)

D Progressive web application (PWA) is a website that looks and behaves as if it is a mobile application, but it is just a normal website. 139)

D All of these choices are part of a mobile application management strategy. 140)

A Fast data is the application of big data analytics to smaller data sets in near-real or real time in order to solve a problem or create business value. 141)

C Data at rest refers to all data in computer storage. 142)

B Data in motion, (also known as transit or flight), is a stream of data that is moving or being transported between locations within or between computer systems.

143)

B Data in motion (also known as transit or flight) is a stream of data that is moving or being transported between locations within or between computer systems. 144)

D Data in use is data that is currently being updated, processed, erased, accessed, or read by a system. 145)

D Areas experiencing tremendous growth using wireless technologies include: (1) radio-frequency identification (RFID), (2) global positioning systems, (3) geographic information systems, and (4) location-based services. 146)

A Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances. 147)

D Location-based services use location information to provide a service and is designed to give mobile users instant access to personalized local content. 148)

B A global positioning system is a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information. 149)

C A geographic information systems consists of hardware, software, and data that provide location information for display on a multidimensional map. 150)

D Common GIS uses include (1) finding what is nearby, (2) routing information, (3) sending information alerts, (4) mapping densities, and (5) mapping quantities. Ensuring safety equipment is on an airplane before a flight takes off is a use of RFID. 151)

A Automatic vehicle location (AVL) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles. 152)

B

Geographic information system (GIS) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data creating multidimensional charts or maps. For example, GIS are monitoring global warming by measuring the speed of glaciers melting in Canada, Greenland, and Antarctica. 153)

C Cartography is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users to interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps. 154)

D Spatial data (geospatial data or geographic information) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more. Spatial data can be mapped and is stored as coordinates and topology. A GIS accesses, manipulates, and analyzes spatial data. 155)

A Geocoding in spatial databases is a coding process that takes a digital map feature and assigns it an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category). 156)

A GIS professionals are certified in geocoding practices to ensure industry standards are met when classifying spatial data. 157)

B Geocache is a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find. GPS users find the geocache and typically sign a guest book or take an item and leave an item for the next adventure players to find. Caches are often placed in locations that are interesting or challenging for people to discover. 158)

C A geocoin, a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache. Geocoins can also be shaped to match a theme like the state of Colorado or a birthday party hat. Geocoins are often decorative or commemorative, making them collectible and highly valuable for technology adventures. 159)

A Estimated time of arrival (ETA) is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications. 160)

B

Estimated time enroute (ETE) is the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications. 161)

A An RFID tag is an electronic identification device that is made up of a chip and antenna. 162)

B An RFID reader (RFID interrogator) is a transmitter/receiver that reads the contents of RFID tags in the area. 163)

A Asset tracking occurs when a company places active or semipassive RFID tags on expensive products or assets to gather data on the items’ location with little or no manual intervention. 164)

D A global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system providing extremely accurate position, time, and speed information. 165)

A Automatic vehicle location (AVL) uses GPS tracking to track vehicles. 166)

B Geocache is a GPS technology adventure game that posts the longitude and latitude location for an item on the Internet for users to find. 167)

D A geocoin is a round coin-sized object, is uniquely numbered and hidden in geocache. 168)

D Estimated time of arrival (ETA) is the time of day of an expected arrival at a certain destination and is typically used for navigation applications. 169)

A Estimated time enroute (ETE) is the time remaining before reaching a destination using the present speed and is typically used for navigation applications. 170)

C A geographic information system (GIS) stores, views, and analyzes geographic data, creating multidimensional charts or maps. For example, GISs are monitoring global warming by measuring the speed of glaciers melting in Canada, Greenland, and Antarctica.

171)

B Cartography is the science and art of making an illustrated map or chart. GIS allows users to interpret, analyze, and visualize data in different ways that reveal patterns and trends in the form of reports, charts, and maps. 172)

A GIS map automation links business assets to a centralized system where they can be tracked and monitored over time. 173)

A Spatial data (geospatial data or geographic information) identifies the geographic location of features and boundaries on Earth, such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more. 174)

C Geocoding in spatial databases is a coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category). 175)

D GPS and GIS both use location-based services (LBS) applications that use location information to provide a service.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 2290) Integrations allow separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2291) Integrations provide enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and

business processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2292) Middleware translates information between disparate systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2293) Data integration is the integration of a company’s existing management information

systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2294) Application integration is the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a

unified view of all data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2295) Application integration is the integration of a company’s existing management

information systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2296) Data integration is the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified

view of all data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2297) A forward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it

automatically to all downstream systems and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2298) A backward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it

automatically to all upstream systems and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2299) A backward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it

automatically to all downstream systems and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2300) A forward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it

automatically to all upstream systems and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2301) Integrations are achieved using middleware —several types of software that sit between

and provide connectivity for two or more software applications. Middleware translates information between disparate systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2302) The customer’s customer is upstream in the supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2303) Plan, source, make, deliver, and return are the five basic supply chain management

components. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2304) Plan, source, give, get, and return are the five basic supply chain management

components. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2305) In the basic supply chain, source refers to building relationships with suppliers to procure

raw materials. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2306) In the basic supply chain, give refers to planning for transportation of goods to customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2307) In the basic supply chain, return refers to supporting customers and product returns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2308) In the basic supply chain, make refers to manufacturing products and create production

schedules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2309) In the basic supply chain, return refers to prepare to manage all resources required to

meet demands. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2310) In the basic supply chain, plan refers to preparing to manage all resources required to

meet demand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2311) In the basic supply chain, deliver refers to planning for transportation of goods to

customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2312) A back order is an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2313) Inventory cycle time is the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the

retailer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2314) Customer order cycle time is the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and

the delivery of the product. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2315) Inventory turnover is the frequency of inventory replacement. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2316) Inventory turnover is an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2317) Customer order cycle time is the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to

the retailer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2318) Information technology’s primary role in supply chain management is creating the

integrations or tight process and information linkages between functions within a firm—such as marketing, sales, finance, manufacturing, and distribution—and between firms. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2319) Effective and efficient supply chain management systems can enable an organization to

decrease the power of its buyers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2320) Supply chain visibility is the ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2321) Electronic data interchange (EDI) is a standard format for the electronic exchange of

information between supply chain participants. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2322) The bullwhip effect occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one

partner to the next throughout the supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2323) The bullwhip effect is a standard format for the electronic exchange of information

between supply chain participants. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2324) Electronic data interchange occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples

from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2325) Procurement is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply

chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2326) Procurement can help a company answer the following question: What quantity of raw

materials should we purchase to minimize spoilage? ⊚ true ⊚ false 2327) Logistics includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and

replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2328) Inbound logistics acquires raw materials and resources and distributes them to

manufacturing as required. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2329) Outbound logistics distributes goods and services to customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2330) Logistics controls processes inside a company (warehouse logistics) and outside a

company (transport logistics) and focuses on the physical execution part of the supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2331) Materials management is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the

supply chain. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2332) Logistics can help a company answer the following question: What quantity of raw

materials should we purchase to minimize spoilage? ⊚ true ⊚ false

2333) Logistics includes the increasingly complex management of processes, information, and

communication to take a product from cradle to grave. Cradle-to-grave provides logistics support. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2334) Materials management includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical

materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2335) The process of 3D printing (additive manufacturing) builds—layer by layer in an additive

process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2336) 3D printing is a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-

dimensional solid object from a digital model. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2337) Drones include a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-

dimensional solid object from a digital model. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2338) 3D printing supports procurement. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2339) RFID uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2340) RFID supports logistics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2341) RFID supports procurement. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2342) Drones are unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2343) 3D printing is unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2344) Drones support logistics. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2345) Drones support materials management. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2346) Robotics focuses on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to

sensory input. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2347) Robotics supports materials management. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2348) Robotics supports procurement. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2349) RFID systems are used to create digital designs and then manufacture the products. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2350) The maker movement is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be

a creator of things as well as a consumer of things. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2351) The robotics movement is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to

be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2352) Makerspaces are community centers that provide technology, manufacturing equipment,

and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2353) RFID’s electronic product code (RFID EPC) promotes serialization or the ability to track

individual items by using the unique serial number associated with each RFID tag. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2354) A drone is an unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human.

Amazon.com is piloting drone aircraft for package deliveries. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2355) The primary difference between operational CRM and analytical CRM is the direct

interaction between the organization and its suppliers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2356) Back-office operations deal directly with the customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2357) RFM stands for regency, frequency, and monetary. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2358) The evolution of CRM is reporting, analyzing, and predicting. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2359) List generators fall in the category of the sales department’s CRM tools. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2360) Contact management falls in the category of the customer service department’s CRM

tools. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2361) Customer service and support (CSS) is a part of operational CRM that automates service

requests, complaints, product returns, and information requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2362) Opportunity management CRM systems target sales opportunities by finding new

customers or companies for future sales. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2363) Call scripting occurs when customer service representatives answer customer inquiries

and solve problems by email and IMing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2364) Call scripting systems gather product details and issue resolution information that can be

automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2365) Web-based self-service systems allow customers to use the web to find answers to their

questions or solutions to their problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2366) Click-to-talk functions allow customers to click on a button and talk with a representative

via the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2367) CRM predicting technologies help organizations identify their customers across other

applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2368) CRM analysis technologies help organizations segment their customers into categories

such as best and worst customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2369) CRM predicting technologies help organizations predict customer behavior, such as

which customers are at risk of leaving. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2370) Analytical CRM supports traditional transactional processing for day-to-day front-office

operations or systems that deal directly with the customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2371) Operational CRM supports back-office operations and strategic analysis and includes all

systems that do not deal directly with the customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2372) List generators compile customer information from a variety of sources and segment it

for different marketing campaigns. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2373) Campaign management systems guide users through marketing campaigns by performing

such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2374) Up-selling is selling additional products or services to an existing customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2375) Cross-selling is increasing the value of the sale. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2376) Call scripting systems gather product details and issue resolution information that can be

automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2377) Uplift modeling is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts

to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2378) Automatic call distribution routes inbound calls to available agents. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2379) Predictive dialing automatically dials outbound calls and forwards answered calls to an

available agent. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2380) Interactive voice response automatically dials outbound calls and forwards answered calls

to an available agent. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2381) When a user enters or updates information in one ERP module, it is immediately and

automatically updated throughout the entire system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2382) Core ERP components are the traditional components included in most ERP systems and

primarily focus on internal operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2383) Core ERP components are the extra components that meet organizational needs not

covered by the core components and primarily focus on external operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2384) Accounting and finance ERP components manage accounting data and financial

processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2385) Production and materials management ERP components handle production planning and

execution tasks such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2386) Business intelligence is both a core and extended ERP component. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2387) SCM, CRM, and ERP are all extended ERP components. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2388) Software customization modifies existing software according to the business’s or user’s

requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2389) A two-tier ERP architecture allows an organization to have an on-premises ERP system

along with cloud ERP applications. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2390) The goal of ERP is to integrate all of the organizational systems into one fully

functioning, high-performance system that is capable of meeting all business needs and user requirements. Of course, this goal is incredibly difficult to achieve because businesses and technologies experience rapid change, and ERP must support mobility, cloud, SaaS, and tiered architectures. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2391) The primary concern with mobile ERP is security of sensitive data, including trade

secrets, financial data, and customer data. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2392) What allows separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems? A) integration B) chatbot C) hybrid ERP D) logistics 2393) What takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all

downstream systems and processes? A) forward integration B) data interchange C) backward integration D) application interchange 2394) What takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all

upstream systems and processes? A) forward integration B) data interchange C) backward integration D) application interchange

2395) What integrates data from multiple sources and provides a unified view of all data? A) forward integration B) data interchange C) data integration D) application interchange 2396) What integrates a company’s existing management information systems? A) application integration B) data interchange C) data integration D) application interchange 2397) What provides enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and

business processes? A) enterprise systems B) enterprise application integration C) middleware D) application integration 2398) What connects the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise

systems? A) data integration B) enterprise application integration C) middleware D) order entry system 2399) What are several different types of software that sit between and provide connectivity for

two or more software applications? A) data integration B) enterprise application integration C) middleware D) order entry system

2400) What is an application integration? A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all

data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all upstream systems and processes 2401) What is data integration? A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all

data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all upstream systems and processes 2402) What is forward integration? A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all

data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all upstream systems and processes 2403) What is backward integration? A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all

data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all upstream systems and processes

2404) What are enterprise systems? A) the integration of a company’s existing management information systems B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all

data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes 2405) What is enterprise application integration (EAI)? A) connects the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all

data C) sending information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes D) enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes 2406) What does middleware accomplish? A) the use of the Internet to provide customers with the ability to gain personalized

information by querying corporate databases and their information sources B) the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data C) the translation of information between disparate systems D) packaging commonly used applications together, reducing the time needed to integrate applications from multiple vendors 2407) Which of the following is not an example of a primary enterprise system? A) supply chain management B) customer relationship management C) reputation management system D) enterprise resource planning

2408) What is supply chain management (SCM)? A) the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain

to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability B) a means of taking information entered into a given system and sending it automatically to all downstream systems and processes C) a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability D) a means of connecting the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system 2409) What is enterprise resource planning (ERP)? A) the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain

to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability B) a means of integrating all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single MIS system (or integrated set of MIS systems) so employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information about all business operations C) a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability D) a means of connecting the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system 2410) What is customer relationship management (CRM)? A) the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain

to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability B) a means of integrating all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single MIS system (or integrated set of MIS systems) so employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information about all business operations C) a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability D) a means of connecting the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system 2411) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you prepare to manage all resources

required to meet demand? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return

2412) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you build relationships with suppliers

to procure raw materials? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return 2413) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you manufacture products and create

production schedules? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) make 2414) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you plan for the transportation of

goods to customers? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return 2415) In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you support customers and product

returns? A) plan B) source C) deliver D) return 2416) Where would you find the customer’s customer in a typical supply chain? A) upstream B) downstream C) in the middle D) not in the supply chain 2417) Where would you find the supplier’s suppler in a typical supply chain? A) upstream B) downstream C) in the middle D) not in the supply chain

2418) Where would you find the manufacturer and distributor in a typical supply chain? A) upstream B) downstream C) in the middle D) not in the supply chain 2419) Walmart and Procter & Gamble (P&G) implemented a tremendously successful SCM

system. The system linked Walmart’s ________ centers directly to P&G’s ________ centers. A) manufacturing; distribution B) distribution; manufacturing C) stores; distribution D) distribution; stores 2420) What can effective and efficient supply chain management systems enable an

organization to accomplish? A) increase the power of its buyers B) increase its supplier power C) increase switching costs to increase the threat of substitute products or services D) All of the answers are correct. 2421) Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain

management? A) plan B) source C) cost D) deliver 2422) Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain

management? A) plan B) source C) analyze D) deliver 2423) Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain

management? A) plan B) source C) sale D) deliver

2424) What is it called when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to

the next throughout the supply chain? A) bullwhip effect B) source effect C) supply chain effect D) All of the answers are correct. 2425) Which of the following represents the bullwhip effect? A) organizations know about employee events triggered downstream in the supply chain B) customers receive distorted product-demand information regarding sales information C) distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout

the supply chain D) the ability exists to view all areas up and down the supply chain 2426) What is the ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain in real time? A) bullwhip effect B) outbound logistics C) supply chain visibility D) inventory cycle time 2427) Which of the following metrics represents an unfilled customer order for a product that is

out of stock? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover 2428) Which of the following metrics represents the time it takes to manufacture a product and

deliver it to the retailer? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover 2429) Which of the following metrics represents the agreed-upon time between the purchase of

a product and the delivery of the product? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover

2430) Which of the following metrics represents the frequency of inventory replacement? A) back order B) inventory cycle time C) customer order cycle time D) inventory turnover 2431) What is a back order? A) an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock B) the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer C) the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the

product D) the frequency of inventory replacement 2432) What is inventory cycle time? A) an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock B) the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer C) the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the

product D) the frequency of inventory replacement 2433) What is customer order cycle time? A) an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock B) the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer C) the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the

product D) the frequency of inventory replacement 2434) What is inventory turnover? A) an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock B) the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer C) the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the

product D) the frequency of inventory replacement 2435) Which of the following is one of the business areas of supply chain management? A) logistics B) procurement C) materials management D) All of the answers are correct.

2436) What is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain? A) procurement B) logistics C) materials management D) bullwhip effect 2437) What includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement

of materials and personnel to support the supply chain? A) procurement B) logistics C) materials management D) bullwhip effect 2438) What includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the

supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing? A) procurement B) logistics C) materials management D) bullwhip effect 2439) What is procurement? A) the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain B) includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of

materials and personnel to support the supply chain C) includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing D) occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain 2440) What is logistics? A) the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain B) includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of

materials and personnel to support the supply chain C) includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing D) occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain

2441) What is materials management? A) the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain B) includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of

materials and personnel to support the supply chain C) includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing D) occurs when distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain 2442) What acquires raw materials and resources and distributes them to manufacturing as

required? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) logistics D) procurement 2443) What distributes goods and services to customers? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) logistics D) procurement 2444) What includes the increasingly complex management of processes, information, and

communication to take a product from cradle to grave? A) procurement B) outbound logistics C) logistics D) cradle-to-grave 2445) Which of the following questions can logistics help a company answer? A) What quantity of raw materials should we purchase to minimize spoilage? B) How can we guarantee that our raw materials meet production needs? C) At what price can we purchase materials to guarantee profitability? D) What path should the vehicles follow when delivering the goods? 2446) Which of the following questions can materials management help a company answer? A) What are our current inventory levels? B) What items are running low in the warehouse? C) What items are at risk of spoiling in the warehouse? D) All of the answer choices are correct.

