Test Bank For Psychology 6th Edition By Daniel Schacter, Daniel Gilbert, Matthew Nock-compressed

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TB6 Chapter 1 Essay 1. Contrast the views of Locke's realism with Kant's idealism. What position do modern psychologists take on this issue? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Locke argued that perceptions of the physical world are produced entirely by information from the sensory organs. (2) Kant argued that perceptions of the world involve both the information from the sensory organs and the brain's interpretations of that information. (3) Modern psychologists agree that our perception of the world is an inference of our brain's best guess at what is there.

2. Differentiate between a structuralist and functionalist approach to understanding consciousness. Identify the founders of both approaches and the earlier influences that gave rise to these schools of psychology. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that Wilhelm Wundt began structuralism and was greatly influenced by the physiological research of Helmholtz, for whom he was a research assistant. Structuralism attempts to identify the basic elements that constitute the mind by deconstructing the conscious experience through techniques such as introspection. William James began functionalism. He did not believe that consciousness could be broken down into basic elements; rather, he believed consciousness was more like a flowing stream than a collection of components. Functionalism sought to identify the adaptive significance, or functions, of consciousness, rather than deconstructing it into elements. James was highly influenced by Darwin's theory of natural selection.

3. Discuss Sigmund Freud's influence on the field of psychology. What are the contributions and the primary criticisms of psychoanalytic theory? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Though many people disagree with Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, he is one of the most influential psychologists ever. (2) Freud had been educated as a physician and noticed that patients were coming into his office with problems that had no physical justification. Freud decided to talk with these patients about their psychosomatic symptoms, which was termed hysteria in Freud's day. Over time, he developed a therapy called psychoanalysis. (3) Freud developed a theory of how the mind works and how people may be governed by forces of which they are unaware. This idea of an unconscious has had a tremendous impact on psychology, literature, and art. It also formed the basis of psychoanalysis, which involves bringing unconscious motivations, desires, and thoughts into the conscious mind. (4) One criticism of psychoanalytic theory is that it does not lend itself to testable predictions. Because there is little empirical support for Freud's theories, his influence has diminished over the decades. Another criticism of psychoanalytic theory is that it portrayed the human condition pessimistically, positing that human behavior was governed by rather dark forces that were outside of our conscious awareness.

4. Why would John Watson disagree with the definition of psychology as stated in the textbook? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that psychology is defined in the text as the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. John Watson was the founder of behaviorism. He believed that mental processes could not be studied scientifically because they were not objectively observable. He believed that if psychology was to be a science, it should confine its subject matter to objectively observable behavior. For this reason, Watson would disagree with the definition of psychology as presented in the textbook. In fairness to Watson, however, he lived before modern brain-scanning devices allowed psychologists to make objective observations of the neurological processes underlying cognition.

5. Describe Skinner's ideas about the events that control behavior. What events might happen that would increase your studying behavior, according to Skinner? ANSWER: Skinner believed that consequences control behavior. His principle of reinforcement stated that any behavior that is rewarded will be repeated and any behavior that isn't rewarded won't. Therefore, when students study hard, they may be rewarded with good grades and approval from teachers, parents, and peers. These students' studying behaviors will be reinforced and are more likely to occur in the future.

6. Discuss some benefits that behaviorism brought to the field of psychology. Then discuss some problems

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TB6 Chapter 1 Essay associated with behaviorism. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Behaviorists highlighted the need for psychologists

to study phenomena that were objectively observable. This advanced the science of psychology. (2) The research of Ivan Pavlov and John Watson demonstrated how associations between stimuli and responses are formed. (3) Using rats, B. F. Skinner developed a methodology demonstrating that the consequences of behavior determine its future occurrence. This work has taught psychologists how people and not just rats learn. His principle of reinforcement pervades modern psychology. (4) By focusing their study only on observable behavior, however, behaviorists neglected important areas of study such as perception, memory, cognitive and brain processes, and language. As a result, most psychologists ultimately shifted away from the behaviorist approach.

7. Humans tend to be afraid of the dark. Provide an explanation of this phenomenon within the framework of both behaviorism and evolutionary psychology. Compare the two explanations and determine if they are incompatible. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Humans cannot see well at night. As such, we are

prone to accidents when navigating in the dark. In addition, we are at risk if surrounded by large nocturnal animals that could possibly harm us. In contrast, hunkering down and sleeping in small groups at night provides some measure of safety. (2) Behaviorists would focus on the learning that occurs within an individual's lifetime. For example, the last time a hunter went hunting at night, they broke their ankle and almost got eaten by a lion. Hunting at night, then, has been punished by its consequences. Conversely, seeking a safe shelter is reinforced with warmth, safety, and companionship. As a result of these learning experiences, the hunter fears the dark and would rather stay inside. (3) Evolutionary psychologists would note that during the course of mammalian evolution, our ancestors who ventured outside in the dark tended not to reproduce in great numbers, perhaps because they fell off cliffs or got eaten by crocodiles. Those ancestors, who just so happened to be leery of the dark, lived to pass on their genes. Thus, we are left with the genes of those who did not particularly enjoy nightly jaunts through the forest. (4) On the surface, the two explanations are very different. While behaviorists do not deny the role of genetics, they point to the environment as the major determinant of behavior. As such, a behaviorist would first seek to understand the learning experiences that shaped an individual's fear of the dark. On the other hand, an evolutionary psychologist will focus on differential reproductive success as a result of the behavior of our ancestors. We are left with their genes, and thus, their behavior patterns. (5) The two explanations are not incompatible, but rather represent different levels of analysis. For example, early mammals might learn to avoid the dark through natural consequences within their lifetime. Principles of reinforcement and punishment from a behavioral account would explain this behavior. These are the mammals that live to reproduce and pass on their genes. To the extent that susceptibility to reinforcement is, in part, genetically based, we are genetically predisposed to fear the dark due to the learning experiences of our remote ancestors.

8. Discuss how technological advancements, along with work in the field of linguistics, advanced cognitive psychology and ultimately led to the downfall of behaviorism as the dominant field within psychology. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the advent of the computer gave psychologists a useful model of mental

processes. For example, both computers and people register, store, and retrieve information. This computer model inspired research in the field of cognitive psychology. This growing field of cognitive psychology studied important processes that behaviorists largely ignored, such as perception, memory, and attention, and ultimately replaced behaviorism as the dominant theoretical position within psychology. Contributing to the downfall of behaviorism was Noam Chomsky's scathing review of B. F. Skinner's Verbal Behavior. Skinner believed that language (he called it verbal behavior) was essentially the product of reinforcement. For example, if saying "please" is reinforced, that person may become more polite. Chomsky charged that Skinner's theory of language was overly simplistic. Children use grammar rules that are not explicitly taught and generate novel phrases that were never explicitly reinforced.

9. How might an evolutionary psychologist explain human behavior that is largely detrimental to the individual or the culture, such as aggression or a preference for a high-fat diet? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Evolutionary psychologists believe that human behavior is the product of millions of years of natural selection. Although these behaviors are largely

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TB6 Chapter 1 Essay detrimental today, they were adaptive in the environment of our ancestors. (2) Our ancestors who aggressively procured food and sexual partners tended to be the ones who lived and passed on their genes. (3) In an ancestral environment where food was scarce, those ancestors who prefer high-fat foods obtained the calories that they needed to survive. (4) In today's environment where food is abundant and behaving aggressively can send one to prison, these behaviors are largely detrimental. But we are stuck with the genes of our ancestors. To the extent that these behaviors are, in part, biologically determined, we will continue to have a propensity to engage in these behaviors.

10. Discuss the growing impact on psychology of women and people of color, and identify some pioneering women and people of color within psychology. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Today, women and people of color play leading

roles in all areas of psychology. (2) Kenneth Clark, a Black American who became the first president of the American Psychological Association in 1970, and Mamie Phipps Clark worked extensively on the self-image of Black children and argued that segregation of the races created great psychological harm. Their research was fundamental and contributed to the Supreme Court's 1954 ruling (Brown v. Board of Education) to outlaw segregation in public schools. Kenneth Clark's interest in psychology was sparked by taking a course taught by Francis Cecil Sumner, the first Black American to receive a PhD in psychology in 1920. (3) In 1894, Margaret Floy Washburn became the first woman to receive a PhD in psychology. (4) Mary Calkins, the first woman elected as president of the APA in 1905, was mentored by William James and advanced a theory of the role of "self" in psychology. She argued that self is a single unit that cannot be broken down. (5) Women now earn the majority of PhD degrees granted in psychology. In addition, people of color earn approximately 30% of the PhDs granted in psychology.

11. Describe four nonresearch career specializations within psychology. ANSWER: The answer should provide four of the following: (1) Clinical psychologists (also called therapists) assess and treat people with psychological disorders. They work closely with psychiatrists, who have a medical degree and can prescribe medication. Clinical psychology makes up almost half of the doctorates awarded in psychology. (2) Counseling psychologists assist people dealing with career issues, or common personal problems such as divorce, unemployment, or the loss of a loved one. (3) School psychologists work in educational settings and provide guidance to students, parents, and teachers. (4) Industrial/organizational psychologists work in business and industry, and focus on issues such as improving productivity, developing effective planning strategies, and dealing with change. (5) Sports psychologists help athletes train and compete. (6) Forensic psychologists assist attorneys and courts in dealing with crime. (7) Consumer psychologists help companies develop and market new products.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 1. Nature is to nurture as: a. stimulus is to reaction. b. realism is to dualism. c. nativism is to empiricism. d. introspection is to functionalism. ANSWER: c 2. Psychology is the scientific study of: a. mind and body. b. mind and behavior. c. mood and behavior. d. mood and body. ANSWER: b 3. Jaqueline believes that her spirituality is unrelated to the activity in her brain. This is a philosophy known as: a. idealism. b. structuralism. c. materialism. d. dualism. ANSWER: d 4. Psychology is the _____ study of mind and behavior. a. materialistic b. idealistic c. scientific d. philosophical ANSWER: c 5. Helmholtz was a _____ who studied _____. a. philosopher; the mind–body problem b. behavioral neuroscientist; the maze performance of rats c. personality theorist; the shape of skulls d. physiologist; reaction time ANSWER: d 6. Philosophical idealism is the view that: a. perceptions of the physical world are produced entirely from sensory organs. b. perceptions of the physical world are our brain's best interpretation of the information that enters through our sensory apparatus. c. the mind and the body are fundamentally different things.

d. when appropriately reinforced, people behave in ideal ways. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. _____ believed that the child's mind was a tabula rasa, or a blank slate, on which experiences were written. a. Locke b. Kant c. Freud d. Wundt ANSWER: a 8. Audrey emphasizes the importance of the unconscious and uses free association in her therapy sessions. Audrey is MOST likely a(n): a. behaviorist. b. cognitive neuroscientist. c. evolutionary psychologist. d. psychoanalyst. ANSWER: d 9. Psychology is the scientific study of mind and behavior. Behavior refers to: a. perceptions, thoughts, memories, and feelings. b. a set of private events that happen inside a person. c. urges. d. a set of public events—the things we say and do that can potentially be observed by others. ANSWER: d 10. _____ stresses the importance of studying observable behaviors and ignores the mental processes involved in different tasks. a. Behaviorism b. Natural selection c. Idealism d. Cognitive psychology ANSWER: a 11. The early roots of psychology are firmly planted in physiology and in: a. anatomy. b. logic. c. dualism. d. philosophy. ANSWER: d 12. Edward Titchener used _____ as a technique to determine the _____ of consciousness. a. introspection; basic elements Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice b. hypnosis; adaptability c. psychonautics; basic functions d. neuroimaging; evolution ANSWER: a 13. In Pavlov's classic experiment, the sound of a tone was the _____ that produced a _____ of salivation in dogs, even in the absence of food. a. response; stimulus b. stimulus; response c. reinforcer; stimulus d. stimulus; reinforcer ANSWER: b 14. William James was influenced by the work of: a. Edward Titchener. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Ivan Pavlov. d. Wilhelm Wundt. ANSWER: d 15. Among the first to struggle with how the mind works were the: a. ancient philosophers. b. realists led by Locke. c. nativists led by Kant. d. 18th-century German physiologists. ANSWER: a 16. Freud's psychoanalytic theory had the greatest influence on: a. behaviorists. b. evolutionary psychologists. c. clinicians. d. neuroscientists. ANSWER: c 17. Which statement is NOT true about B. F. Skinner? a. He developed a specialized chamber in which rats could press levers to earn food. b. He proposed the psychoanalytic theory. c. He denied the existence of free will. d. He developed the principle of reinforcement. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 18. _____ refers to the private inner experience of perception, thoughts, memories, and feelings. a. Mind b. Dualism c. Behavior d. Empiricism ANSWER: a 19. Kurt Lewin fled Nazi Germany and became interested in: a. the evolutionary basis of aggression. b. the psychological difference between autocracy and democracy. c. cultural differences between the United States and Germany. d. differences in brain functioning between violent incarcerated people and nonviolent people. ANSWER: b 20. Attempts to develop a scientific approach to psychology related the _____ to the _____. a. soul; unconscious b. spirit; mind c. mind; brain d. soul; spirit ANSWER: c 21. _____ believed that private experience was too vague to be an object of scientific inquiry. a. Watson b. Freud c. Pavlov d. Skinner ANSWER: a 22. Cognitive psychology addressed the critiques of behaviorism by applying scientific methods to the study of: a. mental processes such as memory, perception, and thought. b. stimulus–response learning. c. the unconscious mind. d. neurological mechanisms underlying observable behavior. ANSWER: a 23. Alex and Pat notice that their 10-year-old daughter is beginning to use sexually explicit swearwords. They think that their daughter's friends might be encouraging her swearing with attention and laughter. Such a reinforcement of behavior was a concept formulated by: a. Watson. b. Freud. c. Pavlov. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. Skinner. ANSWER: d 24. Descartes is to _____ as Hobbes is to _____. a. structuralism; nativism b. dualism; materialism c. nativism; dualism d. dualism; idealism ANSWER: b 25. _____ psychologists believe that our minds have been shaped by natural selection. a. Cultural b. Evolutionary c. Organizational d. Humanistic ANSWER: b 26. Scientists such as Max Wertheimer, Sir Frederic Bartlett, Jean Piaget, and Kurt Lewin paved the way for _____ by researching processes such as perception, memory, and subjective experiences. a. behaviorism b. clinical psychology c. cognitive psychology d. behavioral neuroscience ANSWER: c 27. Which philosopher advocated dualism? a. Hobbes b. Locke c. Kant d. Descartes ANSWER: d 28. The research of _____, in which the maze performance of rats was measured before and after brain surgery, was a forerunner of today's behavioral neuroscience. a. E. O. Wilson b. B. F. Skinner c. Karl Lashley d. Sir Frederic Bartlett ANSWER: c 29. Social psychology examines issues such as conformity, racism, and stereotyping by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. focusing on features that were passed on to people hereditarily. b. accounting for people's cultural background and personal beliefs. c. localizing regions of the brain responsible for these issues. d. considering the effects of other people on our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. ANSWER: d 30. _____ believed that the mind and body are fundamentally different things, with the body made of a material substance and the mind made of an immaterial or spiritual substance. a. Kant b. Hobbes c. Descartes d. Locke ANSWER: c 31. Gerhard is interested in studying cultural psychology. Which question would be MOST interesting to Gerhard in his studies? a. At what age do most people start to think about their own death? b. Are men or women more likely to do some preparation for their own death? c. How are Americans and the Japanese different in how they perceive death? d. Does your social circle define how you mourn when you lose a loved one? ANSWER: c 32. Bayda studies how familial socioeconomic class dictates the professions available to children in both America and Africa. Bayda is MOST likely a _____ psychologist. a. social b. clinical c. cultural d. Gestalt ANSWER: c 33. Kaiya believes that her spirituality is rooted in a specific area of the brain. Her beliefs are similar to those of: a. Ryle. b. Descartes. c. Hobbes. d. Locke. ANSWER: c 34. Why was the advent of the computer so important for the development of cognitive psychology? a. Psychologists could use computers to interpret large amounts of data. b. The processing of information by computers through complex circuits helped in the understanding of several processes of the human mind.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. Computer technology allowed psychologists to develop useful tools and software programs for various

purposes. d. The computer supported the views of behaviorists that people were essentially like robots programmed by their environment.

ANSWER: b 35. In the 19th century, the physician _____ observed a patient who, after damage to a localized area in the _____ brain hemisphere, could not produce words, even though he could comprehend them. a. Franz Joseph Gall; right b. Paul Broca; left c. Karl Lashley; right d. Pierre Janet; left ANSWER: b 36. Kenneth Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark studied: a. psychological harm caused by segregation. b. the location of memory storage in the brains of rats. c. stimulus–response relationships in dogs. d. cultural differences in visual perception. ANSWER: a 37. Michael believes that our nonphysical minds are distinct from our brain and direct the actions of our brain and body. His beliefs are MOST similar to those of which philosopher? a. Descartes b. Kant c. Hobbes d. Locke ANSWER: a 38. Kolby believes that a nonphysical spiritual entity inside each of us controls our physical body and the decisions that we make. Her beliefs are MOST consistent with which philosophical view? a. behaviorism b. philosophical empiricism c. phrenology d. dualism ANSWER: d 39. A _____ treats individuals with psychological problems and because they have an M.D., they are allowed to prescribe medication. a. psychiatrist b. psychologist c. social psychologist Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. cognitive neuroscientist ANSWER: a 40. Nadia studies the effect of socioeconomic status on visual perception. Nadia is MOST likely a: a. neuroscientist. b. Gestalt psychologist. c. cultural psychologist. d. social psychologist. ANSWER: c 41. Aiguo is a therapist with a PhD in clinical psychology. It is likely that he works: a. as a consultant for criminal investigators. b. in academia. c. as a business consultant. d. in a private practice or in partnership. ANSWER: d 42. _____ make up the majority of the doctorates awarded in psychology from American Universities. a. Men b. Women c. People over age 50 d. People of color ANSWER: b 43. One piece of evidence that would support materialism is: a. first-hand accounts from people who have near-death experiences. b. memory is ultimately explainable in terms of the physical processes that produce it. c. brain activity produces consciousness. d. both genetic and environmental factors influence human behavior. ANSWER: b 44. Omar assists people in processing common crises such as divorce, the loss of a job, or the death of a loved one. He is MOST likely a: a. counseling psychologist. b. social psychologist. c. school psychologist. d. neuropsychologist. ANSWER: a 45. The modern view that the subjective experience of having a mind is the result of brain activity can be traced to which philosopher? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. Hobbes b. Kant c. Descartes d. Locke ANSWER: a 46. Sarah is a school psychologist. Which work is she MOST likely engaged in? a. studying whether the physical closeness of an authority figure impacts obedience b. helping students and parents adjust to the demands of a new school c. maximizing efficiency of school employees d. studying the ways in which the school setting influences memory retention ANSWER: b 47. Psychologists typically believe that mental phenomena can be explained in terms of: a. the physical processes that produce them. b. how they are isolated from the mind. c. the impact they have on the rest of the body. d. the nonphysical mind interacting with the pineal gland in the brain. ANSWER: a 48. To most psychologists today, physical processes in the brain result in: a. mental phenomena like attention, memory, belief and emotion. b. no changes anywhere in the body, because the brain and body are separate. c. exact copies of information that enter through the senses. d. the nonphysical mind interacting with the pineal gland in the brain. ANSWER: a 49. Clive is currently a psychologist who still largely believes in philosophical materialism. Which of these BEST summarizes what Clive believes? a. The scientific method cannot be applied to the study of thinking and emotion. b. Mental processes are nonphysical entities that control the brain and body. c. Mental processes such as thought and attention arise from brain functioning. d. Mental processes cannot be studied because they cannot be observed. ANSWER: c 50. Sam is a modern scholar of psychological science. Sam is likely to believe: a. the scientific method cannot be applied to the study of thinking and emotion. b. thoughts, feelings, and behavior arise from electrical and chemical events in the brain. c. psychologists should confine their analyses to the study of observable behavior. d. mental processes are the only subject matter worthy of study in psychology. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 51. Kant advocated the philosophical views of: a. empiricism and idealism. b. nativism and idealism. c. dualism and realism. d. materialism and idealism. ANSWER: b 52. Katya feels a cold breeze. She believes that the perception of this breeze arises from the brain's interpretation of information from the sensory organs. This is most consistent with: a. philosophical idealism. b. philosophical realism. c. empiricism. d. nativism. ANSWER: a 53. Deiondre believes that philosophical idealism drives perception. While he reads a book, he is most likely to assert that: a. his perceptions of the page are a result of the light bouncing from the page into his eye only. b. the pictures of the page produced by the eye accurately depict the world. c. the light bouncing from the page into his eye is irrelevant for his perception of this page. d. the light bouncing from the page into his eye and other information his brain has about the world combine to create a full perception of the page.

ANSWER: d 54. Xue does not believe that we have a nonphysical mind. Rather, he believes that the mind is what the brain does. His views are MOST similar to those of: a. Locke. b. Kant. c. Ryle. d. Hobbes. ANSWER: d 55. Amaya believes that certain kinds of knowledge are innate or inborn. This is a theory known as: a. functionalism. b. nativism. c. philosophical empiricism. d. structuralism. ANSWER: b 56. Nativism is reflected in psychological views that emphasize the effect of _____ on behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. nurture b. intuition c. schemas d. nature ANSWER: d 57. Which early philosopher believed that certain kinds of knowledge are innate or inborn? a. Descartes b. Kant c. Hobbes d. Locke ANSWER: b 58. Nature is to nurture as nativism is to: a. empiricism. b. realism. c. dualism. d. idealism. ANSWER: a 59. Salim believes that all knowledge was acquired through experience, an idea known as: a. dualism. b. empiricism. c. materialism. d. nativism. ANSWER: b 60. The notion that the mind at birth is a tabula rasa is consistent with the views of: a. Ryle. b. Descartes. c. Locke. d. Kant. ANSWER: c 61. Which piece of evidence is most consistent with Kant's ideas of nativism? a. Infants appear to have some basic knowledge of the laws of physics. b. Infants may begin to reproduce sounds typical of the language they are exposed to during the 1st year of development. c. Infants develop color perception after birth.

d. Children who are exposed to books learn about books. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 62. The observation that infants have some knowledge of mathematics is MOST consistent with: a. nativism. b. phrenology. c. empiricism. d. tabula rasa. ANSWER: a 63. The major limitation of the works of philosophers to an understanding of human behavior is that: a. the works tended to underestimate the role of nature in determining human behavior. b. the forces that govern human behavior have changed considerably since their time. c. the works tended to underestimate the role of nurture in shaping human behavior. d. philosophers did not develop ways to test their theories. ANSWER: d 64. Who wrote the first psychology textbook in 1874, helping to establish psychology as a new domain of science? a. Helmholtz b. Wundt c. Ebbinghaus d. Titchener ANSWER: b 65. _____ is the amount of time between the onset of a stimulus and a person's response to that stimulus. a. Natural selection b. Introspection c. Reaction time d. Stimulus time ANSWER: c 66. The amount of time between the onset of a stimulus and a response can be used to calculate: a. subjective response to stimulus. b. speed at which nerves transmit information. c. learning. d. stimulus time. ANSWER: b 67. Penny wanted to find out how long it would take her sister Cathy to press a button when she hears a tone. Penny is studying what type of process? a. classical conditioning b. introspection c. reaction time Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. stimulus time ANSWER: c 68. Yara wanted to find out how long it would take her sister Charice to press a button when she hears a tone. She was determining Charice's: a. reaction time. b. unconscious activity. c. reinforced behavior. d. systematic self-observation. ANSWER: a 69. Hermann von Helmholtz is remembered for: a. developing a technique of "systematic self-observation" known as introspection. b. becoming the first to earn a PhD in psychology. c. measuring the speed of a nervous impulse. d. developing an approach to psychology that emphasized the adaptive significance of mental processes. ANSWER: c 70. _____ calculated the speed at which nerves transmit information. a. Hermann von Helmholtz b. William James c. Hermann Ebbinghaus d. Edward Titchener ANSWER: a 71. An acupuncturist asks you to verbally respond as soon as you feel a pinprick as they stimulate your upper thigh, hamstring, calf, and foot with a needle. Based on Helmholtz's research, you will react MOST quickly when the _____ is stimulated. a. upper thigh b. hamstring c. calf d. foot ANSWER: a 72. Hermann von Helmholtz is to _____ as Wilhelm Wundt is to _____. a. introspection; functionalism b. reaction time; structuralism c. reaction time; functionalism d. introspection; structuralism ANSWER: b 73. Historians generally credit the emergence of psychology as a science to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. Wundt. b. Darwin. c. Ebbinghaus. d. James. ANSWER: a 74. The first laboratory devoted exclusively to psychology as an independent field of study opened: a. in Paris in 1859. b. in Leipzig in 1879. c. in Berlin in 1889. d. at Cornell University in 1909. ANSWER: b 75. In his experiments, Rashid, a trained observer, is analyzing reactions to bitter tastes. He is using a technique known as: a. reaction time testing. b. psychoanalysis. c. behaviorism. d. introspection. ANSWER: d 76. Wundt believed that scientific psychology should focus on analyzing: a. decision making. b. observable behavior. c. consciousness. d. brain functioning. ANSWER: c 77. Wundt believed that scientific psychology should focus on analyzing the basic elements comprising consciousness, an approach his students later termed: a. psychoanalysis. b. functionalism. c. consciousness. d. structuralism. ANSWER: d 78. Early psychologists using structuralist methods in the study of psychology attempted to: a. use free association to gain insight into the unconsciousness. b. analyze conscious experience into its most basic parts. c. use reaction-time measures to map or structure neural networks in the brain. d. identify the adaptive functions of mental activity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 79. What technique did psychologists who studied structuralism use? a. conditioning b. introspection c. psychoanalysis d. hypnosis ANSWER: b 80. Presented with a stimulus, student observers in Wundt's lab were asked to report on their "raw" sensory experience, a technique known as: a. inspection. b. circumspection. c. retrospection. d. introspection. ANSWER: d 81. A participant seated in an otherwise dark room stares at the flickering of a lit candle and reports on their subjective experiences, such as the visual experience of the candle flickering and the haptic sensation of warmth. The psychologist conducting this experiment is MOST likely to be _____, and the method being used is _____. a. Wundt; reaction time test b. James; introspection c. Titchener; introspection d. Titchener; functionalism ANSWER: c 82. Edward Titchener is to _____ as William James is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism ANSWER: d 83. The lack of consistency in perceptual experiences between individuals using introspective techniques contributed to the decline of: a. empiricism. b. functionalism. c. humanism. d. structuralism. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 84. Which of these is NOT a flaw of introspective methods? a. There was a lack of consistency between observers. b. Scientists had difficulty agreeing on the building blocks of subjective experience. c. There was no way to tell if an observer's description of their inner experience was accurate. d. Observers were exposed to many different stimuli. ANSWER: d 85. The major reason structuralism ultimately failed as a school of psychology was that: a. by associating itself with Darwin, it drew harsh criticism from some religious authorities. b. there was no evidence suggesting that Freud's theories were accurate. c. the methods used by structuralists did not produce replicable observations. d. reaction time is unrelated to activity in the brain. ANSWER: c 86. William James founded which school of psychology? a. structuralism b. behaviorism c. functionalism d. psychoanalysis ANSWER: c 87. Which psychologist established functionalism as an approach to psychology? a. James b. Titchener c. Wundt d. Watson ANSWER: a 88. An early approach to psychology that focused on how mental processes enable people to adapt to their environment is called: a. structuralism. b. social Darwinism. c. functionalism. d. behaviorism. ANSWER: c 89. Which early school of psychology was most concerned with the adaptive importance of mental processes? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviorism d. empiricism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 90. William James is to _____ as Wilhelm Wundt is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism ANSWER: b 91. William James viewed consciousness as being similar to: a. a flowing stream. b. the parts of an atom. c. an explanatory fiction. d. the parts of a clock. ANSWER: a 92. Which early psychologist used the metaphor of a flowing stream to describe consciousness? a. Hermann von Helmholtz b. William James c. Edward Titchener d. Wilhelm Wundt ANSWER: b 93. William James's school of functionalism was MOST influenced by the works of: a. John Locke. b. Wilhelm Wundt. c. Charles Darwin. d. René Descartes. ANSWER: c 94. Research participants are asked to rotate a three-dimensional object in their minds. William James would be MOST interested in which research question? a. What are the subjective experiences of the participants as they do this task? b. In what ways does the ability to manipulate objects in the mind aid problem solving in the real world? c. At what age does this ability develop? d. What are the unconscious processes underlying this task? ANSWER: b 95. Studies have demonstrated that we attend to only a fraction of the sensory information that the brain receives. Based on this information, William James would be MOST interested in which research question? a. What are the basic elements of sensory information? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice b. Do unattended sensory experiences exist in the unconscious? c. Will more information be perceived if participants are reinforced by cash incentives for better attention? d. Why might it be advantageous for the mind to filter out most sensory information? ANSWER: d 96. Manny believes that the goal of psychologists should be to determine the function of consciousness. His belief is most similar to that of: a. James. b. Wundt. c. Titchener. d. Darwin. ANSWER: a 97. The functionalist approach was MOST influenced by the theory of: a. empiricism. b. materialism. c. natural selection. d. dualism. ANSWER: c 98. The theory known as _____ proposes that traits that help organisms survive and reproduce are more likely to be passed on to subsequent generations. a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism ANSWER: c 99. James argued that the job of psychologists is to: a. figure out the function of consciousness. b. determine the building blocks of consciousness. c. research only observable behavior. d. use introspection to study consciousness. ANSWER: a 100. Darwin's theory of _____ refers to the process by which the specific attributes that promote an organism's survival and reproduction become more prevalent in the population over time. a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 101. In his theory of _____, Darwin proposed that attributes that promote an organism's survival and reproduction become more prevalent in the population over time. a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism ANSWER: c 102. Imani observes that dogs have better night vision than humans. According to Darwin's principle of natural selection, which explanation BEST fits Imani's observation? a. Dogs have different distributions of visual receptors than humans. b. Night vision must have been a more adaptive attribute for ancient dogs than humans. c. The consciousness of all animals must have evolved for a use. d. Visual perception involves different learning processes for dogs and humans. ANSWER: b 103. Aki explains that humans with ancestry in northern Europe have adapted to digest dairy products more easily because the harsh winters in that area required their ancestors to develop an ability to eat nonplant-based foods. Aki's explanation is most in line with which theory? a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism ANSWER: c 104. Based on his functionalist views, William James might be MOST interested in which research question related to test-taking anxiety? a. Is test-taking anxiety related to generalized anxiety disorder? b. Does anxiety provide motivation for increased study? c. What do participants report when they introspect about failing an exam? d. What brain regions are active when anxiety is experienced? ANSWER: b 105. Based on his functionalist views, William James might be MOST interested to know which information about sleep? a. the percentage of people who dream b. the average number of hours a night people sleep c. the importance of sleep in forming long-term memories d. the changes in brain electrical activity that co-occur with sleep stages ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 106. Functionalism focuses on the _____ of mental process. a. structure b. adaptive significance c. meaningfulness d. prevalence ANSWER: b 107. _____ focuses on the adaptive significance of mental processes. a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Philosophical materialism d. Philosophical idealism ANSWER: a 108. In the late 1800s, a temporary loss of cognitive or motor function with no obvious physical origin was termed: a. agoraphobia. b. hysteria. c. neurosis. d. generalized anxiety. ANSWER: b 109. In the late 1800s, Charcot and Janet found that _____ eliminated signs of hysteria in their patients. a. amnesia b. neurosis c. introspection d. hypnosis ANSWER: d 110. In the late 1800s, Charcot and Janet noted that symptoms of hysteria were eliminated when patients: a. were paid for not exhibiting those symptoms. b. received electroconvulsive shock therapy. c. were hypnotized. d. introspected on the causes of their hysteria. ANSWER: c 111. Sigmund Freud is to Edward Titchener as _____ is to _____. a. the elements of the unconscious; the elements of consciousness b. psychoanalysis; behaviorism c. empiricism; structuralism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. structuralism; functionalism ANSWER: a 112. Sigmund Freud is to Edward Titchener as _____ is to _____. a. psychoanalysis; introspection b. introspection; behaviorism c. empiricism; structuralism d. psychoanalysis; functionalism ANSWER: a 113. Edward Titchener is to _____ as John Watson is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism ANSWER: c 114. William James is to _____ as John Watson is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism ANSWER: a 115. Sigmund Freud is to William James as _____ is/are to _____. a. the elements of the unconscious; the basic elements of consciousness b. psychoanalysis; behaviorism c. humanism; functionalism d. psychoanalysis; functionalism ANSWER: d 116. William James is to _____ as John Watson is to _____. a. Charles Darwin; Ivan Pavlov b. Wilhelm Wundt; B. F. Skinner c. Edward Titchener; Rosalie Rayner d. B. F. Skinner; Margaret Floy Washburn ANSWER: a 117. Which definition BEST describes hysteria? a. the emergence of multiple personalities as the result of an extreme stressor such as child abuse b. a major depressive episode triggered by a major life event such as divorce Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. a temporary loss of cognitive or motor functioning with no obvious physical origin d. generalized anxiety due to daily stressors ANSWER: c 118. Jacqueline reports that she just has become blind in her left eye, although there is no physical cause. A clinician in the late 1800s would probably have diagnosed Jacqueline with: a. hysteria. b. neurosis. c. projection. d. repression. ANSWER: a 119. Anne reports that after a heated argument with her spouse, her left leg has become paralyzed, although there is no medical cause. A clinician in the late 1800s would probably have diagnosed Anne with: a. projection. b. neurosis. c. hysteria. d. repression. ANSWER: c 120. Amaya reports that after a heated argument with her partner, she cannot remember her identity, although there is no medical cause. Jean-Martin Charcot or Pierre Janet would probably have treated Amaya's condition: a. by inducing a hypnotic trance. b. using free association. c. with introspection. d. using conditioning techniques. ANSWER: a 121. Which psychologist studied under the guidance of Charcot and was influenced by Charcot's ideas? a. Wundt b. Titchener c. James d. Freud ANSWER: d 122. Freud emphasized that his patients' hysterical symptoms could be traced to: a. effects of painful childhood experiences that could not be remembered. b. "mind bugs," or curious failures of otherwise adaptive cognitive processes. c. feelings of shame and inadequacy acquired during adolescent sexual development. d. maladaptive patterns of behavior that could be observed during infancy. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 123. What did Freud call the part of the mind that operates outside of conscious awareness but influences conscious thoughts, feelings, and actions? a. preconscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. subconscious ANSWER: b 124. The theory that emphasizes the importance of unconscious mental processes in shaping feelings, thoughts, and behaviors is called: a. Gestalt theory. b. structuralism. c. functionalism. d. psychoanalytic theory. ANSWER: d 125. Carrie is working with a patient to uncover the patient's early experiences as well as to try to bring unconscious anxieties and conflicts into awareness. Carrie's work is based on which approach? a. introspection b. psychoanalytic c. behaviorist d. structuralist ANSWER: b 126. Dr. Rivera believes that psychological disorders arise largely from unconscious processes. In his work with clients, he tries to pull repressed memories out of the unconscious and into the light of day, where they can be resolved. Dr. Rivera's work is based on that of: a. behaviorists. b. Gestalt psychologists. c. psychoanalysts. d. cognitive psychologists. ANSWER: c 127. Psychoanalysis focuses on: a. the adaptability of certain psychological disorders. b. deconstructing consciousness into its component parts. c. bringing unconscious material into conscious awareness. d. ways to banish anxiety into the unconscious. ANSWER: c 128. Bringing unconscious material into conscious awareness is the goal of: a. psychoanalysis. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice b. behaviorism. c. introspection. d. neuroscience. ANSWER: a 129. Which pioneer of clinical psychology is associated with psychoanalysis? a. Freud b. Maslow c. Rogers d. James ANSWER: a 130. Which psychologist was NOT part of the psychoanalytic movement? a. Sigmund Freud b. Alfred Adler c. Carl Jung d. William James ANSWER: d 131. Freud believed that patients' _____ and _____ offered a glimpse into their unconscious minds. a. dreams; free associations b. dreams; behavior c. free association; behavior d. behavior; hypnotic trances ANSWER: a 132. Professor Malone believes that much of human behavior is governed by unconscious sexual desires. This conceptual framework is MOST consistent with: a. behaviorism. b. psychoanalysis. c. humanism. d. functionalism. ANSWER: b 133. Professor Morales adopts a psychoanalytic conceptualization of personality. She believes that different personality types: a. are genetically based traits. b. simply are summary terms for a variety of learned behaviors. c. arise as a result of unconscious processes. d. emerge on our quest for self-actualization. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 134. Within psychology, psychoanalysis had its greatest influence on: a. cognitive psychologists. b. clinicians. c. behaviorists. d. experimental psychologists. ANSWER: b 135. According to John Watson, the goal of a scientific psychology is to: a. examine stimulus and response. b. understand both the structure and function of consciousness. c. determine the neural mechanisms underlying behavior and thought. d. ease psychological distress and help people reach their fullest potential. ANSWER: a 136. John Watson was interested in how _____ behavior, and B. F. Skinner focused on how _____ control(s) behavior. a. reinforcers strengthen; free will b. emotions trigger; reinforcers c. stimuli produce; mental processes d. stimuli elicit; consequences ANSWER: d 137. An approach that advocates that psychologists restrict themselves to the scientific study of observable behavior is called: a. psychoanalysis. b. behaviorism. c. functionalism. d. structuralism. ANSWER: b 138. _____ advocates the scientific study of objectively observable behavior. a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis ANSWER: c 139. The restriction of scientific study to observable behavior only is: a. functionalism. b. structuralism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. behaviorism. d. psychoanalysis. ANSWER: c 140. In terms of its subject matter for analysis, which school of psychology MOST differs from the others? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. psychoanalysis d. behaviorism ANSWER: d 141. Structuralism, functionalism, and psychoanalysis all are similar in that advocates of each position: a. sought to identify the building blocks of consciousness. b. believed that consciousness was best described metaphorically as a flowing river. c. attempted to understand the inner workings of the mind. d. believed that human behavior was determined largely by unconscious forces. ANSWER: c 142. Why did behaviorism gain popularity as an approach to psychology? a. It was a reaction to the pessimistic view of human nature espoused by psychoanalytic theory. b. Psychoanalysts had failed to develop effective treatments. c. It advocated for nurturing and developing the mind by rewarding healthy patterns of thinking. d. It is difficult to know what is going on in people's minds. ANSWER: d 143. "You don't know what they think, but you know how they act." This statement characterizes which approach? a. psychoanalysis b. humanism c. behaviorism d. Gestalt theories ANSWER: c 144. Hector doesn't believe that mental processes can be studied scientifically because they are too subjective. Rather, psychological studies that constrain themselves only to what people actually do appeal to him. Hector's views are consistent with which approach? a. psychoanalysis b. structuralism c. functionalism d. behaviorism ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 145. Watson criticized the introspective methods of the structuralists and functionalists primarily because: a. the use of these methods necessitated a belief in the existence of mental events. b. introspection cannot produce replicable and objective measures required by science. c. the stimulus–response introspective model was overly simplistic. d. reaction time was an unreliable dependent measure. ANSWER: b 146. "The goal of psychological study is the ascertaining of such data and laws that, given the stimulus, psychology can predict what the response will be; or on the other hand, given the response, it can specify the nature of the effective stimulus." This statement is associated with which psychologist? a. Freud b. James c. Watson d. Wertheimer ANSWER: c 147. Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist, is BEST known for his experiments: a. conditioning a salivation response in dogs to environmental stimuli. b. measuring the speed at which a bell can be perceived in a dog's auditory cortex. c. demonstrating the effectiveness of positive reinforcement in dogs. d. investigating salivation in dogs when the olfactory bulb is surgically removed. ANSWER: a 148. In Pavlov's research, a tone was sounded prior to delivering food to hungry dogs. After a number of trials, what did Pavlov notice? a. The dogs salivated prior to the tone being sounded. b. The dogs salivated to the sound of the tone alone. c. The dogs salivated only after the food was presented. d. The dogs began doing spontaneous tricks as soon as the tone sounded. ANSWER: b 149. In Pavlov's research, the sound of a tone was a _____ for salivating. a. stimulus b. response c. construal d. reinforcer ANSWER: a 150. In Pavlov's research, the tone was a _____ for the dogs to salivate. a. reinforcer b. response Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. construal d. stimulus ANSWER: d 151. In Pavlov's research, dogs' salivation is an example of a: a. stimulus. b. response. c. construal of a stimulus. d. reinforcer. ANSWER: b 152. If you are having trouble finding your cat, you may try shaking the can that contains its treats. The sound of the treats as you shake the can would be a: a. response. b. stimulus. c. reaction. d. reinforcer. ANSWER: b 153. When Tori's smartphone beeps, she checks it. The beep is an example of a: a. response. b. sensation. c. stimulus. d. reinforcer. ANSWER: c 154. When Tori's smartphone beeps, she checks it. Checking her phone at the sound of the beep is an example of a: a. response. b. sensation. c. stimulus. d. reinforcer. ANSWER: a 155. When the light comes on in his car indicating that his gas is low, Juan drives to the nearest gas station. The indicator light is an example of a: a. reinforcer. b. sensation. c. stimulus. d. response. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 156. Olivia turns on the air conditioning when it gets too hot in the house. Olivia's actions are a _____ controlled by the _____ of heat. a. response; stimulus b. stimulus; response c. response; reinforcer d. stimulus; reinforcer ANSWER: a 157. The behaviorism of John Watson has been described as _____ psychology. a. animal b. stimulus–response c. subjective d. humanistic ANSWER: b 158. Which psychologist is MOST associated with stimulus–response psychology? a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. John Watson d. Margaret Floy Washburn ANSWER: c 159. Response is to stimulus as the: a. waving of a flag at the start of a car race is to racing cars. b. tone is to salivation for Pavlov's dogs. c. pressing of the brakes is to a red traffic light. d. ringing of the alarm clock is to rolling out of bed. ANSWER: c 160. Response is to stimulus as: a. an e-mail notification is to checking your messages. b. being startled is to a loud noise. c. a red light is to hitting the brakes. d. a funny story is to a smile. ANSWER: b 161. Which statement about John Watson is correct? a. He completely denied the existence of mental events. b. He believed that genetic factors were the largest influence on behavior. c. He believed that environmental factors were the most important influences on behavior. d. He believed that nature was more important than nurture in determining behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 162. John Watson is to _____ as B. F. Skinner is to _____. a. reinforcers; free will b. emotions; reinforcers c. stimuli; mental processes d. stimuli; consequences ANSWER: d 163. Leslie thinks that we learn to act in certain ways because of the consequences of our behavior. Her belief is probably influenced by the findings of: a. William James. b. Sigmund Freud. c. B. F. Skinner. d. Wilhelm Wundt. ANSWER: c 164. Skinner's rat is to _____ as Pavlov's dog is to _____. a. nurture; nature b. active; passive c. stimulus; response d. response; reinforcer ANSWER: b 165. Who invented a conditioning chamber in which rats pressed levers to earn food rewards? a. Ivan Pavlov b. B. F. Skinner c. John Watson d. G. Stanley Hall ANSWER: b 166. Two people observe a toddler throwing a temper tantrum at a toy store. The first comments quietly, "What an annoying little beast!" The second, noticing that the parent of the toddler just gave the boy a toy to calm him down, states, "It's not his fault. He's behaving exactly as _____ would predict." a. William James b. B. F. Skinner c. Ivan Pavlov d. John Watson ANSWER: b 167. When 4-year-old Isabel hears the sound of the ice cream truck's music, she runs outside in hopes of getting an ice cream bar. The ice cream bar is a _____ running outside when she hears the music. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. response to b. stimulus eliciting c. reinforcement for d. construal triggering ANSWER: c 168. Sandy's children would accidentally drop pieces of food under the table during family dinners, so Sandy's dog, Lola, learned to sit under the dinner table as a good place to receive food. Lola's behavior has been influenced by: a. consciousness. b. reinforcement. c. punishment. d. reaction time. ANSWER: b 169. Which scenario represents the principle of reinforcement? a. doing the same thing over and over again regardless of the consequences b. blinking when a particle lands in your eye c. studying hard because it results in good grades d. introspecting about a pleasurable experience in your life ANSWER: c 170. Which psychologist is associated with the development of cumulative recorders that record the frequency of responses in real time? a. John Watson b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. B. F. Skinner ANSWER: d 171. Which statement presents a characteristic of Skinner's cumulative recorder? a. It noted the cumulative effects of stimuli. b. It recorded the frequency of responses in real time. c. It provided immediate feedback as to whether a behavior would be rewarded. d. It did not result in important experimental insights. ANSWER: b 172. In his best-selling book Beyond Freedom and Dignity, _____ argued that behavior is determined by its consequences and that free will is an illusion. a. William James b. B. F. Skinner Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. Ivan Pavlov d. Sigmund Freud ANSWER: b 173. In his best-selling book Beyond Freedom and Dignity, B. F. Skinner argued that behavior is: a. an outcome of the innate capacity of persons to choose freely. b. partly the result of a limited free will that has evolved as a result of natural selection. c. completely determined by genetic factors, and free will is an illusion. d. determined largely by its consequences, and free will is an illusion. ANSWER: d 174. Beginning in the 1950s, behaviorism began to receive intense criticism. Which statement is NOT one of the criticisms against behaviorism? a. It ignores the mental processes underlying behavior. b. It uses subjective measures in its research. c. It ignores the role of evolutionary history on behavior. d. It presents an inadequate account of language development. ANSWER: b 175. Beginning in the 1950s, behaviorism began to receive intense criticism. Which statement is NOT one of the criticisms against behaviorism? a. It proved inadequate in predicting and controlling behavior. b. It ignored cognitive events underlying behavior. c. It underestimated the role of genetic factors on behavior. d. It had difficulty explaining the development of language in humans. ANSWER: a 176. Which field of psychology is interested in studying errors of perception, memory, or judgment in which subjective experience differs from objective reality? a. behaviorism b. Gestalt psychology c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism ANSWER: b 177. When you go to a movie theater that uses film projection, you might see the fast movement of a superhero flying through the air. What you are really seeing is a series of still photographs flashed quickly onto the screen. What area of psychology studied this phenomenon? a. structuralism b. Gestalt psychology c. functionalism d. behaviorism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 178. _____ pioneered the Gestalt psychology movement. a. Max Wertheimer b. Frederic Bartlett c. Kurt Lewin d. Hermann Ebbinghaus ANSWER: a 179. Gestalt psychologists believed that: a. visual illusions are caused by faulty thinking. b. the whole is greater than the sum of its parts. c. images are produced in different parts of the brain. d. hallucinations are the result of a chemical imbalance in the brain. ANSWER: b 180. A train is passing by, but Aamir's view of it is partially obstructed by traffic. According to Gestalt psychologists, he nevertheless perceives a unified single train because: a. a long train conjures repressed sexuality in the unconscious. b. in the past, he has been reinforced for perceiving in this way. c. the train stimulus simply evoked this sensory response. d. the mind imposes organization on what it perceives. ANSWER: d 181. Wertheimer, a Gestalt psychologist, showed that _____ occurs because the mind has theories about how the world works and it uses these theories to make sense of incoming sensory stimuli. a. illusory motion b. introspection c. reinforcement d. dream analysis ANSWER: a 182. Gestalt psychologist Max Wertheimer demonstrated that: a. visual illusions are caused by faulty thinking. b. perception of a whole image influences judgements about the parts. c. images are produced in different parts of the brain. d. illusory motion is unrelated to the mind. ANSWER: b 183. In their research, Gestalt psychologists demonstrated that: a. illusory motion occurs due to sensory input from physical stimuli alone. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice b. physical stimuli alone are responsible for the perceptual experience. c. the mind imposes organization on what it perceives. d. illusory motion is unrelated to the mind. ANSWER: c 184. We perceive the lights on a quickly blinking neon sign to be in motion, a phenomenon studied by which psychologists? a. Gestalt b. humanist c. psychodynamic d. behaviorist ANSWER: a 185. Frederic Bartlett is BEST known for research involving: a. illusory motion. b. participants' false memories of stories. c. a conditioning chamber. d. cognitive errors in children. ANSWER: b 186. Which pioneer of cognitive psychology conducted research on memory by asking participants to read stories and then try to remember what they had read after varying amounts of time had passed? a. Frederic Bartlett b. Jean Piaget c. B. F. Skinner d. Max Wertheimer ANSWER: a 187. Frederic Bartlett believed that: a. memory is an unobservable construct that cannot be empirically studied. b. memory operates like a recording device. c. the mind is irrelevant for studies of memory. d. memory is constructed by the mind using theories of how the world works. ANSWER: d 188. Frederic Bartlett's research on memory demonstrated that people tend to remember: a. what actually happened instead of what should have happened. b. what they expected to happen instead of what actually happened. c. nonsense syllables with more accuracy than meaningful words. d. meaningful words with more accuracy than nonsense syllables. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 189. A memory expert testifies in court for the defense that the eyewitness testimony should be given less importance because memory is constructed by the mind. The expert is articulating the position first advanced by: a. Max Wertheimer. b. Hermann Ebbinghaus. c. Jean Piaget. d. Frederic Bartlett. ANSWER: d 190. Malik claims that he remembers the first day of class exactly as it happened. However, based on the research findings of Frederic Bartlett, it is more likely that: a. he has no memory of the first day of class. b. his memory is heavily influenced by his expectations of the first day. c. his memory was like a recording device. d. he initially filled in incorrect details, but as time has passed, he remembers the day with more accuracy. ANSWER: b 191. A cognitive psychologist who studied the perceptual and cognitive errors of children in order to gain insight into the nature and development of the human mind was: a. Jean Piaget. b. Frederic Bartlett. c. Kurt Lewin. d. Max Wertheimer. ANSWER: a 192. Jean Piaget attempted to gain insight into the nature and development of the human mind by studying: a. how memories are contaminated by prior knowledge. b. the perceptual and cognitive errors of children. c. the rate at which forgetting occurs. d. perceptual illusions in adults. ANSWER: b 193. Piaget showed children equally small mounds of clay and then broke one mound into little pieces. He then asked children to identify which had more clay. Until the age of _____, children typically identified the unbroken mound as containing more clay. a. 1 year b. 3 to 4 years c. 6 to 7 years d. 9 to 10 years ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 194. Piaget showed children equally small mounds of clay and then broke one mound into little pieces. He then asked children to identify which had more clay. If we replicated this experiment, which participant would we expect to correctly identify both mounds as equal? a. 9-month-old Aisha b. 3-year-old Sam c. 5-year-old Amida d. 8-year-old Sydney ANSWER: d 195. A college student taking introductory psychology decides to test Piaget's theories of mental development on her 3-year-old brother, who loves hot dogs and is very hungry. She shows him two hot dogs. Then, while he is watching, she breaks one of the hot dogs in half. She asks if he would like one hot dog (the intact hot dog) or two hot dogs (the hot dog cut in half). Consistent with Piaget's findings, the child: a. selects the intact hot dog. b. selects the hot dog cut in half. c. says she is silly because both are the same. d. becomes confused and starts crying. ANSWER: b 196. A college student taking introductory psychology decides to test Piaget's theories of mental development on his 10-year-old sister, who loves hot dogs and is very hungry. He shows her two hot dogs. Then, while she is watching, he breaks one of the hot dogs in half. He asks if she would like one hot dog (the intact hot dog) or two hot dogs (the hot dog cut in half). Consistent with Piaget's findings, the girl probably will: a. select the intact hot dog. b. select the hot dog cut in half. c. state that both choices are the same. d. become confused and have trouble deciding. ANSWER: c 197. Based on his research, Piaget concluded that: a. children have no memories before the age of 10. b. small children view the world in a fundamentally different way than adults do. c. small children can learn stimulus–response relationships. d. children and adults think similarly about the relationships between the size and mass of objects. ANSWER: b 198. Piaget concluded that small children view the world in a fundamentally different way than adults do because: a. children cannot form memories. b. children cannot learn stimulus–response relationships. c. children's theories of the relationship between the size and mass of objects are different than those of adults. d. children cannot use introspection. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 199. Two boats sank in the Indian Ocean in World War II. In 1998, John Dunn and Kim Kirsner used _____ research on memory to analyze survivors' memories and locate the wreckage. a. Titchener's b. Piaget's c. Bartlett's d. Kirsner's ANSWER: c 200. One practical application of Bartlett's research occurred in 1998, when John Dunn and Kim Kirsner used: a. sonar to detect the wreckage of two ships that sank in World War II. b. analysis of survivors' memories to make a prediction about where the wreckage of two ships might be. c. introspection to assess perceptual experiences during a crisis. d. stories about the ships to recreate the size and shape of the ships. ANSWER: b 201. A cognitive psychologist who argued that it wasn't an environmental stimulus, but rather the subjective experience—or construal—of the stimulus that led to behavior, was: a. Karl Lashley. b. John Watson. c. Kurt Lewin. d. Noam Chomsky. ANSWER: c 202. A teacher praises a student for asking a good question. Which psychologist would state that the effect of praise on subsequent behavior depends on the student's subjective experience of it? a. B. F. Skinner b. Kurt Lewin c. Jean Piaget d. Frederic Bartlett ANSWER: b 203. Psychologist Kurt Lewin believed that stimulus–response psychology was too simplistic to predict human behavior. In his theories, he inserted which terms between "stimulus" and "response"? a. construal of the stimulus b. structure of the stimulus c. reinforcement by the stimulus d. informational value of the stimulus ANSWER: a 204. According to Kurt Lewin, a construal is: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. a physical property of the stimulus. b. the observable response to the stimulus. c. a perceptual illusion that commonly occurs to visual stimuli. d. how people think about stimuli. ANSWER: d 205. The study of the causes and consequences of sociality is called: a. cultural psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. sociobiology. d. social psychology. ANSWER: d 206. Dr. Aguilera studies the influence of peer pressure on adolescents. Which area of psychology does her research BEST represent? a. cognitive psychology b. social psychology c. clinical psychology d. cultural psychology ANSWER: b 207. Dr. Cover studies the benefits and undesirable outcomes of stereotyping. Which area of psychology does her research BEST represent? a. cognitive psychology b. social psychology c. clinical psychology d. cultural psychology ANSWER: b 208. Raymond wants to learn the most effective techniques to make a favorable first impression. Raymond might want to take a course in _____ psychology. a. developmental b. cultural c. Gestalt d. social ANSWER: d 209. Veronica wants to learn if opposites really do attract. She might want to take a course in the causes and consequences of sociality, otherwise known as: a. cognitive psychology. b. behavioral neuroscience. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. Gestalt psychology. d. social psychology. ANSWER: d 210. The research of which psychologist gave birth to the field of social psychology? a. Jean Piaget b. Kurt Lewin c. Max Wertheimer d. Solomon Asch ANSWER: b 211. The research of Kurt Lewin contributed to the birth of _____ psychology. a. social b. evolutionary c. cultural d. Gestalt ANSWER: a 212. Hakim notices that when he jogs with Lei, he runs faster than when he jogs by himself. Which psychological approach BEST explains this behavior? a. sports psychology b. psychoanalysis c. social psychology d. evolutionary psychology ANSWER: c 213. Amy notes that her 10K time is significantly faster when she runs it with others than when she runs by herself. Amy's observation would be of most interest to: a. social psychologists. b. behavioral neuroscientists. c. developmental psychologists. d. cultural psychologists. ANSWER: a 214. Which factor did NOT contribute to the development of social psychology in its early years? a. the invention of the computer b. Gestalt psychology c. the rise of Nazi Germany d. the interest in mental phenomena among some psychologists ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 215. Solomon Asch's primacy effect describes why people: a. draw inferences about others based on first impressions. b. continuously adjust their theories of others based on all of the information they have. c. ignore the first information they learn about others. d. do not form theories about other people. ANSWER: a 216. Which research question would be of MOST interest to social psychologists? a. Why do people support and join terrorist organizations? b. What are the necessary steps in language development? c. Which areas of the brain are active during dreaming? d. How does generational poverty affect rates of depression and anxiety? ANSWER: a 217. Which research question would be of MOST interest to social psychologists? a. Will a light stimulus yield a fear response after several pairings of the light with a loud sound? b. Which area of the brain is active when participants are asked to remember a crime they committed? c. Why do otherwise decent people commit evil acts when ordered to do so by a totalitarian regime? d. Is the fear response adaptive? ANSWER: c 218. Fatima studies why decent people commit evil acts when ordered to do so by a totalitarian regime. Fatima is MOST likely a: a. behaviorist. b. cognitive neuroscientist. c. social psychologist. d. evolutionary psychologist. ANSWER: c 219. Angel is interested in studying how media coverage of racially charged events affects implicit biases or prejudices. Angel is MOST likely a: a. cognitive psychologist. b. behavioral neuroscientist. c. social psychologist. d. Gestalt psychologist. ANSWER: c 220. Solomon Asch was a social psychologist whose research interests were shaped, in part, by: a. the American civil rights movement. b. the development of computers. c. Gestalt psychology. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. theories of language development. ANSWER: c 221. Solomon Asch's _____ describes why early information about a person changes the interpretation of later information. a. primacy effect b. Gestalt psychology approach c. theory of mind d. behavioristic theory ANSWER: a 222. Which linguist published a devastating critique of Skinner's theory of language development? a. George Miller b. Noam Chomsky c. Donald Broadbent d. Ulric Neisser ANSWER: b 223. A behavioral account of language development, entitled Verbal Behavior (1957), was written by: a. B. F. Skinner. b. Noam Chomsky. c. John Watson. d. Ulric Neisser. ANSWER: a 224. B. F. Skinner's Verbal Behavior (1957) attempts to provide a(n) _____ account of language. a. cognitive b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. sociocultural ANSWER: c 225. According to Chomsky, which observation of language challenges a behavioral account? a. It is more difficult to learn a second language as one ages. b. Deficits in speech production in developing children can be overcome with an intense individualized education plan. c. Different languages are spoken around the world.

d. Speech that has never before been reinforced nevertheless occurs frequently. ANSWER: d 226. The advent of _____ in 1945 had an enormous conceptual impact on the development of cognitive psychology. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. statistical programming b. television c. conditioning chambers d. computers ANSWER: d 227. The advent of computers in 1945 had an enormous conceptual impact on the development of _____ psychology. a. behavioral b. Gestalt c. cognitive d. social ANSWER: c 228. Which topic is LEAST likely to be studied by cognitive psychologists? a. attention b. memory c. decision making d. conformity ANSWER: d 229. Which topic is LEAST likely to be studied by cognitive psychologists? a. attention b. memory c. reinforcement d. perception ANSWER: c 230. In the 1950s, the advent of computers had an enormous influence on how psychologists conceptualized the mind. In this conceptualization, the brain was analogous to: a. computer hardware. b. computer software. c. an electrical source. d. a programming language. ANSWER: a 231. In the 1950s, the advent of computers had an enormous influence on how psychologists conceptualized the mind. In this conceptualization, the mind was analogous to: a. computer hardware. b. computer software. c. an electrical source. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. data-storage devices. ANSWER: b 232. According to cognitive psychologists, computer hardware is to software as: a. brain is to mind. b. mind is to brain. c. mind is to language. d. language is to mind. ANSWER: a 233. According to cognitive psychologists, computer software is to hardware as: a. brain is to mind. b. mind is to brain. c. mind is to language. d. language is to mind. ANSWER: b 234. According to Chomsky, which observation of language in children challenges a behavioral account? a. Children can generate new grammatically correct sentences. b. Young children tend to repeat what they just heard. c. If you give a child a cookie every time they say "please," they will say "please" more often. d. Grammar rules are highly individualistic and the result of childhood learning experiences. ANSWER: a 235. Which research question would cognitive psychologists be MOST interested in studying? a. Can children's behavior be modified through intermittent reinforcement? b. What is the evolutionary basis for the fear of snakes? c. How does gesture improve memory retention? d. What part of the brain processes rewards? ANSWER: c 236. Which research question would cognitive psychologists be MOST interested in studying? a. Why do people conform in social settings? b. What is the evolutionary basis for food preferences? c. How do life events become stored in memory? d. How does the school a child attends influence their social development? ANSWER: c 237. The scientific study of human information processing is called: a. behavioral neuroscience. b. physiology. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. cognitive psychology. d. mental psychology. ANSWER: c 238. Who summarized the dramatic shift in psychology's orientation away from behaviorism in a book entitled Cognitive Psychology (1967)? a. George Miller b. Noam Chomsky c. Donald Broadbent d. Ulric Neisser ANSWER: d 239. Ulrich Neisser's landmark book published in 1967 provided a foundation for the field of _____ psychology. a. cognitive b. evolutionary c. clinical d. social ANSWER: a 240. Rats are more likely to form a smell–sickness association than a light–sickness association, suggesting that rats have: a. an inability to associate a light with any consequence. b. evolved to not associate lights with smell. c. learned some associations more easily than others because of natural selection. d. evolved to easily associate sickness with any stimulus in their environment. ANSWER: c 241. _____ demonstrated that the ease with which associations are learned can be influenced by an organism's evolutionary history. a. Karl Lashley b. John Garcia c. E. O. Wilson d. Charles Darwin ANSWER: b 242. Kayla doesn't know it yet, but she has just contracted a stomach virus from her roommate, Beverly. Kayla puts on a new dress and goes on a first date with Jermaine, where they eat oysters. Later that night, Kayla becomes violently ill. Kayla is MOST likely to associate the sickness with: a. the oysters. b. Beverly. c. Jermaine. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice d. her new dress. ANSWER: a 243. Six-year-old Michael eats teriyaki chicken for the first time at a Japanese restaurant and shortly thereafter becomes nauseous during the car ride home. The sickness is actually due to his catching a virus from his older brother Patrick. Michael is MOST likely to associate the sickness with: a. Patrick. b. the teriyaki flavor. c. the sign outside the Japanese restaurant. d. riding in the car. ANSWER: b 244. Rats are more likely to form a smell–sickness association than a light–sickness association, suggesting that: a. genetic factors are a relatively unimportant component of learning. b. rats have evolved to not associate lights with smell. c. behavior is in part the product of the learning experiences of our ancestors. d. rats have had more learning opportunities to associate smell with sickness. ANSWER: c 245. What type of psychology explains mind and behavior in terms of how they have been shaped by natural selection? a. behaviorism b. physiological psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. cognitive neuroscience ANSWER: c 246. The psychological approach that emphasizes that the best way to understand the mind was to understand the specific problems it had been "designed" by evolution to solve, is called: a. psychoanalysis. b. existential psychology. c. cultural psychology. d. evolutionary psychology. ANSWER: d 247. According to evolutionary psychology, jealousy: a. hindered reproduction in our ancestors through a decrease in "jealous genes." b. can be understood by examining how ancient hunter-gatherers coped with the challenges of survival and reproduction. c. facilitates reproductive success today.

d. hinders the ability to attract but facilitates the ability to keep a mate today. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 248. Dr. O'Leary believes that most heterosexual young men prefer to choose young, healthy women for their life partners because doing so boosts their chances for producing healthy offspring. This outlook illustrates the _____ perspective. a. Gestalt b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. developmental ANSWER: b 249. Dr. Ugawe believes that humans are biologically prepared to fear snakes. This outlook illustrates the _____ perspective. a. cultural b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. developmental ANSWER: b 250. How might an evolutionary psychologist explain the fact that people tend to enjoy high-fat food? a. When food was scarce in our ancestral past, people who ate high-fat food tended to obtain the calories that they needed to survive and, ultimately, reproduce. b. High-fat food activates areas in the brain corresponding to reward.

c. Over one's lifetime, many interpersonal relationships revolve around eating these "comfort" food items. d. Although eating high-fat food resulted in great mortality rates among our ancestors, the availability of medication today allows people to consume larger amounts of high-fat food.

ANSWER: a 251. The emergence of evolutionary psychology as a recent psychological discipline is largely credited to the work of the biologist: a. Ivan Pavlov. b. Charles Darwin. c. E. O. Wilson. d. B. F. Skinner. ANSWER: c 252. _____ was the first to identify a specialized brain region involved in the production of speech. a. Broca b. Garcia c. Cosmides d. Symons ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 253. The research of Broca: a. established behaviorism as a true science. b. confirmed Descartes's belief that the mind and body were linked via the pineal gland. c. is consistent with the view of the mind held by Thomas Hobbes. d. demonstrated that mental processes can occur independently of brain activity. ANSWER: c 254. Based on his research, Broca: a. confirmed predictions made by behaviorism. b. uncovered evidence consistent with dualism. c. conceptualized mental processes in terms of both nature and nurture. d. attributed the cause of mental processes to brain activity. ANSWER: d 255. The French physician Paul Broca discovered a brain region that was associated with the: a. production and understanding of speech. b. production of speech. c. understanding of speech. d. ability to understand novel speech. ANSWER: b 256. Jamie suffered a stroke and experienced damage to Broca's area. Jamie will have problems: a. reading out loud. b. understanding the plot of her favorite television show. c. remembering the names of her family members. d. recognizing facial emotions. ANSWER: a 257. Esa suffered a stroke that led to damage to her Broca's area. Esa will have problems: a. understanding a verbal instruction. b. distinguishing among different dialects. c. matching names to faces. d. producing speech. ANSWER: d 258. Damage to which brain region impairs the production of speech? a. the pineal gland b. Broca's area c. the hippocampus d. the temporal lobe ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 259. After experiencing a stroke, Irma could no longer produce speech, although she clearly understood what others were saying to her. The stroke probably damaged her: a. hippocampus. b. amygdala. c. Wernicke's area. d. Broca's area. ANSWER: d 260. After experiencing a stroke, Aliyah was able to understand what people said to her but was unable to speak to them. The stroke probably damaged her: a. hypothalamus. b. Broca's area. c. nodes of Ranvier. d. cerebellum. ANSWER: b 261. Which early neuropsychologist trained rats to run a maze, surgically removed parts of their brains, and then measured how well they could run the maze again? a. Noam Chomsky b. Karl Lashley c. Jean Piaget d. Paul Broca ANSWER: b 262. Karl Lashley's early neuroscientific research sought to identify the specific brain region: a. underlying grammar rules. b. involved in speech production. c. responsible for rats learning to navigate a maze. d. responsible for visual perception. ANSWER: c 263. After conducting repeated experiments in which he first trained rats to navigate a maze and then removed tiny sections of their brains to see if that brain region eliminated learning, Lashley reported that: a. learning the maze could be erased by removing a tiny section of Broca's area. b. the memory of the maze was localized in the right hemisphere of the brain. c. the memory of the maze was localized in the left hemisphere of the brain. d. no one brain region seemed to uniquely and reliably eliminate maze learning. ANSWER: d 264. After training rats to successfully navigate a maze, Karl Lashley sought to determine the precise spot in the brain where the learning occurred by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice a. surgically removing tiny sections of the brain and then retesting the rats. b. giving the rats experimental drugs that target specific brain areas and then retesting the rats. c. studying differences in dendritic density in various brain regions under a microscope after the rats' death. d. studying the rats running the maze while connected to a recorder that measured brain electrical activity. ANSWER: a 265. Which approach to psychology is the study of the relationship between the brain and behavior? a. cognitive neuroscience b. cognitive psychology c. behavioral neuroscience d. evolutionary psychology ANSWER: c 266. The _____ approach to psychology studies the relationship between the brain and behavior. a. cognitive b. evolutionary c. behavioral neuroscience d. Gestalt ANSWER: c 267. Which research question is MOST relevant to behavioral neuroscience? a. What processes are involved in complex decision making? b. What brain mechanisms underlie reinforcement and punishment? c. What situational variables contribute to enhanced long-term memory? d. What are some evolutionary adaptations of the brain? ANSWER: b 268. Which research question is MOST relevant to behavioral neuroscience? a. How does children's language develop? b. What brain mechanisms are changed by repeated drug use? c. Why are people more likely to comply with large requests after they agree to smaller requests? d. How does distraction affect working memory? ANSWER: b 269. Amanda seeks to understand the brain functions underlying mate selection in quail. Amanda is MOST likely a: a. developmental psychologist. b. social psychologist. c. cognitive neuroscientist. d. behavioral neuroscientist. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 270. Chloe seeks to understand the brain functions associated with coordinated movement. Chloe is MOST likely a(n): a. behaviorist. b. evolutionary psychologist. c. cognitive neuroscientist. d. behavioral neuroscientist. ANSWER: d 271. Research using scanning technology of the brain has demonstrated that when a person who has been deaf from birth learns American Sign Language at an early age, that person uses _____ hemisphere when communicating with American Sign Language. a. the left b. the right c. both the right and the left d. neither the right nor the left ANSWER: c 272. A field that attempts to understand the links between the brain and the mind is: a. cognitive neuroscience. b. cognitive psychotherapy. c. physiological psychology. d. evolutionary psychology. ANSWER: a 273. Kerrie wants to understand how perceptions, beliefs, and memories activate different regions in the brain. Which field of psychology would you suggest Kerrie explore? a. cognitive psychology b. behavioral neuroscience c. evolutionary psychology d. cognitive neuroscience ANSWER: d 274. Laila is a PhD student in cognitive neuroscience. Which area would she be MOST likely to study? a. brain mechanisms underlying memory formation b. brain mechanisms underlying sleep c. brain mechanisms underlying reinforcement d. brain mechanisms underlying aging ANSWER: a 275. As a PhD student in cognitive neuroscience, Jerome is likely to study: a. brain mechanisms underlying language formation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice b. brain mechanisms underlying sexual attraction. c. brain mechanisms underlying stimulus-response learning. d. evolutionarily adaptive brain mechanisms. ANSWER: a 276. When people are randomly assigned to think of themselves as upper class, these people behave more _____ than do people in a control group. a. aggressively b. charitably c. selfishly d. altruistically ANSWER: c 277. Values, traditions, and beliefs that are shared by a particular group of people are called: a. customs. b. ceremonies. c. culture. d. backgrounds. ANSWER: c 278. Which factor is LEAST likely to define a culture? a. age b. nationality c. sexual orientation d. diversity ANSWER: d 279. Cultural psychology began when psychologists recognized the importance of insights from: a. psychologists from different cultures. b. economists. c. anthropologists. d. political scientists. ANSWER: c 280. Which cultural difference can be found in just about every corner of the world? a. wealth disparity b. racial differences c. religious differences d. language differences ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 281. Brice travels to remote places and examines how the people live. He pays particular attention to their values and traditions. What type of psychologist is Brice? a. evolutionary b. cultural c. social d. Gestalt ANSWER: b 282. Andre studies if altruism varies as a function of individualistic or collectivist societies. He pays particular attention to differences in values between the two societies. What type of psychologist is Andre? a. evolutionary b. cultural c. cognitive d. Gestalt ANSWER: b 283. One of the first psychologists interested in the contributions of culture to psychology was: a. Karl Lashley. b. Noam Chomsky. c. B. F. Skinner. d. Wilhelm Wundt. ANSWER: d 284. Cultural psychologists interested in the body mutilation and blood-letting rituals of mountainous peoples of Papua New Guinea would be informed by independent research conducted by: a. political scientists. b. anthropologists. c. evolutionary psychologists. d. behavioral economists. ANSWER: b 285. Julie believes that the society in which one grows up does not have an impact on psychological issues. Which approach BEST fits her view? a. social psychology b. behaviorism c. cultural psychology d. Gestalt psychology ANSWER: b 286. If you believe that the results of a study on conformity conducted on college students in the United States may differ considerably had the study taken place among older adults in Asia, you are thinking like a(n): a. evolutionary psychologist. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice b. behaviorist. c. neuroscientist. d. cultural psychologist. ANSWER: d 287. The observation that people of different nations pay attention to different aspects of visual images is in accordance with: a. behaviorism. b. evolutionary psychology. c. developmental psychology. d. cultural psychology. ANSWER: d 288. Vijay researches whether anxiety manifests itself in the same way regardless of where one lives. Vijay is MOST likely a: a. cultural psychologist. b. behaviorist. c. neuroscientist. d. Gestalt psychologist. ANSWER: a 289. Which statement about visual processing in Eastern and Western cultures is true? a. Easterners tend to process visual information analytically. b. Both cultures process visual information the same way. c. Westerners tend to process visual information analytically. d. Westerners tend to process visual information holistically. ANSWER: c 290. Which statement about visual processing in Eastern and Western cultures is true? a. Easterners tend to process visual information by attending to relationships and context. b. There is no difference in visual processing in Easterners and Westerners. c. Westerners tend to process visual information by attending to relationships and context. d. Easterners attend primarily to objects in the foreground. ANSWER: a 291. Who was one of the seven psychologists to start the American Psychological Association? a. Hermann von Helmholtz b. John Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. William James ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 292. Along with six other psychologists, _____ started the American Psychological Association. a. Karl Lashley b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. John Watson ANSWER: b 293. Although all of the founding members of the American Psychological Association were White and male, today a majority of all APA members are: a. Latino American. b. Asian American. c. Black. d. women. ANSWER: d 294. Which demographic represents a majority of all American Psychological Association members? a. Latino b. Black c. men d. women ANSWER: d 295. Mary Whiton Calkins, a Harvard scholar, was the first female president of the American Psychological Association. She didn't have a PhD in psychology because: a. the president of Harvard refused to award her a degree because she was a woman. b. she didn't complete the requirements for a PhD. c. she had a PhD in anthropology instead. d. she participated in unethical behavior. ANSWER: a 296. Despite serving as the first female president of the American Psychological Association, _____ didn't have a PhD in psychology. a. Mary Whiton Calkins b. Barbel Inhelder c. Mamie Phipps Clark d. Margaret Floy Washburn ANSWER: a 297. Who was the first female to earn a PhD in psychology? a. Mary Whiton Calkins b. Mamie Phipps Clark Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. Anna Freud d. Margaret Floy Washburn ANSWER: d 298. Who was the first Black American to receive a PhD in psychology? a. Inez Beverly Prosser b. Kenneth Clark c. Francis Cecil Sumner d. Mamie Phipps Clark ANSWER: c 299. Who was the first Black president of the American Psychological Association? a. Inez Beverly Prosser b. Francis Cecil Sumner c. Kenneth Clark d. Mamie Phipps Clark ANSWER: c 300. _____ conducted research on the developmental effects of prejudice, discrimination, and segregation on children in the 1950s. The research was cited by the U.S. Supreme Court in its decision in the landmark Brown v. Board of Education case. a. Francis Sumner and Margaret Washburn b. Margaret Washburn and Kenneth Clark c. William James and Mary Whiton Calkins d. Kenneth Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark ANSWER: d 301. The research of Mamie Phipps Clark and Kenneth Clark on prejudice, discrimination, and segregation was fundamental in which Supreme Court ruling? a. Stewart v. Board of Education b. Brown v. Board of Education c. Roe v. Wade d. NAACP v. Board of Education ANSWER: b 302. Today, more than 70% of people receiving their PhDs in psychology are: a. White men. b. men. c. people of color. d. women. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 303. What is the difference between a therapist and a psychiatrist? a. A therapist can only work in schools. b. A psychiatrist has an MD degree, whereas a therapist may have a PhD, PsyD, or MEd degree. c. Only a therapist can prescribe medication. d. A psychiatrist goes to graduate school for many more years than a therapist does. ANSWER: b 304. Karen received a PhD in psychology and now treats psychological disorders. Which type of psychologist is Karen? a. therapist b. research c. social d. academic ANSWER: a 305. Cliff has been prescribed Xanax to treat his anxiety, probably by a(n): a. counseling psychologist. b. industrial/organizational psychologist. c. psychiatrist. d. school psychologist. ANSWER: c 306. Khan visits a therapist. Which issue is likely to be addressed in his visit? a. the efficiency of his employees' performance b. the depressive symptoms he's been experiencing c. how to improve his marathon times d. how his company should market their newly designed product ANSWER: b 307. Which mental health professionals assist people in dealing with work/career issues, life changes, and common crises? a. social psychologists b. industrial/organizational psychologists c. counseling psychologists d. health psychologists ANSWER: c 308. As an elementary school student, Xu met with a psychologist who helped him with speech and reading. Which type of psychologist did Xu see? a. experimental psychologist b. cognitive neuroscientist Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. social psychologist d. school psychologist ANSWER: d 309. Jorge is in the middle of a divorce and is experiencing stress associated with this period of adjustment. Jorge should probably seek help from a(n): a. psychiatrist. b. organizational psychologist. c. health psychologist. d. counseling psychologist. ANSWER: d 310. Jeremiah thinks it would be beneficial for his employees to attend a seminar on how to become more productive at work. Which type of psychologist would conduct this seminar? a. clinical psychologist b. industrial/organizational psychologist c. school psychologist d. cognitive psychologist ANSWER: b 311. Psychologists spend an average of _____ years in graduate school before attaining their PhDs. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10 ANSWER: c 312. The subfield of _____ has the largest number of PhD graduates. a. health psychology b. educational psychology c. clinical and counseling psychology d. social psychology ANSWER: c 313. Which of these recent PhDs represents the most common subfield in psychology? a. Sean, a health psychologist who consults for Fortune 500 companies b. Gabrielle, an academic behavioral neuroscientist c. Alejandra, a social psychologist researching stereotypes and conformity d. Malik, a clinical counselor specializing in treating substance abuse ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 314. Psychologists work in a wide variety of settings, but the largest percentage work in: a. business. b. clinical settings. c. academia. d. governmental agencies. ANSWER: b 315. Liz is the CEO of a major company. She is fearful of how her employees are going to react to the company's downsizing and reorganization. She decides to contact a(n) _____ psychologist to help her employees. a. industrial/organizational b. clinical c. school d. health ANSWER: a 316. Jamir has advised his football-playing clients that they should develop pregame rituals to increase their focus on the field. Jamir is MOST likely a(n): a. sports psychologist. b. cognitive neuroscientist. c. school psychologist. d. industrial-organizational psychologist. ANSWER: a 317. Camila notices that she's not as focused during her volleyball competitions as she'd like to be. She should ask a(n) _____ for help. a. sports psychologist b. cognitive neuroscientist c. school psychologist d. industrial-organizational psychologist ANSWER: a 318. Consumer psychology is to _____ as industrial-organizational psychology is to _____. a. helping athletes train and compete; developing and marketing new products b. maximizing employees' performance; assisting courts in dealing with crime c. developing and marketing new products; maximizing employees' performance d. guiding students; assisting courts in dealing with crime ANSWER: c 319. Sports psychology is to _____ as consumer psychology is to _____. a. helping athletes train and compete; developing and marketing new products b. maximizing employees' performance; assisting courts in dealing with crime Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice c. developing and marketing new products; maximizing employees' performance d. guiding students; assisting courts in dealing with crime ANSWER: a 320. Sports psychology is to _____ as school psychology is to _____. a. helping athletes train and compete; guiding students, parents, and teachers b. maximizing employees' performance; assisting courts in dealing with crime c. developing and marketing new products; maximizing employees' performance d. guiding students; assisting courts in dealing with crime ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario Use Scenario 1.1 to answer the following question(s). Piff, P. K., Stancato, D. M., Côté, S., Mendoza-Denton, R., & Keltner, D. (2012). Higher social class predicts increased unethical behavior. PNAS Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences of the United States of America, 109(11), 4086–4091. doi:10.1073/pnas.1118373109 Piff and colleagues (2012) used naturalistic observation techniques to determine if wealthy people behaved more or less ethically than people who were not wealthy. In one study, observers stood at a busy intersection and recorded the make, model, and year of each approaching car. They also noted if the car cut off other cars or pedestrians at this intersection. Major findings of Piff et al. (2012) are presented in Figure 1.1. This figure shows the percentage of times vehicles cut off another driver (top panel) or pedestrians (lower panel) as a function of the social status of the vehicles (with more expensive cars ranked higher in social status). Figure 1.1

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario

1. (Scenario 1.1) The researchers who conducted this study are MOST likely to be _____ psychologists. a. cognitive-behavioral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario b. social or cultural c. humanistic d. industrial-organizational ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 1.1) Consider only the bottom panel in Figure 1.1. These results demonstrate that: a. wealth makes people care more about themselves than they do others, to the point of ignoring the rights of pedestrians. b. driving a more expensive car gives one a false sense of security, and this causes people to be more aggressive drivers. c. people driving higher-class cars are more likely than not to cut off a pedestrian in an intersection. d. people driving a more expensive car fail to yield to pedestrians more than do people who drive less expensive cars. ANSWER: d 3. (Scenario 1.1) Consider only the top panel in Figure 1.1. These results underscore the importance of: a. studying a wide range of values, rather than just a few, when trying to determine if two variables are related. b. using random assignment to create equivalent groups. c. making testable predictions and then refining the theory based on the data. d. generalizing laboratory results to real-world settings. ANSWER: a 4. (Scenario 1.1) Consider both panels in Figure 1.1. Which of these describes the result shown in this figure? a. Drivers were more likely to yield to pedestrians than to other cars. b. Small changes in car social status in the middle-class range predicted if drivers would cut off another car. c. Small increases in the value of a car had relatively large effects on whether a driver would cut off a pedestrian. d. Small changes in car social status in the middle-class range had no predictive value in determining if people would yield to pedestrians. ANSWER: c 5. (Scenario 1.1) Which of these conclusions cannot be drawn from the data reported in Figure 1.1? a. People driving higher-class cars were less likely to yield to pedestrians. b. Drivers in general were more likely to yield to another car than to a pedestrian. c. Wealth caused people to care more about themselves than about others. d. Wealth was associated with selfish driving behavior. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario 6. (Scenario 1.1) A psychologist believes that driving expensive cars and ignoring the rights of others are both the product of feelings of sexual inferiority banished to the unconscious. The psychologist adopts a _____ approach. a. Gestalt b. social or cultural c. humanistic d. psychoanalytic ANSWER: d 7. (Scenario 1.1) A psychologist believes that selfishness is a genetically based trait that confers advantages in terms of resource acquisition. As such, the psychologist is not surprised in the least that selfish people drive expensive cars. This _____ would predict that _____. a. evolutionary psychologist; selfishness results in wealth b. evolutionary psychologist; wealth makes people selfish c. cognitive neuroscientist; selfishness results in wealth d. cognitive neuroscientist; wealth makes people selfish ANSWER: a 8. (Scenario 1.1) A psychologist believes that people in higher and lower social classes learn norms that then affect their behavior in many different settings. One such norm is that people in higher social classes tend to view themselves as more important than others. As such, the psychologist is not surprised that people driving expensive cars are more likely to disregard the rights of others. This _____ psychologist would predict that _____. a. humanistic; selfishness results in wealth b. humanistic; wealth makes people selfish c. cultural; selfishness results in wealth d. cultural; wealth makes people selfish ANSWER: d Scenario 1.2 introduces material from the following publications: Bowlby, J. (1969/1982). Attachment and loss, Vol. 1: Attachment. New York: Basic Books. Preckel, K., Scheele, D., Eckstein, M., Maier, W., & Hurlemann, R. (2015). The influence of oxytocin on volitional and emotional ambivalence. Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(7), 987–993. doi:10.1093/scan/nsu147 Catherine is a first-year college student who is shocked at the intensity of the jealousy expressed by her roommate's boyfriend. Interested in understanding the relationship between Sura and Will, she becomes fascinated to learn in introductory psychology that jealousy has been studied from a variety of perspectives. She goes to the library and begins researching this topic. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario 9. (Scenario 1.2) Some psychological theorists believe that Will's jealousy might be due to his projecting his own banished sexual inadequacies and desires for infidelity from his unconscious. These theorists are MOST likely to be: a. cognitive psychologists. b. social psychologists. c. humanistic psychologists. d. psychoanalysts. ANSWER: d 10. (Scenario 1.2) Preckel and colleagues (2015) reported that giving male participants an oxytocin nasal spray shortly before having them imagine their partners engaged in infidelity reduced activity in brain regions associated with jealousy. Catherine further reads that oxytocin is a neurotransmitter found naturally in the brain and then wonders if Will has naturally _____ levels of it. The research by Preckel and colleagues advances a(n) _____ approach to the study of jealousy. a. low; cognitive neuroscience b. high; behavioral neuroscience c. low; evolutionary psychology d. high; social psychology ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 1.2) Other psychological theorists point to the consequences of the jealousy as the reason for its continued occurrence. Catherine tends to agree. Every time Will goes into a jealous rage when Sura wants to go out with her friends, Sura capitulates and stays in with him instead. Consistent with a(n) _____ approach to psychology, Catherine believes that Sura is _____ her boyfriend's jealousy. a. cognitive; construing b. behavioral; reinforcing c. humanistic; actualizing d. evolutionary; selecting ANSWER: b 12. (Scenario 1.2) Bowlby's (1969/1982) attachment theory states that infants form either secure or insecure attachments with their primary caregiver. These attachment styles are relatively stable across life, and more recent research has found that individuals with insecure attachments are more likely to exhibit jealously in romantic relationships. Catherine wonders what kind of relationship her roommate's boyfriend has with his parents and thinks she needs to read more about this _____ approach to the study of jealousy. a. developmental b. humanistic c. psychoanalytic d. evolutionary ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario 13. (Scenario 1.2) In analyzing behavioral and evolutionary accounts of jealousy, Catherine is surprised to learn that these very different approaches both emphasize the importance of adaptive consequences. The difference is that a behavioral approach emphasizes the reinforcing consequences of the jealous behavior _____, and the evolutionary account emphasizes the adaptive consequences of jealousy _____. a. in reducing it; in strengthening it b. for the individual; for the individual's ancestors c. in an S-R model; within a cognitive model d. for the relationship; for the individual ANSWER: b Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An Essay concerning human understanding. [electronic resource]. Batoche. Retrieved from https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them… One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 14. (Scenario 1.3) Locke's argument that ideas come into the mind through experience reflects an underlying philosophical _____ between mind and body. a. nativism b. realism c. dualism d. materialism ANSWER: c 15. (Scenario 1.3) In arguing that the mental world can be changed from physical experience, Locke is advancing an idea most similar to the one proposed by: a. Rene Descartes. b. Thomas Hobbes. c. Mary Wollstonecraft. d. John Watson. ANSWER: a 16. (Scenario 1.3) Locke's position on how knowledge is acquired BEST reflects which position? a. philosophical nativism b. philosophical empiricism c. philosophical materialism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 1 Scenario d. philosophical idealism ANSWER: b 17. (Scenario 1.3) Which statement would John Locke agree with? a. The capacity to form an idea does not require sensory experience. b. People are born with bits of preprogrammed knowledge. c. Certain types of ideas are innate in the mind. d. The mind is a blank slate on which experience writes its story. ANSWER: d 18. (Scenario 1.3) The psychologist B. F. Skinner believed that language is acquired through experience, specifically from patterns of reinforcements and punishments that follow vocal utterances. With respect to language acquisition, Skinner's views are _____ with the views espoused by John Locke and reflect a philosophical _____. a. consistent; empiricism b. consistent; nativism c. inconsistent; empiricism d. inconsistent; nativism ANSWER: a 19. (Scenario 1.3) The linguist Noam Chomsky believes that humans are unique in that we have an innate language acquisition device that allows us to quickly acquire language and speak grammatically. This position is _____ with the views espoused by John Locke and reflects a philosophical _____. a. consistent; empiricism b. consistent; nativism c. inconsistent; empiricism d. inconsistent; nativism ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 2 Essay 1. Historically, drug addiction has been considered a moral failing. Contrast how a dogmatist and an empiricist might react to new evidence that drug addiction is a brain disease. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that dogmatists often acquire knowledge from authority and then are reluctant to

change their beliefs, even if the evidence does not support them. Dogmatists who believe that drug addiction is caused by a person's free will might consider people with drug addictions morally weak and not be swayed by data suggesting genetic predispositions, brain changes associated with drug use, and so on. Empiricists believe that people with drug addictions are morally weak; however, they might change their opinion on the issue when confronted with these data. Empiricists base their knowledge on observations of the world, and may change their opinions when confronted with new data.

2. A psychologist theorizes that depression is caused by low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin in the brain. Generate a hypothesis based on this theory. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that one hypothesis is that drugs that increase serotonin in the brain should alleviate symptoms of depression. Another hypothesis is that drugs that deplete serotonin levels should exacerbate symptoms of depression.

3. Although psychologists and chemists both use the scientific method, discuss three reasons the subject matter of psychology is much more difficult to study than the subject matter of chemistry. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Complexity: The human brain may be the most

complex system in the universe. When two chemicals react, we have precise equations that will accurately predict the outcome. Judging from the proliferation of online dating sites, we aren't that good at predicting what will happen when two people meet! (2) Variability: No two people are the same. Just because a psychologist learns something about person A does not necessarily mean that it will be applicable to person B. By comparison, all the atoms of gold on the planet are identical. (3) Reactivity: People behave differently when they know that they are being observed. A chemical reaction will proceed in the same way, regardless of who is watching it!

4. Develop an operational definition that adequately measures generosity. Discuss the construct validity and reliability of your measure. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following: (1) a definition of the construct in terms of its measure. For

example, generosity may be measured by the amount of money someone gives away each year. (2) Construct validity refers to the extent to which a measurement and a property are conceptually related. A valid measure is one that measures what it claims to measure; in other words, the operational definition of a property must overlap with the conceptual definition of that property. A researcher using invalid measures is claiming to measure one thing but is instead measuring something else. An invalid measure here may be something like a score on an IQ test. Therefore, the answer must include an explanation of why the student's operational definition truly measures generosity. (2) Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement. A reliable measure gives the same kind of results each time it is used. For this answer consider whether the proposed definition of generosity would necessarily remain constant over time or whether something about that definition would change as the subject repeated the experiment. A researcher using unreliable measures has no basis for knowing that the measurements taken reflect aspects of the property to be measured.

5. Generate your own example of a measure that is reliable but does not have construct validity and a measure that is neither reliable nor has construct validity. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) For example, defining intelligence in terms of how

long someone can hold their hand in a bucket of ice, measured precisely with a stopwatch. The key is that the measure might produce similar results each time, but it does not conceptually relate to the construct of intelligence. (2) For example, defining intelligence in terms of the combined score obtained from rolling 20 dice. Not only is the measure not conceptually related to the construct of intelligence (no validity), but the results will change considerably each time the measurement is taken, thus demonstrating a lack of reliability.

6. What are demand characteristics? Give at least three examples of how to control demand characteristics. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Essay ANSWER: The answer should indicate that demand characteristics are aspects of an observational setting that cause

people to behave as they think an observer wants or expects them to behave. Examples of how to control demand characteristics: (1) Observe participants in natural environments unobtrusively. If people do not know that they are being observed, they will behave normally. (2) Ensure participant anonymity. (3) Do not reveal the true purpose of the study until after the study has been completed. (4) Measure behavior that is not susceptible to demand characteristics, such as reflexes. (5) Use a double-blind observation or measurement to eliminate the effects of researchers' expectations.

7. Describe and give an example of the third-variable problem. What can be done to solve this problem? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the third-variable problem is the fact that two variables may be correlated

only because they are both caused by a third variable. The third-variable problem is encountered often in observations of natural correlations. Because of the third-variable problem, two variables being correlated does not necessarily mean that one is causing the other to occur. An example of the third-variable problem involves the correlation between watching violent television programming and childhood aggression. From this correlation alone, we cannot say that watching violent television programming causes aggression. It may be that a third variable — for example, lack of parental supervision — causes both television viewing and aggression. The third-variable problem always exists in correlation studies; no matter how much we control for relevant third variables, another always exists. To avoid the third-variable problem, carefully designed experiments involving manipulation of variables and random assignment must be completed.

8. A true experiment is defined as having certain characteristics. Deconstruct an experiment into its two essential characteristics, and note how each helps to achieve the overall goal of internal validity. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) An experiment must include manipulation and

random assignment. (2) Manipulation, controlled by the experimenter, means changing the pattern of variation to which the participants are exposed. Rather than observing natural correlations, the experimenter makes systematic changes in the levels of a variable. The variable thus manipulated is called an independent variable. For example, an experimenter might expose members of one group (the experimental group) to an aversive noise as they try to complete anagrams and members of the other group (the control group) to silence while they complete the same task. The variation of silence to noise was controlled, produced, and manipulated by the experimenter. (3) Random assignment means that participants are assigned to either the experimental or control group by chance. This has the effect of reducing the possibility that any third variables appear in either group and thereby offer a compelling alternative explanation for the findings. By making sure, through random assignment, that both groups have roughly the same amount of smart, motivated, attention-paying, tall, hefty, short, myopic, claustrophobic, sensation-seeking, aggressive, retiring, bald, female, male, and so on participants, there's less chance that any of those unwanted attributes can act as a third variable. (4) Both manipulation and random assignment contribute to internal validity. By manipulating the independent variable, the researcher knows that it is the only thing that systematically differs between the groups. By randomly assigning participants to conditions, no other preexisting differences should be able to cause differences in the dependent variable.

9. Self-help guru, Louise Hay, claims that her self-help DVDs can cure cancer. Describe how you would design an experiment to test this claim. To get you started, suppose that the participants in the experiment are individuals recently diagnosed with cancer who have provided informed consent to participate in a study investigating the power of positive thinking. From here, describe how you would use random assignment and manipulation to test Hay's claim. Be sure to identify the independent and dependent variables. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the participants with cancer are randomly assigned to one of the two groups.

Participants in one group watch the self-help DVDs every day. Participants in the other group watch a DVD of similar duration but without Hay's message (placebo). The independent variable is the type of DVD watched (self-help or placebo). The experiment might last 6 months, and the dependent variable is the number of cases in which the cancer goes into remission. If Hay's claims are correct, participants who receive the selfhelp DVDs should show a higher rate of remission.

10. In the context of experimentation, describe how internal and external validity are established. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Essay ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Internal validity: characteristic of an experiment that

allows us to draw accurate inferences about the causal relationship between an independent and dependent variable. Rules of validity for an internally valid experiment: An independent variable has been effectively manipulated. Participants have been randomly assigned to the control and experimental groups. A dependent variable has been measured in an unbiased way, with a valid and reliable measure. A correlation has been observed between the pattern of variation created in the independent variable and the pattern of variation measured in the dependent variable. (2) If an experiment has been conducted properly (as described above), then we can be confident that the observed changes in the dependent variable were caused by our manipulating of the independent variable. (3) External validity: characteristic of an experiment in which the independent variables are operationally defined in a normal, typical, or realistic way. For example, if we operationally define violent television programming and childhood aggression in realistic ways, then we can feel somewhat confident in generalizing the results of our study to similar children watching similar television shows.

11. Describe Type I and Type II errors. How do psychologists avoid these errors? ANSWER: The answer should include the following: (1) Type I errors occur when researchers conclude that there is a relationship between two variables when in fact there is not. (2) Type II errors occur when researchers conclude that there is not a relationship between two variables when in fact there is. (3) Psychologists cannot avoid these errors, but they do attempt to minimize the risk of whichever error seems worse in a particular situation.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Essay 12. Explain the difference between a population and a sample. Then discuss the relationship between random sampling and generalizing findings from the sample to the population. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) A population refers to all members of a group who

potentially could be measured. All students currently enrolled at your school would be a population. All residents of your city in 1900 would also be a population. All girls who, in January 2008, were between the ages of 13 and 17, had blonde hair, and were taller than 5'0" would also be a population. (2) A sample is a smaller group drawn from a larger population. If the sample is randomly drawn from the population, and large enough, it will resemble the population on all variables. Therefore, psychologists can generalize their results to the population when they study a random sample.

13. According to Sir Francis Bacon, what two human tendencies interfere with our ability to think critically? Provide examples of each. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that, according to Bacon, humans have the tendency to see what they expect or want to see and usually fail to consider what they cannot see. (1) Expectancies can alter our perceptions. Consider an example where participants watch a video of a young girl reading aloud. If the participants were first told that the girl came from an affluent family, they rated her reading ability higher than if told she came from a family of lower socioeconomic status. (2) Biases can alter our perceptions. For example, when you watch a presidential debate, you rarely note the flubs of your favorite candidate but are quick to point out those of the other candidate. (3) Our beliefs and expectations also affect the sources of information at our disposal. We tend to expose ourselves only to information that is already consistent with our beliefs. For example, conservatives watch conservative cable news networks and liberals expose themselves to more liberal media. (4) In making decisions, people often fail to consider that the most important piece of information might be the one that is absent. For example, suppose a burglary has been committed. Amateur detectives might focus all of their attention on scouring the crime scene, gathering physical evidence. A trained detective would also consider that which is missing, asking questions such as "Why are there no signs of forced entry?" and "Why didn't the dog bark?"

14. List at least three rules of ethics that psychologists must follow to maintain the safety, well-being, and dignity of their participants. ANSWER: The answer should discuss three of these concepts: informed consent, freedom from coercion, protection

from harm, risk-benefit analysis, deception, debriefing, and confidentiality. (1) Informed consent: a written agreement to participate in a study made by a person who has been informed of all the risks of participation. (2) Freedom from coercion: Researchers cannot force people to participate unwillingly in an experiment. (3) Protection from harm: Psychologists will use the safest method possible. (4) Risk-benefit analysis: Participants may not be asked to accept large risks. (5) Deception can be used only if adequately justified, no alternative is available, and the act of deception will not increase risk to participants. (6) Debriefing: a verbal description of the true nature and purpose of a study that psychologists provide to people after they have participated in the study. (7) Confidentiality: Private and personal data obtained during a study should be kept confidential.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 1. _____ is the conviction that accurate knowledge of the world can be acquired by observing it, whereas _____ involves the tendency to cling to one's beliefs. a. Methodology; empiricism b. Dogmatism; empiricism c. Empiricism; dogmatism d. Empiricism; methodology ANSWER: c 2. _____ is forming beliefs based on the accurate knowledge of the world gained by observing it, while _____ is forming beliefs based on our previous beliefs. a. Dogmatism; empiricism b. Method; dogmatism c. Empiricism; method d. Empiricism; dogmatism ANSWER: d 3. _____ use specific rules and techniques to observe and understand natural phenomena. a. Idealists b. Empiricists c. Dogmatists d. Humanists ANSWER: b 4. A schoolteacher seeks help from the school psychologist because a child in their class is particularly unruly. The psychologist visits the class one day to observe the child. Knowing that they are being watched, the child is on their best behavior. Which quality illustrated in this scenario makes it difficult for psychologists to study human behavior? a. complexity b. variability c. reactivity d. reliability ANSWER: c 5. _____ involves holding onto previous beliefs about the world, whereas _____ involves basing beliefs on objective observations of the world. a. Methodology; empiricism b. Dogmatism; empiricism c. Empiricism; dogmatism d. Empiricism; methodology Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 6. Which statement describes a difference between a hypothesis and a theory? a. A hypothesis establishes a general principle through experiments, whereas a theory is based on a specific observation that is limited to a single instance. b. A hypothesis explains a set of theories, whereas a theory explains a set of laws. c. A hypothesis is a falsifiable prediction made by a theory, whereas a theory is an explanation of a natural phenomenon. d. A hypothesis needs to be proven to be true, whereas a theory is inherently true. ANSWER: c 7. Which technique is good to use to avoid the problem of demand characteristics in an experiment? a. revealing the expected results to the participants before starting the experiment b. gathering scientific information by observing people without their knowledge c. clearly explaining the true purpose of the experiment to the participants d. asking the participants to respond to questionnaires in front of a selected sample of people ANSWER: b 8. Santi observes that some children take their first steps at 9 months old, while others do not begin walking until they are 18 months old. This observation demonstrates that one of the reasons humans can be so difficult to study is their: a. development. b. variability. c. demand characteristics. d. reliability. ANSWER: b 9. The belief that accurate knowledge of the world requires observations of it is called: a. empiricism. b. methodology. c. dogmatism. d. pragmatism. ANSWER: a 10. A measuring instrument is said to be reliable when it is able to: a. detect the absence of differences or changes in the magnitude of a property. b. produce results that are close to the expected results. c. predict actual behavior. d. covary with an independent variable. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 11. The belief that one can obtain accurate knowledge about the causes of human behavior by observing people behaving in different situations exemplifies: a. pragmatism. b. dogmatism. c. empiricism. d. parsimony. ANSWER: c 12. Which factor is an important characteristic of a good operational definition? a. construct validity b. negative correlation c. power d. positive covariance ANSWER: a 13. _____ is defined as an instrument's ability to detect the presence of differences or changes in the magnitude of a property. a. Self-selection b. Reliability c. Power d. Significance ANSWER: c 14. Margot wonders if people behave more aggressively when there is a full moon. To attempt to find out, she categorizes arrest records and emergency room admissions by the cycle of the moon. Margot is taking a(n) _____ approach to the question. a. empirical b. dogmatic c. hypothetical d. deductive ANSWER: a 15. Which statement is true of a positively skewed distribution? a. It has a bell-shaped curve. b. The mean of the distribution is identical to the mode of the distribution. c. The mean of the distribution is greater than the mode of the distribution. d. The mean of the distribution is less than the mode of the distribution. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 16. When naturalistic observation is not possible, which step can psychologists take to avoid demand characteristics? a. allowing people to respond privately and anonymously b. introducing an additional variable to the study c. informing the participants about the exact nature of the experiment d. making sure it is NOT a double-masked study ANSWER: a 17. Which value of the correlation coefficient represents the weakest degree of relationship between two variables? a. –0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.6 d. –1.0 ANSWER: a 18. Juliana wonders if male or female college students spend more time on social media. After obtaining university approval, Juliana develops and administers a survey to a random sample of students in an attempt to answer this question. Juliana is taking a(n) _____ approach to the question. a. empirical b. dogmatic c. hypothetical d. deductive ANSWER: a 19. Two variables are said to be correlated when: a. the two variables have different values under different circumstances. b. the two variables have different variations under different circumstances. c. variations in the value of one variable are synchronized with variations in the value of the other. d. variations in the value of one variable are asynchronous with variations in the value of the other. ANSWER: c 20. Natalia observes that there is a positive correlation between extracurricular activity participation and academic success. Which statement can be inferred from this observation? a. Students who do well academically are more likely to be involved in extracurriculars. b. Students who don't do well academically are more likely to be involved in extracurriculars. c. Students who do well academically are less likely to be involved in extracurriculars. d. Students who don't do well academically are more likely to be in the same social group. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 21. Throughout most of human history, people have tended to trust _____ to answer important questions. a. logic b. science c. authority d. philosophers ANSWER: c 22. Holding to Ptolemy's theories that the earth is the center of the universe, despite contradictory observations made by Galileo upon the invention of the telescope, illustrates: a. hypothesis testing. b. dogmatism. c. empiricism. d. experimentation. ANSWER: b 23. The more time children spend playing video games at home, the lower their grades are at school. This represents a: a. demand characteristic. b. negative correlation. c. positive correlation. d. manipulation. ANSWER: b 24. Dr. Spelke thinks that spoken language is linked to spatial ability. She enlists two groups of people to navigate around the room, one of them doing so while talking loudly and the other while clapping hands. In this scenario, which statement is true of Dr. Spelke's study? a. The group that claps hands is not receiving the manipulation of the independent variable. b. The group that claps hands is receiving the manipulation of the independent variable. c. The group that talks loudly is not relevant to Dr. Spelke's study. d. The group that talks loudly is positively correlated to the group that claps hands. ANSWER: a 25. In order to conduct a valid experiment, you must first manipulate a(n) _____ variable and then measure _____ variable. a. independent; a dependent b. dependent; an independent c. independent; the same d. dependent; the same Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 26. Eyes and ears is to _____ as knowledge from elders is to _____. a. hypothesis; theory b. theory; hypothesis c. dogmatism; empiricism d. empiricism; dogmatism ANSWER: d 27. In an experiment, participants are placed in one of the two groups in an experiment based on the flip of a coin. This method illustrates: a. statistical significance. b. random sampling. c. random assignment. d. double-masked observation. ANSWER: c 28. Aaron trusts what he himself observes, not claims by others. Aaron takes a(n) _____ approach to knowledge acquisition. a. correlational b. dogmatic c. empirical d. parsimonious ANSWER: c 29. Terrence is studying how music affects attitudes. On a hot June day, he exposes one group of college students to classical music and another group to jazz, while he measures their attitudes toward war. In this scenario, the dependent variable is the: a. type of music being played. b. students' attitudes toward war. c. students' psychological responses to the music. d. volume of the music being played. ANSWER: b 30. If an experiment has a high degree of _____, a causal relationship can be demonstrated between all or certain variables in the experiment. a. reliability b. internal validity c. external validity d. negative correlation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 31. Susan, a researcher, examines the way a grocery store's layout affects customer's moods. She defines mood as the amount the customer talks with the cashier—with positive moods inducing more talk. The biggest problem with Susan's research is likely: a. internal validity. b. the third-variable problem. c. external validity. d. an ethics violation. ANSWER: c 32. A boxer suddenly begins experiencing severe mood swings and exhibiting bizarre behavior. A neuropsychologist determines that the boxer has experienced traumatic brain injury, which has probably been caused by numerous concussions. The neuropsychologist then studies the functioning of the boxer's brain in detail using fMRI brain imaging techniques to learn more about the concussions. This represents a(n): a. experiment. b. naturalistic observation. c. double-masked observation. d. case method. ANSWER: d 33. The _____ is BEST defined as a procedure for using empirical evidence to establish facts. a. introspective technique b. scientific method c. double-masked control d. dogmatic approach ANSWER: b 34. Which statement is true about the scientific method? a. The scientific method takes a dogmatic approach to knowledge acquisition. b. The scientific method limits empirical observations to those consistent with a theory. c. The scientific method emphasizes the importance of nonempirical sources of information when constructing new theories. d. The scientific method uses empirical evidence to establish facts about the world. ANSWER: d 35. A college recently banned the use of plastic water bottles on campus in an effort to be ecofriendly. A psychologist at the college is interested in the attitudes of the students toward this ban. They obtain a list of all the students enrolled in the college and arbitrarily select 100 students for a survey designed to assess their opinions on the ban. In this study, which method has the psychologist used to select students for the survey? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. random sampling b. random assignment c. case method d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: a 36. Type I error is known as a _____, while Type II error is known as a _____. a. false positive; false negative b. false negative; false positive c. flunk; lack of causal relationship d. lack of causal relationship; fluke ANSWER: a 37. _____ is defined as an explanation of a natural phenomenon. a. Theory b. Science c. Hypothesis d. Logic ANSWER: a 38. Katrina examined whether giving students daily quizzes improved test scores. She mistakenly concluded that there was no relationship between these two factors, when in fact, there is. She made a _____ error. a. Type I b. Type II c. sampling d. replication ANSWER: b 39. Our beliefs shape our views of evidence by: a. allowing us to consider all of the available evidence. b. causing us to preferentially search for evidence that confirms our beliefs. c. causing us to search for additional evidence when we find evidence that confirms our beliefs. d. causing us to forget about any evidence that we don't immediately see. ANSWER: b 40. Which of these tips will enhance critical thinking? a. Doubt your own conclusions and consider what you don't see. b. Doubt your own conclusions and examine the evidence you expected to see. c. Examine evidence that you expected to see and search for more evidence that confirms your Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice expectations. d. Ask yourself, "Can I believe this evidence?" ANSWER: a 41. Which statement is an attribute of a good theory? a. It can be proven correct. b. It cannot be tested. c. It is no more complicated than necessary. d. It makes unfalsifiable predictions. ANSWER: c 42. According to the American Psychological Association, which statement about the use of coercion in psychological research is true? a. Coercion can be used in the absence of other ethical ways to conduct the research. b. Coercion should be used when the benefits of the research outweigh the risks to the participants. c. Monetary compensation can be used to persuade a person to participate. d. Researchers should respect a person's right to make decisions without coercion. ANSWER: d 43. Which statement is NOT an attribute of a good theory? a. It can be proven correct. b. It is an idea about how something works. c. It leads to hypotheses. d. It makes falsifiable predictions. ANSWER: a 44. Which of these is NOT an ethical rule that governs psychological research? a. Psychologists may not coerce participation. b. A researcher should obtain informed consent from research participants or their legal guardians. c. A researcher can use deception in an experiment under all circumstances. d. Once people are enrolled in a study, they may withdraw at any time. ANSWER: c 45. Which of these is NOT an ethical rule concerning deception in psychological research? a. If the participant is deceived in any way, the researcher must provide a debriefing. b. Psychologists can use deception when it is justified by the study's applied value. c. A researcher can use deception in research involving psychological pain. d. Psychologists can use deception when alternative procedures are not feasible. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 46. A falsifiable prediction derived from a theory is termed a(n): a. experiment. b. operational definition. c. hypothesis. d. valid measure. ANSWER: c 47. _____ are derived from _____. a. Hypotheses; theories b. Theories; hypotheses c. Empirical observations; theories d. Empirical observations; hypotheses ANSWER: a 48. Darnell believes that happiness increases as a result of spending time outside. He makes a specific prediction that people who spend 2 hours per day outside for a month will be happier than those who did not spend time outside. This falsifiable prediction is termed a(n): a. experiment. b. conclusion. c. theory. d. hypothesis. ANSWER: d 49. Issa suspects that the prefrontal cortex is involved in self-control. She asks participants to choose between $1 now and $30 after 30 minutes while intermittently inactivating the prefrontal cortex. She makes the specific prediction that inactivating the prefrontal cortex will increase the choice of $1 delivered now. This testable prediction is termed a(n): a. experiment. b. empirical method. c. hypothesis. d. theory. ANSWER: c 50. Anne has a(n) _____ that memory for childhood events is stored in a different place in the brain than memory for movement. a. naturalistic observation b. operational definition c. hypothesis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice d. theory ANSWER: d 51. Trinity has a(n) _____ that humans perceive some stimuli without conscious knowledge of doing so. a. naturalistic observation b. operational definition c. hypothesis d. theory ANSWER: d 52. The theory that God created the universe is: a. unfalsifiable. b. falsifiable. c. necessarily correct. d. necessarily incorrect. ANSWER: a 53. The theory that ancient aliens seeded the planet with life millions of years ago and then disappeared is: a. unfalsifiable. b. completely falsifiable. c. necessarily correct. d. necessarily incorrect. ANSWER: a 54. Which question is an unfalsifiable research question? a. Are people who pray daily happier than those who do not? b. Does God answer prayers? c. Do people who pray while in the hospital recover faster than those who do not? d. Is prayer associated with charitable giving? ANSWER: b 55. Which statement is an unfalsifiable psychological claim? a. Teenagers are more sexually active than their parents tend to believe they are. b. People are less likely to help a stranger in need as the number of other bystanders increases. c. The hippocampus is a brain structure critically involved in the formation of long-term memories. d. Part of the human unconscious is the id, an unobservable entity that governs basic human drives. ANSWER: d 56. Xixi's research yielded results that are consistent with a hypothesis derived from a behavioral theory of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice substance abuse. Which conclusion is correct regarding the theory? a. The theory is supported. b. The theory is proven. c. The theory is unfalsified. d. The theory is statistically significant. ANSWER: a 57. Aleskey's research yielded results that are consistent with a hypothesis derived from a cognitive account of language development. Which conclusion is correct regarding the theory? a. The theory is strengthened. b. The theory is proven. c. The theory is unfalsified. d. The theory is statistically significant. ANSWER: a 58. Sofia's research yielded results that are consistent with a hypothesis derived from a cognitive account of classical conditioning. Which conclusion is correct regarding the theory? a. The theory is proven. b. The theory may be disproven by subsequent research. c. The theory is unfalsified. d. The theory is statistically significant. ANSWER: b 59. Simon's research yielded results that are consistent with his hypothesis. Which conclusion is incorrect regarding the theory? a. The theory is proven. b. The theory is supported. c. The theory may be refuted by other investigators. d. The theory may be disproven by subsequent research. ANSWER: a 60. A set of rules and techniques for observation is termed an empirical: a. theory. b. study. c. definition. d. method. ANSWER: d 61. An empirical method refers to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. the logical steps by which a hypothesis is derived from a theory. b. a set of rules and techniques for observation. c. the process of theory falsification. d. the collection of statistical techniques that can be applied to a data set. ANSWER: b 62. Carolina wants to determine if preschoolers are more or less likely to initiate play with same or opposite gender peers. She is trying to devise a plan in which the children will not know that they are being observed. Carolina seeks a(n): a. empirical method. b. theory. c. hypothesis. d. research question. ANSWER: a 63. Innessa wants to determine whether students use their phones more in the library or in the cafeteria. She is undecided about whether she should observe their actions or ask questions to participants about this topic using a survey. Innessa is trying to decide on the best _____ to address her research question. a. statistical technique b. theory c. hypothesis d. empirical method ANSWER: d 64. When it gets really hot outside, Sam becomes tired and Charlie becomes angry. Their different reactions to the heat illustrate the challenge of _____ to the study of human behavior. a. confounds b. variability c. complexity d. reactivity ANSWER: b 65. Drugs of abuse activate the reward pathway in the brain. This pathway consists of multiple brain structures, many neurotransmitters, and millions of interconnected neurons. Determining the brain changes that underlie the transition from casual drug use to addiction is a difficult process due to the _____ of the system. a. reliability b. confounds c. complexity d. reactions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 66. According to the textbook, what three things make people especially difficult to study? a. shyness, moodiness, and unpredictability b. complexity, reactivity, and unpredictability c. variability, reactivity, and complexity d. reactivity, variability, and stubbornness ANSWER: c 67. Which reason is NOT listed by the textbook as one that makes people especially difficult to study? a. complexity b. emotionality c. variability d. reactivity ANSWER: b 68. People are difficult to study because they often behave differently when they know that they are being observed, a phenomenon known as: a. unpredictability. b. variability. c. complexity. d. reactivity. ANSWER: d 69. Cruella would not describe herself as the type of person who cares about animal rights, but when filling out a survey for a psychologist, she says that she does. This illustrates that people can be highly _____ when studied. a. dogmatic b. variable c. complex d. reactive ANSWER: d 70. When participating in psychological research, participants sometimes report not their true beliefs but rather what they feel to be the socially acceptable answer. This illustrates that people can be highly _____ when studied. a. empirical b. variable c. complex d. reactive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 71. On a wide range of cognitive abilities, humans can be very different or highly _____ in their performance. a. empirical b. variable c. complex d. reactive ANSWER: b 72. Because humans are so widely _____ in their cognitive abilities, it makes sense that people will find different paths to a wide range of careers. a. predictable b. variable c. reactive d. reliable ANSWER: b 73. Using one's senses to learn about the properties of an event refers to: a. reactivity. b. operational definitions. c. observation. d. experimentation. ANSWER: c 74. Which statement is true regarding casual observations? a. They form the heart of the empirical method. b. They are inadequate for doing science. c. They generally are consistent from one observer to the next. d. They represent a dogmatic approach to science. ANSWER: b 75. An operational definition is: a. a description of a property in measurable terms. b. the way sciences tend to operate when forming hypotheses. c. the consensus scientists reach when defining their terms. d. a set of rules and techniques for making observations. ANSWER: a 76. A description of a property in measurable terms is a(n): Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. theory. b. naturalistic observation. c. operational definition. d. hypothesis. ANSWER: c 77. Describing length as "change in the location of light over time" is an example of a(n): a. measurement device. b. casual observation. c. unit of measurement. d. operational definition. ANSWER: d 78. Describing time based on the duration it takes the earth to revolve around the sun is an example of a(n): a. measurement instrument. b. demand characteristic. c. operational definition. d. reactive observation. ANSWER: c 79. Mike wants to know how many licks it takes to get to the center of his lollipop. He tells his friends that "one full gyration of the tongue around the outer surface of the lollipop" is what constitutes a "lick." In an informal way, Mike is offering a(n): a. measurement instrument to answer his question. b. way to eliminate the reactivity sometimes associated with observation. c. operational definition for the behavior he wants to measure. d. naturalistic observation. ANSWER: c 80. Xavier wants to know how many licks it takes to get to the center of his lollipop. He tells his friends that "one full gyration of the tongue around the outer surface of the lollipop" is what constitutes a "lick." In an informal way, Xavier is offering a(n) _____ but he lacks a reliable _____ to answer the question. a. operational definition; theory b. hypothesis; instrument c. hypothesis; theory d. operational definition; instrument ANSWER: d 81. A(n) _____ can detect the events to which an operational definition refers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. empirical method b. observer bias c. demand characteristic d. instrument ANSWER: d 82. Before measuring a specific property of an object, scientists must _____ the property and it must be _____. a. define; detectable b. identify; researchable c. detect; measurable d. define; vague ANSWER: a 83. Mike wants to know how many licks it takes to get to the center of his lollipop. He tells his friends that "one full gyration of the tongue around the outer surface of the lollipop" is what constitutes a "lick." Unfortunately, he has not developed a reliable, mechanized way to measure licks. Mike's problem deals with: a. definition. b. a third variable. c. falsifiability. d. detection. ANSWER: d 84. The extent to which the event being measured adequately characterizes a property is referred to as: a. reliability. b. validity. c. power. d. measurement. ANSWER: b 85. The extent to which the frequency of smiling really defines the property called happiness is an issue of measurement: a. reliability. b. construct validity. c. power. d. instrumentation. ANSWER: b 86. A detector's ability to detect the absence of differences or changes in the magnitude of a property is: a. consistency. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. power. c. construct validity. d. reliability. ANSWER: d 87. A reliable measure is one that: a. detects the absence of differences or changes in the magnitude of a property. b. tends to differentiate between accurate and inaccurate data. c. compensates for a weak operational definition of a property under study. d. is necessarily an accurate measure of an underlying property. ANSWER: a 88. The tendency for a measure to produce different results when the quantity measured changes only slightly is known as: a. differentiation. b. power. c. validity. d. reactivity. ANSWER: b 89. Ideally, a measurement should have validity, reliability, and _____ in order to be useful to scientists. a. definition b. accuracy c. power d. consistency ANSWER: c 90. A bathroom scale is broken and always weighs 150 pounds, no matter who steps on it. As a measure of weight, the broken scale lacks: a. reliability. b. validity. c. consistency. d. power. ANSWER: c 91. A bathroom scale cannot detect the difference in weights between Hassan and Carlos, because they only differ by 0.2 pounds. As a measure of weight, the scale is limited in terms of its: a. reliability. b. validity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice c. consistency. d. power. ANSWER: d 92. Which measure lacks both reliability and validity? a. scholastic aptitude as measured by the score on an SAT test b. happiness as measured by heart beats per minute c. intelligence as measured in terms of birth order d. class performance as measured by randomly picking a grade out of a hat ANSWER: d 93. Roger wants to study whether level of personal income predicts happiness. He operationally defines income as "the gross amount of money a person earns in a calendar year." He operationally defines happiness as "the ability of that person to stand on one leg for longer than 3 minutes." What is glaringly wrong with Roger's study? a. It lacks validity; income can be measured, but happiness cannot. b. It lacks reliability; the operational definitions of the properties under study produce inconsistent measurements. c. It lacks validity; the operational definition of happiness is unrelated to the underlying property of happiness. d. It lacks reliability; it is difficult to precisely measure both income and happiness. ANSWER: c 94. Vanessa and Tamika take a reaction-time test. Vanessa's reaction time is 0.23 seconds, and Tamika's reaction time is 0.25 seconds. Suppose that the stopwatch the psychologist used only measured to a tenth of a second. The psychologist concludes that Vanessa and Tamika have equal reaction times of 0.2 seconds. As a measure of reaction time, the stopwatch lacks: a. reliability. b. validity. c. power. d. reactivity. ANSWER: c 95. When aspects of a setting cause participants to behave the way they think an observer wants them to behave, the problem of _____ is present. a. demand characteristics b. complexity c. validity d. variability ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 96. Which statement is an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Xavier enjoys bowling on the weekends. b. Tim acts more polite than normal while on a date. c. Dae buys a certain brand of cookies because there are only a few of that brand left. d. Suzanne speeds so that she won't be late to work. ANSWER: b 97. Which statement is an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Professor Habib is much more passionate and engaging with their class when they know that their teaching is being evaluated. b. Tyler eliminates dairy from his diet in order to determine whether he has dairy allergies. c. Sydney plays tennis at a park she's never played at because the park she usually plays at is closed. d. Chin is required to take a foreign language as part of his liberal arts education. ANSWER: a 98. Which statement is an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Self-report measures of everyday mood tend to fluctuate unsystematically. b. People tend to evaluate physically attractive strangers as more positive on a plethora of dimensions than less attractive strangers. c. College students who receive good grades in a course tend to rate that course higher than do students who receive low grades in the course. d. School children are much less rowdy on the bus after a noticeable video camera is mounted in the front of the bus. ANSWER: d 99. Which statement is an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Carmen weighs the pros and cons of breaking up with her partner. b. Adelaide has a hard time getting out of bed on rainy mornings. c. Dylan's spouse asks him if their new jeans look good on them. d. Roberto's dog barks every time a person walks by the window. ANSWER: c 100. A technique for gathering scientific information by unobtrusively watching people in their normal environments is termed: a. the case study approach. b. descriptive statistics. c. naturalistic observation. d. experimentation. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 101. A researcher using naturalistic observation will gather scientific information by: a. measuring participants on at least two variables. b. unobtrusively watching people in their normal environments. c. manipulating a variable and then measuring any effect on behavior. d. administering surveys to participants that ask questions about their daily lives. ANSWER: b 102. Which description is the BEST example of naturalistic observation research methodology? a. a 2nd-grade teacher manipulating reading materials to determine which promotes the greatest literacy b. a psychologist measuring symptoms of depression using a survey c. an inconspicuous economist observing the buying habits of shoppers at a grocery store d. a professor evaluating the degree of student learning through exam performance ANSWER: c 103. Which description is the BEST example of naturalistic observation research methodology? a. recording the amount of time using cell phones by groups of students in the cafeteria b. asking college students how much time they spend playing games on their phones each day c. surveying college students about the phone features they use most d. randomly assigning participants to use their phones during a meal or not, and then surveying the participants about their meal satisfaction ANSWER: a 104. Dara is curious about how many older drivers versus younger drivers shake the handle of the gas pump after they finish fueling their automobiles. Dara walks through the gas station store while casually looking out the window and recording the pump behavior of the drivers at the fueling stations. What type of research is Dara conducting? a. double-blind observation b. naturalistic observation c. an experiment d. a case study ANSWER: b 105. A psychologist poses as a groundskeeper at a local golf course and records any instances of cheating. She finds that golfers in twosomes are less likely to cheat than golfers in foursomes. What type of research is the psychologist conducting? a. double-blind observation b. naturalistic observation c. an experiment d. a case study Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 106. What is one reason naturalistic observation alone cannot solve the problem of demand characteristics? a. Some things of interest to psychologists do not occur naturally. b. It is impossible not to be detected. c. People become angry if they discover that someone has been watching them. d. Recording devices are too expensive for scientists to purchase. ANSWER: a 107. What is one reason naturalistic observation alone cannot solve the problem of demand characteristics? a. It is impossible not to be detected. b. Some information requires direct interaction with participants. c. People become angry if they discover that someone has been watching them. d. Recording devices are too expensive for scientists to purchase. ANSWER: b 108. What do the following have in common: a microphone concealed in the ceiling of a laboratory, filler items on a psychological survey meant to distract from a study's true purpose, and a misleading explanation told to participants about the purpose of a study? a. They all are forms of experimenter bias. b. They all are examples of unethical research. c. They all are examples of naturalistic observation. d. They all are ways of avoiding demand characteristics. ANSWER: d 109. Which technique is NOT used to reduce demand characteristics? a. ensuring participant anonymity b. studying behavior not under voluntary control c. clearly identifying the purpose of the study to participants d. asking participants to respond in front of a group ANSWER: d 110. What is the BEST way to make it less likely that people will be influenced by demand characteristics? a. pay them for their participation b. randomly select them from the population c. require that they sign their name to each survey that they complete d. keep them from knowing the true purpose of the observation ANSWER: d 111. A clinical psychologist is evaluating a client recovering from a substance abuse disorder to evaluate their Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice likelihood of relapse. Which measure is LEAST susceptible to demand characteristics? a. measuring differences in blood pressure when exposed to drug paraphernalia b. asking the client if they have used alcohol or drugs since their last session c. asking the client to rate the severity of their daily cravings on a 10-point scale d. showing the client pictures of drug paraphernalia and asking them if the pictures are triggering cravings ANSWER: a 112. A consumer psychologist seeks to determine which of several product prototypes might be most preferred by consumers. The psychologist shows these prototypes to a group of participants. Which measure is LEAST susceptible to demand characteristics? a. participants' rank-order of the products in terms of interest b. participants' estimate of the likelihood that they would purchase the product c. participants' pupil dilation during inspection of the products d. participants' change in attitude toward the product before and after interacting with each ANSWER: c 113. In a classic experiment, psychology students were assigned to work either with "bright" rats or with "dull" rats, described as such by the experimenter. After a series of tests, the students' results showed that the "bright" rats had outperformed the "dull" rats. However, in fact, all the rats were of the same strain and breed; there were no preexisting differences between the groups. What caused the difference in their performance? a. By chance, the rats in one group actually were brighter than those in the other group. b. Demand characteristics in the experiment cued the rats about how to perform in the mazes. c. The students' expectations about the rats' performance influenced their observations and behaviors. d. The students looked at average scores, rather than at each rat's individual score. ANSWER: c 114. The results from the classic experiment involving psychology students randomly assigned to work either with "bright" rats or with "dull" rats suggest that: a. Labeling students as "gifted" has negative effects on their social lives. b. Students identified as "not gifted" actually may work harder academically due to increased motivation. c. Labeling students as "gifted" actually has unintended negative consequences on academic performance. d. Students labeled as "gifted" do better in school because teachers treat them differently. ANSWER: d 115. In a classic experiment, psychology students were assigned to work either with "bright" rats or with "dull" rats, described as such by the experimenter. In one task involving maze-running speed, students working with "bright" rats were more likely to stop timing early, as soon as the rat approached the goal box. This Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice unintentional measurement error illustrates how: a. expectations can influence observations. b. observations can influence measurement. c. expectations can influence reality. d. observations can influence reality. ANSWER: a 116. In a classic experiment, psychology students were assigned to work either with "bright" rats or with "dull" rats, described as such by the experimenter. In a task involving learning a maze, rats arbitrarily labeled as "bright" learned the maze faster than did rats arbitrarily labeled as "dull." The experimenter suspected that the psychology students with "bright" rats took the learning task more seriously, and this was reflected in their rats' performance. This finding illustrates how: a. expectations can influence observations. b. observations can influence measurement. c. expectations can influence reality. d. observations can influence reality. ANSWER: c 117. Which technique helps reduce bias due to prior expectations? a. the case method b. double-blind observation c. use of a correlation coefficient d. random sampling ANSWER: b 118. An experiment in which the true purpose is hidden from the researcher as well as from the participant is called a: a. blind experiment. b. double-blind experiment. c. controlled experiment. d. correlational study. ANSWER: b 119. A double-blind study: a. necessarily has sufficient power to detect group differences. b. usually lacks reliability. c. minimizes expectancy effects. d. cannot be used to determine cause and effect. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 120. Dr. Rodriguez is investigating a new clinical intervention to reduce depression. Patients with depression are treated with either the new intervention or cognitive behavioral therapy for 2 months, and Dr. Rodriguez records their levels of depression at weekly appointments. If a double-blind procedure is used: a. only Dr. Rodriguez will know which patients actually received the drug. b. the patients will know if they are receiving the drug or the placebo. c. Dr. Rodriguez will not be told the operational definition of depression. d. neither Dr. Rodriguez nor the patients will know which patients actually received the drug. ANSWER: d 121. Dr. Gomez is investigating a new drug designed to reduce anxiety. Patients with an anxiety disorder are treated with either the drug or a sugar pill (placebo) for some time, and Dr. Gomez records their anxiety levels at weekly appointments. If a double-blind procedure is used, who will know if a placebo or drug was administered? a. the patients but not Dr. Gomez b. Dr. Gomez but not the patients c. neither Dr. Gomez nor the patients d. both Dr. Gomez and the patients ANSWER: c 122. A graphical representation of the measurements of a sample that are arranged by the number of times each measurement was observed is a: a. Gaussian distribution. b. frequency distribution. c. normal distribution. d. scatter plot. ANSWER: b 123. A frequency distribution graphically displays the: a. number of times each measurement occurs. b. probability of obtaining a particular measurement. c. rate at which a target behavior occurs. d. average derived from a set of measurements. ANSWER: a 124. A frequency distribution in which most measurements are concentrated around the mean and fall off toward the tails, and where the two sides of the distribution are symmetrical, is called a _____ distribution. a. normal b. positively skewed c. negatively skewed Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice d. standard ANSWER: a 125. Another term for a normal distribution is a _____ distribution. a. standard b. Gaussian c. skewed d. bimodal ANSWER: b 126. Which statement describes a normal distribution? a. It is symmetrical around a single peak in the middle. b. It has a peak at each end of the distribution. c. It is skewed to one side or the other. d. It resembles a straight line. ANSWER: a 127. Which statement does NOT describe a normal distribution? a. It is symmetrical. b. It has a peak in the middle. c. It is positively skewed. d. It trails off at both ends. ANSWER: c 128. Professor Kim creates a frequency distribution of exam scores from a class of 300 students. Possible scores on the exam ranged from 0 to 100. What should be displayed on the horizontal axis? a. the number of times each possible score occurred b. each possible score c. the mean of the 300 scores d. the name of each student ANSWER: b 129. Professor Kim creates a frequency distribution of exam scores from a class of 300 students. Possible scores on the exam ranged from 0 to 100. What should be displayed on the vertical axis? a. the number of times each possible score occurred b. each possible score c. the mean of the 300 scores d. the name of each student ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 130. An academic clinical psychologist uses Beck's Depression Inventory, a validated scale with scores ranging from 0 to 63, with higher scores indicating greater levels of depression, to measure depression levels in the population of 1,000 incoming first-year students. The psychologist creates a frequency distribution of their findings. What should be displayed on the vertical axis? a. the number of times each possible score occurred b. each possible score c. the mean of the 1,000 scores d. the categorical labels "Does Not Have Depression" and "Has Depression" ANSWER: a 131. The MOST frequent measurement in a frequency distribution is the: a. mode. b. mean. c. median. d. range. ANSWER: a 132. The arithmetic average of the measurements in a frequency distribution is the: a. mode. b. mean. c. median. d. range. ANSWER: b 133. If an odd number of scores are put in order from lowest to highest, the score in the middle position is the: a. mode. b. mean. c. median. d. range. ANSWER: c 134. Half the measurements in a positively skewed frequency distribution are greater than or equal to the _____, and half are less than or equal to it. a. mode b. mean c. median d. range ANSWER: c 135. In a normal distribution, the peak of the distribution corresponds to which measurement(s)? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. the mode only b. the mean only c. the median only d. the mode, mean, and median ANSWER: d 136. Under which type of frequency distribution will the mode, mean, and median all assume the same value? a. a normal distribution b. a positively skewed distribution c. a two-peaked (bimodal) distribution d. a one-peaked unsymmetrical distribution ANSWER: a 137. In the number sequence 1 2 3 4 5 5, which number is the mode? a. 5 b. 3 c. 1 d. 3.33 ANSWER: a 138. In the number sequence 110 120 120 130 130 140 140 140 150, which number is the mode? a. 140 b. 130 c. 131 d. 110 ANSWER: a 139. What is the mean of the number sequence 1 3 4 4? a. 4 b. 3 c. 1 d. 2 ANSWER: b 140. What is the mean of the number sequence 2 2 2 6? a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 6 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 141. In the number sequence 4 6 3 3 9, which number is the median? a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 ANSWER: a 142. In the number sequence 4 1 4 7 4, which number is the median? a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: c 143. Five extremely tall members of the college basketball team are among 30 students in an introductory psychology class. If a frequency distribution is taken of height, the distribution probably will be: a. normal. b. positively skewed. c. negatively skewed. d. bimodal. ANSWER: b 144. Seven students in a class of 30 do not study at all for their upcoming exam. If a frequency distribution is taken of study hours, the mode would be 0 and median and mean scores would be higher. The distribution is: a. normal. b. bimodal. c. negatively skewed. d. positively skewed. ANSWER: d 145. A college dean is interested in measuring the research productivity of the seven members of the psychology department. The dean obtains the number of publications for each faculty member. They are as follows: 5, 10, 15, 15, 20, 25, and 180. If the dean wants to describe these data, which measure of central tendency would paint a misleading picture of the research productivity of the department? a. the mean b. the median c. the mode d. the standard deviation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 146. A kindergarten teacher has parents keep a log of the number of books read to their children per week. There are 20 children in the class. Most (18 of 20) of the parents reported reading 3–6 books per week. However, two parents each reported reading over 30 books per week to their children. If the teacher wants to describe these data, which measure of central tendency would paint a misleading picture of at-home reading? a. the mode b. the median c. the mean d. the standard deviation ANSWER: c 147. The grade distribution of an "easy" course, in terms of overall percentage score (0–100), is BEST described by a: a. normal distribution with a large standard deviation. b. normal distribution with a small standard deviation. c. negatively skewed distribution. d. positively skewed distribution. ANSWER: c 148. Life expectancy, in which the majority of people live to old age but some people die young, is BEST described by a: a. normal distribution with a large standard deviation. b. normal distribution with a small standard deviation. c. negatively skewed distribution. d. positively skewed distribution. ANSWER: c 149. In a negatively skewed distribution, the peak of the distribution corresponds to which measurement(s)? a. the mode only b. the mean only c. the median only d. the mode, mean, and median ANSWER: a 150. In a positively skewed distribution, the peak of the distribution corresponds to which measurement(s)? a. the mode only b. the mean only c. the median only d. the mode, mean, and median Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 151. Which statement is true if scores on an examination are negatively skewed? a. The modal score is the same as the median score. b. The median score is greater than the mean score. c. The mean score is greater than the modal score. d. The peak of the frequency distribution corresponds to the mean score. ANSWER: b 152. Which statement is true if scores on an examination are positively skewed? a. The modal score is the same as the median score. b. The median score is greater than the mean score. c. The mean score is greater than the modal score. d. The peak of the frequency distribution corresponds to the mean score. ANSWER: c 153. The numerical difference between the smallest and largest measurements in a frequency distribution is the: a. mode. b. mean. c. median. d. range. ANSWER: d 154. Which descriptive statistic is a measure of variability? a. the mode b. the mean c. the median d. the range ANSWER: d 155. In the number sequence 4 5 2 2 7, what is the range? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 ANSWER: c 156. In the number sequence 4 4 1 4 7, what is the range? a. 1 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANSWER: d 157. The statistic that describes the distance between the highest score in a distribution and the lowest score in the distribution is the: a. standard deviation. b. mean. c. median. d. range. ANSWER: d 158. Studies have shown that men and women have the same mean intelligence (IQ) score but that men have a larger range and standard deviation of scores. Based on this information, which statement is true? a. IQ scores are not normally distributed in men or women. b. Men are more likely than women to have extremely low scores. c. On average, men have higher IQs than women. d. Women are more likely than men to have extremely high scores. ANSWER: b 159. Intelligence tends to be normally distributed, and studies have shown that men and women have the same mean intelligence (IQ) score. However, intelligence scores in women tend to have a smaller range and standard deviation than those in men. Based on this information, which statement is true? a. The modal score in men is greater than the modal score in women. b. The modal score in women is greater than the modal score in men. c. Men are more likely to have extremely low scores. d. Women are more likely to have extremely high scores. ANSWER: c 160. A property that can have more than one value is called a(n): a. variable. b. modifier. c. adaptation. d. outlier. ANSWER: a 161. Correlations detect: a. the power of a measure. b. patterns of variation in a series of measurements. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice c. patterns of selection in a varied population. d. sources of unsystematic error in a data set. ANSWER: b 162. A relationship between variables in which variations in the value of one variable are synchronized with variations in the value of the other is called: a. variance. b. power deviation. c. a correlation. d. an operational definition. ANSWER: c 163. The statement "Eating less spinach is associated with a shorter life span" is an example of: a. a correlation. b. a causal relationship. c. variation. d. an estimate. ANSWER: a 164. The statement "Class absences are associated with lower grades" is an example of a(n): a. correlation. b. causal relationship. c. normal distribution. d. experiment. ANSWER: a 165. A _____ correlation is associated with a more-is-more relationship. a. negative b. positive c. strong d. weak ANSWER: b 166. A _____ correlation is associated with a more-is-less relationship. a. negative b. positive c. strong d. weak ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 167. Which statement describes a negative correlation? a. Increased time working in a group is associated with higher grades on a group project. b. Increased time spent in class is associated with fewer hours studying outside of class. c. Increased time studying for an exam is associated with higher exam grades. d. Increased time engaging in psychology extracurriculars is associated with higher scores on a psychology comprehensive exam. ANSWER: b 168. Which statement describes a negative correlation? a. Stress levels decrease with increases in aerobic activity. b. Personal debt increases with increases in alcohol consumption. c. A greater time spent studying is associated with higher grades. d. People who make less eye contact have fewer friends. ANSWER: a 169. Increases in illegal drug use is associated with a higher risk of contracting HIV/AIDS. This is MOST clearly an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. an experiment. d. the double-blind technique. ANSWER: a 170. The less children watch violent television programming; the less aggressive children will tend to be. This is an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. cause and effect. d. an experiment. ANSWER: a 171. Increased life expectancy is associated with increased risk of degenerative disease. This is an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. cause and effect. d. an unreliable measure. ANSWER: a 172. Kids who watch excessive amounts of TV show reductions in gray matter in the brain. This is an example Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. cause and effect. d. an experiment. ANSWER: b 173. Which number represents the strongest correlation coefficient (r)? a. –0.9 b. 0.8 c. –0.5 d. 0 ANSWER: a 174. Which number represents the strongest correlation coefficient (r)? a. −0.65 b. 0.80 c. −0.30 d. 0.04 ANSWER: b 175. Which number represents the weakest correlation coefficient (r)? a. –0.7 b. 1.0 c. –0.2 d. .0 ANSWER: c 176. Which number represents the weakest correlation coefficient (r)? a. –0.7 b. 1.0 c. –0.5 d. 0.4 ANSWER: d 177. Which number represents the strongest correlation coefficient (r)? a. –0.4 b. 0.3 c. –0.2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice d. 2.0 ANSWER: a 178. Which number represents the weakest correlation coefficient (r)? a. –0.8 b. 0.1 c. –0.3 d. –2.0 ANSWER: b 179. A scatterplot of a perfect positive correlation would depict a(n): a. linear increasing function. b. linear decreasing function. c. linear horizontal function. d. absence of a linear relationship. ANSWER: a 180. A scatterplot of a perfect negative correlation would depict a(n): a. linear increasing function. b. linear decreasing function. c. linear horizontal function. d. absence of a linear relationship. ANSWER: b 181. Correlations observed in the world around us are termed: a. natural experiments. b. independent variables. c. case studies. d. natural correlations. ANSWER: d 182. Natural correlations are: a. correlations that can be observed under strict laboratory conditions. b. strong-to-perfect correlations. c. correlations observed in the real world. d. perfect correlations. ANSWER: c 183. What does the third-variable problem indicate? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. The three variables are all causally related to one another; each is a cause of the others. b. The correlation between any two of the variables must be established before another correlation can be computed. c. Two of the variables are correlated with each other only because each is causally related to a third variable. d. Changes in one variable are producing changes in another variable. ANSWER: c 184. Research has shown that there is a correlation between the amount of violence a child sees on TV and the aggressiveness of the child's behavior. One explanation of this correlation is that children who watch a great deal of violence on television have a lack of adult supervision. This explanation is an example of what kind of correlation? a. matched sample b. matched pair c. positive d. third-variable ANSWER: d 185. Fatima wants to study how ice cream consumption in a school cafeteria is related to aggressive playground behavior during recess. If she observes that ice cream consumption is positively correlated with aggressive behavior, she could conclude all EXCEPT which of these? a. Ice cream causes playground aggression in children. b. Kids who are aggressive on the playground eat more ice cream. c. Lack of supervision may underlie both ice cream consumption and aggressive playground behavior. d. Eating more ice cream would reduce playground aggression in children. ANSWER: d 186. An educational psychologist seeks to determine how studying duration is related to standardized test scores. The psychologist realizes that IQ is a possible third variable that could impact overall findings. What could be true of the results? a. IQ could underlie a relationship between studying duration and standardized test scores. b. Longer study duration causes higher standardized test scores. c. Higher IQ causes longer study duration. d. IQ definitively causes higher standardized test scores. ANSWER: a 187. Researchers have found that ADHD symptoms are correlated with more hours of TV watching per day in children. Based on this, which of these can NOT be concluded? a. TV watching causes ADHD symptoms in children. b. Parents of kids with ADHD turn on the TV more frequently to distract hyperactive kids. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice c. Parents of kids with ADHD may also have ADHD symptoms, resulting in greater use of TV in the home. d. Kids with ADHD may use TV viewing as a coping mechanism. ANSWER: a 188. What is the biggest limitation in natural correlation research? a. Natural correlations tell us nothing about the relationship between two variables. b. A causal relationship cannot be inferred. c. Natural correlations have no predictive power. d. Most of the time, natural correlations are too complicated to determine. ANSWER: b 189. Correlation is to _____ as experimentation is to _____. a. measurement of variables; manipulation of variables b. single variables; multiple variables c. manipulation of variables; measurement of variables d. unobtrusiveness; correlation ANSWER: a 190. What is the main advantage of experimentation over correlation in determining causal relationships? a. Experimentation offers the possibility of controlling for all potential third variables at once. b. Experimentation involves multiple variables, whereas correlation involves only two variables. c. Experimentation systematically controls third variables one at a time, in sequence. d. Experimentation uses the matched pairs and matched samples techniques to control for specific third variables. ANSWER: a 191. What are the two key features to an experiment? a. manipulation and random assignment b. manipulation and correlation c. random assignment and correlation d. manipulation and predictability ANSWER: a 192. Manipulation and random assignment are two key features of: a. naturalistic observation. b. matched-samples correlational designs. c. an experiment. d. natural correlations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 193. What is the only way to determine a causal relationship between two variables? a. observation b. correlation c. measurement d. experimentation ANSWER: d 194. If Dr. Fung wants to determine whether cocaine increases hyperactivity, what research strategy should be used? a. experiment b. natural correlation c. matched-pairs correlation d. case study method ANSWER: a 195. If an investigator wants to determine if playing violent video games causes aggression, what research strategy should be used? a. naturalistic observation b. natural correlation c. matched-pairs correlation d. experiment ANSWER: d 196. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the aggressiveness in the children. The fact that the researchers arranged for some children to watch violence on television and others to not is an example of: a. variability. b. the third-variable problem. c. correlation. d. manipulation. ANSWER: d 197. In an experiment conducted to determine the effects of alcohol on driving behavior, researchers administered varying amounts of alcohol to each participant before asking them to use a driving simulator. In this experiment, the amount of alcohol is: a. positively correlated. b. the third-variable problem. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice c. negatively correlated. d. manipulated. ANSWER: d 198. What does the term manipulation mean in the context of performing an experiment? a. the ability to design an experiment so that participants react in certain predetermined ways b. the ability to change a variable in order to determine its causal powers c. the ability to hold constant third variables d. the ability to control the responses of research participants ANSWER: b 199. In the context of an experiment, the variable that is manipulated is termed the _____ variable. a. independent b. dependent c. third d. predictor ANSWER: a 200. In the context of an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that is: a. eliminated. b. held constant. c. manipulated. d. measured. ANSWER: c 201. In the context of an experiment, the variable that is measured is termed the _____ variable. a. independent b. dependent c. third d. predictor ANSWER: b 202. In the context of an experiment, the dependent variable is the variable that is: a. eliminated. b. held constant. c. manipulated. d. measured. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 203. In the context of an experiment, participants in the group we use to determine causation: a. are exposed to a third variable. b. behave as they normally would. c. receive a particular manipulation. d. are not treated differently from any other participants. ANSWER: c 204. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What is/are the independent variable(s)? a. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month b. the amount of violence watched on television c. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month and the amount of violence watched on television d. the children ANSWER: b 205. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What is/are the dependent variable(s)? a. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month b. the amount of violence watched on television c. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month and the amount of violence watched on television d. the children ANSWER: a 206. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What were the children who were exposed to violent television? a. the group they used to get the baseline measurement from b. the group who received no treatment c. the group who received the manipulation of the dependent variable d. the group who received the manipulation of the independent variable ANSWER: d 207. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What were the children who were NOT exposed to any violence on television? a. the group who receive the third variable b. the group who received the manipulation of the dependent variable Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice c. the group who received no manipulation d. the group who received the manipulation of the independent variable ANSWER: c 208. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. What is the independent variable? a. the number of items recalled b. the noise level during the encoding task c. the time interval between encoding and recall d. the probability of being assigned to the two groups ANSWER: b 209. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. What is the dependent variable? a. the number of items recalled b. the noise level during the encoding task c. the time interval between encoding and recall d. the probability of being assigned to the two groups ANSWER: a 210. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. In this example the memory test is the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. third variable. d. confounding variable. ANSWER: b 211. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. In this example the noise is the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. third variable. d. confounding variable. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 212. Researchers wanted to see if adults were actually afraid of the dark by exposing them to different levels of light in a room while measuring their heart rates. In this experiment, heart rate is both the _____ and the _____. a. experimental group; dependent variable b. operational definition of fear; independent variable c. experimental group; independent variable d. operational definition of fear; dependent variable ANSWER: d 213. Researchers wanted to see if adults were actually afraid of the dark by exposing them to different levels of light in a room while measuring their heart rates. In this experiment, what are the different levels of light? a. the dependent variable b. the independent variable c. the third variable d. the confounding variable ANSWER: b 214. Researchers wanted to see if adults were actually afraid of the dark by exposing them to different levels of light in a room while measuring their heart rates. In this experiment, what are the heart rates of the participants? a. the dependent variable b. the independent variable c. the third variable d. the confounding variable ANSWER: a 215. When one manipulates an independent variable, at least how many groups are created? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 216. When the _____ variable is manipulated, at least _____ group(s) is/are created. a. dependent; one b. dependent; two c. independent; one d. independent; two ANSWER: d 217. Researchers wanted to see if listening to calm music would reduce heart rates. Half of the research Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice participants sat quietly and listened to calm music, and the other half sat quietly and listened to no music at all. In this example, listening to calm music is the: a. dependent variable. b. independent variable. c. third variable. d. confounding variable. ANSWER: b 218. Researchers wanted to see if listening to calm music would reduce heart rates. Half of the research participants sat quietly and listened to calm music, and the other half sat quietly and listened to no music at all. In this example, heart rate is the: a. dependent variable. b. independent variable. c. third variable. d. confounding variable. ANSWER: a 219. A researcher wants to assess the effects of varying amounts of marijuana on reaction time. Three groups of people are given a low, moderate, or high dose of the drug. A fourth group is given an inactive dose. After consuming their dose, each participant completes a reaction time task. In this experiment, the independent variable is: a. the number of groups. b. the drug dose. c. the reaction time task. d. reaction time. ANSWER: b 220. A researcher wants to assess the effects of varying amounts of marijuana on reaction time. Three groups of people are given a low, moderate, or high dose of the drug. A fourth group is given an inactive dose. After consuming their dose, each participant completes a reaction time task. In this experiment, the dependent variable is: a. the number of groups. b. the drug dose. c. the reaction time task. d. reaction time. ANSWER: d 221. Seamus wants to see if room size affects happiness. He invites participants to the laboratory, where half are seated for 20 minutes in a small booth, and the other half are seated for 20 minutes in a booth that is twice the size but otherwise identical. Seamus then asks members of each group to rate their level of happiness. What is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice the independent variable in this experiment? a. the number of participants b. the elapsed time c. the size of the booths d. the rating of happiness ANSWER: c 222. Seamus wants to see if room size affects happiness. He invites participants to the laboratory, where half are seated for 20 minutes in a small booth, and the other half are seated for 20 minutes in a booth that is twice the size but otherwise identical. Seamus then asks members of each group to rate their level of happiness. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. the number of participants b. the elapsed time c. the size of the booths d. the rating of happiness ANSWER: d 223. Bydale Health has developed a new cancer-fighting drug. The company tests the effectiveness of the drug by conducting research using people of all age groups. The participants are segregated into groups, and each group is given a different dosage of the same drug. In this scenario, the dependent variable is the: a. progression of the disease. b. amount of money spent in developing the drug. c. number of participants in each group. d. dosage of the drug received by the first group. ANSWER: a 224. Which statement is a conclusion based on the systematic observation that children who watch televised aggression act violently? a. There is no third-variable problem in this line of research. b. Exposure to televised aggression is an independent variable. c. Exposure to televised aggression is a dependent variable. d. Exposure to televised aggression and aggression levels of children are positively correlated. ANSWER: d 225. _____ occurs when anything about a participant determines the value of the independent variable to which the participant was exposed. a. Self-selection b. Random assignment c. Informed consent d. Random sampling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 226. What is the major problem associated with self-selection as a way to assign participants to the varying levels of the independent variable? a. The treatment necessarily will work in the experimental group because those participants are especially motivated. b. The two groups probably will differ on many variables in addition to whether they received the treatment. c. Self-selection violates the requirement for informed consent. d. Self-selection prevents the manipulation of the independent variable and measurement of the dependent variable. ANSWER: b 227. _____ occurs when participants are assigned to the conditions by chance. a. Self-selection b. Random assignment c. Double-blind experimentation d. Random sampling ANSWER: b 228. Random assignment involves randomly: a. selecting participants for inclusion into the experiment. b. determining which variable will be manipulated and which will be measured. c. determining how many levels of the independent variable will be investigated. d. placing participants into the different treatments of the experiments. ANSWER: d 229. Sachiko wants to see if watching movies helps people relax. She asks 100 participants to come to the laboratory, and as they walk in, she asks each person if they'd like to watch a movie or sit in a silent room. Based on what they've chosen, participants then spend an hour watching a movie or sitting in silence while Sachiko assesses states of alertness and relaxation. What's wrong with this experiment? a. She didn't choose an independent variable. b. She didn't measure a dependent variable. c. She didn't randomly assign participants to the level of the independent variable. d. She didn't expose participants to both movie and silent conditions. ANSWER: c 230. Jennifer wants to see if the color of the testing room causes test anxiety. She asks 100 participants to come to a modified classroom, and as they walk in, she asks each person to choose either a testing cubicle painted bright red, or a testing cubicle painted off white. On the basis of their choices, participants spend 20 minutes in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice one or the other cubicle solving challenging math problems. Then they complete a survey asking them questions about how anxious they were during the math test. What's wrong with Jennifer's experiment? a. She didn't choose an independent variable. b. She didn't measure a dependent variable. c. She didn't randomly assign participants to the varying levels of the independent variable. d. She didn't expose participants to both colors. ANSWER: c 231. Which method does NOT use random assignment to assign participants to groups? a. basing group assignment on a coin flip b. basing group assignment on a dice roll c. basing group assignment on the outcome of a random number generator d. basing group assignment on the order in which participants arrive to be studied ANSWER: d 232. Valentina wants to examine whether taking practice quizzes before an exam increases exam scores. She considers several methods for assigning groups. Which method does NOT use random assignment to assign participants to groups? a. basing group assignment on a coin flip b. basing group assignment on a dice roll c. basing group assignment on the outcome of a random number generator d. basing group assignment on which psychology class they are currently taking ANSWER: d 233. Random assignment to groups helps ensure that: a. demand characteristics in each group are minimized. b. an independent variable is manipulated in each group. c. groups do not differ on variables not of interest. d. a correlation does not exist between the independent and dependent variables. ANSWER: c 234. Williams and Ceci (2015) sought to determine if gender biases exist in academic hiring practices. They studied almost 1,000 professors in a mock hiring situation in which each professor read the files of several job applicants and then rank-ordered the applicants in terms of most-to-least qualified. What the professors did not know was that the gender of the job applicants was randomly assigned to the professors. That is, if one professor read that job applicant A was a woman, another professor read that the same job applicant A was a man. As a result, an average rating of each applicant could be compared when that applicant was presented as a man and as a woman. In this study, what is the dependent variable? a. the number of professors b. the rank-order Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice c. the gender of the applicants d. the number of applicants ANSWER: b 235. Williams and Ceci (2015) sought to determine if gender biases exist in academic hiring practices. They studied almost 1,000 professors in a mock hiring situation in which each professor read the files of several job applicants and then rank-ordered the applicants in terms of most-to-least qualified. What the professors did not know was that the gender of the job applicants was randomly assigned to the professors. That is, if one professor read that job applicant A was a woman, another professor read that the same job applicant A was a man. As a result, an average rating of each applicant could be compared when that applicant was presented as a man and as a woman. In this study, what is the independent variable? a. the number of professors b. the rank-order c. the gender of the applicants d. the number of applicants ANSWER: c 236. Muller and Schwarz (2018) found a correlation between the number of hate crimes and hate posts on Facebook. They were able to find evidence that increased numbers of hate posts caused hate crimes because: a. there was no third variable that affected both hate posts and hate crimes. b. the hate posts occurred before the hate crimes. c. Facebook service was randomly and intermittently interrupted. d. correlational research always reveals causation. ANSWER: c 237. Muller and Schwarz (2018) examined the relationship between hate crimes and hate posts on Facebook. The main conclusion of their research was: a. hate posts on Facebook motivated real-life hate crime. b. hate crimes occurred before hate posts. c. hate posts and hate crimes are not correlated. d. there are no third variables underlying both hate posts and hate crimes. ANSWER: a 238. When random assignment fails to create equivalent groups, the problem of _____ occurs. a. sampling error b. self-selection c. third variables d. external validity ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 239. Experiments do not adequately control for third variables when: a. participants are not randomly selected for study. b. not enough levels of the independent variable are studied. c. the manipulation actually causes changes in the dependent variable. d. random assignment fails to create equivalent groups. ANSWER: d 240. If differences between the groups in an experiment are obtained, and the odds are acceptably low that random assignment hasn't failed in an experiment, the results of the experiment are said to: a. be reliable. b. have internal validity. c. be statistically significant. d. have external validity. ANSWER: c 241. Statistical significance is achieved if the odds of obtaining the same results by dumb luck are less than: a. 1%. b. 2%. c. 5%. d. 10%. ANSWER: c 242. A result is said to be statistically significant if the odds that random assignment has failed in an experiment is less than: a. 2%. b. 5%. c. 10%. d. 25%. ANSWER: b 243. A p-value stands for: a. a measure of central tendency. b. a measure of variability. c. the probability that differences are due to dumb luck. d. the probability that differences are truly real. ANSWER: c 244. The experimental and control groups differ on the dependent measure. Which result of an inferential statistic would indicate a statistically significant result? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. p > 0.5 b. p < 0.5 c. p > 0.05 d. p < 0.05 ANSWER: d 245. The characteristic of an experiment that establishes the causal relationship between variables is termed: a. power. b. reliability. c. internal validity. d. external validity. ANSWER: c 246. If an experiment is internally valid, then one can infer that: a. manipulating the independent variable caused the changes in the dependent variable. b. the independent and dependent variables were correlated but not necessarily causally related. c. the variables were defined optimally in terms of validity. d. the same results would be obtained if we replicated the experiment in a different population. ANSWER: a 247. In a class of 35 students, the odds that two people in the group share a birthday are: a. 2%. b. 10%. c. 20%. d. 85%. ANSWER: d 248. People routinely _____ the likelihood of coincidences happening by chance. a. underestimate b. overestimate c. fail to guess d. guess accurately ANSWER: a 249. External validity means that: a. an experiment used reliable measures of the independent variable. b. a correlation was established between an independent and a dependent variable. c. an experiment has been verified by a group of scientists not associated with the study. d. the variables in an experiment have been defined in a normal, typical, or realistic way. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 250. The closer an experiment is to arranging circumstances similar to the real world, the more psychologists can claim it has: a. internal validity. b. external validity. c. reliability. d. statistical significance. ANSWER: b 251. Most experiments in psychology lack: a. external validity. b. internal validity. c. randomization. d. manipulation. ANSWER: a 252. Externally invalid experiments are not problematic when the goal of the research is to: a. model a real-world phenomenon. b. generalize research findings to different cultures. c. make naturalistic observations. d. test hypotheses derived from theories. ANSWER: d 253. The chair of the psychology department wants to determine the average GPA of all psychology majors at the college. They compile a list of the GPAs of all the psychology majors and calculate the average. The chairperson is working with data from a(n): a. experiment. b. population. c. sample. d. case study. ANSWER: b 254. The chair of the psychology department wants to determine the average GPA of all the psychology majors in the United States. The chairperson randomly selects 50 colleges and universities and compiles a list of the GPAs of all the psychology majors at those institutions. This list represents a: a. study group. b. population. c. sample. d. case study. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 255. The size of the population is signified by which symbol? a. n b. N c. p d. P ANSWER: b 256. The size of the sample is signified by which symbol? a. n b. N c. s d. S ANSWER: a 257. Dr. Sardonicus learned of a woman whose tongue turned a bright shade of green whenever she felt stressed. Although this is a rare event in the general population, Dr. Sardonicus nonetheless interviewed the woman at great length and made detailed observations about her behavior. Dr. Sardonicus used _____ to gather data. a. naturalistic observation b. the case method c. random sampling d. the law of large numbers ANSWER: b 258. A psychologist who studies memory processes by investigating the remarkable ability of Akira Haraguchi to accurately recite pi to 100,000 digits is using: a. experimentation. b. the case method. c. self-selection. d. the double-blind technique. ANSWER: b 259. The phrase "n = 1" means that: a. the results are not statistically significant. b. there is a perfect correlation between two variables. c. there is only one participant in the study. d. there is only one independent variable. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 260. Which mathematical expression distinguishes the case method from other types of research? a. n > N b. N > n c. n = 1 d. N < 0.05 ANSWER: c 261. When every member of a population has an equal chance of being included in a sample, what sampling process is being used? a. reliability sampling b. random assignment c. random sampling d. convenience sampling ANSWER: c 262. When every member of a population has an equal chance of being included in a sample, the sample is said to be _____ the population. a. representative of b. replicable to c. statistically significant to d. internally valid to ANSWER: a 263. Random sampling allows psychologists to _____ the sample to the population. a. infer causation from b. compare c. generalize from d. remove third variables from ANSWER: c 264. Random _____ allows psychologists to generalize from the _____ to the _____. a. sampling; population; sample b. sampling; sample; population c. assignment; population; sample d. assignment; sample; population ANSWER: b 265. Which statement accurately summarizes the way psychologists gather research participants? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. Psychologists usually use random samples of the population. b. Psychologists typically use volunteers, often drawn from a college population. c. Psychologists typically select participants at random from the phone book. d. Psychologists select only those participants who outwardly appear to be of average intelligence. ANSWER: b 266. Psychologists usually select participants for study based on: a. convenience. b. random sampling. c. random assignment. d. matched pairs. ANSWER: a 267. Terry is interested in whether it is possible for a person to hold more than seven items in working memory at a time. Terry measures memory storage in volunteers who sign up for the study. What rationale would Terry give for NOT using random sampling? a. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample does not matter. b. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample cannot be determined. c. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample can be determined. d. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample is best determined by nonrandom sampling. ANSWER: a 268. If researchers are interested in whether it is physically possible for a person to have a reaction time less than 0.05 sec, what rationale would the researchers give for not using random sampling? a. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample does not matter. b. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample cannot be determined. c. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample can be determined. d. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample is best determined by nonrandom sampling. ANSWER: a 269. If researchers measure how some North American children behave after playing a violent video game for 2 hours and then replicate the experiment with Asian, European, and African children and then with teenagers, the researchers would be using which justification of nonrandom sampling? a. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample does not matter. b. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample is the cause of the effect. c. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample cannot be determined. d. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample can be assumed. ANSWER: d 270. If researchers are interested in the average time it takes to press a button when a green light flashes on a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice screen, and they simply measure the reaction times of volunteers who sign up for the study, what rationale would the researchers give for not using random sampling? a. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample does not matter. b. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample cannot be determined. c. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample can be determined. d. Sometimes the representativeness of a sample can be assumed. ANSWER: d 271. The generality of a study's results can be empirically determined in a(n): a. natural correlation. b. experimental design. c. case method. d. direct replication with a new sample. ANSWER: d 272. A _____ is an experiment that uses the same procedures as a previous experiment but with a new sample from the same population. a. replication b. repetition c. case method d. natural correlation ANSWER: a 273. In a replication, which of these is different from the experiment that is being replicated? a. procedure b. sample c. population d. method ANSWER: b 274. A Type I error occurs when researchers conclude that there is: a. a causal relationship between two variables. b. a causal relationship between two variables when there is none. c. a third variable problem. d. no causal relationship between two variables. ANSWER: b 275. A Type II error occurs when researchers conclude that there is: a. a causal relationship between two variables. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. a causal relationship between two variables when there is none. c. a third variable problem. d. no causal relationship between two variables when in fact there is. ANSWER: d 276. The scientific method was first formalized by: a. Newton. b. Galileo. c. Bacon. d. Descartes. ANSWER: c 277. Which statement about critical thinking is true? a. Humans have a natural tendency to evaluate evidence critically. b. Courses designed to increase critical thinking usually are effective. c. Decisions based on empirical data necessarily involve critical thinking. d. Thought patterns that have been evolutionary adaptive often interfere with the ability to critically evaluate evidence. ANSWER: d 278. Humans have a natural tendency to: a. notice evidence that is inconsistent with their beliefs. b. ignore what we can't see. c. engage in critical thinking as a default cognitive strategy. d. give undue importance to events that are contrary to their wishes or desires. ANSWER: b 279. Darley and Gross (1983) showed participants a video of a girl taking a reading test. They then asked participants to rate the girl's academic ability. These researchers found that participants rated her academic ability higher if they thought that she: a. was from an affluent family. b. was from an extremely religious family. c. had struggled to overcome her family's poverty. d. was 10 years of age instead of 12 years of age. ANSWER: a 280. Darley and Gross (1983) showed participants a video of a girl taking a reading test. Some participants were told that the girl was from an affluent family and others were told that she was from a poor family. Then participants were asked to rank the girl's academic abilities. Which statement regarding the findings of this experiment is true? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. Ratings were unaffected by knowledge of the girl's socioeconomic status as long as she was dressed similarly in both videos. b. Ratings were unaffected by knowledge of the girl's socioeconomic status as long as the girl performed equally well on the reading test in both videos. c. Ratings were higher if they thought the girl was affluent relative to poor, but participants could not justify these ratings with evidence from the video. d. Ratings were higher if they thought the girl was affluent relative to poor and participants could justify these ratings with evidence from the video. ANSWER: d 281. Participants in one study (Lord, Ross, & Lepper, 1979) were first asked about their beliefs regarding the death penalty, and then they were provided with evidence both for and against it. After studying these materials, beliefs about the death penalty were reassessed. This study found that participants: a. reported that their original beliefs were weakened after evaluating arguments on both sides of the debate. b. were more likely to favor the death penalty, regardless of their original beliefs. c. were more likely to oppose the death penalty, regardless of their original beliefs. d. reported that their original beliefs were strengthened after evaluating arguments on both sides of the debate. ANSWER: d 282. Suppose that a local government is considering a construction project that will cost taxpayers a large amount of money. Residents have strong views on both sides of the debate. In an attempt to educate the public, the city arranges several informational sessions in which the pros and cons of the project are discussed. Which result is consistent with the psychological literature? a. Residents' original attitudes toward the project would be strengthened by attending the informational sessions. b. Residents' original attitudes toward the project would be weakened slightly by attending the informational sessions. c. The majority of the residents would change their minds after hearing evidence on both sides of the debate. d. The informational sessions would have no effect whatsoever on residents' attitudes toward the project. ANSWER: a 283. College administrators are presented with mixed evidence that a recent initiative to increase first-year success among its students is effective. Based on results from the psychological literature, the administrators probably will decide to: a. discontinue the program in the absence of clear evidence of effectiveness. b. reduce funding for the program as a result of the ambiguous evidence. c. continue to fund the program fully for one additional year with the intent to discontinue the program Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice if the data next year are inconclusive. d. continue to fund the program as a result of perceived encouraging evidence of effectiveness. ANSWER: d 284. People are more critical of new evidence that is: a. consistent with common sense. b. consistent with their attitudes or beliefs. c. inconsistent with their attitudes or beliefs. d. presented using emotionally charged language. ANSWER: c 285. When presented with information that is inconsistent with their attitudes or beliefs, people generally ask themselves which question? a. Is there any evidence here that would make me reconsider my opinion? b. Is this evidence stronger than the evidence consistent with my beliefs? c. What would be the social repercussions if I change my mind on this issue? d. Is this information flawed or limited in some way? ANSWER: d 286. Consistent with psychological research, politicians tend to surround themselves with advisors who: a. like to play devil's advocate and challenge the politicians' beliefs on policy issues. b. validate the politicians' beliefs on most policy issues. c. present both sides of a policy issue in a fair and balanced way. d. spend more time objectively considering evidence that opposes the politicians' beliefs. ANSWER: b 287. Jeff must find four sources for a term paper he is writing on corporal punishment (e.g., spanking). Jeff's family spanked him when he misbehaved as a child, and Jeff believes that it is a useful behavioral modification technique. If Jeff is like most people, he probably will: a. find four studies suggesting that corporal punishment is effective and relatively harmless. b. find four studies suggesting that corporal punishment is dangerous but then attempt to discredit this research. c. review two studies on each side of the debate in a fair and balanced way. d. change his mind once he has reviewed the evidence on both sides of the debate. ANSWER: a 288. April must find four sources for a term paper she is writing on the effectiveness of public assistance such as welfare in combating poverty. April tends to oppose welfare on philosophical grounds. April probably will: a. summarize four studies suggesting that welfare is actually effective in order to consciously guard against her known biases. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. find four studies suggesting that welfare is effective but then attempt to discredit this research. c. review two studies on each side of the debate in a fair and balanced way. d. summarize four studies suggesting that welfare is ineffective at combating poverty. ANSWER: d 289. Which statement about the role of missing evidence in decision making is true? a. People have a natural tendency to seek out informational gaps in order to arrive at the best possible decision. b. People usually overvalue the importance of missing evidence. c. People usually ignore missing evidence. d. People have a strong tendency to actively seek missing information if what is missing would challenge their existing beliefs. ANSWER: c 290. The public is excited about a new cancer-fighting drug that has saved the lives of over 1,000 people diagnosed with terminal cancer in just the past year. People may misjudge the effectiveness of the drug, primarily because they rarely ask which question? a. Does the expense of the drug make its use impractical? b. What are the side effects of the drug? c. Is the drug more effective than not obtaining any treatment? d. How many people took the drug and nevertheless died? ANSWER: d 291. The public gets suckered into buying the latest weight-loss supplement from television infomercials featuring many testimonials that the supplement is effective, precisely because they rarely consider which question? a. How expensive will this supplement be to use long term? b. Do the side effects of the supplement outweigh the weight-loss benefits? c. How many people have taken the supplement and not lost weight? d. Is the supplement more effective than diet and exercise? ANSWER: c 292. According to the textbook, the first rule of critical thinking is to: a. be skeptical of everything. b. trust only what you observe. c. doubt what you do see. d. believe information published in scientific journals. ANSWER: c 293. Doubting one's own conclusions is: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. inconsistent with the scientific method. b. a vital component of critical thinking. c. an adaptive psychological tendency that results from our evolutionary past. d. a maladaptive pattern of thinking that is taught to us at an early age. ANSWER: b 294. In order to develop your critical thinking skills, you should: a. try to avoid being skeptical of new evidence. b. surround yourself with people who do not share your views. c. believe everything published in quality scientific journals. d. not base decisions on missing evidence. ANSWER: b 295. According to the textbook, the second rule of critical thinking is to: a. be skeptical of everything. b. trust only what you observe. c. consider what you don't see. d. believe information published in scientific journals. ANSWER: c 296. A psychologist discovers important research findings in their laboratory that is seemingly inconsistent with what other researchers have found. The psychologist's new results have profound implications to our understanding of human behavior. If the psychologist is critically thinking, they should first: a. critically evaluate previous research looking for flaws. b. attempt to replicate their own findings and rule out alternative explanations for their results. c. consider how general their findings are to people living in other cultures. d. contact the press and begin publicizing the findings. ANSWER: b 297. An archaeologist discovers new evidence suggesting humans inhabited a particular area long before it was originally believed. If the archaeologist is critically thinking, they should first: a. critically evaluate the work of other archaeologists who argue the opposite. b. contact their professional colleagues who share their views and spread the good news. c. conduct additional tests on the evidence in an attempt to falsify their results. d. contact the press and begin publicizing the findings. ANSWER: c 298. An archaeologist discovers new evidence suggesting humans inhabited a particular area long before it was originally believed. Because these results are so novel, if the archaeologist is critically thinking, they should first: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. critically evaluate the work of other archaeologists who argue the opposite. b. contact archaeologists who oppose this viewpoint and ask them to evaluate the evidence. c. begin writing a book on their findings. d. contact the press and begin publicizing the findings. ANSWER: b 299. An archaeologist discovers new evidence suggesting humans inhabited a particular area long before it was originally believed. Because these results are so novel, if the archaeologist is critically thinking, they should first: a. critically evaluate the work of other archaeologists who argue the opposite. b. contact archaeologists who share these views and ask them to evaluate the evidence. c. begin writing a book on the findings. d. look for additional evidence that may still be missing that humans inhabited the area. ANSWER: d 300. The APA Code of Ethics does NOT mandate that psychologists must respect: a. theory. b. people. c. animals. d. the truth. ANSWER: a 301. Which ethical code was developed as a reaction to Nazi atrocities during World War II? a. the Nuremberg Code b. the Belmont Report c. the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. the APA Code of Ethics ANSWER: a 302. From 1932 to 1972, the U.S. government conducted the Tuskegee experiment, an example of unethical research in which Black men were denied treatment for _____ in order to study the time course of the disease. a. cancer b. syphilis c. schizophrenia d. high blood pressure ANSWER: b 303. Which statement is NOT one of the three features of ethical scientific research as described by the Belmont Report? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. The research has practical value. b. The research respects people. c. The research is beneficent. d. The research is just. ANSWER: a 304. The term beneficent means that: a. risks and benefits should be distributed fairly to participants. b. participants should not be exposed to risk. c. researchers should attempt to maximize the benefits and minimize the risks of their research. d. researchers obtain an informed consent from participants. ANSWER: c 305. A social psychologist is constantly evaluating their program of research to make sure that the benefits of the research in terms of knowledge about human behavior outweigh the risks associated with mild deception. The psychologist is evaluating whether their research is: a. externally valid. b. beneficent. c. just. d. respecting persons. ANSWER: b 306. An educational psychologist is constantly evaluating their program of research to make sure that the benefits of the research in terms of insight into effective educational practices outweigh the risks associated with sometimes studying an ineffective teaching technique. The psychologist is evaluating whether their research is: a. externally valid. b. beneficent. c. just. d. respecting persons. ANSWER: b 307. As a feature of ethical research, the term just refers to which statement? a. Risks and benefits should be distributed fairly to participants. b. Deception should not be used. c. Researchers should attempt to maximize the benefits and minimize the risks to participants. d. Researchers should obtain an informed consent from participants. ANSWER: a 308. An educational psychologist is interested in comparing two educational techniques in a sample of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice preschool children. In part because they believe that one technique might be more effective than the other, children are randomly assigned to the two techniques so that every child has the same opportunity to be assigned to the more effective technique. Randomly assigning students to groups satisfies which feature of ethical research? a. external validity b. beneficence c. being just d. respecting persons ANSWER: c 309. A psychiatrist is interested in comparing two different drugs to treat depression in a sample of patients. Because the drugs may differ both in terms of their effectiveness and in terms of side effects, patients are randomly assigned to the two drug conditions. Randomly assigning patients to groups satisfies which feature of ethical research? a. external validity b. beneficence c. being just d. respecting people ANSWER: c 310. Participants in psychological research are free to end their participation at any time, with no threat of retribution or punishment. This freedom is consistent with which feature of ethical research? a. external validity b. beneficence c. being just d. respecting people ANSWER: d 311. It is unethical to coerce people into participating in research, even if the research is ultimately beneficial, because doing so violates which feature of ethical research? a. external validity b. beneficence c. being just d. respecting people ANSWER: d 312. Informed consent: a. must be obtained before individuals participate in an experiment. b. is strongly recommended but not mandatory for individuals participating in an experiment. c. is not necessary unless painful stimuli are involved. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice d. is mandatory only for participants over 18 years of age. ANSWER: a 313. The ethical principle of _____ means that research participants are given enough information about a study to make a reasonable decision about whether to participate. a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm ANSWER: b 314. Jill decides to participate in research studies conducted by professors in the psychology department. Before a study begins, she is given what looks like a contract that describes the study, as well as the risks and benefits of participating. This describes: a. debriefing. b. informed consent. c. demand characteristics. d. research instructions. ANSWER: b 315. An instructor makes it clear to their psychology students that if they do not participate in the instructor's research, they will receive a failing grade. What ethical principle has the instructor violated? a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm ANSWER: a 316. If there are two different research methodologies that both would answer a particular research question, psychologists are obligated to use whichever methodology minimizes risk to participants. This illustrates which ethical principle? a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm ANSWER: d 317. According to the American Psychological Association (APA) Code of Ethics, which statement about riskbenefit analysis is true? a. Participants may not be asked to take small risks. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. Participants may be asked to accept large risks. c. Participants may not be asked to accept large risks. d. Participants may not be asked to take any risks. ANSWER: c 318. Which statement regarding deception in psychological research is true? a. Deception cannot be used. b. Deception is a standard practice to minimize demand characteristics and does not need to be justified. c. Deception cannot be used if it puts participants at risk of harm or pain. d. Deception involving exposure to harm or pain is a justified risk only if debriefing is provided. ANSWER: c 319. Which statement regarding deception in psychological research is true? a. Deception cannot be used. b. Deception is a standard practice to minimize demand characteristics and does not need to be justified. c. Deception can be used only when alternative procedures are not available, and the study has applied or scientific value. d. Deception can be used anytime it results in answers to an important scientific question. ANSWER: c 320. As part of her course requirements, Rosa participates in research studies conducted by professors. After she participates, she is fully informed about the nature of the study. This describes: a. debriefing. b. informed consent. c. demand characteristics. d. risk-benefit analysis. ANSWER: a 321. As part of her course requirements, Lei participates in research studies conducted by professors. After she participates, she is debriefed, during which: a. researchers attempt to put her in a good mood prior to her leaving the study. b. she is informed if the scientific merits learned from her participation outweigh her right to confidentiality. c. she is told the true purpose of the study and an attempt is made to undo any emotional changes that occurred as a result of her participation. d. she is informed of both the risks and the benefits of participating in the research. ANSWER: c 322. The ethical principle of _____ is related to participants being told the true purpose and nature of an experiment after it is over. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice a. informed consent b. debriefing c. protection from harm d. freedom from coercion ANSWER: b 323. Which statement about divulging the true purpose of an experiment is true? a. The psychologist need not divulge the true purpose of an experiment. b. The psychologist must divulge the true purpose of the experiment before the subject participates. c. The psychologist must divulge the true purpose of the experiment only after it has been published. d. The psychologist must divulge the true purpose of the experiment after the person participates. ANSWER: d 324. How is the psychological code of ethics as it pertains to respecting people enforced? a. by the honor system (self-regulation) b. by institutional review boards c. by international inspectors from the UN task force on human rights d. through the tenure and promotion system at colleges and universities ANSWER: b 325. Which statement about an institutional review board is false? a. It is a U.S. federal agency that monitors research with humans. b. The board must contain at least one nonscientist. c. The board must contain at least one person not affiliated with the institution. d. It is permissible for the board to contain researchers. ANSWER: a 326. Which statement about the use of animals in psychological research is false? a. Psychologists must make reasonable efforts to minimize distress to animals. b. Psychologists must not expose animals to painful stimuli. c. Surgical procedures should be conducted by qualified personnel, and animals must be under appropriate anesthesia. d. All research involving animals must be supervised by psychologists who are trained in research methods and the care and use of animals in research. ANSWER: b 327. Which statement about the use of animals in psychological research is true? a. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals approves of the use of animals in psychological research. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. Most research in psychology involves the use of animals. c. Animals in psychological research may be exposed to painful stimuli if there is no other way to conduct the research and there is a strong justification for the research. d. The American Psychological Association is against the use of animals in psychological research. ANSWER: c 328. The ethical analysis and reporting of scientific results is regulated by: a. federal grant agency systems. b. national review boards (NRBs). c. institutional review boards (IRBs). d. the honor system. ANSWER: d 329. Institutional review boards ensure that data are ethically: a. collected. b. analyzed. c. interpreted. d. published. ANSWER: a 330. Which authority is charged with ensuring that the research claims made by scientists respect the truth? a. institutional review boards b. state and federal legislatures c. ultimately, the U.S. Supreme Court d. no one ANSWER: d 331. The psychologist Diederik Stapel published fraudulent research results for decades before his deception was uncovered. When caught, Stapel was: a. fired from his academic position and had his publications retracted. b. verbally warned to stop engaging in fraudulent behavior; no further action was taken due to a lack of an enforcement agency. c. forced to retract those publications in which fraudulent data appeared but allowed to keep his academic position. d. fired and sent to prison for 5 years for his fraudulent activities. ANSWER: a 332. Which scenario constitutes fabricating the results of a research study? a. purposely making a computational "mistake" in order to yield favorable statistical results Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Multiple Choice b. suppressing the results of a participant in order to produce a favorable research outcome c. rounding data in such a way to produce a statistically desirable outcome d. generating fake data to go along with a fictitious study never conducted ANSWER: d 333. David engages in unethical research practices and changes the result of a statistical test from an otherwise ethically conducted study. David is engaged in: a. data fabrication. b. data falsification involving fudging the results. c. suppressing data inconsistent with the study's goals. d. willfully ignoring principles of beneficence and justness. ANSWER: b

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TB6 Chapter 2 Scenario Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

1. (Scenario 2.1) Figure 2.1 illustrates a _____ correlation between variables A and B. a. moderate positive b. moderate negative c. perfect positive d. perfect negative ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 2.1) Which value is MOST likely to be the correlation coefficient (r) between variables A and B? a. −0.7 b. −0.2 c. +0.8 d. −1.5 ANSWER: a 3. (Scenario 2.1) Which pair is MOST likely to represent variables A and B? a. height and weight b. depression level and anxiety level c. intelligence quotient and income d. absences in course and score on final exam Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Scenario ANSWER: d 4. (Scenario 2.1) Each data point on the scatterplot represents: a. a single participant's score on variables A and B. b. a single participant's score on variable B. c. the score on variable B at the group mean of variable A. d. the score on variable A at the group mean of variable B. ANSWER: a 5. (Scenario 2.1) Which statement is true given that variables A and B are significantly correlated? a. Variable A causes variable B or variable B causes variable A. b. Knowing the score on variable A allows for an estimate of the score on variable B. c. There is no causal relationship between the two variables. d. A third variable cannot be responsible for the observed association. ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 2.1) In a simple correlational design, how would these data be collected? a. measure each participant's score on variables A and B b. randomly assign participants to experience either variable A or variable B c. manipulate variable A and then observe its effects on variable B d. manipulate both variables A and B and observe their effects on the target behavior of interest ANSWER: a Use Scenario 2.2 to answer the question(s) below. A psychologist was interested in the effects of sleep deprivation on performance on a vigilance task. Forty college students served as participants and were placed in either the sleep-deprivation group or the control group by coin flip. Both groups spent the night before the study in a sleep laboratory, but only the control group was allowed to sleep. By the next morning, the sleep-deprived group had been awake for the past 24 hours. At this time, both groups were provided a nutritious breakfast and, shortly thereafter, testing began in soundattenuating cubicles, each equipped with a computer. The vigilance task consisted of monitoring the computer screen. Participants were instructed that red dots represented allied spacecraft and green dots represented enemy spacecraft. Throughout the 2-hour-long task, red dots moved across the screen in irregular patterns. Occasionally and unpredictably, a green dot would quickly move across the screen in a haphazard pattern. When a green dot appeared, the task of the participant was to move a stylus over the green dot and press a button, "destroying" the enemy spacecraft. The psychologist measured the percentage of these enemy targets that were detected and destroyed. The results of this fictitious experiment are shown in Figure 2.2. Figure 2.2

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TB6 Chapter 2 Scenario

7. (Scenario 2.2) Vigilance was measured as the percentage of "enemy targets" destroyed. As a measure of vigilance, this illustrates: a. an operational definition. b. reliability. c. statistical significance. d. a construct. ANSWER: a 8. (Scenario 2.2) Shown in Figure 2.2 are the mean and standard deviation of each group's performance. Based only on this figure, what can be concluded? a. The difference in the sample means is not statistically significant. b. The difference in the sample means is reliable. c. On average, the sleep-deprived group performed about as well as the control group. d. Participants in the sleep-deprived group behaved more variably than those in the control group. ANSWER: d 9. (Scenario 2.2) The independent variable was: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Scenario a. the length of the vigilance task. b. the percentage of enemy targets destroyed. c. the degree of vigilance. d. sleep status. ANSWER: d 10. (Scenario 2.2) The dependent variable was: a. the length of the vigilance task. b. the instructions given. c. the percentage of enemy targets destroyed. d. sleep status. ANSWER: c 11. (Scenario 2.2) Assuming the differences between groups were statistically significant, before concluding that sleep deprivation impairs vigilance, another dependent variable the researchers probably would want to analyze is: a. the effects of longer or shorter periods of sleep deprivation on vigilance. b. the number of times participants incorrectly destroyed an allied spacecraft. c. how well the task resembles real-world instances of sustained vigilance. d. the effect of breakfast on performance on the vigilance task. ANSWER: b 12. (Scenario 2.2) Participants were placed into groups using: a. random sampling. b. random assignment. c. a double-blind technique. d. the matched groups technique. ANSWER: b 13. (Scenario 2.2) The purpose of placing participants into one of the two groups by coin flip was to: a. eliminate the demand characteristics operating in the study. b. increase the external validity of the study. c. help ensure that the two groups were equal on all possible third variables. d. minimize experimenter bias. ANSWER: c Use Scenario 2.3 to answer the following question(s). Müller, K., & Schwarz, C. (2018, Nov). Fanning the flames of hate: Social media and hate crime. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Scenario https://ssrn.com/abstract=3082972 or http://dx.doi.org/10.2139/ssrn.3082972 Müller and Schwarz (2018) measured the frequency of anti-refugee Facebook posts on a right-wing, antiimmigrant German Facebook page and the frequency of hate crimes against refugees. The study was conducted in Germany over a 2-year period. Major findings of Müller and Schwarz (2018) are presented in Figure 2.3. Figure 2.3

14. (Scenario 2.3) Figure 2.3 illustrates a _____ correlation between anti-refugee posts and anti-refugee incidents. a. moderate positive b. moderate negative c. perfect positive d. perfect negative ANSWER: a 15. (Scenario 2.3) Based only on the data in Figure 2.3, which is the most appropriate conclusion? a. Hate crimes against refugees are positively associated with hate posts on Facebook. b. Increased hate posts about refugees on Facebook cause violent crimes against refugees. c. Violent crimes against refugees tend to spark a flurry of hate posts on Facebook. d. A third variable, such as an economic downturn, causes both anti-immigrant posts on Facebook and crimes against refugees. ANSWER: a 16. (Scenario 2.3) Suppose that a researcher wanted to further analyze these data by comparing the average number of anti-refugee posts made in 2015 with the average number of anti-refugee posts made in 2016. This researcher would begin by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 2 Scenario a. disregarding data that is clearly not typical of average performance, such as the data from week 1 in 2016. b. calculating an inferential statistic to determine if anti-refugee posts significantly increased during times of anti-refugee incidents for each year separately. c. obtaining a measure of central tendency for anti-refugee posts in both 2015 and 2016. d. calculating the normal amount of variability to be expected in anti-refugee posts when anti-refugee incidents occur. ANSWER: c 17. (Scenario 2.3) Because Internet access is often unreliable in Germany, Müller and Schwarz (2018) also examined anti-refugee incidents as a function of whether the Internet was on or off. This constitutes a natural: a. check of external validity. b. self-selection of participants to groups. c. control for a possible third variable. d. manipulation of an independent variable. ANSWER: d 18. (Scenario 2.3) Because Internet access is often unreliable in Germany, Müller and Schwarz (2018) also examined anti-refugee incidents as a function of whether the Internet was on or off. They found that antirefugee incidents decreased during Internet service interruptions. Because these service interruptions were essentially random, the authors could reasonably conclude that: a. crimes against refugees are one cause of spikes in hate speech on social media. b. hate speech on social media plays a causal role in crimes against refugees. c. the third variable of Internet access was responsible for the apparent correlation between anti-refugee posts and anti-refugee incidents. d. the results of the research are generalizable to other cultures. ANSWER: b 19. (Scenario 2.3) The authors of this study would have to contend with all of these issues EXCEPT: a. developing a reliable and valid operational definition of an anti-refugee Facebook post. b. determining if the results of the study are replicable. c. controlling for participant reactivity that could bias the results. d. determining if the results of the study have external validity. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 3 Essay 1. Describe the movement of ions across the neuron wall during an action potential. How does this affect the electrical charge of the neuron? ANSWER: The answer should include the following: (1) At resting potential (-70 mV), there is a high concentration of positively charged potassium and larger, negatively charged anions inside the cell. There is a large concentration of positively charged sodium and negatively charged chloride ions outside the cell. (2) When the threshold of excitation is reached, sodium channels open and sodium rushes into the cell. The potential of the cell increases to about +40 mV. (3) Sodium channels become inactive and potassium channels open. Potassium rushes out of the neuron, returning the charge of the cell membrane to a negative potential. (4) There is a slight overshoot of the resting potential, and the imbalance in ions is reversed by a pump that moves sodium outside of the axon and potassium inside the axon. This is a refractory period where an action potential can no longer be initiated. (5) The cell then returns to its resting potential of -70 mV and can then generate another action potential with a normal stimulus.