2447) Which of the following questions can materials management help a company answer? A) How do we dispose of spoiled items? B) What laws need to be followed for storing hazardous materials? C) Which items must be refrigerated when being stored and transported? D) All of the answers are correct. 2448) What is 3D printing? A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid

object from a digital model B) uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) a focus on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input 2449) What is RFID? A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid

object from a digital model B) the use of electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) a focus on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input 2450) What are drones? A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid

object from a digital model B) the use of electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) a focus on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input 2451) What is robotics? A) a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid

object from a digital model B) the use of electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances C) unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human D) creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input

2452) What is a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional

solid object from a digital model? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID 2453) What focuses on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to

sensory input? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID 2454) What is unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID 2455) What uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances? A) 3D printing B) robotics C) drones D) RFID 2456) What is computer-aided design? A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision

drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to create things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes

2457) What is computer-aided manufacturing? A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision

drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to create things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes 2458) What is the maker movement? A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision

drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes 2459) What is a makerspace? A) software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision

drawings or technical illustrations B) a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things C) a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable D) software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes 2460) What is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of

things as well as a consumer of things? A) maker movement B) computer-aided manufacturing C) makerspace D) computer-aided design

2461) What is a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and

educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable? A) computer-aided design B) computer-aided manufacturing C) makerspace D) RFID 2462) What is a low-cost, credit card–sized computer that plugs into a computer monitor or TV

and uses a standard keyboard and mouse? A) Raspberry Pi B) digital supply chain C) drone D) robotics 2463) What fully capitalizes on connectivity, system integration, and the information-producing

capabilities of smart devices? A) Raspberry Pi B) digital supply chain C) drone D) robotics 2464) Which of the following represents the three primary capabilities of a drone? A) sensors B) navigation C) stabilization D) All of the answers are correct. 2465) Which of the following is not a valid source from which a CRM system can collect

information? A) accounting system B) order fulfillment system C) inventory system D) customer’s personal computer 2466) Which of the following is not one of the three phases in the evolution of CRM? A) reporting B) analyzing C) processing D) predicting

2467) What is a person or company that is unknown to your business? A) lead B) account C) contact D) sales opportunity 2468) What is an existing business relationship that includes customers, prospects, partners, and

competitors? A) lead B) account C) contact D) sales opportunity 2469) Who is a specific individual representing an account? A) lead B) accountant C) contact D) sales opportunity 2470) What is an opportunity that exists for a potential sale of goods or services related to an

account or contact? A) lead B) account C) contact D) sales opportunity 2471) What is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify

target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products? A) lead analysis B) RFM analysis C) uplift modeling D) sales opportunity 2472) What helps an organization identify its customers across applications? A) CRM reporting technologies B) CRM analyzing technologies C) CRM processing technologies D) CRM predicting technologies

2473) What is an organization using when it asks questions such as “why was customer revenue

so high”? A) CRM reporting technologies B) CRM analyzing technologies C) CRM processing technologies D) CRM predicting technologies 2474) What is an organization using when it asks questions such as “which customers are at risk

of leaving”? A) CRM reporting technologies B) CRM analyzing technologies C) CRM processing technologies D) CRM predicting technologies 2475) Which question below represents a CRM reporting technology example? A) Why did sales not meet forecasts? B) What customers are at risk of leaving? C) What is the total revenue by customer? D) All of the answers are correct.. 2476) Which question below represents a CRM analyzing technology question? A) Why did sales not meet forecasts? B) What customers are at risk of leaving? C) What is the total revenue by customer? D) All of the answers are correct.. 2477) Which question below represents a CRM predicting technology question? A) Why did sales not meet forecasts? B) What customers are at risk of leaving? C) What is the total revenue by customer? D) All of the answers are correct.. 2478) Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the sales department

typically use? A) campaign management, contact management, opportunity management B) sales management, contact management, contact center C) sales management, call scripting, opportunity management D) sales management, contact management, opportunity management

2479) Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the marketing department

typically use? A) contact center, web-based self-service, call scripting B) contact center, cross-selling and up-selling, web-based self-service C) list generator, opportunity management, cross-selling and up-selling D) list generator, campaign management, cross-selling and up-selling 2480) Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the customer service

department typically use? A) contact center, web-based self-service, call scripting B) sales management, contact management, opportunity management C) list generator, opportunity management, cross-selling and up-selling D) list generator, campaign management, cross-selling and up-selling 2481) What CRM technology compiles customer information from a variety of sources and

segments the information for different marketing campaigns? A) sales opportunity B) cross-selling C) up-selling D) list generator 2482) What CRM technology guides users through marketing campaigns performing such tasks

as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis? A) campaign management system B) cross-selling C) up-selling D) list generator 2483) What was McDonald’s performing when it asked its customers if they would like to

super-size their meals? A) uplift modeling B) cross-selling C) up-selling D) down-selling 2484) Which of the following represents sales force automation? A) helping an organization identify its customers across applications B) selling additional products or services to a customer C) a system that automatically tracks all of the steps in the sales process D) selling larger products or services to a customer

2485) What automates each phase of the sales process, helping individual sales representatives

coordinate and organize all of their accounts? A) sales management CRM system B) contact management CRM system C) opportunity management CRM system D) All of the answers are correct. 2486) What maintains customer contact information and identifies prospective customers for

future sales? A) sales management CRM system B) contact management CRM system C) opportunity management CRM system D) All of the answers are correct. 2487) What targets sales opportunities by finding new customers or companies for future sales? A) sales management CRM system B) contact management CRM system C) opportunity management CRM system D) sales force automation CRM system 2488) Which of the following was one of the first CRM components built to address the

overwhelming amount of customer account information sales representatives were required to maintain and track? A) sales management system B) opportunity management system C) sales force automation system D) contact management system 2489) Which of the following is where customer service representatives answer customer

inquiries and respond to problems through a number of different customer touchpoints? A) contact center B) web-based self-service C) call scripting D) uplift modeling

2490) What allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to

their problems? A) contact center B) web-based self-service C) call scripting D) uplift modeling 2491) What accesses organizational databases that track similar issues or questions and

automatically generates the details to the customer service representative who can then relay them to the customer? A) contact center B) web-based self-service C) call scripting D) uplift modeling 2492) What is automatic call distribution? A) a technology that automatically dials outbound calls and when someone answers, the

call is forwarded to an available agent B) a technology that directs customers to use touch-tone phones or keywords to navigate or provide information C) a phone switch that routes inbound calls to available agents D) an attempt to increase the amount of a sale 2493) What is interactive voice response? A) a technology that automatically dials outbound calls and when someone answers, the

call is forwarded to an available agent B) a technology that directs customers to use touch-tone phones or keywords to navigate or provide information C) a phone switch that routes inbound calls to available agents D) an attempt to increase the amount of a sale 2494) What is predictive dialing? A) a technology that automatically dials outbound calls and when someone answers, the

call is forwarded to an available agent B) a technology that directs customers to use touch-tone phones or keywords to navigate or provide information C) a phone switch that routes inbound calls to available agents D) an attempt to increase the amount of a sale

2495) What is a contact center or call center? A) a place where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve

problems, usually by email, chat, or phone B) a technology that allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems C) a technology that gathers product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer D) a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products 2496) What is web-based self-service? A) a place where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve

problems, usually by email, chat, or phone B) a technology that allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems C) a technology that gathers product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer D) a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products 2497) What is call scripting? A) a place where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve

problems, usually by email, chat, or phone B) a technology that allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems C) a technology that gathers product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer D) a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products 2498) What is uplift modeling? A) a place where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve

problems, usually by email, chat, or phone B) a technology that allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems C) a technology that gathers product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer D) a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products

2499) What divides a market into categories that share similar attributes such as age, location,

gender, habits, and so on? A) contact center B) customer segmentation C) customer center D) uplift modeling 2500) Which of the following is a common customer service CRM metric? A) number of new prospective customers B) number of marketing campaigns C) average time to resolution D) revenue generated by marketing campaigns 2501) What is properly addressing the customer’s need the first time they call, thereby

eliminating the need for the customer to follow up with a second call? A) first call resolution B) contact center C) average time to resolution D) call center 2502) Which of the following is a common marketing CRM metric? A) number of new prospective customers B) average number of service calls per day C) average time to resolution D) cost per interaction by marketing campaign 2503) What is a part of operational CRM that automates service requests, complaints, product

returns, and information requests? A) cross-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support 2504) What guides users through marketing campaigns by performing such tasks as campaign

definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis? A) cross-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support

2505) What is selling additional products or services to an existing customer? A) cross-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support 2506) What is increasing the value of the sale? A) up-selling B) first call resolution C) campaign management system D) customer service and support 2507) What is properly addressing the customer’s need the first time they call, thereby

eliminating the need for the customer to follow up with a second call? A) first call resolution B) data integration C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value 2508) What measures the customer’s worth over a specific period of time? A) chatbot B) click-to-talk C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value 2509) What is a metric that represents the total net profit a company makes from any given

customer? A) intelligent virtual agent B) click-to-talk C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value 2510) What an artificial intelligence program that simulates interactive human conversation by

using key precalculated user phrases and auditory or text-based signals? A) chatbot B) intelligent virtual agent C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value

2511) What is an animated, humanlike graphical chat bot commonly displayed on website home

pages and advertisement landing pages? A) chatbot B) intelligent virtual agent C) customer profitability D) customer lifetime value 2512) What is the key word in ERP? A) enterprise B) resource C) intelligence D) business 2513) What is enterprise resource planning? A) the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises B) a standardized set of activities that accomplish as specific task, such as processing a

customer’s order C) a process that integrates all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single MIS system so that employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information on all business operations D) a process involving managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability 2514) Which of the following is a component ERP vendor offer to differentiate themselves in

the marketplace? A) accounting B) CRM C) sales D) human resources 2515) Which of the following is not one of the three most common core ERP components

focusing on internal operations? A) accounting and finance B) production and materials management C) business intelligence D) human resources

2516) Which activities do accounting and finance components perform? A) track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance

assessment, and assure compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities B) handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control C) manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D) All of the answers are correct. 2517) Which activities do production and materials management components perform? A) track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance

assessment, and assure compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities B) handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control C) manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D) All of the answers are correct. 2518) Which activities do human resource components perform? A) track employee information including payroll, benefits, compensation, performance

assessment, and assure compliance with the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions and tax authorities B) handle the various aspects of production planning and execution such as demand forecasting, production scheduling, job cost accounting, and quality control C) manage accounting data and financial processes within the enterprise with functions such as general ledger, accounts payable, accounts receivable, budgeting, and asset management D) All of the answers are correct. 2519) Which component is a credit-management feature typically included in? A) accounting and finance component B) production and managerial management component C) human resource component D) production and materials management component

2520) Which component can help an organization determine such things as the identification of

individuals who are likely to leave the company unless additional compensation or benefits are provided? A) accounting and finance component B) production and managerial management component C) human resource component D) production and materials management component 2521) Which of the following is an extended ERP component? A) business intelligence B) ebusiness C) customer relationship management D) All of the answers are correct. 2522) Which extended ERP component collects information used throughout an organization,

organizes it, and applies analytical tools to assist managers with decisions? A) business intelligence B) ebusiness C) customer relationship management D) supply chain management 2523) Which of the following describes ERP systems? A) ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments. B) ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate. C) ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organizations to store critical

knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organization’s performance. D) All of the answer choices are correct. 2524) What is at the heart of any ERP system? A) network B) employees C) customers D) database 2525) Which of the following occurs when everyone involved in sourcing, producing, and

delivering the company’s product works with the same information? A) eliminating redundancies B) cutting down on wasted time C) removing misinformation D) All of the answers are correct.

2526) Who are the primary users of SCM systems? A) sales, marketing, and customer service B) accounting, finance, logistics, and production C) customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors D) All of the answers are correct. 2527) What are the primary business benefits of an ERP system? A) sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns B) market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling C) forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and

distribution D) sales system 2528) Who are the primary users of ERP systems? A) sales, marketing, and customer service B) accounting, finance, logistics, and production C) customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors D) sales system 2529) Which application’s primary business benefits include sales forecasts, sales strategies,

and marketing campaigns? A) customer relationship management B) supply chain management C) enterprise resource planning D) marketing system 2530) Which application’s primary business benefits include market demand, resource and

capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling? A) customer relationship management B) supply chain management C) enterprise resource planning D) human resource system 2531) Which application’s primary business benefits include forecasting, planning, purchasing,

material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution? A) customer relationship management B) supply chain management C) enterprise resource planning D) accounting system

2532) What modifies existing software according to the business’s or user’s requirements? A) software customization B) data integration C) application integration D) sales system

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 2533) Explain integrations and the role they play in connecting a corporation.

2534) Describe supply chain management along with its impact on business.

2535) Identify the three components of supply chain management along with the technologies

that are reinventing the supply chain.

2536) Explain operational and analytical customer relationship management.

2537) Identify the core and extended areas of enterprise resource planning.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE

Integrations allow separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems. 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE

35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE

Procurement can help companies make good decisions about materials on hand. 38) TRUE

Logistics includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain. 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE

71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) A

An integration allows separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems. 104)

A A forward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all downstream systems and processes. 105)

C

A backward integration takes information entered into a given system and sends it automatically to all upstream systems and processes. 106)

C Data integration integrates data from multiple sources and provides a unified view of all data. 107)

A An application integration integrates a company’s existing management information systems. 108)

A An enterprise system provides enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes. 109)

B Enterprise application integration connects the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise systems. 110)

C Middleware is several different types of software that sit between and provide connectivity for two or more software applications. 111)

A Application integration is the integration of a company’s existing management information systems. 112)

B Data integration is the integration of data from multiple sources, which provides a unified view of all data. 113)

C Forward integration sends information entered into a given system automatically to all downstream systems and processes. 114)

D Backward integration sends information entered into a given system automatically to all upstream systems and processes. 115)

D Enterprise systems provide enterprisewide support and data access for a firm’s operations and business processes.

116)

A Enterprise application integration (EAI) connects the plans, methods, and tools aimed at integrating separate enterprise system. 117)

C Middleware translates information between disparate systems. 118)

C A reputation management system is not an enterprise system discussed in this text. 119)

A Supply chain management (SCM) is the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability. 120)

B Enterprise resource planning (ERP) integrates all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single MIS (or integrated set of MISs) so employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information about all business operations. 121)

C Customer relationship management (CRM) is a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability. 122)

A In the plan activity, you prepare to manage all resources required to meet demand. 123)

B In the source activity, you build relationships with suppliers to procure raw materials. 124)

D In the make activity, you manufacture products and create production schedules. 125)

C During the deliver activity, you plan for the transportation of goods to customers. 126)

D In the return activity, you support customers and product returns. 127)

B

The customer’s customer is downstream in a typical supply chain. 128)

A The supplier’s supplier is upstream in a typical supply chain. 129)

C The manufacturer and distributor are in the middle of a typical supply chain. 130)

B Walmart’s distribution centers are linked directly to P&G’s manufacturing centers. 131)

B In contrast to the wrong answers above, SCM can "decrease" the power of its buyers, and "reduce" the threat of substitute products or services. 132)

C Plan, source, make, deliver, and return are the five components of SCM. 133)

C Plan, source, make, deliver, and return are the five components of SCM. 134)

C Plan, source, make, deliver, and return are the five components of SCM. 135)

A This is the definition of the bullwhip effect. 136)

C Distorted product-demand information ripples from one partner to the next throughout the supply chain represents the bullwhip effect. 137)

C Supply chain visibility is the ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain in real time. 138)

A A back order is an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock. 139)

B Inventory cycle time is the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer. 140)

C

The customer order cycle time is the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product. 141)

D Inventory turnover is the frequency of inventory replacement. 142)

A A back order is an unfilled customer order for a product that is out of stock. 143)

B The inventory cycle time is the time it takes to manufacture a product and deliver it to the retailer. 144)

C The customer order cycle time is the agreed-upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product. 145)

D Inventory turnover is the frequency of inventory replacement. 146)

D Logistics, procurement, and materials management are the three areas of supply chain management. 147)

A Procurement is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain. 148)

B Logistics includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain. 149)

C Materials management includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing. 150)

A Procurement is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain. 151)

B

Logistics includes the processes that control the distribution, maintenance, and replacement of materials and personnel to support the supply chain. 152)

C Materials management includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing. 153)

A Inbound logistics acquires raw materials and resources and distributes them to manufacturing as required. 154)

B Outbound logistics distributes goods and services to customers. Logistics controls processes inside a company (warehouse logistics) and outside a company (transport logistics) and focuses on the physical execution part of the supply chain. 155)

C Logistics includes the increasingly complex management of processes, information, and communication to take a product from cradle to grave. 156)

D Logistics can help a company answer the question of what path vehicles should follow when delivering the goods. 157)

D All of these questions can be answered by materials management. 158)

D All of these questions can be answered by materials management. 159)

A 3D printing is a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model. 160)

B RFID uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances. 161)

C Drones are unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. 162)

D

Robotics focuses on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input. 163)

A 3D printing is a process that builds—layer by layer in an additive process—a three-dimensional solid object from a digital model. 164)

B Robotics focuses on creating artificial intelligence devices that can move and react to sensory input. 165)

C Drones are unmanned aircraft that can fly autonomously, or without a human. 166)

D RFID uses electronic tags and labels to identify objects wirelessly over short distances. 167)

A Computer-aided design is software used by architects, engineers, drafters, artists, and others to create precision drawings or technical illustrations. 168)

D Computer-aided manufacturing is software and machinery to facilitate and automate manufacturing processes. 169)

B The maker movement is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things. 170)

C A makerspace is a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable. 171)

A The maker movement is a cultural trend that places value on an individual’s ability to be a creator of things as well as a consumer of things. 172)

C A makerspace is a community center that provides technology, manufacturing equipment, and educational opportunities to the public that would otherwise be inaccessible or unaffordable.

173)

A Raspberry Pi is a low-cost, credit card–sized computer that plugs into a computer monitor or TV and uses a standard keyboard and mouse. 174)

B Digital supply chain fully capitalizes on connectivity, system integration, and the informationproducing capabilities of smart devices. 175)

D Sensors, navigation, and stabilization are all capabilities of a drone. 176)

D A CRM system cannot collect information from a customer’s personal computer. 177)

C Processing is not one of the three phases in the evolution of CRM. 178)

A A lead is a person or company that is unknown to your business. 179)

B An account is an existing business relationship that includes customers, prospects, partners, and competitors. 180)

C A contact is a specific individual representing the account. 181)

D A sales opportunity is an opportunity that exists for a potential sale of goods or services related to an account or contact. 182)

C Uplift modeling is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products. 183)

A Reporting helps an organization identify its customers across applications. 184)

B Asking why customer revenue was so high is analyzing.