2. Describe the three processes by which neurotransmitters leave the synapse. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Neurotransmitters may be reabsorbed back into the terminal buttons of the presynaptic neuron, a process termed reuptake. (2) Neurotransmitters may be broken down by enzymes in the synapse. (3) Neurotransmitter can diffuse away from the synapse. (4) Neurotransmitters can also bind to receptor sites on autoreceptors that may limit the amount of neurotransmitter released.

3. Describe the role of norepinephrine and serotonin in the regulation of mood and arousal. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that norepinephrine is involved in vigilance, or situations requiring a heightened awareness of danger or concentration. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of sleep and arousal and also in the expression of aggressive behavior. Low levels of both neurotransmitters have been linked to mood disorders such as depression.

4. Explain the difference between a drug agonist and antagonist, give an example of each, and describe several ways that drugs can function as agonists. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Agonists are drugs that increase the actions of a neurotransmitter. Antagonists are drugs that block the functions of a neurotransmitter. (2) An agonist may be structurally similar to a neurotransmitter and mimic its effects. An example is morphine, which mimics the effects of endorphins. An agonist also might cause the release of a neurotransmitter; amphetamine causes the release of norepinephrine and dopamine into the synapse. (3) Agonists also may block the reuptake of the neurotransmitter. As a result, neurotransmitter levels in the synapse increase. For example, cocaine blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. Prozac blocks the reuptake of serotonin. (4) Antagonists block neurotransmitter action on the postsynaptic neuron. For example, beta blockers obstruct a receptor site for norepinephrine in the heart.

5. When walking home alone late one night, Omar is startled by a moving shadow that he glimpses out of the corner of his eye. Which division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes his body's defenses? What does it do? Later, when he sees that the shadow is just the neighbor's cat, what division of the autonomic nervous system is acting, and how does it lessen his physiological arousal? How do these autonomic divisions differ from the other main division, the somatic? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Sympathetic: Pupils dilate, bronchi relax, digestion is inhibited, epinephrine secretion increases, and heartbeat accelerates and heightens arousal. (2) Parasympathetic: Heartbeat decelerates, pupils narrow, and bronchi tighten to calming levels. (3) The autonomic system regulates activity in the internal organs and glands, whereas the somatic involves voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.

6. Discuss the likely impairments associated with damage to the (1) spinal cord, (2) hindbrain, (3) hippocampus, and (4) forebrain. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Spinal cord: motor impairments, including paralysis, to those areas of the body below the injury. (2) Hindbrain: Damage to the medulla may result in death because it controls basic survival functions such as heartbeat and breathing. Damage to the reticular formation may produce an irreversible coma. Damage to the cerebellum may severely impair coordinated movement. (3) Hippocampus: impairments in memory formation resulting in amnesia. (4) Forebrain: deficits in emotion regulation, planning, and decision making. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Essay 7. The areas of the cerebral cortex are called lobes. Describe the relative position and major functions of each lobe. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Frontal lobe: above forehead to top of skull; planning, decision making, motor control. (2) Temporal lobe: areas above ears; auditory processing and language. (3) Parietal lobe: back half of top of skull; sensory processing. (4) Occipital lobe: back of head; visual processing.

8. One of your friends casually mentions that they believe the brain is fixed from birth. Refute your friend's theory with evidence. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Plasticity is the ability of the brain to adapt to inputs. (2) Evidence from people experiencing phantom limb sensations show that stimulating areas of the face and upper arm activate an area in the somatosensory cortex that previously would have been activated by a now-missing hand. (2) The continued input from the fingers of concert pianists commands a larger area of representation in the areas for finger control in the brain. (3) There is greater plasticity within the motor cortex of musicians compared to nonmusicians. (4) Quilters have highly developed brain areas for the thumb and forefinger. (5) Taxi drivers have overdeveloped brain areas of the hippocampus that are used for spatial navigation. (6) Research using rats and other nonhuman animals shows exercise can boost memory and motor skills while also increasing the number of synapses and even new neurons in the hippocampus.

9. Barbara and Kenneth have slightly below-average intelligence scores. When they find out that the heritability of intelligence is approximately 0.5, they become worried that their future children also will have belowaverage intelligence. Using several different lines of reasoning, provide this couple with information to calm their fears. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that heritability refers to the extent to which variability in a trait (e.g., intelligence) can be accounted for by variability in genes. A heritability index of 0.5 means that 50% of the variability in intelligence is due to genetic factors. But this also means that 50% of the variability in intelligence is due to environmental factors. The couple has a large degree of control over these environmental factors, such as providing their children with a nutritious diet, reading to them, selecting games that foster critical thinking, and sending their children to good schools. Moreover, we have no way of knowing how much the environment contributed to Barbara and Kenneth's below-average intelligence. It is quite possible that they have genes associated with higher levels of intelligence but were raised in impoverished environments. Finally, a heritability index refers only to populations. It says absolutely nothing about individuals. So, while Barbara and Kenneth may be slightly more likely to have children with below-average intelligence, they quite possibly could have very intelligent children. And their parenting behavior matters just as much as their genes in shaping intelligence.

10. Describe how research with people with split brains has advanced our understanding about the differences in processing between the right and left hemispheres of the brain. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Language processing is located in the left hemisphere. (2) Brain organization is contralateral: The left hemisphere processes information from the right side of the body. (3) A band of fibers (corpus callosum) connects the two hemispheres in normal brains. (4) The left and right hemispheres are in constant communication via the corpus callosum. If this is severed, the two hemispheres process information independently. This generally does not cause problems so long as both hemispheres receive the same information. However, a person would not be able to name an object shown only to the left visual field because language is processed in the left hemisphere and only the right hemisphere received the information. If the object was shown only in the right visual field, the person could name the object but could not reach behind a screen with their left hand and correctly choose the object from a number of objects. This is due to the fact that the right hemisphere controlling the left hand never received the information.

11. Several electrical and imaging techniques are now used to compare behavior to the functioning of specific areas of the brain. Describe four of these techniques and suggest the types of research questions they may answer. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Electroencephalogram: time-linked patterns of electrical patterns across the active brain; useful in studies of sleeping and waking. (2) Functional magnetic resonance imaging: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Essay pictures of areas of high blood oxygen flow; captures differences in brain use during tasks. For example, what areas on the brain are active when you tell a lie? (3) Positron emission tomography generates a picture of brain function by measuring the differential absorption of a harmless radioactive material in brain regions. The research questions must involve questions regarding chronic brain functioning (e.g., Does a person with depression have lower activity levels in the frontal lobe?), or the behavioral task under investigation must be sustained for a period of time because PET does not have the power to detect brain processes that change quickly. (4) Transcranial magnetic stimulation delivers a magnetic pulse that passes through the skull that can temporarily deactivate neurons in the cerebral cortex. The ability to switch on and off cortical regions allows for the determination of cause and effect between brain function and behavior.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 1. The myelin sheath of an axon is MOST similar to: a. insulation on hot water pipes. b. a ground wire attached to an electrical panel. c. a phone as someone answers it. d. a letter sent via the post office. ANSWER: a 2. _____ are cells in the nervous system that communicate with one another to perform information-processing tasks. a. Glia b. Oligodendrocytes c. Mitochondria d. Neurons ANSWER: d 3. The basic parts of a neuron are the: a. cell body, the axon, and the synapse. b. cell body, the dendrites, and the synapse. c. cell body, the axon, and the dendrites. d. synapse, the axon, and the dendrites. ANSWER: c 4. In the late 1880s, _____ learned about a new way to stain neurons, revealing their structure. a. Kandel b. Lashley c. Cajal d. Broca ANSWER: c 5. The _____ of the neuron coordinate(s) the information-processing tasks and keep(s) the cell alive. a. soma b. dendrites c. myelin sheath d. axon ANSWER: a 6. The _____ of the neuron house(s) chromosomes. a. synapse b. glial cells Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. myelin sheath d. nucleus ANSWER: d 7. Which function is NOT one that pertains to the cell body? a. protein synthesis b. neurotransmission c. energy production d. metabolism ANSWER: b 8. What are the two specialized extensions of the neuron that allow it to communicate? a. axons and synapses b. dendrites and axons c. dendrites and cell bodies d. axons and myelin ANSWER: b 9. Axons and dendrites are involved in: a. cell reproduction. b. energy production. c. communication. d. metabolism ANSWER: c 10. The _____ receive information; the _____ transmit information. a. axons; cell bodies b. axons; dendrites c. dendrites; axons d. dendrites; glia ANSWER: c 11. Its name derived from the Greek word for "tree," the _____ of a neuron is so called because of its appearance, with several branching processes. a. synapse b. axon c. myelin d. dendrite ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 12. Samantha works at a communications firm. Her job is to receive outside information that is pertinent to the firm and pass it along to executives at the firm. Samantha is the metaphorical _____ of the firm. a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. nucleus ANSWER: c 13. Debbie works as a floor representative at a cellular phone company. Her job is to receive information from potential customers about their needs and interests and enter it into a computer system that passes the information on to the appropriate specialized technician in order to meet customer needs. Debbie is the metaphorical _____ of the firm. a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. nucleus ANSWER: c 14. Kobe works at a communications firm. His job is to receive information from the executive office and then pass this information down the line to all other offices in the firm. Kobe is the metaphorical _____ of the firm. a. axon b. nucleus c. terminal button d. glial cell ANSWER: a 15. Debbie works as a floor representative at a cellular phone company. Her job is to receive information from potential customers about their needs and interests and enter it into a computer system that passes the information on to the appropriate specialized technician in order to meet customer needs. The computer system is the metaphorical _____ of the firm. a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. nucleus ANSWER: a 16. The executive office of a company engages in a variety of processes to ensure its survival in a competitive market. The executive office is the metaphorical _____ of the company. a. axon Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. cell body c. dendrite d. terminal branch ANSWER: b 17. Each neuron has only one: a. axon. b. dendrite. c. terminal button. d. synapse. ANSWER: a 18. _____ cells are support cells found in the nervous system. a. Teratogenic b. Mitochondrial c. Glial d. Neural ANSWER: c 19. Which function is NOT one that pertains to glial cells? a. digesting parts of dead neurons b. providing nutritional support to neurons c. forming myelin d. transporting neurotransmitters across the synapse ANSWER: d 20. The myelin sheath is an insulating layer of fatty material composed of: a. Purkinje cells. b. vesicles. c. soma. d. glial cells. ANSWER: d 21. The insulating layer of fatty material that covers the axon of many neurons is called the: a. axon sheath. b. myelin sheath. c. glial cover. d. glial insulator. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 22. A copper wire is to rubber insulation as a(n) _____ is to a _____. a. axon; myelin sheath b. cell body; myelin sheath c. nucleus; glial cell d. myelin sheath; glial cell ANSWER: a 23. The myelin sheath is analogous to which piece of electronic equipment? a. a surge protector b. wire insulation c. an alternating-current adapter d. a battery ANSWER: b 24. The myelin wrapped around an axon serves: a. as a special immune defense for the neuron. b. to increase the efficiency of transmission of the neuron. c. as a resistor that slows the speed of transmission of the neuron. d. no functional purpose. ANSWER: b 25. Loss of feeling in the limbs, partial blindness, and difficulty in coordinated movement may indicate a(n) _____ disease such as _____. a. atherosclerotic; epilepsy b. demyelinating; Alzheimer's c. atherosclerotic; Parkinson's d. demyelinating; multiple sclerosis ANSWER: d 26. When a person has multiple sclerosis, the person cannot easily transmit information from neuron to neuron, which leads to difficulties with movement. The transmission of neurons is slowed down as a result of a deteriorating: a. axon. b. synapse. c. myelin sheath. d. cell body. ANSWER: c 27. The gap between one neuron's axon and a dendrite or cell body of another neuron is the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. soma. b. synapse. c. myelin. d. glia. ANSWER: b 28. The synapse is the junction between the: a. axon and the myelin sheath. b. cell body and the axon. c. cell body of one neuron and the dendrites of another. d. axon of one neuron and the dendrites of another. ANSWER: d 29. A chemical signal is transmitted from one neuron to another across the: a. synapse. b. neuron. c. axon. d. glia cell. ANSWER: a 30. Which of these is an example of a sensory neuron? a. a temperature-sensitive neuron in your hand b. a neuron in the spinal column that relays information to the brain c. a neuron that causes a muscle movement d. a pyramidal neuron ANSWER: a 31. Which type of neuron receives information from the external world and conveys this information to the brain? a. a sensory neuron b. a motor neuron c. an interneuron d. a Purkinje neuron ANSWER: a 32. _____ receive information from the external world and convey information through the spinal cord. a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Purkinje cells Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. Pyramidal neurons ANSWER: a 33. The endings of _____ in humans' eyes are sensitive to light. a. interneurons b. motor neurons c. sensory neurons d. pyramidal cells ANSWER: c 34. Olfactory receptor neurons in the nose that detect chemical odorants are examples of: a. motor neurons. b. sensory neurons. c. interneurons. d. Purkinje neurons. ANSWER: b 35. _____ carry signals from the spinal cord to the muscles. a. Interneurons b. Motor neurons c. Sensory neurons d. Purkinje neurons ANSWER: b 36. Motor neurons carry signals from the: a. sense organs to the spinal cord. b. sense organs to the muscles. c. spinal cord to the brain. d. spinal cord to the muscles. ANSWER: d 37. Leticia has difficulty moving her arm when it is stimulated. Specifically, the brain receives the stimulation, and it and the spinal cord are functioning normally. Which type of neuron is probably affected? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interneurons d. Purkinje cells ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 38. Annette has difficulty moving her arm when it is stimulated. Specifically, the spinal cord never receives the message from pressure detectors in the skin. Which type of neuron is probably affected? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interneurons d. Purkinje cells ANSWER: a 39. The majority of the neurons in the nervous system are: a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. interneurons. d. bipolar neurons. ANSWER: c 40. _____ work together in small circuits to perform simple tasks. a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Interneurons d. Vagal neurons ANSWER: c 41. An informant brings a tip to a police department about suspicious activity at the docks. After detectives meet and process this information, they decide that the best course of action is to send undercover officers to the scene. If the police department were a neural network, the detectives would be functioning as: a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. dendrites. d. interneurons. ANSWER: d 42. An informant brings a tip to a police department about suspicious activity at the docks. After detectives meet and process this information, they decide that the best course of action is to send undercover officers to the scene. If the police department were a neural network, the informant would be functioning as a(n): a. sensory neuron. b. motor neuron. c. cell body. d. interneuron. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 43. An informant brings a tip to a police department about suspicious activity at the docks. After detectives meet and process this information, they decide that the best course of action is to send undercover officers to the scene. If the police department were a neural network, the undercover officers would be functioning as: a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. dendrites. d. interneurons. ANSWER: b 44. A type of neuron that carries information from the cerebellum to the rest of the brain and spinal cord is a: a. nucleus. b. motor neuron. c. Purkinje cell. d. bipolar cell. ANSWER: c 45. Purkinje cells transmit information between the _____ and the rest of the brain. a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. prefrontal cortex ANSWER: a 46. The dendritic branching of Purkinje cells resembles the shape of a: a. thorned stem. b. bush. c. coiled snake. d. starburst. ANSWER: b 47. Which statement regarding bipolar cells is true? a. They are a type of interneuron. b. They have two axons. c. They are involved in vision. d. They are located in the cerebellum. ANSWER: c 48. Which statement regarding bipolar cells is true? a. They are a type of sensory neuron. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. They have two axons. c. They are involved in hearing. d. They are located in the cerebellum. ANSWER: a 49. Bipolar cells have _____ axon(s) and _____ dendrite(s). a. one; one b. one; two c. two; one d. two; two ANSWER: a 50. Pyramidal cells are found in which brain region? a. the brain stem b. the cerebellum c. the thalamus d. the cerebral cortex ANSWER: d 51. The cell bodies of pyramidal cells are _____ shaped. a. circle b. square c. triangle d. hexagon ANSWER: c 52. The three major types of neurons are: a. sensory neurons, dendritic neurons, and motor neurons. b. sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons. c. motor neurons, mirror neurons, and interneurons. d. sensory neurons, motor neurons, and mirror neurons. ANSWER: b 53. During an action potential, _____ charged _____ ions rush into the cell, causing a change in the membrane potential of the neuron. a. positively; sodium b. positively; potassium c. negatively; sodium d. negatively; potassium Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 54. The electrochemical action of neurons proceeds in two stages, _____ followed by _____. a. polarization; hyperpolarization b. conduction; transmission c. transmission; conduction d. conduction; repolarization ANSWER: b 55. The movement of an electrical signal within a neuron is termed: a. polarization. b. transmission. c. conduction. d. potentiation. ANSWER: c 56. The movement of an electrical signal from one neuron to the next across the synapse is termed: a. polarization. b. transmission. c. conduction. d. potentiation. ANSWER: b 57. _____ are small electrically charged particles that flow into and out of a neuron to create an electrical signal. a. Ions b. Dendrites c. Conductors d. Neurotransmitters ANSWER: a 58. The difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of a neuron's cell membrane is the: a. difference potential. b. refractory period. c. resting potential. d. action potential. ANSWER: c 59. Ions carry a _____ charge. a. neutral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. positive only c. negative only d. positive or negative ANSWER: d 60. With respect to the electrical charge present in a neuron, when a neuron is at rest, the inside: a. and outside of the cell have no charge at all. b. and outside of the cell are in perfect balance. c. of the cell has a negative charge relative to the outside. d. of the cell has a positive charge relative to the outside. ANSWER: c 61. Mariana is measuring the change in voltage as the neurons send signals. She notices the voltmeter is not showing a charge of 0 millivolts when the neurons are at rest. What value should the voltmeter display when the cells are not firing? a. −70 millivolts b. 40 millivolts c. 0 millivolts d. 70 millivolts ANSWER: a 62. At rest, there is a higher concentration of _____ inside the cell membrane of the neuron and a higher concentration of _____ outside. a. Na+; K+ b. K+; Na+ c. Na+; Ca++ d. Na+; Cl– ANSWER: b 63. Which ion has a negative charge? a. sodium b. protein c. potassium d. calcium ANSWER: b 64. Which ion is in abundance outside of the cell during rest? a. sodium b. potassium Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. chloride d. calcium ANSWER: a 65. When a neuron is at rest, there is a high concentration of _____ ions inside the cell relative to the outside. a. positively charged sodium b. positively charged potassium c. negatively charged chloride d. positively charged protein ANSWER: b 66. When a neuron is at rest, there is a high concentration of _____ ions outside the cell relative to the inside. a. positively charged sodium b. positively charged potassium c. positively charged chloride d. negatively charged protein ANSWER: a 67. The electrical charge of a neuron at rest is largely the result of a chemical "pump" that transports _____ from inside to outside the neuron and _____ from outside to inside the neuron. a. potassium; sodium b. protein ions; chloride c. sodium; potassium d. sodium; chloride ANSWER: c 68. The electrical charge of a neuron at rest is largely the result of a chemical "pump" that pulls _____ from outside to inside the neuron, and _____ from inside to outside the neuron. a. potassium; sodium b. protein ions; sodium c. sodium; potassium d. sodium; chloride ANSWER: a 69. The electrical charge of a neuron at rest is an example of: a. the refractory period. b. the all-or-none rule. c. potential energy. d. the action potential. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 70. What is the electrical charge of a neuron at rest? a. 70 mv b. 40 mv c. −40 mv d. −70 mv ANSWER: d 71. At rest, the cell membrane of a neuron can BEST be conceptualized as a: a. traffic signal. b. wire. c. dam. d. telephone. ANSWER: c 72. The resting potential of a neuron was discovered in 1939 by biologists studying marine animals such as squid. Squid were studied because: a. their neurons are more similar to human neurons than those of most other animals. b. their neurons are large and easy to study. c. neurotransmission evolved first in marine animals. d. it is unethical to study these processes in humans. ANSWER: b 73. Hodgkin and Huxley (1939) conducted early research on the action potential using _____ as subjects. a. rats b. mice c. humans d. giant squid ANSWER: d 74. An electrical signal that is conducted along the length of a neuron's axon to a synapse is called a(n) _____ potential. a. electrostatic b. resting c. action d. equilibrium ANSWER: c 75. Which statement about action potentials is false? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. Action potentials are all or none. b. Electrical stimulation of the dendrites does not always trigger action potentials. c. Activation must exceed a threshold before an action potential will occur. d. The intensity of the stimulus creates a more intense action potential. ANSWER: d 76. Which situation is analogous to the firing of a single neuron? a. Smoke triggers the alarm on a smoke detector. b. The pressure of the water stream increases as the faucet handle is turned. c. Greater tension on a rubber band causes a paper ball to be launched with greater velocity. d. Wi-Fi strength depends on how close you are to the modem. ANSWER: a 77. Which sequence shows the correct order of the firing of a neuron? a. threshold, resting potential, refractory period, action potential b. resting potential, threshold, action potential, refractory period c. action potential, resting potential, refractory period, threshold d. resting potential, threshold, refractory period, action potential ANSWER: b 78. When an action potential occurs, _____ gates open, resulting in the inside of the cell becoming more _____ relative to the outside. a. potassium; negative b. potassium; positive c. sodium; positive d. sodium; negative ANSWER: c 79. The electrical charge inside of the neuron relative to the outside reaches _____ millivolts during an action potential. a. −70 b. 0 c. +40 d. +70 ANSWER: c 80. When is the charge inside a neuron at +40 millivolts? a. at the threshold of excitation b. during the refractory period Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. during the resting potential d. during the action potential ANSWER: d 81. After the action potential reaches its maximum, membrane channels return to their original state and _____ flow(s) _____ the cell. a. sodium; into b. protein ions; into c. chloride ions; out of d. potassium; out of ANSWER: d 82. The _____ is the time following an action potential during which a new action potential CANNOT be initiated. a. regenerative period b. recovery period c. refractory period d. resting potential ANSWER: c 83. During the refractory period, a chemical "pump" moves: a. myelin down the nodes of Ranvier. b. sodium out of the cell. c. potassium out of the cell. d. negatively charged protein ions out of the cell. ANSWER: b 84. During the refractory period, a chemical "pump" moves: a. myelin down the nodes of Ranvier. b. sodium into the cell. c. potassium into the cell. d. negatively charged protein ions out of the cell. ANSWER: c 85. The nodes of Ranvier are the: a. spaces in which one neuron receives information from another neuron. b. spaces between sections of myelin on an axon. c. sections of myelin wrapped around the axon. d. "jumping" of the electrical signal. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 86. The spaces between sections of myelin on an axon are termed the: a. nodes of Ranvier. b. synaptic gaps. c. terminal buttons. d. receptors. ANSWER: a 87. During an action potential, the charge seems to "jump" from node to node, rather than flow continuously down the axon, a process known as: a. saltatory conduction. b. the all-or-none rule. c. hyperpolarization. d. myelination. ANSWER: a 88. During saltatory conduction, the electrical charge: a. hops across the synapse from one neuron to the next. b. jumps from one node to the next down an axon. c. flows like water through the neuron. d. radiates in pulses from the cell body. ANSWER: b 89. Chemicals that pass information across the synapse between neurons are called: a. neurotransmitters. b. hormones. c. ions. d. vesicles. ANSWER: a 90. The knoblike structures that branch out from an axon are called: a. hormones. b. neurotransmitters. c. terminal buttons. d. synapses. ANSWER: c 91. The small space between the terminal button of one neuron and a dendrite of a second neuron is called a(n): Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. node of Ranvier. b. synaptic gap. c. autoreceptor. d. receptor site. ANSWER: b 92. The communication chemicals that actually cross the synaptic gap between axons and dendrites are: a. hormones. b. neurotransmitters. c. interneurons. d. glial cells. ANSWER: b 93. A neuron that sends information is a(n) _____ neuron; a neuron that receives information is a _____ neuron. a. postsynaptic; presynaptic b. presynaptic; postsynaptic c. a priori; post hoc d. sensory; motor ANSWER: b 94. Presynaptic is to postsynaptic as: a. chemical is to electrical. b. electrical is to chemical. c. sodium is to potassium. d. sending is to receiving. ANSWER: d 95. The "bags" of neurotransmitters within an axon ready to be released are called: a. vesicles. b. neurotransmitters. c. terminal buttons. d. synapses. ANSWER: a 96. Vesicles are analogous to: a. dams. b. gates. c. messengers. d. bags. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 97. Vesicle is to neurotransmitter as: a. marble is to countertop. b. light is to classroom. c. backpack is to school supplies. d. car is to stop sign. ANSWER: c 98. In a neuron, what happens when an action potential reaches the axon terminals of the neuron? a. Since neurons touch one another, the action potential simply travels to an adjoining neuron. b. The action potential stimulates the release of chemical substances. c. The impulse changes direction, heading back to the cell body. d. An electrical spark forms, which may jump to other neurons. ANSWER: b 99. The end of an axon contains many _____, which are filled with _____ for transmitting messages to the neuron on the other side of the synapse. a. transporters; neurotransmitters b. vesicles; receptors c. neurotransmitters; vesicles d. vesicles; neurotransmitters ANSWER: d 100. The flow of information within a neuron is _____, whereas the flow of information between neurons is _____. a. mechanical; electrical b. chemical; electrical c. electrical; chemical d. direct current; alternating current ANSWER: c 101. Neurotransmitters floating in the synapse may bind to _____ on the postsynaptic neuron. a. vesicles b. receptors c. autoreceptors d. cell bodies ANSWER: b 102. _____ are chemicals that transport information across the synapse to a receiving neuron's dendrites. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. Vesicles b. Axons c. Neurotransmitters d. Glia ANSWER: c 103. _____ are parts of a cell membrane that receive neurotransmitters and either initiate or prevent a new electrical signal. a. Vesicles b. Receptors c. Neurotransmitters d. Glia ANSWER: b 104. Neurotransmitter is to receptor as: a. key is to lock. b. lock is to key. c. glove is to hand. d. account is to password. ANSWER: a 105. In a lock-and-key analogy of synaptic transmission, the _____ is the lock and the _____ is the key. a. synapse; receptor b. vesicle; autoreceptor c. receptor; neurotransmitter d. neurotransmitter; vesicle ANSWER: c 106. Safa is looking in a microscope to find neurotransmitters in a neuron that is at resting potential. She is likely to find them: a. in the synapse. b. inside vesicles. c. attached to receptor. d. attached to autoreceptors. ANSWER: b 107. The mechanism that is NOT used for getting rid of neurotransmitters in the synapse is: a. reuptake. b. reconstitution. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. enzyme deactivation. d. binding to autoreceptors. ANSWER: b 108. The process by which a neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by the terminal button of the presynaptic neuron is termed: a. reuptake. b. reconstitution. c. deactivation. d. autoreception. ANSWER: a 109. The process by which a neurotransmitter is broken down into its component molecules is termed: a. binding. b. reconstitution. c. enzyme deactivation. d. diffusion. ANSWER: c 110. _____ detect how much of a neurotransmitter has been released into the synapse and signal the neuron to stop releasing the neurotransmitter if an excess is present. a. Reuptake inhibitors b. Vesicles c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Autoreceptors ANSWER: d 111. Antony studies what happens to neurotransmitters after they relay the message to the postsynaptic neuron. He is not interested in enzymes or presynaptic neurons. Which process is he MOST likely to examine? a. deactivation b. diffusion c. autoreception d. reuptake ANSWER: b 112. In the synapse, _____ break down neurotransmitters. a. ions b. enzymes c. autoreceptors Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. vesicles ANSWER: b 113. _____ is the primary neurotransmitter involved in voluntary motor control. a. Glutamate b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine ANSWER: d 114. Sofia experiences seizures. She is MOST likely to have low levels of the neurotransmitter: a. GABA. b. glutamate. c. endorphins. d. dopamine. ANSWER: a 115. Sandy has impaired sensitivity to rewards as a result of her year-long battle with addiction. Which neurotransmitter would MOST likely be affected? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. GABA d. acetylcholine ANSWER: a 116. _____ is found in the junctions connecting axons to skeletal muscles and organs such as the heart. a. GABA b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine ANSWER: d 117. The neurotransmitter that enables muscle action, regulates attention, and acts in learning is called: a. GABA. b. acetylcholine. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 118. A deterioration of acetylcholine-producing neurons is associated with which disease? a. Alzheimer's disease b. schizophrenia c. multiple sclerosis d. Parkinson's disease ANSWER: a 119. Deterioration of the neurons that produce _____ is associated with Alzheimer's disease. a. endorphins b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine ANSWER: c 120. Dopamine is associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. motivation. b. motor behavior. c. schizophrenia. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: d 121. Which neurotransmitter is MOST closely associated with pleasure and motivation? a. glutamate b. serotonin c. dopamine d. acetylcholine ANSWER: c 122. _____ is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. a. Glutamate b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Dopamine ANSWER: a 123. Tomas studies the actions of the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Which of these would be of MOST interest to him? a. glutamate b. GABA Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. serotonin d. dopamine ANSWER: b 124. Carrie is conducting studies to determine the efficacy of a new drug that should be useful in treating seizures. It is MOST likely that the drug Carrie is studying: a. enhances GABA. b. enhances glutamate. c. inhibits dopamine. d. inhibits GABA ANSWER: a 125. Daniela is examining neurotransmission in people with Parkinson's disease. She is likely to find low levels of which neurotransmitter in these people compared to people without Parkinson's disease? a. glutamate b. acetylcholine c. serotonin d. dopamine ANSWER: d 126. Low levels of both _____ and _____ have been implicated in mood disorders. a. norepinephrine; acetylcholine b. endorphins; serotonin c. GABA; serotonin d. norepinephrine; serotonin ANSWER: d 127. High levels of which neurotransmitter have been implicated in schizophrenia? a. endorphins b. acetylcholine c. dopamine d. norepinephrine ANSWER: c 128. The actor Michael J. Fox has Parkinson's disease, and John Nash, subject of the movie A Beautiful Mind, had schizophrenia. The brains of both people can be expected to have _____ levels of dopamine. a. extremely high b. extremely low c. normal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. abnormal ANSWER: d 129. Serotonin influences all of these EXCEPT: a. aggression. b. eating. c. motor behavior. d. wakefulness. ANSWER: c 130. An archer is aiming at a target in the Olympics. They will have only one chance to hit the target, so they are aiming with extreme attention. The activity of which neurotransmitter is underlying this alertness? a. GABA b. endorphins c. dopamine d. norepinephrine ANSWER: d 131. Air-traffic controllers must sustain their concentration for hours at a time in order to monitor arrivals and departures to prevent accidents. The activity of which neurotransmitter is underlying their vigilance? a. GABA b. endorphins c. dopamine d. norepinephrine ANSWER: d 132. Every morning after a vigorous workout in which he swims laps at the local YMCA, Jim feels great. His aches and pains are reduced, and his mood is elevated. This is probably due to the release of _____ in the brain. a. glutamate b. endorphins c. dopamine d. acetylcholine ANSWER: b 133. Researchers studying opiates such as morphine were surprised that they fit exactly into neural receptors. The reason is that the brain produces its own version of an opiate for pain relief called: a. norepinephrine. b. endorphins. c. serotonin. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. opium. ANSWER: b 134. _____ act(s) as the body's natural painkiller. a. GABA b. Endorphins c. Glutamate d. Morphine ANSWER: b 135. Lynn experiences frequent seizures, and doctors suspect that they might be occurring because of unusually high levels of which neurotransmitter? a. glutamate b. endorphins c. dopamine d. GABA ANSWER: a 136. Drugs such as LSD produce their hallucinogenic effects by profoundly altering the activity of the _____ system. a. serotonin b. acetylcholine c. opiate d. dopamine ANSWER: a 137. A(n) _____ is a drug that increases the action of a neurotransmitter. a. mimicker b. protagonist c. agonist d. antagonist ANSWER: c 138. A(n) _____ is a drug that diminishes the function of a neurotransmitter. a. depressant b. inhibitor c. agonist d. antagonist ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 139. Jamming a lock such that the key will no longer open it is analogous to one way a drug _____ acts at the receptor. a. stimulant b. endorphin c. agonist d. antagonist ANSWER: d 140. An absentminded professor accidentally locks their filing cabinet and does not have a key. Desperate to get it open, they use a paperclip to pick the lock. The paperclip is functioning in a manner similar to the _____ functions of a drug _____. a. mimicking; antagonist b. mimicking; agonist c. blocking; agonist d. blocking; antagonist ANSWER: b 141. Agonist is to antagonist as: a. lock is to key. b. block is to mimic. c. enhance is to interfere. d. stimulant is to depressant. ANSWER: c 142. Agonist is to antagonist as: a. lock is to key. b. mimic is to block. c. interfere is to enhance. d. stimulant is to depressant. ANSWER: b 143. _____, a treatment for Parkinson's disease, is an agonist for the neurotransmitter _____. a. L-Dopa; dopamine b. L-Dopa; serotonin c. Choline; acetylcholine d. Guanine; endorphin ANSWER: a 144. L-Dopa works to stimulate the production of dopamine in the body. In this way, the drug acts as a(n): Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. agonist. b. antagonist. c. synaptic transmitter. d. reuptake inhibitor. ANSWER: a 145. Which drug would NOT constitute a drug agonist? a. one that mimics a neurotransmitter b. one that blocks the functioning of a neurotransmitter c. one that blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter d. one that stimulates neurotransmitter release ANSWER: b 146. Which drug would NOT constitute a drug antagonist? a. one that blocks the production of a neurotransmitter b. one that blocks the release of a neurotransmitter c. one that blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter d. one that causes depletion of neurotransmitters in vesicles ANSWER: c 147. Prozac works by: a. causing neurons to produce less serotonin. b. causing neurons to inhibit the release of serotonin into the synapse. c. blocking the reuptake of serotonin from the synapse. d. destroying enzymes that help secrete serotonin. ANSWER: c 148. Elena is studying the agonist amphetamine. What would she observe? a. blocked reuptake of dopamine b. blocked synthesis of dopamine c. blocked receptors for dopamine d. faster clearance of dopamine from the synapse ANSWER: a 149. _____ stimulates the release of norepinephrine and dopamine and also blocks their reuptake. a. Amphetamine b. Cocaine c. L-Dopa d. Prozac Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 150. _____ block(s) the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. a. Beta blockers b. Cocaine c. L-Dopa d. Prozac ANSWER: b 151. How does cocaine affect norepinephrine and dopamine synaptic transmission? a. It stimulates release of these neurotransmitters. b. It blocks the actions of these neurotransmitters. c. It blocks the reuptake of these neurotransmitters. d. It increases the production of these neurotransmitters. ANSWER: c 152. Prozac, a drug commonly used to treat depression, is a selective: a. serotonin inhibitor. b. serotonin antagonist. c. serotonin reuptake inhibitor. d. norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. ANSWER: c 153. The drugs used to treat depression often enhance the processing of neurotransmitters such as serotonin by: a. blocking reuptake of neurotransmitters. b. fitting into receptors on the axon of the receiving cell. c. decreasing the electrochemical charge on the membrane of the receiving cell. d. decreasing the duration of the refractory period. ANSWER: a 154. Chung is studying drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin. He is MOST likely studying drugs that would be effective for the treatment of: a. Parkinson's disease. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. phobias. ANSWER: c 155. Drugs that are converted to dopamine in the brain have been shown to be effective at treating: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. Parkinson's disease. b. schizophrenia. c. depression. d. anxiety. ANSWER: a 156. Beta blockers function as _____ by blocking a receptor for _____ in the heart. a. agonists; acetylcholine b. antagonists; acetylcholine c. agonists; norepinephrine d. antagonists; norepinephrine ANSWER: d 157. Which drug(s) might BEST treat an actor experiencing stage fright? a. a selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitor b. L-dopa c. beta blockers d. Prozac ANSWER: c 158. The brain and spinal cord make up the _____ nervous system. a. somatic b. peripheral c. autonomic d. central ANSWER: d 159. Which structure(s) is/are part of the central nervous system? a. sensory neurons in the fingertips that detect pressure b. the spinal cord c. motor neurons that connect to the bicep d. the heart ANSWER: b 160. The peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system to the: a. spinal cord. b. pituitary gland. c. body's organs and muscles. d. prefrontal cortex. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 161. The _____ nervous system connects the central nervous system to the body's organs and muscles. a. peripheral b. somatic c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: a 162. Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system do humans use to perceive, think, and coordinate their behavior? a. the central nervous system b. the autonomic nervous system c. the somatic nervous system d. the parasympathetic nervous system ANSWER: c 163. When Rodrigo intentionally moves his arm, he is using his _____ nervous system. a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. autonomic d. somatic ANSWER: d 164. Ronnie consciously decides to move his leg. This movement is accomplished by the _____ subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. autonomic ANSWER: a 165. The act of reaching for a coffee cup is accomplished by the _____ subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. spinal cord ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 166. Which major subdivision of the peripheral nervous system controls the involuntary functioning of blood vessels, body organs, and glands? a. the central nervous system b. the autonomic nervous system c. the somatic nervous system d. the sympathetic nervous system ANSWER: b 167. As Andy is completing his yoga practice, his _____ nervous system is lowering his heart rate and respiration rate and diverting blood flow to the digestive system. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. central ANSWER: b 168. What subdivision of the autonomic nervous system would be MOST associated with preparing your body for action in a challenging or threatening situation? a. the central nervous system b. the parasympathetic nervous system c. the sympathetic nervous system d. the somatic nervous system ANSWER: c 169. Carlos is walking alone on a dark city street when he hears footsteps approaching from behind. Which nervous system would be MOST active in his response to this scene? a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. autonomic ANSWER: b 170. Samara's favorite football team has one play to score a touchdown to either win or lose a game. Samara's heart races due to the activation of which autonomic nervous system? a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. central ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 171. Which activity is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? a. dilating pupils b. stimulating digestive activity c. inhibiting bowel movements d. suppressing response to pain ANSWER: b 172. Which activity is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? a. constricting pupils b. inhibiting digestive activity c. stimulating secretion of epinephrine d. suppressing response to pain ANSWER: a 173. What subdivision of the autonomic nervous system is MOST associated with returning the body to a normal, resting state? a. the central nervous system b. the parasympathetic nervous system c. the sympathetic nervous system d. the somatic nervous system ANSWER: b 174. When walking home alone late one night, Kiran is startled by a moving shadow that he glimpses out of the corner of his eye. The _____ division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes his body's defenses. When he sees that the shadow is just the neighbor's cat, the _____ division begins to lessen his physiological arousal. a. sympathetic; parasympathetic b. peripheral; somatic c. somatic; peripheral d. parasympathetic; sympathetic ANSWER: a 175. While Neil attends an exciting and competitive football game, his heart races and he sweats due to nervousness triggered by the _____ division of the autonomic nervous system. After the game, Neil's bodily arousal slowly returns to a resting state due to the _____ division of the autonomic nervous system. a. sympathetic; parasympathetic b. peripheral; somatic c. somatic; peripheral d. parasympathetic; sympathetic ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 176. When walking home, a neighbor's large, aggressive dog gets loose and begins chasing Liling. She begins running to flee from the dog, while scanning for the best possible escape route. What division of the nervous system is LEAST active during this flight? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. central ANSWER: a 177. What division of the nervous system is LEAST active while engaged in a basketball game? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. central ANSWER: b 178. Activation of the _____ nervous system by anxiety during sexual behavior can lead to premature ejaculation in men and lack of lubrication in women. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. central d. somatic ANSWER: a 179. Which activity is NOT a function of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. slowing heartbeat b. stimulating digestive activity c. inhibiting bowel movement d. constricting pupils ANSWER: c 180. Which activity is NOT a function of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. constricting pupils b. slowing respiration c. inhibiting gallbladder d. stimulating digestive activity ANSWER: c 181. While Jane was running hot water for her child's bath, she touched the hot water pouring out and immediately pulled back her hand. This reaction resulted from activation of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. the brain. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. a spinal reflex. d. the parasympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: c 182. A child touches a hot stove and immediately withdraws their hand due to the activation of: a. the brain. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. a reflex arc. d. the parasympathetic nervous system. ANSWER: c 183. The division of the peripheral nervous system, most commonly associated with preparing the body to deal with an emergency, is the _____ nervous system. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. cardiovascular ANSWER: a 184. The _____ damage to the spinal cord, the _____ the prognosis for sensation and movement throughout the body. a. higher; better b. higher; worse c. lower; worse d. more complete; better ANSWER: b 185. A person who is paralyzed uses a robotic arm. The robotic arm interfaces with a computer that analyzes signals from the: a. spinal cord. b. paralyzed arm. c. motor cortex. d. autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: c 186. Brain–machine interfaces that enable people who are paralyzed to use robotic arms were initially developed using _____ as subjects. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. pigeons b. mice c. monkeys d. cats ANSWER: c 187. If you are sleeping, stimulating which area of the brain can wake you instantaneously and keep you alert? a. the hippocampus b. the basal ganglia c. the reticular formation d. the cerebellum ANSWER: c 188. Denton can pitch a baseball with an effortless and smooth movement. What part of the hindbrain is associated with this highly coordinated motion? a. the pons b. the cerebellum c. the medulla d. the spinal cord ANSWER: b 189. Some areas of the brain control basic life functions such as regulation of breathing and heart rate. For this reason, you may not survive damage to your: a. limbic system. b. hindbrain. c. cerebral cortex. d. corpus callosum. ANSWER: b 190. The area of the brain that coordinates information coming into and out of the spinal cord is termed the: a. occipital lobe. b. hindbrain. c. cerebral cortex. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 191. Which structure is NOT part of the hindbrain? a. the cerebellum b. the medulla Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. the reticular formation d. the amygdala ANSWER: d 192. Diego studies structures within the hindbrain. He studies all of these structures EXCEPT the: a. cerebellum. b. basal ganglia. c. reticular formation. d. pons. ANSWER: b 193. The hindbrain does NOT control: a. respiration. b. verbal reasoning. c. alertness. d. fine motor skills. ANSWER: b 194. The hindbrain does NOT control: a. emotion and motivation. b. respiration. c. blood circulation. d. wakefulness and arousal. ANSWER: a 195. The _____ is an extension of the spinal cord into the skull that controls respiration, heart rate, and blood circulation. a. cerebellum b. tectum c. reticular formation d. medulla ANSWER: d 196. The medulla does NOT control: a. heart rate. b. circulation. c. fine motor skills. d. respiration. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 197. The _____ is a brain structure that plays a role in the regulation of wakefulness, arousal, and sleep. a. cerebellum b. tectum c. reticular formation d. corpus callosum ANSWER: c 198. The reticular formation does NOT regulate: a. hunger. b. wakefulness. c. arousal. d. sleep. ANSWER: a 199. General anesthetics induce unconsciousness by reducing neural activity in the: a. reticular formation. b. medulla. c. cerebellum. d. tectum. ANSWER: a 200. The large section of the hindbrain that controls fine motor skills is the: a. reticular formation. b. medulla. c. cerebellum. d. tectum. ANSWER: c 201. Viktor sustained injuries to the back of his head after an especially rough tackle during a recent football game. After the game, he had difficulty with balance and coordinated movements and experienced problems with walking and riding a bike. Which brain structure was probably damaged? a. the corpus callosum b. the cerebellum c. the pituitary gland d. the hypothalamus ANSWER: b 202. Which brain structure functions as a relay station between the cerebellum and other brain structures? a. the medulla Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. the cerebral cortex c. the reticular formation d. the pons ANSWER: d 203. The _____ serves as a relay station between the _____ and the rest of the brain. a. pons; cerebellum b. pons; medulla c. cerebellum; pons d. cerebellum; medulla ANSWER: a 204. The name of which hindbrain structure is Latin for "little brain"? a. the pons b. the medulla c. the cerebellum d. the reticular formation ANSWER: c 205. Which hindbrain structure is involved in balancing ourselves while riding a bicycle? a. the pons b. the medulla c. the cerebellum d. the reticular formation ANSWER: c 206. Which hindbrain structure is involved in correct finger placement when learning how to hold a pencil? a. the thalamus b. the hypothalamus c. the cerebellum d. the tegmentum ANSWER: c 207. The name of which hindbrain structure is Latin for "bridge"? a. the pons b. the medulla c. the cerebellum d. the reticular formation ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 208. When Moruzzi and Magoun (1949) severed connections in the reticular formation of a cat, the cat: a. had deficits on spatial learning tasks. b. was not able to regulate its heart rate and blood pressure. c. had deficits in coordinated movement. d. lapsed into an irreversible coma. ANSWER: d 209. In an early experiment, stimulating the reticular formation in a sleeping cat caused the cat to: a. immediately wake up into an alert state. b. stop breathing and literally die in its sleep. c. experience vivid dreams. d. lapse into an irreversible coma. ANSWER: a 210. When startled by a loud noise behind her, Maria quickly turns to see what it is due to the action of her: a. cerebellum. b. medulla. c. tectum. d. pons. ANSWER: c 211. Which brain region is NOT involved with movement? a. the amygdala b. the basal ganglia c. the motor cortex d. the tegmentum ANSWER: a 212. Which structure is part of the midbrain? a. the cerebellum b. the medulla c. the tectum d. the amygdala ANSWER: c 213. Felippe studies the midbrain. Which of these structures would be of MOST interest to him? a. the tegmentum b. the pons Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. the cerebellum d. the amygdala ANSWER: a 214. The tectum and tegmentum are _____ structures. a. limbic b. hindbrain c. midbrain d. forebrain ANSWER: c 215. The _____ are structures mainly involved in orienting an organism in its environment. a. reticular formation and amygdala b. cerebellum and pons c. thalamus and hypothalamus d. tectum and tegmentum ANSWER: d 216. Andy is walking down the street when suddenly a car honks its horn. Andy immediately swings his head in the direction of the sound, primarily a result of the functioning of the: a. medulla. b. tectum. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 217. When Darcy's dog barks, Darcy's head immediately swivels in her direction. This action is primarily a result of the functioning of her: a. medulla. b. tectum. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 218. The _____ is a central location for neurotransmitters that are critical for motivation, mood, and arousal. a. cerebellum b. pons c. midbrain d. medulla Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 219. The midbrain structure that is involved in movement and arousal is the: a. tegmentum. b. pons. c. reticular formation. d. cerebellum. ANSWER: a 220. Structures in the _____ orientate one toward or away from pleasurable or life-threatening environmental stimuli. a. hindbrain b. midbrain c. forebrain d. cerebellum ANSWER: b 221. The two main sections of the forebrain are the: a. cerebral cortex and the subcortical structures. b. cerebral cortex and the cerebellum. c. pons and the subcortical structures. d. cerebral cortex and the neocortex. ANSWER: a 222. Which statement about the cerebral cortex is false? a. It is visible to the naked eye. b. It is divided into two hemispheres. c. It contains the thalamus and hypothalamus. d. It is the outermost layer of the brain. ANSWER: c 223. Jennifer forgets any new memory formed while she is distracted. Which region of her brain is MOST likely to show impairment? a. the pituitary gland b. the cerebellum c. the tectum d. the hippocampus ANSWER: d 224. The _____ relays and filters information from the senses and transmits the information to the cerebral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice cortex. a. thalamus b. pituitary gland c. hippocampus d. basal ganglia ANSWER: a 225. The thalamus does NOT receive information from: a. sight. b. sound. c. smell. d. touch. ANSWER: c 226. Which subcortical structure functions MOST like a network computer server? a. the hippocampus b. the thalamus c. the pons d. the amygdala ANSWER: b 227. Why can the thalamus be compared with a network computer server? a. It encodes, stores, and retrieves information. b. It is involved in computing calculations required to solve mathematical problems. c. It receives input from a variety of sources and relays this information to a variety of locations. d. It is critical for the creation of new memories. ANSWER: c 228. The _____ is located _____ the thalamus and regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and sexual behavior. a. pituitary gland; above b. hippocampus; below c. hypothalamus; above d. hypothalamus; below ANSWER: d 229. The hypothalamus does NOT regulate: a. body temperature. b. sexual behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. fine motor movements. d. hunger and thirst. ANSWER: c 230. Lesions to particular areas of the _____ may lead to a loss of control over food intake, resulting in either obesity or starvation. a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. hippocampus d. amygdala ANSWER: b 231. Olds and Milner (1954) found that electrical stimulation of a certain section of the _____ produced pleasure and was highly rewarding. a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. amygdala ANSWER: a 232. Antonella studies the limbic system, which means that she studies all of these structures EXCEPT the: a. amygdala. b. cerebellum. c. hypothalamus. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: b 233. The limbic system is NOT involved in: a. motivation. b. language. c. emotion. d. memory. ANSWER: b 234. The subcortical structure that is critical for the creation of new memories is the: a. thalamus. b. cerebral cortex. c. hypothalamus. d. hippocampus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 235. Adults who have damage to their hippocampus will be MOST likely to have problems remembering: a. a conversation that they had an hour ago. b. how to ride a bicycle. c. the meaning of commonly used words. d. how to solve basic arithmetic problems. ANSWER: a 236. Adults who have damage to their hippocampus will be MOST likely to have problems remembering: a. how to drive a car. b. what to do when the traffic light turns red. c. the meaning of words on a traffic sign. d. where they drove yesterday. ANSWER: d 237. Someone with damage to their hippocampus may: a. move jerkily. b. not be able to form new memories. c. not exhibit emotion. d. not be able to regulate their body temperature. ANSWER: b 238. The word hippocampus is Latin for: a. sea horse. b. almond. c. little brain. d. banana. ANSWER: a 239. The hippocampus gets its name based on its: a. location. b. shape. c. size. d. function. ANSWER: b 240. The word amygdala is Latin for: a. sea horse. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. almond. c. little brain. d. banana. ANSWER: b 241. The amygdala gets its name based on its: a. location. b. shape. c. size. d. function. ANSWER: b 242. The amygdala is located at the tip of each horn of the: a. hippocampus. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. basal ganglia. ANSWER: a 243. The _____ is located at the tip of each horn of the hippocampus. a. thalamus b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. basal ganglia ANSWER: b 244. The amygdala plays a central role in: a. regulating hunger and thirst. b. logic and decision making. c. emotions and emotional memories. d. initiating movement. ANSWER: c 245. Which situation would activate the amygdala to the greatest extent? a. playing tennis b. trying to remember the names of all of the countries in the world in alphabetical order c. breaking up with your first romantic partner d. feeling hungry as you walk to the cafeteria for lunch ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 246. Which situation would activate the amygdala to the greatest extent? a. remembering how to ride a bike b. turning to face a loud sound you just heard behind you c. falling asleep in class and then immediately waking again d. witnessing a violent crime ANSWER: d 247. The amygdala is MOST active in encoding emotional memories that are: a. fearful. b. joyful. c. depressing. d. surprising. ANSWER: a 248. Katie's amygdala probably is MOST activated when she goes to the movies to see a: a. documentary about the alcohol prohibition movement of the early 1900s. b. horror film featuring a serial killer. c. romantic comedy set in rural America in the 1980s. d. sci-fi movie set on Mars. ANSWER: b 249. Ty's amygdala probably is MOST activated when playing a video game featuring: a. solving spatial puzzles. b. saving up coins. c. graphic violence. d. role-playing strategy. ANSWER: c 250. Which statement about Alzheimer's disease is true? a. Alzheimer's disease affects women and men at equal rates. b. Alzheimer's disease affects more men than women. c. Alzheimer's disease affects more women than men. d. It is not possible to create sex-specific treatments for Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: c 251. Which statement about Alzheimer's disease is NOT true? a. Hippocampal volume might be a reliable early indication of Alzheimer's disease in women. b. Hippocampal volume declines faster in women with Alzheimer's disease than men. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. Alzheimer's disease affects more women than men. d. It is not possible to create sex-specific treatments for Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: d 252. Which structure(s) is/are NOT involved in intentional movement? a. the basal ganglia b. the striatum c. the tegmentum d. the hypothalamus ANSWER: d 253. The _____ is/are a set of subcortical structures that direct intentional movement. a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 254. The striatum is part of the: a. basal ganglia. b. limbic system. c. tectum. d. hindbrain. ANSWER: a 255. The basal ganglia send outputs to motor centers in the: a. hypothalamus. b. hippocampus. c. cerebral cortex. d. brainstem. ANSWER: d 256. The _____ is involved in regulating posture. a. hypothalamus b. striatum c. pituitary gland d. medulla ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 257. In persons with Parkinson's disease, there is a deficit of dopamine production in the _____, which affects the functioning of the _____ in the basal ganglia. a. pituitary gland; striatum b. midbrain; striatum c. pituitary gland; midbrain d. striatum; midbrain ANSWER: b 258. The _____ is a network of glands that produce and release hormones into the bloodstream. a. basal ganglia b. striatum c. endocrine system d. limbic system ANSWER: c 259. The chemical messages released by the endocrine system into the bloodstream are termed: a. neurotransmitters. b. hormones. c. antigens. d. endorphins. ANSWER: b 260. Which basic function does the endocrine system NOT affect? a. metabolism b. growth c. reward learning d. sexual development ANSWER: c 261. Women with low estrogen levels resulting in loss of sexual interest have abnormalities in the functioning of the: a. endocrine system. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebral cortex. d. thalamus. ANSWER: a 262. The endocrine system is orchestrated by the _____, which release(s) hormones that direct the functions of many other bodily glands. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. hippocampus b. pituitary gland c. adrenal glands d. thalamus ANSWER: b 263. The _____ is/are referred to as the "master" gland(s). a. hypothalamus b. thyroid gland c. adrenal glands d. pituitary gland ANSWER: d 264. The _____, or "master gland," is controlled by the _____. a. pituitary gland; hypothalamus b. thyroid gland; pituitary gland c. adrenal gland; pituitary gland d. hypothalamus; pituitary gland ANSWER: a 265. The stress response involves all of these EXCEPT the: a. thyroid gland. b. pituitary gland. c. adrenal glands. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 266. During times of stress, the pituitary gland secretes the hormone: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. oxytocin. d. ACTH. ANSWER: d 267. The pineal gland secretes _____ which regulates sleep/wake cycles. a. dopamine b. serotonin c. melatonin d. ACTH Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 268. Which of these are the sexually reproductive glands in females? a. the estrogen glands b. the ovaries c. the oxytocin glands d. the testes ANSWER: b 269. Which of these is/are the sexually reproductive gland(s) in men? a. the testosterone glands b. the penis c. the pineal gland d. the testes ANSWER: d 270. The sexually reproductive glands in females produce more _____ than they do _____. a. estrogen; testosterone b. testosterone; estrogen c. oxytocin; testosterone d. oxytocin; estrogen ANSWER: a 271. The sexually reproductive glands in males produce more _____ than they do _____. a. estrogen; testosterone b. testosterone; estrogen c. oxytocin; testosterone d. oxytocin; estrogen ANSWER: b 272. Which statement is true about recent research investigating the relationship between sex hormones and sexual desire? a. Testosterone levels are associated with sexual desire in women. b. Testosterone levels are associated with sexual desire in men. c. Estrogen levels are associated with sexual desire in women. d. Estrogen levels are associated with sexual desire in men. ANSWER: c 273. In the past few years, Aisha has been experiencing changes in sexual desire. Recent research indicates that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Aisha may have changing levels of which hormone? a. testosterone b. estrogen c. ACTH d. oxytocin ANSWER: b 274. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of the cerebral cortex? a. necessary for survival b. outermost layer of the brain c. divided into two hemispheres d. visible to the naked eye ANSWER: a 275. The _____ is responsible for the most complex aspects of perception, emotion, movement, and thought. a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. cerebral cortex d. cerebellum ANSWER: c 276. Gyrus is to sulcus as: a. forebrain is to midbrain. b. peak is to valley. c. trough is to crest. d. memory is to emotion. ANSWER: b 277. The indentations or fissures in the cerebral cortex are called: a. gyri. b. sulci. c. commissures. d. collosum. ANSWER: b 278. The smooth raised parts of the cerebral cortex are called: a. gyri. b. sulci. c. commissures. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. collosum. ANSWER: a 279. The _____ lobe is located at the back of the cerebral cortex and is responsible for processing visual information. a. temporal b. frontal c. occipital d. parietal ANSWER: c 280. The parietal lobe is MOST associated with the sense of: a. vision. b. touch. c. hearing. d. smell. ANSWER: b 281. The term contralateral control refers to the fact that the: a. two brain hemispheres have opposite functions. b. flow of information in the brain is always left to right and not front to back. c. left hemisphere perceives stimuli from and controls movement on the right side of the body. d. functions of the left and right hemispheres are opposite in those who are left-handed. ANSWER: c 282. The left-brain hemisphere receives sensory input from the _____ side of the body and sends motor commands to the _____ side of the body. a. right; left b. left; left c. left; right d. right; right ANSWER: d 283. After sustaining a hard tackle, a football player has sudden paralysis in their right arm and right leg. What is your BEST guess about where a brain injury occurred? a. right hemisphere b. left hemisphere c. cerebellum d. medulla Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 284. The largest commissure connecting the two hemispheres of the brain is the: a. corpus callosum. b. association area. c. limbic system. d. reticular formation. ANSWER: a 285. Information registered in the right hemisphere can pass across the _____ and be registered virtually instantaneously in the left hemisphere. a. corpus callosum b. gyrus major c. sulcus major d. reticular formation ANSWER: a 286. The _____ lobe, which processes visual information, is located at the back of the cerebral cortex. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal ANSWER: b 287. In what part of the cerebral cortex is the occipital lobe located? a. the right side b. the left side c. the front d. the back ANSWER: d 288. Scott experienced a concussion during his last rugby match. Following the concussion, Scott experienced partial blindness even though his eyes were not physically damaged. Which lobe was MOST likely affected by the concussion? a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 289. Following a stroke, Abby experienced blindness. Where did the stroke MOST likely occur? a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe ANSWER: a 290. The _____ lobe processes information about touch. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal ANSWER: d 291. The somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex has more area devoted to processing: a. larger areas of the body, like the trunk. b. smaller areas of the body, like the toes. c. more sensitive areas of the body, like the mouth. d. more muscular areas of the body, like the legs. ANSWER: c 292. The _____, or "little man," represents how much space is allotted on the somatosensory cortex to various body parts and is located in the _____ lobe. a. hominoid; frontal b. homunculus; occipital c. hominoid; temporal d. homunculus; parietal ANSWER: d 293. A medical artist is drawing a representation of the relationship between the somatosensory cortex and the body. What should the drawing of the body look like? a. The face, hands, and fingers should be disproportionately large. b. The farther from the brain, the smaller the body part should be. c. Larger body parts should appear small, and smaller body parts should appear large. d. The right side of the body should be considerably larger than the left side. ANSWER: a 294. Tyler was shot in the head, and the bullet passed through his frontal lobe. Fortunately, Tyler survived. Tyler is MOST likely to find it hard to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. process information about touch. b. have his body regulate blood pressure. c. understand spoken language. d. plan and be involved in decision making. ANSWER: d 295. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn largest? a. the forehead b. the back c. the toes d. the lips ANSWER: d 296. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn largest? a. the wrist b. the thumb c. the elbow d. the toes ANSWER: b 297. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn smallest? a. the hand b. the mouth c. the genitals d. the foot ANSWER: d 298. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn smallest? a. the lips b. the hand c. the arm d. the tongue ANSWER: c 299. The motor cortex is located in the _____ lobe, directly _____ the somatosensory cortex. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. frontal; behind b. frontal; in front of c. parietal; behind d. parietal; in front of ANSWER: b 300. The motor cortex is to the somatosensory cortex as: a. sending is to receiving. b. perception is to sensation. c. left brain is to right brain. d. memory of facts is to memory of emotional events. ANSWER: a 301. The _____ cortex initiates voluntary movements and sends information to the basal ganglia, cerebellum, and spinal cord. a. prefrontal b. motor c. somatosensory d. cerebral ANSWER: b 302. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is mainly involved in processing auditory information? a. temporal b. occipital c. frontal d. parietal ANSWER: a 303. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains visual association areas that interpret the meaning of visual stimuli? a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital ANSWER: b 304. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is involved in understanding language? a. frontal b. temporal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. parietal d. occipital ANSWER: b 305. The _____ receives sensory information from the ears based on the frequencies of sounds. a. somatosensory cortex b. parietal lobe c. primary auditory cortex d. occipital lobe ANSWER: c 306. After a stroke, Feng had difficulty hearing and understanding what others were saying. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. the parietal lobe b. the occipital lobe c. the frontal lobe d. the temporal lobe ANSWER: d 307. After a stroke, Harold had difficulty interpreting the meaning of visual stimuli and recognizing common objects, such as tables and chairs. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. the parietal lobe b. the occipital lobe c. the frontal lobe d. the temporal lobe ANSWER: d 308. After a trauma to the head, Isamu began making poor decisions on a regular basis and had trouble planning ahead. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. the parietal lobe b. the occipital lobe c. the frontal lobe d. the temporal lobe ANSWER: c 309. After a trauma to the head, Helen has trouble predicting the likely consequences of her actions. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. the parietal lobe b. the occipital lobe Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. the frontal lobe d. the temporal lobe ANSWER: c 310. The functions of which lobe of the cerebral cortex truly set humans apart from other animals? a. occipital b. frontal c. parietal d. temporal ANSWER: b 311. _____ help integrate information processed in various areas of the cortex to produce a meaningful understanding. a. Commissures b. Gyri c. Overlapping regions d. Association areas ANSWER: d 312. Association areas in the temporal lobe: a. register the occurrence of a sound. b. detect the location from where a sound originated. c. give the sound meaning. d. detect the pitch but not the loudness of a sound. ANSWER: c 313. Association areas in the occipital lobe: a. identify the edges of an object. b. detect the location of an object in space. c. track the movement of an object. d. identify what the object is. ANSWER: d 314. Mirror neurons are active in an animal that: a. performs an action. b. observes an action. c. both performs and observes an action. d. imagines its own actions. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 315. Mirror neurons have been identified in the _____ lobes. a. frontal and temporal b. frontal and parietal c. parietal and temporal d. parietal and occipital ANSWER: b 316. Mirror neurons are MOST activated when we: a. watch someone perform a purposive behavior. b. stare at our reflection. c. recall a grocery list committed to memory. d. trace an object using our nondominant hand. ANSWER: a 317. Ada's mirror neurons are MOST activated when she: a. watches a celebrity chef cook a difficult recipe on television. b. watches her neighbor jog down the street. c. needs to recall what is in her refrigerator while at the grocery store. d. writes a paragraph about a particularly emotional time in her life. ANSWER: a 318. Sally's mirror neurons are MOST activated when she: a. observes and then photographs an owl. b. reads a book and imagines herself as the main character in the book. c. watches her friend create a sculpture. d. writes a story outlining her first day of school. ANSWER: c 319. The term brain plasticity refers to the fact that: a. many of the same synthetic chemicals that occur in plastic are critical for normal brain functioning. b. certain types of neurons do not appear to age. c. the brain can change to adapt to changes in sensory input. d. the brain is virtually indestructible. ANSWER: c 320. When Sandra was a young child, her right hand was amputated following an accident. Now, as an adult, the somatosensory area originally associated with that hand: a. is associated with the ring finger on her left hand. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. responds to stimulation from the right side of her face. c. is withered due to nonuse. d. causes Sandra to relive the painful accident when it is stimulated. ANSWER: b 321. Brain plasticity suggests that sensory inputs _____ representation in each cortical area. a. have equal b. have unequal c. compete for d. are combined in their ANSWER: c 322. Taxi drivers who repeatedly drive in certain areas have highly developed spatial maps in the _____ as a result of brain plasticity. a. hippocampus b. somatosensory cortex c. amygdala d. corpus callosum ANSWER: c 323. _____ have highly developed areas in the _____ for finger control. a. Baseball players; motor cortex b. Concert pianists; somatosensory cortex c. Typists; temporal lobe d. Guitar players; primary auditory cortex ANSWER: b 324. Who is MOST likely to have overdeveloped association areas in the hippocampus that are used during spatial navigation? a. a concert pianist b. a soccer player c. a stay-at-home parent d. a taxi driver ANSWER: d 325. Who is MOST likely to have overdeveloped association areas in the somatosensory cortex corresponding to the thumb and forefinger? a. a football player b. a professional singer Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice c. a quilter d. a taxi driver ANSWER: c 326. _____ has been shown to boost aspects of memory and motor skills by increasing the number of synapses and even promoting the development of new neurons in the hippocampus. a. Reading b. Physical exercise c. Active listening d. Meditation ANSWER: b 327. The effects of cardiovascular exercise on brain plasticity are greatest in: a. older adults. b. children. c. young adults. d. people with depression. ANSWER: a 328. Research demonstrates that MOST instances of phantom limb syndrome arise from: a. suggestibility by therapists. b. attention from friends and family. c. brain plasticity. d. hemispheric specialization. ANSWER: c 329. Alek lost his right hand in an industrial accident. Many years later, he still feels the sensation of having a right hand when his: a. left hand is stroked. b. right wrist is poked forcibly. c. right elbow and foot are simultaneously stimulated. d. right cheek and right upper arm are simultaneously stimulated. ANSWER: d 330. Cultural neuroscience is the study of how: a. culture and neurobiological processes influence one another. b. culture limits the ability to study brain processes due to limitations in technology. c. social relationships impact the development of the brain and its plasticity. d. examines how social relationships impact brain processes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 331. Juan is studying how culture impacts how children think about learning. Juan is studying: a. social neuroscience. b. evolutionary psychology. c. cultural neuroscience. d. behavioral neuroscience. ANSWER: c 332. Studies on the influence of culture on neurobiology clearly demonstrate that: a. there is no impact of culture on neurobiology. b. culture exerts a notable impact on neurobiology. c. culture exerts an influence on neurobiology, but only if you switch cultures in your teen years. d. culture cannot influence neurobiology because there is no evidence that outside influences can change neurobiology. ANSWER: b 333. The study of _____ is to study how culture and neurobiological processes influence one another. a. behavioral neuroscience b. cultural neuroscience c. social neuroscience d. cultural psychology ANSWER: b 334. Studies of visual perception between Western and Eastern cultures show that typically: a. Westerners focus on the bigger context while Easterners focus on one focal object in the picture. b. Westerners focus on focal objects while Easterners focus on the background context. c. Westerners tend to focus on the color of objects while Easterners tend to focus on the form of objects. d. Westerners focus on movement of objects while Easterners focus on shapes of objects. ANSWER: b 335. Studies of visual perception across cultures demonstrate that _____ focus on a focal object in a picture, while _____ focus on the background context of the picture. a. Westerners; Easterners b. Westerners; Hispanics c. Easterners; Westerners d. Hispanics; Westerners ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 336. When viewing a visual display, _____ tend to focus on the background context, while _____ tend to focus on the focal objects in the display. a. Europeans; Koreans b. Koreans; Easterners c. Easterners; Westerners d. Westerners; Easterners ANSWER: c 337. You show Akasuki (a young Japanese women) a visual display that shows a black bear standing in front of a forest of green trees. What will Akasuki MOST likely focus on? a. She will focus on the forest in the background. b. She will focus on the color of the bear. c. She will focus solely on the bear. d. She will focus on the box that contains the display. ANSWER: a 338. You show Monica (an American young woman) a visual display of a black bear standing in front of a forest of green trees. What will Monika MOST likely focus on? a. the color of the trees b. the bear c. the forest d. the box the display is contained in ANSWER: b 339. Western cultures is to _____ like Eastern cultures is to _____. a. global processing; spatial processing b. holistic processing; spatial processing c. global processing; analytic processing d. analytic processing; holistic processing ANSWER: d 340. Analytic processing is to _____ as holistic processing is to ______. a. a Westerner; an Easterner b. a European; an Easterner c. an Easterner; a Westerner d. an Australian; a European ANSWER: a 341. Analytic processing refers to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. focusing on the relationships between an object and its context. b. mathematically processing. c. focusing on scientific thinking. d. focusing on a primary object independent of its context. ANSWER: d 342. Holistic processing is focusing on: a. the relationships between an object and its context. b. the relationships between primary objects in a visual display. c. scientific thinking. d. a primary object independent of its context. ANSWER: a 343. In the age-old debate between the influences of nature versus nurture on human behavior, the general consensus is that: a. behavior is almost exclusively the result of genetic factors (nature). b. behavior is almost exclusively the result of environmental factors (nurture). c. behavior is almost exclusively the result of genetic factors (epigenetics). d. both nature and nurture are important determinants of human behavior. ANSWER: d 344. _____ is/are a section(s) on a strand of _____. a. Genes; DNA b. The pons; genes c. Chromosomes; DNA d. Chromosomes; genes ANSWER: a 345. The major unit of hereditary transmission is the: a. gene. b. DNA. c. chromosome. d. sperm cell. ANSWER: a 346. Genes are sections on a strand of: a. neural tubes. b. DNA. c. chromosomes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. sperm cells. ANSWER: b 347. _____ are strands of DNA wound around another in a double-helix configuration. a. Chromosomes b. Genes c. mRNA d. Bipolar cells ANSWER: a 348. Which sequence correctly orders the terms from least to most complex? a. chromosome, gene, DNA b. gene, DNA, chromosome c. chromosome, DNA, gene d. gene, chromosome, DNA ANSWER: b 349. Which structure is the MOST complex? a. chromosome b. gene c. methyl group d. DNA ANSWER: a 350. Humans typically have _____ pairs of chromosomes. a. 13 b. 16 c. 23 d. 46 ANSWER: c 351. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, one from each parent; males have how many copies of the X chromosome? a. one b. two c. four d. none ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 352. Males have one copy of the Y chromosome; females have how many copies of the Y chromosome? a. one b. two c. one or two d. none ANSWER: d 353. Henry VIII disposed of a number of wives because they would not bear him a male child. Morality aside, what was wrong with Henry's strategy to bear a male child? a. Nothing was wrong with this strategy; eventually, it would work. b. Had he kept the same partner, he stood an increased chance of having a male child with each successive pregnancy. c. Henry failed to appreciate that he was 50% responsible for the sex of his offspring. d. Henry's genes, not his wives', determined the sex of his offspring. ANSWER: d 354. Children share a quarter of their genes with their: a. cousins. b. parents. c. siblings. d. grandparents. ANSWER: d 355. Denise lives with her identical twin Carrie, her older brother Eric, her parents Hector and Teri, and her grandfather Joe. Consider the percentage of genes shared by Denise and Teri. This percentage is the same as those shared by: a. Carrie and Joe. b. Denise and Carrie. c. Denise and Joe. d. Hector and Joe. ANSWER: d 356. The probability of sharing genes is termed: a. epigenetics. b. degree of relatedness. c. monozygotic continuity. d. heritability. ANSWER: b 357. The genes of a child will have most in common with the genes of a(n): Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. sibling. b. parent. c. identical twin. d. fraternal twin. ANSWER: c 358. The genes of a child will have the LEAST in common with the genes of a: a. sibling. b. parent. c. grandparent. d. fraternal twin. ANSWER: c 359. _____ twins develop from a splitting of a single fertilized egg and share _____% of their genes. a. Monozygotic; 100 b. Monozygotic; 50 c. Dizygotic; 100 d. Dizygotic; 50 ANSWER: a 360. _____ twins develop from two separate fertilized eggs and share _____% of their genes. a. Monozygotic; 100 b. Monozygotic; 50 c. Dizygotic; 100 d. Dizygotic; 50 ANSWER: d 361. The likelihood of a dizygotic twin of a person with schizophrenia also having schizophrenia is about: a. 12%. b. 27%. c. 50%. d. 96%. ANSWER: b 362. The likelihood of a monozygotic twin of a person with schizophrenia also having schizophrenia is about: a. 12%. b. 27%. c. 50%. d. 96%. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 363. One consequence of DNA methylation is that the: a. trait associated with the methylated gene will be more visible. b. basic DNA sequence of the methylated gene will be altered. c. tumor-suppression genes will be activated. d. methylated gene will not be expressed. ANSWER: d 364. The idea that genes express themselves within an environment is a central component of: a. degree of relatedness. b. epigenetics. c. heritability. d. brain evolution. ANSWER: b 365. The area of research that studies how the environment influences gene expression is termed: a. methylation. b. epigenetics. c. heritability. d. degree of relatedness. ANSWER: b 366. In epigenetics, the environment influences gene expression: a. without changing the underlying DNA sequences that constitute the genes themselves. b. by changing the underlying DNA sequences that constitute the genes themselves. c. by decoupling chromosomal pairs. d. by changing the underlying DNA sequences on only one chromosomal pair. ANSWER: a 367. Which film analogy BEST describes epigenetics? a. two different movies based on different scripts by the same writer b. a single movie based on the works of multiple screenwriters c. two different movies based on a common script d. a movie sequel starring the same actors ANSWER: c 368. Which film analogy BEST describes epigenetics? a. two different productions of Shakespeare's Hamlet Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. the Harry Potter movies based on the books c. two different Tom Hanks movies in which the actor plays similar characters d. two classic movies directed by Alfred Hitchcock that share similar themes ANSWER: a 369. Chemical modifications of DNA that can turn genes on and off are termed epigenetic: a. factors. b. proteins. c. variations. d. marks. ANSWER: d 370. Which film analogy BEST describes an epigenetic mark? a. a note a director makes in the script about an idea for a possible sequel b. a scene that is completely novel and inserted into an existing script by the director c. a director's decision to include or exclude a particular scene from the original script d. small random variations in acting performance during multiple takes of the same scene ANSWER: c 371. A critically acclaimed director is working on their latest blockbuster movie. Which scenario is MOST analogous to an epigenetic mark? a. rewriting the dialogue for a critical scene b. changing the ending from the original script c. changing the plot of the movie from the script while keeping the characterization d. emphasizing one scene in the script and cutting another during editing ANSWER: d 372. Epigenetic writers: a. can turn genes on but not turn them off. b. can turn genes on or off. c. add a methyl group to DNA. d. chemically modify the histones that are involved in packaging DNA. ANSWER: c 373. When a methyl group is _____ DNA it turns _____ gene expression. a. added to; on b. added to; off c. removed from; on d. removed from; off Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 374. Strands of DNA are wrapped around _____ proteins. a. histone b. methyl c. acetone d. chloride ANSWER: a 375. Histone modification: a. causes only the expression of genes. b. results in the formation of novel DNA sequences. c. causes both the expression and nonexpression of genes. d. results in the formation of novel chromosomal pairs. ANSWER: c 376. Studies of nurses working in high- and low-stress environments found group differences in DNA: a. sequencing. b. mutations. c. histones. d. methylation. ANSWER: d 377. Recent studies have shown that subjective levels of stress are correlated with DNA: a. sequencing. b. mutations. c. histones. d. methylation. ANSWER: d 378. The measure of the variability of behavioral traits among people that can be accounted for by genetic factors is called: a. heritability. b. monozygocity. c. evolution. d. epigenetics. ANSWER: a 379. As the heritability index for a particular behavior increases: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. environment becomes the sole reason for individual differences. b. the rate of histone modification increases. c. the behavior becomes increasingly sensitive to the environmental context. d. genes explain more of the individual differences in that behavioral trait than environment does. ANSWER: d 380. A heritability index of 0 for a behavioral trait indicates that: a. the brain has no role in the occurrence of that behavioral trait. b. genetic variation is not responsible for the individual variation in the occurrence of the trait. c. changing the environment will not change the likelihood that the trait will occur. d. the trait is extremely common in a given population. ANSWER: b 381. As the heritability index for a particular behavior decreases: a. nature becomes more important than nurture. b. the rate of DNA methylation decreases. c. epigenetics plays less of a factor as a determinant of gene expression. d. genes explain less of the individual differences in that behavioral trait. ANSWER: d 382. Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disease caused by a mutation on a specific gene. Those who have the mutation will develop the disease, and those who do not have the mutation will not develop the disease. The heritability index for Huntington's disease approximates: a. −1.0. b. 0. c. 0.60. d. 1.0. ANSWER: d 383. In a series of studies by Meaney and colleagues, rat pups were randomly assigned to be raised by surrogate mothers who spent a lot of time licking and grooming (high LG) them or surrogate mothers who spent little time engaging in this behavior (low LG). Rat pups raised by high-LG surrogates grow up to be _____ fearful in novel situations, which can be attributed to a(n) _____ in DNA methylation. a. less; increase b. less; decrease c. more; increase d. more; decrease ANSWER: b 384. In a series of studies by Meaney and colleagues, rat pups were randomly assigned to be raised by surrogate Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice mothers who spent a lot of time licking and grooming (high LG) them or surrogate mothers who spent little time engaging in this behavior (low LG). Rat pups raised by low LG surrogate grow up to be _____ fearful in novel situations, which can be attributed to a(n) _____ in DNA methylation. a. less; increase b. less; decrease c. more; increase d. more; decrease ANSWER: c 385. The heritability index for intelligence is approximately 0.50, meaning that: a. genetic factors are 50% more important than environmental factors in determining intelligence. b. parents with above-average intelligence have a 50% chance of having a child with above-average intelligence. c. about half of the variability in intelligence scores in the population can be attributed to environmental factors. d. intelligence is completely the result of genes for 50% of people. ANSWER: c 386. The heritability index for major depressive disorder is approximately 0.37, meaning that: a. genetic factors are 37% more important than environmental factors in determining depression. b. parents with major depressive disorder have a 37% chance of having a child with major depressive disorder. c. major depressive disorder is completely the result of genes for 37% of the population. d. 37% of the population variability in major depressive disorder can be attributed to genetics. ANSWER: d 387. Which statement about heritability is NOT true? a. It is dependent on the environment as well as genetics. b. It is a population concept. c. It is an abstract concept and provides no information about specific genes. d. It determines how individuals will respond to environmental conditions. ANSWER: d 388. What is the primary reason that psychologists study aspects of the damaged brain? a. Psychologists already know how the normal brain works. b. Psychologists can learn about normal brain processes by studying what happens when these processes are disrupted. c. Psychologists usually only have access to persons with brain dysfunction. d. Psychologists are only interested in abnormal behavior and the impaired brain processes that produce this behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 389. After a stroke, a patient appears to be unable to understand spoken words. The patient can produce speech but cannot seem to comprehend it. What is a likely explanation for these symptoms? a. damage to the auditory cortex b. damage to Broca's area c. damage to Wernicke's area d. damage to the motor cortex ANSWER: c 390. After a stroke, a patient appears to understand spoken words by nodding or following basic commands, but the patient has lost the ability to produce spoken language. What is a possible explanation for these symptoms? a. damage to the auditory cortex b. damage to Broca's area c. damage to Wernicke's area d. damage to the motor cortex ANSWER: b 391. Paul Broca and Carl Wernicke provided some of the earliest evidence that: a. the cortex operates as a single unitary organ. b. brain damage can change the personality. c. speech functions are typically served by the right side of the brain. d. there are separate areas of the brain for speech production and for speech comprehension. ANSWER: d 392. There are two special regions of the cortex dedicated to language, called Broca's and Wernicke's areas. Broca's area controls _____, and Wernicke's area controls _____. a. understanding; talking b. hearing the spoken word; seeing the written word c. reading; writing d. speech production; speech comprehension ANSWER: d 393. Phineas Gage, a railroad foreperson, experienced damage to a large part of the brain responsible for emotion regulation, planning, and decision making—namely, the _____ lobe. a. temporal b. parietal c. occipital d. frontal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 394. After his accident, Phineas Gage did NOT have impairments in: a. emotion regulation. b. planning. c. decision making. d. language comprehension. ANSWER: d 395. The iron rod that was driven through the head of Phineas Gage did NOT affect the: a. medulla. b. amygdala. c. limbic system. d. frontal lobes. ANSWER: a 396. In the split-brain procedure, the _____ is severed, usually to stop the spread of debilitating seizures. a. frontal cortex b. corpus callosum c. amygdala d. hippocampus ANSWER: b 397. A person with a split brain is shown the word pen only in their right visual field. That person will be able to: a. state that they just saw the word pen. b. write the word pen with their left hand. c. reach behind a screen with their left hand and choose a pen from a group of distractor objects. d. draw a picture of a pen with their left hand. ANSWER: a 398. Split-brain studies have revealed that: a. information is processed in the same hemisphere as it is received. b. information entering one hemisphere stays there in the absence of the corpus callosum. c. the corpus callosum does not help the two hemispheres exchange information. d. the right and left hemispheres have no independent functions. ANSWER: b 399. A person with a split brain is shown the word lockbox, with lock in the left visual field and box in the right visual field. The person is then asked to name the word they saw. They will respond that they saw: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. lockbox. b. boxlock. c. lock. d. box. ANSWER: d 400. A person with a split brain is shown the word lockbox, with lock in the left visual field and box in the right visual field. The person is then asked to draw a picture of the word that they just saw using only their left hand. They will draw a picture of a: a. box with a lock on it. b. box. c. lock. d. key. ANSWER: c 401. A person with a split brain is shown the word clock only in their left visual field. That person will be able to: a. state that they just saw the word clock. b. write the word clock with their right hand. c. reach behind a screen with their right hand and choose a clock from a group of distractor objects. d. draw a picture of a clock with their left hand. ANSWER: d 402. An electroencephalograph is a beneficial tool for: a. determining cause and effect between brain function and behavior. b. determining the amount of brain activity during different states of consciousness. c. localizing the regions of the brain responsible for various cognitive processes. d. obtaining a high-resolution scan of the various brain structures. ANSWER: b 403. The patterns of electrical activity in the brain during sleeping and waking are identified through the use of: a. electroencephalographs. b. computerized axial tomography scan. c. functional magnetic resonance imaging. d. positron emission tomography. ANSWER: a 404. A device used to record the electrical activity in the brain is the: a. electroencephalograph. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice b. computerized axial tomography scan. c. functional magnetic resonance imaging. d. positron emission tomography. ANSWER: a 405. Which technique uses structural imaging? a. electroencephalography b. computerized axial tomography c. functional magnetic resonance imaging d. positron emission tomography ANSWER: b 406. Which technique does NOT use structural imaging? a. electroencephalography b. computerized axial tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. diffusion tensor imaging ANSWER: a 407. Ben has a series of X-ray photographs taken from around his head at different angles. A computer program then combines these images into one picture of the brain. Ben has just received a(n) _____ scan. a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI ANSWER: a 408. In a CT scan, the cortex appears: a. white. b. dark. c. red. d. gray. ANSWER: d 409. Which brain imaging technique is commonly used to detect tumors? a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 410. Dr. Jackson's patient has been experiencing blurry vision. Dr. Jackson suspects there may be a tumor in the patient's occipital cortex. Which technique should Dr. Jackson use to confirm his suspicion? a. EEG b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI ANSWER: c 411. Which brain imaging technique is commonly used to assess structural damage to the cortex after a stroke? a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI ANSWER: c 412. Which brain imaging technique is commonly used to visualize white matter pathways that connect one brain area to another? a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. DTI ANSWER: d 413. How are brain size and intelligence related? a. Brain size is unrelated to intelligence. b. There is a negative correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. c. There is a positive correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. d. Brain size and academic success are positively correlated. ANSWER: c 414. What is the nature of the relationship between brain size and intelligence? a. Brain size is unrelated to intelligence. b. Brain size and fluid intelligence are negatively correlated. c. There is a small, but significant, positive correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. d. There is a large positive correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. ANSWER: c 415. Which technique uses functional imaging? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice a. electroencephalography b. computerized axial tomography c. MRI d. positron emission tomography ANSWER: d 416. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI): a. measures the action potential of a single neuron. b. detects oxygenated hemoglobin in the brain. c. directly measures neuronal events. d. directly measures neural signals in the brain. ANSWER: b 417. The benefit of using functional brain imaging techniques is that they allow researchers to: a. observe dynamic activity in the brain during specific tasks. b. produce static pictures of the brain that help locate damaged areas. c. determine cause-and-effect relationships between the brain and behavior. d. diagnose psychiatric illnesses. ANSWER: a 418. One major advantage of fMRI over PET is that fMRI: a. measures both brain structure and function. b. allows for cause-and-effect determinations between brain function and behavior to be made. c. does not involve the use of an expensive machine that generates magnetic pulses. d. allows for the measurement of brain activity on a much shorter time scale. ANSWER: d 419. _____ and _____ are functional neuroimaging techniques. a. CT scans; PET b. PET; MRI c. PET; fMRI d. CT scans; fMRI ANSWER: c 420. _____ is a functional neuroimaging technique in which a harmless radioactive substance is injected into the bloodstream and then absorbed by brain regions as they require blood flow. a. Electroencephalography b. Computerized axial tomography c. Positron emission tomography Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice d. Functional magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: c 421. PET scans differ from CT and MRI scans in that PET scans: a. produce clearer images of brain structure. b. show which regions of the brain are active as a person performs certain tasks. c. do not involve exposing people to injections of radioactive substances. d. can better identify the presence of a brain tumor. ANSWER: b 422. fMRI scans measure _____ in the brain. a. oxygenated hemoglobin b. electrical activity c. radioactive glucose d. tissue density ANSWER: a 423. Kiran wishes to study the regions of the brain that are active as a person is reading emotionally charged words. What brain imaging technique would he MOST likely employ? a. MRI b. DTI c. PET d. fMRI ANSWER: d 424. Shannon wishes to study the regions of the brain that are active while looking at faces of friends on social media. What brain imaging technique would she MOST likely employ? a. MRI b. DTI c. PET d. fMRI ANSWER: d 425. _____ scans are normally used to identify default brain networks, or sets of brain regions that are closely connected to one another when a person is internally focused. a. MRI b. fMRI c. CT d. PET Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 426. Which of these is NOT an advantage of fMRI over PET technology? a. fMRI does not require any exposure to a radioactive substance. b. fMRI is more useful for analyzing processes that happen extremely quickly. c. Researchers can design fMRI studies to more closely resemble the ones they would carry out in a psychology laboratory than they could with the limitations of PET technology. d. Only fMRI technology enables researchers to localize changes in the brain very accurately. ANSWER: d 427. A psychologist wishes to study the regions of the brain that are active when a person is doing nothing and is at rest. What brain imaging technique would MOST likely be employed? a. MRI b. DTI c. PET d. fMRI ANSWER: d 428. When the angular gyrus is damaged, people experience difficulties: a. remembering details about the past. b. understanding speech. c. recognizing objects. d. producing speech. ANSWER: a 429. The major advantage of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) over fMRI is that TMS: a. does not expose people to radioactive material. b. can determine cause and effect between brain functioning and behavior. c. provides a higher-resolution image of brain structure. d. produces permanent changes in brain functioning. ANSWER: b 430. Researchers are beginning to use transcranial magnetic stimulation to: a. identify specific genes related to depression. b. treat depression through magnetic therapy. c. manipulate brain functioning by essentially turning localized areas off and on. d. pinpoint where in the brain memories are stored. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 3 Scenario Scenario 3.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Caspi, A., Sugden, K., Moffitt, T. E., Taylor, A., Craig, I. W., Harrington, H., McClay, J., Mill, J., Martin, J., Braithwaite, A., & Poulton, R. (2003). Influence of life stress on depression: Moderation by a polymorphism in the 5-HTT gene. Science, 301(5631), 386–389. The serotonin transporter gene codes for the serotonin transporter, a protein that transports serotonin from the synapse to the presynaptic neuron. Several polymorphisms of the gene exist, including a "short" (s) and a "long" (l) variation. As humans receive one copy of the gene from each parent, people can be grouped into three groups based on this genetic variation: s/s (two copies of the short gene), s/l, or l/l. Caspi et al. (2003) interviewed participants in each of these groups and asked them a wide range of questions to determine both the degree of exposure to stress and the number of depressive episodes participants had experienced in their lives. Fabricated results consistent with their major findings are shown in Figure 3.1. Figure 3.1

1. (Scenario 3.1) The function of the serotonin transporter protein is to: a. inhibit the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. b. make possible the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. c. facilitate the release of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. d. impede the release of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 3.1) The serotonin transporter protein essentially _____ serotonin. a. recycles b. releases c. synthesizes d. metabolizes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Scenario ANSWER: a 3. (Scenario 3.1) A gene is a segment of _____ that codes for traits. a. a chromosome b. a neurotransmitter c. DNA d. a histone protein ANSWER: c 4. (Scenario 3.1) Under conditions of low stress: a. persons in the s/s group were more likely than those in the other two groups to experience a depressive episode. b. persons in the l/l group seem to have been protected from experiencing a depressive episode relative to the other groups. c. none of the groups experienced depressive episodes. d. depressive episodes were unrelated to genetic group. ANSWER: d 5. (Scenario 3.1) Which statement is NOT true about the relationship between genetic variation and depression under conditions of high stress? a. Persons in the s/s group were more likely than were those in the other two groups to experience a depressive episode. b. Persons in the l/l group seem to have been protected from experiencing a depressive episode relative to the other groups. c. The vulnerability for depression increased with increases in life stress for all groups. d. A gene × environment interaction was observed. ANSWER: c 6. (Scenario 3.1) Variation in the serotonin transporter gene was not predictive of depression: a. when life stress was low. b. in people with two copies of the same variation. c. when life stress was high. d. if only the s/s and s/l groups are considered. ANSWER: a 7. (Scenario 3.1) A person has two copies of the small variation of the serotonin transporter gene and has been exposed to a high degree of stress over the course of their lifetime. Based on the results shown in the scenario, one could: a. accurately predict that the person probably has experienced an episode of major depression at least once in their life. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Scenario b. accurately predict that the person currently has depression. c. justify prescribing antidepressant drugs to the person. d. conclude that the person carries a risk factor for depression. ANSWER: d Use Scenario 3.2 to answer the following question(s). In pioneering research by Sperry and colleagues, people with split brains were asked to stare at a dot on a screen centered between their eyes while words naming common objects were projected onto the screen either in their left or right visual fields. Subsequently, they were asked to reach behind a screen with either their left or right hands and identify the object amongst other common objects by touch alone. 8. (Scenario 3.2) A split brain is the result of: a. severing connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system. b. ablating portions of the prefrontal cortex. c. severing the corpus callosum. d. ablating portions of the reticular formation. ANSWER: c 9. (Scenario 3.2) The split-brain surgical procedure is almost always performed to reduce: a. seizure activity among people with epilepsy. b. brain swelling after traumatic injury. c. delusions and hallucinations among people with paranoid schizophrenia. d. the spread of cancerous brain tumors. ANSWER: a 10. (Scenario 3.2) The split-brain surgical procedure effectively prevents communication between the: a. frontal lobe and the limbic system. b. striatum and the cerebellum. c. primary visual cortex and the somatosensory cortex. d. left and right brain hemispheres. ANSWER: d 11. (Scenario 3.2) Using the procedure described in the scenario, people with split brains were simultaneously shown the word key in the left visual field and the word chain in the right visual field. They were then asked what word was projected onto the screen. They will respond that they saw the word: a. key. b. chain. c. key chain. d. chain key. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Scenario ANSWER: b 12. (Scenario 3.2) Using the procedure described in the scenario above, people with split brains were simultaneously shown the word key in the left visual field and the word chain in the right visual field. They were then asked to reach behind a screen with their left hand and find the object that was projected onto the screen. Among the objects behind the screen are a key, a small chain, a keychain, and a lock. Which object will they select? a. the key b. the chain c. the keychain d. the lock ANSWER: a Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 13. (Scenario 3.3) Opiate prescription painkillers exert their pain-killing and euphoric effects by binding to the mu-opioid receptor and functioning similarly to the brain's endogenous endorphins. Opiate prescription painkillers function as: a. direct agonists. b. indirect agonists. c. direct antagonists. d. indirect antagonists. ANSWER: a 14. (Scenario 3.3) Increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse: a. increases the amount of neurotransmitter available to bind to its postsynaptic receptor. b. decreases the amount of neurotransmitter available to bind to its postsynaptic receptor. c. blocks postsynaptic receptor sites, thereby decreasing neurotransmission. d. blocks the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron into the synapse. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 3 Scenario 15. (Scenario 3.3) Ingested as a drug, L-dopa spurs dopaminergic neurons to make more dopamine. L-dopa is thus a(n) _____ agonist on the dopamine system and is commonly prescribed to treat _____. a. direct; schizophrenia b. indirect; schizophrenia c. direct; Parkinson's disease d. indirect; Parkinson's disease ANSWER: d 16. (Scenario 3.3) Cocaine floods the synapse with dopamine by blocking its reuptake. Cocaine functions as a(n) _____ on the dopamine system. a. direct agonist b. indirect agonist c. direct antagonist d. indirect antagonist ANSWER: b 17. (Scenario 3.3) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are _____ that enhance serotonin levels in the synapse and are commonly prescribed to treat _____. a. direct agonists; Parkinson's disease b. indirect agonists; depression c. direct antagonists; depression d. indirect antagonists; Parkinson's disease ANSWER: b 18. (Scenario 3.3) Naloxone is used for the treatment of opiate overdoses because it quickly travels to the muopioid receptor, occupies it, and thus blocks opiate drugs such as heroin from binding to the receptor and exerting effects. Naltrexone functions as an opiate: a. direct agonist. b. indirect agonist. c. direct antagonist. d. indirect antagonist. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 4 Essay 1. Describe the flow of visual information from the eye to the primary visual cortex. ANSWER: The answer should indicate the following information: (1) Information is carried from the eye to the brain via the optic nerve. Half of the axons in the optic nerve that leave each eye come from retinal ganglion cells that code information in the right visual field, and the other half code information in the left visual field. (2) The right visual field information is relayed to the left hemisphere of the brain, while the left visual field information is relayed to the right hemisphere. (3) Information first goes to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), which is located in the thalamus of each hemisphere. (4) From the LGN, the visual signals travel to area V1, the part of the occipital lobe that contains the primary visual cortex.

2. Although your friend has never seen a cherry-red spider, they have no problem detecting that one is currently crawling across the floor. Using this example, describe the processes of sensation and perception of color. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Sir Isaac Newton pointed out that color is not something "in" light. Nor is it "in" the object. An apple is not red. Rather, color is our perceptual response to different wavelengths of light. People perceive an apple to be red because it reflects light waves of a particular frequency. (2) Humans have specialized cones to detect short wavelengths (S-cones), medium wavelengths (M-cones), and long wavelengths (Lcones). Activation of these cones corresponds to the perception of bluish, greenish, and reddish colors, respectively. (3) Depending on the pattern of firing among these three types of cones, all of the shades of color in the visual spectrum can be perceived.

3. After a stroke, Mario is unable to identify everyday objects that he encounters. His memory for objects and ability to manipulate objects remains intact. What area of his brain is MOST likely impacted by the stroke? Describe the neural pathways involved in identifying what an object is and where an object is located in space and how it can be utilized. ANSWER: The answer should indicate the following information: (1) Mario most likely has experienced damage to the ventral stream or "what" pathway. (2) The ventral stream represents what an object is. This pathway travels across the occipital lobe into the lower levels of the temporal lobe. (3) The dorsal stream travels from the occipital lobe to the parietal lobes. The dorsal stream allows people to perceive spatial relations and is crucial for guiding actions such as aiming, reaching, or tracking with the eyes.

4. Describe four Gestalt perceptual grouping rules. ANSWER: The answer should indicate 4 of the following: (1) Simplicity: The visual system tends to select the simplest or most likely interpretation. (2) Closure: The missing elements of a visual scene are filled in, allowing people to perceive edges that are separated by an interruption as belonging to complete objects. (3) Continuity: Edges that have the same orientation are grouped together perceptually. (4) Similarity: Regions that are similar in color, lightness, shape, or texture are perceived as belonging to the same object. (5) Proximity: Objects that are close together tend to be grouped together. (6) Common fate: Elements of a visual image that move together are perceived as parts of a single moving object.

5. Sofia is creating a giant painting of the streets of New York City. List five ways she could create depth in her painting. Are these monocular or binocular cues? ANSWER: The answer should indicate the following points. In creating her painting, Sofia will need to use monocular rather than binocular cues to create depth in her painting. Monocular depth cues are aspects of a scene that yield information about depth when viewed with only one eye. These include relative size, linear perspective, texture gradient, interposition, and relative height. Sofia could paint objects that are in the foreground of the painting larger than those that should be in the background, using relative size. Due to linear perspective, she should make sure that the parallel lines of the streets seem to converge as they recede into the distance. Using a texture gradient, closer objects should appear more detailed, and objects further away should appear smoother. Interposition occurs when one object partly blocks another. Having items in the foreground that block items in the background would provide a depth cue, but this alone will not provide information about how far apart the two objects are. Sofia could use relative height in the image to give clues about depth. She would paint objects that are closer to the viewer lower in a visual scene, and objects that are supposed to be farther from the viewer higher up in the picture.

6. What are the three properties of sound waves? How does each affect the experience of sound? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Essay ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the three properties of sound waves are frequency, amplitude, and complexity. The frequency of a sound wave, or its wavelength, depends on how often the peak in air pressure passes the ear. Changes in the physical frequency of a sound wave are perceived by humans as changes in pitch. The amplitude of a sound wave refers to its height relative to the threshold for human hearing. Amplitude corresponds to loudness, or sound intensity. Differences in the complexity of sound waves or their mixing of frequencies correspond to timbre, a listener's experience of sound quality or resonance.

7. Describe the three major structures and functions of the outer, middle, and inner ear. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) The outer ear consists of the pinna, the auditory canal, and the eardrum. The pinna is specially designed to funnel sound waves into the auditory canal. Sound waves travel through the canal and vibrate the eardrum. (2) The middle ear contains the three smallest bones in the body, the ossicles: hammer, anvil, and stirrup. Vibrations from the eardrum cause the ossicles to vibrate against the oval window. (3) Vibrations from the oval window cause the fluid of the inner ear to move. The inner ear contains the spiral-shaped cochlea, a fluidfilled tube that is the organ of auditory transduction. The cochlea is divided along its length by the basilar membrane, a structure in the inner ear that undulates when vibrations from the ossicles reach the cochlear fluid. This movement stimulates hair cells, which are specialized auditory receptor neurons embedded in the basilar membrane. Neurotransmitters released from the hair cells initiate the neural signal to the brain via the auditory nerve.

8. Dr. Liu examines a patient with hearing loss. She notices damage to the ear drum. What type of hearing loss and treatment options does this patient have? ANSWER: The patient has conductive hearing loss, which involves mechanical damage to the point that structures cannot conduct sound waves effectively to the cochlea. Medication or surgery can correct the problem. Sound amplification from a hearing aid can also improve hearing through conduction via the bones around the ear directly to the cochlea.

9. What are the types of touch receptors located under the skin's surface? Describe how touch is represented in the brain. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that there are several types of touch receptors located under the surface of the skin, including pain, pressure, texture, pattern, and vibration. Touch is represented in the brain in a topographic scheme. Different locations on the body project sensory signals to different locations in the somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe. Just as the visual brain is devoted to foveal vision where acuity is the greatest, the tactile brain is devoted to parts of the skin surface that have greater spatial resolution. For example, the fingertips and lips are good at discriminating fine spatial detail because fingertips and lips have a dense arrangement of touch receptors in the somatosensory cortex. Areas such as the lower back, which have no such arrangement of touch receptors, are quite poor at discriminating spatial detail.

10. Describe the two chemical senses of smell and taste. Include a discussion of the sensory receptors for smell and taste and a discussion of the pathways by which smell and taste sensations are transmitted. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the experience of smell is associated with odorant molecules binding to sites on specialized olfactory receptors neurons (ORNs) that converge at the glomerulus within the olfactory bulb. This event, in turn, sends signals to parts of the brain that control drives, emotions, and memories, which explains why smells can sometimes elicit strong emotions and memories. Sensations of taste depend on taste buds, which are distributed across the tongue, roof of the mouth, and upper throat. Each taste bud contains a range of receptor cells that respond to varying chemical components of food: salty, sour, bitter, sweet, and umami. These molecules then dissolve in saliva and stimulate the microvilli that form the tips of the taste receptor cells. Each taste bud is in contact with a branch of a cranial nerve at its base.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 1. The registration of light, sound, pressure, odor, or taste as people's bodies interact with the physical world is called: a. priming. b. perception. c. synesthesia. d. sensation. ANSWER: d 2. Simple stimulation of a sense organ is called: a. perception. b. sensation. c. transduction. d. synesthesia. ANSWER: b 3. Sensation is to _____ as perception is to _____. a. encoding; detection b. detection; interpretation c. interpretation; organization d. organization; accommodation ANSWER: b 4. Sensation occurs: a. when the brain interprets a perception. b. at the level of the cortex. c. as the body interacts with the physical world. d. at the same time as perception. ANSWER: c 5. The process of organization, identification, and interpretation of a sensation in order to form a mental representation is called: a. synesthesia. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: c 6. Perception takes place at the level of the: a. brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. spinal cord. c. sensory neurons. d. specific sensory organs such as eyes. ANSWER: a 7. When Jorge reads from a physical book, his eyeballs register different patterns of light reflecting off the page. This activity of his eyes represents: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: b 8. As Sura reads a piece of paper, her brain gives meaning to the lines and curves on the page. This activity of your brain represents: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: c 9. When a cool breeze enters the room, thermoreceptors in the skin respond. This represents the process of: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: b 10. A cold breeze enters the room. Temperature-sensitive neurons in the skin send a signal to the brain. The brain could interpret this signal as annoying or pleasant, indicating the interpretive role of: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: c 11. Damage to the occipital lobe can interfere with the processing of information coming in through the eyes, indicating that: a. sensation occurs in the brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. sensation occurs at the same time as perception. c. sensation and perception are different but related processes. d. the eyes will not sense if cortical areas in the occipital lobe are damaged. ANSWER: c 12. Sensation and perception: a. are basically the same process. b. are two completely different and unrelated processes. c. are related but separate processes. d. occur in the same areas of the brain. ANSWER: c 13. _____ involves transducing changes in the pressure, temperature, or vibration of a surface. a. Vision b. Smell c. Taste d. Touch ANSWER: d 14. Transduction involves converting _____ signals from the environment to _____ signals sent to the central nervous system. a. light-wave; chemical b. sensory; perceptual c. chemical; electrical d. physical; neural ANSWER: d 15. All the senses rely on the process of: a. synesthesia. b. transduction. c. accommodation. d. motion parallax. ANSWER: b 16. The process of converting physical signals from the environment into neural signals sent to the central nervous system is called: a. transduction. b. perception. c. sensation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. synesthesia. ANSWER: a 17. Which sense involves transducing changes in air pressure? a. vision b. hearing c. smell d. taste ANSWER: b 18. Which sense involves transducing changes in light? a. vision b. hearing c. smell d. taste ANSWER: a 19. Which sense involves transducing chemicals dispersed in air? a. vision b. hearing c. smell d. touch ANSWER: c 20. When people are exposed to a flash of light, neurons in the eye that are sensitive to light send a neural signal to the brain. The conversion of light into neural signals is called: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: d 21. Max discovers a new and very colorful species of caterpillar. The process by which Max's eyes convert the light bouncing off the caterpillar into neural signals is called: a. accommodation. b. parallel processing. c. transduction. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 22. Angel's friend is baking cookies. As Angel enters the kitchen where the cookies are baking, their nose creates electrical signals from the molecules dispersed in the air. This is the process of: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. ANSWER: d 23. You walk into a store that has a distinct perfume smell. After shopping for 20 minutes, you no longer notice the perfume smell. This is an example of: a. signal detection. b. accommodation. c. Weber's law. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: d 24. Fatima is outside stargazing at night when the headlights of an approaching car temporarily impair her vision. After a few moments, however, the light no longer seems as bright. This is an example of: a. retinal disparity. b. accommodation. c. sensory adaptation. d. sensitization. ANSWER: c 25. The perceptual system is: a. more sensitive to constant levels of stimulation than it is to changes in stimulation. b. more sensitive to changes in stimulation than it is to constant levels of stimulation. c. highly sensitive to both constant and changing stimulation. d. quite insensitive to both constant and changing stimulation. ANSWER: b 26. The perceptual system adapts to: a. constant levels of stimulation faster than it does to variable levels of stimulation. b. changing levels of stimulation faster than it does to constant levels of stimulation. c. unpredictable levels of stimulation faster than it does to predictable levels of stimulation. d. rare occurrences of stimulation faster than it does to frequent occurrences of stimulation. ANSWER: a 27. Mikhail moved to a new apartment located on a busy, noisy street. According to sensory adaptation, over time, Mikhail would be LEAST likely to notice the noise if traffic: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. patterns remain constant. b. is heavy only during rush hour. c. is unpredictable. d. is heavy during the week and light on the weekends. ANSWER: a 28. Which statement is NOT a reason sensory adaptation is a useful process? a. An unchanging stimulus is less likely to require immediate action. b. Constantly sensing stimuli that are always in our environment would be highly distracting. c. Stimuli that change frequently usually are of no consequence and therefore not important to sense. d. Sensory adaptation better allows our senses to selectively respond to important changes in stimulation. ANSWER: c 29. Methods that systematically relate the physical characteristics of a stimulus to an observer's participation are called: a. psychophysics. b. accommodation. c. just noticeable differences. d. absolute thresholds. ANSWER: a 30. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such low levels of intensity that Mr. Antall could hardly detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall's _____ threshold. a. subliminal b. absolute c. adaptation d. difference ANSWER: b 31. Which study would constitute one that is psychophysical? a. studying the mechanisms by which auditory receptors transduce sound b. studying the differences in the physical properties of the sound waves produced by a guitar and a violin c. determining the smallest amount of sugar to add to a glass of water such that a person will report tasting something sweet d. asking participants to report on their feelings as they stare at an abstract painting ANSWER: c 32. Which study would constitute one that is psychophysical? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. studying the mechanisms by which rods and cones in the eye transduce light b. determining the lowest-decibel sound that can be reliably detected in humans c. determining if people prefer to drink sweetened or unsweetened tea d. asking participants to report on their conscious experience as they listen to a metronome ANSWER: b 33. The minimal intensity, needed to just barely detect a stimulus in 50% of the trials tested, is called the: a. just noticeable difference. b. receptive field. c. absolute threshold. d. difference threshold. ANSWER: c 34. The absolute threshold is the: a. minimal change in a stimulus that can just barely be detected in 50% of the trials. b. minimal intensity needed to just barely detect a stimulus in 50% of the trials. c. intensity of a stimulus that can be detected in the presence of noise in 50% of the trials. d. decreasing sensitivity to a stimulus over time. ANSWER: b 35. Stimuli that are presented at the absolute threshold will be detected _____% of the time. a. 1 b. 10 c. 50 d. 100 ANSWER: c 36. Stimuli that are presented slightly below the absolute threshold will: a. never be detected. b. be detected less than 10% of the time. c. be detected less than 50% of the time. d. be detected between 50% and 99% of the time. ANSWER: c 37. Noel wants to measure her cat Ernie's auditory threshold. She quietly whispers Ernie's name and slowly increases her volume until the cat turns and looks at her. Over the course of several days, she whispers 10 times at each volume. The volume at which Ernie responds 5 times is called: a. the absolute threshold. b. the just noticeable difference. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. Weber's law. d. the relative threshold. ANSWER: a 38. Robert lightly taps the student sitting in front of him on the shoulder. The student doesn't notice, so Robert taps harder. The minimum pressure Robert must tap such that the other student notices half of the time is called: a. the absolute threshold. b. the just noticeable difference. c. Weber's law. d. the relative threshold. ANSWER: a 39. People are MOST sensitive to the range of tones corresponding to: a. the lowest notes on a pipe organ. b. high-frequency dog whistles. c. human voice. d. the sound made by striking a tuning fork. ANSWER: c 40. On a clear, dark night, a person with normal vision can detect a candle flame 30 miles away 50% of the time. This illustrates the approximate _____ for vision. a. just noticeable difference b. relative threshold c. psychophysical boundary d. absolute threshold ANSWER: d 41. A person with normal taste sense will taste a teaspoon of sugar dissolved in two gallons of water 50% of the time. This illustrates the approximate _____ for taste. a. just noticeable difference b. relative threshold c. psychophysical boundary d. absolute threshold ANSWER: d 42. The just noticeable difference (JND) is the: a. decreasing sensitivity to a stimulus over time. b. minimal change in a stimulus that can just barely be detected. c. minimal intensity needed to just barely detect a stimulus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. ability to detect a stimulus in the presence of noise. ANSWER: b 43. The approximate absolute threshold for hearing is a clock's tick from 20 feet away when all is quiet. Given that information, which statements is true? a. All people with normal hearing will be able to detect the clock tick. b. Fifty percent of people will be able to detect the clock tick 100% of the time. c. Weber's law predicts that the tick will not be heard from 40 feet away. d. A person will not hear the clock tick 50% of the time. ANSWER: d 44. The approximate absolute threshold for taste is being able to detect a teaspoon of sugar dissolved in two gallons of water. Given that information, which statement is true? a. All people with normal taste will be able to detect the sugar. b. Fifty percent of people will be able to detect the sugar 100% of the time. c. Weber's law predicts that the same amount of sugar dissolved in one gallon of water would not be detected. d. A person will not detect the sugar 50% of the time. ANSWER: d 45. Adella asks her smart speaker to turn down the volume. The speaker says that it will turn the volume down, but Adella doesn't notice a decrease in volume. The speaker's decrease in volume was not enough to meet the: a. absolute threshold. b. minimal threshold. c. just noticeable difference. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: c 46. Parents tell their teenage son to turn down his music. The son tells his parents that he will do so and turns the volume down slightly. A minute later, the parents cannot tell that their son complied with the request, so they yell at him. Apparently, the decrease in volume was not enough to meet the: a. absolute threshold. b. correct rejection criteria. c. just noticeable difference. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: c 47. The absolute threshold is useful for assessing _____, while the just noticeable difference assesses _____. a. sensitivity; acuity b. acuity; sensitivity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. acuity; sensory adaptation d. Weber's law; sensitivity ANSWER: a 48. In one experiment, Dikembe measures how responsive participants are to faint sounds using _____. In a second experiment, he will measure acuity using _____. a. absolute thresholds; just noticeable differences b. just noticeable differences; Weber's law c. absolute thresholds; sensory adaptation d. Weber's law; absolute thresholds ANSWER: a 49. _____ states that the just noticeable difference of a stimulus is a constant proportion despite variations in intensity. a. Signal detection theory b. Fechner's postulate c. Weber's law d. Gate-control theory ANSWER: c 50. Weber's law states that the just noticeable difference of a stimulus is a(n) _____ proportion, despite variations in intensity. a. inverse b. increasing c. decreasing d. constant ANSWER: d 51. Giulio holds a bag of 70 marbles in his hands. Jim covers Giulio's eyes and keeps adding marbles to Giulio's bag, one at a time. However, Giulio notices the difference in the weight only after Jim has added 5 marbles. They now repeat the same experiment with a bag of 140 marbles. This time, Giulio notices the difference in the weight only after Jim has added 10 marbles. This scenario BEST illustrates: a. signal detection theory. b. Weber's law. c. accommodation. d. Ricco's law. ANSWER: b 52. You probably can detect a weight difference between a 1-ounce and a 2-ounce envelope. But if you pick up a 20-pound package, you'd probably need another package that weighs at least 20.5 pounds before detecting a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice difference between the first package and the second package. This description illustrates: a. Weber's law. b. signal detection theory. c. absolute thresholds. d. perceptual constancy. ANSWER: a 53. _____ predicts that a power lifter cannot detect the difference between 300 and 301 pounds but can easily detect the difference between 3 and 4 pounds. a. Weber's law b. Signal detection theory c. Size constancy d. Gestalt theory ANSWER: a 54. According to _____, our response to a stimulus depends both on our sensitivity to the stimulus in the presence of noise and on our decision criterion. a. the just noticeable difference theory b. Weber's law c. the absolute threshold theory d. signal detection theory ANSWER: d 55. According to _____, the level of stimulation required to detect a stimulus changes based on our expectancies, mood, and current environment. a. the just noticeable difference theory b. Weber's law c. the absolute threshold theory d. signal detection theory ANSWER: d 56. Signal detection allows for the study of two independent factors, namely: a. strength of sensory evidence and decision criterion. b. absolute threshold and decision criterion. c. strength of sensory evidence and background noise. d. absolute threshold and just noticeable difference. ANSWER: a 57. When considering signal detection theory, noise is defined as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. the sounds being played at varying levels to test for hearing. b. all of the other stimuli coming from the internal and external environment. c. a chronic static sound played in the background. d. bright lights, strong smells/tastes, loud sounds, and tactile stimuli. ANSWER: b 58. In a psychophysics lab, memories, moods, and motives are examples of: a. emotional triggers. b. internal noise. c. external noise. d. personality characteristics. ANSWER: b 59. In a psychophysics lab, inadvertent sights, sounds, and smells are considered: a. internal noise. b. interference. c. test variables. d. external noise. ANSWER: d 60. In signal detection research, which of these is NOT considered internal noise? a. motive b. memory c. mood d. smell ANSWER: d 61. In signal detection research, which of these is NOT considered an example of external noise? a. sound b. smell c. bright light d. memory ANSWER: d 62. Dr. Ramirez, a radiologist, uses a very liberal criterion when she reads CT scans. She recommends a biopsy for every possible case of cancer. This decision strategy _____ the chances of missing a true cancer and _____ false alarms. a. maximizes; leads to many b. minimizes; doesn't affect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. minimizes; leads to many d. maximizes; minimizes ANSWER: c 63. Chloe uses a very conservative decision criterion in her signal detection experiments, saying "Yes" only when the stimulus is clear, strong, and unambiguous. This will produce: a. many false alarms and many misses. b. few false alarms and few misses. c. many false alarms and few misses. d. few false alarms and many misses. ANSWER: d 64. In the wake of intelligence information, the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) orders that almost all people flying receive a "pat down" as they go through security at the airport. In terms of detecting terrorist activity, the TSA is using a(n) _____ decision criterion. a. extremely liberal b. slightly liberal c. slightly conservative d. extremely conservative ANSWER: a 65. If the law required that there must be overwhelming evidence beyond a shadow of a doubt to convict a person of a crime, jurors would be required to adopt a(n) _____ decision criterion. a. extremely liberal b. slightly liberal c. slightly conservative d. extremely conservative ANSWER: d 66. If the Transportation Security Administration (TSA) orders that almost all people flying receive a "pat down" as they go through security at the airport, the TSA would be making a large number of _____ in their screening for terrorists. a. hits and misses b. misses c. false alarms d. misses and false alarms ANSWER: c 67. If a hospital requires that there must be overwhelming evidence beyond a shadow of a doubt to conduct a biopsy on a suspected tumor, in signal detection terminology, what would be the effect on the patients in the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice hospital? a. Almost all scans would result in biopsy's being scheduled. b. Many treatable cancers may go undetected or treated. c. Most patients would end up in chemotherapy and being treated for cancer. d. Setting the criterion this way would have no real impact on patients. ANSWER: b 68. Perceiving only what is relevant to you is called: a. perceptual sensitivity. b. sensory adaptation. c. multitasking. d. selective attention. ANSWER: d 69. Juggling two independent sources of sensory input at the same time is an example of: a. selective attention. b. multitasking. c. sensory adaptation. d. the just noticeable difference. ANSWER: b 70. Which activity is LEAST distracting when you are driving? a. talking on a hand-held phone b. talking on a hands-free phone c. listening to the radio d. texting ANSWER: c 71. Visible light is simply the: a. entire electromagnetic spectrum. b. part of the electromagnetic spectrum that represents infrared. c. portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that we can see. d. portion of the electromagnetic spectrum dedicated to the ultraviolet spectrum. ANSWER: c 72. A synthetic light source that consists of only one wavelength of light is said to be: a. without hue. b. multishaded. c. bright. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. pure. ANSWER: d 73. Which of these is NOT part of the magnetic spectrum? a. radio waves b. x-rays c. pulsars d. infrared ANSWER: c 74. The length of a light wave determines its: a. brightness. b. saturation, or richness of color. c. hue, or color. d. acuity. ANSWER: c 75. The amplitude of a light wave corresponds to its: a. color. b. hue. c. purity. d. brightness. ANSWER: d 76. The brightness of light is determined by the _____ of light waves. a. amplitude b. length c. purity d. width ANSWER: a 77. The number of wavelengths that make up light determines its: a. hue, or color. b. brightness. c. saturation, or richness of color. d. spectrum. ANSWER: c 78. Wavelength is to wave amplitude as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. color is to saturation. b. color is to brightness. c. brightness is to color. d. brightness is to saturation. ANSWER: b 79. Wavelength is to purity as: a. color is to saturation. b. color is to brightness. c. brightness is to color. d. brightness is to saturation. ANSWER: a 80. The _____ in the visible spectrum will be perceived as violet. a. shortest wavelengths b. longest wavelengths c. shortest amplitudes d. longest amplitudes ANSWER: a 81. The _____ in the visible spectrum will be perceived as red. a. shortest wavelengths b. longest wavelengths c. shortest amplitudes d. longest amplitudes ANSWER: b 82. Which type of emission has the longest wavelength? a. gamma rays b. radio waves c. ultraviolet waves d. infrared waves ANSWER: b 83. Which type of emission has the shortest wavelength? a. gamma rays b. radio waves c. ultraviolet waves d. infrared waves Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 84. Brightness is to amplitude as hue is to: a. purity. b. pitch. c. color. d. wavelength. ANSWER: d 85. Someone wearing night-vision goggles can detect: a. gamma rays. b. radio waves. c. ultraviolet waves. d. infrared waves. ANSWER: d 86. Light waves corresponding to colors in the visual spectrum are typically measured in terms of: a. millimeters. b. micrometers. c. nanometers. d. picometers. ANSWER: c 87. _____ determines the saturation of a color. a. Purity b. Amplitude c. Wavelength d. Intensity ANSWER: a 88. Synthetic light sources that produce just one wavelength of light have high: a. saturation. b. hue. c. brightness. d. wavelength. ANSWER: a 89. Which of these represents the correct sequence of structures that light encounters as it enters the eye? a. pupil, lens, retina, cornea Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. cornea, pupil, lens, retina c. iris, lens, retina, pupil d. lens, iris, pupil, retina ANSWER: b 90. The light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eyeball is called the: a. fovea. b. lens. c. iris. d. retina. ANSWER: d 91. Rods are _____ light-sensitive and _____ color-sensitive than are cones. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: c 92. During a routine eye examination, Dr. Suzuki uses drops to make the patient's pupil dilate so that she can look through the pupil at the back of the eye, which is also called the: a. iris. b. retina. c. cornea. d. fovea. ANSWER: b 93. The muscles of the eye change the shape of the lens to focus objects at a variety of distances in a process called: a. accommodation. b. parallel processing. c. transduction. d. sensory adaptation. ANSWER: a 94. Which structures become active under low-light conditions for night vision? a. rods b. bipolar cells c. cones Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. feature detectors ANSWER: a 95. When Sam's heart flutters at the sight of his partner's eye color, he is reacting to the: a. pupils. b. retinas. c. irises. d. corneas. ANSWER: c 96. Will rubbed his eye and accidentally scratched his: a. cornea. b. retina. c. pupil. d. lens. ANSWER: a 97. Which eye part is a muscle controlling the size of the pupil? a. the fovea b. the lens c. the iris d. the retina ANSWER: c 98. LASIK surgery works by physically reshaping the: a. iris. b. lens. c. cornea. d. retina. ANSWER: b 99. One type of photoreceptors that detect color, operate in daylight, and permit us to focus on fine detail is called: a. cones. b. rods. c. retinal ganglion cells. d. area V1 neurons. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 100. _____ are photoreceptors that allow us to see in very low light. a. Bipolar cells b. Retinal ganglion cells c. Rods d. Cones ANSWER: c 101. The process by which the lens changes shape to produce a clear image on the retina is called: a. visual acuity. b. accommodation. c. light adaptation. d. phototransduction. ANSWER: b 102. In a person who is myopic (nearsighted), images are focused: a. behind the retina. b. in front of the retina. c. on the retina. d. on the optic chiasm. ANSWER: b 103. Miguel's eyeballs are too short. He has trouble seeing _____ objects because the image is focused _____ the retina. a. nearby; in front of b. nearby; behind c. distant; in front of d. distant; behind ANSWER: b 104. Ricky's eyeballs are too long. He has trouble seeing _____ objects because the image is focused _____ the retina. a. nearby; in front of b. nearby; behind c. distant; in front of d. distant; behind ANSWER: c 105. When a person with normal vision sees an object in the distance, the lens _____ to focus the image _____ the retina. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. flattens; behind b. flattens; on c. bulges; in front of d. bulges; on ANSWER: b 106. When a person with normal vision views an object close up, the lens _____ to focus the image _____ the retina. a. flattens; behind b. flattens; on c. bulges; in front of d. bulges; on ANSWER: d 107. The outermost layer of the retina consists of: a. rods and cones. b. bipolar cells. c. the cornea. d. retinal ganglion cells. ANSWER: d 108. The middle layer of the retina consists of: a. rods and cones. b. bipolar cells. c. the optic nerve. d. retinal ganglion cells. ANSWER: b 109. The axon of a retinal ganglion cell (RGC) joins all other RGC axons to form the: a. basal ganglion. b. occipital lobe. c. bipolar cells. d. optic nerve. ANSWER: d 110. Vision is clearest when an object is projected onto the: a. fovea. b. optic nerve. c. cornea. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. retina. ANSWER: a 111. In very low light, an image projected _____ would be MOST easily seen. a. on the optic nerve b. on the fovea c. to the right or left of the fovea d. on the blind spot ANSWER: c 112. Although it is the area of the retina where vision is clearest, the fovea contains no: a. cones. b. rods. c. retinal ganglia. d. bipolar cells. ANSWER: b 113. The human eye has more _____ than _____. a. rods; cones b. cones; rods c. retinal ganglion cells; cones d. retinal ganglion cells; rods ANSWER: a 114. The reason that peripheral vision is NOT clear is due to: a. the absence of rods in the fovea. b. the absence of cones in the fovea. c. sparsely distributed rods outside of the fovea. d. sparsely distributed cones outside of the fovea. ANSWER: d 115. The hole in the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is termed the: a. fovea. b. blind spot. c. iris. d. optic tract. ANSWER: b 116. The optic nerve leaves the eye through a hole in the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. pupil. b. fovea. c. retina. d. cornea. ANSWER: c 117. The "blind spot" is so called because it: a. has cones but no rods. b. has rods but no cones. c. has neither rods nor cones. d. is the area of greatest visual acuity. ANSWER: c 118. Following the flow of visual information from the retina to the brain, encoded information travels along the optic nerve to the _____ and then to the _____ in the occipital lobe. a. lateral geniculate nucleus; primary visual cortex b. lateral geniculate nucleus; optic chiasm c. retina; lateral geniculate nucleus d. hippocampus; primary visual cortex ANSWER: a 119. Which area would be activated by viewing a visual stimulus? a. A1 b. V1 c. MT d. VT ANSWER: b 120. Due to the partial crossing of visual information at the _____, information from the _____ visual field projects to the brain's right hemisphere. a. optic chiasm; right b. optic chiasm; left c. lateral geniculate nucleus; right d. lateral geniculate nucleus; left ANSWER: b 121. The colors of the visible spectrum in order from shortest to longest wavelength are: a. deep purple, blue, green, yellow, orange, red. b. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, deep purple. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. red, yellow, orange, deep purple, green, blue. d. blue, green, deep purple, orange, yellow, red. ANSWER: a 122. The colors of the visible spectrum in order from longest to shortest wavelength are: a. deep purple, blue, green, yellow, orange, red. b. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, deep purple. c. red, yellow, orange, deep purple, green, blue. d. blue, green, deep purple, orange, yellow, red. ANSWER: b 123. The three primary colors of light are: a. white, red, and green. b. red, green, and blue. c. red, blue, and yellow. d. white, red, and blue. ANSWER: b 124. The primary colors of light are: a. red, green, and blue. b. red, blue, and yellow. c. white, black, and red. d. infrared and ultraviolet. ANSWER: a 125. When the three primary colors of light are projected onto the same surface, that surface will reflect the color: a. black. b. white. c. yellow. d. blue. ANSWER: b 126. The combination of red and green light results in: a. blue light. b. white light. c. yellow light. d. an absence of light (black). ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 127. M-cones respond BEST to _____ light. a. blue b. red c. yellow d. green ANSWER: d 128. S-cones respond BEST to _____ light. a. blue b. red c. yellow d. green ANSWER: a 129. Which of these respond BEST to red light? a. S-cones b. M-cones c. L-cones d. rods ANSWER: c 130. Humans do NOT have distinct cone types to respond to light wavelengths associated with the color: a. red. b. green. c. yellow. d. blue. ANSWER: c 131. Dalia is missing L-cones and, as a result, perceives _____ differently from those who do have L-cones. a. strawberries (red) b. spinach (green) c. blueberries (blue) d. potatoes (brown) ANSWER: a 132. Thomas is missing M-cones and, as a result, perceives _____ differently from those who do have M-cones. a. stop signs (red) b. broccoli (green) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. bats (black) d. blueberries (blue) ANSWER: b 133. Benjamin is missing S-cones and, as a result, perceives _____ differently from those who do have S-cones. a. tree trunks (brown) b. grass (green) c. bananas (yellow) d. blueberries (blue) ANSWER: d 134. Color deficiency (also called color blindness) is a result of a disorder in which: a. one type of rod is missing. b. one type of cone is missing. c. the blind spot is larger than normal. d. trauma has occurred to area VI. ANSWER: b 135. Staring too long at one color fatigues the cones that respond to that color, producing a form of sensory adaptation resulting in: a. visual form agnosia. b. trichromatic color representation. c. color afterimage. d. color mixing. ANSWER: c 136. The opponent color for blue is: a. red. b. black. c. green. d. yellow. ANSWER: d 137. The opponent color for red is: a. blue. b. black. c. green. d. yellow. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 138. Malcolm goes to an abstract art exhibit titled "Explorations of Red." After staring intensely at a piece of art, he shifts his gaze to a white wall and momentarily perceives the color: a. red. b. green. c. orange. d. pink. ANSWER: b 139. How does the color-opponent system explain color afterimages? a. Viewing one color fatigues cones associated with that color and subsequently results in an overall response that emphasizes the opponent color. b. Viewing one color fatigues cones associated with the opponent color and subsequently results in an overall response that emphasizes the viewed color. c. Viewing one color activates cones associated with all colors, producing an overall response that is perceived as a band of colors. d. Viewing one color activates cones associated with the opponent color and results in an overall response that emphasizes the opponent color. ANSWER: a 140. When Clarice listens to music, she experiences a flood of colors. Clarice is experiencing: a. delusions. b. hallucinations. c. synesthesia. d. myopia. ANSWER: c 141. Jorge commonly experiences the smell of apples every time he hears his name. Jorge is experiencing: a. delusions. b. presbyopia. c. change blindness. d. synesthesia. ANSWER: d 142. Neural impulses from the optic nerve end up in area _____ in the brain. a. A1 b. MT c. V1 d. AV ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 143. The lateral geniculate nucleus is located in: a. the optic chiasm. b. area VI. c. the thalamus. d. the occipital lobe. ANSWER: c 144. Information from the _____ visual field ends up in the _____ hemisphere, and information from the _____ visual field ends up in the _____ hemisphere. a. right; left; left; right b. left; left; right; right c. left; left; left; right d. right; right; left; right ANSWER: a 145. Objects in the right visual field: a. stimulate only the right optic nerve. b. are only detected by retinal ganglion cells in the right eye. c. stimulate the left half of each retina. d. are processed in area V1 in the right brain hemisphere. ANSWER: c 146. Which sequence for the visual pathway from the eye to the brain is correct? a. optic nerve, lateral geniculate nucleus, area V1, optic chiasm b. optic chiasm, optic nerve, area V1, lateral geniculate nucleus c. optic nerve, optic chiasm, lateral geniculate nucleus, area V1 d. optic nerve, area V1, optic chiasm, lateral geniculate nucleus ANSWER: c 147. Area V1 is part of the _____ that contains the _____ cortex. a. lateral geniculate nucleus; primary visual b. parietal lobe; primary sensory c. occipital lobe; primary visual d. occipital lobe; primary sensory ANSWER: c 148. Area V1 is located in the: a. optic chiasm. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. prefrontal cortex. c. thalamus. d. occipital lobe. ANSWER: d 149. Neurons in area VI are specialized to detect: a. facial expressions of emotion. b. faces of familiar people. c. edge orientation. d. threats to survival. ANSWER: c 150. The dorsal stream of visual processing is to the ventral stream of visual processing as: a. below is to above. b. why is to where. c. left is to right. d. how is to what. ANSWER: d 151. Deactivating the parietal lobe would result in which visual disturbance? a. inability to identify an object b. inability to identify the shape of an object c. inability to identify where an object is located d. inability to detect edges ANSWER: c 152. A single neuron in area VI that fires continuously when a line in the visual field is orientated to the right at 45 degrees: a. also will fire continuously when the line is orientated to the left at 45 degrees. b. will fire at a lower rate when the line is orientated to the right at 15 degrees. c. also will fire continuously when the line is vertical. d. will not fire when the line is orientated to the right at 60 degrees. ANSWER: b 153. A single neuron in area VI that fires continuously when a line in the visual field is orientated to the right at 45 degrees: a. will not fire when the line is orientated to the left at 45 degrees. b. also will fire continuously when the line is orientated to the right at 15 degrees. c. also will fire continuously when the line is vertical. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. will not fire when the line is orientated to the right at 60 degrees. ANSWER: a 154. Two functionally different visual streams project from the _____ to other areas of the brain involved in visual processing. a. thalamus b. lateral geniculate nucleus c. optic nerve d. occipital lobe ANSWER: d 155. The _____ stream travels across the occipital lobe into the lower levels of the temporal lobe and includes brain areas that represent an object's _____. a. dorsal; location and motion b. dorsal; shape and identity c. ventral; shape and identity d. ventral; location and motion ANSWER: c 156. The dorsal stream travels up from the occipital lobe to the _____ lobes, connecting with brain areas coding an object's _____. a. parietal; location and motion b. parietal; shape and identity c. frontal; shape and identity d. frontal; location and motion ANSWER: a 157. Dorsal is to ventral as: a. down is to up. b. up is to down. c. left is to right. d. right is to left. ANSWER: b 158. The dorsal visual stream is to the ventral visual stream as: a. who is to what. b. what is to who. c. where is to what. d. what is to where. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 159. Liam is walking across a parking lot when he sees something to his right. Thanks to his dorsal stream of visual perception, Liam recognizes that the: a. object is a car. b. object is not human. c. edges of the object contrast with the trees in the background. d. object is moving toward him. ANSWER: d 160. Olivia is walking across a parking lot when she sees something to her left. Thanks to her ventral stream of visual perception, Olivia recognizes that the object is: a. a car. b. to her left. c. moving at a high speed. d. moving in her direction. ANSWER: a 161. The dorsal pathway appears to be crucial for: a. identifying the shape of an object. b. recognizing facial emotions. c. determining what an object actually is. d. guiding movements such as aiming or reaching for an object. ANSWER: d 162. Neuroscientists originally dubbed the dorsal visual stream the _____ pathway; today, it is arguably better conceptualized as the _____ pathway. a. how; what b. what; where c. what; how d. where; how ANSWER: d 163. DF experienced visual form agnosia (not being able to understand an objects shape and identity), which is MOST associated with impaired functioning in the: a. ventral stream of visual processing. b. dorsal stream of visual processing. c. superior colliculus. d. optic chiasm. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 164. A woman named DF experienced visual form agnosia (a disorder where an object's shape and identity cannot be determined). She MOST likely had damage to which system? a. the ventral stream b. the dorsal stream c. area V1 d. the occipital lobe ANSWER: a 165. DF experienced visual form agnosia caused by damage to brain regions in the: a. lateral geniculate nucleus. b. dorsal visual stream. c. ventral visual stream. d. temporal lobe. ANSWER: c 166. People with brain damage in the _____ often are unable to _____ an object. a. parietal cortex; aim or reach for b. occipital cortex; aim or reach for c. ventral stream; determine the location or movement of d. dorsal stream; correctly identify ANSWER: a 167. The binding problem of perception is concerned with how: a. vision is integrated or bound with hearing to produce a unitary perceptual experience. b. features are linked so that we see unified objects rather than disjointed or miscombined ones. c. both the shape and identity of an object are identified simultaneously. d. fine details are perceived in complex objects. ANSWER: b 168. Binding neurons have been proposed to do all of these EXCEPT: a. receive simultaneous input from other neurons involved in representing different features of an object. b. allow for perception of an object as a whole. c. participate in a large array of neurons. d. code for only specific, isolated aspects of an object. ANSWER: d 169. The brain's capacity to perform many activities at one time is termed _____ processing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. high-speed b. perceptual c. parallel d. multiplicative ANSWER: c 170. A participant is shown two flash cards, one with a black-colored 8 and the other with a gold-colored 6. When asked to describe what they saw, the participant responds that they saw a gold-colored 8 and a blackcolored 6, illustrating _____ primarily caused by _____. a. color blindness; genetics b. agnosia; hippocampal impairments c. illusory conjunction; occipital lesions d. illusory conjunction; lack of focused attention ANSWER: d 171. The brain is able to simultaneously detect multiple features of a visible object, such as orientation, color, size, and shape. This is termed: a. high-speed processing. b. feature-integration theory. c. parallel processing. d. perceptual constancy. ANSWER: c 172. A perceptual mistake in which features from multiple objects are incorrectly combined is termed: a. parallel processing. b. a binding problem. c. an illusory conjunction. d. perceptual contrast. ANSWER: c 173. Participants in a perceptual study are shown a green square and a blue circle. Subsequently, they might report seeing a green circle, illustrating the phenomenon of a(n): a. interposition. b. shape constancy. c. perceptual grouping rule. d. illusory conjunction. ANSWER: d 174. Participants in a perceptual study of illusory conjunction are shown a green square, a blue circle, and a red triangle. Subsequently, which object would they be LEAST likely to report seeing? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. a green circle b. a yellow triangle c. a red square d. a blue circle ANSWER: b 175. According to feature-integration theory, illusory conjunctions become more common when participants: a. are distracted. b. are completely attending to the task. c. have a liberal decision-making strategy. d. are shown an ambiguous figure and ground. ANSWER: a 176. According to feature-integration theory, _____ is/are required to bind together the individual features of a stimulus. a. feature detectors b. attention c. a liberal decision-making strategy d. an unambiguous figure and ground ANSWER: b 177. The theory that specialized detectors exist in the area of the brain that exclusively responds to faces, landscapes, or other objects represents the _____ view of object recognition. a. modular b. temporal c. Gestalt d. distributed ANSWER: a 178. Using fMRI, researchers have shown that a subregion in the _____ lobe MOST strongly responds to faces compared with almost any other object. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal ANSWER: c 179. The theory that multiple brain regions contribute to the perception of objects, such as human faces, represents the _____ view of object recognition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. modular b. temporal c. common fate d. distributed representation ANSWER: d 180. People are able to identify friends by name even when their friends change hair styles or clothing due to the principle of: a. perceptual constancy. b. perceptual contrast. c. accommodation. d. perceptual organization. ANSWER: a 181. Sam's best friend, Aliza, just dyed her hair purple. Sam is still able to recognize Aliza despite her changed appearance because of: a. feature-integration theory. b. visual reliability. c. distributed representation. d. perceptual constancy. ANSWER: d 182. Emma recognizes her car among other cars in a parking lot in both daylight and darkness. This is due to: a. perceptual constancy. b. interposition. c. common fate. d. perceptual contrast. ANSWER: d 183. A(n) _____ psychologist would conceptualize the perceptual experience as more than just the sum of its component parts. a. evolutionary b. cultural c. Gestalt d. behavioral neuroscientist ANSWER: c 184. The fact that we perceive a unified, whole object instead of the sum of its component parts is a fundamental principle of which approach to psychology? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. psychodynamic b. structuralism c. Gestalt d. behaviorism ANSWER: c 185. Principles first recognized by Gestalt psychologists indicating that the brain imposes order on incoming stimuli are called: a. object recognition theories. b. depth perception cues. c. perceptual constancies. d. perceptual grouping rules. ANSWER: d 186. When there are two or more possible interpretations of an object's shape, we tend to select the most likely interpretation. This reflects which Gestalt perceptual grouping rule? a. closure b. continuity c. simplicity d. similarity ANSWER: c 187. We perceive a block upward arrow, rather than a rectangle with a triangle on top of it, due to which Gestalt perceptual grouping rule? a. closure b. continuity c. simplicity d. similarity ANSWER: c 188. On a dark night, Carrie reads "We are open" on a neon sign, despite the fact that the lights for the o and p are out. She understands the sign easily because of the Gestalt principle of: a. simplicity. b. closure. c. proximity. d. similarity. ANSWER: b 189. Although the neon sign on the gas station window actually reads "CLO ED" because a letter has burned out, Hector perceives it as reading "CLOSED" because of the Gestalt principle of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. simplicity. b. closure. c. proximity. d. similarity. ANSWER: b 190. We tend to group edges or contours that have the same orientation, illustrating the perceptual grouping rule of: a. similarity. b. common fate. c. continuity. d. closure. ANSWER: c 191. Even new drivers perceive the intersection of two streets as such, rather than the place where four streets meet, illustrating the perceptual grouping rule of: a. similarity. b. common fate. c. continuity. d. closure. ANSWER: c 192. When Kira watches a football game on TV, she can distinguish one team from their opponents by their uniforms. According to Gestalt principles, Kira groups players by: a. simplicity. b. continuity. c. similarity. d. common fate. ANSWER: c 193. Objects that are close together in physical space tend to be grouped together, illustrating which Gestalt perceptual grouping rule? a. proximity b. common fate c. continuity d. similarity ANSWER: a 194. Lisa describes two groups of pigeons foraging for food at a park in distinct locations, rather than 28 individual pigeons, illustrating which Gestalt perceptual grouping rule? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. proximity b. common fate c. continuity d. similarity ANSWER: a 195. Elements of a visual image that move together are perceived as parts of a single moving object, illustrating the _____ rule of perceptual grouping. a. closure b. common fate c. similarity d. proximity ANSWER: b 196. Akira looks up into the sky and sees a single flock of birds flying south for the winter. That Akira perceives a single moving object illustrates the principle of: a. closure. b. similarity. c. common fate. d. continuity. ANSWER: c 197. When you read, the written words and the illustrations are perceived as _____; the white of the page itself is perceived as _____. a. near; far b. shape-based; size-based c. images; context d. figures; ground ANSWER: d 198. Dorothy is driving her car along a highway. She perceives that the highway converges at a point in the distance due to the depth cue of: a. interposition. b. binocular disparity. c. linear perspective. d. common fate. ANSWER: c 199. In landscape paintings, artists often paint distant objects, such as trees, closer to the top edge of the canvas than nearby objects, such as flowers. This is an example of the use of the monocular depth cue known as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. linear perspective. b. texture gradient. c. relative height. d. interposition. ANSWER: c 200. A pilot looks down out of a jet and spots a tiny island in the middle of the vast blue sea. From the perspective of the pilot, what is the figure and what is the (back)ground? a. The island is the figure, and the sea is the ground. b. The sea is the figure, and the island is the ground. c. The island and sea represent a reversible figure–ground relationship. d. The sea is the figure, and the sky is the ground. ANSWER: a 201. Luckily, Cy can spot the fly in his soup and distinguish it from the flecks of pepper also floating in the broth. From Cy's perspective, what is the figure and what is the (back)ground? a. The pepper is the ground, and the broth is the figure. b. The fly is the figure, and the broth is the ground. c. The broth is the figure, and the pepper is the ground. d. The pepper is the figure, and the fly is the ground. ANSWER: b 202. A factor that does NOT help us to determine figure from ground is: a. edges. b. size. c. opponent colors. d. motion. ANSWER: c 203. The Rubin vase illusion illustrates: a. the Gestalt principle of similarity. b. a reversible figure–ground relationship. c. an illusory conjunction. d. perceptual constancy. ANSWER: b 204. Closer objects cast larger images on the retina than do objects that are farther away, a _____ depth cue known as _____. a. monocular; linear perspective Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. monocular; relative size c. binocular; relative size d. binocular; linear perspective ANSWER: b 205. Kevin correctly judged that his car was parked farther from his classroom than was his friend's car because it cast a smaller image on his retina than did his friend's. His brain was making use of a monocular cue called: a. proximity. b. familiar size. c. linear perspective. d. disparity. ANSWER: b 206. Railway tracks seem to converge in the distance, an example of the monocular depth cue known as: a. texture gradient. b. interposition. c. linear perspective. d. retinal disparity. ANSWER: c 207. In a painting of a field of wildflowers, Ayah noticed that the flowers in the foreground were clearly delineated, while the flowers that appeared further away were not. The painting used a depth cue called: a. interposition. b. linear perspective. c. relative size. d. texture gradient. ANSWER: d 208. To a pilot, the long, straight runway appears to converge to a single point in the distance. This is an example of the monocular depth cue known as: a. texture gradient. b. interposition. c. linear perspective. d. retinal disparity. ANSWER: c 209. A stage actor can see the facial expressions of the audience members sitting in the front row, but the faces of people sitting farther away are blurry. This example illustrates the depth cue of: a. interposition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. linear perspective. c. a retinal disparity. d. a texture gradient. ANSWER: d 210. Because a brown bear is partially obscured by a car, Nick assumes that the car is closer to him than is the bear. Nick is depending on the cue called: a. interposition. b. relative size. c. texture gradient. d. retinal disparity. ANSWER: a 211. Isabella's rather large computer monitor sitting on her desk partially obscures the window of her office. When sitting at her desk, she perceives the monitor to be in front of the window as a result of the depth cue termed: a. interposition. b. relative size. c. texture gradient. d. retinal disparity. ANSWER: a 212. Misty is standing at the edge of a large field of flowers. She perceives the flowers lower in her visual field as _____ than are the flowers higher in her visual field due to _____. a. farther away; linear perspective b. farther away; texture gradient c. closer; interposition d. closer; relative height in the image ANSWER: d 213. Hold your right index finger 2 feet in front of your face, close one eye, and look at your finger. Now alternate eyes, opening and closing each eye rapidly. Your finger jumps back and forth, illustrating which depth cue? a. motion parallax b. optic flow c. binocular disparity d. interposition ANSWER: c 214. Objects that cast a greater retinal disparity are perceived as being: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. higher in the visual field. b. closer. c. farther away. d. in motion. ANSWER: b 215. Objects that cast a smaller retinal disparity are perceived as being: a. higher in the visual field. b. closer. c. farther away. d. lower in the visual field. ANSWER: c 216. When two objects cast a retinal image of the same size, the one that is perceived as being _____ will be perceived as _____. a. farther away; larger b. farther away; equivalent in size to the closer object c. closer; larger d. closer; equivalent in size to the more distant object ANSWER: a 217. 3-D movies are based on which depth cue? a. apparent motion b. binocular disparity c. motion parallax d. optic flow ANSWER: b 218. As illustrated by the Ames room illusion, if you perceive that two objects (A and B) are at equal distance from you, yet object A casts a larger image on your retina, you will conclude that object A is _____ object B. a. larger than b. smaller than c. farther away than d. the same size as ANSWER: a 219. To perceive motion, the brain must encode information about: a. space and time. b. intention and change. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. time and change. d. space and intention. ANSWER: a 220. A moving object stimulates different locations at different time points on a stationary viewer's: a. optic nerve. b. retina. c. cornea. d. lateral geniculate nucleus. ANSWER: b 221. A region in the _____ lobe termed _____ is involved in perceiving motion. a. occipital; VI b. frontal; VI c. parietal; MT d. temporal; MT ANSWER: d 222. Damage to area _____ in the _____ stream leads to a deficit in motion perception. a. VI; dorsal b. VI; ventral c. MT; dorsal d. MT; ventral ANSWER: c 223. Katie is at Niagara Falls, staring at the downward rush of the water for several seconds. When she then looks at the nearby trees and rocks, they will seem to be: a. moving upward. b. moving downward. c. moving sideways. d. oscillating upward and downward. ANSWER: a 224. Larry is at a car-racing event and has been watching cars race across his visual field from left to right for an hour. Hungry, he redirects his attention and focuses on the concession stand. To his surprise, it appears to be moving: a. left to right. b. right to left. c. upward. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. downward. ANSWER: b 225. The waterfall illusion is analogous to which other visual phenomenon? a. seeing green after staring at a patch of red b. seeing railroad tracks get smaller as they recede into the distance c. perceiving one person to be considerably larger than another in the Ames room d. perceiving a series of flashing lights as a whole moving object ANSWER: a 226. The successively flashing lights of a Las Vegas casino produce a perceptual response similar to that of: a. a falling waterfall. b. the Ames room. c. an animated movie. d. seeing green after staring at a patch of red. ANSWER: c 227. The perception of movement as a result of alternating signals appearing in rapid succession in different locations is termed: a. apparent motion. b. an illusory conjunction. c. opponent processes. d. the Ames illusion. ANSWER: a 228. While watching the first movie in the Harry Potter series, Lillian attributes the voice she hears speaking to Harry Potter (who she sees on the screen), even though she knows the sound is coming from speakers behind her. This is an example of: a. change blindness. b. an illusory conjunction. c. opponent processes. d. the ventriloquist illusion. ANSWER: d 229. The human visual system has excellent _____, while the auditory system has terrific _____. a. change blindness; temporal acuity b. spatial acuity; temporal acuity c. opponent processes; spatial acuity d. temporal acuity; spatial acuity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 230. A psychology professor decides to play a practical joke on a colleague in the history department. While the historian is giving a lecture on the first day of class, the psychology professor interrupts and asks to speak with the historian outside the classroom. While they are conversing, all of the students leave through a back door and are replaced with a completely new group of students. Upon returning, the history professor continues the lecture without noticing that the students are different, thus illustrating: a. change blindness. b. apparent motion. c. absentmindedness. d. inattentional blindness. ANSWER: a 231. College students talking on cell phones while walking through campus were much less likely to notice a clown ride past them on a unicycle than were students not talking on cell phones, which BEST illustrates _____ blindness. a. change b. inattentional c. visual d. feature ANSWER: b 232. Meg orders food at the counter of her favorite fast-food restaurant. The employee who takes her order steps aside and another employee then takes Meg's money. Although the two employees look somewhat different, Meg perceives that the same person took both her order and her money. This failure to perceive BEST illustrates _____ blindness. a. change b. inattentional c. visual d. feature ANSWER: a 233. Montrell is busy paying bills online, and he fails to notice that his child has just used crayons to draw circles on the wall. This failure to perceive BEST illustrates _____ blindness. a. change b. inattentional c. visual d. feature ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 234. Change blindness is a result of: a. retinal disparity. b. a lack of focused attention. c. illusory conjunctions. d. damage to area MT. ANSWER: b 235. The research on inattentional blindness has important implications for: a. hallucinations and the visual system. b. talking on your cell phone while driving. c. everyday choices between eating healthy or unhealthy foods. d. behaving impulsively or with self-control. ANSWER: b 236. Sound waves are: a. generated by the vibration of the eardrum. b. the rhythmic firing of hair cells in the basilar membrane. c. changes in air pressure unfolding over time. d. vibrations in environmental stimuli. ANSWER: c 237. Loudness is to amplitude as pitch is to: a. brightness. b. rhythm. c. hue. d. frequency. ANSWER: d 238. Another term for the frequency of a sound wave is its: a. amplitude. b. repetition rate. c. complexity. d. decibel level. ANSWER: b 239. Counting how often the peaks of a sound wave pass a microphone is a measure of its: a. amplitude. b. frequency. c. complexity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. decibel level. ANSWER: b 240. The frequency of a sound wave determines its: a. loudness. b. timbre. c. pitch. d. decibel level. ANSWER: c 241. The pitch of a sound corresponds to our perception of: a. how high or low it sounds. b. the timbre of the sound. c. its loudness. d. its complexity. ANSWER: a 242. The frequency of a sound wave is measured in cycles per second, or: a. nanometers. b. decibels. c. newtons. d. hertz. ANSWER: d 243. Sound-wave frequency is to pitch as amplitude is to: a. complexity. b. quality of sound. c. timbre. d. loudness. ANSWER: d 244. Loudness is determined by the _____ of a sound wave. a. amplitude b. frequency c. purity d. timbre ANSWER: a 245. The loudness of a sound is measured in: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. nanometers. b. decibels. c. newtons. d. hertz. ANSWER: b 246. Sound wave vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones called the _____ located in the _____. a. auricles; inner ear b. ossicles; middle ear c. temporal bones; cochlea d. saccules; middle ear ANSWER: b 247. Any sound above _____ db is enough to produce hearing damage, depending on the length and type of exposure. a. 45 b. 70 c. 85 d. 100 ANSWER: c 248. We experience a louder sound as the _____ of a sound wave increases. a. amplitude b. complexity c. repetition rate d. frequency ANSWER: a 249. The timbre of a sound is determined by its: a. amplitude. b. complexity. c. frequency. d. harmony. ANSWER: b 250. The timbre of a sound relates to: a. how high or low we perceive the sound to be. b. our perceptions of the sound's intensity, or loudness. c. our experience of sound quality or resonance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. the frequency of a pure tone. ANSWER: c 251. You hear the same note played at the same intensity by a flute and by a trumpet. What do you experience? a. The notes have different sound qualities. b. The note played by the trumpet sounds louder. c. The note played by the flute sounds higher pitched. d. The note played by the trumpet sounds an octave lower. ANSWER: a 252. In 2014, Axl Rose was voted the greatest rock vocalist ever, in part due to his incredible vocal range. His vocals can range from very low to very high at the same decibel level, illustrating a tremendous ability to vary his: a. loudness. b. pitch. c. timbre. d. resonance. ANSWER: b 253. In 2014, Axl Rose was voted the greatest rock vocalist ever, in part due to his unique raspy voice that is impossible to truly duplicate. Many people find Axl's vocals interesting due to these variations in sound, which are related to the _____ of his vocals. a. loudness b. pitch c. purity d. complexity ANSWER: d 254. Babbling brooks and buzzing bees get their interesting sound qualities due to their: a. loudness. b. pitch. c. purity. d. complexity. ANSWER: d 255. Into which part of the ear do people put cotton swabs (e.g., Q-Tips), against the advice of audiologists? a. the cochlea b. the eardrum c. the auditory canal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. the ossicles ANSWER: c 256. _____ cause(s) the eardrum to vibrate. a. Pushing of the ossicles against the oval window b. Sound waves c. Stimulation of inner hair cells d. Movement of the basilar membrane ANSWER: b 257. Which sequence lists the parts of the human ear in the correct order in which sound waves travel through them from the environment? a. auditory canal, pinna, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea b. pinna, auditory canal, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles c. auditory canal, pinna, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles d. pinna, auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea ANSWER: d 258. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are known collectively as the: a. semicircular canals. b. ossicles. c. hair cells. d. basilar membrane. ANSWER: b 259. Which structure is NOT part of the outer ear? a. the eardrum b. the ossicles c. the pinna d. the auditory canal ANSWER: b 260. The _____ undulates when vibrations from the ossicles reach the cochlear fluid. a. cochlear membrane b. semicircular canal c. basilar membrane d. eardrum ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 261. Specialized auditory receptor neurons embedded in the basilar membrane are called: a. hair cells. b. ossicles. c. semicircular canals. d. vibrator receptors. ANSWER: a 262. Which structure(s) is/are contained in the middle ear? a. the auditory canal b. the ossicles c. the eardrum d. the cochlea ANSWER: b 263. The cochlea resembles a: a. sea horse. b. funnel. c. corkscrew. d. snail. ANSWER: d 264. The _____ is a fluid-filled tube that transduces sound vibrations into neural impulses. a. cochlea b. basilar membrane c. pinna d. oval window ANSWER: a 265. The neural signal sent from the auditory nerve to the brain is initiated by neurotransmitter release from the: a. eardrum. b. hair cells. c. ossicles. d. semicircular canals. ANSWER: b 266. As a result of an injury, Ray has broken the ossicles in his ears. Consequently, the: a. pinna may not function properly. b. auditory canal may be blocked. c. cochlea may not be stimulated. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. eardrum may not vibrate. ANSWER: c 267. Where does auditory transduction occur? a. in the outer ear b. in the middle ear c. in the inner ear d. in area A1 ANSWER: c 268. Rods and cones are to vision as _____ is/are to audition. a. the ossicles b. hair cells c. the eardrum d. area A1 ANSWER: b 269. Cochlear base is to cochlear tip as: a. a simple tone is to a complex tone. b. a loud noise is to a soft noise. c. high frequency is to low frequency. d. temporal code is to place code. ANSWER: c 270. The portion of the temporal lobe that contains the primary auditory cortex is area: a. V1. b. MT. c. A1. d. VT. ANSWER: c 271. The back portion of the temporal lobe handles: a. spatial features. b. sound identification features. c. loudness. d. pitch. ANSWER: a 272. The _____ portion of the auditory cortex handles nonspatial ("what") features, allowing people to identify Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice sound. a. dorsal b. ventral c. anterior d. caudal ANSWER: b 273. If someone hears a flute play a high note and a tuba play a low note, in comparison with the tuba, the flute will register _____ on the primary auditory cortex. a. toward the back b. toward the front c. further to the right d. further to the left ANSWER: a 274. Which is NOT a function of the pinna? a. emphasizing some frequency components of sound over others b. altering sound c. directing sound waves into the auditory canal d. amplifying sound ANSWER: d 275. The human ear has two mechanisms to encode sound-wave frequency: the _____, used primarily for high frequencies, and the _____, used primarily for low frequencies. a. V1 area; A1 area b. A1 area; V1 area c. place code; temporal code d. temporal code; place code ANSWER: c 276. The temporal code works BEST for encoding: a. high intensities. b. medium frequencies. c. low frequencies. d. high frequencies. ANSWER: c 277. The place code works BEST for encoding: a. high intensities. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. medium frequencies. c. low frequencies. d. high frequencies. ANSWER: d 278. According to _____, the brain perceives pitch by the firing rate of action potentials entering the auditory nerve. a. signal detection theory b. temporal code c. threshold theory d. place code ANSWER: b 279. Sounds of different frequencies activate different areas of the basilar membrane, a fact critical for the _____ aspect of perceiving pitch. a. signal detection b. temporal code c. threshold d. place code ANSWER: d 280. The total amount of activity of the hair cells signals: a. timbre. b. pitch. c. location. d. loudness. ANSWER: d 281. Having two ears MOST helps humans to: a. determine timbre. b. perceive loudness. c. determine if a tone is pure or complex. d. locate the source of sounds. ANSWER: d 282. Perception of complex sounds begins when the inner ear breaks down the different _____ components of the sound wave. a. frequency b. amplitude Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. complexity d. timbre ANSWER: a 283. Humans determine the location of a lower-frequency sound based on: a. the time between when the sound hits one ear and when it hits the second ear. b. how long it takes the sound to hit one ear. c. the frequency of the sound. d. the temporal code of the sound. ANSWER: a 284. In localizing the sources of sounds, humans rely _____ difference of sounds in both ears. a. exclusively on the intensity b. exclusively on the timing c. exclusively on the timbre d. on both the intensity and the timing ANSWER: d 285. DeShawn hears a high-pitched scream. Moments later, he hears a scream at a different pitch and attributes both screams to the same source. Which Gestalt principle MOST likely accounts for this? a. proximity b. simplicity c. similarity d. perceptual contrast ANSWER: a 286. Amelia is at a coffee shop when she hears two people at the table behind her talking about the latest fashion trends. One voice says that jean jackets are "in" next season. Several minutes later, a voice with a comparable pitch says that scarves will also be a stylish accessory. Amelia attributes both statements to the same individual due to the Gestalt principle of: a. proximity. b. simplicity. c. similarity. d. perceptual contrast. ANSWER: c 287. Sensorineural hearing loss may be caused by damage to: a. the hair cells. b. the eardrum. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. area A1. d. the ossicles. ANSWER: a 288. Sensorineural hearing loss may be caused by damage to the: a. temporal lobe. b. eardrum. c. cochlea. d. ossicles. ANSWER: c 289. Sensorineural hearing loss may be caused by damage to the: a. vestibular system. b. eardrum. c. ossicles. d. auditory nerve. ANSWER: d 290. Conductive hearing loss may be caused by damage to the: a. cochlea. b. hair cells. c. auditory nerve. d. eardrum. ANSWER: d 291. Conductive hearing loss may be caused by damage to all of these EXCEPT: a. hair cells. b. hammer. c. eardrum. d. anvil. ANSWER: a 292. Conductive hearing loss is to sensorineural hearing loss as damage to the: a. cochlea is to damage to the eardrum. b. ossicles is to damage to hair cells. c. auditory nerve is to damage to the ossicles. d. hair cells is to damage to the auditory nerve. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 293. Brittany experienced severe ear infections as a child and had to have tubes inserted into her ear canals so that she could hear. The ear infections were causing which type of hearing loss in Brittany? a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 damage ANSWER: a 294. Jason got hit on his right ear during a boxing match and damaged his ossicles. Now he cannot hear very well out of his right ear. Jason is most likely experiencing which type of hearing loss? a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 damage ANSWER: a 295. Jordan was born without hair cells and has been deaf since birth. She experiences which type of hearing loss? a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 damage ANSWER: c 296. Rock musicians often experience hearing loss due to chronic exposure to high-decibel sounds that damage hair cells. They experience which type of hearing loss? a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 damage ANSWER: c 297. Pam has a cochlear implant. She MOST likely has experienced: a. damage to area A1 in the temporal cortex. b. a loss of hair cells on the basilar membrane. c. damage to the ossicles. d. a punctured eardrum. ANSWER: b 298. A cochlear implant is an electronic device that replaces the function of the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. eardrum. b. ossicles. c. hair cells. d. primary auditory cortex. ANSWER: c 299. What is the function of a cochlear implant? a. to transduce sound b. to identify sound c. to produce sound d. to derive meaning from sound ANSWER: a 300. An advantage of performing cochlear implant surgery on infants rather than older children is that children implanted at younger ages: a. have better spoken language performance. b. have more resistance to surgery-induced infection. c. learn sign language more readily. d. are more vulnerable to language disorders. ANSWER: a 301. When Gigi, a 3-month-old infant, explores the world by grasping her toys, she is using _____ perception. a. olfactory b. haptic c. depth d. vestibular ANSWER: b 302. _____ perception involves touching and exploring objects with one's hands. a. Olfactory b. Haptic c. Sensory d. Vestibular ANSWER: b 303. Receptor cells that enable people to sense pressure, texture, pattern, and vibration are located: a. in the muscles. b. in the semicircular canals. c. under the skin. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice d. in the papillae. ANSWER: c 304. The specialized receptors in the skin that sense cold and warmth are called: a. thermometers. b. thermodynamic receptors. c. thermoreceptors. d. thermoconductors. ANSWER: c 305. Isabelle cannot tell if an object is hot or cold. She was MOST likely born without _____ in her skin. a. thermoreceptors b. haptic receptors c. A-delta fibers d. C fibers ANSWER: a 306. When Ava touches a soft blanket with her left hand, the touch receptors in her hand project sensory signals to the _____ lobe of her brain. a. left parietal b. right parietal c. right frontal d. left temporal ANSWER: b 307. Sofia is 4 months pregnant and feels the tightness of the waistline of her pants on her expanding stomach due to activation of _____ in the skin conveying sensory information to her brain. a. thermoreceptors b. A-delta fibers c. pressure receptors d. free nerve endings ANSWER: c 308. One reason our lips and fingertips are so sensitive is that they: a. are used much more often than other areas of the body. b. contain a relatively sparse arrangement of touch receptors. c. are connected directly to the receptors in the spinal cord. d. have a large topographical representation in the somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 309. From an evolutionary perspective, why is feeling pain adaptive? a. It directly aids reproduction. b. It indicates damage (or potential damage) to tissue. c. Feeling pain demonstrates social dominance. d. Pain is important in the body's autoimmune system. ANSWER: b 310. People with congenital insensitivity to pain: a. are more likely to live longer than are people with pain perception. b. have impaired A-delta fibers but not C fibers. c. often mutilate themselves unintentionally. d. value touched objects more so than do people with pain perception. ANSWER: c 311. Tissue damage is transduced by: a. thermoreceptors. b. C fibers. c. free nerve endings. d. A-delta fibers. ANSWER: c 312. Alex injured her ankle at soccer practice. _____ fibers carried the signal for the dull pain she still felt hours later. a. C b. B-alpha c. A-delta d. D ANSWER: a 313. Days after breaking his nose in a car accident, Ben still perceived a dull pain in his nose. Which painsensory neurons are responsible for this sensation? a. A-delta fibers b. B-gamma fibers c. C fibers d. V fibers ANSWER: c 314. When Taylor stepped on a piece of broken glass at the beach, she initially felt a sudden stinging pain, which was transmitted by _____ fibers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. B-alpha b. D c. C d. A-delta ANSWER: d 315. The brain region that identifies where pain is occurring is the: a. motor cortex. b. somatosensory cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 316. The pain pathway involving the _____ determines the location and type of pain. a. amygdala b. somatosensory cortex c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus ANSWER: b 317. The brain region that allows you to determine if a pain is sharp or dull is the: a. amygdala. b. somatosensory cortex. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 318. The function of which brain region aids in motivation to escape from a painful stimulus? a. the thalamus b. the somatosensory cortex c. the cerebellum d. the amygdala ANSWER: d 319. Susan perceives a pinch as painful and is motivated to escape from it due to the functions of her: a. hypothalamus. b. somatosensory cortex. c. cerebellum. d. C fibers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 320. According to the gate-control theory, rubbing the lower back when there is pain would MOST likely reduce the pain by: a. triggering a release of painkilling endorphins in the brain. b. activating neurons that gate the pain from signals from traveling to the brain. c. causing the autonomic nervous system to release adrenaline into the bloodstream. d. deactivating the region devoted to the lower back in the somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: b 321. Which statement is an example of referred pain? a. A swimmer feels dull pain in their shoulder after a long practice. b. A runner feels sharp pain after twisting their ankle running on uneven ground. c. A chef touches a hot stove but retracts their hand immediately. d. A person experiencing a heart attack feels pain radiating from the left arm. ANSWER: d 322. Referred pain is caused by: a. stimulation of two adjacent areas on the skin resulting in activation of the same nerve cells in the spinal cord. b. an activation of the "what" but not "where" pathway in the somatosensory cortex. c. a convergence of sensory information from internal and external sources on the same nerve cells in the spinal cord. d. stimulation of two adjacent areas in the somatosensory cortex. ANSWER: c 323. Turf toe injuries make the point that: a. the first pain pathway is more important than the second in our experience of pain. b. referred pain is not exclusive to that experienced during a heart attack. c. the amount of tissue damage does not necessarily correspond to pain intensity. d. athletes may not perceive pain if they are highly motivated to continue playing. ANSWER: c 324. Sultan accidentally slammed his hand in his desk. His roommate suggested that he rub it, a suggestion based on the _____ theory. a. proprioception b. gate-control c. receptive field d. referred pain Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 325. Under extreme conditions, how does activity of the periaqueductal gray (PAG) help relieve pain? a. It suppresses the activity of the somatosensory cortex. b. It suppresses the activity of limbic structures such as the amygdala. c. It inhibits neural activity in the spinal cord that results in less pain signals to the brain. d. It causes endorphins to be released throughout the body. ANSWER: c 326. Which statement represents a bottom-up approach to pain? a. Pain may be gated at the skin receptors by rubbing the injured area. b. Pain may be suppressed with drugs that mimic endorphin activity. c. Subjective pain intensity may vary among ethnic groups. d. The midbrain may send inhibitory signals to the spinal cord that prevent further pain signals from reaching the brain. ANSWER: a 327. The semicircular canals located next to the cochlea in the ear help us to: a. hear high-frequency sounds. b. maintain balance. c. send referred pain from earaches to the brain. d. sense touch or pressure against the ear. ANSWER: b 328. Information about balance originates in: a. receptors embedded in the muscles. b. the somatosensory cortex. c. the inner ear. d. our joints moving through space. ANSWER: c 329. Receptors in the muscles, tendons, and joints: a. constitute the vestibular system. b. allow us to perceive head movement. c. are responsible for the maintenance of balance. d. provide information about body position in space. ANSWER: d 330. A tennis player might use feedback from the receptors in their forearm to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice a. improve their backhand stroke. b. maintain their balance during a serve. c. keep their eye on the ball as they hit it. d. decide whether to stroke a near-court or cross-court shot. ANSWER: a 331. Feedback from sensory receptors in the legs is primarily responsible for a competitive runner's: a. decision as to when is the best time to begin running faster. b. ability to maintain balance while running. c. ability to hold a constant gaze while in motion. d. ability to become more efficient with their stride with practice. ANSWER: d 332. After her fourth ride on the Super Fast Super Spinny Rollercoaster, Shania felt dizzy. What is responsible for her feelings of dizziness? a. the movement of the fluid in Shania's semicircular canals b. Shania's visual system failing to interact with the environment c. the changing air pressure against Shania's eardrum as she spins around d. the movement of Shania's cerebrospinal fluid ANSWER: a 333. A mismatch between visual cues and vestibular information can cause: a. referred pain. b. motion sickness. c. motion parallax. d. visual form agnosia. ANSWER: b 334. On a ferry ride from Key West to the Florida mainland, Jason starts to feel motion sick. This is likely a mismatch between: a. visual cues and muscular cues. b. muscular cues and vestibular information. c. vestibular and olfactory cues. d. visual cues and vestibular information. ANSWER: d 335. Olfaction and gustation: a. sense physical changes in or on the body. b. sense light waves outside of the visual spectrum. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. sense extremely small changes in air pressure. d. respond to the molecular structure of substances. ANSWER: d 336. The only sense directly connected to the forebrain is: a. vision. b. somatosensation. c. olfaction. d. gustation. ANSWER: c 337. Odorant molecules bind to: a. olfactory bulbs. b. ORNs. c. the olfactory epithelium. d. the glomerulus. ANSWER: b 338. _____ would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your home. a. The vestibular system b. Olfactory receptor neurons c. Feature detectors in the A1 area of the occipital cortex d. Thermoreceptors ANSWER: b 339. Which sequence of transmission for the sense of smell is correct? a. olfactory receptor neurons, olfactory bulb, olfactory nerve b. olfactory nerve, olfactory bulb, olfactory reception neurons c. olfactory bulb, olfactory receptor neurons, olfactory nerve d. olfactory receptor neurons, olfactory nerve, olfactory bulb ANSWER: a 340. Odorant is to ORN as: a. computer is to password. b. olfactory nerve is to glomerulus. c. key is to lock. d. smell is to memory. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 341. Humans have about _____ ORN types, permitting people to discriminate up to _____ different odorants. a. 10 billion; 10 million b. 10 trillion; 10,000 c. 350; 10 million d. 350; 1 trillion ANSWER: d 342. Where is the olfactory bulb located? a. in the olfactory epithelium b. in the brain above the nasal cavity and below the frontal lobes c. in the frontal lobes of the brain above the nasal cavity d. in the glomeruli comprising the olfactory nerve ANSWER: b 343. _____ are biochemical odorants emitted by other members of an animal's species that can affect its behavior or physiology. a. Pheromones b. Hormones c. Neurotransmitters d. ORNs ANSWER: a 344. Which of these is NOT true regarding pheromones? a. There is a large body of literature providing support for the existence of human pheromones. b. Pheromones play an important role in reproductive and social behavior in insects. c. Secretions from the glands around the nipples of lactating humans can elicit nursing behavior in their infants. d. Studies of pheromones in humans have tended to use small sample sizes. ANSWER: a 345. Aversion to extremely _____ tastes is genetic. a. salty b. bitter c. sour d. sugary ANSWER: b 346. Which taste perception is genetic? a. an aversion to eating meat Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice b. a preference for having a steak prepared well done c. an aversion to extremely bitter leafy green vegetables d. an aversion to a particular food that made you sick ANSWER: c 347. Papillae, the bumps on the tongue, each contain hundreds of _____, the organ of taste transduction. a. glomeruli b. ORNs c. taste buds d. umamis ANSWER: c 348. The small visible bumps on the tongue are called: a. taste receptor cells. b. ORNs. c. taste buds. d. papillae. ANSWER: d 349. Each taste bud contains 50 to 100: a. papillae. b. taste pores. c. taste receptor cells. d. hair cells. ANSWER: c 350. Which is NOT a type of taste receptor? a. salt b. tart c. bitter d. sweet ANSWER: b 351. Researchers may have found a sixth basic taste named: a. umami. b. oleogustus. c. tart. d. sweet. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 352. John does not enjoy his food as much as he used to when he was younger. This is MOST likely because: a. the sense of haptic perception fades with age. b. he is a nontaster. c. he has become a supertaster. d. taste perception fades with age. ANSWER: d 353. Tina has more bumps on her tongue than does Jasmine. Tina has more visible: a. taste buds. b. microvilli. c. taste receptors. d. papillae. ANSWER: d 354. The tips of taste receptor cells are termed: a. microvilli. b. taste pores. c. papillae. d. taste buds. ANSWER: a 355. Kelly enjoys the savory taste of meats and cheeses, thanks in part to _____ taste receptors. a. sweet b. salt c. umami d. bitter ANSWER: c 356. Botan loves the savory taste of a medium-rare steak, thanks in part to _____ taste receptors. a. sweet b. umami c. salt d. bitter ANSWER: b 357. To which compound do sour receptors respond MOST strongly? a. steak b. cheese Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. vinegar d. oils ANSWER: c 358. About what percentage of the population is classified as supertasters? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25 ANSWER: d 359. In terms of taste perception, about half of the population is given the classification of: a. nontaster. b. moderate taster. c. taster. d. supertaster. ANSWER: c 360. Olena should be classified as _____ because she finds kale to be extremely bitter, and she refuses to eat it. a. nontaster b. moderate taster c. taster d. supertaster ANSWER: d 361. Jasper, a supertaster, is at a holiday party. Which dish would Jasper probably find MOST appetizing? a. broccoli casserole b. creamy spinach artichoke dip c. grilled chicken tenders d. a fatty cut of roast beef ANSWER: c 362. Who is MOST likely to be a supertaster? a. Millie, whose favorite food is broccoli b. Ramona, who loves creamy food and fatty cuts of meet c. Mikkel, who drinks his coffee without cream or sugar d. Kira, who is an extremely picky eater ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 363. In addition to taste sensations, _____ contributes to our perception of taste. a. olfaction b. haptic perception c. bottom-up processing d. audition ANSWER: a 364. Wine experts rely on taste and _____ in perceiving the flavor of a wine. a. olfaction b. haptic perception c. Gestalt grouping principles d. audition ANSWER: a 365. If you hold your nose and bite into an onion, it will surprisingly taste like a potato. This BEST illustrates: a. top-down processing. b. a valence-centered approach to taste perception. c. an object-centered approach to taste perception. d. the role of olfaction in the perception of flavor. ANSWER: d 366. Olivia's allergies have caused her to have a stuffy nose, and she can barely taste her food. This BEST illustrates: a. the role of Gestalt principles in the perception of flavor. b. the importance of bottom-up processing in taste perception. c. genetic-based determinants of taste perception. d. the role of olfaction in the perception of flavor. ANSWER: d 367. A loss of smell is called: a. anosmia. b. echolalia. c. ataxia. d. amnesia. ANSWER: a 368. Many people who have recently experienced COVID-19 have also experienced anosmia. What is anosmia? a. a loss of the sense of smell b. a loss of the sense of taste Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Multiple Choice c. a loss of hearing d. a temporary loss of vision ANSWER: a