185)

D Asking which customers are at risk of leaving is predicting. 186)

C Total revenue by customer is a report. 187)

A Asking why sales not meet forecasts is analyzing. 188)

B Asking what customers are at risk of leaving is predicting. 189)

D Sales management, contact management, and opportunity management are generally used by sales departments. 190)

D List generator, campaign management, and cross-selling and up-selling are generally used by marketing departments. 191)

A Contact center, web-based self-service, and call scripting are generally used by customer service departments. 192)

D A list generator compiles customer information from a variety of sources and segments the information for different marketing campaigns. 193)

A A campaign management system guides users through marketing campaigns performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis. 194)

C Up-selling is increasing the value of the sale. 195)

C This is the definition of sales force automation. 196)

A

A sales management CRM system automates each phase of the sales process, helping individual sales representatives coordinate and organize all of their accounts. 197)

B A contact management CRM system maintains customer contact information and identifies prospective customers for future sales. 198)

C An opportunity management CRM system targets sales opportunities by finding new customers or companies for future sales. 199)

C One of the first CRM components built to help address sales issues was the sales force automation system. 200)

A A contact center is where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and respond to problems through a number of different customer touchpoints. 201)

B Web-based self-service allows customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems. 202)

C Call scripting accesses organizational databases that track similar issues or questions and automatically generate the details to the customer service representative who can then relay them to the customer. 203)

C Automatic call distribution is a phone switch that routes inbound calls to available agents. 204)

B Interactive voice response directs customers to use touch-tone phones or keywords to navigate or provide information. 205)

A Predictive dialing automatically dials outbound calls and when someone answers, the call is forwarded to an available agent. 206)

A

A contact center or call center is where customer service representatives answer customer inquiries and solve problems, usually by email, chat, or phone. 207)

B Web-based self-service systems allow customers to use the web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems. 208)

C Call scripting systems gather product details and issue resolution information that can be automatically generated into a script for the representative to read to the customer. 209)

D Uplift modeling is a form of predictive analytics for marketing campaigns that attempts to identify target markets or people who could be convinced to buy products. 210)

B Customer segmentation divides a market into categories that share similar attributes such as age, location, gender, habits, and so on. 211)

C The average time to resolution is a common customer service CRM metric. 212)

A A first call resolution is properly addressing the customer’s need the first time they call, thereby eliminating the need for the customer to follow up with a second call. 213)

D Cost per interaction by marketing campaign is a common marketing CRM metric. 214)

D Customer service and support (CSS) is a part of operational CRM that automates service requests, complaints, product returns, and information requests. 215)

C Campaign management systems guide users through marketing campaigns by performing such tasks as campaign definition, planning, scheduling, segmentation, and success analysis. 216)

A Cross-selling is selling additional products or services to an existing customer. 217)

A

Up-selling is increasing the value of the sale. 218)

A A first call resolution (FCR) is properly addressing the customer’s need the first time they call, thereby eliminating the need for the customer to follow up with a second call. 219)

C Customer profitability (CP) measures the customer’s worth over a specific period of time. 220)

D In marketing, customer lifetime value (CLV) is a metric that represents the total net profit a company makes from any given customer. 221)

A A chatbot is an artificial intelligence (AI) program that simulates interactive human conversation by using key precalculated user phrases and auditory or text-based signals. 222)

B An intelligent virtual agent is an animated, humanlike graphical chat bot commonly displayed on website home pages and advertisement landing pages. 223)

A The key word in ERP is enterprise and not necessarily resource or planning. 224)

C This is the definition of ERP. 225)

B ERP vendors differentiate themselves by offering distinct functionality such as CRM and SCM. 226)

C Business intelligence is an extended ERP component. 227)

C These are the primary activities performed by the accounting and finance components. 228)

B These are the primary activities performed by the production and materials management components. 229)

A

These are the primary activities performed by the human resource components. 230)

A One of the best features of an accounting and finance component is its credit-management feature. 231)

C These activities are performed by the human resource component. 232)

D All of these are included in an extended ERP component. 233)

A These are the primary activities performed by a business intelligence component. 234)

D All of the above describe ERP systems. 235)

D At the heart of an ERP system is a central database. 236)

D All of these occur due to the use of an ERP system. 237)

C The primary users of SCM systems are customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and distributors. 238)

C The primary business benefits of an ERP system include forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution. 239)

B The primary users of ERP systems are accounting, finance, logistics, and production. 240)

A A CRM application’s primary business benefits include sales forecasts, sales strategies, and marketing campaigns. 241)

B

SCM application’s primary business benefits include market demand, resource and capacity constraints, and real-time scheduling. 242)

C ERP application’s primary business benefits include forecasting, planning, purchasing, material management, warehousing, inventory, and distribution. 243)

A Software customization modifies existing software according to the business’s or user’s requirements. 244)

Essay Integrations allow separate systems to communicate directly with each other, eliminating the need for manual entry into multiple systems. Building integrations allows information sharing across databases along with dramatic increase of quality. 245)

Essay A supply chain consists of all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product. To automate and enable sophisticated decision making in these critical areas, companies are turning to systems that provide demand forecasting, inventory control, and information flows between suppliers and customers. Supply chain management (SCM) is the management of information flows between and among activities in a supply chain to maximize total supply chain effectiveness and corporate profitability. In the past, manufacturing efforts focused primarily on quality improvement efforts within the company; today, these efforts reach across the entire supply chain, including customers, customers’ customers, suppliers, and suppliers’ suppliers. Today’s supply chain is an intricate network of business partners linked through communication channels and relationships. Improved visibility across the supply chain and increased profitability for the firm are the primary business benefits received when implementing supply chain management systems. Supply chain visibility is the ability to view all areas up and down the supply chain in real time. The primary challenges associated with supply chain management include costs and complexity. The next wave in supply chain management will be home-based supply chain fulfillment. No more running to the store to replace your products because your store will come to you as soon as you need a new product. 246)

Essay

The three components of supply chain management on which companies focus to find efficiencies include procurement, logistics, and materials management. Procurement is the purchasing of goods and services to meet the needs of the supply chain. Materials management includes activities that govern the flow of tangible, physical materials through the supply chain such as shipping, transport, distribution, and warehousing. The technologies reinventing the supply chain include 3D printing, RFID, drones, and robotics. 247)

Essay Customer relationship management (CRM) is a means of managing all aspects of a customer’s relationship with an organization to increase customer loyalty and retention and an organization’s profitability. CRM allows an organization to gain insights into customers’ shopping and buying behaviors. Every time a customer communicates with a company, the firm has the chance to build a trusting relationship with that particular customer. Companies that understand individual customer needs are best positioned to achieve success. Building successful customer relationships is not a new business practice; however, implementing CRM systems allows a company to operate more efficiently and effectively in the area of supporting customer needs. CRM moves far beyond technology by identifying customer needs and designing specific marketing campaigns tailored to each. The two primary components of a CRM strategy are operational CRM and analytical CRM. Operational CRM supports traditional transactional processing for day-to-day front-office operations or systems that deal directly with the customers. Analytical CRM supports back-office operations and strategic analysis and includes all systems that do not deal directly with the customers. 248)

Essay Enterprise resource planning (ERP) integrates all departments and functions throughout an organization into a single IT system (or integrated set of IT systems) so employees can make decisions by viewing enterprisewide information about all business operations. The current generation of ERP, ERP-II, is composed of two primary components—core and extended. Core ERP components are the traditional components included in most ERP systems and primarily focus on internal operations. Extended ERP components are the extra components that meet organizational needs not covered by the core components and primarily focus on external operations.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 2538) A joint application development session is where employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2539) Business requirements are the specific business requests the system must meet to be

successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2540) Business requirements include the process of transferring information from a legacy

system to a new system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2541) Conversion modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2542) Off-the-shelf application software supports general business processes and does not

require any specific software customization to meet the organization’s needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2543) The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for developing

information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2544) The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines

project goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2545) Conversion occurs when a person or event is the catalyst for implementing major changes

for a system to meet business changes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2546) Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as

many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2547) Requirements management is the process of managing changes to the business

requirements throughout the project. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2548) Projects are typically dynamic in nature, and change should be expected and anticipated

for successful project completion. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2549) A requirements definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order

of importance to the company. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2550) Sign-off is the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business

requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2551) The analysis phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the

system, including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2552) The design phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the

system, including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2553) The testing phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and

transforms them into the actual system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2554) Software engineering is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems

through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2555) Software engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools that

provide automated support for the development of the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2556) Fourth-generation languages (4GL) are programming languages that look similar to

human languages. For example, a typical 4GL command might state, “FIND ALL RECORDS WHERE NAME IS ‘SMITH’.” ⊚ true ⊚ false 2557) The development phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing

environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2558) Bugs are defects in the code of an information system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2559) Test conditions detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of

each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2560) User documentation is created to highlight how to use the system and how to

troubleshoot issues or problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2561) Training is also provided for the system users and can be online or in a workshop. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2562) Coders refer to people who write programs that operate computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2563) Testers are people who write programs that operate computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2564) Online training runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the

training on their own time at their own pace. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2565) Workshop training is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2566) A help desk is a group of people who respond to users’ questions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2567) Development testing assesses if the entire system meets the design requirements of the

users. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2568) Alpha testing occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2569) Development testing verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back

and forth correctly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2570) Integration testing verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when

integrated together. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2571) User acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the system satisfies the user and business

requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2572) User acceptance testing tests individual units or pieces of code for a system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2573) Unit testing uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify that the

new system functions correctly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2574) Plunge implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates

all users to the new system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2575) Pilot implementation involves a small group of people using the new system until it is

verified that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrate to it. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2576) Pilot implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until

it is verified that it works correctly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2577) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or

implementation issues. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2578) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system

failure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2579) Internal reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for

employees within an organization. Internal reports typically support day-to-day operations monitoring that supports managerial decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2580) Detailed internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of

the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2581) Exception reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2582) Summary internal reports highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating

range for a condition or standard. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2583) Information system control reports ensure the reliability of information, consisting of

policies and their physical implementation, access restrictions, or record keeping of actions and transactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2584) Information systems audit reports assess a company’s information system to determine

necessary changes and to help ensure the information systems’ availability, confidentiality, and integrity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2585) Post-implementation reports are formal reports or audits of a project after it is up and

running. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2586) Preventative maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system

failure. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2587) Encouraging liabilities is a business-related consequence of failed software. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2588) The implementation phase involves taking all of the detailed design documents from the

design phase and transforming them into the actual system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2589) Process modeling involves graphically representing the processes that capture,

manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2590) A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates the movement of information between external

entities and the processes and data stores within the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2591) A data flow diagram involves graphically representing the processes that capture,

manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2592) Process modeling illustrates the movement of information between external entities and

the processes and data stores within the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2593) Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are software suites that automate

systems analysis, design, and development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2594) Coders are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2595) First-generation machine language is difficult for people to understand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2596) Second-generation assembly language is difficult for people to understand. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2597) Third-generation high-level programming languages, such as C+ and Java, are high-level

programming languages. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2598) Fourth-generation programming languages look similar to human languages. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2599) Fifth-generation programming languages are used for artificial intelligence and neural

networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2600) A supervised review is a meeting in which the project team provides an in-depth analysis

of project results to ensure that the work was done accurately. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2601) A technical review is a meeting in which an independent team of experts provides an in-

depth analysis of project results to ensure that team members did the work accurately, completely, and to the right quality standard. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2602) The traditional waterfall methodology is a sequential, activity-based process in which

each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2603) Scrum is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is

performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2604) A prototype is a smaller-scale representation or working model of the users’ requirements

or a proposed design for an information system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2605) A methodology is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools,

techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2606) Plunge implementation is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices,

tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2607) The oldest and the best-known software development methodology is the waterfall

methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input for the next. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2608) The oldest and the best-known software development methodology is the agile

methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input for the next. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2609) Prototyping is a modern design approach by which the designers and system users use an

iterative approach to build the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2610) Iterative development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation of

multiple agile methodologies. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2611) Waterfall development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation

of multiple agile methodologies. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2612) An agile methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous

delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process using the bare minimum requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2613) Rapid application development (RAD) methodology (also called rapid prototyping)

emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2614) Extreme programming (XP) methodology, like other agile methods, breaks a project into

four phases, and developers cannot continue to the next phase until the previous phase is complete. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2615) The rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework

for breaking down the development of software into four gates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2616) The scrum methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a

series of sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2617) Project miles are any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is

produced to complete a project or part of a project. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2618) Project deliverables represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be

performed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2619) Rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for

breaking down the development of software into four “gates.” ⊚ true ⊚ false 2620) Scrum methodology, uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series

of “sprints,” or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2621) A communication plan defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of

project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2622) The executive sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the

project. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2623) Project constraints are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or

demonstration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2624) Project assumptions are specific factors that can limit options, including budget, delivery

dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2625) A project objective is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is

produced to complete a project or part of a project. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2626) The project management office (PMO) is an internal department that oversees all

organizational projects. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2627) Project assumptions represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be

performed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2628) Project objectives are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be

considered a success. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2629) The project requirements document defines the specifications for product/output of the

project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2630) The project scope statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals.

It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2631) The project managers are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or

whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2632) The responsibility matrix defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are

associated with each role. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2633) Status reports are periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2634) A kill switch is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before

completion. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2635) A Gantt chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the

relationships between them. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2636) A dependency is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a

project task and a milestone. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2637) A dependency is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before

completion. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2638) A kill switch is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a

project task and a milestone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2639) Gantt charts define dependency between project tasks before those tasks are scheduled. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2640) A critical path for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by

which the project can be completed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2641) A PERT chart is a simple bar chart that lists project tasks vertically against the project’s

time frame, listed horizontally. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2642) In the past, outsourcing was often used tactically, as a quick-fix, short-term solution to a

particular need or problem that did not form part of an overall business strategy. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2643) Outsourcing is a common approach using the professional expertise within an

organization to develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2644) In-sourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services

for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2645) Offshore outsourcing is using organizations from developing countries to write code and

develop systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2646) In-sourcing (in-house development) uses the professional expertise within an

organization to develop and maintain its information technology systems. In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT professionals and in creating a betterquality workforce combining both technical and business skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2647) In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT professionals and in

creating a better-quality workforce combining both technical and business skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2648) Outsourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services

for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2649) Onshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another company within the same country

for services. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2650) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a

company in a nearby country. Often this country will share a border with the native country. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2651) Offshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to write

code and develop systems. In offshore outsourcing, the country is geographically far away. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2652) Offshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another company within the same country

for services. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2653) Onshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a

company in a nearby country. Often this country will share a border with the native country. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2654) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations from developing countries to

write code and develop systems. In offshore outsourcing, the country is geographically far away. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2655) Human resources are the most common outsourced function. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2656) In which phase does the firm analyze its end-user business requirements and refine project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system? A) analysis phase B) design phase C) development phase D) testing phase 2657) What are the specific business requests the system development effort must meet to be

successful? A) legacy system B) conversion C) business requirements D) sign-off 2658) What is the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system? A) off-the-shelf software B) conversion C) business requirements D) sign-off 2659) What modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements? A) software customization B) conversion C) business requirements D) sign-off 2660) Which software supports general business processes and does not require any specific

software customization to meet the organization’s needs? A) systems development life cycle B) customized software C) off-the-shelf application software D) application software

2661) What is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and

analysis through implementation and maintenance? A) systems development life cycle B) software customization C) off-the-shelf application software D) legacy system 2662) Which phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project

goals? A) B) C) D)

testing phase analysis phase maintenance phase planning phase

2663) What is a person or event that is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a

system to meet business changes? A) change controller B) change over C) change management D) change agent 2664) What is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many

ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted? A) brainstorming B) change agent C) test conditions D) bugs 2665) What is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the

project? A) requirements documentation B) requirements management C) requirements definition document D) change agent

2666) Which document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to

the company? A) requirements documentation B) requirements management C) requirements definition document D) change agent 2667) What contains the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business

requirements? A) change agent B) requirements management C) requirements definition document D) sign-off 2668) Which phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and

transforms them into the actual system? A) testing phase B) analysis phase C) development phase D) planning phase 2669) What is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of

common methods, techniques, or tools? A) software B) software testing C) software engineering D) software customization 2670) What do software engineers use as tools to provide automated support for the

development of the system? A) software B) software engineer C) iterative development D) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) 2671) What languages are programming languages that look similar to human languages? A) extreme programming B) object-oriented languages C) fourth-generation languages D) pseudocodes

2672) What refers to a unique set of keywords along with a special syntax for organizing

program instructions that execute computer commands? A) programming language B) database C) design document D) testing document 2673) Which phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to

eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase? A) testing phase B) analysis phase C) development phase D) planning phase 2674) What are defects in the code of an information system? A) testing B) bugs C) insects D) programming language 2675) What details the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each

step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it? A) testing phase B) testing documentation C) test conditions D) bugs 2676) What is created for users to highlight how to use the system and troubleshoot issues or

problems? A) user documentation B) requirements definition document C) scope document D) development document

2677) What is provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom? A) training B) testing C) implementation phase D) testing phase 2678) What runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on

their own time at their own pace? A) online training B) workshop training C) help desk D) corrective maintenance 2679) What is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor? A) online training B) workshop training C) help desk D) corrective maintenance 2680) What is a group of people who respond to users’ questions? A) online training B) workshop training C) help desk D) corrective maintenance 2681) What assesses whether the entire system meets the design requirements of the users? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing 2682) What occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing

2683) What verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth

correctly? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing 2684) What verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) system testing 2685) What determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements? A) alpha testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) user acceptance testing 2686) What tests individual units or pieces of code for a system? A) unit testing B) development testing C) integration testing D) user acceptance testing 2687) Which implementation uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify

that the new system functions correctly? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation 2688) Which implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates

all users to the new system? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation

2689) Which implementation is a small group of people using the new system until it is verified

that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrating to it? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation 2690) Which implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department)

until it is verified that it works correctly? A) parallel implementation B) plunge implementation C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation 2691) What makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation

issues? A) B) C) D)

corrective maintenance preventative maintenance pilot implementation phased implementation

2692) What makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure? A) corrective maintenance B) preventative maintenance C) pilot implementation D) phased implementation 2693) Which reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for

employees within an organization? A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports 2694) Which internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the

data? A) B) C) D)

internal reports detailed internal reports summary internal reports exception reports

2695) Which internal reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal? A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports 2696) Which reports highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a

condition or standard? A) internal reports B) detailed internal reports C) summary internal reports D) exception reports 2697) Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software? A) increased revenue B) damage to brand reputation C) increased liabilities D) increased expenses 2698) Which of the following is a business-related consequence of failing software? A) decrease productivity B) damage to brand reputation C) increased liabilities D) All of the answers are correct. 2699) What is the systems development life cycle? A) a process that involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and

determining project goals B) a process that involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) a process that involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance 2700) What is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and

analysis through implementation and maintenance? A) systems development life cycle B) project management C) systems management D) project development life cycle

2701) Which of the following represents the phases in the SDLC? A) plan, analysis, design, test, maintain, develop, implement B) analysis, plan, design, test, develop, maintain, implement C) plan, analysis, design, develop, test, implement, maintain D) analysis, plan, develop, design, test, implement, maintain 2702) What is the analysis phase in the SDLC? A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project

goals B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system 2703) Which phase of the SDLC gathers business requirements? A) plan B) analysis C) test D) design 2704) What is a session in which employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or

review the business requirements for the system? A) joint application development B) requirements management C) process modeling D) data flow diagram 2705) What is a business requirement? A) a nonspecific business request the system must meet to be successful B) a specific business request the system must meet to be successful C) the nonspecific methodology the system must meet to be successful D) the specific methodology the system must meet to be successful

2706) What is the design phase in the SDLC? A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project

goals B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system 2707) What is the implementation phase in the SDLC? A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project

goals B) involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system C) involves describing the desired features and operations of the system D) involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system 2708) What is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques,

and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges? A) project plan B) methodology C) waterfall D) agile 2709) What is a project manager? A) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and

develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget B) the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment

2710) What is the project scope? A) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and

develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget B) the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment 2711) What is a project plan? A) an illustration of the movement of information between external entities and the

processes and data stores within the system B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment 2712) What is process modeling? A) an illustration of the movement of information between external entities and the

processes and data stores within the system B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment 2713) What is a data flow diagram (DFD)? A) an illustration of the movement of information between external entities and the

processes and data stores within the system B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment

2714) What are computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools? A) an illustration of the movement of information between external entities and the

processes and data stores within the system B) software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development C) a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project D) a graphic representation of the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment 2715) What involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and

distribute information between a system and its environment? A) data flow diagram B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools C) systems development life cycle D) process modeling 2716) What illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes

and data stores within the system? A) data flow diagram B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools C) systems development life cycle D) process modeling 2717) What are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development? A) data flow diagram B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools C) systems development life cycle D) process modeling 2718) Which machine language is difficult for people to understand? A) first-generation machine language B) fifth-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language 2719) Which assembly language is difficult for people to understand? A) fifth-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language

2720) Which high-level programming language uses C+ and Java? A) first-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language 2721) What is the term used to refer to people who write programs that operate computers? A) coders B) testers C) analysts D) designers 2722) Which programming language looks similar to human languages? A) first-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language 2723) Which programming language is for artificial intelligence and neural network? A) fifth-generation machine language B) second-generation machine language C) third-generation machine language D) fourth-generation machine language 2724) Which of the following is a purpose of a technical review? A) to detail the steps a system must perform along with the expected result of each step B) to provide an in-depth analysis of project results C) to eliminate errors and bugs from a system D) to verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis

phase 2725) Which of the following is an issue related to the waterfall methodology? A) flaws in accurately defining and articulating the business problem B) managing costs, resources, and time constraints C) assumes users can specify all business requirements in advance D) All of the answers are correct.

2726) What consists of a series of tiny projects? A) waterfall methodology B) iterative development C) scope creep parking lot D) scope creep 2727) Which methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery

of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements? A) rad methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming 2728) Which of the following describes agile methodology? A) fast and efficient B) small and nimble C) lower cost D) All of the answers are correct. 2729) Which of the following is not a primary form of agile methodology? A) RAD B) SDLC C) RUP D) scrum 2730) What is an activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed

sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance? A) RAD methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming 2731) What emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction

of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process? A) RAD methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming

2732) What breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next

phase until the first phase is complete? A) RAD methodology B) agile methodology C) waterfall methodology D) extreme programming 2733) What is the success rate for a project using the waterfall methodology? A) 1 in 10 B) 2 in 10 C) 4 in 10 D) 8 in 10 2734) Which of the following is a fundamental of the RAD methodology? A) focus initially on creating a prototype that looks and acts like the desired system B) actively involve system users in the analysis, design, and development phases C) accelerate collecting the business requirements through an interactive and iterative

construction approach D) All of the answers are correct. 2735) Which methodology provides a framework for breaking down the development of

software into four gates? A) scrum B) XP C) RAD D) RUP 2736) Which of the following is not one of the four gates in the RUP methodology? A) inception B) collaboration C) construction D) transition 2737) Which gate in the RUP methodology expands on the agreed-upon details of the system,

including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it? A) inception B) elaboration C) construction D) All of the answers are correct.

2738) Which gate in the RUP methodology includes building and developing the project? A) inception B) elaboration C) construction D) All of the answers are correct. 2739) Which methodology is owned by IBM? A) scrum B) All of the answers are correct. C) RAD D) RUP 2740) Which methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable software

using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal? A) scrum B) XP C) All of the answers are correct. D) RAD 2741) Which methodology ends or begins each day with a stand-up meeting to monitor and

control the development effort? A) scrum B) XP C) RUP D) RAD 2742) How many days is a typical sprint in the scrum methodology? A) 1 days B) 100 days C) 30 days D) 90 days 2743) Which gate ensures that all stakeholders have a shared understanding of the proposed

system and what it will do? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

2744) Which gate expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to

provide an architecture to support and build it? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four 2745) Which gate includes building and developing the product? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four 2746) Which gate answers primary questions addressing ownership of the system and training

of key personnel? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four 2747) Which gate is inception? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four 2748) Which gate is elaboration? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four 2749) Which gate is transition? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four

2750) Which gate is construction? A) gate one B) gate two C) gate three D) gate four 2751) What are the three primary variables (or triple constraints) in any project? A) time, cost, expense B) time, expense, requirements C) time, cost, scope D) time, cost, quality 2752) What is the number one reason that IT projects fall behind schedule or fail? A) change in business goals during the project B) lack of support from business management C) poor planning or poor project management D) change in technology during the project 2753) Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project? A) delivered on time B) delivered within budget C) meets the business’s requirements D) All of the answers are correct. 2754) What is a project? A) a temporary activity undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order

to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed 2755) What are project deliverables? A) a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order

to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project D) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

2756) What is a project manager? A) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order

to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project B) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project C) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed D) an individual who is an expert in project planning and management 2757) Which of the following does a project manager perform? A) defines and develops the project plan B) tracks the plan to ensure all key project milestones are completed on time C) expert in project planning and management D) All of the answers are correct. 2758) What is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects? A) project deliverables B) project scope C) project management office D) All of the answers are correct. 2759) The Project Management Institute (PMI) develops procedures and concepts necessary to

support the profession of project management. Which of the following is not one of the three areas it focuses on? A) the distinguishing characteristics of a practicing professional (ethics) B) content and structure of the profession’s body of knowledge (standards) C) change in business goals during project planning (management) D) recognition of professional attainment (accreditation) 2760) Who are the individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose

interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion? A) project managers B) project stakeholders. C) executive sponsors D) All of the answers are correct. 2761) Who is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project? A) project manager B) project stakeholders C) executive sponsor D) project team

2762) What defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to

stakeholders and is key for managing expectations? A) communication plan B) executive sponsor C) project assumptions D) project deliverable 2763) What are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration? A) project plan B) project constraints C) project assumptions D) project deliverable 2764) What are specific factors that can limit options, including budget, delivery dates,

available skilled resources, and organizational policies? A) project objectives B) project constraints C) project assumptions D) project deliverables 2765) What is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to

complete a project or part of a project? A) project milestone B) project objective C) project assumption D) project deliverable 2766) What represents key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project assumptions D) project deliverables 2767) What are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project assumptions D) project deliverables

2768) What defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing

expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project requirements document D) project deliverables 2769) What statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals? A) project milestones B) project objectives C) project scope statement D) project deliverables 2770) Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests

might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion? A) project stakeholders B) project managers C) project planners D) project testers 2771) What defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each

role? A) B) C) D)

communication plan responsibility matrix project assumptions project deliverables

2772) What are intangible benefits? A) benefits that are difficult to quantify or measure B) benefits that are easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or

failure of a project C) the gains attributable to your project that are reportable D) periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance 2773) What are tangible benefits? A) benefits that are difficult to quantify or measure B) benefits that are easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or

failure of a project C) the gains attributable to your project that are reportable D) periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance

2774) What is feasibility? A) difficult to quantify or measure B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a

project C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance 2775) What is economic feasibility? A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve

the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise 2776) What is operational feasibility? A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve

the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise 2777) What is schedule feasibility? A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve

the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise 2778) What is technical feasibility? A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve

the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise

2779) What is political feasibility? A) a measure of how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity B) a measure of how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve

the problems and take advantage of opportunities C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise 2780) What is legal feasibility? A) a measure of how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity B) a measure of how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and

contractual obligations C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time D) a measure of the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise 2781) What measures the cost-effectiveness of a project? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility 2782) What measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the

problems and take advantage of opportunities? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility 2783) What measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility

2784) What measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical

resources and expertise? A) economic feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) technical feasibility 2785) What measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity? A) political feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) legal feasibility 2786) What measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and

contractual obligations? A) political feasibility B) operational feasibility C) schedule feasibility D) legal feasibility 2787) What is a status report? A) difficult to quantify or measure B) easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a

project C) the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system D) a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance 2788) Which of the following are tangible benefits? A) improved decision making B) improved community service C) improved goodwill D) increased quantity or sales 2789) Which of the following are intangible benefits? A) improved decision making B) decreased expenses C) decreased response time D) increased quantity or sales

2790) What are project constraints? A) specific factors that can limit options B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the

existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities 2791) What are project assumptions? A) specific factors that can limit options B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the

existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities 2792) What is a project charter? A) specific factors that can limit options B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success D) a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the

existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities 2793) An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does

the “what” part of this question focus on? A) justification of the project B) definition of the project C) expected results of the project D) All of the answers are correct. 2794) An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does

the “how” part of this question focus on? A) justification of the project B) definition of the project C) analysis of project risks D) expected results of the project

2795) What is project scope? A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success B) products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to

complete a project or part of a project D) definition of the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions 2796) What are project objectives? A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success B) products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to

complete a project or part of a project D) definition of the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions 2797) What does SMART criteria for successful objective creation include? A) specific, metrics, agreed-upon, real, time-valued B) specific, measurable, agreed-upon, realistic, time-framed C) specific, measurable, accurate, real, time-valued D) specific, metrics, agreed-upon, realistic, time-framed 2798) Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-defined project plan? A) easy to read B) appropriate to the project’s size C) communicated to all key participants D) All of the answers are correct. 2799) What is the most important part of the project plan? A) slack B) specification C) communication D) scope creep 2800) What is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships

between those tasks? A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) dependency D) work breakdown structure

2801) What is the logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a project

task and a milestone? A) resource B) task C) dependency D) activity 2802) What is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar? A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) dependency D) work breakdown structure 2803) What type of chart typically displays the critical path? A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) work breakdown structure D) three interdependent variables 2804) What is the critical path? A) the path from resource to task that passes through all critical components of a project

plan B) the path between tasks to the project’s finish that passes through all critical components of a project plan C) the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed D) the path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the longest amount of time 2805) The critical path is a series of activities that determine the ________ time by which the

project can be completed. A) latest B) between C) earliest D) slack

2806) In a Gantt chart, tasks are listed ________, and the project’s time frame is listed

________. A) vertically; horizontally B) horizontally; vertically C) vertically; vertically D) horizontally; horizontally 2807) What is a concise written description of the project’s intended work? A) project charter B) kill switch C) dependency D) work breakdown structure 2808) What is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding

activity or the project finish date? A) project charter B) kill switch C) dependency D) slack 2809) What is the tendency to permit changes that exceed a project’s scope and may wreak

havoc on the schedule, work quality, and budget? A) scope creep B) kill switch C) dependency D) slack 2810) What is a plan that breaks down a project’s goals into the many deliverables required to

achieve it? A) work breakdown structure B) project scope C) prototyping D) technical review 2811) What subdivides complex activities into their most manageable units? A) work breakdown structure B) project scope C) prototyping D) technical review

2812) What question is asked repeatedly when creating a work breakdown structure? A) What will have to be done to accomplish X? B) Can we afford to add additional features? C) What will scope creep look like? D) Will we need outsourcing? 2813) Which of the following includes a common reason why change occurs? A) a misunderstanding of the initial scope B) shifts in planned technology that force unexpected and significant changes to the

business C) an omission in defining initial scope D) All of the answers are correct. 2814) What is the outsourcing option that includes the most remote location and indirect

customer control? A) onshore outsourcing B) nearshore outsourcing C) offshore outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct. 2815) What is the outsourcing option that includes the closest location and direct customer

control? A) onshore outsourcing B) nearshore outsourcing C) offshore outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct. 2816) What is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to

develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems? A) in-sourcing B) outsourcing C) business process outsourcing D) offshore outsourcing 2817) What is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for

another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house? A) in-sourcing B) outsourcing C) business process outsourcing D) offshore outsourcing

2818) What is it called when a company uses organizations from developing countries to write

code and develop systems? A) in-sourcing B) outsourcing C) business process outsourcing D) offshore outsourcing ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 2819) Describe the seven phases of the systems development life cycle.

2820) Explain the term technical review, when it occurs, and explain its importance.

2821) Summarize the different software development methodologies.

2822) Explain project management and the role the triple constraints play when managing a

project.

2823) Describe the project stakeholder’s and executive sponsor’s roles in choosing strategic

projects.

2824) Describe the two primary diagrams most frequently used in project planning.

2825) Identify the three primary areas a project manager must focus on managing to ensure

success.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) TRUE

A joint application development session is where employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system. 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE

Coders write programs that operate computers. 26) FALSE

Coders write programs that operate computers. 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE

31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE

71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE

111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117) 118) 119)

TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE A In the analysis phase, the firm analyzes its end-user business requirements and refines project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system. 120)

C Business requirements are the specific business requests the system development effort must meet to be successful. The analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire system development effort. 121)

B Conversion is the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system. 122)

A Software customization modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements. 123)

C Off-the-shelf application software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization’s needs. 124)

A The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance. 125)

D The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals. 126)

D A change agent is a person or event that is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes. 127)

A

Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted. 128)

B Requirements management is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project. 129)

C A requirements definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company. 130)

D Sign-off is the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements. 131)

C The development phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system. 132)

C Software engineering is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools. 133)

D Software engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools provide automated support for the development of the system. 134)

C Fourth-generation languages are programming languages that look similar to human languages. 135)

A A programming language refers to a unique set of keywords along with a special syntax for organizing program instructions that execute computer commands. 136)

A The testing phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase. 137)

B Bugs are defects in the code of an information system.

138)

C Test conditions detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it. 139)

A User documentation is created for users to highlight how to use the system and troubleshoot issues or problems. 140)

A Training is provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom. 141)

A Online training runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace. 142)

B Workshop training is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor. 143)

C Help desk is a group of people who respond to users’ questions. 144)

A Alpha testing assesses whether the entire system meets the design requirements of the users. 145)

B Development testing occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free. 146)

C Integration testing verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly. 147)

D System testing verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together. 148)

D User acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements. 149)

A

Unit testing tests individual units or pieces of code for a system. 150)

A Parallel implementation uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verify that the new system functions correctly. 151)

B Plunge implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system. 152)

C Pilot implementation involves a small group of people using the new system until it is verified that it works correctly, then the remaining users migrating to it. 153)

D Phased implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly. 154)

A Corrective maintenance makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues. 155)

B Preventative maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure. 156)

A Internal reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization. 157)

B Detailed internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data. 158)

C Summary internal reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal. 159)

D Exception reports are internal reports that highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard. 160)

A

Increased revenue is a consequence of software success. 161)

D All of the answers are consequences of software failure. 162)

D The SDLC is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance. 163)

A The SDLC is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance. 164)

C Plan, analysis, design, test, implement, maintain is the SDLC order. 165)

B The analysis phase involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system. 166)

B Analysis gathers business requirements. 167)

A A joint application development session is one in which employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system. 168)

B A business requirement is a specific business request the system must meet to be successful. 169)

C The design phase involves describing the desired features and operations of the system. 170)

D The implementation phase involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system. 171)

B Methodology is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges.

172)

A A project manager is an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget. 173)

B The project scope describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project. 174)

C The project plan is a formal, approved document that manages and controls the entire project. 175)

D Process modeling involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment. 176)

A A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system. 177)

B Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development. 178)

D Process modeling involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment. 179)

A A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system. 180)

B Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development. 181)

A First-generation machine language is difficult for people to understand. 182)

B

Second-generation assembly language is difficult for people to understand. 183)

C Third-generation high-level programming languages use C+ and Java. 184)

A Coders write programs that operate computers. 185)

D Fourth-generation programming language looks similar to human languages. 186)

A Fifth-generation programming language is for artificial intelligence and neural networks. 187)

B A technical review (or peer review) is a meeting in which an independent team of experts provides an in-depth analysis of project results to ensure that team members did the work accurately, completely, and to the right quality standard. 188)

D All of these are issues related to the waterfall methodology, according to the figure. 189)

B Iterative development consists of a series of tiny projects. 190)

B Agile methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements. 191)

D All of these describe agile methodology. 192)

B SDLC is not a form of agile methodology. 193)

C Traditional waterfall methodology is an activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance. 194)

A

RAD methodology emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process. 195)

D Extreme programming breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete. 196)

A The waterfall methodology has a 10 percent success rate, or 1 in 10. 197)

D All of these are the fundamentals of the RAD methodology. 198)

D This is the definition of RUP. 199)

B Elaboration is the gate in RUP, not collaboration. 200)

B Elaboration expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it. 201)

C Construction includes building and developing the project. 202)

D RUP is owned by IBM. 203)

A Scrum uses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable software using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal. 204)

A Scrum methodology ends or begins each day with a stand-up meeting to monitor and control the development effort. 205)

C Thirty-day intervals are a sprint in the scrum methodology. 206)

A

Gate one ensures that all stakeholders have a shared understanding of the proposed system and what it will do. 207)

B Gate two, elaboration, expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it. 208)

C Gate three, construction, includes building and developing the product. 209)

D Gate four answers primary questions addressing ownership of the system and training of key personnel. 210)

A Gate one is inception. 211)

B Gate two is elaboration. 212)

D Gate four is transition. 213)

C Gate three is construction. 214)

C Time, cost, and scope are the three primary project variables. 215)

C Poor planning or poor project management is the number one reason why IT projects fall behind schedule or fail. 216)

D All of these are characteristics of successful projects. 217)

A This is the definition of project. 218)

C

Project deliverables any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project. 219)

D A project manager is an individual who is an expert in project planning and management. 220)

D This is the definition of project manager. 221)

C This is the definition of a project management office (PMO). 222)

C Change in business goals during project planning is not one of the three areas PMI focuses on. 223)

B Project stakeholders are the individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. 224)

C Executive sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project. 225)

A The communication plan defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations. 226)

C Project assumptions are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration. 227)

B Project constraints are specific factors that can limit options, including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies. 228)

D A project deliverable is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project. 229)

A Project milestones represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.

230)

B Project objectives are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success. 231)

C The project requirements document defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts. 232)

C The project scope statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals. It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project. 233)

A Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. 234)

B The responsibility matrix defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role. 235)

A Intangible benefits are difficult to quantify or measure. 236)

B Tangible benefits are easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project. 237)

C Feasibility is the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system. 238)

A Economic feasibility measures the cost-effectiveness of a project. 239)

B Operational feasibility measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities. 240)

C Schedule feasibility measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time.

241)

D Technical feasibility measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise. 242)

A Political feasibility measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity. 243)

B Legal feasibility measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations. 244)

A Economic feasibility measures the cost-effectiveness of a project. 245)

B Operational feasibility measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities. 246)

C Schedule feasibility measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time. 247)

D Technical feasibility measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise. 248)

A Political feasibility measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity. 249)

D Legal feasibility measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations. 250)

D A status report is a periodic review of actual performance versus expected performance. 251)

D Increased quantity or sales are tangible benefits. 252)

A Improved decision making is a tangible benefit.