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TB6 Chapter 4 Scenario Use Scenario 4.1 to answer the following question(s). A psychologist interested in studying visual perception manipulates the brightness of a light in the imperceptible to very dim range. Each level of brightness (measured in lumens) is studied for 10 trials, and on each trial, participants are asked if they can detect the light. Figure 4.1 shows hypothetical data from one participant. Figure 4.1

1. (Scenario 4.1) Suppose two people differ in terms of their absolute threshold for light, but this difference is extremely small (1 lumen). Because the projection device can only manipulate the lumens in steps of 5, the researcher concludes that the absolute threshold for the two participants is equivalent. In this case, the measure lacks: a. reliability. b. statistical significance. c. power. d. validity. ANSWER: c 2. (Scenario 4.1) This scenario is BEST described as research in the area of: a. psychometrics. b. perceptual constancy. c. signal detection. d. psychophysics. ANSWER: d 3. (Scenario 4.1) What the participants perceive as the brightness of the light is determined by the _____ of the light wave. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Scenario a. color b. frequency c. amplitude d. purity ANSWER: c 4. (Scenario 4.1) To minimize the effects of expectancies and sensory adaptation, the researcher should: a. manipulate brightness in descending, rather than ascending, order. b. manipulate brightness randomly on a trial-by-trial basis. c. deceive participants as to the true purpose of the study. d. increase the number of trials at each level of brightness. ANSWER: b 5. (Scenario 4.1) In Figure 4.1, the absolute threshold of light perception is indicated by the letter: a. a. b. b. c. c. d. d. ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 4.1) Suppose that a second person is tested and is found to have a lower absolute threshold relative to the first. For this second person, the curve will shift _____ relative to the function shown in the figure. a. leftward b. rightward c. upward d. rightward and upward ANSWER: a Use Scenario 4.2 to answer the following question(s). While humans effortlessly identify most objects by sight, the mechanisms underlying how and where people make these identifications are matters of theoretical and empirical debate. According to image-based theories, previously identified objects are stored in memory as templates, which are consulted when identifying current retinal images. In contrast, parts-based theories state that the brain uses the component geometric elements (termed geons) comprising the object, as well as the spatial relationships between these geons, for purposes of identification. Where in the brain these identifications occur also is a matter of debate. Modular theories state that specialized areas, or modules, of the brain code categories of objects, whereas distributed representation theories posit that it is the pattern of brain activity in multiple brain regions that identifies an object.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Scenario 7. (Scenario 4.2) Image-based theories are to parts-based theories as: a. perception is to sensation. b. comparison is to deconstruction. c. structure is to function. d. global is to local. ANSWER: b 8. (Scenario 4.2) A geon is to an object as: a. letters are to words. b. a building is to bricks. c. a letter is to its numerical position within the alphabet. d. a sentence is to the words comprising it. ANSWER: a 9. (Scenario 4.2) A person has a stroke and loses their ability to identify friends by their faces. The stroke did not impair their ability to identify other common objects. This occurrence would be MOST supportive of the _____ theory of object recognition. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation ANSWER: c 10. (Scenario 4.2) Most of the time people can easily identify objects regardless of their orientation or rotation in space. This fact MOST challenges the validity of _____ theories. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 4.2) Most of the time people can easily distinguish among the faces of their friends, even if the friends have many facial characteristics in common. This fact MOST challenges the validity of _____ theories. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Scenario 12. (Scenario 4.2) Functional magnetic resonance imaging has revealed that recognizing objects from different classes (e.g., means of transportation versus animals) activates different brain regions in the cortex. This fact MOST supports _____ theories of object identification. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation ANSWER: c Use Scenario 4.3 to answer the following question(s). In 2015, a Tumbler user posted a picture of a dress and asked if it was blue and black, or if it was white and gold. The picture went viral and millions disagreed as to the true colors of the dress. This social media event spawned scientific research on the phenomenon. Researchers identified several factors that influenced color perception. First, by altering the size of the photograph, researchers were able to determine that the larger the photograph of the dress was, the more likely viewers perceived it as white and gold. Second, older people and women were more likely to perceive the dress as white and gold than were younger people and men. Finally, the researchers speculated that the lighting condition of the room was ambiguous, which could affect color perception. Daylight is a mixture of both "cool" short wavelength components and "warm" medium wavelengths. Perceiving the lighting of the room to be "cool" results in assigning the medium wavelengths to the dress, and vice-versa. 13. (Scenario 4.3) The viral photograph of the dress underscores the point that color is a _____ and not a _____. a. stimulus; response b. figure; ground c. sensation; feature of the object d. perception; sensation ANSWER: d 14. (Scenario 4.3) In the research described above, which of these is a manipulated independent variable? a. lighting condition of room b. color of dress c. size of the photograph d. gender ANSWER: c 15. (Scenario 4.3) In the research described above, which of these is a dependent variable? a. participant age b. color of dress c. size of the photograph d. gender Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 4 Scenario ANSWER: b 16. (Scenario 4.3) Differentially perceiving the lighting conditions as cool would result in perceiving the background lighting as: a. bluish. b. yellowish. c. reddish. d. white. ANSWER: a 17. (Scenario 4.3) Differentially perceiving the lighting conditions as warm would result in perceiving the background lighting as: a. bluish. b. yellowish. c. dim. d. grayish. ANSWER: b 18. (Scenario 4.3) Differentially perceiving the lighting conditions as cool would result in assigning medium wavelengths to the _____ and perceiving the dress as _____. a. room; white and gold b. room; blue and black c. dress; white and gold d. dress; blue and black ANSWER: c 19. (Scenario 4.3) Differentially perceiving the lighting conditions as warm would result in assigning medium wavelengths to the _____ and perceiving the dress as _____. a. room; white and gold b. room; blue and black c. dress; white and gold d. dress; blue and black ANSWER: b

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TB6 Chapter 5 Essay 1. Illustrate the problem of other minds by discussing the difficulties associated with distinguishing a fully conscious person from a person who says and does all of the same things but is not conscious. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the problem of other minds refers to the fundamental difficulty we have in perceiving the consciousness of others. To illustrate this problem, imagine a person who behaves just like any other human being. The person can talk about experiences, react to stimuli, and even wince in pain when stung by a bee. But the person is completely unconscious, lacking any inner experience. In short, there is no clear way to distinguish a conscious person from someone who might do and say all the same things as a conscious person but who is not conscious. This begs the question: How do you know that your friend (or, for that matter, everyone else) is conscious? Because you have access to your own consciousness, you can make definitive statements about it. But because we do not have access to the consciousness of others, it is impossible to ever really know if they have consciousness. People make the assumption that other people experience consciousness in a way that is similar to themselves, and this assumption has served us well, but we never will know for sure. 2. Describe how Benjamin Libet's experiments investigating the timing of conscious will shed light on the mind–body problem. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the mind–body problem deals with the issue of how the mind is related to the brain and body. Do mental events control brain processes and, subsequently, behavior? Or is our experience of mental events merely the result of brain processes? Benjamin Libet conducted a series of experiments in which participants simply had to lift their finger whenever they felt like doing so. When participants decided to move their finger, they were instructed to note the position of a dot that moved around the face of a clock, marking the time at which the decision was made. EEG sensors monitored brain activity, and EMG sensors recorded muscle movements in the finger. In this way, the times of the mental decision, brain activation, and finger movement could be accurately recorded. Libet reported intriguing results that contradicted our ordinary assumption that our minds direct our bodies,. Brain activity to initiate finger movement began more than 300 milliseconds before the decision to move the finger. In other words, the brain was already deciding to initiate an action before the decider decided on the action! Thus, it appears as if mental events such as conscious decision making are actually the result—and not the cause—of underlying physical processes in the brain. 3. Suppose that as a result of not doing well on your psychology exams lately, you decide to reevaluate your approach to studying. Discuss the four basic properties of consciousness (intentionality, unity, selectivity, and transience), and relate each of them to your study habits. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Intentionality: Consciousness is always directed toward an object. Perhaps the student needs to direct their consciousness toward the subject matter of psychology on a more frequent basis. The capacity of conscious attention also is limited. This limitation may affect how long a student can focus on completing an assignment without being distracted. (2) Unity: Consciousness is resistant to division, integrating multiple inputs into a single conscious experience. Trying to multitask while studying—attempting to focus on more than one thing at a time—would work against this principle and lead to a decrement in performance. (3) Selectivity: Some events receive greater conscious attention than others. While studying, the conscious mind filters out sensory information associated with the temperature of the room, the uncomfortableness of the chair, and the sound of a roommate snoring. It also helps to narrow the focus of attention on information related to its intention (hopefully psychology). (4) Transience: Conscious attention is constantly changing its focus. This may occur partly because of the limited Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Essay capacity of working memory. Given that the mind will begin to wander after extended focus on the study material (also see point 1), perhaps the best advice is to take small, frequent breaks from studying. 4. A kicker on a football team misses an important field goal. The coach's advice is to actively try and banish the miss from memory; forget about it altogether. Explain why this approach may be bad advice. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the basic notion is that the conscious mind is occupied by current concerns. Some thoughts may result in anxiety (such as missing important field goals), and we may try to reduce the anxiety by avoiding the thought. The problem is that such thought suppression results in greater levels of the thought and may result in an even further rebound after trying to suppress the thought. In this case, by actively trying to forget about the miss, the kicker will actually think about missing kicks much more. This preoccupation may in turn lead to inattention on the field, resulting in more misses due to ironic processes of mental control, fueling a downward spiral that leads to the kicker's unemployment. 5. Define and give a unique example of dual process theories of consciousness. ANSWER: Dual process theories of consciousness propose that we have two different mental systems for processing information: one dedicated to fast, automatic, and unconscious processing, and the other dedicated to slow, effortful, and conscious processing. These are commonly referred to, respectively, as System 1 and System 2 modes of thinking. One example of these dual processes at work is finding the correct exit while driving on an unfamiliar highway. The effortless processes of steering, staying in the lane, keeping up with the speed of traffic, and reading the words on traffic signs are all examples of System 1 processes. Conscious decisions to switch lanes to follow a particular route, get off the highway at a particular exit, or decide how far to keep driving before needing gas are all examples of System 2 processing. 6. Contrast slow-wave sleep and REM sleep. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that sleep is divided into five stages of sleep that alternate highfrequency and lower-frequency brain wave activity. That the first four stages are characterized by slower and slower brain waves (alpha, theta, and delta). The deepest stages of sleep, stages 3 and 4, are associated with delta-wave activity. The sleeper becomes more difficult to awaken when in this state. Subsequently, the sleeping person moves back through these stages in reverse order until reaching the fifth stage of sleep. Known as REM sleep, the brain shows an EEG pattern resembling beta waves, consistent with someone who is awake and alert. Nevertheless, the person is asleep. Dreaming is present, but motor activity is inhibited. Eye movements occur, the pulse quickens, blood pressure rises, and there may be signs of sexual arousal during REM sleep. 7. Discuss why sleeping pills are not recommended for the long-term treatment of insomnia. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that sleeping pills are not an encouraged treatment for the long-term treatment of insomnia because they disrupt the architecture of sleep, robbing sleepers of REM and slow-wave sleep and producing grogginess and irritability the next day. Moreover, sleeping pills are addictive. Over time, more and more pills will be required for an individual to fall asleep because of the development of tolerance. Finally, if the sleeping pills are discontinued, the insomnia may return and actually be worse than it was before. To minimize these problems, sleeping pills are recommended only for the short-term treatment of insomnia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Essay 8. Distinguish between nightmares and night terrors. ANSWER: Nightmares occur in both children and adults, although typically more often in children. These dreams can be frightening enough to wake the sleeper, and the dream content is remembered after the sleeper wakes up. Nightmares occur during REM sleep. Night terrors (also known as sleep terrors) are abrupt awakenings with feelings of panic and intense emotional arousal, and occur primarily in younger children. They take place most often during non-REM sleep stages, and usually early in the sleep cycle. The sleeper cannot usually report any dream content associated with the experience of a night terror. 9. Describe some of the features of dreams. What is happening in the brain when a person dreams? Which brain regions are activated? Which are not? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Many dreams are intensely emotional, suggesting that the amygdala is active during REM sleep. (2) Dreams are visually expressive, but the other senses are virtually absent. However, the brain regions associated with visual perception are not activated during dreaming, although visual association areas in the occipital lobe are. This suggests that the brain "knows" it's not really perceiving actual visual input, but responding as though it were "seeing" some type of imagery. (3) The prefrontal cortex shows less arousal during REM sleep compared to waking consciousness. This area of the brain is associated with planning, which may help explain why dreams often seem unplanned and rambling. (4) During REM sleep, the motor cortex is activated, but spinal neurons running through the brain stem inhibit the expression of this motor activation; therefore, the dreamer remains still. This is fortuitous because acting out our dreams would be dangerous. This also shows that sleepwalkers are not dreaming, as walking (involving motor activation) and the sleep stage in which dreaming occurs (REM) are incompatible. 10. Contrast Sigmund Freud's explanation of dreams with the activation–synthesis model as they pertain to the meaning of dreams. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Sigmund Freud believed that a dream begins with a hidden meaning, or the latent content of the dream, which is camouflaged by the manifest content of the dream. Freud proposed that because dreams grant access to the primal and largely sexual drives hidden deep in the unconscious mind, the conscious mind protects us by presenting these underlying motivations in a disguised form. Therefore, any "meaning" of dreams, for Freud, would involve chipping away at the manifest content to reveal the true underlying latent content of what the dream actually signifies.(2) The activation–synthesis model argues that dreams are produced when the brain tries to make sense of random neural activity that occurs during sleep. When we are fully conscious, we associate neural activity with environmental stimuli to make sense of our world. When we are sleeping, we receive very little input from the outside world, yet neural activity continues. Brain mechanisms involved in assigning meaning to neural activity receive no guidance from the external world and thus are free to interpret the neural activity in different ways. (3) To summarize: Freud believed that dreams had hidden meanings, whereas the activation– synthesis model suggests that dreams begin randomly and then the brain adds meaning as it interprets the neural firing associated with REM sleep. 11. For each of the major drug classes (depressants, stimulants, narcotics, hallucinogens, and marijuana), discuss the potential for overdose, physical dependence, and psychological dependence. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) An overdose of a drug from any of these Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Essay classes, except marijuana and some drugs from the hallucinogenic class (such as LSD), may cause death. (2) Physical dependence refers to the development of tolerance, or the need to consume more of the drug to obtain the desired effect, and the presence of withdrawal symptoms when discontinuing use. (3) Psychological dependence involves preoccupation with using the drug and intense drug cravings, even after the body is no longer physically dependent. Physical dependence is unlikely to develop with the hallucinogens or marijuana, and psychological dependence is also unlikely. The withdrawal symptoms associated with depressant drugs include seizures, convulsions, and hallucinations. The withdrawal symptoms associated the opiates also involves sickness. For both the depressants and the narcotics, symptoms of psychological withdrawal, evidenced by intense drug cravings, also are present. The withdrawal symptoms associated with the stimulant class consists of fatigue, anxiety, paranoia, depression, and drug cravings. 12. Jimena has just consumed a pill containing an unknown drug. Explain how you could use her behavioral symptoms to determine which of the five drug categories the pill came from. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that you can tell which class of drugs the pill comes from by monitoring the person's behavior. Depressants have a sedative or calming effect (by decreasing central nervous system activity) and can alter consciousness by inducing sleep. Stimulants increase central nervous system activity and can heighten arousal and alertness. Narcotics relieve pain but can also induce a stupor or lethargy and cause relaxation (which can also induce sleepiness). Hallucinogens cause visual and auditory hallucinations. Marijuana also works as a mild hallucinogenic, with euphoric effects. It can also affect judgment and impair memory. By observing Jimena carefully and noting behavioral and physiological indicators an identification of the class of drug (although perhaps not the exact drug taken) should be possible. 13. Describe how hypnosis affects human consciousness, discuss individual differences in susceptibility to hypnosis, and contrast several unproven or disproven effects of hypnosis with proven effects. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness characterized by suggestibility and the feeling that one's actions are occurring involuntarily. Under hypnosis, a person may feel that their behavior is being directed by suggestions from the hypnotist instead of being under conscious control. (2) There is a great deal of individual variability in hypnotic susceptibility; perhaps the best predictor is the degree to which a person believes they can be hypnotized. (3) Disproven or unproven effects of hypnosis include extravagant claims of physical feats and recall of memories. Hypnosis can produce a state of analgesia, in which a person feels less pain.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 1. A person's subjective experience of the external world and the mind is called: a. self-perception. b. objective reality. c. consciousness. d. unconscious processing. ANSWER: c 2. The study of how things appear to a conscious person is called: a. epistemology. b. psychoanalysis. c. psychiatry. d. phenomenology. ANSWER: d 3. In the context of the problem of other minds, recent research suggests that: a. the brain directs the mind. b. zombies do exist. c. the mind interfaces with the brain via the spinal cord. d. the mind directs the brain to perform an action. ANSWER: a 4. The defining feature of consciousness that separates it from unconsciousness is: a. experience. b. activation of the occipital lobe. c. forebrain activity. d. wakefulness. ANSWER: a 5. Jada is answering a question about the brain on her psychology exam. This leads her to think about her hair, which leads her to think about the way her mother used to braid her hair as a child, which leads her to think about her best friend from childhood, whom she hasn't seen in 5 years. Jada's flow of thoughts illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. selectivity d. transience ANSWER: d 6. Nereida is having fun at a boisterous party. She doesn't really hear the details of all of the conversations going on around her. When her friend mentions her name during a conversation with another person, however, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Nereida suddenly shifts attention to what her friend is saying. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. selectivity d. transience ANSWER: c 7. Which statement about the "theater of the mind" (describing our experience of consciousness) is false? a. If we shut our eyes, we can imagine objects in this theater. b. The "movie" projected onto our mental screen can be viewed by others if we so choose. c. Some events presently occurring are not projected onto our mental screen. d. There is only a single seat in the theater. ANSWER: b 8. A parent wakes up in the middle of the night when they hear their 2-year-old child crying in the adjacent bedroom. In the morning, the parent does not have any memory of having woken up the previous night, suggesting that they were in a state of: a. minimal consciousness. b. full consciousness. c. unconsciousness. d. REM consciousness. ANSWER: a 9. To test whether elephants have a conscious self, researchers marked an X on the top of an elephant's trunk with white paint and placed a large mirror in front of the animal. Which action would strongly suggest that the elephant experiences self-consciousness? a. The elephant touches the mirror with its trunk. b. The elephant touches the white X on its reflection in the mirror. c. The elephant uses its trunk to touch the white X on itself. d. The elephant trumpets when it sees the white X in the mirror. ANSWER: c 10. A psychologist studying consciousness is analogous to a(n): a. botanist pondering what it is like to be a daffodil. b. physicist calculating the life cycle of a star. c. meteorologist trying to predict the weather. d. alchemist trying to turn lead into gold. ANSWER: a 11. Your friend Miguel is trying to limit his sugar intake and mentions that he is attempting to suppress all Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice sugar-related thoughts. The rebound effect of thought suppression would predict that: a. he will successfully limit his thoughts of sugar. b. there will be no change in the number of times he thinks about sugar. c. he will think about sugar more now than before. d. the ironic processes of mental control will eliminate suppression errors. ANSWER: c 12. Mario experiences high states of anxiety, usually about anticipated future events that haven't even happened yet. To deal with the discomfort of his anxiety, Mario tries to use a strategy of pushing these anxiety-producing thoughts out of consciousness, relying on _____ to make this happen. a. experience-sampling b. minimal consciousness c. steady-state hypnosis d. thought suppression ANSWER: d 13. According to Sigmund Freud, which thought would NOT be hidden in a person's dynamic unconscious? a. an ex-partner's phone number b. destructive urges aimed at a helpless bystander c. memory of an embarrassing event in childhood d. memory for the definition of consciousness ANSWER: d 14. _____ refers to how things seem to the _____ person. a. Phrenology; unconscious b. Phenomenology; unconscious c. Phrenology; conscious d. Phenomenology; conscious ANSWER: d 15. According to dual processing theories, System 2 thinking would be engaged when: a. completing a difficult math problem. b. reading the on a page of text. c. walking from one class to the next at the end of the term. d. driving a route that you've driven every day for the past few months. ANSWER: a 16. Phenomenology refers to: a. how things seem to a conscious person. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. which images appear during a dream. c. the comparison of a single phenomenon with a transcendental state. d. the practice of determining personality traits by examining bumps on the skull. ANSWER: a 17. Which perspective proposes that we have two different mental systems for processing information? a. dual process theory b. mind–body problem c. cocktail-party phenomenon d. ironic processes of mental control ANSWER: a 18. Which event is NOT associated with REM sleep? a. delta-wave activity b. increased pulse and blood pressure c. dreaming d. indications of sexual arousal ANSWER: a 19. Which activity is characteristic of REM sleep? a. somnambulism b. decreased pulse and blood pressure c. brain activity resembling the beta waves of wakefulness d. hypnic jerks ANSWER: c 20. The _____ describes the fundamental difficulty we have in knowing whether the mental experiences of another person are anything like our own mental experiences. a. problem of other minds b. mind–body problem c. levels of consciousness issue d. "unknown observer" issue ANSWER: a 21. Staying up all night to study will: a. result in little indication of having ever studied. b. increase mental acuity but otherwise have no effect on the body. c. improve memory by interrupting the consolidation process. d. result in physical fatigue but have no effect on mental processes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 22. Compared to the others, which person belongs to the demographic with a statistically higher risk of experiencing sleep apnea? a. Ariel, a teenager with few close friends b. Miguelito, a relatively inactive 25-year-old man c. Xiang, a middle-aged executive who runs half-marathons d. Aldo, a 55-year-old man who is overweight ANSWER: d 23. To illustrate the problem of other minds, philosophers imagine hypothetical zombies that: a. are themselves fully conscious. b. have a mind but must eat brains, because they are lacking this critical organ. c. are themselves unconscious but are indistinguishable from persons who are conscious. d. are programmed to act in certain ways but cannot modify their actions based on experiences. ANSWER: c 24. During which stage of sleep are theta waves present? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM ANSWER: a 25. Troy's spouse often observes him walking around their house in the middle of the night while he is still asleep. This scenario BEST illustrates: a. night terrors. b. insomnia. c. sleep paralysis. d. somnambulism. ANSWER: d 26. Fran's 4-year-old child awoke about 45 minutes after going to sleep, crying and in a panic, but did not remember having a dream. It is likely that Fran's child experienced: a. sleep paralysis. b. a night terror. c. narcolepsy. d. sleep apnea. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 27. Which statement about the problem of other minds is true? a. The "consciousness meter" of anesthesiologists has produced tremendous insight into the conscious experiences of other minds. b. You can quickly assess if someone is or is not an unconscious zombie by asking them how they feel. c. By studying another person in tremendous detail, psychologists ultimately will be able to truly know what it is like to be that person. d. It cannot be proven if anyone else besides you even experiences consciousness. ANSWER: d 28. Angelina asks her roommate how she feels at the end of a long week of exams. Her roommate shares feelings of being overwhelmed and exhausted. Based solely on this reply, Angelina: a. can tell that her roommate is not an unconscious zombie. b. has conclusive evidence of her roommate's consciousness. c. could follow up with the consciousness meter used by anesthesiologists to conclusively study her roommate's consciousness. d. will never know whether her roommate is an unconscious zombie. ANSWER: d 29. Which element is NOT common in dream consciousness? a. feeling some kind of intense emotion b. uncritical acceptance of illogical things c. difficulty in remembering the dream after it ends d. sensing pain during nightmares ANSWER: d 30. The activation–synthesis model proposes that dreams are: a. the result of reliving day-to-day activities. b. how the mind deals with unacceptable wishes and desires. c. manifestations of suppressed thoughts. d. what the mind creates to make sense of random neural activity during sleep. ANSWER: d 31. Which statement provides a reason explaining why people do not usually act out their dreams during sleep? a. The amygdala, which restricts movement, shows increased activity during dreaming. b. Spinal neurons in the brain stem inhibit movement during dreaming. c. The prefrontal area of the brain is deactivated during dreaming. d. The visual perception area of the brain is not activated during dreaming. ANSWER: b 32. In the context of drug addiction, which question pertains to psychological dependence? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. Can taking too much of the drug cause injury and death? b. Will stopping the drug make people who use the drug sick? c. Will people who use the drug crave the drug if they stop taking it? d. Is drug addiction genetically determined? ANSWER: c 33. The two dimensions of mind perception—how people perceive entities as having or not having a mind— are: a. feeling and experience. b. experience and agency. c. agency and self-control. d. planning and memory. ANSWER: b 34. Which statement is true regarding drug tolerance? a. With continued use, lesser amounts of a drug are needed to produce the same effect. b. Discontinuing drug use produces physical sickness. c. With continued use, the same dose of a drug has less of an effect. d. With continued use, a person begins to crave the drug less. ANSWER: c 35. When research participants judged the mental capacities of a robot, the robot was perceived as having: a. agency and experience. b. neither agency nor experience. c. agency, but lacking experience. d. experience, but lacking agency. ANSWER: c 36. Expectancy theory proposes that the varied effects of alcohol are determined by: a. people's beliefs about how they think alcohol will influence them in different situations. b. the depressant nature of alcohol causing people to reflect on their problems in different ways. c. reduced attention, causing people to produce inadequate responses in complex situations. d. people's genetic dispositions in response to the intake of alcohol. ANSWER: a 37. _____ excite the central nervous system, resulting in heightened arousal and activity levels. a. Depressants b. Sedatives c. Stimulants Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. Carcinogens ANSWER: c 38. Which drug is an opiate? a. cocaine b. morphine c. THC d. MDMA ANSWER: b 39. When people are asked to make judgments about the minds of other entities, _____ is perceived as having experience but not agency. a. a baby b. God c. a robot d. an adult human ANSWER: a 40. Opioids are to marijuana as endorphins are to: a. anandamide. b. GABA. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine. ANSWER: a 41. The psychological approach known as _____ essentially tried to make the problem of other minds a nonissue. a. structuralism b. phrenology c. mentalism d. behaviorism ANSWER: d 42. Animals will work to self-administer most drugs, except _____, which are also not likely to be addictive or produce dependence or overdoses in humans. a. narcotics b. depressants c. stimulants d. hallucinogens Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 43. The consideration of how the mind is related to the brain and body is known as the: a. cocktail-party phenomenon. b. problem of other minds. c. mind–body problem. d. split-brain problem. ANSWER: c 44. A well-established effect of hypnosis is that some people who are susceptible to hypnosis can experience a reduction of pain that is more effective than many anesthetics. This phenomenon is known as: a. hypnagogic nociception. b. hypnotic suggestion. c. posthypnotic amnesia. d. hypnotic analgesia. ANSWER: d 45. Ingestion of marijuana affects all of these processes EXCEPT: a. judgment. b. short-term memory. c. empathy. d. motor skills. ANSWER: c 46. _____ believed that the human body was a physical machine but that the human mind was made of an immaterial "thinking substance." a. Benjamin Libet b. Sigmund Freud c. William James d. René Descartes ANSWER: d 47. René Descartes, a French philosopher and mathematician, believed that the mind had its effects on the brain and body through the: a. ventricular system. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. hippocampus. d. pineal gland. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 48. Which belief was NOT expressed by René Descartes? a. The mind is composed of something other than physical matter. b. The mind is what the brain does. c. The mind is a separate entity from the body. d. The human body functions as a machine. ANSWER: b 49. In Benjamin Libet's experiments, the timing of conscious will was shown to follow which pattern? a. Brain activity begins, a conscious wish to act is experienced, and then behavioral action occurs. b. A conscious wish to act is experienced, brain activity begins, and then behavioral action occurs. c. Behavioral action occurs, brain activity begins, and then a conscious wish to act is experienced. d. A conscious wish to act is experienced, behavioral action occurs, and then brain activity begins. ANSWER: a 50. From Benjamin Libet's experiments on the timing of conscious will, it appears that the: a. mind directs the brain and behavior. b. mind and brain simultaneously direct behavior. c. brain directs behavior but is not associated with mental processes. d. brain directs the mind and behavior. ANSWER: d 51. From Benjamin Libet's experiments on the timing of conscious will, it appears that: a. the feeling of conscious will exists because the mind directs both brain and behavioral processes. b. the feeling of conscious will is the result of brain activity and not the cause of it. c. within 300 milliseconds after willing an action to occur, brain activity has begun to direct behavior. d. conscious will is the result of the mind justifying a behavioral action after the fact. ANSWER: b 52. The British mathematician Alan Turing proposed that in order to conclude that a machine can exhibit human-like intelligence, it must be able to act: a. in ways that are indistinguishable from humans. b. in ways that are unique to each machine. c. more like zombies than humans. d. in machine-specific ways. ANSWER: a 53. Shantell is observing a conversation between a person and a computer. The computer will pass the "Turing test" if Shantell: a. notices that it has more fluent language than the human. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. notices that the human is speaking more fluently than the computer. c. can't distinguish between the human and the computer. d. distinguishes the vocal quality of the computer as being better than that of the human. ANSWER: c 54. The four basic properties of consciousness are: a. selectivity, unity, intentionality, and self-consciousness. b. selectivity, transience, phenomenology, and dichotomy. c. intentionality, unity, selectivity, and transience. d. intentionality, dichotomy, selectivity, and transience. ANSWER: c 55. Consciousness is always directed toward an object, a property of consciousness that is called: a. selectivity. b. transience. c. unity. d. intentionality. ANSWER: d 56. Consciousness integrates information from all of the bodily senses into a coherent whole, a property of consciousness termed: a. selectivity. b. transience. c. unity. d. intentionality. ANSWER: c 57. Jordan, the pitcher for her softball team, adjusts her grip on the ball, squints to block the glare of the hot sun, receives a signal from the catcher, and begins her windup, as teammates chant in nervous anticipation. If asked, Jordan would report she is experiencing all the sights and sounds of a softball game as a whole scene, rather than experiencing each perception and action individually. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. unity b. selectivity c. transience d. intentionality ANSWER: a 58. Hidalgo, an expert chess player, is in the middle of an intense match. If asked about his experience, Hidalgo would mention the sight of the chess board, the feel of the chess piece in his hand, and the hush of the crowd. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. unity b. selectivity c. transience d. intentionality ANSWER: a 59. The capacity to include some objects in consciousness and not others is called the _____ of consciousness. a. selectivity b. unity c. inclusivity d. transience ANSWER: a 60. While watching a competitive basketball game on television, Harry doesn't hear his spouse asking for his help in the garage. This illustrates which property of consciousness? a. selectivity b. unity c. inclusivity d. transience ANSWER: a 61. Participants in a research study wear headphones through which different voices are presented in each ear. They are told to repeat all of the information coming into their left ear. Later, they are asked to recall information about what was presented in the right ear. This is an example of the: a. dichotic listening technique. b. unity of consciousness. c. split-brain research methodology. d. cocktail-party effect. ANSWER: a 62. While repeating information given to them through headphones in their left ear, participants are also receiving a second message in their right ear. Which aspect of the second message would MOST likely be noticed? a. The speaker changes languages. b. The voice of the speaker changes from a man's to a woman's. c. The subject of the message switches from the weather to current events. d. The voice of the speaker is slow and monotone throughout. ANSWER: b 63. The dichotic listening technique illustrates which property of consciousness? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. intentionality b. selectivity c. transience d. unity ANSWER: b 64. Jin is in the school gym talking to a group of her friends. All of a sudden, her attention is diverted to another group of people talking in the opposite corner of the gym when someone mentions her name during their conversation. This is an example of: a. inattentional blindness. b. minimal consciousness. c. self-consciousness. d. the cocktail-party phenomenon. ANSWER: d 65. No matter how engaged in conversation parents may be, they probably will quickly notice if their children start crying. This is an example of the: a. unity of consciousness. b. division of attention. c. dual attention phenomenon. d. cocktail-party effect. ANSWER: d 66. Dayla is trying to focus on what her psychology professor is saying, but her mind keeps wandering to other things, like the fact that the lecture hall is cold, her seat is hard, there is a message on her cell phone to check, and whether or not Eero is going to be at the party tonight. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity ANSWER: c 67. Annalise is trying to focus on her reading for psychology class, but her mind keeps wandering to other things, like the music she can hear down the hall, the text message on her cell phone, the cold temperature of the room, and the group assignment that is due tomorrow. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 68. The fact that our consciousness can wander like a stream is taken as evidence of the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity ANSWER: c 69. The fact that our consciousness has a tendency to change from one moment to the next is termed the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity ANSWER: c 70. The psychologist who famously described consciousness as flowing like a stream was: a. Sigmund Freud. b. William James. c. John B. Watson. d. Wilhelm Wundt. ANSWER: b 71. Prose written in the _____ style resembles the experience of consciousness. a. cocktail-party b. minimal consciousness c. stream of consciousness d. dichotic listening ANSWER: c 72. A rapper's _____ lyrics—narrating the events unfolding while speaking—may inspire listeners because they closely resemble the experience of consciousness. a. cocktail-party b. minimal consciousness c. stream of consciousness d. dichotic listening ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 73. Our stream of consciousness may be transient due to the: a. cocktail-party phenomenon. b. limited capacity of the conscious mind. c. capacity for our consciousness to take in all available information. d. dichotic listening effect. ANSWER: b 74. The levels of consciousness that psychologists distinguish are defined in terms of: a. objective behavioral observations made by an unbiased observer. b. a score on a wakefulness meter initially developed for surgery patients. c. awareness of the world and self. d. different patterns of brain activity. ANSWER: c 75. While Ranjan is asleep, her roommate places Ranjan's hand in a bowl of cold water. Ranjan removes her hand from the bowl but remains asleep. Ranjan is at which level of consciousness? a. minimal consciousness b. full consciousness c. unconsciousness d. REM consciousness ANSWER: a 76. Although Alek is clearly sleeping, when Lia pokes him in the ribs, Alek rolls over. This demonstrates that Alek is: a. minimally conscious. b. fully conscious. c. self-conscious. d. REM conscious. ANSWER: a 77. A state in which conscious experience can be reported to others is said to be: a. minimal consciousness. b. full consciousness. c. self-consciousness. d. verbal consciousness. ANSWER: b 78. Betsy and Jasmine are arguing about the intellectual abilities of their dog, Amos. Betsy claims that Amos knows that he is supposed to bark on the command "speak." Jasmine agrees that Amos barks on command, but contends that Amos is not aware that he has learned this stimulus–response relation. Betsy and Jasmine are Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice debating whether Amos is _____ of his clever abilities. a. preconscious b. fully conscious c. self-conscious d. transient ANSWER: b 79. Upon arriving at work, Bailey suddenly becomes aware that she must have zoned out because she doesn't remember anything about her 20-minute drive. Bailey was _____ during the drive. a. autoconscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. minimally conscious ANSWER: d 80. While reading out loud to his children, Juano realizes that he doesn't remember what he has just read. Juano was _____ during reading. a. fully conscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. minimally conscious ANSWER: d 81. While reading out loud to his kids, Umberto is completely aware that he is reading out loud. Umberto is _____ during reading. a. fully conscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. minimally conscious ANSWER: a 82. William James has suggested that self-consciousness occurs when: a. we focus all of our attention on an object. b. our attention is drawn to ourselves as an object. c. we can respond to stimuli in our environments. d. we simplify our lives and stop being fully conscious. ANSWER: b 83. Compared to the others, which behavior is LEAST likely to produce a state of self-consciousness? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. having your photo taken b. thinking about which classes you'll take next term c. giving an oral presentation d. watching actors in a play in a crowded auditorium ANSWER: d 84. Compared to the others, which behavior is LEAST likely to produce a state of self-consciousness? a. cheering for your favorite baseball team in a crowded stadium b. writing about your values c. presenting your senior thesis to a panel of faculty members d. looking at photos of yourself on your social media accounts ANSWER: a 85. Research has demonstrated that looking in the mirror can briefly make people less: a. self-critical. b. likely to lie. c. assertive. d. cooperative. ANSWER: b 86. Iris has just been asked to take a position on her school's student government board. After looking in the mirror, she is MOST likely to decide to: a. say no. b. agree to help. c. write threatening letters to the president of the board. d. be uncooperative with other members of the group. ANSWER: b 87. Research using a mirror test indicates that all of these animals EXCEPT _____ show evidence of selfrecognition. a. dolphins b. dogs c. chimpanzees d. orangutans ANSWER: b 88. Self-recognition in a mirror among animals is limited to: a. cats and gorillas. b. dogs, weasels, and apes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. humans, chimpanzees, and orangutans. d. humans over 3 years old. ANSWER: c 89. Although it is not without its critics, the mirror test of _____ provides suggestive evidence of some degree of consistency across species. a. self-esteem b. self-control c. self-awareness d. experience sampling ANSWER: c 90. Which process MOST accurately describes the experience-sampling technique of determining the contents of consciousness? a. Research participants keep a dream diary at bedside to record their dreams upon awakening. b. Research participants keep detailed thought journals and update these journals at least twice a day. c. Research participants report what is on their mind when prompted at random times throughout the day. d. Research participants talk out loud when something is on their mind and this is recorded. ANSWER: c 91. Studies using the experience-sampling technique indicate that our consciousness tends to be dominated by: a. our own personal feelings. b. unconscious fears and hidden motives. c. feelings of self-consciousness. d. the sensory inputs of our immediate environment. ANSWER: d 92. Excluding orientation to the immediate environment, studies using the experience-sampling technique indicate that our consciousness tends to be dominated by: a. current concerns. b. unconscious motives. c. mate selection. d. long-term planning. ANSWER: a 93. Alycia Chin and her colleagues (2017) used experience-sampling to study boredom. They found that people reported the highest likelihood of boredom while: a. studying. b. relaxing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. doing housework. d. socializing. ANSWER: a 94. The state of consciousness in which a seemingly purposeless flow of thoughts comes to mind is termed: a. daydreaming. b. hypnosis. c. introspection. d. minimal consciousness. ANSWER: a 95. The widespread pattern of brain activity observed using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) when people have nothing specific to which to attend is termed the: a. current concerns. b. conscious will. c. default network. d. rebound effect. ANSWER: c 96. Compared to the others, which thought is LEAST likely to be part of a person's default network? a. How can I apply the concepts learned in class to daily life? b. Do I need to eat a snack? c. Should I be more active? d. When should I go to the grocery store? ANSWER: a 97. Which thought is probably NOT part of a college student's default network? a. What am I going to do with my life? b. Do other people find me physically attractive? c. Why did my last relationship not work out? d. Do I turn right or left to get to the house party? ANSWER: d 98. During an fMRI scan, Winston's brain's default network is active. Winston is MOST likely: a. performing a task that involves mentally rotating an object. b. sleeping. c. unconscious. d. thinking about what he will do when he's out of the scanner. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 99. During an fMRI scan, Thurston's brain's default network is active. Thurston is MOST likely: a. performing a task that involves memorizing a list of words. b. actively reading the script of a play. c. asleep. d. remembering last week's game night with his friends. ANSWER: d 100. The mental technique of thought suppression is: a. the same thing as Sigmund Freud's notion of repression. b. an unconscious technique. c. best for controlling unwanted negative emotional thoughts. d. the conscious avoidance of a thought. ANSWER: d 101. When the fear of scoring badly on a math exam dominated his thoughts, Daveed intentionally used _____ to attempt to change his conscious state of mind. a. self-consciousness b. mental control c. repression d. sensory stimuli ANSWER: b 102. If asked not to think about a green Fiat, a person will MOST likely: a. think about a green Fiat much more. b. think about a green Fiat much less. c. think about a green Fiat only when engaged in a boring task. d. dream about a green Fiat later that night. ANSWER: a 103. A golfer consciously tries not to pull their drive, but a camera goes off during their backswing and they end up pulling the drive into the trees. Pulling the drive BEST illustrates: a. successful thought suppression. b. ironic errors during attempts at mental control. c. the Freudian unconscious. d. the deactivation of self-consciousness. ANSWER: b 104. A baseball pitcher knows that a certain batter often hits home runs when the pitch is to the inner half of the strike zone. The pitcher consciously tries to pitch to the outer half but, while distracted by a base runner, throws Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice to the inner half and the batter hits a home run. Pitching to the inner half of the strike zone BEST illustrates: a. successful thought suppression. b. ironic errors during attempts at mental control. c. the Freudian unconscious. d. the deactivation of self-consciousness. ANSWER: b 105. Alexi occasionally has self-doubts about his ability as a lacrosse player. His sports psychologist advised him that it is extremely important to banish these doubts from consciousness during games. Alexi has found, however, that his self-doubts intensify following games. This is an example of: a. the rebound effect of thought suppression. b. successful mental control. c. the overcompensation effect. d. the dynamic unconscious at work. ANSWER: a 106. Participants told not to think about a white bear during a brief experiment may find themselves thinking about the white bear for the rest of the day. This is an example of: a. the rebound effect of thought suppression. b. mental control. c. the overcompensation effect. d. the dynamic unconscious. ANSWER: a 107. The rebound effect of thought suppression is the tendency of a thought to: a. bounce in and out of consciousness during thought suppression. b. return to consciousness with greater frequency following initial thought suppression. c. become distorted into a false belief following thought suppression. d. become less likely following prolonged periods of thought suppression. ANSWER: b 108. Participants in a research study are told that they must try not to think about a clown riding a unicycle. According to the theory of ironic processes of mental control: a. participants will devote way too much time and energy trying to accomplish this rather simple task. b. participants will successfully repress memories of clowns into their unconscious. c. part of the participants' minds will actively search for thoughts about this clown. d. in suppressing this thought, participants will do poorly on simple cognitive tests such as addition and subtraction. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 109. Which statement about ironic monitoring processes is false? a. They operate outside of conscious awareness. b. They allow us to recognize when unwanted thoughts occur. c. They contribute to our ability to exert mental control over our consciousness. d. They decrease our sensitivity to the thoughts that are unwanted. ANSWER: d 110. Sigmund Freud described the _____ as an active system encompassing a lifetime of hidden memories, a person's deepest instincts and desires, and that person's inner struggle to control these forces. a. subconscious b. superego c. dynamic unconscious d. ego ANSWER: c 111. According to Sigmund Freud, a college student's dynamic unconscious is LEAST likely to contain: a. feelings of hatred for the student's parents. b. repressed sexual urges. c. destructive urges toward oneself. d. current goals for the semester. ANSWER: d 112. Sigmund Freud described _____ as a mental process that removes unacceptable thoughts and memories from consciousness. a. thought suppression b. speech errors (or slips) c. the dynamic unconscious d. repression ANSWER: d 113. Boris has no awareness that he has unconscious hostile urges to act aggressively against his boss. This is an example of: a. a Freudian slip. b. successful mental control. c. subliminal perception. d. repression. ANSWER: d 114. Disapproving of her friend Amy's fiancé, Mindy told her partner that she dreaded going to Amy's funeral when she meant to say "Amy's wedding." This speech error is an example of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. a lapse of consciousness. b. repression. c. a rebound effect of thought suppression. d. a Freudian slip. ANSWER: d 115. While talking about her favorite professor, Carlotta said "mom" when she meant to say "professor." This speech error is an example of: a. a lapse of consciousness. b. repression. c. a rebound effect of thought suppression. d. a Freudian slip. ANSWER: d 116. A criticism of Sigmund Freud's interpretations of speech errors and lapses of consciousness is that: a. recent research suggests that these kinds of slips reveal nothing about the contents of consciousness. b. in the real world, these types of slips are extremely rare. c. they reflect the after-the-fact interpretation of the listener, instead of the thoughts of the speaker. d. the interpretations do not meet modern standards of statistical significance. ANSWER: c 117. The _____ includes all the mental processes that are not experienced by a person but that give rise to the person's thoughts, choices, emotions, and behaviors. a. cognitive unconscious b. dynamic unconscious c. Freudian unconscious d. repressed conscious ANSWER: a 118. A key difference between Sigmund Freud's notion of the dynamic unconscious and the cognitive unconscious is that: a. repression is the major function of the cognitive unconscious. b. the cognitive unconscious does not emphasize animal urges and repressed thoughts. c. the dynamic unconscious is more susceptible to subliminal perception. d. slips of speech are important for understanding the cognitive unconscious. ANSWER: b 119. The cognitive unconscious can BEST be described as a: a. mediator between animal urges and societal norms. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. warehouse stored with repressed thoughts and memories. c. repository filled with the collective experiences of our ancestors. d. rapid automatic information processer. ANSWER: d 120. Modern _____ theories postulate that the brain has different systems regulating conscious and unconscious information processing. a. Freudian b. psychodynamic c. dual process d. Gestalt ANSWER: c 121. According to dual-process theory, which function would NOT be processed by System 1? a. identifying the correct answer to challenging multiple-choice questions on an exam b. reading the words to multiple-choice questions on an exam c. walking to class while preoccupied with an exam d. writing your name on an exam ANSWER: a 122. According to dual-process theory, which function would NOT be processed by System 2? a. debating about what major a college student should declare b. answering reading-comprehension questions on a standardized college entrance exam c. reading the words to a question on an exam d. considering how best to answer an essay question in the allotted time and space ANSWER: c 123. As manager of a new movie theater, Ralph arranged to have messages about popcorn and candy flashed on the screen during the movie so quickly that they were outside of conscious awareness. Messages like this are called: a. subliminal stimuli. b. ironic processes of mental control. c. preconscious stimuli. d. flashbulb stimulation. ANSWER: a 124. Presenting the words enemy loses subliminally to research participants resulted in a. positive emotions. b. negative thoughts. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. more donations to each participant's preferred political party. d. overestimation of likelihood of winning the lottery. ANSWER: b 125. According to the dual process approach, System 1 thinking appears to be able to help us think fast, but: a. especially when the task at hand is complex. b. only when we are motivated to do so. c. only in very simple terms. d. only when we have the time to expend considerable cognitive energy. ANSWER: c 126. System 1 thinking can be accurately characterized as: a. slow and methodical. b. unpredictable. c. fundamentally inaccurate. d. fast, but simple. ANSWER: d 127. Dreaming is considered to be a(n): a. form of unconsciousness. b. altered state of consciousness. c. normal state of consciousness. d. period during which our brain is inactive. ANSWER: b 128. A form of experience that departs significantly from the normal subjective experience of the world and the mind is called: a. an altered state of consciousness. b. a hypnogogic state of consciousness. c. subliminal consciousness. d. the collective unconscious. ANSWER: a 129. The hypnagogic state of consciousness occurs: a. as we begin to fall asleep. b. while we are dreaming. c. during the deepest stages of sleep. d. as we are waking up. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 130. Sometimes people experience sensations of falling while _____, a phenomenon termed _____. a. dreaming; REM rebound b. dreaming; hypnopompic levitation c. falling asleep; the hypnotic drop d. falling asleep; a hypnic jerk ANSWER: d 131. Immediately before falling asleep, Deion enters a state where he experiences a hypnic jerk. Deion is in: a. a hypnagogic state. b. REM sleep. c. NREM sleep. d. a fully conscious state. ANSWER: a 132. As she's falling asleep in class, Saydie experiences the sensation of dropping. This is called: a. a hypnagogic state. b. stage 4 NREM sleep. c. a circadian rhythm. d. REM sleep. ANSWER: a 133. A circadian rhythm is a naturally occurring _____ cycle. a. 8-hour b. 24-hour c. 28-day d. 365-day ANSWER: b 134. As a newly graduated registered nurse, Mo’Neeque begins working the night shift. Her struggle to stay alert at work is probably due to an interruption of her usual: a. hypnogogic state. b. REM sleep pattern. c. circadian rhythm. d. pattern of sleep spindles. ANSWER: c 135. In the absence of clocks, miners trapped underground for several weeks probably will adopt a rest-activity cycle that is _____ hours in length. a. less than 23 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. about 24 c. about 25 d. more than 26 ANSWER: c 136. When questioned by her parents about her pattern of late-night activity followed by oversleeping, Meadow might correctly attribute her rest–activity cycle to the fact that she is a _____-hour person living in a _____hour world. a. 23; 24 b. 24; 25 c. 25; 23 d. 25; 24 ANSWER: d 137. Based on electroencephalograph (EEG) recordings, it appears that sleep can be divided into _____ phases. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANSWER: d 138. If a person is awake and driving a car, a recording of the brain's EEG pattern would probably contain a considerable number of _____ waves. a. beta b. kappa c. alpha d. delta ANSWER: a 139. Being fully awake is to quiet resting as: a. beta-wave activity is to delta-wave activity. b. sleep spindles are to rapid eye movements. c. beta-wave activity is to alpha-wave activity. d. theta-wave activity is to beta-wave activity. ANSWER: c 140. Slow-wave sleep is also known as: a. REM sleep. b. hypnopompic sleep. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. stage 3/stage 4 sleep. d. stage 5 sleep. ANSWER: c 141. Stage 2 sleep is associated with: a. sleep spindles. b. beta waves. c. alpha waves. d. delta waves. ANSWER: a 142. The brain waves associated with the first stage of sleep are called _____ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta ANSWER: d 143. The brain waves associated with deep sleep are called _____ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta ANSWER: c 144. The stage of sleep characterized by the highest level of brain activity is _____ sleep. a. stage 4 b. REM c. stage 2 d. stage 1 ANSWER: b 145. The distinctive characteristic of REM sleep is the presence of: a. delta-wave brain activity interspersed with hypnic jerks. b. sawtooth brain wave activity resembling beta waves. c. sleep spindles and K complexes. d. low-frequency brain waves large in magnitude. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 146. Dreaming is to sensations of plummeting as _____ waves are to _____ waves. a. beta; theta b. beta; delta c. theta; beta d. delta; beta ANSWER: a 147. An electrooculography (EOG) measures: a. electrical activity in the brain. b. eye movements. c. oxygenated hemoglobin in the brain. d. blood flow to the genitals. ANSWER: b 148. Which activity is NOT associated with REM sleep? a. dreaming b. sleep walking c. blood flow to the genitals d. increased pulse ANSWER: b 149. _____ usually occurs during REM sleep. a. Sexual arousal b. A decrease in pulse c. Slow-wave brain activity d. Sleep walking ANSWER: a 150. Bianca's EEG recording shows sleep spindles and K complexes. Which stage of sleep is Bianca in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep ANSWER: c 151. Bertha's EEG recording shows sawtooth waves. Which stage of sleep is she in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. stage 4 sleep ANSWER: a 152. Mel's EOG recording shows activity. Which stage of sleep is Mel in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep ANSWER: a 153. Dante's EEG recording shows delta activity. Which stage of sleep is Dante in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep ANSWER: d 154. Approximately what percentage of people awakened during REM sleep will report that they have been dreaming? a. 0 b. 40 c. 80 d. 100 ANSWER: c 155. When sleepers are awakened during REM sleep and asked to estimate the duration of their dreams, their responses indicate that: a. dreams that appear to be very brief to the sleeper actually develop over an extended period of real time. b. there is no correlation between how long a dream seems to last and how long the sleeper has been in REM sleep. c. dreams that seem to last a long time actually last for only a brief duration in actual time. d. dreaming takes place in "real time." ANSWER: d 156. Which statement about REM sleep is true? a. REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and always occurs immediately after stage 4 sleep. b. REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and tends to decrease in duration throughout the night. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and tends to increase in duration throughout the night. d. REM sleep occurs once each night, usually right before you wake up. ANSWER: c 157. On average, people alternate between REM sleep and slow-wave sleep about every _____ minutes over the course of a night. a. 60 b. 90 c. 120 d. 180 ANSWER: b 158. Danette has been asleep for more than 6 hours. Which stage of sleep is she LEAST likely experiencing? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep ANSWER: d 159. Aditi has been asleep for less than 1 hour. Which stage of sleep is she LEAST likely experiencing? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep ANSWER: a 160. Which statement about sleep is true? a. Newborns sleep less than do older people. b. REM sleep is most pronounced during the first 30 minutes of sleep. c. Over the course of a night, we usually sleep 2 hours for every hour that we had been awake. d. We sleep less per night as we age. ANSWER: d 161. The world record for staying awake is about _____ hours. a. 96 b. 170 c. 264 d. 458 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 162. When Randy Gardner ended his world record 264 hours and 12 minutes of sleep deprivation, how long did he sleep? a. 7 hours 30 minutes b. 14 hours 40 minutes c. 264 hours d. 25 hours ANSWER: b 163. REM-sleep deprivation results in: a. excessive aggression and hypersensitivity to muscle pain. b. difficulty processing new information and hyposensitivity to pain. c. memory problems and excessive aggression. d. symptoms of depression and anxiety. ANSWER: c 164. Being deprived of slow-wave sleep results in: a. fatigue and hypersensitivity to pain. b. difficulty processing new information and hyposensitivity to pain. c. excessive aggression and memory problems. d. symptoms of depression and anxiety. ANSWER: a 165. A friend has a big exam tomorrow; what's the BEST advice you can offer? a. Stay up studying all night but then nap for an hour prior to the exam. b. Review the material and then, at a reasonable hour, go directly to sleep. c. Don't study the night before the test; just get a good night's sleep. d. Listen to a recording (at low volume) of the course lectures as you sleep. ANSWER: b 166. Tyler has an exam and spends the night before it cramming. Which outcome is MOST likely to be true about his test performance? a. He will develop symptoms of test-taking anxiety. b. He will forget the majority of the material soon after the exam. c. He will do worse than will students who do not study at all. d. He will recall more exam material than will students who got a full night of sleep. ANSWER: b 167. Current research indicates that a student who stays up all night "cramming" for an exam is MOST likely to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. develop symptoms of test-taking anxiety. b. forget the majority of the material soon after the exam. c. do worse than will students who do not study at all. d. recall more exam material than will students who got a full night of sleep. ANSWER: b 168. Reggie rarely gets enough stage 3 and stage 4 sleep because his roommates stay up late partying most nights of the week. It is likely that Reggie will: a. experience an increase in daydreaming. b. become aggressive when faced with minor stressors. c. experience fatigue during the day. d. experience narcolepsy during the day. ANSWER: c 169. Aadesh rarely gets enough stage 3 and stage 4 sleep because she works late most nights of the week. It is likely that Aadesh will: a. experience memory problems. b. become aggressive when faced with minor stressors. c. become hypersensitive to muscle pain. d. experience narcolepsy during the day. ANSWER: c 170. Research has shown that all of these outcomes are associated with REM-sleep deprivation EXCEPT: a. memory problems. b. excessive aggression. c. hypersensitivity to muscle pain. d. REM rebound after REM sleep is allowed again. ANSWER: c 171. When rats are routinely awakened whenever REM activity starts, they will show: a. memory problems. b. fatigue. c. hypersensitivity to muscle pain. d. decreased aggression. ANSWER: a 172. Which sequence correctly lists animals in order in terms of their daily sleep totals from least to most? a. giraffe, human, tiger, brown bat b. tiger, giraffe, brown bat, human Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. brown bat, human, giraffe, tiger d. giraffe, tiger, human, brown bat ANSWER: a 173. The MOST commonly reported sleep disorder is: a. somnambulism. b. insomnia. c. sleep apnea. d. narcolepsy. ANSWER: b 174. What percentage of adults meet the criteria for a clinical diagnosis of insomnia? a. 11 b. 19 c. 26 d. 37 ANSWER: a 175. How long do most people with insomnia tend to experience it? a. 2 or 3 days b. about 5 months c. at least a year d. 3 or more years ANSWER: c 176. An example of primary insomnia is insomnia: a. induced by working late hours. b. induced by a drug problem. c. induced by depression or anxiety. d. with no obvious causes. ANSWER: d 177. An example of secondary insomnia is insomnia: a. induced by working late hours. b. induced by a drug problem. c. induced by depression or anxiety. d. with no obvious causes. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 178. An example of self-induced insomnia is insomnia: a. induced by working late hours. b. induced by depression. c. induced by anxiety. d. with no obvious causes. ANSWER: a 179. Rhonda has recently started complaining that she is having a hard time getting to sleep at night. Kiki, her roommate and a psychology major, learned in class that the BEST advice to give Rhonda is to: a. take a sleeping pill each night. b. stop trying to go to sleep and find something else to do. c. play soothing music at bedtime. d. study before attempting to go to sleep. ANSWER: b 180. Which statement about sleeping medications is true? a. Sleeping pills usually are effective for the long-term management of insomnia. b. Sleeping pills can be effective for short-term treatment of insomnia. c. The proportion of time spent in REM sleep is increased after ingesting sleeping pills. d. Most sleeping pills are not addictive. ANSWER: b 181. Which statement about sleeping medications is true? a. Sleeping pills usually are effective for the long-term management of insomnia. b. Sleeping pills reduce the time spent in both REM sleep and the deep stages of sleep. c. Sleeping pills increase the quality of deep sleep but decrease time spent in REM sleep. d. Most sleeping pills are not addictive. ANSWER: b 182. Alexis frequently works night shifts. When she is not working, she has trouble falling asleep. Alexis is experiencing: a. secondary insomnia. b. primary insomnia. c. self-induced insomnia. d. sleep apnea. ANSWER: c 183. Carson has been diagnosed with depression and has recently had difficulty falling asleep. He likely is experiencing: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. secondary insomnia. b. primary insomnia. c. self-induced insomnia. d. sleep apnea. ANSWER: a 184. _____ is a sleep disorder associated with an interruption in breathing for short periods of time. a. Sleep apnea b. Snoring c. Sleep asthma d. Hypersomnia ANSWER: a 185. People who have been diagnosed with sleep apnea: a. often stop breathing for 10 minutes at a time during the course of a night's sleep. b. dream vividly all night long. c. usually snore or make gasping sounds during the night. d. spend most of their night's sleep in stage 4 sleep. ANSWER: c 186. Compared to the others, which person statistically is MOST likely to experience sleep apnea? a. Randy, a teenager with asthma b. Martino, a retired executive who is overweight c. Alex, a new parent who is sleep deprived d. Xuxa, a college student diagnosed with an anxiety disorder ANSWER: b 187. Aldo has a recurring dream about trying to rescue his very attractive neighbor's cat from a tree. Unfortunately, in his dream, the ladder in Aldo's garage is never tall enough to reach the cat. Sigmund Freud probably would say that the underlying meaning of this dream revolves around: a. a cat being stuck in a tree. b. Aldo's desire to behave altruistically. c. Aldo's sexual insecurities. d. Aldo's fear of heights. ANSWER: c 188. The sleep disorder characterized by walking while asleep is called: a. sleep ambulation. b. narcolepsy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. hypersomnia. d. somnambulism. ANSWER: d 189. Which statement about sleepwalking is true? a. Sleepwalkers can hurt themselves while walking. b. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker. c. Sleepwalkers usually walk with their hands outstretched. d. Sleepwalkers typically walk with their eyes closed. ANSWER: a 190. Compared to the others, which person statistically is MOST likely to experience somnambulism? a. Declan, a college student who frequently consumes alcohol before bed b. Lourdes, an 80-year-old woman c. Hugh, a middle-aged man who is overweight d. Adriana, an 8-year-old girl ANSWER: d 191. Which statement about sleepwalking is false? a. It is more common in children than it is in adults. b. It occurs during REM sleep. c. It usually occurs earlier in the night. d. It is safe to wake a sleepwalker. ANSWER: b 192. Which statement about sleepwalking is true? a. It typically occurs in the early morning hours. b. It peaks during the teenage years. c. It occurs in the deeper stages of sleep. d. It is not safe to wake a sleepwalker. ANSWER: c 193. Shortly after going to bed at 10 p.m., 9-year-old Natasha rises and walks while asleep. Which sleep disorder would she MOST likely be diagnosed with? a. narcolepsy b. somnambulism c. sleep terrors d. insomnia ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 194. Ranjeet is a long-distance truck driver. The sleep disorder that would be MOST dangerous to him is: a. night terrors. b. nightmares. c. narcolepsy. d. somnambulism. ANSWER: c 195. In the middle of enjoying a lively conversation, Jerome suddenly falls deeply asleep. When he awakens, he states that this has happened on several occasions when he becomes excited. He probably has a disorder known as: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. sleep paralysis. ANSWER: b 196. Which statement about narcolepsy is true? a. It is primarily the result of extreme sleep deprivation. b. There is a genetic component to this disorder. c. Sleep attacks are not accompanied by dreams. d. Medications are not useful to treat this disorder. ANSWER: b 197. Which statement about narcolepsy is false? a. It is primarily the result of extreme sleep deprivation. b. There is a genetic component to this disorder. c. Sleep attacks are accompanied by dreams. d. The disorder can be managed effectively with medication. ANSWER: a 198. Sleep paralysis is a sleep symptom that is sometimes associated with: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. sleepwalking. ANSWER: b 199. Sleep paralysis typically occurs when people awake during which stage of sleep? a. stage 1 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. stage 2 c. stage 3 or 4 d. REM ANSWER: d 200. The sleep disorder MOST associated with reports of waking up immobilized, with perceptions of extraterrestrials plotting an abduction and probing one's body, is MOST associated with which sleep disorder? a. insomnia b. sleep paralysis c. night terrors d. narcolepsy ANSWER: b 201. Six-year-old Ming Na awakened from stage 4 sleep with signs of intense arousal, including a racing pulse, rapid respiration, and powerful feelings of fear. Ming Na has probably experienced: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. sleep paralysis. ANSWER: c 202. Which statement about night terrors is false? a. They are most common in children. b. Upon awakening suddenly, terrified people will report vivid nightmares. c. They usually occur during non-REM sleep. d. They usually occur early in the sleep cycle. ANSWER: b 203. Which statement about dream consciousness is true? a. People tend to remember the majority of their dreams hours after the dream is over. b. Emotions felt in dreams are of a lower intensity than those felt when awake. c. Dreaming thought is illogical. d. Dreams are exclusively visual; it is impossible to dream an auditory experience. ANSWER: c 204. Which statement about dream consciousness is false? a. People can experience the sensations of smell and touch in their dreams. b. People are notoriously bad at being able to recall their dreams. c. People often dream about mundane topics. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. Conscious concerns rarely appear in dreams. ANSWER: d 205. A college professor who writes 100 multiple-choice questions immediately before going to bed is MOST likely to dream about: a. fragmented lists of a, b, c, and d. b. ideas for additional questions. c. the question they last wrote. d. the chapter theme about which they are writing. ANSWER: a 206. Which statement about nightmares is true? a. Children have more nightmares than do adults. b. Women have more nightmares than do men. c. People who have experienced traumatic events actually have fewer nightmares than do others. d. Nightmares often involve the perception of pain. ANSWER: a 207. In Sigmund Freud's view, dreams represent: a. the current concerns of a person. b. hidden wishes. c. an attempt by the brain to understand random neural activity during sleep. d. universal symbols. ANSWER: b 208. According to Sigmund Freud, the manifest content of a dream is: a. normally sexual in nature. b. just random neural activity during sleep. c. the apparent topic or superficial meaning. d. the hidden underlying meaning of the dream. ANSWER: c 209. According to Sigmund Freud, the latent content of a dream is: a. the part of the dream that we do not remember. b. just random neural activity during sleep. c. the apparent topic or superficial meaning. d. the hidden underlying meaning of the dream. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 210. Stephanie dreamed that she was naked in front of her classmates. Sigmund Freud would conclude that the manifest content of this dream is Stephanie: a. being naked in front of her classmates. b. having desire to engage in sexual activity with her classmates. c. feeling vulnerable about a new romantic relationship. d. being anxious about her grade in the course. ANSWER: a 211. Manolo had a fuzzy dream about being naked in front of a large audience. According to Sigmund Freud, the latent content of this dream is: a. its apparent topic or superficial meaning. b. Manolo being naked in front of an audience. c. the result of meaningless, random neural firing. d. Manolo's anxiety about performing in the upcoming school play. ANSWER: d 212. If a person repeatedly dreams that a parent has been eaten by a tiger, Sigmund Freud would label the story line of this dream as _____ content. a. covert b. latent c. manifest d. subconscious ANSWER: c 213. The primary problem with Freud's approach to dream analysis is that: a. people do not remember their dreams in enough detail for dream analysis to be useful. b. the manifest content of dreams rarely involves sex. c. people rarely dream about suppressed thoughts. d. the latent content of a dream can be interpreted in many ways. ANSWER: d 214. The fact that football players often dream of fumbling the ball and actors dream of forgetting their lines underscores the point that dreams involve the return of: a. full consciousness. b. latent sexual inadequacies. c. suppressed thought. d. what occurred earlier in the day. ANSWER: c 215. The theory that proposes dreams are the mind's attempt to make sense of random neural activity occurring Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice in the brain during sleep is the _____ model. a. sensory–perceptive b. neural–integration c. interpretation–evaluation d. activation–synthesis ANSWER: d 216. According to the activation–synthesis model, a dream begins: a. with an underlying meaning that is subsequently masked by manifest content. b. randomly and never acquires meaning. c. randomly but develops meaning as the mind interprets it. d. with an underlying meaning that the mind then interprets randomly. ANSWER: c 217. Freudian theory and the activation–synthesis model: a. both argue that dreams begin with meaning. b. both propose that dreams begin randomly. c. differ in that Freud believed dreams begin with meaning and do not originate randomly. d. differ in that the activation–synthesis model states that dreams begin with meaning and do not originate randomly. ANSWER: c 218. The brain region that is very active during REM sleep is the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. primary visual cortex. c. olfactory bulb. d. amygdala. ANSWER: d 219. Adolpho is dreaming. Which brain region is likely to be MOST active? a. thalamus b. prefrontal cortex c. amygdala d. pineal gland ANSWER: c 220. Which brain region decreases in arousal during REM sleep? a. amygdala b. brain stem Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. prefrontal cortex d. visual association area ANSWER: c 221. The fact that dreams feel unplanned and rambling has been attributed to _____ of the _____. a. inhibition; amygdala b. deactivation; prefrontal cortex c. inhibition; visual association cortex d. activation; amygdala ANSWER: b 222. During REM sleep, the motor cortex is activated, but the body is very still. This pattern occurs because _____ running through the brain stem _____ motor activation. a. dendrites; signal b. neurotransmitters; antagonize c. sensory neurons; inhibit d. spinal neurons; inhibit ANSWER: d 223. During a dream, the areas of the brain associated with visual _____ are activated. a. sensation b. perception c. illusions d. imagery ANSWER: d 224. Amani Meaidi and her colleagues (2014) found that, compared to sighted individuals, congenitally blind individuals have a higher frequency of all of these EXCEPT: a. nightmares. b. auditory impressions in their dreams. c. tactile impressions in their dreams. d. visual impressions in their dreams. ANSWER: d 225. Amani Meaidi and her colleagues (2014) demonstrated that compared to sighted individuals, those with congenital blindness have _____ auditory impressions and _____ nightmares. a. more; more b. more; fewer c. fewer; more Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. fewer; fewer ANSWER: a 226. The term _____ refers to all chemicals that influence consciousness or behavior by altering the brain's chemical message system. a. teratogens b. psychoactive drugs c. hallucinogens d. inhalants ANSWER: b 227. When rats have free access to cocaine self-administration, they will NOT: a. learn to press a lever if doing so produces a cocaine injection. b. regulate their cocaine intake to stay stable over time. c. stop grooming themselves when they have free access to cocaine. d. occasionally binge on cocaine to the point of giving themselves convulsions. ANSWER: b 228. Which drug will animals NOT self-administer? a. heroin b. MDMA (Ecstasy) c. phencyclidine (PCP) d. mescaline ANSWER: d 229. When he began drinking alcohol, Shlomo would drink two beers after work to feel relaxed. Six months later, Shlomo needs to drink a six-pack of beer to feel the same level of relaxation. Shlomo's behavior illustrates: a. drug tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. a placebo effect. d. expectancy effects. ANSWER: a 230. Patricio needed to take more and more morphine to control his pain after surgery; his doctor realized that Patricio was developing a(n) _____ morphine. a. adverse reaction to b. withdrawal syndrome for c. tolerance for Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. internal neural synthesis for ANSWER: c 231. Because of her insomnia, Assunta's physician prescribed sleeping pills to help her fall asleep. Over time, Assunta has had to increase the dosage she takes in order to fall asleep, indicating that she has developed a(n) _____ the medication. a. adverse reaction to b. withdrawal syndrome for c. tolerance for d. internal neural synthesis for ANSWER: c 232. New smokers often progress from their first cigarette to smoking a half to a full pack a day in just a few weeks, illustrating: a. drug tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. a placebo effect. d. expectancy effects. ANSWER: a 233. Research involving animals self-administering drugs suggests that which drug or drug class has the lowest potential for causing addiction? a. depressants b. marijuana c. antipsychotic medication d. stimulants ANSWER: c 234. The presence of _____ when the use of an addictive drug is stopped may result in _____ drug use. a. withdrawal symptoms; suppression of further b. euphoria; suppression of further c. withdrawal symptoms; further d. drug urges; suppression of further ANSWER: c 235. Peggy cut back on her caffeine consumption and quickly developed a headache. This withdrawal symptom BEST illustrates: a. drug tolerance. b. physical dependence. c. psychological dependence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. caffeine myopia. ANSWER: b 236. Dee, who uses heroin regularly, will become very sick if he goes a half day without using heroin. This BEST illustrates: a. drug tolerance. b. physical dependence. c. psychological dependence. d. the role of expectancy effects. ANSWER: b 237. Merton often mentions to his friends that he craves a cigarette after meals, even though he has not smoked in more than 5 years. This craving is likely due to: a. psychological dependence. b. physical dependence. c. the placebo effect. d. drug tolerance. ANSWER: a 238. Tony, who is recovering from alcoholism and hasn't had a drink in over a year, still sometimes craves a drink when he sees a beer commercial on television. This craving is likely due to: a. psychological dependence. b. physical dependence. c. the placebo effect. d. drug tolerance. ANSWER: a 239. Which statement is NOT evidence used to argue that choice plays a prominent role in addiction? a. Seventy-five percent of people with substance use disorders overcome their addiction. b. Most soldiers, upon returning from Vietnam, quit their heroin addiction. c. There are clear genetic predispositions in the ability to resist drug use. d. Drug users frequently choose to receive $5 rather than a hit of their drug of choice. ANSWER: c 240. Research demonstrating genetic, neurobiological, and social predispositions to resist engaging in drug use despite negative consequences provides evidence for the idea that drug addiction is: a. a choice. b. a disease over which a person has little or no control. c. primarily due to social factors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. a concept with a definition that changes over time. ANSWER: a 241. Which statement about drug addiction is true? a. It refers only to a physical dependence on a drug. b. It is an incurable condition. c. Its definition changes across cultures and time. d. It refers to the recreational, but not medicinal, use of drugs. ANSWER: c 242. Which statement about drug addiction is true? a. The majority of people with a substance use disorder overcome their addiction. b. Recreational drug use inevitably leads to drug addiction. c. Only a small percentage of cigarette smokers will ever be able to quit successfully. d. Large-scale studies have concluded that drug addiction is an incurable disease. ANSWER: a 243. _____ are substances that reduce the activity of the central nervous system. a. Agonists b. Hallucinogens c. Depressants d. Amphetamine and cocaine ANSWER: c 244. Approximately what percentage of people in the United States aged 12 and older have consumed an alcoholic beverage in the last month? a. 30 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90 ANSWER: b 245. Approximately what percentage of young adults (aged 18 to 25) in the United States have consumed an alcoholic beverage in the last month? a. 18 b. 31 c. 55 d. 92 ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 246. Binge drinking is defined as consuming _____ or more alcoholic drinks in succession. a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 12 ANSWER: a 247. Approximately what percentage of people in the United States aged 12 and older have binged on alcohol in the last month? a. 6 b. 17 c. 25 d. 41 ANSWER: c 248. Approximately what percentage of young adults (aged 18 to 25) in the United States aged 12 and older have binged on alcohol in the last month? a. 9 b. 11 c. 22 d. 35 ANSWER: d 249. The MOST commonly used depressant drug is: a. caffeine. b. alcohol. c. marijuana. d. heroin. ANSWER: b 250. Generally, as alcohol is consumed in greater quantities during a single sitting, a person experiences: a. fewer feelings of aggressiveness. b. higher levels of agitation. c. slower reactions and poor judgment. d. sharper decision making. ANSWER: c 251. Alcohol, like other _____, increases the activity of the neurotransmitter _____. a. stimulants; serotonin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. narcotics; norepinephrine c. depressants; GABA d. hallucinogens; dopamine ANSWER: c 252. Alcohol inhibits the transmission of neural impulses by increasing the activity of: a. GABA. b. norepinephrine. c. serotonin. d. dopamine. ANSWER: a 253. The _____ theory of alcohol action suggests that the appearance of aberrant behavior while drinking reflects the person's beliefs regarding typical alcohol effects. a. balanced placebo b. expectancy c. myopia d. drug tolerance ANSWER: b 254. In a _____ design, behavior is observed following the presence or absence of an actual stimulus and also following the presence or absence of a placebo stimulus. a. balanced placebo b. double-blind c. single-blind d. pre-post ANSWER: a 255. When Halston attends the annual college reunion, he usually begins acting aggressively after just one beer. When he is watching a movie with his spouse, however, one beer makes him feel relaxed. Halston's seemingly discrepant behaviors are BEST explained by: a. expectancy theory. b. alcohol's effects on the GABA system. c. alcohol myopia. d. alcohol's effects on endogenous opiates. ANSWER: a 256. At a club, Lupita feels giddy, energized, and ready to dance with friends after one drink. When she's at home, listening to music, one drink makes her feel calm and relaxed. Which proposal BEST explains this discrepancy in Lupita's behavior? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. expectancy theory b. alcohol's effects on the GABA system c. alcohol myopia d. alcohol's effects on endogenous opiates ANSWER: a 257. At a minimum, a balanced placebo design arranges how many unique test conditions? a. two b. three c. four d. eight ANSWER: c 258. Four participants sign up for an experiment examining the effects of alcohol on sociability. One participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink and is told that it is alcohol. A second participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink but is told that it is nonalcoholic. A third participant drinks a nonalcoholic beverage but is told that it contains alcohol, and a fourth participant is given a nonalcoholic beverage and is told that it is nonalcoholic. This illustrates: a. alcohol myopia. b. expectancy theory. c. a double-blind design. d. a balanced placebo design. ANSWER: d 259. Four participants sign up for an experiment examining the effects of alcohol on sociability. One participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink and is told that it is alcohol. A second participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink but is told that it is nonalcoholic. A third participant drinks a nonalcoholic beverage but is told that it contains alcohol, and a fourth participant is given a nonalcoholic beverage and is told that it is nonalcoholic. Suppose that the effects of alcohol on sociability were entirely due to expectancy effects. Which participant(s) would behave more socially after drinking? a. the second participant only b. the third participant only c. the first and third participants d. the first and second participants ANSWER: c 260. Four participants sign up for an experiment examining the effects of alcohol on sociability. One participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink and is told that it is alcohol. A second participant is given an alcoholic beverage to drink but is told that it is nonalcoholic. A third participant drinks a nonalcoholic beverage but is told that it contains alcohol, and a fourth participant is given a nonalcoholic beverage and is told that it is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice nonalcoholic. Suppose that the effects of alcohol on sociability were entirely due to the alcohol and had nothing to do with expectancies. Which participant(s) would behave more socially after drinking? a. the second participant only b. the third participant only c. the first and third participants d. the first and second participants ANSWER: d 261. The _____ theory of alcohol action proposes that the appearance of aberrant behavior while drinking reflects the fact that alcohol hampers attention, resulting in simplistic responses to complex situations. a. dual-depressant b. homeostasis c. expectancy d. myopia ANSWER: d 262. The theory of alcohol myopia suggests that consuming alcohol: a. causes the drinker to become more nearsighted. b. causes people to react in simple ways to complex situations. c. enables the drinker to relax inhibitions. d. leads the drinker to become socially inhibited. ANSWER: b 263. Carlos enters the bar with his new partner, and his previous partner notices their entrance. According to the alcohol myopia theory, Carlos's previous partner might: a. experience inattentional blindness and fail to perceive the new partner. b. casually say, "Hi," and go back to conversing with friends. c. purposefully keep some distance to remain out of sight of the new couple. d. become overly emotional and make a scene. ANSWER: d 264. In one alcohol myopia study, men watched a video of women behaving in either a friendly or unfriendly manner. One group of men watched the videos after consuming alcohol and a second group watched the videos while sober. The men were then asked how acceptable it would be for a man to make an aggressive sexual advance to the women in the videos. Which outcome was observed? a. Both groups of men were more likely to indicate that making an aggressive sexual advance to the unfriendly women was more acceptable than to the friendly women. b. The intoxicated men were more likely than were the sober men to agree that a man should make an aggressive sexual advance to the unfriendly women. c. Both groups of men were equally likely to think that an aggressive sexual advance to the friendly Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice women was acceptable. d. The intoxicated men were more likely than were the sober men to think that an aggressive sexual advance to the friendly women was acceptable. ANSWER: d 265. The use of _____ has been linked to the increased likelihood of aggression in general, as well as sexual violence and intimate partner abuse. a. Ecstasy b. marijuana c. alcohol d. hallucinogens ANSWER: c 266. Barbiturates, such as Seconal and Nembutal, are classified as: a. hallucinogens. b. narcotics. c. depressants. d. stimulants. ANSWER: c 267. One result of the federal government program known as the War on Drugs was: a. the number of drug offenders in federal prisons increased nearly 10-fold. b. drug use decreased among people aged 8- to 12-years-old. c. public support for rehabilitation programs for substance use increased. d. public support for the use of consciousness-altering substances decreased. ANSWER: a 268. The _____ action of barbiturates makes them useful for inducing _____. a. depressant; sleep b. stimulant; heightened concentration c. depressant; seizures d. stimulant; euphoria ANSWER: a 269. Which pair is a correct match of a drug with its class of action? a. alcohol and stimulant b. Valium and hallucinogen c. Nembutal and opiate d. Xanax and minor tranquilizer Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 270. Antianxiety drugs, such as Valium and Xanax, are classified as: a. hallucinogens. b. narcotics. c. stimulants. d. benzodiazepines. ANSWER: d 271. Which dangerous effect is NOT typically associated with benzodiazepines? a. respiratory depression, especially when mixed with alcohol b. physical dependence c. extreme elevations in heart rate and blood pressure d. psychological dependence ANSWER: c 272. Huffing refers to: a. forcefully exhaling to induce dizziness. b. snorting a drug powder through a straw. c. sniffing the vapors of glue, gasoline, or propane. d. smoking marijuana that has been laced with PCP. ANSWER: c 273. Emily is sniffing vapors from a bottle of hair spray until she appears to be drunk. This behavior is called: a. forcefully exhaling. b. snorting. c. huffing. d. smoking. ANSWER: c 274. Which drug is NOT classified as a stimulant? a. heroin b. caffeine c. amphetamines d. cocaine ANSWER: a 275. Amphetamines such as Methedrine and Dexedrine _____ the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice a. markedly decrease b. increase c. slightly decrease d. usually do not affect ANSWER: b 276. Vanessa is given a drug at a party. She is unsure of what it is and later becomes jittery, anxious, and full of energy. She has been sweating all night and is not sure why. Vanessa has likely ingested a: a. depressant. b. stimulant. c. narcotic. d. hallucinogen. ANSWER: b 277. Stimulants such as amphetamines _____ the levels of _____ in the brain. a. decrease; norepinephrine and dopamine b. increase; endorphins c. increase; norepinephrine and dopamine d. decrease; endorphins ANSWER: c 278. _____ a stimulant results in _____. a. Withdrawal from; fatigue and negative emotions b. Overuse of; fatigue and anxiety c. Withdrawal from; feelings of intimacy and euphoria d. Overuse of; weight gain ANSWER: a 279. MDMA is also known as: a. ketamine. b. Ecstasy. c. LSD. d. Ritalin. ANSWER: b 280. Which psychoactive effect is the result of the drug Ecstasy? a. increased aggression b. decreased anxiety c. stupor and lethargy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. enhanced feelings of intimacy with another ANSWER: d 281. At a rave, Arjun takes an unknown drug. The drug makes him feel empathetic and close to those around him. He is also having difficulty regulating his body temperature. Which drug has he MOST likely consumed? a. MDMA b. cocaine c. nicotine d. modafinil ANSWER: a 282. Sustained use of Ecstasy may result in all of these EXCEPT: a. damage to serotonin neurons. b. damage to GABA neurons. c. problems with impulse control. d. problems with attention and memory. ANSWER: b 283. Which drug is often called speed on the street? a. cocaine b. amphetamine c. caffeine d. MDMA ANSWER: b 284. Rita takes a pill at a party and, 30 minutes later, feels a strong, positive emotional connection with the other people there. Which drug did Rita MOST likely take? a. MDMA b. amphetamine c. Xanax d. Demerol ANSWER: a 285. Users of the drug Ecstasy are highly vulnerable to: a. becoming involved in violent crimes. b. bad trips consisting of nightmarish hallucinations. c. heatstroke and exhaustion. d. profound memory loss. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 286. Recent research has suggested that Ecstasy might have potentially toxic effects on neurons that produce: a. GABA. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. norepinephrine. ANSWER: c 287. The drug _____ was once used as an active ingredient in the soft drink known as _____. a. heroin; Mr. Pibb b. nicotine; Pepsi One c. Ecstasy; Tab d. cocaine; Coca-Cola ANSWER: d 288. The withdrawal syndrome associated with stopping cocaine after an extended period of use is characterized by: a. seizures and convulsions. b. severe flu-like symptoms. c. an extremely unpleasant psychological crash. d. an inability to regulate body temperature. ANSWER: c 289. Cocaine comes from: a. certain strains of sugar cane. b. the coca plant. c. poppy seeds. d. the ma huang plant. ANSWER: b 290. Which psychological problem is NOT typically associated with cocaine use? a. insomnia b. paranoia c. schizophrenia d. depression ANSWER: c 291. Walter has been ingesting_____ regularly for a few months now. When he discontinues its use, he experiences insomnia, depression, paranoia, and hyperthermia. a. cocaine Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. Ecstasy c. marijuana d. nicotine ANSWER: a 292. Matthias has been taking cocaine regularly for a few months now. When he discontinues use, he could experience all of these outcomes EXCEPT: a. depression. b. aggression. c. narcolepsy. d. heart attack. ANSWER: c 293. Nicotine is classified as a: a. stimulant. b. depressant. c. benzodiazepine. d. narcotic. ANSWER: a 294. Which statement about nicotine is true? a. It is a benzodiazepine. b. It produces euphoric effects especially in new users. c. Long-term use produces dizziness and a queasy stomach. d. Its continued use is primarily to avoid its withdrawal symptoms. ANSWER: d 295. Drugs derived from opium that alleviate pain and induce lethargy are known as: a. hallucinogens. b. depressants. c. stimulants. d. narcotics. ANSWER: d 296. _____ are neurotransmitters that are closely related in chemical structure to opiates. a. Endorphins b. Dopamine agonists c. Cannabinoids d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 297. The pain associated with prolonged exercise may be alleviated by the release of _____ by the _____. a. serotonin; liver b. adrenaline; adrenal glands c. acetylcholine; pituitary gland d. endorphins; pituitary gland ANSWER: d 298. Another term for endogenous opioids is: a. dopamine. b. serotonin. c. endorphins. d. monoamines. ANSWER: c 299. Which drug is NOT a narcotic? a. morphine b. cocaine c. heroin d. Oxycontin ANSWER: b 300. Which drug is NOT a narcotic? a. codeine b. Demerol c. Oxycontin d. LSD ANSWER: d 301. A key symptom of hallucinogenic drugs is their capacity to: a. alter sensation and perception. b. block pain. c. alleviate anxiety. d. reverse symptoms of psychosis. ANSWER: a 302. Which drug is an example of a hallucinogen? a. benzodiazepine Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice b. mescaline c. amphetamine d. cocaine ANSWER: b 303. Which drug is an example of a hallucinogen? a. Oxycontin b. morphine c. MDMA d. PCP ANSWER: d 304. Joanna likes to "trip on shrooms." Which drug is she ingesting? a. LSD b. mescaline c. psilocybin d. MDMA ANSWER: c 305. Timothy Leary, a Harvard psychology professor in the 1960s, championed the use of _____ and told students to "turn on, tune in, and drop out." a. LSD b. PCP c. ketamine d. cocaine ANSWER: a 306. Which statement about hallucinogens is false? a. Hallucinogenic drugs produce profound changes in perception. b. Hallucinogenic drugs do not produce significant dependence. c. The use of hallucinogens is associated with a substantial risk of overdose. d. The psychoactive effects of hallucinogens are dramatic and unpredictable. ANSWER: c 307. The ingestion of _____ plays a role in some Native American religious practices. a. psilocybin b. peyote c. LSD d. ketamine Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 308. Compared to the others, which drug is associated with the fewest physical withdrawal symptoms? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. barbiturates d. LSD ANSWER: d 309. Compared to the others, which drug is associated with the fewest physical withdrawal symptoms? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. marijuana d. morphine ANSWER: c 310. Leon takes a pill but doesn't know what is in it. He begins to feel changes in his perception and is having auditory hallucinations. It is likely that he took: a. LSD. b. amphetamine. c. MDMA. d. Oxycontin. ANSWER: a 311. LaRhonda takes a pill but doesn't know what is in it. She begins to have a feeling of well-being and relaxation. She also notices alleviation of the chronic pain in her ankle. Which substance has LaRhonda MOST likely taken? a. LSD b. amphetamine c. MDMA d. Oxycontin ANSWER: d 312. The buds and leaves of the _____ plant contain _____, the active ingredient in marijuana. a. cannabis; THC b. coca; MDMA c. poppy; anandamide d. peyote; LSD ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 313. THC binds to the same receptors in the brain as which naturally occurring neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. anandamide d. adenosine ANSWER: c 314. Which statement about marijuana is false? a. The addiction potential of marijuana is not strong. b. Psychological dependence is possible. c. Marijuana impairs short-term memory. d. Marijuana improves motor skills and coordination. ANSWER: d 315. About what percentage of adults in the United States have tried marijuana at least once? a. 18 b. 25 c. 42 d. 67 ANSWER: c 316. Aditya has smoked marijuana a few times and now contemplates trying cocaine. Marijuana is a _____ for Aditya if it increases his risk of trying cocaine. a. agonist b. antagonist c. gateway drug d. narcotic ANSWER: c 317. A(n) _____ is a drug whose use increases the risk of the subsequent use of more harmful drugs. a. agonist b. antagonist c. gateway drug d. narcotic ANSWER: c 318. Why was there a 10-fold increase in the number of people incarcerated for drug use from 1980 to 2013? a. The government increasingly used imprisonment to attempt to punish drug use during this period. b. Marijuana was outlawed in 1979. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice c. Use of all drugs increased dramatically during this period. d. Use of cocaine increased dramatically during this period. ANSWER: a 319. Scientists and policy makers are arguing for all of these remedies for the opioid epidemic EXCEPT: a. implementing physician training to decrease prescription of opioids. b. developing less addictive pain medications. c. initiating public education campaigns that alert communities to the dangers of opioid addiction. d. imprisoning people who use illegal opioids. ANSWER: d 320. Research shows that most people struggling with opioid dependence first received opioids from a: a. drug dealer. b. licensed physician. c. friend. d. family member. ANSWER: b 321. _____ refers to an altered state of consciousness characterized by _____ and the feelings that one's actions are involuntary. a. Mesmerism; heightened reaction to pain b. Hypnosis; suggestibility c. Meditation; impairment of short-term memory d. Hallucination; normal sensation and perception ANSWER: b 322. Gunther is under hypnosis, and his therapist is telling him to role-play his father. Which statement BEST describes Gunther's altered state of consciousness? a. Gunther feels like he is voluntarily acting like his father. b. Gunther believes that he is his father. c. Gunther has no awareness that he is currently acting like his father. d. Gunther knows that he is acting like his father but perceives this behavior as being outside his conscious will. ANSWER: d 323. Ideas that hypnotists mention to the volunteer about what the volunteer will do are termed: a. suggestions. b. implantations. c. triggers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice d. sublimations. ANSWER: a 324. Susceptibility to being hypnotized: a. can easily be predicted by tests of personality. b. is related to boredom susceptibility. c. can be predicted by the personal judgment of the individual to be hypnotized. d. is negatively related to having a vivid imagination. ANSWER: c 325. Compared to the others, which person is MOST likely to be susceptible to hypnosis? a. Jamir, a math major whose opinions are not easily swayed b. Krystal, who thinks she would be a good candidate for hypnosis c. Kamila, who has strong, unwavering religious beliefs d. Bruce, who believes it is impossible for someone to hypnotize him ANSWER: b 326. Compared to the others, which person is MOST likely to be susceptible to hypnosis? a. Andy, who is skeptical of hypnosis b. Jermaine, who is chronically sleep deprived c. Catarina, who thinks she would be easy to hypnotize d. Emily, who struggles to quit smoking ANSWER: c 327. The failure to retrieve memories following hypnotic suggestions to forget is termed: a. posthypnotic amnesia. b. hypnogogic amnesia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. hypnotic analgesia. ANSWER: a 328. A serious problem with using hypnosis to facilitate memory recall is that: a. hypnosis can help recall of only recent (last 2 years) memories. b. people may make up memories to satisfy hypnotic suggestions. c. memories of criminal acts are unlikely to be recovered during hypnosis. d. memories recalled during hypnosis may relieve physical pain. ANSWER: b 329. While under hypnosis, 40-year-old Reza recalls an instance in which she was sexually abused by a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Multiple Choice neighbor when she was 6 years old. With additional sessions of hypnosis, Reza can remember what she was wearing that day, the smell of the cologne worn by the perpetrator, and a song that was playing on the radio. Which statement regarding Reza's recovered memory is true? a. Detailed memories cannot be fabricated, therefore the memory is true. b. Given the details of the memory, the sexual assault probably occurred. c. Even if Reza is confident that her memory is accurate, it is not necessarily true. d. Long-term memories do not form by age 6; thus, the claim is necessarily false. ANSWER: c 330. The reduction of pain through hypnosis in people who are hypnotically susceptible is called: a. hypnotic amnesia. b. posthypnotic suggestion. c. the hypnotic placebo effect. d. hypnotic analgesia. ANSWER: d 331. Which statement summarizes the BEST evidence that hypnosis produces an altered state of consciousness? a. Under hypnosis, people can regress in age and think like a very young child. b. Recent research using PET scans has shown that hypnosis is a special case of imagination. c. Hypnosis effectively reduces the perception of pain. d. People can retrieve lost memories while hypnotized. ANSWER: c 332. Based on the results of research conducted by John A. Stern and colleagues (1977), which statement about the effectiveness of hypnosis to relieve pain is true? a. Hypnosis was no more effective than were placebo medications. b. Hypnosis was about as effective as acupuncture but less effective than was pain-relieving medication. c. Hypnosis was equally effective as pain-relieving medication and acupuncture. d. Hypnosis was more effective than were pain-relieving medication and acupuncture. ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Benjamin Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real-time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half of a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third of a second. 1. (Scenario 5.1) Brain activity was measured by a(n): a. transcranial stimulation device (TMS). b. computerized axial tomography scan (CT scan). c. electroencephalogram (EEG). d. electromyograph (EMG). ANSWER: c 2. (Scenario 5.1) Movement was measured by a(n): a. behavioral response from the participant. b. revolving spot of light. c. electroencephalogram (EEG). d. electromyograph (EMG). ANSWER: d 3. (Scenario 5.1) The purpose of the participant noting the position of the spot of light was to record when _____ occurred. a. brain activity b. conscious will c. attentional processes d. finger movement ANSWER: b 4. (Scenario 5.1) The results of this experiment suggest that: a. behavior precedes cognition. b. decision making precedes brain activity. c. brain activity precedes decision making. d. brain activity and decision making are not related. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario 5. (Scenario 5.1) The results of this experiment cast doubt on traditional notions of the mental and behavioral sequence associated with: a. the dynamic unconscious. b. thought suppression. c. the unity of consciousness. d. free will. ANSWER: d 6. (Scenario 5.1) A child climbed up onto the kitchen counter. When asked why she did that, the child replied that she had the urge for a cookie and decided to get one. The results of Benjamin Libet's (1985) experiment suggest that the child: a. was mistaken in her conscious experience of the urge and decision. b. climbed onto the counter before experiencing the urge for a cookie. c. consciously decided to get a cookie only after the brain had made the decision to initiate action. d. decided to get a cookie and willed her brain to begin the action of climbing. ANSWER: c 7. (Scenario 5.1) A reasonable criticism of Benjamin Libet's (1985) experiments investigating conscious will is whether participants could accurately estimate the timing of their conscious decision by monitoring a spot of light quickly revolving around a circle. This concern pertains to errors in: a. external validity. b. measurement. c. statistical significance. d. replication. ANSWER: b Scenario 5.2 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Bègue, L., Bushman, B. J., Zerhouni, O., Subra, B., & Ourabah, M. (2013). "Beauty is in the eye of the beer holder": People who think they are drunk also think they are attractive. British Journal of Psychology, 104(2), 225–234. doi:10.1111/j.2044-8295.2012.02114.x Alcohol myopia refers to the observation that people often react to complex situations in simple ways when intoxicated. For example, we might attend to only highly salient stimuli in a complex social situation. One such stimulus is physical attractiveness. Although numerous studies have investigated whether alcohol makes us perceive others as more attractive, Laurent Bègue and colleagues (2013) wondered if alcohol increases the salience of feelings already held about our own self-attractiveness. In their first study (Figure 5.1A), 19 bar patrons completed a questionnaire and were asked to rank their own physical attractiveness on a scale of 0 (very unattractive) to 7 (very attractive). Then the researchers measured the blood-alcohol level of each of these patrons using a breathalyzer test. In a second experiment, Bègue and colleagues investigated the relative contributions of alcohol and alcohol expectancies in modulating self-attractiveness. Using random assignment, men were administered either alcohol or a placebo that smelled and tasted like alcohol. In each group, a random Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario half were told it was alcohol and the other half were told it was not. All participants were then instructed to create a sales pitch for the beverage that they just consumed. A female experimenter video-recorded the sales pitch. Finally, the participants watched their sales pitch and were asked to rank their self-attractiveness. A set of independent judges—unaware of the condition to which each participant was assigned—also watched every sales pitch and ranked the attractiveness of the participants. Figure 5.1B shows the mean (and standard deviations) self-attractiveness ratings of the participants, and Figure 5.1C shows the mean attractiveness ratings as assessed by the judges. Figure 5.1A (left), 5.1B (middle), and 5.1C (right)

8. (Scenario 5.2) In the first study, what was the manipulated independent variable? a. self-attractiveness rating only b. blood-alcohol level only c. self-attractiveness rating and blood-alcohol level d. There was no manipulated independent variable. ANSWER: d 9. (Scenario 5.2) Based on the description of the first study and the results depicted in Figure 5.2A, what can be reasonably concluded? a. Increasing blood-alcohol levels cause people to think that they are more attractive. b. Alcohol is not associated with perceptions of self-attractiveness. c. There is a positive correlation between blood-alcohol levels and ratings of self-attractiveness. d. There is a negative correlation between blood-alcohol levels and ratings of self-attractiveness. ANSWER: c 10. (Scenario 5.2) Based on the description of the second study, which statement is false? a. The judges' ratings were the manipulated independent variables. b. A balanced placebo design was used. c. The design allows for determinations of cause and effect. d. The presence or absence of alcohol expectancies was a manipulated independent variable. ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 5.2) Twenty participants were told that they received alcohol and were actually given alcohol. If Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario an equal number of participants were exposed to the other conditions, how many total participants completed the study? a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 160 ANSWER: c 12. (Scenario 5.2) Based on the results depicted in Figures 5.1B and 5.1C, what can be reasonably concluded? a. Alcohol intoxication increased ratings of self-attractiveness. b. Alcohol expectancies increased ratings of self-attractiveness. c. Both the pharmacological and expectancy effects of alcohol interacted to increase ratings of selfattractiveness. d. Neither alcohol nor alcohol expectancies affected ratings of self-attractiveness. ANSWER: b 13. (Scenario 5.2) What was the purpose of obtaining independent assessments of participant attractiveness in the second study? a. to determine if participants were truthful about feeling more attractive when intoxicated b. to determine if participants were truthful about feeling more attractive when they thought that they had consumed an alcoholic beverage c. to determine if alcohol and/or alcohol expectancies caused participants to behave in ways that really did make them more attractive d. to determine the relative contributions of alcohol and alcohol expectancies in modulating ratings of self-attractiveness ANSWER: c Scenario 5.3 is based on the following publication from Meaidi and colleagues (2014). Their major results are reproduced below (Figure 5.3). Meaidi, A., Jennum, P., Ptito, M., & Kupers, R. (2014). The sensory construction of dreams and nightmare frequency in congenitally blind and late blind individuals. Sleep Medicine, 15(5), 586–595. Amani Meaidi and colleagues (2014) were interested in the dream experiences of blind people. Participants were either sighted, blind from birth with some light sensitivity (congenitally blind), or blind later in life. All participants kept a dream journal and recorded their dreams for several weeks. Shown below is the frequency of various types of dreams (expressed as a percentage) for each group. Figure 5.2

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario

14. (Scenario 5.3) People experience vivid dreaming during which stage of sleep? a. stage 2 b. stage 3 c. stage 4 d. REM ANSWER: d 15. (Scenario 5.3) Which statement about the results in Figure 5.2 is true? a. Congenitally blind participants do not have dreams with visual impressions. b. Every dream of sighted participants contained a visual impression. c. The most common type of dream among congenitally blind participants was a nightmare. d. Nightmares are equally common in all three groups. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario 16. (Scenario 5.3) With respect to dreams with tactile experiences, which statement is true? a. Sighted persons do not have tactile experiences in dreams. b. Participants who became blind later in life have substantially more dreams with tactile impressions than congenitally blind participants do. c. Dreams with tactile content were less common than nightmares. d. Dreams with tactile impressions were less common than dreams with auditory impressions. ANSWER: d 17. (Scenario 5.3) Which statement is true of congenitally blind participants? a. They did not report dreams with visual impressions. b. Their most common type of dream was a nightmare. c. Their least common type of dream was a nightmare. d. Their most common type of dream contained auditory impressions. ANSWER: d 18. (Scenario 5.3) In addition to measuring dream frequency, the researchers quantified the clarity of dreams with visual impressions. Among blind persons, researchers found that the later in life participants experienced blindness, the more visual clarity they experienced while dreaming. Which statement BEST summarizes this relationship? a. There is a positive correlation between blindness duration and visual clarity during dreams. b. There is a negative correlation between visual clarity during dreams and blindness duration. c. There is a negative correlation between age at which blindness occurred and visual clarity during dreams. d. There is a positive correlation between dreams with visual impressions and blindness duration. ANSWER: b 19. (Scenario 5.3) Congenitally blind participants were most likely to experience nightmares. In an analysis of their content, researchers found that nightmares often involved doing something wrong that is the result of their lack of sight. A(n) _____ account of dreaming would argue that this is only the _____ content of the dream and its underlying meaning remains hidden. a. activation-synthesis; manifest b. activation-synthesis; latent c. psychodynamic; manifest d. psychodynamic; latent ANSWER: c 20. (Scenario 5.3) Congenitally blind participants were most likely to experience nightmares. In an analysis of their content, researchers found that nightmares often involved doing something wrong that is the result of their lack of sight. A(n) _____ account of dreaming would argue that their brains were trying to impose order on random neuronal firing that occurred during sleep. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 5 Scenario a. activation-synthesis b. psychodynamic c. Freudian d. latent ANSWER: a

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TB6 Chapter 6 Essay 1. Having read this chapter, you now should know enough about memory to develop several study strategies for improving your performance on the next exam. Discuss at least three strategies, providing technical terms where appropriate. ANSWER: The answer may include the following information: (1) Study at the same time of day in the same quiet place (e.g., the library) daily for several days before the exam (state-dependent retrieval: information is better recalled if the encoding state matches the retrieval state). (2) Relate the information to concepts you already know (semantic encoding) and—if possible—convert the information to mental images (visual imagery encoding). (3) Quiz yourself on the material repeatedly, instead of just studying the material over and over. (4) Get a good night's sleep before the exam. 2. Just as you get into your car, your friend calls and asks you to pick up seven other friends and bring them to the party you are all attending. You don't have anything to write with, and you don't want to leave anyone behind. The names are Layla, Tony, Ben, Mark, Brent, Amber, and Jody. Discuss two methods you might use to remember the seven names. ANSWER: The answer may include the following information: (1) Visual encoding: Place the people in specific locations in your house and then do a "mental walk" around the house (Simonides method). (2) Organizational encoding: Chunk the names into categories (e.g., women and men; names toward the beginning or end of the alphabet). (3) Mental rehearsal: Say the list of names over and over until you reach the first house; then shorten the list. Do the same with the second and later pickups. 3. Describe George Sperling's (1960) experiment on sensory storage, and discuss how the findings indicate that sensory memory is much like an afterimage that quickly disappears. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that participants in one of the experiments were shown a 3×4 matrix of letters for 1/20th of a second. Immediately thereafter, they were asked to recall as many letters as possible. Most participants could recall fewer than half of the letters. Two possibilities could account for these results. One possibility is that 1/20th of a second was not enough time for all of the information to become encoded into sensory memory. The other possibility is that all of the information was encoded, but some of the letters were forgotten as participants began to recite everything that they had seen. To evaluate these possibilities, Sperling told the participants that they would hear a tone immediately after the 1/20th-second matrix presentation. A high tone meant that they should recite the top row, a medium tone indicated that they should recite the middle row, and a low tone meant that they should recite the bottom row. The test was then repeated, and most participants could recite individual rows accurately. This pattern of results supports the interpretation that the entire matrix was originally encoded, because participants had no way of knowing beforehand if they were going to be asked to recite the top, middle, or bottom row. Therefore, the poor performance in trying to recite the entire matrix was probably due to forgetting. These results indicate that sensory storage of visual information (iconic memory) is much like an afterimage. The entire image is faithfully recorded, but it is there for only a split second before disappearing. 4. After a fierce tumble during a hotly contested field hockey match, a player briefly loses consciousness. When she regains it, the team doctor begins asking questions. The player knows her name, the date, her team name, and how she got to the game. She also remembers where she lives and events that happened during her childhood. When given a list of seven digits to remember for 15 seconds, she has no trouble doing so. So far, the doctor is relieved. Exerting extra caution, the doctor tells the player to go sit at the end of the bench. Fifteen minutes later, the doctor approaches the player again and says, "Let's run through that battery of memory tests Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Essay again." The player replies, "What memory tests? This is the first time I've seen you today, doc." Based on this information, provide a likely diagnosis. Which parts of the memory and brain systems are functioning well, and which are not? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that a likely diagnosis is anterograde amnesia, as there is no memory of episodic events since the time of the injury. There is likely damage to the hippocampus and other areas in the temporal and frontal lobes of the brain that is preventing information from being transferred into long-term memory. Information already in long-term memory and working memory appear unaffected by the injury. 5. An adult patient has a severe case of anterograde amnesia due to a hippocampal injury experienced at age 25. State if (and why) the person can (a) remember childhood events, (b) remember the names of high school classmates by looking at yearbook pictures, (c) remember a story they read in a magazine 30 minutes ago, (d) learn to surf (something that they had never attempted before) and get better at it each time they go to the beach, (e) remember learning to surf, and (f) state "topcoat" when asked to complete the word fragment "top-" after being primed with that word "topcoat" 30 minutes before the test. ANSWER: The answer should indicate the following: (a) Yes, anterograde amnesia involves the inability to form new memories. Existing memories before the hippocampal damage remain intact. (b) Yes, for the same reason as (a). (c) No, new explicit memories cannot be formed. (d) Yes, this is a procedural memory that is not processed in the hippocampus. There is no reason to believe that the patient could not become an expert surfer. (e) No. Although the patient will become better and better at surfing, they will perceive that each surfing trip is their first. As the patient gets better at surfing, they might say things like, "I'm a natural surfer. I'm so good at it, and it's only my first time!" even though it is their 100th time surfing. (f) Yes, priming is an implicit memory task not processed in the hippocampus. Interestingly, the patient won't remember seeing the word "topcoat" but will be primed to report it nonetheless. 6. LaKeesha's psychology class is regularly held in the large lecture hall on the ground floor of her college's science center. She often studies the material for the exams while sitting in her usual seat in the classroom. On the day of the exam, however, there is no power in the science center and LaKeesha's class must take the exam in a new room in the library. How might this last-minute change affect LaKeesha's memory? ANSWER: LaKeesha may not remember the material as well in the library room as she does in the regular classroom due to the encoding-specificity principle. The encoding-specificity principle states that a retrieval cue can serve as an effective reminder when it helps re-create the specific way in which information was initially encoded. Because LaKeesha sat in the same place while she learned information during lecture and when she studied the information, the location (her seat in the classroom, the objects and other details of the room) could serve as a powerful memory cue. Therefore, when the test is moved to a new environment (the library), she will no longer be able to rely on those cues for retrieval. 7. Define implicit memory, explicit memory, and procedural memory, and give an example of each. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Explicit memory: consciously or intentionally retrieving past experiences; example: remembering your high school graduation. (2) Implicit memory: the influence of past experiences on later behavior and performance, without conscious awareness; example: though unaware of any change in their demeanor, a friend seems sad every year around the time of their parent's death. (3) Procedural memory: the gradual acquisition of skills as a result of practice—the sense of "knowing how" to do something; example: riding a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Essay bicycle. 8. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of collaborative recall. What is collaborative inhibition and why does it occur? ANSWER: The answer should contain content related to the following example: Suppose that Angelo, Tien Hong, and Bertram first encode a list of words and subsequently are asked to recall them. If asked to work together, the group will recall more words than any one individual. However, had Angelo, Tien Hong, and Bertram been asked to recall the words individually, their combined efforts would have been greater than that produced by the group. This phenomenon is termed collaborative inhibition. Research has indicated that this is not the result of social loafing but rather is due to the fact that the mixture of retrieval strategies used by the collaborative group actually disrupts individual performance. That is, what works best for Angelo might not work for Tien Hong. When Tien Hong is exposed to Angelo's recall strategies during collaborative recall, his strategies actually impair her own recall. Collaborative recall does have its advantages. Because group recall is better than the recall of any one individual, individuals are exposed to more correct recollections, and this enhances memory if the participants are reassessed individually in the future. In addition, the presence of others helps correct memory errors. 9. Most people believe that information stored in memory slowly fades over time, like an old photograph fading with age. Why is this commonsense view of long-term memory not entirely accurate? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that memories do not seem to fade at a constant rate. In fact, much of the information that we encode into long-term memory is forgotten very quickly! Hermann Ebbinghaus demonstrated that most forgetting occurs shortly after the information is encoded. Thereafter, subsequent memory loss slows to a trickle. 10. Imagine that you are a defense attorney in a murder case involving a carjacking. An eyewitness identifies the accused as the murderer. However, there is solid evidence that the eyewitness filled their gas tank at the same gas station at the same time as the accused, 2 weeks before the carjacking. What arguments might you make to the jury to discredit the eyewitness's account and help your client? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Memory misattributions often cause eyewitness misidentifications. (2) Source memory: it is common to recognize a person but misattribute the source of this knowledge. In other words, the eyewitness may have seen the defendant at the gas station, rather than at the scene of the crime. (3) False recognition: a feeling of familiarity about something that hasn't been encountered before. The eyewitness may feel confident in the identification because he or she recognized the suspect from an earlier time. 11. When he was in college, Diego was enthusiastic about his job prospects, was proud of his work, and enthusiastically supported the college that he attended. Now, however, after 2 years on the job market with no serious prospects, he is less satisfied with his experience. A friend is considering whether to go to Diego's alma mater and asks Diego how he felt about the college while he was there. How might Diego respond to the question? Would he be likely to remember his earlier views accurately? Why or why not? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that consistency bias involves reconstructing the past to fit what we presently know or believe. Diego's memories would likely be more in line with what he thinks today than with what he actually believed when he was in college. Instead of reporting his enthusiasm and satisfaction with the college, Diego might report that he's worried that the college doesn't produce successful job candidates. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Essay 12. Americans who are old enough most likely remember September 11, 2001, the fateful day that nearly 3,000 people died in terrorist attacks on New York City's World Trade Center; the Pentagon in Washington, DC; and in the flight that was aborted in Pennsylvania. Describe the memory effect that explains why people are likely to remember this day. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that for Americans who were alive during and aware of the attacks on 9/11/2001, the mere mention of 9/11 triggers flashbulb memories. People remember when they first learned of the attacks, where they were, what they did for the rest of the day (probably watching TV news), and so on. Enhanced recall of flashbulb memories is partially attributed to their high emotional content. We tend to remember emotional content better than information without emotional content. This is, in part, the result of the activity of the amygdala. There is also a cognitive behavioral component to flashbulb memories. Because they are of emotional content, they tend to be of some importance to our life. Therefore, they tend to be discussed. The events of 9/11 were lead stories on the news for months after the attacks. Therefore, there was much opportunity to encode (elaborative and visual imagery), consolidate, and reconsolidate these events as they were discussed repeatedly.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 1. _____ encoding is the process of relating new information in a meaningful way to knowledge that is already stored in memory. a. Semantic b. Visual imagery c. Organizational d. Episodic ANSWER: a 2. The ability to store and retrieve information over time is called: a. preservation. b. memory. c. elaboration. d. storage. ANSWER: b 3. _____ encoding takes place in the _____ and involves relating new information in a meaningful way to knowledge that is already stored in memory. a. Semantic; frontal lobe b. Visual imagery; frontal cortex c. Organizational; occipital cortex d. Semantic; occipital cortex ANSWER: a 4. Dr. Bjork is conducting a memory experiment using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). He asks a participant to remember a list of grocery items. Dr. Bjork notices that the occipital lobe of the participant's brain is particularly active during the encoding task. Which type of encoding is the participant using? a. semantic b. organizational c. visual imagery d. elaborative ANSWER: c 5. Tica's mom called her on her cell phone and asked her to pick up eight items from the hardware store on her way home. As Tica was riding on a bus and didn't have a pen and paper, she had to memorize the items. She grouped them into categories of metal, wood, and fasteners, thereby making use of _____ encoding. a. visual imagery b. elaborative c. organizational d. digital memory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 6. _____ is the process of maintaining information in memory over time. a. Memory b. Encoding c. Storage d. Retrieval ANSWER: c 7. Information is held in short-term memory for: a. 3 to 4 minutes. b. 5 seconds. c. 1/20 second. d. between 15 and 20 seconds. ANSWER: d 8. The process of bringing to mind information that has been previously encoded and stored in memory is known as: a. memory. b. encoding. c. storage. d. retrieval. ANSWER: d 9. Compared to the others, which type of memory decays the fastest? a. iconic b. implicit c. echoic d. semantic ANSWER: a 10. Keeping information in short-term memory by mentally repeating enlists the process of : a. blocking. b. chunking. c. rehearsal. d. consistency bias. ANSWER: c 11. A fast-decaying store of auditory information is referred to as _____ memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. rehearsal b. perception c. echoic d. iconic ANSWER: c 12. Your new friend tells you their phone number. Hearing, thinking about, and transforming the information to place it in your memory is an example of which process? a. semantics b. encoding c. storage d. retrieval ANSWER: b 13. Isabella learned French in high school 10 years ago. She travels to Paris, and at the airport, a customs officer asks her a question in French. She recalls the correct answer from her study of the language and answers the officer. This is an example of which function of memory? a. semantics b. encoding c. storage d. retrieval ANSWER: d 14. Working memory includes two subsystems that store and manipulate information, the _____ and the _____. a. episodic buffer; visuo-spatial sketchpad b. visuo-spatial sketchpad; phonological loop c. central executive; phonological loop d. central executive; episodic buffer ANSWER: b 15. Long-term memory can be retained for _____ and has a(n) _____ capacity. a. hours to years; limited b. hours to years; unlimited c. a few hours; limited d. a minimum of 1 year; unlimited ANSWER: b 16. While working in his garden, Angelo tripped over a coil of wound-up hose and fell face first on the pavement. He received damage to his hippocampal region, and while recovering in the hospital, he consistently greeted his friends and family as though he was seeing them again for the first time in ages, and during the day, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice he often forgot what he was doing. However, he could still recall, without effort, adventures from his teenage years. Most likely, Angelo would be diagnosed with: a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. long-term potentiation. d. short-term potentiation. ANSWER: b 17. Damage to the hippocampus can result in the inability to remember things that have happened since the damage occurred. This is called: a. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. c. echoic memory. d. bias. ANSWER: b 18. You are taking a biology class. During the lecture, you listen, take notes, and think about how the information is related to you. These are examples of _____ information into memory. When you rehearse this information, you are facilitating _____. During a test, you must remember the information, which is called _____. a. storing; retrieval; encoding b. encoding; retrieval; storage c. storing; encoding; retrieval d. encoding; storage; retrieval ANSWER: d 19. Research has shown that painful memories can be disrupted during: a. misattribution. b. rehearsal. c. consolidation. d. reconsolidation. ANSWER: d 20. A research study demonstrates that participants scored well on their psychology exams if they completed them while seated at desks placed in a quiet room, a situation similar to how they originally had prepared for the exam. This illustrates: a. the encoding specificity principle. b. priming. c. long-term storage. d. transience. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 21. As Juan is reading his psychology textbook, his neighbor begins to play loud music and disrupts Juan's concentration on the information in the textbook. This will cause Juan to have difficulty with _____ of information. a. storage b. encoding c. retrieval d. semantics ANSWER: b 22. Krissy's _____ becomes active when she tries to recall what she received for Christmas when she was 10 years old. Successful recall of this information is accompanied by activity in the _____. a. hippocampus; visual cortex b. right frontal lobe; temporal lobe c. hippocampus; temporal lobe d. left frontal lobe; hippocampus ANSWER: d 23. The process by which we transform what we perceive, think, or feel into an enduring memory is called: a. encoding. b. remembering. c. recalling. d. storing. ANSWER: a 24. Memory of your first day of college is an example of _____ memory. a. procedural b. implicit c. iconic d. explicit ANSWER: d 25. Koko remembers her 16th birthday vividly and recalls how her parents surprised her with a party. This is an example of a(n) _____ memory. a. implicit b. explicit c. semantic d. sensory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 26. An elementary school class took a spelling test immediately after learning how to bake a cake. The teacher noticed that many of the students spelled the word "flour" instead of the vocabulary word "flower." This illustrates the effects of: a. memory reconsolidation. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. priming. d. retrieval-induced forgetting. ANSWER: c 27. Memories are made by: a. transforming perceptions into sensory experiences. b. combining information we already know with new information that comes in through our senses. c. recording information coming in from our senses. d. creating exact duplicates of perceptual experiences in the hippocampus. ANSWER: b 28. Memories are: a. recorded directly into the brain. b. duplicated by the brain into perceptual experiences. c. transformed by the brain into elemental sensory components. d. constructed by the brain. ANSWER: d 29. Remembering how to ride a skateboard, even though it has been a few years since you last rode one, is a subtype of _____ memory termed _____. a. episodic; procedural memory b. procedural; episodic memory c. procedural; state-dependent retrieval d. implicit; procedural memory ANSWER: d 30. Kristen vividly remembers her first day of high school. As this day is of special significance to her, she often revisits it in her mind. This scenario illustrates a(n) _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. implicit d. procedural Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 31. Making a new memory is MOST analogous to: a. transforming a written message into binary computer code. b. taking a picture. c. altering a recipe to create a new dish. d. recording a video. ANSWER: c 32. Remembering what, where, and when information about personal events that occurred in your life is a recollection made possible by _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. procedural d. implicit ANSWER: a 33. Amber learned Spanish for 4 years in high school and for 2 more years in college. Nevertheless, only a year after graduating from college, she realizes that she remembers very little Spanish. This illustrates: a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. absentmindedness. d. transience. ANSWER: d 34. Transience describes how our memories _____ details over time as stored memories become more _____. a. lose; specific b. lose; general c. gain; flexible d. gain; specific ANSWER: b 35. Heading into the other room to get something but coming back without it would MOST likely be caused by which memory sin? a. memory misattribution b. absentmindedness c. blocking d. retrieval-induced forgetting ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 36. Making a new memory is MOST analogous to: a. creating a new musical composition. b. translating from one language to another. c. saving information on a computer. d. recording a video. ANSWER: a 37. Rita has meetings all week. She finds that by Friday, she cannot clearly remember the meetings that she had earlier in the week because she confuses them with the meetings she had on the last two days of the week. This illustrates: a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. absentmindedness. d. blocking. ANSWER: b 38. Rico was involved in a car accident 3 years ago. He recently saw someone he thought was in the same accident, but when he approached them, the person had no idea what Rico was talking about. It turned out that the person was the manager of a coffee shop that Rico had visited earlier on the day of the accident and was in no way involved in the car accident. Rico's confusion was the result of: a. his flashbulb memory. b. misattribution. c. blocking. d. suggestibility. ANSWER: b 39. Gavin is asked to remember a list of 20 words. Some of the words are written in blue ink, and some are written in red ink. A week later, he is asked to recall as many words as possible. Gavin will probably do better on the task if, during the encoding phase, he: a. thinks about the color of each word. b. pairs each word on the list with a word with which it rhymed. c. thinks about the meaning of each word. d. spells each word silently to himself. ANSWER: c 40. Bernardo witnesses a burglary. He is asked by the police to identify the burglar from a line-up of suspects. Bernardo gets confused and points to the wrong person because he had seen that person in the same place at a different time. This scenario illustrates: a. absentmindedness. b. transience. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. memory misattribution. d. blocking. ANSWER: c 41. The tendency to incorporate misleading information from external sources into personal recollections is called: a. absentmindedness. b. transience. c. memory misattribution. d. suggestibility. ANSWER: d 42. _____ refers to actively relating new information in a meaningful way to knowledge already in memory. a. Visual retrieval b. Rhyme encoding c. Semantic encoding d. Organizational encoding ANSWER: c 43. The distorting influences of present knowledge, beliefs, or feelings on the recollection of previous experiences is called: a. bias. b. transience. c. suggestibility. d. misattribution. ANSWER: a 44. The persistence of intrusive memories, such as flashbulb memories, is often a result of: a. highly emotional experiences, which lead to more vivid and long-lasting memories. b. nonemotional experiences, which lead to less vivid memories and are susceptible to suggestibility. c. overactivity in the occipital lobes. d. underactivity in the occipital lobes. ANSWER: a 45. Percival relates important psychology terms to his past experiences and knowledge when studying for an exam. Which strategy is he using? a. semantic encoding b. visual imagery encoding c. organization encoding Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. chunking ANSWER: a 46. Paula is able to learn psychology vocabulary much better when she thinks about the meaning of each term and uses the term in an example. Paula is using _____ judgments. a. case b. rhyme c. visual imagery d. semantic ANSWER: d 47. Omar has been studying a list of Latin words. Which strategy will result in the BEST memory of these words? a. thinking about what each word means b. thinking of another word that rhymes with each word c. picturing how each word itself looks d. writing each word in large block letters ANSWER: a 48. Which type of judgment results in better memory for words? a. visual b. semantic c. rhyme d. mnemonics ANSWER: b 49. The MOST effective form of encoding appears to be linking new information to: a. what it follows in a list of information to be remembered. b. how it sounds, such as rhyming words. c. how it relates to other knowledge in memory. d. how long it is retained in sensory memory. ANSWER: c 50. Jorge relates new terms encountered in his biology class to biological terms he already knows. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies reveal that the part of his brain likely to be MOST active during this process is the: a. amygdala. b. parietal lobe. c. frontal lobe. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: c 51. Ava relates new terms encountered in her philosophy class to logical terms she already knows. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies reveal that the part of her brain likely to be MOST active during this process is the: a. amygdala. b. frontal lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: b 52. Violetta uses semantic judgment in encoding new terms encountered in her sociology class. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies reveal that the part of her brain likely to be MOST active during this process is the _____ lobe. a. left temporal b. right frontal c. left parietal d. right occipital ANSWER: a 53. Semantic encoding is related to an increase of activity in which brain regions? a. the lower left frontal lobe and the inner part of the left parietal lobe b. the lower left frontal lobe and the inner part of the left temporal lobe c. the lower right frontal lobe and the inner part of the left occipital lobe d. the lower right frontal lobe and the inner part of the right parietal lobe ANSWER: b 54. Storing information by converting it into mental pictures is known as _____ encoding. a. photographic b. visual imagery c. semantic d. organizational ANSWER: b 55. Lalo is given a list of 20 objects to memorize in order. Lalo imagines a walk from home to school and imagines one of the objects on each street corner. Which memory technique is Lalo MOST likely using? a. organizational encoding b. chunking c. semantic encoding Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. visual imagery encoding ANSWER: d 56. Roberta needs to buy bread, eggs, and mayonnaise on her way home from work. Instead of making a list, she pictures an egg wearing a bread hat covered in mayonnaise. Roberta is using: a. visual imagery encoding. b. semantic encoding. c. organizational encoding. d. sensory memory encoding. ANSWER: a 57. Compared to the others, which brain region would be MOST involved in visual imagery encoding? a. the frontal lobe b. the temporal lobe c. the parietal lobe d. the occipital lobe ANSWER: d 58. Unlike semantic encoding, visual imagery encoding shows activation of the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital ANSWER: d 59. Categorizing information according to the relationships among a series of items is the definition of: a. semantic encoding. b. visual imagery encoding. c. organizational encoding. d. chunking. ANSWER: c 60. At the supermarket, Carlotta finds it much easier to remember the food items she needs when she puts them into the categories of fruits, vegetables, and meat. Which encoding process is Carlotta using to create and recall memories? a. organizational b. transformative c. semantic d. visual imagery Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 61. When JaMarion has a lot to do, he categorizes his to-do list based on type of task: homework, job-related tasks, home care tasks, and fun tasks. This type of approach represents _____ encoding. a. semantic b. organizational c. survival d. visual imagery ANSWER: b 62. Relative to semantic encoding, organizational encoding shows more activation of the upper left _____ lobe. a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital ANSWER: a 63. Which area of the frontal lobe is activated during organizational encoding? a. upper right b. lower right c. upper left d. lower left ANSWER: c 64. A food server's brain is studied in a functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) apparatus while mentally engaging in remembering the food and drink orders of a table of six virtual people. Most likely, the fMRI will reveal which area of the frontal lobe to be the MOST active? a. upper left b. lower left c. upper right d. lower right ANSWER: a 65. Compared to the others, _________ encoding tasks lead to the greatest amount of information being recalled later. a. survival b. visual imagery c. semantic d. organizational Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 66. The finding that encoding of survival-related information is subsequently easier to recall than other types of information is MOST consistent with which psychological perspective? a. psychodynamic b. behavioral c. humanistic d. evolutionary ANSWER: d 67. From an evolutionary perspective, which statement would a person MOST likely remember later the same day? a. The rate of neuron growth in development is 250,000 neurons/minute. b. Daniel T. Gilbert's middle name is Todd. c. Lemmy wrote, "You know I was born to lose, and gambling is for fools." d. There's a venomous snake that's been seen around the backyard. ANSWER: d 68. A stray cat would be LEAST likely to remember where it last: a. found food. b. encountered a mate. c. found a toy. d. encountered a dangerous predator. ANSWER: c 69. An expert in wilderness survival participates in a memory experiment in which they are shown a list of words. Later, the expert is asked to recall these words. Which words is the expert MOST likely to recall? a. freshwater b. mountaintop c. songbird d. cool breeze ANSWER: a 70. One advantage of encoding survival-related information is that it draws on elements of: a. semantic encoding only. b. semantic and visual imagery encoding only. c. organizational and visual imagery encoding only. d. semantic, visual imagery, and organizational encoding. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 71. The encoding of survival-related information is effective because it often requires participants to engage in: a. extensive planning. b. constructing a fear hierarchy. c. chunking. d. sensory integration. ANSWER: a 72. Superior recall of a scenario is often observed when the scenario: a. is pleasant. b. is mildly annoying. c. involves planning. d. involves rhyming. ANSWER: c 73. Sensory information is kept for a few seconds or less in: a. rehearsal memory. b. short-term memory. c. sensory memory. d. working memory. ANSWER: c 74. Sensory storage holds information for a maximum of: a. a few seconds. b. a few minutes. c. hours to days. d. days to years. ANSWER: a 75. George Sperling (1960) flashed a matrix of 12 letters for 1/20 of a second to research participants. When asked to recall the letters immediately after, Sperling found that MOST participants recalled: a. none of the letters given the short presentation time. b. fewer than three letters. c. fewer than half of the letters. d. more than half of the letters. ANSWER: c 76. George Sperling (1960) flashed a matrix of letters for 1/20 of a second to research participants. Sperling found that the participants: a. attempted to encode the letters from left to right. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. attempted to encode the letters from top to bottom. c. automatically stored the entire matrix of letters, but for only a brief moment. d. automatically stored the entire matrix of letters for up to a minute after the presentation. ANSWER: c 77. The store of auditory information that decays very rapidly is called _____ memory. a. iconic b. echoic c. short-term d. working ANSWER: b 78. Iconic memory is a: a. fast-decaying store of visual information. b. fast-decaying store of auditory information. c. fast-decaying store of touch information. d. type of memory that holds nonsensory information. ANSWER: a 79. Iconic memory is a fast-decaying store of: a. memory of peoples' names. b. visual memory. c. echoic memory. d. auditory memory. ANSWER: b 80. Wing Li held up three rows of four letters on a poster board to her high school AP Psychology classmates for a fraction of a second. She then removed it and immediately asked the students to name the 12 letters they had just been shown. Which memory store is being tested? a. echoic b. iconic c. working d. limited capacity ANSWER: b 81. Wing Li held up three rows of four letters on a poster board to her AP Psychology classmates for a fraction of a second. She then removed it and immediately asked the students to name the 12 letters they had just been shown. Based on previous research, about how many letters would you expect individual students to recall? a. 0 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. 5 c. 8 d. 10 ANSWER: b 82. Wing Li held up three rows of four letters on a poster board to her AP Psychology classmates for a fraction of a second. She then removed it and immediately asked the students to name the letters in the top row. Based on previous research, about how many letters in the row would you expect individual students to recall? a. none b. one c. two d. three or four ANSWER: d 83. Britni is daydreaming in class when her instructor asks her a question. Britni finds that even though she was not paying attention, she can replay in her "mind's ear" the instructor's last words, taking advantage of a process called: a. auditory memory. b. visual imagery encoding. c. iconic memory. d. echoic memory. ANSWER: d 84. A child is not paying attention to their parent. Their parent asks sternly, "What did I just say?" and the child can only meekly respond, "You just asked me, 'What did I just say?'" Which memory store was encoding this information, despite the child not paying attention? a. auditory memory b. working memory c. iconic memory d. echoic memory ANSWER: d 85. Echoic memories last _____ iconic memories. a. slightly longer than b. approximately the same length of time as c. slightly shorter than d. much longer than ANSWER: a 86. How long does it take for iconic memories to decay? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. 1 second b. 5 seconds c. 1 minute d. 3 minutes ANSWER: a 87. How long does it take echoic memories to decay? a. 1 second b. 5 seconds c. 30 milliseconds d. 60 seconds ANSWER: b 88. Just as she was about to write down a friend's new address, Mariana's phone rang. When she returns to her writing a minute later, she has forgotten the address. Mariana's _____ memory has failed her. a. long-term b. short-term c. sensory d. iconic ANSWER: b 89. Rochelle looks up a phone number on the Internet and repeats the number three times to herself. As she reaches for her phone to dial the number, she is distracted by noise coming from outside her office. When the noise ceases after about 30 seconds, she picks up the phone but finds that she cannot remember the number. This is due to the limits of _____ memory. a. short-term b. long-term c. sensory d. iconic ANSWER: a 90. In a classic memory study conducted by Lloyd Peterson and Margaret Jean Peterson (1959), participants were given consonant strings to remember—such as DBX and HLM—and then were instructed to count backward from 100 by 3. After a variable amount of time, the participants were asked to recall the consonant strings. Asking participants to count backward effectively prevents: a. sensory storage. b. iconic memory. c. short-term storage. d. rehearsal. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 91. In a classic memory study conducted by Lloyd Peterson and Margaret Jean Peterson (1959), participants were given consonant strings to remember—such as DBX and HLM—and then were instructed to count backward from 100 by 3. After a variable amount of time (delay), the participants were asked to recall the consonant strings. Which statement accurately describes the results of the experiment? a. There was no decrease in recall accuracy until the delay reached about 20 seconds. b. A 3-second delay decreased accuracy by almost 80%. c. A 20-second delay decreased accuracy by over 80%. d. There was no decrease in recall accuracy until the delay reached about 7 seconds. ANSWER: c 92. In the absence of rehearsal, information can be held in the short-term memory store for _____ seconds or less. a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: d 93. The _____ memory store holds information for a maximum of 15 to 20 seconds in the absence of rehearsal. a. iconic b. echoic c. short-term d. long-term ANSWER: c 94. The process of keeping information in short-term memory by mentally repeating it is called: a. rehearsal. b. chunking. c. memorizing. d. mnemonic storage. ANSWER: a 95. Jason looked up a telephone number on his desktop computer, but his cell phone was in another room. The easiest and perhaps MOST effective technique he can use to remember the number until he can get to his phone is: a. organizational encoding. b. visual imagery encoding. c. state-dependent retrieval. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. rehearsal. ANSWER: d 96. Martina is part of a four-person group that is developing a presentation for an Introductory Psychology course. The group must meet outside of class time, so Martina shares her phone number with the group. One member of the group, Jeff, doesn't have a pencil to write the number down, so he repeats the digits in his head until he can pull out his cell phone and store the number. Jeff just used _____ to remember her number. a. encoding b. retrieval c. rehearsal d. short-term memory storage ANSWER: c 97. Roger is using rehearsal to remember a telephone number. Each time he repeats the numbers, he is "reentering" the information into his short-term memory, thus adding about _____ to the shelf life. a. 15 to 20 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 20 to 30 minutes d. 1 hour ANSWER: a 98. The first few and last few items in a series are more likely to be recalled than are the items in the middle, a phenomenon termed the _____ effect. a. primacy b. serial position c. recency d. ordinal relation ANSWER: b 99. The serial position effect predicts that when recalling items in a previously learned list, we are MOST likely to forget the items _____ of the list. a. at the beginning b. at the end c. in the middle and at the end d. in the middle ANSWER: d 100. In recalling U.S. presidents, Louiche can list the first five presidents and the most recent five presidents, but cannot remember many of the presidents in between. This outcome BEST illustrates the _____ effect. a. recency Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. primacy c. ordinal position d. serial position ANSWER: d 101. After reading through the Introductory Psychology text, Professor Moscovitch can only remember the titles of the first three chapters. This BEST illustrates the _____ effect. a. recency b. primacy c. ordinal position d. state-dependent retrieval ANSWER: b 102. An instructor studies the class roll for 15 minutes on the first day of class in an attempt to remember student names. The next day, the instructor can only recall the names at the beginning of the list. This outcome BEST illustrates the _____ effect. a. recency b. primacy c. ordinal position d. state-dependent retrieval ANSWER: b 103. Short-term memory is limited in how long it can hold information and in the _____ information it can hold. a. type of b. utility of the c. complexity of the d. amount of ANSWER: d 104. Approximately how many items can short-term memory hold? a. 4 b. 7 c. 11 d. 20 ANSWER: b 105. It is helpful that local phone numbers are only seven digits long because seven items is the capacity of _____ memory. a. sensory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. iconic c. short-term d. long-term ANSWER: c 106. Combining small pieces of information into larger clusters is known as: a. rehearsal. b. visual encoding. c. elaborative encoding. d. chunking. ANSWER: d 107. Food servers who use organizational encoding to organize orders into groups are essentially: a. chunking the information. b. verbally rehearsing the information. c. utilizing the serial position effect. d. utilizing state-dependent learning. ANSWER: a 108. Short-term memory is to working memory as: a. function is to structure. b. sensation is to attending. c. place is to process. d. frontal lobe is to temporal lobe. ANSWER: c 109. Short-term memory is to working memory as: a. structure is to dynamic process. b. sensation is to attending. c. dynamic process is to place. d. frontal lobe is to temporal lobe. ANSWER: a 110. Active maintenance of information in short-term memory is referred to as: a. working memory. b. sensory storage. c. active memory. d. labor storage. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 111. Active maintenance of information in _____ memory is referred to as _____ memory. a. short-term; long-term b. short-term; working c. working; short-term d. working; long-term ANSWER: b 112. Working memory includes subsystems that store and manipulate: a. visual and auditory sensory experiences. b. iconic memories. c. visual images and verbal information. d. long-term memories organizationally encoded. ANSWER: c 113. The visuo-spatial sketchpad is a subsystem of working memory that stores and manipulates: a. sensory experiences. b. visual images. c. verbal information. d. numerical information. ANSWER: b 114. The phonological loop is a subsystem of working memory that stores and manipulates: a. sensory experiences. b. visual images. c. verbal information. d. numerical information. ANSWER: c 115. The _____ integrates visual and verbal information from working memory subsystems into a multidimensional code. a. episodic buffer b. visuo-spatial sketchpad c. phonological loop d. central executive ANSWER: c 116. The _____ coordinates the subsystems of working memory along with the episodic buffer. a. sensory memory store Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. visuo-spatial sketchpad c. phonological loop d. central executive ANSWER: d 117. Brain imaging studies indicate that the executive functioning underlying working memory is attributable to activity in the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: a 118. The _____ plays a critical role in recognizing new words, because the task involves the ability to link visual and verbal information. a. visuo-spatial sketchpad b. episodic buffer c. rehearsal executive d. phonological loop ANSWER: b 119. Which statement is true summarizing research on whether training working memory skills improves cognitive performance on non–memory-related tasks? a. Over 50 years of research has clearly demonstrated that training working memory skills increases overall cognitive performance. b. Training working memory skills has not been shown to increase cognitive performance on non– memory-related tasks. c. People learn specific strategies to perform specific tasks, and not much more than that. d. Efforts to study this research question have been thwarted by the fact that working memory skills cannot be improved with training. ANSWER: c 120. Antonella tells you that she is considering signing up for a course that promises to improve overall cognitive performance by training working memory skills. In response, you accurately inform her that: a. over 50 years of research has clearly demonstrated that training working memory skills increases overall cognitive performance. b. training working memory skills has not been shown to increase cognitive performance on non– memory-related tasks. c. research in this area reveals that, in these kinds of circumstances, people learn specific strategies to perform specific tasks, and not much more than that. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. efforts to study this research question have been thwarted by the fact that working memory skills cannot be improved with training. ANSWER: c 121. _____ can hold information for hours to years. a. Sensory memory b. Short-term memory c. Working memory d. Long-term memory ANSWER: d 122. Information can be kept for hours, days, weeks, or years in the _____ memory store. a. working b. short-term c. sensory d. long-term ANSWER: d 123. In MOST people, the long-term memory store has: a. no known capacity limits. b. a finite capacity of 7 plus or minus 2 gigabytes of information. c. capacity limits for verbal but not visual information. d. considerably less capacity in adolescence relative to adulthood. ANSWER: a 124. Caledonia visited a dance club where the songs were "oldies but goodies." Although she had not gone dancing in more than 20 years, Caledonia remembered the lyrics to most of the songs. This was MOST likely because: a. the hippocampus ages more slowly than does the rest of the brain. b. semantic memories are more easily recalled than are procedural memories. c. the information was stored in her long-term memory. d. the visuo-spatial sketchpad encoded this information. ANSWER: c 125. Marion can recognize the faces of almost all of her high school classmates 40 years after graduation by retrieving the information from her: a. working memory. b. episodic buffer. c. long-term memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. phonological loop. ANSWER: c 126. The famous patient HM had a portion of his temporal lobe removed to stop seizure activity and, as a result, could not: a. form new memories. b. remember anything prior to being operated on. c. use working memory. d. use sensory memory. ANSWER: a 127. Which memory disorder was MOST pronounced in HM following removal of portions of his temporal lobe? a. transient amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. prograde amnesia d. anterograde amnesia ANSWER: d 128. HM's memory problems were attributed to the removal of his _____ and parts of his temporal lobe. a. hippocampus b. occipital cortex c. thalamus d. pons ANSWER: a 129. People diagnosed with the same condition as patient HM would be LEAST likely to be able to: a. ride a bike. b. remember the name of their closest childhood friend. c. remember the podcast they listened to an hour ago. d. recognize photos of their parents. ANSWER: c 130. People diagnosed with the same condition as patient HM would be LEAST likely to: a. remember how to type on a keyboard with their hands in the correct position. b. remember the name of their first childhood pet. c. remember the name of their server at a restaurant. d. recognize facial emotions. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 131. The inability to transfer new information from short-term to long-term memory is defined as: a. normal forgetting. b. retrograde amnesia. c. prograde amnesia. d. anterograde amnesia. ANSWER: d 132. The inability to retrieve information acquired before a particular date, usually the date of some type of brain trauma or brain surgery, is termed: a. consolidation. b. retrograde amnesia. c. reconsolidation. d. anterograde amnesia. ANSWER: b 133. Emily was in a terrible car accident that caused severe damage to her brain. She now cannot remember any new pieces of information for more than a few seconds. However, she is able to remember everything before the accident perfectly clearly. This condition is an example of: a. suppression. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retrograde amnesia. d. transience. ANSWER: b 134. You are volunteering at a psychiatric hospital for the summer. On your first day, a patient comes up to you, compliments your haircut, and asks your name. You thank the patient and give your name. For the next 4 days, the same patient approaches you, compliments your haircut, and asks for your name. After a week, you ask a physician at the hospital about this behavior, and the physician tells you that the patient has been diagnosed with: a. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: a 135. Demetrius was recently injured in a car accident on his way home from school. Afterward, he was physically fine, with just a couple scratches. However, he began to realize that he did not remember anything from the 2 hours prior to the accident. Demetrius is experiencing: a. anterograde amnesia. b. proactive interference. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. memory consolidation. d. retrograde amnesia. ANSWER: d 136. Sara had a stroke and was in a coma for 2 weeks. When she wakes up, she cannot remember the names of her family and friends, her address, or where she works. She does, however, remember what she ate for breakfast and the name of the nurse who was with her when she woke up. Sara could be diagnosed with: a. short-term memory loss. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retrograde amnesia. d. iconic memory loss. ANSWER: c 137. Some psychologists who study memory believe that the role of the hippocampus in the memory process is to: a. store sensory experiences that later become long-term memories. b. store long-term memories. c. index the bits and pieces of a single memory that are stored throughout the cortex. d. recover well-remembered old memories, such as a first kiss. ANSWER: c 138. The _____ is believed to act as an index linking information together. a. frontal lobe b. cerebellum c. hippocampus d. visual cortex ANSWER: c 139. Different aspects of a single memory are stored in: a. the hippocampus and adjacent areas of the cortex. b. primarily the hippocampus. c. the brain's temporal lobe. d. different places in the cortex throughout the brain. ANSWER: d 140. Damage to the hippocampus is LEAST likely to cause a 30-year-old to forget: a. their first childhood pet. b. what they wore yesterday. c. an item on the grocery list they wrote earlier this week. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. an appointment they scheduled for tomorrow. ANSWER: a 141. Forty-year-old Renard experienced a traumatic brain injury that injured his hippocampus. He is LEAST likely to forget: a. what he ate for breakfast this morning. b. the name of his first romantic partner. c. whether he paid his bills last week. d. a work deadline he must meet by tomorrow. ANSWER: b 142. With respect to complex long-term memories, the hippocampus can MOST accurately be conceptualized as a(n): a. computer hard drive. b. "cheat sheet" stating where the components of the memory are stored. c. online "cloud" storage that frees the brain to process events necessary for survival. d. video-recording device. ANSWER: b 143. _____ is the process by which memories become stable in the brain. a. Rehearsal b. Consolidation c. Indexing d. Storage ANSWER: b 144. Memories are MOST fragile: a. shortly after encoding. b. immediately after consolidation. c. years after consolidation. d. immediately after reconsolidation. ANSWER: a 145. Osvaldo cannot remember anything that occurred in the minutes leading up to the bicycle accident that rendered him briefly unconscious. This mild form of _____ amnesia is MOST likely due to the head injury preventing memory _____. a. anterograde; consolidation b. anterograde; rehearsal c. retrograde; consolidation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. retrograde; rehearsal ANSWER: c 146. After her surgery, Sona cannot remember anything that occurred in the hour leading up to the surgery, during which time she was anesthetized and rendered unconscious. This mild form of _____ amnesia is MOST likely due to the anesthesia preventing memory _____. a. anterograde; consolidation b. anterograde; rehearsal c. retrograde; consolidation d. retrograde; rehearsal ANSWER: c 147. The type of consolidation that occurs over a time scale of seconds to minutes involves the transfer of memory from: a. sensory memory to working memory. b. short-term memory to long-term memory. c. the cortex to the hippocampus. d. the hippocampus to the cortex. ANSWER: b 148. The type of consolidation that occurs over a time scale encompassing years involves the transfer of memory from: a. sensory memory to working memory. b. short-term memory to long-term memory. c. the cortex to the amygdala. d. the hippocampus to the cortex. ANSWER: d 149. The process whereby memories can become vulnerable to disruption when they are recalled, thus requiring them to be consolidated again, is termed: a. reconsolidation. b. reformatting. c. defragmentation. d. deconsolidation. ANSWER: a 150. Three groups of rats acquire a memory on day 1. On day 2, rats in group 1 are given a drug that prevents initial long-term storage while they are actively retrieving the memory. Rats in group 2 receive the drug but do not engage in memory retrieval. Rats in group 3 actively retrieve the memory and are shocked 6 hours later when they are not engaged in retrieval. On day 3, all three groups are assessed. Which group will show the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice GREATEST impairments in memory? a. group 1 b. group 2 c. group 3 d. groups 1 and 2 ANSWER: a 151. Which statement is NOT true of long-term memory? a. After memories are consolidated, they cannot be disrupted. b. Each time memories are retrieved, they must be reconsolidated. c. Even our oldest memories can become disrupted when recalled. d. Electrical shocks can disrupt people's recalled memories. ANSWER: a 152. Which statement accurately summarizes the effects of sleep on long-term storage? a. Sleep facilitates long-term storage because it protects us from encountering new information that interferes with consolidation. b. Sleep facilitates the consolidation of trivial information that might be discarded as unimportant in the fully conscious state. c. Sleep facilitates the consolidation of important and highly emotional memories. d. Sleep facilitates long-term storage because it decreases emotionality that often interferes with consolidation. ANSWER: c 153. Which statement accurately summarizes the effects of sleep on long-term storage? a. Sleep facilitates long-term storage because it prevents proactive interference from occurring that otherwise might interfere with consolidation. b. Sleep facilitates the consolidation of trivial information that might be discarded as unimportant in the fully conscious state. c. Sleep helps strip memories of their emotionality, thereby aiding in their subsequent clarity. d. Sleep helps us to remember what is important and discard what is trivial. ANSWER: d 154. Dr. Sardonicus develops a drug that can reduce memories of traumatic experiences during recall of the experience. This drug likely: a. increases forgetting. b. interferes with reconsolidation. c. interferes with encoding. d. increases consolidation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 155. Which statement about long-term storage is true? a. Reconsolidation occurs when we fail to retrieve a memory. b. Sleep interferes with long-term storage. c. After they are consolidated, memories exist indefinitely in long-term memory. d. Each time a memory is retrieved, it becomes vulnerable to disruption. ANSWER: d 156. Alexandra Kredlow and Michael Otto (2015) asked undergraduates at Boston University who lived near the Boston Marathon site to recall their memories of the 2013 bombing. A minute later, students read an unrelated story that was either positive, negative, or neutral. A fourth group of students did not read a story (the control group). A week later, the students were again tested on their memories of the bombing. Compared with the control group, which statement MOST accurately summarizes the results? a. Students who read the positive story recalled significantly more details about the bombing. b. Students who read the negative story recalled significantly fewer details about the bombing. c. Students in all three reading groups recalled significantly more details about the bombing. d. Students in all three reading groups recalled significantly fewer details about the bombing. ANSWER: b 157. The _____ is the small space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another. a. synapse b. neurotransmitter c. dendrite d. myelin sheath ANSWER: a 158. The synapse is defined as the space between the: a. soma of one neuron and the axon on another. b. vesicle of one neuron and the axon terminal of another. c. axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another. d. dendrite of one neuron and the soma of another. ANSWER: c 159. The result of sending a neurotransmitter across a synapse is MOST analogous to: a. throwing a ball to a friend. b. moving a pillow from one corner of the couch to another. c. strengthening the relationship between two classmates. d. a child coming home after a semester away at college. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 160. The statement "Cells that fire together wire together" implies that, as a result of information exchange between two neurons: a. the axons of the two neurons fuse into one. b. further communication between the two neurons becomes more difficult. c. the axon of one neuron comes to physically touch the dendrite of another. d. communication between the two neurons is facilitated as connections are strengthened. ANSWER: d 161. Eric Kandel and colleagues stimulated the tail of an Aplysia with a mild electric shock, which caused contraction of its gill. If the investigators were to immediately stimulate the tail of the Aplysia again, the gill would contract more _____, indicating _____ memory of the shock. a. quickly; short-term b. quickly; long-term c. slowly; short-term d. slowly; long-term ANSWER: a 162. Eric Kandel and colleagues repeatedly stimulated the tail of an Aplysia with a mild electric shock. They then successfully produced a long-term memory in the Aplysia by demonstrating that the gill: a. no longer contracted with another tail stimulation conducted a few seconds after the first series of stimulations. b. contracted after a single tail stimulation conducted days after the repeated stimulations. c. failed to contract after a single tail stimulation conducted weeks after the repeated stimulations. d. contracted with each successive tail stimulation conducted seconds apart. ANSWER: b 163. Short-term storage is to long-term storage as: a. enhanced neurotransmitter release is to increased neurotransmitter production. b. growth of new synapses is to an increased number of receptor binding sites. c. growth of new synapses is to increased neurotransmitter production. d. enhanced neurotransmitter release is to growth of new synapses. ANSWER: d 164. Long-term storage is to short-term storage as: a. enhanced neurotransmitter release is to increased neurotransmitter production. b. growth of new synapses is to enhanced neurotransmitter release. c. increased neurotransmitter production is to enhanced neurotransmitter release. d. enhanced neurotransmitter release is to growth of new synapses. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 165. Aplysia is a(n): a. tapeworm. b. sea slug. c. amoeba. d. rat strain. ANSWER: b 166. Much of what we know about the neurological basis of long-term memory comes from laboratory studies of: a. rats. b. Aplysia. c. mice. d. Mustela nivalis. ANSWER: b 167. _____ won a Nobel Prize for his research on how memory operates in Aplysia. a. George A. Miller b. Edvard Moser c. Elizabeth Ligon Bjork d. Eric Kandel ANSWER: d 168. Eric Kandel won a Nobel Prize in 2000 for his research investigating: a. the mechanisms underlying directed forgetting. b. the neural basis of long-term memory. c. the fallibility, or "sins," of memory. d. novel drugs that erase memories of traumatic events. ANSWER: b 169. The process whereby repeated communication across the synapse between neurons strengthens the connection, making further communication easier, is known as: a. flashbulb memory. b. long-term potentiation. c. transfer-appropriate processing. d. neural networks. ANSWER: b 170. Long-term potentiation has been studied primarily in which brain region? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. the frontal cortex b. the hypothalamus c. the hippocampus d. Broca's area ANSWER: c 171. When rats are given drugs that block long-term potentiation (LTP) they: a. develop stronger synaptic connections. b. stop eating and grooming. c. get easily lost in familiar mazes. d. more easily recall where they've been within the past four hours. ANSWER: c 172. Information from the external world that is associated with stored information and that helps bring it to mind is known as a(n) _____ cue. a. storage b. encoding c. retrieval d. iconic ANSWER: c 173. Which definition BEST describes a retrieval cue? a. information from the outside world that aids in the encoding of similar information b. neuronal processes that underlie information recall from long-term memory c. state-dependent events that modulate transfer of information between working and long-term memory d. external information that is associated with stored information and helps bring it to mind ANSWER: d 174. Huin couldn't remember the last item on his grocery list, so he texted his partner for a hint. After his partner texted back "fruit," Huin immediately remembered that he needed to buy apples. This hint is an example of a(n) _____ cue. a. retrieval b. encoding specificity c. state-dependent d. transfer-appropriate ANSWER: a 175. Sonya had difficulty remembering the name of her friend's cat until her friend reminded her that the cat was named after a famous neuroscientist. Sonya realized that the cat's name was Kandel because her friend's Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice prompt functioned as a _____ cue. a. transfer-appropriate b. encoding specificity c. state-dependent d. retrieval ANSWER: d 176. The effectiveness of retrieval cues demonstrates that information is often _____ but momentarily _____ in memory. a. available; inaccessible b. unavailable; accessible c. unavailable; consolidated d. rehearsed; inaccessible ANSWER: a 177. A retrieval cue is only going to be useful if the information to be recalled is _____ in memory. a. unavailable and inaccessible b. available but currently inaccessible c. available and already accessible d. unavailable and not consolidated ANSWER: b 178. The idea that an external retrieval cue can be an effective reminder when it helps re-create the specific way in which information is initially encoded is termed: a. state-dependent retrieval. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. the encoding specificity principle. d. state-dependent priming. ANSWER: c 179. Solomon sits in the same seat in his psychology class for lecture every day. On the day of the final exam, he chooses the same seat, in an effort to recreate the way in which the psychology information he'd learned during the semester was initially encoded. He is attempting to use _____ to his benefit. a. chunking b. maintenance rehearsal c. encoding specificity d. the flashbulb effect ANSWER: c 180. Seamus sits in the same seat in his psychology class for lecture every day. On the day of the final exam, he Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice chooses a different seat and finds that he is not able to remember much of the semester's lecture content. If he had chosen his familiar seat, he may have remembered more due to: a. chunking. b. maintenance rehearsal. c. encoding specificity. d. the flashbulb effect. ANSWER: c 181. Duncan Godden and Alan Baddeley (1975) demonstrated that scuba divers who memorized a list of words on the deck of a boat subsequently remembered more of those words when tested: a. on the deck of the boat. b. deep under water. c. swimming on the surface of the water. d. in a classroom with ocean scenery on the walls. ANSWER: a 182. Duncan Godden and Alan Baddeley (1975) demonstrated that scuba divers who memorized a list of words underwater subsequently remembered more of those words when tested: a. on the deck of a boat. b. underwater. c. swimming on the surface of the water. d. in a classroom with ocean scenery on the walls. ANSWER: b 183. The BEST example of the use of a retrieval cue is: a. sitting in your usual desk every day in psychology class except on exam day. b. feeling the urge to have a dessert when you enter the cafeteria where you usually eat dessert. c. using medication to enhance your ability to recall information learned in childhood. d. drinking coffee while studying. ANSWER: b 184. People recovering from alcoholism tend to report a greater urge to drink when they visit places where they used to drink. This is partly the result of: a. transience. b. encoding specificity. c. state-dependent storage. d. state-dependent retrieval. ANSWER: b 185. Jasmine, a college graduate, first learned the words to her alma mater long ago as student attending Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice football games, and now tends to only remember the words when she happens to get tickets to a game. Her ability to recall the words only in the presence of this external context demonstrates the power of: a. encoding specificity. b. suggestibility. c. state-dependent storage. d. transfer-appropriate processing. ANSWER: a 186. When learning vocabulary words, Furio uses a blue pen to write the definitions as he attempts to commit them to memory. On the vocabulary quiz, Furio brings his blue pen to write the definitions. By writing with the blue pen, Furio is attempting to use _____ to his advantage. a. rehearsal b. suggestibility c. state-dependent storage d. encoding specificity ANSWER: d 187. The ability to recall information more efficiently when you are in the same state as when the information was encoded is known as: a. state-dependent encoding. b. state-dependent storage. c. state-dependent retrieval. d. transfer-dependent state. ANSWER: c 188. Whenever Darla goes to the library to study, she takes a Zappo! energy drink with her and chugs it while she studies. As the semester progresses, she notices that she does considerably better on an exam when she drinks a Zappo! while completing the test. She MOST likely does better because of: a. caffeine-enhanced sensory storage. b. state-dependent retrieval. c. the transience of retrieval. d. state-dependent storage. ANSWER: b 189. If you are in a good mood when you are studying for a test, you will remember the material better on the test day if you: a. are in a good mood. b. study using simple memorization. c. take the exam in a new classroom. d. are in a bad mood. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 190. Before Janelle starts studying for an exam, she takes a few deep breaths to calm herself. She always goes to the same area in the library and sits at the same table. Before her exam, she takes a few deep breaths to bring herself back to the same frame of mind that she was in during her study session. Janelle is applying the principles of: a. enhanced hypnotic retrieval. b. state-dependent retrieval. c. the emotional similarity principle. d. state-specific encoding. ANSWER: b 191. A memory acquired in one situation is more likely to be used in situations with similar encoding and retrieval cues, a phenomenon known as: a. state-dependent encoding. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. organizational encoding. d. suggestibility. ANSWER: b 192. According to the principle of transfer-appropriate processing, we are more likely to recall information when: a. there are strong social norms to remember the information correctly. b. the information was originally encoded phonologically. c. the information was originally encoded semantically and visually. d. the current situation is similar to that in which the information was originally encoded. ANSWER: d 193. Jerzy is asked to think of a word that rhymes with "motor." Piotr is asked to think about how a motor works. The next day, both people are asked, "What was the word that you heard yesterday that rhymes with 'voter'?" _____ will be more likely to recall "motor" because _____. a. Jerzy; rhyme judgments almost always result in better encoding than do semantic judgments b. Jerzy; the encoding context matched the retrieval context c. Piotr; semantic judgments almost always result in better encoding than do rhyme judgments d. Piotr; the retrieval context was sufficiently dissimilar from the encoding context ANSWER: b 194. McKayla is asked to think of a word that rhymes with "prime." Danielle is asked to think about the mathematical meaning of prime numbers. The next day, both people are asked, "What was the word that you heard yesterday that rhymes with 'time'?" _____ will be more likely to recall "prime" because _____. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. McKayla; rhyme judgments almost always result in better encoding than do semantic judgments b. McKayla; the encoding context matched the retrieval context c. Danielle; semantic judgments almost always result in better encoding than do rhyme judgments d. Danielle; the retrieval context was sufficiently dissimilar from the encoding context ANSWER: b 195. Retrieving information from the long-term memory store _____ subsequent memory of that information. a. will only improve b. will only impair c. will not improve, impair, or change d. may improve or impair ANSWER: d 196. Henry Roediger, III, and Jeffrey Karpicke (2006) studied performance on a memory test in two groups of participants. In one group, participants studied the material twice (study-study). In the other group, participants studied the material once and then were tested on the material (study-test). A final test measuring recall was administered in both groups after various retention intervals. Their main finding was that recall was better in the: a. study-test group at all retention intervals. b. study-study group at all retention intervals. c. study-test group at long retention intervals. d. study-test group at short retention intervals. ANSWER: c 197. Which statement regarding the effectiveness of studying the same material twice versus studying once and quizzing yourself once to enhance recall on a memory test is true? a. Studying twice yields higher recall only if the memory test is at least 2 days from the study period. b. Studying and then quizzing will yield higher recall, no matter when the test is given. c. Studying and then quizzing will be more effective, as the time needed to retain the information increases. d. Studying twice and studying and then quizzing are equally effective. ANSWER: c 198. Which statement regarding the effectiveness of studying the same material twice, versus studying once and quizzing yourself once to enhance recall on a memory test is false? a. Studying and then quizzing will yield higher recall if the memory test is administered 1 week later. b. Studying and then quizzing will yield higher recall if the memory test is administered 2 days later. c. Studying and then quizzing will be much more effective if the memory test is administered in the next few minutes. d. Studying twice will be more effective if the memory test is administered in the next few minutes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 199. A 3rd-grader must learn multiplication facts (1 × 1 through 12 × 12) over the course of 2 weeks. The BEST advice to give this student is to: a. devote a single day of memorization to each multiplier (e.g., learn 2 × 1 through 2 × 12). b. wait until the day before the test, memorize all of the problems and their answers, and then get a good night of sleep. c. make a list of all of the problems and their answers, and review this information repeatedly each day. d. make flashcards with the problem on the front (9 × 7) and the answer on the back (63), and quiz yourself repeatedly each day. ANSWER: d 200. Retrieval-induced forgetting refers to the: a. loss of memory that occurs when the retrieval context is dissimilar to the encoding context. b. loss of memory that occurs with the passage of time between encoding and retrieval. c. process by which retrieving an item from long-term memory impairs subsequent recall of related items. d. fact that a memory-erasing drug must be given while the particular memory is being retrieved in order for the drug to work. ANSWER: c 201. A process by which retrieving an item from long-term memory impairs subsequent recall of related items is termed: a. retroactive interference. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. transience. d. retrieval-induced forgetting. ANSWER: d 202. A participant studied the following word pairs: reptile-snake, reptile-turtle, reptile-lizard, amphibian-frog, amphibian-salamander, and amphibian-newt. Then the participant practiced recalling only the amphibiansalamander pair using the prompt "amphibian-sala_____." Sometime later, the participant was given a memory test of the words that had originally been studied. Of these, which word would be MOST likely forgotten? a. salamander b. frog c. turtle d. lizard ANSWER: b 203. A participant studied the following word pairs: reptile-snake, reptile-turtle, reptile-lizard, amphibian-frog, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice amphibian-salamander, and amphibian-newt. Then the participant practiced recalling only the reptile-snake pair using the prompt "reptile-sn_____." Sometime later, the participant was given a memory test of the words that had originally been studied. Of these, which word would be MOST likely forgotten? a. newt b. snake c. turtle d. frog ANSWER: c 204. A participant studied the following word pairs: fruit-apple, fruit-peach, fruit-pear, vegetable-carrot, vegetable-spinach, and vegetable-celery. Then the participant practiced recalling only the vegetable-carrots pair using the prompt "vegetable-car_____." Sometime later, the participant was given a memory test of the words that had originally been studied. Of these, which word would be MOST likely forgotten? a. carrots b. celery c. apple d. peach ANSWER: b 205. A participant studied the following word pairs: fruit-apple, fruit-peach, fruit-pear, vegetable-carrot, vegetable-spinach, and vegetable-celery. Then the participant practiced recalling only the fruit-apple pair using the prompt "fruit-ap_____." Sometime later, the participant was given a memory test of the words that had originally been studied. Of these, which word would be MOST likely forgotten? a. apple b. carrots c. peach d. celery ANSWER: c 206. Forty-year-old Eli was prompted to recall information about the first college football game he attended as a first-year student 22 years earlier. Specifically, he was asked information about whether his team won, the weather, who accompanied him to the game, and the size of the crowd at the game. Sometime later, Eli and his twin sister Whitney, who also was at the game but did not experience the initial interview, were asked to recall as many details about the game as possible. What would Eli be MORE likely than Whitney to forget? a. that the upper deck was half empty b. that it began to rain in the second half c. the name of the opposing school d. that Gary, their mutual friend, became ill and left at halftime ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 207. A witness to a bank robbery was interviewed and asked to provide details about the suspect's race, age, facial characteristics, height, weight, and clothing. Sometime later, the witness was interviewed again and asked to provide additional details. Which would the witness be LEAST likely to recall? a. the size of the suspect relative to the average person b. the color of the suspect's eyes c. what was printed on the suspect's T-shirt d. what the suspect said during the robbery ANSWER: d 208. Participants in an experiment were asked to recall an episode from their memory. During this recollection, new information somewhat related to the episode was presented to the participants. During a follow-up memory test 2 days later, participants: a. failed to remember even basic details about the original episode. b. failed to remember any of the new information. c. incorporated the new information into the original episode. d. were more accurate in their description of the original episode due to a contrast effect. ANSWER: c 209. If presented with similar but misleading information about an event during participants' recollection of the event, participants are then more likely to incorporate the misleading information into their future accounts of the event. This is probably due to the fact that the misleading information was presented closely in time with the _____ of the event. a. consolidation b. reconsolidation c. encoding d. rehearsal ANSWER: b 210. Trying to recall an event and successfully recalling one are: a. the same process involving different parts of the brain. b. exactly the same process with differences arising due to differences in environmental retrieval cues. c. different processes involving the hippocampus. d. different processes involving different parts of the brain. ANSWER: d 211. Trying to recall an event and successfully recalling one are: a. the same process involving the hippocampus and frontal lobe, respectively. b. exactly the same hippocampal process with differences arising due to differences in environmental retrieval cues. c. different processes involving the frontal lobe and hippocampus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. different processes involving the hippocampus. ANSWER: c 212. When you try but fail to remember something, your _____ shows increased activity, whereas when you successfully remember something, your _____ shows increased activity. a. hippocampus; left frontal lobe b. hippocampus; right frontal lobe c. left frontal lobe; hippocampus d. right frontal lobe; hippocampus ANSWER: c 213. When you successfully remember something, your _____ shows increased activity, whereas when you try but fail to remember something, your _____ shows increased activity. a. hippocampus; left frontal lobe b. hippocampus; right frontal lobe c. left frontal lobe; hippocampus d. right frontal lobe; hippocampus ANSWER: a 214. With respect to retrieving memories, search is to find as the _____ is to the _____. a. right frontal lobe; hippocampus b. hippocampus; left frontal lobe c. hippocampus; visual cortex d. left frontal lobe; hippocampus ANSWER: d 215. With respect to retrieving memories, hit is to miss as the _____ is to the _____. a. right frontal lobe; hippocampus b. hippocampus; left frontal lobe c. hippocampus; visual cortex d. left frontal lobe; hippocampus ANSWER: b 216. Tom studies portions of various musical scores. The following week, he is asked to provide information about the musical scores. The _____ and _____ are MOST responsible for his accurate recall. a. left frontal lobe; occipital lobe b. left frontal lobe; parietal lobe c. hippocampus; temporal lobe d. hippocampus; occipital lobe Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 217. Ashley watches several silent films. The next day, she is asked to answer questions about the stories. The _____ and _____ are MOST responsible for her accurate recall. a. left frontal lobe; the occipital lobe b. left frontal lobe; the temporal lobe c. hippocampus; occipital lobe d. hippocampus; temporal lobe ANSWER: c 218. When asked to retrieve specific items, the _____ actively works to suppress answers that compete with the desired response. a. frontal lobe b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. temporal lobe ANSWER: a 219. Meera is shown 100 pictures. Sometime later, she is shown pictures while in a functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) scanner and asked if they were part of the original set. Which area of the brain would be LEAST active during this task? a. the frontal lobe b. the parietal lobe c. the occipital lobe d. the hippocampus ANSWER: b 220. There are two broad types of long-term memory: _____ memory occurs when past experiences are intentionally retrieved, and _____ memory that occurs when past experiences influence behavior even without an effort to remember them. a. implicit; explicit b. explicit; implicit c. procedural; episodic d. semantic; priming ANSWER: b 221. Long-term memory can be divided into two broad types: memory that does not require conscious recall, referred to as _____ memory, and memory that does require conscious recall, or _____ memory. a. implicit; explicit b. explicit; implicit Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. semantic; episodic d. procedural; priming ANSWER: a 222. _____ occurs when people consciously or intentionally retrieve past experiences. a. Implicit memory b. Explicit memory c. Priming d. Procedural memory ANSWER: b 223. _____ memory occurs when past experiences influence later behavior and performance, even without an effort to remember them. a. Implicit b. Explicit c. Semantic d. Episodic ANSWER: a 224. Violeta vividly remembers her first day of college. This is an example of a(n) _____ memory. a. explicit b. semantic c. implicit d. echoic ANSWER: a 225. Lucas told his parents everything he remembered about the presentation he gave in his psychology class last week. Which memory system was Lucas using as he recounted these details? a. procedural b. explicit c. implicit d. semantic ANSWER: b 226. Lucretia wanted to find a fun way to help her middle-school students prepare for their upcoming history exam. She decided to create a game show with questions about different countries and their governments. Which type of memory would the students rely on to answer the questions? a. implicit b. explicit Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. priming d. procedural ANSWER: b 227. Xixi, a professional ice skater, struggles to remember the names of the various people she meets as part of her job but has no problem remembering elaborate skating routines. This illustrates the difference between explicit and _____ memory. a. episodic b. flashbulb c. procedural d. semantic ANSWER: c 228. _____ is the enhanced ability to think about a word or object due to a recent exposure to that same word or object. a. Priming b. Iconic memory c. Explicit memory d. Procedural memory ANSWER: a 229. Priming is an example of _____ memory. a. explicit b. implicit c. semantic d. procedural ANSWER: b 230. After watching a program about the Revolutionary War, participants were more likely to associate electricity with Benjamin Franklin, who lived during that time period, than Thomas Edison, who lived after that time period—even though both inventors' contributions to electricity were not discussed in the program. This is due to: a. episodic memory. b. procedural memory. c. transference. d. priming. ANSWER: d 231. _____ memory refers to the gradual acquisition of skills as the result of practice, or "knowing how" to do things. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. Procedural b. Explicit c. Primed d. Semantic ANSWER: a 232. Memory for motor skills (e.g., how to play a banjo) that you clearly know, even if you cannot describe them, is known as _____ memory. a. priming b. episodic c. semantic d. procedural ANSWER: d 233. Phineas can easily write his name without purposely thinking about the steps involved in crafting each letter and stringing them all together. This capability is an example of _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. procedural d. iconic ANSWER: c 234. Phineas can easily write his name without purposely thinking about the steps involved in crafting each letter and stringing them all together. This capability arises from using _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. procedural d. iconic ANSWER: c 235. Remembering how to ride a bicycle is an example of _____ memory. a. working b. implicit c. semantic d. episodic ANSWER: b 236. Remembering how to ice skate is an example of _____ memory. a. echoic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. semantic c. procedural d. episodic ANSWER: c 237. Katie learns how to swim one summer. The next summer, she goes to the pool and realizes that she still remembers how to swim. Katie is using _____ memory. a. explicit b. procedural c. semantic d. working ANSWER: b 238. After several days of practice, Ted knows how to play a D chord effortlessly on a harpsichord. Ted is using _____ memory to play the chord. a. explicit b. iconic c. procedural d. working ANSWER: c 239. Which statement about priming is true? a. Damage to the hippocampus substantially reduces the effects of priming. b. Priming is an example of explicit memory. c. Your memory might be currently primed by events that took place years earlier. d. Priming does not occur in people with anterograde amnesia. ANSWER: c 240. A functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) scan is conducted as a person is primed with a visual word cue. The next time the person sees the cue, a second fMRI MOST likely will reveal _____ activation in the _____ lobe relative to the first time the cue was presented. a. more; occipital b. less; left frontal c. more; lower left temporal d. less; left parietal ANSWER: b 241. Studies using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) have revealed that the second time an object is viewed, there is _____ activity in the visual cortex, suggesting that priming makes perception of the object _____. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. more; easier b. more; more difficult c. less; easier d. less; more difficult ANSWER: c 242. Conceptual priming is to perceptual priming as: a. the frontal lobe is to the visual cortex. b. the occipital lobe is to the frontal lobe. c. more activation is to less activation. d. explicit memory is to implicit memory. ANSWER: a 243. Roxie is shown the word "cancel" and then asked to memorize 25 words. She incorrectly reports that the word "council" was on the list because the visual characteristics of the word are similar to "cancel." This scenario illustrates: a. retrieval-induced forgetting. b. conceptual priming. c. perceptual priming. d. episodic memory. ANSWER: c 244. Someone who is shown a picture of famed baseball player Babe Ruth and then asked to complete the word "_____ball" will be more likely to respond "baseball" than "football" or "basketball," illustrating the effects of: a. state-dependent retrieval b. conceptual priming c. perceptual priming d. encoding specificity ANSWER: b 245. A type of explicit memory that consists of a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world is: a. episodic memory. b. semantic memory. c. iconic memory. d. implicit memory. ANSWER: b 246. _____ is a type of explicit memory that consists of a collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. Episodic memory b. Semantic memory c. Conceptual priming d. Procedural memory ANSWER: a 247. There are two types of explicit memory, _____ memory, which is for facts and knowledge, and _____ memory for personally experienced events. a. implicit; semantic b. procedural; implicit c. semantic; episodic d. procedural; priming ANSWER: c 248. There are two types of explicit memory, _____ memory, which is for personally experienced events, and _____ memory for facts and concepts. a. episodic; iconic b. procedural; semantic c. semantic; episodic d. episodic; semantic ANSWER: d 249. Alana is deciding between eating at Bush's Chicken and Del Taco. She remembers that she ate at Bush's Chicken last week, so decides to eat at Del Taco this week. Alana relied on _____ memory in making her decision. a. episodic b. prospective c. iconic d. semantic ANSWER: a 250. Danny recalls that the Old Course at St. Andrews, the oldest golf course in the world, was founded in the year 1552. Danny is using his _____ memory. a. episodic b. implicit c. working d. semantic ANSWER: d 251. Diego and his son, Mateo, were watching Jeopardy on TV. Diego correctly answered the questions in the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice category "World War II," and Mateo was impressed. Mateo then told his father that he remembered watching a program on World War II once at a friend's house. Diego was using _____ memory, whereas Mateo was using _____ memory. a. explicit; semantic b. semantic; implicit c. semantic; episodic d. episodic; semantic ANSWER: c 252. Donnie's parents suggest revisiting a vacation spot that they went to 5 years earlier. Donnie recalls vividly an unpleasant experience on that vacation; he immediately refuses to go this time and insists on going somewhere else. What type of memory does Donnie use to arrive at his strong opposition to his parent's proposition? a. semantic b. procedural c. implicit d. episodic ANSWER: d 253. You are a contestant on a game show. The first question you're asked is "Who was the fourth president of the United States?" What form of memory will you use to answer this general knowledge question? a. procedural b. priming c. episodic d. semantic ANSWER: d 254. Miles was asked "When is spring break this year?" and "What did you do for spring break last year?" To answer both of these questions, Miles will use his _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. implicit d. explicit ANSWER: d 255. The hippocampus appears to be critically involved in the formation of new _____ memories. a. procedural b. episodic c. semantic d. primed Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 256. The _____ appears to be critically involved in the formation of new episodic memories. a. hippocampus b. cerebellum c. lower right temporal lobe d. upper right frontal lobe ANSWER: a 257. When trying to decide whether to go to Costa Rica or Hawaii on vacation, Jazzmyn relies on her _____ memory to imagine what it would be like in either location. a. semantic b. episodic c. implicit d. working ANSWER: b 258. After a car accident, Dee Dee's family notices he is unable to recall typical events that occur in daily life. He also seems disoriented and lost most of the time, though he is able to answer questions from his favorite trivia game without any problems. Brain scans show his hippocampus has been damaged. Dee Dee is experiencing problems with his _____ memory. a. procedural b. implicit c. episodic d. semantic ANSWER: c 259. We rely heavily on _____ memory to envision the future. a. implicit b. episodic c. iconic d. semantic ANSWER: b 260. Faced with a tough decision regarding whether to change careers, Vitomir relies on his _____ memory to imagine the different outcomes associated with staying with or leaving his current position. a. implicit b. semantic c. working d. episodic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 261. Emerson, age 8, was in a bad car accident and sustained hippocampal damage. After the accident, Emerson's academic performance was unchanged, but she had difficulty remembering everyday activities and things that had happened to her in the past. She is showing signs of: a. loss of semantic memory. b. blocking. c. retrieval-induced forgetting. d. loss of episodic memory. ANSWER: d 262. Generating creative ideas by combining different types of information in new ways is termed _____ creative thinking. a. additive b. episodic c. divergent d. semantic ANSWER: c 263. Recent evidence suggests that _____ memory may contribute to divergent creative thinking. a. episodic b. procedural c. implicit d. semantic ANSWER: a 264. Andrej is a child who experienced hippocampal damage. It might be predicted that Andrej will struggle with: a. remembering what sound D makes. b. solving addition problems. c. learning how to use a fork. d. using a cardboard box in imaginative ways. ANSWER: d 265. Jennifer is a child who experienced hippocampal damage. It might be predicted that Jennifer will struggle with: a. using a baby blanket as something other than a blanket. b. reading at an age-appropriate level. c. learning how to downhill ski. d. memorizing the names of the 50 states of United States. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 266. Collaborative memory refers to: a. the construction of false memories. b. the ability to imagine possible futures based on past experiences. c. how people remember in groups. d. priming of conceptually related material. ANSWER: c 267. _____ memory refers to how people remember in groups. a. Social b. Collaborative c. Prospective d. Collective ANSWER: b 268. In a typical collaborative memory experiment, participants first encode a list of words _____ and then, some time later, attempt to recall those words _____. a. by themselves OR with others; with others b. with others; by themselves c. with others; by themselves OR with others d. by themselves; with others OR by themselves ANSWER: d 269. In a typical collaborative memory experiment, participants who first encode a list of words by themselves and later attempt to recall those words in small groups form what is called the _____ group. a. social loafing b. collaborative c. collective d. primed ANSWER: b 270. In a typical collaborative memory experiment, participants who first encode a list of words by themselves and later attempt to recall those words individually form what is called the _____ group. a. nominal b. primary c. categorical d. asocial ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 271. Which statement accurately describes the results of a typical collaborative memory experiment? a. Each individual in the nominal group outperforms the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. b. Most individuals in the nominal group outperform the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. c. The collective performance of the collaborative group is greater than the combined performance of individuals in the nominal group on the recall test. d. The combined performance of individuals in the nominal group is greater than the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. ANSWER: d 272. Which statement accurately describes the results of a typical collaborative memory experiment? a. Each individual in the nominal group outperforms the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. b. Most individuals in the nominal group outperform the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. c. The collective performance of the collaborative group is greater than the individual performance of participants in the nominal group. d. The combined performance of individuals in the nominal group is less than the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. ANSWER: c 273. Annie, Cierra, and Deidre memorize facts about historical figures in psychology as part of an introductory psychology course. On the day of the exam, the professor informs the three students that they can either take the exam individually or submit one exam from the group. Based on research on collaborative memory, the students should: a. complete the exam as a group. b. submit individually to avoid social loafing. c. first work individually then compile results and submit the exam as a group submission. d. submit individually because the information was encoded individually. ANSWER: c 274. The negative effect of group recall on memory is termed: a. collaborative inhibition. b. social loafing. c. group think. d. collective amnesia. ANSWER: a 275. Collaborative inhibition refers to the finding that: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. people tend to better encode information individually than they do in groups. b. people tend to better encode information in groups than they do individually. c. a group usually recalls more information than does an individual. d. the summed recall of individuals is usually superior to group recall. ANSWER: d 276. Evidence suggests that collaborative inhibition MOST likely occurs because: a. people tend to better encode information individually than they do in groups. b. retrieval strategies used by individuals in the group disrupt those used by others. c. people have a tendency to loaf in groups and not take the task seriously. d. retrieval occurs in a state different from does encoding. ANSWER: b 277. Relying on your computer to help you remember information has advantages and disadvantages similar to those observed with: a. state-dependent retrieval. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. collaborative memory. d. social loafing. ANSWER: c 278. Forgetting that occurs with the passage of time is known as: a. failure. b. retrieval. c. transience. d. interference. ANSWER: c 279. Transience refers to forgetting that occurs: a. as a result of the limits of working memory. b. when the retrieval context does not match the encoding context. c. due to divided attention. d. simply as the result of the passage of time. ANSWER: d 280. Reiko fondly remembers her college days. When she goes back for homecoming, however, she gets lost trying to find Doyle Hall, her old dorm building. Reiko is probably experiencing the _____ of memory. a. transience b. blocking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. suggestibility d. bias ANSWER: a 281. Upon returning to a city in which he once lived a decade ago, Omar realizes that he cannot even remember directions to major landmarks. Omar is probably experiencing the _____ of memory. a. blocking b. absentmindedness c. suggestibility d. transience ANSWER: d 282. Which researcher studied memory by using nonsense syllables? a. Frederick Bartlett b. Hermann Ebbinghaus c. Otto Preminger d. Elizabeth Loftus ANSWER: b 283. Hermann Ebbinghaus studied memory by using: a. nonsense syllables. b. a priming task. c. stories with embedded false information. d. procedures designed to divide attention. ANSWER: a 284. Research by Hermann Ebbinghaus and others demonstrated that: a. memories of new information fade at a constant rate over time. b. new memories remain strong for up to 4 weeks before they begin to fade. c. most forgetting of new information happens soon after the event in question. d. individuals remember much more than they think they do. ANSWER: c 285. Hafa just completed a course in calculus. Based on knowledge about the curve of forgetting, we can predict that: a. most of what Hafa will forget about calculus will occur in the first few years after completing the course. b. Hafa will forget most of the material at a constant rate over time. c. Hafa will experience a sudden increase in forgetting approximately 4 years after finishing the course. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. the rate at which Hafa forgets calculus will increase over time. ANSWER: a 286. Jared just completed a course in Chinese history. Based on knowledge about the curve of forgetting, we can predict that: a. most of what Jared will forget about the Chinese dynasties will occur in the first few years after completing the course. b. Jared will forget most of the material at a constant rate over time. c. Jared will experience a sudden spike in forgetting beginning around 4 years after course completion. d. the rate at which Jared forgets the course material will increase over time. ANSWER: a 287. Memories lose specificity over time; a fact associated with the _____ of memory. a. generality b. misattribution c. suggestibility d. transience ANSWER: d 288. Transience involves the gradual switch from _____ to _____ memories. a. more general; more specific b. more specific; more general c. explicit; implicit d. implicit; explicit ANSWER: b 289. The impairment of memory for previously learned information by newly learned information is known as: a. proactive interference. b. retrograde amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. anterograde amnesia. ANSWER: c 290. _____ occurs when information learned later impairs memory for information acquired earlier. a. Retroactive interference b. Retrograde amnesia c. Proactive interference d. Anterograde amnesia ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 291. The impairment of memory for recently learned information by previously learned information is known as: a. proactive interference. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. blocking. ANSWER: a 292. _____ occurs when information learned earlier impairs memory for information acquired later. a. Retroactive interference b. Retrograde amnesia c. Proactive interference d. Anterograde amnesia ANSWER: c 293. Julio, a native Spanish speaker, is currently learning German in college. When he visits his Spanishspeaking family, he frequently inserts German words into his Spanish. This is an example of: a. proactive interference. b. blocking. c. retroactive interference. d. transfer-appropriate processing. ANSWER: c 294. Alano has spoken Italian since he was 5 years old. In his high school Spanish class, he regularly replaces Spanish words with Italian words. Alano is experiencing: a. proactive interference. b. state-dependent retrieval. c. retroactive interference. d. retrieval-induced forgetting. ANSWER: a 295. Professor Lopez always parks his car in the same garage. One morning, however, the garage was full and the professor had to park his car elsewhere. When he parked his car, he took special note of its new location. Nevertheless, that afternoon Professor Lopez spent a good bit of time wandering around the parking garage, confused as to where his car was. The professor was experiencing: a. anterograde amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. retroactive interference. d. absentmindedness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 296. Angus is asked to list his last three addresses on a job application. He writes his current address but momentarily draws a blank on his previous addresses, because his current address keeps popping into mind. Angus is experiencing: a. anterograde amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. retroactive interference. d. absentmindedness. ANSWER: c 297. A lapse in attention that results in memory failure is the definition of: a. absentmindedness. b. blocking. c. proactive interference. d. retroactive interference. ANSWER: a 298. Absentmindedness results from: a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. the passage of time since information encoding. d. a lapse in attention. ANSWER: d 299. Yo-Yo Ma, a world-famous musician, left his multimillion-dollar cello in the trunk of a taxi. What might have caused him to forget something so important to him? a. lack of retrieval cues b. blocking c. absentmindedness d. transience ANSWER: c 300. Aaliyah had a very important midterm paper due in less than an hour, so she rushed to her class in her car with the paper on the passenger seat. After she parked the car, she raced into class, leaving the paper behind. Aaliyah experienced: a. change bias. b. proactive interference. c. transience. d. absentmindedness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 301. A parent trying to pacify their fussy toddler while paying at the supermarket suddenly realizes that they have forgotten to get the most important item on the list. Forgetting to purchase the item is an example of: a. change bias. b. absentmindedness. c. transience. d. proactive interference. ANSWER: b 302. When attention is divided, what happens in the brain? a. There is less activity in the lower left frontal lobe. b. There is greater activity in the lower left frontal lobe. c. There is less activity in the upper right frontal lobe. d. There is greater hippocampal activity. ANSWER: a 303. When attention is divided, what happens in the brain? a. There is less activity in the cerebellum during retrieval. b. There is greater activity in the lower left frontal lobe during encoding. c. There is less activity in the upper right frontal lobe during retrieval. d. There is reduced hippocampal activity during encoding. ANSWER: d 304. Remembering to do things in the future is called _____ memory. a. prospective b. semantic c. anterograde d. source ANSWER: a 305. Prospective memory involves remembering: a. more positive than negative things about yourself. b. to do things in the future. c. spatial locations and directions. d. name and face associations. ANSWER: b 306. Absentmindedness often involves a failure of _____ memory. a. procedural Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. prospective c. semantic d. implicit ANSWER: b 307. Failures in prospective memory often result in: a. transience. b. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. c. absentmindedness. d. memory misattribution. ANSWER: c 308. In planning out her day as she arrives at the office, Dr. Vallance forgets that she has a meeting later that day with a student. This illustrates _____ due to a failure in _____ memory. a. blocking; prospective b. transience; source c. absentmindedness; prospective d. misattribution; source ANSWER: c 309. Haruto was so distracted by the noise of his children in the other room, that he forgot about the pediatrician appointment he had scheduled for later that afternoon. Haruto has encountered a failure in _____ memory resulting in _____. a. source; absentmindedness b. source; transience c. prospective; transience d. prospective; absentmindedness ANSWER: d 310. Divided attention is to _____ as the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is to _____. a. transience; absentmindedness b. absentmindedness; transience c. transience; blocking d. absentmindedness; blocking ANSWER: d 311. A failure to retrieve information that is in memory, even though you are trying to produce it, is known as: a. proactive interference. b. blocking. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. retroactive interference. d. transience. ANSWER: b 312. Blocking occurs when you: a. fail to remember to do something in the future. b. cannot remember the source of your memory. c. fail to retrieve information that is available in memory, even though you are trying to produce it. d. fail to retrieve information due to divided attention. ANSWER: c 313. Danielle is playing Trivial Pursuit and is asked to name the title of a classic TV show based around castaways stranded on an island. Danielle feels sure she knows the name and thinks the first initial is G, but she cannot come up with the answer. Danielle is experiencing: a. memory misattribution. b. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. c. retroactive interference. d. transience. ANSWER: b 314. Molly sees a classmate at the grocery store. She approaches the classmate but can't remember her name, despite the fact that she absolutely knows it. Molly is experiencing: a. memory misattribution. b. a failure in prospective memory. c. retroactive interference. d. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. ANSWER: d 315. During Monica's appearance on a popular quiz show, the host asked her to name the capital of Russia, and Monica immediately blanked out. She knew that she knew the answer, but she just couldn't recall it. This memory disruption illustrates: a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. blocking. d. absentmindedness. ANSWER: c 316. José was about to introduce his girlfriend, Natalia, to a friend—but, all of a sudden, he could not remember his friend's name. This is known as: a. a transient state. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. a memory misattribution. c. a tip-of-the-tongue experience. d. retrograde amnesia. ANSWER: c 317. Blocking of memory is MOST prevalent in: a. adolescents. b. young adults. c. people in their 40s and 50s. d. people in their 60s and 70s. ANSWER: d 318. Severe cases of name blocking usually result from damage to the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. medial parietal lobe. c. left temporal lobe. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: c 319. Assigning a recollection or an idea to the wrong source is termed: a. memory bias. b. memory misattribution. c. blocking. d. memory misidentification. ANSWER: b 320. Assigning a recollection or an idea to the wrong source is termed: a. memory bias. b. suggestibility. c. absentmindedness. d. memory misattribution. ANSWER: d 321. A psychologist is questioning Sevina about her childhood memories. Sevina is telling the psychologist the story of her favorite birthday present, a trip to Disneyland when she turned 9. Her memories of the present and the trip itself are very clear; however, Sevina believes that the present came from her Uncle Alberto, when in fact it was from her grandmother. This type of error in memory is known as: a. misattribution. b. false recognition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. hindsight bias. d. childhood amnesia. ANSWER: a 322. Sarah was at work at a gas station when it was robbed. Right before the robbery occurred, she spoke to a tall man with a mustache. When being questioned about the suspects in the burglary, she said she was certain that the robber had a mustache. In truth, however, he had no facial hair. What is the psychological term for this false recollection? a. absentmindedness b. misattribution c. transference d. bias ANSWER: b 323. Of the memory "sins," one of the primary causes of eyewitness misidentifications is: a. transience. b. memory misattribution. c. persistence. d. absentmindedness. ANSWER: b 324. Defense attorneys often protest prosecutors' use of eyewitness testimony because: a. memory misattribution errors may cause an eyewitness to make a false identification. b. eyewitnesses are prone to transience. c. poor eyesight in eyewitnesses tends to routinely invalidate their testimony. d. consistency bias may sway an eyewitness to a false identification. ANSWER: a 325. Recall of when, where, and how information was acquired is called: a. retrieval. b. retrospective memory. c. source memory. d. retroactive memory. ANSWER: c 326. Source memory refers to: a. when, where, and how information was acquired. b. the credibility or accuracy of the information in memory. c. remembering to do something in the future. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice d. the memories that remain after transience has occurred. ANSWER: a 327. Mary Jane recalls that Jack the Ripper was a serial killer who terrorized London in 1888, but she has no idea if she originally learned this information from a book, a television show, a movie, or a story from another person. Mary Jane is experiencing a failure of _____ memory. a. source b. prospective c. semantic d. implicit ANSWER: a 328. Claudia recalls that Henry Kissinger was President Nixon's secretary of state, but she was not alive during the Nixon administration and has no clue if she learned the information in school, in a book, or on the news. Claudia is experiencing a failure of _____ memory. a. semantic b. prospective c. source d. implicit ANSWER: c 329. While taking a new pathway through the park, Whitney suddenly has an overwhelming impression that she has taken this exact walk before but can't remember the details of it. Whitney is experiencing: a. a flashbulb memory. b. prospective memory. c. déjà vu. d. suggestibility. ANSWER: c 330. Which scenario BEST illustrates déjà vu? a. suddenly believing that a life-altering experience is about to happen to you b. suddenly believing that you have been in a situation before, even though you cannot recall any details c. telling the same story to the same person multiple times and thinking that the person has not yet heard the story d. mistakenly thinking that you recognize someone ANSWER: b 331. Which scenario BEST illustrates déjà vu? a. believing that a life-altering experience is about to happen to you Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice b. mistakenly believing that you have already lived through a specific experience and can remember the details of what happened c. telling the same story to the same person multiple times and thinking that the person has not yet heard the story d. mistakenly thinking that you recognize someone ANSWER: b 332. People with damage to their _____ lobe are especially prone to memory misattribution. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal ANSWER: a 333. Tobias was certain he recognized his English professor on the first day of class, but in fact he had never seen this professor before. This is a type of memory misattribution known as: a. déjà vu. b. memory construction. c. blocking. d. false recognition. ANSWER: d 334. Which statement regarding brain activity and recognition is true? a. Brain regions typically associated with memory are not active during false recognition. b. The hippocampus and occipital lobes are active to a lesser extent during false recognition relative to true recognition. c. The substantia nigra and the medulla are active to a greater extent during false recognition relative to true recognition. d. Many of the same brain regions are active during both false and true recognition. ANSWER: d 335. The tendency to incorporate misleading information from outside sources into personal recall of events is called: a. false recognition. b. suggestibility. c. retroactive interference. d. source memory. ANSWER: b 336. _____ is the tendency to incorporate misleading information from external sources into personal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice recollections. a. False recognition b. Misattribution c. Déjà vu d. Suggestibility ANSWER: d 337. In a classic study of false memory conducted by Elizabeth Loftus and Jacqueline Pickrell (1995), research participants were asked to remember the time when they were little and got lost in a shopping mall. Although Loftus confirmed that this never actually happened to any of the participants, the false memory was implanted in about _____ of the participants. a. 15% b. 25% c. 40% d. 80% ANSWER: b 338. Elizabeth Loftus and Jacqueline Pickrell (1995) conducted a classic experiment investigating false memory in which a false memory of _____ was implanted into the minds of participants. a. being lost in the mall b. riding an elephant c. almost drowning d. vacationing in Hawaii ANSWER: a 339. Courtney is called to the witness stand to testify as an eyewitness against a person accused of first-degree murder. The lawyer interrogating her asks a series of questions about the alleged murderer. The lawyer throws in a question, asking Courtney to describe the tattoo on the left shoulder of the accused person. This question is false; the person has no tattoos. The lawyer is using the question to try to discredit Courtney, who says that the tattoo was small and difficult to see in detail. The MOST likely reason for Courtney's mistake is: a. change bias. b. suggestibility. c. false recognition. d. transience. ANSWER: b 340. Three weeks ago, Sandra came home to find an armed robber in the house. When she walked in the door, the robber pushed past her and fled the premises. Sandra's sister, Amy, was unloading groceries from the car and said she thought the robber had wavy black hair. When Sandra views a lineup of potential suspects, the person who robbed her is in the lineup. However, Sandra identifies a similar person who has wavy black hair Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice instead of the robber's light brown hair. Her mistake illustrates the concept of: a. suggestibility. b. flashbulb memory. c. bias. d. memory misattribution. ANSWER: b 341. As illustrated by the study in which people first imagined and then falsely remembered spilling punch all over the bride's parents at a wedding, _____ plays a large role in the formation of false memories. a. state-dependent retrieval b. visual imagery c. misattribution d. flashbulb memory ANSWER: b 342. Using social pressure, Julia Shaw and Stephen Porter (2015) got _____ of the college students in their study to falsely remember committing a crime as adolescents. a. 30% b. 50% c. 70% d. 90% ANSWER: c 343. Using social pressure, Julia Shaw and Stephen Porter (2015) got a large percentage of the college students in their study to falsely remember _____ as adolescents. a. committing a crime b. breaking their leg c. winning a radio contest d. visiting Mount Rushmore ANSWER: a 344. Julia Shaw and Stephen Porter (2015) obtained substantially higher rates of false memories relative to the original study published by Elizabeth Loftus and Jacqueline Pickrell (1995), probably because Shaw and Porter utilized: a. multiple interviews instead of just one. b. more unrealistic false scenarios that triggered false flashbulb memories. c. a double-blind, placebo-controlled technique. d. more extensive social pressure. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 345. During the 1990s, the large increase in the number of adults reporting recovered decades-old memories of childhood sexual abuse probably was the result of: a. memory misattribution produced by the prevalence of graphic sexuality shown on television. b. egocentric bias. c. the prevalence of psychoactive drugs and the permissive sexual culture in the 1960s, when these individuals were children. d. suggestive techniques used by psychotherapists. ANSWER: d 346. The distorting influence of present knowledge, beliefs, and feelings on the recall of previous experiences is called: a. false recognition. b. bias. c. retroactive interference. d. source memory. ANSWER: b 347. Which statement BEST describes how bias affects memories? a. Biased memories are completely false. b. Biased memories are usually attributed to the wrong source. c. Biased memories are usually more detailed than are nonbiased memories. d. Biased memories are distorted in some way. ANSWER: d 348. At her 20-year college reunion, Rhiannon reminisces about the amazing college soccer team she was captain of. In reality, the team only won about half of their games, but Rhiannon remembers the team winning almost every game. Her false memory is probably due to: a. transience. b. blocking. c. suggestibility. d. bias. ANSWER: d 349. Consuela is at the funeral of a friend from high school. When asked to recall the history class Consuela took with her friend, she recalls it being an incredibly sad experience. In fact, it was a relatively neutral experience, but Consuela's current mood is affecting her memory. This illustrates the memory sin of: a. transience. b. bias. c. suggestibility. d. misattribution. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 350. The tendency to reconstruct the past to fit the present is termed: a. consistency bias. b. change bias. c. transience. d. fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: a 351. Consistency bias exaggerates the similarity between: a. our behavior and social norms. b. past and present. c. individuals and stereotypes. d. false memories and actual memories. ANSWER: b 352. When Keith was asked to recall how he felt at the beginning of his current relationship with his spouse, his recollections were more similar to his present-day feelings than they actually were at the time. This memory phenomenon is known as _____ bias. a. suggestibility b. consistency c. change d. misattribution ANSWER: b 353. When a professor of psychology was asked to recall how she felt about her choice of a psychology major as a sophomore in college, her recollections of the college major were more positive than were her actual uncertain feelings at the time. This memory phenomenon is known as _____ bias. a. suggestibility b. change c. consistency d. misattribution ANSWER: c 354. The way in which people "remember" fake news may be attributable to _____ bias. a. consistency b. the egocentric c. misattribution d. the self-confirmation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 355. _____ bias can help explain how people "remember" fake news they previously encountered. a. Consistency b. Source c. Misattribution d. Change ANSWER: a 356. The exaggeration of change between the past and present to make us look good in retrospect is called: a. consistency bias. b. confirmation bias. c. egocentric bias. d. fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: c 357. College students typically recall more good grades than bad grades when they look back at their high school experiences. This memory phenomenon is known as: a. consistency bias. b. persistence. c. positive bias. d. egocentric bias. ANSWER: d 358. A week after donating blood, Clint remembers feeling a lot of anxiety before the blood draw, and believes he is incredibly courageous for his donation. In fact, at the time of the blood draw, he was not very anxious about it. Clint's distortion in memory is due to: a. consistency bias. b. egocentric bias. c. misattribution. d. persistence. ANSWER: b 359. The intrusive recollection of events we wish we could forget is known as: a. false recognition. b. persistence. c. retroactive interference. d. source memory. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 360. After a near-fatal collision with an 18-wheeler, Penelope was unable to think about anything else for many months. She experienced the memory phenomenon known as: a. suggestibility. b. absentmindedness. c. persistence. d. blocking. ANSWER: c 361. When recalling the morning of September 11, 2001, Rob is able to describe what he was doing and saying at the moment the principal of his middle school opened the classroom door to advise the teacher to turn on the television. Rob's ability to describe the day's events in detail is an example of: a. a flashbulb memory. b. transience. c. a semantic memory. d. consistency bias. ANSWER: a 362. Even though Carrie was only 7 years old when her grandmother died, she still clearly remembers exactly where she was and what she was doing when her parents told her the devastating news. This is an example of a(n) _____ memory. a. flashbulb b. iconic c. implicit d. semantic ANSWER: a 363. _____ memories are usually well recalled due to their _____ nature. a. Semantic; emotional b. Flashbulb; emotional c. Iconic; cognitive d. Source; cognitive ANSWER: b 364. Fernando has flashbacks to traumatic events that occurred during his service in Iraq. They cause him considerable anxiety, and he wishes that he could forget them. Fernando is experiencing the negative effects of the _____ of memory. a. persistence b. transience c. suggestibility d. permanence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 365. College students are shown a series of photographs and asked to recall them 3 months later. Given the role of the amygdala in the process of memory formation, which photograph would the students LEAST likely remember? a. a photo of a grieving parent holding their deceased child b. a photo of a beautiful person posing naked c. a photo of an oak tree d. a photo of a mutilated corpse ANSWER: c 366. The _____ is highly involved in the formation of flashbulb memories. a. amygdala b. hypothalamus c. tectum d. primary visual cortex ANSWER: a 367. Memory is enhanced for highly emotional events in large part due to the activity of which brain structure? a. the basal ganglia b. the amygdala c. the tegmentum d. the primary visual cortex ANSWER: b 368. Damage to the amygdala is associated with: a. general explicit memory deficits. b. inability to recall emotional events. c. higher incidence rates of flashbulb memories. d. emotional events not being remembered more accurately than are nonemotional events. ANSWER: d 369. Memory sins are BEST conceptualized as: a. maladaptive quirks resulting from genetic mutations. b. formerly adaptive processes that have become maladaptive in the current environment. c. the occasional result of a normally efficient system. d. evidence of a highly inefficient system. ANSWER: c 370. The seven sins of memory: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice a. expose long-term memory as a highly unreliable storage system. b. reinforce the notion that almost all memories are distorted. c. are the occasional result of a fairly reliable system. d. are interesting topics for psychologists but usually have no real-world implications. ANSWER: c 371. Johann believes that if information hasn't been used recently, then he probably doesn't need to remember it for the future. Johann's view illustrates a benefit of which memory sin? a. bias b. suggestibility c. misattribution d. transience ANSWER: d 372. Which statement BEST describes a benefit of transience? a. It is adaptive to forget information we probably are not going to need. b. Only important sensory experiences are encoded into long-term memory. c. Modifying memories based on new information increases their utility. d. Transience allows us to avoid known capacity issues associated with long-term memory. ANSWER: a 373. The memory sin that does NOT have benefits similar to those of the other sins is: a. transience. b. absentmindedness. c. bias. d. blocking. ANSWER: c 374. Absentmindedness and _____ are memory sins that both preserve details that are more likely to be needed while discarding those that are less likely to be needed. a. transience b. misattribution c. bias d. suggestibility ANSWER: a 375. The memory sin of _____ often results in an increase in our overall sense of contentment. a. bias b. transience Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Multiple Choice c. suggestibility d. persistence ANSWER: a 376. The advantage of having a flexible memory that can recombine past events to envision possible futures facilitates which memory sin? a. bias b. transience c. misattribution d. persistence ANSWER: c 377. The persistence of memory is advantageous in the sense that it: a. highlights the flexibility of memory. b. helps us learn from and avoid traumatic experiences that could threaten our survival. c. usually results in improvements in psychological well-being. d. opposes the processes of dementia that occur with aging. ANSWER: b