253)

A Project constraints specific factors that can limit options. 254)

B Project assumptions factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration. 255)

D Project charter a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. 256)

D All of these are part of the “what” question. 257)

C The “how” part focuses on the analysis of project risks. 258)

D Project scope definition of the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions. 259)

A Project objectives quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success. 260)

B SMART includes specific, measurable, agreed-upon, realistic, and time-framed. 261)

D A well-defined project plan includes those that are easy to read, appropriate to the project’s size, and is communicated to all of the key participants. 262)

C Communication of the project plan is the most important part of the plan. 263)

B PERT chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks. 264)

C

Dependency is the logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a project task and a milestone. 265)

A Gantt chart is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar. 266)

B The PERT chart typically displays the critical path. 267)

C Critical path the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed. 268)

C The critical path defines the earliest time. 269)

A In a Gantt chart, tasks are listed vertically, and the project’s time frame is listed horizontally. 270)

A A project charter is a concise written description of the project’s intended work. 271)

D Slack is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish date. 272)

A Scope creep is the tendency to permit changes that exceed a project’s scope and may wreak havoc on the schedule, work quality, and budget. 273)

A A work breakdown structure is a plan that breaks down a project’s goals into the many deliverables required to achieve it. 274)

A A work breakdown structure is a plan that breaks down a project’s goals into the many deliverables required to achieve it. 275)

A

“What will have to be done to accomplish X?” is the question that must be asked repeatedly in a WBS. 276)

D All of the answer choices are common reasons why change occurs. 277)

C Offshore outsourcing offers a remote location and indirect customer control. 278)

A Onshore outsourcing offers the closest location and direct customer control. 279)

A This is the definition of in-sourcing. 280)

B This is the definition of outsourcing. 281)

D This is the definition of offshore outsourcing. 282)

Essay Planning phase involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals. Analysis phase involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system. Design phase involves describing the desired features and operations of the system, including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation. Development phase involves taking all of the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforming them into the actual system. Testing phase involves bringing all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to test for errors, bugs, and interoperability in order to verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase. Implementation phase involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system. Maintenance phase involves performing changes, corrections, additions, and upgrades to ensure the system continues to meet the business goals. 283)

Essay A technical review occurs before the testing phase. It is a meeting in which an independent team of experts provides an in-depth analysis of project results to ensure that team members did the work accurately, completely, and to the right quality standard. It should be an independent group that can be honest and critical about any issues they discover.

284)

Essay There are a number of different software development methodologies including agile methodology that aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements. Waterfall methodology follows an activity-based process in which each phase in the systems development life cycle (SDLC) is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance. Rapid application development methodology (RAD) emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process. Extreme programming (XP) methodology breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete. Rational unified process (RUP) provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four gates. Scrum uses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable software using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal. 285)

Essay A project is a temporary or short-term endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result, such as developing a custom ecommerce site or merging databases. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. A project manager is an individual who is an expert in project planning and management, defines and develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure the project is completed on time and on budget. The triple constraints are scope, resources, and time. These three components are interdependent, and if you change one, the others must change. The three primary activities performed by a project manager include choosing strategic projects, setting the project scope, and managing resources and maintaining the project plan. 286)

Essay Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. While all stakeholders are important, one stands out as having the most impact on the success or failure of a project. That person is the executive sponsor or the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project. Techniques for choosing strategic projects include focusing on organizational goals, categorizing projects, and performing a financial analysis. 287)

Essay

A PERT (program evaluation and review technique) chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks. A dependency is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks or between a project task and a milestone. A Gantt chart is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar. In a Gantt chart, tasks are listed vertically, and the project’s time frame is listed horizontally. A Gantt chart works well for representing the project schedule. It also shows actual progress of tasks against the planned duration. 288)

Essay The three primary areas a project manager must focus on managing to ensure success are managing people, communications, and change.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 2826) Volatility is a protected memory space created by the CPU allowing the computer to create virtual machines. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2827) Complex instruction set computer chips limits the number of instructions the CPU can

execute to increase processing speed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2828) A computer is an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its

own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2829) The central processing unit (CPU) (or microprocessor) is the actual hardware that

interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2830) The arithmetic-logic unit includes instructions and literally tells the other hardware

devices what to do, based on the software instructions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2831) The control unit performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and

subtraction) and all logic operations. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2832) Gigahertz is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2833) Megahertz is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2834) Complex instruction set computer (CISC) chips, which is a type of CPU that can

recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2835) Complex instruction set computer chips limit the number of instructions the CPU can

execute to increase processing speed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2836) Primary storage is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access

memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2837) Random access memory (RAM) is the computer’s primary working memory, in which

program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external data bus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2838) Volatility refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power. RAM is volatile,

meaning it must have constant power to function; its contents are lost when the computer’s electric supply fails. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2839) Cache memory is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed

or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2840) Random access memory is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose

its contents when one switches off the power. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2841) ROM is nonvolatile, meaning it does not require constant power to function. ROM

contains essential system programs that neither the user nor the computer can erase. Since the computer’s internal memory is blank during start-up, the computer cannot perform any functions unless given start-up instructions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2842) Flash memory is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact

and portable. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2843) Memory cards contain high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images,

music, or text files. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2844) Memory sticks provide nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including

computers, digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2845) Secondary storage consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for

long-term storage. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2846) A megabyte (MB or M or Meg) is roughly 1 million bytes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2847) Magnetic medium is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store

and retrieve data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2848) Memory stick is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic

coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2849) A hard drive is a secondary storage medium that uses several rigid disks coated with a

magnetically sensitive material and housed together with the recording heads in a hermetically sealed mechanism. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2850) An input device is equipment used to capture information and commands. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2851) Adaptive computer devices are input devices designed for special applications for use by

people with different types of special needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2852) An input device is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of

information-processing requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2853) A tablet is a pen-based computer that provides the screen capabilities of a PDA with the

functional capabilities of a laptop or desktop computer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2854) An appliance is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or

computer game. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2855) A desktop computer is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special

reading device. Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2856) A workstation is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos,

email, and includes many features of a PDA. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2857) Personal digital assistant (PDA) is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks

such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar. The PDA screen is touch-sensitive, allowing a user to write directly on the screen, capturing what is written. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2858) A handheld computer portable enough to fit in a purse or pocket and has its own power

source or battery. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2859) A desktop computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power

source or battery. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2860) A tablet computer has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead of a

keyboard. Similar to PDAs, tablet PCs use a writing pen or stylus to write notes on the screen and touch the screen to perform functions such as clicking on a link while visiting a website. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2861) A personal computer is a computer that is operated by a single user who can customize

the functions to match personal preferences. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2862) A desktop computer sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry

around. The computer box is where the CPU, RAM, and storage devices are held with a monitor on top, or a vertical system box (called a tower) usually placed on the floor within a work area. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2863) A workstation computer is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and

graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2864) A minicomputer is designed to meet the computing needs of several people

simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2865) A common type of minicomputer is a server and is used for managing internal company

applications, networks, and websites. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2866) A mainframe computer is designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in

a large business environment. Mainframe computers are a step up in size, power, capability, and cost from minicomputers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2867) A supercomputer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer.

Organizations such as NASA that are heavily involved in research and number crunching employ supercomputers because of the speed with which they can process information. Other large, customer-oriented businesses such as General Motors and AT&T employ supercomputers just to handle customer information and transaction processing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2868) Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2869) Disk optimization software helps save information if a computer crashes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2870) System software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the

application software. System software includes both operating system software and utility software. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2871) Operating system software controls the application software and manages how the

hardware devices work together. When using Excel to create and print a graph, the operating system software controls the process, ensures that a printer is attached and has paper, and sends the graph to the printer along with instructions on how to print it. Some computers are configured with two operating systems so they can dual boot— provide the user with the option of choosing the operating system when the computer is turned on. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2872) Application software is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications,

such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2873) An iPod has a single-purpose embedded operating system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2874) Application software also supports a variety of useful features, one of which is

multitasking. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2875) Multitasking allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time. Multitasking is

used when creating a graph in Excel and simultaneously printing a word processing document. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2876) Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. Utility software

includes antivirus software, screen savers, and antispam software. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2877) Utility systems are customized by using the control panel, which is a Windows feature

that provides options that set default values for the Windows operating system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2878) Safe mode occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the

operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2879) System restore enables a user to return to the previous operating system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2880) Crash-proof software helps save information if a computer crashes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2881) Disk image is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling

applications if a hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2882) A disk image organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2883) Encrypt data protects confidential information from unauthorized eyes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2884) File and data recovery software retrieves accidental deletion of photos or documents. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2885) Preventative security software uses programs such as Window Washer, erases file

histories, browser cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2886) Spyware removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the

background without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2887) Spyware can remove software that is no longer needed. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2888) Personal information management (PIM) software handles contact information,

appointments, task lists, and email. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2889) Personal information management software contains course information such as a

syllabus and assignments and offers drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2890) Course management software occurs when the software vendor releases updates to

software to fix problems or enhance features. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2891) Software upgrade occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the

software making significant changes to the program. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2892) A single user license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2893) A network user license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2894) A site license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software,

regardless if the computer is on a network. Some employees might install the software on a home computer for working remotely. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2895) Application service provider licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or per-

use basis or usage-based licensing. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2896) Communication turns a computer into a terminal for transmitting data to and receiving

data from distant computers through the telephone system. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2897) Desktop publishing transforms a computer into a desktop publishing workstation.

Leading packages include Adobe FrameMaker, Adobe PageMaker, and QuarkXpress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2898) Email provides email services for computer users, including receiving mail, sending mail,

and storing messages. Leading email software includes Microsoft Outlook, Microsoft Outlook Express, and Eudora. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2899) Desktop publishing increases the cooperation and joint productivity of small groups of

co-workers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2900) Presentation graphics create and enhance charts and graphs so that they are visually

appealing and easily understood by an audience. A full-features presentation graphics package such as Lotus Freelance. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2901) Graphics or Microsoft PowerPoint includes facilities for making a wide variety of charts

and graphs and for adding titles, legends, and explanatory text anywhere in the chart or graph. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2902) What is software? A) any computer-based tool that people use to work with information and support the information and information-processing needs of an organization B) the set of instructions that the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system D) an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data 2903) What is hardware? A) any computer-based tool that people use to work with information and support the

information and information-processing needs of an organization B) the set of instructions that the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system D) an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data

2904) What is a CPU? A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions

and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and the read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the central processing unit (CPU) C) equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage D) equipment used to capture information and commands 2905) What is the arithmetic-logic unit? A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions

and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly D) performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations (such as sorting and comparing numbers) 2906) What is a complex instruction set computer chip? A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions

and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly D) performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations (such as sorting and comparing numbers) 2907) Which of the following represents megahertz? A) the number of millions of CPU cycles per second B) the number of billions of CPU cycles per second C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to

carry out most computations directly D) limit the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed

2908) What is the number of bits (0s and 1s) that can be processed by the CPU at any one time? A) clock speed B) word length C) bus width D) chip line width 2909) What is the size of the internal electrical pathway along which signals are sent from one

part of the computer to another? A) clock speed B) word length C) bus width D) chip line width 2910) What is roughly 1 million bytes? A) megabyte B) terabyte C) kilobyte D) gigabyte 2911) What is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a

magnetically sensitive recording medium? A) magnetic medium B) magnetic tape C) hard drive D) RAM 2912) What is a form of a stationary mouse on which the movement of a finger causes the

pointer on the screen to move? A) microphone B) touch pad C) pointing stick D) touch screen 2913) What detects the presence or absence of a mark in a predetermined place (popular for

multiple-choice exams)? A) magnetic ink character reader B) optical-character recognition C) optical-mark recognition D) point-of-sale

2914) What is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software)

instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage 2915) What interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to

do, based on the software instructions? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage 2916) What performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all

logic operations? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage 2917) What is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC 2918) What is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC 2919) What is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to

carry out most computations directly? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

2920) What limits the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing

speed? A) B) C) D)

megahertz gigahertz CISC RISC

2921) What is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory

(RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU? A) CPU B) control unit C) secondary storage D) primary storage 2922) What is the computer’s primary working memory, in which program instructions and data

are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external data bus? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory 2923) What refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory 2924) What is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed or

frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM? A) RAM B) cache memory C) volatility D) flash memory

2925) What is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose its contents when

one switches off the power? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory 2926) What is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact and

portable? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory 2927) What contains high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images, music, or

text files? A) RAM B) memory stick C) memory card D) flash memory 2928) What provides nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including computers,

digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs? A) RAM B) memory stick C) memory card D) flash memory 2929) What consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term

storage? A) primary storage B) secondary storage C) memory stick D) flash memory

2930) What is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store and retrieve

data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium 2931) What is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a

magnetically sensitive recording medium? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium 2932) What is equipment used to capture information and commands? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium 2933) What is an input device designed for special applications for use by people with different

types of special needs? A) input device B) output device C) adaptive computer devices D) magnetic medium devices 2934) What is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of information-

processing requests? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium 2935) What is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing

capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time? A) tablet B) PDA C) workstation D) minicomputer

2936) What is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or computer

game? A) B) C) D)

tablet PDA appliance minicomputer

2937) What is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special reading device.

Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth? A) tablet B) eBook C) appliance D) minicomputer 2938) What is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos, email, and

includes many features of a PDA? A) tablet B) PDA C) eBook D) smartphone 2939) What is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes,

scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar? A) tablet B) PDA C) eBook D) smartphone 2940) What is a computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power

source or battery? A) tablet B) PDA C) laptop computer D) desktop computer

2941) What is a computer that has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead

of a keyboard? A) tablet B) PDA C) laptop computer D) desktop computer 2942) What is a computer that sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry

around? A) tablet B) desktop computer C) workstation D) minicomputer 2943) What is a computer designed to meet the computing needs of several people

simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer 2944) What is a computer designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a

large business environment? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer 2945) What computer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer 2946) What software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the

application software? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

2947) What software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices

work together? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking 2948) What system is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an

automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking 2949) What allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking 2950) What provides additional functionality to the operating system? A) system software B) operating system software C) utility software D) multitasking 2951) What occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the

operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities? A) system restore software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software 2952) What enables a user to return to the previous operating system? A) system restore software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

2953) What software helps save information if a computer crashes? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode C) crash-proof software D) disk image software 2954) What is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling applications if a

hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software 2955) What software organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software 2956) What uses programs such as Window Washer which erases file histories, browser

cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive? A) preventative security software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software 2957) What removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the background

without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission? A) preventative security software B) spyware software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software 2958) What software can remove software that is no longer needed? A) preventative security software B) spyware software C) crash-proof software D) uninstaller software

2959) What software handles contact information, appointments, task lists, and email? A) preventative security software B) personal information management software C) crash-proof software D) course management software 2960) What software contains course information such as a syllabus and assignments and offers

drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book? A) preventative security software B) personal information management software C) crash-proof software D) course management software 2961) What occur when the software vendor releases updates to software to fix problems or

enhance features? A) software updates B) software upgrades C) crash-proof software D) course management software 2962) What occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the software making

significant changes to the program? A) software updates B) software upgrades C) crash-proof software D) course management software 2963) Which license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license 2964) Which license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

2965) Which license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software,

regardless if the computer is on a network? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license 2966) Which licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or per-use basis or usage-

based licensing? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provider license 2967) What enables users to navigate the World Wide Web? A) a browser B) a network user license C) groupware D) PIM software 2968) What is system software? A) controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application

software B) controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together C) provides additional functionality to the operating system D) used for specific information-processing needs, including payroll, customer relationship management, project management, training, and many others 2969) What is application software? A) controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application

software B) controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together C) provides additional functionality to the operating system D) used for specific information-processing needs, including payroll, customer relationship management, project management, training, and many others

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 2970) Describe the six major categories of hardware and provide an example of each.

2971) Identify the different computer categories and explain their potential business uses.

2972) Explain the difference between primary and secondary storage.

2973) List the common input, output, storage, and communication devices.

2974) Describe the eight categories of computers by size.

2975) Define the relationship between operating system software and utility software.

Answer Key Test name: Appendix A 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE

38) TRUE 39) TRUE

A minicomputer is designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment. 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE

Operating system software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together. When using Excel to create and print a graph, the operating system software controls the process, ensures that a printer is attached and has paper, and sends the graph to the printer along with instructions on how to print it. Some computers are configured with two operating systems so they can dual boot— provide the user with the option of choosing the operating system when the computer is turned on. 47) FALSE

An embedded operating system is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose. 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE

65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE

Presentation graphics create and enhance charts and graphs so that they are visually appealing and easily understood by an audience. A full-features presentation graphics package such as Lotus Freelance. 76) TRUE 77) B

Software is the set of instructions that the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks. 78) C

Hardware consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system. 79) A

A CPU is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together. 80) D

Arithmetic-logic unit performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations (such as sorting and comparing numbers). 81) C

Complex instruction set computer chip is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly. 82) A

Megahertz is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second. 83) B

This is the definition of word length. 84) C

This is the definition of bus width. 85) A

This is the definition of a megabyte. 86) B

This is the definition of magnetic tape. 87) B

This is the definition to touch pad. 88) C

This is the definition of optical-mark recognition. 89) A

The central processing unit (CPU) (or microprocessor) is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together. 90) B

The control unit interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions. 91) C

The arithmetic-logic unit (ALU) performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations. 92) A

Megahertz (MHz) is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second. 93) B

Gigahertz (GHz) is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second. 94) C

Complex instruction set computer (CISC) chips, which is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly. 95) D

Reduced instruction set computer (RISC) chips limit the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed.

96) D

Primary storage is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU. 97) A

Random access memory (RAM) is the computer’s primary working memory, in which program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external drive. 98) C

Volatility refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power. RAM is volatile, meaning it must have constant power to function; its contents are lost when the computer’s electric supply fails. 99) B

Cache memory is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM. 100)

B Read-only memory (ROM) is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose its contents when one switches off the power. 101)

D Flash memory is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact and portable. 102)

C Memory cards contain high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images, music, or text files. 103)

B Memory sticks provide nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including computers, digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs. 104)

B Secondary storage consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage. 105)

D

Magnetic medium is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store and retrieve data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials. 106)

C Magnetic tape is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium. 107)

A An input device is equipment used to capture information and commands. 108)

C Adaptive computer devices are input devices designed for special applications for use by people with different types of special needs. 109)

B An output device is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of informationprocessing requests. 110)

C A workstation is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time. 111)

C An appliance is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or computer game. 112)

B An ebook is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special reading device. Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth. 113)

D A smartphone is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos, email, and includes many features of a PDA. 114)

B Personal digital assistant (PDA) is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar. The PDA screen is touch-sensitive, allowing a user to write directly on the screen, capturing what is written. 115)

C

A laptop computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power source or battery. 116)

A A tablet computer has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead of a keyboard. Similar to PDAs, tablet PCs use a writing pen or stylus to write notes on the screen and touch the screen to perform functions such as clicking on a link while visiting a website. 117)

B A desktop computer sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry around. The computer box is where the CPU, RAM, and storage devices are held with a monitor on top, or a vertical system box (called a tower) usually placed on the floor within a work area. 118)

D A minicomputer is designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment. 119)

B A mainframe computer is designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment. Mainframe computers are a step up in size, power, capability, and cost from minicomputers. 120)

A A supercomputer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer. Organizations such as NASA that are heavily involved in research and number crunching employ supercomputers because of the speed with which they can process information. Other large, customer-oriented businesses such as General Motors and AT&T employ supercomputers just to handle customer information and transaction processing. 121)

A System software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software. System software includes both operating system software and utility software. 122)

B Operating system software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together. 123)

C

An embedded operating system is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose. 124)

D Multitasking allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time. Multitasking is used when creating a graph in Excel and simultaneously printing a word processing document. 125)

C Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. Utility software includes antivirus software, screen savers, and antispam software. 126)

B Safe mode occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities. 127)

A System restore enables a user to return to the previous operating system. 128)

C Crash-proof software helps save information if a computer crashes. 129)

D Disk image is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling applications if a hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted. 130)

A Disk optimization software organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way. 131)

A Preventative security software uses programs such as Window Washer, erases file histories, browser cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive. 132)

B Spyware removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the background without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission. 133)

D Uninstaller software can remove software that is no longer needed. 134)

B

Personal information management software handles contact information, appointments, task lists, and email. 135)

D Course management software contains course information such as a syllabus and assignments and offers drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book. 136)

A Software updates (software patch) occur when the software vendor releases updates to software to fix problems or enhance features. 137)

B Software upgrade occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the software making significant changes to the program. 138)

A A single user license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time. 139)

B A network user license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software. 140)

C A site license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software, regardless if the computer is on a network. Some employees might install the software on a home computer for working remotely. 141)

D Application service provider licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or per-use basis or usage-based licensing. 142)

A A browser enables users to navigate the World Wide Web. The two leading browsers are Netscape Navigator and Microsoft Internet Explorer. 143)

A System software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software. 144)

D

Application software is used for specific information-processing needs, including payroll, customer relationship management, project management, training, and many others. 145)

Essay The six major categories of hardware include: Central processing unit (CPU)—The actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together (e.g., Intel processor). Primary storage—the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and the read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the central processing unit (CPU) (e.g., RAM). Secondary storage—Equipment designed to store large volumes of data for longterm storage (e.g., diskette, hard drive, memory card, CD). Input devices—Equipment used to capture information and commands (e.g., keyboard, scanner). Output devices—Equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of information-processing requests (e.g., monitor, printer). Communication devices—Equipment used to send information and receive it from one location to another (e.g., modem). 146)

Essay

Personal digital assistant (PDA)—A small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar. Laptop—A fully functional computer designed to be carried around and run on battery power. Laptops come equipped with all of the technology that a personal desktop computer has, yet weigh as little as two pounds. Tablet—A pen-based computer that provides the screen capabilities of a PDA with the functional capabilities of a laptop or desktop computer. Similar to PDAs, tablet PCs use a writing pen or stylus to write notes on the screen and touch the screen to perform functions such as clicking on a link while visiting a website. Desktop—Available with a horizontal system box (the box is where the CPU, RAM, and storage devices are held. with a monitor on top, or a vertical system box (called a tower) usually placed on the floor within a work area. Workstation—Similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time. Typically used for software development—Web development, engineering, and ebusiness tools. Minicomputer (midrange computer)—Designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment. A common type of minicomputer is a server and is used for managing internal company networks and websites. Minicomputers are more powerful than desktop computers but also cost more, ranging in price from $5,000 to several hundred thousand dollars. Mainframe computer—Designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment. Mainframe computers are a step up in size, power, capability, and cost from minicomputers. Mainframes can cost in excess of $1 million. With processing speeds greater than 1 trillion instructions per second (compared to a typical desktop that can process about 2.5 billion instructions per second, mainframes can easily handle the processing requests of hundreds of people simultaneously). Supercomputer—The fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer. Organizations such as NASA that are heavily involved in research and number crunching employ supercomputers because of the speed with which they can process information. 147)

Essay Primary storage—The computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and the read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the central processing unit (CPU). Secondary storage—Equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage (e.g., diskette, hard drive, memory card, CD). 148)

Essay

Input devices—Equipment used to capture information and commands (e.g., keyboard, scanner) Output devices—Equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of informationprocessing requests (e.g., monitor, printer). Primary storage—The computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and the read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the central processing unit (CPU). Secondary storage— Equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage (e.g., diskette, hard drive, memory card, CD). Communication devices—Equipment used to send information and receive it from one location to another (e.g., modem). 149)

Essay Personal digital assistant (PDA)—a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar. Laptop computer—a fully functional computer designed to be carried around and run on battery power. Tablet computer—a pen-based computer that provides the screen capabilities of a PDA with the functional capabilities of a notebook or desktop computer. Desktop computer—the most popular choice for personal computing needs. Workstation computer—Has more mathematical and graphics power than a desktop Minicomputer (sometimes called a midrange computer)— designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to mediumsize business environment. Mainframe computer (sometimes just called a mainframe) —a computer designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment. Supercomputer—the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer. 150)

Essay Operating system software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together, whereas utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. Utility software includes antivirus software, screen savers, disk optimization software, and antispam software.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 2976) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2977) Telecommunication systems enable the transmission of data over public or private

networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2978) A network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and

establishing a standard methodology by which they can communicate. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2979) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province, or

country. WANs often connect multiple smaller networks, such as local area networks or metropolitan area networks. The world’s most popular WAN is the Internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2980) A MAN is a set of communication rules to make sure that everyone speaks the same

language. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2981) A WAN is a card that plugs into the back (or side) of your computers and lets them send

and receive messages from other computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2982) Cable is the medium to connect all of the computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2983) A hub (switch or router) is the hardware to perform traffic control. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2984) Topology includes peer-to-peer networks and client/server networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2985) Protocols includes bus, star, ring, hybrid, and wireless. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2986) Architecture includes Ethernet and Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

(TCP/IP). ⊚ true ⊚ false 2987) Media includes coaxial, twisted-pair, and fiber-optic. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2988) A peer-to-peer (P2P) network is a computer network that relies on the computing power

and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2989) A server is a computer designed to request information from a server. A server is a

computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2990) A peer-to-peer network is a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end

processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2991) A network operating system (NOS) is the operating system that runs a network, steering

information between computers and managing security and users. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2992) Packet-switching occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of

efficiently sized units of data called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2993) A router is an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives

and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2994) A network topology refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical

organization of the computers (and other network devices) in a network. Topologies vary depending on cost and functionality. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2995) A protocol is a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be

followed during transmission. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2996) A protocol is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources,

even though they are made by different manufacturers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2997) A WAN is a physical and data layer technology for LAN networking. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2998) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) provides the technical

foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2999) The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access

network services. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3000) The application layer handles end-to-end packet transportation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3001) The transport layer formats the data into packets, adds a header containing the packet

sequence and the address of the receiving device, and specifies the services required from the network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3002) The network interface layer places data packets on the network for transmission. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3003) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical

data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3004) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is TCP/IP’s own messaging system for email. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3005) FTP provides terminal emulation that allows a personal computer or workstation to act as

a terminal, or access device, for a server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3006) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) allows web browsers and servers to send and

receive web pages. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3007) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) allows networked nodes to be managed

from a single point. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3008) Network transmission media refers to the various types of media used to carry the signal

between computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3009) Wireless media are transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to

a narrow path and will behave predictably. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3010) Coaxial cable refers to a type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wires twisted

around each other within a plastic sheath. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3011) Twisted-pair cable can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss. It consists

of a metallic shield with a single wire placed along the center of a shield and isolated from the shield by an insulator. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3012) Fiber-optic (or optical fiber) refers to the technology associated with the transmission of

information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3013) What is a telecommunications system? A) enables the transmission of data over public or private networks B) a communications, data exchange, and resource-sharing system created by linking two or more computers and establishing standards, or protocols, so that they can work together C) any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations D) a computer that is designed to request information from a server 3014) Which of the following is not one of the differentiating factors of a network? A) architecture B) topology C) protocols D) telecommunication system

3015) What is a network? A) enables the transmission of data over public or private networks B) a communications, data exchange, and resource-sharing system created by linking

two or more computers and establishing standards, or protocols, so that they can work together C) any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations D) a computer that is designed to request information from a server 3016) What is designed to connect a group of computers in close proximity to each other such

as in an office building, a school, or a home? A) local area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network 3017) What spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province, or country? A) local area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network 3018) What is a large computer network usually spanning a city? A) client/server network B) corporate network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network 3019) What is a peer-to-peer network? A) enables the transmission of data over public or private networks B) a communications, data exchange, and resource-sharing system created by linking

two or more computers and establishing standards, or protocols, so that they can work together C) any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations D) a computer that is designed to request information from a server

3020) What is a client? A) enables the transmission of data over public or private networks B) a communications, data exchange, and resource-sharing system created by linking

two or more computers and establishing standards, or protocols, so that they can work together C) any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations D) a computer that is designed to request information from a server 3021) What runs a network, steering information between computers and managing security and

users? A) B) C) D)

client server peer-to-peer network network operating system

3022) What is a computer that is designed to request information from a server? A) client B) packet-switching C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system 3023) What occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently

sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer? A) client B) packet-switching C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

3024) What is a router? A) occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently

sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer B) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination C) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network D) a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the frontend processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients 3025) What is a client/server network? A) occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently

sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer B) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination C) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network D) a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the frontend processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients 3026) What is packet-switching? A) occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently

sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer B) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination C) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network D) a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the frontend processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients

3027) What is interoperability? A) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then

decides which way to send it onward toward its destination B) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network C) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers 3028) What is network topology? A) occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently

sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer B) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination C) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network D) a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the frontend processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients 3029) Which of the following is not a network topology? A) bus B) ring C) ethernet D) star 3030) Which of the following represents the bus topology? A) All devices are connected to a central cable or backbone. B) All devices are connected to a central device, called a hub. C) All devices are connected to one another in the shape of a closed loop, so that each

device is connected directly to two other devices, one on either side of it. D) Groups of star-configured workstations are connected to a linear bus backbone cable.

3031) Which of the following represents the ring topology? A) All devices are connected to a central cable or backbone. B) All devices are connected to a central device, called a hub. C) All devices are connected to one another in the shape of a closed loop, so that each

device is connected directly to two other devices, one on either side of it. D) Groups of star-configured workstations are connected to a linear bus backbone cable. 3032) What is a protocol? A) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then

decides which way to send it onward toward its destination B) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network C) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers 3033) What allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be

downloaded off or uploaded onto a network? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) 3034) What allows the management of networked nodes to be managed from a single point? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) 3035) What is TCP/IP’s own messaging system for email? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

3036) What allows web browsers and servers to send and receive web pages? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) 3037) What refers to a type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wires twisted around

each other within a plastic sheath? A) twisted-pair cable B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol 3038) Which of the following represents the TCP/IP four-layer reference model? A) Application, Internet, Transport, Network Interfaces B) Application, Internet, Network Interfaces, Transport C) Application, Transport, Internet, Network Interfaces D) Application, Network Interfaces, Internet, Transport 3039) How many layers does the OSI model contain? A) four B) seven C) ten D) eleven 3040) Which of the following is not a commonly used type of guided media? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol 3041) What refers to the various types of media used to carry the signal between computers? A) twisted-pair wiring B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

3042) What is transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to a narrow

path and will behave predictably? A) wire media B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol 3043) What refers to a type of cable composed of four copper wires twisted around each other

within a plastic sheath? A) twisted-pair wiring B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol 3044) What is cable that can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol 3045) What refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light

impulses along a glass wire or fiber? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol 3046) What refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light

impulses along a glass wire or fiber? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) wireless media ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 3047) Compare LANs, WANs, and MANs.

3048) List and describe the four components that differentiate networks.

3049) Compare the two types of network architectures.

3050) Explain topology and the different types found in networks.

3051) Describe TCP/IP along with its primary purpose.

3052) Identify the different media types found in networks

Answer Key Test name: Appendix B 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE

A network topology refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers (and other network devices) in a network. Topologies vary depending on cost and functionality. 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE

34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) A

This is the definition of a telecommunications system. 39) D

Telecommunication systems are not one of the differentiating factors of a network. 40) B

This is the definition of network. 41) A

This is the definition of LAN. 42) B

This is the definition of WAN. 43) C

This is the definition of MAN. 44) C

This is the definition of peer-to-peer. 45) D

This is the definition of client. 46) D

This is the definition of network operating system. 47) A

This is the definition of a client. 48) B

This is the definition of packet-switching. 49) B

This is the definition of router. 50) D

This is the definition of client/server network. 51) A

This is the definition of packet-switching. 52) D

This is the definition of interoperability. 53) C

This is the definition of network topology. 54) C

Ethernet is not a network topology. 55) A

This is the definition of a bus topology. 56) C

This is the definition of a ring topology. 57) C

This is the definition of protocol. 58) A

This is FTP. 59) D

This is SNMP. 60) B

This is SMTP. 61) C

This is HTTP. 62) A

This is the definition of twisted-pair cabling. 63) C

Application, transport, Internet, and network interface is the TCP/IP four-layer reference model.

64) B

The OSI model contains seven layers. 65) D

TCP/IP is not a type of guided media. 66) B

This is the definition of network transmission media. 67) A

This is the definition of wired media. 68) A

This is the definition of twisted-pair wiring. 69) B

This is the definition of coaxial cable. 70) C

This is the definition of fiber-optic cable. 71) C

This is the definition of wireless media. 72) Essay

A local area network (LAN) is designed to connect group of computers in close proximity to each other such as in an office building, a school, or a home. A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province or country. WANs often connect multiple smaller networks, such as local area networks (LANs) or metropolitan area networks (MANs). A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. 73) Essay

Networks are differentiated by the following, architecture—peer-to-peer, client/server, topology—bus, star, ring, hybrid, wireless, protocols—Ethernet, Transmission Control Protocol, media—coaxial, twisted-pair, fiber-optic. 74) Essay

A peer-to-peer (P2P) network is any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations. A client is a computer that is designed to request information from a server. A server is a computer that is dedicated to providing information in response to external requests. A client/server network is a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients. 75) Essay

Network topology refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network. The five common types found in networks include: Bus: All devices are connected to a central cable, called the bus or backbone. Bus networks are relatively inexpensive and easy to install for small networks. Star: All devices are connected to a central device, called a hub. Star networks are relatively easy to install and manage, but bottlenecks can occur because all data must pass through the hub. Ring: All devices are connected to one another in the shape of a closed loop, so that each device is connected directly to two other devices, one on either side of it. Ring topologies are relatively expensive and difficult to install, but they offer high bandwidth and can span large distances. Hybrid: Groups of star-configured workstations are connected to a linear bus backbone cable, combining the characteristics of the bus and star topologies. Wireless: Devices are connected by a receiver/transmitter to a special network interface card that transmits signals between a computer and a server, all within an acceptable transmission range. 76) Essay

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks. 77) Essay

Wire media are transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to a narrow path and will behave predictably. The three most commonly used types of guided media are twisted-pair wiring, coaxial cable, fiber-optic cable, wireless media are natural parts of the Earth’s environment that can be used as physical paths to carry electrical signals.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 3053) A primary key is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3054) A foreign key is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table

and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3055) A field is composed of rows and columns that represent an entity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3056) A one-to-many relationship occurs between two entities in which an instance of one

entity can be related to only one instance of a related entity. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3057) Date of birth would be a stored attribute. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3058) What is a technique for documenting the entities and relationships in a database environment? A) entity-relationship diagram B) data model C) database D) relational database model 3059) Which of the following is a type of attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct. 3060) What has only a single value of each attribute of an entity? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

3061) What has the potential to contain more than one value for an attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct. 3062) What kind of attribute can be calculated using the value of another attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute 3063) What kind of attribute is assigned to an attribute when no other value applies or when a

value is unknown? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) null-valued attribute 3064) What kind of attribute would be date of birth? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute 3065) What kind of attribute would be age? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute 3066) What kind of attribute would be given for a person who does not have an email address? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) single-valued attribute D) stored attribute

3067) What is a statement that defines an aspect of a business? A) attribute B) entity C) business relational diagram D) business rule 3068) Which of the following is a possible business rule? A) A customer can purchase many DVDs. B) DVDs can be purchased by many customers. C) A DVD title can have many copies. D) All of the answers are correct. 3069) Which of the following statements is accurate? A) A correct business rule for one organization may not be correct for another

organization. B) Each business rule will have entities and sometimes even attributes. C) A typical business may have hundreds of business rules. D) All of the answers are correct. 3070) What occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to

only one instance of a related entity? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity 3071) What occurs when two entities can be related to each other in many instances? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity 3072) What occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to

many instances of a related entity? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

3073) What exists to represent the relationship between two other entities? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity 3074) What expresses the specific number of instances in an entity? A) cardinality B) composite entity C) business rule D) null-valued attribute 3075) What is a characteristic of a table? A) field B) table C) record D) key 3076) What is composed of rows and columns that represent an entity? A) field B) table C) record D) key 3077) What is a collection of related data elements? A) field B) table C) record D) key 3078) What is a primary key? A) a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to

provide a logical relationship between the two tables C) a table that uniquely identifies a given record in a field D) a foreign key of one table that appears as an entity in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two records

3079) What is a foreign key? A) a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to

provide a logical relationship between the two tables C) a table that uniquely identifies a given record in a field D) a foreign key of one table that appears as an entity in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two records

Answer Key Test name: Appendix C 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6)

TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE A This is the definition of entity-relationship diagram. 7) D

These are all types of attributes. 8) A

This is the definition of single-valued attribute. 9) B

This is the definition of multi-valued attribute. 10) C

This is the definition of derived attribute. 11) D

This is the definition of null-valued attribute. 12) D

Date of birth would be a stored attribute. 13) C

Age is a derived attribute from date of birth. 14) A

A null-valued attribute is provided when no other value applies or is unknown. 15) D

This is the definition of business rule. 16) D

These are all business rules. 17) D

All answers are accurate. 18) A

This is the definition of a one-to-one relationship. 19) C

This is the definition of a many-to-many relationship. 20) B

This is the definition of a one-to-many relationship. 21) D

This is the definition of a composite entity. 22) A

This is the definition of cardinality. 23) A

This is the definition of a field. 24) B

This is the definition of a table. 25) C

This is the definition of a record. 26) A

This is the definition of a primary key. 27) B

This is the definition of a foreign key.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 3080) Trend analysis is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3081) Trend projection is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of

development, and potential impacts. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3082) The world’s population will double in the next 20 years. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3083) People in undeveloped countries are living longer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3084) The ambient digital experience is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic

environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3085) Biological 3D printing includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from

theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3086) The Information of Everything (IoE) is a concept that extends the Internet of Things

emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3087) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a concept with emphasis on machine-to-machine

communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3088) Real-time adaptive computing is a self-managing computing model named after, and

patterned on, the human body’s autonomic nervous system. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3089) Organizations anticipate, forecast, and assess future events using a variety of rational, scientific methods including A) trend analysis. B) trend monitoring. C) trend projection. D) All of the answers are correct. 3090) What is trend analysis? A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through

time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine “what if” analysis. 3091) What is trend monitoring? A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through

time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine “what if” analysis.