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TB6 Chapter 6 Scenario Scenario 6.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Barber, S. J., Rajaram, S., & Fox, E. B. (2012). Learning and remembering with others: The key role of retrieval in shaping group recall and collective memory. Social Cognition, 30(1), 121–132. doi:10.1521/soco.2012.30.1.121 In a typical experiment investigating collaborative memory, participants first encode information individually and later attempt to recall the information either individually or in a small group (collaboratively). Although the recall of the collaborative group is better than that of any individual, the summed recall of individuals typically is better than the recall of the collaborative group. This is a phenomenon termed collaborative inhibition. Sarah Barber, Suparna Rajaram, and Ethan B. Fox (2012) investigated this phenomenon during both the encoding and retrieval stages of memory. Participants created sentences using a word bank, which provided the opportunity to encode this information. After completing this task, participants engaged in an unrelated task (solving mazes) for 10 minutes. Then, in a surprise memory test, they were asked to recall as many words from the word bank as possible (retrieval). Participants were randomly assigned to one of four groups. In the first group (Alone–Alone), participants acted individually during both the encoding and retrieval phases of the experiment. In the second group (Alone– Collaborative), participants acted individually during the encoding phase and queried as part of a three-member team (triad) during the retrieval phase. In the third group (Collaborative–Alone), participants studied in a triad during the encoding phase but queried individually during the retrieval phase. Finally, in the fourth group (Collaborative–Collaborative), participants completed both phases of the experiment as part of a triad. Fabricated results illustrating the major finding of Barber and colleagues (2012) are presented in Figure 6.1. This figure shows the percentage of words from the word bank accurately recalled as a function of group size. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase individually, scores represent the summed retrieval of the individuals comprising the group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase as part of a triad, scores simply represent the collaborative performance. Figure 6.1

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TB6 Chapter 6 Scenario 1. (Scenario 6.1) This experiment examined which type of memory? a. procedural b. prospective c. explicit d. working ANSWER: c 2. (Scenario 6.1) It can be inferred that the experimenters inserted the maze task between encoding and recall to: a. enhance retrieval-induced forgetting. b. create a tip-of-the-tongue experience. c. provide time for memory consolidation. d. prevent rehearsal of the information. ANSWER: d 3. (Scenario 6.1) If one is interested only in the effects of individual or collaborative encoding on subsequent retrieval, one should examine the: a. average score of the two groups that encoded individually relative to the average score of the two groups that encoded collaboratively. b. average score of the two groups that recalled collaboratively relative to the average score of the two groups that encoded individually. c. difference between the Alone–Alone group and the Collaborative–Collaborative group. d. difference between the Alone–Collaborative group and the Collaborative–Alone group. ANSWER: a 4. (Scenario 6.1) Some degree of collaborative inhibition was observed: a. only in the Collaborative–Collaborative group. b. only in the Collaborative–Alone group. c. in the three groups in which collaboration occurred. d. only in the two groups that recalled collaboratively. ANSWER: c 5. (Scenario 6.1) Which statement is TRUE? a. Collaborative encoding was just as effective as individual encoding. b. Collaborative inhibition was more evident during retrieval than encoding. c. Collaborative inhibition was more evident during encoding than retrieval. d. Collaborative inhibition occurred equally in both collaborative retrieval groups. ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 6.1) One possible explanation for collaborative inhibition is social loafing, or the established Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Scenario phenomenon that people do not exert as much effort on a task when studied as a part of a group relative to when studied individually. A careful examination of the procedure and results, however, suggests that social loafing does not explain collaborative inhibition because: a. the performance of the Alone–Alone group suggests participants were highly motivated. b. the maze task successfully disguised the true purpose of the study. c. collaborative inhibition was not observed in the Collaborative–Alone group. d. there is little reason to believe that social loafing would occur to different degrees during encoding and retrieval. ANSWER: d Use Scenario 6.2 to answer the following question(s). Famous within psychology, Henry Molaison (known in the research literature by his initials, HM) had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus—removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 7. (Scenario 6.2) Based on the information provided, this scenario BEST illustrates which psychological research method? a. double-blind experiment b. correlational design c. naturalistic observation d. case method ANSWER: d 8. (Scenario 6.2) As a result of the surgery, HM would NOT be able to: a. remember a relative's phone number that he had called frequently in the decade preceding the surgery. b. successfully hold a phone number in memory for 15 seconds by mentally rehearsing it. c. remember a phone number called repeatedly an hour ago. d. remember how to use a telephone. ANSWER: c 9. (Scenario 6.2) The hippocampus is crucial for: a. manipulating information in working memory. b. transferring information from the short- to the long-term memory store. c. remembering events that occurred many years ago. d. remembering events that occurred in the past 20 seconds. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Scenario 10. (Scenario 6.2) Which memory processes were severely impaired by HM's surgery? a. episodic memories from after the surgery b. episodic memories from years before the surgery c. procedural memories from both before and after the surgery d. procedural memories from only after the surgery ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 6.2) Suppose that researchers attempted to teach a patient with the same condition as HM how to ride a unicycle. Researchers probably would find that the patient would: a. not learn how to ride unless they previously had been taught this skill during childhood. b. learn how to ride but at a much slower rate than those without the condition. c. show learning within a single training session but not across sessions; that is, every session would be like starting over. d. learn how to ride over time, but not remember any of their previous training. ANSWER: d Scenario 6.3 is based on and presents data consistent with the following study: Ebbinghaus, H. (1885/1913). Memory: A contribution to experimental psychology (Trans. H. A. Ruger & C. E. Bussenius). New York: Teachers College. In a classic study on forgetting, Hermann Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized a list of nonsense syllables; for example, three consonants that did not form a word (e.g., HYZ). After memorizing a list until he could recall it perfectly twice, Ebbinghaus put the list away for a period of time, which he termed the retention interval. When the interval elapsed, Ebbinghaus attempted to recall as many nonsense syllables from the list as he could, then recorded his percent accuracy (what he termed a savings score). Using this procedure, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized many lists and recorded his accuracy after a number of different retention intervals. The major results of this experiment are shown here. Figure 6.2

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TB6 Chapter 6 Scenario 12. (Scenario 6.3) Although psychologists have subsequently confirmed that Hermann Ebbinghaus's results are generalizable to the general population, because the original study used a single participant, it could be criticized on the grounds of: a. a third-variable problem. b. internal validity. c. external validity. d. reliability. ANSWER: c 13. (Scenario 6.3) Although psychologists have subsequently replicated Hermann Ebbinghaus's results in many research participants, the fact that Ebbinghaus himself served as the participant in the original study raises the concern that results may have been influenced unintentionally by: a. third variables. b. bias. c. measurement error. d. transience. ANSWER: b 14. (Scenario 6.3) A primary reason Hermann Ebbinghaus used nonsense syllables instead of words with meaning was to: a. make the task more difficult. b. make the task easier. c. prevent memory misattribution on the recall task. d. eliminate the role of previous associations. ANSWER: d 15. (Scenario 6.3) In Hermann Ebbinghaus's experiment, what was the independent variable? a. percent savings b. Ebbinghaus himself c. the retention interval d. nonsense syllables ANSWER: c 16. (Scenario 6.3) Hermann Ebbinghaus's results illustrate which "sin" of memory? a. absentmindedness b. transience c. misattribution d. blocking ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 6 Scenario 17. (Scenario 6.3) The area below the plotted line in Figure 6.2 provides an index of the: a. amount of information retained. b. amount of information forgotten. c. rate of forgetting. d. correlation between the retention interval and the percent savings. ANSWER: a 18. (Scenario 6.3) Ebbinghaus demonstrated that most new information committed to memory is forgotten: a. at an approximately constant rate. b. at a positively accelerated rate as the retention interval increases. c. soon after committing the information to memory. d. when there is no need to continue to remember the information. ANSWER: c 19. (Scenario 6.3) Hermann Ebbinghaus found that after a 2-day retention interval, almost 70% of the information originally memorized was forgotten. How much of what was retained at the 2-day interval would continue to be recalled after a 6-day retention interval? a. almost none of it b. approximately 10% c. approximately 30% d. almost all of it ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 7 Essay 1. Asti, a young child, visited the Science Center and was allowed to handle a live tarantula as part of an exhibit. While she was doing so, her friend saw what she was doing and screamed in terror. This frightened Asti, and now she too is afraid of tarantulas. Briefly explain the learning that took place. Review the US, UR, CS, and CR that were present in this scenario. Include the following terms in your discussion, and predict the path that Asti's learning may eventually take: generalization, discrimination-, extinction, and spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) The friend's scream (US) was paired with handling the tarantula, eliciting a fear response (UR) in Asti. As a result, now the tarantula (CS) elicits fear (CR). (2) Generalization: After this acquisition, the CR now may occur to similar large or venomous spiders. (3) Discrimination: Asti, however, may not be afraid of spiders that look dissimilar to tarantulas, such as a daddy long-legs (i.e., a cellar spider). (4) Extinction: Suppose that one day Asti goes to the Science Center without her friend. A worker there shows her how to safely handle the tarantula and no one screams in terror. With some repeated exposure, eventually her fear lessens and she is able to handle the animal. (5) Spontaneous recovery: After her fear response extinguishes, if she goes for an extended period without seeing a tarantula, she may react with fear at some future point when she encounters one. 2. Explain how classical conditioning is involved in drug tolerance and overdose. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) The US is the drug (e.g., heroin), and the UR is a direct effect of the drug on the body (e.g., respiratory depression). (2) Environmental contexts normally associated with drug taking (e.g., a room, a house, the presence of a friend, the type of needles or spoon used) become CS due to their pairing with the drug. They reliably predict that the drug is forthcoming. Over time, they will elicit a CR that is compensatory in nature. For example, if the UR is respiratory depression, the CR would be an increase in respiration. A compensatory CR thus prepares the body for the drug and helps the body maintain homeostasis. (3) Because these drug cues elicit bodily reactions in opposition to the drug, more of the drug is needed to obtain a similar high. This results in drug tolerance. People must take large amounts of the drug to overcome the compensatory CR. (4) If a person with a well-developed drug tolerance takes heroin in a different setting, overdose may occur. The changed setting degrades or eliminates the CS. If there are no (or reduced) drug cues, then the compensatory CR will not occur. The person takes a large dose normally needed to overcome the CR, but there is no CR present. As a result, the body is not prepared for a dose of heroin that is suddenly too large. Thus, the person may overdose on a dose of heroin that the person normally can handle. 3. Contrast classical and operant conditioning in terms of (1) the nature of the behavior, (2) the role of stimuli that precede the response, and (3) the role of consequences. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Conditioned responses often are reflexive in nature, whereas operant responses are seemingly purposive. Conditioned responses are reactions to stimuli that evoke them. Operant responses are active attempts to procure reinforcers. (2) In classical conditioning, initially neutral stimuli acquire meaning through their association with unconditioned stimuli that naturally elicit the response. Thereafter, these conditioned stimuli are able to elicit the response. In operant conditioning, stimuli preceding the response (i.e., discriminative stimuli) do not elicit the response in a reflexive sense. Instead, they provide context that signals when or how a response will produce a reinforcer. (3) Operant behavior is, by definition, behavior controlled by its consequences. Consequences of behavior are not involved in classical conditioning. For example, in Ivan Pavlov's preparation, dogs do not have to salivate at the sound of a tone in order to receive the food. The food is coming one way or the other. The behavior of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Essay Pavlov's dogs is under the control of the preceding CS. The lever-pressing behavior of B. F. Skinner's rats, in contrast, is controlled by consequences. If the lever press produces a food pellet, the rats will press again. Note that the food pellet will be presented only if the animal presses the lever. 4. Compare and contrast the process of extinction in classical and operant conditioning. Give examples. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) In both cases, extinction ultimately will result in a decrease (or elimination) of the target response. (2) In classical conditioning, extinction involves repeatedly presenting the CS in the absence of the US. Using Ivan Pavlov's procedure, on every trial, the tone is presented but is not followed by the food. With repeated tone–nothing pairings, the dog will stop salivating to the sound of the tone. (3) In operant conditioning, extinction involves no longer delivering the reinforcement that had previously been maintaining the response. For example, among rats pressing levers for food pellets, extinction would be arranged by disconnecting the food-pellet dispenser. Lever presses would no longer produce food. Under these circumstances, rats will eventually stop pressing the lever. 5. Discuss the cognitive, neural, and evolutionary elements of classical conditioning. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Cognitive elements: Classical conditioning will not

occur unless the CS reliably predicts the occurrence of the US. Because of this, Robert Rescorla and Allan Wagner argued that CS–US pairings result in an expectancy of the US. This expectancy then gives rise to the CR. This cognitive component helps explain why Ivan Pavlov's dogs did not salivate merely at the sight of Pavlov. Although Pavlov was paired with food many times, he also was paired with the absence of food. Pavlov was not a reliable predictor of food, but the sound of the bell was! In addition, expectancy theory helps explain why it is easier to condition a response to a novel stimulus than a familiar stimulus. Organisms have previously learned expectancies associated with familiar stimuli, making conditioning a new response difficult. (2) Neural elements: The cerebellum is highly involved in classical conditioning. In addition, the central nucleus of the amygdala is involved in emotional conditioning. (3) Evolutionary elements: CS–US associations that have been important for the survival of the species are extremely easy to condition, sometimes requiring only one CS–US pairing. We are biologically prepared to form some associations, such as the association between the taste of a novel food and sickness. The adaptive value is clear. Our ancestors, who may have eaten a poisonous plant, became ill several hours later, and subsequently avoided that plant in the future tended to survive and pass on their genes. Ancestors who did not form this association perished at a higher rate.

6. Winston has contracted a stomach virus and will be extremely sick in 6 hours. At the moment, however, Winston is completely unaware of his condition. In fact, he is craving his favorite food, pizza. His roommate wants anchovies on the pizza; although Winston never has eaten anchovies, he agrees. Winston eats six slices of pizza and likes the taste of the anchovies. A few hours later, Winston becomes extremely sick to his stomach. Describe the likely taste aversion that Winston will experience. Be sure to identify the US, CS, UR, and CR. Finally, discuss how the conditioning process might differ if Winston were a pigeon in Central Park instead of a college student. ANSWER: 7. Provide a unique example of positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, positive punishment, and negative punishment. In doing so, identify the target behavior, the consequence of that behavior, and how the consequence affects the future probability of that behavior. ANSWER: The answer should provide examples that take the following forms: (1) Positive reinforcement: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the presentation of a stimulus; the behavior is more likely to occur. (2) Negative reinforcement: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the removal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Essay of a stimulus; the behavior is more likely to occur. (3) Positive punishment: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the presentation of a stimulus; the behavior is less likely to occur. (4) Negative punishment: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the removal of a stimulus; the behavior is less likely to occur. 8. Illustrate the stimulus control of operant behavior by giving a real-world example. Be sure to identify each of the following components: the discriminative stimulus, the response, and the reinforcer. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) When a response is under stimulus control, it is reinforced only in the presence of a discriminative stimulus. That is, the occurrence of the response in the presence of the discriminative stimulus—but not in its absence—is an example of stimulus control. (2) Examples will vary. Here is an example: In the presence of your best friend (discriminative stimulus), talking about your private feelings (response) is reinforced with empathy. This reinforcement may not occur if you told your private feelings to strangers, and so the behavior of talking about your feelings quickly comes under stimulus control. 9. A child does not reliably make the bed each morning. The child's parents want to use monetary positive reinforcement to increase bed making. Describe how the following schedules of reinforcement would apply in this situation: continuous reinforcement, fixed-ratio (FR) 7 responses, variable-ratio (VR) 7 responses, fixedinterval (FI) 7 days, variable-interval (VI) 7 days. If you were the parent, which schedule of reinforcement would you employ? Why? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Continuous reinforcement: Every instance of bed making would result in money delivery. This probably would result in the child making the bed each day, but the parents would quickly go broke! Moreover, if the parents were to stop reinforcing bed making, the child would quickly stop making the bed. For these reasons, this schedule is both impractical and not ideal for the long-term maintenance of bed making. (2) FR 7: Every seven times that the child makes the bed, this behavior will be reinforced with money. (3) VR 7: On the average of every seven times that the child makes the bed, this behavior will be reinforced with money. (4) The FR 7 and VR 7 options both produce reinforcement intermittently. Assuming the child makes the bed only once per day, both of these schedules result in reinforcer delivery once per week, which is a realistic payment schedule for most parents. However, the downside with these schedules is that nothing is stopping the child from making the bed 100 times per day. The parents would quickly go broke! (5) Under an FI 7-day schedule, the first instance of bed making that occurs after 7 days since the last reinforcement will produce money. Perhaps every Friday, the parents will pay the child if the bed has been made that day. If not, they will withhold the money until the next time the bed gets made. The advantage of this schedule is that it guarantees the parents will not have to pay out more than once per week. The disadvantage is that the child may quickly learn to behave efficiently under the schedule, making the bed only on Fridays! (6) Under a VI 7day schedule, the first instance of bed making that occurs after an average of 7 days since the last reinforcement will produce money. On average, bed making will pay off once per week. But sometimes reinforcement will come after only one day, and other times, it will not come for several weeks. One advantage of this schedule is that it guarantees the parents will pay money to the child, on average, no more than once per week. Another advantage is that this schedule generates a steady rate of responding. Because reinforcement could come any day, the child probably would make the bed every day. A third advantage is that because the schedule is time based, making the bed 100 times per day won't increase the rate of reinforcement, as is the case under the FR and VR schedules. There is nothing that the child can do to get paid, on average, more than once per week. Thus, this schedule both maintains a consistent rate of response and is pocketbook-friendly. Finally, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Essay this schedule is resistant to extinction; if the parents were to stop providing reinforcement for bed making due to a temporary economic hardship, bed making would continue unabated. The VI 7-day schedule, then, is the best choice to employ. 10. How would you train a puppy to turn in a complete clockwise circle to receive a doggie treat using shaping through successive approximations? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Shaping through successive approximation involves providing reinforcers for closer and closer approximations to the desired behavior. (2) First, provide reinforcement for any clockwise movement. Then provide reinforcement only if the dog engages in a quarter-clockwise turn. Then provide reinforcement only if the dog engages in a half-clockwise turn. Then provide reinforcement only if the dog engages in a threequarters-clockwise turn. Finally, provide reinforcement only if the dog turns in a complete circle. 11. Describe the procedure, results, and importance of Edward C. Tolman's experiment investigating latent learning. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Edward Chace Tolman and Charles H. Honzik gave three groups of rats access to a complex maze every day for more than 2 weeks. The first group received no reinforcement the entire time. The second group was given reinforcement every day as soon as they completed the maze. The third group was given no reinforcement for the first 10 days and regular reinforcement similar to the second group the remainder of the time. (2) The first group that never received reinforcement made a large number of errors each day and never showed improvement. The second group that received daily reinforcement made progressively fewer errors each day. These results are not surprising. The results from the third group are of theoretical interest. Over the first 10 days, these rats made a large number of errors and showed no improvement, exactly like the first group. After receiving just one reinforcement on day 11, however, their number of errors decreased dramatically on day 12, resembling the day 12 performance of the second group. The second group had been receiving reinforcement and gradually made fewer errors each day. The fact that the third group immediately mastered the maze and did not start learning gradually (similar to group 2) suggests that this group (and group 1 for that matter) had been learning gradually from day 1. Tolman called this latent learning, which is defined as a condition in which something is learned but is not manifested as a behavioral change until some time in the future. The reason the rats not receiving reinforcement did not show a decrease in errors was not because they weren't learning the maze; it was because there was no incentive to make fewer errors! As soon as an incentive was given, the rats displayed the effects of latent learning. 12. Many major-league baseball players sometimes wear cord-type necklaces because they believe that the necklaces will enhance their athletic performance. Discuss two possible explanations for this phenomenon: B. F. Skinner's conceptualization of superstitions and observational learning. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) B. F. Skinner demonstrated that the presentation of a reinforcing stimulus strengthens the behavior that immediately precedes it. Usually, this behavior is what causes the reinforcer to occur, but sometimes this is not the case. In a classic experiment, Skinner delivered grain to hungry pigeons at regular intervals, regardless of what they were doing. Skinner discovered that whatever the pigeons happened to be doing when the food arrived (grooming, turning in a circle, pecking) tended to be repeated. Over time, the pigeons began to engage in this behavior excessively, "believing" that this behavior produced the food. The pigeons had formed a superstition. In much the same way, superstitions develop in people. With Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Essay respect to baseball players, one player may wear a necklace because his child gave it to him as a present. The first day he wears the necklace, he hits a home run. The necklace had nothing to do with the home run, of course, but an accidental association between the presence of the necklace and the home run reinforced necklace-wearing. (2) Skinner's account is plausible but probably inadequate to fully explain the hundreds of major-league baseball players now wearing these necklaces. Observational learning provides another mechanism by which players begin to engage in this superstition. Player B may watch player A wear a particular type of necklace and perform well. Because of this, player B may start wearing the same type of necklace. An opponent sees player B wearing the necklace and decides that he, too, must obtain one so as not to be at a competitive disadvantage. In this way, a diffusion chain of observational learning occurs. Before long, many players are wearing necklaces, and this behavior is occasionally accidentally reinforced (and thus strengthened) as Skinner described. 13. Compare and contrast the observational learning of tool use in humans and chimpanzees. Briefly describe the enculturation hypothesis. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Humans readily learn through observation. Even toddlers will imitate tool use. Not only will they use the tool, but they will also imitate how a model used the tool. (2) Chimpanzees raised by their mothers in the wild also will learn tool use by observing a human model. Although they will use the tool, they tend not to imitate the specific actions of the model. (3) Chimpanzees raised around humans better imitate the specific actions of human models. This finding led to the development of the enculturation hypothesis, which states that being raised in a human culture better enables chimpanzees to recognize the intentions of human models. 14. Describe how artificial grammar has been used to study implicit learning. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) In a typical study investigating implicit learning using artificial grammar, participants are given strings of letters (e.g., VXJJ) labeled as either grammatically correct or incorrect. Critically, participants are not told the grammatical rules of the language. They are simply shown exemplars of correct and incorrect uses of grammar. (2) After being exposed to a number of exemplars, participants are shown new strings of letters and asked to classify them as grammatically correct or incorrect. Participants usually do reasonably well on this task. (3) Although participants can correctly classify novel exemplars as grammatically correct or incorrect, they cannot articulate the grammatical rules of the language. This finding has been interpreted as evidence of implicit learning. 15. Review some effective and ineffective techniques for learning academic material. When are difficulties in studying desirable? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Many study techniques students frequently use, including rereading, massed practice (cramming), summarizing, highlighting, and using imagery or mnemonic devices, have little utility. (2) Two particularly effective techniques are distributed practice and practice testing. Distributed practice spreads out study over time, as opposed to cramming the material (massed practice). Practice testing involves taking practice tests of the tobe-learned material. (3) Distributed practice and practice testing usually are not students' first choice of study techniques, in part because they are difficult. Distributed practice entails a longer time commitment than massed practice and requires that students retrieve information learned at the last study session. Practice testing also requires a considerable retrieval component, especially so with Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Essay more difficult material. Thus, although these techniques are more difficult than more common techniques such as rereading, highlighting, and summarizing, these difficulties lead to the desirable outcome of increased learning.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 1. Angie's bad-tempered boss wears a particular type of fragrance every day. She is usually uncomfortable in her boss's presence, given that they are surly and grouchy. One day, Angie was at the mall when she smelled the same fragrance. The smell triggered a momentary feeling of uneasiness. In this example, which factor served as the unconditioned stimulus? a. the fragrance b. Angie's boss c. Angie d. the feeling of uneasiness ANSWER: b 2. For military veterans experiencing posttraumatic stress syndrome, sights and sounds encountered during wartime become _____ extreme negative emotions. a. consequences of b. associated with c. reinforcers of d. separated from ANSWER: b 3. Rachel is training her dog, Duke, to bark every time someone knocks on the door. She already knows that seeing the family cat will make Duke bark, so she decides to knock on the door and then open it to reveal the cat in an effort to condition Duke to bark. Which element is serving as the unconditioned stimulus? a. the cat b. the knock c. Duke's bark d. Rachel ANSWER: a 4. For military veterans experiencing posttraumatic stress syndrome, sights and sounds encountered during wartime become associated with negative emotions, such that encountering similar stimuli when back at home results in: a. forgetting. b. negative reinforcement. c. similar emotions. d. positive memories of service. ANSWER: c 5. In classical conditioning, a(n) _____ elicits a(n) _____ due to its association with a(n) _____. a. conditioned stimulus; conditioned response; unconditioned response b. unconditioned response; conditioned response; unconditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response; conditioned stimulus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. conditioned stimulus; conditioned response; unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: d 6. Ivan Pavlov's dogs were conditioned to salivate to a 1,000-Hz tone due to its pairing with food. After this training, it was found that the dogs would salivate to a 900-Hz tone but not to a 500-Hz tone. Salivating to the 900-Hz tone is an example of _____, and not salivating to a 500-Hz tone is an example of _____. a. a conditioned response; generalization b. discrimination; extinction c. generalization; discrimination d. a conditioned response; negative punishment ANSWER: c 7. Rochelle becomes disgusted by the smell of stewed beets because, as a child, she happened to become very sick and vomit a few hours after eating them. Rochelle's feelings of disgust toward beets are an example of a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response. ANSWER: b 8. Dwayne fears cats because he once received a painful bite from one. When this example is deconstructed into the basic elements of classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus is the _____, and the conditioned response is _____. a. cat; pain b. cat; fear c. bite; pain d. bite; fear ANSWER: d 9. Learning refers to a collection of different techniques, procedures, and outcomes that produce: a. changes in an organism's behavior. b. changes to brain structure. c. decreases in reaction time. d. measurable outcomes in intelligence testing. ANSWER: a 10. _____ activity is a critical underlying mechanism in conditioning responses similar to the one conditioned in Little Albert. a. Amygdala b. Hippocampal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. Broca's area d. Motor cortex ANSWER: a 11. The learning process involves the _____ of new knowledge, skills, or responses. a. acquisition b. storage c. performance d. maintenance ANSWER: a 12. The Rescorla–Wagner model showed that classical conditioning actually involves a cognitive aspect based on the organism's: a. expectations. b. generalizations. c. discriminations. d. preferences. ANSWER: a 13. Which statement supports the contention that organisms are biologically prepared to form learned food aversions? a. Many repeated food-sickness pairings are necessary to establish an aversion to a biologically relevant food stimulus. b. Food aversions are more likely to occur with meats than vegetables. c. The delay between food ingestion and sickness can be hours, yet conditioning still occurs. d. People with animal phobias are also more likely to experience food aversions. ANSWER: c 14. Learned food aversions should occur more often with _____ due to the evolutionary adaptive conditioning of rejecting foods that may be toxic. a. familiar foods b. novel foods c. acidic foods d. foods with strong odors ANSWER: b 15. The learning process involves the _____ of new knowledge, skills, or responses as a function of _____. a. development; time b. growth; maturity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. acquisition; experience d. gradual accumulation; education ANSWER: c 16. The removal of a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior is called: a. positive punishment. b. positive reinforcement. c. negative punishment. d. negative reinforcement. ANSWER: c 17. The idea of _____ suggests that conditioning has an evolutionary component, in that certain associations will be more easily learned if they help an organism survive. a. biological preparedness b. natural selection c. explicit learning d. observational learning ANSWER: a 18. Which consideration is an essential feature of learning? a. It is based on experience. b. It requires language. c. It does not produce a change in the organism. d. It is a unique feature of human behavior. ANSWER: a 19. _____ occurs when a stimulus that increases the likelihood of a behavior is presented. a. Positive punishment b. Positive reinforcement c. Negative punishment d. Negative reinforcement ANSWER: b 20. Which element is an essential feature of learning? a. It is the result of genetics. b. It requires language. c. There is a critical window for it to occur. d. It results in a relatively permanent change in behavior. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 21. A 4th-grader brings a note home from their teacher stating that the child is talking too much to friends during class. The parents decide to take away the child's video games for a week as a consequence. The child is now less likely to talk with friends during class, as doing so was _____ by their parents. a. positively punished b. negatively reinforced c. negatively punished d. extinguished ANSWER: c 22. During an embrace, if a person smiles at their date, their date may then ask for a kiss. The person's smile functions as a _____ for kissing. a. primary reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. discriminative stimulus d. conditioned stimulus ANSWER: c 23. Jake can make his sister, Joy, give him her toys or candies by whistling without stopping until she gives in. Because she hates the sound so much, Joy will give Jake whatever he wants. Jake's act of whistling is maintained by _____, and Joy's act of giving is maintained by _____-. a. positive reinforcement; negative punishment b. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement c. positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement d. negative reinforcement; extinction ANSWER: c 24. Which statement about learning is true? a. Learning often occurs without input from experience or the environment. b. Simple forms of learning are not applicable to human behavior. c. The changes produced by learning are most often temporary. d. Learning may involve the acquisition of a new skill. ANSWER: d 25. Which type of schedule arranges reinforcement on the basis of unpredictable times elapsed since the last reinforcement? a. fixed-ratio b. variable interval c. variable ratio d. continuous Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 26. Which statement about learning is false? a. Learning is based more on genetics than experience. b. Learning produces changes in the organism. c. The changes produced by learning are relatively permanent. d. Learning may involve the acquisition of a new skill. ANSWER: a 27. Using bits of beef jerky as incentives, Umberto taught his pet dog to first lie down, then roll over, and then whimper and play dead. Umberto MOST likely used _____ to teach his dog this trick. a. secondary reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. a diffusion chain d. shaping through successive approximations ANSWER: d 28. _____ suggested that rats in a maze don't simply produce behaviors in response to stimuli or consequences, but rather develop a _____ of the maze. a. Edward Tolman; cognitive map b. Edward Tolman; latent response c. Edward Thorndike; cognitive map d. Edward Thorndike; latent response ANSWER: a 29. Although it is not known whether someone has to buy 1, 10, or 100 lottery tickets to get a winning ticket, it is highly probable that if they just keep buying, eventually they will get a winning ticket. In fact, the very next ticket they buy may be a winning ticket. Buying lottery tickets is reinforced according to which type of schedule? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable interval ANSWER: b 30. Compared to the others, which example BEST describes the learning process? a. blinking when a speck of dirt gets into your eye b. quickly withdrawing your hand when you place it on a hot stove c. adjusting your finger position on guitar frets to play a new chord d. answering the question "What is your name?" Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 31. Compared to the others, which example BEST describes the learning process? a. squinting when looking into the sun b. using chopsticks more efficiently with practice c. salivating while eating a steak d. reading the words in this question ANSWER: b 32. Joey, a kindergartener, learns how to make a paper airplane by watching his older sibling. He goes to his kindergarten class, where he makes a paper airplane, and Janan learns to make one by watching Joey. Janan goes home after school and plays with her friend Rosa. Rosa learns to make a paper airplane by watching Janan. This process illustrates: a. shaping through successive approximations. b. a diffusion chain. c. a three-term contingency. d. stimulus generalization. ANSWER: b 33. Neurons that pass from the hypothalamus into the _____ are MOST susceptible to stimulation that produces pleasure. a. medulla b. nucleus accumbens c. basal ganglia d. pineal gland ANSWER: b 34. When Jasminda first moved into her apartment, the buzzing noise coming from her refrigerator disturbed her greatly. Now, after 3 months, Jasminda doesn't notice the sound because of: a. stimulus generalization. b. spontaneous recovery. c. extinction. d. habituation. ANSWER: d 35. In the context of the observational learning experiments conducted by Albert Bandura in the 1960s, after watching the children who emulated the adult model's aggression toward a Bobo doll, Bandura noted that the children behaved aggressively with the doll: a. but did not imitate the specific actions of the adult model. b. only if they were the same gender as the model. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. after they saw the adult model being punished for aggressive behavior. d. when the model's aggressive behavior was rewarded. ANSWER: d 36. Compared to the others, which example BEST describes an outcome of learning? a. coughing when your throat is irritated b. dreaming during REM sleep c. wincing while being stung by a bee d. pulling over to the side of the road upon hearing an ambulance siren ANSWER: d 37. Individual differences are more commonly found in _____ tasks than in _____ ones. a. classical conditioning; operant learning b. explicit; implicit c. operant learning; classical conditioning d. implicit; explicit ANSWER: b 38. A general process in which the repeated presentation of a stimulus leads to a gradual decrease in responding is termed: a. habituation. b. classical conditioning. c. sensitization. d. association. ANSWER: a 39. Research examining artificial grammar indicates that the use of grammatical rules: a. is largely the result of explicit learning. b. is largely the result of implicit learning. c. is about 60% determined by explicit learning strategies and 40% determined by implicit factors. d. begins as the result of explicit learning but over time becomes governed by implicit learning. ANSWER: b 40. Which statement about study techniques is false? a. Distributed practice is more effective than is massed practice. b. Practice testing is more effective than is rereading material. c. Highlighting or underlining material has low utility. d. The use of mnemonics is more effective than is distributed practice. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 41. Which is the LEAST effective study technique? a. distributed practice b. practice testing c. massed practice d. interleaved practice ANSWER: c 42. A general process in which the presentation of a stimulus leads to an increased response to a later stimulus is termed: a. habituation. b. classical conditioning. c. sensitization. d. association. ANSWER: c 43. Which is the MOST effective study technique? a. marking important material b. practice testing c. massed practice d. rereading ANSWER: b 44. Arial studies for her psychology examination by reading the text, reviewing lecture notes, and testing herself with multiple-choice, identification, and essay questions. She mixes these activities together during each study session using _____ practice. a. judgment b. distributed c. massed d. interleaved ANSWER: d 45. An example of a nonassociationistic learning process is: a. classical conditioning. b. habituation. c. operant conditioning. d. observational learning. ANSWER: b 46. An example of a nonassociationistic learning process is: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. sensitization. b. classical conditioning. c. operant conditioning. d. observational learning. ANSWER: a 47. In pioneering research with the sea slug Aplysia, Eric Kandel and his colleagues demonstrated that when lightly touched, Aplysia would withdraw its gill. With repeated touches, however, the gill withdrawal lessens, demonstrating: a. classical conditioning. b. habituation. c. operant conditioning. d. sensitization. ANSWER: b 48. Jamaal moved into an upper floor of an apartment building on a busy city intersection. Initially, the noise from the traffic below kept him awake. After living in his apartment for a few weeks, however, the noise no longer bothered him, and he slept throughout the night. This example demonstrates the behavioral process of: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. operant conditioning. d. habituation. ANSWER: d 49. Delia recently moved into an apartment with a new roommate who watches cable news seemingly all day and all night. The television is always on and always turned to the news. At first, Delia found the television distracting, but after a few weeks, she barely notices that the TV is on. This example demonstrates the behavioral process of: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. habituation. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: c 50. The psychological perspective MOST associated with learning is: a. structuralism. b. functionalism. c. behaviorism. d. psychoanalysis. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 51. In pioneering research with the sea slug Aplysia, Eric Kandel and his colleagues demonstrated that after generating a strong gill-withdrawal response by delivering a shock to the tail of Aplysia, even light touches to the tail would provoke gill withdrawal for some period of time. This finding demonstrates the behavioral principle of: a. classical conditioning. b. habituation. c. operant conditioning. d. sensitization. ANSWER: d 52. After her apartment was robbed, even barely audible late-night sounds make Kendra experience anxiety, which BEST illustrates the behavioral process of: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. habituation. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: b 53. After serving in combat, a veteran feels uneasy at the sight of planes flying overhead, which illustrates the behavioral process of: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. habituation. d. operant conditioning. ANSWER: b 54. Which psychological perspective is MOST associated with pioneering research on learning? a. functionalism b. evolutionary psychology c. cognitive psychology d. behaviorism ANSWER: d 55. When a neutral stimulus evokes a response after being paired with a stimulus that naturally evokes a response, the result is an example of which phenomenon? a. classical conditioning b. habituation c. sensitization Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. operant conditioning ANSWER: a 56. A speck of dirt that gets into your eye will naturally cause a blinking reflex. The speck of dirt is a(n) _____ stimulus. a. conditioned b. unconditioned c. neutral d. second-order ANSWER: b 57. A reflexive reaction that is reliably elicited by an unconditioned stimulus is called a(n) _____ response. a. reinforced b. sensitized c. unconditioned d. conditioned ANSWER: c 58. Last week, Archibald drank too much tequila, and doing so made him vomit. Now just the smell of tequila makes his stomach a bit queasy. Vomiting after drinking too much tequila is an example of a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANSWER: b 59. In Ivan Pavlov's research, what was the unconditioned stimulus? a. food b. the humming of a tuning fork c. salivating at the sound of a bell d. a tube inserted into the salivary gland ANSWER: a 60. In Ivan Pavlov's research, what was the unconditioned response? a. food b. salivating upon food presentation c. a tuning fork d. salivating at the sound of a bell ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 61. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 seconds later a puff of air is delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the puff of air b. the tone c. the time interval d. the blinking ANSWER: a 62. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 seconds later a puff of air is delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned response? a. blinking once per minute b. blinking to the puff of air c. blinking to the tone d. blinking to the puff of air or the tone ANSWER: b 63. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 5 seconds later a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the shock b. the tone c. the stress d. the time interval ANSWER: a 64. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 5 seconds later a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned response? a. the oscillating increases and decreases in heart rate b. the increase in heart rate after the shock c. the increase in heart rate after the tone but before the shock d. the increase in heart rate to either the shock or the tone ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 65. When a drug of abuse such as heroin is injected, the entire setting (the drug paraphernalia, the room, the lighting, etc.) can become a(n) _____ stimulus and elicit responses _____ the drug. a. unconditioned; similar to b. unconditioned; that counteract c. conditioned; similar to d. conditioned; that counteract ANSWER: d 66. A conditioned compensatory response is a: a. special type of unconditioned response. b. conditioned response that is of greater intensity than the unconditioned response. c. conditioned response that opposes the unconditioned response. d. stimulus that is reliably associated with drug administration. ANSWER: c 67. The presence of a drug-related conditioned compensatory response produces: a. tolerance. b. a natural high. c. intoxication. d. an overdose. ANSWER: a 68. Which circumstance is associated with the greatest drug-related conditioned compensatory response when using heroin? a. using heroin for the first time while in a familiar place b. using heroin for the first time while in an unfamiliar place c. using heroin repeatedly in a familiar place d. using heroin repeatedly, but using in this instance in an unfamiliar place ANSWER: c 69. A person experienced with using heroin who takes heroin in a new setting has an increased risk of overdose because: a. they may take more of the drug than intended. b. the conditioned compensatory response becomes stronger. c. changed settings result in added stress. d. the stimulus that triggers the compensatory response is degraded or absent altogether. ANSWER: d 70. In the context of the role of classical conditioning in heroin overdose, the unconditioned stimulus that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice produces respiratory depression is: a. an increase in respiration. b. the needle. c. heroin. d. the overall context in which the heroin was administered. ANSWER: c 71. In the context of the role of classical conditioning in heroin overdose, the conditioned stimulus that triggers the compensatory response is: a. an increase in respiration. b. a decrease in respiration. c. heroin. d. the overall context in which the heroin was administered. ANSWER: d 72. The smell of a particular fragrance causes Ingo's heart to flutter because he associates it with his romantic partner. The fragrance is a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANSWER: c 73. Last week, Archibald drank too much tequila, and doing so made him vomit. Now just the smell of tequila makes his stomach a bit queasy. The smell of tequila has become a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANSWER: c 74. Last week, Karina ate bad shrimp and vomited several hours later. Now just the smell of fish makes her stomach a bit queasy. The nausea Karina experiences to the smell of fish is an example of a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. ANSWER: d 75. In Ivan Pavlov's research, what was the conditioned stimulus? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. food b. a dog c. a ticking metronome d. the salivary reflex ANSWER: c 76. In Ivan Pavlov's research, what was the conditioned response? a. pricking ears at the sound of the metronome b. salivating upon food presentation c. a bell d. salivating at the sound of a metronome ANSWER: d 77. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 seconds later a puff of air are delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned stimulus? a. the puff of air b. the tone c. the time interval d. the blinking ANSWER: b 78. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 seconds later a puff of air is delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned response? a. blinking once per minute b. blinking to the puff of air c. blinking to the tone d. blinking to the puff of air or the tone ANSWER: c 79. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 5 seconds later a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned stimulus? a. the shock b. the tone Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. the stress d. the time interval ANSWER: b 80. In an experiment investigating classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 5 seconds later a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned response? a. the oscillating increases and decreases in heart rate b. the increase in heart rate after the shock c. the increase in heart rate after the tone but before the shock d. the increase in heart rate to either the shock or the tone ANSWER: c 81. Your friend's house always had freshly baked ginger-flavored cookies. You loved those cookies and would eat several each time you visited. One day, you noticed that you started to salivate as you walked up the front steps to the house, before you smelled the cookies. The reason for this is that the house has become a(n): a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. ANSWER: d 82. A teenager was sent to the principal's office for a disciplinary issue. The principal yelled at the student and then suspended him. Upon his return to school a week later, the student noticed that his heart started racing as he passed the principal's office. The principal's office had become a(n): a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. ANSWER: b 83. Chubby's Beef-N-Burger is your favorite restaurant, and lately you've noticed that every time you walk by on your way to class, you start to salivate. In this incidence of classical conditioning, the sight of the restaurant is the _____, and your salivation is the _____. a. unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response b. conditioned stimulus; conditioned response c. conditioned stimulus; unconditioned response d. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned response Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 84. Ted's significant other dumps him, walking out of his apartment in the middle of a particular song. Ted is emotionally distraught. A few weeks later, he happens to hear the same song while riding in a friend's car. Assuming classical conditioning occurred, what should happen when he hears the song? a. His stomach clenches and he begins feeling negative emotions. b. He calls his ex on his cell phone and begs to be taken back. c. He begins discussing his relationship problems with his friend. d. He immediately thinks of all the good times he had with his ex. ANSWER: a 85. An initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a response because it has been paired with an unconditioned stimulus is called a(n) _____ stimulus. a. discriminative b. habituated c. conditioned d. reinforcing ANSWER: c 86. A reaction that usually resembles the unconditioned response but is produced by a conditioned stimulus is termed a(n) _____ response. a. sensitized b. habituated c. conditioned d. reinforcing ANSWER: c 87. Which statement about the conditioned stimulus in classical conditioning is true? a. It naturally produces an unconditioned response. b. The conditioned stimulus is initially neutral and does not produce a response. c. Learning is not required for a conditioned stimulus to produce a conditioned response. d. The conditioned stimulus must resemble the unconditioned stimulus. ANSWER: b 88. The phase of classical conditioning in which the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli are first presented together is called: a. habituation. b. discrimination. c. acquisition. d. generalization. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 89. Which sequence describes how the intensity of a conditioned response changes during the acquisition phase of classical conditioning? a. starts low, rises rapidly, then decreases sharply b. starts low, rises rapidly, then tapers off c. starts low, rises slowly, then decreases sharply d. starts high, decreases sharply, then tapers off ANSWER: b 90. Everett ate parsnips for the first time and shortly after became sick due to a stomach virus. Unfortunately, he formed an association between parsnips and sickness during the _____ phase of classical conditioning, and now he will no longer eat parsnips. a. second-order b. discrimination c. acquisition d. generalization ANSWER: c 91. In second-order conditioning, a neutral stimulus is paired with a: a. stimulus that naturally elicits a response. b. biologically relevant stimulus such as food. c. neutral stimulus such as a black square. d. previously established conditioned stimulus. ANSWER: d 92. In Ivan Pavlov's experiments related to second-order conditioning, dogs were conditioned to salivate at the sight of a black square: a. by pairing it with food. b. by rewarding the dog with food when it salivated in the presence of the black square. c. by presenting food first and then following it with the black square. d. even though the black square was never directly associated with food. ANSWER: d 93. In Ivan Pavlov's experiments related to second-order conditioning, dogs were conditioned to salivate at the sight of a black square by: a. pairing it with a tone that previously had been associated with food. b. rewarding the dog with food when it salivated in the presence of the black square. c. presenting food first and then following it with the black square. d. pairing it with an unconditioned stimulus. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 94. The sight of three cherries on a slot machine (a winning outcome) makes Charlie's heart race with excitement, due to the phenomenon known as: a. positive reinforcement. b. conditioned compensatory response. c. second-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 95. Because she was once stung, Kimberly experiences a fear reaction every time she sees a bee. Last week, Kimberly saw a flower and began feeling nervous. She found her reaction odd because there wasn't a flower around her on the day that she was stung. The anxiety related to the flower MOST likely occurred because of: a. negative reinforcement. b. second-order conditioning. c. discrimination. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: b 96. Extinction of a conditioned response involves: a. repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. b. repeated presentations of the unconditioned stimulus without the conditioned stimulus. c. repeated presentations of the unconditioned response alone. d. punishing the organism with an electric shock every time the conditioned response occurs. ANSWER: a 97. Ivan Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate at the sound of a bell by following the bell with food. How could Pavlov have used extinction to eliminate salivating to bells? a. present food repeatedly in the absence of the sound of the bell b. repeatedly ring the bell but never follow it with food c. ring the bell then present poison-laced food to induce sickness d. present food only every other time the bell was rung ANSWER: b 98. Johannes hated going to the dentist because he always needed cavities filled. When he entered the dentist's office, he would become anxious and his stomach would hurt. After many trips to the dentist's office for cleanings with no cavities found, what probably will happen with Johannes's anxiety and stomachache? a. They should get worse with every visit. b. They should stay the same. c. They should gradually become less severe and eventually disappear. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. They should start occurring before he even enters the dentist's office. ANSWER: c 99. An animal trainer is conditioning an elephant to startle at the sound of a trombone. Every time the trainer plays the trombone, they then show the elephant a mouse, which startles the elephant. Eventually, the elephant startles at just the sound of the trombone. However, after hearing the trombone 30 more times, without a mouse appearing, the elephant exhibits no response. The lack of a response is an example of: a. generalization. b. spontaneous recovery. c. acquisition. d. extinction. ANSWER: d 100. When a veterinarian advised an owner to feed their dog in the morning instead of in the evening, it took several days for the dog to stop salivating late in the afternoon around its previous dinnertime. The gradual decrease in salivation across days is an example of: a. spontaneous recovery. b. extinction. c. generalization. d. second-order conditioning. ANSWER: b 101. Harold fell into a bad habit of feeding his dog potato chips while binge-watching shows on Netflix. It got so bad that the dog would get excited, bark, and salivate every time Harold turned on the television. Eventually, Harold realized that both he and his dog needed to go on a diet, so he stopped eating while watching television. After a period of being exposed to television in the absence of food, the dog no longer exhibited excitement when Harold turned on Netflix. The gradual decrease in the dog's excitement is an example of: a. extinction. b. punishment. c. generalization. d. second-order conditioning. ANSWER: a 102. The tendency of a previously extinguished behavior to reoccur following a rest period is called: a. sensitization. b. generalization. c. spontaneous recovery. d. acquisition. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 103. An animal trainer is conditioning an elephant to startle at the sound of a trombone. Every time the trainer plays the trombone, they then show the elephant a mouse, which startles the elephant. Eventually, the elephant startles at just the sound of the trombone. However, after hearing the trombone 30 more times, without a mouse appearing, the elephant exhibits no response. The trainer then gives the elephant an adequate rest period from the trombone. What is MOST likely to occur if the elephant hears the trombone again the following week? a. The elephant will not react. b. The elephant will have a greatly delayed startle reaction. c. The elephant will startle upon hearing the sound. d. The elephant will startle only if it sees a mouse. ANSWER: c 104. Spontaneous recovery demonstrates that: a. CS–US pairings are not necessary for classical conditioning to occur. b. learning is greater the farther apart CS–US trials are spaced in time. c. a stimulus paired with passage of time can come to elicit a response. d. extinction does not completely erase previous learning. ANSWER: d 105. Spontaneous recovery suggests that the extinction process: a. occurs without the organism learning anything. b. involves the punishment of the CS–US association. c. weakens but does not eliminate the CS–US association. d. is analogous to forgetting previously learned information. ANSWER: c 106. Nostalgic items lose their ability to elicit warm memories the more frequently they are handled, because the items are no longer being actively paired with the person or event that imbued them with meaning. However, putting the items away for some time tends to restore their ability to trigger nostalgic feelings, due to: a. generalization. b. spontaneous recovery. c. positive reinforcement. d. second-order conditioning. ANSWER: b 107. Most animals that respond to a conditioned stimulus will continue to respond if that stimulus is varied slightly, an adaptive process known as: a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. extinction. d. second-order conditioning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 108. You watch a horror movie and are scared. Running through the background music is a sustained, highpitched note on a violin. The next day, you are watching a drama that also has background music featuring violin. Suddenly, you feel uneasy. Which process explains this effect? a. extinction b. reinforcement c. generalization d. discrimination ANSWER: c 109. Accustomed to the sound of an old can opener, a cat still rushes to her food dish, even when she hears the slightly different sound of a new can opener for the first time. This demonstrates: a. second-order conditioning. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. ANSWER: c 110. Holly's blender makes a noise similar to her can opener, but her cat doesn't get up from the sofa upon hearing the blender whirring. This demonstrates: a. extinction. b. generalization. c. acquisition. d. discrimination. ANSWER: d 111. Ivan Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to a particular tone but not to a buzzer, illustrating the process of: a. sensitization. b. discrimination. c. extinction. d. habituation. ANSWER: b 112. Shareef's head jerks readily to his cell phone when it beeps, but does not move appreciably when his partner's phone beeps. His responses demonstrate: a. extinction. b. generalization. c. discrimination. d. second-order conditioning. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 113. In the context of John B. Watson's classical conditioning experiments, how could extinction be used to eliminate Little Albert's fear of a white rat? a. by repeatedly exposing Albert to the loud noise in the absence of the rat b. by giving Albert a piece of candy when he sees the rat c. by punishing Albert when he cries and crawls away from the rat d. by repeatedly presenting a rat to Albert without the loud noise ANSWER: d 114. In the context of John B. Watson's classical conditioning experiments, Little Albert developed a fear of a _____ because it was paired with a(n) _____. a. Santa Claus mask; electric shock b. loud noise; rabbit c. dog; white rat d. white rat; loud noise ANSWER: d 115. Little Albert was a(n): a. human infant conditioned to fear a white rat. b. human infant raised in a modified operant chamber. c. brand of Bobo doll used in Albert Bandura's experiments on observational learning. d. affectionate nickname given to Albert Bandura by his students. ANSWER: a 116. In his case study of Little Albert, one of John Watson's goals was to show that: a. humans, unlike other animals, are not susceptible to classic conditioning. b. fear can be learned by means of classical conditioning. c. conditioning can produce only behavioral responses, not emotional ones. d. a person's environment has little impact on that person's behavior. ANSWER: b 117. In John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner's study, 9-month-old Albert cried when a large steel bar was struck with a hammer while he viewed a white rat. During this acquisition phase, the white rat was the: a. unconditioned response. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. conditioned stimulus. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 118. What was the unconditioned stimulus in the Little Albert study? a. a white rat b. a loud noise c. fear d. anything white and furry ANSWER: b 119. What was the unconditioned response in the Little Albert study? a. crying when exposed to a loud noise b. fear of a white rat c. fear of anything white and furry d. Little Albert's natural temperament of being "stolid and unemotional" ANSWER: a 120. What was the conditioned stimulus in the Little Albert study? a. a white rat b. a loud noise c. fear d. anything white and furry ANSWER: a 121. What was the conditioned response in the Little Albert study? a. crying when exposed to a loud noise b. fear of a white rat c. the gradual decrease in fear as the experiment progressed d. Little Albert's natural temperament of being "stolid and unemotional" ANSWER: b 122. Not only did Little Albert learn to fear white rats, he also cried when presented with a Santa Claus mask or a seal-fur coat. This behavior was the result of: a. stimulus discrimination. b. stimulus generalization. c. second-order conditioning. d. punishment. ANSWER: b 123. John B. Watson's study of Little Albert has been most criticized: a. for lacking a control group. b. for not producing generalizable results. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. on ethical grounds. d. for ignoring the role of instincts in determining behavior. ANSWER: c 124. Robert Rescorla and Allan Wagner developed which theory? a. Behavioral responses can be conditioned in animals. b. Classical conditioning occurs only when an organism has learned to set up an expectation. c. Humans, as well as other animals, are capable of undergoing classical conditioning. d. Conditioning works more quickly when the conditioned stimulus is familiar. ANSWER: b 125. Robert Rescorla and Allan Wagner theorized that a stimulus will become a conditioned stimulus only when it is _____ the unconditioned stimulus. a. similar to b. sometimes paired with c. a reliable indicator of d. perceived as ANSWER: c 126. Robert Rescorla and Allan Wagner introduced a(n) _____ component to classical conditioning. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. neural d. emotional ANSWER: a 127. The Rescorla–Wagner model predicts that conditioning will be easier when the: a. conditioned stimulus is an unfamiliar event. b. conditioned stimulus is a familiar event. c. unconditioned response is predictable. d. unconditioned response is unpredictable. ANSWER: a 128. The Rescorla–Wagner model states that a(n) _____ sets up a(n) _____ that leads to a variety of responses. a. unconditioned stimulus; expectation b. conditioned stimulus; expectation c. expectation; conditioned stimulus d. expectation; unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 129. Which brain region's functions are responsible for eyeblink conditioning? a. amygdala b. reticular formation c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus ANSWER: c 130. Structures in the _____ are largely responsible for eyeblink conditioning. a. hindbrain b. prefrontal cortex c. dorsolateral cortex d. nucleus accumbens ANSWER: a 131. In eyeblink conditioning, a tone is sounded immediately before air is puffed into a participant's eye. After a number of tone–air puff pairings, which factor is the conditioned response? a. the perception of the tone b. the air puff c. blinking when the tone sounds d. blinking when air is puffed into the eye ANSWER: c 132. In people as well as in rats and other animals, the _____ is critically involved in emotional conditioning. a. reticular formation b. thalamus c. amygdala d. hippocampus ANSWER: c 133. Which brain region was critical for Little Albert to form the association between the rat and the loud noise? a. the prefrontal cortex b. the hippocampus c. Wernicke's area d. the amygdala ANSWER: d 134. The _____ nucleus of the amygdala plays a critical role in emotional conditioning. a. dorsal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. central c. ventral d. anterior ANSWER: b 135. A CS paired with shock in a rat will NOT cause: a. stress hormones to be released into the bloodstream. b. an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. c. a decrease in respiration. d. a behavioral freezing response. ANSWER: c 136. If the connections between the amygdala and midbrain regions are severed, a CS paired with shock in a rat will no longer elicit: a. freezing. b. increases in heart rate and blood pressure. c. a release of stress hormones. d. nonconscious cognitive expectancies. ANSWER: a 137. Severing the connections between the amygdala and the _____ will result in the autonomic responses to fearful stimuli _____. a. hypothalamus; intensifying b. hypothalamus; ceasing c. hippocampus; intensifying d. hippocampus; ceasing ANSWER: b 138. A rat that has been conditioned to fear a tone through its association with shock subsequently has connections between the amygdala and the hypothalamus severed. After the rat recovers from surgery, it is tested again. When the rat hears the tone, it will: a. freeze and exhibit increased heart rate and blood pressure. b. not freeze but exhibit increased heart rate and blood pressure. c. freeze but show no autonomic nervous system changes. d. neither freeze nor show changes in the autonomic nervous system. ANSWER: c 139. Jisoo ate raw oysters for the first time and, 4 hours later, became extremely sick to her stomach. Now, just the smell of oysters makes her feel queasy. What is the conditioned stimulus? a. the smell of the oysters Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. a bacterium or other toxin that was definitely present in the oysters c. a bacterium or other toxin that may or may not have been in the oysters d. feelings of queasiness ANSWER: a 140. Deirdre ate raw oysters for the first time and, 4 hours later, became extremely sick to her stomach. Now, just the smell of oysters makes her feel queasy. What is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the smell of the oysters b. a bacterium or other toxin that was definitely present in the oysters c. a bacterium or other toxin that may or may not have been in the oysters d. feelings of illness ANSWER: c 141. Giselle ate raw oysters for the first time and, 4 hours later, became extremely sick to her stomach. Now, just the smell of oysters makes her feel queasy. What is the unconditioned response? a. the smell of the oysters b. eating oysters c. a bacterium or other toxin d. stomach sickness ANSWER: d 142. Agatha ate raw oysters for the first time and, 4 hours later, became extremely sick to her stomach. Now, just the smell of oysters makes her stomach queasy. What is the CR? a. stomach queasiness at the smell of oysters b. the taste of an oyster c. a bacterium or other toxin d. vomiting to a toxin ANSWER: a 143. From an evolutionary perspective, which circumstance is a feature of effective learning to avoid any food that has made you sick in the past? a. food-sickness association formed only after multiple pairings b. conditioning capable of taking place over only very short time intervals c. the development of an aversion to food ingestion, not food smell or taste d. the development of an aversion more often to unfamiliar than to familiar foods ANSWER: d 144. From an evolutionary perspective, which consideration is a feature of effective learning to avoid any food that has made you sick in the past? a. food-sickness association formed only after multiple pairings Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. conditioning capable of taking place over extended time intervals c. the development of an aversion to food ingestion, not food smell or taste d. the development of an aversion more often to familiar than to unfamiliar foods ANSWER: b 145. From an evolutionary perspective, which feature of effective learning helps avoid any food that has made you sick in the past? a. food-sickness association formed after only a single pairing b. conditioning capable of taking place only over very short time intervals c. the development of an aversion to food ingestion, not food smell or taste d. the development of an aversion more often to familiar than to unfamiliar foods ANSWER: a 146. From an evolutionary perspective, which effective learning feature allows a person to avoid any food that has made that person sick in the past? a. food-sickness association formed only after multiple pairings b. conditioning capable of taking place over only very short time intervals c. the development of an aversion to food smell or taste, not simply food ingestion d. the development of an aversion more often to familiar than to unfamiliar foods ANSWER: c 147. Patients who have been diagnosed with cancer who experience nausea from chemotherapy often develop taste aversions to foods eaten earlier. Based on the research of John Garcia and colleagues, researchers developed a technique for minimizing this negative effect that involved: a. flashing different pictures of a patient's favorite food on an overhead monitor while the patient underwent treatment. b. giving a patient unusual foods, such as coconut or root-beer flavored candy, at the end of their last meal before undergoing treatment. c. administering food to a patient in the middle of the treatment cycle. d. telling a patient to eat samples of favorite foods before entering therapy, thereby ensuring that the patient remembered what the favorite foods were, even after treatment. ANSWER: b 148. Patients with cancer experiencing nausea from chemotherapy often develop taste aversions to foods eaten earlier. Based on the research of John Garcia and colleagues, researchers developed a technique for minimizing this negative effect that involved giving a patient unusual foods, such as coconut or root-beer flavored candy, at the end of their last meal before undergoing treatment. Such a procedure attempts to establish the taste of the candy as a(n): a. unconditioned positive stimulus. b. conditioned stimulus triggering a pleasant gustatory reaction to chemotherapy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. conditioned response to chemotherapy. d. conditioned stimulus triggering nausea. ANSWER: d 149. _____ is MOST known for his work on conditioned taste aversion. a. Ivan Pavlov b. John Garcia c. John Watson d. Robert Rescorla ANSWER: b 150. What principle describes why the taste and smell stimuli that produce food aversions in rats do NOT work with most species of birds? a. the law of effect b. operant conditioning c. biological preparedness d. extinction ANSWER: c 151. In rats, taste aversions are elicited by _____; in birds, taste aversions are elicited by _____. a. visual cues; texture b. texture; smells c. visual cues; smells d. smells; visual cues ANSWER: d 152. Classical conditioning is to operant conditioning as: a. Edward Lee Thorndike is to B. F. Skinner. b. reinforcement is to punishment. c. explicit learning is to implicit learning. d. reactive behavior is to active behavior. ANSWER: d 153. Classical conditioning is the study of behaviors that are _____, whereas operant conditioning studies behaviors that are _____. a. active; reactive b. reactive; involuntary c. voluntary; reactive d. involuntary; voluntary Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 154. A type of learning in which the consequences of an organism's behavior determine whether it will be repeated is called _____ conditioning. a. observational b. evolutionary c. operant d. classical ANSWER: c 155. Every time Bosco, the dog, whines, her owners give her a doggie treat. As a result of her clueless owners' behavior, Bosco is a very whiny dog, illustrating the effects of _____ conditioning. a. observational b. emotional c. classical d. operant ANSWER: d 156. _____ studied hungry cats in puzzle boxes. a. Edward Chace Tolman b. Burrhus Frederick Skinner c. Karl Spencer Lashley d. Edward Lee Thorndike ANSWER: d 157. In Edward Thorndike's research involving cats in puzzle boxes, when did the puzzle box open, allowing the cat freedom and food? a. after a fixed period of time that the cat had been inside the box b. after escape attempts had been extinguished c. when the cat engaged in a behavior that moved a concealed lever d. 500 milliseconds after a buzzer sounded ANSWER: c 158. Edward Thorndike found that with cats' continued experience in a puzzle box, their effective responses _____, and their ineffective responses _____. a. increased; increased b. increased; decreased c. decreased; decreased d. decreased; increased Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 159. Which behavioral measure did Edward Thorndike graph from trial to trial in his studies of cats? a. the number of responses made b. the time to escape c. whether an escape response occurred d. the amount of food consumed ANSWER: b 160. The idea that behaviors followed by a "satisfying state of affairs" tend to be repeated and those that produce an "unpleasant state of affairs" are less likely to be repeated is known as: a. Pavlov's rule of classical conditioning. b. Thorndike's law of effect. c. Garcia's postulate of evolutionary conditioning. d. Tolman's theory of latent learning. ANSWER: b 161. Who proposed the law of effect? a. Ivan Pavlov b. John Watson c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward Thorndike ANSWER: d 162. In which significant way did Edward Thorndike's experiments differ from Ivan Pavlov's? a. The US occurred on every training trial, no matter what the animal did. b. The CS occurred on every training trial, no matter what the animal did. c. The behavior of the animal determined what happened next. d. The US occurred on alternating trials. ANSWER: c 163. Edward Lee Thorndike's work resonated with behaviorists because it was: a. based on observable actions. b. linked to brain processes. c. couched in terms of expectancy. d. explained in evolutionary terms. ANSWER: a 164. Behavior that an organism performs and that has some impact on the environment is known as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. operant behavior. b. the law of effect. c. classical conditioning. d. a reinforcer. ANSWER: a 165. The technical term for a "Skinner box" is a(n): a. operant conditioning chamber. b. radial arm maze. c. Omega oscillator. d. puzzle box. ANSWER: a 166. B. F. Skinner's approach to the study of learning focused on _____ and _____. a. reinforcement; reward b. reinforcement; punishment c. punishment; escape d. the mind; behavior ANSWER: b 167. Reinforcers _____ and punishers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: c 168. Quinn drinks alcohol because it reduces her anxiety. Quinn's drinking is being maintained by: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. ANSWER: b 169. Any stimulus or event that increases the probability of the behavior that led to it is termed a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. punisher. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. reinforcer. ANSWER: d 170. Any stimulus or event that decreases the probability of the behavior that led to it is termed a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. punisher. d. reinforcer. ANSWER: c 171. Positive reinforcers _____ and negative reinforcers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: a 172. Positive punishers _____ and negative punishers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: c 173. Positive punishers _____ and negative reinforcers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: d 174. Negative reinforcers _____ and positive punishers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. decrease; increase ANSWER: b 175. The "positive" in positive reinforcement and positive punishment means that: a. the target behavior increases in frequency. b. an unpleasant stimulus is removed upon the occurrence of the target behavior. c. a stimulus is presented upon the occurrence of the target behavior. d. the target behavior increases or decreases to adaptive levels. ANSWER: c 176. The "negative" in negative reinforcement and negative punishment means that: a. the target behavior increases in frequency. b. a stimulus is removed upon the occurrence of the target behavior. c. an unpleasant stimulus is presented upon the occurrence of the target behavior. d. the target behavior decreases in frequency. ANSWER: b 177. When something desirable is presented upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is strengthened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: c 178. When something undesirable has been removed upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is strengthened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: b 179. When something undesirable has been presented upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is weakened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 180. When something desirable has been removed upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is weakened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 181. When 3-year-old LaRhonda threw a tantrum over the candy she wanted, her parents gave it to her so that LaRhonda would calm down. Unfortunately, LaRhonda's temper tantrums probably have been: a. negatively reinforced. b. positively reinforced. c. negatively punished. d. positively punished. ANSWER: b 182. When 3-year-old LaRhonda threw a tantrum over the candy she wanted, her parents gave it to her so that LaRhonda would calm down. Although counterproductive in the long run, in that moment, the parents' behavior was being _____ by _____. a. negatively reinforced; the termination of the tantrum b. positively reinforced; the termination of the tantrum c. positively reinforced; the candy d. positively punished; continued tantrums ANSWER: a 183. A parent scolded a child for misbehaving, and the misbehavior stopped and was much less likely to occur again in the future. By definition, the scolding served as a _____ for the misbehavior. a. positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. positive punisher d. negative punisher ANSWER: c 184. Romeo has a really bad headache, so he takes an over-the-counter painkiller. The medicine works wonderfully to relieve his headache. The next time Romeo has a headache, he definitely will take that medicine. Romeo's behavior of taking the medicine has been: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. ANSWER: b 185. A teenager swears while eating at the dinner table, and as a result, their parents take away their gaming system for a week. The teenager is now much less likely to swear while at the dinner table, illustrating: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. ANSWER: d 186. One day, in the midst of his babbling, baby Charleston uttered the sound "mama" in the presence of his mother. Charleston's mother screamed in delight. This noise startled baby Charleston; he stopped uttering that sound for quite some time, illustrating the effects of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. ANSWER: c 187. A baby will not stop crying, and as a last resort, the parent puts the baby in a laundry basket and sets the basket on top of the running dryer. The vibrations of the dryer soothe the baby, and the baby falls asleep. The parent will most definitely use this solution the next time the baby cannot be consoled. The parent's behavior of implementing the "dryer trick" has thus been: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. ANSWER: b 188. Frank flings a paper airplane through the air during history class. All of his classmates laugh. Their teacher, Mr. Curtis, becomes more than irate; his face turns beet red, and large veins bulge from his neck. "Frank!" Mr. Curtis screams, "You are in big trouble now!" Frank really doesn't care about the trouble. The combination of the attention from his classmates and the emotional reaction from Mr. Curtis was plenty to ensure that Frank will keep misbehaving in class. Throwing the paper airplane, then, was: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 189. Marcus, a shy and timid child, works up the courage to raise his hand to answer a question in class. The teacher calls on him, and he delivers an excellent answer. The teacher exclaims, "That is the best answer I have heard all week! Great job! Come up to the front of the room to get a sticker!" Unfortunately, Marcus found all of this attention to be unnerving and unpleasant and no longer answers questions in class. His behavior of answering questions was: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. ANSWER: c 190. The grid floor in an operant chamber is electrified. Each time a rat presses a lever, however, the shock is turned off for 1 minute. The rat quickly learns to press the lever the instant that the grid becomes electrified. Lever pressing has been: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. ANSWER: b 191. Every time a rat presses a lever, it receives a small injection of cocaine. That rat begins pressing the lever more and more, indicating that cocaine is a: a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. positive punisher. d. negative punisher. ANSWER: a 192. A college instructor implements the following attendance policy: All students are given 20 bonus points at the start of the semester. Each absence will result in the loss of 5 bonus points. The instructor hopes this policy will _____ absences. a. positively reinforce b. negatively reinforce c. positively punish d. negatively punish ANSWER: d 193. A celebrity posts an insensitive tweet and, as a consequence, loses tens of thousands of followers. As a result, the celebrity is less likely to make insensitive tweets in the future. This scenario illustrates which Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice behavioral process? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: d 194. After implementing a policy by which students can earn extra recess time with their good behavior, Miss Hobbes observes that her 1st-grade students have been better behaved. This outcome illustrates which behavioral process? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANSWER: a 195. What is one major flaw associated with the use of punishment? a. Punishment does not decrease the undesired behavior. b. Punishment increases the undesired behavior. c. Punishment does not promote learning about the desired behavior. d. Punishment signals that unacceptable behavior has occurred. ANSWER: c 196. _____ reinforcers help satisfy biological needs. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Immediate d. Conditioned ANSWER: a 197. Which statement about primary reinforcers is true? a. Primary reinforcers include handshakes, smiles, and trophies. b. Primary reinforcers have little to do with the majority of daily reinforcers and punishers. c. Primary reinforcers acquire value through classical conditioning. d. Primary reinforcers do not help satisfy biological needs. ANSWER: b 198. Which event serves as a primary reinforcer? a. the exclamation "Good job!" Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. a compliment about one's physical appearance c. escaping the frigid cold by coming inside d. stickers given to a child for good behavior ANSWER: c 199. Which event serves as a primary reinforcer? a. obtaining good food when hungry b. receiving a compliment from your boss c. movie tickets given to you by your significant other d. earning an A on an examination ANSWER: a 200. Which item is a secondary reinforcer? a. food b. shelter c. money d. comfort ANSWER: c 201. Secondary reinforcers derive their effectiveness from their associations with primary reinforcers through: a. operant conditioning. b. operant behavior. c. positive reinforcement. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: d 202. Which event serves as a secondary reinforcer? a. imbibing a cold drink on a hot day b. enjoying a juicy hamburger c. engaging in sexual activity d. winning a first-place ribbon ANSWER: d 203. A rat presses a lever because doing so turns off an electric shock. The lever press is maintained by a: a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. conditioned reinforcer. d. primary punisher. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 204. A rat presses a lever because doing so turns on a light previously associated with food availability. The lever press is maintained by a _____ reinforcer. a. primary positive b. primary negative c. secondary positive d. secondary negative ANSWER: c 205. A rat's lever presses occasionally produce food. Across conditions, the food is delivered either immediately after a lever press or after some delay. Which statement is true? a. The rate of lever pressing is relatively unaffected by delays ranging from a few seconds to about 30 seconds. b. The rate of lever pressing increases as a function of its delay. c. The rate of lever pressing first increases and then decreases as a function of its delay. d. The rate of lever pressing decreases as a function of its delay. ANSWER: d 206. Primary reinforcers help satisfy: a. biological needs. b. materialistic needs. c. animalistic instincts. d. learned cravings. ANSWER: a 207. _____ the delay between a response and a consequence _____. a. Decreasing; strengthens the effects of reinforcement but weakens the effects of punishment b. Decreasing; strengthens the effects of punishment but weakens the effects of reinforcement c. Increasing; weakens the effects of reinforcement but strengthens the effects of punishment d. Increasing; weakens the effects of both reinforcement and punishment ANSWER: d 208. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards helps explain why it is: a. common for people to behave in ways that maximize their own long-term interests. b. easier to use punishment than reinforcement to control behavior. c. difficult to engage in behaviors that have only long-term benefits. d. relatively easy for most people to save for retirement. ANSWER: c 209. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards helps explain why it is: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. common for people to choose the better of two immediate options. b. common for most people to save their discretionary income, rather than spend it. c. difficult for public officials to mobilize their efforts to thwart an imminent terrorist attack. d. difficult for people to change their behavior to address global warming. ANSWER: d 210. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards is a primary reason it is difficult to address some societal problems such as: a. racism. b. the shrinking middle class. c. the gender pay gap. d. obesity. ANSWER: d 211. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards is a primary reason it is difficult to address some societal problems such as: a. drug abuse. b. immigration. c. gender inequality. d. terrorism. ANSWER: a 212. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards is a primary reason it is difficult to address some societal problems such as: a. the rising cost of prescription drugs. b. sustained credit card debt. c. racial inequality. d. food insecurity. ANSWER: b 213. As the delay increases between the behavior and the consequence, reinforcers _____ and punishers _____ effectiveness. a. lose; gain b. gain; lose c. gain; gain d. lose; lose ANSWER: d 214. A child throws a temper tantrum at the mall because they want to play with the toy that their parent just bought them. The MOST effective way for the parent to punish this behavior is to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. ignore the outburst and wait for the opportunity to reinforce a desired behavior. b. not let the child play with the toy for several hours after they get home. c. decide on a course of punishment after the emotional aspects of the incident have subsided. d. immediately return the toy they just bought. ANSWER: d 215. Behavior is under _____ control when a particular response only occurs in a certain context. a. specific b. stimulus c. conditioned d. contingency ANSWER: b 216. Which factor is NOT part of B. F. Skinner's "three-term contingency"? a. discriminative stimulus b. expectancy c. response d. reinforcer ANSWER: b 217. The "three-term contingency" states that in the presence of a _____, a(n) _____ produces a(n) _____. a. discriminative stimulus; response; reinforcer b. discriminative stimulus; expectancy; response c. reinforcer; discriminative stimulus; expectancy d. reinforcer; discriminative stimulus; response ANSWER: a 218. Which term in the "three-term contingency" refers to the context in which behavior occurs? a. reinforcer b. generalization c. discriminative stimulus d. extinction ANSWER: c 219. Marvella tells a bawdy joke to her friends but not to her grandparents. Her audience represents the _____ in B. F. Skinner's "three-term contingency." a. reinforcer b. expectancy c. response Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: d 220. Lacey tells a bawdy joke to her friends but not to her grandparents. What most likely is the reinforcer of Lacey's behavior? a. the nature of the joke b. the presence of her friends c. attention and laughter from her friends d. the absence of her grandparents ANSWER: c 221. Which element is the middle part of B. F. Skinner's "three-term contingency?" a. discriminative stimulus b. expectancy c. response d. reinforcer ANSWER: c 222. When a child cries when the babysitter is around, the babysitter picks the child up and talks to him or her. Because of the attention, the child becomes more likely to cry in the future. If the child cries when any adult is in the room, which process has occurred? a. generalization b. discrimination c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: a 223. A pigeon is reinforced for pecking a key whenever a particular tone is sounded but never reinforced if the tone is absent. Pigeons discriminating these conditions will: a. not learn anything under these conditions. b. key peck only when the tone turns off. c. begin key pecking whenever the tone sounds and will continue to peck the key, even when it turns off. d. key peck only in the presence of the tone sounding. ANSWER: d 224. _____ in an experiment were reinforced if they selected paintings by the artist Pablo Picasso (during his cubist period) over paintings by French impressionist Claude Monet. Subsequently, they demonstrated _____ and selected paintings from another cubist artist, Henri Matisse, over other paintings by Monet. a. Pigeons; discrimination Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. Pigeons; generalization c. Children; discrimination d. Children; generalization ANSWER: b 225. Subjects in an experiment were reinforced if they selected paintings by cubist artist Pablo Picasso over paintings by French impressionist Claude Monet. After some training, they always chose the Picasso paintings, demonstrating the operant principle of: a. secondary reinforcement. b. interval reinforcement. c. discrimination. d. generalization. ANSWER: c 226. Martina asks her mom—but never her dad—if it is OK to stay out with friends past her curfew. She does this simply because her mom is much more likely than her dad to give permission. Martina's behavior is an example of which principle of operant conditioning? a. generalization b. discrimination c. primary reinforcement d. negative punishment ANSWER: b 227. Extinction in operant conditioning involves: a. presenting the reinforcer when the behavior does not occur. b. no longer presenting the reinforcer when the response occurs. c. repeatedly presenting the CS without the US. d. not presenting the discriminative stimulus, which signals the opportunity to respond. ANSWER: b 228. Lei tries to call her friend, but there is no answer. She waits a little while and tries again, but there is still no answer. She continues to try for the rest of the day, but her friend never answers. Exasperated, she gives up. What is happening to the friend-calling behavior? a. It is being negatively reinforced. b. It is being negatively punished. c. It is being extinguished. d. It is being positively punished. ANSWER: c 229. An aging professor stops telling jokes in class because they never seem to elicit laughter as they previously Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice did. The professor's joke-telling has been: a. negatively reinforced. b. negatively punished. c. positively punished. d. extinguished. ANSWER: d 230. Not providing a reinforcer every time a response occurs: a. will negatively punish the behavior. b. may negatively reinforce the behavior. c. will extinguish the behavior. d. may strengthen the behavior. ANSWER: d 231. A(n) _____ schedule is based on the time between administrations of reinforcement. a. interval b. ratio c. joint d. conditional ANSWER: a 232. A(n) _____ schedule is based on the number of responses needed to achieve reinforcement. a. interval b. ratio c. joint d. conditional ANSWER: b 233. Which type of reinforcement schedule produces the HIGHEST rate of response? a. variable interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: d 234. In operant conditioning, presenting reinforcement upon the occurrence of a response only at regular time periods is called a _____ schedule. a. variable ratio b. fixed-ratio Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. variable interval d. fixed-interval ANSWER: d 235. A fixed-interval, 60-second schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. every 60 seconds. b. after 60 responses. c. for the first response that occurs after 60 seconds elapse. d. 60 seconds after a response is emitted. ANSWER: c 236. Molly's mail carrier delivers the mail promptly at noon each day. Molly never checks her mailbox in the morning but always checks it at 12:05 p.m. Molly's mail checking is maintained on which type of schedule? a. fixed-interval b. variable interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: a 237. Students who do relatively little work until just before an upcoming exam, and then engage in a burst of studying, are displaying a response pattern similar to the one engendered by a _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. variable interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: b 238. A doctor gives a patient in chronic pain a morphine pump to operate. The doctor tells the patient to press the button when in pain. The button press will result in a morphine injection, but only if it has been at least 1 hour since the last injection. The morphine pump is operating according to a _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed-ratio b. variable ratio c. variable interval d. fixed-interval ANSWER: d 239. The radio DJ says, "Sometime this hour, I'll be giving away a pair of tickets to the Valient Thorr concert to one lucky caller." This is an example of which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-interval b. variable interval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. fixed-ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: b 240. Checking email is reinforced with receiving important emails at unpredictable times according to which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-interval b. variable interval c. continuous d. variable ratio ANSWER: b 241. A toddler has learned that their jack-in-the-box won't operate unless they turn the hand crank around exactly 10 times. The toddler's behavior is being reinforced under which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable interval d. variable ratio ANSWER: a 242. Using his Pretzel Frenzy card, Marcello gets a free pretzel with every 10th pretzel he buys. This arrangement is an example of which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: c 243. Slot machines pay off on schedules that are determined by the random number generator that controls the play of the machine. For example, on average, the machine might pay off every 100 pulls, but sometimes two pulls are required and sometimes several hundred pulls are required. Slot machines are a real-world example of which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable ratio ANSWER: d 244. When people put money in vending machines, they expect to be reinforced on a _____ schedule. a. variable-ratio Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. fixed-interval c. continuous reinforcement d. intermittent reinforcement ANSWER: c 245. Gregorio is an accomplished furniture maker and is paid well each time he produces a set number of pieces of furniture. Gregorio is paid on a _____ reinforcement schedule. a. variable ratio b. fixed-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable interval ANSWER: b 246. Jeremy goes to crowded parties and approaches people with a cheesy pick-up line designed to get their phone numbers. Jeremy never knows which people will like his pick-up line, but he does know that if he asks enough people, it's quite probable that he will get a phone number. Jeremy's behavior is being reinforced on a _____ schedule. a. variable ratio b. fixed-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable interval ANSWER: a 247. Klaus, who works at a used car lot, doesn't know how many customers he will have to approach until someone buys a car, but he does know it is possible that the very next customer will buy a car. Klaus's sales behavior is reinforced according to which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable ratio b. fixed-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable interval ANSWER: a 248. Which situation is NOT an example of a schedule of intermittent reinforcement? a. variable interval 1 minute b. fixed interval 2 minute c. fixed ratio 1 d. variable ratio 10 ANSWER: c 249. The special case of presenting reinforcement after each response is called _____ reinforcement. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. intermittent b. immediate c. variable d. continuous ANSWER: d 250. Extinction will proceed MOST rapidly if behavior previously had been maintained under a(n) _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. continuous b. intermittent c. variable ratio d. variable interval ANSWER: a 251. A person will persist playing a broken slot machine longer than spending money in a broken vending machine due to the _____ effect. a. continuous reinforcement b. intermittent reinforcement c. shaping by approximations d. interval reinforcement ANSWER: b 252. Dolphins are MOST likely trained to do amazing tricks through a process called: a. shaping. b. habituation. c. classical conditioning. d. trial and error. ANSWER: a 253. Playing the hot-or-cold game, where you direct someone to move around the room toward a goal known only to you by telling the person whether they are getting warmer or cooler, is an example of which behavioral process? a. extinction b. fixed-ratio schedules of reinforcement c. generalization d. shaping ANSWER: d 254. According to the principles of shaping behavior, the BEST way to train a rat to press the bar in a Skinner box is to begin by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. placing the rat immediately next to the bar. b. delivering a food reward if the rat turns in the direction of the bar. c. placing the rat's paw on the bar and rewarding that movement immediately. d. placing the rat in the box with another rat that has already been trained to press the bar. ANSWER: b 255. Shaping reinforces _____ behavior sequences until the overall sequence of behavior is performed reliably. a. complex b. unusual c. smaller d. larger ANSWER: c 256. In one of his experiments, B. F. Skinner put several pigeons in operant conditioning chambers, set the food dispenser to deliver food every 15 seconds, and left the birds to their own devices. Later, he returned and found the birds engaging in odd, idiosyncratic behaviors, such as pecking aimlessly in a corner or turning in circles. Skinner referred to these behaviors as: a. inadvertent. b. nonsensical. c. unexplainable. d. superstitious. ANSWER: d 257. One day when Max was bowling, his shoelaces came untied and he bowled a strike. From that point forward, Max always bowled with his shoes untied. This action is an example of: a. negative reinforcement. b. classical conditioning. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. superstitious behavior. ANSWER: d 258. Superstitious behavior: a. results from accidental reinforcement of inconsequential behavior. b. occurs more frequently on ratio schedules than it does on interval schedules. c. is established using shaping through successive approximations. d. reflects the contributions of biology to operant behavior. ANSWER: a 259. Superstitious behavior illustrates the fact that: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. learning can occur when the reinforcer is delayed. b. an association between response and reinforcer does not necessitate a causal relation. c. learning occurs even when the reinforcer is delivered before the response. d. a causal relation between response and reinforcer is required for learning to occur. ANSWER: b 260. One of the strongest early advocates of a cognitive approach to operant learning was: a. Edward Chace Tolman. b. John Broaddus Watson. c. Burrhus Frederick Skinner. d. Edward Lee Thorndike. ANSWER: a 261. Edward C. Tolman's views on learning differed from those of B. F. Skinner in that Tolman believed: a. reinforcement is dependent on the formation of stimulus–stimulus associations. b. a reinforcer directly strengthens the response that produces it. c. the environmental context can influence whether a behavior will occur. d. organisms develop means–ends expectancies as a result of operant conditioning. ANSWER: d 262. A condition in which something is learned but is NOT manifested as a behavioral change until sometime in the future is called: a. latent learning. b. delayed response. c. time-delayed learning. d. second-order conditioning. ANSWER: a 263. A challenge to operant accounts, Edward Tolman's experiments demonstrated that latent learning can be established in rats: a. by only using secondary reinforcers. b. by the use of shaping through successive approximations. c. by occasionally punishing an otherwise reinforced response. d. without any obvious reinforcement. ANSWER: d 264. A mental representation of the physical features of the environment is called a: a. cognitive maze. b. latent map. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. cognitive map. d. mental diagram. ANSWER: c 265. Rats that traversed a maze for 10 consecutive days with no reward showed no evidence of learning the maze. When reinforcement was provided beginning on the 11th day, Edward Tolman and Charles Honzik reported that these rats: a. were unable to effectively master the maze over the next week due to learned helplessness. b. slowly started to learn the maze over the next week, as long as reinforcement was provided each day. c. immediately demonstrated mastery of the maze. d. slowly started to learn the maze over the next week, even if reinforcement was discontinued. ANSWER: c 266. Edward Tolman and Charles Honzik trained rats to run down a straightaway and subsequently make several turns until finally reaching a goal box baited with food. After the rats learned this task, the maze was altered so that the main straightaway was blocked. However, there were many alternate paths radiating in all directions from the start box. The goal box remained in the same location relative to the start box, and one of the alternate paths led directly to it. Tolman and Honzik found that rats: a. selected the path that led directly to the goal box, even though they had never traversed this route before. b. spent an inordinate amount of time clawing at the blocked main straightaway. c. demonstrated generalization and selected the path closest to the main straightaway. d. explored each path systematically, either from right to left or from left to right. ANSWER: a 267. Edward Tolman and Charles Honzik's experiments with rats and mazes strongly suggested that: a. stimulus–response theories of learning were essentially correct. b. there is no functional difference between reinforcement and punishment. c. spatial learning is the primary form of learning in rats. d. there is a cognitive component to operant learning. ANSWER: d 268. In a series of experiments, participants chose between receiving $1 or giving their partner $3. If given money, the partners could choose to split it with the participants or keep it. Prior to the study, participants read descriptions of their partners that described them as either trustworthy or untrustworthy. Researchers found that participants based their decision to give money to their partners largely on the basis of: a. the direction of the discrepancy between the descriptions and how the partners actually behaved. b. what the partners actually did in the game. c. the written descriptions. d. the consistency with which the partners acted according to the written descriptions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 269. In a series of experiments, participants chose to share or not share money with their assigned partners based on false written descriptions of their partners' trustworthiness, not the level of sharing actually demonstrated by their partners during the experiment. These results suggest that: a. participants discriminated between the written descriptions and the partner's actual behavior. b. cognitive expectancies outweighed actual environmental consequences. c. participants were exhibiting latent learning. d. sharing was controlled by an intermittent reinforcement effect. ANSWER: b 270. James Olds (1956) discovered that rats would ignore food, water, and other life-sustaining necessities for hours if they were able to control stimulation of certain parts of the brain. He called these areas of the brain: a. receptors. b. pleasure centers. c. reinforcers. d. addiction centers. ANSWER: b 271. Which structure is NOT involved in the reward center of the brain? a. the cerebellum b. the hypothalamus c. the medial forebrain bundle d. the nucleus accumbens ANSWER: a 272. The neurons in the pleasure centers of the brain, especially those in the nucleus accumbens, secrete _____, a neurotransmitter usually associated with positive emotions. a. serotonin b. epinephrine c. norepinephrine d. dopamine ANSWER: d 273. Drugs such as cocaine, amphetamines, and opiates are reinforcing because they: a. block the functions of dopamine in the medial forebrain bundle. b. stimulate dopamine release in hindbrain areas. c. block the functions of dopamine release in hindbrain areas. d. stimulate dopamine release in the medial forebrain bundle. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 274. Research has shown that dopamine-blocking drugs: a. increase the reinforcing value of food. b. increase the reinforcing value of electrical stimulation to the nucleus accumbens. c. decrease the reinforcing value of cocaine. d. prevent the occurrence of all learning. ANSWER: c 275. Brain imaging studies have revealed increased dopaminergic activity in the _____ when heterosexual men look at pictures of attractive women and in individuals who think that they are about to receive money. a. nucleus accumbens b. pons c. prefrontal cortex d. cerebellum ANSWER: a 276. Brain imaging studies of rats given food or water have revealed increased dopaminergic activity in the: a. nucleus accumbens, but only when the rats are hungry or thirsty. b. nucleus accumbens, even when the rats are not hungry or thirsty. c. thalamus, but only when the rats are hungry or thirsty. d. thalamus, even when the rats are not hungry or thirsty. ANSWER: a 277. Recent research suggests that the role of dopamine in operant conditioning is that dopamine is most associated with: a. performing an already-learned behavior. b. intense pleasure associated with the reward. c. ratio schedules of reward. d. wanting or craving a reward. ANSWER: d 278. A researcher placed rats in a typical T-maze that ended with two different directions. If a rat found food in one arm on the first trial of the day, it typically looked in the other arm on the very next trial. This is BEST explained by: a. the rat's evolutionary preparedness of foraging. b. latent learning in the absence of reinforcement. c. the behaviorist view of operant conditioning. d. the formation of stimulus–response associations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 279. Research investigating reward prediction errors indicates that dopamine is involved in the _____ of a reward. a. expectation b. enjoyment c. evaluation d. memory ANSWER: a 280. A reward prediction error is the difference between the: a. size of two consecutive rewards. b. subjective pleasure associated with two consecutive rewards. c. reward expected and the reward received. d. presence and absence of a reward. ANSWER: c 281. A hungry monkey's lever-pressing behavior is reinforced by receiving a banana-flavored treat. Which occurrence would produce the MOST dopamine activity? a. treat delivery after the behavior is learned and the monkey expects the treat b. treat delivery upon the first press, when the monkey does not expect a treat c. an unexpected nondelivery of the treat when the lever press occurs d. expected nondeliveries of treats as the response is extinguished ANSWER: b 282. Some research suggests that drugs given to enhance dopamine levels in patients with Parkinson's disease may cause the patients to become more: a. aggressive. b. despondent. c. anxious. d. impulsive. ANSWER: d 283. Research has demonstrated that there is increased dopamine activity during: a. correct but not incorrect predictions of reward. b. positive but not negative prediction errors of reward. c. negative but not positive prediction errors of reward. d. both positive and negative prediction errors of reward. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 284. A rat in a complicated maze with many arms, some of which are baited with food, will: a. after finding food in an arm, return only to that arm. b. explore the entire maze but often revisit arms that contained food. c. explore the maze in a random, haphazard fashion due to its complexity. d. rarely return to an arm it has previously visited. ANSWER: d 285. When Marian and Keller Breland tried to teach raccoons to drop a coin into a box by using food reinforcement for doing so, the raccoons: a. quickly learned this task via shaping through approximations. b. spent an inordinate amount of time rubbing the coin between their front paws instead of dropping it into the box. c. tended to bury the coin in the ground and then dig it up instead of dropping it into the box. d. failed to learn an association between the coin and food. ANSWER: b 286. When Keller and Marian Breland tried to teach pigs and raccoons to drop a coin into a box, the animals: a. learned the trick only if explicit reinforcement was provided for doing so. b. learned the trick if food was used as a reinforcer but did not learn the trick if secondary reinforcement was used. c. had difficulty learning the trick because it competed with their biological tendencies. d. failed to learn the trick, indicating that some animals have evolved to be resistant to operant conditioning. ANSWER: c 287. When Cicero's sister burned her fingers playing with matches, she cried for a long time. A by-product of this experience was that Cicero also learned not to play with matches. Cicero's learning experience is an example of: a. observational learning. b. classical conditioning. c. operant conditioning. d. intermittent reinforcement. ANSWER: a 288. Observational learning challenges an operant account of learning because: a. discriminative stimuli are absent. b. the learner's behavior is not reflexive. c. the learner's behavior is not reinforced. d. CS–US relations are absent. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 289. Observational learning is: a. an important part of learning our culture. b. not as important as other forms of learning. c. an inefficient means of learning. d. unique to humans. ANSWER: a 290. _____ conducted the Bobo doll experiments investigating observational learning. a. Edward Tolman b. Albert Bandura c. Elizabeth Spelke d. Bernard Weiner ANSWER: b 291. In the classic Bobo doll experiment, after watching adults get punished for hitting the Bobo doll, children: a. behaved even more aggressively toward the Bobo doll. b. showed no difference in their aggressive behavior toward the Bobo doll. c. behaved less aggressively toward the Bobo doll. d. became scared of the Bobo doll and didn't go near it. ANSWER: c 292. When children observed adult models being rewarded for being aggressive toward a Bobo doll, the children: a. were even more aggressive to the Bobo doll. b. were less aggressive to the Bobo doll. c. initially were more aggressive but then became less aggressive toward the Bobo doll. d. did not change their aggressiveness toward the Bobo doll. ANSWER: a 293. If children observe their older siblings fighting with other children in the neighborhood, the principles of observational learning would suggest that the younger siblings would: a. likely behave aggressively, too. b. learn that aggressive behavior is not always an effective solution to conflict. c. imitate the behavior of the targets of their siblings' aggressive behavior. d. decrease their aggressive behavior when their siblings were nearby. ANSWER: a 294. Which statement is a CORRECT description of a diffusion chain? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. A child learns that behaviors A, B, and C are required to be performed in an exact order to obtain reinforcement. b. Responses learned by observation tend to be weak links in a behavior chain relative to responses acquired through reinforcement. c. A child learns to perform a skill via operant conditioning and can then teach the skill to another child. d. A child who learns a skill by observation can then serve as a model for another child to learn the skill via observation. ANSWER: d 295. A parent demonstrates to their teenager how to use a trenching machine. The teenager learns to use the machine and then models it to her interested 10-year-old sibling. The younger sibling, in turn, demonstrates how to use a toy trencher to their 3-year-old sibling. This constitutes: a. shaping by approximations. b. a three-term contingency. c. a behavioral chain. d. a diffusion chain. ANSWER: d 296. Two-year-old Marvin watches 6-year-old Piotr behave aggressively with his stuffed animals. Marvin would be LEAST likely to imitate Piotr if: a. Piotr exits the room and leaves Marvin alone with the stuffed animals. b. their father yells at Piotr and sends him to time-out for inappropriate play. c. their father simply ignores the behavior so as to not draw attention to it. d. their father praises Piotr for being strong and brave. ANSWER: b 297. Two-year-old Marvin watches 6-year-old Piotr behave aggressively with his stuffed animals. Marvin would be MOST likely to imitate Piotr if: a. Piotr exits the room and leaves Marvin alone with the stuffed animals. b. their father ignores what is going on in the room. c. their father suggests that Piotr play with another toy. d. their father praises Piotr for being strong and brave. ANSWER: d 298. Research on diffusion chains of behavior involving the novel use of a tool has been shown to be faithfully transmitted across _____ children. a. 5–10 b. 10–20 c. 50–60 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. 90–100 ANSWER: b 299. Which statement about observational learning is true? a. The transmission of a novel behavior via a diffusion chain of observational learning has been documented across more than 100 children. b. Learning a skill via observation only is effective if the learner also has the opportunity to practice the skill. c. Preschool children can learn a skill via observation and then successfully model this skill to other preschool children. d. Reinforcement is necessary for observational learning to occur. ANSWER: c 300. A parrot identified a new fruit that was good to eat. After watching the parrot eat the fruit, the other parrots in the flock also began eating the fruit. The behavior of the flock illustrates: a. operant conditioning. b. latent learning. c. observational learning. d. positive reinforcement. ANSWER: c 301. Observational learning has been documented in: a. humans only. b. primates only, including humans. c. humans and birds only. d. humans and a variety of animals. ANSWER: d 302. Pigeons watched other pigeons receive reinforcement for either stepping on a bar or pecking at the feeder. When the observer pigeons were later put in an operant chamber, they tended to: a. step on the bar. b. peck at the feeder. c. use whichever technique that they had observed. d. alternate between stepping on the bar and pecking at the feeder. ANSWER: c 303. Suppose that a hungry pigeon B watches pigeon A step on a bar to earn food dispensed through a feeder. Pigeon A previously had been shaped to bar press for food. What is the BEST hypothesis of pigeon B's behavior when it is subsequently placed in an operant conditioning chamber? a. It will begin stepping on the bar to earn food. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. It will repeatedly peck at the feeder and fail to learn to bar press because pecking is more biologically relevant. c. It will not engage in bar pressing until it is shaped to do so by the experimenter. d. It will engage in superstitious behaviors such as wing flapping. ANSWER: a 304. In one study of observational learning, laboratory monkeys who had never seen a snake developed a fear response to snakes after watching a video of: a. another monkey displaying a fear response to snakes. b. a snake crawling on the ground. c. a snake swallowing a rat. d. a dog running away from a snake. ANSWER: a 305. Laboratory monkeys that have never seen snakes or flowers watch other monkeys display a fear response to these objects. Through observation, observer monkeys learn to fear: a. the snakes, and pass this on to other monkeys via a diffusion chain. b. both the snakes and the flowers, and pass this on to other monkeys via a diffusion chain. c. both the snakes and flowers, but only pass the fear of snakes to other monkeys via a diffusion chain. d. both the snakes and flowers, but do not pass the fear of either to other monkeys. ANSWER: a 306. Chimpanzees raised in the wild watched a human model using a tool either efficiently or inefficiently and then themselves interacted with the tool. Which statement is true? a. Only the chimpanzees observing efficient behavior used the tool, but their use was not efficient. b. Only the chimpanzees observing efficient behavior used the tool, and their own use was efficient. c. Both groups used the tool in the manner that they observed. d. Both groups used the tool but did not differ in their efficiency. ANSWER: d 307. Two-year-old toddlers watched a human model using a tool either efficiently or inefficiently and then themselves interacted with the tool. Which statement is true? a. Only the toddlers observing efficient behavior used the tool, but their use was not efficient. b. Only the toddlers observing efficient behavior used the tool, and their own use was efficient. c. Both groups used the tool in the manner that they observed. d. Both groups used the tool but did not differ in their efficiency. ANSWER: c 308. Which statement accurately summarizes the results of experiments that compared tool use in 2-year-old children and chimpanzees who both watched a human model using a tool either efficiently or inefficiently? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. Only the children learned tool use by observation. b. Both the children and the chimpanzees learned tool use, but all participants were markedly inefficient. c. Chimpanzees who watched an efficient human model outperformed children who watched an inefficient human model. d. Children who watched an efficient human model outperformed chimpanzees who also watched an efficient human model. ANSWER: d 309. A few studies have suggested that observational learning of tool use in chimpanzees can be enhanced by: a. using child human models to illustrate tool use instead of adult human models. b. increasing chimpanzees' overall contact with humans. c. studying only chimpanzees raised in the wild. d. using only tools that are not found in the chimpanzees' natural environment. ANSWER: b 310. According to the _____, being raised with humans has a profound effect on the cognitive abilities of chimpanzees, resulting in a greater ability to learn by observing human models. a. enculturation hypothesis b. law of imprinting c. artificial selection process d. theory of attachment ANSWER: a 311. Mother-raised and human-raised capuchin monkeys watched a human model use a screwdriver to remove a lid from a container and gain access to a food reward. In separate groups of both types of monkeys, the model removed the lid by either sticking the screwdriver in a hole located in the middle of the lid or by prying the lid off from the rim. The investigators found that: a. only the human-raised monkeys learned by observation. b. both groups learned by observation and both preferred sticking the screwdriver into the hole. c. both groups learned by observation, but the human-raised monkeys were much more likely to pry the lid off from the rim. d. both groups learned by observation, but the human-raised monkeys were considerably more likely to imitate the exact method the human model used. ANSWER: d 312. Certain cells in the brain fire both when an animal performs an action and when it watches that action performed. These cells are called: a. mirror neurons. b. dopaminergic neurons. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. nucleus accumbi. d. motor neurons. ANSWER: a 313. Mirror neurons are thought to play a role in the imitation of behavior and: a. response persistence during intermittent reinforcement. b. the formation of classically conditioned emotional responses. c. the emergence of self-awareness. d. the prediction of future behavior. ANSWER: d 314. Regions in the _____ lobes are thought to be part of the mirror neuron system in humans. a. frontal and temporal b. frontal and parietal c. frontal and occipital d. temporal and occipital ANSWER: b 315. Which specific cortical areas are thought to be part of the mirror neuron system in humans? a. Broca's and Wernicke's areas b. areas V1 and MT c. areas 40 and 44 d. areas A1 and V1 ANSWER: c 316. Which statement about the observational learning that occurs when participants watched videos of dance moves relative to actually practicing the dance moves is true? a. Vastly different brain regions were activated between the two scenarios. b. The participants who only observed dance moves exhibited no learning on a surprise dance test. c. Both groups performed equally well on a surprise dance test. d. The participants who actually practiced dancing performed better on the surprise dance task. ANSWER: d 317. In an experiment, half of the participants watched videos of specific dance sequences. The other half of participants actually practiced these sequences. All participants were then given a surprise dance test consisting of trained (observed or practiced) and untrained sequences. Participants who only observed videos of dance sequences: a. outperformed the practice group on trained sequences. b. outperformed the practice group on untrained sequences. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice c. demonstrated inferior performance on all sequences compared with the practice group. d. showed no difference in performance on trained versus untrained sequences. ANSWER: c 318. A basketball coach is interested in the effectiveness of teaching specific skills by video modeling. Based on research in this area, how would you advise the coach? a. Video modeling will not be effective, as learning sports-related skills can only be achieved through physical practice. b. Video modeling might be useful to teach concepts such as defensive alignment but is not useful for teaching motor-related behaviors such as shooting technique. c. Video modeling is just as effective as physical practice; this technique should be preferred because it minimizes risk of injury. d. Video modeling is an effective technique and can be used as a supplement to practice. ANSWER: d 319. Applying transcranial magnetic stimulation to the motor cortex just after a person observed a novel task involving motor skill would be MOST likely to _____ observational learning. a. not affect b. greatly enhance c. greatly reduce d. slightly reduce ANSWER: c 320. In an experiment, half of the participants watched videos of specific dance sequences (observational group). The other half of participants actually practiced these sequences (practice group). All participants were then given a surprise dance test consisting of trained (either observed or practiced) and untrained sequences. Which findings constitute evidence of observational learning? a. The observational group outperformed the practice group on trained sequences. b. The observational group outperformed the practice group on untrained sequences. c. Both groups performed comparably on the trained sequences. d. The observational group performed better on trained versus untrained sequences. ANSWER: d 321. Deactivating the _____ cortex through _____ severely impairs observational learning of a new dance sequence. a. somatosensory; magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. somatosensory; transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) c. motor; functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) d. motor; transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 322. Learning that takes place largely independent of awareness of both the process and the products of information acquisition is called: a. implicit learning. b. conditioning. c. biological predisposition. d. observational learning. ANSWER: a 323. Learning to drive a car is an example of _____ learning that becomes _____ over time. a. implicit; habituated b. explicit; implicit c. implicit; explicit d. explicit; operant ANSWER: b 324. Texting by using your thumbs is an example of _____ learning that becomes _____ over time. a. implicit; habituated b. explicit; implicit c. implicit; explicit d. explicit; operant ANSWER: b 325. Compared to the others, which behavior at first requires explicit learning but, over time, becomes implicit? a. actively recalling memories from your past b. generating productive ideas for new research projects c. riding a bicycle d. habituating to the sound of a noisy air conditioner ANSWER: c 326. Compared to the others, which behavior at first requires explicit learning but, over time, becomes implicit? a. competing on a high school quiz bowl team b. solving new and ever-changing puzzles in a computer game c. habituating to the chimes of a grandfather clock d. typing on a keyboard ANSWER: d 327. Implicit learning is _____ implicit memory. a. functionally the same as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. related to c. caused by d. unrelated to ANSWER: b 328. On which task might we expect the MOST individual differences? a. typing among data entry professionals b. obeying traffic laws among experienced drivers c. the 100-meter freestyle among Olympic swimmers d. problem solving among college students ANSWER: d 329. On which task might we expect the MOST individual differences? a. strumming chords among experienced lute players b. the rate of habituation to a loud noise among people living on a busy street c. keyboarding proficiency among 4th-grade students d. how young adults use their thumbs to text ANSWER: c 330. On which task might we expect the FEWEST individual differences? a. strategies to solve geometric proofs among junior high students b. brainstorming ideas for short stories in high school creative writing class c. keyboarding proficiency among 4th-grade students d. how young adults use their thumbs to text ANSWER: d 331. Using an artificial grammar is one way of studying: a. implicit learning. b. explicit learning. c. biological predisposition. d. observational learning. ANSWER: a 332. In an artificial grammar task, participants are shown strings of letters labeled "grammatically correct" and "grammatically incorrect." Then they are shown new strings and are asked to classify them as correct or incorrect. Participants usually are: a. unable to perform the task, unless explicitly told the grammatical rules. b. unable to perform the task, even after being told the grammatical rules. c. quite good at the task, and can articulate the grammatical rules. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice d. quite good at the task, but cannot articulate the grammatical rules. ANSWER: d 333. Most people have little difficulty spotting grammatical errors but cannot articulate which rules of English grammar were violated. Knowing that a sentence is grammatically wrong but being unable to describe why that is illustrates: a. explicit learning. b. implicit learning. c. latent learning. d. observational learning. ANSWER: b 334. Which statement about learning artificial grammar is true? a. Participants usually can verbally express 60% to 70% of the grammatical rules. b. Learning the grammatical rules is explicit; using them is implicit. c. If participants cannot explicitly state a grammatical rule, they usually violate it. d. Participants implicitly learn artificial grammar without being cognizant of the actual grammatical rules. ANSWER: d 335. Casey recently moved to Ecuador. Although she did not know how to speak Spanish, within a few weeks, she was speaking grammatically correct sentences, even though she couldn't articulate the grammatical rules. This outcome BEST illustrates: a. implicit learning. b. habituation. c. the cognitive aspects of operant conditioning. d. the acquisition of an artificial grammar. ANSWER: a 336. Ralston wants to learn French to prepare for an upcoming Paris vacation. He buys an English-to-French dictionary and begins memorizing words. This BEST illustrates: a. implicit learning. b. explicit learning. c. the cognitive aspects of operant conditioning. d. the acquisition of an artificial grammar. ANSWER: b 337. Participants who are studied under a serial reaction time test are shown five boxes on a computer screen. When a box lights up, they are to click it as quickly as possible. The boxes seemingly light up at random, but a pattern exists. Over time, participants respond more _____ on this task _____ of the pattern. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. slowly; and are unaware b. carefully; and become aware c. quickly; but are unaware d. quickly; and become aware ANSWER: c 338. Which statement about implicit learning is true? a. People differ significantly on implicit tasks. b. Implicit learning appears to be related to a person's level of intelligence. c. Implicit learning changes little across the life span. d. People who have been diagnosed with amnesia have profound deficits in implicit learning. ANSWER: c 339. Which statement about implicit learning is true? a. Implicit learning has been demonstrated in infants. b. Adults who have been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder show pronounced deficits in implicit learning. c. The rate of implicit learning slows considerably in old age. d. There are large individual differences in the rate of implicit learning. ANSWER: a 340. Experimenters studied people who had been diagnosed with various psychoses and found that: a. they had marked difficulty completing both explicit and implicit learning tasks. b. they showed greater skill at completing explicit learning tasks compared to implicit learning tasks. c. their performance on an implicit learning task was about as good as that of non-diagnosed college students. d. they outperformed non-diagnosed college students on a variety of explicit learning tasks. ANSWER: c 341. Which statement about implicit learning in college students and in patients diagnosed with various forms of psychoses is true? a. Implicit learning is greater in college students. b. Implicit learning is greater in patients diagnosed with some form of psychosis. c. There are large individual differences in implicit learning among patients diagnosed with psychosis but few in college students. d. Implicit learning is about the same in college students and patients diagnosed with psychosis. ANSWER: d 342. Research indicates that implicit learning of artificial grammar is considerably impaired in: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. bilingual individuals. b. older adults. c. persons diagnosed with developmental dyslexia. d. verbal adults who have been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. ANSWER: c 343. Deficits in implicit learning have been documented in people diagnosed with: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. amnesia. c. dyslexia. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: c 344. The fact that persons experiencing amnesia do not show deficits in implicit learning suggests that _____ is NOT involved in implicit learning. a. the motor cortex b. the temporal lobe c. the hippocampus d. Broca's area ANSWER: c 345. In recent research on neural pathways activated during implicit and explicit learning, participants who were given explicit instructions showed increased activity in the _____, whereas those given implicit instructions showed decreased activity in the _____. a. prefrontal cortex and parietal cortex; hippocampus b. occipital lobe; hippocampus c. prefrontal cortex and hippocampus; occipital lobe d. hippocampus and occipital lobe; prefrontal cortex and parietal cortex ANSWER: c 346. Recent brain imaging research has shown that _____ is activated during artificial grammar learning, and the _____ cortex is activated during sequence learning on serial reaction time tasks. a. Broca's area; motor b. Wernicke's area; prefrontal c. the prefrontal cortex; occipital d. the occipital cortex; motor ANSWER: a 347. Compared to the others, which technique is LEAST effective for learning school-related material? a. distributed practice Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice b. visual imagery mnemonics c. practice testing d. self-explanation ANSWER: b 348. Compared to the others, which technique is LEAST effective for learning school-related material? a. rereading b. distributed practice c. practice testing d. self-explanation ANSWER: a 349. Compared to the others, which technique is MOST effective for learning school-related material? a. practice testing b. visual imagery mnemonics c. highlighting important material while reading d. writing summaries of to-be-learned material ANSWER: a 350. What is the BEST remedy to counter the overconfidence that often comes with one's own judgments of learning (JOLs)? a. practice testing b. visualization c. massed practice d. rereading ANSWER: a 351. Compared to the others, which technique is MOST effective for learning school-related material? a. elaborative interrogation b. visual imagery mnemonics c. highlighting important material while reading d. distributed practice ANSWER: d 352. Cramming for exams is an example of: a. distributed practice. b. massed practice. c. implicit practice. d. practice testing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 353. Distributed practice is better than massed practice when considering: a. learning among college students, but not among children. b. matching names to faces, but not for remembering facts from textbooks. c. remembering facts from textbooks, but not for matching names to faces. d. learning numerous kinds of materials. ANSWER: d 354. Annika is studying for her upcoming mathematics exam by mixing problem types during the same study session. For example, she might do a few rote calculations, followed by a proof, followed by a few word problems. This form of studying is termed: a. distributed practice. b. interleaved practice. c. elaborative interrogation. d. practice testing. ANSWER: b 355. Kaori is studying for her upcoming Spanish exam by mixing problem types during the same study session. For example, she might complete some verb conjugations, followed by reciting vocabulary words, followed by a reading comprehension task. This form of studying is termed: a. distributed practice. b. interleaved practice. c. elaborative interrogation. d. practice testing. ANSWER: b 356. Which statement regarding practice testing is true? a. It is considerably more effective for learning mathematics than other subject areas. b. It is preferred by students relative to simply rereading the material. c. Its benefits increase with the difficulty of the test. d. It has shown to be as effective as highlighting and rereading material. ANSWER: c 357. Research has shown that students who are led to believe that a lecture will end in a quiz will: a. study over the week prior to the lecture. b. take practice tests the night before the lecture. c. experience less mind wandering during the lecture. d. practice visual imagery and mnemonics during the lecture. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 358. Introducing frequent short tests (e.g., pop quizzes) during a lecture is beneficial to learning because it: a. fosters implicit learning. b. increases sympathetic nervous system activity. c. discourages mind wandering. d. encourages massed practice. ANSWER: c 359. Amalia closes her textbook after reading through three required chapters and reviewing them, convinced that she has mastered the material. Her conclusion is an example of a(n): a. false belief. b. judgment of learning. c. summarization. d. objective assessment. ANSWER: b 360. Enola writes a summary of the information she has just studied. Rereading this summary, she decides that she probably doesn't understand the material well enough. Her conclusion is an example of a(n): a. mnemonic device. b. judgment of learning. c. interleaved practice technique. d. objective assessment. ANSWER: b 361. Judgments of learning (JOLs) are: a. a feature of massed practice. b. a feature of distributed practice. c. examples of subjective assessments. d. scores given by the evaluator on assessments. ANSWER: c 362. Which example describes a judgment of learning (JOL)? a. receiving an 85% score on a standardized exam b. deciding to implement distributed practice instead of massed practice c. rereading the text and focusing on only the previously underlined material d. concluding that one has mastered the material to be learned ANSWER: d 363. Students tend to devote more time to studying what they: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Multiple Choice a. find interesting. b. don't know well. c. understand. d. deem is important. ANSWER: b 364. Which factor is causally related to deciding how much time to devote to studying? a. judgments of learning b. the choice of distributed versus massed practice c. the degree of mind wandering during class d. the use of mnemonic devices ANSWER: a 365. The BEST way for students to guard against incorrect judgments of learning (JOLs) is to base their decisions on: a. a sense of familiarity after massed practice. b. a sense of familiarity after distributive practice. c. results from practice testing. d. the amount of time spent studying the material. ANSWER: c 366. Students who rely on _____ as a study technique are MOST likely to _____ how much they have actually learned. a. practice testing; underestimate b. practice testing; overestimate c. rereading; underestimate d. rereading; overestimate ANSWER: d 367. After studying, students often _____ how much information that they know due to a low-level memory process known as _____. a. underestimate; semantic encoding b. overestimate; semantic encoding c. underestimate; perceptual priming d. overestimate; perceptual priming ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 7 Scenario Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Emily is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, she uses with her dealer in a drug house on her street. One day when her dealer was out of town, Emily met a group of other people who use heroin going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Emily tagged along and noted that she felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from her usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and she took no more or less than she usually did, Emily overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency room. 1. (Scenario 7.1) Several decades ago, the psychologist Sheppard Siegel first noted the role that classical conditioning plays in drug overdose. Applying this model to the present scenario, the unconditioned stimulus is _____, and the conditioned stimulus is _____. a. heroin; the new environment b. heroin; the usual drug-taking environment c. the new environment; heroin d. the usual drug-taking environment; heroin ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 7.1) According to a classical conditioning account of heroin overdose, one unconditioned response is a(n) _____ in the rate of respiration, and one conditioned response is a(n) _____. a. increase; subsequent cardiovascular collapse b. increase; similar increase in heart rate c. decrease; subsequent cardiovascular collapse d. decrease; increase in the rate of respiration ANSWER: d 3. (Scenario 7.1) According to a classical conditioning account of drug overdose, after numerous environment– drug pairings, the environment can: a. trigger effects similar to the drug, even in the absence of the drug. b. markedly increase the likelihood that overdose will occur. c. help prepare the body for the drug. d. sensitize a person to the drug such that less now is required to obtain the same effect. ANSWER: c 4. (Scenario 7.1) According to a classical conditioning account of drug overdose, because Emily always used heroin in the same location with the same person, the presence of those cues resulted in a(n): a. increased tolerance to heroin. b. increase in the reinforcing properties of heroin. c. increased sensitivity to the depressant effects of heroin. d. decreased expectancy of heroin. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Scenario ANSWER: a 5. (Scenario 7.1) An account of drug overdose based on classical conditioning differs from typical classical conditioning preparations in that: a. the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli are of different stimulus modalities. b. only one trial is necessary for learning to occur. c. the conditioned response takes the form opposite the unconditioned response. d. the conditioned response precedes the unconditioned stimulus. ANSWER: c 6. (Scenario 7.1) The contextual cues associated with Emily's usual drug-taking environment might NOT be expected to elicit: a. withdrawal symptoms. b. feelings of intoxication. c. cravings. d. sympathetic nervous system arousal. ANSWER: b Use Scenario 7.2 to answer the following question(s). A boy who has been diagnosed with autism sometimes engages in self-stimulatory behavior, such as waving his hands in front of his eyes while watching television. Curiously, he engages in the behavior when his father is around but usually not when his mother is present. An applied behavior analyst working with the boy closely observes the interactions between the boy and the parents in an effort to determine why the self-stimulatory behavior is occurring. She notes that on the rare occasions when the boy engages in the behavior in the presence of his mother, the mother simply ignores the behavior. However, after the behavior occurs, a number of times in the presence of the father, the father often intervenes. Although he does not provide attention to his son, he does mute the television for a number of minutes, essentially giving the boy a break. This usually calms the boy and results in the cessation of the hand-waving behavior. The therapist notes that the amount of self-stimulatory behavior before the father intervenes is quite unpredictable; sometimes the father intervenes after only one or two instances, and sometimes he waits until many instances occur. 7. (Scenario 7.2) The boy's self-stimulatory behavior is an example of: a. observational learning. b. behavior maintained by positive reinforcement. c. behavior maintained by negative reinforcement. d. a classically conditioned response triggered by the father. ANSWER: c 8. (Scenario 7.2) The applied behavior analyst would conclude that the self-stimulatory behavior is probably being maintained by: a. conditioned stimulus–unconditioned stimulus pairings between the father and the television. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Scenario b. access to enjoyable activities. c. reinforcement of the behavior. d. punishments associated with sensory stimulation. ANSWER: c 9. (Scenario 7.2) The applied behavior analyst would conclude that the father's behavior of allowing his son to take breaks from watching television is probably being maintained by: a. extinction. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. observational learning. ANSWER: b 10. (Scenario 7.2) The father appears to be functioning as a(n) _____ stimulus. a. unconditioned b. conditioned c. reinforcing d. discriminative ANSWER: d 11. (Scenario 7.2) The fact that the boy engages in problem behavior in the presence of his father but not his mother illustrates: a. shaping by approximations. b. an expectancy between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli. c. generalization. d. stimulus control. ANSWER: d 12. (Scenario 7.2) The mother is utilizing _____ to keep the boy's level of self-stimulatory behavior low. a. extinction b. positive punishment c. negative punishment d. delayed reinforcement ANSWER: a 13. (Scenario 7.2) The boy's self-stimulatory behavior produces consequences according to a _____ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed-interval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Scenario d. variable interval ANSWER: b Use Scenario 7.3 to answer the following question(s). In a classic study conducted by Edward Chace Tolman and Charles H. Honzik (1930), rats were randomly assigned to one of three groups and studied daily in a complex maze. One group of rats was regularly rewarded by food in the goal box upon completion of the maze. A second group of rats served as a control group and was never reinforced; when they reached the goal box, it was always empty. A third group of rats received no reward for the first 10 days. Beginning on Day 11, however, these rats began receiving food reward upon completion of the maze. Here is a representation of the major results found by Tolman and Honzik (1930). Tolman, E. C., & Honzik, C. H. (1930). Introduction and removal of reward, and maze performance in rats. University of California Publications in Psychology, 4, 257–275. Figure 7.1

14. (Scenario 7.3) This is an example of which type of research design? a. naturalistic observation b. experiment c. correlation d. case method ANSWER: b 15. (Scenario 7.3) What was the independent variable in Tolman and Honzik's study? a. the three groups of rats b. number of errors c. days Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 7 Scenario d. food reward ANSWER: d 16. (Scenario 7.3) What was the dependent variable in Tolman and Honzik's study? a. the three groups of rats b. number of errors c. days d. food reward ANSWER: b 17. (Scenario 7.3) Tolman and Honzik (1930) argued that learning can occur without reinforcement, although this learning may not manifest itself behaviorally until a later time. They termed this "latent learning." Latent learning poses a direct challenge to which school of psychology? a. functionalism b. cognitive psychology c. behaviorism d. Gestalt psychology ANSWER: c 18. (Scenario 7.3) In which group(s) are the effects of latent learning demonstrated behaviorally? a. no reward control group (Group 2) b. regularly rewarded group (Group 1) c. no reward until Day 11 group (Group 3) d. all groups ANSWER: c 19. (Scenario 7.3) Taking into account the results from all three groups, which is the best interpretation of the results from the no-reward control group? a. Despite the lack of reward, these rats nevertheless learned about the maze. b. The behavior of these rats was punished by the empty goalbox. c. The measured behavior of the rats in the control group suggests that learning occurred. d. These rats failed to learn anything about the maze. ANSWER: a