3092) What is trend projection? A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through

time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine “what if” analysis. 3093) What is historical analysis? A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through

time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Historical events are studied to anticipate the outcome of current developments. 3094) All of the following are scientific methods organizations use to anticipate, forecast, and

assess the future except A) computer simulation. B) historical analysis. C) trend analysis. D) trend simulation. 3095) Which of the following is not one of the top reasons organizations should study trends? A) generate current revenue B) gain confidence C) generate ideas D) beat the competition 3096) All of the following are countries expected to have the largest increases in population

between 2000 and 2050 except A) Palestinian Territory. B) India. C) Democratic Republic of the Congo. D) Yemen.

3097) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from the world’s population

doubling in the next 40 years? A) Developed nations will begin to increase immigration limits. B) Developed nations will find that retirees will have to remain on the job to remain competitive. C) Global agriculture will be required to supply as much food as has been produced during all of human history. D) The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology. 3098) On average, how many years longer does each generation live than the previous in the

United States? A) one B) two C) three D) four 3099) What are the life expectancies for men and women in many developed countries? A) over 65 years for males and over 75 years for females B) over 80 years for males and over 75 years for females C) over 75 years for males and over 80 years for females D) over 75 years for males and over 75 years for females 3100) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from people in developed

countries living longer? A) global demand for elderly products will grow B) global demand for elderly services will grow C) the cost of health care will decrease D) pharmaceutical companies will be pushed for advances in geriatric medicine 3101) What kind of society is being created by the growth in information industries? A) knowledge-independent global society B) knowledge-dependent global society C) knowledge-independent local society D) knowledge-dependent local society

3102) Which of the following is not a potential business impact created by the growth in

information industries? A) top managers must be computer-literate B) knowledge workers are generally higher paid C) entry-level positions will require less education D) downsizing will continue 3103) Why is the global economy becoming more integrated? A) relaxed borders in the European Union B) the Internet C) international outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct. 3104) Which of the following is one of the primary reasons for the increase in Internet use? A) reorganization B) connectivity technology C) organizational restructuring D) All of the answers are correct. 3105) All of the following jobs will be increasingly performed by robots except A) mundane commercial and service jobs. B) environmentally dangerous jobs. C) the repair of inaccessible equipment such as space stations. D) jobs performed by scientists, engineers, and technicians. 3106) What does 50 percent of what a student learns about innovative technology in their

freshman year of college become by their senior year? A) obsolete B) revised C) taken for granted D) All of the answers are correct. 3107) What percentage will all of today’s technical knowledge represent in 2050? A) one B) ten C) twenty D) fifty

3108) How long does a product’s entire life cycle last today? A) 4 weeks B) 40 weeks C) 4 months D) 4 years 3109) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Companies must take an active

role in helping their employees balance their time at work with their family lives and need for leisure. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities. 3110) Which trend has the following potential business impact? The time to get products and

services to market is being shortened by technology. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities. 3111) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Demand for personnel in

distant countries will increase the need for foreign language training, employee incentives suited to other cultures, and many other aspects of performing business globally. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities. 3112) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Top managers must be

computer-literate to retain their jobs and achieve success. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

3113) What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand

concepts in the environment and also to learn? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning 3114) What is software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another

program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge or representation of the user’s goals or desires? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning 3115) What is the network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple

perimeters and moving parts on the network, and increasingly advanced threats targeting enterprises? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning 3116) What is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human

body’s autonomic nervous system? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning 3117) What is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time

ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

3118) What includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality;

however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE) 3119) What is a world where interconnected Internet-enabled devices or “things” have the

ability to collect and share data without human intervention? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE) 3120) What is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine

communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

Answer Key Test name: Appendix D 1) TRUE

Trend analysis is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) D

All of these are scientific methods used by an organization. 11) B

This is the definition of trend analysis. 12) C

This is the definition of trend monitoring. 13) A

This is the definition of trend projection. 14) D

This is the definition of historical analysis. 15) D

Trend analysis, trend monitoring, trend projection, computer simulation, and historical analysis are the scientific methods organizations use to anticipate, forecast, and assess the future. 16) A

Generate current revenue is not a top reason to study trends according to the figure Top Reasons to Study Trends. 17) B

India is not listed among the countries that are expected to have the largest population increases. 18) D 19) C

On average, each generation lives 3 years longer than the previous in the United States. 20) C

Many developed countries are now experiencing life expectancy over 75 years for males and over 80 years for females. 21) C

The cost of health care is destined to skyrocket as people live longer lives. 22) B

The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society. 23) C

Entry-level and unskilled positions will require a growing level of education. 24) D

All of these are reasons why the global economy is becoming more integrated. 25) B

One of the primary reasons for the increase in Internet uses is the increase in connectivity technology. 26) D

All of these jobs can be performed by robots except for scientist, engineers, and technicians. 27) D

Half of what students learn in their freshman year of college about innovative technology is obsolete, revised, or taken for granted by their senior year. 28) A

All of today’s technical knowledge will represent only 1 percent of the knowledge that will be available in 2050. 29) B

Today, a product’s entire life cycle seldom lasts 40 weeks. 30) D

Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities is the trend. 31) B

Pace of technological innovation is increasing is the trend. 32) A

The global economy is becoming more integrated is the trend. 33) C

The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society. 34) D

Machine learning is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and also to learn. 35) C

An autonomous agent is software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge or representation of the user’s goals or desires. 36) B

Real-time adaptive security is the network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network, and increasingly advanced threats targeting enterprises. 37) A

Autonomic computing is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body’s autonomic nervous system. 38) A

The ambient digital experience is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another. 39) B

Biological 3D printing includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications. 40) C

The Internet of Things (IoT) is a world where interconnected Internet-enabled devices or “things” have the ability to collect and share data without human intervention. 41) D

The Information of Everything (IoE) is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 3121) The network categories include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3122) The network providers include ISP, NSP, and RSP. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3123) The network access technologies include DSL, cable modem, and broadband. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3124) The network protocols include TCP/IP, FTP, and DHCP. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3125) Network convergence includes VoIP, UC, and IPTV. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3126) The network categories include ISP, NSP, and RSP. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3127) The network providers include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3128) The network access technologies include VoIP, UC, and IPTV. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3129) The network protocols include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3130) Network convergence includes TCP/IP and FTP. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3131) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in

an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3132) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or

country. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3133) A wide area network (WAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as

in an office building, school, or home. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3134) A metropolitan area network (MAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state,

province, or country. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3135) Attenuation represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB)

and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3136) A repeater receives and repeats a signal to reduce its attenuation and extend its range. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3137) A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city.

Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3138) A local area network (LAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3139) Network convergence is the integration of communication channels into a single service. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3140) A domain name system (DNS) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels

that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3141) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in

an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. A LAN also often connects to other LANs, and to wide area networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3142) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or

country. Perhaps the best example is the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3143) Broadband over power line (BPL) technology makes possible high-speed Internet access

over ordinary residential electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3144) A repeater represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels and

occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3145) A repeater receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3146) A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3147) Attenuation is a single unit of binary data routed through a network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3148) Packets directly impact network performance and reliability by subdividing an electronic

message into smaller more manageable packets. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3149) Traceroute formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message,

and packet footer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3150) The packet header lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP

address) along with the length of the message data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3151) The packet footer represents the end of the packet or transmission end. The packet header

and packet footer contain error-checking information to ensure the entire message is sent and received. The receiving device reassembles the individual packets into the original by stripping off the headers and footers and then piecing together the packets in the correct sequence. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3152) Dynamic host configuration protocol is a utility application that monitors the network

path of packet data sent to a remote computer. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3153) Telecommuting (virtual workforce) allows users to work from remote locations such as

home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3154) IP address is a unique number that identifies where computers are located on the network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3155) IP address is a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two

computers on the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3156) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows dynamic IP address allocation so

users do not have to have a preconfigured IP address to use the network. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3157) A proxy is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving

computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3158) Voice over IP (VoIP) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3159) Peer-to-peer (P2P) is a computer network that relies on the computing power and

bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3160) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV), which distributes digital video content using IP across the

Internet and private IP networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3161) Peer-to-peer uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3162) Voice over IP is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth

of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3163) A repeater distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP

networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3164) An intranet is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an

Internet-like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, Web publishing, and the support of business processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3165) An extranet is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders,

such as customers, partners, and suppliers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3166) Companies can establish direct private network links among themselves or create private,

secure Internet access, in effect a private tunnel within the Internet, called a virtual private network (VPN). ⊚ true ⊚ false

3167) An extranet is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an

Internet-like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, Web publishing, and the support of business processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3168) An intranet is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders,

such as customers, partners, and suppliers. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3169) Companies can establish direct private network links among themselves or create private,

secure Internet access, in effect a private tunnel within the Internet, called an extranet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3170) VPNs are often used to connect to a corporate server. VPN stands for a Valued Partner

Network. ⊚ true ⊚ false MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3171) Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) LAN, WAN, SAN B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) LAN, SAN, XAN D) LAN, WAN, XAN 3172) Which of the following includes the three primary network access technologies? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP 3173) Which of the following includes the three primary network providers? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) ISP, NSP, RSP

3174) Which of the following includes the three forms of primary network convergence? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP 3175) Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP 3176) Which of the following includes the three primary network protocols? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP 3177) What is a large computer network usually spanning a city or a specific infrastructure like

a college? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN) 3178) What spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country, similar to the

Internet? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN) 3179) What connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in a school or office

setting? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

3180) What are the five elements that are needed to create a connected world or a network? A) categories, programs, alternatives, people, and core philosophy B) program, providers, access, mechanics, and teachers C) categories, providers, access technologies, protocols, and convergence D) LAN, WAN, MAN, PAN, and SAN 3181) LANs, WANs, and MANs all provide users with an accessible and reliable network

infrastructure. Which of the below are the most important network differentiating dimensions? A) reliability and timing B) confidentiality and performance C) security and cost D) cost and performance 3182) What is the largest and most important network that has evolved into a global information

superhighway? A) Internet B) Intranet C) Extranet D) LAN 3183) Which of the below offers a common example of a LAN? A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) All of the answers are correct. 3184) Which of the below offers an example of a WAN? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the City of Denver’s Court and Police Departments D) All of the answers are correct, 3185) Which of the below offers a common example of a WAN? A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) the Internet

3186) Which of the below offers an example of a LAN? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the City of Denver’s Court and Police Departments D) college campus 3187) Which of the below is a WAN? A) home office B) business office C) college dorm room D) the Internet 3188) The Internet is a hierarchical structure linking different levels of service providers whose

millions of devices supply all the interconnections. The three levels outlined in the book from the top down include A) new system provider (NSP), current system provider (CSP), and order entry system provider (OSP). B) national service provider (NSP), regional service provider (RSP), and Internet service provider (ISP). C) net server point (NSP), radio server point (RSP), and Internet server point (ISP). D) All of the answers are correct. 3189) What measures network performance by the maximum amount of data that can pass from

one point to another in a unit of time? A) bandwidth B) frequency C) access D) protocol 3190) The speed of transmission of a network is determined by the speed of its smallest A) unit of time. B) number of computers. C) amount of bandwidth. D) number of customers. 3191) What is a device that enables a computer to transmit and receive data? A) broadband B) modem C) bandwidth D) ISP

3192) Which of the following terms refers to the smallest element of data and has a value of

either 0 or 1? A) bit B) bandwidth C) modem D) Internet Protocol 3193) What measures bandwidth in terms of numbers transferred or received per unit of time? A) connection time B) broadband C) protocol D) bit rate 3194) What is a high-speed Internet connection that is always connected and has a bandwidth

greater than 2 Mbps? A) analog B) dial-up C) broadband D) protocol 3195) What are the two most prevalent types of broadband access? A) data subscriber and cable connection B) digital subscriber line and cable connection C) digital line and client line D) digital server and client server 3196) Which of the following allows high-speed digital data transmission over standard

telephone lines? A) digital subscriber line (DSL) B) data subscription service (DSS) C) dominance service line (DSL) D) data converter input (DCI) 3197) Which of the following provides Internet access using a cable television company’s

infrastructure and a special cable modem? A) ISP cable box B) Internet cable connection C) Satellite cable box D) Satellite cable connection

3198) Which of the below allows a user to access the Internet? A) dial-up connection B) cable C) T1 line D) All of the answers are correct. 3199) Which of the following is a type of data connection able to transmit a digital signal at

1.544 Mpbs and is more expensive and reliable than cable or DSL? A) T1 line B) dial-up line C) modem line D) All of the answers are correct. 3200) What is the standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed

during transmission? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) protocol D) transmission record 3201) What is the standard Internet protocol, which provides the technical foundation for the

public Internet? A) data streaming and DSL protocols B) transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) C) data streaming rules and regulations D) Internet protocol/transmission control protocol (IP/TCP) 3202) How do TCP and IP differ? A) TCP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where IP verifies the

data are sent to the correct IP address. B) TCP verifies the information is reliable, and IP verifies that the data is sent. C) IP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where TCP verifies the data are sent to the correct IP address. D) IP verifies connectivity, and TCP verifies the rate at which the data is sent.

3203) What is the conversion of IP addresses that identifies labels that use a variety of

recognizable naming conventions? A) domain grades B) URL spaces C) domain national sequences (DNS) D) domain name system (DNS) 3204) Which domain is reserved for U.S. government agencies? A) .info B) .USA C) .gov D) .US 3205) Which domain is the most common and reserved for commercial organizations and

businesses? A) .net B) .com C) .biz D) .org 3206) Which domain is reserved for accredited postsecondary institutions? A) .mil B) .edu C) .biz D) .org 3207) Which domain is reserved for the U.S. military? A) .mil B) .gov C) .org D) .age 3208) What is the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a

single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures? A) network protocol B) networking category C) network convergence D) network communication

3209) What is a benefit of network convergence? A) the weaving together of voice, data, and video B) multiple services offered from a single vendor C) multiple devices supported by one provider D) All of the answers are correct. 3210) What is a benefit of network convergence? A) the uncoupling of voice, data, and video service B) multiple services offered from several different vendors C) multiple devices supported by one provider D) All of the answers are correct. 3211) What is the integration of communication channels into a single service? A) instant communication B) unified communication C) peer-to-peer communication D) voice over communication 3212) What is VoIP? A) VoIP uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. B) VoIP offers the low cost ability to receive personal and business calls via computer. C) VoIP offers the ability to have more than one phone number. D) VoIP offers all of these. 3213) What is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the

participants in the network rather than a centralized server? A) peer-to-peer (P2P) B) Voice over IP (VoIP) C) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV) D) All of the answers are correct. 3214) Which of the below is an example of P2P? A) GoDaddy B) Skype C) Federal Communication Commission (FCC) D) Facebook

3215) Which statement below is inaccurate in reference to domain names? A) domain names are rented B) domain names are owned C) domain names are renewable D) GoDaddy is a popular domain name registrar 3216) What can unified communications merge? A) IMing B) videoconferencing C) voice mail D) All of the answers are correct. 3217) Which of the below statements is inaccurate in reference to unified communications? A) UC decreases communication costs. B) UC enhances the way individuals communicate. C) UC enhances the way individuals collaborate. D) UC increases communication expenses. 3218) VoIP allows users to A) call anyone with a local telephone number. B) call anyone with an international telephone number. C) call anyone with a cellular telephone number. D) All of the answers are correct. 3219) What is a benefit of VoIP? A) lowers costs B) clear connection C) higher expenses D) All of the answers are correct. 3220) What distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP

networks? A) Internet broadband policy network B) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV) C) Internet Television Interactivity (ITVI) D) Internet television personalization

3221) What is a feature of IPTV? A) IPTV uses low bandwidth. B) IPTV offers personalization. C) IPTV supports multiple devices. D) All of the answers are correct. 3222) What is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving

computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater 3223) What technology makes possible high-speed Internet access over ordinary residential

electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater 3224) What represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and

occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater 3225) What receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater 3226) What allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed

Internet to access business applications and data? A) telecommuting B) repeater C) packet header D) virtual attenuation

3227) What is a single unit of binary data routed through a network? A) packet B) traceroute packet C) packet header D) packet footer 3228) Which formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and

packet footer? A) attenuation B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer 3229) What lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP address)

along with the length of the message data? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer 3230) What represents the end of the packet or transmission end? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer 3231) What is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a

remote computer? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer 3232) What represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and

occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

3233) What is traceroute? A) a single unit of binary data routed through a network B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along

with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer 3234) What is a packet? A) a single unit of binary data routed through a network B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along

with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer 3235) What is a packet header? A) a single unit of binary data routed through a network B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along

with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer 3236) What is a packet footer? A) a single unit of binary data routed through a network B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along

with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer 3237) What are standard packet formats? A) include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet

footer B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer

3238) What is a proxy? A) software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving

computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons B) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission C) a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet D) a standard Internet protocol that provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks 3239) What is a protocol? A) software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving

computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons B) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission C) a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet D) a standard Internet protocol that provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks 3240) What is a file transfer protocol (FTP)? A) software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving

computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons B) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission C) a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet D) a standard Internet protocol that provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks 3241) What is transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP)? A) software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving

computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons B) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission C) a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet D) a standard Internet protocol that provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks

3242) What is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? A) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP

address to use the network B) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions C) the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures D) the integration of communication channels into a single service 3243) What is domain name system (DNS)? A) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP

address to use the network B) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions C) the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures D) the integration of communication channels into a single service 3244) What is network convergence? A) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP

address to use the network B) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions C) the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures D) the integration of communication channels into a single service 3245) What is unified communications (UC)? A) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP

address to use the network B) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions C) the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures D) the integration of communication channels into a single service

3246) What is voice over IP (VoIP)? A) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls B) a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the

participants in the network rather than a centralized server C) distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks D) the integration of communication channels into a single service 3247) What is peer-to-peer (P2P)? A) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls B) a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the

participants in the network rather than a centralized server C) distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks D) the integration of communication channels into a single service 3248) What is Internet Protocol TV (IPTV)? A) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls B) a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the

participants in the network rather than a centralized server C) distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks D) the integration of communication channels into a single service 3249) What is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internet-

like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, and web publishing? A) national ISP B) regional ISP C) intranet D) extranet 3250) What is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders? A) national ISP B) regional ISP C) intranet D) extranet 3251) An extranet is not available for use by a(n) A) customer. B) supplier. C) employee. D) competitor.

3252) What is a VPN? A) a direct network provider using a company server B) a direct private network that creates a “private tunnel” within the Internet to connect

to the corporate server C) a direct URL that creates a private tunnel for a company D) a direct P2p that creates an open access community for a company 3253) Why would a company use an intranet? A) Intranets are used for business operations and management. B) Intranets are used for communications and collaboration. C) Intranets are used for web publishing. D) All of the answers are correct.

Answer Key Test name: Appendix E 1) TRUE

The network categories include LAN, WAN, and MAN. 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. 27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE

30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) B

There are five kinds of networks: Three of the most common networks are: (1) local area network (LAN), (2) wide area network (WAN), and (3) metropolitan area network (MAN). 52) A

The three primary network access technologies include DSL, cable modem, and broadband. 53) D

ISP, NSP, and RSP are the three primary network providers. 54) C

The three primary network convergence forms include VoIP, UC, and IPTV. 55) B

There are five kinds of networks: Three of the most common networks are: (1) local area network (LAN), (2) wide area network (WAN), and (3) metropolitan area network (MAN). 56) D

The three primary network protocols include TCP/IP, FTP, and DHCP.

57) A

This is the definition of a metropolitan area network (MAN). 58) C

This is the definition of a Wide area network (WAN). 59) B

This is the definition of a local area network (LAN). 60) C

Categories, providers, access technologies, protocols, and convergence. 61) D

While LANs, WANs, and MANs all provide users with an accessible and reliable network infrastructure, they differ in many dimensions; two of the most important are cost and performance. 62) A

The largest and most important network that has evolved into a global information superhighway is the Internet. 63) D

A common example of a local area network (LAN) is an office, local city library, or home. 64) D

Examples of a Wide area network (WAN) include large companies, government organizations, cities, regions, and countries around the world. 65) D

A common example of a local area network (LAN) is an office, local city library, or home. 66) D

Examples of a Wide area network (WAN) include large companies, government organizations, cities, regions, and countries around the world. 67) A

All are examples of a MAN except the Internet, which is a WAN. 68) B

The Internet hierarchy levels from top to bottom are national service provider (NSP), regional service provider (RSP), and Internet service provider (ISP). 69) A

This is the definition of bandwidth. 70) C

The speed of transmission of a network is determined by the speed of its smallest bandwidth. 71) B

This is the definition of a modem. 72) A

This is the definition of a bit. 73) D

This is the definition of bit rate or data rate. 74) C

This is the definition of broadband. 75) B

The two most prevalent types of broadband access are digital subscriber line & cable connection. 76) A

This is the definition of digital subscriber line (DSL). 77) B

This is the definition of an Internet cable connection. 78) D

Dial-up, DSL, Cable, and T1 lines are all examples of types of Internet access. 79) A

This is the definition of a T1 line. 80) C

This is the definition of protocol. 81) B

This is the definition of TCP/IP. 82) A

TCP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where IP verifies the data are sent to the correct IP address. 83) D

This is the definition of a domain name system (DNS). 84) C

The domain name reserved for U.S. government agencies is .gov. 85) B

The most common domain and is reserved for commercial organizations and businesses is .com. 86) B

.edu is reserved for postsecondary institutions. 87) A

.mil is reserved for the U.S. military. 88) C

This is the definition of network convergence. 89) D

Network convergence then allows the weaving together of voice, data, and video. The benefits of network convergence allow for multiple services, multiple devices, but one network, one vendor, and one bill. 90) C

Network convergence then allows the weaving together of voice, data, and video. The benefits of network convergence allow for multiple services, multiple devices, but one network, one vendor, and one bill. 91) B

This is the definition of unified communication. 92) D

Voice over IP (VoIP) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls, has the low cost ability to receive personal and business calls via computer, and has the ability to have more than one phone number. 93) A

This is the definition of peer-to-peer (P2P). 94) B

Skype is an example of peer-to-peer networking. 95) B

Domain names are not owned. 96) D

Unified communication (UC) can merge all of these. 97) D

UC decreases communication costs, not increases. 98) D

VoIP allows all of these. 99) A

One benefit of VoIP is its low cost. 100)

B This is the definition of Internet Protocol TV (IPTV). 101)

D IPTV features include (1) support of multiple devices, (2) interactivity with users, (3) low bandwidth, and (4) personalization. 102)

A A proxy is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons. 103)

B Broadband over power line (BPL) technology makes possible high-speed Internet access over ordinary residential electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems. 104)

C

Attenuation represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals. 105)

D A repeater receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range. 106)

A Telecommuting (virtual workforce) allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data. 107)

A A packet is a single unit of binary data routed through a network. 108)

B Standard packet formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet footer. 109)

C The packet header lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data. 110)

D The packet footer represents the end of the packet or transmission end. 111)

A Traceroute is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer. 112)

B Attenuation represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. 113)

D Traceroute is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer. 114)

A

A packet is a single unit of binary data routed through a network. Packets directly affect network performance and reliability by subdividing an electronic message into smaller, more manageable packets. 115)

B The packet header lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data. 116)

C The packet footer represents the end of the packet or transmission end. 117)

A Standard packet formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet footer. 118)

A A proxy is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons. 119)

B A protocol is a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission. 120)

C File transfer protocol (FTP) is a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet. 121)

D Network access technologies use a standard Internet protocol called transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) which provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks. 122)

A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP address to use the network. 123)

B Domain name system (DNS) to convert IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions. 124)

C

Network convergence is the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures. 125)

D Unified communications (UC) is the integration of communication channels into a single service. 126)

A Voice over IP (VoIP) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. 127)

B Peer-to-peer (P2P) is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. 128)

C Internet Protocol TV (IPTV), which distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks. 129)

C This is the definition of an intranet. 130)

D This is the definition of extranet. 131)

D This is the definition of extranet. 132)

B This is the definition of a Virtual private network or VPN. 133)

D Intranets are used for (1) business operations and management, (2) communications and collaboration, and (3) Web publishing.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 3254) Improving the quality of business decisions has a direct impact on costs and revenue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3255) Affinity grouping analysis reveals the relationship between variables along with the

nature and frequency of the relationship. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3256) Sensitivity analysis, what-if analysis, return on investment, and market basket analysis

are the common DSS analysis techniques. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3257) Affinity grouping analysis is a technique used to divide information sets into mutually

exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3258) A pivot rotates data to display alternative presentations of the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3259) A consolidation rotates data to display alternative presentations of the data. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3260) Digital dashboards offer consolidation, drill-down, and slice-and-dice capabilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3261) Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for

example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3262) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or

decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3263) Time-series information is time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3264) Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3265) Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. It

includes many techniques for modeling and analyzing several variables when the focus is on the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3266) Regression is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for

example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3267) Prediction is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision

as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3268) Regression is a prediction based on time-series information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3269) Optimization is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3270) Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated

future value. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3271) Affinity grouping determines which things go together. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3272) Association detection reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature

and frequency of the relationship. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3273) Association detection is a technique used to divide information sets into mutually

exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3274) Data mining occurs on structured data that are already in a database or a spreadsheet. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3275) Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for

example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3276) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or

decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3277) Time-series information is time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3278) Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3279) Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. It

includes many techniques for modeling and analyzing several variables when the focus is on the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3280) Regression is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for

example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3281) Prediction is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision

as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3282) Regression is a prediction based on time-series information. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3283) Optimization is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3284) Classification assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3285) Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated

future value. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3286) Clustering segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3287) Clustering assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3288) Affinity grouping determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or

estimated future value. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3289) Estimation determines which things go together. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3290) Classification segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3291) Data-mining tools use a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large

volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3292) Affinity determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated

future value. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3293) Estimation determines which things go together. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3294) Data-mining tools use a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large

volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3295) Quantifiable benefits, indirectly quantifiable benefits, unpredictable benefits, and

intangible benefits are the four primary categories of BI benefits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3296) Data latency is the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is

complete. ⊚ true ⊚ false 3297) The three forms of BI include operational, tactical, and value-added. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3298) What types of BI decisions include predicting sales, determining correct inventory levels and distribution schedules among outlets, and loss prevention? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions 3299) What types of BI decisions include forecasting levels of bad loans and fraudulent credit

card use, credit card spending by new customers, and which kinds of customers will best respond to new loan offers? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions 3300) What types of BI decisions include predicting machinery failures and finding key factors

that control optimization of manufacturing capacity? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions 3301) What types of BI decisions include forecasting claim amounts, medical coverage costs,

classifying the most important elements that affect medical coverage to predicting which customers will buy new insurance policies? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

3302) Which of the following can use BI to make informed decisions? A) law enforcement industry B) airline industry C) broadcasting industry D) All of the answers are correct. 3303) Which of the following is a result of implementing business intelligence systems and

tools allowing business users to receive data for analysis? A) reliable B) understandable C) easily manipulated D) All of the answers are correct. 3304) Which of the following is the result of BI that implies that the data have been

documented as the certified or approved data for the enterprise? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated 3305) Which of the following is the result of BI that the processes that deliver the data to the

business community are well documented and there are no surprises such as missing or inaccurate data? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated 3306) Which of the following is the result of BI that the data have been defined in business

terms and calculations and algorithms are easily accessed for comprehension? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

3307) Which of the following is the result of BI that it is no longer required to have a PhD in

statistics to get sophisticated analytics delivered to users’ fingertips? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated 3308) What do organizations using BI ask to find the root causes to problems and provide

solutions? A) what B) when C) where D) why 3309) Which type of BI manages daily operations and integrates BI with operational systems? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct. 3310) Which type of BI conducts short-term analysis to achieve strategic goals? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct. 3311) Which type of BI achieves long-term organizational goals? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct. 3312) Which form of BI has managers and analysts as its primary users? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

3313) Which form of BI uses the time frame of days to weeks to months? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct. 3314) Which form of BI uses real-time metrics for its data? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct. 3315) Which form of BI uses months to years as its time frame? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct. 3316) What is data latency? A) the time duration to make data ready for analysis and loading the data into the

database B) the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete C) the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic results and determine an appropriate action D) All of the answers are correct. 3317) What is analysis latency? A) the time duration to make data ready for analysis and loading the data into the

database B) the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete C) the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic results and determine an appropriate action D) All of the answers are correct.

3318) What is decision latency? A) the time duration to make data ready for analysis and loading the data into the

database B) the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete C) the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic results and determine an appropriate action D) All of the answers are correct. 3319) What is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data

alone? A) B) C) D)

data integrity data mart analysis data mining data extraction

3320) What are the two main objectives associated with data mining? A) uncovering tactics and plans B) uncovering trends and patterns C) uncovering intelligence and unstructured data issues D) uncovering competitors and market advantages 3321) Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in

large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A) data analysis tools B) electronic analysis tools C) data-mining tools D) data integrity tools 3322) Which of the following is not a common form of data-mining analysis? A) division organization B) classification C) estimation D) clustering 3323) Which of the following forms of data mining assigns records to one of a predefined set of

classes? A) clustering B) classification C) estimation D) affinity grouping

3324) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such

that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible? A) statistical detection B) cluster analysis C) association detection D) social media analytics 3325) What is an example of using cluster analysis in business to create target-marketing

strategies? A) Google search B) first name information C) ZIP code segmentation D) last name associations 3326) Which of the following reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature

and frequency of the relationship? A) association detection B) masking detection tool C) cluster grouping D) blocking barriers 3327) What is a common association detection analysis technique in which you analyze certain

items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior? A) clustering factors B) mashup technology C) market basket analysis D) drill-down basket analysis 3328) What is prediction? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables

3329) What is optimization? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables 3330) What are forecasts? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables 3331) What is regression? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables 3332) What is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

3333) What is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as

effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression 3334) What are predictions based on time-series information? A) predictions B) optimizations C) forecasts D) regression 3335) What is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression 3336) What is classification? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes 3337) What is estimation? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes 3338) What is being accomplished by affinity grouping? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

3339) What does clustering accomplish? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes 3340) What assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering 3341) What determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value? A) B) C) D)

classification estimation affinity grouping clustering

3342) What determines which things go together? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering 3343) What segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering 3344) What is data mining? A) the common term for the representation of multidimensional information B) a particular attribute of information C) using a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of

information and infer rules from them that predict future behavior and guide decision making D) the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone

3345) What is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data

alone? A) B) C) D)

data integrity data mart analysis data mining data extraction

3346) What are the two main objectives associated with data mining? A) uncovering tactics and plans B) uncovering trends and patterns C) uncovering intelligence and unstructured data issues D) uncovering competitors and market advantages 3347) Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in

large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A) data analysis tools B) electronic analysis tool C) data-mining tools D) data integrity tools 3348) Which of the following is not a common form of data-mining analysis? A) division organization B) classification C) estimation D) clustering 3349) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such

that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible? A) statistical detection B) cluster analysis C) association detection D) social media analytics 3350) What is an example of using cluster analysis in business to create target-marketing

strategies? A) Google search B) first name information C) ZIP code segmentation D) last name associations

3351) Which of the below reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and

frequency of the relationship? A) affinity grouping analysis B) masking detection tool C) cluster grouping D) blocking barriers 3352) What is a common association detection analysis technique where you analyze certain

items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior? A) clustering factors B) mashup technology C) market basket analysis D) drill-down basket analysis 3353) What is prediction? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables 3354) What is optimization? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables 3355) What are forecasts? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables

3356) What is regression? A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables 3357) What is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example,

predicting future sales or employee turnover? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression 3358) What is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as

effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression 3359) What are predictions based on time-series information? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression 3360) What is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

3361) What is estimation? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determine which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes 3362) What is being accomplished by affinity grouping? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determine which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes 3363) What determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value? A) B) C) D)

classification estimation affinity grouping clustering

3364) What determines which things go together? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering 3365) What is data mining? A) the common term for the representation of multidimensional information B) a particular attribute of information C) uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of

information and infer rules from them that predict future behavior and guide decision making D) process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone 3366) Which of the following is a business benefit of BI? A) single point of access to information for managers only B) BI available to financial organizational departments only C) up-to-the minute information for everyone D) All of the answers are correct.

3367) Which of the following is one of the four main categories of BI benefits? A) quantifiable benefits B) predictable benefits C) tangible benefits D) All of the answers are correct. 3368) Which type of BI benefits includes working time saved in producing reports and selling

information to suppliers? A) quantifiable benefits B) predictable benefits C) tangible benefits D) All of the answers are correct. 3369) Which type of BI benefits are the results of discoveries made by creative users? A) quantifiable benefits B) indirectly quantifiable benefits C) unpredictable benefits D) intangible benefits 3370) Which type of BI benefits includes improved communication throughout the enterprise,

improved job satisfaction of empowered users, and improved knowledge sharing? A) quantifiable benefits B) indirectly quantifiable benefits C) unpredictable benefits D) intangible benefits

Answer Key Test name: Appendix F 1) TRUE

Improving the quality of business decisions has a direct impact on costs and revenue. 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE

36) FALSE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) A

These are all types of retail and sales BI decisions. 46) B

These are all types of banking BI decisions. 47) C

These are all types of operations management BI decisions. 48) D

These are all types of insurance BI decisions. 49) D

All of these choices can use BI to make informed decisions. 50) D

All of these choices are the results of implementing BI systems and tools. 51) A

Reliable is the result of BI that implies that the data have been documented as the certified or approved data for the enterprise. 52) B

Consistent is the result of BI that the processes that deliver the data to the business community are well documented and there are no surprises such as missing or inaccurate data. 53) C

Understandable is the result of BI that the data have been defined in business terms and calculations and algorithms are easily accessed for comprehension. 54) D

Easily manipulated is the result of BI that it is no longer required to have a PhD in statistics to get sophisticated analytics delivered to users’ fingertips. 55) D

Organizations using BI can find the root causes to problems and provide solutions simply by asking “Why?” 56) A

Operational BI manages daily operations and integrates BI with operational systems. 57) B

Tactical BI conducts short-term analysis to achieve strategic goals. 58) C

Strategic BI achieves long-term organizational goals. 59) A

Operational BI has managers and analysts as its primary users. 60) B

Tactical BI has the time frame of days to weeks to months. 61) A

Operational BI uses real-time metrics for its data. 62) C

Strategic BI uses the time frame of months to years to make decisions. 63) A

Data latency the time duration to make data ready for analysis and loading the data into the database. 64) B

Analysis latency is the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete. 65) C

Decision latency is the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic results and determine an appropriate action. 66) C

Data mining is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone. 67) B

The two main objectives of data mining are uncovering trends and patterns. 68) C

Data-mining tools uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. 69) A

Data-mining approaches decision making with a few different activities in mind, including classification, estimation, affinity grouping, and clustering. 70) B

Classification assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. 71) B

Cluster analysis is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. 72) C

A great example of using cluster analysis in business is to create target-marketing strategies based on ZIP codes. 73) A

Association detection reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship. 74) C

Market basket analysis a common association detection analysis technique in which you analyze certain items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior. 75) A

Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. 76) B

Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. 77) C

Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. 78) D

Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. 79) A

Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. 80) B

Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. 81) C

Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. 82) D

Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. 83) D

Classification assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. 84) A

Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. 85) B

Affinity grouping determines which things go together. 86) C

Clustering segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups. 87) A

Classification assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes.

88) B

Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. 89) C

Affinity grouping determines which things go together. 90) D

Clustering segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups. 91) D

Data mining is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone. 92) C

Data mining is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone? 93) B

The two main objectives of data mining are uncovering trends and patterns. 94) C

Data-mining tools uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. 95) A

Data-mining approaches decision making with a few different activities in mind include classification, estimation, affinity grouping, and clustering. 96) B

Cluster analysis is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. 97) C

A great example of using cluster analysis in business is to create target-marketing strategies based on ZIP codes. 98) A

Affinity grouping analysis reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship. 99) C

Market basket analysis a common association detection analysis technique where you analyze certain items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior. 100)

A Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. 101)

B Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. 102)

C Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. 103)

D Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. 104)

A Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. 105)

B Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. 106)

C Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. 107)

D Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. 108)

A Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value.

109)

B Affinity grouping determines which things go together. 110)

B Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. 111)

C Affinity grouping determines which things go together. 112)

D Data mining is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone. 113)

C Up-to-the minute information for everyone is a business benefit of BI. 114)

A Unpredictable benefits and intangible benefits are the two other categories of BI benefits. 115)