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TB6 Chapter 8 Essay 1. Explain how researchers map emotions. Be sure to identify the two dimensions of emotions and give an example of an emotion that would typify each resulting quadrant. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that emotions can be classified according to arousal (how active or passive the emotion is) and valence (whether the emotion is positive or negative). These two dimensions are placed at right angles to each other, forming four quadrants. Any particular emotion can be represented in this two-dimensional space. For example: high-arousal/negative valence: afraid; high-arousal/positive valence: excited; low-arousal/negative valence: bored; lowarousal/positive valence: content. 2. On your drive home from school one evening, you are stopped at a light. You see in your rearview mirror a car approaching at an alarming rate of speed. Realizing that the car is likely to run into you full force, you experience a number of reactions, both physiological and emotional. Briefly discuss each of the classic theories of emotion (Cannon–Bard theory, James–Lange theory, Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory) as they relate to this situation. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that according to the James–Lange theory of emotion, you experience a physiological response (heart pounding in your chest, increased respiration); then you experience the emotion of fear (or terror). Specifically, the stimulus (the car behind you) leads to a specific physiological response resulting in the emotion (fear). The Cannon–Bard theory of emotion, however, suggests that you see the car approaching quickly (stimulus); then you experience a physiological response and the emotion of fear simultaneously. Specifically, the stimulus (the car behind you) leads to you simultaneously experiencing the physiological response and the emotion, fear. The two-factor theory suggests that you see the car approaching and you experience a general physiological response that your brain interprets in context to produce the emotion of fear. Specifically, the stimulus (the car behind you) creates a state of general physiological arousal, which is interpreted as the experience of fear. 3. Describe the two brain pathways of "threat detection." Why is it advantageous to have two pathways instead of just one? ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Fast pathway: Information is sent from the thalamus directly to the amygdala. The amygdala makes a rapid decision as to whether a threat is present and responds accordingly (e.g., initiates neural processes that result in physiological arousal and the experience of emotion). (2) Slow pathway: Information is sent from the thalamus to the cortex and then to the amygdala. The information is analyzed more thoroughly in the cortex. If it is ultimately deemed a threat, signals are sent to the amygdala to maintain the fear response. If not, signals are sent to the amygdala to terminate the fear response. (3) The advantage of the fast pathway is that it helps keep us alive when a real threat is present. For example, if you unexpectedly step near a large snake while hiking through the woods, you will have the tendency to jump back and experience fear, reducing the likelihood that you will get bitten. If you took the time to process the shape of the snake's head and its coloring to determine if it was poisonous, you probably would get bitten. (4) The advantage of the slow pathway is that it can adjust amygdala activity in light of more information. If the "snake" turns out to be rubber from a discarded tire, you will quickly calm down. If the snake turns out to be poisonous, this information may result in sustained fear and greater vigilance. You may find yourself scanning the ground for the rest of your hike! 4. An actor is filming a scene in which their spouse is killed in front of them and they have to express emotions of uncontrollable grief. For a few hours after filming the scene, the actor continues to feel sad. Explain why facial feedback might contribute to these feelings of sadness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Essay ANSWER: The facial feedback hypothesis states that displaying emotional expressions on the face may cause the emotions that they signify to be experienced. Expressing sadness while filming the scene activated a particular pattern of facial muscle movements associated with this emotion. This, in turn, triggered the conscious feeling of the emotion. Even though the person was acting, facial expressions can powerfully impact emotional experiences. This effect can be demonstrated more simply. If you hold a pencil in your teeth, you will feel happier than if you hold a pencil between your lips. The former position contracts muscles associated with smiling, and the latter position contracts muscles associated with frowning. 5. Explain how trained observers use facial expressions as a cue to discern whether another person is sincere or engaging in deception. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that we try to control our nonverbal displays when we express a lie, in the hopes that we will seem sincere and present a consistent verbal and nonverbal message. However, controlling facial expressions is a difficult task, especially under what many times is a stressful situation of having to lie to someone. A trained observer can use certain facial features to detect deception. These features involve morphology (a faked smile does not enlist the orbicularis oculi muscles around the eye), symmetry (sincere facial expressions are more symmetrical than insincere ones), duration (facial expressions that are either very short or longer than the norm are more likely to be insincere), and temporal patterning (insincere expressions have more abrupt onsets and offsets than do sincere ones). 6. Your criminal justice class is holding a discussion on the effectiveness of polygraphs versus human lie detection. Which method, if either, do you favor? Give pros and cons for each. Are humans good at determining whether emotional expressions are sincere? Why or why not? Include some of the features that you can observe in someone's face that might give you a hint (consider morphology, symmetry, duration, and temporal patterning). ANSWER: The answer should indicate that human lie detection is highly inaccurate and that most people score barely better than chance. We have a strong bias toward believing that others are sincere, so we don't have to think that someone is insincere and telling a lie. Even if we suspect that someone might be lying, most of us do not know and therefore do not attend to the aspects of behavior that are associated with lying. Behaviors that are reliably associated with lying include speaking in a higher pitched voice, increased fidgeting, and decreased use of illustrators (gestures that accompany a verbal message). Facial features also may help us decide if emotional expressions are sincere. Some features that point to sincerity are: (1) Morphology: A faked smile will not use the orbicularis oculi muscles around the eye. (2) Symmetry: Sincere facial expressions are more symmetrical than insincere ones. (3) Duration: Facial expressions that are either very short or longer than the norm are more likely to be insincere. (4) Temporal patterning: Insincere expressions have more abrupt onsets and offsets than do sincere ones. Polygraphs can detect lies at a rate significantly better than chance, but they also have a very high error rate. In other words, a polygraph would "catch" many people who weren't lying. Also, people can learn to "fool" the polygraph. At present, we still don't have a foolproof method to detect if someone is lying. In the absence of a powerful test, the decisions made by both polygraphs and trained human observers should be viewed with healthy skepticism. Law enforcement should attempt to establish the veracity of falsehood of statements through other means. 7. Incorporating the concepts of homeostasis and drive, describe how motivation historically has been interpreted as analogous to a thermostat. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Essay ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the function of a thermostat is to maintain a preset temperature in a house. When the temperature in the house gets too hot or too cold, the thermostat sends electrical signals to turn on the air conditioning or the heat. The thermostat continues to monitor the temperature and turns off the air conditioning or heat when the desired temperature is reached. The process by which the thermostat takes action to keep the house at a constant temperature is termed homeostasis. Clark Hull and Kenneth Spence postulated that organisms have internal homeostatic mechanisms. When a physiological need is not being met (e.g., nutrition), the body sends signals to take corrective action (e.g., a hunger drive). The corrective action takes the form of motivated behavior (e.g., eating) that reduces the drive and restores homeostasis. 8. Describe the hedonic principle of motivation. How might this principle explain the fact that people often subject themselves to painful medical procedures and forego pleasurable activities for less pleasurable ones? ANSWER: The hedonic principle states that we are primarily motivated to seek pleasure and avoid pain. Imagine a gauge with pleasure at one end and pain at the other. Our primary motivation is to keep the needle as close to the pleasure end as possible. At a surface level, willingly subjecting yourself to a painful medical procedure appears to violate the hedonic principle. But the hedonic principle states that we will subject ourselves to painful stimuli if, in the long run, it results in greater pleasure for a longer period of time. So, a person may have a painful operation now so that they will experience improved health in the extended future. Similarly, you may forgo going to a party in order to study because, ultimately, earning a good grade in the course is more pleasurable to you than the momentary pleasures associated with the party. 9. A friend has broken up with his significant other of 2 years and is feeling down. How could emotion regulation help him? What is reappraisal, and how might it work to your friend's advantage? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that emotion regulation involves taking an active role in influencing our own emotions. Although suppression might seem like a reasonable strategy—simply trying as hard as possible to not think about his significant other or the good times they shared—it is highly ineffective. Every mental command to not think about a subject ("Don't think about them . . . walk on by . . . talk back, trembling lips . . . .") serves as a reminder of that very subject. Instead, mood labeling (which, along with mood monitoring, forms the basis of mood awareness) contributes to effective emotion regulation. By assigning a label to what he's feeling ("I am sad…I recognize that…and I'm feeling more than a bit angry as well…"), the stage is set to then engage in effective mood regulation strategies ("So what can I do now to get out of this funk?"). Reappraisal involves changing an emotional experience by changing the way we think about the object or event that elicited the emotion. Your friend could alter the meaning of the breakup by telling himself that the breakup had been coming for a long time and is probably for the best because the two had different values and ideas; that now he is free to date someone else he's begun to know; and that now he'll have more time to spend with his friends. 10. Briefly sketch Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs in pyramid form and explain his theory. Which needs are strongest? Which are weakest? Give at least two examples that illustrate this. ANSWER: Abraham Maslow thought that human motives could be arranged in a hierarchical fashion, with a large "base" of lower needs rising to a pinnacle of higher needs. From the bottom of the pyramid to the top, these are: physiological needs, safety and security needs, belongingness and love needs, esteem needs, and the need for self-actualization. Physiological needs, on the bottom of the pyramid, are the strongest and most immediate needs. Maslow proposed that we will not become motivated Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Essay by needs higher on the pyramid until needs lower on the pyramid have been met. For example, if we are starving, we probably won't be motivated to explore the raptures of an art gallery. The need for self-actualization, at the top of the pyramid, is the most easily postponed need. A person probably won't be concerned with moral enlightenment and intellectual enrichment (needs associated with self-actualization) when the roof is caving in and the electric bill is due. 11. Describe the three different eating disorders discussed in the textbook. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Anorexia nervosa: characterized by an intense fear of being fat, a severe restriction of food intake, and a distorted body image. (2) Bulimia nervosa: characterized by binge eating followed by purging. Individuals with this disorder eat large amounts of food at one time and then take laxatives or induce vomiting. They are caught in a cycle: Eating provides comfort for negative emotions, but worry about weight gain makes them feel more negative emotions, such as guilt, leading them to purge. (3) Binge-eating disorder: characterized by binge eating and an inability to stop during the binge. This disorder is differentiated from bulimia nervosa in that there is no compensatory behavior designed to purge the calories. 12. Describe hormonal factors underlying motivation for sex in adult humans. Briefly summarize gender differences in motivation for sex, and discuss an evolutionary reason that human women differ from other mammals with respect to sexual motivation. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that for both men and women, testosterone is the hormonal basis for sexual motivation. Men typically have higher levels of testosterone than do women, which might help explain why they engage in more sexual behavior, take more risks to obtain sex, think about sex more often, and have more permissive attitudes toward sex. Women differ strikingly from females of other mammalian species in terms of sexual motivation. For other mammalian species, sexual motivation is determined by the estrous cycle. Sexual motivation is high when estrogen levels are high, which occurs when the female is ovulating. Females are not sexually receptive at other points during their cycle. Thus, in other mammals, estrogen—and not testosterone—controls sexual motivation. Women, on the other hand, can be motivated to engage in sex at any point in their monthly cycles. At some point during our evolution, sexual behavior in women stopped being regulated by estrogen and came under the control of testosterone. There is an evolutionary advantage for this to have occurred. Engaging in sex throughout the menstrual cycle makes it difficult for a man to know when a woman is fertile. Because the man probably doesn't want some other man to impregnate his partner, he keeps his hunting trips short such that he can effectively guard her. The end result is that a woman's physical needs (e.g., food and protection) are more likely to be met, pair bonding will occur, and offspring will be co-parented. 13. Explain William Masters and Virginia Johnson's research program on the human sexual response cycle. Discuss their findings, noting gender similarities and differences. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that William Masters and Virginia Johnson measured physiological response in their laboratories. They noted that humans exhibit four phases (excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution) in the sexual response cycle. For the most part, they found that females' and males' sexual response cycles were quite similar, regardless of the type of sexual behavior. Two differences are that males tend to reach orgasm much more often than do females, and the refractory period is shorter in duration for females relative to males. 14. Imagine that you are a 3rd-grade teacher, and you would like to encourage the children in your class to enjoy reading. Suggest ways that you might use extrinsic and intrinsic motivation to their maximal advantage. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Essay Compare the pros and cons of each. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that extrinsic motivation arranges rewards to reinforce a particular behavior (e.g., reading). For example, you might provide students with gold stars on a reading chart every time they bring back a book they've completed. Perhaps these stars can be exchanged for even bigger rewards after enough stars are accumulated. The danger, of course, is that students may come to resent reading when they are not rewarded for it. However, you can argue that after the children become competent readers, the sheer pleasure of reading will take over and provide the intrinsic motivation they need to continue. Intrinsic motivation is a motivation to take actions that are rewarding in themselves. As a teacher, you might choose books for the children that are about topics they already like; for example, a child who loves horses will be much more interested in reading if the chosen book is a story about a horse. In general, extrinsic motivation is useful to employ when you want to establish a behavior or increase a low-probability behavior. If the children are rarely reading, extrinsic rewards will get them to do so and hopefully foster contact with the intrinsic rewards of reading. If behavior is already being maintained by intrinsic rewards, it would be counterproductive to try to increase extrinsic motivation for that behavior. Paying avid readers to read will actually decrease the enjoyment associated with reading.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 1. Level of positivity is to _____ as level of energy is to _____. a. arousal; valence b. emotion; motivation c. motivation; emotion d. valence; arousal ANSWER: d 2. Emotions can be distinguished based on their _____, which is how positive or negative the experience is, and their _____, which is how active or passive the experience is. a. valence; arousal b. arousal; activity c. motivation; drive d. arousal; motivation ANSWER: a 3. _____ is defined as a temporary state that includes unique subjective experiences and physiological activity, and that prepares people for action. a. Emotion b. Drive c. Motivation d. Valence ANSWER: a 4. When a person feels "touched" or "moved to tears," they are experiencing _____, which has no name in the English language. a. donnola viscida b. brudna lasica c. vesle d. kama muta ANSWER: d 5. After a night out with your friends, Drew comes home to find an intruder in his apartment. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion, what is most likely to be his FIRST response? a. He experiences nausea. b. His mind makes up a detailed scenario of an imaginary conversation with the intruder. c. His heart rate increases and his muscles tense. d. He experiences amnesia. ANSWER: c 6. A criticism of the James–Lange theory of emotion is that: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. there are not enough unique patterns of bodily activity to account for the variety of emotional states. b. emotion is often experienced after rapid bodily responses. c. emotion is not associated with physiological arousal. d. emotion is delayed from physiological arousal in order for the latter to cause the former. ANSWER: a 7. Professor Karamatsu believes that a stimulus simultaneously triggers activity in the body and emotional experience in the mind. This perspective is consistent with which theory? a. Cannon–Bard b. James–Lange c. two-factor d. cognitive appraisal ANSWER: a 8. Bitsy is interviewing for a job, and a part of the application process includes completing some psychological tests. Many of her responses on the tests indicate emotionality of excitement and delight. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive ANSWER: d 9. One reason the Cannon–Bard theory was proposed as an alternative to the James–Lange theory was that there: a. was a need to account for bodily activity. b. was no need to account for bodily activity. c. are not enough unique patterns of bodily activity to account for all emotions. d. are not enough emotions to account for all the unique patterns of bodily activity. ANSWER: c 10. Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer's two-factor theory proposed that emotions are the result of: a. physiological arousal without interpretation. b. brain activity without physiological arousal. c. trying to make sense of physiological arousal. d. your body's physiological response to emotional signals sent from your brain. ANSWER: c 11. Which claim of the two-factor theory of emotion has been disputed following subsequent research? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. People experience similar emotions depending on the inferences they draw about the causes of their arousal. b. All emotional experiences are essentially caused by the same physiological process in the body. c. Interpretation of physiological arousal is involved in the emotional experience. d. Different people may not experience the same emotion, even if the physiological arousal is the same. ANSWER: b 12. Ksenya is interviewing for a job, and a part of the application process includes completing some psychological tests. Many of her responses on the tests indicate emotionality of anger and frustration. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive ANSWER: b 13. You see the person standing next to you at the bus stop. Based on body language and facial expression, you assume the person is upset about something. Identify the limbic structure that is MOST likely to have helped you assess that person's emotional state. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. nucleus accumbens d. thalamus ANSWER: a 14. Which structure(s) in the brain has been associated with eliciting a response of fear in humans? a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus ANSWER: c 15. Thurston is interviewing for a job, and a part of the application process includes completing some psychological tests. Many of his responses on the tests indicate that he was relaxed and content. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 16. Like other psychologists, Dr. Duchenne agrees that there are five universal facial expressions of emotion. These are: a. happiness, sadness, fear, anger, and surprise. b. distress, sleepiness, happiness, anger, and fear. c. anger, disgust, happiness, sadness, and fear. d. fear, anger, depression, calmness, and sadness. ANSWER: c 17. Heinrich is interviewing for a job, and a part of the application process includes completing some psychological tests. Many of his responses on the tests indicate that he was bored and perhaps depressed. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive ANSWER: a 18. When presented with a stimulus, the brain processes the information in two pathways: the "fast pathway" goes from the thalamus to the _____, whereas the "slow pathway" goes from the thalamus to the _____. a. amygdala; cortex and then the amygdala b. cortex; amygdala directly c. amygdala; retina and then the frontal lobe d. cortex; retina ANSWER: a 19. According to _____, the act of smiling will probably make you feel happier. a. intrinsic motivation b. the facial feedback hypothesis c. the universality hypothesis d. extrinsic motivation ANSWER: b 20. A group of anthropologists discovered a cultural-linguistic group of people living in a remote area of a South American jungle. The group had never been exposed to the outside world before. The anthropologists initially greeted the people with a smile. They believe that emotional expressions have the same meaning for everyone. In this case, to which belief do these anthropologists subscribe? a. the universality hypothesis b. the two-factor theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. the hedonic principle d. the drive-reduction theory ANSWER: a 21. Researchers have identified two dimensions of emotion: a. positive valence and negative valence. b. high arousal and low arousal. c. valence and arousal. d. positive and negative. ANSWER: c 22. Angelo is a mixed martial artist. He is about to fight Petra, the heavyweight champion. Angelo is terrified of Petra, but he looks confident and smiles at Petra as the referee tells them the rules before the match. In this scenario, Angelo is using the _____ technique. a. intensification b. deintensification c. masking d. neutralizing ANSWER: c 23. Which characteristic refers to how positive a feeling is? a. emotion b. arousal c. motivation d. valence ANSWER: d 24. Ralston just got the highest grade on a tough exam in his philology class. He is ecstatic beyond words; he studied so hard and wanted to do so well, and it all paid off! However, he doesn't want to appear unseemly in front of his classmates, especially those who didn't perform as well. When asked how he did on the exam, Ralston replies, "I did quite well…I'm very pleased . . . yes, this was satisfactory to me." Which display rule was Ralston relying on in this situation? a. intensification b. deintensification c. happiness d. neutralizing ANSWER: b 25. Which characteristic refers to how energetic a feeling is? a. emotion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. arousal c. sensation d. valence ANSWER: b 26. An observer trained in detecting facial expressions is likely to look at the _____ to tell if someone is smiling sincerely or just faking a smile. a. lips b. entire mouth c. eyes d. forehead ANSWER: c 27. Which statement about polygraph tests is false? a. It is only possible for trained experts to "beat" these tests. b. Their results are based entirely on an individual's physiological response to stress. c. Increasing the sensitivity of the test increases the likelihood that it will incorrectly report that someone is lying. d. They are the most reliable instruments for detecting when a person is lying. ANSWER: d 28. Jennifer is feeling afraid. This emotion is _____ in terms of arousal and has a _____ valence. a. high; positive b. low; positive c. low; negative d. high; negative ANSWER: d 29. Regis was upset about the bad grade he got on his first psychology exam. Because he had another test to take that day and did not want his unhappiness to affect his later performance, Regis thought about all the good grades he had received before in order to make himself feel better. This example illustrates: a. the terror management theory. b. the approach–avoidance conflict. c. the two-factor theory. d. emotion regulation. ANSWER: d 30. How would Clark Hull explain the behavior of a rat pressing a lever for food pellets? a. The lever-press action has been classically conditioned in the rat. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. The lever-press action is an instinctive behavior. c. The rat is decreasing its hunger drive. d. The rat is stimulating the ventromedial hypothalamus. ANSWER: c 31. People who have been diagnosed with cancer who focus on their recovery may be more likely to experience fewer side effects of chemotherapy than are people who focus on the treatment itself. This phenomenon likely reflects _____ of the treatment from a negative to a positive event. a. masking b. appraisal c. reappraisal d. intensification ANSWER: c 32. Which emotion has high arousal and a negative valence? a. anger b. satisfaction c. calmness d. gladness ANSWER: a 33. The _____ receives the signal for hunger. a. thalamus b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. cerebellum ANSWER: c 34. The _____ claims that people seek pleasurable experiences and avoid painful experiences. a. approach motivation b. universality hypothesis c. two-factor theory d. hedonic principle ANSWER: d 35. Which emotion has high arousal and positive valence? a. astonishment b. contentment c. satisfaction Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice d. relaxed ANSWER: a 36. Amber gets stressed easily. When she does get stressed, she eats an entire carton of ice cream, gobbles up a bag of potato chips, and drinks a 2-liter bottle of soda. She then forces herself to vomit so that she does not absorb all those calories. Amber would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. obesity. d. ghrelin deficiency syndrome. ANSWER: a 37. Which statement about anorexia is true? a. People with anorexia have an intense fear of being overweight. b. Anorexia is culturally determined and is not biologically influenced. c. Anorexia is associated with damage to the lateral hypothalamus. d. People with anorexia tend to binge eat and then purge. ANSWER: a 38. Which emotion has low arousal and negative valence? a. depression b. happiness c. relaxed d. content ANSWER: a 39. During the stages of sex, the physiological responses experienced by females: a. are greater than those experienced by males. b. are similar to those experienced by males. c. occur in a different sequence than they do for males. d. are weaker than those experienced by males. ANSWER: b 40. People who are _____ motivated tend to enjoy their work more and often are more creative with the work they do. a. extrinsically b. intrinsically c. avoidance d. approach Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 41. Which emotion has low arousal and positive valence? a. calmness b. happiness c. astonishment d. excitement ANSWER: a 42. Studying hard for an exam to get good grades and a scholarship is an example of: a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. homeostasis. d. emotion regulation. ANSWER: a 43. _____ refers to conscious or unconscious evaluations and interpretations of the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus or event. a. Appraisal b. Reappraisal c. Action d. Reaction ANSWER: a 44. As a task becomes more difficult, the motivation for engaging in the task becomes more: a. extrinsic. b. intrinsic. c. general. d. specific. ANSWER: d 45. According to terror management theory, being reminded of the inevitability of our own mortality: a. increases existential terror. b. strengthens cultural worldviews. c. reduces religiosity. d. strengthens aversion loss. ANSWER: b 46. Which is NOT an aspect of anger that could classify it as a positive emotion? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. It causes people to approach rather than avoid. b. It lowers stress hormone levels in the body. c. People who are angry often want to stay angry. d. There are many negative effects related to anger. ANSWER: d 47. Roughly 94% of communication via the Internet expresses: a. surprise. b. anger. c. sadness. d. happiness. ANSWER: b 48. A readiness to engage in a specific set of emotion-related behaviors is known as _____ tendencies. a. action b. appraisal c. reaction d. reappraisal ANSWER: a 49. Janice is cleaning out her garage when she suddenly hears a loud noise. She instantly stops moving. This is an example of a(n) _____ tendency. a. action b. appraisal c. reaction d. reappraisal ANSWER: a 50. Armin is browsing the Internet when he comes across a picture of a person eating a fried spider. He immediately closes his eyes and turns his head away from the computer. This is an example of a(n) _____ tendency. a. action b. appraisal c. reaction d. reappraisal ANSWER: a 51. William James argued that different emotional experiences are the result of different: a. expectancies about a situation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. physiological responses. c. interpretations of the same physiological response. d. histories of reinforcement and punishment. ANSWER: b 52. Certain drugs suppress the activity of the sympathetic nervous system, the branch of the autonomic nervous system associated with increases in heart rate, respiration, and adrenaline release. If a drug could block this system altogether, the James–Lange theory of emotion would predict that: a. emotions could not be experienced. b. negative-valence emotions could not be experienced. c. high-arousal emotions could not be experienced. d. the physiological changes accompanying the experienced emotion might be missing. ANSWER: c 53. Professor Braida agrees with the James–Lange theory of emotion and believes that emotional experiences are triggered by: a. conditioned stimuli. b. expectancies. c. physiological activity. d. high-valence events. ANSWER: c 54. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion, an emotional experience is the _____ of physiological activity in the autonomic nervous system. a. cause b. trigger c. opponent-process d. consequence ANSWER: d 55. The James–Lange theory of emotion asserts that a person will not experience _____ without first experiencing _____. a. physiological activity; emotion b. interpretation of an event; emotion c. emotion; interpretation of an event d. emotion; physiological activity ANSWER: d 56. Phan Duc has been laughing and smiling all day, and seems exceptionally happy today. According to the _____ theory of emotion, Phan Duc is happy as a result of smiling and laughing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. Schachter–Singer d. Skinner–Watson ANSWER: a 57. While walking through the dense woods, observing the fauna, Dee Dee feels something brush up against him from behind. His heart and respiration rates spike. Immediately thereafter, he becomes very fearful. This sequence of events BEST illustrates which theory or emotional experience? a. Cannon–Bard b. James–Lange c. Smith–Schaefer d. two-factor ANSWER: b 58. A few minutes before the kick-off, Kyle, who is on the football team, experiences a racing heart. A few seconds later, he begins to feel nervous. This sequence of events BEST illustrates which theory of emotional experience? a. Cannon–Bard b. James–Lange c. LeDoux–Damasio d. two-factor ANSWER: b 59. Reginald stumbles onto a snake while hiking in the woods. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion, he will first _____ and then _____. a. experience fear; cognitively process the sighting b. cognitively process the sighting; experience fear c. experience fear; react physiologically d. react physiologically; experience fear ANSWER: d 60. Which theory of emotion states that a stimulus simultaneously triggers activity in the body and emotional experience in the brain? a. Klüver–Bucy b. James–Lange c. Cannon–Bard d. two-factor ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 61. Glenda, a sophomore in high school, is walking home from school. Alex, one of the "cool" seniors, approaches her and asks to walk with her. All of a sudden, she experiences a feeling of excitement and, at the exact same time, she notices that her heart is pounding. This sequence of events is MOST consistent with which theory of emotion? a. Cannon–Bard b. Skinner–Watson c. James–Lange d. LeDoux–Gazzaniga ANSWER: a 62. Five minutes before the game begins, a soccer player's heart starts racing, and at the exact same time, they start feeling nervous. This sequence of events BEST illustrates which theory? a. Cannon–Bard b. James–Lange c. Smith–Schaefer d. two-factor ANSWER: a 63. Which statement does NOT provide a reason that Walter Cannon and Philip Bard disagreed with the James– Lange theory? a. The reaction of bodily responses is too slow to account for the rapid onset of emotional experience. b. We often have trouble detecting differences in our own bodily responses, so we are not likely to experience these changes as emotion. c. Because nonemotional stimuli can also trigger bodily responses, we should also feel emotions when we have a fever. d. Emotions may occur in the absence of physiological arousal, so emotions should be felt continuously. ANSWER: d 64. Certain drugs suppress the activity of the sympathetic nervous system, the branch of the autonomic nervous system associated with increases in heart rate, respiration, and adrenaline release. If a drug could block this system altogether, the Cannon–Bard theory of emotional experience would predict that: a. all emotions could not be experienced. b. negative-valence emotions could not be experienced. c. high-arousal emotions could not be experienced. d. all emotions could still be experienced. ANSWER: d 65. Research on emotional experience has led to the conclusion that: a. the James–Lange theory has no merit. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. the Cannon–Bard theory has no merit. c. both the James–Lange and the Cannon–Bard theories were correct in some aspects. d. the James–Lange theory is discredited, whereas the Cannon–Bard theory is fully supported. ANSWER: c 66. Roxanne believes that emotional experiences are completely independent of physiological events. Her view adheres to the _____ theory. a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Lange c. Cannon–Bard d. two-factor ANSWER: c 67. The fact that many first dates at exciting sporting events blossom into romantic relationships is BEST predicted by which theory of emotion? a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Lange c. Cannon–Bard d. two-factor ANSWER: d 68. Diego takes his date to an amusement park, where they ride the roller coaster, the tilt-a-whirl, the parachute drop, and the skyhook. As they're coming down from the Enormo-Ferris-Wheel his date says, "I've never felt more attracted to you than right now!" This expression of emotion is BEST predicted by which theory of emotion? a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Lange c. Cannon–Bard d. two-factor ANSWER: d 69. Which statement BEST reflects our current understanding of emotion and the body? a. Physiological arousal causes emotions. b. Cognitive processes, not physiological arousal, cause emotions. c. Bodily activity and mental activity are both the cause and consequence of emotional experiences. d. Bodily activity and mental activity both cause emotional experiences. ANSWER: c 70. Dr. McGillicuddy thinks that subjective emotional states are determined by the labels people attach to their internal feelings of arousal. She is MOST likely to subscribe to the _____ theory of emotion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. two-factor d. Skinner–Watson ANSWER: c 71. Who FIRST proposed the two-factor theory of emotion? a. William James and Carl Lange b. Walter Cannon and Philip Bard c. Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer d. William James and Walter Cannon ANSWER: c 72. The primary difference between the two-factor theory and the older theories of emotion is that the twofactor theory emphasizes: a. physiological changes. b. cognitive interpretations. c. overt behaviors. d. classical conditioning. ANSWER: b 73. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, the mind interprets: a. emotion. b. the importance of stimuli in the environment. c. specific physiological "fingerprints" associated with emotion. d. general physiological arousal. ANSWER: d 74. James–Lange is to Schachter–Singer as _____ is to _____. a. cognitive processes; emotion b. autonomic reactivity; labeling of emotional states c. autonomic reactivity; physiological activity d. labeling of emotional states; cognitive processes ANSWER: b 75. According to Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer, the emotion experienced by participants who were injected with adrenaline and then exposed to a confederate of the experimenter who acted giddy was due to: a. activation of the amygdala in the participant. b. the behavior of the confederate, not the adrenaline. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. activation of the frontal cortex by the adrenaline. d. the participant interpreting the arousal as having positive valence. ANSWER: d 76. Isaac wants to exploit findings consistent with the Schachter–Singer theory to maximize his chances that sparks will fly on his first date with Sam. What might Isaac do? a. take Sam on a roller coaster ride b. buy Sam flowers c. arrive 10 minutes late to pick Sam up d. wear a red shirt ANSWER: a 77. Which statement about specific emotions and physiological reactivity is true? a. All emotions show the same basic pattern of physiological reactivity. b. Anger produces the largest decrease in finger temperature. c. Fear and disgust produce a higher galvanic skin response (sweating) than do sadness or anger. d. Anger, fear, and sadness produce a lower heart rate than does disgust. ANSWER: c 78. While performing surgery, Heinrich Klüver and Paul Bucy accidentally damaged the amygdala of a monkey named Aurora, inadvertently causing the monkey to: a. become hypersexual. b. stop eating. c. react in fear to snakes. d. react in fear when handled by experimenters. ANSWER: a 79. While performing surgery, Heinrich Klüver and Paul Bucy accidentally damaged the amygdala of a monkey named Aurora. The MOST striking feature of Aurora's behavior after the surgery was that she: a. refused to eat nutritious food, preferring food that was spoiled. b. lost all interest in sex. c. stopped fearing snakes but increased her fear of humans. d. was extraordinarily calm in the presence of stimuli that previously elicited fear. ANSWER: d 80. What was the MOST important finding related to emotion that came from Heinrich Klüver and Paul Bucy's research with monkeys? a. Results suggested that the amygdala plays a role in the emotion of fear. b. Results suggested that the frontal lobe plays a role in the emotion of fear. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. Results suggested that the amygdala plays a role in the emotion of happiness. d. Results suggested that the frontal lobe plays a role in the emotion of happiness. ANSWER: a 81. _____ is an evaluation of the emotion-relevant aspects of a particular stimulus. a. Appraisal b. Labeling c. Regulation d. Valence ANSWER: a 82. Which brain structure plays the MOST critical role in the appraisal of emotions? a. the cerebellum b. the amygdala c. the hippocampus d. the sensorimotor cortex ANSWER: b 83. Recent research suggests that the PRIMARY role of the amygdala appears to be to: a. monitor the need for a food stimulus. b. facilitate short-term memory. c. provide evolutionary information to the frontal cortex. d. appraise the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus. ANSWER: d 84. People who experience damage to their amygdalae do not feel fear when __________ but do feel fear when __________. a. they encounter a naturally feared stimulus; they encounter an artificially constructed fearful stimulus b. they see a threat; they experience a threat c. they experience a threat; they see a threat d. they encounter an artificially constructed fearful stimulus; they encounter a naturally feared stimulus ANSWER: b 85. Abigail has experienced damage to her amygdala. She would MOST likely have __________ memory for emotionally evocative words compared to someone with an intact amygdala. a. poorer b. better c. the same d. a more easily disrupted Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 86. The so-called fast emotion pathway leads from the _____ directly to the amygdala. a. hypothalamus b. pituitary gland c. pineal gland d. thalamus ANSWER: d 87. The so-called fast pathway leads from the _____ directly to the amygdala, whereas the so-called slow pathway leads from the thalamus to the _____ and then to the amygdala. a. hypothalamus; cerebellum b. pituitary gland; thyroid gland c. pineal gland; hypothalamus d. thalamus; cortex ANSWER: d 88. The so-called slow emotion pathway begins in the _____, travels to the _____, and then finally reaches the _____. a. thalamus; amygdala; cortex b. thalamus; cortex; amygdala c. cortex; thalamus; amygdala d. amygdala; thalamus; cortex ANSWER: b 89. Which researcher conducted pioneering research on the "fast" and "slow" emotional pathways? a. Elliott Musselman b. Walter Cannon c. Joseph LeDoux d. E. C. Morehouse ANSWER: c 90. Manolo is walking in the woods when he stumbles upon a large snake. His brain transmits information about the snake to the _____ through two routes, the "fast" pathway and the "slow" pathway. a. frontal lobe b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. pituitary gland ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 91. The neuronal connections between the thalamus and the amygdala allow us to: a. recognize the location of a stimulus. b. make rapid decisions about our environment without having to wait for cortical input. c. analyze the identity and importance of the stimulus. d. compare the visual image of the stimulus with known threat images. ANSWER: b 92. Because the amygdala receives information from the thalamus before it receives information from the cortex, you: a. are hard-wired to fear animals such as snakes. b. can be afraid of something without knowing exactly what it is. c. would be best served to delay making important decisions for 24 hours. d. will have fast emotional responses only to life-and-death situations. ANSWER: b 93. What is the role of the cortex in a fear response to a stimulus? a. It initiates the fear response. b. It is involved in the fast pathway that immediately triggers an increase in heart rate. c. It either stops or sustains the fear response once the threat has been identified. d. It is a part of the slow pathway that opposes the fast pathway. ANSWER: c 94. Laurel was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in her sustaining a severe head injury. Following a limited recovery from the accident, the family has been advised that the damage to Laurel's _____ will likely make it difficult for her to inhibit her emotions. a. thalamus b. cortex c. hypothalamus d. amygdala ANSWER: b 95. Gretel has been asked to inhibit imagined emotions, such as fear or happiness. This will show elevated activity of the _____ but decreased activity of the _____. a. amygdala; cortex b. hypothalamus; thalamus c. cortex; amygdala d. thalamus; hypothalamus ANSWER: c 96. Our facial musculature allows for _____ unique configurations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. 10 b. 16 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 ANSWER: d 97. An observable sign of an emotional state is referred to as an emotional: a. expression. b. appraisal. c. valence. d. display rule. ANSWER: a 98. Charles Darwin proposed the universality hypothesis, which argues that: a. all individuals process emotions in the same way. b. appraisal of stimuli causes a universal reaction. c. all animals exhibit emotions. d. emotional expressions have the same meaning for everyone. ANSWER: d 99. Charles Darwin's universality hypothesis is supported by scientific studies in which: a. animals accurately react to the emotional expressions of other animals. b. people accurately judge the emotional expressions of members of other cultures. c. all individuals react with fear when they see a spider. d. people find it difficult to identify anger outside their own culture. ANSWER: b 100. Our _____ is the MOST powerful nonverbal channel of communicating emotion. a. face b. posture c. gait d. gaze direction ANSWER: a 101. Regarding emotional expressions, which statement is false? a. Congenitally blind people exhibit deficits in emotional expression. b. Newborn infants exposed to a bitter taste make a face of disgust. c. People are quite accurate at judging the emotional expressions of members of other cultures. d. Preliterate cultures are just as accurate at gauging emotional expression as are literate cultures. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 102. Although there is some disagreement among psychologists, research has confirmed that the facial displays of at least _____ emotions are universal. a. 5 b. 12 c. 16 d. 46 ANSWER: a 103. Which emotion is NOT thought to be universal? a. anger b. humility c. disgust d. sadness ANSWER: b 104. Which emotion is NOT thought to be universal? a. happiness b. fear c. satisfaction d. sadness ANSWER: c 105. What do these five emotions have in common: happiness, sadness, fear, anger, and disgust? a. They are expressed very differently in Eastern and Western cultures. b. They are universally reflected in facial expressions. c. They are learned within the first 3 years of life. d. They all have a positive valence. ANSWER: b 106. While on an expedition in the jungle, your party encounters a group of people who have never contacted the outside world, cannot read or write, converse in a language that you do not recognize, and are pointing sharp weapons at you. What is the BEST way of communicating that you are not a threat? a. trying to converse in sign language b. holding your hands up over your head c. smiling at them d. drawing a "peace" sign in the dirt ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 107. Recent research suggests that the emotional meaning of facial expressions across cultures is: a. entirely consistent, illustrating the universality of emotion. b. mostly consistent but not perfect. c. consistent at levels slightly greater than chance. d. mostly consistent only in Western cultures. ANSWER: b 108. A smile is a(n) _____ of happiness. a. symbol b. sign c. linguistic expression d. arbitrary representation ANSWER: b 109. Facial expressions of genuinely felt basic emotions _____ the experiences that they signify. a. are culturally agreed upon symbols b. are caused by c. work in opposition to d. are arbitrary representations of ANSWER: b 110. According to the facial feedback hypothesis: a. emotional expressions can cause emotional experiences. b. emotional experiences produce emotional expressions. c. facial expressions are poor indicators of emotional experience. d. facial expressions are symbols that provide others with information about an individual's emotional state. ANSWER: a 111. Which statement about the facial feedback hypothesis is false? a. Making the sound of a long e can make you feel happier. b. Holding a pencil with your teeth can make you feel happier. c. Smiling may cause you to feel happier. d. Holding a pencil with your lips can make you feel happier. ANSWER: d 112. Dr. Biro explained to her students that holding a pen in their teeth would make them feel happier. What is the main reason for this phenomenon? a. Holding a pen in your teeth sends emotion signals to the pleasure center in the brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. Holding a pen in your teeth contracts the muscles of the face in the same way as a smile. c. Feeling silly with a pen in your mouth causes you to feel happier. d. Seeing others' reactions to the pen in your mouth causes you to feel happier. ANSWER: b 113. Jerry is feeling sad. To help Jerry feel better, his roommate Bobette—who has just learned of the facial feedback hypothesis—tells Jerry to: a. open a thesaurus and slowly pronounce words that are synonyms of happiness. b. apply a cold compress to his right cheek for 30 minutes. c. hold a pencil in his pursed lips for a few minutes. d. display a smile every few minutes. ANSWER: d 114. Consistent with the facial feedback hypothesis, when people are asked to arch their brows, they find facts that they read in a textbook more: a. understandable. b. memorable. c. surprising. d. important. ANSWER: c 115. Consistent with the facial-feedback hypothesis, when people are asked to wrinkle their noses, they: a. are more judgmental of others' actions. b. find odors more unpleasant. c. can better discriminate among a variety of pleasant-smelling odors. d. demonstrate superior recall of emotional memories. ANSWER: b 116. Damon, in a fit of road rage, runs another motorist off the road. Approaching the car, Damon is incensed and starts screaming at the other driver. Consistent with the facial-feedback hypothesis, Damon perceives the other driver to be: a. hostile. b. terrified. c. surprised. d. upset. ANSWER: a 117. The main reason people often mimic the facial expressions of others is that: a. doing so has been reinforced from an early age. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. it facilitates the formation of like-minded groups. c. it lets others know that they feel the same way about an issue. d. it helps them figure out what others are feeling. ANSWER: d 118. Because of neurological damage from a stroke, Harold can no longer smile. As a result, Harold: a. experiences happiness but cannot easily express it. b. can express happiness equally well despite the fact that he cannot experience it. c. can feel happiness but cannot verbalize it. d. has problems experiencing happiness. ANSWER: d 119. Terra has experienced damage to her _____. She is now less likely to be able to recognize expressions of fear and anger in the faces of other people. a. spinal cord b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. somatosensory cortex ANSWER: b 120. Display rules are the norms for the: a. duration of time society allows a person to grieve. b. appropriate expression of emotion. c. development of emotional expression with age. d. reinforcement of emotional behavior. ANSWER: b 121. A judge uses the display rule of _____ to prevent showing an emotion during court arguments that they vigorously oppose. a. neutralizing b. deintensification c. prioritizing d. masking ANSWER: a 122. Jessie is playing poker. Which display rule is he MOST likely to use when interacting with others at the table? a. intensification b. deintensification Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. neutralizing d. prioritizing ANSWER: c 123. Amarah received a gift for her birthday that she did not like. It was a DVD for a movie that she has already seen and thought was horrible. However, Amarah expressed excitement and thanks to the person who bought her the gift, demonstrating the display rule of: a. deintensification. b. masking. c. neutralizing. d. intensification. ANSWER: b 124. Although members of the soccer team were crushed when they lost the championship, they tried not to look as upset as they felt. Which display rule were they using? a. deintensification b. masking c. neutralizing d. intensification ANSWER: a 125. Although Principal Morris is only slightly irritated with Jamie, the class clown, she expresses anger at Jamie's behavior. Which display rule is Principal Morris using? a. deintensification b. masking c. neutralizing d. intensification ANSWER: d 126. Alexander is a con artist who marries older women and then robs them of their money. When Gertrude, his current wife, expresses her love, Alexander is filled with disgust. Yet he tries to look at her affectionately as he says, "I love you, too, my beautiful flower." Which display rule is Alexander using? a. deintensification b. masking c. neutralizing d. intensification ANSWER: b 127. Spartans were instructed never to outwardly express emotion, no matter what they were feeling. Spartans tended to use which display rule? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. opposition b. masking c. neutralizing d. intensification ANSWER: c 128. In _____ cultures, there is a strong norm against displaying _____ emotions in the company of a respected person. a. Western; positive b. Eastern; negative c. Western; negative d. Eastern; positive ANSWER: b 129. Which muscle raises the corners of the mouth when smiling? a. orbicularis oculi b. frontalis major c. zygomaticus major d. procerus ANSWER: c 130. Which muscle crinkles the corners of the eyes when smiling? a. orbicularis oculi b. nasalis c. zygomaticus major d. risorius ANSWER: a 131. Juano is smiling and the corners of his eyes are crinkled. Which muscles are responsible for that? a. orbicularis oculi b. procerus c. mentalis d. zygomaticus major ANSWER: a 132. Michelle is smiling and the corners of her mouth are raised. Which muscles are responsible for this? a. depressor anguli oris b. zygomaticus major c. masseter Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice d. orbicularis oculi ANSWER: b 133. Which characteristic indicates to a trained observer that a person's smile is NOT sincere? a. The smile includes a crinkling of the corners of their eyes. b. The smile is slightly lopsided. c. The smile lasts for about 3 seconds. d. The smile engages the zygomatic major muscle. ANSWER: b 134. "Reliable muscles" associated with emotional expression are so termed because they: a. are always involved when we fake an emotional expression. b. can stay contracted for longer than 30 seconds. c. are not engaged during simple microexpressions. d. tend to resist conscious control. ANSWER: d 135. With respect to deceptive expression, people have a strong bias: a. toward believing that others are sincere. b. against believing the veracity of statements from strangers. c. against believing the veracity of statements from younger people. d. toward skepticism when evaluating whether someone is telling the truth. ANSWER: a 136. One of the few things that Americans share is the need for: a. approval. b. appraisal. c. emotion regulation. d. two word names. ANSWER: d 137. The United States is: a. one of the most culturally diverse nations on earth. b. a county with few communication challenges. c. a country with no universal emotional expressions. d. one of the least culturally diverse nations on earth. ANSWER: a 138. One of the challenges related to diversity is: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. appraisal. b. communication. c. integration. d. hyphenation. ANSWER: b 139. Which nation has low cultural diversity? a. Japan b. the United States c. Brazil d. Australia ANSWER: a 140. Which nation has low cultural diversity? a. Ethiopia b. Canada c. Australia d. the United States ANSWER: a 141. Which statement is true? a. The less diverse a culture is, the more easily the facial expressions of its members can be understood by members of other cultures. b. The less diverse a culture is, the easier it is for outgroup members to communicate and understand ingroup members. c. The more diverse a culture is, the more easily the facial expressions of its members can be understood by members of other cultures. d. The more diverse a culture is, the harder it is for its members to be understood when traveling to visit other cultures. ANSWER: c 142. In nations with little cultural diversity, people can communicate with _____ because everyone knows and follows the same _____. a. subtle expressions; display rules b. overt expressions; facial expressions c. subtle expressions; neutralizing rules d. overt expressions; neutralizing rules ANSWER: a 143. In nations with _____, people follow different sets of _____. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. less cultural diversity; motivations b. greater cultural diversity; rules of communication c. less cultural diversity; emotions d. no cultural diversity; display rules ANSWER: b 144. Marla believes that she can easily determine if someone is lying to her, because she knows which verbal and nonverbal cues to look for. If Marla is correct about her ability, she should be paying attention to an interaction partner's _____ to see if it reveals signs of deception. a. speech hesitation b. rate of smiling c. high-pitched voice d. eye blinking ANSWER: c 145. Kayla thinks she is an excellent lie detector, because she knows which nonverbal and verbal cues to pay attention to. Unfortunately, Kayla is wrong. Which behavior would Kayla think is associated with lying, but actually is NOT? a. the use of illustrators while speaking b. looking away from a conversation partner c. smiling and laughing d. a slow speech rate ANSWER: b 146. The correlation between a person's ability to detect lies and the person's confidence in that ability is: a. moderately positive. b. strongly positive. c. strongly negative. d. essentially zero. ANSWER: d 147. Which statement about polygraph lie detection is true? a. Polygraphs can detect lies with greater-than-chance accuracy. b. Lie detectors are slightly worse than are humans at detecting when people are lying. c. Polygraphs are rarely used by businesses and government agencies. d. Polygraphs have an extremely low false-positive error rate. ANSWER: a 148. Which is the BEST reason against using polygraph machines at airports to detect terrorists? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. Research has failed to demonstrate that polygraph machines can detect liars at greater than chance levels. b. People can be trained to beat a polygraph; we would never catch a single terrorist. c. We would detain thousands of innocent people for every terrorist that we identified. d. It is estimated that the polygraph would add 20 minutes to the check-in process. ANSWER: c 149. _____ refers to the internal causes of purposeful behavior. a. Emotion b. Motivation c. Expression d. Cognition ANSWER: b 150. _____ are natural tendencies for members of a species to seek a particular goal, according to _____. a. Motives; Walter Cannon b. Drives; Charles Darwin c. Instincts; William James d. Impulses; Sigmund Freud ANSWER: c 151. According to William James, which is a false statement about instinctive behavior? a. Instinctive behavior meets particular goals relevant to the organism. b. Instinctive behavior requires foresight into how best to bring about a particular goal. c. Instinctive behavior is not learned. d. Organisms do not think about when to behave instinctually. ANSWER: b 152. Which statement regarding behaviorists and behavior based on instincts is NOT true? a. Behaviorists believed that an appeal to instincts did not constitute an explanation of behavior. b. Behaviorists focused on external, not internal, causes of behavior. c. Behaviorists believed that complex behavior was learned. d. Behaviorists rejected the theory of natural selection. ANSWER: b 153. Researchers complained about William James's conception of the instinct for a number of reasons, but NOT because: a. the term was used in a variety of different ways. b. it could not describe social behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. it could do little in the way of explaining behavior. d. it was inconsistent with behaviorism. ANSWER: b 154. An internal state caused by physiological needs is called a(n): a. drive. b. instinct. c. need. d. hedonic principle. ANSWER: a 155. Ping Li seeks food at 2 a.m. when he feels hungry. Based on the notion of homeostasis, hunger would be considered a(n) _____ in this instance. a. drive b. instinct c. reinforcer d. want ANSWER: a 156. When Suruthi feels hot, she turns on the air conditioning. Based on the notion of homeostasis, Suruthi's internal physiological state is a(n): a. drive. b. instinct. c. reinforcer. d. want. ANSWER: a 157. Which psychologist is MOST closely associated with a drive-reduction account of motivation? a. Carl Lange b. Clark Hull c. John B. Watson d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: b 158. A system that engages in homeostasis, when confronted with an increase in a particular state, will: a. initiate processes to further enhance that state. b. initiate processes to decrease that state. c. shut down. d. attempt to identify the causes of the enhanced state. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 159. When a rat presses a lever, it occasionally produces a food pellet. The rat presses the lever hundreds of times, earning many food pellets. Clark Hull would argue that lever pressing is reinforced by the: a. expectation of the food pellet. b. taste of the food pellet. c. feel of the depressed lever. d. reduction in hunger. ANSWER: d 160. The tendency for a system to take action to keep itself in equilibrium is termed: a. homeostasis. b. drive reduction. c. the hierarchy of needs. d. motivation. ANSWER: a 161. Which theory proposes that the primary motivation of all organisms is to reduce their drives? a. the James–Lange theory b. the Cannon–Bard theory c. the two-factor theory d. the drive-reduction theory ANSWER: d 162. According to the _____, a reinforcement is any substance or commodity in the environment that satisfies a need, which reduces a drive. a. James–Lange theory b. Cannon–Bard theory c. two-factor theory d. drive-reduction theory ANSWER: d 163. Which term refers to the strategies that people use to influence their own emotional experience? a. active appraisal b. cognitive control c. emotion regulation d. behavioral control ANSWER: c 164. Terrence quickly becomes upset when his kickball coach yells at him and pulls him off the field. While Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice sitting on the sidelines a few minutes later, Terrence tells himself that the coach is only trying to make him a better kickball player. He begins to feel better, illustrating the process of: a. reappraisal. b. emotional communication. c. suppression. d. affect labeling. ANSWER: a 165. Appraisal is to reappraisal as: a. right is to wrong. b. amygdala is to cortex. c. thalamus is to cortex. d. fight is to flight. ANSWER: b 166. Angry because she has to endure a social psychology class she finds dreadfully boring, Marilynn decided to use reappraisal to change her emotional state about the class. Which action BEST illustrates this process? a. pledging to go jogging each day after class b. thinking of the course as preparation for her future career c. making a date to meet friends for lunch before class d. forming a study group that meets weekly ANSWER: b 167. When his parents repeatedly ask him about being home on time, Rudy finds that he feels better emotionally if he reappraises the situation and: a. returns home early. b. ignores the question. c. interprets the question as a sign of caring. d. suppresses his frustration. ANSWER: c 168. Inhibiting the outward signs of emotion is termed _____ and has been demonstrated to be an _____ technique for emotional regulation. a. suppression; effective b. suppression; ineffective c. repression; effective d. repression; ineffective ANSWER: b 169. Identifying one's moods and emotions is termed _____ and has been demonstrated to be an _____ Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice technique for emotional regulation. a. affect labeling; effective b. affect labeling; ineffective c. reappraisal; effective d. reappraisal; ineffective ANSWER: a 170. Shortly before taking the stage for the annual dance recital, Yolanda notices that she is extremely nervous. She decides to consciously attempt not to think about her feelings. This is a technique of emotional regulation termed: a. affect labeling. b. displacement. c. reappraisal. d. suppression. ANSWER: d 171. Frustrated by the outcome of a political election, Catarina decides to write an essay to herself describing her feelings. Catarina is employing the emotional regulation technique of: a. affect labeling. b. displacement. c. reappraisal. d. suppression. ANSWER: a 172. Both emotion and motivation share a common Latin root: a. to feel. b. know thyself. c. to move. d. express freely. ANSWER: c 173. Emotion and motivation are functionally connected in that: a. people are motivated to act because of their emotions. b. highly motivated people tend to express little emotion. c. being motivated causes one to experience emotion. d. emotion inhibits motivated action. ANSWER: a 174. Compared to the others, which person is MOST likely to believe that they will win the $300 million lottery prize? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice a. Agnetha, who just lost her job and worries about how she will pay the bills b. Jiro, who is extremely happy because he just went on a wonderful first date c. Sonya, a statistician working for an investment firm d. Raj, who has been diagnosed with clinical depression ANSWER: b 175. The hedonic principle refers to the observation that humans are motivated to: a. pass on their traits to their offspring. b. gain knowledge. c. take risks. d. seek pleasure and avoid pain. ANSWER: d 176. Ada chooses activities that give her pleasure. However, she regularly submits to painful allergy shots. How does the hedonic principle BEST explain this apparent contradiction? a. The pleasure of receiving relief from allergies outweighs the pain of having the shots. b. Ada has built up a tolerance to the injections and no longer feels the pain. c. The pain of the injections outweighs the pleasure of receiving relief from allergies. d. The pain from the injection provides useful information about the quality of Ada's day. ANSWER: a 177. According to the hedonic principle, we are likely to: a. experience emotion in the same way as do our parents. b. see ourselves as overweight, even when we are of average weight. c. fill our academic schedules with difficult coursework. d. skip an early morning class if we already have an "A" in it. ANSWER: d 178. According to the hedonic principle, we are likely to: a. ignore the information provided to us by emotion. b. spend more time with people we enjoy being around. c. confront painful memories, even if doing so does not have tangible benefits. d. choose physically stimulating activities over psychologically stimulating activities. ANSWER: b 179. Which Greek philosopher is BEST known for espousing the hedonic principle? a. Aristotle b. Socrates c. Pythagoras Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice d. Anaximander ANSWER: a 180. Which summary BEST describes emotion regulation? a. the tendency for a system to take action to keep itself in equilibrium b. the strategies people use to influence their own emotional experience c. the claim that people are motivated to experience pleasure and avoid pain d. the strategies people use to elicit emotional expressions from others ANSWER: b 181. _____ out of 10 people report that they attempt to regulate their emotional experience at least once a day. a. One b. Three c. Five d. Nine ANSWER: d 182. People have reported _____ strategies used for emotion regulation. a. a few b. more than 1,000 different c. 5 basic d. only 100 different ANSWER: b 183. Which activity involves inhibiting the outward signs of an emotion? a. affect labeling b. displacement c. reappraisal d. suppression ANSWER: d 184. Changing one's emotional experience by changing the way one thinks about the emotion-eliciting stimulus is referred to as: a. affect labeling. b. displacement. c. reappraisal. d. suppression. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 185. Dr. Lopez is a therapist who helps clients reassess their emotional problems as a pathway toward more successful emotion regulation. She is likely to teach which skill to her clients? a. affect labeling b. displacement c. reappraisal d. suppression ANSWER: c 186. Which pairing is a CORRECT match of a person and a theory? a. Sigmund Freud and homeostasis b. Abraham Maslow and hierarchy of needs c. John B. Watson and instinct theory d. William James and psychoanalytic theory ANSWER: b 187. Erick is struggling to make enough money to be able to provide shelter and clothing for his family. According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Erick is attempting to meet which of his needs? a. belongingness and love b. esteem c. safety and security d. self-actualization ANSWER: c 188. According to Abraham Maslow, _____ needs are the first to be satisfied, whereas _____ needs are the last. a. esteem; safety and security b. self-actualization; belongingness c. belongingness; physiological d. physiological; self-actualization ANSWER: d 189. The drive to eat is referred to as: a. hunger. b. thirst. c. homeostasis. d. an instinct. ANSWER: a 190. _____ is a hormone produced in the stomach that initiates hunger. a. Oxytocin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. Ghrelin c. Insulin d. Adrenaline ANSWER: b 191. Which statement about ghrelin is false? a. It is produced by the stomach. b. It signals the brain to turn hunger on. c. Its release impairs learning and memory while we are hungry. d. It causes those who are injected with it to eat about 30% more than usual. ANSWER: c 192. _____ stimulates eating, whereas _____ suppresses it. a. Leptin; ghrelin b. Leptin; glucagon c. An anorexigenic signal; an orexigenic signal d. An orexigenic signal; an anorexigenic signal ANSWER: d 193. Anorexigenic is to orexigenic as: a. ghrelin is to leptin. b. satiety is to hunger. c. lateral hypothalamus is to ventromedial hypothalamus. d. obesity is to starvation. ANSWER: b 194. A person injected with ghrelin might be expected to: a. become extremely thirsty but not necessarily hungry. b. shun food, even after going several days without it. c. become intensely hungry. d. experience slight increases in hunger accompanied by an insatiable thirst. ANSWER: c 195. Which statement about leptin is true? a. It is secreted by fat cells. b. It signals the brain to switch hunger on. c. When injected into rats, it leads to obesity. d. It increases the reinforcing value of food. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 196. Which statement about leptin is true? a. It is produced in the stomach. b. It signals the brain to switch hunger on. c. When injected into rats, it leads to obesity. d. It decreases the reinforcing value of food. ANSWER: d 197. After Randy followed a hearty dinner with two pieces of lemon meringue pie, it's likely that his body sent an _____ signal to his _____ hypothalamus. a. anorexigenic; lateral b. orexigenic; lateral c. anorexigenic; ventromedial d. orexigenic; ventromedial ANSWER: c 198. The lateral hypothalamus in Henrikus's brain just received an orexigenic signal. Henrikus probably: a. just finished a large meal consisting of predominantly protein and fat. b. just finished a large meal consisting of predominantly carbohydrates. c. has gone a number of hours without eating. d. just ate something that he finds disgusting. ANSWER: c 199. The ventromedial hypothalamus in Mia's brain just received an anorexigenic signal. Mia probably: a. just finished eating dessert after a large meal. b. just saw a commercial featuring sugary desserts. c. just smelled a warm apple pie. d. has not eaten for a number of hours. ANSWER: a 200. When the lateral hypothalamus is destroyed, rats will: a. press a bar for food to the point of exhaustion. b. overeat to the point of regurgitation. c. starve to death in a cage full of food. d. eat excessive amounts of sugary food but avoid foods high in protein. ANSWER: c 201. Following a major cerebral vascular accident, Donaldo developed obesity. In investigating the cause of the obesity, the physician may determine that the _____ was damaged in the accident. a. ventromedial hypothalamus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. ventral occipital area c. ventrolateral area of the thalamus d. lateral hypothalamus ANSWER: a 202. Daria has trouble controlling her impulses to eat, especially at night. Once she starts, she cannot stop. Often, she will eat an entire large pizza or gallon of ice cream before bed. She does not try to compensate for this excess caloric consumption; as such, she is gaining weight. Daria would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. binge-eating disorder. b. impaired thyroid activity. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: a 203. Lexie is a severely underweight 7th-grader who nonetheless believes she is fat. Lexie would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. ghrelin deficiency syndrome. b. a metabolic disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: c 204. Wilhelmina is severely dieting, despite the fact that she appears emaciated. Wilhelmina believes she can stand to lose several more pounds and thus maintains an extremely restricted caloric intake. Wilhelmina would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. ghrelin deficiency syndrome. b. a metabolic disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: c 205. Carl frequently eats unusually large amounts of snack foods and then makes himself vomit. Carl would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. binge eating disorder. b. impaired thyroid activity. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: d 206. After binging and consuming an entire pizza, Kristin takes several laxatives so that she purges the calories Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice the next morning. Kristin routinely does this and would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. binge eating disorder. b. impaired thyroid activity. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. ANSWER: d 207. Gisela has been diagnosed with anorexia. It is NOT likely that she can be described as: a. high-achieving. b. impulsive. c. being a perfectionist. d. having a distorted body image. ANSWER: b 208. Compared to the others, who is statistically MOST at risk for developing anorexia? a. Igor, a 16-year-old boy on the swim team b. Loretta, a 45-year-old woman who has problems controlling her impulses c. Sierra, a 16-year-old girl who makes top grades in all her classes d. Charles, a 30-year-old salesperson who is looking for a serious relationship ANSWER: c 209. America's most damaging and common eating-related problem is: a. high-protein diets. b. anorexia nervosa. c. bulimia nervosa. d. obesity. ANSWER: d 210. Which conclusion is a true statement about the prevalence of obesity over the past few decades? a. Although obesity rates in the United States are increasing, rates in the rest of the world are decreasing. b. The proportion of overweight teens has tripled. c. Belgium is one country that has managed to substantially lower its obesity rate. d. Rates of obesity have increased for men but not women. ANSWER: b 211. A person whose body mass index (BMI) is over _____ would be categorized as having obesity. a. 10 b. 20 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. 30 d. 40 ANSWER: c 212. With respect to people with obesity, which statement is false? a. They are judged more negatively by their interaction partners than people who do not have obesity are judged by their interaction partners. b. On average, they earn 20% less yearly income than do those who do not have obesity. c. They have lower self-esteem than do those who do not have obesity. d. They have a lower quality of life than do those who do not have obesity. ANSWER: b 213. Which statement about obesity is true? a. Overeating is the only cause of obesity. b. There is a strong genetic component to obesity. c. Approximately 10 million Americans die each year from obesity-related illnesses. d. Obesity is associated with high self-esteem. ANSWER: b 214. Julian has extreme obesity. His body does not respond to signals to shut off hunger. Julian's body is _____resistant. a. leptin b. ghrelin c. cortisol d. testosterone ANSWER: a 215. Children who are raised in low-socioeconomic status (SES) households are at a(n): a. decreased risk for developing physical ailments associated with obesity. b. decreased risk for developing hypertension and diabetes. c. increased risk of developing obesity as adults. d. decreased risk for developing mental health issues related to poverty. ANSWER: c 216. Research examining eating habits and socioeconomic status (SES) concluded that: a. children who grow up in middle-class households later develop eating disorders related to excess availability of food. b. children who grow up in affluent households eat in excess because food is almost always available to them. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. children who grow up in poverty cannot always count on having steady access to food, so they learn to eat when food is available and not to wait until they are hungry. d. there is no link between SES level and later obesity rates in adulthood. ANSWER: c 217. The idea that traits that were adaptive in an ancestral environment may be maladaptive in a modern environment is referred to as: a. homeostasis. b. drive reduction. c. reappraisal. d. evolutionary mismatch. ANSWER: d 218. A survival mechanism to avoid starvation that evolved in our ancestors is: a. preference for green vegetables. b. ghrelin resistance. c. storing excess calories as fat. d. increasing the metabolism when hungry. ANSWER: c 219. Our ancestors from a million years ago preferred to eat: a. calorie-rich foods. b. green vegetables. c. plants more than animals. d. foods low on the glycemic index. ANSWER: a 220. Part of the challenge in combating obesity is that: a. calorie-rich foods have become inexpensive and abundant. b. preparing foods that contribute to obesity takes a lot of time and culinary skill. c. finding foods that provide basic caloric needs remains a challenge for most people, especially in the United States. d. there are no clear guidelines on how to lose weight or maintain a healthy lifestyle. ANSWER: a 221. Obesity is difficult to counteract in the current era because: a. opportunities for exercise are virtually nonexistent in our modern world. b. high-calorie food is easy to obtain and inexpensive to purchase. c. there are no clear guidelines regarding the necessary caloric intake to maintain adult health. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice d. it is seen as trendy, fashionable, and a sign of prosperity. ANSWER: b 222. The rate at which the body uses energy is called: a. digestion. b. absorption. c. metabolism. d. rumination. ANSWER: c 223. After we acquire a certain level of body fat, it is difficult to lose the fat. A key reason that our body resists weight loss is that: a. we prefer low-energy foods. b. leptin levels rise during a fast, which makes us hungrier. c. ghrelin levels drop during a fast, which stimulates fat deposition. d. dieting tends to decrease our metabolism. ANSWER: d 224. Weight gain is associated with an increase in the _____ of fat cells. Weight loss is associated with a decrease in the _____ of fat cells. a. number; size b. number and size; size c. number and size; number d. size; size ANSWER: b 225. Many studies have shown that "small nudges" to lose weight, such as placing higher caloric items further away on the salad bar: a. result in rapid weight loss. b. are ineffective at inducing weight loss. c. result in meaningful weight loss over time. d. result in weight gain if people judge the nudge negatively. ANSWER: c 226. The hormone responsible for the initial onset of sexual desire, typically at about the age of 10 for both girls and boys, is: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. DHEA. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice d. progesterone. ANSWER: c 227. Hormones involved in sparking sexual interest and in the changes associated with puberty do NOT include: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. DHEA. d. ghrelin. ANSWER: d 228. Sexual desire is MOST regulated by _____ in male rats and _____ in female rats. a. testosterone; testosterone b. testosterone; estrogen c. DHEA; estrogen d. DHEA; progesterone ANSWER: b 229. Females of most mammalian species (among them dogs, cats, and rats) are MOST interested in sex when they: a. are ovulating. b. feel a strong urge to reproduce. c. have low testosterone and low estrogen levels. d. have high testosterone and low estrogen levels. ANSWER: a 230. An important difference in sexual behavior between female rats and female humans is that: a. female rats do not have a menstrual cycle. b. female rats are interested in sex only during ovulation. c. female humans are not interested in sex during ovulation. d. female humans are interested in sex only during ovulation. ANSWER: b 231. Research has indicated that _____ may be the hormonal basis of the sex drive in women, and _____ may be the hormonal basis of the sex drive in men. a. estrogen; estrogen b. estrogen; testosterone c. testosterone; testosterone d. testosterone; estrogen Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 232. Which statement about sexual interest is false? a. Women given testosterone will show a decrease in sexual interest. b. Men masturbate more often than do women. c. Women have less permissive attitudes toward sex than do men. d. Men tend to have and want more sexual partners than do women. ANSWER: a 233. Which pairing is a CORRECT match of investigators and a research topic? a. John B. Watson and B. F. Skinner—unconscious sexual motivation b. Daniel M. Wegner and Robin R. Vallacher—employee motivation c. William Masters and Virginia Johnson—physiological measures of human sexual activity d. David McClelland and John C. Atkinson—hierarchy of needs ANSWER: c 234. During the _____ phase of the human sexual response cycle, blood flow to the sexual organs increases. a. resolution b. plateau c. orgasm d. excitement ANSWER: d 235. The stages of physiological arousal during sexual activity in people is referred to as the: a. evolutionary mismatch theory. b. sexual metabolic response. c. human sexual response cycle. d. sexual motivation cycle. ANSWER: c 236. The CORRECT sequence of the phases of the human sexual response cycle is: a. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution. b. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm. c. orgasm, plateau, excitement, resolution. d. resolution, orgasm, plateau, excitement. ANSWER: a 237. Which statement about human sexual activity is true? a. Women rarely fake orgasms. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. Men experience ejaculation during the excitement phase. c. The sexual refractory period is longer for men than it is for women. d. Some 15% of men have never experienced an orgasm. ANSWER: c 238. In terms of the reasons people report for having sex: a. men and women tend to be fairly similar. b. men are more likely than are women to provide "I was horny" as a reason. c. women are more likely than are men to provide "I was attracted to the person" as a reason. d. men rarely provide reasons associated with affection or love. ANSWER: a 239. Research indicates that the primary reason given for deciding to have sex with a person among both male and female college students is: a. "It's fun." b. "It feels good." c. "I was attracted to the person." d. "I realized that I was in love." ANSWER: c 240. Arayna is a sexually active college student. She MOST likely would give which reason for choosing to have sex? a. "It's fun." b. "I wanted to please my partner." c. "I was attracted to the person." d. "I felt horny." ANSWER: c 241. Although people have sex for a variety of reasons, which is MOST often reported by women and men in surveys of college students? a. a means to an end b. emotional connection c. physical attraction d. to alleviate insecurity ANSWER: c 242. A married couple with hectic jobs regularly schedules their sexual activity to make sure that they are having sex several times a week. This couple probably schedules their sexual activity for which reason? a. as a means of conflict resolution Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. to maintain their emotional connection c. to experience physical pleasure d. to alleviate insecurity ANSWER: b 243. A(n) _____ motivation is a motivation to take actions that are themselves rewarding. a. needs-based b. emotions-based c. intrinsic d. extrinsic ANSWER: c 244. A(n) _____ motivation encourages taking actions that lead to a reward. a. needs-based b. emotions-based c. intrinsic d. extrinsic ANSWER: d 245. Mark puts in long hours studying for his psychology tests. He already has an "A" in the course, but he really has a desire to know the material well. Mark's behavior is a characteristic of the: a. extrinsic motivation. b. drive-reduction theory. c. intrinsic motivation. d. incentive-motivation theory. ANSWER: c 246. Ten-year-old Casey loves to read, whether she is rewarded for it or not. This is an example of: a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. unconscious motivation. d. motivated drive reduction. ANSWER: b 247. Extrinsic motivation is illustrated when we: a. work at a job to earn money that can buy food. b. eat a french fry because it tastes good. c. exercise because it feels good. d. listen to music that we enjoy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 248. A kindergarten teacher who gives students sugar-free lollipops when they finish their coloring is using _____ to motivate them. a. an extrinsic reward b. an intrinsic reward c. an unconscious motivation d. achievement motivation ANSWER: a 249. An advantage of extrinsic motivation to increase a behavior is that it: a. increases reports of liking the behavior, even after rewards are discontinued. b. is consistent with societal views that we should do what we love. c. allows us to engage in things we otherwise would not do but that may nonetheless be beneficial. d. results in a greater intrinsic motivation to engage in that behavior. ANSWER: c 250. The ability to _____ is a better predictor of school grades than is _____. a. work hard; social class b. delay gratification; IQ score c. control emotions; IQ score d. delay gratification; social class ANSWER: b 251. Which statement does NOT describe an advantage of intrinsic motivation? a. It is effective at motivating people to do something that they otherwise would not do. b. People work harder when intrinsically motivated. c. People enjoy what they do more when intrinsically motivated. d. It is associated with greater creativity while engaged in the behavior. ANSWER: a 252. A problem with using rewards to motivate behavior is that rewards: a. increase the behavior instead of decrease it. b. have been shown to not alter motivation levels. c. may undermine intrinsic motivation. d. may undermine extrinsic motivation. ANSWER: c 253. Edward Deci (1971) studied college students intrinsically motivated to complete a puzzle. Some participants were paid for completing the puzzle and others were not. Relative to the students who were not Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice paid, the students who received payment were: a. more likely to report enjoying the puzzle. b. more likely to solve the puzzle. c. less likely to solve the puzzle. d. less likely to play with the puzzle after the study. ANSWER: d 254. Some school districts across the United States are considering paying children to attend school. This strategy is likely to _____ because it makes an _____ activity into an _____ activity. a. succeed; intrinsic; extrinsic b. succeed; extrinsic; intrinsic c. fail; extrinsic; intrinsic d. fail; intrinsic; extrinsic ANSWER: d 255. Parents decide to implement the following plan to reduce swearing in their two adolescent children. Each time a child swears, they are fined a penny. Results from the motivation literature suggest that this strategy is likely to _____ because _____. a. succeed; pennies add up to large fines over time b. succeed; it provides an extrinsic reason not to swear c. fail; it decreases the intrinsic reinforcement associated with saying swear words d. fail; mild threats can actually increase the desirability of taboo behavior ANSWER: d 256. A rock guitarist no longer derives the same enjoyment from playing, although they recently launched a world tour with their band. The guitarist's _____ motivation to play has been _____ by the fortune and fame of rock-and-roll. a. intrinsic; decreased b. intrinsic; increased c. conscious; increased d. extrinsic; decreased ANSWER: a 257. After she became a professional basketball player making lots of money, Vicki felt like playing was her job and was no longer fun. Despite this, she practices hard and was recently named to the All-Star team. It appears that her _____ motivation to play has been _____ by her salary. a. intrinsic; increased b. intrinsic; decreased c. conscious; increased d. extrinsic; decreased Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 258. Research has shown that _____ threats of punishment for a behavior may actually increase _____ motivation to engage in that behavior. a. intrinsic; intrinsic b. intrinsic; extrinsic c. extrinsic; intrinsic d. extrinsic; extrinsic ANSWER: c 259. Day care centers that have implemented small fines when parents are tardy in picking up their children have reported that tardiness _____, MOST likely because the _____ motivation for being on time has been _____. a. decreases; extrinsic; increased b. decreases; intrinsic; increased c. increases; extrinsic; reduced d. increases; intrinsic; reduced ANSWER: d 260. Shelley agrees with the idea that "I go out of my way to get things I want." This indicates that she has a strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic ANSWER: d 261. A motivation of which we are aware is a(n): a. extrinsic motivation. b. conscious motivation. c. need for achievement. d. intrinsic motivation. ANSWER: b 262. A motivation of which we are unaware is a(n) _____ motivation. a. unconscious b. symbolic c. dynamic d. intrinsic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 263. The desire to experience a sense of accomplishment by meeting one's goals is termed: a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. achievement motivation. d. approach motivation. ANSWER: c 264. Achievement motivation is often classified as a form of a(n) _____ motivation. a. extrinsic b. intrinsic c. conscious d. unconscious ANSWER: d 265. Achievement motivation can act as an unconscious motive, because by definition it is: a. at the forefront of most people's awareness. b. a primary motive in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. c. a motive that doesn't influence behavior to too great of an extent. d. often a motivation of which people are not aware. ANSWER: d 266. An unconscious motivation is one that: a. is indistinguishable from an instinct. b. can influence behavior, but do so outside of awareness. c. influences thought but not behavior. d. takes the form of a drive that needs to be reduced. ANSWER: b 267. When an action is easy, we tend to be more aware of _____ motivations for performing that action. a. general b. specific c. implicit d. explicit ANSWER: a 268. When an action is difficult, we tend to be more aware of _____ motivations for performing that action. a. general Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. specific c. implicit d. explicit ANSWER: b 269. The motivation to experience positive outcomes is termed: a. explicit motivation. b. the need for achievement. c. approach motivation. d. implicit motivation. ANSWER: c 270. The motivation not to experience a negative outcome is termed: a. avoidance motivation. b. the need for achievement. c. explicit motivation. d. implicit motivation. ANSWER: a 271. Quincy is a professional tennis player who plays the game extremely hard because he is terrified of failing and losing his starting job. Quincy's behavior BEST illustrates: a. avoidance motivation. b. the need for achievement. c. approach motivation. d. implicit motivation. ANSWER: a 272. Cyrinda is a struggling actor who views each audition as a chance to be discovered and signed to a contract. Cyrinda's behavior BEST illustrates _____ motivation. a. avoidance b. unconscious c. approach d. implicit ANSWER: c 273. Modern psychological theory views pleasure as: a. more important than is pain in motivating behavior. b. existing independently of pain. c. simply the absence of pain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice d. an unconscious motivating force for many behaviors. ANSWER: b 274. All else being equal, _____ tend to be more powerful than are _____. a. approach motivations; avoidance motivations b. extrinsic motivations; intrinsic motivations c. avoidance motivations; approach motivations d. rewards; punishments ANSWER: c 275. If given the opportunity to bet on a coin flip that would pay them $100 if they are right and cost them $80 if they are wrong, most people _____ take the bet because _____. a. will; the odds are stacked in their favor b. will; the majority of people like to gamble c. will not; they will lose 50% of the time d. will not; losing $80 feels worse than does winning $100 ANSWER: d 276. The tendency to care more about avoiding losses than about achieving equal-size gains is termed: a. impulsivity. b. loss aversion. c. fear of success. d. drive reduction. ANSWER: b 277. Grocery stores in the Washington, DC, area attempted to get shoppers to reuse their bags either by providing a 5-cent credit for doing so or by imposing a 5-cent tax for not reusing their bags. Which statement about the results of this policy is correct? a. The credit but not the tax significantly increased bag reuse. b. The tax but not the credit significantly increased bag reuse. c. Both manipulations equally increased bag reuse. d. Both manipulations significantly increased bag reuse, but the tax was more effective. ANSWER: b 278. People take _____ risks to _____ than they do to _____. a. fewer; avoid losses; achieve gains b. fewer; reduce drives; achieve gains c. more; achieve gains; avoid losses d. more; avoid losses; achieve gains Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 279. Risk taking is increased when choice scenarios are discussed in terms of: a. potential losses. b. potential gains. c. long-term versus short-term consequences. d. extrinsic motivation. ANSWER: a 280. Prevention focus is to _____ as promotion focus is to _____. a. emotion; motivation b. avoidance; approach c. unconscious; conscious d. long term; short term ANSWER: b 281. Existential terror deals with the: a. fear of marriage. b. inevitability of death. c. anxiety associated with sex. d. horrors associated with war. ANSWER: b 282. Delilah tends to think in terms of achieving gains. She can be said to be: a. prevention focused. b. intrinsically motivated. c. avoidance focused. d. promotion focused. ANSWER: d 283. Matsui tends to think in terms of avoiding loss. He can be said to be: a. prevention focused. b. intrinsically motivated. c. avoidance focused. d. promotion focused. ANSWER: a 284. Those people who tend to think in terms of achieving gains can be said to be: a. prevention focused. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice b. intrinsically motivated. c. avoidance focused. d. promotion focused. ANSWER: d 285. Those people who tend to think in terms of avoiding loss can be said to be: a. prevention focused. b. intrinsically motivated. c. avoidance focused. d. promotion focused. ANSWER: a 286. Marcellus disagrees with the idea that "I worry about making mistakes." This indicates that he has a strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic ANSWER: c 287. Juanito disagrees with the idea that "Criticism or scolding hurts me quite a bit." This indicates that he has a strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic ANSWER: c 288. According to terror management theory, we manage our existential terror by creating: a. artificial approach–avoidance conflicts. b. extrinsic sources of motivation. c. cultural worldviews. d. prenuptial agreements. ANSWER: c 289. According to terror management theory, _____ is a shield that buffers us against the anxiety that knowledge of our own mortality creates. a. the mortality-salience hypothesis b. approach motivation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice c. avoidance motivation d. a cultural worldview ANSWER: d 290. According to terror management theory, which factor would NOT be a cultural worldview? a. Christianity b. a public opinion poll on preferences between two presidential candidates c. shared beliefs about what is right and wrong d. shared hopes of a symbolic immortality held even by atheists ANSWER: b 291. Amir subscribes to the doctrines of the Islamic faith. According to terror management theory, if reminded of the inevitability of his own physical death, Amir probably will: a. convert to another religion. b. abandon religion entirely. c. grow stronger in his Islamic faith. d. deny the inevitability of his own physical death. ANSWER: c 292. The theory that explains how people respond to knowledge of their own mortality is referred to as: a. the James–Lange theory. b. the Pauken–Hansen theory. c. terror management theory. d. unconscious motivation theory. ANSWER: c 293. A shared set of beliefs about what is good and right and true is known as: a. a cultural worldview. b. universality perspective. c. an approach orientation. d. mortality salience. ANSWER: a 294. The idea that people who are reminded of their own mortality are especially motivated to hang on to their cultural worldviews is a fundamental component of: a. a flawed cultural worldview. b. the universality perspective. c. having an approach orientation. d. terror management theory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 295. Professor Solomon has just completed a research study and found that participants who were reminded of their own mortality by seeing the word death flashed quickly on a screen, along with 10 other words, were more likely to report more negative views regarding breastfeeding. These results lend support for: a. the inaccuracies of holding a flawed cultural worldview. b. the universality perspective. c. having an approach orientation. d. terror management theory. ANSWER: d 296. Professor Micklethwaite has just completed a research study and found that participants who were reminded of their own mortality by seeing the word death flashed quickly on a screen, along with 10 other words, were more likely to report more patriotic attitudes compared to those who were not reminded of death. These results lend support for the: a. the inaccuracies of holding a flawed cultural worldview. b. the universality perspective. c. having an approach orientation. d. terror management theory. ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 8 Scenario Use Scenario 8.1 to answer the following question(s). Emotion can be defined as a temporary state that includes unique subjective experiences and physiological activity, and that prepares people for action. The nature of at least part of this definition—physiological activity—has been intensely debated throughout the history of psychological science. An early theory of emotion was proposed by William James and Carl Lange, who argued that stimuli trigger different patterns of physiological activity in the body, and these, in turn, produce different emotional experiences in the brain. Contemporaneously, Walter Cannon and Philip Bard argued that a stimulus independently produces both physiological activity in the body and an emotional experience in the brain. Several decades later, Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer argued that both of these theories were only partially correct. According to their two-factor theory, Schachter and Singer postulated that stimuli produce general physiological arousal that is then interpreted. Inferences about the causes of the arousal lead to an emotional experience. 1. (Scenario 8.1) According to the _____ theory, emotion is the _____ of physiological arousal. a. Cannon–Bard; consequence b. Cannon–Bard; cause c. James–Lange; consequence d. James–Lange; cause ANSWER: c 2. (Scenario 8.1) Which statement is entirely consistent with the James–Lange theory of emotion? a. Embarrassment is perceived before blushing begins. b. We experience many more emotions than the physiological changes accompanying them. c. Anger and fear produce similar increases in heart rate. d. Happiness and sadness are associated with different physiological responses. ANSWER: c 3. (Scenario 8.1) According to the _____ theory/theories, a perception of bodily arousal is NOT required to experience emotion. a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. James–Lange and Cannon–Bard d. two-factor ANSWER: b 4. (Scenario 8.1) Which statement is NOT consistent with the Cannon–Bard theory of emotion? a. People with quadriplegia often report blunted emotional experiences to stimuli. b. Alone on a dark street, the sound of approaching footsteps causes fear and increases walking pace. c. Riding a roller coaster with your romantic partner might produce feelings of passion. d. At an action-adventure movie, we interpret heart rate increases in terms of excitement. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Scenario ANSWER: a 5. (Scenario 8.1) Which statement is NOT consistent with the two-factor theory of emotion? a. The range of emotional experiences exceeds the range of physiological responses to stimuli. b. Muscle pain is interpreted as desirable while lifting weights at the gym but considered worrisome while sitting at one's desk. c. Emotion is partly the product of the brain being exquisitely sensitive to subtle differences in physiological arousal. d. Anger and fear produce similar increases in heart rate. ANSWER: c 6. (Scenario 8.1) Recent research using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) shows that different patterns of cortical activity are associated with different emotions. This fact is consistent with _____ theory/theories of emotion. a. only the James–Lange b. only the two-factor c. the Cannon–Bard and two-factor d. the James–Lange, Cannon–Bard, and two-factor ANSWER: d Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). The model of emotion is based on the following work: LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B is used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 7. (Scenario 8.2) Which definition of a learned fear response is operational? a. the A-B-C pathway with the structures correctly identified b. 10 pairings of the tone and shock, with a 5-milliamp shock occurring 1 second after each tone presentation c. an increase in heart rate elicited by the tone alone as measured by an implantable telemetry device d. freezing behavior that occurs after the shock, as measured by locomotor counts in the pressuresensitive floor of a testing apparatus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Scenario ANSWER: c 8. (Scenario 8.2) In this fear-conditioning paradigm, what constitutes the unconditioned stimulus? a. shock b. tone c. increased heart rate elicited by the tone d. freezing behavior elicited by the shock ANSWER: a 9. (Scenario 8.2) Brain structure A corresponds to the: a. cerebellum. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. corpus callosum. ANSWER: b 10. (Scenario 8.2) Brain structure B corresponds to the: a. cortex. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. hippocampus. ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 8.2) Brain structure C corresponds to the: a. cortex. b. amygdala. c. thalamus. d. medulla. ANSWER: b 12. (Scenario 8.2) Damage to the slow pathway may result in an inability: a. for dangerous stimuli to elicit a fear response. b. for innocuous stimuli to elicit a fear response (i.e., a false alarm). c. to make split-second distinctions between dangerous and innocuous stimuli. d. to curtail a fear response after it is initiated. ANSWER: d Scenario 8.3 is based on and presents data consistent with the following study: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Scenario Homonoff, T. A. (2013). Can small incentives have large effects? The impact of taxes versus bonuses on disposable bag use. Working Papers. Princeton University. Industrial Relations Section; 575. Motivation can be unconscious or conscious, extrinsic (motivated by consequences of the behavior) or intrinsic (motivated by the behavior itself), and approach- or avoidance-oriented. Avoidance motivation is stronger than approach motivation: People care more about avoiding losses than they do about achieving equal-size gains. This concept is termed loss aversion. Tatiana Homonoff (2013) studied grocery stores in Washington, DC, that attempted to get their customers to reuse their shopping bags by giving them a 5-cent bonus when they did so, or imposing a 5-cent tax when they did not, both the bonus and the tax, or neither of these things. The results are shown in Figure 8.1. Figure 8.1

13. (Scenario 8.3) It appears that about 13% of grocery shoppers demonstrate an _____ motivation to use reusable bags. a. unconscious b. extrinsic c. intrinsic d. avoidance ANSWER: c 14. (Scenario 8.3) The tax policy relies on _____ motivation and appears to have been _____ at getting customers to reuse their bags. a. avoidance; effective only when combined with the bonus b. intrinsic; effective c. conscious; effective only when combined with the bonus d. avoidance; effective ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 8 Scenario 15. (Scenario 8.3) The bonus policy relies on _____ motivation and appears to have been _____ at getting customers to reuse their bags. a. approach; effective b. intrinsic; effective c. approach; relatively ineffective d. intrinsic; relatively ineffective ANSWER: c 16. (Scenario 8.3) Based on these results, a grocery store manager who wants to increase customers reusing bags while at the same time cutting the greatest amount of costs should: a. simply adopt the tax policy. b. adopt the tax plus bonus policy, but decrease the bonus to approximately 2 cents. c. adopt the tax plus bonus policy, but increase the bonus to approximately 10 cents. d. only reward loyal customers who already have been reusing their bags with the bonus. ANSWER: a 17. (Scenario 8.3) What pattern of customer behavior is consistent with loss aversion? a. Customers complain when the promotional bonus for reusing bags ends. b. Customers complain when they have to pay a 5-cent tax on bags. c. Customers shop more and spend more money when the tax policy ends. d. Customers reuse bags to avoid a tax but do not reuse bags to earn an equal-size bonus. ANSWER: d 18. (Scenario 8.3) Suppose that 15% of the customers at another grocery store reliably reuse their bags. In order to increase this behavior, the grocery store began giving a 5-cent bonus for reusing bags. This increased bag reuse to 18%. Store management decided that this was not a meaningful increase and discontinued the policy, after which bag reuse dipped to under 10%. Which factor was MOST likely responsible for this decrease in bag reuse below the normal rate of 15%? a. the discontinuation of the bonus policy b. conscious motivations becoming unconscious c. extrinsic motivation decreasing intrinsic motivation d. intrinsic motivation decreasing extrinsic motivation ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 9 Essay 1. Human language results from the complex interplay of several characteristics. These characteristics include phonemes, phonological rules, morphemes, grammar, morphological rules, and syntactical rules. Discuss each of these aspects of human language, providing an example of each and noting how all these elements work together. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) Phonemes are the smallest units of sound that are recognizable as speech instead of as random noise. An example of a phoneme is the "B" sound. (2) Phonological rules govern how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds. An example of a phonological rule is the "ph" sound, indicating "f" in many languages. (3) Morphemes are the smallest meaningful units of language. "Bat" is an example. (4) Grammar refers to a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages. Two categories of these rules are morphological rules and syntactical rules. (5) Morphological rules govern how morphemes can be combined to form words. Content morphemes refer to things, such as "saw," "neck," and "pain." Function morphemes serve grammatical functions, such as tying together phrases and clauses with words like "and" or "but." (6) Syntactical rules govern how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences. An example of a syntactical rule in English is that each sentence must have one noun and one verb at a minimum. (7) All of these elements of language work together. For example, phonemes combine to form morphemes, but they do so following phonological rules. Morphemes are the basis for words, and words are strung together in sentences following grammatical rules, such as morphological and syntactical rules. The end result of all of this combination of elements is the ability for a speaker and a listener of a given language to generally understand one another.

2. Describe the major language milestones between birth and 60 months of age. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) From birth to 4 months, an infant can tell the

difference between speech sounds (phonemes) and make sounds known as "cooing" in response to speech sounds. (2) Between 4 and 6 months, a child begins to babble consonants. (3) Between 6 and 10 months, a child begins to understand some words and simple requests. (4) At 10 to 12 months, a child begins to use single words. (5) Around 12 to 18 months, a child develops a vocabulary of 30 to 50 words (simple nouns, adjectives, and action words). (6) At 18 to 24 months, a child typically talks in two-word phrases ordered according to the syntactic rules and has a vocabulary of about 50 to 200 words. (7) At 24 to 36 months of age, a child has a vocabulary of about 1,000 words and can produce phrases and incomplete sentences. (8) Between 36 and 60 months of age, a child's vocabulary grows to more than 10,000 words, and the child has the ability to produce full sentences and has mastered grammatical morphemes and function words. The child also can form questions and negations.

3. Compare behaviorist and nativist explanations for language development. What are the basic arguments of each position? What evidence is there supporting each position? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Behaviorist explanations of language development focus on the role of operant conditioning in shaping and maintaining language. The main argument is that language use, similar to any other behavior, gets shaped and reinforced in the environment. As such, eventually a vocabulary of words and a repertoire of sentences and phrases develop. (2) The nativist position argues that language development is an innate, biological capacity. According to this view, human brains are equipped with a language acquisition device, which facilitates language learning, especially within critical periods of development. (3) Although the behaviorist account offers a simple, intuitive explanation for language development, there is very little research evidence to support it. In fact, there are at least three forms of evidence that argue very strongly against a behaviorist interpretation. First, parents don't spend much time teaching their children to speak grammatically, suggesting that direct reinforcement of phrases and sentences doesn't occur very often. Second, children can generate many more grammatical sentences than they ever hear. This suggests that a small set of rules (perhaps innate) is responsible for language production, instead of the piecemeal reinforcement of individual sentences. Third, children's speech errors tend to be nonetheless grammatical, suggesting that they are overgeneralizations of a small set of grammatical rules. (4) Some evidence in favor of the nativist position is that first, people with genetic dysphasia show the types of difficulties in language development that would be predicted from the existence of a biological capacity, and second, newborn infants can contrast the phonemes that are heard in all human languages. Both of these lines of evidence point to an innate, biological mechanism.

4. Give the approximate locations of Broca's area and Wernicke's area in the brain. Compare and contrast the language deficits of people who have Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Essay ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Broca's area is located in the left frontal cortex. (2) Wernicke's area is located in the left temporal cortex. (3) People with Broca's aphasia have great difficulties in speech production. Typically, they speak in short phrases consisting mostly of content morphemes. Function morphemes are largely absent. These people can understand language relatively well, although there are some deficits in comprehending grammatically complex sentences. (4) People with Wernicke's aphasia differ from people with Broca's aphasia in two major ways. First, they can produce grammatically correct speech; however, this speech tends to be meaningless. Second, they have tremendous difficulty comprehending even relatively simple sentences.

5. Describe the successes and limitations of attempts to teach nonhuman animals, particularly apes, human language. Note similarities and differences between language acquisition in apes and humans. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Early attempts to teach apes spoken human language failed because their vocal tracks cannot accommodate the sounds used in human language. (2) Researchers have been successful at teaching chimpanzees and bonobos human language, using either American Sign Language (ASL) or geometric keyboard systems. Using ASL, the Gardners taught a female chimpanzee named Washoe approximately 160 words. Washoe could communicate in simple sentences. Using a geometric keyboard system, Savage-Rumbaugh and colleagues taught a male bonobo named Kanzi several hundred words and thousands of word combinations. (3) Language acquisition in apes is similar to language acquisition to humans in a number of ways. First, there appears to be a critical period in language development. Both Washoe and Kanzi were relatively young when they began to learn human language. Older chimpanzees have great difficulty learning human language. Second, apes can transmit language to other members of their species. For example, a young chimpanzee named Loulis learned the meaning of 68 signs simply by watching Washoe. Third, apes can combine words to form meaningful novel word combinations. Fourth, the passive mastery of language is greater than active mastery is in both apes and humans. Apes can grasp the meaning of grammatically complex sentences that they, themselves, could not generate. (4) There also are a number of important differences between the language acquisition of apes and humans. For example, the size of the vocabulary that apes can acquire is much less than humans. Kanzi had a vocabulary of hundreds of words; the average 4-year-old has a vocabulary of 10,000 words. Apes can master names for concrete objects and simple actions. They cannot map a word to an abstract term such as "justice." The complexity of the grammar that apes can use is considerably simpler than that of human children. The sentence constructions of apes rarely exceed three or four words, and when they do, these sentences are rarely grammatically correct.

6. Compare and contrast the prototype and exemplar theories of concepts and categories. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) The prototype theory uses family resemblance theory as a starting point and further proposes that there is a "best" or "most typical" member of the category (e.g., a prototype). A prototype possesses most (or all) of the characteristic features of the category. Other potential members of a category are compared to the prototype; the extent to which the potential member "matches" a prototype influences our decision to include that member in the category. For example, in North America, a robin is a fairly prototypical bird; its size, shape, song, and coloring represent what most people think of as a "typical bird." When determining if a new animal belongs to the category of "bird," we compare it with the prototype. For example, birds that share many similarities with robins (such as wrens) are more likely to be judged as "birds" than are those that share fewer similarities (such as ostriches). (2) In contrast with the prototype theory, the exemplar theory holds that we make category judgments by comparing a new instance with stored memories for other instances of the category. In other words, we compare new items with stored memories of other members of the same category. Imagine that we saw an eagle swoop down from the sky and attack a small rodent. Further imagine that we do not know the word eagle and have never seen one before. We do see, however, that the creature has feathers and wings, making it a possibility that this creature belongs to the "bird" category. When we evaluate this possibility, in addition to comparing the present animal to our prototype bird (the robin), we also compare it to other exemplars already in this category. If we have previously categorized hawks as birds, then by noting the similarities between the new animal and the exemplar hawk, we likely will classify this animal as a bird, despite it being somewhat dissimilar to the prototype.

7. Describe how prototypes and exemplars are processed differently in the brain. Then, give several examples of how damage to specific brain regions can result in category-specific deficits. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) The left hemisphere of the brain is involved in forming prototypes, and the right hemisphere is mainly involved in recognizing exemplars. In addition, the left visual cortex is involved in forming prototypes, whereas the prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia are involved in learning exemplars. This Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Essay suggests that categorization based on exemplars depends on analysis and decision making (activities associated with the prefrontal cortex), and prototype learning involves image processing. (2) A category-specific deficit refers to the inability to recognize objects that belong to a particular category, although the ability to recognize objects outside the category is undisturbed. Damage to the front part of the left temporal lobe may result in difficulty identifying humans. Damage to the lower left temporal lobe may result in difficulty identifying animals. Finally, damage to the region where the temporal lobe meets the occipital and parietal lobes impairs the ability to identify tools.

8. There are many mindbugs associated with the decision-making process. These include cognitive heuristics, such as availability and representativeness, and fallacies such as the conjunction fallacy. Discuss each of these three mindbugs, in turn, describing how they operate and how they sometimes lead us astray. Are there any cognitive advantages associated with these decision-making strategies? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) There are many potential pitfalls associated with decision making. Some of these take the form of heuristics, which are fast and efficient cognitive strategies, which may or may not produce a solution. (2) The availability heuristic occurs when items that are more readily accessed in memory are judged as having occurred more frequently. For example, people think that the causes of death that are very vivid (and thus more available in memory), such as ritualistic slayings by a serial killer, occur more frequently than they actually do. It only takes one example of a child being abducted from their yard to make parents extremely nervous about letting their own children play outside; they falsely believe these abductions are happening "all the time" because the rare example is so horrific. (3) The representative heuristic is another mental shortcut that can lead us astray. It occurs when we judge the probability of an event based on how representative it is of some larger mental category. So, for example, suppose that a stranger named Ned is extremely outgoing, boisterous, clumsy, and funny. You have to decide if Ned is more likely to be a professional clown or a worker in the health care industry. Because the description of Ned more closely approximates the description of a clown, you conclude that Ned probably is a clown. In doing so, you ignore base-rate information. In any given city, there are thousands of health care professionals for every clown. It is actually far more likely that Ned is just a fun-loving worker at your local hospital. (4) The conjunction fallacy is a failure of logical reasoning. Logically, the joint probability of two or more events occurring simultaneously is always less than the probability of any one of those events occurring alone. Yet with each piece of information about a person or a situation, people are led to conclude that the probability of all the events co-occurring has increased. For example, consider two descriptions of Dr. Kerry: (i) Dr. Kerry is a college professor who is active in the Democratic party, lives a greenfriendly lifestyle, enjoys classical music, and occasionally hosts wine-tasting parties; (ii) Dr. Kerry is a college professor who lives a green-friendly lifestyle. Many people would erroneously conclude that (i) is more probable than (ii), when in fact (ii) is far more probable. In both cases, Dr. Kerry is a college professor. But (i) assumes that an additional three events are co-occurring, whereas (ii) assumes just one of these events is co-occurring. (5) Cognitive mindbugs need not let us down. Heuristics such as availability and representativeness, for example, more often than not do their jobs well: They allow us to process information in a relatively speedy, often accurate manner. Admittedly, sometimes our decisions based on heuristics pale in comparison to decisions made with a more thorough analysis of the available data. But sometimes the speedy shortcut allows us to be accurate, or at least "accurate enough," to function in a complex world. Similarly, the conjunction fallacy may rob us of perfectly logical reasoning, but it may be sufficient to know that a given professor has "professor-like" tendencies. In summary, these mindbugs highlight the otherwise efficient action of the human mind by noting times when that efficiency falters.

9. Using an example, describe how the framing effect influences decision making. Why is the sunk-cost fallacy considered an example of the framing effect? All of us are occasionally guilty of committing the sunk-cost fallacy. Give an example from your own life. ANSWER: The answer should provide the following information: (1) The framing effect occurs when people give different answers to the same problem, depending on how the problem is phrased (or framed). For example, if you tell someone that 70% of the time a drug cures an ailment, they are usually impressed. However, if you tell people that a drug has a 30% failure rate, they will view it as risky and harmful. This information is the same; the way it is "framed" leads to drastically different conclusions. (2) The sunk-cost fallacy occurs when people make decisions about a current situation based on what they have previously invested in the situation. The previous investment frames the current decision to be made, even though the previous investment may not be pertinent to the current situation. (3) Real-world example: You pay a $40 cover to see a new jazz band playing at a club that you have never visited. The band turns out to be rather pedestrian, you don't recognize anyone at the club, the drinks are expensive, and the server is rude. In short, you are having a miserable time. Nevertheless, you make the decision to spend the next three hours at this club because you paid Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Essay $40 to enter it, despite the fact that the $40 is already spent and you could have more fun doing something else.

10. Discuss differences in brain activity associated with solving a problem by insight and solving a problem through step-by-step analysis. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) A spike of electrical activity occurs in the front part of the right temporal lobe about one-third of a second before an insightful solution is reached. This pattern of electrical activity does not occur when problems are solved through analytic strategies. (2) Although this spike in right temporal lobe electrical activity occurs most closely with the insightful solution, experiments in cognitive psychology suggest that insight probably is the result of more incremental unconscious processes. Brain-imaging studies support this view. In the moments before an insightful solution is reached, there is enhanced activity in the anterior cingulate. Researchers believe that this area of the brain allows individuals to detect weakly activated associations that could aid in problem solving at the subconscious level. When the strength of these associations passes a threshold level, the spike in right temporal lobe electrical activity is triggered, and people report an insightful solution "popping" into their mind.

11. Using an example, distinguish between logic and reasoning. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: Reasoning is a mental activity that consists of organizing information or beliefs into a series of steps in order to reach conclusions. We rely on logic to assess the results of the reasoning process. Logic is a system of rules that specifies which conclusions follow from a set of statements. For example, if I know that (i) all crows are birds and (ii) this animal in front of me is a bird, I might reason that (iii) this animal is a crow. While this is an example of reasoning, the rules of logic tell us that this reasoning is faulty.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 1. The SMALLEST meaningful units of language are known as: a. phonemes. b. morphemes. c. words. d. sentences. ANSWER: b 2. Research on language reveals that: a. relatively few species have developed anything that could even be considered a form of social communication. b. language really only develops when a species has the ability to communicate vocally. c. most social species have systems of communication that allow them to transmit messages to one another. d. there are no commonalities between human language and signaling systems of other animals. ANSWER: c 3. The SMALLEST units of sound that are recognizable as speech, rather than as random noise, are called: a. phonemes. b. morphemes. c. syntaxes. d. words. ANSWER: a 4. Which example constitutes a single morpheme? a. headless b. he c. h d. headless horseman ANSWER: b 5. Which is a morpheme? a. kid b. th c. b d. balls ANSWER: a 6. "A system for communicating with others using signals that are combined according to rules of grammar and that convey meaning" is the definition of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice a. semantics. b. morphemes. c. syntax. d. language. ANSWER: d 7. Which statement does NOT distinguish human language from the signaling systems of other species? a. Humans can use language to transmit information to others, whereas animals cannot. b. Human language has a far more complex structure than other signaling systems. c. Humans, but not other species, can reference intangible items such as concepts. d. Human language can be used to describe or categorize things to the thinker using the language. ANSWER: a 8. Morphological rules: a. indicate how words can be strung together in sentences. b. indicate how phonemes can be strung together to make language. c. indicate how morphemes can be combined to form words. d. help us determine the punctuation for a sentence. ANSWER: c 9. _____ is the set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages. a. Phonemes b. Grammar c. Surface structure d. Deep structure ANSWER: b 10. A set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages is called: a. language. b. grammar. c. syntax. d. phonemes. ANSWER: b 11. What is grammar? a. a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. a system for communicating with others using signals that are combined according to rules that convey specific meaning c. a set of rules that indicate how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds d. the smallest meaningful units of language ANSWER: a 12. Laurence is learning a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages. He is learning: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. ANSWER: c 13. A set of rules that indicate how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds is called: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. ANSWER: a 14. The fact that the initial sounds "ts" is acceptable in German but not in English demonstrates: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. ANSWER: a 15. How many distinct human languages are there? a. 1,000 b. 4,000 c. 7,100 d. 10,200 ANSWER: c 16. How many language families are there for human languages? a. 50 b. 140 c. 270 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. 320 ANSWER: b 17. When did spoken human language emerge? a. 3,000 years ago b. 6,000 years ago c. 1 to 3 million years ago d. 3 to 6 million years ago ANSWER: c 18. When did written human language emerge? a. 3,000 years ago b. 6,000 years ago c. 1 to 3 million years ago d. 3 to 6 million years ago ANSWER: b 19. Which expression is a phoneme? a. dog b. d c. the dog d. the dog runs ANSWER: b 20. The SMALLEST unit of sound that is recognizable as speech rather than as random noise is: a. phonemes. b. morphemes. c. phrases. d. sentences. ANSWER: a 21. Which expression is a morpheme? a. b b. boy c. the boy d. the boy cried ANSWER: b 22. "B" and "p" differ in the way they are produced by a human speaker. As such, they are both examples of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice a. phonemes. b. symbols. c. morphemes. d. phrases. ANSWER: a 23. Grammar rules fall into which two categories? a. phonological and morphological b. morphological and syntactical c. deep structure and surface structure d. noun phrases and verb phrases ANSWER: b 24. Which is a phoneme? a. the b. hit the balls c. hit d. th ANSWER: d 25. _____ morphemes refer to things and events. a. Content b. Phonetic c. Tangible d. Function ANSWER: a 26. The word "and" is an example of a _____ morpheme. a. content b. phonetic c. tangible d. function ANSWER: d 27. _____ rules indicate how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences. a. Morphological b. Phonological c. Syntactical d. Deep structure Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 28. Which expression is a sentence? a. dogs b. the dogs c. the dogs, who were barking very noisily d. dogs bark ANSWER: d 29. At every stage of language development, children _____ language better than they _____. a. generate; understand it b. manipulate; speak it c. understand; speak it d. create; dissect it ANSWER: c 30. When considering language learning, children learn language _____. a. slowly and methodically b. in small increments c. only from their family d. at an astonishingly rapid rate ANSWER: d 31. Which example illustrates telegraphic speech? a. over the river and through the woods b. go up and down c. baby sleeping d. turn left and then right ANSWER: c 32. Which statement illustrates the use of a function morpheme? a. drink milk b. me want milk c. more cookies d. milk and cookies ANSWER: d 33. Which statement illustrates the use of a function morpheme? a. bat ball Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. throw ball c. more ball d. the ball ANSWER: d 34. Things and events are to _____ as grammatical functions are to _____. a. content morphemes; function morphemes b. phonological rules; morphological rules c. grammar; syntactic rules d. syntactic rules; phonological rules ANSWER: a 35. _____ make human language grammatically complex enough to permit us to express abstract ideas rather than simply to point verbally to real objects in the here and now. a. Phonemes b. Function morphemes c. Syntax d. Content morphemes ANSWER: b 36. A set of rules that indicate how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences is called: a. morphological rules. b. syntactic rules. c. grammar. d. phonological rules. ANSWER: b 37. Sentences in the English language must contain one or more nouns. This demonstrates: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. ANSWER: b 38. Sentences in the English language can contain noun phrases by combining nouns with adjectives. This demonstrates: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. a phonological rule. ANSWER: b 39. A sentence in the English language must contain one or more verbs, which can be combined with adverbs or articles to create verb phrases. This demonstrates: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. ANSWER: b 40. "The small cat on the building" is not considered a complete sentence in the English language due to: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. ANSWER: b 41. "The bird in the front yard" is not considered a complete sentence in the English language due to: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. ANSWER: b 42. A set of rules that indicate how morphemes can be combined to form words is called: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. ANSWER: b 43. Mandi is 1 year old. If she is like other children her age, she has a vocabulary of about _____ words. a. 3 b. 10 c. 50 d. 100 ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 44. Marco is about to turn 5 years old. He can expect to have a vocabulary of about _____ words. a. 1,000 b. 2,500 c. 5,000 d. 10,000 ANSWER: d 45. Between the ages of 1 and 5 years, the average child learns about _____ new words every day. a. 1 or 2 b. 3 or 4 c. 6 or 7 d. 10 or 12 ANSWER: c 46. Children make _____ errors when learning to speak, and the errors they make still _____ grammatical rules. a. many; do not respect b. few; respect c. many; respect d. few; do not respect ANSWER: b 47. Which statement about a child's mastery of language is TRUE? a. Children's comprehension develops faster than their production. b. Children's production of language develops faster than their comprehension. c. Children's grammar develops faster than their vocabulary. d. Children's ability to distinguish sounds is slow and limits the addition of vocabulary words to their repertoire. ANSWER: a 48. Quinn just turned 1 year old and has a spoken vocabulary of 15 words. Which statement about Quinn's language development is TRUE? a. Quinn soon should start learning 2 to 3 words per day for the next 4 years. b. Quinn understands the meaning of more than 15 words. c. Quinn is behind the norm in her language development. d. Quinn violates many grammatical rules when she speaks. ANSWER: b 49. Which statement about a child's ability to distinguish speech sounds is TRUE? a. Newborns can distinguish among only a few sounds, but by 6 months, babies can distinguish among Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice the sounds of all languages. b. Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, but by 6 months, babies lose this ability. c. Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, and this ability is retained throughout life. d. Newborns can distinguish among only the sounds that are spoken to them, and they never develop the ability to distinguish among the sounds of all languages. ANSWER: b 50. Which group of people cannot distinguish between the sounds of "la" and "ra"? a. Japanese adults only b. Japanese infants and Japanese adults c. Japanese infants only d. Japanese infants, American infants, and Japanese adults ANSWER: a 51. Which statement about the babbling of deaf babies is FALSE? a. Deaf babies babble sounds they have never heard. b. Deaf babies babble sounds in the same order as that of hearing babies. c. Deaf babies babble earlier relative to the babbling of hearing babies. d. Deaf babies babble less relative to the babbling of hearing babies. ANSWER: c 52. Deaf infants whose parents use American Sign Language (ASL) begin to babble with their hands: a. later than do infants who are not deaf, and these hand motions are random in nature. b. around the same time as infants who are not deaf; however, these hand motions are random in nature. c. later than do infants who are not deaf; however, these hand motions do resemble syllables of ASL. d. around the same time as infants who are not deaf, and these hand motions resemble syllables of ASL. ANSWER: d 53. Bryson just began babbling. He is likely between the ages of _____ months. a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 5 d. 4 and 6 ANSWER: d 54. Chris just began using single words. He is likely the age of _____ months. a. 4 to 6 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. 6 to 10 c. 10 to 12 d. 12 to 18 ANSWER: c 55. Josie now has a vocabulary of about 10,000 words. About how old is Josie likely to be? a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 10 years ANSWER: b 56. Martina has just begun to use two-word phrases. She is probably about _____ months old. a. 12 to 18 b. 18 to 24 c. 24 to 36 d. 36 to 60 ANSWER: b 57. Which is an example of telegraphic speech? a. The bird flew by the window. b. Tie shoe. c. Milk. d. There is a wasp in the tree. ANSWER: b 58. Chima just said, "I runned to the park." This is an example of: a. overregularizing b. overgeneralizing c. overspecializing d. overdramatizing ANSWER: a 59. Two-year-old Lupe says to her parent "More drink" and "Where dog?" This kind of language use is referred to as: a. telegraphic speech. b. fast mapping. c. simple structure. d. babbling. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 60. Which expression is an example of telegraphic speech? a. ball b. bat and ball c. more juice d. more ANSWER: c 61. Which expression is an example of telegraphic speech? a. ball b. bat and ball c. throw d. hit ball ANSWER: d 62. When Simone wants her parent to give her more juice, she says, "More juice," instead of saying, "Juice more." This demonstrates that Simone understands: a. fast mapping. b. function morphemes. c. syntactic rules. d. morphology. ANSWER: c 63. What is speech that is devoid of function morphemes and consists mostly of content words? a. babbling b. phonological development c. fast mapping d. telegraphic speech ANSWER: d 64. Samantha has asked her parent for "more milk" and is handing her the sippy cup. Samantha is demonstrating: a. babbling. b. phonological development. c. fast mapping. d. telegraphic speech. ANSWER: d 65. James wants to play catch with his parent. He gets his ball, and hands it to his parent, and says, "throw ball." Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice James is demonstrating: a. babbling. b. phonological development. c. fast mapping. d. telegraphic speech. ANSWER: d 66. At what age can infants differentiate between phonemes? a. 0 to 4 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months ANSWER: a 67. Abigail has started babbling consonants. How old is she likely to be? a. 0 to 4 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months ANSWER: b 68. At what age can DeShawn's parents expect him to begin using single words? a. 0 to 4 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months ANSWER: d 69. Erin currently has a vocabulary of 30 to 50 words that include simple nouns, adjectives, and action words. How old is she likely to be? a. 10 to 12 months b. 12 to 18 months c. 18 to 24 months d. 24 to 26 months ANSWER: b 70. Aiko currently has a vocabulary of about 1,000 words and produces phrases and incomplete sentences. How old is Aiko likely to be? a. 10 to 12 months Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. 12 to 18 months c. 18 to 24 months d. 24 to 26 months ANSWER: d 71. By what age is much of the language acquisition process complete? a. 0 to 2 years b. 4 to 5 years c. 7 to 9 years d. 10 to 12 years ANSWER: b 72. The "30-million-word gap" refers to: a. anthropological evidence that language use has exploded over the past 6,000 years. b. language expansion that occurs between the ages of 1 and 5 and is not accounted for by behaviorist theory. c. differences in language exposure between children of low and high socioeconomic status. d. differences in language exposure between North American and Asian children. ANSWER: c 73. Research has demonstrated that the language deficits observed in children from families with low socioeconomic status is largely the result of: a. nutritional deficits. b. genetic factors. c. the quality of the communication between the child and the primary caregiver. d. attachment style between the child and the primary caregiver. ANSWER: c 74. Studies of the acquisition of a new language in internationally adopted preschoolers are useful because they allow researchers to: a. determine the influence of culture on language acquisition. b. determine the influence of nature versus nurture on language acquisition. c. separate language learning from general cognitive development. d. determine how language learning changes with age. ANSWER: c 75. Internationally adopted preschoolers acquire a second language: a. in the same orderly sequence as younger monolingual infants. b. without having to progress through as many steps as younger monolingual infants. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. almost immediately because syntax was already learned in their native language. d. much slower than do younger monolingual infants, reflecting interference from their native language. ANSWER: a 76. With respect to language acquisition, in what ways—if any—do internationally adopted preschoolers learning a new language differ from monolingual infants? a. Internationally adopted preschoolers begin using nouns and function morphemes at the same time. b. Internationally adopted preschoolers begin to speak telegraphically without the need to learn simple morphemes. c. Internationally adopted preschoolers acquire vocabulary faster than do monolingual infants. d. The two groups do not differ in language acquisition. ANSWER: c 77. Karen was concerned when her 4-year-old daughter, Amanda, started saying, "I eated dinner." Karen should not worry because Amanda is simply: a. demonstrating fast mapping. b. confusing the deep structure with the simple structure of the sentence. c. experiencing a momentary episode of dysphasia. d. overregularizing from the grammatical language rules. ANSWER: d 78. When he came home from preschool, 3-year-old Mike told his parent that he "runned on the playground." This error illustrates: a. confusing phonemes with morphemes. b. confusing the deep structure with the simple structure of the sentence. c. confusing morphemes with syntax. d. overregularizing from the grammatical language rules. ANSWER: d 79. Children overregularize the grammatical rules that guide their spoken language, resulting in speech language errors. The predictability of these errors illustrates an important point regarding language development, namely that language development: a. comes about mainly through imitating adult forms of speech. b. is primarily a matter of memorizing appropriate speech sounds and then repeating them. c. is a hit-or-miss enterprise; children acquire language largely through trial and error. d. is guided by implicit grammatical rules that children use to produce new sentences and verbal constructions they've never heard before. ANSWER: d 80. Learning to form the past tense of words: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice a. does not require explicit awareness of grammatical rules. b. requires formal study of syntax provided by parents or schools. c. occurs through trial and error. d. begins at around age 5. ANSWER: a 81. The behaviorist approach to language development suggests that _____ plays a key role in learning words and grammar, whereas nativists claim that language is _____ predetermined. a. reinforcement; biologically b. punishment; culturally c. reinforcement; culturally d. genetics; biologically ANSWER: a 82. According to _____, language-learning capacities are built into the brain, which is specialized to acquire language rapidly through simple exposure to speech. a. Skinner b. Curtiss c. Pyers d. Chomsky ANSWER: d 83. Who would explain language development in terms of an innate, biological capacity because the human brain comes equipped with internal processes that facilitate learning language? a. Skinner b. Curtiss c. Pyers d. Chomsky ANSWER: d 84. Which theory of language development holds that it is BEST explained as an innate, biological capacity? a. behaviorist b. nativist c. interactionist d. psychodynamic ANSWER: b 85. The view that we learn language through principles of operant conditioning was proposed by: a. B. F. Skinner. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. Noam Chomsky. c. Carl Wernicke. d. Paul Broca. ANSWER: a 86. With regard to determinants of language learning, behaviorists do NOT focus on: a. extinction. b. shaping. c. biological preparedness. d. reinforcement. ANSWER: c 87. According to Skinner's theory of language acquisition, an infant learns to say "ma-ma" in the presence of her mother because: a. this association is genetically built into the language acquisition device. b. the mother is an unconditioned stimulus that elicits this unconditioned response. c. speaking the word is intrinsically reinforcing. d. mothers provide reinforcement for utterances that sound more and more like "ma-ma." ANSWER: d 88. When a child says, "Nobody like me," their parents typically: a. respond more to the grammatical mistake than to the child's meaning. b. respond more to the child's meaning than to the grammatical mistake. c. respond equally to the child's meaning and to the grammatical mistake. d. say nothing in an attempt to extinguish incorrect syntax. ANSWER: b 89. Which statement is NOT a valid criticism of Skinner's theory of language acquisition? a. Grammar is rarely explicitly taught. b. Language expression cannot be shaped by approximations. c. Children generate many more grammatically correct sentences than what they could possibly hear. d. Overregularization of grammatical rules suggests that trial-and-error grammar learning is not occurring. ANSWER: b 90. Which view of language development holds that language is an innate, biological capacity that humans possess? a. Skinnerian b. behaviorist Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. nativist d. humanist ANSWER: c 91. The nativist view of language development is associated with: a. B. F. Skinner. b. Noam Chomsky. c. Allen and Beatrix Gardner. d. Paul Broca. ANSWER: b 92. Who is most clearly associated with the idea of a universal grammar? a. Skinner b. Curtiss c. Pyers d. Chomsky ANSWER: d 93. According to Chomsky, the _____ is a collection of processes that facilitate language learning. a. universal grammar b. fast map c. phonological rule d. genetic dysphasia ANSWER: a 94. Universal grammar is: a. the idea that language development is an innate, biological process. b. a collection of processes that facilitate language learning. c. the idea that all language is learned through operant and classical conditioning principles. d. the idea that all language learning is through observation. ANSWER: b 95. According to your text, language ability is _____ from general intelligence. a. not at all separate b. fully separate c. partly separate d. almost entirely separate ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 96. The case of Genie, a child who lived in virtual isolation for a decade, illustrates which important point about the nativist explanation of language development? a. Language can develop at any stage of growth; the brain is malleable enough to acquire language throughout the life span. b. Genetic dysphasia results from impoverished environmental conditions. c. Language can be acquired only within a restricted period of development; after that period, gains in language skills are minimal. d. Despite isolation from other speakers, language development still occurs, but at a slower rate. ANSWER: c 97. At what point is acquiring language almost impossible? a. after 2 years of age b. after 4 years of age c. after puberty d. during young adulthood ANSWER: c 98. Which Mexican immigrant to the United States, each of whom is 30 years old, is MOST likely to have developed the BEST English skills? a. Teresa, who arrived at age 3 b. Jose, who arrived at age 9 c. Carmen, who arrived at age 15 d. Teresa, Jose, and Carmen should have approximately equivalent English skills ANSWER: a 99. The interactionist approach to language development differs from the nativist approach in that the interactionist approach: a. believes that all verbal behavior is genetically determined. b. argues that all verbal behavior is the result of shaping with reinforcement. c. believes in the existence of a language acquisition device. d. places a heavier emphasis on the role of social interactions in language development. ANSWER: d 100. The interactionist approach to language development differs from the behaviorist approach in that the interactionist approach: a. believes that humans have an innate ability to acquire language. b. believes that environmental factors affect language development. c. does not believe in the existence of a language acquisition device. d. places a heavier emphasis on the role of social interactions in language development. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 101. The interactionist approach to language development focuses on the interplay between: a. reinforcement and social learning. b. social interactions and learning. c. biology and experience. d. biology and the language acquisition device. ANSWER: c 102. Interactionists describe language development as a(n): a. conditioned learning process determined by the environment. b. innate process determined by biology. c. combination of environmental experiences and biological influences. d. result of modeling the language of parents. ANSWER: c 103. People with damage to Wernicke's area can: a. use correct syntax. b. produce meaningful language. c. understand sign language. d. understand the spoken word. ANSWER: a 104. Patients with aphasia provide evidence that language processing is: a. specialized within specific brain regions over time. b. widespread across the brain throughout the life span. c. localized to specific brain structures in both hemispheres throughout the life span. d. performed in one specific brain structure, the amygdala. ANSWER: a 105. _____ is defined as the difficulty in producing or comprehending language. a. Dysphasia b. Dystaxia c. Apraxia d. Aphasia ANSWER: d 106. During the first few years of life, language processing in the brain: a. becomes less concentrated in a few areas and more widely distributed. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. becomes more concentrated in a few areas and less distributed. c. shifts from Broca's area to Wernicke's area. d. shifts from Wernicke's area to Broca's area. ANSWER: b 107. Where is Broca's area located? a. left frontal cortex b. right frontal cortex c. left temporal cortex d. right temporal cortex ANSWER: a 108. Where is Wernicke's area located? a. left frontal cortex b. right frontal cortex c. left temporal cortex d. right temporal cortex ANSWER: c 109. Jenny was in an accident and suffered damage to Broca's area. She will: a. have a hard time understanding language. b. usually continue to produce grammatical speech. c. produce phrases that tend to be devoid of meaning. d. have a hard time with speech production. ANSWER: d 110. Thomas has received damage to Wernicke's area. This will likely result in: a. failure to produce grammatical speech. b. great difficulty in understanding language. c. genetic dysphasia. d. great difficulty in identifying nonlanguage sounds. ANSWER: b 111. Thad experienced a stroke that resulted in brain damage. Thad is overheard saying, "The rain came before my feelings. I think the funny TV is cold. But it needs help with the scissors." Thad probably has experienced damage to the _____ cortex. a. right prefrontal b. left frontal c. left temporal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. right temporal ANSWER: c 112. Thad experienced a stroke that resulted in brain damage. Thad is overheard saying, "The rain came before my feelings. I think the funny TV is cold. But it needs help with the scissors." In addition, Thad has an extremely difficult time understanding others when they talk to him. Thad's symptoms are consistent with: a. Broca's aphasia. b. Wernicke's aphasia. c. genetic dysphasia. d. a conjunction fallacy. ANSWER: b 113. Agnes experienced a stroke that resulted in brain damage. While she has little problem understanding others, she herself can barely utter telegraphic sentences, such as "give blanket" and "Monday appointment doctor." Agnes's symptoms are consistent with: a. Broca's aphasia. b. Wernicke's aphasia. c. genetic dysphasia. d. a conjunction fallacy. ANSWER: a 114. Agnes experienced a stroke that resulted in brain damage. Agnes now speaks in short staccato sentences devoid of function morphemes. However, Agnes does not have difficulty understanding the meaning of language spoken to her. She probably has experienced damage to the _____ lobe. a. right prefrontal b. left frontal c. left temporal d. right temporal ANSWER: b 115. When words are presented to the right hemisphere, it shows that the _____ capacity for processing meaning. a. right hemisphere has some b. left hemisphere has no c. right hemisphere has a full d. left hemisphere is the only hemisphere with ANSWER: a 116. Neuroimaging studies demonstrate that when presented with language tasks, the right hemisphere: a. shuts down Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. becomes active c. only activates if the task occurs in written form d. only activates if the language task is verbal ANSWER: b 117. Which statement is TRUE about the role of the right cerebral hemisphere in language capabilities? a. It contains Broca's and Wernicke's areas and is critically involved in both the production and understanding of language. b. Divided visual field techniques reveal that it plays an extremely limited role in language comprehension. c. It plays a supportive role in speech production but not language comprehension. d. It plays a supportive role in language comprehension and can assume greater functions with injury to the left hemisphere. ANSWER: d 118. People who are bilingual have increased gray-matter density in the prefrontal cortex relative to people who are monolingual. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 119. Evidence for a bilingual advantage in executive functioning is stronger in: a. infants. b. toddlers. c. young adults. d. older adults. ANSWER: d 120. The idea of a bilingual advantage has: a. been found to be completely false based on recent research findings. b. been a false idea since it emerged. c. to some extent been refuted based on an inability to replicate findings supporting a bilingual advantage. d. been confirmed by numerous research studies. ANSWER: c 121. A recent analysis of both published and unpublished studies (Lehtonen et al., 2018) found _____ in executive function. a. confirmatory evidence for a bilingual advantage Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. inclusive results regarding a bilingual advantage c. a bilingual advantage among participants, but not d. little to no evidence of a bilingual advantage ANSWER: d 122. Janette is bilingual, speaking both English and Spanish. She may: a. have a later onset of Alzheimer's disease than monolingual individuals. b. never develop Alzheimer's disease. c. be at an increased risk for developing neurocognitive disorders compared to monolingual individuals. d. have an earlier onset of Alzheimer's disease than monolingual individuals. ANSWER: a 123. Those who are bilingual may have a later onset age for Alzheimer's disease because they have: a. decreased executive function. b. built up cognitive reserve. c. a predeveloped frontal lobe. d. reduced gray matter. ANSWER: b 124. Early flawed studies on bilingualism indicated that it: a. slowed cognitive development. b. had no effect on cognitive development. c. produced measurable enhancements in IQ scores, although these increases have since been shown to be unreliable. d. enhanced cognitive development but had deleterious effects on mastery of the first language. ANSWER: a 125. Early flawed studies on bilingualism indicated that when compared with monolingual children, bilingual children performed more _____ on language processing tasks and/but had _____ IQs. a. slowly; higher b. slowly; lower c. quickly; higher d. quickly; lower ANSWER: b 126. The reasons early studies on bilingualism were flawed do NOT include: a. socioeconomic factors not being controlled. b. assessments being conducted primarily in English, the second language of the bilingual children. c. the assessments used lacking construct validity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. parental mastery of English not being controlled. ANSWER: c 127. Recent research on bilingualism that corrected the flaws from earlier studies indicate that bilingualism is associated with: a. notable deficits in the time course of language development. b. enhancements in IQ score. c. deficits in both language development and general cognitive functioning. d. a similar course of language development as observed in monolingual individuals. ANSWER: d 128. Recent research on bilingualism that corrected the flaws from earlier studies indicates that bilingualism is associated with enhancements in: a. the rate of language development. b. IQ score. c. the ability to prioritize information. d. category formation. ANSWER: c 129. Recent research on bilingualism that corrected the flaws from earlier studies indicates that bilingualism is associated with enhancements in: a. the rate of language development. b. IQ score. c. first-language vocabulary. d. focused attention. ANSWER: d 130. Bilingual individuals tend to have a later onset of _____ than do monolingual individuals. a. Parkinson's disease b. Alzheimer's disease c. schizophrenia d. multiple sclerosis ANSWER: b 131. Margareta is bilingual. This means that the gray matter in her _____ lobe is denser compared to people who are monolingual. a. right temporal b. left parietal c. left temporal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. right parietal ANSWER: b 132. Research has shown a(n) _____ between gray matter density in the left parietal lobe and proficiency in a second language. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. close to zero correlation due to suspected third variables d. inverse correlation due to suspected third variables ANSWER: a 133. Which statement is TRUE for bilingual children versus monolingual children? a. Bilingual children have a smaller vocabulary in each language than do their monolingual peers. b. Bilingual children have a larger vocabulary in each language than do their monolingual peers. c. Monolingual children are better at mathematics than are bilingual children. d. There are no differences in the academic abilities of bilingual and monolingual children. ANSWER: a 134. Efforts to teach apes human language often focus on: a. providing them with models of other species who have been taught language. b. training them to produce human speech sounds. c. careful observation of the apes' own speech systems. d. teaching them American Sign Language (ASL). ANSWER: d 135. _____ trained a chimpanzee named Washoe to talk using _____. a. B. F. Skinner; shaping through approximations b. Allen and Beatrix Gardner; American Sign Language c. Marian and Keller Breland; American Sign Language d. Sue Savage-Rumbaugh; picture boards ANSWER: b 136. Early efforts to teach chimpanzees language failed miserably because: a. their vocal tracts cannot accommodate the sounds used in human language. b. shaping by approximations was not used. c. the chimpanzees were not raised by humans. d. symbolic computer tasks had yet to be developed. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 137. Researchers guide and manipulate the hands of chimpanzees into ASL symbols in a process termed: a. shaping. b. modeling. c. manding. d. molding. ANSWER: d 138. About how many ASL signs did Washoe learn? a. 90 b. 160 c. 480 d. 900 ANSWER: b 139. Which statement is TRUE about language acquisition in the chimpanzee named Loulis? a. He learned to create novel sentences of six or more words. b. He learned over 2,000 signs. c. He learned American Sign Language from Washoe, and not from researchers. d. He learned correct grammar through the use of a computerized sign board. ANSWER: c 140. Which statement is TRUE about language acquisition in the chimpanzee named Kanzi? a. He was trained by researchers to use American Sign Language (ASL). b. He learned ASL by watching his mother sign. c. He was the first chimpanzee to sign over 100 words. d. He learned to communicate using a geometric keyboard system. ANSWER: d 141. When apes communicate using forms of human language, their communication typically lacks: a. grammatically correct complex sentences. b. modifiers, such as adjectives and adverbs. c. an emotional context. d. verbs. ANSWER: a 142. Which statement about the limitations of language learning in apes is NOT true? a. Apes' vocabularies can be sizeable. b. Apes can master words for concrete objects but have difficulty with abstract concepts. c. Apes can exhibit an understanding of objects and their names, but cannot follow directions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. Ape communication is usually telegraphic; it rarely consists of grammatically correct complex sentences. ANSWER: c 143. Research on language use in apes indicates that apes do NOT have limitations in: a. vocabulary. b. passive understanding relative to production of language. c. understanding of grammar. d. conceptual repertoire. ANSWER: b 144. Despite training, apes may have trouble learning to understand and use the word "justice" but have little trouble learning to understand the word "juice." This BEST illustrates which limitation? a. vocabulary b. passive understanding relative to active use c. understanding of grammar d. conceptual repertoire ANSWER: d 145. Based on research investigating the link between language and thought, Benjamin Whorf concluded that: a. thought determines language because thinking precedes communication. b. language cannot determine thought because thought is essentially an aspect of communication. c. language has no influence on thought. d. language shapes thought. ANSWER: d 146. Which statement describes the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. Different languages use different grammatical constructions. b. Language shapes the nature of thought. c. Different brain regions are activated when a bilingual person uses their native language as opposed to their second language. d. All languages change over time. ANSWER: b 147. Who proposed the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. Benjamin Whorf b. B. F. Skinner c. Noam Chomsky d. Bernard Weiner Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 148. The language of the Inuit in Canada has many different terms for frozen white flakes of precipitation, for which we use the term "snow." _____ argued that, because of this, the Inuit _____ from English speakers. a. Benjamin Whorf; perceive snow in a way different b. Noam Chomsky; have a fundamentally different language acquisition device c. Eleanor Rosch; think about snow in a way fundamentally different d. Allen Gardner; form emotional associations with snow more easily different ANSWER: a 149. _____ studied color perception in the Dani. a. Whorf b. Chomsky c. Rosch d. Gardner ANSWER: c 150. The Dani, an isolated society of indigenous people living in New Guinea, have only two words for colors, roughly corresponding to "light" and "dark." According to the linguistic relativity hypothesis, they are likely to: a. have developed more terms for colors. b. have more terms for sounds as a perceptual compensatory mechanism. c. make light and dark discriminations better than do those in other cultures. d. exhibit impairments in recognizing shades of color. ANSWER: d 151. The Dani, an isolated society of indigenous people living in New Guinea, have only two words for colors, roughly corresponding to "light" and "dark." The Dani _____ impairments in recognizing shades of color, which is _____ with the linguistic relativity hypothesis. a. exhibit; consistent b. exhibit; inconsistent c. do not exhibit; consistent d. do not exhibit; inconsistent ANSWER: d 152. Which statement about cultural differences in language use related to color is TRUE? a. Russians have two completely different words for light and dark blue. b. The Dani in New Guinea have two completely different words for red and blue. c. The Himba in Namibia have only two words for color, corresponding to "light" and "dark." d. The Himba in Namibia have more color-related words than do both the Dani and the Russians. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 153. Winawer et al. (2007) presented English and Russian speakers with a blue sample stimulus. They also were shown two blue comparison stimuli. One comparison stimulus matched the shade of the sample stimulus, and one comparison stimulus was of a different shade. Participants were asked to identify which of the two comparison stimuli matched the sample stimulus. This research found that: a. Russian speakers took longer than did English speakers to make this determination when one comparison stimulus was dark blue and the other comparison stimulus was light blue. b. English speakers took longer than did Russian speakers to make this determination when one comparison stimulus was dark blue and the other comparison stimulus was light blue. c. Russian speakers took longer than did English speakers to make this determination when all three stimuli were shades of light blue. d. English speakers took longer than did Russian speakers to make this determination when all three stimuli were shades of light blue. ANSWER: c 154. Which sense is most accessible to language? a. hearing b. vision c. taste d. smell ANSWER: b 155. When recalling a memory of an event, you would MOST likely to be able to clearly explain what you: a. touched. b. saw. c. tasted. d. smelled. ANSWER: b 156. According to research conducted by Majid et al. (2018), which sense has the lowest codability score across all languages? a. hearing b. vision c. taste d. smell ANSWER: d 157. Research on color meaning with JB, who suffered progressive deteriorations in understanding the meaning of words, even though he performed well on many other perceptual and cognitive tasks, demonstrated that JB Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice was able to: a. verbally name colors presented to him. b. associate the name of a color with a name of an object (e.g., a yellow banana). c. sort color patches into piles of red, green, and blue. d. match a color to the word of the color. ANSWER: c 158. Which statement about JB's performance on color-meaning tasks is TRUE? a. JB could verbally name colors presented to him. b. JB could associate the name of a color with a name of an object (e.g., a yellow banana). c. JB could not sort color patches into piles of red, green, and blue. d. JB could not match a color to the word of the color. ANSWER: d 159. Which statement about JB's performance on color-meaning tasks is TRUE? a. JB could not verbally name colors presented to him. b. JB could associate the name of a color with a name of an object (e.g., a yellow banana). c. JB could not sort color patches into piles of red, green, and blue. d. JB could match a color to the word of the color. ANSWER: a 160. What function deteriorated as a result of a neurological disorder in JB? a. language b. cognition c. memory d. color perception ANSWER: a 161. The results of research with JB suggest that: a. language is critical for concept formation. b. concept formation is critical for language. c. both language and concept formation are shaped by culture. d. language and concept formation are separate processes. ANSWER: d 162. Which is a mental representation that groups or categorizes shared features of related objects, events, or other stimuli? a. prototype b. exemplar Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. ideal form d. concept ANSWER: d 163. How does the brain use concepts to classify things into categories? a. relative importance b. shared similarities c. biological utility d. linguistic meaning ANSWER: b 164. A concept CANNOT be a(n): a. abstract representation. b. description. c. attentional process. d. definition. ANSWER: c 165. In one set of studies, participants classified prototypes faster when the stimuli were presented to the right visual field, meaning that the: a. right hemisphere received the input first. b. left hemisphere received the input first. c. participants did not receive any input. d. participants were not aware of their mistakes in classification. ANSWER: b 166. Exemplar theory is more comprehensive than is prototype theory because it: a. compares objects on an individual basis only. b. compares individual objects to a prototype only. c. activates the visual cortex. d. considers both prototypical and specific instances of categories. ANSWER: d 167. If you have never seen a chihuahua but you have seen somewhat similar types of dog breeds such as rat terriers and miniature pinschers, which theory would BEST predict your ability to correctly identify a chihuahua as a "dog"? a. morphological rules b. the family resemblance theory c. the exemplar theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. the prototype theory ANSWER: c 168. Prototype theory is traced back to: a. B. F. Skinner. b. Howard Gardner. c. Joaquin Medina. d. Eleanor Rosch. ANSWER: d 169. The concept that we classify new objects by comparing them to the "best" or "most typical" member of a category is referred to as: a. exemplar theory. b. a heuristic. c. a category-specific deficit. d. prototype theory. ANSWER: d 170. Scott wants to be a professional football player. Which is a necessary condition for this profession? a. skill at some aspect of the game of football b. weighing at least 200 pounds c. running the 40-yard dash in under 4.5 seconds d. being able to throw a football 60 yards ANSWER: a 171. A sufficient condition for being a U.S. citizen is: a. knowledge of the constitution. b. pledging allegiance to the United States. c. paying taxes in the United States. d. being born in the United States. ANSWER: d 172. A sufficient condition for being a bird is: a. being a vertebrate. b. laying eggs. c. having feathers. d. building a nest. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 173. The "best" or "most typical" member of a category is called a(n): a. concept. b. prototype. c. exemplar. d. heuristic. ANSWER: b 174. According to prototype theory, if your prototypical bird is a wren, then the BEST example of a bird is a(n): a. bald eagle. b. ostrich. c. chicken. d. robin. ANSWER: d 175. Brandon's prototype of science is chemistry. He MOST likely will exclude _____ from his category of science. a. physics b. psychology c. biology d. kinetics ANSWER: b 176. The prototype theory of categorization states that: a. people make category judgments by comparing new instances with the category's prototype. b. each member of a category serves as its own ideal, or prototype. c. only the best exemplars of a category will be considered for membership into that category. d. category prototypes are genetically determined and are universal to all cultures. ANSWER: a 177. The exemplar theory of categorization holds that: a. items will not be considered for category membership unless they share a defining characteristic with the exemplar. b. categories are defined based on the average difference between a prototype and an exemplar. c. category judgments are made by comparing a new instance with stored memories of other instances of a category. d. only the best examples of a category will be included for membership in that category. ANSWER: c 178. Most people can easily recall what a Chihuahua looks like. This ability is BEST predicted by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice a. categorization based on necessary and sufficient logical statements. b. family resemblance theory. c. prototype theory. d. exemplar theory. ANSWER: d 179. Sci-fi fans can generally easily classify a new character in a movie as an extraterrestrial, despite the fact that extraterrestrials come in all shapes and sizes. This ability is BEST predicted by: a. categorization based on necessary and sufficient logical statements. b. family resemblance theory. c. prototype theory. d. exemplar theory. ANSWER: d 180. Which statement about the mechanisms underlying categorization is FALSE? a. Exemplar-based learning involves the prefrontal cortex. b. The left hemisphere of the brain is mainly active in recognizing exemplars. c. The visual cortex is involved in forming prototypes. d. Exemplar-based learning involves analysis and decision making. ANSWER: b 181. During concept formation, the right hemisphere of the prefrontal cortex is involved in: a. visual processing. b. forming prototypes. c. forming exemplars. d. holistic concept formation. ANSWER: c 182. Activity in which brain region is MOST associated with forming prototypes? a. the right hemisphere b. the prefrontal cortex c. the basal ganglia d. the visual cortex ANSWER: d 183. An inability to recognize objects that belong to a particular category, although the ability to recognize objects outside the category is undisturbed, is called: a. genetic dysphasia. b. Broca's aphasia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. category-specific deficit. d. Wernicke's aphasia. ANSWER: c 184. Ryane is experiencing category-specific deficits. This is usually a result of damage to areas in the: a. right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. b. left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. c. cerebellum. d. midbrain. ANSWER: b 185. Damage to the front part of the left temporal lobe results in difficulty identifying: a. humans. b. animals. c. tools. d. plants. ANSWER: a 186. Sophie experienced a stroke that damaged the region where the temporal lobe meets the occipital and parietal lobes. Which task will Sophie find difficult? a. recognizing human faces b. correctly identifying an object as a giraffe when shown a picture of one c. remembering the names of her cousins d. recalling the name of a hammer in a toolbox ANSWER: d 187. Brandon is unable to identify animals such as dogs and squirrels but can easily identify furniture such as chairs and tables. Brandon likely does NOT have: a. damage to the front part of the right temporal lobe. b. a category-specific deficit. c. the ability to name tools. d. the ability to recognize human faces. ANSWER: a 188. Research in cognitive neuroscience strongly suggests that category-specific brain organization is: a. the product of language. b. highly dependent on the visual cortex. c. innately determined. d. developed within the first few years of life. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 189. A carpenter suffered a stroke and is now unable to recall the names of tools. Which area of his brain is MOST likely damaged? a. the lower left temporal lobe b. the region where the temporal lobe meets the parietal and occipital lobes c. the front of the left temporal lobe d. the left prefrontal cortex ANSWER: b 190. Suppose that sports fans in the United States are given a list of names of all the medal winners in the last Olympics. After a few minutes of study, the fans are asked to estimate the percentage of medals won by the United States. The fans probably will _____ this number due to the _____. a. overestimate; hindsight bias b. overestimate; availability heuristic c. underestimate; hindsight bias d. overestimate; category-specific deficit ANSWER: b 191. The _____ theory is the classical view that we make decisions by determining how likely something is to happen, judging the value of the outcome, and then multiplying the two. a. exemplar b. rational choice c. prototype d. prospect ANSWER: b 192. Melissa lives in San Diego and loves football. When asked to predict if it were probable that she was a schoolteacher or a cheerleader for the San Diego Chargers, most people selected the latter, even though there are more schoolteachers than there are Charger cheerleaders in San Diego. This is an illustration of: a. hindsight bias. b. the representativeness heuristic. c. base-rate decision making. d. the sunk-cost fallacy. ANSWER: b 193. An interviewer is asking people on the street questions about the mayor of their town. The interviewer tells them that the new mayor has a PhD in sociology, has specialized in women's and gender studies, and has published several research papers in peer-reviewed journals. The interviewer then asks them if it is more probable that the mayor is a women's rights activist or a politician who is also a college professor. If the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice interviewees pick the first situation, which error in judgment are they committing? a. conjunction fallacy b. availability bias c. sunk-cost fallacy d. optimism bias ANSWER: a 194. Jerome believes that he is more likely to experience positive events compared to negative events. This is related to the: a. conjunction fallacy. b. optimism bias. c. sunk-cost fallacy. d. aphasia. ANSWER: b 195. A president is managing a war that is not going well. Nevertheless, the president refuses to withdraw troops, arguing that doing so would waste the billions of dollars spent and thousands of lives lost fighting the war. The president's line of reasoning illustrates: a. base-rate ignorance. b. the sunk-cost fallacy. c. the conjunction fallacy. d. the principle of diminishing returns. ANSWER: b 196. Billy needs to save for his retirement. Which saving plan would be BEST for him based on the findings of Hershfield et al. (2019)? a. $5/day b. $35/week c. $150/month d. $1,800/year ANSWER: a 197. The view that people make decisions by determining how likely something is to happen, judging the value of the outcome, and then multiplying the two is called: a. psychoeconomics. b. the rational choice theory. c. an algorithm. d. quantitative psychology. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 198. If given the choice, which alternative will the rational person choose? a. 90% opportunity to gain $100 b. 50% opportunity to gain $1,000 c. 40% opportunity to gain $2,000 d. 10% opportunity to gain $4,000 ANSWER: c 199. The rational choice theory of decision making predicts that our judgments will vary depending on: a. the value we assign to possible outcomes of our decisions. b. frequency but not probability. c. our history of successfully attaining other goals based on our decisions. d. the likelihood that someone else will pursue the same decision goals as us. ANSWER: a 200. The phenomenon in which items that are more readily available in memory are judged as having occurred more frequently is called the: a. hindsight bias. b. frequency effect. c. availability heuristic. d. conjunctive fallacy. ANSWER: c 201. When a lottery jackpot is larger than usual: a. fewer people buy lottery tickets. b. more people buy lottery tickets. c. the behavior of people supports rational choice theory. d. the likelihood of any one person winning increases. ANSWER: b 202. Humans excel at estimating: a. frequency. b. probability. c. both frequency and probability. d. probability in childhood but frequency in adulthood. ANSWER: a 203. A simple count of the number of times an event occurs is a _____ measure. a. rate b. probability Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. frequency d. latency ANSWER: c 204. The likelihood that an event will occur is a _____ measure. a. rate b. probability c. frequency d. latency ANSWER: b 205. Two groups of physicians were asked to predict the incidence of breast cancer among women who showed abnormalities on a mammogram screen. One group (group A) was told, "10 out of every 1,000 women actually have breast cancer." The second group (group B) was told, "1% of women actually have breast cancer." The result was that _____ got the right answer. a. nearly half of both groups b. nearly half of group A but less than 10% of group B c. less than 10% of group A but nearly half of group B d. less than 10% of both groups ANSWER: b 206. Leanna, a bride to be, is glancing over an updated list of the people who will be attending her wedding reception. There actually will be an equal number of people from her family and from her fiancé Robert's family. Without counting, Leanna perceives that more people from _____ family will be in attendance due to the _____. a. her; availability bias b. her; the conjunctive fallacy c. Robert's; availability bias d. Robert's; the conjunctive fallacy ANSWER: a 207. Tammy names her baby Evan because she really loves the name. A year later, Tammy comes home upset after picking Evan up from day care. When her spouse inquires as to the problem, Tammy responds that there is another child at the day care named Evan. Her spouse doesn't really see the problem, but Tammy elaborates that they might as well have named their baby Joe Smith because Evan is such a common name. Her spouse does a quick Internet search and convinces Tammy that Evan isn't even in the 20 most popular baby names for boys. Tammy appears to be a victim of the: a. hindsight bias. b. conjunctive fallacy. c. representativeness heuristic. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. availability bias. ANSWER: d 208. _____ are mental shortcuts that may or may not be effective, whereas _____ are well-defined rules that guarantee a solution to a problem. a. Conjunctions; algorithms b. Deductions; heuristics c. Conjunctions; heuristics d. Heuristics; algorithms ANSWER: d 209. Fast and efficient strategies that may facilitate decision making but do not guarantee that a solution will be reached are referred to as: a. an algorithm. b. an availability bias. c. the conjunction fallacy. d. heuristics. ANSWER: d 210. What is a well-defined sequence of procedures or rules that guarantees a solution to a problem? a. an algorithm b. an availability bias c. the conjunction fallacy d. heuristics ANSWER: a 211. The availability bias is an example of a(n): a. algorithm. b. heuristic. c. fallacy. d. framing effect. ANSWER: b 212. People think that two events are more likely to occur together than either event is likely to occur individually. This phenomenon is called the: a. conjunction fallacy. b. category fallacy. c. representativeness heuristic. d. sunk-cost fallacy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 213. Jeff is 33 years old, intelligent, and outgoing. In college, he majored in English and was very concerned with current political issues. Which statement MOST likely describes Jeff? a. Jeff is a bank teller. b. Jeff is a bank teller and writes nonfiction stories. c. Jeff is a bank teller who writes nonfiction stories and does crossword puzzles. d. Jeff is a bank teller who writes nonfiction stories, does crossword puzzles, and is active in his local government. ANSWER: a 214. Because the combined probability of events is always _____ than the independent probability of each event, it's always _____ probable that any one state of affairs is true than a set of events simultaneously. a. less; less b. less; more c. more; more d. more; less ANSWER: b 215. Given that 1 in 10 babies are born with a vascular birthmark, what is the approximate probability of having a boy with a vascular birthmark? a. 1% b. 2% c. 5% d. 10% ANSWER: c 216. The _____ involves making a probability judgment by comparing an object or event with a prototype of the object or event. a. conjunction fallacy b. familiar resemblance theory c. availability heuristic d. representativeness heuristic ANSWER: d 217. Simon is meek, tidy, quiet, and overly concerned with order and detail. When given the choice of guessing if Simon works at a library or at a hospital, most people guess library, even though hospitals employ more people. The guess that Simon works at a library is due to: a. availability bias. b. base-rate decision making. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. the representativeness heuristic. d. the conjunction fallacy. ANSWER: c 218. People using the representativeness heuristic often ignore _____ when making decisions. a. previous experience b. base rates c. prototypes d. exemplars ANSWER: b 219. A researcher administers a survey on issues related to the U.S. health care system to a sample consisting of 60% medical doctors, 30% economists, and 10% lawyers. One of those people surveyed was Carlos, who is 50 years old, wears a shirt and tie, and is good with numbers. Carlos is concerned that the expense of our current health care system will ultimately cause it to collapse. Which statement MOST likely describes Carlos's occupation? a. Carlos is probably a doctor. b. Carlos is probably a lawyer. c. Carlos is probably an economist. d. It is equally likely that Carlos is a doctor or an economist, but unlikely that he is a lawyer. ANSWER: a 220. Jack the Ripper was a serial killer who, in 1888, murdered at least five women in London's slums. Medical examiners at the time were split on the issue of whether Jack the Ripper was right- or left-handed. In the population, about 90% of people are right-handed. Nevertheless, one of the doctors was adamant in his opinion that the wounds suggested a left-handed perpetrator. Based on all the data, what can MOST logically be concluded? a. The odds that Jack the Ripper was left-handed are slightly higher than chance. b. The odds that Jack the Ripper was right-handed are slightly higher than chance. c. The odds that Jack the Ripper was right-handed are much higher than chance. d. There is about a 50% probability that Jack the Ripper was left-handed. ANSWER: c 221. Tomás is considering moving to a new city. He reads that the employment rate in that city is 90%, which he thinks is very favorable. Sura is considering moving to the same city, but she reads that the unemployment rate is 10%, which she thinks is unacceptably high. Why would Tomás and Sura reach such different conclusions based on the same statistics? a. Tomás received information that was framed in a favorable way, whereas Sura received the exact same information but framed in an unfavorable way. b. Tomás used base-rate data and Sura used anecdotal data when forming their decisions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. Tomás relied on the representativeness heuristic when making his decision, whereas Sura relied on the availability heuristic. d. Neither Tomás nor Sura fully considered other cities, so both their judgments were guided by the conjunction fallacy. ANSWER: a 222. Researchers have just discovered a new drug to cure acne, but it has an 80% failure rate. According to the framing effect: a. most teenagers with acne will be eager to try it. b. people will be impressed that one out of five people with acne will be cured. c. dermatologists will immediately start prescribing the medication for their patients with acne. d. people typically will perceive the drug to be of little or no benefit. ANSWER: d 223. What occurs when people give different answers to the same problem depending on how the problem is phrased? a. an algorithm b. the framing effect c. the conjunction fallacy d. heuristics ANSWER: b 224. The notion that people believe that compared with other individuals, they are more likely to experience positive events and less likely to experience negative events in the future is referred to as: a. the framing effect. b. optimism bias. c. the positivity effect. d. the conjunction fallacy. ANSWER: b 225. Interestingly, _____ levels of optimism can be associated with _____ levels of academic achievement. a. higher; lower b. moderate; reduced c. lower; higher d. reduced; increased ANSWER: a 226. People often make decisions about a current situation based on what they have previously invested in the situation. This behavior illustrates: a. the sunk-cost fallacy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice b. the availability bias. c. rational economic theory. d. base-price sensitivity. ANSWER: a 227. Cindy has pumped over $850,000 into a small business that has consistently lost money every year it has been open. She reasons that she has to continue investing time and money in her business because she's "already put so much into it" (instead of selling the business and cutting her losses). Cindy's reasoning illustrates: a. rational economic theory. b. the conjunction fallacy. c. the sunk-cost fallacy. d. the law of demand. ANSWER: c 228. Claire spent $100 for a nonrefundable ticket to a play. Then she found out her granddaughter's first dance recital was the same day. Claire really wanted to go to the recital, but she felt obligated to go to the play. Claire was displaying: a. the representativeness heuristic. b. the sunk-cost fallacy. c. functional fixedness. d. family resemblance bias. ANSWER: b 229. Shannon feels miserable in her marriage but refuses to consider getting a divorce; she feels that a divorce would completely waste all of the hard work she has put into making the marriage work for 20 years. Shannon's line of reasoning BEST illustrates the: a. sunk-cost fallacy. b. conjunction fallacy. c. problem of codependent probabilities. d. family resemblance bias. ANSWER: a 230. People believe that compared with other people, they are more likely to experience positive events and less likely to experience negative events in the future. This phenomenon is termed _____ bias. a. futuristic b. availability c. consistency d. optimism ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 231. George smokes and drinks, and he is overweight, but he would be the first to tell you that he will outlive all of his friends at the bar. George's opinion illustrates: a. the availability heuristic. b. optimism bias. c. the conjunction fallacy. d. the sunk-cost fallacy. ANSWER: b 232. Sixteen-year-old Haley uses a tanning bed several times a week. When asked if she is concerned about skin cancer, she answers that she is not, and then adds that older people with fairer skin are much more likely to get skin cancer than she is. Haley's answer illustrates: a. the availability heuristic. b. optimism bias. c. the conjunction fallacy. d. the sunk-cost fallacy. ANSWER: b 233. _____ is more robust in Americans relative to Eastern cultures. a. The sunk-cost fallacy b. The conjunction fallacy c. Optimism bias d. Availability bias ANSWER: c 234. Fatima is told that a new medication her physician wants her to try is 80% effective. Haruto is told that the same medication has a 20% failure rate. Who is most likely to be optimistic about the new medication? a. Fatima b. Haruto c. Fatima and Haruto are equally likely to be optimistic. d. Neither Fatima nor Haruto are likely to be optimistic. ANSWER: c 235. Prospect theory assumes that people are: a. more willing to take risks when evaluating gains than they are when evaluating losses. b. more willing to take risks when evaluating losses than they are when evaluating gains. c. equally willing to take risks to achieve gains and avoid losses. d. unwilling to take risks either to achieve gains or to avoid losses. ANSWER: b 236. According to a rational model of interference, people should make decisions that maximize value; that is, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice they should strive to maximize what psychologists and economists call: a. base-rate decision making. b. elasticity of demand. c. optimism bias. d. expected utility. ANSWER: d 237. Which view states that people choose to take on risks when evaluating potential losses and avoid risks when evaluating potential gains? a. frequency format hypothesis b. prospect theory c. means–ends analysis d. belief bias ANSWER: b 238. According to prospect theory, when will people choose to take on risks? a. never, as it is a rational choice model b. when evaluating potential gains c. when evaluating potential losses d. when outcomes are framed in terms of probability ANSWER: c 239. According to prospect theory, when will people avoid risks? a. always, as it is a rational choice model b. when evaluating potential gains c. when evaluating potential losses d. when base rates are ignored ANSWER: b 240. When researchers looked for a correlation between participants' subjective risk perceptions and actual risk of contracting COVID-19 during the pandemic, what was found? a. Participants assumed high levels of risk and did not engage in outside activities. b. Participants overestimated actual risk and remained very safe. c. There was a general tendency for participants to underestimate actual risk. d. Participants did not perceive any risk at all. ANSWER: c 241. Sinclair et al. (2021) examined whether episodic simulation of a COVID-19 scenario, combined with numerical facts about the actual risk of COVID-19 in their area, could help people to better align perceived and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice actual risk. What happened in this study? a. Only the numerical feedback given to participants helped in aligning perceived and actual risk. b. The numerical feedback was unnecessary for improved alignment of perceived and actual risk; the episodic simulation alone was able to align the perceived and actual risk. c. The combining of the numerical feedback and the episodic simulation was insufficient to improve aligning the perceived and actual risk associated with COVID-19. d. Pairing the situationally relevant episodic simulation with numerical feedback about actual risk was an effective strategy for better aligning perceived and actual risk. ANSWER: d 242. According to prospect theory, when faced with a decision, people first: a. consider base rates and then make a decision that results in guaranteed utility. b. calculate expected utility and then ignore alternative sources of information that may conflict with this subjective calculation. c. simplify available information and then make a decision that offers the best value. d. choose the best prospect and then seek information out to justify that decision. ANSWER: c 243. When deciding between playing a lottery with an 80% chance of winning $4,000 or receiving $3,000 outright, most people choose the _____ because of the _____. a. lottery; preference for variable rewards b. lottery; rational choice theory c. $3,000; sunk-cost fallacy d. $3,000; certainty effect ANSWER: d 244. Speeding in the town of Chanceville traditionally results in a $300 fine. The judge at the traffic court, however, decides to change the policy. People found guilty of speeding have the choice of paying the $300 fine or spinning a wheel. There is an 80% chance that the needle on the wheel will land on a $400 fine and a 20% chance that the needle will land on "No Fine." The city leaders of Chanceville probably will _____ this new policy because _____. a. oppose; it will result in a 20% loss in revenue b. oppose; it will result in an 80% loss in revenue c. support; most people will pay an average fine that is $100 higher d. be indifferent about; most people will continue to pay the $300 fine instead of take a risk ANSWER: c 245. One assumption of prospect theory is called the certainty effect. This means that: a. when making decisions, people give greater weight to outcomes that are a sure thing. b. people are certain that they want to avoid risk but are unsure that they want to maximize gains. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. when making decisions, people rely more on past outcomes than on future speculations. d. people are certain that they want to maximize gains but are unsure that they want to avoid risks. ANSWER: a 246. Research involving brain damage and risky decision making has often focused on which brain region? a. Broca's area b. Wernicke's area c. prefrontal cortex d. hippocampus ANSWER: c 247. Emotional reactivity was measured by the galvanic skin response in healthy participants and participants with prefrontal cortex damage as they engaged in a gambling task. Compared with the healthy volunteers, the participants with prefrontal cortex damage: a. had a weaker emotional reaction to losses but not to wins. b. had a weaker emotional reaction to both wins and losses. c. had stronger emotional reactions to losses but not to wins. d. did not exhibit anticipatory emotional reactions as they gambled. ANSWER: d 248. Individuals with prefrontal cortex damage engaged in a risky gambling task will show emotional arousal: a. prior to a risky play. b. after experiencing a win but not a loss. c. after experiencing a loss but not a win. d. to both wins and losses. ANSWER: d 249. Individuals with prefrontal cortex damage engaged in a risky gambling task will NOT show emotional arousal: a. prior to a risky play. b. after experiencing a win but will be emotionally aroused after losses. c. after experiencing a loss but will be emotionally aroused after wins. d. after experiencing both wins and losses. ANSWER: a 250. People who frequently engage in risky behaviors are extremely insensitive to the _____ consequences of their behavior. a. immediate negative b. immediate positive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice c. future d. past ANSWER: c 251. Healthy participants and participants with prefrontal cortex damage played a gambling game in which they selected cards from one of four decks. Two of the decks were associated with large wins and large losses (riskier), and the other two decks were associated with small wins and small losses (safer). At the beginning of the game, all participants chose cards from the four decks equally. With extended play, the healthy participants chose more cards from the _____ decks, whereas the participants with prefrontal cortex damage chose cards from _____. a. safer; the riskier decks b. safer; both sets of decks equally c. riskier; the safer decks d. riskier; both sets of decks equally ANSWER: b 252. Living in Las Vegas, Elaine has been exposed to the gambling industry her entire life but has only been a recreational player. After experiencing a stroke which damaged her prefrontal cortex, however, Elaine has recently developed a gambling problem. This is MOST likely because Elaine has: a. blunted emotional arousal to losses. b. exaggerated emotional arousal to wins. c. blunted emotional arousal to both wins and losses. d. blunted emotional arousal to the prospect of making a risky decision. ANSWER: d 253. Friends et al. noticed a change in Andrew's behavior after Andrew, age 60, experienced a stroke. Andrew shifted most of his retirement assets to high-risk stocks, began an affair with his coworker, and started using cocaine. Andrew MOST likely experienced damage to his: a. prefrontal cortex. b. Wernicke's area. c. amygdala. d. right temporal lobe. ANSWER: a 254. People with damage to their prefrontal cortex perform most similarly to _____ on gambling tasks. a. people who use drugs and alcohol b. people with split-brain procedure c. people with amnesia d. people who are depressed ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 255. According to research, damage to _____ is associated with risky decision making and insensitivity to the future consequences of behavior. a. the occipital lobe b. Wernicke's area c. the prefrontal lobe d. Broca's area ANSWER: c 256. Which problem is ill-defined? a. the next move in a game of chess b. an algebraic problem c. how to be a better person d. how to put together a new toy using the six-page instructional guide ANSWER: c 257. Which problem is ill-defined? a. the solution to a geometric proof b. how to find your classroom on the first day of school c. the best public policies to maximize societal well-being d. how to use a new coffee maker ANSWER: c 258. The basis of means–ends analysis as a problem-solving technique is to: a. reword a well-defined problem to make it seem more technical. b. stick to a systematic plan regardless of any obstacles encountered during the process. c. search for a way to reduce differences between a current situation and the desired goal. d. reword an algorithm into a heuristic. ANSWER: c 259. A problem that does not have a clear goal or path to a solution is said to be: a. ill-defined. b. a heuristic. c. an algorithm. d. a rational choice. ANSWER: a 260. A process of searching for the steps to reduce the differences between the current situation and the desired goal is called: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice a. rational choice reasoning. b. illusory truth effect. c. means–ends analysis. d. syllogistic reasoning. ANSWER: c 261. Means–ends analysis got its start by looking at how people solved _____ problems. a. well-defined b. ill-defined c. logical d. mathematical ANSWER: b 262. When presented with a problem, the FIRST step in means–ends analysis is to: a. analyze the final goal state that you would like to achieve. b. find a similar problem with a known solution. c. break the problem into smaller problems. d. create a list of subgoals. ANSWER: a 263. When presented with a problem, after analyzing the final goal state, the SECOND step in means–ends analysis is to: a. create a list of goals. b. analyze the current state. c. break the problem into smaller parts. d. resolve differences between the current state and the final goal state. ANSWER: b 264. Means–ends analysis was FIRST described by: a. Friedrich Gauss. b. Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman. c. Karl Duncker. d. Eleanor Rosch. ANSWER: c 265. Which strategy is NOT used in means–ends analysis? a. relying on heuristics b. solving the problem directly if possible c. generating subgoals and solving those Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. finding a similar problem with a known solution ANSWER: a 266. Paul is deep in credit card debt. His goal state is to be debt free, but he doesn't have nearly enough money to pay off his debt at the moment. According to a means–ends analysis, Paul should: a. revise his goal state such that it is more realistic with his current situation. b. acquire the money by any means necessary; the ends justify the means. c. use cognitive reappraisal techniques to change the way he feels about being in debt. d. take small steps to move from his current situation to one that is closer to his end goal. ANSWER: d 267. A patient has an inoperable tumor. Destroying the tumor with chemotherapy represents a(n) _____ solution. a. direct means b. indirect means c. sunk-cost d. analogical ANSWER: a 268. When we solve a problem by finding a similar problem with a known solution and applying that solution to the current problem, we are engaged in: a. deductive reasoning. b. insightful solutions. c. analogical problem solving. d. heuristic reasoning. ANSWER: c 269. Two problems are said to be analogous when they: a. have the same superficial goal state. b. have the same superficial current state. c. differ in structure but deal with the same topic. d. have a similar structure in terms of current and goal states. ANSWER: d 270. Which scenario will NOT increase the effectiveness of analogical problem? a. The analogical problem has a known solution. b. The analogical problem differs greatly in superficial similarity from the original problem. c. More than one analogous problem is available for use in solving the original problem. d. A deliberate hint is provided to use the solution to the analogous problem in solving the original Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice problem. ANSWER: b 271. According to Gestalt psychologists, insights reflect: a. a spontaneous restructuring of a problem. b. a genius level of intelligence. c. the outcome of a means–ends analysis. d. the contributions of incremental unconscious processes. ANSWER: a 272. In a study by Bowers et al. (1990), participants were shown three words and were asked to generate a fourth word consistent with the series. Problems with no solution were termed: a. incoherent. b. insightful. c. rational. d. categorical. ANSWER: a 273. According to _____ psychologists, insights reflect a spontaneous restructuring of a problem. a. behavioral b. Gestalt c. psychoanalytic d. evolutionary ANSWER: b 274. A sudden flash of insight contrasts mostly with _____ problem-solving approaches in which one gets closer and closer to the end goal. a. base-rate b. conjunctive c. incremental d. representativeness ANSWER: c 275. Metcalfe and Wiebe (1987) gave participants problems that required insightful solutions and problems that could be answered using incremental problem-solving techniques. While attempting to solve problems, they asked the participants to use a hot–cold scale to report if they felt they were getting closer to the answer. Reports that they were getting "warm" predicted the ability to solve: a. insight problems. b. noninsight problems. c. both insight and noninsight problems. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. neither insight nor noninsight problems. ANSWER: b 276. Recent research on insight suggests that insightful solutions: a. result from conscious incremental processes such as means–ends analysis. b. are generated instantaneously by the brain. c. are the result of incremental unconscious processes. d. arise most often through the use of visual imagery. ANSWER: c 277. Which statement constitutes a research finding that supports the argument that insights do not occur in a sudden, all-or-nothing manner, but instead reflect incremental unconscious processes? a. People who experience insight later can report the steps that led to the solution if they are asked to reflect on the process. b. People are able to accurately predict that they are on the verge of an insightful solution. c. People most often solve problems insightfully during altered states of consciousness. d. People can accurately determine whether an insight problem has a solution, even if they cannot solve the problem. ANSWER: d 278. In a study by Bowers et al. (1990), participants were shown three words and were asked to generate a fourth word consistent with the series. Solvable series were termed: a. coherent. b. insightful. c. rational. d. categorical. ANSWER: a 279. In a study by Bowers et al. (1990), participants were shown three words and were asked to generate a fourth word consistent with the series. Which grouping is a coherent series? a. noise, foam, shade b. blank, white, lines c. army, sickness, pencil d. light, folk, tapestry ANSWER: b 280. While solving problems, insight is associated with a burst of activity in the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. right temporal lobe. c. right parietal lobe. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice d. cerebellum. ANSWER: b 281. In a study by Bowers et al. (1990), participants were shown three words and were asked to generate a fourth word consistent with the series. Which grouping is a coherent series? a. noise, foam, shade b. mouse, triangle, toe c. ticket, shop, broker d. dinner, car, diploma ANSWER: c 282. In a study by Bowers et al. (1990), participants were shown three words and were asked to generate a fourth word consistent with the series. These researchers found that participants: a. could not distinguish series that were solvable from those that were not above chance levels. b. exhibited a strong bias to report that series were solvable. c. exhibited a strong bias to report that series were unsolvable. d. could classify series as solvable or unsolvable, even if they could not solve them. ANSWER: d 283. Research has indicated that the only brain region associated with insight learning is the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. amygdala. c. left occipital lobe. d. right temporal lobe. ANSWER: d 284. Research has indicated that the right temporal lobe is MOST involved in: a. insightful problem solving. b. means–ends analysis. c. impulsive choice. d. analogical problem solving. ANSWER: a 285. Insight problem solving is uncommon because problem solving suffers from: a. the availability bias. b. base-rate insensitivity. c. framing effects. d. the sunk-cost fallacy. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 286. Functional fixedness occurs when we: a. tend to perceive the functions of objects as fixed or unchanging. b. persist in applying a large set of solutions to a wide range of problems. c. discover a "prime solution" that applies to several analogous problems. d. fix a problem by finding the correct solution. ANSWER: a 287. Because he is a hopeless romantic, Chad buys his spouse a single red rose for no particular reason while grocery shopping. Realizing that they don't own a vase, he also buys the only one the supermarket has in stock, which is rather expensive. Upon coming home, his spouse says, "Thanks for the rose, but is the vase really necessary? We can just put it in one an empty wine bottle that is in the kitchen." Chad's failure to realize that a wine bottle can serve as a makeshift, yet romantic, vase is an example of: a. the recency effect. b. the availability bias. c. semantic interference. d. functional fixedness. ANSWER: d 288. In the moments before a problem is solved by insight, there is increased activity deep in the frontal lobes, in the part of the brain known as the: a. ventral tegmentum area. b. anterior cingulate. c. reticular formation. d. nucleus accumbens. ANSWER: b 289. Mental activity that consists of organizing information or beliefs into a series of steps in order to reach conclusions is known as: a. induction. b. deduction. c. reasoning. d. categorization. ANSWER: c 290. _____ is a system of rules that specifies which conclusions follow from a set of statements. a. Semantics b. Logic c. Syntax d. Reasoning Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 291. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between logic and reasoning? a. If people reason, they necessarily use logic. b. Logic is a necessary and sufficient cause of reasoning. c. Logic is a tool to evaluate reasoning. d. Logic frames the parameters in which reasoning can occur. ANSWER: c 292. _____ is a mental activity that consists of organizing information or beliefs into a series of steps in order to reach conclusions. a. Reasoning b. Telegraphic speech c. Cognitive speech d. Genetic dysphasia ANSWER: a 293. People's judgments about whether to accept conclusions often depend more on _____ than they do on _____. a. the logical validity of the argument; the form in which the argument is presented b. how believable the conclusions are; the logical validity of the argument c. the logical validity of the argument; how believable the conclusions are d. the argument form; how believable the conclusions are ANSWER: b 294. People's judgments about whether to accept conclusions depends more on how believable the conclusions are than on whether the arguments are logically valid. This phenomenon is termed: a. functional fixedness. b. availability bias. c. belief bias. d. belief irrationality. ANSWER: c 295. A syllogism is a form of reasoning in which: a. persuasive arguments sway a listener into believing a set of claims. b. speculation takes precedence over facts. c. a conclusion follows from two statements that are true. d. a conclusion is implied but not directly stated. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 296. What method is used to assess whether a conclusion follows from two statements that are assumed to be true? a. rational choice reasoning b. illusory truth effect c. means–ends analysis d. syllogistic reasoning ANSWER: d 297. An error in reasoning that occurs when repeated exposure to a statement increases the likelihood that people will judge that statement to be true is called: a. rational choice reasoning. b. the illusory truth effect. c. means-ends analysis. d. syllogistic reasoning. ANSWER: b 298. Exposing consumers to false news stories repeatedly increases their estimates of the story's accuracy. This is related to: a. rational choice reasoning. b. the illusory truth effect. c. means-ends analysis. d. syllogistic reasoning. ANSWER: b

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TB6 Chapter 9 Scenario Scenario 9.1 is based on and presents results consistent with the following studies: Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. doi:10.1016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. doi:10.1111/j.1467-9280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances, simple sentences containing function morphemes, and the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker et al. (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

1. (Scenario 9.1) Snedeker et al. (2007) refer to their research program as a "natural experiment." However, for which reason is it NOT an example of a true experimental design? a. Participants were not sampled randomly from the population. b. The study is not empirical in nature and lacks measurement reliability. c. There is no random assignment to groups and no manipulation of an independent variable. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Scenario d. It is difficult to ascertain if the results would generalize to other languages. ANSWER: d 2. (Scenario 9.1) Which statement is an example of interpreting orderly changes in language development as a result of emerging cognitive skills? a. The universality of grammar rules suggests the presence of an innate language acquisition device. b. In infants acquiring language, sentences at first are short (e.g., two words) because working memory has yet to fully develop. c. Language acquisition progresses in orderly stages only if critical environmental components, such as continued social interaction, are present. d. Maturing infants imitate the sounds that they hear, in part due to reinforcement from their parents. ANSWER: b 3. (Scenario 9.1) Which reason BEST explains why the research question posed in the scenario could not be answered by studying infants' acquisition of the English language and comparing it with infants' acquisition of the Spanish language in American-born bilingual homes? a. Language and cognitive development remain confounded in these groups. b. The two groups differ on many potential third variables that could affect rates of language acquisition. c. English and Spanish are too similar linguistically for meaningful differences in language acquisition to occur. d. The linguistic expertise of the parents in the two groups may differ. ANSWER: a 4. (Scenario 9.1) Snedeker et al. (2007) studied the acquisition of English as a second language in preschool children adopted from China. In trying to disentangle the role of linguistic and cognitive development on language acquisition, which factor would serve as the MOST appropriate control group? a. the acquisition of English by Chinese teens who previously had no exposure to the English language b. the acquisition of Mandarin by American-born preschoolers adopted into Chinese families c. the acquisition of Mandarin over the first 2 years of life in Chinese-born infants d. the acquisition of English as a first language in Chinese infants adopted into American families ANSWER: d 5. (Scenario 9.1) Figure 9.1 shows the number of verbs, expressed as a percentage of total English vocabulary, between 6 and 24 months of exposure to the English language in internationally adopted preschoolers from China and monolingual infants. Four fabricated sets of data (labeled A–D) are shown. Which data set provides the MOST support for the contention that cognitive factors play a role in language development? a. data set A b. data set B c. data set C d. data set D Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Scenario ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 9.1) Which data set in Figure 9.1 provides the MOST support for the contention that language development is critically dependent on experience with the language? a. data set A b. data set B c. data set C d. data set D ANSWER: d 7. (Scenario 9.1) In a second study, Snedeker et al. (2012) found that older (e.g., 5-year-old) internationally adopted children acquiring English as a second language began correctly using words pertaining to time (e.g., yesterday, tomorrow) earlier in their exposure to English than did monolingual infant controls. This observed difference is BEST interpreted as: a. support for the contention that linguistic development is a separate process from cognitive development. b. resulting from more advanced cognitive development in the older children. c. a reflection of previously developed linguistic expertise in the older children's first language. d. resulting from some combination of more advanced cognitive development and previous linguistic development in the older children's first language. ANSWER: d Scenario 9.2 is based on and presents results consistent with the following study: Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. doi:10.1126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara et al. (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara et al. measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred to both wins and losses. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Scenario Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 8. (Scenario 9.2) The results of this experiment illustrate the role of emotional experience on decision making. Choice situations involving probabilistic outcomes often elicit feelings of anxiety, operationally defined in this study as: a. the anticipatory GSR. b. the postoutcome GSR. c. deck preference. d. the programmed rate of wins and losses among decks. ANSWER: a 9. (Scenario 9.2) Which factor was NOT a dependent variable? a. GSR b. deck selection c. programmed loss amount d. verbal reports about game strategy ANSWER: c 10. (Scenario 9.2) Bechara et al. (1997) studied patients with brain damage in which areas? a. Wernicke's area in the left temporal lobe b. the prefrontal cortex c. the amygdala d. the hippocampus ANSWER: b 11. (Scenario 9.2) What can be accurately inferred from the scenario? a. The patients with brain damage lacked the ability to respond emotionally to wins and losses. b. All other things being equal, the patients with brain damage had a much stronger behavioral preference for the larger reward than did the control participants. c. The patients with brain damage had a much stronger emotional response to wins than to losses. d. The likelihood of losses leading up to a choice elicited a blunted emotional response in the patients with brain damage. ANSWER: d 12. (Scenario 9.2) The results of this experiment suggest that individuals with this particular type of brain Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Scenario damage exhibit the GREATEST deficits in the ability to: a. experience emotions related to wins and losses. b. modify behavior based on future consequences. c. calculate odds ratios. d. identify the difference between a risky and a safe choice. ANSWER: b Scenario 9.3 references the following study: Kahneman, D., & Tversky, A. (1979). Prospect theory: An analysis of decision under risk. Econometrica, 47, 263–291. According to rational choice theory, people make decisions based solely on the expected utility of the outcomes. People should choose the outcome that maximizes whatever they most value. However, people are not rational agents and often fall victim to biases, judgment errors, and fallacies in their decision making. People tend to judge frequencies better than probabilities, estimate events more available in memory as more probable than they actually are (availability bias), and make decisions about a current situation based on what they previously invested (sunk-cost fallacy). People also are more motivated to avoid losses than pursue gains, even if the expected utility of the gains is greater than the losses. Prospect theory (Kahneman & Tversky, 1979) states that people prefer certain outcomes to uncertain outcomes, are less likely to tolerate risk when making decisions about potential gains, and are more likely to tolerate risk when making decisions about potential losses. 13. (Scenario 9.3) Julie's friend won $1,000 from a scratch-off lottery ticket last week. Hearing this, Julie started buying tickets and judges her likelihood of winning as much higher than it actually is. Julie's pattern of thinking is a good example of: a. prospect theory. b. preference for certain outcomes. c. availability bias. d. the sunk-cost fallacy. ANSWER: c 14. (Scenario 9.3) Joc finds season four of a particular drama painfully boring. He keeps watching it because he watched the first three seasons and feels that if he stops watching, his time will have been wasted. Joc's decision is an example of: a. a rational choice. b. not tolerating risk when considering losses. c. availability bias. d. the sunk-cost fallacy. ANSWER: d 15. (Scenario 9.3) Although she is deeply unhappy in her relationship, Erika will not leave her partner because they have been together for several years. Erika reasons that she has put great effort into the relationship and doesn't want to see it fail. Why is Erika's decision a logical fallacy? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 9 Scenario a. Erika is choosing to have worked hard and stay unhappy over working hard and possibly being happier. b. Erika is biased toward pursuing long-term relationships even if they are not healthy. c. Erika's decision assumes her partner worked equally hard on the relationship. d. Erika is not basing her decision on the probability that they will remain together in the long-term. ANSWER: a 16. (Scenario 9.3) A patient has been diagnosed with a condition that—even with treatment—has a 30% fatality rate. How should the doctor best explain this prognosis to maximize the patient's understanding of it and motivation to pursue treatment? a. "With treatment, the probability of this condition being fatal is 0.3." b. "Research indicates that the probability of you surviving with effective treatment is 0.7." c. "If we start effective treatment, you have a 70% chance of recovery." d. "Seven out of ten people recover from this condition with effective treatment." ANSWER: d 17. (Scenario 9.3) Prospect theory predicts that most people will choose which outcome? a. a situation where they are just given $50 b. a 50% probability of winning $90 c. a 25% probability of winning $240 d. a 75% chance of losing $100 ANSWER: a 18. (Scenario 9.3) Prospect theory—but not rational choice theory—predicts that most people would choose a: a. $50 payout over a 40% of winning $100. b. 25% chance of a $100 fine over a fixed $30 fine. c. $20 payout over a 25% chance of winning $100. d. 40% chance of a $100 fine over a fixed $50 fine. ANSWER: a

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TB6 Chapter 10 Essay 1. Compare and contrast a ratio IQ and a deviation IQ. For what age group is each of these IQ scores typically computed? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that ratio IQ is a statistic obtained by dividing a person's mental age by the person's physical age and then multiplying the quotient by 100. A deviation IQ is a statistic obtained by dividing a person's test score by the average test score of people in the same age group and then multiplying the quotient by 100. Modern researchers compute the ratio IQ for children and the deviation IQ for adults. 2. A group of middle-school children are discussing their scores on an IQ test. The children conclude that the test just measures "book smarts" and doesn't really mean anything. How might you respond to these children? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Unlike other tests they have taken that measure achievement on a given subject (e.g., Can you multiply fractions accurately?), IQ tests measure aptitude, or the ability to learn independently of previous educational experiences. Because the test measures aptitude, and not achievement, it is completely unlike other types of tests that they routinely take in school. (2) It is true that scores on IQ tests predict academic achievement. People who score high on IQ tests also tend to do well in school. But that doesn't mean that the test simply measures "book smarts." Beyond success in school, intelligence tests predict all sorts of things that people care about, such as job performance, income, success in relationships, and even longevity of life. 3. Compare and contrast Spearman's and Thurstone's views of intelligence. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Spearman believed that if there is a single ability called intelligence that enables people to perform a variety of intelligent behaviors, then people who have the ability should do well in just about everything, and those who lack it should do well at nothing. He developed this belief by measuring how well school-age children could discriminate small differences in color, auditory pitch, and weight; then he correlated these measures with the children's grades. He combined the results into a two-factor theory of intelligence that suggested that every task requires a combination of a general ability (g) and skills that are specific to the task (s). (2) The two-factor theory of intelligence can be illustrated in someone with exceptional musical ability. According to Spearman, this exceptional ability is the combination of a high level of general ability (g) combined with knowledge and ability specific to music (s). Because g is high, Spearman would predict that the person probably will do well in other areas, such as verbal comprehension and the ability to solve mathematical problems. The person may not perform exceptionally in these areas, however, because the specific skills relative to those tasks may not have been mastered. (3) Louis Thurstone disagreed with Spearman's views. He noticed that although scores on most tests were positively correlated, scores on verbal tests were more highly correlated with scores on other verbal tests than they were with scores on perceptual tests. Thurstone took this to mean that there was no such thing as g and that there were instead a few stable and independent mental abilities, which he called primary mental abilities. These mental abilities were neither general like g nor specific like s. Thurstone's primary mental abilities included word fluency, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, spatial visualization, associative memory, perceptual speed, and reasoning. According to Thurstone's model, it is quite possible for someone to be both a great writer and inept at solving simple algebraic problems because these tasks involve different primary mental abilities.

4. Discuss how the modern three-level hierarchy of mental abilities incorporates views from both Spearman and Thurstone. ANSWER: This answer should include the following information: (1) From top to bottom, the three-level hierarchy of mental abilities moves from general to specific. At the top of the hierarchy is general intelligence, analogous to Spearman's g. At the bottom of the hierarchy are many specific abilities, analogous to Spearman's s. Group factors, or middle-level abilities, are in the middle of the hierarchy. These are analogous to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. (2) Unlike Spearman's two-factor theory of intelligence, general ability does not interact with specific factors directly. Instead, general intelligence influences a small number of middle-level abilities. These middle-level abilities are each associated with a set of specific abilities. (3) For example, someone with high general intelligence might, as a result, be strong in the middle-level ability of reasoning. This person probably will be successful in specific tasks that involve reasoning, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Essay such as solving logic problems and making legal arguments.

5. Distinguish between crystallized and fluid intelligence and give an example of each. What evidence is there to suggest that crystallized and fluid intelligence are two different abilities? ANSWER: This answer should include the following information: (1) John Carroll identified crystallized and fluid intelligence as distinct middle-level abilities. (2) Crystallized intelligence involves the ability to apply knowledge that was acquired from experience. An example of crystallized intelligence is using the second language you learned in the classroom in a real-world situation. (3) Fluid intelligence involves the ability to solve and reason about novel problems. Fluid intelligence often is measured by giving participants abstract problems in novel domains that must be solved under time constraints. (4) Crystallized and fluid intelligence appear to activate different areas of the brain. For example, damage to the prefrontal cortex impairs fluid intelligence more so than crystallized intelligence. In contrast, Alzheimer's disease results in more impairments in crystallized intelligence than in fluid intelligence.

6. Discuss Sternberg's view of intelligence, and which type is considered the better predictor of job performance. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that Sternberg believed that there were three types of intelligence: analytic, creative, and practical. Analytic intelligence is the ability to identify and define problems and to find strategies for solving them. Creative intelligence is the ability to generate solutions that other people could not. Practical intelligence is the ability to apply and implement solutions in everyday settings. According to Sternberg, standard intelligence tests confront people with clearly defined problems that have one right answer and then supply all the information needed to solve them. These types of problems require analytic intelligence. However, everyday life confronts people with situations in which they must formulate the problem, find the information needed to solve it, and then choose among multiple acceptable solutions. The solutions to these problems require practical intelligence. Sternberg argued that tests of practical intelligence are better than tests of analytic intelligence at predicting a person's job performance.

7. How do the results of twin studies help researchers determine the contributions of heredity and environment in determining intelligence? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that greater genetic similarity is associated with higher correlations in IQ, suggesting that intelligence is partly inherited. For example, the IQ correlation between identical twins (whose genetic overlap is 100%) reared together is higher than that of fraternal twins (who have 50% genetic overlap) reared together. In fact, the IQ correlation between identical twins separated at birth and raised in different homes is higher than that of fraternal twins raised together. In addition to these data, siblings who are biologically related have more similar IQ scores than nonbiological siblings. Finally, the IQ correlation between parents and their biological children is greater than the IQ correlation between parents and their adopted children. These data clearly show that genetics plays a large role in influencing intelligence. The environment also affects intelligence levels. For all of the aforementioned groups, the IQ correlation is higher if the pairs live in the same household relative to living in different households. Moreover, the IQ correlation between nonbiological siblings raised together is higher than that of biological siblings raised apart.

8. Professor Thomas is explaining the heritability coefficient to her class. Provide information to help her describe the heritability coefficient and explain factors that can influence the size of this statistic. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The heritability coefficient is a statistic that describes the proportion of the difference between people's IQ scores that can be explained by differences in their genetic makeup. The heritability of intelligence in the general population is roughly between 0.5 and 0.7. (2) This does not mean that 50%–70% of a person's intelligence is due to genetics and 30%–50% is due to the environment. The heritability coefficient refers to populations. It is meaningless to apply it to individuals. At the individual level, genes and environment constantly interact to determine the complex behaviors associated with intelligence. Because of this, one cannot say that intelligence is due more to genes or to the environment; intelligence is a product of both. (3) To understand what a heritability coefficient is, imagine we both genotype and administer an intelligence test to all 80,000 fans at a football game. There will be a normal distribution of IQ scores, with the average score being 100. About 50%– 70% of the variability in IQ scores can be predicted by the observed range in genetic variability. The other 30%–50% is presumably due to environmental factors. (4) There are several things that can influence the size of the heritability coefficient, including socioeconomic status, age, and environment. The heritability coefficient increases with family income as well as with age. The reason for this is that the home environments of wealthy families tend to be more Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Essay similar than the home environments of people lower in socioeconomic status. Moreover, as people age, their shared experiences increase. Whenever the environment becomes more similar, observed differences in intelligence must be due more to genetics; thus, the heritability coefficient increases.

9. Provide several reasons children raised in high-SES homes have, on average, higher intelligence scores than children raised in low-SES homes. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Children exposed to impoverished environments also may not receive adequate nutrition or medical care; they also have a greater risk of being exposed to toxins, pollutants, and stress than do children of high-SES families. These factors may negatively impact brain development. (2) Children who grow up in intellectually stimulating environments tend to have higher intelligence scores than do children who grow up in less stimulating environments. Compared with low-SES parents, high-SES parents are more likely to read to their children, ask their children stimulating questions, and expose them to more vocabulary.

10. Explain the relationship, if any, between education and intelligence. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Intelligence and educational level are positively correlated. This is largely the result of intelligent people receiving more formal education than less intelligent people. (2) Education does, however, make people smarter. When schooling is delayed by natural disaster, strife, war, or the lack of available teachers, children show a decrease in intelligence. Children born in the last 3 months of the year, who often have to start school later due to missing cut-off dates, also show lower average intelligence scores. Conversely, preschool has been shown to increase intelligence levels. (3) Unfortunately, the ability of education to increase intelligence is limited. The positive effects of education on intelligence appear to be short lived and dissipate when education stops.

11. What is the stereotype threat? Using specific examples, describe how stereotype threats can influence how individuals perform on intelligence tests. ANSWER: The stereotype threat is the fear of confirming the negative beliefs that others may hold. For example, Black students perform more poorly on tests if they are asked to report their race at the top of the answer sheet because doing so causes them to feel anxious about confirming racial stereotypes; the anxiety thus interferes with their test performance. Also, when Asian American women are reminded of their gender before testing, they perform unusually poorly on math tests. However, when they are instead reminded of their ethnicity, they perform well on the same tests, probably because they are aware of stereotypes suggesting that Asians are especially good at math.

12. Which social, cultural, and other environmental factors help explain some of the racial differences in intelligence test scores? Discuss research that has attempted to identify genetic determinants of racial differences in intelligence scores. Does the evidence suggest that racial differences in intelligence are due to environmental or genetic factors? ANSWER: The answer may include the following information: (1) Several social, cultural, and other environmental factors help explain some of the racial differences in intelligence scores. For example, the average Black child has a lower SES than the average white child. Black children tend to come from families with less income; attend worse schools; and have lower birth weights, poorer diets, higher rates of chronic illness, lower rates of treatment, and so on. All these factors can affect intelligence. For almost a century, SES has proved to be a better predictor than ethnicity of a child's intelligence test performance. (2) To date, there is no evidence to suggest that racial differences in intelligence are due to genetics. Moreover, there are data inconsistent with this hypothesis. For example, the average Black American has 20% European genes. There is no evidence to suggest that Black Americans with higher percentages of European genes have higher intelligence levels. Moreover, there is no difference in intelligence scores between Black children and mixed-race children when adopted into middle-class families. If racial differences in intelligence were genetically based, we would expect to see differences in these groups. Thus, it appears that racial differences in intelligence scores are due to environmental factors and not to genetic factors.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 1. People with Williams syndrome often cannot tie their own shoes, make their beds, or perform simple arithmetic; but often they have great talent in the area of music or language. This illustrates the complexities in developing a definition of: a. education. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. genetics. ANSWER: b 2. James has Williams syndrome. He cannot tie his own shoes, make his bed, or perform simple arithmetic. However, he has great talent in the area of music. This illustrates the complexities in developing a definition of: a. education. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. genetics. ANSWER: b 3. The ability to use one's mind to solve novel problems and learn from experience is termed: a. education. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. creativity. ANSWER: b 4. Which measure of intelligence is the LEAST valid? a. how quickly one can learn a new skill b. the ability to solve a novel problem c. the ability to comprehend complex ideas d. the ability to recall U.S. presidents in order ANSWER: d 5. Which measure of intelligence is the LEAST valid? a. the time it takes one to learn how to solve an Edgar Allan Poe–themed jigsaw puzzle b. the ability to accurately predict the ending of an Edgar Allan Poe mystery c. the ability to recognize that a portrait is of Edgar Allan Poe d. the ability to read and understand abstract themes in Edgar Allan Poe's writings ANSWER: c 6. Participants are shown a series of blinking lights: red, green, white, and light blue. The stimuli blink seemingly at random, but there is a pattern. Participants are asked questions about the lights during the task. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Which ability reveals the LEAST about intelligence? a. labeling the light blue stimulus as periwinkle b. recognizing that there is a pattern c. recognizing very quickly that there is a pattern d. predicting the next light stimulus ANSWER: a 7. Intelligence does NOT involve: a. solving new problems. b. abstract reasoning. c. book learning. d. learning from experience. ANSWER: c 8. Which ability might BEST measure intelligence? a. classifying art from different periods b. distinguishing positive from negative reinforcement c. identifying an option on a multiple-choice exam as incorrect based on the fact that the longest option is rarely the correct one d. detecting a common relational theme among word pairs ANSWER: d 9. Which ability MOST involves intelligence? a. learning how to play the guitar by watching videos on the Internet b. reciting the definition of an octave c. playing the A chord repeatedly without error d. memorizing the notes to the beginning of a Nirvana riff ANSWER: a 10. Which term did Binet and Simon use when referring to an aptitude for learning? a. academic achievement b. specific intelligence c. natural intelligence d. general intelligence ANSWER: c 11. Who created the first intelligence tests? a. Henry Goddard and Louis Thurstone b. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. Theodore Simon and Charles Spearman d. Louis Thurstone and Leland Stanford ANSWER: b 12. The deviation IQ divides an individual's score by the _____, which allows for a more efficient measure of IQ among different age groups. a. average test score of people in the same age group b. average test score of people in different age groups c. person's physical age d. person's mental age ANSWER: a 13. Simon and Binet developed the IQ test as a: a. measure of the components of intelligence. b. measure of a child's aptitude for learning. c. justification for racial segregation. d. measure of past academic achievement. ANSWER: b 14. Binet and Simon designed their intelligence test to: a. weed out the lower-scoring immigrants emigrating to the United States. b. weed out the lower-scoring immigrants emigrating to France. c. identify a child's aptitude for learning, independent of prior achievements. d. identify the academically gifted. ANSWER: c 15. To compare the IQ scores of children and adults in their respective age groups, researchers compute the _____ IQ for children and the _____ for adults. a. ratio; Stanford–Binet b. ratio; deviation IQ c. deviation; ratio IQ d. deviation; WAIS-IV ANSWER: b 16. Which statement about intelligence tests is TRUE? a. Taking an intelligence test improves a person's career prospects. b. Intelligence tests cannot be administered to people who cannot write. c. The WAIS is a common intelligence test given to children. d. Intelligence tests evaluate the ability to recall general knowledge. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 17. Who proposed that a child's mental level was better thought of as the child's mental age? a. Binet b. Wechsler c. Simon d. Stern ANSWER: d 18. An IQ score is NOT correlated with: a. job performance. b. education. c. income. d. physical attractiveness. ANSWER: d 19. Based on data collected over several years, intelligence tests were found to BEST predict: a. marital status. b. income. c. vocabulary. d. reading skills. ANSWER: b 20. A 4-year-old child with the mental age of 5 has a ratio IQ of: a. 80. b. 100. c. 110. d. 125. ANSWER: d 21. Most modern intelligence tests have their roots in: a. identifying those who should be supported to develop their genius. b. Binet and Simon's original test. c. identifying prior learning. d. identifying genius rather than identifying those who are intellectually challenged. ANSWER: b 22. Which psychologist developed an intelligence test for adults and one for children? a. David Wechsler Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice b. Alfred Binet c. Lewis Terman d. Theodore Simon ANSWER: a 23. Why was the first intelligence test developed? a. to identify the brightest children so that they could be given enriched instruction b. to identify children who needed remedial education c. to identify children who were of average intelligence d. to free teachers from making subjective assessments of children's intelligence ANSWER: b 24. The first intelligence tests were developed as part of education reforms in: a. England. b. the United States. c. France. d. Germany. ANSWER: c 25. Binet and Simon designed their intelligence test to measure a child's: a. aptitude for learning. b. prior educational achievement. c. future job performance. d. creativity. ANSWER: a 26. Malia, age 12, earns straight A's in history, science, math, English, and geography. Her grades in these classes measure Molly's: a. aptitude. b. achievement. c. natural intelligence. d. mental age. ANSWER: b 27. Jiro is 10 years old. His score on an intelligence test is the same as that of an 8-year-old. We can conclude that Jiro: a. is intellectually gifted. b. is intellectually average. c. may need remedial education. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. is likely very creative. ANSWER: c 28. Suzie displays the mental ability typical of a 6-year-old child. Which statement is necessarily TRUE? a. Suzie's physical age is at least 6. b. Suzie's mental age is 6. c. Suzie's mental age can be calculated by subtracting 6 from her physical age. d. Suzie's mental age can be calculated by dividing her physical age by 6. ANSWER: b 29. Who FIRST proposed dividing mental age by physical age to obtain an intelligence quotient? a. Henry Goddard b. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon c. William Stern d. Charles Spearman ANSWER: c 30. Isabel is 3 years old. Her mental age is 5. What is her ratio IQ? a. 60 b. 100 c. 120 d. 167 ANSWER: d 31. Harry is 10 years old. His mental age is 8. What is his ratio IQ? a. 20 b. 80 c. 120 d. 125 ANSWER: b 32. Suki is 7 years old and has a mental age of 7. What is her ratio IQ? a. 7 b. 70 c. 100 d. 170 ANSWER: c 33. Which depicts how the ratio IQ is calculated? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. mental age/chronological age × 100 b. chronological age − mental age × 100 c. chronological age/mental age × 100 d. mental age − chronological age × 100 ANSWER: a 34. The ratio IQ is NOT appropriate for a person of age: a. 3. b. 6. c. 12. d. 30. ANSWER: d 35. A statistic obtained by dividing a person's mental age by the person's physical age and then multiplying the quotient by 100 is: a. the ratio IQ. b. the deviation IQ. c. academic performance. d. musical performance. ANSWER: a 36. The deviation IQ is a statistic obtained by: a. subtracting a person's test score from the average score of people in the same age group and multiplying the result by 100. b. adding a person's test score to the average score of people in the same age group and then subtracting 100. c. dividing a person's test score by the average test score of people in the same age group and multiplying the result by 100. d. dividing the average test score of people in a given age group by the score of an individual in that age group and multiplying the result by 100. ANSWER: c 37. Modern researchers compute the _____ IQ for children and the _____ IQ for adults. a. ratio; ratio b. deviation; ratio c. ratio; deviation d. deviation; deviation ANSWER: c 38. A statistic obtained by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult's test score and then multiplying Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice the quotient by 100 is: a. the ratio IQ. b. the deviation IQ. c. academic performance. d. musical performance. ANSWER: b 39. The psychologist most noted for his contributions to the Stanford–Binet intelligence test is: a. Lewis Terman. b. Henry Goddard. c. David Wechsler. d. William Stern. ANSWER: a 40. The psychologist most noted for his contributions to the WAIS intelligence test is: a. Lewis Terman. b. Henry Goddard. c. David Wechsler. d. William Stern. ANSWER: c 41. Which test is NOT on the Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale IV (WAIS-IV)? a. Verbal Comprehension Test b. Novelty Seeking Test c. Working Memory Test d. Perceptual Reasoning Test ANSWER: b 42. Which test is NOT on the Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale IV (WAIS-IV)? a. Essay Writing Test b. Verbal Comprehension Test c. Working Memory Test d. Perceptual Reasoning Test ANSWER: a 43. Which problem would NOT appear on the WAIS? a. How is a cucumber similar to a carrot? b. Write the word "zucchini." c. If a farmer has 13 rows of carrot plants with 11 carrot plants in each row, how many carrot plants Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice does the farmer have? d. Name some reasons it is beneficial to eat vegetables. ANSWER: b 44. The main reason intelligent people generally earn much more money that do those with less intelligence is that the intelligent people: a. get more education. b. are more impatient. c. are poor at calculating risk. d. tend not to marry. ANSWER: a 45. Which statement about siblings with significantly different IQs is TRUE? a. The less intelligent sibling will earn approximately half the income of the more intelligent sibling. b. Despite differing in intelligence, the siblings will receive approximately the same number of years of education. c. Despite differing in intelligence, the siblings will earn approximately the same income. d. The less intelligent sibling will tend to have a faster reaction time on basic tasks than will the more intelligent sibling. ANSWER: a 46. Intelligence is NOT positively correlated with: a. academic performance. b. the number of years of education an individual receives. c. drug and alcohol use. d. a person's later occupational status. ANSWER: c 47. A person's IQ is a good predictor of the amount of _____ they will receive. a. other talents b. education c. job offers d. quality relationships ANSWER: b 48. Highly intelligent people _____ than those who are less intelligent. a. exhibit more social deficits b. are better looking c. use more illegal drugs Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. live longer ANSWER: d 49. When hiring employees without previous experience in the field, the MOST valid predictor of future success in the job is: a. past job experience, even if it is unrelated. b. performance during a job interview. c. grades in high school. d. general mental ability. ANSWER: d 50. Recent research suggests that the fact that life expectancy _____ with increases in intelligence perhaps is due to the positive association between intelligence and _____. a. increases; reproductive health b. increases; wealth c. decreases; drug and alcohol use d. decreases; exercising ANSWER: b 51. There is a _____ between the mean IQ of a nation and average ratings of national happiness. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. cause-and-effect relationship d. equal standard deviation ANSWER: a 52. As the mean IQ of a nation increases, the mean level of national happiness: a. decreases. b. increases. c. remains unchanged, but the standard deviation in happiness decreases. d. remains unchanged, but the standard deviation in happiness increases. ANSWER: b 53. Country A has a higher mean IQ than does country B. Based on previous research, country A probably has _____ levels of happiness than does country B and a _____ standard deviation among happiness scores. a. lower; smaller b. lower; larger c. higher; smaller d. higher; larger Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 54. The two-factory theory of intelligence was developed by: a. Louis Thurstone. b. Alfred Binet. c. Charles Spearman. d. John Carroll. ANSWER: c 55. Matteo is a professional speechwriter but struggles with simple algebra problems. Matteo's different abilities BEST illustrate the view of mental ability developed by: a. Thurstone. b. Spearman. c. Terman. d. Stern. ANSWER: a 56. Jermaine received the highest score on a term paper in his English class. According to Thurstone, it is probable that Jermaine: a. has little musical ability. b. is good at verbal reasoning. c. receives the highest grades in math. d. performs poorly in both math and science. ANSWER: b 57. Which psychologist proposed the existence of general intelligence (g)? a. Alfred Binet b. Charles Spearman c. Louis Thurstone d. William Stern ANSWER: b 58. From top to bottom, the three-level hierarchy of mental abilities moves from: a. general to specific. b. data based to theory based. c. fluid to crystallized. d. creative to practical. ANSWER: a 59. To find out if intelligence was a single general ability, Charles Spearman measured how well school-age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice children could discriminate small differences in color, auditory pitch, and weight; subsequently, he correlated these scores with the children's: a. ratio IQ. b. deviation IQ. c. academic performance. d. musical performance. ANSWER: c 60. The theory that every task requires a combination of a general ability and skills that are specific to the task is known as the _____ theory of intelligence. a. general–specific b. two-factor c. factor–analytic d. g-factor ANSWER: b 61. _____ termed general intellectual ability as _____. a. Spearman; g b. Spearman; s c. Thurstone; s d. Thurstone; m ANSWER: a 62. _____ termed abilities specific to a test as _____. a. Spearman; a b. Spearman; s c. Thurstone; a d. Thurstone; s ANSWER: b 63. The two-factor theory of intelligence predicts a _____ correlation between solving algebra problems and identifying musical notes. a. perfect positive b. positive c. perfect negative d. negative ANSWER: b 64. Charles Spearman's research revealed that while different measures were positively correlated, they were _____ perfectly correlated. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. sometimes b. always c. usually d. not ANSWER: d 65. Sophia competes successfully at local spelling bees. The two-factor theory of intelligence predicts that Sophia: a. is an expert musician. b. enjoys chess. c. does well in her algebra class. d. receives lower-than-average grades in biology class. ANSWER: c 66. Danielle competes successfully at local math competitions for her middle school. The two-factor theory of intelligence predicts that Danielle probably: a. could learn how to play a musical instrument without too much struggle. b. would struggle to learn a foreign language. c. has little interest in poetry. d. has a lower g score than she does an s score. ANSWER: a 67. _____ believed that intelligence is a single general ability, whereas _____ believed that intelligence comprises several primary mental abilities. a. Charles Spearman; Louis Thurstone b. Alfred Benet; John Carroll c. Lewis Terman; Alfred Binet d. Louis Thurstone; William Stern ANSWER: a 68. Louis Thurstone disagreed with Charles Spearman, instead believing that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities, NOT including _____ ability. a. perceptual b. general c. verbal d. numerical ANSWER: b 69. According to Thurstone's theory, the primary mental abilities: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. correspond to Spearman's g. b. correspond to Spearman's s. c. are the result of Spearman's g multiplied by Spearman's s. d. are not analogous to Spearman's g or s. ANSWER: d 70. Jasmine is an avid reader and has a high comprehension of even difficult texts. Thurstone would predict that Jasmine: a. is a visual learner. b. is proficient at solving numerical problems. c. speaks well. d. is good at rotating three-dimensional objects in her mind. ANSWER: c 71. Boris performs at an above-average level on a task that requires him to rotate a three-dimensional object in his mind and describe what it looks like from different angles. Thurstone would predict that Boris: a. can quickly memorize pairs of unrelated words. b. is proficient at solving numerical problems. c. solves logically problems quickly. d. is good at navigating with a map. ANSWER: d 72. Michelle does well at understanding words and sentences. This demonstrates the primary mental ability of: a. intelligence. b. word fluency. c. verbal comprehension. d. reasoning. ANSWER: c 73. The debate between Louis Thurstone and Charles Spearman raged for many years until a technique called _____ revealed that each researcher's theory was partially correct. a. analysis of variance b. multiple regression c. fluid intelligence d. confirmatory factor analysis ANSWER: d 74. In the three-level hierarchy of intelligence tests, _____ factor(s) is/are at the top, _____ factor(s) is/are in the middle, and _____ factor(s) is/are at the bottom. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. a general; specific; group b. specific; group; a general c. group; a general; specific d. a general; group; specific ANSWER: d 75. Which statement about the three-level hierarchy of intelligence is TRUE? a. The three-level hierarchy of intelligence is a radical view proposed by a small group of psychologists. b. The three-level hierarchy of intelligence is favored by psychologists who take a data-based approach and opposed by those who take a theory-based approach. c. The three-level hierarchy of intelligence is favored by psychologists who take a theory-based approach and opposed by those who take a data-based approach. d. The three-level hierarchy of intelligence is widely supported by studies done over the past 60 years. ANSWER: d 76. In the three-level hierarchy of mental ability, group factors are: a. middle-level abilities similar to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. b. top-level factors similar to Spearman's g. c. middle-level abilities similar to Spearman's s. d. third-level factors similar to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. ANSWER: a 77. In the three-level hierarchy of mental ability, specific factors are: a. middle-level abilities similar to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. b. top-level factors similar to Spearman's g. c. top-level factors similar to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. d. third-level factors similar to Spearman's s. ANSWER: d 78. In the three-level hierarchy of mental ability, the general factor is analogous to: a. Thurstone's primary mental abilities. b. Spearman's g. c. Spearman's s. d. Carroll's crystalized intelligence. ANSWER: b 79. Sadiya excels at solving crossword puzzles. Within the context of the three-level hierarchy of mental ability, Sophia probably scores the HIGHEST in which middle-level ability? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. visual perception b. memory c. reasoning d. verbal skill ANSWER: d 80. Wendy is a first-year law student who excels at making complex legal arguments. Wendy probably scores the HIGHEST in which middle-level ability? a. visual perception b. memory c. reasoning d. verbal skill ANSWER: c 81. How does the data-based approach discover middle-level abilities? a. by analyzing the ability to solve novel problems b. by analyzing the ability to apply knowledge gained in the past c. by analyzing the correlation between performances on intelligence tests d. by analyzing the correlation between IQ scores and physical age ANSWER: c 82. _____ refers to the ability to apply knowledge that was acquired through experience. a. Fluid intelligence b. Crystallized intelligence c. Abstract thinking d. Concrete thinking ANSWER: b 83. A _____ approach to describing middle-level abilities starts with peoples' responses on intelligence tests and then looks to see what kinds of independent clusters these responses form. a. theory-based b. data-based c. deviation-based d. top-down ANSWER: b 84. George has Alzheimer's disease. This means that he is likely to experience impairment in: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but has enhanced crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: b 85. Amanda has been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. This means that she is likely to experience impairment in: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but has enhanced crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: b 86. Which statement describes a characteristic of emotionally intelligent people? a. They can predict the types of emotions that their actions will trigger in others. b. They put more effort into gauging other people's emotions. c. They are hindered by emotions when performing tasks that require reasoning. d. They lack assertiveness in uncomfortable situations. ANSWER: a 87. A _____ approach to describing middle-level abilities starts with a broad survey of human abilities and then looks to see which of these abilities intelligence tests measure or fail to measure. a. theory-based b. data-based c. g-factor-based d. bottom-up ANSWER: a 88. Research shows that emotionally intelligent people do NOT experience: a. better romantic relationships. b. better workplace relationships. c. fewer job changes. d. less dissatisfaction with their lives overall. ANSWER: c 89. Nick works at a gift shop and wraps gifts all day. He has developed novel ways of combining scraps of wrapping paper for future use. This example BEST illustrates _____ intelligence. a. analytical b. inductive c. practical Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. emotional ANSWER: c 90. Which statement regarding the number of middle-level mental abilities is TRUE? a. Psychologists are in general agreement that there are three middle-level abilities. b. Psychologists are in general agreement that there are five middle-level abilities. c. Psychologists are in general agreement that there are eight middle-level abilities. d. Psychologists are not in general agreement as to the number of middle-level abilities. ANSWER: d 91. People are tested on the following: staying balanced on a unicycle, understanding Shakespeare, juggling balls, solving algebraic problems, writing an essay on a controversial topic, counting backward by 7 out loud, comprehending vocabulary, balancing a checkbook, and completing an obstacle course. The patterns of correlation among these tests would MOST likely yield _____ middle-level abilities. a. two b. three c. five d. nine ANSWER: a 92. _____ intelligence is the ability to apply knowledge that was acquired through experience. a. General b. Practical c. Crystallized d. Fluid ANSWER: c 93. Which statement may explain why impairment of one kind of intelligence does not always lead to impairment of the other kind? a. Problems that require crystallized or fluid intelligence activate different networks in the brain. b. The need for crystallized intelligence is more influential than the need for fluid intelligence. c. Problems that require crystallized or fluid intelligence activate the same networks in the brain. d. The need for fluid intelligence is more important than the need for crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: a 94. Mako has experienced impairment for crystallized intelligence. However, his fluid intelligence is unchanged. Why might this be the case? a. Problems that require crystallized or fluid intelligence activate different networks in the brain. b. The need for crystallized intelligence is more influential than the need for fluid intelligence. c. Problems that require crystallized or fluid intelligence activate the same networks in the brain. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. The need for fluid intelligence is more important than the need for crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: a 95. Autism and Alzheimer's disease impair: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhance crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: b 96. When you are attempting to solve an abstract word problem you have never seen before and are given 3 minutes to come up with the solution, you probably rely more on your _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. fluid c. emotional d. nonverbal ANSWER: b 97. Charlotte has a test on world capitals in her geography class. This test is an example of assessing _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. fluid c. practical d. spatial ANSWER: a 98. Damage to the prefrontal cortex impairs: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhances crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: a 99. Stan was in an accident during which he experienced damage to his prefrontal cortex. This is likely to lead to impairment in: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhanced crystallized intelligence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 100. Cognitive speediness is BEST classified as what kind of ability? a. general b. middle-level c. specific d. fluid intelligence ANSWER: b 101. John Carroll analyzed intelligence test scores from nearly 500 studies and defined _____ independent middle-level abilities. a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 ANSWER: a 102. John Carroll's list of middle-level abilities does NOT include: a. memory and learning. b. visual perception. c. spatial recognition. d. retrieval ability. ANSWER: c 103. _____ intelligence is the ability to solve and reason about novel problems. a. General b. Practical c. Crystallized d. Fluid ANSWER: d 104. _____ introduced the terms "fluid intelligence" and "crystallized intelligence." a. James Flynn b. Louis Thurstone c. John Carroll d. Robert Sternberg ANSWER: c 105. Deshawn has an English test on which he has to provide the definitions of vocabulary words. This test requires _____ intelligence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid ANSWER: a 106. Ray has a history test on which he has to describe the various causes of World War I. This test requires _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid ANSWER: a 107. Leila takes a test on which she is shown a number of seemingly random shapes and asked—under time pressure—to determine if a pattern exists. This test requires _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid ANSWER: d 108. Bashir is shown a group of four words and asked to quickly identify which word does not belong with the rest of the group. This test requires _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid ANSWER: d 109. If we think of the brain as a machine that uses old information to produce new information, then _____ intelligence refers to the way the machine runs, and _____ intelligence refers to the information it uses and produces. a. fluid; crystallized b. crystallized; practical c. creative; fluid d. practical; creative ANSWER: a 110. Research on the link between autism and intelligence has shown that autism negatively affects: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. fluid intelligence more than it does crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than it does fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhances crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: b 111. Research on the link between Alzheimer's disease and intelligence has shown that Alzheimer's disease negatively affects: a. fluid intelligence more than it does crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than it does fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhances crystallized intelligence. ANSWER: b 112. The major disadvantage of the data-based approach to identifying middle-level abilities is that it: a. focuses on observable behavior and ignores the cognitive processes that contribute to intelligence. b. does not distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. c. cannot identify middle-level abilities that are not already measured by intelligence tests. d. occasionally identifies middle-level abilities that do not correlate highly with specific abilities. ANSWER: c 113. Raven's Progressive Matrices Test can be used to assess _____ intelligence. a. emotional b. fluid c. crystallized d. practical ANSWER: b 114. Robert Sternberg suggested that there are three kinds of intelligence. _____ intelligence is NOT included. a. Analytic b. Creative c. Practical d. Emotional ANSWER: d 115. Abigail is able to identify and define problems. She is also able to find strategies for solving these problems. Robert Sternberg called this _____ intelligence. a. analytic b. crystallized Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. practical d. inductive ANSWER: a 116. The ability to generate solutions that other people tend not to generate is called _____ intelligence. a. analytic b. creative c. practical d. crystallized ANSWER: b 117. The ability to apply and implement solutions in everyday settings is called _____ intelligence. a. fluid b. creative c. practical d. emotional ANSWER: c 118. Standardized intelligence tests primarily measure _____ intelligence, according to Robert Sternberg. a. inductive b. creative c. analytical d. practical ANSWER: c 119. Part of the interview process for hiring new workers in the wood mill includes testing each worker's ability to demonstrate strategies on how to make the first cuts on a piece of lumber. The manager of the mill believes that the result of this work-related test predicts future job performance. The manager's belief is most consistent with _____ argument that _____ intelligence better predicts job performance than does analytical intelligence. a. Thurstone's; specific b. Carroll's; middle-level c. Sternberg's; practical d. Spearman's; general ANSWER: c 120. Which type of intelligence is best able to predict job performance, according to Robert Sternberg? a. emotional b. practical c. fluid Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. analytical ANSWER: b 121. Workers at a milk-processing factory develop complex strategies for combining partially filled cases of milk, illustrating the contributions of _____ intelligence to their job performance. a. analytical b. inductive c. creative d. practical ANSWER: d 122. Westerners regard people as intelligent when they speak _____; Africans regard people as intelligent when they speak _____. a. quickly and loudly; quickly but softly b. quickly and often; deliberately and quietly c. slowly and softly; quickly and loudly d. quickly but softly; deliberately but loudly ANSWER: b 123. Emotional intelligence is defined as the ability to reason about emotions and to use emotions in order to enhance: a. creativity. b. reasoning. c. logic. d. practical intelligence. ANSWER: b 124. Abiah is emotionally intelligent. This means that all of these apply to her EXCEPT she: a. knows what kinds of emotions a particular event will trigger. b. can identify, describe, and manage her emotions. c. uses her emotions to make better decisions. d. exhibits high levels of neural activity when solving emotional problems. ANSWER: d 125. Sam is an emotionally intelligent person. Which statement does NOT apply to Sam? a. He has better romantic relationships. b. He is happy and satisfied with his life. c. He works hard at deciphering the emotions of others. d. He has better workplace relationships. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 126. Asian and African cultures are more likely than are Western cultures to include _____ in their conceptualization of intelligence. a. fluid intelligence b. linguistic intelligence c. social cooperativeness d. spatial intelligence ANSWER: c 127. What is the Confucian tradition's conception of intelligence? a. It emphasizes flexibility in thinking and the ability to spot wisdom in others. b. It associates it with determination and mental effort. c. It equates it with humility and self-knowledge. d. It values social responsibility and cooperativeness. ANSWER: a 128. What is the Buddhist tradition's conception of intelligence? a. It emphasizes flexibility in thinking and the ability to spot wisdom in others. b. It associates it with determination and mental effort. c. It equates it with humility and self-knowledge. d. It values social responsibility and cooperativeness. ANSWER: b 129. What is the Taoist tradition's conception of intelligence? a. It emphasizes flexibility in thinking and the ability to spot wisdom in others. b. It associates it with determination and mental effort. c. It equates it with humility and self-knowledge. d. It values social responsibility and cooperativeness. ANSWER: c 130. What does the word for intelligence mean in Zimbabwe? a. to be cautious in one's social relationships b. to be good at solving problems c. to be responsible to others d. to be faithful and trustworthy ANSWER: a 131. Sir Francis Galton studied _____ and concluded that intelligence is largely determined by _____. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. identical twins; environment b. eminent families; heredity c. poor families; environment d. identical twins; heredity ANSWER: b 132. It is important to distinguish between shared and nonshared environments when determining what type of experiences contribute to intelligence because: a. environmental factors have more influence on intelligence than genes. b. genes have no influence on intelligence compared with the environment. c. two people who live in the same household will have some, but not all, experiences in common. d. genes and environment contribute equally to intelligence. ANSWER: c 133. Evidence from identical twin studies suggests that: a. correlations of intelligence levels are similar to those of fraternal twins. b. genes play a significant role in determining intelligence, with high correlations regardless of environmental factors. c. environmental influences significantly outweigh genetic influences. d. intelligence is 100% environmental. ANSWER: b 134. Scientists have discovered more than _____ genes that can influence intelligence. a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 100 ANSWER: c 135. The fact that intelligence "runs in families" does NOT necessarily prove a genetic component to intelligence because: a. research rarely conducts genotypes on the actual family members studied. b. family members share a similar environment. c. family members are not as genetically similar as was believed in earlier times. d. few studies have conducted intelligence research on identical twins. ANSWER: b 136. Cliff and Jeff are fraternal twins. This means that they: a. share 75% of their genes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice b. are exact genetic copies of each other. c. developed from two different eggs fertilized by two different sperm. d. are more genetically similar than are ordinary siblings. ANSWER: c 137. Mary and Carrie are twins that developed from the splitting of a single egg that was fertilized by a single sperm. They are: a. fraternal twins. b. monozygotic twins. c. dizygotic twins. d. half-sisters. ANSWER: b 138. Leslie and Shannon are monozygotic twins. Which statement about Leslie and Shannon is FALSE? a. If Leslie is a male, Shannon must be a male. b. Leslie and Shannon share 50% of their genes. c. Leslie and Shannon are identical twins. d. Leslie and Shannon developed from the splitting of a single egg. ANSWER: b 139. Intelligence scores among identical twins are strongly correlated when the twins are raised in the same household and are _____ correlated when the twins are separated at birth and raised in different households. a. almost as strongly b. moderately c. weakly d. not ANSWER: a 140. The genetic influence on intelligence is illustrated by the finding that: a. unrelated siblings raised together are more similar than are related siblings reared apart. b. identical twins reared apart are more similar than are fraternal twins reared together. c. parents and biological children living together are more similar than are parents and biological children living apart. d. identical twins living together are more similar than are identical twins living apart. ANSWER: b 141. Fraternal twins reared together have less similar intelligence test scores than do: a. identical twins reared apart. b. biological siblings reared together. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. parents and their biological children living together. d. adopted children reared together. ANSWER: a 142. Which biologically related pairs will probably be MOST dissimilar in intelligence? a. Jen and Bob, siblings born 5 years apart and raised in the same home b. Reba and Haley, identical twins raised in different homes c. Estelle and Mary, a mother and a daughter living in the same home d. Herbert and Henrietta, siblings born 3 years apart and raised in different homes ANSWER: d 143. Which statistic describes the proportion of the difference between people's IQ scores that can be explained by differences in their genes? a. the heritability coefficient b. the two-factor theory of intelligence c. analysis of variance d. factor analysis ANSWER: a 144. What is the heritability coefficient of intelligence? a. 0.1 to 0.3 b. 0.3 to 0.5 c. 0.5 to 0.7 d. 0.7 to 0.9 ANSWER: c 145. About what percentage in the variability in intelligence scores can be attributed to genetic factors? a. 10% to 30% b. 30% to 50% c. 50% to 70% d. 70% to 90% ANSWER: c 146. Which statement is TRUE? a. Genetics and environment have minimal effects on the brain. b. Genetics have a direct effect on the brain, whereas the environment has no effect on the brain. c. Genes and environment have direct and independent effects on the brain. d. The environment has an indirect effect on the brain, whereas genetics have no effect on the brain. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 147. What is the current incidence of Down syndrome? a. 1 in 100 b. 2 in 100 c. 1 in 500 d. 1 in 700 ANSWER: d 148. Jerome was born with Down Syndrome. He is not alone as _____ are likely to be diagnosed with this disorder. a. 1 in 100 b. 2 in 100 c. 1 in 500 d. 1 in 700 ANSWER: d 149. Someone may have a gene for a characteristic, but that person's _____ may determine whether the gene will or will not play an active role in producing proteins. a. environment b. other gene sequences c. education level d. exposure to toxins ANSWER: a 150. From the studies investigating the role of genes and the environment, it is evident that: a. genes have a much stronger role in intelligence than the environment. b. the environment has a much stronger role in intelligence than genes. c. neither genes nor the environment play a significant role in intelligence. d. both genes and the environment play a significant role in intelligence. ANSWER: d 151. What can turn a gene off or on? a. conditions in the environment b. transcranial magnetic stimulation c. personality characteristics d. the Flynn effect ANSWER: a 152. The _____ is a statistic that describes the proportion of the difference between people's IQ scores that can be explained by differences in their genes. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. ratio IQ b. two-factor theory of intelligence c. heritability coefficient d. deviation IQ ANSWER: c 153. The _____ is a statistical measure that indicates how much people's IQ scores differ because of differences in their genes. a. g factor b. deviation IQ c. heritability coefficient d. ratio IQ ANSWER: c 154. Interpersonal differences in intelligence can be demonstrated by: a. the heritability coefficient. b. the two-factor theory of intelligence. c. analysis of variance. d. factor analysis. ANSWER: a 155. Suppose that the heritability coefficient of intelligence is roughly 0.5. This means that: a. 50% of intelligence is due to genetics, and 50% is due to environmental factors. b. 50% of intelligence is due to genetics, and 50% is due to unspecified factors. c. intelligence is completely determined by genes in 50% of the population. d. about 50% of the variability in intelligence scores can be explained by genetic differences. ANSWER: d 156. The heritability coefficient of intelligence: a. is an unchanging constant across all cultures. b. can estimate how much of an individual's intelligence is due to genetic factors. c. can be applied meaningfully only to populations. d. is typically larger among children than among adults. ANSWER: c 157. Which statement is TRUE? a. Half of your best friend's intelligence is due to her genes and half is due to her experiences. b. The heritability of intelligence is between 0.5 and 0.7 for both poor and rich children. c. Across all populations, between 30% and 50% of the difference between people's intelligence test Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice scores is due to differences in environmental factors. d. The heritability coefficient tells us how much of each person's intelligence is due to environment and how much is due to heredity. ANSWER: c 158. The heritability of intelligence among older people is _____ than is the heritability among young people, perhaps because _____. a. higher; older people have more similar experiences than do younger people b. higher; intelligence levels have slowly been decreasing over the decades c. lower; access to education has improved over the years d. lower; the average diet is more nutritious now than it was in the past ANSWER: a 159. Thousands of years ago, a highly advanced civilization in a galaxy far away decided to clone its most intelligent and fearless leader. These self-replicating clones were then sent out to populate the multiverse. Over time, the clones came to exhibit differences in intelligence due to living in different parts of the multiverse. If a heritability coefficient of intelligence was calculated on the clones, it would be: a. 0. b. 0.1. c. 0.5. d. 1. ANSWER: a 160. Sameera and Kalena have identical genes. This means that any differences in their intelligence are influenced: a. completely by heredity. b. equally by heredity and environment. c. largely by environment. d. completely by environment. ANSWER: d 161. If we assume that wealthy children all have nice homes with books, adequate nutrition, and time for play and exercise, we can also assume that the heritability of intelligence among wealthy children is _____ that among poor children. a. similar to b. the same as c. much lower than d. much higher than ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 162. Genes can cause people to be: a. drawn toward an environment. b. drawn away from an environment. c. drawn toward and away from particular environments. d. neither drawn toward nor drawn away from an environment. ANSWER: c 163. What happens if a gene is turned on? a. The gene plays a role in the production of proteins that influence both the development and function of the brain. b. The gene is silent and does nothing. c. The gene allows for environmental influences on its expression. d. Developmental processes determine the differentiation of DNA. ANSWER: a 164. What happens if a gene is turned off? a. The gene plays a role in the production of proteins that influence both the development and function of the brain. b. The gene is silent and does nothing. c. The gene allows for environmental influences on its expression. d. Developmental processes determine the differentiation of DNA. ANSWER: b 165. Monozygotic twins share _____ of their genes, while dizygotic twins share _____. a. about 50%; 100% b. 100%; about 50% c. 100%; about 25% d. about 50%; about 50% ANSWER: b 166. According to the Flynn effect, Amara's IQ score is likely _____ someone's IQ score from 100 years ago. a. lower than b. the same as c. higher than d. nearly the same as ANSWER: c 167. The BEST predictor of intelligence is: a. race. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice b. socioeconomic status. c. whether a person is a college graduate. d. how quickly a person talks. ANSWER: b 168. Features of the environment that are experienced by all relevant members of a household are called the _____ environment. a. common b. shared c. heritable d. collective ANSWER: b 169. Features of the environment that are NOT experienced by all relevant members of a household are called the _____ environment. a. heritable b. variable c. nonshared d. specific ANSWER: c 170. Which set of siblings would we expect to have the MOST similar IQ scores? a. Brad and Chad, ages 9 and 10, who live in the same house b. Ellie and Kelly, ages 9 and 10, who live apart c. Ned and Fred, ages 13 and 8, who live apart d. Annie and Fannie, ages 13 and 8, who live in the same house ANSWER: a 171. As the age difference between siblings increases, the correlation between their intelligence scores: a. increases. b. decreases. c. becomes more negative. d. remains constant. ANSWER: b 172. Many people mistakenly believe that "genetic" is a synonym for: a. inherited. b. natural. c. unchangeable. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. inborn. ANSWER: c 173. Which statement is TRUE of height, a trait high in heritability? a. Genes dictate a precise height. b. People whose ancestors were 5 feet tall will be approximately 5 feet tall. c. People's heights cannot be influenced by environmental factors such as diet. d. Genes establish the range of heights a person may achieve. ANSWER: d 174. The industrial and technological revolutions have influenced intelligence. This has been demonstrated by: a. confirmation bias. b. cultural bias. c. stereotype threat. d. the Flynn effect. ANSWER: d 175. Alfred Binet believed that, over the lifetime, intelligence: a. remained constant. b. fluctuated unpredictably. c. tended to reliably increase. d. could be altered based on experiences. ANSWER: d 176. Over the lifetime of an individual, absolute intelligence tends to: a. stay approximately the same. b. decrease until old age and then increase sharply. c. increase between adolescence and middle age, and then decline thereafter. d. decrease beginning at adolescence, slowly at first but then more rapidly. ANSWER: c 177. If you were administered a standardized intelligence test at multiple points over the course of your life, at which age would you probably score the HIGHEST? a. 10 b. 20 c. 35 d. 70 ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 178. Marco is 76 and is being given a test on spatial relationships. Compared to his score on the same test when he was 35, what do you predict will be his performance on this test? a. It will be higher. b. It will be the same as performance is stable across the lifetime. c. It will be lower. d. Marco will not be able to complete the test at all. ANSWER: c 179. Which domain of intelligence tends to decrease the LEAST with age? a. verbal reasoning b. reasoning about spatial relationships c. abstract reasoning d. reasoning under time constraints ANSWER: a 180. The average person today scores about _____ IQ points higher than the average person did 100 years ago. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 ANSWER: c 181. The Flynn effect predicts that: a. the intelligence of schoolchildren will decline over the summer. b. people who were breastfed as babies will have higher intelligence scores than will people who were bottle fed. c. people probably will have higher intelligence scores than did their grandparents. d. people who are anxious when taking a test will perform more poorly than when they are not anxious. ANSWER: c 182. What does the Flynn effect refer to? a. Absolute intelligence scores generally decrease from adulthood to old age. b. Relative intelligence scores remain the same, even as absolute intelligence scores change. c. Black Americans score lower than do white Americans on standardized intelligence tests. d. The average IQ score today is roughly 30 points higher than it was a century ago. ANSWER: d 183. Recent research suggests that _____ is no longer present. a. confirmation bias Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice b. cultural bias c. stereotype threat d. the Flynn effect ANSWER: d 184. The material wealth of a family is referred to as its: a. education level. b. employment status. c. intelligence level. d. socioeconomic status. ANSWER: d 185. Which statement about generational differences in intelligence is TRUE? a. Fluid intelligence has increased, but crystallized intelligence has not. b. Crystallized intelligence has increased, but fluid intelligence has not. c. Fluid intelligence has increased more than has crystallized intelligence. d. Crystallized intelligence has increased more than has fluid intelligence. ANSWER: c 186. Which factor is the BEST predictor of intelligence? a. age b. socioeconomic status c. gender d. grade level ANSWER: b 187. Studies suggest that being raised in a high socioeconomic status (SES) instead of a low SES family is worth between _____ IQ points. a. 2 and 5 b. 6 and 11 c. 12 and 18 d. 19 and 25 ANSWER: c 188. Differences in intelligence due to socioeconomic status have been observed in children as young as: a. 9 months. b. 2 years. c. 3 years. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. 4 years. ANSWER: b 189. Differences in intelligence due to socioeconomic status _____ from early childhood to the late teenage years. a. increase b. decrease c. increase then decrease d. remain constant ANSWER: a 190. Poverty experienced during _____ will be MOST likely to have deleterious effects on intelligence. a. early childhood b. middle childhood c. late childhood d. the teenage years ANSWER: a 191. Charlotte and Lisa are 3-year-old children who differ in their socioeconomic status. Charlotte is from a high-SES family, and Lisa is from a low-SES family. Based on research findings, it can be predicted that: a. Charlotte and Lisa will not differ in their IQ scores; however, as they age, Charlotte will score more highly. b. Charlotte will have a higher IQ than does Lisa, and this difference will become greater as they age. c. Charlotte will have a higher IQ than does Lisa, and this difference will remain constant as they age. d. Charlotte will have a higher IQ than does Lisa, but this difference will decrease as they age. ANSWER: b 192. According to Ritchie and Tucker-Drob (2018), each additional year of education has been estimated to raise a person's IQ by: a. 1 to 2 points. b. 0 points. c. 5 to 10 points. d. 1 to 5 points. ANSWER: d 193. Juan just finished his sophomore year in college. Based on the findings of Ritchie and Tucker-Drob (2018), since graduating high school, his IQ: a. has remained the same. b. is probably only 1 point higher than it was when he graduated high school. c. is probably 2 to 10 points higher than it was when he graduated high school. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. is about 20 points higher than it was when he graduated high school. ANSWER: c 194. Heather is currently a junior in college, and Mandi recently completed her senior year in college. Based on the findings of Ritchie and Tucker-Drob (2018), Mandi's IQ is likely to be: a. 1 to 5 points higher than Heather's. b. the same as Heather's. c. the same as it was when she graduated from high school. d. about 20 points higher than Heather's. ANSWER: a 195. Bradley entered college with an IQ of 98. Based on the findings of Ritchie and Tucker-Drob (2018), when he graduates from college 4 years later, his IQ is likely to be: a. between 98 and 100. b. 98. c. between 101 and 113. d. between 102 and 118. ANSWER: d 196. Marco just finished high school with an IQ of 98. What is his IQ likely to be at the beginning of his senior year in college, based on the recent findings of Ritchie and Tucker-Drob? a. between 98 and 100 b. 98 c. between 101 and 113 d. between 102 and 118 ANSWER: c 197. The effect of education on intelligence: a. often ends when education ends. b. is permanent. c. is undetectable. d. continues to improve intelligence throughout the life span. ANSWER: a 198. Sherri is from a high-SES family, and Carla is from a low-SES family. By the age of 3, Sherri will MOST likely know _____ more words than Carla. a. 15% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 199. When schooling is delayed because of uncontrollable events (economic crisis, pandemics, etc.), what impact is seen on intelligence scores? a. Intelligence scores increase. b. Intelligence scores remain the same c. Intelligence scores increase while academic performance decreases. d. Intelligence scores decrease. ANSWER: d 200. Which statement about the relationship between socioeconomic status (SES) and intelligence is FALSE? a. At age 3, high-SES children know about 50% more words than do low-SES children. b. Poverty is associated with impairments in brain development. c. The difference in intelligence as a function of SES increases as children age. d. Low-SES households are, on average, as intellectually stimulating as are high-SES households. ANSWER: d 201. Education typically produces _____ in intelligence. a. no changes b. small increases c. moderate increases d. large increases ANSWER: b 202. The correlation between intelligence and educational level is _____ because _____. a. small; education produces only small increases in intelligence b. small; the effects of education on intelligence dissipate over time c. large; education produces large increases in intelligence d. large; intelligent people tend to stay in school longer ANSWER: d 203. Most secondary educational programs: a. enhance cognitive ability but not test-taking ability. b. have strong, long-lasting effects. c. have effects that dwindle and vanish within a few years after school. d. can actually increase intelligence scores between 12 and 18 points. ANSWER: c 204. The correlation between the amount of formal education people receive and their intelligence is: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. greater than 0.5. b. between 0.3 and 0.5. c. between 0.1 and 0.3. d. almost 0. ANSWER: a 205. Simply knowing that intelligence is malleable may: a. increase it. b. decrease it. c. not help people change it. d. leave some wondering if we could build the perfect brain. ANSWER: a 206. Lower intelligence may be related to environmental toxins, such as _____, that can kill brain cells and alter the cell's ability to migrate and proliferate. a. mercury b. increased oxygen c. a thick placenta d. decreased carbon dioxide ANSWER: a 207. As an infant, Shaina was exposed to environmental toxins, such as mercury. This is likely to result in: a. unchanged intelligence. b. lower intelligence. c. higher intelligence. d. moderate levels of intellectual change. ANSWER: b 208. The ability of environmental stimuli to produce changes in brain wiring: a. increases with age until adolescence. b. increases across the life span. c. is relatively unaffected by age. d. decreases with age. ANSWER: d 209. The environmental sensitivity of the brain _____ with age, and this effect _____ for high-IQ people relative to low-IQ people. a. increases; is greater b. increases; occurs more quickly Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. decreases; is greater d. decreases; occurs more slowly ANSWER: d 210. What is the current average IQ? a. 70 b. 85 c. 100 d. 125 ANSWER: c 211. Eighty-five percent of all people have an IQ score between: a. 70 and 100. b. 85 and 115. c. 90 and 120. d. 100 and 130. ANSWER: b 212. Which statement is TRUE about intelligence and gender? a. The mean IQ for men is the same as the mean IQ for women. b. The mean IQ for men is higher than the mean IQ for women. c. The mean IQ for men is lower than the mean IQ for women. d. The variability among IQ scores is the same for both men and women. ANSWER: a 213. Which statement about gifted children is FALSE? a. Gifted children are usually as well adjusted as peers. b. Profoundly gifted children are more likely to become major contributors to their fields of work than are moderately intelligent children. c. Extraordinary intelligence does not appear to make a person's life worse. d. Gifted children tend to have extraordinary skill in a specialized domain instead of all domains of intelligence. ANSWER: b 214. Which statement regarding gifted children is TRUE? a. Gifted children are rarely gifted in multiple ways. b. Most gifted children excel in social studies. c. Most gifted children explore aspects of learning, not just what they are gifted in. d. Gifted children are more likely to experience mental illness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 215. Which statement regarding gifted children is TRUE? a. Gifted children often are rejected socially by their peers. b. Gifted children are less likely to experience mental illness. c. Gifted children tended to be gifted in a variety of areas. d. Gifted children have difficulty focusing on the area of their giftedness. ANSWER: b 216. Elexus is a gifted 3rd-grader. Which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. Elexus probably has a gift in only one area. b. Elexus's risk of schizophrenia as a young adult is approximately double that of a nongifted child. c. Elexus will be passionate about many areas of learning. d. Elexus will be more likely to experience bouts of depression in high school. ANSWER: a 217. Research suggests that the one factor that distinguishes gifted children from their moderately intelligent peers is: a. the fact that they were labeled as gifted. b. the amount of time that they devote to their area of excellence. c. differences in perceptual speed. d. differences in abstract reasoning. ANSWER: b 218. Cory is a 10-year-old who is a gifted violinist. Rachel is the same age and is an above-average violinist. Research suggests that what separates Cory from Rachel in terms of their relative gifts for playing the violin is that: a. Cory probably devotes much less time to playing yet still performs at a superior level. b. Cory's numerical ability far exceeds Rachel's, and this translates to musical giftedness. c. Cory's somatosensory cortex and right temporal lobe are much more active than are Rachel's while playing. d. Cory probably devotes much more focused time to playing the violin than does Rachel. ANSWER: d 219. Gifted children are more likely to become high-achieving adults because of: a. their higher IQ scores. b. their high SES status. c. their natural tendency to absorb information. d. the passionate devotion they demonstrate regarding their interests. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 220. People with profound intellectual disabilities have IQs less than: a. 20. b. 30. c. 40. d. 50. ANSWER: a 221. People with severe intellectual disabilities have IQs between: a. 1 and 20. b. 20 and 34. c. 35 and 49. d. 50 and 69. ANSWER: b 222. People with moderate intellectual disabilities have IQs between: a. 35 and 49. b. 50 and 69. c. 70 and 89. d. 90 and 109. ANSWER: a 223. People with mild intellectual disabilities have IQs between: a. 35 and 49. b. 50 and 69. c. 70 and 89. d. 90 and 109. ANSWER: b 224. Magnus has an IQ of 75. Which statement is TRUE? a. Magnus has an average IQ. b. Magnus has a below average IQ but does not have an intellectual disability. c. Magnus has a mild intellectual disability. d. Magnus has a moderate intellectual disability. ANSWER: b 225. Alyssia has an IQ of 55. Which statement is TRUE? a. Alyssia has a below average IQ but does not have an intellectual disability. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice b. Alyssia has a severe intellectual disability. c. Alyssia has a moderate intellectual disability. d. Alyssia has a mild intellectual disability. ANSWER: d 226. Marcus has an intellectual disability. He is not alone, as _____ of those with intellectual disabilities are male. a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% ANSWER: c 227. A common cause of intellectual disability is an extra copy of chromosome 21, which results in a condition known as: a. Williams syndrome. b. Down syndrome. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. genetic aphasia. ANSWER: b 228. In the early 1900s, which Stanford psychologist first observed that white people tended to score higher on intelligence tests than did people of color? a. Alfred Binet b. Louis Thurstone c. Lewis Terman d. Charles Spearman ANSWER: c 229. Sara is Asian American and has recently transferred to a new school. Because of her ethnicity, her teachers assume that she is a good student and expect her to score much higher on tests than they do her classmates. Consequently, Sara works very hard to meet the expectations of her teachers. Identify the belief illustrated in this scenario. a. stereotype threat b. conjunction fallacy c. Flynn effect d. optimism bias ANSWER: a 230. Derek is taking an intelligence test and fears confirming negative beliefs that others may hold about other Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice people like him. He is experiencing: a. stereotype threat. b. xenophobia. c. availability bias. d. the conjunction fallacy. ANSWER: a 231. Which statement is NOT true? a. Intelligence is influenced by genes. b. Genetic differences underlie differences in skin color among races. c. Some racial groups outperform others on tests of intelligence. d. Racial differences in intelligence are due to genetic factors. ANSWER: d 232. Which statement about intelligence levels among different groups of people is TRUE? a. White people outperform Black people on standard intelligence tests. b. On average, White people and Black people score similarly on intelligence tests, although the variability in intelligence among Black people are higher. c. Women outperform men on standard intelligence tests. d. Men outperform women on standard intelligence tests. ANSWER: a 233. Women typically outscore men on tests that involve: a. visual memory. b. spatial memory. c. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. d. production and comprehension of complex prose. ANSWER: d 234. Women typically outscore men on tests that involve: a. fine motor skills. b. spatiotemporal responding. c. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. d. visual memory. ANSWER: a 235. Women typically outscore men on tests that involve: a. spatiotemporal responding. b. rapid use of semantic information. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. d. visual memory. ANSWER: b 236. Men typically outscore women on tests that involve: a. rapid access to and the use of semantic information. b. fine motor skills. c. spatial memory. d. production and comprehension of complex prose. ANSWER: c 237. Men typically outscore women on tests that involve: a. rapid access to and the use of semantic information. b. fine motor skills. c. production and comprehension of complex prose. d. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. ANSWER: d 238. Men typically outscore women on tests that involve: a. rapid access to and the use of semantic information. b. spatiotemporal responding. c. production and comprehension of complex prose. d. fine motor skills. ANSWER: b 239. The average difference in intelligence between men and women is _____ the differences observed within each biological sex. a. about the same as b. slightly more than c. considerably more than d. considerably less than ANSWER: d 240. The average difference in intelligence between White Americans and Black Americans is _____ the differences observed within each group. a. about the same as b. slightly more than c. considerably more than d. considerably less than Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 241. Modern intelligence tests: a. remain highly culturally biased. b. favor people of color. c. have few, if any, questions with a clear cultural bias. d. do not use nonverbal items. ANSWER: c 242. Group differences in intelligence test scores: a. no longer are present. b. emerge, even on tests of nonverbal skills. c. show that the tests still contain many culturally biased items. d. reflect innate differences in intelligence. ANSWER: b 243. _____ is the fear of confirming the negative beliefs that others may hold. a. Confirmation bias b. Cultural bias c. Stereotype threat d. The Flynn effect ANSWER: c 244. Research has demonstrated that when children are asked to report their race before taking a math test, poorer performance is more likely from _____ children. a. only Black American b. only Asian American c. only white American d. Black American and Asian American ANSWER: a 245. Research has demonstrated that if an Asian American woman is reminded of her gender right before taking a math test, she is more likely to _____; if she is reminded of her ethnicity right before taking the test, she is more likely to _____. a. perform better; perform more poorly b. perform more poorly; perform better c. feel less stressed; feel more stressed d. be unaffected by this information; perform more poorly ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 246. Which statements about racial differences in intelligence is FALSE? a. Racial differences in intelligence scores are solely determined by genetics. b. Biases in the testing situation might explain some, but not all, of the racial differences in intelligence scores. c. Racial differences in intelligence scores can plausibly be accounted for by environmental factors. d. Scientists have not isolated a genetic basis for racial differences in intelligence. ANSWER: a 247. The MOST likely reason Black Americans tend to have lower intelligence scores than do white Americans is that: a. Black Americans are faced with more bias in the testing environment. b. Black Americans are more prone to test-taking anxiety. c. Black Americans, on average, live in lower SES households than do white Americans. d. the two groups simply differ in their genetic makeup. ANSWER: c 248. Who argued that children would be better served if schools used an objective test to measure their intelligence rather than allowing teachers to make subjective evaluations of the children? a. Binet and Simon b. Goddard and Thurstone c. Thurstone and Simon d. Simon and Stanford ANSWER: a 249. In the early 20th century, _____ were used to justify different forms of discrimination, including forced sterilization of people who were poor and uneducated. a. structural abnormalities b. numerical disorders c. intelligence tests d. epigenetics ANSWER: c 250. What happened when Florida began using intelligence test scores to place students in gifted and talented programs in 2005? a. There was no change in the demographics of students recommended for the program. b. The number of Black and Hispanic students admitted to the program increased substantially. c. The number of White students admitted to the program increased slightly. d. Many teachers and administrators were terminated from their positions due to alleged discrimination. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 251. Why did Florida stop using intelligence test scores to place students in gifted and talented programs in 2010? a. They were unreliable. b. The results were similar to using teacher recommendations. c. They were not valid. d. Budget cuts did not allow the state to continue doing so. ANSWER: d 252. Black Americans score, on average, _____ points lower on standardized intelligence tests than do white Americans. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: b 253. Supplementing the diets of pregnant women with fatty acids found in breast milk has been found to enhance IQ by about _____ points. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANSWER: a 254. Drugs that improve the psychological processes that underlie intelligent performance are called: a. mental games. b. mind builders. c. mental bullets. d. cognitive enhancers. ANSWER: d 255. Reading to children in an interactive manner has been shown to raise their IQs by about _____ points. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANSWER: b 256. Arelia has attended a quality preschool program. You would expect to see an increase in her IQ of about _____ points. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice a. 4 b. 6 c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER: b 257. Sending children to preschool raises their IQ by about _____ points. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANSWER: b 258. José is a research psychologist meeting with his friends Ahmed and Lucinda, who are expectant parents. Lucinda asks José for some advice on how to maximize the intelligence of their child. Which empirically based suggestion would José likely NOT provide? a. Read to the fetus nightly. b. Breastfeed the baby. c. Provide a stable financial environment for the child. d. Send the child to preschool. ANSWER: a 259. The CRISPR technique will allow genetically modified animals to: a. pass on their modifications to their young. b. return to their original condition before the modification. c. improve their attention span. d. enhance their cognition beyond the genetic modifications. ANSWER: a 260. What skills have been shown to be improved by the drug Modafinal? a. sustained attention b. crystallized intelligence c. short-term memory and planning abilities d. visual processing speed ANSWER: c 261. _____ are drugs that improve the psychological processes that underlie intelligent performance. a. Cognitive enhancers b. Lithium salts Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice c. Psychedelics d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors ANSWER: a 262. Adderall and Ritalin are both: a. mood stabilizers. b. stimulants. c. mind expanders. d. benzodiazepines. ANSWER: b 263. Scientists have created a strain of "smart mice" by manipulating the genes that guide: a. the brain's reward pathway. b. the development of Wernicke's area. c. hippocampal development. d. the development of the orbitofrontal cortex. ANSWER: c 264. According to Schulenberg and colleagues (2016), about _____ of U.S. college students have used prescription stimulants for cognitive enhancement in the past few years. a. 2% b. 5% c. 8% d. 15% ANSWER: c 265. Cadan is a current college student who wants to do well in his classes. He regularly takes prescription stimulants to help him study and stay focused. He is not alone, as about _____ of U.S. college students have done this, according to Schulenberg et al. (2016). a. 2% b. 5% c. 8% d. 15% ANSWER: c 266. Who defends that technological enhancement of intelligence is an ethical imperative? a. Goddard b. Delhez c. Binet Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice d. Sternberg ANSWER: b 267. When Julien Delhez is defending his stance on technological enhancements of intelligence, he states that nations with high average IQs are more _____ than nations with low average IQs. a. resistant b. honest c. fair-minded d. prosperous ANSWER: d 268. Julien Delhez states that there are many benefits to societies that have a high IQ. Which is NOT one of those advantages? a. The society is more resistant to manipulation. b. The society is more altruistic. c. The society is more law-abiding. d. The society is more resistant to racism. ANSWER: a 269. What does Julien Delhez point out as one of the objections against gene editing and embryo selection? a. It is ethically questionable. b. It may lead to reduced variations in the gene pool. c. It may initially only be available to the very wealthy. d. It will lead to less variable thinking and questioning about problems. ANSWER: c 270. Julien Delhez defends the need for technological enhancement of intelligence by stating: a. future jobs will require highly technical skills. b. the technology to enhance intelligence is there, so we should use it. c. socio-economic differences in intelligence will continue to increase if we don't step in and intervene. d. the genetic enhancements can be targeted at improving specific skills needed for the future. ANSWER: a 271. Julien Delhez states that nations with high average IQs are more prosperous than nations with low average IQs. Which is NOT a characteristic of these nations that contribute to their prosperity? a. They are more patient. b. They are more reliant on technology. c. They are more cooperative. d. They are more informed. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 272. Julien Delhez uses which argument to support the need for genetic enhancement of intelligence? a. We will need very smart people to solve the environmental problems that we face in our future. b. Humanity will need highly intelligent visionaries who can see long-term consequences and solutions for the questions facing humanity. c. We have come so far to develop the technology to do this, so it would be a waste not to take advantage of the technology that is there. d. The only way that we can bring equality to education and opportunity is to genetically enhance groups that have low average IQ. ANSWER: b 273. Julien Delhez believes that technological enhancement of intelligence is a(n): a. waste of money and time. b. ethical imperative. c. an exciting but underdeveloped idea. d. expensive alternative to cognitive exercises to enhance intelligence. ANSWER: b 274. Julien Delhez defends the need to improve intelligence for the demanding needs of the future. The technology to improve intelligence is referred to as: a. cognitive enhancement. b. intellectual virtue. c. master decision making. d. intellectual mastery. ANSWER: a 275. Future considerations of using cognitive enhancement need to find a balance between: a. improving intellect and maintaining variability in cognitive function. b. problem solving skills and general intellect. c. intellectual growth and achieving an over enhancement. d. benefits and risks of the enhancements and the risk of doing nothing. ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 10 Scenario Use Scenario 10.1 to answer the following question(s). More than 100 years ago, French educational researchers Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon developed the first intelligence tests to identify children in need of remedial education. Binet and Simon developed their test to measure what Binet termed natural intelligence, or a natural ability to learn dissociated from the effects of educational instruction. Using Binet and Simon's intelligence test, each child's score could be compared with age norms to arrive at the child's mental age. Shortly after this pioneering work, Louis Terman developed the intelligence quotient (IQ). There are two ways to calculate an IQ score. A ratio IQ is calculated by dividing a child's mental age by their physical age and then multiplying the quotient by 100. A deviation IQ is calculated by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult test score and multiplying this quotient by 100. 1. (Scenario 10.1) Binet and Simon conceptualized natural intelligence in terms of learning: a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. outcomes. d. exertion. ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 10.1) Which best measures what Binet and Simon termed natural intelligence? a. naming the capitals of U.S. states b. solving logic problems c. naming chemical elements from their symbols d. reading a passage in literature and answering questions about it ANSWER: b 3. (Scenario 10.1) Using Binet and Simon's original intelligence test, Andrea's mental age would be calculated by: a. dividing her score on the test by her physical age and then multiplying this quotient by 100. b. dividing the average score from her age group by Andrea's score and multiplying this quotient by 100. c. calculating the difference between her score on the test and the mean score on the test for her age group. d. examining average scores from different age groups and selecting the age group that most closely matches her score. ANSWER: d 4. (Scenario 10.1) Five-year-old Rhonda has a ratio IQ score of 120. What is Rhonda's mental age? a. 6 years old b. 7 years old c. 8 years old d. 9 years old ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Scenario 5. (Scenario 10.1) Which statement is a correct inference about 20-year-old Jacob and 60-year-old Jorge, both persons with deviation IQ scores equal to 110? a. Jacob is more intelligent than Jorge. b. Jorge is more intelligent than Jacob. c. Meaningful intelligence comparisons between Jorge and Jacob cannot be made. d. Both persons have the same intelligence. ANSWER: d 6. (Scenario 10.1) An 8-year-old who performs similarly to an average 16-year-old would have a ratio IQ of 200. Similarly, a 30-year-old who performs similarly to an average 60-year-old would have ratio IQ of 200. At the other end of the intelligence spectrum, a 10-year-old with intellectual challenges and a mental age of 5 would have a ratio IQ score of 50. Based on these examples, ratio IQ scores tend to lose their validity as a measure of intelligence when used with: a. highly intelligent individuals. b. individuals with intellectual challenges. c. children. d. adults. ANSWER: d Use the Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). For centuries, people have observed that intelligence seems to run in families. In modern times, psychologists have confirmed that, indeed, there is a strong genetic component to intelligence. The degree of the association between genes and intelligence can be quantified using the heritability coefficient (h2). In a population of diverse individuals differing in age, gender, race, and socioeconomic factors, the heritability of intelligence is approximately 0.5 to 0.7. This means that about 50% to 70% of the variability in intelligence scores is associated with genetic factors. Interestingly, the heritability coefficient changes depending on the group under investigation. For example, among wealthy children, the heritability coefficient exceeds 0.7 because the environments of these children are highly homogeneous. Among poor children, it drops to about 0.1. The heritability coefficient also tends to increase with the age of the population under investigation. For example, the heritability coefficient is approximately 0.3 in 3-year-olds and approximately 0.9 in 65-year-olds. 7. (Scenario 10.2) In the late 1800s, Sir Francis Galton analyzed data based on several thousand English families and confirmed the long-standing observation that intelligence runs in families. Nevertheless, this study alone does not constitute good evidence that genes are associated with intelligence PRIMARILY because: a. relatives tend to share similar environments. b. parents with below-average intelligence sometimes produce highly intelligent offspring. c. the sample size was limited and restricted to only English families. d. the drift that occurs in intelligence with age was not controlled. ANSWER: a 8. (Scenario 10.2) Suppose that the heritability coefficient of intelligence in a population is 0.3. Which is a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Scenario correct inference? a. The population necessarily comprises economically disadvantaged children. b. The variability in intelligence in the population is due more to environmental than genetic factors. c. For any individual in the population, 30% of intelligence is due to genetic factors, and 70% is due to environmental factors. d. Learning environments in this population are highly similar from one individual to the next. ANSWER: b 9. (Scenario 10.2) Suppose that the heritability coefficient of intelligence in the at-large population is 0.5. A consequence of this fact is that: a. genes determine only half of a person's intelligence. b. one person's intelligence can be attributed either more to genes or more to intelligence. c. environmental differences are responsible for about half of the observed variability in intelligence. d. about 50% of the population was raised in a highly homogeneous environment. ANSWER: c 10. (Scenario 10.2) While all of these facts are true, the heritability coefficient of intelligence tends to increase with age MOSTLY because: a. the least intelligent people are being left out of the mating game. b. intelligence is associated with a variety of factors positively correlated with quality of life, and these, in turn, are associated with an increased probability of survival. c. at the population level, intelligence tends to increase over time. d. older adults tend to have experienced more environmental similarities than have younger adults and children. ANSWER: d 11. (Scenario 10.2) In which science-fiction scenario would the heritability of intelligence be the LOWEST? a. a space colony populated by the offspring of only 20 original colonists b. a population of genetic clones c. a utopia where each child receives the same high-quality educational experiences d. a brutal dictatorship that maintains its entire population in poverty ANSWER: b 12. (Scenario 10.2) The heritability coefficient of intelligence among children who are poor is approximately 0.10. Efforts to enrich home and school environments for this vulnerable population, such as through programs providing free lunches and universal preschool, would: a. reduce the role that the environment plays and increase the heritability of intelligence. b. only negligibly increase intelligence levels. c. increase intelligence levels by up to 40%. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Scenario d. not affect the relative influence of genetic factors in the heritability of intelligence. ANSWER: a Use the Scenario 10.3 to answer the following question(s). Figure 10.1 shows the distribution of IQ scores in the population. The mean IQ score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. The percentages represent the percentage of the population that fall within each IQ interval. People who score more than one standard deviation above the mean are labeled intellectually gifted, and people who score more than one standard deviation below the mean are labeled as having an intellectual disability. The IQ distribution in both men and women is bell-shaped, with no difference in the average IQ score. However, the distribution for men is wider and more variable than the distribution for women. For both genders, mental illness is negatively correlated with intelligence. Figure 10.1

13. (Scenario 10.3) IQ scores in the population are: a. positively skewed. b. negatively skewed. c. normal. d. bimodal. ANSWER: c 14. (Scenario 10.3) The mean IQ score in this distribution is 100. The modal IQ score is: a. also 100. b. less than 100. c. less than 100 for men and greater than 100 for women. d. greater than 100. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Scenario 15. (Scenario 10.3) Men differ from women in terms of the _____ of the IQ distribution. a. skew b. mean c. median d. standard deviation ANSWER: d 16. (Scenario 10.3) What percentage of the population has an IQ score within one standard deviation of the mean? a. 15% b. 30% c. 34% d. 68% ANSWER: d 17. (Scenario 10.3) What percentage of the population is NOT labeled as intellectually gifted? a. 50.1% b. 68.0% c. 83.9% d. 97.9% ANSWER: c 18. (Scenario 10.3) What percentage of the population has an IQ at least two standard deviations below the mean? a. 0.1% b. 2.0% c. 2.1% d. 14.3% ANSWER: c 19. (Scenario 10.3) Almost 86% of people with intellectual disabilities have IQ scores within _____ standard deviation(s) of the mean. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 20. (Scenario 10.3) Relative to the entire population, both genius and profound intellectual disability are more Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 10 Scenario common in: a. men. b. women. c. people with mental illness. d. women with mental illness. ANSWER: a 21. (Scenario 10.3) Relative to the general population, people with mental illness are more likely to: a. be labeled as intellectually gifted. b. have an average IQ score. c. have a below average IQ score. d. fall in either tail of the IQ distribution. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 11 Essay 1. Brenda is expecting her first child. She is curious about the development of her future baby. Explain to Brenda the major developments of the germinal, embryonic, and fetal stages of development. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The 2-week period that begins at conception is known as the germinal stage. During this period of development, the one-celled zygote begins to undergo the cleavage process. By the time of birth, the organism will have divided into trillions of cells. Each cell will contain 46 chromosomes; 23 from the sperm and 23 from the egg. At the end of this stage, the zygote migrates back down the fallopian tube and implants itself into the wall of the uterus. (2) The implantation of the zygote in the uterine wall marks the next stage in development, the embryonic stage. The embryonic stage lasts from the 2nd week to the 8th week of pregnancy. During this stage, the zygote cells continue to divide, and the organism becomes known as the embryo. Although only an inch long, the embryo has a beating heart along with other body parts such as arms and legs. The embryo also starts to release the hormone testosterone if it has male chromosomes (XY). (3) The final stage of development is known as the fetal stage, and it lasts from the 9th week of pregnancy until birth. The organism is now known as a fetus and is capable of movement due to the development of a skeleton and muscles. During the last 3 months of the fetal stage, the fetal size increases dramatically, and the fetus develops a layer of fat beneath its skin; the digestive and respiratory systems mature. An important process known as myelination, the formation of a fatty sheath around the axons of a nerve cell, also takes place.

2. Discuss two common teratogens and their effects on the developing fetus. At what point(s) in pregnancy are teratogens most dangerous? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Teratogens include environmental poisons such as lead, paint dust, mercury in fish, tobacco, and alcohol. (2) Alcohol: Heavy alcohol use can lead to a baby with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Children with FAS frequently exhibit cognitive deficits and have more academic difficulties than do other children. They often have a characteristic appearance (short eye openings, a flat midface, an indistinct or flat ridge under the nose, a thin upper lip, an underdeveloped jaw, or a low nasal bridge). (3) Tobacco: Smoking in pregnancy can lead to lower birth weights and to more perceptual and attention problems in childhood. Secondhand smoke can also have these effects. (4) The embryo is more vulnerable than the fetus, but the central nervous system is vulnerable throughout the entire prenatal period. There are no "safe amounts" of alcohol and tobacco for pregnant people.

3. Describe and discuss the visual abilities, reflexes, and motor capabilities of the newborn child. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Unlike an adult, who can see detail at up to 600 feet away, a newborn can see equivalent detail at only about 20 feet away. However, when visual stimuli are close enough to be seen, newborns are very responsive: They follow stimuli with their eyes and distinguish unknown stimuli. Newborns are especially attuned in many ways to social stimuli: They track visual stimuli, such as faces, and engage in motor activities, such as pursing their lips and sticking out their tongues. (2) Visual capabilities are present within the newborn's first hours of life, but motor development is a longer process that includes the ability to execute physical actions such as reaching, grasping, crawling, and walking. The development of these behaviors tends to obey two general rules. The first of these rules is the cephalocaudal rule: Infants tend to develop motor skills in sequence from their heads to their feet (they learn to maneuver their heads first, then their arms and trunks, etc.). The second rule is the proximodistal rule: Infants tend to develop motor skills from the center to the periphery of their bodies (they learn to control their trunks before their elbows and knees, etc.). However, the development of motor skills does not occur on a strict timetable. Motor skills typically emerge depending on an infant's incentive, body weight, muscular development, and level of activity. (3) Infants are also born with a small set of reflexes or patterns of motor responses that are triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation. Examples of infant reflexes include the rooting reflex and the sucking reflex. The rooting reflex is the tendency for infants to move their mouths toward any object that touches their cheek. The sucking reflex is the tendency to suck any object that enters their mouths. Both these reflexes serve the basis of their survival: finding the mother's nipple to begin feeding.

4. Define object permanence, and describe an experiment illustrating how the principle of habituation can be used to determine if babies exhibit object permanence. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Object permanence is a schema that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible. Piaget believed that object permanence develops later in the sensorimotor stage and that young infants lack this schema. He based this theory on observations that young infants will track a moving object with their eyes but will not search for it once it is out of sight. (2) Habituation is a basic principle of learning that states that the frequency or intensity of a response to a stimulus will decrease with increased exposure to that stimulus. Applied to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Essay infants, a baby will attend to a toy when it is new but may stop playing with it over time due to sheer exposure. (3) Habituation can be employed to determine if young infants have a sense of object permanence. In a study by Baillargeon et al. (1985), infants watched a miniature drawbridge flip back and forth. Looking time was recorded. At first, infants attended to this new object, but over time their response habituated, and their looking time decreased. Then infants watched as a box was placed behind the drawbridge in the path of the drawbridge but now out of the sight of the infant. In the critical test, children were exposed to one of two scenarios. Some children saw a physically possible event: The drawback began to flip but was stopped on its descent by the box. In the other half of the children, the box was secretly removed, and the drawbridge flipped back and forth. If the infants did not have a concept of object permanence, this scenario would constitute the same event as the habituated event, and the children should presumably look at it less than they would the physically possible event described above. If, however, the children know that the box is in the path of the drawbridge, even though it is out of sight, the event of the drawbridge flipping without impediment becomes physically impossible. The investigators found that the infants actually looked at this physically impossible event more than they did the physically possible event, apparently puzzled, suggesting that they were quite aware of the continued existence of the box. Studies such as these suggest that object permanence develops in infants much earlier than what Piaget realized.

5. Compare and contrast the characteristics of preoperational and concrete operational stages of cognitive development with respect to the principle of conservation. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: There are several similarities and differences between the preoperational and concrete operational stages of cognitive development. (1) According to Piaget, the preoperational stage begins at about 2 years of age and ends at about 6 years of age. During this stage, the child cannot perform concrete operations. The child also lacks the ability to grasp the notion of conservation, which is the concept that the quantitative properties of an object are invariant despite changes in the object's appearance. Example: When preoperational children are shown two glasses of the same size and shape filled with equal amounts of liquid, they say that neither glass has more liquid. However, after watching the contents of one glass being poured into a taller, thinner glass, children will now say that the taller glass has more liquid when, in fact, the amounts of liquid in the two glasses are still equal. (2) The concrete operational stage begins at about 6 years of age and continues until about 11 years of age. Children in this stage can perform concrete operations and understand the concept of conservation. For example, concrete operational children understand that when a ball of clay is rolled, stretched, or flattened, it is still the same amount of clay, even though it may look larger in one form than it does in another. 6. Provide several examples of how egocentrism leads to false beliefs in young children. Then describe how passing the false belief test illustrates the acquisition of a theory of mind. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Egocentrism refers to the failure to understand that the world appears differently to different observers. Young children are incredibly egocentric. They believe that everyone must view the world in the same way that they do. For example, they may simply cover their eyes in order to hide during a game of hide-and-seek. If they can't see you, then you can't possibly see them! This obviously is a false belief. To provide another example, if asked to describe what an adult sitting across the dinner table from her is seeing, a 3year-old girl will describe what she is seeing. (2) These false beliefs occur because young children have yet to acquire a theory of mind. This is the idea that human behavior is guided by mental representations, which gives rise to the realization that the world is not always the way it looks, and that different people see it differently. Children typically acquire this concept when they come to understand that they and others have minds and that different minds represent the world in different ways. (3) The concept of false belief can be seen in a relatively simple experiment using puppets. In one study, children saw a puppet named Maxi deposit some chocolate in a cupboard and then leave the room. Unknown to Maxi, a few seconds later another puppet entered the room and moved the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Essay chocolate to a different cupboard. When a group of 5-year-olds were asked where Maxi would look for the chocolate if she were to reenter the room, they would name the first cupboard. These children have acquired a theory of mind and can answer the question from Maxi's perspective. However, when 3-year-olds were asked the same question, they answered that Maxi would look in the second cupboard because that is where the chocolate currently was located. These children have yet to form a theory of mind and cannot differentiate between their own beliefs and Maxi's. 7. The bonding experience between an infant and their mother during breast-feeding is an important component to the development of a secure attachment. Fathers of newborns often are worried that their babies will not form an emotional bond with them because they cannot participate in this experience. Using the results from Harry Harlow's studies on socially deprived rhesus monkeys as a rationale, explain why this worry is unfounded. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that Harry Harlow raised rhesus monkeys in social isolation. These monkeys were exposed to two artificial "mothers." One mother was made of wire but contained a bottle that dispensed milk. The other mother was made of soft cloth but did not provide nourishment. Harlow found that the baby monkeys would drink from the wire monkey when hungry, but spent most of their time clinging to the mother made of cloth. This suggests that comfort and warmth are more important components to the attachment process than is simple nourishment. Thus, fathers need not worry about their inability to breast-feed; they can be warm and cuddly, too!

8. Compare and contrast the secure, avoidant, ambivalent, and disorganized attachment styles. ANSWER: Research has identified four attachment styles: secure, avoidant, ambivalent, and disorganized. (1) Children with secure attachment are distressed when their caregiver leaves the room; they go to the caregiver quickly when they return and are calmed by the caregiver's presence. These infants tend to regard their caregiver as a secure base from which to explore their environment. Some children with secure attachments might not be distressed when their caregiver leaves the room, but they will respond with a positive reaction (e.g., a smile) when their caregiver returns. (2) Children with an avoidant attachment style are not distressed when their caregiver leaves the room and do not pay them much attention when they return. (3) Children with an ambivalent attachment style are almost always distressed when their caregiver leaves, and they return to the caregiver immediately when they return. However, they resist their caregiver's attempts to calm them. (4) Children with a disorganized attachment style show no consistent pattern of responses. They may or may not be distressed and may or may not go to the caregiver when they return. Their reactions are often contradictory.

9. Describe Piaget's and Kohlberg's stages of moral development. Give examples of each stage. ANSWER: The answer should include the following points: (1) Piaget's first stage of moral development revolves around the shifting of children's thinking from realism to relativism. Very young children regard moral rules as real truths about the world that are communicated by parents and teachers. For example, very young children cannot think of any instance where it might be acceptable to hit someone because they have been taught that hitting people is wrong. However, as they mature, children begin to realize that some moral rules are inventions, not discoveries, that groups of people can agree to adopt, change, or abandon completely. Hitting someone might be acceptable if they hit you first! (2) In Piaget's second stage of moral development, children's moral thinking shifts from prescriptions to principles. Young children think of moral rules as guidelines for specific actions in specific situations. As they mature, children come to see that rules are expressions of more general principles that can be abandoned or modified when they fail to serve the initial general principle. For example, young children must be taught specific rules such as "be sure to share your marbles" and "don't cut in line." Over time, children acquire concepts such as fairness and can apply these concepts in novel situations without needing a specific rule. (3) In Piaget's third and final stage of development, children's moral thinking tends to shift from outcomes to intentions. For example, young children tend to think that an unintentional action is "more wrong" than is an intentional action that causes slight harm because they tend to judge the morality of an action by its consequences. However, as they mature, they begin to see that morality of an action depends on the actor's state of mind. For example, a young child may view a person slipping while carrying scissors and poking someone's eye as more wrong than a person who intends to stab someone with a knife but misses. (4) According to Lawrence Kohlberg, moral reasoning proceeds through three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional. Kohlberg's first stage, preconventional moral development, occurs during childhood. In this stage, the morality of an action is primarily determined by its consequences for the actor. In other words, immoral actions are actions for which one is punished, and the appropriate resolution to any moral dilemma is to choose the behavior that will not result in punishment. In this stage, sharing your toys is considered morally correct because it results in praise, whereas not sharing might result in a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Essay scolding. Kohlberg's second stage, conventional moral development, takes place in adolescence and involves moral development in which the morality of an action is primarily determined by the extent to which it conforms to social rules. Children at this stage believe that everyone should uphold the generally accepted norms of their cultures, obey the laws of society, and fulfill their civic duties. In Kohlberg's last stage, the postconventional stage, which occurs in adulthood, the morality of an action is determined by a set of general principles that reflect core values such as the right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. To postconventional adults, when a behavior violates these principles, it is immoral, and if a law requires these principles to be violated, then the law should be disobeyed.

10. Compare and contrast the major physical changes of puberty for girls and boys. How does the timetable of these changes differ? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Boys and girls undergo many physical changes when they go

through puberty during adolescence. The first change for girls is acceleration in growth rate. It begins around age 10 and ends when girls reach their full height at about the age of 15 years. Boys typically experience a similar growth spurt at about 12 years of age and reach their full height at around 17 years of age. (2) The growth spurts signal the onset of puberty, which involves the bodily changes associated with sexual maturity. One change is the development of primary sex characteristics, which are body structures directly involved in reproduction. For example, girls experience the onset of menstruation, and boys experience the enlargement of the testes, scrotum, and penis and the emergence of the capacity for ejaculation. Another change is the development of secondary sex characteristics, which are body structures that change dramatically with sexual maturity but are not directly involved in reproduction. For example, in girls, the breasts enlarge, and the hips widen. In boys, facial hair appears and the voice lowers (girls' voices lower, too).

11. Discuss the role of genes and the environment in determining sexual orientation. ANSWER: The answers should include the following information: (1) Homosexuality is not simply a choice. There is a strong genetic component to sexual orientation. The identical twin of a gay man, for example, has a 50% chance of being gay. This percentage decreases to 15% among fraternal twins. (2) While genetic factors play a large role in determining sexual orientation, they are not the only factors. If genetic factors solely determined sexual orientation, then identical twins always would have the same sexual orientation, and clearly they do not. One early environmental factor that contributes to sexual orientation is exposure to male androgens in the womb. Prenatal exposure to higher levels of androgens is associated with sexual attraction to women in both men and women. (3) The specific environmental factors that contribute to sexual orientation are largely unknown. However, research has ruled out a number of factors that were once thought to contribute to homosexuality. Parenting style (e.g., a domineering mother and a submissive father) is not related to homosexuality. In addition, being raised by gay parents does not make it more likely that a child will become gay.

12. Compare and contrast the effectiveness of sex education and abstinence-only education programs on (a) the age at which teenagers begin having sex, (b) teenage pregnancy, and (c) the incidence rate of sexually transmitted diseases. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Neither approach will produce large changes in the age at which teenagers begin having sex. Importantly, abstinence-only programs are ineffective at getting teenagers to wait to have sex, and sex education programs do not make it more likely that teenagers will begin having sex. For the most part, teenagers begin having sex at around the same age, regardless of the approach. (2) Sex education programs have been demonstrated to reduce teenage pregnancy and the spread of sexually transmitted diseases among teenagers. Abstinenceonly education programs have not demonstrated effectiveness in these areas. (3) The take-home message is that teenagers given sex education and teenagers given abstinence-only education begin to have sex at around the same time and have around the same amount of sex. Teenagers provided with sex education, however, are more likely to engage in safer sexual practices.

13. An older grandfather does not get out as much as he formerly did. Although he is healthy and still drives, he tends to associate with family and a few close friends, whereas in the past, he was busy with social activities. He seems satisfied with his life, but his family is worried that his social circle is too limited and that he may be unhappy yet unwilling to talk about his unhappiness. He also sometimes has difficulty remembering to do things. Discuss briefly the cognitive, social, and emotional changes that occur in later adulthood and relate them to the family's concerns. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Essay ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Emotionally, older adults experience far fewer negative emotions than do younger ones and are adept at curtailing them; they also experience more positive emotions and sustain them for longer periods. (2) Socially, older adults become more selective about those with whom they choose to spend their time. They prefer to spend time with family and a few close friends instead of with a large circle of acquaintances. This is not an indication of unhappiness but instead the result of their sensitivity to their shortened future. Because time is limited, they prefer to spend that time with the ones they love and care about the most. (3) Cognitively, adults tend to spend more time thinking about the present as they age, not the past or the future. They do not dwell on negative experiences in the past. In fact, they tend to remember their lives more positively as they age. While they show declines in working memory, episodic memory, and retrieval tasks, they often develop strategies to compensate. (4) It is very likely that this man is genuinely happy; he appears to be aging normally in all areas.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 1. Developmental psychology is a branch of psychology that focuses on the: a. impact of physiology on cognitive processes. b. stage at which people leave their parents. c. continuity and change across the human life span. d. stage at which people become independent. ANSWER: c 2. Once a zygote has implanted itself on the uterine wall, it signifies the end of the _____ stage of development and the beginning of the _____ stage. a. germinal; embryonic b. germinal; fetal c. embryonic; fetal d. embryonic; germinal ANSWER: a 3. What is developmental psychology? a. the study of the child, from birth to adolescence b. the study of adulthood, from the 20s through old age c. the study of prenatal growth, from conception until birth d. the study of continuity and change across the life span ANSWER: d 4. The 2-week period of prenatal development that begins at conception is the _____ stage; the period of prenatal development that lasts from the 2nd week until about the 8th week is the _____ stage. a. zygotal; fetal b. germinal; embryonic c. embryonic; fetal d. fetal; embryonic ANSWER: b 5. The _____ is the single fertilized cell that contains chromosomes from both the sperm and the egg. a. zygote b. embryo c. spermatozoid d. nucleus ANSWER: a 6. If you have a male embryo, it will produce _____ that will ultimately masculinize the reproductive organs. a. progesterone Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. testosterone c. estrogen d. oxytocin ANSWER: b 7. About what percentage of zygotes do NOT complete the journey down the fallopian tube? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% ANSWER: c 8. During the embryonic stage, which event occurs? a. An insulating layer of fat develops below the skin. b. The digestive system and respiratory systems mature. c. The embryo grows to a length of 6 inches. d. The heart begins to beat. ANSWER: d 9. What is the CORRECT order of the stages of prenatal development? a. embryonic, germinal, fetal b. germinal, embryonic, fetal c. germinal, fetal, embryonic d. embryonic, fetal, germinal ANSWER: b 10. When does a zygote become an embryo? a. when the heart starts beating b. when myelination begins c. when it attaches to the uterine wall d. when it is fertilized by a sperm cell ANSWER: c 11. The period of prenatal development that lasts from the 9th week until birth is called the _____ stage. a. germinal b. embryonic c. infancy d. fetal ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 12. Simone is 20 weeks pregnant. This means that her pregnancy is in the _____ stage of development. a. germinal b. embryonic c. infancy d. fetal ANSWER: d 13. Which is the LONGEST stage of prenatal development? a. zygotal b. germinal c. fetal d. embryonic ANSWER: c 14. Jane is an expectant mother and is listening to the heartbeat using an ultrasound. This means that her pregnancy could NOT be in the _____ stage of prenatal development. a. fetal b. embryonic c. infantile d. germinal ANSWER: d 15. Suppose you are told that a number of people are pregnant. In the absence of any other information, if you had to guess the stage of prenatal development, you would be correct MOST often if you guessed the _____ stage. a. germinal b. zygotic c. embryonic d. fetal ANSWER: d 16. Which statement is TRUE regarding myelination? a. It is complete by the time a baby is born. b. It occurs at a relatively constant rate across all areas. c. It is completed in the cerebral cortex by approximately 1 year of age. d. It continues into adulthood for some parts of the brain. ANSWER: d 17. Which statement is TRUE regarding myelination? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. It involves the pruning of unneeded neurons. b. It begins during the embryonic stage. c. It only occurs in female embryos. d. It is the formation of a fatty sheath around the axons of a brain cell. ANSWER: d 18. About _____ of the growth of the brain occurs outside of the womb. a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% ANSWER: d 19. One major reason humans are born with undeveloped brains is that: a. this is the typical course of brain development for most animals. b. it results in an easier passage through the birth canal. c. from an evolutionary perspective, it confers greater advantages at birth. d. it allows greater biological resources to be devoted to heart and lung development. ANSWER: b 20. One major reason humans are born with undeveloped brains is that: a. this is the typical course of brain development for most animals. b. it allows the brain to adapt to a wide range of environments. c. from an evolutionary perspective, it confers greater advantages at birth. d. it allows greater biological resources to be devoted to heart and lung development. ANSWER: b 21. Lynn is currently in the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. This means that her pregnancy is in the _____ stage of development. a. germinal b. embryonic c. infancy d. fetal ANSWER: d 22. The fatty sheath around the axons of a neuron is referred to as: a. teratogen. b. myelin. c. habituation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. cephalocaudal. ANSWER: b 23. A developmental disorder that stems from heavy alcohol use during pregnancy is called: a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. myelination. c. a teratogen. d. habituation. ANSWER: a 24. Jabari was born with fetal alcohol syndrome. Which is NOT a characteristic of this disorder? a. a thin upper lip b. large eye openings c. a flat midface d. an underdeveloped jaw ANSWER: b 25. Ester is an expectant mother and smokes tobacco. Her baby is more likely to have: a. facial abnormalities. b. low birth weight. c. Down syndrome. d. physical deformities such as missing limbs. ANSWER: b 26. Alexa has a developmental disorder that developed from heavy alcohol use by her mother while she was pregnant. Alexa likely has: a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. myelination. c. a teratogen. d. habituation. ANSWER: a 27. Teratogen refers to: a. any substance that passes from mother to unborn child and impairs development. b. a substance that forms a fatty sheath around axons of brain cells. c. the specific pattern of motor response triggered by a stimulus. d. the cephalocaudal rule of development. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 28. Children of people who received insufficient nutrition during pregnancy tend to have _____ problems. a. physical but not psychological b. psychological but not physical c. both physical and psychological d. neither physical nor psychological ANSWER: c 29. Claire's mother consumed alcohol heavily while she was pregnant with Claire. This could explain why Claire: a. was born low birth weight. b. developed an enlarged heart. c. has experienced problems with academic achievement. d. was born with deformed limbs. ANSWER: c 30. A study by Streissguth and colleagues (1999) followed children with fetal alcohol syndrome for 25 years and found that, by the age of 14, about _____ of them had been suspended or expelled from school. a. 30% b. 60% c. 80% d. 90% ANSWER: b 31. Babies whose mothers smoke tobacco during pregnancy are more likely to experience all of these EXCEPT: a. lower birth weights. b. perceptual problems. c. attention deficits. d. distinctive facial features. ANSWER: d 32. Sunil, who had a very low birth weight, shows problems with attention, perception, and learning deficits in school. Sunil was probably exposed to which teratogen? a. alcohol b. tobacco smoke c. thalidomide d. mercury ANSWER: b 33. The heart begins to beat in the _____ stage of prenatal development. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. germinal b. embryonic c. zygotic d. fetal ANSWER: b 34. Which statement given to expectant parents is FALSE? a. The fetus is more vulnerable to teratogens than is the embryo. b. There is no medical consensus as to a "safe" amount of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. c. Prenatal exposure to second-hand smoke can result in deficits in learning and attention. d. Pregnant people should avoid eating fish containing large amounts of mercury. ANSWER: a 35. Two-year-old Peter has short eye openings, a flat midface, an indistinct ridge under his nose, and a thin upper lip. An alert pediatrician is likely to diagnose _____ syndrome. a. Down b. Prader–Willi c. fetal alcohol d. Turner ANSWER: c 36. Twelve-year-old Jin has been suspended from middle school several times and has exhibited behavioral problems beginning in kindergarten. A pediatrician learns that his parents were heavy users of drugs and alcohol before and for a year after Jon's birth. Examining the child's medical records, she learns that Jin had a normal birth weight but has exhibited cognitive deficits his entire life. The pediatrician would be most likely to conclude that Jin's behavioral problems are due to prenatal exposure to which drug? a. tobacco b. alcohol c. heroin d. methadone ANSWER: b 37. The stage of development that begins at birth and lasts between 18 and 24 months is called: a. childhood. b. infancy. c. adulthood. d. puberty. ANSWER: b 38. Dianna's baby is currently 8 months old. Her baby is in which stage of development? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. childhood b. infancy c. adulthood d. puberty ANSWER: b 39. What an infant can see at a distance of 20 feet approximates what an adult can see at _____ feet. a. 100 b. 600 c. 1,000 d. 3,500 ANSWER: b 40. Maria and Carlos purchase a mobile for their newborn's crib to keep his attention. After a period of time, the infant may stop paying attention to the mobile. This is an example of which process? a. object permanence b. habituation c. assimilation d. schema development ANSWER: b 41. The tendency for an organism to respond less intensely to a stimulus the more it is presented is termed: a. object permanence. b. conditioning. c. assimilation. d. habituation. ANSWER: d 42. Which statement is TRUE of visual perception in newborns? a. They are farsighted, seeing objects that are farther away in more detail than they do objects closer to them. b. Their visual perception approximates that of an adult human. c. They see colors more vividly than does an adult human. d. They only see details in objects that are about 8 to 12 inches away. ANSWER: d 43. An infant in a visual perception experiment is shown a computerized screen 8 inches from her face that repeats the same visual pattern of wavy line stimuli. How will the infant MOST likely respond? a. She will not notice the visual stimulus because it is too far away. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. Over time, she will look at it more and more. c. Over time, she will look at it less and less. d. Her pattern of looking at the display over time will resemble a wave-like function. ANSWER: c 44. Which statement is TRUE regarding newborns? a. They can do little more than cry and squirm. b. They can see objects at a distance of 20 feet as clearly as an adult can. c. They are especially sensitive to social stimuli. d. They are unable to follow a moving stimulus with their eyes. ANSWER: c 45. Which procedure is BEST for determining whether newborns have noticed a visual object? a. determining how distance to the object affects the rate of habituation to that object b. determining if habituation has occurred to the object c. determining the speed of habituation to the object d. determining if habituation is reversed if the object changes ANSWER: d 46. A newborn infant would be most attentive to: a. faces. b. perpendicular lines. c. colors. d. spinning wheels. ANSWER: a 47. In one study, researchers showed infants moving circles, moving circles with scrambled facial features, and moving circles with regular facial features. The researchers measured eye gazes at the objects and found that infants tracked the: a. empty circles for the longest time. b. scrambled faces for the longest time. c. regular faces for the longest time. d. scrambled and regular faces for an equivalent amount of time. ANSWER: c 48. Infants are able to mimic the facial expressions of adults: a. in the 1st hour of life. b. after the 1st week of life. c. after the age of 1 month. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. when they are about 3 months old. ANSWER: a 49. _____ development refers to the emergence of the ability to execute physical actions. a. Physical b. Muscular c. Physiological d. Motor ANSWER: d 50. The tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from the head to the feet is called the _____ rule. a. motor b. cognitive c. proximodistal d. cephalocaudal ANSWER: d 51. _____ are motor responses that are triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation. a. Motor reflexes b. Physiological responses c. Conditioned reflexes d. Conditioned responses ANSWER: a 52. Motor reflexes are specific patterns of motor responses that are: a. the result of classical conditioning. b. triggered by physiological processes. c. triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation. d. acquired early in life. ANSWER: c 53. Which statement is TRUE regarding the rooting and sucking reflexes? a. They grow stronger over the first several months of life. b. They do not change in intensity over the 1st several months of life. c. They grow weaker over the first several months of life. d. They are replaced by the swallowing reflex. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 54. The emergence of the ability to execute physical actions is referred to as _____ development. a. cognitive b. emotional c. physical d. motor ANSWER: d 55. The "top-to-bottom" rule that describes the tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from head to the feet is called: a. the proximodistal rule. b. object permanence. c. the cephalocaudal rule. d. myelination. ANSWER: c 56. Which is NOT a motor response? a. reaching b. viewing c. grasping d. crawling ANSWER: b 57. Marco was just born. What is she NOT able to do? a. show the rooting reflex b. suck c. reach for a bottle d. mimic facial expressions ANSWER: c 58. What does NOT influence the timing of motor development in infants? a. incentive for reaching b. body weight c. rooting strength d. general level of activity ANSWER: c 59. Delphi can expect that her typical newborn daughter will be able to: a. hold her head up for brief periods. b. reach for a toy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice c. sleep through the night. d. suck. ANSWER: d 60. Francesca, a newborn, turns her head toward a stimulus that strokes her cheek. Francesca is showing the _____ reflex. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. sucking d. rooting ANSWER: d 61. Infants learn to control their heads before they learn to control their arms, illustrating the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. dorsal striatal d. ventral medial ANSWER: b 62. Infants learn to control their arms before they learn to control their legs, illustrating the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. dorsal striatal d. ventral medial ANSWER: b 63. Infants learn to control their elbows and knees before their hands and feet, which illustrates the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. handedness d. sensorimotor ANSWER: a 64. Infants learn to control their shoulders before they learn to control their elbows, illustrating the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. dorsal striatal d. ventral medial ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 65. The "inside-to-outside" rule that describes the tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from the center to the periphery is called: a. the proximodistal rule. b. object permanence. c. the cephalocaudal rule. d. myelination. ANSWER: a 66. Inside-to-outside is to _____ as top-to-bottom is to _____. a. proximodistal; cephalocaudal b. myelination; assimilation c. assimilation; accommodation d. cephalocaudal; proximodistal ANSWER: a 67. Motor skills in infancy emerge: a. in an orderly sequence, but the timing varies for different infants. b. at the same time for all babies, but their sequence varies for different infants. c. in different sequences and at different times. d. in an orderly sequence and at the same time. ANSWER: a 68. Yasmin is able to sit without support. She is probably at least _____ month(s) old. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 ANSWER: d 69. Jung-hoon has learned to walk well by himself. He MOST likely learned this skill at _____ months old. a. 9 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18 ANSWER: b 70. Motor development during infancy tends to follow two main guidelines: the _____ rule, whereby motor skills develop from the head to the feet, and the _____ rule, whereby babies learn to control body parts closest Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice to their trunk before moving to the periphery (e.g., hands and feet). a. cephalocaudal; bipedal b. cephalocaudal; proximodistal c. proximodistal; cephalocaudal d. bipedal; proximodistal ANSWER: b 71. Applying schemas to novel situations is to _____ as revising schemas based on new information is to _____. a. assimilation, accommodation b. myelination, habituation c. habituation, assimilation d. accommodation, assimilation ANSWER: a 72. When presented with two identical balls of clay, Iona says that the two balls still contain the same amount of clay, even when one is rolled out into a snake or flattened into a pancake. Iona is likely in which stage of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. formal motor c. preoperational d. concrete operational ANSWER: d 73. Francisco recently demonstrated his first understanding of object permanence. According to Piaget, this means that he is MOST likely in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational ANSWER: a 74. The process by which infants and children gain the ability to think and understand is called _____ development. a. cognitive b. emotional c. physical d. motor ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 75. Jonas knew that animals with fur, pointy ears, a tail, four legs, and that say "woof" were called "dogs" by his parents. He saw a new animal and thought it was a dog until it "meowed." Jonas's parents said that it was a "cat." Jonas could now distinguish between a dog and a cat depending on the sound the animal made. This revision of Jonas's schema of a "dog" best illustrates: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. formal operations. d. object permanence. ANSWER: b 76. Cicero has developed the ability to reason about abstract concepts, such as freedom and love. This means that he is in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. preconventional b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational ANSWER: d 77. Lanae is in the preoperational stage of development. This means that she is likely to have trouble with the concept of: a. conservation. b. assimilation. c. accommodation. d. object permanence. ANSWER: a 78. Adora's level of patience is likely to resemble that of her: a. mother's. b. father's. c. grandfather's. d. aunt's. ANSWER: c 79. Which ability is NOT one of the three essential tasks of cognitive development? a. understanding how the physical world works b. understanding the physiological processes underlying cognition c. understanding how the mind represents the physical world d. understanding how other minds represent the physical world ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 80. _____ is widely considered to be the father of modern developmental psychology. a. Harry Harlow b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg ANSWER: c 81. What is the CORRECT order of Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational b. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational c. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational d. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational ANSWER: d 82. According to Jean Piaget, _____ are theories about the way the world works. a. operations b. schemas c. hypotheses d. Gestalts ANSWER: b 83. When infants apply their schemas in novel situations, they are engaging in: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. object permanence. d. habituation. ANSWER: a 84. Seven-month-old José is given a kind of cracker that he has never eaten before. He promptly puts it into his mouth and eats it. According to Piaget, he is demonstrating: a. object permanence. b. accommodation. c. assimilation. d. concrete operations. ANSWER: c 85. Baby Denisha learned to call her family's dog a "woof." Her parents were surprised when she pointed to a cow and said, "Woof!" Jean Piaget would say that Denisha was making use of the process of: a. habituation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. object permanence. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. ANSWER: c 86. According to Piaget, the sensorimotor stage begins at _____ and ends at about age _____. a. birth; 4 months b. birth; 2 years c. 2 years; 4 years d. 2 years; 6 years ANSWER: b 87. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage of cognitive development begins at _____ and ends at about age _____. a. birth; 2 years b. 2 years; 6 years c. 6 years; 11 years d. 11 years; 18 years ANSWER: b 88. According to Piaget, the concrete operational stage of cognitive development begins at _____ years and ends at about age _____ years. a. 2; 7 b. 4; 9 c. 6; 11 d. 9; 14 ANSWER: c 89. The process by which infants apply their schemas to novel situations is referred to as: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. myelination. d. habituation. ANSWER: a 90. Application of schemas is to _____ as revision of schemas is to _____. a. assimilation; accommodation b. accommodation; assimilation c. myelination; habituation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. habituation; myelination ANSWER: a 91. Which statement is TRUE regarding object permanence, according to Piaget? a. It is present at birth. b. It develops during the first 2 months of life. c. It develops in the sensorimotor stage. d. It develops in the preoperational stage. ANSWER: c 92. The process by which infants revise their schemas in light of new information is referred to as: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. habituation. d. myelination. ANSWER: b 93. Jacquie's big brother taught her how to catch a beach ball by positioning her hands a specified distance apart with hands open. After she learned to catch the large beach ball, she learned to adjust her hands to catch a smaller ball. This additional learning is an example of: a. habituation. b. object permanence. c. accommodation. d. assimilation. ANSWER: c 94. Isabel, who just had her 1st birthday, sees a butterfly, and exclaims, "Bird!" "No, that's a butterfly," says her grandmother. The next time Isabel sees a butterfly, she says, "Butterfly!" According to Piaget, Isabel has just shown: a. habituation. b. concrete operations. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. ANSWER: d 95. According to Piaget, understanding the fact that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible is referred to as: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. inattentional blindness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. objective blindsight. ANSWER: b 96. Three-month-old Shantel has not yet acquired object permanence and, as a result, she will: a. search only briefly for a toy that has been covered with a blanket. b. not search for a toy that has been covered with a blanket. c. construct a schema about where the toy is hidden. d. cry when her toy is hidden under a blanket. ANSWER: b 97. Jack is an infant who loves to play peek-a-boo with his parent. He seems amazed that his parent "reappears" after hiding their face behind their hands. Jack probably enjoys peek-a-boo because he does NOT yet understand: a. object permanence. b. schemas. c. animism. d. conservation. ANSWER: a 98. The possibility that infants as young as 4 months of age have some knowledge of object permanence has been shown by studies in which: a. infants view "possible" and "impossible" events. b. children place eggs in cups. c. water is poured from wide beakers into tall cylinders. d. clay is flattened and then rolled into a ball. ANSWER: a 99. How do researchers know that infants can tell the difference between a physically impossible and physically possible event? a. Infants will stare longer at the possible event than they do at the impossible event. b. Infants will stare longer at the impossible event than they do at the possible event. c. Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the possible event but not to the impossible event. d. Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the impossible event but not to the possible event. ANSWER: b 100. Researchers of cognitive development now suggest that: a. infants cannot develop the schema of object permanence. b. infants develop the schema of object permanence much later than Piaget realized. c. infants may have a sense of object permanence much earlier than Piaget realized. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. Piaget's theories about the development of object permanence were surprisingly accurate. ANSWER: c 101. The stage of development that begins at about 18 to 24 months and lasts until about 11 to 14 years is called: a. childhood. b. infancy. c. adulthood. d. puberty. ANSWER: a 102. Barry is currently 8 years old. This means that he is in which stage of development? a. childhood b. infancy c. adulthood d. puberty ANSWER: a 103. During which Piaget's stages of cognitive development do children develop a preliminary understanding of the physical world? a. preoperational b. postconventional c. concrete operational d. preconventional ANSWER: a 104. During which Piaget's stages of cognitive development do children learn how various actions, or operations, can transform the tangible objects of the physical world? a. preoperational b. postconventional c. concrete operational d. preconventional ANSWER: c 105. When does the formal operational stage of cognitive development begin, according to Piaget? a. 11 years of age b. 13 years of age c. 15 years of age d. 17 years of age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 106. During which Piaget's stages of cognitive development do children learn how to reason about abstract concepts? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preconventional ANSWER: c 107. Lee is currently studying geometry in high school. According to Piaget, Lee is in which stage of cognitive development? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preconventional ANSWER: c 108. Jovanni is currently studying calculus. He is likely in which Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preconventional ANSWER: c 109. The understanding that the quantitative properties of an object are invariant despite changes in the object's appearance is referred to as: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. ANSWER: a 110. Five-year-old Latoya watches her parent place a ball in each of six bowls. She agrees that there are just as many balls as there are bowls. Her parent then removes the balls and spreads them out in a row that extends beyond the row of bowls. Latoya says there are now more balls than there are bowls. According to Piaget, Latoya lacks the concept of: a. conservation. b. egocentrism. c. object permanence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. false beliefs. ANSWER: a 111. As children watched, Dr. Vallance poured the same amount of juice into two identical glasses. Then Dr. Vallance poured the juice from one of those glasses into a taller, narrower glass. When asked which glass now has more juice, children in the concrete operational stage say that: a. the tall glass has more. b. both glasses have the same amount. c. they don't know. d. the tall glass has less. ANSWER: b 112. Which statement is NOT a reason, according to Piaget, young children cannot grasp the notion of conservation? Young children: a. fail to distinguish between the objective and the subjective. b. believe that the world is as it seems. c. distinguish between appearances and realities. d. do not understand the difference between the world and their mental representation of it. ANSWER: c 113. Elsa and Ariela were discussing what might happen to gender relations if the United States were to elect a woman as president. It is likely they are in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operational b. concrete operational c. preoperational d. abstract operational ANSWER: a 114. Formal operational thinking is distinguished from concrete operations by the ability to: a. understand the principle of conservation. b. reason about abstract concepts. c. show egocentrism. d. understand object permanence. ANSWER: b 115. Anthony is able to think about "what might be," not only about "what is." According to Piaget, Anthony is in which stage of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. formal operational ANSWER: d 116. Which describes egocentrism, according to Piaget? a. A child is selfish. b. A child is in the sensorimotor stage. c. A child fails to understand that the world appears different to different people. d. A child realizes that others may not share the child's point of view. ANSWER: c 117. _____ is the failure to understand that the world appears different to different people. a. Accommodation b. Assimilation c. Egocentrism d. Conservation ANSWER: c 118. People experience different emotions in response to the same stimulus and react differently to things based on their personal likes or dislikes. Understanding this phenomenon is a characteristic of: a. the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. b. the postconventional stage of moral development. c. assimilation and accommodation. d. a theory of mind. ANSWER: d 119. Megan has a habit of standing in front of the television, even though other people behind her are also trying to watch the television. Megan seems unaware that people cannot see the television through her head. Megan: a. is selfish. b. is demonstrating egocentrism. c. does not grasp the concept of conservation. d. is demonstrating reversibility. ANSWER: b 120. Beatriz is 2 years old; when her sibling tells her to hide, she covers her face with a blanket. This is a good example of: a. assimilation. b. egocentrism. c. conservation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. accommodation. ANSWER: b 121. The false-belief test demonstrates that 3-year-olds: a. lack the concept of conservation. b. do not have a theory of object permanence. c. fail to apply their schemas in novel situations. d. have trouble understanding that others may not know what they know. ANSWER: d 122. At about what age do children begin passing the false-belief test? a. between ages 2 and 4 b. between ages 4 and 6 c. between ages 6 and 8 d. between ages 8 and 10 ANSWER: b 123. A researcher showed children a crayon box and opened it to reveal candy instead of crayons. When the researcher closed the box and asked the children what they originally had thought was in it. Most 3-year-olds said _____, and most 5-year-olds said _____. a. candy; crayons b. candy; candy c. crayons; crayons d. crayons; candy ANSWER: a 124. A psychology professor conducts a study in which they show children a carton of milk and then pours it to reveal orange juice instead of milk. The professor asks the children what they originally had thought was in it. Most 3-year-olds probably will say _____, and most 5-year-olds will say _____. a. milk; milk b. milk; orange juice c. orange juice; orange juice d. orange juice; milk ANSWER: d 125. A psychologist tells a child a story in which a puppet named Maxi puts a ball in one cupboard and then leaves the room. While the psychologist is gone, another puppet moves the ball to another cupboard. Then Maxi comes back. At this point, the psychologist asks the child in which cupboard will Maxi look for the ball. This is an example of: a. a conservation task. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. an assimilation task. c. a test of object permanence. d. the false-belief task. ANSWER: d 126. A psychologist tells children a story in which a puppet named Maxi puts a ball in one cupboard and then leaves the room. While the psychologist is gone, another puppet moves the ball to another cupboard. Then Maxi comes back. At this point, the psychologist asks the children in which cupboard will Maxi look for the ball. Most 3-year-olds probably will say the _____ cupboard, and most 5-year-olds will say the _____ cupboard. a. first; first b. first; second c. second; first d. second; second ANSWER: c 127. A psychologist tells children a story in which a puppet named Maxi puts a ball in one cupboard and then leaves the room. While the psychologist is gone, another puppet moves the ball to another cupboard. Then Maxi comes back. At this point, the psychologist asks the children in which cupboard will Maxi look for the ball? Most 6-year-olds probably will say the _____ cupboard, and most 8-year-olds will say the _____ cupboard. a. first; first b. first; second c. second; first d. second; second ANSWER: a 128. Most children FIRST understand that different people have different: a. perceptions. b. beliefs. c. desires. d. emotions. ANSWER: c 129. Most children ultimately come to understand that different people understand the world in different ways. Once they understand this concept, they are said to have acquired: a. concrete operations. b. postconventional reasoning. c. a theory of mind. d. formal operations. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 130. Daniel does not communicate well with others. As a result, he has few friends and does not understand the emotions of others. He has yet to acquire a theory of mind. Although he has profound social deficits, his score on a standardized intelligence test was in the normal range. Daniel MOST likely: a. has ADHD. b. has an insecure attachment. c. is on the autism spectrum. d. has antisocial personality disorder. ANSWER: c 131. The two groups of children that are much slower than others to acquire a theory of mind are those who are: a. on the autism spectrum or are antisocial. b. blind or on the autism spectrum. c. blind or deaf with parents who don't use sign language. d. on the autism spectrum or are deaf with parents who don't use sign language. ANSWER: d 132. Agata was diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. She is likely to: a. function typically in social situations. b. have an impaired theory of mind. c. perform well in tasks involving understanding the beliefs of others. d. easily develop a theory of mind. ANSWER: b 133. Which child will MOST likely have acquired a theory of mind? a. Abigail, a typically developing 2-year-old b. Derek, a 5-year-old child with autism spectrum disorder c. Dianna, a 6-year-old deaf child who has been using sign language since before her first birthday d. Erika, a 3-year-old deaf child ANSWER: c 134. There is much variability in the rate that children acquire a theory of mind. Among the factors that have been identified, _____ seems to be the MOST important. a. language b. time spent in pretend play c. socioeconomic status of the family d. number of siblings ANSWER: a 135. The understanding that the mind produces representations of the world and that these representations guide behavior is referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. habituation. b. attachment. c. conservation. d. theory of mind. ANSWER: d 136. Piaget believed that children acquire the understanding that different people have different beliefs: a. when they can engage in formal operations. b. much earlier than what scientists now recognize. c. by being exposed to people disagreeing about their beliefs. d. as a result of the culture in which they are born. ANSWER: c 137. Research has indicated that children living in cultures that discourage arguments and conflicts experience delay in: a. the emergence of abstract reasoning skills. b. understanding that different people have different beliefs. c. understanding that different people like different things. d. mastery of the false-belief task. ANSWER: b 138. One major current criticism of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that: a. his research was poorly done. b. it applies only to Swiss children. c. children do not all go through the same sequences of it. d. it occurs gradually instead of in stages. ANSWER: d 139. Which metaphor BEST describes cognitive development? a. turning on a light b. the lunar cycle c. changes in season d. graduating from one grade to the next ANSWER: c 140. Current research shows that children generally acquire many of the abilities described by Piaget: a. much earlier than he realized. b. at about the same ages that he proposed. c. slightly later than he realized. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. much later than he realized. ANSWER: a 141. The view that cognitive development is largely the result of the child's interaction with members of their culture instead of interaction with objects was proposed by: a. Harry Harlow. b. Jean Piaget. c. Lev Vygotsky. d. John Bowlby. ANSWER: c 142. The theories of Lev Vygotsky emphasized the role played by _____ in cognitive development. a. genetic predisposition b. mental representation c. social interaction d. concrete objects ANSWER: c 143. Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development differed from Piaget's largely due to its focus on: a. cultural influences. b. self-observations. c. reinforcement. d. morality. ANSWER: a 144. Lev Vygotsky talked about the cultural tools that exert influence on cognitive development. Which choice is the BEST example of a cultural tool? a. tradition b. values c. faith d. language ANSWER: d 145. Due to differences in the regularity of the counting system, children in _____ can MOST easily deconstruct two-digit numbers. a. China b. France c. Spain d. the United States Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 146. The ability to focus on what another person is focused on is known as: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. assimilation. d. imitation. ANSWER: b 147. Laura gazes out the window and her 6-month-old child stops mouthing their toy and also looks out the window, demonstrating the ability known as: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. overimitation. d. object permanence. ANSWER: b 148. Which skill is NOT one of the three fundamental skills that allow children to learn from others? a. social referencing b. joint attention c. assimilation d. imitation ANSWER: c 149. In demonstrating the ability of joint attention, older infants tend to follow the _____ of adults. a. verbal instructions b. physical prompts c. head movements d. eye movements ANSWER: d 150. During an interaction with a 3-month-old infant, an adult closes their eyes and turns their head to the left, facing a novel object. The infant will: a. turn and look at the object. b. imitate the adult by closing his eyes and turning in the direction of the object. c. immediately close his eyes. d. simply stare at the adult. ANSWER: a 151. During an interaction with a 9-month-old infant, an adult closes their eyes and turns their head to the left, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice facing a novel object. The infant will: a. turn and look at the object. b. imitate the adult by closing his eyes and turning in the direction of the object. c. immediately close his eyes. d. not attend to the object. ANSWER: d 152. The ability to use another person's reactions as information about how one should think about the world is known as: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. assimilation. d. the theory of mind. ANSWER: a 153. At about 1 year of age, Andi begins looking at their caregivers to gauge their reactions when a stranger walks into the room. This phenomenon is called: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. imprinting. d. cultural tool development. ANSWER: a 154. Three-year-old Meghan is at the park when a tongue-wagging golden retriever approaches her. Meghan quickly glances at her parent in an effort to determine if petting the dog is safe. Meghan is demonstrating: a. signal detection. b. social referencing. c. imitation. d. joint attention. ANSWER: b 155. In response to an increase in school shootings in recent years, many public schools now conduct _____ drills. a. fire b. active shooter c. bomb d. tornado ANSWER: b 156. In the 2015–2016 school year, _____ of public schools ran lockdown drills. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. 15% b. 35% c. 65% d. 95% ANSWER: d 157. What is the leading cause of death for children and adolescents? a. accidental injury b. homicide c. school shootings d. cancer ANSWER: a 158. What is the second leading cause of death for children and adolescents? a. accidental injury b. homicide c. school shootings d. cancer ANSWER: d 159. Despite the rare occurrence of school shootings in American schools, a 2018 survey by the Pew Research Foundation reported that _____ of American teens worry about a shooting at their school. a. 12% b. 38% c. 57% d. 77% ANSWER: c 160. Mandi is in the 9th grade and is afraid that a shooting will happen at her school. While these instances are rare, her feelings aren't. It has been estimated that _____ of American teens worry that there may be a shooting at their school. a. 12% b. 38% c. 57% d. 77% ANSWER: c 161. What percentage of 13- to-18-year-olds have anxiety disorders? a. 12% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. 32% c. 45% d. 67% ANSWER: b 162. Sam is 16 years old and has an anxiety disorder. He is not alone, as around _____ of teens experience an anxiety disorder. a. 12% b. 32% c. 45% d. 67% ANSWER: b 163. What percentage of 13- to 18-year-olds experience mental disorders that cause severe impairment or distress? a. 22% b. 32% c. 45% d. 67% ANSWER: a 164. What is the median age of onset for anxiety? a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 12 years d. 15 years ANSWER: b 165. What is the current mortality rate of children under 5 in the United States? a. less than 1% b. 7% c. 23% d. 40% ANSWER: a 166. What was the mortality rate of children under 5 in the United States in 1800? a. less than 1% b. 7% c. 23% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. more than 40% ANSWER: d 167. Which BEST defines attachment? a. a biologically based pattern of attentional and emotional reactivity b. the emotional bond with a primary caregiver c. a stage of moral development d. a set of beliefs about the way relationships work ANSWER: b 168. A characteristic pattern of reacting to the absence and presence of one's primary caregiver is referred to as: a. the preconventional stage of development. b. an attachment style. c. myelination. d. habituation. ANSWER: b 169. According to John Bowlby, babies are born with behaviors such as crying, smiling, and cooing in order to: a. facilitate imprinting. b. better be able to follow the primary caregiver. c. better be able to imitate the primary caregiver. d. keep the primary caregiver close to them. ANSWER: d 170. John Bowlby claimed that by about 6 months of age, a baby begins to direct attachment signals toward: a. the father. b. the mother. c. the primary caregiver. d. anyone who is close by. ANSWER: c 171. Attachment is defined as a(n) _____ bond that forms between newborns and their primary caregivers. a. intellectual b. emotional c. maturational d. physical ANSWER: b 172. Harry Harlow studied _____ in order to learn more about the importance of caregivers in social Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice development. a. infants in orphanages b. members of the Piraha tribe c. adopted children d. socially isolated rhesus monkeys ANSWER: d 173. Harry Harlow found that the social and cognitive deficits exhibited by monkeys raised in isolation for their first 6 months of life: a. quickly disappeared when finally introduced to other monkeys. b. remained until the monkeys reproduced and had to care for their own children. c. were evident in monkeys raised with a wire mother surrogate but not in monkeys raised with a soft cloth mother surrogate. d. were severe and long-lasting. ANSWER: d 174. When placed in a cage with a soft cloth "mother" and a wire "mother" equipped with a feeding nipple, socially isolated rhesus monkeys: a. spent more time hanging on the soft cloth mother, even though the wire mother provided nourishment. b. spent more time hanging on the wire mother, primarily because it was equipped with a feeding nipple. c. refused to eat altogether. d. refused to spend any time on the soft cloth mother because it offered no nourishment. ANSWER: a 175. Researchers studying attachment styles have demonstrated that a majority of infants in all cultures display a(n) _____ attachment style. a. avoidant b. secure c. ambivalent d. disorganized ANSWER: b 176. In a research study examining attachment in parents and their children, 1-year-old Ami mildly protests her mother's departure, seeks interaction with her mother when the two are reunited, and is readily comforted by her mother. Ami is showing a(n) _____ attachment style. a. avoidant b. ambivalent c. disorganized Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. secure ANSWER: d 177. Eleven-month-old Ashley plays without a fuss when their parent leaves and on their parent's return, Ashley ignores them. Ashley is demonstrating which type of attachment style? a. avoidant b. ambivalent c. disorganized d. secure ANSWER: a 178. Toddler Jorma shows severe signs of distress when his mother leaves. When she returns, he pushes her away. Jorma is manifesting the characteristics of _____ attachment. a. disorganized b. ambivalent c. avoidant d. secure ANSWER: b 179. Worldwide, _____ attachment is the MOST common. a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized ANSWER: a 180. Which BEST defines temperament? a. expectations about how the primary caregiver will respond b. the strength of the tendency to lose one's temper c. a biologically based pattern of attentional and emotional reactivity d. the tendency to show strong negative emotions ANSWER: c 181. Infants with a(n) _____ attachment style are not distressed when their caregiver leaves the room and do not respond positively or negatively when their caregiver returns. a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 182. Psychologists speculate that infants who have experienced abuse by their primary caregivers are more likely to exhibit which style of attachment? a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized ANSWER: d 183. Caregivers who act indifferent to their infant's need for reassurance and reject their attempts at physical closeness are likely to have infants that demonstrate what type of attachment style? a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized ANSWER: b 184. Dara exhibits an ambivalent style of attachment. Which statement BEST describes the behavior of her caregiver? a. Her caregiver is especially sensitive to Dara's emotional state. b. Her caregiver is completely insensitive to Dara's needs for reassurance. c. Her caregiver is likely to respond to Dara's requests for reassurance. d. Her caregiver is likely to respond inconsistently to Dara's requests for reassurance. ANSWER: d 185. An _____ refers to a set of beliefs about the way that relationships work. a. external theory of mind b. internal working model of relationships c. external schematic of relationships d. interpersonal attachment model ANSWER: b 186. Which statement about working models of internal relationships is FALSE? a. Infants with an ambivalent style of attachment are not sure if their caregivers will respond when they are feeling insecure. b. Securely attached children tend to remember more happy events than do insecurely attached children. c. Securely attached children will stare longer at a cartoon in which a mother is comforting instead of ignoring her child. d. Infants with a disorganized style of attachment seem to be confused about their caregivers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 187. Which statement is FALSE? a. Differences in temperament usually are stable over time. b. Differences in attachment style are due primarily to biology. c. Mothers of securely attached infants tend to be especially sensitive to their infants' needs. d. Children who were securely attached as infants tend to have higher-quality social relationships. ANSWER: b 188. A large study of North American children who spent time in day care found that the quality of attachment between children and their mothers was influenced MOST strongly by the: a. quality of day care provided. b. amount of day care provided. c. age of entry into day care. d. mother's sensitivity and responsiveness. ANSWER: d 189. Billy was told by one parent that hitting is not acceptable. When Billy is told by the other parent to protect himself against a bully in school, Billy responds, "Hitting is not allowed." Billy is demonstrating which concept? a. relativism b. realism c. autonomous morality d. principled morality ANSWER: b 190. According to Kohlberg, the stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is primarily determined by the extent to which it conforms to social rules is called the _____ stage. a. prescriptive b. preconventional c. relativistic d. conventional ANSWER: d 191. In the final stage of moral development, Piaget suggests that children shift their thinking from _____ to _____. a. intentions; drives b. outcomes; intentions c. outcomes; drives d. intentions; outcomes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 192. A stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is determined by a set of general principles that reflect core values is called the _____ stage. a. postconventional b. conventional c. formal conventional d. preconventional ANSWER: a 193. Ricky will not pull Amber's hair, even though he wants to do so, because he is afraid that Amber will get him into trouble for it. According to Kohlberg, Ricky probably is in the _____ stage of moral development. a. relativistic b. preconventional c. conventional d. prescriptive ANSWER: b 194. When children begin to realize that groups of people can agree to adopt, change, or abandon some moral rules, they are in what stage of moral thinking, according to Piaget? a. autonomous morality b. principled morality c. realism d. relativism ANSWER: d 195. A preschooler has learned not to cut in line, to share the ball, and to take turns at the play table. However, they behave selfishly at the new train set because their behavior is controlled by _____, not by _____. a. outcomes; intentions b. intentions; outcomes c. prescriptions; principles d. principles; prescriptions ANSWER: c 196. According to Piaget, when children learn that taking turns while playing a game is an example of fairness, they have shifted their moral perspective from: a. rules to consequences. b. realism to relativism. c. prescriptions to principles. d. outcome to intentions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 197. Ian is convinced that a child who broke 12 cups accidentally did a worse thing than a child who deliberately broke 1 cup. According to Piaget, Ian is judging morality in terms of its: a. outcomes. b. intentions. c. prescriptions. d. principles. ANSWER: a 198. Serena is convinced that a child who deliberately broke 1 cup did a worse thing did than a child who accidentally broke 12 cups. According to Piaget, Serena is judging morality in terms of its: a. outcomes. b. intentions. c. prescriptions. d. principles. ANSWER: b 199. Second-grader Riley tells their friend Gus not to run in the hallway because it is against the school rules, and Gus might be punished. MOST likely, Riley is in Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. preoperational d. formal operational ANSWER: a 200. Thomas is 14 years old. Kohlberg would say that he is in the _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. concrete operational ANSWER: b 201. Morality is determined primarily by the extent to which it conforms to social rules in the _____ state of moral development. a. concrete operational b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 202. Morality is determined primarily by its consequences for the actor in the _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal operational ANSWER: a 203. According to Kohlberg's theory, a person who determines morality by using principles that reflect core values is in the _____ stage of development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. concrete operational ANSWER: c 204. Christine went to jail because she was part of a disruptive demonstration. Christine believes that lack of access to healthcare is a major cause of human suffering and death. Kohlberg would say that Christine is at the _____ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. preoperational ANSWER: c 205. A.J. believes that people should be able to say anything they want because the Second Amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees the right to free speech. Kohlberg would say that A.J. is at the _____ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. preoperational ANSWER: b 206. For Lawrence Kohlberg, moral development unfolds in the following sequence: first, emphasis on _____; then emphasis on _____; and finally, emphasis on _____. a. social roles; consequences; ethical principles b. ethical principles; social roles; consequences Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice c. social roles; ethical principles; consequences d. consequences; social roles; ethical principles ANSWER: d 207. In Kohlberg's original research and theoretical perspectives on moral development: a. people must go through the stages in a certain order. b. moral development in girls was thoroughly researched. c. all adults eventually become postconventional moralists. d. an individual may use all three stages of moral thinking in different circumstances. ANSWER: a 208. Research on Kohlberg's theory of moral development: a. supports his claim that the stages are discrete and nonoverlapping. b. supports his claim that more boys than girls reach the postconventional stage. c. shows that his view accurately describes moral thinking in non-Western societies. d. suggests that people might apply thinking from different stages depending on the situation. ANSWER: d 209. The period of development that begins with the onset of sexual maturity and lasts until the beginning of adulthood is called: a. puberty. b. adolescence. c. the tween years. d. emerging adulthood. ANSWER: b 210. Which statement BEST defines puberty? a. It is the stage at which children learn to reason about abstract concepts. b. It is the failure to understand that the world appears different to different people c. It refers to the characteristic patterns of emotional reactivity. d. It is the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity. ANSWER: d 211. A teenage boy starts shaving because he develops facial hair, which is a _____ sex characteristic. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 212. In just 3 or 4 years, the average adolescent gains about _____ pounds and grows about _____ inches. a. 10; 4 b. 20; 7 c. 30; 13 d. 40; 10 ANSWER: d 213. The adolescent growth spurt begins in girls at about age _____ and in boys at about age _____. a. 8; 9 b. 9; 11 c. 10; 12 d. 11; 14 ANSWER: c 214. On her first day as a student teacher, Emily observes that in her class of 11-year-old 6th-graders, on average: a. the girls are taller than are the boys. b. the children all appear similar in height. c. the boys are taller than are the girls. d. more boys than girls are exhibiting secondary sex characteristics. ANSWER: a 215. The bodily structures that are directly involved in reproduction are known as _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. pubertal ANSWER: a 216. Which is NOT a secondary sex characteristic? a. onset of menstruation b. breast enlargement c. appearance of pubic hair d. lowering of the voice ANSWER: a 217. Which is NOT a primary sex characteristic? a. growth of the penis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. the capacity for ejaculation c. onset of menstruation d. breast enlargement ANSWER: d 218. Development of primary and secondary sex characteristics is triggered by increased production of the hormones: a. adrenaline and progesterone. b. thyroxin and oxytocin. c. estrogen and testosterone. d. oxytocin and progesterone. ANSWER: c 219. Before puberty, there is a marked increase in the growth rate of the tissue that connects the _____ lobe and the _____ lobe. a. frontal; temporal b. temporal; parietal c. occipital; frontal d. temporal; occipital ANSWER: b 220. During adolescence, the most significant changes in the brain occur in the _____. a. temporal cortex b. parietal cortex c. prefrontal cortex d. motor areas of the brain ANSWER: c 221. What is puberty? a. the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity b. the period of development that begins with sexual maturation and ends with adulthood c. an aspect of development that begins in adulthood d. bodily structures that change at sexual maturity and are involved in reproduction ANSWER: a 222. Sridevi is currently experiencing bodily changes that are associated with reaching sexual maturity. She is experiencing: a. puberty. b. adulthood. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice c. habituation. d. myelination. ANSWER: a 223. What are primary sex characteristics? a. bodily structures that change at puberty but are not directly involved in reproduction b. the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity c. bodily structures that change at puberty and are directly involved in reproduction d. bodily structures associated with the cephalocaudal sequence of development ANSWER: c 224. What are secondary sex characteristics? a. bodily structures that change at puberty but are not directly involved in reproduction b. the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity c. bodily structures that change at puberty and are directly involved in reproduction d. bodily structures associated with the cephalocaudal sequence of development ANSWER: a 225. Recent research on the brains of adolescents indicates that development in the prefrontal cortex undergoes _____ just before puberty and _____ during adolescence. a. a growth spurt; an additional growth spurt b. synaptic proliferation; synaptic pruning c. synaptic pruning; synaptic proliferation d. a reduction in neurotransmitters; further reduction ANSWER: b 226. The age at which the onset of menstruation occurs decreased by about _____ year(s) between the 19th and 20th centuries. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 ANSWER: c 227. Michelle is curious about when her son will begin pubertal development. You could tell her that puberty for boys in the United States is likely to begin between _____ years old. a. 8 and 9 b. 9 and 10 c. 10 and 11 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. 11 and 12 ANSWER: b 228. The earlier onset of puberty in girls is most linked to: a. the absence of a father in the household. b. stress. c. environmental toxins. d. diet. ANSWER: d 229. Over the past century, the age at which people physically become an adult has _____, and the age at which people assume adult responsibilities has _____. a. decreased; decreased b. decreased; increased c. increased; increased d. increased; decreased ANSWER: b 230. Who probably has experienced the LONGEST period of adolescence? a. Scarlett, who got married in 1860 b. Helen, who got married in 1900 c. Sharon, who got married in 1970 d. Jarena, who got married in 2016 ANSWER: d 231. American teenagers are subjected to _____ restrictions as are active-duty U.S. Marines. a. about the same number of b. twice as many c. 5 times as many d. 10 times as many ANSWER: b 232. American teenagers are subjected to _____ restrictions as older adults. a. about the same number of b. twice as many c. 5 times as many d. 10 times as many ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 233. Research has indicated that the notion that "storm and stress" are inevitable components of adolescence is: a. greatly exaggerated. b. true only in industrialized nations. c. more true for girls than it is for boys. d. especially true for children who reach puberty later than do their peers. ANSWER: a 234. Research has shown that: a. fluctuations in the hormone levels of adolescents lead to marked mood swings. b. adolescent boys' mood swings are more noticeable than are the mood swings of adolescent girls. c. adolescents are no moodier than are children. d. the "storm and stress" of adolescence is more common today than it was 200 years ago. ANSWER: c 235. Research has shown that fluctuations in the hormonal levels of adolescents: a. lead to marked mood swings in both boys and girls. b. lead to marked mood swings in boys but not girls. c. lead to marked mood swings in girls but not boys. d. have little effect on mood. ANSWER: d 236. About 60% of preindustrial societies do NOT have a word for adolescence because: a. the onset of puberty is considered shameful. b. marriage typically occurs before puberty. c. there is no such stage as puberty marks adulthood. d. children are not treated differently than are adults. ANSWER: c 237. Gardner and Steinberg (2005) arranged a study in which adolescents and older adults played a simulated driving game either alone or with peers. The researchers measured risky behavior in terms of the number of crashes that occurred during the game. They found that the presence of peers: a. greatly increased crashes for both age groups. b. significantly decreased crashes for both age groups. c. greatly increased crashes for adolescents but significantly decreased crashes for older adults. d. greatly increased crashes for adolescents but had little effect for older adults. ANSWER: d 238. Which statement about reckless behavior in adolescence and adulthood is TRUE? a. Few adolescents in the United States get drunk at least once before graduating from high school. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. Adolescents who try drugs often wind up with serious drug problems as adults. c. People who don't drink or try drugs as adolescents often begin to drink and use drugs seriously as adults. d. Adolescents who misbehave generally do not engage in behaviors with long-term consequences. ANSWER: d 239. Among _____, it is those who reach puberty _____ than do their peers who are MOST likely to experience negative consequences ranging from distress to delinquency. a. girls; earlier b. girls; later c. boys; earlier d. boys; later ANSWER: a 240. Leta and Armand have an 11-year-old daughter who has begun going through puberty at age 10. Leta and Armand should be aware that the effects of early maturation would NOT include that their daughter: a. is at a higher risk for delinquency. b. will be treated as "mature" based on her appearance. c. may attract older men. d. will have more time than her peers to develop adolescent social skills. ANSWER: d 241. Researchers can measure _____ using an intertemporal discounting task. a. patience b. intelligence c. socioemotional development d. emotion regulation ANSWER: a 242. Which researcher(s) conducted a study with 1,500 people ranging in age from 18 to 96 in which participants had to complete an intertemporal discounting task? Participants were asked if they would rather receive $230 right now or wait and receive a larger amount later. a. Lang and Carstensen b. Richter and Mata c. Shilling d. Freund and Blanchard-Fields ANSWER: b 243. Margaret is 15 years old and is generally impatient. Her level of patience is most likely to be similar to her: a. mother's. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. father's. c. baby brother's. d. grandmother's. ANSWER: d 244. Adolescents and older adults have similar levels of: a. patience. b. intelligence. c. socioemotional development. d. emotion regulation. ANSWER: a 245. About what percentage of American adolescents identify themselves as lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgender? a. 1% b. 4% c. 6% d. 7% ANSWER: d 246. Sex education during adolescence: a. eliminates sexual activity among teenagers. b. can decrease the number of teenage pregnancies. c. increases the number of sexually transmitted infections among teenagers. d. has no effect on sexual activity among teenagers. ANSWER: b 247. Which statement about attitudes toward same-sex marriage in the United States is TRUE? a. More people oppose same-sex marriage than are in favor of it. b. About an equal number of people favor and oppose it. c. Since about 2000, more people have been in favor of it. d. More people are in favor of it, and this represents a recent shift in opinion. ANSWER: d 248. Which sentence does NOT describe a reason adolescence can be a particularly hard time for lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender teenagers? a. Public opinion is rapidly becoming less tolerant to homosexuality. b. It is harder to "fit in" with peers. c. Families may express disdain and disapproval. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. They may face prejudice and discrimination. ANSWER: a 249. Which statement has been demonstrated as FALSE by research on homosexuality? a. Being raised by a domineering mother and a cold, distant father increases the likelihood of a man being gay. b. Children reared by same-sex couples and heterosexual couples are equally likely to become heterosexual adults. c. High levels of androgens predispose the fetus—whether male or female—to develop a sexual orientation towards women. d. Parenting style does not seem to impact sexual orientation. ANSWER: a 250. In the 1940s and 1950s, psychoanalytic theorists stressed the importance of _____ as the major determinant of homosexuality. a. birth order b. parenting style c. biology d. peer socialization ANSWER: b 251. Which statement about the determinants of homosexuality is TRUE? a. Cold, domineering mothers are associated with homosexuality in men but not women. b. The absence of a father figure is associated with homosexuality in men and women. c. Weak, submissive fathers are associated with homosexuality in men but not women. d. Aspects of the parents' behavior do not appear to determine sexual orientation. ANSWER: d 252. The fraternal male twin of a gay man has about a _____ chance of being gay. a. 1% b. 5% c. 15% d. 50% ANSWER: c 253. The identical twin of a gay man has about a _____ chance of being gay. a. 15% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 254. The identical twin of a gay man has a 50% chance of being gay, but the fraternal twin of a gay man has only a 15% chance of being gay. This phenomenon suggests that: a. genetic factors completely determine sexual orientation in men. b. environmental factors completely determine sexual orientation in men. c. genetic factors play a minor role in influencing sexual orientation in men. d. genetic factors play a large role in influencing sexual orientation in men. ANSWER: d 255. Preschoolers who engage in gender nonconforming behavior are _____ than are those that do not engage in this behavior to _____. a. more likely; become gay, bisexual, or lesbian adults b. no more likely; become gay, bisexual, or lesbian adults c. more likely; become gay, bisexual, or lesbian adults only if the behavior is punished d. more likely; become gay, bisexual, or lesbian adults only if the behavior is rewarded ANSWER: a 256. Sexual orientation is a good predictor of physiological arousal to erotic stimuli in: a. both men and women. b. heterosexual men and women. c. only heterosexual men. d. men. ANSWER: d 257. Which statement about conversion "therapy" is TRUE? a. It is effective in both men and women. b. It is effective in women only. c. It is effective in bisexual people only. d. It is not effective. ANSWER: d 258. Which statement about the fluidity of sexual orientation is TRUE? a. Sexual orientation, once established, is permanent in all people. b. Men's sexual orientation is more fluid than is women's sexual orientation. c. Women's sexual orientation is more fluid than is men's sexual orientation. d. Same-sex orientation is more easily changed than is heterosexual orientation. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 259. The percentage of high school students who report being sexually active is about _____ and has been _____ over recent years. a. 50%; increasing b. 33%; decreasing c. 50%; decreasing d. 60%; increasing ANSWER: b 260. Among sexually active American teens, about _____ report using a condom during their last sexual encounter. a. 18% b. 33% c. 50% d. 75% ANSWER: c 261. _____ refers to our biological characteristics at birth. a. Sex b. Gender c. Cisgender d. Sexual identity ANSWER: a 262. _____ refers to our identities, how we see ourselves, how we want others to see us, and how it feels to be inside our own skins. a. Sex b. Gender c. Cisgender d. Orientation ANSWER: b 263. The term "transgender" refers to anyone: a. whose sex and gender do not match. b. who is attracted to the same sex. c. who is attracted to the same gender. d. whose gender and sexual orientation do not match. ANSWER: a 264. The term "cisgender" refers to anyone: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. whose sex and gender match. b. who is attracted to the opposite sex. c. who is attracted to the same gender. d. who has a heterosexual orientation. ANSWER: a 265. Julia was born male but identifies as a woman. She is sexually attracted to women. Julia would be classified as a: a. transgender straight man. b. cisgender straight woman. c. transgender lesbian. d. cisgender lesbian. ANSWER: c 266. Annette was born male but identifies as a woman. She is sexually attracted to men. Annette would be classified as a: a. transgender straight woman. b. cisgender straight woman. c. transgender gay man. d. cisgender gay man. ANSWER: a 267. Robert was born female but identifies as a man. He is sexually attracted to men. Robert would be classified as a: a. transgender gay man. b. cisgender gay man. c. transgender straight woman. d. cisgender straight woman. ANSWER: a 268. The United States has one of the highest rates of teen pregnancy. Which statement does NOT present a reason for this statistic? a. Most American parents never talk in depth about sex with their children. b. Parents who do talk to their children about sex do so too late. c. Sex education programs result in teens having sex at an earlier age. d. Sex education programs often are inadequate. ANSWER: c 269. Studies show that sex education: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. produces slight increases in the number of teens having sex. b. produces large decreases in the number of teens having sex. c. results in an increase in the rate of teen pregnancy. d. reduces the spread of sexually transmitted infections among teens. ANSWER: d 270. Shona is worried that her daughter might get pregnant in high school like many of her friends, but she opposes sex education. Shona should consider which fact regarding sex education? a. Sex education decreases teen pregnancy and delays the onset of sexual activity. b. Sex education increases teen pregnancy and the spread of sexually transmitted infections. c. Sex education neither increases nor decreases teen pregnancy, but it does reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections. d. Sex education decreases teen pregnancy but increases the spread of sexually transmitted infections. ANSWER: a 271. Some studies suggest that teens who take an "abstinence pledge" during the course of abstinence-only education: a. are three times more likely to have sex than are teens who receive sex education. b. are much less likely to have sex than are teens who receive sex education. c. have sex just as much as teens who receive sex education but tend to be more monogamous. d. have sex at the same rate as teens who receive sex education but are less likely to use birth control. ANSWER: d 272. According to Erik Erikson, the major task of adolescence is: a. learning to do things well in comparison with a standard or with others. b. developing a sense of self in relationship with others and with one's internal thoughts and desires. c. developing the ability to give and receive love and form relationships. d. learning to explore, imagine, and feel remorse for actions. ANSWER: b 273. Throughout adolescence, people spend _____ time with opposite-sex peers and _____ time with same-sex peers. a. less; more b. less; maintain the amount of c. more; less d. more; maintain the amount of ANSWER: d 274. According to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, the major task confronting 15-year-old Tony is to develop: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. a sense of independence. b. love relationships. c. a sense of who he is. d. a sense of trust. ANSWER: c 275. Who is MOST known for describing the stages of psychosocial development? a. Jean Piaget b. Mary Ainsworth c. Lawrence Kohlberg d. Erik Erikson ANSWER: d 276. Which statement about adolescence is FALSE? a. The relationship between parents and adolescents becomes closer. b. Adolescents and their parents tend to disagree about the age at which certain adult behaviors become permissible. c. Adolescents argue with their parents most often over minor issues such as clothing and language. d. Adolescents argue more with their mothers than with their fathers. ANSWER: a 277. Which statement about the development of peer relations in adolescence is TRUE? a. Peer relations evolve in markedly different ways across cultures and historical periods. b. Formation of couples occurs early in adolescence and is followed by the formation of mixed-sex cliques in late adolescence. c. The typical pattern of peer relation development is formation of same-sex cliques followed by formation of mixed-sex cliques and then couples. d. The typical pattern of peer-relation development is formation of mixed-sex cliques, then same-sex cliques, then romantic relationships. ANSWER: c 278. Throughout adolescence, young people spend _____ time with opposite-sex peers, _____ time with samesex peers, and _____ time with parents. a. less; more; more b. more; less; the same amount of c. more; the same amount of; less d. the same amount of; more; less ANSWER: c 279. Tara is a teenager who argues more with her mother than her father. Research has indicated that this is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice MOST likely because: a. teens argue more with the same-sex parent. b. fathers tend to be more permissive than mothers. c. mothers are more likely to give in to teenage demands than are fathers. d. mothers tend to make the rules about minor issues such as style of dress and language. ANSWER: d 280. Kira is a young adolescent who is just beginning to socialize with peers outside of school. Kira is MOST likely to: a. attend mixed-gender get-togethers at friends' houses. b. hang out with her girlfriends in public places. c. hang out with mixed-gender cliques in public places. d. begin spending most of her free time in private with a boyfriend. ANSWER: b 281. Which statement about peer relationships in adolescence is TRUE? a. Peers exert considerable influence on the teen's beliefs and actions. b. Peer influence generally is a result of pressure exerted by peers instead of respect and admiration for peers. c. Rejection by peers has little negative effect on teens, contrary to popular belief. d. Individuals who are popular in early adolescence may be rejected in later adolescence as peers become more rigid and intolerant. ANSWER: a 282. Which statement about adulthood is TRUE? a. Adulthood is the shortest of all stages of development because development ceases shortly after the stage is entered. b. The rate of observable physical change speeds up considerably during adulthood. c. Adulthood consists of the ages from about 20 to 65, when old age begins. d. Adulthood begins around age 18 to 21 years and lasts through death. ANSWER: d 283. In late adulthood, individuals begin to experience a greater decline in _____ memory than in long-term memory. a. sensory b. iconic c. working d. semantic ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 284. The stage of development that begins around 18 to 21 years and lasts for the remainder of life is called: a. infancy. b. childhood. c. puberty. d. adulthood. ANSWER: d 285. Malakhi is currently 30 years old. Which stage of development is he currently in? a. infancy b. childhood c. puberty d. adulthood ANSWER: d 286. Maury is 45 years old. He is currently in: a. adolescence. b. adulthood. c. old age. d. childhood. ANSWER: b 287. Which cognitive ability would be LEAST impaired as a person ages? a. remembering details from a childhood birthday party b. remembering a phone number c. retrieving names of high school classmates from memory d. understanding vocabulary in a person's language ANSWER: d 288. Jasiri recently turned 18 years old. This means that she is now in which stage of development? a. infancy b. childhood c. puberty d. adulthood ANSWER: d 289. For most people, cognitive abilities are at their SHARPEST in: a. adolescence. b. early adulthood. c. middle adulthood. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice d. late adulthood. ANSWER: b 290. Which statement is NOT true of aging? a. Sensory abilities become less acute. b. Brain cells die at an accelerated rate. c. Sensitivity to pain increases. d. Sexual functioning decreases. ANSWER: c 291. Statistically, who is at their physical peak? a. Joanna, age 14 b. Roberta, age 22 c. Selena, age 28 d. Willow, age 35 ANSWER: c 292. Statistically, who is at their mental peak? a. Joanna, age 14 b. Roberta, age 22 c. Selena, age 28 d. Willow, age 35 ANSWER: c 293. Older adults show a much more pronounced decline in _____ memory than in _____ memory. a. working; long-term b. semantic; episodic c. recognition; retrieval d. long-term; short-term ANSWER: a 294. Older adults show a much more pronounced decline in _____ memory than in _____ memory. a. long-term; working b. semantic; episodic c. retrieval; recognition d. long-term; short-term ANSWER: c 295. Older adults show a much more pronounced decline in _____ memory than in _____ memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice a. long-term; working b. episodic; semantic c. recognition; retrieval d. long-term; short-term ANSWER: b 296. Which cognitive ability declines the LEAST as we age? a. working memory b. episodic memory c. retrieval versus recognition d. semantic memory ANSWER: d 297. Relative to a younger adult, an older adult will probably perform similarly to a younger adult on which task? a. matching U.S. presidents to their accomplishments b. remembering personal details about life 5 years ago c. remembering birthdates of family members d. retrieving names of high school classmates from memory ANSWER: a 298. As we age, the _____ deteriorates more quickly than do other areas of the brain. a. cerebellum b. limbic system c. prefrontal cortex d. temporal lobe ANSWER: c 299. In regard to older adults maintaining their cognitive functioning, how are the brains of older adults and younger adults different? a. The brains of older adults become de-differentiated. b. The brains of older adults are characterized by a more developed prefrontal cortex. c. The brains of older adults become more specialized in processing cognitive tasks. d. The brains of older adults exhibit a greater hippocampal volume. ANSWER: a 300. A _____ brain shows _____ bilateral _____. a. differentiated; more; symmetry b. differentiated; less; asymmetry Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice c. de-differentiated; more; symmetry d. de-differentiated; less; asymmetry ANSWER: d 301. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, younger adults are generally oriented toward acquiring information useful to them in the future, and older adults are generally oriented toward information that: a. increases their understanding of the past. b. gives them satisfaction in the present. c. is relevant to their work. d. validates the role they previously played in society. ANSWER: b 302. Research shows that older adults are: a. more likely to remember negative information than to remember positive information. b. more likely than are young adults to seek potentially useful information. c. less likely than are young adults to seek emotionally satisfying information. d. less likely than are young adults to experience negative emotions. ANSWER: d 303. Rosemary is a typical 70-year-old woman. MOST probably, she spends her free time: a. with people and hobbies that provide positive experiences. b. meeting new acquaintances. c. dwelling about a negative experience in her past. d. feeling extremely depressed. ANSWER: a 304. People's overall happiness generally _____ with age. a. increases b. decreases c. does not change d. fluctuates unpredictably ANSWER: a 305. As people move from early to middle adulthood, their rate of interaction with acquaintances _____, and their rate of interaction with family and a few close friends _____. a. remains the same; remains the same b. declines; declines c. stays stable or increases; declines d. declines; stays stable or increases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 306. Henry is a healthy 80-year-old with a normal social life. Research would suggest that Henry: a. frequently makes new acquaintances. b. bases his social relationships around growing his financial investments. c. spends most of his time with his family and a few close friends. d. forgoes family events in order to maintain an active social life. ANSWER: c 307. Research indicates that older adults experience _____ stress, worry, and anger than do young adults. a. considerably less b. slightly less c. slightly more d. considerably more ANSWER: a 308. For people in the United States with college degrees, the average age of marriage is currently _____ years. a. 23 b. 25 c. 27 d. 29 ANSWER: c 309. Identify a TRUE statement about the socioemotional selectivity theory. a. Older adults are generally oriented toward information acquisition of information that will be useful to them in the future. b. Older adults are generally oriented toward information that brings emotional satisfaction in the present. c. Younger adults spend their time attending to positive information that fills their emotional needs today. d. Younger adults spend their time attending to information that is likely to bring them emotional satisfaction in their daily life. ANSWER: b 310. On average, in the United States, people will get married around the age of _____ and will have _____ children. a. 20; 1.5 b. 27; 1.8 c. 24; 2.5 d. 32; 2.8 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 311. At present, the general consensus among scientists is that: a. unmarried people are happier than are married people. b. happier people tend to get married, but marriage doesn't make people happy. c. unhappy people are the most likely to get married. d. happier people tend to get married, and marriage makes them even happier. ANSWER: d 312. Marriage tends to _____ happiness, and having children tends to _____ marital satisfaction. a. increase; increase b. have no effect on; increase c. have no effect on; decrease d. increase; decrease ANSWER: d 313. Before deciding to have children, couples should understand that, often, having children: a. produces lasting decreases in marital satisfaction during their childhood. b. produces temporary increases in marital happiness. c. has a more negative impact on the happiness of men than on that of women. d. produces decreases in marital happiness when the children leave home. ANSWER: a 314. Marital satisfaction is LOWEST: a. before children are born. b. when children are young and at home. c. for couples who do not have children. d. when children leave home. ANSWER: b 315. Marital satisfaction is HIGHEST: a. before children are born. b. when children are young and at home. c. when children become adults and leave home. d. with the birth of each child. ANSWER: a 316. The _____ impact of children on marital satisfaction is GREATER for _____. a. positive; mothers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Multiple Choice b. positive; fathers c. negative; mothers d. negative; fathers ANSWER: c 317. Laksha is recently married and wants to start a family. Research indicates that she will be MOST happy in her marriage: a. before having children. b. with the birth of her first child. c. when her children are toddlers. d. when her children are teenagers. ANSWER: a 318. Kimiko married 2 years ago and just had her first baby. Research indicates that from this point on, she will be MOST happy in her marriage: a. at the present time. b. when her child is a toddler. c. when her child is a teenager. d. when her child leaves home. ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 11 Scenario Scenario 11.1 is based on and presents results consistent with the following study: Kim, I. K., & Spelke, E. S. (1992). Infants' sensitivity to effects of gravity on visual object motion. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 18(2), 385–393. Kim and Spelke (1992) investigated the extent to which infants have expectancies of gravitational effects on visual object motion. Infants of 3 and 5 months of age repeatedly watched a video of a ball accelerating as it rolled down an incline until they spent little time actively looking at it. Subsequently, two types of test trials were conducted in randomized order. Type A test trials consisted of a ball slowing down as it rolled up an incline. Type B test trials consisted of a ball slowing down as it rolled down an incline. During all trials, the amount of time looking at each visual display was recorded. Fabricated data consistent with the major finding of this study are presented in Figure 11.1. Figure 11.1

Note that "Age 5" and "Age 3" in the legend refer to months of age. 1. (Scenario 11.1) Evidence of the presence or absence of gravitational expectancies were operationally defined in terms of: a. the age of the infants. b. the type of test trials. c. differential looking times at the two test videos. d. the number of training trials required for infants to lose interest in the video. ANSWER: c 2. (Scenario 11.1) Kim and Spelke (1992) utilized a simple form of learning termed _____ to investigate their research question. a. extinction b. object permanence c. the false-belief test d. habituation ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Scenario 3. (Scenario 11.1) This study exploits the well-known finding that infants generally will _____ objects or scenarios that are _____. a. stare longer at; familiar b. stare longer at; surprising c. divert gaze from; novel d. divert gaze from; physically impossible ANSWER: b 4. (Scenario 11.1) Which statement pertaining to the test trials is TRUE? a. Test trials A have greater stimulus novelty than do test trials B. b. Test trials A depict a scenario that is inconsistent with gravitational effects. c. Both trial types depict a scenario that is inconsistent with gravitational effects. d. Test trials B have greater stimulus novelty than do test trials A. ANSWER: a 5. (Scenario 11.1) Which explanation is MOST likely for the decreased looking time across training trials? a. Both groups of infants failed to acquire gravitational expectancies. b. The video lost its novelty. c. Both groups of infants acquired object permanence with respect to the ball. d. The experimenters failed to arrange effective rewards for looking behavior. ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 11.1) Based on the data shown in Figure 11.1, which group(s) of infants, if any, appear(s) to possess a concept of gravity? a. 3-month-olds b. 5-month-olds c. both groups, although they have different expectancies about gravitational effects d. neither group ANSWER: b 7. (Scenario 11.1) Which inference is TRUE based on the data shown in Figure 11.1? a. Infants who were 3 months old were more easily surprised by the test trials than were those who were 5 months old. b. Throughout the experiment, 5-month-olds exhibited greater attention spans than did 3-month-olds. c. Test trials revealed that 5-month-olds, but not 3-month-olds, developed object permanence to the ball. d. Infants who were 3 months old were more attracted to the novel features of the test stimuli than were those who were 5 months old. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Scenario Scenario 11.2 is based on and presents results consistent with the following studies: Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 8. (Scenario 11.2) Wimmer and Perner's (1983) procedure is commonly referred to as a _____ test. a. object permanence b. false-belief c. conservation d. change blindness ANSWER: b 9. (Scenario 11.2) Lacking a theory of mind, 3-year-olds in Wimmer and Perner's (1983) study demonstrated: a. egocentrism. b. an illusory conjunction. c. the conjunction fallacy. d. concrete operations. ANSWER: a 10. (Scenario 11.2) To respond CORRECTLY in Wimmer and Perner's (1983) study, children need to: a. demonstrate a relativistic moral development. b. demonstrate formal operations of logic. c. understand that other people's mental representations guide their behavior. d. consult their own mental representation of the chocolate location. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Scenario 11. (Scenario 11.2) In the Gopnik and Astington's (1988) study, the control question "What used to be in the dollhouse?" is analogous to asking children in the Wimmer and Perner's (1983) study: a. Where does Maxi expect to find the chocolate? b. Where do you think the chocolate is? c. Where does the second puppet think the chocolate is? d. Where did Maxi hide the chocolate? ANSWER: d 12. (Scenario 11.2) Which explanation of the general findings by Wimmer and Perner (1983) does the control condition conducted by Gopnik and Astington (1988) support? a. Three-year-olds make decisions based on their own mental representations. b. Three-year-olds are biased to answer questions with recent knowledge. c. Three-year-olds have problems sequencing events in time. d. Three-year-olds lack the attention span necessary to remember critical details of the story. ANSWER: a 13. (Scenario 11.2) The fact that 3-year-olds in the Gopnik and Astington's (1988) study responded accurately in the control condition but inaccurately in the experimental condition: a. results in only partial support for Wimmer and Perner's (1983) original findings. b. demonstrates that minor procedural details can affect whether children demonstrate a theory of mind. c. illustrates the distinction between beliefs about the world and beliefs about beliefs. d. illustrates the distinction between concrete and formal operations. ANSWER: c 14. (Scenario 11.2) The results obtained in the experimental condition by Gopnik and Astington (1988) suggest that 3-year-olds treat their past selves as: a. reference points for evaluating changes in mental representations. b. if they were other people. c. unreliable sources of information. d. authority figures whose decisions are final. ANSWER: b Scenario 11.3 is based on and presents results consistent with the following study: Richter, D., & Mata, R. (2018). Age differences in intertemporal choice: U-shaped associations in a probability sample of German households. The German Socioeconomic Panel Study, 1–40. Retrieved from https://www.econstor.eu/bitstream/10419/181027/1/1028096240.pdf Richter and Mata (2018) studied patience across the adult life span by giving participants the choice between $230 now and $235 in a year. For those participants who chose $230 now, the researchers repeated the choice Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Scenario with $240 as the outcome delayed by a year. The researchers kept increasing the dollar amount (up to $360) of the delayed outcome until the participants chose it. The researchers also controlled for third variables such as cognitive ability, education, and financial security. Shown in Figure 11.2 is the amount of extra money (relative to $230 now) required for participants to choose the delayed outcome as a function of age. Figure 11.2

15. (Scenario 11.3) Patience was operationally defined in terms of: a. participant age. b. a 1-year delay to money. c. the percentage of participants choosing the delayed money at each age. d. the amount of extra money needed for participants to choose the delayed money. ANSWER: d 16. (Scenario 11.3) The independent variable that the researchers physically manipulated was: a. participant age. b. the delay to money. c. the dollar amount of the delayed option. d. the dollar amount of the immediate option. ANSWER: c 17. (Scenario 11.3) Which participants were the most patient? a. participants younger than 20 years of age b. participants between 50 and 60 years of age c. participants older than 80 years of age d. participants younger than 20 years of age or older than 80 years of age ANSWER: b 18. (Scenario 11.3) The adage that patience comes with age is _____ by this experiment. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 11 Scenario a. entirely refuted b. supported up through middle-age c. supported from middle-age onward d. entirely supported ANSWER: b 19. (Scenario 11.3) From these results, the researchers reasonably inferred that: a. adolescents tend to be less patient than are older adults. b. middle-aged people make better financial decisions than do adolescents or older adults. c. adolescents and older adults may be equally impatient but for different reasons. d. adolescents and older adults view the future in similar ways. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 12 Essay 1. Provide an example of a self-report inventory of personality and a projective personality test. Discuss why self-report inventories are more commonly used and why they are less controversial than projective measures. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) An example of a self-report inventory is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2-RF). The MMPI-2-RF consists of over 300 descriptive statements to which respondents answer "true" or "false." The MMPI-2-RF measures general personality characteristics as well as tendencies toward clinical problems. (2) An example of a projective personality test is the Rorschach Inkblot test, a test in which individual interpretations of the meaning of a set of unstructured inkblots are analyzed to determine respondents' inner feelings and personality structure. Another example of a projective personality test is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). The TAT is a projective personality test in which respondents are shown ambiguous scenes of people and are asked to tell a story about what is happening in the picture. It is believed that the respondents' unconscious motives, concerns, and the way they view the world will be projected onto the scene and reflected in their story. (3) Self-report inventories of personality are more commonly used because they are easy to administer and score and do not require subjective interpretation of the responses. These inventories also include validity scales that assess tendencies to distort the results by faking answers. (4) Projective personality tests remain controversial in psychology. Many consider them to be subjective interpretations of personality based on the theoretical biases of the examiner. They have not been found to be reliable and valid in predicting behavior. Nevertheless, they are useful as a means to get to know a respondent personally and intuitively.

2. Jorge is friendly and outgoing but can become irrational and aggressive when things do not go his way. Ramona is quiet and has a few close friends. She tends to be thoughtful and deliberate when facing a problem. Using Eysenck's two-factor theory of personality, categorize the personalities of Jorge and Ramona. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) According to Eysenck, one dimension of personality ranges from sociable and active (extraverts) to introspective and quiet (introverts). A second-dimension ranges from emotionally unstable or neurotic to emotionally stable. (2) Jorge appears to be an extravert who has neurotic tendencies. Ramona appears to be introverted and emotionally stable.

3. Professor Fedorov is giving a presentation on the Big Five dimensions of personality. Help her outline these dimensions and then explain the research evidence suggesting that the Big Five personality dimensions are universal. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The Big Five personality dimensions are openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (2) Factor analysis techniques confirm that these five personality dimensions strike the right balance between accounting for as much variation in personality as possible while avoiding overlapping traits. (3) The same five factors of personality have emerged using varied assessments of personality, including behavioral observation, people's reports of their own personalities, people's reports of others' personalities, and interviewer checklists. (4) The same five factors appear in children, adults, and people in other cultures.

4. Antoine, Madeline, and Vincent are biological siblings, each separated by 2 years. Friends of their parents often ask them, "How did you raise kids with such wonderful personalities?" Provide evidence that the parents' behavior did not have all that much to do with the siblings' similar personalities. Then describe the importance of the parents in establishing desirable behavior within a social–cognitive perspective. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Core personality traits are to a large extent biologically determined. For example, identical twins have more similar personalities than do fraternal twins or siblings. Current research puts the heritability component of personality at 0.40. This means that about 40% of the variability in personality is due to genetic factors. (2) While this means that 60% of the variability in personality is due to environmental factors, research suggests that the shared environment siblings are exposed to has little impact on personality. Moreover, research has demonstrated that parenting style has little to do with personality. (3) As such, the fact that the three siblings have similar personalities is probably more attributable to shared genetics than to shared environments. (4) Of course, this does not imply that the parents have had little impact on their children's behavior. Social–cognitive personality theorists would point out that the parents arrange environments that interact with personality to determine behavior. Indeed, in many instances the situation trumps personality as a determinant of behavior. In this household, the parents may have simply established an environment in which the children behave themselves around other adults! Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Essay 5. It is the night before your psychology exam, and you are busy studying. The door opens and a group of your best friends walk in, hoping to entice you to go out with them for a few hours. What would Freud say is going on in your head as you debate whether to go with your friends or stay in and study? Include in your discussion the three systems of the mind and the way they interact in this mental debate. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The three systems of the mind are the id, ego, and superego. (2) Id: The id is the most basic system, present at birth, and is the source of bodily wants, needs, desires, and impulses. The id operates on the pleasure principle of immediate gratification: "You should go with your friends for a few hours. You can always get up early in the morning and study. You need a break." (3) Ego: The ego operates on the reality principle that helps us delay instant gratification and function effectively in the world. The ego is logical, makes good decisions, and helps us resist impulsive actions: "Maybe you could study for another couple of hours and join your friends later. As long as you don't overdo it, you'll still be in good shape to get up early for a last round of studying." (4) Superego: The superego is the conscious, parental authority, provoking guilt if we do something wrong (or even think about doing something wrong) and rewarding us when we make good decisions: "You know you shouldn't go out, this test is too important. You must stay home and study tonight and probably get up early, too. It's time you took responsibility for your academic career. You know your parents would want you to study."

6. You and your roommate have to move out of your apartment by the end of the month. A few days before you move out, your roommate comes home yelling about a "moron driver" who cut them off on the way home. They throw their backpack into their room and go into the kitchen. You can hear them in the kitchen, slamming cabinet doors. Meanwhile, you curl up on your bed and pull up your soft, comforting blanket. You turn on cartoons and decide that a nap sounds like a fine idea. Identify and define the defense mechanisms that are being used by you and your roommate. Include in your discussion the purpose of defense mechanisms. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Displacement: Your roommate is using displacement, shifting unacceptable wishes or drives to a neutral or less threatening alternative (banging doors). (2) Regression: You are using regression, dealing with internal conflict and perceived threat by reverting to an immature behavior or earlier stage of development (seeking a soft blanket, curling up, watching cartoons). (3) The purpose of defense mechanisms is to help us overcome anxiety.

7. Outline and discuss the stages of psychosexual development. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Oral stage: first psychosexual stage, in which experience centers on the pleasures and frustrations associated with the mouth, sucking, and being fed. (2) Anal stage: second psychosexual stage, which is dominated by the pleasures and frustrations associated with the anus, retention and expulsion of feces and urine, and toilet training. (3) Phallic stage: third psychosexual stage, during which experience is dominated by the pleasure, conflict, and frustration associated with the phallic–genital region as well as powerful incestuous feelings of love, hate, jealousy, and conflict. (4) Latency stage: fourth psychosexual stage, in which the primary focus is on the further development of intellectual, creative, interpersonal, and athletic skills. (5) Genital stage: final psychosexual stage, a time for the coming together of the mature adult personality with a capacity to love, work, and relate to others in a mutually satisfying and reciprocal manner.

8. James is gay but is often filled with anxiety regarding his feelings because homophobic adults taught him as a child that feelings of attraction to the same sex were wrong. He also tries not to act on his feelings and has not told anyone about them. Describe how he might unconsciously employ the defense mechanisms of reaction formation and sublimation to shield himself from these feelings. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Reaction formation involves unconsciously replacing threatening inner wishes and fantasies with an exaggerated version of their opposite. In this case, James might become outwardly homophobic. (2) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable sexual or aggressive drives into socially acceptable and culturally enhancing activities. In this example, James might seek a career as a photographer to work with same-sex models, or become a judge at bodybuilding competitions.

9. Compare and contrast the trait approach with the humanistic–existential approach to personality. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Essay ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The trait approach describes personality in terms of a person's traits, or relatively stable dispositions to behave in particular and consistent ways. For example, the Big Five theory looks at five core traits a person does or does not have. These personality dimensions are assumed to be, in part, biologically determined and are causal factors in determining specific behaviors. (2) The humanistic–existential approach to personality focuses on how people make healthy choices that create their personalities. The ability to consider the future is a core feature of this approach. Humanistic psychologists emphasize a positive, optimistic view of human nature that spotlights a person's inherent goodness and potential for growth. Existential psychologists focus on the individual as a responsible agent who is free to create and live life while negotiating the issue of the meaning of life and the reality of death.

10. Amara and Yasmin are sophomore college students. Amara is feeling incredibly overwhelmed academically and is not performing well in her classes. Her academic problems are causing her a great deal of anxiety. Yasmin, on the other hand, feels incredibly bored in her classes. Although she finds the material easy, she isn't interested in it, rarely studies, and thus does not obtain the grades that she feels capable of earning. How might a humanistic psychologist explain the problems of these two students, and what advice might they give? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Humanistic psychologists believe that tasks that exactly match a person's abilities create an energized mental focus termed flow. Flow experiences lead to personal and professional growth. Tasks that are too challenging result in anxiety, and those that are too easy result in boredom. (2) Amara may not have the skill set that her courses require. A humanistic psychologist might guide Amara in reevaluating her academic and career goals. Perhaps she should change her major to a topic area that better suits her abilities. (3) Yasmin's academic problems stem from boredom. Yasmin should determine what academic topics she feels passionate about and then delve into coursework in these areas.

11. Define the person–situation controversy. Then explain why the social–cognitive approach to personality differs from trait theory. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The person–situation controversy focuses on the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or situational factors. (2) Classic trait theorists believe that personality traits are, in part, biologically determined and cause people to behave in the same way across situations and time. Walter Mischel, however, observed that personality traits were actually a poor predictor of specific behaviors. For example, students who cheat in an academic context might be completely trustworthy in another context. Social–cognitive theorists place more emphasis on the situation, and the personal interpretation of the situation, as a determinant of behavior than trait theorists.

12. What is the difference between self-concept and self-esteem? Provide several benefits of having a high selfesteem. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Self-concept is a person's explicit knowledge of their own behaviors, traits, or other characteristics. (2) Self-esteem is the extent to which a person likes or values the self. (3) Benefits of having a high self-esteem include living a happier and healthier life and being better able to cope with stress.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 1. Aaliyah is trying to define personality. Which would be the best definition? a. It refers to an individual's ability to produce and comprehend language. b. It refers to an individual's perception of the world based on sensory information. c. It refers to an individual's style of behaving, thinking, and feeling. d. It refers to an individual's capacity to express and control emotion. ANSWER: c 2. Professor Dalfur is a researcher who is interested in investigating prior events that have shaped how we behave, think, and feel. He is probably MOST interested in _____ our personality. a. categorizing b. authenticating c. explaining d. changing ANSWER: c 3. _____ is a person's characteristic style of behaving, thinking, and feeling. a. Attitude b. Personality c. Belief d. Point of view ANSWER: b 4. Which function is NOT an aspect of personality? a. behaving b. thinking c. sensing d. feeling ANSWER: c 5. Theories attempting to determine the basis for psychological differences among people seek to _____ personality. a. explain b. describe c. evaluate d. categorize ANSWER: a 6. As a science matures, research tends to shift from _____ to _____. a. explanation; description Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. description; explanation c. evaluation; description d. evaluation; categorization ANSWER: b 7. When psychologists try to explain personality differences, they are concerned with _____ and _____. a. needs; desires b. prior events; anticipated events c. insights; reflections d. prior dispositions; traits ANSWER: b 8. Which of these is a prior event that may help determine personality? a. a person's ambitions b. a person's hopes c. a person's fears d. a person's genetic makeup ANSWER: d 9. Which of these would NOT be considered a prior event that may influence a person's personality? a. a person's brain b. aspects of a person's subconscious c. a person's fears d. a person's genetic makeup ANSWER: c 10. Which factor is an anticipated event that may, in part, determine personality? a. a person's fears b. aspects of a person's subconscious c. a person's brain functioning d. a person's genetic makeup ANSWER: a 11. When asked to write an essay on why she is who she is, Adelita describes how her hopes and dreams influence how she behaves, thinks, and feels. Adelita is focusing on how _____ events determine her personality. a. prior b. subconscious c. environmental Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. anticipated ANSWER: d 12. When asked to write an essay on why he is who he is, Nandit describes how neurotransmitter imbalances contribute to his moodiness. Nandit is focusing on how _____ events determine his personality. a. prior b. subconscious c. environmental d. anticipated ANSWER: a 13. Which theory explained how biological differences among species arose? a. social–cognitive theory b. psychodynamic theory c. Darwin's theory of evolution d. 16-factor theory of personality ANSWER: c 14. Events that may have shaped an individual's personality are referred to as _____ events. a. prior b. subordinate c. anticipated d. main ANSWER: a 15. Events that motivate a person to reveal particular personality characteristics are referred to as _____ events. a. prior b. subordinate c. anticipated d. main ANSWER: c 16. Abby is a psychologist who studies personality. Which instrument would she MOST likely use in asking people about how they act or think in particular situations? a. a self-report inventory b. the Rorschach Inkblot Test c. the Thematic Apperception Test d. a picture-completion test ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 17. The technique MOST widely used by psychologists to collect information about someone's personality structure is the: a. double-blind experiment. b. Thematic Apperception Test. c. self-report. d. Rorschach Inkblot Test. ANSWER: c 18. The Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a(n): a. intelligence test. b. self-report. c. personality inventory. d. projective technique. ANSWER: d 19. Dr. Wayne is interested in studying personality for an upcoming research study. What are two major kinds of measures he could use? a. naturalistic observations and projective techniques b. naturalistic observations and self-report inventories c. personality inventories and naturalistic observations d. personality inventories and projective techniques ANSWER: d 20. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) requires test takers to make up stories about different pictures they see, and the researchers attempt to: a. infer the underlying motives, concerns, and views about the world of the responders. b. directly measure the responders' patterns of behavior, thinking, and feeling. c. correlate the results with the responders' intelligence. d. relate the results to self-report inventories such as the MMPI–2–RF. ANSWER: a 21. Projective tests are a controversial practice in psychology because they are based on: a. the interpretation and bias of the examiner. b. the interpretation of the responder. c. the implicit measures of personality. d. physiological responses. ANSWER: a 22. Professor Schmidt wants to measure a participant's personality. She MOST likely would: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice a. follow the participant around and make observations in a variety of settings. b. ask the participant's friends about them. c. observe the participant in a stressful situation. d. give the participant a questionnaire. ANSWER: d 23. A method in which a person provides subjective information about their own thoughts, feelings, or behaviors, typically via questionnaire or interview, is termed: a. a psychoanalysis. b. the Thematic Apperception Test. c. a self-report. d. the Rorschach Inkblot Test. ANSWER: c 24. Most self-report questionnaires consist of which type of answers? a. describing what is happening in a picture b. circling an item on a scale c. writing an essay about oneself d. writing an essay about one's family ANSWER: b 25. Which commonly used personality test is a well-researched clinical questionnaire designed to assess personality and psychological problems? a. the Beck Depression Inventory b. a self-report c. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) d. the Thematic Apperception Test ANSWER: c 26. The MMPI–2–RF consists of more than _____ true-false statements. a. 100 b. 300 c. 700 d. 1,000 ANSWER: b 27. A psychological tendency that the MMPI–2–RF does NOT measure is: a. creativity. b. anxiety. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice c. antisocial behavior. d. avoidance. ANSWER: a 28. Which psychological construct does the MMPI–2–RF NOT measure? a. clinical b. somatic c. projective d. interpersonal ANSWER: c 29. Which tests were designed to circumvent the limitations of self-report questionnaires? a. self-report measures b. projective tests c. personality inventories d. natural observations ANSWER: b 30. _____ are designed to reveal inner aspects of individual's personalities by analysis of their responses to a standard series of ambiguous stimuli. a. Self-report measures b. Projective tests c. Personality inventories d. Natural observations ANSWER: b 31. Which of these is the best-known projective test? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Electronically Activated Recorder ANSWER: c 32. The _____ is a projective technique in which respondents' inner thoughts and feelings are believed to be revealed by analysis of their responses to a set of unstructured inkblots. a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Electronically Activated Recorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 33. Responses to the _____ are scored according to a complicated system that is derived in part from research involving those experiencing psychological disorders that intends to classify what people see. a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Electronically Activated Recorder ANSWER: c 34. Dr. Li is using self-report measures to assess aspects of personality among his research participants. Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of using self-report measures? a. They typically take a long time to administer. b. Scoring requires the use of a computer. c. They rely on the accuracy and truthfulness of the test taker. d. Special training is needed to interpret the questionnaire. ANSWER: c 35. A key feature of projective techniques to assess personality is the use of: a. essay questions instead of true-false questions. b. validity scales to assess dishonesty. c. ambiguous objects designed to elicit unique responses. d. questions asking participants to imagine themselves in the future. ANSWER: c 36. Adina is taking a projective personality test that uses individual interpretations of various shapes to identify her inner feelings. She is taking the: a. MMPI–2–RF. b. Stanford–Binet Test. c. Big Five Factor Model. d. Rorschach Inkblot Test. ANSWER: d 37. Anders is a psychoanalytic psychologist who wishes to identify the inner dimensions of personality of his client. Which test or technique would Anders MOST likely use? a. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator b. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. a personality-assessment inventory d. the Thematic Apperception Test Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 38. What is the best-known projective personality test? a. the Beck Depression Inventory b. the Rorschach Inkblot Test c. the Thematic Apperception Test d. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory ANSWER: b 39. Developers of projective tests assume that people will: a. project personality factors onto an ambiguous test. b. project their response biases by indicating which adjectives describe them best. c. reveal their response style by agreeing or disagreeing with most ambiguous questions. d. report that they see the same image when shown an unstructured inkblot. ANSWER: a 40. On her first visit to a psychiatrist, Fleurette was asked to look at a set of 10 pictures and make up a story about each one. Her psychiatrist was likely using the: a. Myers-Briggs Inventory. b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. c. Rorschach Inkblot Test. d. Thematic Apperception Test. ANSWER: d 41. The _____ is a projective technique in which respondents' underlying motives and concerns and the way they see the social world are believed to be revealed through analysis of the stories they make up about ambiguous pictures of people. a. Ambiguous Situation Assessment b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. Thematic Apperception Test d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory ANSWER: c 42. Which statement is NOT a criticism of projective personality tests? a. They tend to not be reliable. b. Their use is not valid for older adults. c. Results are influenced by the subjective interpretation of the examiner. d. The tests have little predictive value. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 43. A disadvantage of the Thematic Apperception Test is that: a. the scorer's interpretation of the results is subjective. b. it is easy for test takers to mask their true personalities. c. projections reveal more than the client wants to reveal, and they produce psychological distress. d. participants tend to project only their current concerns on the ambiguous pictures. ANSWER: a 44. Which statement about projective personality tests is true? a. They are reliable measures of personality. b. They are valid measures of personality. c. They are useful in determining whether a participant is being truthful. d. They are useful in getting to know a participant on an intuitive basis. ANSWER: d 45. A recent study by Mehl and colleagues (2009) utilized an electronically activated recorder to record the daily conversations of male and female college students. This study found that: a. women were much more talkative than were men. b. men were much more talkative than were women. c. men were slightly more talkative than were women. d. men and women were equally talkative. ANSWER: d 46. An advantage of techniques utilizing devices such as an electronically activated recorder to assess personality is that: a. it reveals unconscious motives underlying personality. b. it assesses personality during participants' normal interactions. c. data are recorded under tightly controlled laboratory conditions. d. it takes only a few minutes to complete the test. ANSWER: b 47. Schwartz and colleagues (2013) analyzed Facebook pages and standardized personality tests from the same people. They found that people who commented frequently about being "sick of" things on Facebook were more likely to score highly on which dimension of personality? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion ANSWER: c 48. Schwartz and colleagues (2013) analyzed Facebook pages and standardized personality tests from the same Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice people. They found that people who commented frequently about "going out to party" on Facebook were more likely to score highly on which dimension of personality? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion ANSWER: d 49. Based on recent research, you might expect more women than men on Facebook to: a. use emotional terms. b. use swear words. c. comment on objects. d. comment on parties. ANSWER: a 50. Who was an early trait psychologist? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Edward Titchener c. Karl Lashley d. Gordon Allport ANSWER: d 51. Early research into the _____ approach to personality attempted to identify main themes in the adjectives used to describe a person's personality. a. trait b. social–cognitive c. humanistic–existential d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 52. According to the trait approach to personality, an individual's traits are: a. only evident in specific stages of life. b. likely to change rapidly depending on the circumstances. c. relatively stable dispositions to behave in a particular and consistent way. d. unconsciously defined and based on socially unacceptable desires. ANSWER: c 53. A _____ can be described as a relatively stable disposition to behave in a particular and consistent way. a. personal construct Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. characteristic c. trait d. motivation ANSWER: c 54. Allport believed that traits are preexisting dispositions that: a. reliably trigger or cause the behavior. b. are determined by childhood experiences and thus are not true causes of behavior. c. have no predictive utility but can categorize the behavior after the fact. d. can predict behavior but are not causes of behavior. ANSWER: a 55. Henry Murray, the creator of the Thematic Apperception Test, believed that traits: a. are preexisting dispositions or causes of behavior that reliably trigger the behavior. b. reflect underlying motives. c. are highly unstable across one's lifetime. d. indicate what type of childhood the person had. ANSWER: b 56. Trait theorists, who believe that personality traits reflect the motives of a person, tend to use which type of personality tests? a. projective tests b. self-report tests c. personality inventories d. structured interviews ANSWER: a 57. Trait theorists who believe that personality traits reflect the causes of a person's disposition to behave in certain ways tend to use which type of personality tests? a. projective tests b. personality inventories c. thematic apperception tests d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: b 58. Dr. Raman is a psychologist who believes that personality traits are consistently stable across time and situations. He also believes that they give rise to measurable behavior. Dr. Raman would likely use _____ to measure personality. a. projective tests Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. personality inventories c. thematic apperception tests d. naturalistic observation ANSWER: b 59. Dr. Kent is a psychoanalyst who believes that our underlying and sometimes unconscious motivations reveal themselves in our personality. Dr. Kent probably uses _____ to measure personality. a. projective tests b. self-report tests c. personality inventories d. structured interviews ANSWER: a 60. After World War II, personality psychologists become very interested in the trait of: a. sensation seeking. b. impulsivity. c. authoritarianism. d. defensiveness. ANSWER: c 61. A 13-year-old student learns in their world cultures class that Bashar al-Assad is an authoritarian. The student might NOT expect al-Assad to demonstrate: a. a high degree of sensation seeking. b. political conservatism. c. obedience to authority. d. an emphasis on conformity. ANSWER: a 62. The tendency toward political conservatism, obedience to authority, and conformity is referred to as: a. cognitive complexity. b. defensiveness. c. sensation seeking. d. right-wing authoritarianism. ANSWER: d 63. Chris is a political conservative and is high in obedience to authority and conformity. He is also likely high in: a. cognitive complexity. b. defensiveness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice c. sensation seeking. d. right-wing authoritarianism. ANSWER: d 64. Recent personality research has focused on all of these traits EXCEPT: a. cognitive complexity. b. defensiveness. c. sensation seeking. d. authoritarianism. ANSWER: d 65. Underlying dimensions or _____ of personality are generally based on self-descriptions that are then sorted based on commonalities. a. traits b. formations c. phases d. factors ANSWER: d 66. The five-factor structure of personality is _____ in that it appears to _____ across all cultures and languages. a. dynamic; vary b. culturally biased; be inconsistent c. universal; remain constant d. general; be different ANSWER: c 67. Dr. Jimenez is a researcher who frequently uses factor analysis. He is likely to agree that _____ are the core traits of personality. a. conscientiousness, agreeableness, neuroticism, openness to experience, and extraversion b. anger, fear, happiness, sadness, and surprise c. orderliness, happiness, extraversion, neuroticism, and conscientiousness d. openness to experience, neuroticism, agreeableness, introversion, and extraversion ANSWER: a 68. An early attempt to determine the number of personality traits by counting all of the relevant adjectives in an English dictionary revealed _____ potential traits. a. 600 b. 8,000 c. 18,000 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. 120,000 ANSWER: c 69. When traits are organized in a hierarchy, _____ are at the _____ level. a. concrete traits; highest b. abstract traits; highest c. specific behavioral tendencies; highest d. abstract traits; lowest ANSWER: b 70. When traits are organized in a hierarchy, _____ are at the _____ level. a. specific behaviors; highest b. abstract traits; middle c. specific behaviors; lowest d. abstract traits; lowest ANSWER: c 71. Which computational procedure sorts traits into a small number of underlying dimensions? a. chi-square b. factor analysis c. t-tests d. analysis of variance ANSWER: b 72. Which statement regarding personality factors derived from factor analysis is true? a. Personality factors are correlated highly with one another. b. Personality factors are presented in terms of specific behavioral tendencies. c. Personality factors are presented as a continuum, ranging from one extreme trait to its opposite. d. Personality factors are more numerous than are personality traits. ANSWER: c 73. Felipe is ambitious, and Guillermo is laid back. These personality traits represent: a. different and unrelated personality factors. b. the endpoints of a single personality factor. c. different and related personality factors. d. Eysenck's two-factor model of personality. ANSWER: b 74. The traits of the five-factor personality are referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice a. structures of the mind. b. the Big Five. c. defense mechanisms. d. components of personality. ANSWER: b 75. Which of these is NOT a reason the five-factor model of personality is the current preferred theoretical perspective? a. The basic five-factor structure is limited to Western cultures. b. Modern factor analysis techniques confirm that the five factors verify the variation in personality while avoiding overlapping traits. c. The same five factors have emerged in various kinds of research studies on personality. d. The basic five-factor structure shows up across a wide range of participants. ANSWER: a 76. Cattell (1950) proposed a theory of personality consisting of _____ factors. a. 2 b. 5 c. 16 d. 18,000 ANSWER: c 77. Hans Eysenck developed a model of personality that initially had _____ factors. a. 2 b. 5 c. 16 d. 40 ANSWER: a 78. Hans Eysenck's original theory of personality identified two trait dimensions, emotional stability versus instability and: a. insecurity versus security. b. extraversion versus introversion. c. independence versus conformity. d. impulsivity versus control. ANSWER: b 79. Imagine Eysenck's two factors expressed in two-dimensional space. On the vertical axis is insecurity at the top and security at the bottom. Bisecting this axis is the second factor, with introversion on the left and extroversion on the right. Using this model, a person who is quiet, reserved, and comfortable in their own skin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice would be placed in which quadrant? a. upper left b. lower left c. upper right d. lower right ANSWER: b 80. Imagine Eysenck's two factors expressed in two-dimensional space. On the vertical axis is insecurity at the top and security at the bottom. Bisecting this axis is the second factor, with introversion on the left and extroversion on the right. Using this model, a person who is outgoing, friendly, and comfortable in their own skin would be placed in which quadrant? a. upper left b. lower left c. upper right d. lower right ANSWER: d 81. Imagine Eysenck's two factors expressed in two-dimensional space. On the vertical axis is insecurity at the top and security at the bottom. Bisecting this axis is the second factor, with introversion on the left and extroversion on the right. Using this model, a person who is outgoing and personable but prone to extreme swings in mood would be placed in which quadrant? a. upper left b. lower left c. upper right d. lower right ANSWER: c 82. Imagine Eysenck's two factors expressed in two-dimensional space. On the vertical axis is insecurity at the top and security at the bottom. Bisecting this axis is the second factor, with introversion on the left and extroversion on the right. Using this model, a person who is quiet, reserved, and prone to extreme swings in mood would be placed in which quadrant? a. upper left b. lower left c. upper right d. lower right ANSWER: a 83. Dr. Vaughn is a factor-analysis researcher. She would likely agree that personality is BEST captured by _____ factors. a. 2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. 3 c. 5 d. 16 ANSWER: c 84. Kaimana is taking a psychology class and needs to remember the Big Five dimensions of personality. It would be helpful if she used the acronym _____ as a mnemonic device. a. CONES b. CANES c. NAMES d. OCEAN ANSWER: d 85. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. neuroticism b. creativity c. narcissism d. ambition ANSWER: a 86. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. creativity b. agreeableness c. narcissism d. sensation seeking ANSWER: b 87. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. creativity b. authoritarianism c. openness to experience d. impulsivity ANSWER: c 88. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. conscientiousness b. authoritarianism c. sensation seeking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. defensiveness ANSWER: a 89. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. defensiveness b. psychoticism c. creativity d. extraversion ANSWER: d 90. The Big Five Factor Model does NOT include: a. extraversion. b. openness to experience. c. neuroticism. d. anxiousness. ANSWER: d 91. Yara is independent, and Zoey tends to be conforming. According to the Big Five Factor Model, when presented as a continuum, these characteristics represent: a. conscientiousness. b. openness to experience. c. agreeableness. d. extraversion. ANSWER: b 92. Raul is very social compared to Phineas, who is generally reserved. According to the Big Five Factor Mode, these characteristics represent opposite ends of _____ when presented as a continuum. a. neuroticism b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: d 93. Marise is generally calm, while Esilda is often worried. According to the Big Five Factor Model, these characteristics, when presented as a continuum, represent: a. neuroticism. b. openness to experience. c. conscientiousness. d. extraversion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 94. Yuri is a good student—organized, self-disciplined, and very careful about turning her work in on time. According to the Big Five Factor Model of personality, Yuri would likely score high on: a. orderliness. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. agreeableness. ANSWER: b 95. Boram enjoys spending time with friends and family, and she particularly enjoys parties and social events. According to various trait theories of personality, she would likely score high on: a. extraversion. b. conscientiousness. c. agreeableness. d. openness to experience. ANSWER: a 96. Ulrik is a softhearted individual who easily trusts people and will go out of his way to help them. According to the Big Five Factor Model of personality, Ulrik would likely score high on: a. extraversion. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. agreeableness. ANSWER: d 97. Which statement about the Big Five Factor Model is false? a. The factors are associated with predictable patterns of behavior. b. People high in conscientiousness perform well in their jobs. c. People low in extraversion tend to be social and affectionate. d. People's personalities tend to remain stable throughout life. ANSWER: c 98. Isander has been arrested multiple times as a juvenile. Based on the Big Five Factor Model, it is probable that he would score low on: a. agreeableness. b. neuroticism. c. openness to experience. d. extraversion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 99. Saeko has been detained by police officers on multiple occasions and frequently gets in trouble at school. Based on the Big Five Factor Model, it is likely that she would score low on: a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. extraversion. ANSWER: b 100. Takashi always performed well at work and has outlived many of his peers. Based on the Big Five Factor Model, he may be high in: a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. extraversion. ANSWER: b 101. The basic five-factor structure seems to be true in which of these populations? a. adults in English-speaking countries b. adults in non-Western cultures who speak languages other than English c. children d. children and adults in other cultures, both English and non-English speaking ANSWER: d 102. William James argued that by the age of 30, personality is: a. stable and unchanging. b. more conscientious and extraverted than in childhood. c. better able to be modified by social norms. d. more variable than it was in childhood. ANSWER: a 103. Research examining the links between personality and individuals' Facebook pages found that people who are high on extraversion do NOT generally report: a. playing more online games. b. making more Facebook friends. c. posting more status updates. d. posting comments about others' updates. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 104. Chad has three tattoos. Based on only this information and recent research, Chad is MOST likely to score high on the personality dimension of: a. neuroticism. b. openness to experience. c. agreeableness. d. extraversion. ANSWER: b 105. The electronic information that people post online about themselves is called their: a. digital footprint. b. factor. c. structure of the mind. d. defense mechanism. ANSWER: a 106. Jazmine often posts selfies and videos of herself online. These help make up her: a. digital footprint. b. factors. c. structure of the mind. d. defense mechanisms. ANSWER: a 107. Rasul uses social media to stay in contact with his friends and family. What he posts online helps make up his: a. digital footprint. b. factors. c. structure of the mind. d. defense mechanisms. ANSWER: a 108. Which of these is NOT an example of a person's digital footprint? a. online posts b. photos posted online c. online videos of the person d. in-person conversations ANSWER: d 109. Research has confirmed that people's social media posts correlate with self-reported ratings of: a. Big Five personality traits. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. structures of the mind. c. defense mechanisms. d. unconscious motivations. ANSWER: a 110. Analysis of smartphone data reveals that those who score high on _____ and _____ spend more time with others. a. extraversion; agreeableness b. conscientiousness; extraversion c. neuroticism; openness to experience d. agreeableness; neuroticism ANSWER: a 111. A profound change in personality may be the result of all of these EXCEPT: a. stroke. b. natural development. c. brain tumor. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: b 112. When siblings have similar personalities, this similarity is the result of: a. attachment patterns. b. a common socioeconomic status. c. common schooling. d. genetics. ANSWER: d 113. Professor Park is giving a guest lecture on gender differences in personality. Which statement is she LEAST likely to make? a. "Women are more sensitive to nonverbal cues than are men." b. "Women have slightly higher self-esteem than do men." c. "Men are more physically aggressive than are women." d. "" Men are more assertive than are women." ANSWER: b 114. The _____ activates approach behavior in response to the anticipation of reward. a. behavioral activation system b. behavioral inhibition system c. electrical activity of the brain Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. functional brain imaging system ANSWER: a 115. Individuals who are _____ have a highly reactive behavioral activation system (BAS) and actively engage the environment and seek social reinforcement. a. introverts b. extraverts c. conscientious d. depressed ANSWER: b 116. Gloria is suddenly demonstrating a profound change in personality. This may be due to all of these EXCEPT: a. stroke. b. natural development. c. brain tumor. d. Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: b 117. Studies of identical twins who were adopted and raised apart show that shared environments have _____ impact on personality traits. a. a lot of b. little c. no d. some ANSWER: b 118. Roughly _____ of the variability in personality among individuals is due to genetic factors. a. 25% b. 40% c. 60% d. 75% ANSWER: b 119. Roughly _____ of the variability in personality among individuals is due to environmental factors. a. 25% b. 40% c. 60% d. 75% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 120. Who would personality psychologists expect to have the MOST similar personality traits? a. fraternal twins Abbas and Amir b. siblings Cara and Drew c. monozygotic twins Sadie and Sara d. dizygotic twins Mari and Matt ANSWER: c 121. Which Big Five personality factor has the highest heritability estimate? a. conscientiousness b. neuroticism c. extraversion d. openness ANSWER: d 122. Which Big Five personality factor has the lowest heritability level? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. extraversion d. openness ANSWER: a 123. Ying and Yua are identical twins that were raised apart. Research would suggest that they are more similar than chance in: a. conscientiousness but not the other dimensions. b. extraversion but not the other dimensions. c. all of the dimensions except extraversion. d. all personality dimensions. ANSWER: d 124. Deon and Cole are brothers who have similar personalities. Research suggests that this is due primarily to: a. the shared environment the siblings experienced. b. the nonshared environment the siblings experienced. c. genetics. d. an equal combination of genes and the environment. ANSWER: c 125. Tobias and Luka are siblings who grew up in the same home environment, played together on the same little-league baseball team, and went to the same school. During early adolescence, their parents divorced and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice both siblings went to live with the same parent. The fact that Tobias and Luka have similar personalities is MOST likely due to: a. genetics. b. similar schooling and extracurricular activities. c. the shared stressful event of divorce. d. a similar home environment. ANSWER: a 126. Men are more likely to score lower than women on: a. conscientiousness. b. self-esteem. c. assertiveness. d. sensation seeking. ANSWER: a 127. Men are more likely to score lower than women on: a. having more casual attitudes toward sex. b. openness to ideas. c. agreeableness. d. sensation seeking. ANSWER: c 128. Women are more likely to score lower than men on: a. conscientiousness. b. openness to feelings. c. extraversion. d. sensation seeking. ANSWER: d 129. Women are more likely to score lower than men on: a. extraversion. b. self-esteem. c. agreeableness. d. neuroticism. ANSWER: b 130. Research in personality psychology has concluded that the majority of the gender differences in personality: a. are present as early as they can be reliably measured. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. emerge around the time children start going to school. c. appear during adolescence. d. are not evident until adulthood. ANSWER: c 131. A recent study followed a sample of transgender men over a 3-month period during which they were undergoing testosterone treatment. Personality tests administered before and after treatment revealed: a. that cisgender men consistently had higher levels of masculinity compared to transgender men. b. that transgender men viewed themselves as more masculine, and their scores were similar to those of cisgender men. c. that transgender men did not view themselves as more masculine after treatment. d. no difference between transgender and cisgender men in terms of masculinity. ANSWER: b 132. The reticular formation of those _____ is not easily stimulated, according to Eysenck. a. high in extraversion b. high in openness to experience c. low in conscientiousness d. low in agreeableness ANSWER: a 133. Which statement about gender and personality is false? a. Women are more nurturing than are men. b. Women are more verbally expressive than are men. c. Men engage in more relational aggression than do women. d. Men engage in more sensation seeking than do women. ANSWER: c 134. Which theory suggests that male aggressiveness may have an adaptive value in intimidating sexual rivals? a. social role theory b. psychodynamic theory c. evolutionary perspective d. gender roles theory ANSWER: c 135. One scale that assesses the degree of identification with stereotypically masculine and feminine traits is the: a. Gender Self-Report. b. Social Role Inventory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice c. Eysenck Personality Inventory of Gender. d. BEM Sex Role Inventory. ANSWER: d 136. The _____ states that the personality differences between men and women result from cultural standards and expectations. a. social role theory b. trait perspective c. existential approach d. cultural–biological hypothesis ANSWER: a 137. According to Bem (1974), _____ is NOT a stereotypical feminine personality characteristic. a. yielding b. self-reliance c. being easily flattered d. sympathy ANSWER: b 138. According to Bem (1974), _____ is NOT a stereotypical male personality characteristic. a. defending one's beliefs b. independence c. sympathy d. assertiveness ANSWER: c 139. Based on her research on stereotypical masculine and feminine traits, Bem (1974) suggested that: a. men who identify strongly with the masculine gender role are better adjusted than are psychologically androgynous men. b. men who identify strongly with feminine characteristics to the exclusion of masculine characteristics are better adjusted than are psychologically androgynous men. c. women who identify strongly with the feminine gender role are better adjusted than are psychologically androgynous women. d. psychologically androgynous people are better adjusted than are people who identify strongly with stereotypical gender roles. ANSWER: d 140. Which of these statements is true? a. Science has discovered significant differences in the brains of men and women. b. Science has yet to reveal conclusive and replicable differences between the brains of men and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice women. c. Science has found that the amygdala of women is larger than that of men. d. Science has indicated that the reticular formation of men is larger than that of women. ANSWER: b 141. Victor has a cortex that is very easily stimulated to a point higher than optimal. Victor MOST likely: a. engages with his environment and seeks social reinforcement. b. prefers quiet activities. c. listens to loud music. d. is neurotic and emotionally unstable. ANSWER: b 142. Gosling (1998) arranged for people to observe a group of spotted hyenas and to assess the personality of each hyena. He did NOT find evidence of: a. agreeableness. b. conscientiousness. c. neuroticism. d. openness to experience. ANSWER: b 143. Traits resembling _____ have been reliably observed in guppies and octopi. a. extraversion and conscientiousness b. agreeableness and neuroticism c. neuroticism and openness to experience d. extraversion and neuroticism ANSWER: d 144. Cross-species commonalities in some personality traits suggest that: a. the shared environments of humans and animals are more similar than originally thought. b. personality studies in animals are flawed by anthropomorphism. c. genetics play little role in some core personality factors. d. differences in personality have evolved to deal with challenges associated with survival and reproduction. ANSWER: d 145. Behavioral and physiological research on the brain and personality traits has tended to support Hans Eysenck's theory of _____ in extraverts and in introverts. a. drive for stimulation b. differences in dopamine levels Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice c. cortical arousal differences d. prefrontal cortex disparities ANSWER: c 146. When introverts and extraverts are presented with an intense stimulus, _____ respond _____. a. introverts and extraverts; randomly b. introverts and extraverts; in the same way c. extraverts; more strongly d. introverts; more strongly ANSWER: d 147. Garry is an extravert. Which occupation would likely be BEST for him? a. accountant b. teacher c. historian d. nighttime security guard ANSWER: b 148. Marisol is an introvert. Which occupation would likely be BEST for her? a. trial lawyer b. teacher c. bartender d. nighttime security guard ANSWER: d 149. Jeffrey Gray's ideas on arousability include the notion that the _____ system activates approach behavior in response to the anticipation of reward. a. behavioral activation b. reward-seeking c. sensation-seeking d. emotion-eliciting ANSWER: a 150. Jeffrey Gray's ideas on arousability include the notion that the behavioral _____ system suppresses behavior in response to the anticipation of _____. a. activation; reward b. regulation; reward c. repression; punishment d. inhibition; punishment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 151. Maxine has a high reactive behavioral activation system (BAS). According to Jeffrey Gray, she is more likely to be: a. introverted. b. extraverted. c. neurotic. d. conscientious. ANSWER: b 152. Alicia has a high reactive behavioral inhibition system (BIS). According to Jeffrey Gray, she is more likely to be: a. introverted. b. extraverted. c. neurotic. d. conscientious. ANSWER: a 153. When pet owners were asked to rate their cat's personalities on various dimensions, which of the following traits did NOT emerge in the ratings? a. neuroticism b. extraversion c. agreeableness d. openness ANSWER: d 154. Research on the consistency of personality in dogs suggests that: a. personality in dogs varies unsystematically across the life span, casting doubt on the validity of "animal personality." b. personality is remarkably similar across dogs' life spans. c. agreeableness decreases with age. d. openness to experience decreases with age. ANSWER: b 155. Freud interpreted the origins of the everyday mistakes and memory lapses of his patients, which are referred to as: a. reaction formations. b. defense mechanisms. c. factors. d. Freudian slips. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 156. Freud described _____ as the MOST basic component of the mind that serves as the source of our bodily needs, wants, and desires. a. the ego b. the superego c. the id d. consciousness ANSWER: c 157. The id operates according to the _____ principle, and the ego is regulated by the _____ principle. a. hedonistic; moralistic b. pleasure; reality c. reality; pleasure d. moralistic; hedonistic ANSWER: b 158. _____ is both a theory of personality and a method of treating patients. a. Clinical psychology b. Counseling psychology c. Psychoanalysis d. The dynamic unconscious ANSWER: c 159. Which approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires largely operating outside of awareness? a. trait b. humanistic–existential c. social–cognitive d. psychodynamic ANSWER: d 160. Which statement is a criticism of the psychosexual theory of personality? a. It ignores the importance of early childhood experiences in forming personality. b. It fails to offer an account of how gender roles develop. c. It fails to offer an account of how people of the same gender differ in personality. d. It offers after-the-fact interpretations instead of testable predictions. ANSWER: d 161. According to Freud, _____ largely governs the dynamics among the id, ego, and superego. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice a. anxiety b. sexual desire c. depression d. repression ANSWER: a 162. Francois is interested in his neighbor but is anxious about his attraction because his friends may not approve. Every time he sees his neighbor, he is rude and says mean things despite his intense attraction. What type of defense mechanism does this scenario illustrate? a. rationalization b. reaction formation c. displacement d. sublimation ANSWER: b 163. According to the psychodynamic approach, activities such as football and other contact sports are a form of _____, which allows unconscious wishes and desires to be transformed into socially acceptable behaviors. a. sublimation b. reaction formation c. repression d. identification ANSWER: a 164. Unconscious coping mechanisms that reduce the anxiety generated by threats from unacceptable impulses are known as: a. Freudian slips. b. sublimations. c. defense mechanisms. d. psychosexual stages. ANSWER: c 165. According to Freud, the _____ is present at birth and is the source of bodily needs, wants, and desires. a. ego b. id c. superego d. collective unconsciousness ANSWER: b 166. The id operates on the _____ principle. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice a. morality b. idealism c. pleasure d. reality ANSWER: c 167. Stan is studying for a test when a friend drops by to invite him to go to a party. What might his id say to him? a. "If there is time, let's stop by the party after you finish studying." b. "Your friends are immoral, and you should not associate with them." c. "Your professor will really be disappointed if you get another low grade." d. "You need to blow off some steam—let's party!" ANSWER: d 168. Sigmund Freud held that the ego operates on the _____ principle, the regulating mechanism that enables the individual to delay the gratification of immediate needs and operate effectively in the world. a. reality b. pleasure c. morality d. homeostatic ANSWER: a 169. Metaphorically, sometimes the voice of the superego sounds a little like your: a. siblings. b. parents. c. inner child. d. unconscious. ANSWER: b 170. The _____ is the component of personality developed through contact with the external world that enables us to deal with life's practical demands. a. superego b. ego c. unconscious d. id ANSWER: b 171. The _____ is the mental system that reflects the internalization of cultural rules mainly learned from parents as they exercise their authority. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice a. superego b. ego c. unconscious d. id ANSWER: a 172. At noon, Eliza ate the second-to-last piece of chocolate cake. At 3:00 p.m., she ate the last piece of cake, even though she knew that her roommate was counting on having a piece after dinner. Which part of Eliza's mind proposed that she eat the cake? a. the id b. the superego c. the ego d. the preconscious ANSWER: a 173. Alfred and his family went to a restaurant for lunch. He was so hungry that on the way to be seated, he almost grabbed a sandwich off another customer's plate. Which part of his mind regulated this impulse? a. the id b. the superego c. the ego d. the preconscious ANSWER: c 174. Jean was at the mall with her family. She tried on a pair of shoes she really wanted. Her parents told her that they could not afford the shoes and walked out of the store. For a moment, Jean thought of running out of the store with the shoes on, but her parents had taught her at a very young age that stealing was wrong. A split second after thinking about stealing the shoes, Jean began to feel incredibly guilty about even having the thought. Which part of Jean's mind squelched her desire to steal the shoes? a. the id b. the superego c. the Oedipus complex d. the ego ANSWER: b 175. Robert is at a party and spots an extremely attractive person. If Robert's personality is completely governed by his id, what will he be MOST likely to do? a. hit on the person crudely and attempt to kiss them b. sublimate his sexual desires by watching the football game that is on the TV c. mentally berate himself for having dirty, immoral sexual thoughts d. have a conversation with the person and politely ask them out on a date Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 176. Joey wants to pull Ada's pigtails to get her attention, but a little angel on his shoulder tells him that pulling people's hair is wrong. The angel is similar to Freud's conceptualization of the: a. Oedipus complex. b. ego. c. id. d. superego. ANSWER: d 177. According to Freud, which part(s) of the mind is/are a form of consciousness that punishes us with guilt when we do something wrong? a. defense mechanisms b. the ego c. the superego d. the id ANSWER: c 178. According to Freud, personality is largely determined by: a. the id. b. the ego. c. the superego attempting to satisfy the demands of the id. d. interactions between the id, ego, and superego. ANSWER: d 179. Freud believed that the id, ego, and superego were largely governed by: a. depression. b. the conscious will. c. anxiety. d. personality. ANSWER: c 180. _____ is to motivated forgetting as _____ is to reverting to an earlier stage of development. a. Repression; regression b. Rationalization; projection c. Displacement; sublimation d. Identification; reaction formation ANSWER: a 181. Unconscious coping mechanisms that reduce anxiety generated by threats from unacceptable impulses are Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice called _____ mechanisms. a. self-protecting b. motivated forgetting c. psychosexual d. defense ANSWER: d 182. According to psychodynamic theorists, defense mechanisms are _____ because they _____. a. negative; encourage us to engage ineffectively with the outside world b. ineffective; sometimes work and sometimes do not c. negative; prevent us from immediately dealing with the truth of situations d. useful; help us overcome anxiety ANSWER: d 183. According to Freud, "motivated forgetting" is a defense mechanism known as: a. reaction formation. b. regression. c. rationalization. d. repression. ANSWER: d 184. When Lisa received a paper with a D grade, she immediately told her friends (and herself) that it didn't matter because she had intended to drop the course all along. Which defense mechanisms is Lisa using? a. repression b. rationalization c. projection d. identification ANSWER: b 185. In junior high school, Tyler really liked Jada and would have liked to date her. Instead, Tyler was mean to Jada and teased her. Which defense mechanism was Tyler using? a. identification b. sublimation c. displacement d. reaction formation ANSWER: d 186. Wylia and Anya are talking about Ying. Wylia says that she does not like Ying because she is loud and annoying. In fact, "loud" and "annoying" are adjectives that many people use to describe Wylia. Which defense mechanism is Jessica using? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. reaction formation ANSWER: b 187. Paloma loves her new baby brother, but sometimes she secretly wishes she were still the only child in the family. Which defense mechanism would she be using if she snuggled him a little too roughly? a. regression b. repression c. reaction formation d. projection ANSWER: c 188. When her sister was born, 4-year-old Safiyah began sucking her thumb again and wanting to be rocked. The defense mechanism exemplified here is: a. regression. b. repression. c. displacement. d. sublimation. ANSWER: a 189. After a stressful day of classes, André was on his way home when a car cut in front of him, almost causing a collision. When he arrived home, André slammed his car door and kicked the tires. What defense mechanism was he using? a. projection b. displacement c. rationalization d. reaction formation ANSWER: b 190. Ezekiel, who as a child loved to pull the wings off dead moths and was fascinated by blood and guts, grew up to be a surgeon. His career choice likely represents: a. repression. b. projection. c. sublimation. d. identification. ANSWER: c 191. After earning a low grade on an exam, Shante came back to her dorm room and watched cartoons for 3 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice hours to relieve her stress. Which defense mechanism did Shante use? a. reaction formation b. projection c. displacement d. regression ANSWER: d 192. At work, Lakim's boss yelled at him. After Lakim got home from work, he went for a 5-mile run. Which defense mechanism did Lakim use? a. sublimation b. projection c. displacement d. repression ANSWER: a 193. At work, Yente's boss yelled at her. Yente came home from work and yelled at her kids. Which defense mechanism did Yente use? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. regression ANSWER: c 194. Salomea really likes and admires her sister Apolonia. Apolonia is a very good volleyball player, and Salomea feels that she herself is not very good at volleyball. However, when Salomea plays volleyball, she starts to act and talk like Apolonia. Which defense mechanism is Salomea using when she plays volleyball? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. sublimation ANSWER: a 195. When he wears his Pittsburgh Steelers Super Bowl Champion shirt, Maleko feels better able to cope with the day's challenges. Which defense mechanism is Maleko using? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. reaction formation ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 196. Freud stopped having sex with his wife after the birth of their last child, although the couple remained married for many more years. It appears that Freud _____ his dysfunctional sex life with his wife by working long hours developing the psychosexual theory of personality development. a. displaced b. projected c. sublimated d. rationalized ANSWER: c 197. According to Freud, the foundation of personality is formed: a. in the first 3 months of life. b. before the age of 6 years. c. between 6 and 10 years of age. d. during adolescence. ANSWER: b 198. Freud thought people went through a series of distinct early life stages through which personality was formed. What were these stages called? a. the Big Five stages b. psychoanalytic stages c. psychosexual stages of development d. psychosocial stages of development ANSWER: c 199. Which of these is the correct sequential order of the psychosexual stages of development? a. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital b. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital c. oral, phallic, anal, latency, genital d. oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency ANSWER: a 200. Helena is 10 years old and loves playing soccer and basketball with both boys and girls her age. According to Freudian psychology, in which stage of psychosexual development is Helena? a. anal b. phallic c. genital d. latency ANSWER: d 201. Professor Wright is a strong critic of the psychodynamic approach to personality. She is likely to argue that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice psychodynamic theorists' theories of personality: a. lack any real evidence and focus on after-the-fact interpretations. b. are too simple and focus on only erotogenic zones. c. do not consider gender differences in personality development. d. routinely generate falsifiable hypotheses. ANSWER: a 202. Dr. Lozinski tends to focus on a positive, optimistic view of human nature. She adheres to which theoretical perspective? a. psychodynamic b. social–cognitive c. humanistic d. existentialist ANSWER: c 203. Proponents of the humanistic approach focused on the positive view of human nature that highlights a person's potential to: a. feel empathy. b. engage in abstract thinking. c. use language. d. show personal growth. ANSWER: d 204. Psychologists who believe that people are responsible agents who are free to create and live their lives while negotiating the issue of meaning and the reality of death use the _____ approach. a. psychodynamic b. existentialist c. humanistic d. social–cognitive ANSWER: b 205. Emily is working with a psychologist who focuses on Emily's positive characteristics and her potential for growth. To which type of orientation does this psychologist subscribe? a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. psychosocial d. existential ANSWER: b 206. Jay mentions to his therapist that he is too introverted and has trouble making friends. His therapist tells Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice Jay that Jay is free to make his own choices about how to behave, and that the struggle to be more social ultimately will give rise to a more extroverted personality. To which type of orientation does this psychologist subscribe? a. psychodynamic b. trait c. psychosocial d. existential ANSWER: d 207. Which statement about the humanistic–existential approach to personality is false? a. People have the potential to change aspects of their personality. b. People are responsible for their own personality. c. People must struggle with the fact that personality traits are biologically determined. d. Personality can be optimized by making better choices. ANSWER: c 208. The humanistic–existential approach considers personality to be: a. biologically determined. b. the result of unconscious forces. c. the result of our choices. d. relatively fixed after the age of 30. ANSWER: c 209. Existentialists would say that, as humans, we: a. have no choice but to become self-actualized. b. make choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death. c. need not think about death if we believe in life. d. sometimes must embrace comforting illusions. ANSWER: b 210. Which psychologist is a humanistic theorist? a. Gordon Allport b. Abraham Maslow c. Rollo May d. Victor Frankl ANSWER: b 211. Abraham Maslow, a _____ theorist, proposed a hierarchy of _____. a. humanistic; meanings of life and death Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. humanistic; human needs c. existential; meanings of life and death d. existential; human needs ANSWER: b 212. Abraham Maslow designed a hierarchy of needs, promoting the idea that basic physiological and safety needs must be satisfied before a person can focus on: a. their inner child. b. self-actualization. c. personality development. d. existential angst. ANSWER: b 213. The human motive toward meeting our inner potential is termed: a. self-actualization. b. flow. c. existentialism. d. angst. ANSWER: a 214. Existentialists focus their research on the aspect of the human condition that forces people to: a. succumb to external social pressures to conform to stereotypes. b. confront reality, rather than deny it. c. address events that occurred in the past. d. act on their abilities to self-actualize. ANSWER: b 215. According to the humanistic approach, a major factor in personality is: a. the self-actualizing tendency. b. security-providing defense mechanisms. c. the role of positive reinforcement. d. anxiety. ANSWER: a 216. Which strategy might a humanistic psychologist employ as a therapeutic technique? a. Focus on self-actualization and block out the external world. b. Use dream analysis to explore the client's unconscious motives. c. Hypnotize clients to induce a flow experience. d. Help clients identify goals that match their capabilities. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 217. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi found that engaging in tasks that exactly match our abilities creates an energized mental state that he called: a. angst. b. actualization. c. flow. d. creative growth. ANSWER: c 218. It is finals week, and a college student is busily studying. When might the student experience the mental state humanistic psychologists call flow? a. when the student takes a break to focus on things they truly enjoy b. when the student is reviewing material for an extremely easy class c. when the student is reading something that they really don't understand d. when the student is learning new material that matches their abilities ANSWER: d 219. A 2nd-grader is reading a library book. Under what circumstances might the student experience the mental state humanistic psychologists call flow? a. after reading for approximately 10 minutes when the student is in the middle of the book b. if the book is a "beginning readers" book that the student could have read in kindergarten c. when the book is challenging, but the student nevertheless understands it d. when the book has many words that the student doesn't understand ANSWER: c 220. A doctorate in English literature would be MOST likely to experience a flow experience when: a. reading literary criticism of Shakespeare. b. struggling through a Latin text. c. grading student papers from their college English class. d. correcting their 6-year-old's grammar. ANSWER: a 221. Who proposed a hierarchy of needs in the 1940s? a. Abraham Maslow b. Sigmund Freud c. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi d. Rollo May ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 222. A model of essential human needs arranged according to their priority in which basic physiological and safety needs must be satisfied before a person can afford to focus on higher-level psychological needs is referred to as the: a. hierarchy of needs. b. Big Five model. c. existential model. d. social–cognitive model. ANSWER: a 223. According to Maslow, _____ is the need to be good, to be fully alive, and to find meaning in life. a. self-transcendence b. self-actualization c. safety d. social–cognition ANSWER: b 224. Marla has a need to be good and to find meaning in life. According to Maslow, she is focused on the need for: a. self-transcendence. b. self-actualization. c. safety. d. social cognition. ANSWER: b 225. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi believed that the state of flow existed between the states of: a. anxiety and angst. b. anxiety and boredom. c. actualization and anxiety. d. boredom and angst. ANSWER: b 226. A school of thought that regards personality as governed by an individual's ongoing choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death is called the: a. social–cognitive approach. b. psychodynamic perspective. c. existential approach. d. Big Five model. ANSWER: c 227. The _____ approach is a school of thought that regards personality as governed by an individual's ongoing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death. a. self-actualized b. psychodynamic c. existential d. humanistic ANSWER: c 228. According to the existential approach, the "anxiety of fully being" is known as: a. actualization. b. anguish. c. angst. d. existential crisis. ANSWER: c 229. Which perspective focuses on anxiety as an inherent part of living that we must face in order to be truly alive? a. humanist b. trait c. existentialist d. social–cognitive ANSWER: c 230. Which theoretical approach states that people occasionally ask themselves profound questions such as "Why am I here?" and "What is the meaning of my life?" a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. existentialist d. trait ANSWER: c 231. According to the existential approach, what forms the basis of personality? a. anxiety, boredom, and flow b. the self-actualization tendency c. the answer to "What is the meaning of my life?" d. defenses constructed to deal with angst ANSWER: d 232. According to existential psychologists, defenses constructed on the basis of personalities: a. provide no security from angst and dread. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. are optimal and lead to self-actualization. c. can be self-defeating and stifle the potential for personal growth. d. allow humans to consider limitless numbers of goals and actions. ANSWER: c 233. Neil is distraught by the thought of the inevitability of his own death. As such, he views life as meaningless and has trouble in relationships. What advice might an existential psychologist provide to Neil? a. Engage in habitual behaviors such as excessive internet browsing to numb the existential pain. b. Construct defenses to provide protection from these existential realities. c. Face the issue directly and learn to tolerate the pain of existence. d. Avoid relationships until self-actualization is complete. ANSWER: c 234. Which perspective views personality in terms of how we think about the situations encountered in daily life and how we behave in response to them? a. existential b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. social–cognitive ANSWER: d 235. The social–cognitive approach examines how _____ contribute(s) to the way people construct _____ in their own heads. a. situations; personality b. personality; situations c. behavior; personality d. behavior; situations ANSWER: b 236. The social–cognitive approach examines how _____ interact to cause behavior. a. anxiety and boredom b. personality and situation c. thoughts and feelings d. personality and intelligence ANSWER: b 237. Social–cognitive psychologists disagree on the question of whether our behavior is caused more by our personalities or by situations we encounter, a quandary known as the: a. social–cognitive quagmire. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. person–situation controversy. c. nature–nurture controversy. d. personal construct dilemma. ANSWER: b 238. Who first argued that measured personality traits often do a poor job of predicting individuals' behaviors? a. Rollo May b. Victor Frankl c. Walter Mischel d. George Kelly ANSWER: c 239. Unlike trait theorists, social–cognitive personality theorists believe that: a. personality is relatively constant across situations. b. situations often trump personality. c. both situations and behavior are equally important in determining personality. d. people are free agents who construct their own personalities based on their choices. ANSWER: b 240. Walter Mischel reported that the average correlation between a personality trait and a corresponding behavior thought to be representative of that trait was approximately: a. 0.3. b. 0.5. c. 0.7. d. 0.9. ANSWER: a 241. Ten-year-old Tisha, a 5th-grader, cheated on a test. According to the social–cognitive approach, she is more likely than are others to: a. tell lies. b. engage in shoplifting when she enters adolescence. c. steal money from her parent's home. d. cheat on a subsequent test. ANSWER: d 242. What is the core of the social–cognitive approach? a. the nature–nurture controversy b. personal constructs c. construals Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. the person–situation controversy ANSWER: d 243. _____ focuses on the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or by situational factors. a. The nature–nurture controversy b. Personal constructs c. Construals d. The person–situation controversy ANSWER: d 244. Personality differences are MOST likely to be revealed at a: a. get-together with friends. b. church service. c. political rally. d. funeral. ANSWER: a 245. Personality differences are MOST likely to be revealed in a: a. college classroom. b. library. c. cafeteria. d. funeral. ANSWER: c 246. Which statement about personality and behavior is true? a. We tend to behave according to our personalities more often than in reaction to circumstances in which we may find ourselves. b. If we know someone's personality, it is highly likely we can predict that person's behavior across a wide variety of situations. c. Information about both personality and situation is needed to predict behavior accurately. d. Powerful situations, such as funerals, often reveal striking differences in personality. ANSWER: c 247. Research has found that bilingual speakers: a. experience slight personality shifts when speaking in one language versus another. b. provide support for the psychodynamic perspective of personality development. c. demonstrate personality that is not consistent with any of the current theoretical perspectives. d. have consistent personality traits across contexts. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 248. Jorge is bilingual and speaks both English and Spanish. Research would predict that he: a. experiences a slight personality shift when speaking in one language versus another. b. provides support for the psychodynamic perspective of personality development. c. demonstrates personality that is not consistent with any of the current theoretical perspectives. d. has consistent personality traits across contexts. ANSWER: a 249. Which of these is NOT a plausible explanation for why our personality characteristics change when we are interacting with one person versus another? a. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with to signal closeness. b. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with to signal affiliation with them. c. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with to influence what they think about us. d. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with because there is no clear, coherent theory that explains personality. ANSWER: d 250. You act differently when in a classroom versus during a night out with friends. This agrees with the: a. social–cognitive theory of personality. b. 16-factor theory of personality. c. psychodynamic perspective of personality. d. evolutionary perspective of personality. ANSWER: a 251. The manner in which Marcus behaves in class is different than how he acts when he is with his parents. This is consistent with the: a. social–cognitive theory of personality. b. 16-factor theory of personality. c. psychodynamic perspective of personality. d. evolutionary perspective of personality. ANSWER: a 252. Jane's personality and behavior is different when she is talking to her parent in comparison to when she is talking to her friends. This is consistent with the: a. social–cognitive theory of personality. b. 16-factor theory of personality. c. psychodynamic perspective of personality. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. evolutionary perspective of personality. ANSWER: a 253. Your personality and behavior can change depending on who you are talking and interacting with. This agrees with the: a. social–cognitive theory of personality. b. 16-factor theory of personality. c. psychodynamic perspective of personality. d. evolutionary perspective of personality. ANSWER: a 254. _____ suggested that people view the social world from different perspectives due to the application of different personal constructs. a. George Kelly b. Walter Mischel c. Todd Feinberg d. Hazel Markus ANSWER: a 255. According to the social–cognitive approach, dimensions people use in making sense of their experiences are called: a. personal constructs. b. loci of control. c. outcome expectancies. d. self-concepts. ANSWER: a 256. When Robyn sees a snake, she loves the graceful way it moves across the ground. Her friend Helen is so frightened by snakes that she goes out of her way to avoid seeing them, even in zoos. George Kelly would say that: a. Robyn and Helen have different personal constructs of snakes. b. Helen's fear of snakes indicates that she has a highly anxious personality. c. Robyn and Helen have different outcome expectancies in the way they view the world. d. Robyn's delight in snakes indicates that she possesses a drive for stimulation. ANSWER: a 257. Scary movies excite Belam, terrify Seri, and bore Amilah due to differences in what George Kelly termed: a. outcome expectancies. b. locus of control. c. the power of the situation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. personal constructs. ANSWER: d 258. Football games on Thanksgiving excite Enrique, enrage his spouse, and bore their teenage children due to differences in what George Kelly termed: a. outcome expectancies. b. locus of control. c. the power of the situation. d. personal constructs. ANSWER: d 259. Participants watch videos of three people who are both similar and different on a variety of dimensions. They then are asked to classify two of them as similar and one as different. The way that participants make these classifications reveal their: a. outcome expectancies. b. locus of control. c. personal constructs. d. schemas. ANSWER: c 260. Another term George Kelly used for personal constructs was: a. construals. b. loci of control. c. outcome expectancies. d. self-concepts. ANSWER: a 261. Social–cognitive personality psychologists believe that differences in personal constructs: a. give rise to the differences in behavior commonly seen in powerful situations. b. cause people to behave differently in the same situation. c. are largely genetically based. d. break down into five different dimensions. ANSWER: b 262. People translate goals into behavior in part through: a. implicit egotism. b. self-esteem. c. outcome expectancies. d. projection. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 263. Shonika attends class, takes notes, reads her textbook, and reviews her work because she believes that it is up to her to do well in school and that she has the resources to do so. Shonika has a(n) _____ locus of control. a. internal b. external c. global d. stable ANSWER: a 264. Omar decided at a young age that if he was nice to people, they would be nice back. This example illustrates: a. personal constructs. b. internal locus of control. c. outcome expectancies. d. the person–situation controversy. ANSWER: c 265. What is MOST critical to learning outcome expectancies? a. conscientiousness b. openness to experience c. locus of control d. consequences of behavior ANSWER: d 266. How are outcome expectancies related to goals? a. Goals determine outcome expectancies. b. Outcome expectancies determine goals. c. Personality determines both goals and outcome expectancies. d. Outcome expectancies combine with goals in producing behavior. ANSWER: d 267. Amari, a senior in college, plans to be a doctor and has planned her next 8 years of study in great detail. She firmly believes that she can make her dream a reality through commitment and hard work. It is likely that Amari has a(n): a. internal locus of control. b. external locus of control. c. unconditional positive regard for her family. d. self-actualized personality. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 268. A person's tendency to perceive the control of rewards as internal to the self or external in the environment is called: a. personal constructs. b. locus of control. c. outcome expectancies. d. person–situation controversy. ANSWER: b 269. _____ developed a locus of control scale. a. Walter Mischel b. George Kelly c. Abraham Maslow d. Julian Rotter ANSWER: d 270. People with an internal locus of control tend to: a. be more anxious than are others. b. achieve more than do others. c. have more trouble than do others in coping with stress. d. be less likely to take credit for a personal success than are others. ANSWER: b 271. People with an internal locus of control tend to: a. be less anxious than are others under normal circumstances. b. achieve less than do those who feel driven by external factors. c. have more trouble than do others in coping under stressful situations. d. be less likely to take credit for a personal success than are others. ANSWER: a 272. Farish has several exams, but he does not study. He ends up getting an A on each of them. He feels that he did well because he thought the exams were easy and that he has good luck. Farish's explanation shows his _____ locus of control. a. internal b. external c. positive d. negative ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 273. People who feel that they are being pulled around like a puppet on a string by all of life's responsibilities probably have a(n) _____ locus of control. a. internal b. external c. positive d. negative ANSWER: b 274. When her roommate asked Valencia why she wasn't studying for a big test scheduled for the next day, Valencia replied, "It doesn't make any difference whether I study. I just know I'll get a low grade because I have such bad luck." It is likely that Valencia has a(n): a. positive sense of personal constructs. b. negative sense of personal constructs. c. internal locus of control. d. external locus of control. ANSWER: d 275. A second-string basketball player takes their preparation just as seriously as does the first-string players. When asked why they put forth so much effort when they're not likely to receive much playing time, the player responds that their hard work will earn playing time and when that happens, they will succeed on the court. The player's comments illustrate a(n) _____ locus of control. a. self-esteemed b. positive c. internal d. external ANSWER: c 276. A person's assumptions about the likely consequences of a future behavior is referred to as: a. prior events. b. anticipated events. c. predictive expectancy. d. outcome expectancy. ANSWER: d 277. Self-esteem is to self-concept as: a. cause is to effect. b. internal locus of control is to external locus of control. c. feeling is to thinking. d. person is to situation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 278. When people define themselves according to personality traits, they are using _____ to organize their selfconcept. a. self-esteem b. a self-narrative c. self-schemas d. self-serving biases ANSWER: c 279. A person's explicit knowledge of their own behaviors, traits, and other personal characteristics is called: a. internal locus of control. b. external locus of control. c. self-esteem. d. self-concept. ANSWER: d 280. The self-concept is MOST related to the facet of self that William James termed the: a. I. b. me. c. ego. d. superego. ANSWER: b 281. The aspect of the self-concept that constitutes a story that we may tell about ourselves is called a: a. self-portrait. b. self-verification. c. self-concept. d. self-narrative. ANSWER: d 282. The self-concept can be organized into: a. the I and the me. b. self-verification and self-esteem. c. self-narratives and personality traits. d. self-esteem and self-knowledge. ANSWER: c 283. Tau finds extraversion to be an important personality trait in conceptualizing himself. Nandi does not conceptualize herself using the trait of extraversion but does define herself, in part, according to her diligence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice and reliability. Hazel Markus would state that Tau and Nandi have different: a. self-schemas. b. self-narratives. c. levels of self-esteem. d. loci of control. ANSWER: a 284. We store knowledge of ourselves in our: a. personal constructs. b. construals. c. theoretical perspectives. d. autobiographical memory. ANSWER: d 285. Brenda's knowledge about herself makes up her: a. personal construct. b. construal. c. theoretical perspective. d. autobiographical memory. ANSWER: d 286. Our autobiographical memories are organized as: a. narratives about episodes in our lives. b. traits. c. both narratives about episodes in our lives and traits. d. neither narratives about episodes in our lives nor traits. ANSWER: c 287. Hazel Markus (1977) called the traits that people use to define themselves: a. self-concept. b. self-schemas. c. self-esteem. d. self-actualization. ANSWER: b 288. Markus's concept of _____ emphasizes that the information about the self is drawn into a coherent scheme. a. self-concept b. self-schemas c. self-esteem Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice d. self-actualization ANSWER: b 289. fMRI scans reveal that the _____ is activated when people make judgments of whether they possess certain personality traits compared with judging whether the traits apply to someone else. a. right prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. medial prefrontal cortex d. left temporal lobe ANSWER: c 290. Someone with amnesia who cannot remember their past: a. has lost their entire self-concept. b. lacks self-schemas but retains a self-narrative. c. lacks a self-narrative but retains a self-concept. d. nonetheless retains a completely intact self-concept. ANSWER: c 291. We develop a self-concept primarily through: a. self-reflection. b. interaction with others. c. education. d. goal setting. ANSWER: b 292. Social theorist George Mead observed that we adopt a self-concept that is consistent with the consensual view of ourselves held by the _____ other. a. stereotyped b. collective c. generalized d. authoritative ANSWER: c 293. The tendency to seek evidence to confirm the self-concept is called: a. self-analysis. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. self-verification. d. self-relevance. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 294. Jennifer feels uncomfortable when her friends tell her that she is too aggressive and bossy because she sees herself as a very conservative and caring person. Jennifer seeks: a. self-verification. b. self-esteem. c. self-concept. d. self-serving bias. ANSWER: a 295. Which area of the brain is involved in understanding people? a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. medial prefrontal cortex d. pons ANSWER: c 296. The extent to which an individual likes, values, and accepts the self is called: a. self-schema. b. self-esteem. c. self-verification. d. self-narrative. ANSWER: b 297. People with _____ tend to live happier and healthier lives than do people with _____. a. explicit egotism; implicit egotism b. a high self-concept; a low self-concept c. high self-esteem; low self-esteem d. an external locus of control; an internal locus of control ANSWER: c 298. People with _____ are MOST likely to develop eating disorders. a. low self-esteem b. high self-esteem c. an external locus of control d. self-schemas ANSWER: a 299. Some psychologists believe that high self-esteem arises primarily from: a. adeptness at self-verification. b. being accepted and valued by significant others. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice c. the extraversion personality factor. d. an external locus of control. ANSWER: b 300. A study of athletes at the 1992 Olympics found that: a. those who did not win medals had higher levels of self-esteem than did those who won medals. b. those who did not win medals had lower levels of self-esteem than did those who won medals. c. bronze medal winners smiled the least during the medal ceremony. d. silver medal winners smiled the least during the medal ceremony. ANSWER: d 301. Andrew experiences a boost in self-esteem when he succeeds in the classroom but not when someone compliments him on his style of dress. Anton reports just the opposite. The difference between the two people is MOST directly related to differences in: a. valued traits in their self-concepts. b. self-verification strategies. c. locus of control. d. their degree of extraversion. ANSWER: a 302. The key theories on the benefits of self-esteem do not focus on: a. status. b. belonging. c. security. d. control. ANSWER: d 303. When an athlete wins a competition, they are likely to emphasize their hard work and physical talents. When the same athlete loses a competition, they are likely to emphasize the quality of their competition. This phenomenon illustrates the: a. person–situation controversy. b. self-serving bias. c. narcissistic personality disorder. d. problem of implicit egotism. ANSWER: b 304. Charles, a senior in high school, made the decision to attend the College of Charleston instead of the University of South Carolina, not consciously aware that he made this decision because his name is similar to that of the College of Charleston. This decision could be because of: a. self-verification. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. a self-serving bias. c. implicit egotism. d. narcissism. ANSWER: c 305. Which statement BEST defines narcissism? a. It is a trait that reflects a grandiose view of the self-combined with a tendency to seek admiration from and exploit others. b. It is a trait more common in people who are self-actualized. c. It is a tendency to take credit for one's successes but downplay responsibility for one's failures. d. It is a personality disorder resulting from low self-esteem. ANSWER: a 306. Lindsey has high self-esteem and carries herself more confidently than does Barb, who has lower selfesteem. Their employees tend to work harder in an effort to impress Lindsey, illustrating a benefit of selfesteem related to: a. social status. b. belonging. c. extraversion. d. security. ANSWER: a 307. The idea that self-esteem reflects an inner gauge of how much a person feels included by others illustrates a theory of self-esteem based on: a. status. b. belonging. c. narcissism. d. neediness. ANSWER: b 308. Existential psychologists believe that the desire for self-esteem reflects a need to find value in ourselves in order to: a. achieve a sense of belongingness. b. achieve a high social status. c. escape anxiety associated with our own mortality. d. increase our awareness of ambivalent feelings about love. ANSWER: c 309. People's tendency to take credit for their successes but downplay responsibility for their failures is termed: a. self-verification. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. the self-serving bias. c. self-rationalization. d. narcissism. ANSWER: b 310. When she gets a high grade on a test, Rantha says, "I studied hard and did really well on that test!" When she scores low, she says, "That test was unreasonable, and the professor just can't teach!" Her reactions are an example of: a. an internal locus of control. b. a reaction formation. c. implicit egotism. d. the self-serving bias. ANSWER: d 311. Which trait involves holding a grandiose view of the self, combined with a tendency to seek admiration from and exploit others? a. narcissism b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. openness ANSWER: a 312. Reed believes that he is much smarter and way more attractive than his peers. Reed's grandiose belief in himself is a good example of: a. narcissism. b. extraversion. c. projection. d. implicit egotism. ANSWER: a 313. About _____% of all drivers classify themselves as above average, illustrating _____. a. 70; an internal locus of control b. 90; the self-serving bias c. 70; the self-serving bias d. 90; an internal locus of control ANSWER: b 314. About 94% of university professors rate their teaching as above average, illustrating: a. implicit egotism. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Multiple Choice b. an internal locus of control. c. self-verification errors. d. the self-serving bias. ANSWER: b 315. When asked their favorite letter of the alphabet, about 30% of people answer by picking the: a. letter I. b. letter that begins their first name. c. most frequently used consonant in their language. d. letter A. ANSWER: b 316. Upon his retirement, Charles is slightly more likely to move to Charleston, South Carolina, than to Savannah, Georgia, illustrating the phenomenon of: a. narcissism. b. implicit egotism. c. self-verification. d. the self-serving bias. ANSWER: b

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TB6 Chapter 12 Scenario Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1950) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 1. (Scenario 12.1) Factor analytic techniques are used by personality researchers to: a. identify the implicit motivations underlying personality. b. arrange many traits in a hierarchical structure under a small number of dimensions. c. ensure that the frequency of personality factors in a sample is representative of those in the population. d. determine if the underlying dimensions of personality are causes or products of behavior. ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 12.1) Both Cattell's (1950) and Eysenck's (1967) models describe equally well the tremendous variation observed in human personality. Given this, many psychologists prefer Eysenck's model because it is: a. more parsimonious. b. more dogmatic. c. greater in internal validity. d. more consistent with a social–cognitive approach. ANSWER: a 3. (Scenario 12.1) Visualize Eysenck's (1967) model of personality as two perpendicular lines bisecting one another. The horizontal line has an endpoint of introverted on the left, and the vertical line has an upper endpoint of emotionally unstable. Within this space, in which quadrant is the personality trait of leadership? a. upper left b. upper right c. lower left d. lower right ANSWER: d 4. (Scenario 12.1) The personality dimension of _____ might be expected to range from independent to conforming. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Scenario a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. openness to experience d. extraversion ANSWER: c 5. (Scenario 12.1) It can be predicted that teenagers scoring low in _____ are more likely than are others to act out aggressively and have legal problems. a. conscientiousness and neuroticism b. conscientiousness and agreeableness c. extraversion and openness to experience d. neuroticism and agreeableness ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 12.1) After finishing his homework, Eron often spends the rest of his night on social media, maintaining his online image by posting updates about himself, monitoring what his friends are doing, and making frequent sarcastic and offensive comments about most others from his school. Eron's personality might BEST be judged low in _____ and high in _____. a. conscientiousness; neuroticism b. agreeableness; extraversion c. conscientiousness; extraversion d. agreeableness; openness to experience ANSWER: b 7. (Scenario 12.1) Research demonstrating that the Big Five personality dimensions appear in all cultures and age groups suggests that these dimensions: a. cause most instances of social behavior. b. are artifacts of similarities in language and labeling. c. are learned behaviors shaped by common environments. d. have a biological basis. ANSWER: d 8. (Scenario 12.1) Extraversion is a Big Five personality factor that also appears in the models of Eysenck (1967) and Cattell (1950). This fact: a. suggests that a yet-undiscovered personality dimension underlies this trait. b. increases confidence that it is an underlying dimension of personality. c. indicates that this dimension overlaps to a greater extent with other personality dimensions. d. is an artifact of a language rich in adjectives to describe social behavior. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Scenario Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s). Historically, psychologists have conceptualized personality in different ways. Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires operating largely outside of awareness in the dynamic unconsciousness. According to Freud, personality characteristics develop early in life, are fairly rigid, and describe behavior in a variety of situations. Like Freud, trait theorists such as Gordon Allport view traits as stable predispositions to behave in a variety of contexts. Unlike Freud, they did not believe that these traits were the products of unconscious desires. Humanists, such as Abraham Maslow, view individual personality differences as arising from the ways in which the environment facilitates or blocks the innate human tendency to reach our own potential. Behaviorists, such as B. F. Skinner, deny the existence of personality as a thing but rather conceptualize it as a mere summary term for a set of reliable behaviors that are reinforced in the presence of similar situations. Different situations, then, might give rise to different behaviors that might be diametrically opposed when labeled in terms of traits. Finally, the social–cognitive approach of Mischel views personality in terms of how people think and respond to the different situations encountered in daily life. In this approach, personality, learning history, and the situation interact to determine behavior, with the power of the situation often trumping the effects of personality. 9. (Scenario 12.2) Which psychologist would be MOST likely to agree with the use of projective personality tests to measure personality? a. Maslow b. Allport c. Mischel d. Freud ANSWER: d 10. (Scenario 12.2) The person–situation controversy focuses on the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or by the situation. Within this context, which psychologist was the STRONGEST advocate for the importance of the "person"? a. Maslow b. Allport c. Mischel d. Skinner ANSWER: b 11. (Scenario 12.2) Csikszentmihalyi (1990) argued that environments that are challenging enough to avoid boredom but manageable enough to not provoke anxiety create an experience of psychological flow that maximizes personality development. This view BEST represents a _____ approach. a. psychodynamic b. humanist c. behaviorist d. social–cognitive ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Scenario 12. (Scenario 12.2) Although perspectives differ in fundamental ways, this psychologist would be LEAST surprised that otherwise honest people would cheat on an exam if they believed others were doing it and no one would be caught. a. Freud b. Allport c. Mischel d. Maslow ANSWER: c Scenario 12.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and uses a reference from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. New York: Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud’s conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 13. (Scenario 12.3) Sigmund Freud founded which school of psychological thought? a. structuralism b. behaviorism c. psychoanalysis d. Gestalt psychology ANSWER: c 14. (Scenario 12.3) In explaining the dynamic unconscious to his introductory psychology students, Professor Carter likes to use the analogy of a car moving toward a destination. In this analogy, the id would function as: a. the engine. b. a GPS navigation system. c. the driver steering the car. d. a person in the passenger seat criticizing the driver’s decisions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Scenario ANSWER: a 15. (Scenario 12.3) In explaining the dynamic unconscious to his introductory psychology students, Professor Carter likes to use the analogy of a car moving toward a destination. In this analogy, the ego would function as: a. the engine. b. the gasoline. c. the driver steering the car. d. a person in the passenger seat criticizing the driver’s decisions. ANSWER: c 16. (Scenario 12.3) In explaining the dynamic unconscious to his introductory psychology students, Professor Carter likes to use the analogy of a car moving toward a destination. In this analogy, the superego would function as: a. the engine. b. the gasoline c. the driver steering the car. d. a person in the passenger seat criticizing the driver’s decisions. ANSWER: d 17. (Scenario 12.3) According to Freud, the part of the mind most associated with conscious decision making is the: a. id. b. dynamic unconscious. c. ego. d. superego. ANSWER: c 18. (Scenario 12.3) According to Freud, the _____ operates on the reality principle, and the _____ operates on the pleasure principle. a. ego; id b. superego; ego c. superego; id d. id; ego ANSWER: a 19. (Scenario 12.3) According to Freud, the ego _____ the id by finding socially acceptable ways to _____. a. satisfies; increase the psychic energy that fuels it b. satisfies; reduce psychic energy arising from bodily needs c. denies; satisfy basic biological urges Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 12 Scenario d. denies; accommodate the desires of the superego ANSWER: b 20. (Scenario 12.3) Marley is referred to a psychiatrist because she cannot move her legs, even though doctors have ruled out all possible physical causes. From a Freudian perspective, this paralysis has likely occurred because the: a. ego is using illness to punish the id for pursuing pleasure over morality. b. id is using illness to punish the ego and superego for thwarting its need for pleasure. c. superego is using illness to punish the ego for trying to fulfill bodily urges of the id. d. superego is using illness to punish itself for pursuing pleasure. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay 1. Distinguish between proactive and reactive aggression and provide an example of each. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Proactive aggression is aggression that is planned and purposeful. It is therefore premeditated. For example, a person who assaults someone only after carefully plotting when and where the crime will take place is engaged in proactive aggression. (2) Reactive aggression is aggression that occurs spontaneously and in response to a negative affective state. For example, a toddler with a headache who lashes out and hits a teacher due to not feeling well is engaged in reactive aggression. 2. Temperatures are in the high 90s, it's late in the afternoon, and you and your friends have been waiting for a long time for a turn on the newest water adventure ride at a theme park. A young man farther back in the line bumps into one of your male friends, who swears at him and pushes back. A fight erupts. What factors may have contributed to this incident? Include the frustration–aggression hypothesis in your discussion. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) People are frustrated because their goal of experiencing the water ride is being obstructed by the line. The frustration–aggression hypothesis may be operating such that your friend behaved aggressively when someone interfered with that goal (to get on the ride). (2) People are also hot and tired, and may be more likely to aggress because of this negative affect. The likelihood of aggression increases with the ambient temperature. (3) This was an instance of reactive, not proactive, aggression. (4) Gender may be a factor. Men are more likely to commit aggressive acts because of the action of testosterone, which may make them more easily frustrated and irritable. It also may make them feel more powerful and overconfident. The shove was perceived as a challenge or threat. (5) If your friend is from the South, he is more likely than are other men to be aggressive when his status is challenged. 3. Discuss the social and biological reasons that men, on average, are more aggressive than are women. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Many studies show that aggression is strongly correlated with the presence of testosterone, which is typically higher in men than in women, and much higher in young men than in older men. Although testosterone doesn't directly cause aggression, it seems to make men feel powerful and confident in their ability to fight. It also makes them more prone to provocation and less sensitive to threats of retaliation. Research also indicates that men aggress in response to perceived challenges or threats to their dominance and status; status competitions increase testosterone levels and have been associated with about threequarters of all murders in the United States. (2) Unlike men's typical reactive aggression, women's aggression tends to be more proactive. Although they are less likely to engage in physical aggression, women are just as likely to engage in verbal aggression and may be even more likely than men to aggress in ways that cause social harm. (3) Cultural factors also affect the likelihood of aggression. In the United States, men raised in the South, for example, are more likely to react aggressively when their status is challenged, relative to men raised in the North. The presence of over half of the world's guns in the United States also contributes to higher rates of violence in the United States relative to other countries. Finally, research has shown that violent video games and movies may make children behave more aggressively. 4. Professor Ramirez suspects that two students cheated with one another on the last exam, on which they both earned high A's, but she does not have ironclad proof. She decides to employ the prisoner's dilemma to see if she can get one or both of the students to confess. Describe what Professor Ramirez might do. Then, using this scenario, describe why cooperation is both beneficial and risky. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information. The specifics can vary based on each Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay institution's policy on academic dishonesty but should resemble the prisoner's dilemma. Here is one possibility: (1) Interview each of the students separately. Inform the student that Professor Ramirez suspects him of cheating with another student on the exam. Tell the student that the professor has enough evidence to warrant an investigation by the student honor board but that she is seeking proof. Give the student a list of options, and then tell the student that his partner also will be given the same options. (2) If the student does not confess to cheating and his partner does not confess to cheating, Professor Ramirez will withhold assigning grades on the exam until an honor board investigation occurs. (3) If the student confesses to cheating and his partner does not confess to cheating, the student will neither be reported nor will the episode negatively affect the exam grade. Instead, the exam in question will be excluded when calculating the final grade. On the other hand, his partner will receive an F in the course and face further sanctions by the university. (4) If both students confess to cheating, they both will receive an F on the examination but will be able to continue in the course and perhaps earn a higher course grade. They will be reported to the student honor board, but Professor Ramirez will recommend that no additional punishment be imposed. (5) If the student does not confess and his partner does confess, the student will receive an F in the course and will face further sanctions by the university. His partner will not get into trouble, and his grade will not be affected. (6) This scenario puts both students in a substantial bind. One of the best possible outcomes will occur if they cooperate with one another and not confess to the professor. She will refer them to the student honor board, but because she has little proof, after some inconvenience they probably will be cleared and get to keep their A's. The reason this choice isn't obvious is that it involves trusting one's partner. In this case, there is good reason for each student not to trust their partner because the best possible outcome involves backstabbing their partner by confessing. By doing so, the student gets off with no penalty, and his trusting cooperative partner receives an F in the course. Obviously, this plan of action has its own set of risks: If your partner also is a backstabbing confessor, both of you face detrimental consequences. In the end, there is no good solution. It is best not to cheat in the first place! 5. Define and illustrate with examples each of the following concepts as they might be observed in the bleachers at a college football game: prejudice, deindividuation, and diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Prejudice is a negative evaluation of another person based solely on their group membership. An example of prejudice is that you evaluate fans wearing your opponent school's colors less favorably than fans wearing your school's colors. (2) Deindividuation occurs when immersion in a group causes people to become less attentive to their personal values. An example of deindividuation is that Amalia, a normally quiet girl with strong moral values, is screaming vicious profanities at the referee along with 80,000 other people. (3) Diffusion of responsibility occurs when individuals feel diminished responsibility for their actions because they are surrounded by others who were acting the same way. Amalia probably won't feel guilty about her behavior toward the referee because she does not feel responsible for her actions. It probably wouldn't even cross her mind that she did something wrong. Yet, if she used the same language in a different setting, her moral failing would upset her greatly. Similarly, if the crowd storms the field at the end of the game and causes thousands of dollars' worth of damage to the facility, no one person is likely to feel personally responsible. 6. Define and describe the relationships among the concepts of altruism, kin selection, and reciprocal altruism. Give examples of each. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Altruism is behavior that benefits another at a potential cost to oneself. (2) It would appear that altruism occurs throughout the animal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay kingdom. For example, birds and squirrels give alarm calls when they see a predator, which puts them at increased risk of being eaten but allows their fellow birds and squirrels to escape. This is actually not altruism because providing the alarm call conveys a genetic advantage to the bird; its genes residing in its relatives will be more likely to survive. The alarm call is actually an example of kin selection, or the process by which evolution selects for individuals who cooperate with their relatives. Most of the alleged "altruism" in the animal kingdom really is kin selection. (3) Altruism also doesn't involve helping another person if you expect that person to return the favor in the future. Behavior that benefits another with the expectation that the benefits will be returned in the future is called reciprocal altruism. An example might be that you help your neighbor change their slashed tire, and as a result you hope that they will be more likely to keep an eye on your property while you are away on vacation. (4) Humans do appear to engage in genuinely altruistic behavior. During natural disasters or terrorist attacks, people risk their own lives to save the lives of complete strangers, with no expectation of compensation, glory, or reciprocation. More common, people make large anonymous donations to charity and provide large tips for exceptional service at restaurants to which they will never return. 7. Provide biological and cultural reasons women are generally more selective in their choice of sexual partners than are men. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) From an evolutionary perspective, having sex costs a man next to nothing in terms of physical costs. He loses a few minutes of his time, a small amount of energy, and about 200 million sperm. The loss of the sperm is not significant. He has billions more in reserve and can be procreating again within a few minutes to hours. Impregnating his partner produces substantial benefits—reproduction makes it likely that his genes will survive after his own death—and also has no significant biological costs; theoretically, he can impregnate additional partners later in the same day. (2) Evolutionarily speaking, sex is a much more dangerous proposition for women, and so they have to be much more selective. By getting pregnant, she greatly increases her risk of illness and death during the pregnancy. Finally, women have a precious few egg cells. The time window for fertility is small. Because of the costs associated with sexual behavior, a woman is motivated to select a partner who provides enough genetic and social resources to outweigh these costs. (3) Cultural variables also contribute to the difference in sexual selectivity. Promiscuous men are often glorified, whereas promiscuous women are disparaged. As such, the decision to have sex usually has greater reputational and other social costs for women relative to men. (4) When the biological and social costs associated with sex are increased for men, as when they are deciding on a spouse or other long-term mate, they become just as selective as are women. 8. Describe the factors that cause us to be attracted to another person. How do these factors differ for women and men? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: Several factors cause us to be attracted to another person, including situational factors, physical factors, and psychological factors. (1) One of the best predictors of any type of relationship is the physical proximity of the people involved. Degree of proximity can be seen in the mere-exposure effect, which is the increased tendency for liking something with the increased frequency of exposure to that thing. Being exposed to certain people causes us to feel familiar with them and then increases our liking of them. Close proximity not only provides the opportunity for attraction but also the motivation, because people work hard to like those with whom they expect to have social interactions. (2) Physical factors also play a large role in attraction. Physical attractiveness is typically the only attribute that initially influences Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay people's feelings of attraction. Physical beauty isn't important in just an interpersonal context. People who are deemed beautiful have more friends, more dates, more sex, and more fun than do people who are judged as being less attractive. The effects of physical attractiveness can also affect how mothers treat their own children: Mothers of attractive children are more affectionate and playful with their children than are mothers of less attractive children. (3) The physical factors that people find attractive differ for women and men. Perhaps the most obvious difference is body shape. Straight women prefer men with an upper body shaped like an inverted triangle, and straight men prefer women with an hourglass figure. These body shapes relate to testosterone in men (which correlates with social status) and estrogen in women (which correlates with fertility). Although both men and women prefer symmetrical faces and bodies, men find a "baby face" on a woman especially attractive, and women prefer men with a more mature face. (4) A last factor that contributes to perceptions of attractiveness is psychological. People's inner qualities, personalities, points of view, attitudes, beliefs, values, ambitions, and abilities play an important role in determining their interest in one another. Some of the qualities that are seen as consistently attractive include a sense of humor, intelligence, sensitivity, and ambition. Although these qualities are attractive, we typically interact with people whose standing on these dimensions is similar to our own. We tend to enter into a relationship with a person with a similar level of education, religious background, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, and personality. 9. In many cultures, parents arrange marriages for their children. Those in arranged marriages often say that although they were not in love initially, they soon felt that they did love their new mate. Describe how Leon Festinger's theory of cognitive dissonance could account for these happy endings. Discuss other possible factors that could contribute to the success of arranged marriages, such as proximity and companionate love. ANSWER: The answer should include the following points: (1) Cognitive dissonance refers to an unpleasant state that arises when we recognize the inconsistency of our actions, attitudes, or beliefs. Internal conflict, in this case between an action ("I have married") and an attitude ("I'm not in love"), prompts change of one or the other conflicting components. In this case, the attitude has been changed to fit the action ("now I love this person!"). (2) One contributing factor is the mereexposure effect. Just being around a new spouse will increase your liking of them. Also, passionate love and companionate love are different processes. Just because there may have been a lack of passionate love due to the arranged nature of the marriage does not mean that companionate love will not develop. 10. Describe the two dimensions on which stereotypes vary, and place examples of stereotypes in this twodimensional space. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Stereotypes vary on the two dimensions of warmth and competence. (2) The stereotype of a person currently experiencing homelessness, for example, is low on both warmth and competence. (3) The stereotype of an educated person is high on both warmth and competence. (4) The stereotype of someone with an intellectual disability is high on warmth but low on competence. (5) Finally, the stereotype of someone who is wealthy is high on competence but low on warmth. 11. What are four characteristics of stereotypes that can lead to harmful results? Describe and give an example of each characteristic. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: The four characteristics of stereotypes that can lead to harmful results are inaccuracy, overuse, self-perpetuation, and automaticity. (1) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay Stereotypes can be inaccurate because the inferences we draw about individuals are only as accurate as our stereotypes about the categories to which the individuals belong. Much of what we know about members of human categories comes from others, and often this information is inaccurate. An example of this is that there is no evidence to indicate that lawyers are especially unethical, but many people hold to this belief because they have been taught that it is the case. (2) Stereotypes can also be overused. An example is the belief that men have greater upper body strength than women do. Although this is true on average, it does not say anything about the strength of individuals. Many women are stronger than the average man. (3) Stereotyping can be self-perpetuating because we see what we expect to see, and we cause others to behave as we expect them to behave. Two subcomponents of self-perpetuating stereotypes are perceptual confirmation, which is the tendency for observers to perceive what they expect to perceive, and behavioral confirmation (also called the self-fulfilling prophecy), which is a phenomenon whereby observers bring about what they expect to perceive. An example of perceptual confirmation is when people are more likely to notice crimes committed by members of underrepresented groups than by those in the majority group. The selffulfilling prophecy often occurs when people are fearful of confirming a stereotype. Ironically, this fear may actually produce behavior that confirms it. For example, Black Americans perform worse on standardized examinations when the exam asks them to indicate their race. (4) Stereotyping can happen unconsciously and automatically. This can be demonstrated using the Implicit Association Test, where people have an easier time matching White people's faces to positive words than they do Black people's faces. People may not realize that they have such bias (because it is unconscious) and, even if they do and try to correct for it, they still demonstrate the bias on these tests (because it is automatic). 12. Using an example, describe three factors that determine whether we attribute a person's behavior to the situation or to that person's dispositions. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) We make situational attributions when we attribute a person's behavior to some aspect of their environment. We make dispositional attributions when we attribute a person's behavior to an enduring quality, such as the person's character. (2) Three factors that determine whether we make situational or dispositional attributions are the consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness of the behavior. (3) Consistency refers to whether the behavior is regularly performed. If the behavior is uncommon, for example, we might be more likely to attribute it to a situational factor. (4) Consensus refers to whether most people engage in the behavior. If most people engage in the behavior, then there probably is a situational cause. If no one else is engaging in the behavior, we will be more likely to attribute it to a person's disposition. (5) Distinctiveness refers to whether the person engages in other, similar actions. If the behavior is not distinctive but part of a pattern of similar behaviors, we will be more likely to attribute it to a disposition. On the other hand, if the behavior is rather unique, we will be more likely to attribute it to situational factors. The overall pattern, then, is that low consistency, high consensus, and high distinctiveness tend to lead to a situational attribution, whereas high consistency, low consensus, and low distinctiveness tend to lead to a dispositional attribution. 13. Throughout history, people have committed horrific atrocities, particularly during times of war, simply because an authority figure told them to. A classic example is the Nazi atrocities in which the German soldiers obeyed their leaders and participated in the murder of millions of Jewish people and millions of others. Using Stanley Milgram's experiments investigating obedience to authority, along with the principles of prejudice, deindividuation, and diffusion of responsibility, discuss whether people who commit such atrocities are morally defective, or if most people would behave similarly if put in similar situations. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Stanley Milgram demonstrated that most people will obey an authority figure, even if that means delivering a potentially lethal shock to a complete stranger. In his experiments, a teacher (the actual participant) read word pairs to a learner (a paid actor who was depicted as a fellow participant; no one was actually harmed during the experiment) who was seated in another room and connected to a shock generator. The teacher could hear the learner but could not see him. Each time the learner got a word pair incorrect, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a switch on the shock generator. The shock intensified with each incorrect answer, and often the learner would scream and demand to be released. If the teacher wanted to stop the experiment, the experimenter seated in the same room as the teacher would calmly instruct the teacher to continue. Despite screams, complaints of heart pain, and a sudden cessation of all noise following a particularly high-voltage shock (is the learner dead?!), 62 percent of the teachers continued to obey the experimenter and delivered the strongest shock possible on the machine. (2) Milgram's results suggest that there is nothing unique about the behavior of the German soldiers during the Nazi regime and that most people will obey authority figures, even when they are instructed to do immoral things. In such instances, people have a tendency to forget their own personal moral values and be swept up with the sentiment of the group (deindividuation). People may not feel personally responsible for their actions because they were committed by the group and not themselves (diffusion of responsibility). Finally, atrocities are often committed against members of other groups. Anti-Semitism was rampant in Europe, even before the Nazis rose to power, and Jewish people were evaluated negatively (prejudice) and discriminated against. 14. Define and describe "normative influence," "conformity," and "obedience." Discuss how these three social influences are related to the desire to be socially accepted by others. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Normative influence occurs when a person's behavior is influenced by another person's behavior because the latter provides information about what is appropriate. People often engage in normative influence because of a basic rule, the norm of reciprocity, which is an unwritten rule that people should benefit those who have benefited them. People who do not follow these norms are looked down upon socially. (2) Conformity is the tendency to do what others do simply because others are doing it. Conformity occurs because people feel the need to have social approval. The behavior of others can tell us what is proper, appropriate, expected, and accepted, and their behavior thus provides a norm that a person is expected to follow. (3) Obedience is the tendency to do what authorities tell us to do simply because they tell us to do it. Obedience occurs because people feel normative pressure; in other words, they may feel as if they have no other choice but to obey the authority figure or suffer punishment themselves. Or they might feel that the authority figure is in possession of information that they themselves do not have; as such, they should obey that person. 15. Define "cognitive dissonance." Describe an experiment that demonstrates this phenomenon. ANSWER: The answer should include the following points: (1) Cognitive dissonance is an unpleasant state that arises when we recognize the inconsistency of our actions, attitudes, or beliefs. We can alleviate this dissonance by changing our actions, attitudes, or beliefs, but change often leaves us vulnerable to people's efforts to change them for us. (2) One experiment that documents this phenomenon is a study in which experimenters went to a neighborhood and asked homeowners if they would install in their front yards a large sign that said, "Drive Carefully." Only 17 percent of the homeowners agreed to install the sign. The experimenters asked other homeowners first to sign a petition urging the state legislature to promote safe driving. Almost all the people asked agreed to do so. The Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Essay experimenters then asked them to put a "Drive Carefully" sign in their yards, and this time 55 percent agreed to do so, probably because they began to experience a feeling of cognitive dissonance about their attitudes. The homeowners were faced with a cognition ("I really don't want to put this ugly sign in my yard.") that was incompatible with their behavior ("But I just signed a petition to support safe driving."). Because they already signed the petition, the easiest solution was to change their cognitions ("This sign probably will save lives.") and allow the sign to be put in their yards.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 1. Which scenario provides the BEST example of proactive aggression? a. yelling at someone who keeps irritating you when you're already having a bad day b. spreading malicious rumors to harm a rival c. reflexively pushing someone who just ran into you d. slapping someone immediately after being unexpectedly insulted ANSWER: b 2. Which scenario provides the BEST example of reactive aggression? a. a planned assassination of a political rival b. spreading malicious rumors to harm an ex-lover c. a coordinated attack on a rival business owner d. slapping someone immediately after being unexpectedly insulted ANSWER: d 3. The study of the causes and consequences of sociality is called social: a. influence. b. psychology. c. cognition. d. behavior. ANSWER: b 4. Men who are prone to aggression tend to have: a. unrealistically high self-esteem. b. low self-esteem. c. moderate testosterone levels. d. unusually low testosterone levels. ANSWER: a 5. With respect to aggression, women tend to engage in: a. more proactive than reactive aggression. b. less cyberbullying than men. c. forms of aggression that will not cause their enemies social harm. d. less verbal aggression than men. ANSWER: a 6. Social behavior has evolved primarily: a. as a means to consolidate resources in the hands of the most genetically fit individuals. b. as a by-product of evolutionary increases in prefrontal cortex volume. c. because it aids in survival and reproduction. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. in species with language capacities. ANSWER: c 7. The prisoner's dilemma game illustrates: a. the hypothesis-confirming bias. b. the benefits and costs of cooperation. c. the diffusion of responsibility. d. group polarization. ANSWER: b 8. Workers protesting unfair wages strike and forego their paycheck so that the company loses money. This is a real-world example of: a. reactive aggression. b. the foot-in-the-door technique. c. the prisoner's dilemma. d. the ultimatum game. ANSWER: d 9. Like all animals, humans must solve the basic twin problems of: a. survival and reproduction. b. cooperation and aggression. c. obedience and conformity. d. variation and selection. ANSWER: a 10. The fact that people are more likely to behave badly when they are not focused on themselves but instead immersed in a group is due to: a. cognitive dissonance. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. deindividuation. d. social loafing. ANSWER: c 11. A school board considering a complicated new zoning policy debates only the more basic aspects of the policy at a public meeting where few of the people present are experts. This is an example of: a. group polarization. b. the common knowledge effect. c. deindividuation. d. groupthink. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 12. The most general solution to the problems of survival and reproduction for humans is: a. aggression. b. cooperation. c. attraction. d. sociality. ANSWER: d 13. After a big football win, Roylston and a few other students tore down the goalposts on their school's football field. It cost the college $60,000 to replace them. Even after hearing about the unnecessary cost incurred by the college, Roylston does not feel guilty for his actions. This lack of guilt could be a result of: a. bystander intervention. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. social loafing. d. the common knowledge effect. ANSWER: b 14. Unlike most animals, humans act: a. aggressively. b. purposively. c. socially. d. in ways to attract a mate. ANSWER: c 15. Bernice believes that people who do not share her religious faith have inferior morals compared with those of her faith. This example illustrates: a. group polarization. b. groupthink. c. prejudice. d. social conformity. ANSWER: c 16. Human beings focus more on _____ when compared to other species. a. food and water b. sociality c. safety d. reproduction ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 17. An individual bird might sacrifice itself to a predator in order to help save the flock. This behavior is an example of: a. kin selection. b. genuine altruism. c. reciprocal altruism. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: a 18. Rachel helps her colleagues when they need assistance with work. Although her behavior seems genuinely unselfish, Rachel expects her colleagues to return the favor for her someday. This is an example of: a. kin selection. b. in-group altruism. c. reciprocal altruism. d. the ultimatum game. ANSWER: c 19. Which characteristic is considered attractive across all cultures? a. immature facial features in women b. height in men c. bilateral asymmetry of the face d. slimness in women ANSWER: a 20. Food, water, shelter, and access to mates are examples of: a. instincts. b. consequences of sociality. c. resources. d. norms. ANSWER: c 21. Which characteristic is considered attractive across all cultures? a. rectangular body shape in men b. height in women c. bilateral asymmetry of men's faces d. hourglass figure in women ANSWER: d 22. Over time, passionate love typically _____ between partners in a relationship. a. increases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. remains constant c. decreases d. fluctuates a lot ANSWER: c 23. Two general tactics that humans have developed to gain access to resources are: a. helping and hurting. b. isolation and cooperation. c. conformity and nonconformity. d. attraction and persuasion. ANSWER: a 24. _____ love occurs rapidly and ends within a few months, whereas _____ love develops more slowly and can continue throughout the rest of the life span. a. Sexual; compassionate b. Passionate; companionate c. Immature; equitable d. Passionate; equitable ANSWER: b 25. Any given stereotype usually can be expressed on the dimensions of: a. information and approval. b. personality and probability. c. competence and warmth. d. in-group and out-group. ANSWER: c 26. Aggression is defined as behavior where the purpose is to: a. use physical violence. b. impulsively take something from another person. c. harm another person. d. take premeditated action to achieve a goal. ANSWER: c 27. Stereotyping involves making _____ inferences. a. target-based b. category-based c. attribution-based d. person-based Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 28. Stereotype threat can actually cause individuals to conform to the given stereotype because: a. not conforming to the stereotype results in cognitive dissonance. b. the in-group reinforces the behavior of out-group members who conform to the stereotype. c. fear of conforming to the stereotype actually produces the behavior predicted by it. d. not conforming to the stereotype frequently results in ostracism. ANSWER: c 29. Gregorio believes the false stereotype that members of underrepresented groups are more likely to use illicit drugs. He is likely to remember news stories about drug arrests involving people from such groups but is less likely to attend to similar stories involving people from majority groups. This is an example of: a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. perceptual confirmation. c. behavioral confirmation. d. subtyping. ANSWER: b 30. The CEO of a major company defrauded shareholders and stole hundreds of millions of dollars. This CEO displayed what kind of behavior? a. social loafing b. deindividuation c. aggression d. cognitive dissonance ANSWER: c 31. Rosita got a bad grade on a test. Instead of admitting that she didn't study as much as she should have, she tells her parents that it is because the teacher didn't prepare her well enough and that she was having a bad day. This is an example of: a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. a situational attribution. d. a dispositional attribution. ANSWER: c 32. The _____ states that people tend to make situational attributions for their own behaviors while making dispositional attributions for identical behaviors of others. a. groupthink theory b. actor-observer effect c. common knowledge effect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. frustration-aggression hypothesis ANSWER: b 33. When people's goals are thwarted, they often harm others. This phenomenon is referred to as: a. the targeted-aggression effect. b. reciprocal aggression. c. the projected-aggression principle. d. the frustration–aggression hypothesis. ANSWER: d 34. When you visit a country that has completely different cultural beliefs and societal guidelines than your own, it is often helpful to imitate the behavior of the people you see around you. This approach BEST illustrates the idea of: a. obedience to authority. b. normative influence. c. confirmation bias. d. the norm of reciprocity. ANSWER: b 35. The _____ proposes that people behave aggressively when their goals are thwarted. a. frustration–aggression hypothesis b. common knowledge effect c. bystander intervention theory d. cognitive dissonance theory ANSWER: a 36. Shondra really wants to borrow Alicia's shoes, but she feels that Alicia may refuse. The principles underlying the door-in-the-face technique would indicate that Shondra is more likely to get the shoes if she: a. first asks for something else that she knows Alicia will give her. b. first asks to borrow something Alicia will refuse to give her and then asks to borrow the shoes. c. first lends something to Alicia. d. asks for the shoes when Alicia is in a good mood. ANSWER: b 37. According to the frustration–aggression hypothesis, frustration is BEST conceptualized as a(n): a. consequence of sociality. b. emotional state. c. aggressive behavior. d. obstruction of a goal. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 38. In Solomon Asch's classic experiments investigating _____, most people falsely reported that two lines of obviously different lengths were the same. a. cooperation b. prejudice c. obedience d. conformity ANSWER: d 39. Which statement about Stanley Milgram's experiments investigating obedience to authority is true? a. The learners in the studies delivered painful electric shocks to the teachers. b. The teachers continued to obey Milgram because he threatened to administer electric shocks to them if they refused. c. Over 60% of the teachers in the studies delivered what they thought to be a potentially lethal shock to a learner. d. Obedience to the experimenter was largely due to the norm of reciprocity. ANSWER: c 40. The president of a university justifies a proposed tuition increase to the students by describing how the current projected revenue will not meet the costs associated with operating the college. The president is attempting to use _____ to convince the students that the tuition increase is necessary. a. peripheral-route persuasion b. central-route persuasion c. informational influence d. normative influence ANSWER: b 41. When an Internet company succeeds in getting customers to purchase a 1-week trial subscription for a small amount of money, they are much more likely to get those customers to subsequently purchase a more expensive subscription. This outcome represents the successful application of the: a. door-in-the-face technique. b. norm of reciprocity. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. foot-in-the-door technique. ANSWER: d 42. Benedicto and Giulio were playing when Benedicto became angry. Benedicto wanted to play with a toy that Giulio had, so he pushed Giulio over and ripped the toy from Giulio's hands. Based on the principles of the frustration–aggression hypothesis, which element is functioning as the frustration? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. Benedicto's anger b. Benedicto's behavior of ripping the toy out of Giulio's hand c. Giulio having a toy that Benedicto wanted d. Benedicto's behavior of pushing Giulio over ANSWER: c 43. When people in a crowded room start screaming and running for the exits, you would run for an exit, too, because of: a. informational influence. b. the approval motive. c. groupthink. d. group polarization. ANSWER: a 44. Giacomo is forced to take a job as a used-car salesperson to make ends meet. Giacomo likes to think that he is an honest person, but he finds himself selling defective automobiles to unsuspecting customers. Giacomo is likely to experience _____, which probably will be alleviated by _____. a. cognitive dissonance; believing in the quality of the cars he sells b. cognitive dissonance; accepting the fact that he has always been a dishonest person c. a stereotype threat; being extremely honest to all his customers d. the actor–observer effect; believing that his customers are also dishonest ANSWER: a 45. Simon feels rather insecure about his prospects of attracting a romantic partner in college. He sees his friend Carlo talking to Jamie, whom Simon took on a date 2 weeks ago. This enrages Simon. He confronts Carlo and begins screaming at him. Based on the principles of the frustration–aggression hypothesis, which element is functioning as the frustration? a. Carlo's attention to Jamie b. Simon's feelings of insecurity c. Simon screaming at Carlo d. Simon's feelings of anger ANSWER: a 46. Aggression that is planned and purposeful is termed _____ aggression. a. calibrated b. proactive c. reactive d. frustrative ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 47. The defining feature of proactive aggression is that it is: a. frustrative in nature. b. harmful to another. c. caused by negative affect. d. planned and purposive. ANSWER: d 48. Aggression that occurs spontaneously in response to a negative affective state is termed _____ aggression. a. calibrated b. proactive c. reactive d. passive ANSWER: c 49. The defining feature of reactive aggression is that it is: a. frustrative in nature. b. planned intentionally in advance. c. caused by negative affect. d. planned and purposive. ANSWER: c 50. The negative affective states commonly associated with aggression are: a. pain and anger. b. anxiety and panic. c. anxiety and depression. d. hunger and stress. ANSWER: a 51. Rats administered foot shocks will immediately attack whatever is in their cage, demonstrating _____ aggression. a. biological b. conditioned c. proactive d. reactive ANSWER: d 52. A serial killer stalks a potential victim for weeks, attacking only when it is LEAST likely that they will be caught. This behavior demonstrates _____ aggression. a. passive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. frustrative c. proactive d. reactive ANSWER: c 53. A toddler does not feel well and hits a classmate when asked to share toys. This behavior demonstrates _____ aggression. a. proactive b. obstructive c. reactive d. premediated ANSWER: c 54. _____ aggression occurs even when the costs outweigh the benefits. a. Proactive b. Frustrative c. Reactive d. Premediated ANSWER: c 55. Violent crimes increase during _____ months, and this increase is thought to reflect the influence of _____ aggression. a. winter; proactive b. summer; proactive c. winter; reactive d. summer; reactive ANSWER: d 56. Which is the BEST predictor of aggression? a. race b. socioeconomic status c. temperature d. biological sex ANSWER: d 57. The single BEST predictor of aggression is: a. biological sex. b. age. c. culture. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. social class. ANSWER: a 58. Men are responsible for what percentage of murders in the United States? a. 52% b. 64% c. 81% d. 90% ANSWER: d 59. Men are responsible for what percentage of violent crimes in the United States? a. 51% b. 63% c. 72% d. 90% ANSWER: c 60. Aggression is MOST associated with which hormone? a. testosterone b. cortisol c. estrogen d. adrenaline ANSWER: a 61. Which statement about the relationship between testosterone and aggression is NOT supported by psychological research? a. Testosterone makes people feel more concerned about their social status. b. Testosterone increases peoples' confidence that they will prevail in an altercation. c. Testosterone increases people's sensitivity to threatening facial expressions. d. Testosterone causes people to speak in a more forward and independent manner. ANSWER: c 62. Testosterone makes men _____ sensitive to provocations and _____ sensitive to signs of retaliation. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; less d. less; more ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 63. Compared to the others, which man statistically is MOST likely to be aggressive? a. a younger man with very low self-esteem b. a younger man with unrealistically high self-esteem c. an older man with very low self-esteem d. an older man with unrealistically high self-esteem ANSWER: b 64. When their social status is challenged, men with _____ levels of self-esteem are MOST likely to aggress. a. unusually low b. lower than average c. above average d. unusually high ANSWER: d 65. Research indicates that men given _____ and shown threatening facial images were _____ likely to recognize them as such. a. norepinephrine; more b. norepinephrine; less c. testosterone; more d. testosterone; less ANSWER: d 66. Jaco, who has high testosterone levels and unusually inflated self-esteem, is likely to: a. secretly worry that he may not prevail in a confrontation. b. not get upset when someone challenges his social status and let the incident pass. c. fail to notice that he has angered someone else. d. converse with people using indirect language. ANSWER: c 67. Three-quarters of all murders can be classified as: a. financially motivated. b. status competitions. c. random in nature. d. sexually motivated. ANSWER: b 68. Men are MOST likely to be sensitive to status challenges when: a. interviewing for jobs. b. competing in an athletic competition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. competing for the attention of women. d. challenged by an authority figure. ANSWER: c 69. Which statement about aggression is true? a. Testosterone increases the probability that we will perceive threats from others. b. Testosterone directly causes aggression. c. Aggressiveness in men is related to both socialization and the presence of testosterone. d. Socialization is unrelated to aggression in men. ANSWER: c 70. Which statement about aggression by women is true? a. Women are more likely than are men to aggress by causing social harm. b. Aggression by women tends to be more impulsive than it is premeditated. c. Aggression by women is more likely to be reactive than proactive. d. Women are more likely than are men to engage in verbal aggression. ANSWER: a 71. Women are MOST likely to engage in _____ aggression. a. spontaneous b. reactive c. proactive d. physical ANSWER: c 72. Relative to men, women are _____ likely to engage in verbal aggression and _____ likely to engage in aggression that causes social harm. a. more; more b. equally; more c. less; more d. less; equally ANSWER: b 73. The rate of murder in the United States is _____ compared to the murder rate in Canada. a. about the same b. half as much c. ten times higher d. three times higher ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 74. In the United States, the primary reason that Southern men often are more aggressive than Northern men is that: a. Southern men have slightly higher baseline levels of testosterone than do Northern men. b. Southern men are taught to react aggressively to acquire resources based on previous learning experiences. c. Southern men are taught to react aggressively when they feel their status has been challenged. d. it is typically hotter in the South than it is in the North. ANSWER: c 75. In the United States, men raised in the North are more likely to resolve conflicts by: a. appealing to authority. b. inflicting social harm. c. proactive rather than reactive aggression. d. physical altercation. ANSWER: a 76. The fact that humans have become much less aggressive in the past century MOST likely suggests that: a. evolution is operating on a much shorter time scale. b. the biological factors underlying aggression have markedly changed. c. social status is not as important now as it once was. d. culture influences the expression of aggressive behavior. ANSWER: d 77. Research on aggression in Southern and Northern men in the United States indicates that: a. Southerners are more aggressive when insulted but otherwise more polite. b. Southerners are more polite and not aggressive when insulted. c. Northerners are more aggressive when insulted but otherwise more polite. d. Northerners are less polite and more aggressive when insulted. ANSWER: a 78. The Inuit people of the Canadian Arctic primarily resolve conflicts with: a. guns and knives. b. hunting competitions. c. interpretive dance contests. d. song contests. ANSWER: d 79. Behavior by two or more individuals that leads to mutual benefit is called: a. reciprocity. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. altruism. c. social exchange. d. cooperation. ANSWER: d 80. Research on cooperation has often involved using: a. interpretive role play. b. national military policies. c. the prisoner's dilemma. d. virtual reality. ANSWER: c 81. In the prisoner's dilemma, which strategy will produce the greatest individual benefit? a. confessing when the other player also confesses b. confessing when the other player does not confess c. not confessing when the other player confesses d. not confessing when the other player also does not confess ANSWER: b 82. In the prisoner's dilemma, which strategy results in the largest penalty? a. confessing when the other player also confesses b. confessing when the other player does not confess c. not confessing when the other player confesses d. not confessing when the other player also does not confess ANSWER: c 83. The trait that MOST people want those around them to have is: a. intelligence. b. attractiveness. c. industriousness. d. trustworthiness. ANSWER: d 84. In the ultimatum game, one player has to divide a monetary prize into two portions and offer one portion to a second player. What happens if the second player rejects their portion of the prize? a. That person receives the other portion, and the first player has to accept the part originally offered to the second player. b. That person receives the other portion, and the first player receives nothing. c. The game ends and both players receive nothing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. Both players receive the smaller of the two parts. ANSWER: c 85. In the ultimatum game, a person who feels that they are being cheated by another player usually will: a. forego the monetary prize to punish the other player. b. punish the other player only if doing so does not jeopardize receiving the monetary prize. c. not punish the other player because doing so results in forfeiting their winnings. d. not punish the other player but begin to cheat themself. ANSWER: a 86. Research using the _____ is MOST closely related to consequences of behaving unfairly. a. foot-in-the-door technique b. bystander intervention c. prisoner's dilemma d. ultimatum game ANSWER: d 87. The decision to pay your taxes and hope that everyone else does likewise to achieve a common benefit is MOST closely related to the: a. foot-in-the-door technique. b. peripheral-route persuasion technique. c. prisoner's dilemma. d. ultimatum game. ANSWER: c 88. Raul is in charge of dividing up the Halloween candy with his brother Enrico. Raul divides the candy unfairly, which prompts Enrico to take all the candy and throw it into the trash. Enrico's reaction MOST closely resembles results obtained in the: a. bystander intervention. b. Milgram obedience experiments. c. prisoner's dilemma. d. ultimatum game. ANSWER: d 89. The prisoner's dilemma is a metaphor for the: a. potential costs and benefits of cooperation in everyday life. b. potential consequences of behaving unfairly in everyday life. c. groupthink that often results from in-group collaboration. d. obedience to authority often observed in prison environments. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 90. In 1950, mathematician Albert Tucker devised the: a. foot-in-the-door technique. b. permutations involved in bystander intervention. c. prisoner's dilemma. d. ultimatum game. ANSWER: c 91. Employees at a company vote to end company bonuses altogether to protest what they see as the unfair distribution of the bonuses. Their vote closely resembles results obtained in the: a. foot-in-the-door technique. b. self-fulfilling prophecy test. c. prisoner's dilemma. d. ultimatum game. ANSWER: d 92. Jörg Gross and colleagues (2018) arranged a task in which two participants cooperated at a game to earn money. It was easy to cheat at the game and earn more money for the team. Some participants cheated (the dishonest group), and others did not (the honest group). After a few rounds of the game, participants had the option of continuing to play with the same partner or to change partners. This study found that: a. over the long haul, honest participants earned the most money. b. both honest and dishonest participants preferred honest partners. c. both honest and dishonest participants preferred dishonest partners. d. honest participants preferred honest partners and dishonest participants preferred dishonest partners. ANSWER: c 93. Jörg Gross and colleagues (2018) arranged a task in which two participants cooperated at a game to earn money. It was easy to cheat at the game and earn more money for the team. Some participants cheated (the dishonest group), and others did not (the honest group). After a few rounds of the game, participants had the option of continuing to play with the same partner or to change partners. This study found that: a. over the long haul, honest participants earned the most money. b. honest participants paired with dishonest participants were likely to switch partners. c. dishonest participants paired with honest participants were likely to keep their partners. d. honest participants were likely to switch from an honest to dishonest partner. ANSWER: d 94. Laurie is a CEO of a company who came up "through the ranks" by starting in the mail room. Although she tries to treat all of her employees fairly, she is less likely to give second chances to those employees currently working in accounting compared to those currently working in the mail room. This example illustrates: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. conformity. b. prejudice. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. group polarization. ANSWER: b 95. Evaluating other people negatively based solely on their category membership illustrates: a. discrimination. b. prejudice. c. group polarization. d. hypothesis-confirming bias. ANSWER: b 96. A _____ is a collection of people who have something in common that distinguishes them from others. a. society b. family c. group d. category ANSWER: c 97. People are MOST likely to show: a. in-group favoritism. b. out-group favoritism. c. in-group negative prejudice. d. out-group negative prejudice. ANSWER: a 98. In-group favoritism is an example of a: a. positive prejudice. b. negative prejudice. c. risky consequence of cooperation. d. consequence of conformity. ANSWER: a 99. Even when participants are assigned to completely meaningless groups, it is highly likely that they will exhibit: a. group polarization within their own group. b. negative deindividuation directed toward the other group. c. preferential treatment to members of their own group. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. reciprocal altruism within their own group. ANSWER: c 100. Although Rudolfo is careful to treat all of his employees fairly, he secretly feels that those who graduated from the same business school as he did are more competent than are those who graduated from rival schools. This example illustrates: a. conformity. b. prejudice. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: b 101. Membership in groups minimizes the risks associated with: a. deindividuation. b. prejudice. c. groupthink. d. cooperation. ANSWER: d 102. The risks associated with cooperation are BEST minimized by: a. belonging to a group. b. behaving dishonestly. c. identifying with the out-group. d. expressing negative in-group prejudices. ANSWER: a 103. Why does group membership make cooperation less risky? a. People who do not belong to the group tend to be dishonest. b. Group members can be trusted to favor each other. c. Groups divide resources equally among members. d. Group polarization ensures maximal benefits to members. ANSWER: b 104. Groups usually do not capitalize fully on the _____ of their members. a. status b. common knowledge c. expertise d. talkativeness ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 105. The tendency for group discussions to focus on information that all members share is known as: a. the diffusion of responsibility. b. the common knowledge effect. c. groupthink. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: b 106. When groups get together for discussions, their decisions tend to be more extreme than any decisions any one member would have made alone. This phenomenon is known as: a. common knowledge effect. b. group relativity. c. group polarization. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: c 107. One of the dangers of groupthink is the group's tendency to: a. overthink all their possible options and delay the decision-making process. b. propose too many solutions to a problem in an effort to reflect the unique knowledge of each of its members. c. be unable to come up with a solution due to the bystander effect. d. sacrifice the soundness of a decision in an effort to achieve interpersonal harmony. ANSWER: d 108. People in a mob situation are more likely to stray from their own moral values, illustrating the phenomenon of: a. prejudice. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. deindividuation. d. conformity. ANSWER: c 109. Although members hold differing views, a faculty committee quickly agrees on a new academic policy rather than fully debating the issue and possibly upsetting colleagues. This is an example of: a. group polarization. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. deindividuation. d. groupthink. ANSWER: d 110. After deciding that a defendant is guilty, a jury returns a much more severe sentencing recommendation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice than those held by individual jurors at the outset of deliberations. This result is an example of: a. group polarization. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. deindividuation. d. groupthink. ANSWER: a 111. During deliberation on a complex new tax policy, lawmakers debate the merits of only the well-understood aspects of the policy rather than the important nuances understood only by the policy writers. This tactic BEST describes: a. social loafing. b. conformity. c. the common knowledge effect. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: c 112. After finding a defendant guilty, jurors deliberate as to how long of a sentence to recommend. Although the average juror thinks that the crime merits 6 months in prison, after deliberation, the jury returns a sentencing recommendation of 2 years in prison. This BEST describes: a. group polarization. b. conformity. c. groupthink. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: a 113. During jury deliberations, 10 jurors are in favor of returning a guilty verdict. Although the remaining two jurors have reasonable doubts as to the guilt of the defendant, they decide to also render a guilty vote in an effort to reach consensus and avoid argumentation. This outcome BEST describes: a. group polarization. b. obedience. c. groupthink. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: c 114. Shannon is a shy, quiet college student. However, when she sits in the student section at university basketball games, she cheers and yells whenever her team scores. Shannon's behavior at the game BEST illustrates the phenomenon of: a. group polarization. b. deindividuation. c. informational influence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: b 115. Despite knowing that it is wrong to steal, Elroy chose to loot during a power outage because his friends were doing it and he felt caught up in the moment. Elroy's behavior BEST illustrates: a. group polarization. b. deindividuation. c. informational influence. d. the prisoner's dilemma. ANSWER: b 116. After a big win, sports fans overturned cars and set fires in the street. A few people were apprehended, but they did not feel responsible for their behavior because many other people also participated. The thought process of the people arrested illustrates the phenomenon of: a. peripheral-route persuasion. b. deindividuation. c. cognitive dissonance. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: d 117. Individuals arrested during riots often feel that they have done little wrong because many others were committing the same crimes. The thought process of those arrested illustrates the phenomenon of: a. peripheral-route persuasion. b. bystander intervention. c. cognitive dissonance. d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: d 118. The tendency for most people to expend less energy when working in a group, rather than when working alone, is termed: a. the freeloading effect. b. the bystander intervention effect. c. social loafing. d. division of labor. ANSWER: c 119. People tip less when part of a group than when they are alone, illustrating the phenomenon of: a. deindividuation. b. the bystander intervention effect. c. social loafing. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. group polarization. ANSWER: c 120. People clap more quietly when they are part of a large audience than when they are part of a small audience, illustrating the phenomenon of: a. social loafing. b. the bystander intervention effect. c. the common knowledge effect. d. groupthink. ANSWER: a 121. Tomas puts forth much less effort into group projects than individual projects, illustrating the phenomenon of: a. social loafing. b. the bystander intervention effect. c. in-group favoritism. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: a 122. A person is more likely to help a stranger in an emergency situation when the helper is the only one there, relative to a situation where other people also could potentially render aid. This phenomenon is termed: a. deindividuation. b. the bystander intervention effect. c. altruism. d. the common knowledge effect. ANSWER: b 123. A person is more likely to help a stranger in an emergency situation when the helper is the only one there, compared to a situation where other people also could potentially render aid. This bystander intervention effect is due to a more general phenomenon termed: a. the common knowledge effect. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. cooperation. d. groupthink. ANSWER: b 124. Social loafing is due to a more general phenomenon termed: a. the bystander intervention effect. b. conformity. c. cooperation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. diffusion of responsibility. ANSWER: d 125. Research indicates that as the ratio of mob members to victims _____, the level of atrocity directed at the victims _____. a. increases; increases b. increases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. decreases; does not change ANSWER: a 126. Intentional behavior that benefits another at a potential cost to oneself is termed: a. companionate love. b. reciprocal altruism. c. cooperation. d. altruism. ANSWER: d 127. People do nice things for others all the time. The reason most of these actions are not considered altruistic is that: a. the persons involved are biologically related. b. the persons involved are not biologically related. c. there are hidden benefits for those behaving nicely. d. behaving nicely at a cost to oneself is rarely intentional. ANSWER: c 128. The bird that gives an "alarm call" upon seeing a predator and thereby puts itself at a greater risk of being attacked is engaging in: a. genuine altruism. b. reciprocal altruism. c. kin selection. d. conformity. ANSWER: c 129. Altruistic behavior benefits: a. others and possibly oneself. b. oneself. c. oneself or others. d. others but not oneself. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 130. _____ can be described as instances of helping others who share similar genes. a. Genetic diffusion b. Genetic drift c. Kin selection d. Reciprocal altruism ANSWER: c 131. On September 11, 2001, in the immediate aftermath of the terrorist attack on the World Trade Center, everyday people headed toward Ground Zero to provide assistance to victims whom they did not know. This is an example of: a. genuine altruism. b. reciprocal altruism. c. deindividuation. d. normative influence. ANSWER: a 132. Jumping onto subway tracks to save a stranger's life is an example of: a. genuine altruism. b. reciprocal altruism. c. deindividuation. d. normative influence. ANSWER: a 133. Which action BEST illustrates genuine altruism? a. donating a kidney to save your sibling's life b. making an anonymous donation to a charity c. paying back the person who loaned you money last week d. buying your significant other an expensive gift ANSWER: b 134. Behavior that benefits another with the expectation that those benefits will be returned in the future is called: a. normative influence. b. reciprocal altruism. c. social exchange. d. reverse altruism. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 135. _____ is BEST described as cooperation extended over time. a. Social cognition b. Reciprocal altruism c. Kin selection d. Obedience ANSWER: b 136. Which action BEST illustrates reciprocal altruism? a. donating a kidney to save someone's life b. making a large donation to a charity in a deceased family member's name c. paying back the person who loaned you money last week to avoid conflict d. donating large sums of money to a political candidate in order to garner influence ANSWER: d 137. Recent research suggests that helping others at a cost to oneself is MOST likely among people who: a. are happy and satisfied with their lives. b. are grieving the loss of a significant other. c. live below the poverty line. d. just won the lottery. ANSWER: a 138. Genuine altruism has been observed in: a. a variety of animals. b. humans and dogs. c. humans and other primates. d. humans only. ANSWER: d 139. Ellie's roommate needs $100. Ellie gives her roommate the money without any expectation of being paid back. Ellie believes that someday when she is in need, her roommate will remember this favor and help her. Ellie's behavior BEST describes: a. kin selection. b. deindividuation. c. reciprocal altruism. d. genuine altruism. ANSWER: c 140. Comparisons of altruistic behavior across cultures indicate that residents of _____ were MOST likely to attempt to contact the owner of a lost wallet. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. Brazil b. Chile c. the United Kingdom d. Denmark ANSWER: d 141. Comparisons of altruistic behavior across cultures indicate that residents of _____ were LEAST likely to attempt to contact the owner of a lost wallet. a. Croatia b. Côte d'Ivoire c. Ecuador d. Peru ANSWER: d 142. In choosing sexual and reproductive partners: a. women are more selective than are men. b. men are more selective than are women. c. both women and men are equally selective. d. culture largely determines which gender is more selective. ANSWER: a 143. In one experiment described in the text, an attractive person approached strangers of a different gender on a college campus and asked, "Would you go out with me?" What was the outcome? a. None of the women agreed to go out on the date. b. Men were considerably more likely than were women to agree to a date. c. Men and women were about equally likely to agree to a date. d. Women were considerably more likely than were men to agree to a date. ANSWER: c 144. In one experiment described in the text, an attractive person approached strangers of a different gender on a college campus and asked, "Would you go to bed with me?" What was the outcome? a. Every man said, "Yes." b. Every woman said, "No." c. About 40% of men said, "Yes." d. About 25% of women said, "Yes." ANSWER: b 145. In one experiment described in the text, an attractive person approached strangers of a different gender on a college campus and asked, "Would you go to bed with me?" About _____ of the men who were approached agreed to this request. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% ANSWER: c 146. Which statement about the biological determinants of mate selectivity is false? a. There are considerable physical costs associated with conception for both women and men. b. Pregnancy puts a person at a greater risk of illness and death. c. For men, the ability to conceive a child tomorrow is not inhibited by conceiving one today. d. Women have very few egg cells relative to men's sperm cells. ANSWER: a 147. A "mating error"—selecting the wrong mate and engaging in sexual activity—would be MOST costly to whom? a. Evan, a 22-year-old man b. Gerald, a 40-year-old man c. Renee, a 22-year-old woman d. Evan and Renee, but not Gerald ANSWER: c 148. Which factor is NOT a cost of mating for women? a. increased risk of illness b. increased risk of death c. increased opportunities for reproductive partners d. loss of an egg cell with each pregnancy ANSWER: c 149. In choosing a long-term mate for a monogamous relationship: a. women are more selective than are men. b. men are more selective than are women. c. both women and men are equally selective. d. culture largely determines whether men or women are more selective. ANSWER: c 150. As the risks associated with sex increase: a. women, but not men, become more selective in their partner selection. b. men, but not women, become more selective in their partner selection. c. women become more selective, and men become less selective in their partner selection. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. both women and men become more selective in their partner selection. ANSWER: d 151. Women are _____ selective than are men in choosing sexual partners because the costs of reproduction are _____ for women. a. less; lower b. less; higher c. more; higher d. more; lower ANSWER: c 152. Among sea horses, the male carries the young. How does this affect mate selectivity in this species? a. Male sea horses are more selective than are females. b. Male and female sea horses are equally selective. c. Male sea horses become more selective after becoming pregnant. d. Female sea horses nevertheless remain more selective than are males. ANSWER: a 153. Samantha is a 1st-year college student living on the 9th floor of a residence hall. By the end of the year, she is MOST likely to be friends with: a. Natalie, a stunning-looking student who lives on the 2nd floor. b. Melissa, an outgoing, popular student who lives in the next building. c. Jenny, the captain of the softball team, who lives in a residence hall for athletes. d. Michelle, an average student who lives in the room next to Samantha's. ANSWER: d 154. The first time Igor Stravinsky's innovative musical composition Rite of Spring was performed in 1913, the audience booed and nearly rioted. More than 100 years later, this much-performed work has become a beloved staple of the classical music repertoire. This change in attitude toward the composition is MOST likely due to: a. cognitive dissonance. b. the mere-exposure effect. c. perceptual confirmation. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy. ANSWER: b 155. Leonardo Philip's homeroom teacher seats the pupils in alphabetical order. By the end of the school year, Leonardo's best friends were Glenn Parker and Paul Porter. This outcome is BEST explained by the phenomenon known as: a. perceptual confirmation. b. the actor–observer effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. the mere-exposure effect. ANSWER: d 156. Which statement accurately summarizes the research literature on proximity and attraction? a. Familiarity breeds contempt. b. Familiarity breeds contempt among men but not women. c. Familiarity breeds liking. d. Familiarity breeds liking among men but not women. ANSWER: c 157. Research on the mere-exposure effect has shown that liking a person: a. increases with increased exposure to that person. b. decreases with increased exposure to that person. c. is determined in the first encounter; mere exposure will not change this phenomenon. d. is predicted primarily by gender; mere exposure will not change this phenomenon. ANSWER: a 158. Donald Dutton and Arthur Aron's (1974) suspension bridge experiment demonstrated that men may misinterpret _____ for _____. a. passionate love; companionate love b. mere exposure; physical attraction c. physiological arousal; physical attraction d. physical attraction; companionate love ANSWER: c 159. A couple has just started to date. In light of the results obtained in Don Dutton and Art Aron's (1974) suspension bridge experiment, which activity might increase their attraction to each other? a. traveling on an airplane b. a picnic in the woods c. playing a game of flag football d. sunbathing on a beach at the ocean ANSWER: c 160. A couple has just started to date. In light of the results obtained in Don Dutton and Art Aron's (1974) suspension bridge experiment, which activity might increase their attraction to each other? a. a spirited game of paintball b. watching the sun set over the city c. a meditation club meeting Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. a quiet walk through the woods ANSWER: a 161. Research on facial preference indicates that people _____ mirror-reversed facial images of themselves _____. a. prefer; and others b. prefer; but not others c. dislike; and others d. dislike; but not others ANSWER: b 162. The mere-exposure effect predicts that a person is likely to find other people _____ the _____ time spent with them. a. slightly less attractive; more b. more attractive; more c. more attractive; less d. considerably more attractive; less ANSWER: b 163. Among the BEST predictors of the number of responses a personal ad receives are a woman's _____ and a man's _____. a. height; weight b. weight; height c. age; perceived wealth d. perceived wealth; age ANSWER: b 164. Research on predictors of online dating choices has found that: a. physical attractiveness is the only factor that predicts online dating choices among both men and women. b. physical attractiveness is the only factor that predicts online dating choices among men but not women. c. physical attractiveness, wealth, and humor are the three best predictors of online dating choices for both men and women. d. physical attractiveness, intelligence, and wealth are the three best predictors of online dating choices for both men and women. ANSWER: a 165. Aidan is a straight man creating an online dating profile. To maximize his dating opportunities, he should: a. have a friend who is a straight woman select his profile photo. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. provide his income and current job title in his profile. c. list his religion in his profile. d. tell a joke or riddle in his profile. ANSWER: a 166. Tanisha is a straight woman creating an online dating profile. To maximize her dating opportunities, she should: a. use a great picture as her profile picture because physical appearance is the first characteristic assessed by most people. b. list hobbies in her profile that men might find interesting. c. clearly indicate in her profile that she is interested in both short- and long-term relationships. d. use a lot of humor in her profile. ANSWER: a 167. Ixchel was voted "Most Beautiful" in her high school graduating class. Compared with her peers, Ixchel also is likely to: a. have more friends than do her less-attractive peers. b. continue to grow taller during her college years. c. have a greater number of sexual partners because she will be less selective. d. earn less money over the course of her career. ANSWER: a 168. Zhenya won the Miss Nebraska beauty pageant the year she graduated from college. Knowing only this, the amount of money she will earn over the course of her adult lifetime is MOST likely to be _____ that of her peers. a. about the same as b. more than c. slightly less than d. much less than ANSWER: b 169. Physically attractive people tend to earn _____ money over the course of their lifetime than those who are less attractive. a. more b. about the same amount c. exactly 70% more d. less ANSWER: a 170. Which statement is NOT a characteristic of people considered to be physically attractive? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. They earn more money. b. They have better social skills. c. They are shorter. d. They have more sex. ANSWER: c 171. Compared with mothers of unattractive children, mothers of attractive children are: a. more affectionate and playful with their children. b. more affectionate but less playful with their children. c. equally affectionate and playful with their children. d. more affectionate and playful with their children but only during infancy. ANSWER: a 172. The importance of physical appearance on attraction typically: a. increases as a relationship develops for women relative to men. b. is more important for men than women at the beginning of a relationship. c. is more important for women than men at the beginning of a relationship. d. fades more quickly over time for women relative to men. ANSWER: d 173. Which is a downside of being physically attractive? a. Attractive people are assumed to not be smart. b. Attractive people develop fewer social skills. c. People may feel threatened by attractive people. d. Attractive people tend to be placed into jobs that are below their skill level. ANSWER: c 174. Elton is considered very attractive by Western standards. Which is the MOST likely downside of Elton's attractiveness? a. Elton may have trouble finding a serious romantic partner. b. Statistically, Elton will be underpaid relative to his skill level. c. People might underestimate Elton's intelligence. d. People may be unsympathetic when Elton encounters problems in life. ANSWER: d 175. In Mauritania, young girls desire to _____ in order to be considered physically attractive. a. have very small breasts b. become heavy c. grow tall Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. obtain a perfect hourglass figure ANSWER: b 176. In Ghana, most men desire to _____ in order to be considered physically attractive. a. have obesity b. have a "baby face" c. be short d. become extremely muscular ANSWER: c 177. Studies examining Mauritanian women and Ghanian men based on their height and weight demonstrate that these standards of beauty: a. are universal for both men and women. b. can vary across cultures for both men and women. c. are universal across cultures for women but vary for men. d. are universal across cultures for men but vary for women. ANSWER: b 178. Cross-cultural studies of ideal feminine beauty reveal that ideal body weight _____ and the ideal hip-towaist ratio _____. a. varies; remains constant b. remains constant; varies c. varies; varies d. remains constant; remains constant ANSWER: a 179. Cross-cultural studies of ideal feminine beauty reveal that men seem to prefer women with waists about _____ the size of their hips. a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% ANSWER: c 180. Compared to the others, which man is likely to be judged MOST attractive? a. Martino, whose face and body show slight bilateral asymmetry b. Giuseppe, whose face and body show bilateral symmetry c. Ping Li, whose face shows slight bilateral asymmetry but whose body is bilaterally symmetrical d. Abdullah, whose face is bilaterally symmetrical but whose body is slightly bilaterally asymmetrical Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 181. Faces of both men and women are judged to be more attractive when they have features that are: a. immature. b. slightly asymmetrical. c. symmetrical. d. considered somewhat unique. ANSWER: c 182. Which couple would be considered MOST attractive overall? a. Brandon and Julia, who both have "baby faces" b. Alvin and Stephanie, who both have mature faces c. Clara, who has a "baby face," and Renaldo, who has a mature face d. Megan, who has a mature face, and Winston, who has a "baby face" ANSWER: c 183. Compared to the others, which woman is likely to be judged MOST attractive by straight men? a. Ada, who has large eyes, high eyebrows, and a small chin b. Sydney, who has small eyes, low eyebrows, and a large chin c. Chloe, who has large eyes, thin eyebrows, and a prominent chin d. Safi, who has small eyes, high eyebrows, and a square chin ANSWER: a 184. High testosterone level in men is related to having: a. a square body shape. b. bilateral symmetry. c. older-looking facial characteristics. d. social dominance. ANSWER: d 185. A high testosterone level in men is related to having: a. a square body shape. b. body symmetry. c. a triangle body shape. d. lower levels of aggression. ANSWER: c 186. A high estrogen level in women is related to: a. weight gain around the waist. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. an inverted triangle figure. c. high fertility. d. having a "baby face." ANSWER: c 187. A high estrogen level in women is related to: a. weight gain around the waist. b. an inverted triangle figure. c. an hourglass figure. d. lower levels of body fat. ANSWER: c 188. Women can discriminate bilaterally symmetrical and asymmetrical men by: a. listening to them talk. b. smell. c. determining their hair color. d. examining their handwriting. ANSWER: b 189. When ranking photographs of women with different emotional expressions in terms of attractiveness, straight men tend to rank women who look _____ as being MOST attractive. a. happy b. sad c. proud d. angry ANSWER: a 190. When ranking photographs of people with different emotional expressions in terms of attractiveness, straight women tend to rank men who look _____ as being MOST attractive. a. happy b. sad c. proud d. angry ANSWER: c 191. Across all cultures, men tend to find women more attractive who: a. are younger than they are. b. weigh less than they do. c. have asymmetrical facial features. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. have waist measurements equal to their hip measurements. ANSWER: a 192. Across all cultures, women tend to find men more attractive who: a. have a rectangle-shaped body type. b. weigh less than they do. c. have asymmetrical facial features. d. are older than they are. ANSWER: d 193. Straight men find _____ faces of women more attractive, and gay men find _____ faces of men more attractive. a. younger; younger b. younger; older c. older; younger d. older; older ANSWER: a 194. Why do straight men tend to find immature facial features attractive in women? a. These facial features are perceived as less threatening. b. These facial features are associated with increased fertility. c. These facial features are perceived as happy. d. These facial features are perceived as vulnerable. ANSWER: b 195. Why do straight women tend to find older facial features attractive in men? a. These facial features are perceived as less threatening. b. These facial features are associated with increased fertility. c. These facial features are associated with resistance to disease. d. These facial features are associated with the ability to provide resources. ANSWER: d 196. People tend to date and marry other people who are: a. slightly more attractive than they are. b. considerably more attractive than they are. c. slightly less attractive than they are. d. about as attractive as they are. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 197. The tendency of people to like other people who are similar to themselves is termed: a. kin selection. b. groupthink. c. homophily. d. conformity. ANSWER: c 198. Olivia is a college-educated, ambitious political activist who happens to lack a sense of humor. She is MOST likely to marry: a. Matthew, who is not college educated or as ambitious, and who hates comedies. b. Andrew, who is rather lazy and dropped out of college but is politically active and funny. c. Diego, a rather serious, ambitious, politically active college graduate. d. Jiro, who is a college-educated, ambitious political activist with a great sense of humor. ANSWER: c 199. Elizabeth, a reasonably attractive, smart college student is MOST likely to find herself psychologically attracted to: a. Rishi, the brightest student at Elizabeth's college. b. Mark, an extraordinary track star at the school. c. Nicholas, the fun-loving president of the most popular fraternity on campus. d. Jose, a fairly good-looking and smart graduate student. ANSWER: d 200. Which proverb BEST describes the research findings concerning attraction? a. "Opposites attract." b. "Every cloud has a silver lining." c. "Birds of a feather flock together." d. "Don't judge a book by its cover." ANSWER: c 201. Which statement is NOT a reason we find similarity with a potential mate attractive? a. It is easier to interact with a similar person. b. Similarity is associated with an increased probability of reproductive success. c. It is more likely that our attitudes and beliefs will be justified. d. It is more likely that we will be liked by similar people. ANSWER: b 202. Average people tend not to be attractive to people with extraordinary skills because these skills _____, and this is especially so when the average people are _____. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. are associated with selfishness; men b. are associated with selfishness; women c. threaten self-esteem; men d. threaten self-esteem; women ANSWER: c 203. Minor pockets of incompetence in otherwise highly competent people are judged to be attractive traits because they: a. are associated with humor. b. are associated with the personality dimension of agreeableness. c. make the competent person seem more human. d. signal the ability to be a nurturing parent. ANSWER: c 204. The main reason that humans are one of the few species to have long, committed relationships is that: a. human infants are born before they are fully developed and thus need a lot of care. b. we are the most socially complex of all species and thus need a partner to help us perform many socially important tasks. c. the stability of a monogamous relationship allows us to focus on our jobs and careers. d. societal pressures to choose and remain with a mate are enormous. ANSWER: a 205. Most American men marry: a. for love. b. for reliable access to a sexual partner. c. because of enormous societal pressures. d. to have children. ANSWER: a 206. Most American women marry: a. for love. b. for economic security. c. to have socially approved sexual relations. d. to have children. ANSWER: a 207. It is predicted that approximately _____ of current straight 20-year-olds will marry. a. 65% b. 75% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. 80% d. 90% ANSWER: b 208. Compared to the others, which person statistically is MOST likely to get married to someone? a. Pierre, a 35-year-old man b. Loren, an 18-year-old man c. Arleta, a 25-year-old-woman d. Zacharias, a 60-year-old man ANSWER: c 209. In recent decades, the median age at first marriage has been: a. increasing for both men and women. b. increasing for women but has remained unchanged for men. c. increasing for men but has remained unchanged for women. d. decreasing slightly for men but has increased considerably for women. ANSWER: a 210. Currently, the median age at first marriage is _____ for women and _____ for men. a. 21; 28 b. 24; 28 c. 29; 23 d. 28; 30 ANSWER: d 211. The fact that most people marry for love is: a. related to passionate love but not companionate love. b. related to companionate love but not passionate love. c. the primary reason the divorce rate is high. d. a relatively recent rationale for marriage. ANSWER: d 212. Which statement about passionate love is true? a. Passionate love takes some time to get started. b. Passionate love reaches its peak quickly. c. In happy couples, passionate love remains at peak levels for a lifetime. d. Passionate love increases as companionate love decreases. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 213. Which statement about companionate love is true? a. Companionate love has a rapid onset. b. Companionate love reaches its peak about a decade into a relationship. c. Companionate love grows slowly throughout a relationship. d. Companionate love begins to decrease when passionate love disappears. ANSWER: c 214. Which factor is a defining characteristic of passionate love? a. feeling of euphoria b. affection toward one another c. mutual trust d. concern about one another ANSWER: a 215. Which factor is a defining characteristic of passionate love? a. affection toward one another b. intimacy c. mutual trust d. concern about one another ANSWER: b 216. Which factor is a defining characteristic of companionate love? a. feeling of euphoria b. affection toward one another c. intense sexual attraction d. intimacy ANSWER: b 217. Which factor is a defining characteristic of companionate love? a. feeling of euphoria b. intimacy c. intense sexual attraction d. mutual trust ANSWER: d 218. Although Marcia no longer desires to have frequent sexual relations with her partner, she reports that she loves her partner even more now than when they first began a serious relationship. Which statement BEST accounts for Marcia's feelings? a. Passionate love has decreased, but companionate love has increased. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. Companionate love has decreased, but passionate love has increased. c. Passionate love has decreased, but companionate love has remained steady. d. Companionate love has decreased, but passionate love has remained steady. ANSWER: a 219. A married couple report a high degree of passionate love. Which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. They reside in a Western culture. b. They were recently married. c. They have a below average chance of getting a divorce. d. They have an above average chance of having more than two children. ANSWER: b 220. The divorce rate has _____ in the past few decades; currently, about _____ of all marriages end in divorce. a. fallen; 40% b. fallen; 60% c. risen; 32% d. risen; 50% ANSWER: a 221. With respect to relationships, a person's comparison level for alternatives refers to the: a. ratio between costs and benefits associated with a relationship. b. difference in the relationship benefits experienced by a person relative to their peers. c. cost–benefit ratio that people believe they could attain in another relationship. d. perceived difference in cost–benefit ratios between the person and their partner. ANSWER: c 222. Most partners in a relationship seek: a. a more favorable cost–benefit ratio for themselves than for the partner. b. a more favorable cost–benefit ratio for the partner than for themselves. c. roughly equal cost–benefit ratios for the two partners. d. a cost–benefit ratio that favors themselves early in the relationship and their partner later in the relationship. ANSWER: c 223. Aurelia probably would feel MOST dissatisfied with her relationship with Kwame if: a. her cost–benefit ratio is substantially less favorable than is Kwame's. b. she perceives that both her and Kwame's cost–benefit ratios are currently unfavorable. c. she feels that a relationship with Kwame is the best that she can do. d. she perceives a less than equitable cost–benefit ratio, and they have been married for a long time. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 224. _____ is the state of affairs in which the cost–benefit ratios of two partners are roughly equally favorable. a. Companionate love b. Equity c. Homeostasis d. Stagnation ANSWER: b 225. The process by which a person comes to understand others is termed: a. social equity. b. homophily. c. social psychology. d. social cognition. ANSWER: d 226. _____ inferences are based on information about the groups to which a person belongs. a. Social-cognition b. Comparison-level c. Category-based d. Target-based ANSWER: c 227. _____ inferences are based on information about an individual's behavior. a. Social-cognition b. Comparison-level c. Category-based d. Target-based ANSWER: d 228. The process by which people draw inferences about others based on their knowledge of the categories to which others belong is known as: a. stereotyping. b. prejudice. c. discrimination. d. categorization. ANSWER: a 229. The word "stereotyping" was coined by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. Hadley Cantril. b. David Krech. c. Walter Lippmann. d. Gordon Allport. ANSWER: c 230. Which action does NOT illustrate a stereotype? a. asking a tall person if they play basketball b. offering a child a piece of candy c. asking your neighbors to turn down their music d. asking a gas station attendant for directions ANSWER: c 231. Stereotypes CANNOT be described by the adjective: a. inaccurate. b. overused. c. automatic. d. rehearsed. ANSWER: d 232. Which statement about stereotypes is false? a. They can be inaccurate. b. They are not useful. c. They are often automatic. d. They can be self-perpetuating. ANSWER: b 233. Americans hold a wide range of stereotypes that vary on the dimensions of: a. warmth and competence. b. agency and novelty. c. agreeableness and predictability. d. emotion and intelligence. ANSWER: a 234. Which group would MOST likely be stereotyped as warm and competent? a. people in their 80s b. women c. men d. wealthy people Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 235. Which group would MOST likely be stereotyped as warm and incompetent? a. people in their 80s b. women c. men d. wealthy people ANSWER: a 236. Which group would MOST likely be stereotyped as cold but competent? a. people in their 80s b. Christians c. educated people d. wealthy people ANSWER: d 237. Which group would MOST likely be stereotyped as cold and incompetent? a. people in their 80s b. people experiencing homelessness c. children with intellectual disabilities d. blue collar workers ANSWER: b 238. There are 1,000 members of group A and 100 members of group B in a community. Nine hundred members of group A and 90 members of group B routinely engage in acts benefiting the community. One hundred members of group A and 10 members of group B routinely engage in criminal acts. Which occurrence will MOST likely be remembered? a. one member of group A engaging in a beneficial act b. one member of group A engaging in a criminal act c. one member of group B engaging in a beneficial act d. one member of group B engaging in a criminal act ANSWER: d 239. Research indicates that people are MOST likely to pay attention when a member of the: a. majority commits a good but common act. b. minority commits a good but common act. c. majority commits a bad and uncommon act. d. minority commits a bad and uncommon act. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 240. The belief that men have greater upper body strength than do women: a. is confirmed by the fact that among Olympic lifters, men are almost always stronger than women. b. is disconfirmed, because Burt's sister can do more pushups than he can. c. allows us to accurately predict how much weight individuals can lift if we know their gender. d. is only true with respect to the average strength of men and women. ANSWER: d 241. The act of putting people into categories results in: a. underestimating the variability within those categories. b. overestimating the variability within those categories. c. noticing the uniqueness of each person in those categories. d. underestimating the differences between categories. ANSWER: a 242. Which statement accurately summarizes the relationship between stereotyping and perceived variability? a. Stereotyping increases perceived variability within categories. b. Stereotyping increases perceived variability within and between categories. c. Stereotyping decreases perceived variability within categories. d. Stereotyping decreases perceived variability within and between categories. ANSWER: c 243. People are likely to _____ judge the distance between Memphis, Tennessee, and Pierre, South Dakota, as _____, relative to the distance between Memphis, Tennessee, and Toronto, Canada. a. inaccurately; shorter b. inaccurately; longer c. accurately; shorter d. accurately; longer ANSWER: a 244. Which statement BEST illustrates underestimating the variability within a category? a. Football players come in all shapes and sizes. b. Most professional football players come from lower socioeconomic backgrounds. c. Professional football players are stronger than are accountants. d. Professional football players are faster than are accountants. ANSWER: b 245. Which statement BEST illustrates underestimating the variability within a category? a. Artists are, on average, more socially liberal than are chief executive officers. b. Artists are not as strong or as aggressive as are collegiate wrestlers. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. Artists' personalities are high in openness to experience and low in conscientiousness. d. Artists tend to show more right-brain activation than do controls when asked to mold something out of clay. ANSWER: c 246. The tendency for people to see what they expect to see is termed: a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. perceptual confirmation. c. behavioral confirmation. d. subtyping. ANSWER: b 247. Perceptual confirmation would be present when judging a _____ as performing above average. a. librarian who is playing death metal guitar b. senator performing stand-up comedy c. clumsy person in a dance competition d. tall person playing basketball ANSWER: d 248. Professor Summers, who believes that women are innately unsuited for science, is much more likely to notice the mistakes of his lab assistants who are women. His behavior is an example of: a. behavioral confirmation. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. perceptual confirmation. d. the actor–observer effect. ANSWER: c 249. A phenomenon whereby targets behave as observers expect them to behave is called: a. behavioral confirmation. b. perceptual confirmation. c. the actor–observer effect. d. the fundamental attribution error. ANSWER: a 250. Another term for behavioral confirmation is: a. subtyping. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. the actor–observer effect. d. the fundamental attribution error. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 251. A target's fear of confirming stereotypes that others may hold is termed: a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. perceptual confirmation. c. informational influence. d. the stereotype threat. ANSWER: d 252. Which statement BEST describes the concept of stereotype threat? a. Your expectations about a target may lead you to unfairly overuse a stereotype. b. Under observation, targets belonging to a negatively stereotyped group may become anxious, and their performance may confirm that stereotype. c. People tend to have negative perceptions of target individuals who deviate from gender stereotypes. d. When a target individual clearly disconfirms an observer's stereotype, the observer may feel threatened. ANSWER: b 253. Suppose that students were given two tests. Before the tests, students were told that men usually do better than women do on test A but not on test B. Which set of results would be predicted by the literature on stereotype threat? a. Women performed more poorly than men did on both tests. b. Women performed better than men did on test A but more poorly than men did on test B. c. Women performed better than men did on both tests. d. Women performed more poorly than men did on test A but did just as well as men did on test B. ANSWER: d 254. When Fritz was growing up, his parents frequently told him he was "no good" and wouldn't amount to anything. Fritz grew up to be a bitter, angry, destructive adult. His parents said, "We always knew this would happen." This result is an example of: a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the actor–observer effect. c. deindividuation. d. behavioral confirmation. ANSWER: d 255. When a person clearly disconfirms an observer's stereotype, the observer may create a new subcategory in order to retain the stereotype. This behavior is called: a. stereotype plasticity. b. cognitive dissonance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. subtyping. d. flex-typing. ANSWER: c 256. Donald is prejudiced against LGBTQ people. His best friend, Mike, is gay, but Donald says, "But he's different from the others." This rationalization is an illustration of: a. subtyping. b. stereotype threat. c. perceptual confirmation. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy. ANSWER: a 257. Stereotypes often cannot be avoided, even if we try to correct for them, because they happen: a. unconsciously. b. subconsciously. c. automatically. d. perceptually. ANSWER: c 258. Mitzi realizes that she is clutching her purse tightly when she passes a large tattooed man on the street and gets angry at herself for doing so. Yet, she cannot stop this behavior because it happens: a. unconsciously. b. subconsciously. c. automatically. d. perceptually. ANSWER: c 259. People are often not aware of the stereotypes they use, which BEST illustrates the fact that stereotypes often occur: a. unconsciously. b. reflexively. c. automatically. d. perceptually. ANSWER: a 260. When data analysis revealed to a professor that he unknowingly graded essays written by Black students slightly more critically than he did those written by White students, the professor adopted a new policy whereby he would grade all essays with no knowledge of who wrote them. Prior to this intervention, the professor was exhibiting a(n) _____ stereotype. a. unconscious and automatic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice b. subliminal and automatic c. threat and automatic d. conscious yet automatic ANSWER: a 261. Black and White participants were shown pictures for less than 1 second of White and Black men carrying either guns or cameras. Participants were instructed to "shoot" the men carrying guns by pressing a button. What were the results of the study? a. White, but not Black, participants were more likely to mistake a camera for a gun if it was held by a Black man. b. White and Black participants were more likely to mistake a camera for a gun if it was held by a Black man. c. White, but not Black, participants usually correctly identified a gun held by a White man. d. White and Black participants usually correctly identified a gun when held by a White man. ANSWER: b 262. Which of these instruments can identify automatic prejudices based on how easily people learn to associate two things? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Implicit Association Test c. Differential Ability Scale d. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator ANSWER: b 263. Experiments using the Implicit Association Test have found that _____ of White participants have an easier time associating a Black face with a negative concept and a White face with a positive concept, than the other way around. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 70% ANSWER: d 264. Experiments using the Implicit Association Test have found that _____ of Black participants have an easier time associating a Black face with a negative concept and a White face with a positive concept, than the other way around. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 70% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 265. Which statement about stereotypes is false? a. People may have stereotypes and not even realize it. b. People cannot simply decide not to be influenced by a stereotype. c. People often take notice of events that confirm their stereotypes. d. The undesirable consequences of stereotypes are inevitable. ANSWER: d 266. Specialized training can help people to: a. decide not to use stereotypes. b. learn to keep stereotypes from influencing their behavior. c. learn to change stereotypes from automatic to willed. d. learn to cognitively restructure stereotypes. ANSWER: b 267. Police officers received specialized training to reduce the effects of stereotypes on their job performance. Then they were shown pictures for less than 1 second of White and Black men carrying either guns or cameras. The officers were instructed to "shoot" the men carrying guns by pressing a button. Compared with officers who did not receive the specialized training, the officers who did receive the training: a. nevertheless shot just as many Black men carrying cameras, despite reporting that they actively tried to suppress their stereotype. b. were less likely to shoot Black men carrying cameras, although it still took longer to determine that the held object was a camera if the suspect was Black relative to White. c. quickly discriminated guns versus cameras for both races and were less likely to shoot either race carrying cameras. d. shot more White men carrying cameras than they did Black men carrying cameras, indicating overcompensation. ANSWER: b 268. Which technique has been shown to be effective at reducing the negative automatic stereotypes related to Black people? a. empathy training b. perspective-taking exercises c. reading stories of Black people who defy stereotypes d. thinking about people's common humanity ANSWER: c 269. Mr. Teutschel is a 5th-grade teacher who wishes to reduce the undesirable effects of negative stereotypes against Black people. Which strategy would be MOST effective? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. providing examples of Black people who defy stereotypes to his students b. providing empathy training to his students c. teaching about racial injustice d. leading a discussion with his students about people's common humanity ANSWER: a 270. Researchers blindfolded participants and had them engage in everyday tasks in an effort to determine if such a perspective-taking exercise would modify their beliefs about blind people. After participants completed the tasks blindfolded, the researchers interviewed them and found that the participants: a. unexpectedly exhibited less compassion for blind persons. b. accurately predicted the abilities of blind persons but did not increase their compassion. c. had more compassion for but underestimated the abilities of blind persons. d. had more compassion for and overestimated the abilities of blind persons. ANSWER: c 271. Inferences about the causes of people's behavior are called _____ by social psychologists. a. attributions b. stereotypes c. deductions d. inductions ANSWER: a 272. Sandi tells her friends that her father won't let her go with them to the movies. She explains that his overly protective behavior is the result of him having had a bad week at work. This is an example of: a. an attribution. b. a disposition. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy. ANSWER: a 273. Coach Perez believes that Ashley's blazing fastball and wicked curveball resulted in her having the best win–loss record of any pitcher in her softball league this season. This type of attribution is called: a. distinctive. b. situational. c. inferential. d. dispositional. ANSWER: d 274. Coach Perez believes that Ashley's record for strikeouts in one game was due more to the other team's lack of talent than it was to Ashley's ability. This type of attribution is called: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. distinctive. b. situational. c. inferential. d. dispositional. ANSWER: b 275. Professor Mortensen believes that Assunta's failing grade on her most recent examination was due to her having three other exams that day. Professor Mortensen is making a(n) _____ attribution. a. distinctive b. situational c. inferential d. dispositional ANSWER: b 276. Which factor is NOT a component of the attribution decision process? a. motivated b. consistency c. distinctiveness d. consensual ANSWER: a 277. The question "Do most people perform this action?" is related to the _____ component of the attribution process. a. motivated b. consistency c. distinctiveness d. consensual ANSWER: d 278. Dispositional attributions are made when an action is: a. consistent, distinctive, and consensual. b. consistent, distinctive, and nonconsensual. c. consistent, not distinctive, and nonconsensual. d. inconsistent, not distinctive, and nonconsensual. ANSWER: c 279. Situational attributions are made when an action is: a. consistent, distinctive, and consensual. b. consistent, distinctive, and nonconsensual. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. inconsistent, not distinctive, and nonconsensual. d. inconsistent, distinctive, and consensual. ANSWER: d 280. Dee Dee skipped class on Friday. Under what circumstances would Professor Melnick be MOST likely to make a dispositional attribution about Dee Dee's action? a. He always skips Professor Melnick's class, he rarely skips other professors' classes, and Professor Melnick's class is not well attended. b. He always skips Professor Melnick's class, he skips other professors' classes, and Professor Melnick's class is well attended. c. He rarely skips Professor Melnick's class, he rarely skips other professors' classes, and Professor Melnick's class is not well attended. d. He rarely skips Professor Melnick's class, he skips other professors' classes, and Professor Melnick's class is well attended. ANSWER: b 281. Dee Dee skipped class on Friday. Under what circumstances would Professor Melnick be MOST likely to make a situational attribution about Dee Dee's action? a. He always skips Professor Melnick's class, he often skips other professors' classes, and Professor Melnick's class is not well attended. b. He always skips Professor Melnick's class, he is failing the course, and Professor Melnick's class is well attended. c. He rarely skips Professor Melnick's class, he is otherwise a good student, and Professor Melnick's class is not well attended. d. He rarely skips Professor Melnick's class, he is struggling with the course material, and Professor Melnick's class is well attended. ANSWER: c 282. The behavior of another person typically is attributed to a situational cause when that behavior is: a. consistently performed, typical of their similar actions, and routinely performed by other people in similar circumstances. b. consistently performed, typical of their similar actions, and not routinely performed by other people in similar circumstances. c. rarely performed, not typical of their similar actions, and routinely performed by other people in similar circumstances. d. rarely performed, not typical of their similar actions, and not routinely performed by other people in similar circumstances. ANSWER: c 283. The tendency to make a dispositional attribution, even when a person's behavior was caused by the situation, is termed: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. the actor–observer effect. b. dispositional confirmation. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the fundamental disposition error. ANSWER: c 284. The tendency to overestimate the dispositional causes of a person's behavior while failing to adequately take into account the effects of the situation is called: a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the actor–observer effect. c. dispositional confirmation. d. the primacy effect. ANSWER: a 285. Students smile and listen attentively as Professor Lee delivers her lecture. They laugh at her jokes, and a few even applaud when she finishes. After class, Professor Lee is MOST likely to think that: a. the course material was fascinating and that most professors would get the same reaction. b. the students are trying to suck up to her because she controls their grades. c. the students are conducting a social psychology experiment on her by pretending to be interested in the class. d. she is a superb lecturer. ANSWER: d 286. Which statement about dispositional and situational causes of behavior is true? a. Dispositional causes of behavior are underreported. b. People find it difficult to use information about dispositional causes of behavior. c. Information about situations is difficult to obtain. d. Situational attributions require less time and attention. ANSWER: c 287. If Franco is asked why he dates Angel, according to the actor–observer effect, what reason would he give for his behavior? a. Angel is good-looking. b. He is desperate. c. He needs Angel. d. He likes Angel's sense of humor. ANSWER: a 288. Bin Wang explains that he chose to major in business management because his parents insisted that he should be self-sufficient when he graduates; he describes his friend's choice of a nursing major as the result of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice their caring, compassionate nature. This is an example of: a. rationalization. b. the actor–observer effect. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. informational influence. ANSWER: b 289. Felipe yells at a bank teller because of a mistake in his savings account. Observers are likely to think Felipe is a rude, quarrelsome person. Felipe, however, would probably attribute his angry outburst to the frustrating situation of waiting in line and dealing with a surly teller. This apparent contradiction illustrates: a. perceptual confirmation. b. the covariation model of attribution. c. the actor–observer effect. d. normative influence. ANSWER: c 290. Selena and Haley go to a party on Thursday night and then each does very poorly on their calculus exam the next morning. According to the actor–observer effect, Selena is more likely to attribute her own performance to _____ and Haley's performance to _____. a. not studying; sleep deprivation b. drinking too much alcohol; not studying c. her own stupidity; not studying d. sleep deprivation; having poor math skills ANSWER: d 291. The actor–observer effect occurs primarily because people have: a. access to information about the situational factors influencing their own behavior. b. greater information about the situational factors influencing others. c. a strong motivation to protect their self-image. d. a strong motivation to view themselves as being better than are others. ANSWER: a 292. People are more likely to make dispositional attributions about their behavior when they: a. are mindful of the causes of their behavior. b. are placed in powerful situations. c. compare themselves to others. d. watch themselves behave on video. ANSWER: d 293. The ability to change or direct another person's behavior is termed: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice a. obedience. b. social influence. c. central-route persuasion. d. social behavior. ANSWER: b 294. Which type of motive is NOT one of the basic motives that makes a person susceptible to social influence? a. hedonic b. approval c. accuracy d. equity ANSWER: d 295. The _____ motive states that people are motivated to seek pleasure and avoid pain. a. hedonic b. animalistic c. fundamental d. approval ANSWER: a 296. The _____ motive states that people are motivated to be accepted and to avoid being rejected. a. hedonic b. in-group c. belonging d. approval ANSWER: d 297. The _____ motive states that people are motivated to believe what is right and to avoid believing what is wrong. a. persuasive b. accuracy c. validity d. hedonic ANSWER: b 298. The MOST basic of motives is: a. reproducing. b. pair bonding. c. social approval. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. pleasure seeking. ANSWER: d 299. A government that institutes tax breaks for individuals who drive fuel-efficient cars is appealing to the _____ motive. a. hedonic b. normative c. social exchange d. approval ANSWER: a 300. A government that imposes harsh penalties for minor crimes is attempting to change the behavior of its citizenry by exploiting the _____ motive. a. obedience b. hedonic c. punishment d. approval ANSWER: b 301. A government that attempts to control the behavior of a rival nation by using the "carrot and stick" method, in which desirable actions are incentivized and undesirable actions produce undesirable economic sanctions, is exploiting the _____ motive. a. approval b. accuracy c. social exchange d. hedonic ANSWER: d 302. When Massachusetts increased the penalty for speeding among teenage drivers, this appeal to the _____ motive actually _____. a. hedonic; worked and saved lives b. hedonic; backfired and increased traffic fatalities c. approval; worked and saved lives d. approval; backfired and increased traffic fatalities ANSWER: a 303. Systems of rewards and punishment can backfire because: a. most people reject the theoretical views of the behaviorists. b. the effectiveness of rewards has been validated only in animal models. c. people do not like to feel coerced. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. rewards and punishers tend to cancel out the effectiveness of the other. ANSWER: c 304. The _____ occurs when an expected reward decreases a person's intrinsic motivation to perform a behavior. a. reactance effect b. overjustification effect c. fundamental attribution error d. hedonic motive ANSWER: b 305. Children given rewards for drawing pictures with markers were less likely to use the markers when the rewards were discontinued. This is an example of the: a. reactance effect. b. overjustification effect. c. fundamental attribution error. d. stereotype threat. ANSWER: b 306. After he started getting paid to play guitar at gigs, Alan lost his love for it and found it difficult to make himself practice. This is an example of the: a. reactance effect. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. overjustification effect. ANSWER: d 307. Jermaine's parents decided to start rewarding him for earning good grades by paying him $20 for each "A" he brought home. A year later, his parents stopped paying him to bring home good grades, and for the first time Jermaine felt little motivation to keep up with his studies. This is an example of the: a. reactance effect. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. overjustification effect. ANSWER: d 308. A booklover who gets a paid job reviewing best-sellers for a newspaper becomes less motivated to read for pleasure. This is an example of: a. the overjustification effect. b. the actor-observer effect. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. reactance. ANSWER: a 309. People tend to write graffiti underneath signs that threaten punishment for writing graffiti. This is an example of: a. reactance. b. the actor–observer effect. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. overjustification effect. ANSWER: a 310. Irina's toddler was being too loud, and she warned him that if he didn't quiet down, he would be sent to timeout. Irina's toddler then looked at her defiantly and started screaming. This is an example of: a. the actor–observer effect. b. reactance. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the overjustification effect. ANSWER: b 311. Customary standards for behavior that are widely shared by members of a culture are called: a. attitudes. b. laws. c. norms. d. stereotypes. ANSWER: c 312. _____ occurs when another person's behavior provides information about what is appropriate in a given situation. a. The norm of reciprocity b. Normative influence c. Peripheral-route persuasion d. Diffusion of responsibility ANSWER: b 313. Children quickly learn not to talk in elevators due to which principle? a. peripheral-route persuasion b. informational influence c. normative influence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. central-route persuasion ANSWER: c 314. Yasmine took her cousin Jade out to lunch and picked up the tab. Jade said, "Thanks. I'll pay next time." Jade's response demonstrates which principle? a. the foot-in-the-door technique b. conformity c. altruism d. norm of reciprocity ANSWER: d 315. People are more likely to leave bigger tips if the server gives them a piece of candy with their bill due to: a. the foot-in-the-door technique. b. the norm of reciprocity. c. central-route persuasion. d. the door-in-the-face technique. ANSWER: b 316. Instead of leaving $1 in a singer's tip jar, Oskar feels obligated to drop in at least $5 because the jar is full of $5 and $10 bills. His decision to spend more than what he otherwise would is due to: a. the norm of reciprocity. b. central-route persuasion. c. obedience. d. normative influence. ANSWER: d 317. Feivish asked his roommate if he could borrow $50; his roommate refused. Then Feivish asked if he could borrow just $10, and his roommate lent him the money. This is an example of: a. the door-in-the-face technique. b. the foot-in-the-door technique. c. central-route persuasion. d. peripheral-route persuasion. ANSWER: a 318. The door-in-the-face technique works because of: a. deindividuation. b. the norm of reciprocity. c. central-route persuasion. d. peripheral-route persuasion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 319. The tendency to do what others are doing simply because they are doing it is called: a. persuasion. b. obedience. c. conformity. d. the actor–observer effect. ANSWER: c 320. The classic experiments investigating conformity were performed by: a. Stanley Milgram. b. Solomon Asch. c. Darla French. d. Daniel M. Wegner. ANSWER: b 321. When actors in Solomon Asch's line-judging experiment all gave the wrong answer on the third trial, after providing correct answers on the first and second trials, the actual participant provided the: a. correct answer. b. correct answer only if they had discerned that the other participants were really actors. c. incorrect answer. d. incorrect answer only if they were confused about which of the alternatives was actually correct. ANSWER: c 322. In Solomon Asch's classic experiments investigating conformity, about _____ of the participants conformed and gave an obviously incorrect answer on at least one of the trials. a. 35% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% ANSWER: c 323. Which "message card" would be MOST effective in influencing hotel guests to reuse their bathroom towels? a. "Seventy-five percent of our guests use their towels more than once." b. "Reusing your towel is friendly to the environment." c. "Reusing your towel helps management keep room costs down." d. "Reusing your towel saves 50 gallons of water." ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 324. The tendency to do what powerful people tell us to do, simply because they tell us to do it, is known as: a. persuasion. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. conformity. d. obedience. ANSWER: d 325. The classic experiments investigating obedience to authority were conducted by: a. Stanley Milgram. b. Solomon Asch. c. Phillip Zimbardo. d. Leon Festinger. ANSWER: a 326. In Stanley Milgram's classic experiment investigating obedience, the learners: a. were actually the true participants. b. were trained actors. c. received painful shocks. d. obeyed the teachers. ANSWER: b 327. Which example illustrates the use of "social norming" to reduce alcohol use on college campuses? a. increasing penalties for alcohol possession until it is the norm not to drink b. providing information to students about how much the average college student really drinks c. emphasizing that it is OK not to be "normal" and abstain from drinking at parties d. providing alcohol-free social events that compete with the drinking culture ANSWER: b 328. What did the experimenter in the Stanley Milgram obedience studies do to get the participants to continue shocking the learner? a. offered them a monetary reward b. threatened to lower their grade in their psychology class c. calmly instructed the participants to continue d. told them all the previous participants had performed the task ANSWER: c 329. What percentage of Stanley Milgram's "teachers" delivered the highest possible voltage to the learner? a. 38% b. 50% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice c. 62% d. 88% ANSWER: c 330. In the Stanley Milgram obedience experiments, "teachers" rarely obeyed the experimenter's instructions when the: a. experimenter wasn't wearing a lab coat. b. learner became silent. c. experimenter calmly told them to continue. d. learner complained of heart trouble. ANSWER: a 331. In the Stanley Milgram obedience experiments, the reason teachers obeyed the experimenter and delivered what they believed were potentially lethal shocks to innocent learners was because of: a. the fear of punishment. b. normative pressure. c. the door-in-the-face technique. d. central-route persuasion. ANSWER: b 332. The enduring evaluation of a stimulus, positive or negative, is called a(n): a. belief. b. norm. c. attitude. d. opinion. ANSWER: c 333. The enduring piece of knowledge about a stimulus is called a(n): a. norm. b. opinion. c. attitude. d. belief. ANSWER: d 334. When a person's behavior is guided by the behavior of those believed to know something about what is true, the person is acting according to _____ influence. a. informational b. educational c. peripheral-route Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. normative ANSWER: a 335. One person stands on the sidewalk, looks up, and stares at the top of a tall building. Other people then do the same. This phenomenon is an example of: a. informational influence. b. obedience. c. the actor–observer effect. d. perceptual confirmation. ANSWER: a 336. Producers of TV comedy shows sometimes use laugh tracks. These producers are subjecting viewers to: a. peripheral-routes. b. informational influence. c. group norms. d. the norm of reciprocity. ANSWER: b 337. A salesperson who tells a potential car buyer that most people pay the extra money to purchase an extended warranty is making use of: a. the door-in-the-face technique. b. informational influence. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. d. the norm of reciprocity. ANSWER: b 338. Political candidates are eager to gather endorsements from movie stars and famous athletes, knowing that these endorsements will evoke emotional arousal and influence people to vote for them. This technique is termed _____ persuasion. a. central-route b. rational c. non-reactive d. peripheral-route ANSWER: d 339. Political candidates often vow to win your vote by using _____ but spend most of their time and money trying to win your vote by using _____. a. peripheral-route persuasion; central-route persuasion b. central-route persuasion; peripheral-route persuasion c. informational influence; normative influence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. informational influence; central-route persuasion ANSWER: b 340. Print ads for cars are more likely to present a lot of facts about the automobile, whereas print ads for clothing typically show an attractive model. The car manufacturers are relying on _____ persuasion. a. central-route b. peripheral-route c. hedonic d. reactive ANSWER: a 341. Print ads for cars are more likely to present a lot of facts about the automobile, whereas print ads for clothing typically show an attractive model. The clothing manufacturers are relying on _____ persuasion. a. central-route b. peripheral-route c. hedonic d. reactive ANSWER: b 342. Peripheral-route persuasion works because: a. people are motivated to scrutinize the facts presented in a message. b. listeners are already swayed in the direction of the attitude change message. c. people pay attention to aspects of the message other than the facts themselves. d. listeners recognize the expertise of a celebrity endorsing a highly technical product. ANSWER: c 343. Your friend wants you to major in psychology. If your friend is using peripheral-route persuasion, they might: a. list reasons psychology is a good major for you. b. explain how psychology applies to various career choices. c. tell you about all the famous people who were psychology majors. d. leave psychology textbooks lying around your room. ANSWER: c 344. When students were highly motivated to analyze arguments by a Princeton professor or a high school student because they would be personally affected by them, their attitudes were more influenced by: a. the Princeton professor. b. the high school student. c. whichever person gave the strongest argument. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. whichever person used peripheral-route persuasion techniques. ANSWER: c 345. When students were NOT motivated to analyze arguments by a Princeton professor or a high school student because they would be personally affected by them, their attitudes were more influenced by: a. the Princeton professor. b. the high school student. c. whichever person gave the strongest argument. d. whichever person gave the shortest argument. ANSWER: b 346. Senior psychology majors listened to a speaker who promoted the funding of a cutting-edge neuroscience lab at their university that would be available for student use within the next 5 years. According to research investigating persuasion, these seniors would be MOST influenced by: a. the status of the speaker. b. the strength of the facts. c. their relative level of excitement about the neuroscience lab. d. their personal cost–benefit analysis of the necessity for the neuroscience lab. ANSWER: a 347. People are motivated to evaluate the consistency of their beliefs because doing so: a. makes it less likely that they will fall prey to the foot-in-the-door technique. b. makes it less likely that they will fall prey to the door-in-the-face technique. c. is a means of avoiding the pitfalls of behavioral confirmation. d. is a means of evaluating the accuracy of new beliefs. ANSWER: d 348. A technique that involves making a small request and then following it with a larger request is known as the _____ technique. a. door-in-the-face b. face-in-the-door c. foot-in-the-mouth d. foot-in-the-door ANSWER: d 349. When a vacuum cleaner salesperson persuades a potential customer to vacuum the living room for free, it is likely to increase the chances that the seller will make a sale. The salesperson is using the _____ technique. a. door-in-the-face b. face-in-the-door c. foot-in-the-face Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. foot-in-the-door ANSWER: d 350. The foot-in-the-door technique works because of: a. reciprocal concessions. b. our desire for consistency. c. peripheral-route persuasion. d. central-route persuasion. ANSWER: b 351. The unpleasant state that arises when people recognize the inconsistency of their actions, attitudes, or beliefs is called: a. cognitive dissonance. b. the actor–observer effect. c. the self-fulfilling prophecy. d. deindividuation. ANSWER: a 352. The fact that people often come to love the things that they had to sacrifice a great deal to obtain illustrates the effects of: a. the foot-in-the-door technique. b. cognitive dissonance. c. the door-in-the-face technique. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy. ANSWER: b 353. Elliot Aronson and Jud Mills (1958) demonstrated that women were more likely to enjoy an extremely boring discussion about sex if, in order to join the discussion, they first had to: a. have sex with their romantic partner. b. complete a 2-mile jog. c. read sexy fiction to a stranger. d. eat chocolate. ANSWER: c 354. Isabel told her friend Ella that her new outfit was "very stylish," even though she thought the outfit was quite unflattering to Ella. Afterward, Isabel is likely to: a. show remorse for lying to Ella. b. come to believe that the outfit really is very stylish. c. not experience cognitive dissonance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Multiple Choice d. come to believe that Ella really isn't that good a friend. ANSWER: c 355. In a classic experiment investigating cognitive dissonance, some participants were paid $1 for lying and telling another person that a boring task was fun, whereas others were paid $20 for telling the same lie. When participants later rated how enjoyable the boring task actually was: a. the $1 group rated the task as more enjoyable than did the $20 group. b. the $20 group rated the task as more enjoyable than did the $1 group. c. both groups gave the task equal ratings of extremely high enjoyability. d. both groups gave the task equal ratings of extremely low enjoyability. ANSWER: a

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario Scenario 13.1 describes research findings discussed in the following review article: Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "divider" or the "decider" by a coin flip. The divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the decider. If the decider accepts, they get to keep what was offered and the divider keeps the rest. If the decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, dividers usually offer a little less than $5 and deciders usually accept this amount. If dividers offer less, deciders often reject and both players get nothing. A similar game is called the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "allocator" or the "receiver." The allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money they would like to give the receiver, who must accept this result. Allocators in this game usually offer some money to the receiver that is typically less than they offer the dividers in the ultimatum game. 1. (Scenario 13.1) Skeptics of the results of the original ultimatum game criticized the research for drawing conclusions based on games involving small amounts of money not representative of important real-life economic decisions. This was a criticism associated with the _____ of the research. a. reliability b. internal validity c. external validity d. statistical significance ANSWER: c 2. (Scenario 13.1) Which factor is studied in the ultimatum game but not in the dictator game? a. cooperation b. altruism c. heuristic persuasion d. prejudice ANSWER: a 3. (Scenario 13.1) In a single $10 ultimatum game, if both players behaved independently without cooperating or retaliating, and sought to maximize their individual earnings: a. dividers would offer exactly $5, and deciders would accept. b. dividers would offer a little less than $5, and deciders would accept. c. dividers would offer a penny, and deciders would accept. d. dividers would offer a penny, and deciders would reject. ANSWER: c 4. (Scenario 13.1) In the ultimatum game, the behavior of the _____ is of the most theoretical interest to psychologists and economists because _____. a. divider; it demonstrates a form of altruism that may or may not be reciprocated Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario b. divider; it attempts to offer the lowest amount deemed acceptable by the partner c. decider; accepting any offer less than $5 is the equivalent of paying money to cooperate d. decider; rejecting any offer whatsoever is the equivalent of paying money to punish the decider ANSWER: d 5. (Scenario 13.1) Consider the real-world observation that lottery winners tend to give away more of their money to friends and family than self-made millionaires give to theirs. Using the dictator game, which strategy is the BEST way to model this phenomenon in the laboratory? a. studying differences in allocator behavior when the sum of money ranges from small to large b. comparing typical performance with a modification in which the winner of a game of skill gets to be the allocator c. studying allocator behavior under conditions where the receiver is either a friend or a stranger d. comparing allocations to receivers who are either friends or strangers in a game in which the allocator's own money is used ANSWER: b 6. (Scenario 13.1) Replications of the ultimatum game with larger pots of money have found results similar to the original experiments. Which real-world anecdote is consistent with results from a large-stakes ultimatum game? a. As the economic magnitude of a sale increases, the seller is more likely to adopt a door-in-the-face technique and begin with a high sticker price before negotiating to a fair price. b. A home seller would rather foreclose and lose everything than accept a low-ball offer from a buyer. c. Credit card companies vary interest rates and credit limits based on the risk associated with the credit applicant. d. Rather than risk not being signed by another team as a free agent, a veteran soccer player accepts a below-league-average salary to remain with their team. ANSWER: b 7. (Scenario 13.1) In the ultimatum game, the decision to reject an offer has been interpreted in different ways. One explanation is that deciders seek, on principle alone, to exact retribution on dividers who offer unfair deals. Another explanation is that rejecting unfair offers is part of a strategy to help ensure more fair deals in the future. Which strategy is the BEST way to evaluate these two explanations? a. Determine if deciders are more or less likely to reject an unfair deal in which the dividers change from trial to trial. b. Determine if deciders are more or less likely to reject an unfair deal in multiple-trial games when they are always the decider versus games in which they alternate between being the divider and the decider. c. Determine if deciders would be equally likely to reject an unfair deal in the traditional game relative to scenario in which they were told that the divider usually makes fair deals. d. Determine if deciders in multiple-trial games are more or less likely to reject an unfair deal if the deal on the previous trial also was rejected. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario ANSWER: a 8. (Scenario 13.1) Which research finding suggests that participants are more concerned with appearing fair than they are with being fair? a. Dividers offer about 50 percent of the pot to the decider, even when the pot size is substantially increased. b. Dividers usually increase their next offer if the previous offer was rejected. c. Dividers offer more money than do allocators. d. Allocators offer money to receivers when it is not required. ANSWER: c Scenario 13.2 contains fabricated results consistent with the following study: Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argument-based persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a small request that consumers are likely to grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then following it with a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion (also known as the peripheral route), which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion (also known as the central route), which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Richard Petty and his colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques among college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment enlisted six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 13.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 13.1

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario

9. (Scenario 13.2) Which factor is NOT an independent variable in the Petty, Cacioppo, and Goldman experiment? a. degree of agreement or disagreement with the arguments b. authority of the speaker c. argument quality d. time of policy change ANSWER: a 10. (Scenario 13.2) The door-in-the-face technique works primarily because people: a. feel pressure to reciprocate a concession. b. are strongly influenced by the motivation to be consistent. c. experience a strong state of cognitive dissonance. d. are systematically persuaded with each escalating request. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 13.2) Which example describes systematic persuasion? a. a political party first asking for an email address, then a $5 donation, then a $25 donation, and finally a $100 donation b. an automobile manufacturer marketing its car with commercials suggesting driving it will increase sexual appeal c. a college student trying to convince a professor to excuse an absence by reminding the professor of their own teenage years d. a teenager trying to convince parents that marijuana is not dangerous by showing them a number of scientific studies that support that argument while conveniently not presenting the ones that show the drug is far from harmless ANSWER: d 12. (Scenario 13.2) The foot-in-the-door technique works primarily because people: a. feel pressure to reciprocate a concession. b. are strongly influenced by the motivation to be consistent. c. rely on heuristics introduced by the smaller request. d. are systematically persuaded with each escalating request. ANSWER: b 13. (Scenario 13.2) In the Petty, Cacioppo, and Goldman experiment, the purpose of manipulating the time that the policy would go into effect was to: a. get participants to default to a "time is money" heuristic. b. alter motivation levels to attend to the arguments. c. use the foot-in-the-door technique by first telling students that the policy change was a decade away. d. use the door-in-the-face technique by first telling students that the change was imminent. ANSWER: b 14. (Scenario 13.2) In the Petty, Cacioppo, and Goldman experiment, which example BEST describes a heuristic, or a shortcut used during decision making? a. speaker authority b. argument quality c. the time frame associated with the policy change d. participants' understanding of the arguments ANSWER: a 15. (Scenario 13.2) The results shown in Figure 13.1 indicate that college students were heuristically persuaded when the: a. argument was strong. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario b. policy change was far in the future. c. Princeton professor presented a weak argument about an imminent policy change. d. high school student presented a strong argument about an imminent policy change. ANSWER: b 16. (Scenario 13.2) The results shown in Figure 13.1 indicate that college students were systematically persuaded when the: a. argument was strong. b. policy change was far in the future. c. Princeton professor presented a strong argument about a delayed policy change. d. high school student presented a strong argument about an imminent policy change. ANSWER: d Scenario 13.3 describes research findings from the following sources: Cuddy, A. J. C., Fiske, S. T., & Glick, P. (2007). The BIAS map: Behaviors from intergroup affect and stereotypes. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 92(4), 631–648. Cuddy, A. J. C., Fiske, S. T., & Glick, P. (2008). Warmth and competence as universal dimensions of social perception: The stereotype content model and the BIAS map. In M. P. Zanna (Ed.), Advances in experimental social psychology (Vol. 40, pp. 61–149). San Diego, CA: Elsevier Academic Press. The world has become smaller through globalization, and people are increasingly exposed to others who differ from them in a variety of ways. Amy Cuddy, Susan Fiske, and Peter Glick (2007) argued that people quickly perceive others on the dimensions of warmth and competence. Someone who is warm can be described as goodnatured and friendly. Someone who is competent can be described as intelligent and skillful. These perceptions then form the basis of attitudes, emotions, stereotypes, and behavior. People who are judged to be warm and competent tend to elicit positive attitudes and emotions, whereas people judged to be cold and incompetent elicit negative ones. These then form the basis of positive and negative stereotypes, respectively. Of course, people can be judged as high on one dimension and low on another. In these cases, ambivalent stereotypes result. Amy Cuddy and her colleagues (2007) asked participants to judge 20 U.S. social groups (e.g., the rich, older people, people experiencing homelessness) on these two dimensions. The results were plotted on a twodimensional map with competence on the x-axis. For example, participants judged people who were experiencing homelessness to be low on both dimensions, and thus this group appeared graphically in the lower left quadrant of the map. The relative locations of groups on the map may reveal stereotypes. For example, participants consistently ranked White people higher than Hispanic people on the warmth dimension, despite research demonstrating that this stereotype is false. 17. (Scenario 13.3) A renowned researcher who is notoriously harsh on their students probably would be judged _____ in warmth and _____ incompetence. a. low; low b. low; high c. high; low Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario d. high; high ANSWER: b 18. (Scenario 13.3) Cuddy, Fiske, and Glick theorized that the most positive attitudes and emotions would be elicited by groups that appear in the _____ of the two-dimensional map. a. lower left b. upper left c. lower right d. upper right ANSWER: d 19. (Scenario 13.3) A rich person who arrogantly flaunts their wealth MOST likely would appear in which quadrant of the two-dimensional map? a. lower left b. upper left c. lower right d. upper right ANSWER: c 20. (Scenario 13.3) Which group might be MOST expected to yield ambivalent stereotypes? a. Christians b. people with higher levels of education c. people with intellectual disabilities d. people who are experiencing homelessness ANSWER: c 21. (Scenario 13.3) Which group might be LEAST expected to yield ambivalent stereotypes? a. people who are wealthy b. those who are more highly educated c. people with intellectual disabilities d. older individuals ANSWER: b 22. (Scenario 13.3) Cuddy, Fiske, and Glick found that men and women appeared in different spatial locations, illustrating well-known gender stereotypes. Specifically, men appeared _____ and to the _____ of women. a. above; left b. above; right c. below; left Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 13 Scenario d. below; right ANSWER: d 23. (Scenario 13.3) Cuddy, Fiske, and Glick proposed that judgments of warmth and competence trigger different emotions. Which pattern of judgments might be expected to trigger pity? a. low in warmth and competence b. low in warmth but high in competence c. high in warmth but low in competence d. high in warmth and competence ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 14 Essay 1. Explain the relevance of the findings presented by Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe regarding the cumulative effect of life events on health. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that Holmes and Rahe proposed that major life events induce stress and that cumulated stress can impair health. The notion is that the greater the number of stressful events (e.g., losing a job or experiencing the loss of a loved one) a person experiences, the more likely that person is to develop a stress-related illness in the future. Positive events (getting married, celebrating holidays) can also increase the risk of illness, highlighting the observation that it is adjustment (or, as Holmes and Rahe put it, readjustment) that contributes to the perceived stressfulness of an event. 2. Your friend Esteban has complained to you about being sick for much of the past month. He tells you that his allergies are unusually bad this semester and he has caught cold after cold. The week before finals, he found out his parents were getting a divorce, and the same week, his significant other admitted to being in love with his best friend. The dorm was so noisy he was unable to study for exams. He has tried drowning his troubles by drinking, but this only made him feel worse. What can you tell your friend about his stress level and how stress can affect his body? Include in your discussion the fight-or-flight response and the general adaptation syndrome. Then suggest at least three ways your friend can begin to address the stress in his life. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Your friend would score unusually high on the College Undergraduate Stress Scale. He has been under chronic stress most of the semester, so his immune system is badly weakened. (2) Stress is more impactful when we feel we have no control over a situation; examples in this case are your friend's parents' divorce, the loss of his significant other, and living in a crowded and noisy dorm. (3) Fight-or-flight response: First proposed by Walter Cannon, the fight-or-flight response to stress occurs in the hypothalamus, which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH, which in turn stimulates the adrenal glands to release the neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine. This sequence, called the HPA axis, arouses the sympathetic nervous system. (4) General adaptation syndrome: The phases, in order, are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. It's clear your friend experienced each of these, is currently in the exhaustion stage, and has expended considerable resources to combat the multiple stressors he faced. (5) Suggested ways your friend could try to handle stress: relaxation training, biofeedback, aerobic exercise (which causes the release of endorphins), social support (e.g., stay in contact with friends, talk), humor (e.g., watch funny movies, try to laugh at himself), try to be more optimistic despite the current negatives in his life, use self-regulation to eat healthily, and avoid sexual risks, don't smoke or abuse alcohol. 3. Explain the research focus of environmental psychology and give an example of this type of research. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that environmental psychology involves the scientific study of environmental effects on behavior and health. The notion behind this field is that our immediate environment can be a source of chronic stress. City life offers traffic noise, rural life can lead to isolation, and trying to find a happy medium can be an exercise in frustration. An example from this field is research studies in which children living under the flight path of planes at Heathrow Airport in London, England, were found to have lower levels of reading comprehension than children who were not. 4. Dr. Mwangi is giving a lecture on physical reactions involved with stress. How is she likely to describe the biological mechanisms underlying the fight-or-flight response? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the fight-or-flight response to stress was first proposed by Walter Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Essay Cannon. It occurs in the hypothalamus, which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH, which in turn stimulates the adrenal glands to release the neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine. The adrenal glands also release cortisol, which causes an increase in blood glucose levels. This sequence, called the HPA axis, arouses the sympathetic nervous system. 5. Summarize the key elements of the general adaption syndrome (GAS). ANSWER: Answers should indicate that the general adaption syndrome (GAS) is a profile of how a person responds to a stressor. In the alarm phase, the sympathetic nervous system releases hormones that prepare us to fight or flee, and we experience considerable arousal. In the second phase, resistance, arousal declines, and the body draws on resources to fight the continued presence of the stressor. In the final phase, exhaustion, the coping resources of the body are depleted, and the person is vulnerable to permanent harm and illness. 6. Angelo is the executive chef and owner of an upscale restaurant, and exhibits a Type A behavior pattern. Within the context of his job, describe some anticipated aspects of Angelo's behavior and explain why Angelo should be concerned about his cardiovascular health. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The Type A behavior pattern is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitive achievement strivings. (2) Angelo might easily become angered when employees make mistakes or the restaurant is not profitable; he might seek confrontation and verbally bully his employees and suppliers. He is likely insistent that dishes be prepared expertly in the least amount of time possible. Angelo probably is a hard worker who works long hours and is obsessed with his restaurant outperforming competitors. People exhibiting a Type A behavior pattern, especially those people prone to hostility, are at a greater risk of heart disease. 7. Illustrate the concepts of primary and secondary appraisal in the context of a high school public speaking assignment. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Primary appraisal refers to the initial interpretation of a stimulus as stressful or not. For most high school students, the task of speaking in front of others would be appraised as stressful. (2) Secondary appraisal refers to the judgment of whether the stressor is something that is manageable. For students who feel that they can handle the stressor, the public speaking assignment is viewed as a challenge. These students will prepare for the assignment and, though experiencing some stress, will be able to effectively deliver an oral presentation. For students who feel that they cannot handle the stressor, the assignment is viewed as a threat. These students may try to escape or avoid the assignment altogether or display exaggerated stress responses that severely detract from their presentations. 8. Trevor has worked at a local factory for more than 25 years. He frequently complains that he no longer has the energy to do his job. He is often cynical about his work and doesn't see the point in his job. He also doesn't remember the last time he was happy at work. What's going on with Trevor? From your knowledge of psychology and stress, what suggestions might you offer Trevor? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Trevor is obviously burned out. (2) Some psychologists believe that if you define yourself only by your career and gauge your worth only by success at work, you risk having nothing left when work fails. Others feel that some jobs, by their nature, produce unavoidable burnout. (3) Suggestions include investing more time in family, developing hobbies or other self-expressions outside work, trying stress management techniques Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Essay (e.g., relaxation training, biofeedback, social support, humor), and practicing self-regulation to ensure healthy eating and exercise. 9. Using examples, explain how people can use different coping strategies to reduce chronic stress reactions to a traumatic experience. ANSWER: This answer should include the following information: (1) One coping strategy is repressive coping, which involves avoiding situations or thoughts that are reminders of a stressor and maintaining an artificially positive viewpoint. This technique can reduce immediate stress reactions but also can produce negative long-term consequences in some people. An assault survivor engaged in repressive coping might move to another city, avoid going to places similar to the setting of the assault, and become preoccupied with safety (e.g., checking locked doors). Although this can be an effective coping strategy, for some people repressing becomes a grim preoccupation that causes additional psychological harm. (2) Rational coping involves facing the stressor and working to overcome it. Rational coping is a three-step process involving acceptance, exposure, and understanding. In this example, the first step is to accept that the traumatic experience occurred and to stop engaging in repressive denial. The second step might involve the conscious choice to relive the trauma via recording a verbal account and listening to it daily (prolonged exposure). In addition, people would be encouraged to expose themselves to the environmental circumstances associated with the trauma (e.g., a bar, a party), assuming that this is done in a safe manner. The exposure step to rational coping can be quite anxiety provoking itself; however, it is very effective at reducing long-term anxiety. Finally, trauma survivors would be encouraged to come to an understanding of the event. Specifically, they are encouraged to deal with "Why?" questions. Here, it may be useful to employ reframing techniques to alter the meaning of traumatic events in order to reduce the stress that they induce. (3) Reframing involves finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor that reduces its threat. One strategy is to utilize stress inoculation therapy to develop ways to think positively about the situation. Therapists can help their clients realize that their reactions following the traumatic experience are under their control. Here, expressive writing may help the client reframe the issue in a more constructive manner. 10. Fatima's parents are struggling to deal with multiple stressors. Most notably, due to economic hardships, the bank has foreclosed on the family home. Provide Fatima's parents with a list of strategies they might try to reduce their stress reactions and effectively cope with their financial situation. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The imminent loss of a home is something that probably cannot be effectively repressed. Therefore, you should encourage rational coping strategies featuring reframing. For example, you could emphasize to Fatima's parents how the loss of their home, although unfortunate, represents an opportunity to start over. (2) There are many effective ways at dealing with chronic stress. Some of these include relaxation training, biofeedback, aerobic exercise, social support, humor, trying to be more optimistic despite the current negatives in your life, and avoiding smoking or abusing alcohol. 11. Ingo is interested in biofeedback therapy. First, explain to him what is meant by biofeedback therapy. Then compare the effectiveness of biofeedback with traditional relaxation therapy. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Biofeedback involves the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function in order to possibly gain control over that function, such as body temperature or brain-wave patterns. (2) Recent studies suggest that EEG biofeedback (also called neurofeedback) is moderately successful in treating Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Essay brain-wave abnormalities in disorders such as epilepsy and in teaching people to down-regulate activity in regions of the brain involved in the strong emotional responses seen in some forms of psychopathology. However, biofeedback therapy is often no more effective than is traditional relaxation therapy. 12. Describe how, in general, women and men differ in their use of social support to deal with stress, and discuss how some hormones may play a role in this difference. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Social support is aid gained through interacting with others. (2) Women are more likely than are men to use social support in dealing with stress. Shelley E. Taylor has described women's response to stress as "tend-and-befriend." When faced with stress, women are more likely than are men to seek out social contacts, nurture others, and create and maintain cooperative groups. These behaviors are likely to reduce the negative physiological and psychological effects of the stressor. (3) When faced with a stressor, men are more likely than are women to engage in behavior that exacerbates the physiological effects of the stressor, such as reacting with anger and hostility. (4) These gender differences in dealing with stress may have a hormonal component. Although both men and women respond to stressors with sympathetic nervous system arousal, stress elicits the release of the hormone oxytocin in women. This hormone also is released during pregnancy and elicits social responses, such as nurturing, fostering social contacts, and so on.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice 1. Specific events that place demands on a person are called: a. stressors. b. fight-or-flight stimuli. c. stresses. d. anxieties. ANSWER: a 2. Carla has gotten married, gotten pregnant, moved to a new town, and started a new job all within a year. She may have a _____ score on a stress scale than someone whose parent had a serious illness in the previous year. a. higher b. similar c. lower d. completely opposite ANSWER: a 3. Which factor has the highest stress rating on the College Undergraduate Stress Scale? a. finals week b. confrontations with professors c. financial difficulties d. difficulties with roommates ANSWER: a 4. Compared to the others, which mental health professional would be MOST interested in how noise pollution affects the stress levels of children in elementary school? a. a counseling psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. an environmental psychologist d. a gestalt psychologist ANSWER: c 5. Which factor is MOST likely to be a chronic stressor? a. attending a friend's wedding day b. contracting a mild flu c. having financial difficulties d. attending an athletic event ANSWER: c 6. _____ is defined as the physical and psychological response to internal and external stressors. a. A psychosomatic disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. A fight-or-flight stimulus c. Stress d. Social anxiety ANSWER: c 7. Stress is to a _____ as a stressor is to a _____. a. chronic situation; specific event b. psychological response; physiological response c. response; stimulus d. physiological response; psychological response ANSWER: c 8. Professor Lopez is lecturing on the brain and stress. She is MOST likely to state that brain activation in response to threat occurs in the: a. pons. b. amygdala. c. hypothalamus. d. corpus callosum. ANSWER: c 9. It is probably easier for Lionel to deal with the stress of an upcoming term paper than for him to deal with the stress experienced from getting a bad haircut, because he: a. has some control over his grades by putting more or less effort into his work. b. has some control over the type of haircut he can get. c. has little control over what kind of grade he gets on a paper. d. finds it easier to deal with external stressors than with internal stressors. ANSWER: a 10. Which structure(s) is/are part of the HPA axis? a. the pons b. the amygdala c. the adrenal glands d. the pineal gland ANSWER: c 11. Jerry recently experienced a traumatic event. It would not be uncommon for him to develop: a. a Type B behavior pattern. b. high blood pressure but no psychological disturbances. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. an autoimmune disease. ANSWER: c 12. Marjulla is interested in psychology as a career choice. In particular, she is interested in the area of psychology concerned with ways in which psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness and the maintenance of health. MOST likely, Marjulla would select _____ as a career choice. a. stress psychology b. health psychology c. biobehavioral medicine d. biopsychology ANSWER: b 13. The subfield of psychology that is concerned with how psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness and the maintenance of an individual's well-being is referred to as: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. d. psychiatric immunology. ANSWER: a 14. During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome does the body adapt to its high state of arousal in an attempt to cope with the stressor? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. fight-or-flight ANSWER: b 15. During a fight-or-flight response, the _____ release(s) _____. a. hypothalamus; cortisol b. adrenal glands; ACTH c. hypothalamus; catecholamines d. pituitary gland; ACTH ANSWER: d 16. Dr. Weinrib studies how psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness. Dr. Weinrib studies: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. psychiatric immunology. ANSWER: a 17. Compared to the others, which person who has been exposed to the common cold virus is MOST likely to catch a cold? a. Aurelia, who has been dealing with a contentious divorce for 6 months b. Yulya, who passed a calculus test because the teacher decided to curve the scores c. Marjoe, who studied hard for an exam d. Castor, who is the editor of the student newspaper ANSWER: a 18. People who are involved in intense physical training, such as long-distance running, sometimes stop menstruating, and their bodies shut down other processes not necessary for immediate survival. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome does this phenomenon BEST describe? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. fight-or-flight ANSWER: b 19. Clevon experiences chronic stress. He is at an increased risk of infection due to a(n): a. weakened immune system. b. increase in serotonin production in the brain. c. reduction in catecholamines in the bloodstream. d. reduction in adrenocorticotropic hormone production. ANSWER: a 20. People who exhibit the Type A behavior pattern are at a(n) _____ risk of heart disease because _____. a. increased; of their competitive and time-conscious nature b. increased; they react to stress and adversity with anger and hostility c. decreased; of their competitive and time-conscious nature d. decreased; they tend to have lower levels of body fat than do Type B personalities ANSWER: b 21. Professor Schweitzal studies how psychological factors influence the maintenance of an individual's wellbeing. Professor Schweitzal studies: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. psychiatric immunology. ANSWER: a 22. Compared to the others, which 50-year-old man is MOST likely to experience coronary heart disease? a. Jorge, who is an extrovert and likes to go out with friends b. Clarence, who is 5 pounds overweight c. Lorenzo, who smokes one cigarette a day and has one drink of bourbon a week d. Sid, who physically confronts people when they get in his way ANSWER: d 23. Soo Duc is in her history class when the teacher produces a pop quiz. Soo Duc feels stressed and likely perceives the quiz to be a _____ because she has not yet read the chapter on which she is being tested. a. challenge b. threat c. Type A stressor d. chronic stressor ANSWER: b 24. _____ and _____ investigated the relationship between experiencing multiple stressors and the incidence of illness. a. Shelley Taylor; Lisette Ramirez b. Mary Bjorkquist; Roger Metzger c. Thomas Holmes; Richard Rahe d. Meyer Friedman; Ray Rosenman ANSWER: c 25. Trying to determine if a stressor is a threat or a challenge occurs during: a. primary appraisal. b. secondary appraisal. c. Type A analysis. d. rational coping. ANSWER: b 26. Compared to the others, who is MOST likely to develop an illness in the near future, according to the College Undergraduate Stress Scale? a. Reiko, whose close friend has died b. Emily, who was recently arrested for drunk driving c. Phan, who is going on a first date d. Lisle, who is falling asleep in class Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 27. _____ refers to physical, mental, and emotional exhaustion due to a long-term demanding situation. a. Stress b. Burnout c. Self-regulation d. Reframing ANSWER: b 28. Rima always hated giving class presentations because she felt as though the students in her class were judging her. For her next presentation, she decided to focus on her ability to teach the class something, and she ended up enjoying the assignment. This example BEST illustrates which type of stress management? a. repressive coping b. understanding c. meditation d. reframing ANSWER: d 29. One technique for coping with stress, known as _____, is to avoid thinking about or experiencing the situation that makes you stressed and to convince yourself to think positive thoughts instead. a. repressive coping b. rational coping c. stress inoculation d. burnout ANSWER: a 30. Compared to the others, who is LEAST likely to develop an illness in the near future, based on responses to the College Undergraduate Stress Scale (CUSS)? a. Ernie, who is accused of burglary b. Tomaso, who just got married c. Hakim, who is going on a first date d. Aiko, who is getting into a physical fight ANSWER: c 31. Relaxation therapy involves _____ relaxing the muscles in the body; this relaxation reduces heart rate and _____ blood pressure levels. a. unconsciously; increases b. unconsciously; decreases c. consciously; increases d. consciously; decreases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 32. Aerobic exercise promotes psychological well-being, which is MOST likely due to a(n): a. decrease in the body's fat reserves. b. increase in the body's serotonin production. c. decrease in the body's endogenous opioid production. d. increase in the availability of oxygen to body tissues. ANSWER: b 33. Research investigating the effects of discrimination on stress shows that being rejected by a member of a different race tends NOT to produce: a. avoidance. b. anger. c. vigilance for danger. d. higher risk taking. ANSWER: a 34. Research investigating the effects of discrimination on stress shows that being rejected by a member of the same race tends NOT to produce: a. avoidance. b. increased cortisol levels. c. vigilance for danger. d. shame. ANSWER: c 35. Compared to the others, which group is likely to rely MOST on social support as a way of reducing stress? a. unmarried men b. women c. students who go to preparatory schools d. preschoolers ANSWER: b 36. Which strategy is the MOST effective way to deal with stress across one's life span? a. maintaining a highly emotional state of mind b. having an alcoholic drink or two per day c. displacing anger by reacting with rage toward inanimate objects d. having social support through family or friends ANSWER: d 37. Which statement about the placebo effect is false? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. Patients given a placebo often misreport their pain experience. b. The placebo effect is somewhat dependent on the conscious expectation that the placebo will work. c. Placebos deactivate brain regions associated with pain sensation. d. Placebos decrease pain, in part, by triggering the release of endorphins. ANSWER: a 38. Placebos are effective because: a. people are gullible, and perceive any kind of "treatment" as being effective. b. people distort their reports of pain after receiving a placebo treatment. c. they increase activity in the thalamus, insula, and anterior cingulate cortex. d. they reduce brain activity in areas that normally are active during pain experiences. ANSWER: d 39. Which stressor would MOST likely cause the greatest damage to your health? a. seeing a dentist or doctor b. getting a speeding ticket c. having two exams on the same day d. living in a crowded, noisy city ANSWER: d 40. Which specific facet is NOT systematically related to hardiness? a. commitment b. conscientiousness c. challenge d. control ANSWER: b 41. The idea of a "sick role" is that: a. pretending to be sick is negatively reinforced. b. there is a socially recognized set of rights and obligations linked with illness. c. most observable responses to pain are not due to painful stimuli but instead due to sociocultural expectancies. d. those who adopt the norms associated with being sick are necessarily malingering. ANSWER: b 42. Elements of city life, such as noise, traffic, and pollution, produce: a. chronic stress. b. acute stress. c. biological stressors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. psychosomatic illness. ANSWER: a 43. Clara is a college student. Like many other college students, her chronic stressors are MOST likely linked to: a. failing one exam in a difficult class. b. having two exams in the same day. c. social relationships. d. imagining her future. ANSWER: c 44. Which strategy is a beneficial stress management technique for trying to eat wisely? a. meditating in order to control junk food cravings b. restricting calories but not increasing exercise c. focusing on increasing activity d. self-regulating by focusing on what not to eat ANSWER: c 45. Business executives who scored very high on the index of stressful life events seemed impervious to the physical effects of stress in that they had few illnesses. However, they all shared the personality characteristic of: a. hardiness. b. self-regulation. c. optimism. d. sensation-seeking. ANSWER: a 46. Corrado is 23 years old. His chronic stressors are likely to be linked to: a. social relationships. b. monetary investment concerns. c. buying a first home. d. getting to work on time. ANSWER: a 47. Betty is studying the effects of urban crowding on the prevalence of anxiety disorders. It is MOST likely that Betty is a(n) _____ psychologist. a. clinical b. environmental c. social Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. humanistic ANSWER: b 48. Sources of stress that occur continuously or repeatedly are called: a. daily hassles. b. stressful life changes. c. catastrophes. d. chronic stressors. ANSWER: d 49. What are chronic stressors? a. sources of stress that occur continuously or repeatedly b. a natural catastrophe c. daily sources of stress d. a sudden change to daily routines ANSWER: a 50. Felicia has an extremely strained relationship with her mother. This situation is an example of a: a. daily hassle. b. stressful life change. c. catastrophe. d. chronic stressor. ANSWER: d 51. Lee is in the 5th grade and is bullied almost daily at school. He is experiencing a: a. daily hassle. b. stressful life change. c. catastrophe. d. chronic stressor. ANSWER: d 52. Samatha and her spouse are extremely in debt and are no longer able to make monthly payments on what they owe. This has been going on for 2 years. Their situation is an example of a: a. daily hassle. b. stressful life change. c. catastrophe. d. chronic stressor. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice 53. When faced with a stressor, people report that the level of stress is _____ when they perceive that _____. a. lowest; they cannot control stressful events b. greatest; they can control stressful events c. lowest; the stressor is chronic and not acute d. greatest; they cannot control stressful events ANSWER: d 54. One commonality among different types of stressors is that they challenge a person to: a. initiate escape-related behaviors. b. experience stress. c. take action to eliminate or overcome the stressors. d. seek out social support mechanisms. ANSWER: c 55. Events are perceived as the MOST stressful when: a. there is associated sympathetic nervous system activation. b. they are acute and must be dealt with in the moment. c. they are related to social relationships. d. no effective action against the stressors can be taken. ANSWER: d 56. Perceived control refers to our ability to _____ stressors. a. take action against b. cope with inescapable c. seek out d. cope with chronic ANSWER: a 57. Compared to the others, which person would have the LEAST amount of perceived control over events? a. Stacey, who is a college student during finals week b. Moe, who is starting on an extremely crowded 2-hour subway commute c. Alyssa, who is deciding on whether to go on a second date d. Angel, who is an executive about to deliver a report to the board of directors ANSWER: b 58. For which individual would perceived control over events be the lowest? a. a young child living in an abusive household b. a person grappling with the decision to end or continue a romantic relationship c. an athlete at the beginning of a championship game Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. a college student who just received a subpar grade on their first examination ANSWER: a 59. David Glass and Jerome Singer (1972) exposed participants to bursts of loud noise while they solved puzzles. Some participants were told that they could turn off the noise by pressing a button. Others were not given this option. Glass and Singer found that: a. loud noise produced dramatic decreases in task performance in both groups. b. loud noise increased task performance in the group with the escape option. c. simply having an escape option reduced the disruptiveness of the loud noise. d. loud noise increased task performance, but only in the group that actively turned it off. ANSWER: c 60. Compared to the others, which person is MOST likely to react most strongly to stressful situations? a. a person with an overactive parasympathetic nervous system b. a person prone to the placebo effect c. a person who cannot escape from the situation d. a person who is a pessimist ANSWER: c 61. Research published in 2008 found that, compared with people living over 200 miles away, people living within 1.5 miles of the World Trade Center on September 11, 2001, had less gray matter in their: a. amygdala. b. pons. c. visual cortex. d. temporal lobe. ANSWER: a 62. The _____ refers to an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases readiness for action. a. Type A behavior pattern b. twitch-or-switch response c. fight-or-flight response d. parasympathetic response ANSWER: c 63. Who coined the term "fight-or-flight syndrome"? a. Telma Hopkins b. Walter Cannon c. Gustavo Chimay Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. Hans Selye ANSWER: b 64. Brain activation in response to a threat begins in the: a. thalamus. b. hippocampus. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. ANSWER: d 65. The _____ are the three key organs involved in the HPA axis response to stress. a. hippocampus, pineal gland, and amygdala b. hippocampus, parietal lobe, and anterior cingulate gyrus c. hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal glands d. hypothalamus, pineal gland, and amygdala ANSWER: c 66. ACTH travels from the pituitary gland to the adrenal glands via the: a. bloodstream. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. efferent nerves. ANSWER: a 67. Which hormone is NOT considered a stress hormone involved in the HPA axis? a. leptin b. cortisol c. epinephrine d. ACTH ANSWER: a 68. In response to threat, the hormone _____ is secreted from the _____ gland. a. leptin; pineal b. cortisol; pineal c. insulin; adrenal d. ACTH; pituitary ANSWER: d 69. What is the fight-or-flight response? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. a three-stage physiological response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered b. an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases our readiness for action c. the tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitiveness d. a source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly ANSWER: b 70. The key function of cortisol is to: a. increase blood glucose levels for use by the muscles. b. induce the release of ACTH from the pineal gland. c. decrease the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. d. increase blood lipid levels for use by the muscles. ANSWER: a 71. Which compounds are catecholamines? a. endorphins and cortisol b. glutamate and GABA c. epinephrine and norepinephrine d. acetylcholine and serotonin ANSWER: c 72. Which function is NOT one associated with catecholamines? a. increasing sympathetic nervous system activity b. increasing parasympathetic nervous system activity c. increasing heart rate d. increasing respirations ANSWER: b 73. The adrenal glands do NOT release the hormone: a. cortisol. b. epinephrine. c. norepinephrine. d. ACTH. ANSWER: d 74. Chet hears footsteps behind him while walking down a dark street at night. He is fearful and feels his heart pounding. This response is due to the release of _____, which _____ during stressful situations. a. catecholamines; activate the pituitary gland b. cortisol; lower blood glucose levels Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice c. cortisol; induce the release of ACTH from the pineal gland d. catecholamines; activate the sympathetic nervous system ANSWER: d 75. When we encounter a stressor, the adrenal glands release _____ and _____. a. serotonin; norepinephrine b. epinephrine; glucose c. epinephrine; norepinephrine d. adrenocorticotropic hormone; epinephrine ANSWER: c 76. _____ coined the term "general adaptation syndrome." a. Joyce Vincent Wilson b. Walter Cannon c. Merrilee Rush d. Hans Selye ANSWER: d 77. Rats studied by Hans Selye were subjected to various prolonged stressors. A common response in the rats involved: a. excessive weight gain. b. an enlarged adrenal cortex. c. enlarged thymus glands. d. shrinkage of the stomach. ANSWER: b 78. Rats studied by Hans Selye were subjected to various prolonged stressors. A physiological response that was NOT observed in the rats is: a. stomach ulcers. b. an enlarged adrenal cortex. c. enlarged thymus glands. d. shrinkage of the lymph glands. ANSWER: c 79. The physiological response profile outlined in the general adaptation syndrome: a. occurs to acute stressors but not to repeated stressors. b. is modifiable in type based on the type of stressor encountered. c. is nonspecific to the type of stressor. d. is specific to the type of stressor. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 80. The _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome is similar to the fight-or-flight response proposed by Walter Cannon. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. activation ANSWER: a 81. What is the correct order of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. resistance, alarm, and exhaustion b. reaction, alarm, and exhaustion c. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion d. reaction, alarm, and collapse ANSWER: c 82. The phase of the general adaptation syndrome in which the body uses energy to draw on its stores of fat and muscle is called: a. reaction. b. resistance. c. exhaustion. d. alarm. ANSWER: d 83. The phase of the general adaptation syndrome in which the body shuts down unnecessary processes such as digestion and sex drive is called: a. resistance. b. reaction. c. alarm. d. exhaustion. ANSWER: a 84. Yolanda runs marathons and recently has increased her training intensity. She now runs 3 to 4 hours a day. One side effect of this training is that she has stopped menstruating. What phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Yolanda experiencing? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. collapse Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 85. Yancey recently obtained a stressful job in sales. He has trouble sleeping at night, has lost weight, and has no interest in sex due to his body no longer producing much testosterone. What phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Yancey experiencing? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. collapse ANSWER: c 86. The phase of the general adaptation syndrome in which the body experiences organ damage is called: a. alarm. b. exhaustion. c. resistance. d. collapse. ANSWER: b 87. Lakeesha was recently promoted to an executive position in her company. The increased stress was enormous. After a few weeks, she began losing weight, she lost interest in sex, and her menstrual cycle became irregular. Several months later, Lakeesha experienced a physical breakdown when she acquired a dangerous viral infection and required hospitalization. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome left Lakeesha susceptible to the viral infection? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. collapse ANSWER: b 88. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are: a. lymphocytes. b. catecholamines. c. telomeres. d. placebo effects. ANSWER: b 89. Increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration are associated with activation of the _____ nervous system. a. sympathetic b. autonomic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice c. central d. parasympathetic ANSWER: a 90. A three-stage physiological stress response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered is called the: a. fight-or-flight response. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. tend-and-befriend reaction. d. self-regulation theory. ANSWER: b 91. What is the general adaptation syndrome? a. a three-stage physiological response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered b. an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases our readiness for action c. the tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitiveness d. a source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly ANSWER: a 92. The _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome occurs when the body rapidly mobilizes its resources to respond to the threat. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. activation ANSWER: a 93. The _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome occurs when the body adapts to its high rate of arousal as it tries to cope with the stressor. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. activation ANSWER: c 94. _____ stress _____ the aging process. a. Acute; temporarily halts b. Acute; accelerates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice c. Chronic; temporally halts d. Chronic; accelerates ANSWER: d 95. Caps at the ends of the chromosomes that prevent the chromosomes from sticking to each other are known as: a. telomerase. b. catecholamines. c. telomeres. d. nuclei. ANSWER: c 96. Each time a cell divides, its telomeres: a. lengthen. b. shorten. c. lose receptors on their dendrites. d. gain receptors on their dendrites. ANSWER: b 97. Who won the Nobel Prize in 2009 for the discovery of the functions of telomeres and telomerase? a. Daniel Kahneman b. Linus Pauling c. Ada Yonath d. Elizabeth Blackburn ANSWER: d 98. An enzyme that rebuilds telomeres at the tips of the chromosomes is called: a. telomerase. b. peptin. c. telomeres. d. transferase. ANSWER: a 99. Fitzhugh has been exposed to chronic stress. He is likely to experience _____ telomere length and _____ telomerase activity. a. shorter; higher b. longer; lower c. longer; higher d. shorter; lower Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 100. Laboratory studies have shown that _____ can _____ telomerase activity. a. epinephrine; enhance b. serotonin; reduce c. ACTH; enhance d. cortisol; reduce ANSWER: d 101. Recent research using U.S. tax records has shown that the wealthiest 1% of men in the United States live about _____ years longer than do the poorest 1% of men. a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 15 ANSWER: d 102. Recent research using U.S. tax records has shown that the wealthiest 1% of women in the United States live about _____ years longer than do the poorest 1% of women. a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: c 103. Recent research using U.S. tax records has shown that the life expectancy for the wealthiest 1% in the United States recently rose _____ years, while increasing _____ year for the poorest 1% between 2001 and 2014. a. 2 to 3; only 1 b. 2 to 3; less than half a c. 4 to 5; less than half a d. 4 to 5; only 1 ANSWER: b 104. A person living below the poverty line who wants to offset the negative effects social status on health would probably NOT have the means to do so by: a. exercising more. b. moving out of an area with a high population density. c. practicing meditation. d. altering their diet. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 105. Based on research investigating social status and health, a person living in poverty in _____ would have a higher life expectancy than would a person living in poverty in _____. a. a rural area; a city b. a poor country; a wealthier country c. San Francisco; Detroit d. New Orleans; Houston ANSWER: c 106. Comedian Chris Rock's joke that "rich 50 is like poor 35": a. greatly exaggerates the effects of wealth on health and aging. b. is completely false. c. appears to be true for women but not for men, according to recent research. d. is consistent with the results of recent research. ANSWER: d 107. The _____ system is a complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances. a. HPA b. immune c. endocrine d. somatic ANSWER: b 108. Lymphocytes are _____ blood cells that _____ antibodies that fight infection. a. red; destroy b. red; produce c. white; destroy d. white; produce ANSWER: d 109. Lymphocytes include: a. telomeres and telomerase. b. antibodies and antigens. c. T cells and B cells. d. red and white cells. ANSWER: c 110. _____ is the study of how the immune system responds to psychological variables, such as the presence of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice stressors. a. Health psychology b. Psychoneuroimmunology c. Neuropsychology d. Psychiatric immunology ANSWER: b 111. Stressors cause hormones known as _____ to flood the brain, wearing down the immune system. a. adrenaline b. c-FOS c. glucocorticoids d. monoamine oxidase inhibitors ANSWER: c 112. _____ are especially prone to respiratory infections because their immune systems have been compromised by stress. a. Teenagers in large high schools b. People in lower-status jobs c. Older adults who live with their families d. People who work in international jobs ANSWER: b 113. In one study, medical student volunteers received small wounds to the roof of the mouth. Researchers found that these wounds healed more slowly: a. when the volunteers were learning about infection. b. in the winter. c. during examination week. d. when the volunteers were asked to monitor the wound daily. ANSWER: c 114. In one study, healthy volunteers who reported experiencing one of three conditions—little stress, acute stress, or chronic stress—were exposed to a cold virus by having it swabbed in their noses. Which statement accurately describes the results of this study? a. Most volunteers caught the cold, regardless of stress levels. b. Most volunteers who had experienced acute and chronic stress caught the cold. c. More volunteers who had just experienced acute stress caught the cold than did volunteers who reported chronic stress. d. Volunteers who reported chronic stress were most likely to catch the cold. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice 115. A key physiological event in the cascade of occurrences that underlie the association between stress and cardiovascular disease is: a. inducement of hunger by stress, which leads to the ingestion of fats that clog the arteries. b. suppression of hunger by stress, which leads to breakdown of arterial wall material. c. vasodilation produced by prolonged parasympathetic system activation, which damages blood vessels. d. arousal of the sympathetic nervous system, which leads to high blood pressure and damage to blood vessels. ANSWER: d 116. The main cause of coronary heart disease is _____, a gradual narrowing of the arteries that occurs as fatty deposits build up on the inner walls of the arteries. a. osteosclerosis b. atherosclerosis c. multiple sclerosis d. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ANSWER: b 117. Gloria has been experiencing increased levels of stress lately. These experiences will NOT likely cause: a. arousal of the sympathetic nervous system. b. elevated blood pressure. c. damaged blood vessels that accumulate plaque. d. an increase in blood flow through the arteries. ANSWER: d 118. Psychologists would identify which person as being at MOST at risk for developing heart disease? a. Claude, who works a desk job and is overweight b. Rosa, who is ambitious and seeks job promotions c. Lei, who is the president of a large corporation and is extremely time-conscious d. Clyde, a manager who often exhibits anger and hostility toward his employees ANSWER: d 119. A complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances is termed the: a. immune system. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. Type A behavior pattern. d. Type B behavior pattern. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice 120. What is the immune system? a. a complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances b. an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases our readiness for action c. the tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitiveness d. a source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly ANSWER: a 121. _____ produce antibodies that fight infection. a. Telomeres b. Antigens c. Lymphocytes d. Red cells ANSWER: c 122. Professor Weisenstein studies how the immune system responds to psychological variables. Professor Weisenstein studies: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. d. psychiatric immunology. ANSWER: b 123. Fatty deposits that build up on the inner walls of the arteries are referred to as: a. telomeres. b. catecholamines. c. chromosomes. d. plaques. ANSWER: d 124. The association between _____ has been found in large and rigorous studies of the general population. a. catastrophes and later decreased grit b. chronic stress and improved cognition c. major stressors and later heart disease d. daily hassles and reduced risk for obesity ANSWER: c 125. George is at an increased risk of developing premature heart disease. This has been linked with _____ reactions to stress. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. impatient b. a sense of time urgency in c. angry and hostile d. competitive tendencies shown in ANSWER: c 126. Wilbur is visiting the bank to deposit some money. As he completes the deposit slip, the ink in the pen suddenly runs dry. "You've gotta be kidding me with this!" he screams, to no one in particular. "Don't waste my time! Somebody get me a pen that works!!!" Which personality type is Wilbur exhibiting? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: a 127. The Type _____ behavior pattern is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused anger, impatience, a sense of urgency, and competition. a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: a 128. Men with a Type _____ behavior pattern are more likely to have a heart attack than are men with a Type _____ behavior pattern. a. A; B b. A; C c. B; A d. B; C ANSWER: a 129. Who introduced the concept of a Type A behavior pattern? a. Walter Cannon and Hans Selye b. Gary Glass and Jerome Singer c. Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman d. Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe ANSWER: c 130. The _____ is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice urgency, and competitive achievement strivings. a. Type A behavior pattern b. general adaptation syndrome c. fight-or-flight response d. parasympathetic response ANSWER: a 131. Aloysius is generally impatient and always in a hurry. These are characteristics of the: a. Type A behavior pattern. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. fight-or-flight response. d. parasympathetic response. ANSWER: a 132. Traci is very competitive in everything that she does. She is also impatient and can't stand to procrastinate on tasks. These are all characteristics of the: a. Type A behavior pattern. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. fight-or-flight response. d. parasympathetic response. ANSWER: a 133. A state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion resulting from long-term involvement in an emotionally demanding situation and accompanied by lowered performance and motivation is called: a. burnout. b. major depressive disorder. c. stress inoculation. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: a 134. _____ appraisal refers to the interpretation of a stimulus as being stressful or not. a. Threat b. Primary c. Type A d. Secondary ANSWER: b 135. _____ appraisal refers to determining whether a particular stressor is something that you can handle. a. Threat Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. Primary c. Type A d. Secondary ANSWER: d 136. The _____ appraisal process allows a person to decide whether a red spot on their finger is blood or simply a glob of ketchup. a. secondary b. telomeric c. primary d. threat ANSWER: c 137. A stressful event you feel fairly confident you can control is termed a _____, whereas a stressor you believe you might not be able to overcome is termed a _____. a. threat; challenge b. primary stressor; secondary stressor c. challenge; threat d. secondary stressor; primary stressor ANSWER: c 138. Because Filomeno was well prepared for his psychology exam, he interpreted the exam as a(n) _____ instead of a _____. a. challenge; threat b. threat; challenge c. competition; stressor d. opportunity; challenge ANSWER: a 139. Having a conversation with someone of a different race has been shown to produce a(n) _____ reaction in students. a. challenge b. immune c. threat d. traumatic ANSWER: c 140. In the context of stress interpretation, having a conversation with someone of a different race produces a threat reaction due to: a. deindividuation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. prejudice. c. the availability heuristic. d. social unfamiliarity. ANSWER: d 141. After working for 20 years at a local factory, Hardy is physically, mentally, and emotionally exhausted. He is probably experiencing: a. burnout. b. major depressive disorder. c. stress inoculation. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: a 142. Compared to the others, which person statistically is at GREATEST risk for burnout? a. Belinda, who is a computer programmer developing a new software program b. Ranjan, who as a social worker deals daily with highly emotional situations c. Jamie, who is a parent of three children, all of whom are under 10 years of age d. Alana, who is a college professor nearing retirement and recently bought a vacation home ANSWER: b 143. Which job sector is MOST associated with experiencing burnout? a. sales and service b. helping professions c. journalistic investigations d. artistic endeavors ANSWER: b 144. To avoid burnout, people in high-stress jobs would NOT be advised to: a. invest time in family. b. employ stress management techniques. c. arrive early to work in order to better prepare for daily challenges. d. devote more time to a hobby unrelated to the job. ANSWER: c 145. Compared to the others, which person statistically has the greatest risk for experiencing burnout? a. Dolpho, a medical doctor who typically works 12-hour shifts but loves spending time with his family on his days off b. Bitsy, an emergency department physician who is also a very competitive tennis player at her country club Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice c. Valdo, an accountant who aims for a promotion d. Genevieve, a high-school teacher who bases her self-worth on how well her students succeed ANSWER: d 146. Using a technique called _____, survivors of sexual assault relive the traumatic event in their imagination by recording a verbal account of the event and then listening to the recording daily. a. reject-and-project b. tend-and-befriend c. prolonged exposure d. fight-or-flight ANSWER: c 147. _____ is the style of dealing with stress characterized by avoiding feelings, thoughts, or situations that are reminders of a stressor and maintaining an artificially positive viewpoint. a. Mental burnout b. Rational coping c. Repressive coping d. Reframing ANSWER: c 148. Gordie was recently fired from his job. To deal with this stress, Gordie moved to another state, stopped communicating with friends from his previous job, and obtained employment in a completely different field. Gordie's behavior illustrates _____ coping. a. rational b. repressive c. passive d. ineffective ANSWER: b 149. Because her apartment was burglarized, Dottie moved to another city and never discusses the burglary with her friends. Her behavior illustrates _____ coping. a. rational b. repressive c. passive d. ineffective ANSWER: b 150. When reminded not to eat as many sugary foods as he wants to, because the doctor said he was prediabetic, Merton replied that he is fine, and thinking about his health problems only makes them worse. Merton's attitude illustrates _____ coping. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. rational b. repressive c. passive d. ineffective ANSWER: b 151. The cognitive stress management strategy that involves facing the stressor and working to overcome it is called: a. repressive coping. b. reframing. c. rational coping. d. active coping. ANSWER: c 152. Rational coping involves three steps: acceptance, exposure, and: a. thinking. b. bargaining. c. anger. d. understanding. ANSWER: d 153. Working to find the meaning of a stressor in your life is associated with the _____ step of rational coping. a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance ANSWER: c 154. Nereida experienced chronic stress from being bullied at school over a period of several years. Now in therapy, she explores what it means to her to have gone through this ordeal. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance ANSWER: c 155. After years of denial, Aårno finally admitted to himself, his family, and his friends that he has a drinking problem. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance ANSWER: d 156. After years of overspending, opening new lines of credit, and hiding financial statements, Fay finally recognizes that she has financial problems that are not going to go away unless she changes her behavior. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance ANSWER: d 157. The technique known as prolonged exposure is associated with the _____ process of stress management. a. rational coping b. motivated forgetting c. reframing d. repressive coping ANSWER: a 158. As part of a credit-counseling program Russ joined to reduce his credit card debt, he has to spend 2 hours each week reviewing all of his expenditures and financial records. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance ANSWER: a 159. As part of therapy, Connie writes a narrative of what she experienced during her sexual assault. She reads this narrative to herself at least once daily. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance ANSWER: a 160. Finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor to reduce its threat is called: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. repressing. b. reframing. c. rationalizing. d. reorienting. ANSWER: b 161. Which scenario BEST fits the definition of reframing as a stress control technique? a. To suppress her anxiety before a major class speech, Lakshmi postpones her speech until the end of the semester. b. Robin reduces her anxiety about public speaking by imagining that she is evaluating her audience. c. Enrico controls his fear of public speaking by dropping his speech course. d. Marquez reduces his anxiety about a major class speech by distracting himself the night before with a funny movie. ANSWER: b 162. When Rudolph felt himself becoming angry during a meeting with his boss, he repeatedly told himself suggestions he had practiced with his therapist, such as "Just roll with the punches" and "I am not going to let my boss get to me." His use of these thoughts is an example of: a. stress-inoculation training. b. repressive coping. c. exposure therapy. d. psychoanalytic therapy. ANSWER: a 163. College students often develop illness as the end of the semester draws near. Based on his research, Jamie Pennebaker would MOST likely suggest that colleges could reduce the number of ill students by: a. reframing final examinations as a challenge by offering prizes to those students who score at the top of their class. b. inoculating students to difficult final examinations by increasing the rigor of the midterms. c. offering stress-reduction activities, such as Bring Your Pet to School day. d. encouraging students keep a journal in which they record their thoughts and feelings. ANSWER: d 164. A reframing technique that helps people cope with stressful situations by developing positive ways to think about the situations is called: a. biofeedback. b. electrical massage stimulation. c. stress-inoculation training. d. relaxation therapy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 165. Dr. Sardonicus uses a reframing technique in her private practice that helps her clients cope by developing positive ways to think about stressful situations. She is using: a. biofeedback. b. electrical massage stimulation. c. stress-inoculation training. d. relaxation therapy. ANSWER: c 166. Trixie is extremely anxious about giving a required class presentation. If she instead reframes her anxiety as arousal, it will: a. change the conclusions of both primary and secondary appraisal. b. result in the stressor being appraised as a challenge. c. reduce physiological arousal to the stressor. d. increase physiological arousal to the stressor. ANSWER: b 167. A repetitive sound, such as om, used in meditation is called a: a. telomerase. b. phase. c. catecholamine. d. mantra. ANSWER: d 168. Penelope is meditating and is repeating the sound "om" to herself. This sound is called a: a. telomerase. b. phase. c. catecholamine. d. mantra. ANSWER: d 169. A technique used to measure the subtle activity of muscles is: a. EMG. b. EEG. c. AOK. d. fMRI. ANSWER: a 170. A technique for reducing tension by consciously easing muscles of the body is known as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. prolonged exposure. b. relaxation therapy. c. meditation. d. the general adaptation syndrome. ANSWER: b 171. Omar is consciously easing his muscles with the goal of reducing tension. He is engaged in: a. prolonged exposure. b. relaxation therapy. c. meditation. d. the general adaptation syndrome. ANSWER: b 172. _____ is the practice of intentional contemplation. a. Cognitive reframing b. Biofeedback c. Meditation d. Relaxation ANSWER: c 173. Although meditation techniques differ, they share _____ in common. a. a religious context b. a period of quiet c. assuming a specific pose d. the use of a mantra ANSWER: b 174. Many experts believe meditation exerts its psychological benefits by increasing: a. willpower. b. empathy for others. c. control over attention. d. agreeableness. ANSWER: c 175. Experienced meditators show _____ activity in the brain's default network associated with _____. a. increased; mind wandering b. decreased; mind wandering c. increased; somatosensory reactivity d. decreased; somatosensory reactivity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 176. Engaging in several weeks of intensive meditation is associated with: a. a reduction in the number of the telomeres associated with aging. b. an increase in number of telomeres, indicating a slight reversal of aging. c. the lengthening of telomeres, indicating a slight reversal of aging. d. the shortening of the telomeres associated with aging. ANSWER: c 177. Which technique reduces tension by consciously relaxing muscles of the body? a. relaxation therapy b. biofeedback c. meditation d. massage therapy ANSWER: a 178. A condition of reduced muscle tension, cortical activity, heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure is termed: a. mindfulness. b. the hypnogogic reaction. c. the Omega state. d. the relaxation response. ANSWER: d 179. The use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and then to possibly gain control over that function forms the basis of: a. biofeedback. b. electrical massage stimulation. c. stress-inoculation training. d. relaxation therapy. ANSWER: a 180. What is biofeedback? a. the practice of intentional contemplation, informed by mystical and spiritual practices b. a technique for reducing tension by consciously relaxing muscles of the body c. the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and then to possibly gain control over that function d. the interpersonal aid gained through interacting with others ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice 181. Physical activity that increases heart rate and oxygen intake for a sustained period of time is called: a. aerobic exercise. b. social support. c. biofeedback. d. relaxation response. ANSWER: a 182. Edgar jogs for 30 minutes each day around his neighborhood. He is engaged in: a. aerobic exercise. b. social support. c. biofeedback. d. relaxation response. ANSWER: a 183. Erika takes line dancing classes three times a week. Each class is 45 minutes long. This is an example of: a. aerobic exercise. b. social support. c. biofeedback. d. relaxation response. ANSWER: a 184. The known benefits of relaxation therapy do NOT include reduced: a. stress. b. levels of GABA. c. blood pressure. d. cortisol levels. ANSWER: b 185. Which researcher is associated with conducting pioneering research on biofeedback during the 1950s? a. Joe Kamiya b. Jamie Pennebaker c. Shelley Taylor d. Herschel Feldstein ANSWER: a 186. Beatrix was under a great deal of stress at work, and her health started to suffer. Her doctor treated her using _____, whereby Beatrix had sensors attached to various parts of her body and watched her vital signs on a computer screen until she learned to relax. a. biofeedback Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. electrical massage stimulation c. stress-inoculation training d. relaxation therapy ANSWER: a 187. Biofeedback has proven to be a useful technique for: a. increasing resistance to infection. b. increasing aerobic capacity and lowering blood pressure. c. achieving relaxation and decreasing chronic pain. d. decreasing symptoms of depression. ANSWER: c 188. As a technique to increase relaxation, biofeedback has proven to be _____ traditional relaxation therapy. a. considerably less effective than b. slightly less effective than c. about as effective as d. considerably more effective than ANSWER: c 189. Compared to the others, which person statistically would be expected to have the lowest levels of anger, depression, and stress? a. Lucretia, who walks briskly for 30 minutes five times per week b. Junior, who stretches for 5 minutes each morning upon waking c. Felina, who works out twice a week by swimming d. Ping Wu, who lifts heavy weights three times per week ANSWER: a 190. Which statement about aerobic exercise is true? a. Exercise improves mood by suppressing the secretion of dopamine. b. To boost mood, a person must exercise six days a week. c. Exercise improves mood by suppressing the secretion of serotonin. d. Regular aerobic exercise can boost mood. ANSWER: d 191. Compared to the others, which person in their 70s statistically is MOST likely to experience poor health? a. Takashi, a widowed woman who has a wide network of social support b. Estrellita, a married woman who exercises three times per week c. Alfonse, a man who does not exercise and who lives alone d. Ishir, a man who does not exercise and recently got married for the second time Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 192. Aid gained through interacting with others is termed: a. social loafing. b. reciprocal altruism. c. social support. d. humanistic therapy. ANSWER: c 193. _____ involves changing your life circumstances as a way of reducing the impact of stress on the mind and body. a. Biofeedback b. Exposure therapy c. Mindfulness training d. Situation management ANSWER: d 194. Which strategy has been shown to be as healthy as exercising and not smoking? a. maintaining positive social relationships b. ending a stressful romantic relationship c. meditation d. moving away from the population centers ANSWER: a 195. _____ are more likely than others to experience stress and depression. a. Teenagers b. Preschoolers c. People who feel isolated d. Men in their 30's ANSWER: c 196. Which hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland in someone who is pregnant or nursing? a. oxytocin b. epinephrine c. norepinephrine d. catecholamine ANSWER: a 197. Affiliation with or engagement in the practices of a particular religion is termed: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. ANSWER: b 198. Having a belief in and engagement with some higher power is termed: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. ANSWER: c 199. Lulu attends church each week and is very engaged with her congregation. This is an example of: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. ANSWER: b 200. Waldo believes in and has a relationship with a higher power, even though he has not attended a religious service in over 10 years. This is an example of: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. ANSWER: c 201. Among college students, _____ typically tend to show reduced immune responses to viruses, arguably because of less social support and feelings of isolation. a. first-year students b. sophomores c. juniors d. seniors ANSWER: a 202. According to Shelley E. Taylor, women's response to stress is to _____, whereas men's response more often is _____. a. tend-and-befriend; fight-or-flight Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. sink-or-swim; mow-and-sow c. try-or-fly; bend-and-rend d. graze-and-praise; fetch-or-retch ANSWER: a 203. Similar to men, women respond to stress with sympathetic nervous system arousal and the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, but unlike men, they also release the hormone: a. estrogen. b. oxytocin. c. dopamine. d. GABA. ANSWER: b 204. When under stress, Madeline is more likely than Mario to _____ as a means of coping. a. text a friend b. drink alcohol c. become angry at family members d. use repression ANSWER: a 205. National polls report that approximately _____ of Americans believe in God. a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90% ANSWER: d 206. Which statement about the relationship between religious experiences and positive health outcomes is true? a. Religiosity, not spirituality, is associated with positive health outcomes. b. Spirituality, not religiosity, is associated with positive health outcomes. c. Both religiosity and spirituality are associated with positive psychological but not physical health outcomes. d. Both religiosity and spirituality are associated with positive psychological and physical health outcomes. ANSWER: d 207. Which statement about the relationship between religious experiences and positive health outcomes is false? a. Religiosity and spirituality are associated with lower rates of heart disease. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. Intercessory prayer (praying for someone) has been shown to have beneficial effects. c. Religiosity and spirituality are associated with decreases in chronic pain. d. Religiosity and spirituality are associated with improved psychological health. ANSWER: b 208. Which statement about humor and health is true? a. Laughter increases the time required to recover from a stressor. b. People who try to find the humor in life's events tend to live longer. c. Humor can reduce sensitivity to pain. d. Humor leads to good health. ANSWER: c 209. Research on the effects of humor suggests that humor may produce health benefits _____ but not produce as many benefits _____. a. for serious illnesses; for less-serious ailments b. if you're a man; if you're a woman c. for children; for adults d. in the short term; in the long term ANSWER: d 210. Which statement is true regarding the relationships among procrastination, health, and academic performance? a. Procrastination has negative effects on psychological health, no effect on physical health, and no overall impact on academic performance. b. Procrastination has negative effects on psychological and physical health but no overall impact on academic performance. c. Procrastination has negative effects on psychological and physical health, and it negatively impacts academic performance. d. Although procrastination rarely impacts health, it does negatively impact academic performance. ANSWER: c 211. _____ are released by white blood cells and stimulate the vagus nerve, producing a sickness response. a. Glucocorticoids b. Catecholamines c. Monoamines d. Cytokines ANSWER: d 212. Which statement about the sickness response is false? a. It is evolutionarily advantageous in that it slows the spread of germs among people. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. Being sick can produce feelings of mild depression, even in people who were not experiencing depression before the illness. c. Depression can activate the sickness response, even in people who are not infected with a virus or bacteria. d. Drugs that block the activity of cytokines enhance the sickness response. ANSWER: d 213. _____ are proteins that circulate through the body and communicate with the other white blood cells and also communicate the sickness response to the brain. a. Glucocorticoids b. Catecholamines c. Monoamines d. Cytokines ANSWER: d 214. Directing attention toward the body _____ the likelihood that people will report _____ problems. a. increases; physical but not psychological b. increases; physical and psychological c. decreases; psychological but not physical d. decreases; physical and psychological ANSWER: b 215. We are often inattentive to our bodies, because MOST bodily systems: a. show little evidence of being activated. b. provide no feedback when a disruption occurs. c. turn on "automatic" throughout the day. d. are unfamiliar to adults. ANSWER: c 216. You are probably MOST likely to notice that you are getting a slight headache when you are: a. partying with friends. b. watching a suspenseful movie. c. engaged in a tedious activity. d. debating with a friend about a political issue. ANSWER: c 217. People who report higher levels of pain do NOT have enhanced activity in the: a. thalamus. b. somatosensory cortex. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice c. prefrontal cortex. d. anterior cingulate cortex. ANSWER: a 218. Brain imagining research supports the conclusion that MOST people who complain often about physical symptoms of pain are: a. experiencing more psychological distress than they are physical pain. b. accurately reporting on their pain levels. c. actually underreporting symptoms of pain. d. exaggerating their levels of pain. ANSWER: b 219. Brain imagining research has demonstrated that people who demonstrate low-pain sensitivity exhibit _____ activity in the _____ when administered a painful stimulus. a. more; anterior cingulate b. more; nucleus accumbens c. less; anterior cingulate d. less; nucleus accumbens ANSWER: c 220. It is estimated that nearly _____ of people who experience chest pain during a heart attack wait at least 6 hours before seeking medical attention. a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 60% ANSWER: c 221. The fact that a sizeable minority of people who experience chest pain during a heart attack will wait hours before seeking medical attention underscores the observation that: a. the correlation between the sensation and perception of pain can be negative. b. the correlation between the sensation and perception of pain is not perfect. c. insensitivity to pain can have detrimental effects. d. insensitivity to pain results from rational coping. ANSWER: c 222. A clinically significant psychological or physiological response to a therapeutically inert substance or procedure is termed a _____ effect. a. treatment b. placebo Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice c. double-blind d. psychotherapeutic ANSWER: b 223. Part of what makes a placebo effective is the: a. attitude of the physician's cultural background. b. social support system of the patient. c. level of pain at the onset of treatment. d. patient's belief that it will work. ANSWER: d 224. Howard Fields and Jon Levine discovered that taking a placebo causes the brain to release: a. endogenous opioids. b. oxytocin. c. GABA. d. acetylcholine. ANSWER: a 225. A doctor administers a placebo to Simon and shortly thereafter, Simon feels better. This placebo effect occurs due to: a. patients being "in on" the joke that a placebo will be effective. b. the expectation that a "medical treatment" should produce a medical result. c. the actual curative powers that many placebos have. d. the extraordinary power that wishing to feel better has on actually feeling better. ANSWER: b 226. The reason putting a Band-Aid on a toddler's stomach might reduce their tummy-ache but not the gastrointestinal distress of an adult is that: a. toddlers are more susceptible to classical conditioning than are adults. b. adults have more pain receptors in their intestines than do toddlers. c. adults do not have the conscious expectation that the Band-Aid will work for that purpose. d. toddlers have less active anterior cingulate cortices than do adults. ANSWER: c 227. Malingering is possible with only a small number of illnesses, primarily because _____. a. many symptoms of illness cannot be faked b. people have no motivation to maintain the sick role c. most malingerers are afraid of getting caught d. diagnostic tests are foolproof Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 228. A secondary gain that results from malingering is: a. attention and concern from caretakers. b. carefully controlling verbal and nonverbal behaviors to appear sick. c. having to ingest unnecessary medications. d. having to pay for physician services or hospital visits. ANSWER: a 229. A socially recognized set of rights and obligations linked with illness is known as: a. the sick role. b. the illness management protocol. c. a patient consent form. d. the social contract. ANSWER: a 230. What is one obligation associated with a sick role for a teenager? a. missing school without penalty b. calling in sick from a part-time job without penalty c. watching television all day d. taking medication and resting to get better ANSWER: d 231. LaRhonda fakes physical and psychological symptoms to achieve sympathy and other social gains. LaRhonda would be classified as: a. having a borderline personality disorder. b. having high pain sensitivity. c. a malingerer. d. having hypochondria. ANSWER: c 232. Which behavior is NOT part of the "sick role" for a 10-year-old child? a. resting on the sofa all day b. taking medicine to get better c. not having to eat anything unpleasant d. being helped by their parents ANSWER: b 233. Compliance with a treatment does NOT deteriorate when the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. treatment is frequent. b. treatment is inconvenient. c. treatment is painful. d. number of treatments decreases. ANSWER: d 234. Adriana has an abrasion on the cornea of her right eye. Which circumstances are LEAST likely to promote satisfactory compliance with her treatment regimen? a. Adriana's eye drops are required only at bedtime. b. Adriana is required to administer the drops every 4 hours. c. Adriana is required to administer the drops every 12 hours. d. Adriana's eye drops are required only in the morning. ANSWER: b 235. Some people fake medical or psychological symptoms to achieve something that they want. This type of behavior is called: a. malingering. b. general adaptation. c. meditation. d. relaxation. ANSWER: a 236. D'Andre is pretending to be sick so that he doesn't have to go to school today. This type of behavior is called: a. malingering. b. general adaptation. c. meditation. d. relaxation. ANSWER: a 237. When patients at a healthcare provider appointment were asked to report how many pills they had taken since their last visit, and then the pills in the bottle were counted to assess the accuracy of the patients' reports, Harold Roth and Herb Caron found that patients: a. were fairly accurate in estimating their intake. b. slightly underreported their intake. c. substantially underreported their intake. d. overreported their intake. ANSWER: d 238. Among people who have just had heart surgery, one would expect that _____ would be _____ likely to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice have postsurgical complications. a. pessimists; equally b. pessimists; less c. optimists; less d. optimists; more ANSWER: c 239. Giulio is an optimist who has a serious medical condition. Research suggests that he will NOT be more likely than will a pessimist to experience: a. being less likely to experience depression and anxiety. b. recovering 40% more quickly. c. maintaining social contacts and recreational activities. d. adhering to medical regimens. ANSWER: b 240. Dr. Watanabe, a health psychologist, would offer which reason to explain how optimism allows a person to maintain psychological health during physical illness? a. Optimists seek out and face negative emotions in the face of illness. b. Optimists are more likely to use relaxation training to control their stress reactions. c. Optimists focus on the big picture instead of following detailed directions of their physicians. d. Optimists keep up social contact and recreational activities during treatment. ANSWER: d 241. Which statement BEST describes the effects of optimism on health? a. Optimism directly improves physical, but not psychological, health. b. Optimism directly improves physical and psychological health. c. Optimism maintains psychological health in the face of a physical health problem. d. Optimism promotes psychological health in the absence of a physical health problem. ANSWER: c 242. Which statement about optimism is false? a. Optimism is moderately heritable. b. Levels of optimism tend to fluctuate across the life span. c. Optimists tend to have better cardiovascular health. d. Pessimists can be trained be become more optimistic. ANSWER: b 243. Suzanne Kobasa studied a group of stress-resistant business executives and found that they shared a trait she called: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice a. hardiness. b. optimism. c. Type A. d. self-regulation. ANSWER: a 244. The hardy personality has been shown to offer protection from stress-induced illnesses. However, the core features of hardiness do NOT include: a. a sense of commitment. b. high levels of social intelligence. c. belief in control. d. willingness to accept challenge. ANSWER: b 245. Compared with participants who received relaxation and meditation training to deal with stress, participants who received hardiness training experienced _____ in perceived personal stress. a. slightly less reduction b. about the same reduction c. a substantial increase d. greater reduction ANSWER: d 246. What percentage of Americans over age 20 have obesity? a. 29% b. 40% c. 69% d. 89% ANSWER: b 247. Approximately _____ people in the United States live with human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immune deficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS). a. 330,000 b. 1 million c. 3.2 million d. 6 million ANSWER: b 248. Approximately 1 in _____ people in the United States has a sexually transmitted infection (STI). a. 3 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 ANSWER: b 249. The exercise of voluntary control over the self to bring the self into line with preferred standards is called: a. self-motivation. b. self-management. c. self-regulation. d. self-esteem. ANSWER: c 250. Self-regulation often involves: a. relaxation therapy. b. not succumbing to immediate gratification. c. weighing oneself on a daily basis. d. keeping a diary. ANSWER: b 251. Natasha has worked hard to develop her ability to accept and adjust to chronic stressors while combining that with an ability to develop a purpose in life and remaining optimistic about her future. This _____ strategy has been shown to decrease the biological impact of stressors. a. fight-or-flight b. fish-or-cut-bait c. tend-and-befriend d. shift-and-persist ANSWER: d 252. Which situation has NOT been suggested as a reason the French have less obesity than are Americans? a. Foods eaten in France contain less fat than those in the United States. b. Portion sizes are smaller in France than they are in the United States. c. Activity level in France is greater than it is in the United States. d. Time spent eating a meal is longer in France than it is in the United States. ANSWER: a 253. The obesity problem in the United States has its basis, in large part, in the fact that Americans eat: a. food that has a higher percentage fat content than do Europeans. b. slowly, which impedes digestion. c. at the wrong times of the day to maximally burn calories. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. larger portions of food. ANSWER: d 254. Instead of dieting, some psychologists recommend controlling weight by: a. focusing on delayed gratification. b. ignoring portion sizes. c. practicing self-denial in many areas of life. d. emphasizing an increase in physical activity. ANSWER: d 255. Public health professionals have recognized for some time that one of the major reasons people engage in risky sexual behaviors is that they: a. are unaware of the risks associated with their behavior. b. believe that they are uniquely invulnerable to the consequences. c. think that they are taking protective measures when having sex. d. do not care about contracting sexually transmitted infections. ANSWER: b 256. Sexually active female college students who do not use birth control tend to judge their likelihood of getting pregnant in the next year as _____ the likelihood of the average sexually active female college student becoming pregnant. a. about the same as b. slightly higher than c. considerably higher than d. considerably lower than ANSWER: d 257. One factor that increases the risk of engaging in unprotected sex is: a. being exposed to sex education. b. consuming alcohol. c. taking birth-control pills. d. having friends who are sexually promiscuous. ANSWER: b 258. What is the best method to prevent adolescents from having unprotected sex? a. provide sex education that gives teens the information they need to plan ahead b. provide sex education that stresses abstinence only c. provide abbreviated sex education that focuses on negative outcomes so that teenagers will not be encouraged to experiment sexually Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Multiple Choice d. begin sex education in 12th grade ANSWER: a 259. Which statement about smoking is false? a. Smoking causes 80% of lung cancers. b. The resolve to quit smoking can break down under stress. c. Nicotine is addictive. d. The rate of smoking in the United States is increasing. ANSWER: d 260. It is estimated that nearly _____ of the U.S. population are currently smokers. a. 7% b. 14% c. 38% d. 51% ANSWER: b 261. Which statement does NOT indicate a reason many people don't quit smoking despite knowing the risks? a. Nicotine is addictive. b. Smoking produces marked decreases in overall self-regulation. c. The desire to quit smoking breaks down under stress. d. Former smokers remain sensitive to cues in the environment for some time after quitting. ANSWER: b 262. The MOST effective means by which to stop smoking involves: a. concentrated hoping. b. a year or more of attending counseling programs. c. motivation and confidence in trying to quit. d. undergoing hypnosis. ANSWER: c

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TB6 Chapter 14 Scenario Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes that take place during a stressful event, constituting what is termed the HPA axis. In his seminal research on the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not necessary for survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 1. (Scenario 14.1) HPA stands for: a. hypothalamic–prefrontal cortex–amygdala. b. hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenocortical. c. hippocampus–prefrontal cortex–adrenocortical. d. hippocampus–pituitary–amygdala. ANSWER: b 2. (Scenario 14.1) Which statement regarding the flight-or-fight response is true? a. It results from activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. b. It involves the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). c. It involves the inhibition of epinephrine and norepinephrine release. d. It results in a decrease in cortisol levels. ANSWER: b 3. (Scenario 14.1) A gazelle flees at the sight of an approaching lion. This flight-or-fight response MOST closely corresponds to which stage of GAS? a. recovery b. shock c. antishock d. resistance ANSWER: c 4. (Scenario 14.1) Hans Selye probably termed the adaptation syndrome "general" because: a. it reliably progresses through three consecutive phases. b. it may culminate in physical collapse, and even death in all species. c. the stressor is nonspecific. d. it is reliably observed in members of all cultures. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Scenario ANSWER: c 5. (Scenario 14.1) The final two stages of GAS pertain only to stressors that are: a. real and not imagined. b. universal. c. species-specific. d. chronic. ANSWER: d 6. (Scenario 14.1) When many marathon runners are training for ultralong distances their menstrual cycle stops, illustrating which stage of GAS? a. resistance b. shock c. antishock d. exhaustion ANSWER: a Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Richard Lazarus and Susan Folkman (1984) proposed a two-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine whether stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if the stressor can be successfully handled. The cognitive-behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. Although coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotion-focused components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 7. (Scenario 14.2) Changing one's perception of a stressor from a threat to a challenge involves _____ appraisal and is also a strategy commonly used in the _____ coping style. a. primary; reframing b. secondary; reframing c. primary; repressive d. secondary; repressive ANSWER: b 8. (Scenario 14.2) Which example BEST illustrates primary appraisal? a. a writer who must decide if they can meet the editor's deadline b. an assault survivor attempting to recall the attack in vivid detail c. a comedian determining if a joke surprised or offended the audience Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Scenario d. a homeowner determining if there is anything that can be done to fix a noisy air conditioner ANSWER: c 9. (Scenario 14.2) Which example BEST illustrates secondary appraisal? a. someone using hallucinogenic drugs determining whether the snake crawling up the wall is real b. a job applicant conceptualizing the process as an opportunity to interview prospective employers c. a person determining if the mysterious spot on a shirt is ketchup or blood d. a student determining if a bad grade can be overcome or is likely to result in course failure ANSWER: d 10. (Scenario 14.2) After being suspended for an entire season as a result of violating the governing body's substance abuse policy, a high-profile athlete will not discuss their drug use with the press, projects an obviously false positive outlook, and focuses on continuing their career after the suspension is served. The athlete is demonstrating a(n) _____ coping style. a. repressive b. problem-based rational c. emotion-based rational d. reframing ANSWER: a 11. (Scenario 14.2) A war veteran receiving systematic desensitization therapy for posttraumatic stress disorder is shown graphic depictions of war violence using virtual reality. This example describes a coping strategy involving: a. reframing. b. reappraising. c. exposure. d. acceptance. ANSWER: c 12. (Scenario 14.2) In a classic study in cognitive psychology, participants told not to think of white bears actually reported more thoughts about white bears than did members of a control group whose thoughts were allowed to wander as they pleased. These results, when applied to coping style, suggest that: a. people may find it difficult to successfully cope by using repressive strategies. b. exposure-based coping is more effective than is reframing. c. secondary appraisal modulates the effectiveness of exposure-based coping. d. people are more likely to utilize repressive coping than they are rational coping. ANSWER: a Scenario 14.3 describes research and presents results from the following publication. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Scenario Roth, H. P., & Caron, H. S. (1978). Accuracy of doctors' estimates and patients' statements on adherence to a drug regimen. Clinical Pharmacology & Therapeutics, 23(3), 361–370. Harold Roth and Herbert Caron (1978) studied adherence to antacid treatment in patients who had been diagnosed with peptic ulcers. Patients were asked to estimate the percentage of pills that they took as prescribed. For example, a person who reports 100 percent is indicating that they never missed a dose—nor took extra—and is taking the medication exactly as described. Researchers assessed the accuracy of patients' reports by counting the number of pills in patients' bottles. Shown in Figure 14.1 are the results. Figure 14.1

13. (Scenario 14.3) This research would best be classified as a(n): a. case study. b. correlational study. c. naturalistic observation. d. experiment. ANSWER: b 14. (Scenario 14.3) The major purpose of this research is to use the actual number of pills consumed to: a. determine the percentage of participants who may require a smaller or larger dose. b. determine the percentage of participants who may be exaggerating their symptoms. c. identify factors that may increase patient adherence to taking medication as prescribed. d. assess patient compliance with taking medication as prescribed. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 14 Scenario 15. (Scenario 14.3) There appears to be _____ between actual pills consumed and reports of pills consumed. a. a positive correlation b. a negative correlation c. no association d. a causal relationship ANSWER: b 16. (Scenario 14.3) The diagonal line on the scatterplot indicates: a. a positive correlation between bottle counts and reports of intake. b. the best-fitting line that can be used to predict patients' reports from bottle counts. c. the percentage of pills consumed as assessed by bottle counts. d. the function obtained if patients' reports matched bottle counts. ANSWER: d 17. (Scenario 14.3) The fact that most of the data points fall above the diagonal line indicates that most patients: a. underreported the number of pills actually consumed. b. overreported the number of pills actually consumed. c. adhered to the prescription regimen at above chance levels. d. took more than the recommended dose. ANSWER: b 18. (Scenario 14.3) Consider the leftmost data points that fall above 100 percent on the y-axis. What is true of these patients? a. They are taking more pills than the prescribed amount. b. They consumed more pills than almost anyone else in the sample. c. They reported taking slightly too many pills but severely underestimated their intake. d. They reported taking slightly too many pills but severely overestimated their intake. ANSWER: d 19. (Scenario 14.3) Saeko tells her doctor that she takes her medication about 50 percent of the time, relative to how the medication is prescribed. Based on the results of this study, Saeko's doctor should probably conclude that Saeko's report: a. is fairly accurate. b. underestimates her actual consumption. c. overestimates her actual consumption. d. is equally likely to be an underestimate and overestimate of her actual consumption. ANSWER: d

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TB6 Chapter 15 Essay 1. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the medical model of mental disorders? ANSWER: The answer should indicate that a strength of the medical model is that it is useful for identifying single causes of diseases as well as disease classification. The identification of causes of diseases has led to the creation of specific treatments. The medical model also reminds us that people experiencing a mental disorder deserve care and treatment, not condemnation. One weakness is that it may be inappropriate to use clients' subjective self-report, rather than physical tests of pathology (as in other areas of medical diagnostics), to determine underlying illness. Another weakness is that the model often "medicalizes" or "pathologizes" normal human behavior such as not paying attention in school. 2. Define the diathesis–stress model. Illustrate how this model is applicable to generalized anxiety disorder and schizophrenia spectrum disorder. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The diathesis–stress model proposes that a person may be predisposed to a psychological disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress. (2) People who have low incomes, are living in large cities, are trapped in unpredictable environments, or who recently experienced a major life change are at increased risk of generalized anxiety disorder. These are all environmental stressors that can trigger the condition. However, only a small portion of people who experience these stressors actually develop generalized anxiety disorder; there appears to be a genetic vulnerability. (3) Children adopted into severely disturbed families have an increased risk of developing schizophrenia only if they had a biological parent with schizophrenia. They have a genetic susceptibility for the condition that is triggered by the stressful environment. Children without this genetic susceptibility are not more likely to develop schizophrenia under these circumstances. 3. Summarize the key distinguishing features of generalized anxiety disorder, phobic disorder, and panic disorder. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: Although each of these diagnoses is a type of anxiety disorder, there are features that distinguish one from another. (1) Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic excessive worry that is not specific to any one threat, accompanied by three or more of the following symptoms: restlessness, fatigue, concentration problems, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. (2) Phobic disorders are characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations. Social phobia involves an irrational fear of being publicly humiliated or embarrassed. (3) Panic disorder is characterized by the sudden occurrence of multiple psychological and physiological symptoms that contribute to the feeling of stark terror. Acute physiological symptoms include shortness of breath, heart palpitations, sweating, and dizziness. Acute psychological symptoms include feeling detached from the body (depersonalization), feeling that the external world is unreal (derealization), and the fear that one is developing a mental illness or is going to die. 4. Amar's roommate Bashar has always insisted on keeping the room in order. Amar knows better than to move anything on Bashar's desk, as Bashar becomes extremely upset for hours if everything isn't in a specific place. Bashar also has germaphobia and lately has insisted on cleaning the apartment every night before bed, even the windows and floors, all in a fixed order. Amar has asked Bashar to stop because the cleaning is excessive and distracting. This just upsets Bashar and causes him to restart his cleaning ritual. Which mental disorder best matches Bashar's symptoms? What purpose does the escalating cleaning ritual serve? What may be going on in Bashar's brain? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Essay ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The behavior described fits the pattern of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). (2) Bashar demonstrates some of the typical symptoms of OCD: ritualistic behaviors, seeming inability to stop these behaviors, anxiety (over the cleanliness of the room), and a fixed order of routine. (3) In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsessions (in this case, fear of germs) create great anxiety, and the compulsive behaviors (in this case, cleaning the room) are performed to reduce the anxiety. (4) There is evidence that implicates heightened neural activity in the cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical loop, a brain system involved in habitual behavior, when OCD has been diagnosed. 5. Critically evaluate the proposal that depression is caused by low levels of norepinephrine and serotonin. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Norepinephrine and serotonin do appear to be involved in depression. Drugs that enhance these neurotransmitters tend to reduce symptoms of depression in many individuals. (2) However, this statement is an oversimplification. Many individuals who experience depression do not have low levels of these neurotransmitters. Moreover, antidepressant drugs quickly enhance these neurotransmitter levels, yet relief is not felt for several weeks. (3) Depression, like most mental disorders, appears to be caused by an interaction among biological, psychological, social, and environmental factors. 6. Illustrate the helplessness theory of depression with a real-world example. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) According to the helplessness theory of depression, individuals who are prone to depression automatically attribute negative experiences to causes that are internal (i.e., their own fault), stable (i.e., unlikely to change), and global (i.e., widespread). This negative cognitive style fuels depression, fostering pessimism and low self-worth. (2) A person prone to depression might interpret a recent breakup as follows: "It really was my fault that they left me (internal). I'm always going to love them and I'll always feel heartbroken (stable). I am a failure at life (global)." (3) A person not prone to depression might interpret a recent breakup as follows: "The relationship failing was as much their fault as it was mine (external). I feel bad now, but I'm sure I will get over it in a few weeks (unstable). In the meantime, I am doing well in my courses and have a lot of meaningful friendships, so I'm doing just fine (specific)." 7. Valentina's best friend, Mimiko, has received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, which explains some of the behavior patterns Valentina has observed in Mimiko. Describe bipolar disorder with attention to its cycles, its subtypes, and the behaviors Valentina might expect to see in Mimiko over the next months. What is rapid cycling bipolar disorder? What sometimes precipitates it? Does bipolar disorder have a genetic component? ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Bipolar disorder is defined as an unstable emotional condition characterized by cycles of abnormal, persistent high mood (mania) and low mood (depression). (2) The manic phase is characterized by elevated mood, less need for sleep, talkativeness, racing thoughts, reckless behavior, possible hallucinations, or delusions for at least one week. At the beginning of a manic phase, Mimiko might be incredibly productive and creative. As the manic phase progresses, however, she may begin engaging in risky behavior, such as sexual indiscretions and wild shopping sprees, and exhibit delusional behavior. (3) The depressive phase is often clinically indistinguishable from major depression. Mimiko will have a severely depressed mood accompanied by feelings of worthlessness and a loss of pleasure. She might feel exhausted and spend most of her days in bed. (4) Subtypes of bipolar disorder are bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder, distinguished by the frequency and severity of episodes. (5) Rapid cycling bipolar disorder occurs when there are at least four mood episodes (either manic or depressive) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Essay every year. This phenomenon occurs in about 10% of all diagnosed cases of bipolar disorder. Although men and women are equally likely to experience bipolar disorder, rapid cycling is more common in women. This type of bipolar disorder is sometimes precipitated by certain kinds of antidepressant drugs, and so Mimiko's doctor might want to reevaluate her medication. (6) Bipolar disorder may be polygenic, arising from the action of many genes in an additive or interactive fashion. Bipolar disorder has one of the highest rates of heritability, with concordance between 40% and 70% for identical twins. It is likely that someone in Mimiko's family also has bipolar disorder. 8. Distinguish positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and provide several examples of each. ANSWER: The answer should indicate that the separation of symptoms into negative and positive allows for a clearer definition of schizophrenia. For example, negative symptoms are marked by deficits or disruptions to normal emotions and behavior. These may include emotional and social withdrawal, apathy, poverty of speech, and decreased ability to focus attention. Positive symptoms are distinguished by additions to normal behavior, such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized behavior. Although it may sound confusing – "positive" sounds like it should be some kind of benefit – the situation is analogous to operant conditioning, and the distinction between positive and negative reinforcement or positive and negative punishment. "Positive anything" in that context means the addition of or application of, whereas "negative anything" in that context means the removal or deletion of. Same things here: Positive symptoms are additions to what could be thought of as normal behavior, and negative symptoms are decrements to behavior. 9. Critically evaluate the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) The dopamine hypothesis proposes that schizophrenia is the result of excess dopamine activity. This account arose because researchers in the 1950s discovered that they could reduce the frequency of positive symptoms of schizophrenia with drugs that block dopamine. (2) However, this hypothesis is an oversimplification. Many people with schizophrenia do not respond favorably to drugs that block dopamine. In addition, these drugs lower dopamine levels immediately, yet therapeutic effects often do not appear for several weeks. Finally, research indicates that several neurotransmitters interact in complex ways to modulate symptoms of schizophrenia. 10. Describe the symptoms and prevalence rates of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) ASD is a condition beginning in early childhood in which a person shows persistent communication deficits as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. (2) Prevalence rates for ASD are increasing; currently about 230 in 10,000 children are diagnosed across the full spectrum of ASD. (3) Reasons for the increase in prevalence include greater awareness of ASD, more screening, and better diagnostic tools. There is no evidence that ASD is caused by childhood vaccinations. 11. Explain why personality disorders are among the most criticized diagnoses in the DSM-5. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Critics question whether having a problematic personality is really a disorder. Given that approximately 15% of the U.S. population has a personality disorder according to the DSM-5, perhaps it might be that a lot of people are just difficult to interact with rather than having a diagnosable mental illness. (2) Another issue is whether personality problems correspond to "disorders" in that there are distinct types, or whether Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Essay such problems might be better understood as extreme values on trait dimensions such as the Big Five traits. 12. Construct brief profiles of individuals to illustrate the following personality disorders: schizoid, paranoid, antisocial, histrionic, avoidant. ANSWER: The answer should include the following information: (1) Schizoid. Jeff is an extreme loner. He has no friends, but this fact doesn't bother him, as he prefers to be alone. He has poor social skills and has little sense of humor. (2) Paranoid. Eva has a tendency to believe that her friends are constantly talking about her behind her back. As such, she is constantly challenging their loyalties. This week, she is convinced that one of her good friends is trying to seduce her boyfriend. Because she really doesn't trust her boyfriend either, she treats him with coldness but guards him jealously. (3) Antisocial. Henri is a con artist who marries older wealthy women and then bilks them out of their life savings. He doesn't feel in the least bit guilty about his actions. He only cares for himself and has no empathy for others. (4) Histrionic. Sasha believes that she is the center of everyone else's attention. She lives her life as if she were "on stage." She is overly dramatic, exaggerates her illnesses, dresses provocatively, and is extremely flirtatious. People around her view her as somewhat "fake" and emotionally shallow. (5) Avoidant. Kaori exhibits a high degree of social anxiety. Although she yearns for social acceptance, often she withdraws because of her fear of being rejected or criticized by the group. People who know her casually regard her as introverted. When around her best friends with whom she feels comfortable, however, she is very friendly and sociable.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 1. The _____ model is an approach that conceptualizes abnormal psychological experiences as illnesses that, like physical illnesses, have biological and environmental causes, defined symptoms, and possible cures. a. diathesis–stress b. medical c. psychodynamic d. cognitive ANSWER: b 2. A(n) _____ disorder can be broadly defined as a persistent disturbance or dysfunction in behavior, thoughts, or emotions that causes significant distress or impairment. a. mood b. mental c. personality d. anxiety ANSWER: b 3. One criticism of the medical model of psychological disorders is that: a. the symptoms change too often for accurate diagnosis. b. psychologists rely too much on the DSM-5-TR for diagnosis. c. it puts too much emphasis on physical symptoms. d. it uses people's subjective self-reports as the basis of diagnosis. ANSWER: d 4. Which is a crucial element in the definition of a mental disorder? a. extreme variation b. deviation from norm c. significant distress or impairment d. acute behavioral episode ANSWER: c 5. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5-TR) _____ mental disorders. a. suggests treatment for b. classifies c. prognoses d. explains ANSWER: b 6. Psychiatrists and clinical psychologists use the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5-TR) to _____ mental disorders. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. treat b. explain c. justify d. diagnose ANSWER: d 7. To fully understand the factors that cause mental disorders, most psychologists use a: a. self-report inventory. b. psychodynamic perspective. c. projective technique. d. biopsychosocial perspective. ANSWER: d 8. In ancient times, the only explanation that was NOT given as a common cause of strange behavior or bizarre thoughts or emotions was: a. God's punishment for wrongdoing. b. possession by demons. c. witchcraft. d. disease. ANSWER: d 9. In the diathesis–stress model of psychological disorders, the diathesis usually refers to a(n): a. underlying biological predisposition. b. external cause of the disorder. c. external trigger that impacts gene expression. d. preexisting medical condition. ANSWER: a 10. In understanding methamphetamine addiction, a psychologist using the system developed by the Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC) might focus on which basic process that underlies the disorder? a. perception and understanding of self b. innate motor patterns c. responsiveness to reward d. frustrative nonreward ANSWER: c 11. The conceptualization of psychological abnormalities as diseases, which, similar to biological diseases, have symptoms, causes, and possible cures, is known as a _____ model. a. biopsychosocial Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. medical c. DSM d. prescriptive ANSWER: b 12. In understanding autism spectrum disorder, a psychologist using the system developed by the Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC) might focus on which basic process that underlies the disorder? a. perception and understanding of self b. social communication c. responsiveness to reward d. sustained threat ANSWER: b 13. Which behavior is a social phobia? a. fear of crowded places b. fear of clowns c. fear of humiliation while speaking in public d. fear of examinations ANSWER: c 14. Which behavior is a specific phobia? a. fear of being challenged while speaking in public b. fear of embarrassment while eating c. fear of humiliation while speaking in public d. fear of driving due to the possibility of an accident ANSWER: d 15. Conceptualizing abnormal thoughts and behaviors as illness suggests that a first step in treatment is to: a. diagnose the illness. b. select the most appropriate treatment. c. reinterpret diseases as disorders. d. reinterpret signs as symptoms. ANSWER: a 16. Objectively observed indicators of an illness are termed: a. symptoms. b. signs. c. disorders. d. diseases. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 17. Which factor has been demonstrated to contribute to generalized anxiety disorder? a. high income b. rural environment c. high levels of the neurotransmitter GABA d. unpredictable living conditions ANSWER: d 18. Benzodiazepines, prescribed to treat generalized anxiety disorder, stimulate the actions of the neurotransmitter: a. serotonin. b. norepinephrine. c. gamma-aminobutyric acid. d. epinephrine. ANSWER: c 19. Before leaving his house every day, Chin Ho has to lock and unlock his door 11 times. If he leaves his house without carrying out this ritual, he will constantly worry about his door being unlocked. Based on his behavior, Chin Ho MOST likely has: a. claustrophobia. b. agoraphobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: c 20. In the medical model, a _____ is a common set of signs and symptoms. a. procedure b. diagnosis c. disorder d. disease ANSWER: c 21. Petra constantly worries about her house getting flooded, so she frequently checks the sink faucets to ensure that they are turned off. Constantly thinking about her house getting flooded represents a(n): a. hallucination. b. obsession. c. delusion. d. compulsion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 22. In the medical model, a _____ is a known pathological process affecting the body. a. dysfunction b. diagnosis c. disorder d. disease ANSWER: d 23. Kono was a victim of a violent assault one year ago. Although he has physically healed, he has frequent flashbacks and unwanted thoughts about the experience that cause extreme anxiety. He avoids the area of town where the assault occurred and has begun drinking alcohol in large quantities to cope with the anxiety produced by his thoughts. Kono reasonably could be diagnosed with: a. panic disorder. b. a specific phobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. ANSWER: d 24. Research suggests that a _____ than average hippocampus might be a _____ posttraumatic stress disorder. a. smaller; cause of b. smaller; preexisting condition for c. larger; cause of d. larger; preexisting condition for ANSWER: b 25. Emily has been experiencing moderate depression for over 3 years. Sometimes, her mood is not severely affected, but she almost always has trouble sleeping and is not interested in food, socializing, sex, or work. Occasionally, however, she is overcome by feelings of worthlessness and thoughts about suicide. Emily would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. bipolar disorder c. agoraphobia. d. double depression. ANSWER: d 26. Cognitive psychologists posit that some people who experience depression adopt a negative schema about the world that affects their attention, memory, and information processing. Which behavior BEST represents a negative bias associated with attention? a. a tendency to give less meaning to positive events Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. trouble disengaging from negative information c. a tendency to interpret neutral information negatively d. better recall of factual information ANSWER: b 27. Subjectively reported feelings or behaviors associated with an illness are termed: a. symptoms. b. signs. c. disorders. d. diseases. ANSWER: a 28. Which statement about bipolar disorder is TRUE? a. Women are considerably more affected than men. b. The manic phase must last at least one week to meet DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria. c. Bipolar disorder affects about 14% of the population at some point in their lives. d. With modern medication, the probability of relapse is low. ANSWER: b 29. According to the _____ theory, individuals who are prone to depression automatically attribute negative experiences to causes that are internal, stable, and global. a. physiognomy b. preparedness c. diathesis d. helplessness ANSWER: d 30. Peyton explains to her psychiatrist that when she experiences anxiety, she feels like there is a heavy weight on her chest that prevents her from breathing normally. Peyton is discussing the _____ of her anxiety. a. signs b. prognosis c. etiology d. symptoms ANSWER: d 31. On most days, Rebecca feels depressed and finds it difficult to get out of bed and go about her daily tasks. About once a month, however, she becomes extremely energized and sociable, and she feels extremely happy. This high mood lasts for about a week, and then she goes back to feeling depressed. Based on her symptoms, Rebecca probably would be diagnosed with _____ disorder. a. bipolar Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. multiple personality c. borderline personality d. persistent depressive ANSWER: a 32. Artemus has been hearing voices in his head. They started off as whispers that he could not fully comprehend. With time, they became very clear and told Artemus that his family members were planning to murder him while he slept. Artemus believed that the voices belonged to a secret governmental transmission network that has been spying on him for months, and that they have planned to broadcast his thoughts to a paramilitary group in Ecuador. Based on his symptoms, Artemus is MOST likely to be diagnosed with: a. paranoid personality disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. borderline personality disorder. ANSWER: c 33. Lorenzo has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. By examining his medical records, his psychiatrist notes that Lorenzo has lost 8 pounds since his last visit 2 weeks ago. Lorenzo was not aware of this weight loss until it was pointed out to him. In this example, weight loss is one _____ of depression. a. sign b. diagnosis c. contraindication d. symptom ANSWER: a 34. Which activity is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. social withdrawal b. hallucinations c. delusions d. disorganized speech ANSWER: a 35. Which symptom of schizophrenia refers to a false belief that is maintained even though it is irrational? a. hallucination b. delusion c. disorganized behavior d. fugue state ANSWER: b 36. In the medical model, sign is to symptom as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. disease is to disorder. b. disorder is to disease. c. objective is to subjective. d. subjective is to objective. ANSWER: c 37. Which characteristic is a sign of illness? a. high fever b. bad headaches c. stomach pain d. feelings of lethargy ANSWER: a 38. Anton is 6 years old and has not spoken his first words yet. He does not interact with any of the children in his day care and gets very agitated when any changes are made to his environment. At times, he also flaps his arms for no apparent reason. According to the DSM-5-TR, Anton is MOST likely to be diagnosed with: a. Asperger's syndrome. b. pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified. c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). d. autism spectrum disorder (ASD). ANSWER: d 39. Julian believes that the psychologist at his campus mental health center is actually an extraterrestrial from Neptune. He also believes that this extraterrestrial has implanted a chip into his shoulder that transmits his thoughts to others. Each day, Julian wonders how many of the other students on campus are actually extraterrestrials in disguise and which of them has been trying to poison his food. Julian is MOST likely experiencing: a. delusions. b. catatonia. c. disorganized behavior. d. disorganized speech. ANSWER: a 40. Seven-year-old Rollie has already been expelled from one elementary school for repeatedly getting into fights with other children, stealing lunch money, and being extremely disruptive in the classroom. Rollie is MOST likely to be diagnosed with: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. conduct disorder. c. avoidant personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 41. Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by: a. persistent communication deficits. b. impairments in intelligence. c. aggression and self-injury. d. difficulty separating fantasy from reality. ANSWER: a 42. Which characteristic is a symptom of illness? a. high fever b. bad headaches c. high blood pressure d. elevated white blood cell count ANSWER: b 43. For the past year, 10-year-old Thomas has been having some difficulties at school. His teacher reports that Thomas will not sit quietly at his desk and easily loses his focus when engaged in academic work. Thomas's parents are observing similar behavior at home. Thomas would be MOST likely to receive a diagnosis of: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. conduct disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. ANSWER: d 44. Kam Fong views drug addiction as a disease of the brain. She believes that if we can understand how drugs pathologically affect the brain, we can develop new treatments and ultimately cure people with drug addiction. Kam Fong's views BEST match the _____ model of conceptualizing mental disorders. a. biopsychosocial b. medical c. DSM d. diathesis–stress ANSWER: b 45. Compared to the others, members of which demographic group statistically are MOST likely to die by suicide? a. white men b. white women c. men of color d. women of color Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 46. Calling shyness social phobia is an example used by critics of the medical model to make the point that the medical model: a. confuses disorders for diseases. b. pathologizes normal human behavior. c. places too much emphasis on subjective symptoms. d. diagnoses but does not provide treatment for common disorders. ANSWER: b 47. According to the notion of physiognomy, mental disorders could be diagnosed from a person's: a. physiological reactions to stress. b. speed of bodily reflexes. c. facial features. d. number and placement of bumps on the head. ANSWER: c 48. The D in DSM stands for: a. Disease. b. Doctor. c. Diagnostic. d. Disorder. ANSWER: c 49. The S in DSM stands for: a. Statistical. b. Sign. c. Symptom. d. Screening. ANSWER: a 50. The M in DSM stands for: a. Mind. b. Monograph. c. Medical. d. Manual. ANSWER: d 51. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) is currently in its _____ edition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. third b. fourth c. fifth d. sixth ANSWER: c 52. The major contribution of the original Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) was: a. providing detailed diagnostic criteria for the most common mental illnesses. b. determining prevalence rates for the most common mental illnesses. c. reframing mental illness within a biopsychosocial model. d. providing a common language for talking about disorders. ANSWER: d 53. The major improvement from DSM-III to DSM-IV was the inclusion of: a. cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders. b. a more detailed code of ethics. c. modern statistical procedures. d. detailed diagnostic criteria. ANSWER: d 54. When was the initial version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published? a. 1925 b. 1952 c. 1974 d. 1980 ANSWER: b 55. The major goal of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) is to _____ mental disorders. a. apply labels to b. identify the causes of c. classify d. pathologize ANSWER: c 56. The DSM–5-TR provides detailed diagnostic criteria for more than _____ mental disorders. a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 57. The inclusion of detailed diagnostic criteria in more recent versions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) increases the _____ of diagnosing mental illness. a. frequency b. validity c. consistency d. prevalence ANSWER: c 58. Which factor is NOT a component of the DSM–5-TR? a. 22 major categories of mental disorders b. causes of psychological disorders c. cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders d. specific criteria that must be met in order for a person to be diagnosed with a disorder ANSWER: b 59. During their lifetimes, approximately _____ of Americans will experience some type of mental disorder. a. 45 to 50% b. 25 to 30% c. 10 to 20% d. 7 to 10% ANSWER: a 60. Comorbidity refers to the: a. occurrence of a severe mood disorder. b. co-occurrence of two or more disorders in a single individual. c. genetic predisposition that makes an individual susceptible to a disorder. d. inclusion of both environmental and biological factors in diagnosing mental disorders. ANSWER: b 61. Savannah has been diagnosed with both social phobia and depression. Savannah's case exemplifies: a. comorbidity. b. a global assessment of functioning. c. dissociative disorders. d. the diathesis–stress model. ANSWER: a 62. The major reason that the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) switched from Roman to Arabic numerals was to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. increase its popularity by rebranding. b. encourage more frequent revisions. c. better meet the needs of insurance companies. d. avoid ambiguity. ANSWER: b 63. A study of a large representative sample of the U.S. population revealed that greater than _____ of individuals with a mental disorder report comorbidity with another mental disorder. a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% ANSWER: d 64. The DSM–5-TR contains material to help clinicians understand cultural influences on mental disorders. Which statement about mental disorders across cultures is TRUE? a. The prevalence rates for various mental disorders are very similar in all cultures. b. Depression and anxiety are the most common mental disorders in all cultures. c. Mental disorders are experienced in the same ways across all cultures. d. Substance use disorders are the most common mental disorders in all cultures. ANSWER: b 65. The DSM–5-TR contains material to help clinicians understand cultural influences on mental disorders. In all cultures, however, some mental disorders are more common than are others. What is the CORRECT order from most to least prevalent of the three most common categories of mental disorders? a. substance use disorders, depression and anxiety, impulse-control disorders b. impulse-control disorders, depression and anxiety, substance use disorders c. depression and anxiety, substance use disorders, impulse-control disorders d. depression and anxiety, impulse-control disorders, substance use disorders ANSWER: d 66. According to the World Health Organization, which country has the HIGHEST lifetime prevalence rate of mental disorders? a. China b. France c. the United States d. South Africa ANSWER: c 67. Although the DSM–5-TR is the preferred diagnostic system of mental disorders in the United States, many Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice other countries use the: a. Categorization of Psychological Disturbances (COPD). b. International Classification of Diseases (ICD). c. Manual of Mental Disorders (MOM). d. Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR). ANSWER: b 68. The DSM–5-TR contains material to help clinicians understand cultural influences on mental disorders. To this end, it distinguishes among a number of important culturally related concepts. For example, groups of symptoms that tend to cluster together in specific cultures are termed cultural: a. disorders. b. idioms of distress. c. syndromes. d. explanations. ANSWER: c 69. The DSM–5-TR contains material to help clinicians understand cultural influences on mental disorders. To this end, ways of talking about mental illness can differ across cultures. Culture-specific references to mental illness are termed cultural: a. memes. b. idioms of distress. c. syndromes. d. language paradigms. ANSWER: b 70. The DSM–5-TR contains material to help clinicians understand cultural influences on mental disorders. Different cultures may have different descriptions of the causes of mental disorders. These are termed cultural: a. models. b. idioms of distress. c. syndromes. d. explanations. ANSWER: d 71. Taijin kyofusho is a cultural syndrome seen in Japan in which a person fears and avoids contact with others due to the belief that they are inadequate or offensive. This syndrome appears to be a combination of which two DSM–5-TR conditions? a. generalized anxiety disorder and depression b. panic disorder and schizophrenia c. social anxiety and body dysmorphic disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder and borderline personality disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 72. In many South Asian cultures, mental disorders are believed to be the result of a loss of dhat or dhatu, a white substance believed necessary for wellness that exits the body through secretions. This belief is an example of a cultural: a. explanation. b. syndrome. c. diathesis. d. idiom of distress. ANSWER: a 73. With respect to a medical conceptualization of mental disorders, prognosis refers to the: a. typical course of a disorder and its susceptibility to treatment. b. biological cause of the disorder. c. treatment plan decided upon by a psychiatrist. d. classification of the disorder. ANSWER: a 74. With respect to the medical model of disease, etiology is defined as: a. the typical course of disease. b. the susceptibility of a disease to treatment and cure. c. a pattern of causes of disease. d. the classification of disease. ANSWER: c 75. Maria, a middle-aged woman who has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, asks her physician many questions about how the disease will affect her life in the years to come. She is MOST concerned about the _____ of the disease. a. symptoms b. prognosis c. etiology d. diagnosis ANSWER: b 76. A psychiatrist explains to their patient that a combination of neurotransmitter imbalances and work stress is probably responsible for the patient's anxiety. The psychiatrist is discussing the _____ of the disorder. a. signs b. prognosis c. etiology d. diagnosis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 77. Which statement regarding psychological disorders is TRUE? a. They rarely have physical causes. b. They rarely have a single cause. c. They rarely have environmental causes. d. They often have a single physical cause. ANSWER: b 78. Possible biological factors contributing to mental disorders do NOT include: a. genetic influences. b. biochemical imbalances. c. maladaptive learning. d. brain abnormalities. ANSWER: c 79. Possible psychological factors contributing to mental disorders do NOT include: a. maladaptive coping. b. dysfunctional attitudes. c. interpersonal problems. d. stressful life circumstances. ANSWER: d 80. Possible social or environmental factors contributing to mental disorders do NOT include: a. maladaptive learning and coping. b. poor socialization. c. stressful life experiences. d. cultural and social inequities. ANSWER: a 81. The diathesis–stress model explains disease as the result of: a. a predisposition for a disease and a triggering event. b. a triggering event such as stress. c. a predisposition for a disease. d. biological, psychological, and social factors that all interact. ANSWER: a 82. Diathesis can be defined as: a. a triggering event such as stress. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. a disease. c. a predisposition for a disease. d. the heritability of a disease. ANSWER: c 83. Different individuals can experience a similar mental disorder for different reasons. This phenomenon illustrates: a. the complexity of causation. b. the medical model. c. the diathesis–stress model. d. comorbidity. ANSWER: a 84. The biopsychosocial perspective assumes that mental disorders are: a. entirely genetically determined. b. the result of neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain. c. simply patterns of maladaptive behavior caused by learning and cultural influences. d. caused by multiple biological and environmental factors interacting with one another. ANSWER: d 85. Which statements about diatheses is TRUE? a. A diathesis must be genetic. b. If a diathesis is inherited, a disorder associated with it will occur. c. A diathesis is an external stressor that triggers a disorder. d. A diathesis could be psychological. ANSWER: d 86. Which statements about diatheses is TRUE? a. A diathesis could be a genetic predisposition. b. If a diathesis is present, a disorder will occur. c. A diathesis is an external stressor that triggers a disorder. d. A diathesis is an internal protective factor against a disorder. ANSWER: a 87. Skai's mother has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, but Skai herself showed no symptoms of schizophrenia until she experienced the stress of law school final exams, which prompted a psychotic break with reality. Skai's case is a good example of: a. hereditary induced stress. b. etiology and prognosis. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice c. the diathesis–stress model. d. the medical model. ANSWER: c 88. Both of Theodore's parents were diagnosed with depression at one point or another in their lives, but Theodore himself showed no symptoms of depression until his partner of 2 years broke up with him. This incident triggered a major depressive episode. Theodore's case is a good example of: a. hereditary induced stress. b. etiology and prognosis. c. the diathesis–stress model. d. the medical model. ANSWER: c 89. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) is BEST conceptualized as a _____ of mental disorders. a. thesaurus b. bible c. dictionary d. mosaic ANSWER: c 90. The _____ is a new initiative that aims to guide the classification and understanding of mental disorders by revealing the basic processes that give rise to them. a. Understanding Mental Causation and Disruption (UMCD) b. Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC) c. Human Frailty/Human Potential (HF/HP) d. National Register of Genetic Exceptional Experiences (NRGEE) ANSWER: b 91. What is the purpose of the Research Domain Criteria Project? a. to identify evidence-based treatments for mental illness b. to explore cultural differences in the expression of mental illness c. to conduct a longitudinal study of participants with a variety of mental illnesses d. to identify the basic processes that give rise to mental illness ANSWER: d 92. The federal agency in the United States that is the primary funder of research investigating mental disorders is the: a. National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH). b. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA). Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice c. Research Directorate on Counseling (RDoC). d. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). ANSWER: a 93. From the RDoC perspective, mental disorders can be thought of as: a. arising from maladaptive learning experiences. b. descriptions of behavior, rather than explanations of behavior. c. the result of dysfunctions in normal psychological processes. d. rather arbitrary cultural standards of normalcy. ANSWER: c 94. Which domain is NOT a part of the Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC)? a. cognitive systems b. systems for social processes c. psychodynamic processes d. arousal and regulatory systems ANSWER: c 95. Which domain is NOT a part of the Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC)? a. self-control systems b. systems for social processes c. cognitive systems d. arousal and regulatory systems ANSWER: a 96. A researcher is interested in how some aspects of mental disorders appear to be the result of reward learning. Which RDoC domain does this research BEST fit? a. cognitive systems b. systems for social processes c. positive valence systems d. arousal and regulatory systems ANSWER: c 97. A researcher who explores the basic building blocks of anxiety is conducting research using which RDoC domain? a. cognitive systems b. systems for social processes c. negative valence systems d. arousal and regulatory systems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 98. Dr. Petrozich studies how differences in infant attachment are related to adult mental disorders. Her research BEST fits with which RDoC domain? a. cognitive systems b. systems for social processes c. negative valence systems d. arousal and regulatory systems ANSWER: b 99. Which psychologist is conducting research using the RDoC domain of negative valence systems? a. Dr. Sato, who studies approach motivation b. Dr. Ramirez, who studies infant attachment c. Dr. Chung, who studies circadian rhythms d. Dr. Otieno, who studies anxiety ANSWER: d 100. Which psychologist is conducting research using the RDoC domain of positive valence systems? a. Dr. Mwangi, who studies approach motivation b. Dr. Nakamura, who studies declarative memory c. Dr. Habib, who studies circadian rhythms d. Dr. Assefa, who studies perception and understanding of self ANSWER: a 101. Which psychologist is conducting research using the RDoC domain of cognitive systems? a. Dr. Zarich, who studies approach motivation b. Dr. Gomez, who studies declarative memory c. Dr. Petronzi, who studies circadian rhythms d. Dr. Suzuki, who studies perception and understanding of self ANSWER: b 102. Which psychologist is conducting research using the RDoC domain of systems for social processes? a. Dr. Bekele, who studies approach motivation b. Dr. Tanaka, who studies declarative memory c. Dr. Li, who studies circadian rhythms and sleep patterns d. Dr. Ruiz, who studies perception and understanding of self ANSWER: d 103. The RDoC approach groups _____ such as fear, anxiety, attention, and perception into broader categories known as _____. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. units of analysis; domains b. units of analysis; constructs c. constructs; domains d. domains; constructs ANSWER: c 104. An ultimate goal of the RDoC approach is to classify mental disorders: a. through cluster analysis of symptoms. b. based on abnormalities in basic processes. c. based on differences in the human genome. d. through an understanding of the outcomes of disordered behavior. ANSWER: b 105. A clinician using the RDoC approach to understand cocaine addiction would MOST likely focus on abnormalities occurring in which domain? a. positive valence systems b. negative valence systems c. cognitive systems d. systems for social processes ANSWER: a 106. A clinician using the RDoC approach to understand attachment between infants and their primary caregivers would MOST likely focus on abnormalities occurring in which domain? a. positive valence systems b. negative valence systems c. cognitive systems d. systems for social processes ANSWER: d 107. A clinician using the RDoC approach would understand all of these psychological problems as arising from abnormalities in the same basic processes EXCEPT: a. cocaine addiction. b. gambling. c. an unstable sense of self. d. risky sexual behavior. ANSWER: c 108. A clinician using the RDoC approach would understand all of these psychological problems as arising from abnormalities in the same basic processes EXCEPT: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. amnesia. b. attention-deficit disorder. c. dementia. d. insomnia. ANSWER: d 109. Hospitalizing people with mental disorders is _____ necessary. a. never b. seldom c. frequently d. almost always ANSWER: b 110. The stigma associated with mental disorders may explain why most people with diagnosable psychological disorders, approximately _____, do not seek treatment. a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90% ANSWER: a 111. Stating that a person's symptoms currently meet diagnostic criteria for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): a. unnecessarily gives a person a negative label. b. labels the disorder but not the person. c. avoids labeling the disorder and the person. d. labels a person, but not in a negative way. ANSWER: b 112. What is a structured clinical interview? a. an informal give-and-take between a clinician and potential client during an initial meeting b. a legally required report submitted to an insurance provider detailing a client's diagnosis and prognosis c. a 600-item checklist that allows a clinician to rule out, but not rule in, a specific diagnosis of a mental disorder d. a set of questions derived from a list of symptoms in the DSM-5-TR that a clinician asks a person in order to make a criterion-based diagnosis ANSWER: d 113. Clinicians often rely on _____ as a criterion-based method of making a determination whether a given Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice person meets the criteria for a given disorder. a. a client's recommendation of a specific diagnosis b. consensus within a clinical practice c. structured clinical interviews d. their intuition ANSWER: c 114. Upon hearing that his grandson Robert was diagnosed with depression, Mr. Stevens concluded that Robert must have a weak constitution, probably not passed down from his side of the family. This example BEST illustrates: a. cultural syndromes. b. the diathesis–stress model of mental illness. c. the medical model of mental illness. d. the dangers of labeling. ANSWER: d 115. Roberta wonders why her daughter, who recently was diagnosed with social anxiety, is so weak-willed that she cannot deal with a little social disapproval. This example BEST illustrates: a. cultural idioms. b. the diathesis–stress model of mental illness. c. the RDoC model. d. the dangers of labeling. ANSWER: d 116. Which disorder is NOT classified as an anxiety disorder in the DSM-5-TR? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. bipolar disorder d. phobic disorders ANSWER: c 117. Which disorder is NOT classified as an anxiety disorder in the DSM-5-TR? a. phobic disorder b. bipolar disorder c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: b 118. Which disorder is NOT classified as an anxiety disorder in the DSM-5-TR? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. phobia b. generalized anxiety disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. panic disorder ANSWER: c 119. Situation-related anxiety is: a. a symptom that one of the anxiety disorders probably is present. b. a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. a defining feature of panic disorder. d. normal and adaptive. ANSWER: d 120. A marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations is termed _____ disorder. a. generalized anxiety b. panic c. phobic d. posttraumatic stress ANSWER: c 121. Which entity is NOT a category of specific phobias? a. food b. animals c. blood, injections, and injury d. natural environments ANSWER: a 122. Which behavior is its own category of specific phobias? a. public speaking b. using public restrooms c. blood, injections, and injury d. social phobias ANSWER: c 123. People who have been diagnosed with phobic disorders: a. believe that their fear is adaptive. b. are good at not letting the phobia interfere with their everyday functioning. c. tend to have lowered levels of activity in the amygdala. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. recognize that their fear is irrational. ANSWER: d 124. Kathryn says she is deathly afraid of spiders. She refuses to go into any location (garage, basement, attic, etc.) where she may encounter a spider. Her fear of spiders is so great that she is losing sleep for fear a spider will crawl on her while she is asleep. As a result, her grades are beginning to worsen. Kathryn would probably be diagnosed with: a. panic disorder. b. a specific phobia. c. social phobia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: b 125. Approximately _____ of people in the United States develop a specific phobia at some point in their lives. a. 12% b. 22% c. 32% d. 42% ANSWER: a 126. Which statement about social phobia is TRUE? a. It is slightly more common in women than it is in men. b. There are five different classes of social phobias. c. It is more common in children than young adults. d. It is defined in part as an inability to form close relationships. ANSWER: a 127. Which statement about social phobia is TRUE? a. It is slightly more common in men than it is in women. b. It is an irrational fear of being publicly embarrassed. c. It is more common in children than it is in young adults. d. There are five different classes of social phobias. ANSWER: b 128. Elliott cannot go to the bathroom in a public restroom. He fears that someone will hear him or see him going to the bathroom, which he would find embarrassing. Elliott might be diagnosed with: a. a specific phobia. b. social phobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. ANSWER: a 129. Who proposed the preparedness theory of phobias? a. Amanda Hari b. Martin E. P. Seligman c. Wendy Turnbull d. Karl S. Lashley ANSWER: b 130. Human beings and monkeys have been shown to be instinctively primed to learn fears of certain things, such as of snakes and spiders. Which theory supports this proposition? a. confirmation bias b. learning theory c. classical conditioning d. preparedness theory ANSWER: d 131. Phobias are particularly likely to form around objects that evolution has predisposed us to avoid. This fact is MOST consistent with a _____ account of phobias. a. medical b. preparedness c. diathesis–stress d. conditioning ANSWER: b 132. Which event has been implicated as playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. having family members with phobias b. high levels of extraversion c. abnormalities in the neurotransmitter glutamate d. abnormally low levels of activity in the amygdala ANSWER: a 133. Which event has been implicated as playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. sleep disturbances b. higher than normal levels of the neurotransmitter GABA c. abnormalities in the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine d. abnormally low levels of activity in the amygdala ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 134. Which event has been implicated as playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. excessive shyness in children b. higher than normal levels of the neurotransmitter GABA c. intrusive, repetitive, and unwanted thoughts d. abnormally low levels of activity in the amygdala ANSWER: a 135. Which event has been implicated as playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. feelings of worthlessness b. higher than normal levels of the neurotransmitter GABA c. intrusive, repetitive, and unwanted thoughts d. abnormally high levels of activity in the amygdala ANSWER: d 136. Which statement regarding the relationship between classical conditioning and phobias is TRUE? a. Phobias cannot be classically conditioned. b. Most specific phobias are formed through classical conditioning. c. Most social phobias are formed through classical conditioning. d. Classical conditioning provides a useful model of therapy for phobias. ANSWER: d 137. Ellen was kicked by a horse as a child. She now has a severe fear of horses. Even pictures of horses can make her sweat and feel anxious. Ellen's behavior demonstrates: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. observational learning. d. instrumental learning. ANSWER: a 138. Ellen was kicked by a horse as a child. She now has a severe fear of horses. Even pictures of horses can make her sweat and feel anxious. Ellen's fear reaction to horses is an example of a(n) _____ response. a. operant b. prepared c. unconditioned d. conditioned ANSWER: d 139. After being bitten by a dog, a child shows an exaggerated fear response to all dogs, even small friendly dogs on leashes. The child's fear reaction to dogs is an example of a(n) _____ response. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. operant b. prepared c. unconditioned d. conditioned ANSWER: d 140. "Feelings of stark terror" are an indicator that BEST applies to: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. conduct disorder. c. panic disorder. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: c 141. A feeling of being detached from one's body is termed: a. deindividuation. b. depersonalization. c. derealization. d. dysthymia. ANSWER: b 142. Due to the unexpected nature of panic attacks, some people develop a fear of public places; they are afraid that they will have a panic attack and help will not be available. The fear of public places is called _____ . a. claustrophobia b. social phobia c. agoraphobia d. acrophobia ANSWER: c 143. Which characteristic is NOT indicative of a panic attack? a. shortness of breath b. depersonalization c. derealization d. disorganized speech ANSWER: d 144. Which characteristic is indicative of a panic attack? a. irritability b. depersonalization c. sleep disturbances Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. disorganized speech ANSWER: b 145. Just before she experiences a panic attack, Margot feels that the world has suddenly become very strange. This feeling is termed: a. deindividuation. b. depersonalization. c. derealization. d. dysthymia. ANSWER: c 146. People who have been diagnosed with panic disorder sometimes experience: a. multiple personality disorder. b. agoraphobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: b 147. Someone who has been diagnosed with agoraphobia would be LEAST likely to be found: a. on a ladder. b. attending a popular Broadway play. c. petting a large dog. d. in a small, enclosed room. ANSWER: b 148. Over the past year, Bo has repeatedly experienced symptoms that he believes indicate a heart attack, sending him to the emergency room complaining of dizziness, inability to catch his breath, and heart palpitations. Bo tells his friends he is afraid he's going to die, although doctors have found nothing physically wrong. Based on his symptoms, it is likely that Bo is experiencing: a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. dissociative episodes. c. manic episodes. d. panic attacks. ANSWER: d 149. Approximately _____ of people will have a diagnosable panic disorder sometime in their lives. a. 2% b. 12% c. 22% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. 42% ANSWER: a 150. Approximately _____ of adults around the world report having had at least one panic attack. a. 3% b. 9% c. 13% d. 22% ANSWER: c 151. Compared to the others, which person would MOST likely be diagnosed with panic disorder? a. Abe, who had a panic attack after he was pulled over by the police for speeding b. Lauren, who has occasional panic attacks during periods of intense stress but has learned not to fear them c. Jasmine, who had a panic attack when she was diagnosed with cancer d. Omar, who has occasional panic attacks and dreads having another ANSWER: d 152. Family studies suggest some hereditary component to panic disorder, with _____ of the variance in liability for developing panic disorder attributed to genetic influence. a. 10 to 20% b. 20 to 30% c. 30 to 40% d. 40 to 50% ANSWER: c 153. Administration of the chemical _____ induces a panic attack in most people who have been diagnosed with panic disorder. a. capsaicin b. sodium lactate c. l-amphetamine d. pentobarbital ANSWER: b 154. Research investigating the treatment potential of sodium lactate has generated findings that support the notion that people who have been diagnosed with panic disorder: a. have higher levels of this chemical in their brains. b. metabolize this chemical more quickly than do people not diagnosed with panic disorder. c. are hypersensitive to physiological arousal. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. are less likely to attend to their bodily reactions when interpreting the threat status of a stressor. ANSWER: c 155. Isaac does not have an anxiety disorder; he hasn't been diagnosed with one and has never shown symptoms of such a disorder. He is given sodium lactate and asked to report on his symptoms. Which outcome is MOST likely? a. Isaac might note that his breathing has become shallower. b. Isaac might begin feeling that he is separate from his body but that this feeling is enjoyable. c. Isaac will experience increased calmness. d. Isaac most likely will experience a full-blown panic attack. ANSWER: a 156. In generalized anxiety disorder, chronic excessive worry is NOT usually accompanied by: a. restlessness. b. fatigue. c. panic attacks. d. concentration problems. ANSWER: c 157. Which characteristic is NOT a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? a. concentration problems b. sleep problems c. muscle tension d. psychosis ANSWER: d 158. Chastity constantly worries about the prospect of losing her job, her mounting credit card debt, her kids' performance in school, the grinding noise underneath her car, her weight, and a host of other things. She is also unable to sleep and feels constantly irritated. These problems negatively affect her quality of life. Chastity will probably be diagnosed with: a. panic disorder. b. social phobia. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. generalized anxiety disorder. ANSWER: d 159. Which characteristic is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? a. concentration problems b. feelings of worthlessness c. unexpected weight gain or loss Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. psychosis ANSWER: a 160. Which characteristic is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? a. disorganized speech b. ritualistic behavior c. unexpected weight gain or loss d. irritability ANSWER: d 161. Which characteristic is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? a. communication deficits b. ritualistic behavior c. sleep disturbances d. feelings of worthlessness ANSWER: c 162. The anxiety of someone who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder is: a. often irrational. b. usually caused by extreme fatigue. c. known to lead to compulsions. d. related to a specific situation. ANSWER: a 163. About _____ of people in the United States are estimated to experience generalized anxiety disorder at some time in their lives. a. 6% b. 10% c. 18% d. 20% ANSWER: a 164. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is slightly more than _____ as common in men as it is in women. a. half b. three times c. four times d. twice ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 165. Giuseppe constantly complains about fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems. He is irritable, worries incessantly about little things that cause others in his family no concern, and has trouble concentrating. From his symptoms, it is likely that Giuseppe would be diagnosed with: a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. major depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. dissociative disorder. ANSWER: a 166. Isabella finds herself worrying about most things in her life, from whether her children are safe drivers to making the right decision on refinancing her home, what to prepare for dinner, and whether her spouse is being faithful to her. Isabella's worrying has begun to interfere with her sleep, and makes her feel irritable and fatigued throughout the day. Isabella would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. dysthymia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder. ANSWER: c 167. The percentage of pairs of twins who share a particular characteristic is called the _____ rate. a. common b. coefficient c. concordance d. comorbidity ANSWER: c 168. Valium belongs to a class of drugs known as _____, which are commonly prescribed to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). a. barbiturates b. benzodiazepines c. opiates d. anesthetics ANSWER: b 169. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) would be predicted to be LESS prevalent among: a. women. b. people living in rural areas. c. people living in poverty. d. people living in large cities. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 170. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) would be predicted to be MORE prevalent among: a. men. b. people living in rural areas. c. wealthier people. d. people living in unpredictable environments. ANSWER: d 171. Which neurotransmitter has been linked to the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? a. GABA b. ACTH c. serotonin d. dopamine ANSWER: a 172. Compared to the others, which person is MOST likely to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder? a. a Black man who is a celebrity b. a woman experiencing homelessness after recently being laid off c. an older woman who is an upper-level manager in charge of major financial decisions d. a middle-aged lawyer whose spouse just died after a long illness ANSWER: b 173. Which statement regarding pharmacological treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is TRUE? a. Effective treatments decrease the activity of GABA in the brain. b. Benzodiazepines have largely proven ineffective at treating GAD. c. Certain antidepressants can be effective at treating GAD. d. Effective treatments increase the activity of glutamate in the brain. ANSWER: c 174. Which mental disorder is characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors designed to fend off those thoughts, all of which interferes significantly with daily functioning? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. specific phobia c. autism spectrum disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder ANSWER: d 175. Which statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is TRUE? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. Compulsions temporarily reduce anxiety. b. People believe that their obsessions are rational. c. Rates of OCD are higher among men than among women. d. Successful treatment involves actively trying to suppress obsessive thoughts. ANSWER: a 176. In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsessive thoughts _____, and the compulsive behaviors _____. a. produce anxiety; reduce it b. produce anxiety; further increase it c. trigger panic attacks; decrease anxiety d. trigger panic attacks; prolong them ANSWER: a 177. Nikki has germaphobia and is extremely worried about contamination. She typically washes her hands more than 80 times a day. As a result, her hands are cracked and bleeding, but she feels momentary relief from her contamination concerns when she washes them. It is likely that Nikki would be diagnosed with: a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. a specific phobia. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: b 178. Dolpho is obsessed with putting things in order. Among other things, he alphabetizes his record collection, neatly folds and organizes his clothes by type and color, and maintains all of his financial records in strict chronological order. He is constantly checking these items to make sure that they are in order, and he feels great distress when they are not. It is likely that Dolpho would be diagnosed with: a. claustrophobia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: b 179. Hidalgo is worried that someone is going to break into his house; he checks his locks dozens of times each day and sets up traps to detect the presence of intruders when he is away. It is likely that Hidalgo has: a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. social phobia. d. agoraphobia. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 180. Which concern is MOST common in people who have been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? a. contamination b. ordering c. checking d. cleaning ANSWER: c 181. Which concern is NOT common in people who have been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? a. contamination b. moral concerns c. ordering items d. excessive eating ANSWER: d 182. Which statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is TRUE? a. Compulsions lead to obsessions, which, in turn, lead to depression. b. People believe that their obsessions are rational. c. Rates of OCD are higher among women than among men. d. Successful treatment of OCD involves actively trying to suppress obsessive thoughts. ANSWER: c 183. About _____ of people will develop OCD sometime in their lives. a. 1% b. 2% c. 5% d. 10% ANSWER: b 184. Which brain system has been MOST implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. somatosensory cortex b. cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical loop c. default mode network d. left and right superior temporal gyrus ANSWER: b 185. Research indicates that obsessive-compulsive disorder is associated with a high level of activity in a brain circuit involved in _____ behavior. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. habitual b. emotional c. decision-making d. threat-appraisal ANSWER: a 186. Developing treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder involves _____ the activity in a brain circuit involved in _____ behavior. a. increasing; habitual b. decreasing; habitual c. increasing; emotional d. decreasing; emotional ANSWER: b 187. The heritability estimate for obsessive-compulsive disorder is around: a. 10% b. 25% c. 40% d. 50% ANSWER: d 188. Which behavior is NOT a defining feature of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. chronic physiological arousal b. false beliefs that are maintained in spite of their irrationality c. recurrent unwanted thoughts or images of the trauma d. avoidance of situations that call the traumatic event to mind ANSWER: b 189. Which behavior is a defining feature of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. increased activity in brain circuits involving habitual learning b. false and irrational beliefs about the trauma c. amnesia of the traumatic event d. avoidance of situations that call the traumatic event to mind ANSWER: d 190. Which behavior is a defining feature of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. decreased sympathetic nervous system activity b. false and irrational beliefs about the trauma c. recurrent unwanted thoughts or images of the trauma Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. compulsive exposure to situations that bring the trauma to mind ANSWER: c 191. Approximately what percentage of U.S. veterans of recent operations in Iraq met criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder after their deployment? a. 12% b. 22% c. 32% d. 42% ANSWER: a 192. Over the course of their lives, approximately what percentage of Americans are estimated to experience posttraumatic stress disorder? a. 3% b. 7% c. 12% d. 18% ANSWER: b 193. According to recent research, which factor is a neural correlate of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. a larger-size hippocampus b. a larger-size thalamus c. increased activity in the amygdala d. increased activity in the medial prefrontal cortex ANSWER: c 194. According to recent research, which factor is a neural correlate of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. a smaller-size hippocampus b. a smaller-size thalamus c. decreased activity in the amygdala d. increased activity in the medial prefrontal cortex ANSWER: a 195. According to recent research, which factor is a neural correlate of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. a larger-size hippocampus b. a larger-size thalamus c. decreased activity in the amygdala d. decreased activity in the medial prefrontal cortex ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 196. Research conducted by Gilbertson et al. (2002) indicates that the reduced hippocampal volume observed in combat veterans who have been diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is: a. a direct consequence of extreme stress and a sign of the disorder. b. a direct consequence of extreme stress and a symptom of the disorder. c. a preexisting condition that makes persons vulnerable to PTSD. d. both a cause and a consequence of PTSD. ANSWER: c 197. Eero is a combat veteran who was honorably discharged from the military. He experiences seemingly constant stress, which is interspersed with flashbacks of the horrors he observed on the battlefield. He avoids watching the news and attending veterans' events. Since his return, he has greatly increased his alcohol consumption as a coping mechanism. Eero would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. double depression. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia. ANSWER: a 198. Carla was a victim of sexual assault 6 months ago. Thoughts of the assault frequently come to mind, causing her extreme and nearly constant stress. She avoids going outside at night by herself because this is the time of day when the assault occurred. Carla would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. major depressive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia. ANSWER: a 199. Bruno attended religious services that were disrupted by a violent terrorist attack. Since that incident, he has recurring horrific thoughts of the attack that cause him extreme and chronic stress. He avoids going to any kind of worship service and places where people congregate, as these remind him of the attack. Bruno would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia. ANSWER: a 200. Many combat veterans not diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) nevertheless report anxiety due to memories of traumatic events. Unlike PTSD, this anxiety: a. does not include startle reactions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. has identifiable physical causes. c. subsides over time. d. is usually not intense. ANSWER: c 201. Which conclusion is TRUE regarding hippocampal volume in combat veterans diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) relative to their identical twins who did not serve in the military? a. Combat veterans diagnosed with PTSD have larger hippocampal volumes. b. Combat veterans diagnosed with PTSD have smaller hippocampal volumes. c. Hippocampal volume changed after traumatic experiences for the combat veterans but stayed the same for their identical twins. d. There is no difference in hippocampal volume between these sets of identical twins. ANSWER: d 202. Which diagnosis is NOT a mood disorder? a. depression b. bipolar disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: d 203. Which diagnosis is classified as a mood disorder? a. conduct disorder b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: c 204. Major depressive disorder is also known as: a. unipolar depression. b. double depression. c. persistent depressive disorder. d. bipolar depression. ANSWER: a 205. A factor that is NOT a symptom of major depressive disorder is: a. feelings of worthlessness. b. lethargy or loss of pleasure. c. chronic excessive worries. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice d. sleep disturbances. ANSWER: c 206. Which behavior is a symptom of major depressive disorder? a. disorganized speech b. lethargy or loss of pleasure c. chronic excessive worries d. mania ANSWER: b 207. A diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires evidence of a severely depressed mood that has lasted at least: a. 6 months. b. 2 months. c. 4 weeks. d. 2 weeks. ANSWER: d 208. In persistent depressive disorder, the same symptoms of unipolar depression occur, but they are _____ severe and last at least _____. a. less; 6 months b. less; 2 years c. more; 6 months d. more; 2 years ANSWER: b 209. On average, an episode of major depression lasts about _____ weeks. a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12 ANSWER: d 210. Without treatment, about _____ of people who experienced an episode of major depression will experience at least one reoccurrence of the disorder. a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 211. Approximately what percentage of Americans will meet the criteria for depression at some point in their lives? a. 6% b. 12% c. 18% d. 24% ANSWER: c 212. Approximately _____ of American women and _____ of American men will meet the criteria for depression at some point in their lives. a. 18%; 7% b. 7%; 18% c. 22%; 14% d. 14%; 22% ANSWER: c 213. Mickey lives in Alaska and experiences a period of depression each winter. Mickey probably has: a. seasonal affective disorder. b. unipolar depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. cold sensitivity disorder. ANSWER: a 214. Over the past 2 months, Trisha has become lethargic and has stopped working out at the gym. Previously full of energy and curiosity, she now shows a lack of interest in virtually everything, including sex. She reports feelings of worthlessness. It is likely that Trisha would be diagnosed with: a. seasonal affective disorder. b. unipolar depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. double depression. ANSWER: b 215. Helle has been feeling very sad for a month. Her sadness is so pronounced that she has not showered for days on end, sometimes has forgotten to eat, and has not been interested in doing anything. Helle probably has: a. double depression. b. persistent depressive disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. unipolar depression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 216. Tiffany has felt mildly depressed for years. She struggles with issues associated with her self-worth and finds activities that other people greatly enjoy to be only mildly pleasurable. Tiffany would likely be diagnosed with: a. persistent depressive disorder. b. unipolar depression. c. double depression. d. bipolar disorder. ANSWER: a 217. Lupita is a college student who has experienced moderate feelings of sadness and worthlessness for more than 2 years. Most of the time, she still attends classes and meets her other obligations. Occasionally, however, her depressive symptoms intensify. When this occurs, she stops going to class, isolates herself, and even experiences suicidal thoughts. Lupita could be diagnosed with: a. major depressive disorder and generalized anxiety disorder. b. double depression. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. persistent depressive disorder. ANSWER: b 218. A factor that has NOT been suggested as contributing to the high rate of depression in women is their: a. smaller-size hippocampi. b. greater risk for living in poverty. c. changing hormonal levels following childbirth. d. tendency to seek help leading to higher rates of diagnosis. ANSWER: a 219. Depression following childbirth is termed _____ depression. a. postpregnancy b. postpartum c. postbirthing d. postdysthymic ANSWER: b 220. Which heritability estimate for major depression is within the range typically found by researchers? a. 20% b. 40% c. 65% d. 80% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 221. Which two neurotransmitters have been found to be implicated in depression? a. dopamine and serotonin b. serotonin and GABA c. serotonin and norepinephrine d. dopamine and ACTH ANSWER: c 222. Most antidepressants take at least _____ to minimize symptoms of depression. a. 3 days b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 1 month ANSWER: c 223. The heritability estimate for major depression _____ as the severity of the symptoms _____. a. decreases; increases b. increases; changes c. increases; decreases d. decreases; decreases ANSWER: d 224. Antidepressant medications alter neurotransmitter levels _____ they alleviate symptoms of depression. a. more quickly than b. more slowly than c. at the same time as d. after ANSWER: a 225. Caspi et al. (2003) demonstrated that people with a certain genetic variation related to serotonin are much more likely to become depressed if they are exposed to extremely stressful life events. This research can best be conceptualized within the _____ of mental illness. a. biological preparedness account b. medical model c. diathesis–stress model d. learned helplessness theory ANSWER: c 226. Caspi et al. (2003) demonstrated that people with a certain genetic variation related to serotonin are much Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice more likely to experience depression if they are exposed to extremely stressful life events. In this research, what is the diathesis? a. likelihood of depression b. genetic variation in serotonin c. stressful life events d. self-reported symptoms of depression ANSWER: b 227. Caspi et al. (2003) demonstrated that people with a certain genetic variation related to serotonin are much more likely to experience depression if they are exposed to extremely stressful life events. This research demonstrates: a. the interaction between nature and nurture. b. that genetics can lead to learned helplessness. c. the dangers of genetic labeling on self-reports of depression. d. that depression is caused more by environmental than genetic factors. ANSWER: a 228. Caspi et al. (2003) demonstrated that people with a certain genetic variation related to serotonin are much more likely to experience depression if they are exposed to extremely stressful life events. More recent research with larger samples has: a. largely supported these findings. b. failed to support these findings. c. demonstrated that genetics is a more important determinant of depression than environment. d. demonstrated that environment is a more important determinant of depression than are genetics. ANSWER: b 229. _____ was one of the first theorists to emphasize the role of thought in depression. a. Brenda Milner b. Abraham Tesser c. Aaron T. Beck d. Shelley E. Taylor ANSWER: c 230. People with depression tend to attribute their negative experiences to causes that are internal, stable, and global. This pattern supports the _____ theory. a. diathesis–stress b. social learning c. helplessness d. personal bias Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 231. People with depression tend to attribute their negative experiences to causes that are: a. external. b. global. c. unstable. d. temporary. ANSWER: b 232. Angelica thinks she is unattractive and, therefore, that she will always be single. Angelica's cognitions are MOST consistent with the _____ theory of depression. a. diathesis–stress b. social learning c. helplessness d. psychodynamic ANSWER: c 233. Brain studies have indicated that people with depression exhibit decreased activation in areas of the brain associated with _____ and increased activation in areas of the brain associated with _____. a. cognitive control; emotional information b. emotional information; cognitive control c. reward learning; cognitive control d. emotional information; language and creativity ANSWER: a 234. Brain studies have indicated that people with depression exhibit decreased activation in the _____ and increased activation in the _____. a. left temporal lobe; right temporal lobe b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex; dorsal anterior cingulate cortex c. left temporal lobe; right prefrontal cortex d. dorsal anterior cingulate cortex; dorsolateral prefrontal cortex ANSWER: b 235. Brain studies have indicated that people with depression exhibit decreased activation in which brain region? a. amygdala b. dorsal striatum c. insula and superior temporal gyrus d. dorsal anterior cingulate cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 236. Charlene has experienced depression many times in her life. She is now unhappy because a close friend no longer calls her. According to helplessness theory, she would NOT be likely to respond to the situation with the statement: a. "I never keep friends for long, especially after they get to know me." b. "I'll find another close friend." c. "This must be my fault." d. "They weren't really a good friend anyway." ANSWER: d 237. The negative schema exhibited by people with depression includes: a. better recall of positive information. b. trouble disengaging from negative information. c. seeing problems as specific rather than global. d. negative attitudes toward treatment efficacy. ANSWER: b 238. The negative schema exhibited by people with depression includes: a. better recall of negative information. b. trouble disengaging from positive information. c. viewing negative information as external to themselves. d. deficits in self-awareness. ANSWER: a 239. Julius has been moderately depressed for over 2 years, and every few months, he experiences a period in which his symptoms of depression intensify. He is likely experiencing: a. persistent depressive disorder. b. unipolar depression. c. double depression. d. bipolar disorder. ANSWER: c 240. A characteristic that is NOT a symptom of bipolar disorder during the manic phase is: a. irritability. b. grandiosity. c. talkativeness. d. sleepiness. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 241. Which event is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder? a. loss of pleasure b. grandiosity c. feelings of worthlessness d. sleepiness ANSWER: b 242. Which event is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder? a. reckless behavior b. unexpected weight gain c. feelings of worthlessness d. sleepiness ANSWER: a 243. A person in an episode of mania can believe that they are destined for greatness or are exceptionally gifted, beliefs that are artifacts of increased mood. These types of erroneous beliefs are known as: a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. dissociative states. d. euphoric states. ANSWER: b 244. The depressive phase of bipolar disorder is often _____ major depression. a. indistinguishable from b. slightly more severe than is c. considerably more severe than is d. less severe than is ANSWER: a 245. A manic episode must last at least _____ to meet the current diagnostic criterion for bipolar disorder. a. 2 days b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 1 month ANSWER: b 246. A person in the manic phase of bipolar disorder sometimes may have hallucinations or delusions; therefore, the disorder may be misdiagnosed as: a. paranoid personality disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. panic disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. dissociative identity disorder. ANSWER: c 247. Gisela, a sociology major in college, has a history of depression. But one day, she wakes up feeling very energetic. She tells her friends and professors that she has figured out a way to solve world hunger and the AIDS epidemic. Inspired, she spends the next 5 days without sleep completing applications to dozens of doctoral programs in sociology. It is likely that Gisela is experiencing: a. depression and generalized anxiety disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. histrionic personality disorder. d. paranoid schizophrenia. ANSWER: b 248. The genes linked to both bipolar disorder and schizophrenia involve deficits in: a. impulse control and planning. b. filtering unnecessary information and recognition memory. c. glutamate transmission. d. perception and understanding of self. ANSWER: b 249. The genes linked to both bipolar disorder and schizophrenia involve problems with: a. affiliation and attachment. b. sustained responsiveness to reward. c. dopamine and serotonin transmission. d. perception and understanding of self. ANSWER: c 250. Twin studies reveal epigenetic markers associated with bipolar disorder and schizophrenia, with affected twins showing _____ in critical brain regions associated with these disorders. a. increased DNA methylation b. decreased DNA methylation c. dopamine receptor upregulation d. dopamine receptor downregulation ANSWER: b 251. About what percentage of people with bipolar disorder have rapid-cycling bipolar disorder? a. 10% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% ANSWER: a 252. To meet diagnostic criteria for rapid-cycling bipolar disorder, persons must experience at least _____ episodes of depression or mania in a year. a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 ANSWER: b 253. Bipolar disorder, autism spectrum disorder, schizophrenia, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder share overlapping symptoms such as: a. delusions of persecution. b. stunted growth during adolescence. c. glutamate deficiencies. d. cognitive impairments. ANSWER: d 254. Vincent van Gogh, Abraham Lincoln, and Ernest Hemingway are some notable individuals thought to have had which mental disorder? a. agoraphobia b. double depression c. bipolar disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: c 255. Some research suggests that bipolar disorder is linked to higher levels of: a. creativity and intellectual ability. b. conscientiousness and impulse control. c. altruism and cooperation. d. moral reasoning. ANSWER: a 256. Which statement about bipolar disorder is FALSE? a. Bipolar disorder is more prevalent in women than it is in men. b. The lifetime risk for bipolar disorder is about 2.5%. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice c. A significant minority of individuals with bipolar disorder are highly creative. d. Bipolar disorder tends to be persistent throughout the lifetime. ANSWER: a 257. The mental disorder with the HIGHEST heritability rate is: a. panic disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. major depressive disorder. ANSWER: c 258. With respect to genetic determinants of mental disorders, a pleiotropic effect is one in which: a. a single gene is associated with a mental disorder. b. multiple genes interact to produce a mental disorder. c. multiple genes interact with one another and the environment to produce a mental disorder. d. a single gene is associated with multiple mental disorders. ANSWER: d 259. With respect to genetic determinants of mental disorders, a polygenic effect is one in which: a. a single gene is associated with a mental disorder. b. multiple genes interact to produce a mental disorder. c. a single allele variation interacts with the environment to produce a mental disorder. d. a single gene is associated with multiple mental disorders. ANSWER: b 260. One recent study examining more than 60,000 people revealed common genetic risk factors are shared between bipolar disorder and: a. antisocial personality disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. schizophrenia. ANSWER: d 261. One recent study examining more than 60,000 people revealed that common genetic risk factors are shared between bipolar disorder and: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. conduct disorder. d. histrionic personality disorder. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 262. A measure of how much hostility, criticism, and emotional overinvolvement people communicate when speaking about a family member with a mental disorder is termed: a. locus of control. b. neuroticism. c. expressed emotion. d. learned helplessness. ANSWER: c 263. As the household level of expressed emotion _____, relapse risk for disorders _____. a. increases; increases b. decreases; increases c. changes; increases d. increases; decreases ANSWER: a 264. Bipolar disorder, autism spectrum disorder, schizophrenia, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder share overlapping symptoms such as: a. the presence of tactile hallucinations. b. social withdrawal. c. generalized anxiety. d. catatonic delusions. ANSWER: b 265. Research suggests that high levels of stress have less of an impact on recovery from episodes of mental illness in people who: a. have family members high in expressed emotion. b. adopt an internal, stable, and global model of their negative experiences. c. have a supportive family. d. were raised in city versus a rural environment. ANSWER: c 266. Among persons who have been diagnosed with a mental disorder, living with family members who are high in expressed emotion increases the likelihood of relapse from recovery in persons with: a. bipolar disorder but not unipolar depression. b. unipolar depression but not bipolar disorder. c. mood disorders but not anxiety disorders. d. a wide variety of mental disorders. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 267. _____ is characterized by a profound disruption of basic psychological processes, distorted perception of reality, blunt or inappropriate affect, and problems with thoughts and behavior. a. Schizophrenia b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Dissociative identity disorder d. Antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: a 268. A clearly false belief system, often bizarre and grandiose, that is maintained despite its irrationality is termed a: a. hallucination. b. paranoia. c. delusion. d. stupor. ANSWER: c 269. A false perceptual experience that has a compelling sense of being real despite the absence of external stimulation is termed a: a. hallucination. b. catatonic experience. c. delusion. d. hypnagogic state. ANSWER: a 270. Schizophrenic hallucinations MOST often involve the sense of: a. sight. b. smell. c. touch. d. hearing. ANSWER: d 271. Which activity is a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. social withdrawal b. lack of emotion c. hallucinations d. poverty of speech ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 272. Among people who have been diagnosed with schizophrenia, about _____ report hearing voices repeatedly. a. 35% b. 50% c. 65% d. 90% ANSWER: c 273. Which example illustrates a delusion? a. a person believing that the CIA has implanted a microchip under their thumbnail b. a person hearing the devil speaking Romanian inside their head c. a person reporting that their hair smells like feces, even though they are clean d. a person watching UFOs fly overhead each night ANSWER: a 274. Schizophrenic hallucinations do NOT include: a. hearing voices that no one else can hear. b. believing oneself to be Alexander the Great. c. seeing things that are not there. d. feeling as if one is being touched when no one is there. ANSWER: b 275. Esperanza reports seeing vampire bats outside her house every evening; no one else has reported seeing bats or anything remotely bat-like in the area. Esperanza has not been under the influence of any substances when she has made these sightings. Esperanza is likely experiencing: a. a stupor. b. hallucinations. c. delusions. d. grossly disorganized behavior. ANSWER: b 276. Which grouping is NOT a common category of schizophrenia symptoms? a. positive b. negative c. behavioral d. cognitive ANSWER: c 277. According to the DSM-5-TR, signs of the disorder must persist for how many months before a diagnosis of schizophrenia can be made? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 ANSWER: b 278. _____ symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors not typically seen in people without the disorder. a. Positive b. Negative c. Disorganized d. Cognitive ANSWER: a 279. Research has demonstrated that auditory hallucinations are associated with activation in which brain region associated with language? a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. Broca's area d. area V1 ANSWER: c 280. Tobias believes that he is Colonel Harlan Sanders, developer of a famous fast-food chicken franchise with outlets worldwide. This belief is BEST classified as a delusion of: a. grandeur. b. identity. c. jealousy. d. persecution. ANSWER: b 281. Liv believes that she has $60 million hidden in foreign bank accounts, when in fact she does not. This belief is BEST classified as a delusion of: a. grandeur. b. identity. c. jealousy. d. persecution. ANSWER: a 282. Jonah believes that the hospital staff is poisoning his food, when in fact they are not. This belief is best classified as a delusion of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. grandeur. b. identity. c. jealousy. d. persecution. ANSWER: d 283. Current treatments for schizophrenia are most effective at: a. reducing negative symptoms. b. reducing hallucinations and delusions. c. eliminating catatonia. d. improving social relationships. ANSWER: b 284. People who accept that they have schizophrenia but refuse to believe that they are destined for a lower quality of life are fighting the _____ of the disorder. a. diagnosis b. symptoms c. prognosis d. etiology ANSWER: c 285. Todd often masturbates and defecates in public. Assuming he has a verifiable mental disorder that contributes to these behaviors, then Todd is exhibiting: a. delusional behavior. b. negative symptoms of schizophrenia. c. catatonic behavior. d. grossly disorganized behavior. ANSWER: d 286. Griselda usually sits quietly and works on crossword puzzles. However, a few times each hour, she begins grimacing in a bizarre way and then shouts profanities at the hospital staff. Griselda is exhibiting: a. grossly disorganized behavior. b. negative symptoms of schizophrenia. c. disorganized speech. d. a catatonic stupor. ANSWER: a 287. Which characteristic is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. delusions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. grossly disorganized behavior c. hallucinations d. poverty of speech ANSWER: d 288. Which characteristic is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. apathy b. grossly disorganized behavior c. hallucinations d. delusions ANSWER: a 289. The first episode of schizophrenia typically occurs during which age period? a. infancy to childhood b. childhood to adolescence c. late adolescence to early adulthood d. adulthood ANSWER: c 290. Consuelo sits for hours with her head in her hands and doesn't move a muscle. When a nurse tries to pull her head up, she resists. Consuelo is displaying which symptom of schizophrenia? a. catatonia b. grossly disorganized behavior c. paranoia d. cognitive deficits ANSWER: a 291. _____ symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors and emotions. a. Positive b. Negative c. Disorganized d. Cognitive ANSWER: b 292. The LEAST noticeable symptoms of schizophrenia tend to be: a. positive symptoms. b. negative symptoms. c. catatonic symptoms. d. cognitive symptoms. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 293. One morning, a patient at a psychiatric facility told their nurse, "The weather is nice today. Granada is in Spain. Did you see the puffins?" This is an example of: a. delusional behavior. b. grossly disorganized behavior. c. disorganized speech. d. catatonic symptoms. ANSWER: c 294. Schizophrenia occurs in about _____ of the population and is slightly more prevalent in _____. a. 0.5%; men b. 0.5%; women c. 1.5%; men d. 1.5%; women ANSWER: a 295. The concordance rate for schizophrenia among monozygotic twins is approximately: a. 17%. b. 33%. c. 68%. d. 84%. ANSWER: b 296. The concordance rate for schizophrenia among dizygotic twins is approximately: a. 7%. b. 25%. c. 33%. d. 50%. ANSWER: a 297. Identical twins often share the same prenatal blood supply, and toxins in the mother's blood may contribute to schizophrenia. This suggests a role for _____ factors as a determinant of schizophrenia. a. genetic b. environmental c. polygenic d. pleiotropic ANSWER: b 298. During the 1950s, drugs were discovered that could reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia by _____ levels Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice of the neurotransmitter _____. a. lowering; dopamine b. increasing; dopamine c. lowering; serotonin d. increasing; serotonin ANSWER: a 299. The average risk for developing schizophrenia is HIGHEST for: a. a dizygotic twin whose sibling has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. b. the sibling of someone who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. c. a monozygotic twin whose sibling has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. d. children whose parents both have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. ANSWER: c 300. The dopamine hypothesis is the proposal that _____ levels of dopamine are associated with _____. a. low; schizophrenia b. low; mood disorders c. high; schizophrenia d. high; mood disorders ANSWER: c 301. Evidence from treatment medication effectiveness led to the hypothesis that excess _____ exacerbates symptoms of schizophrenia. a. dopamine b. epinephrine c. serotonin d. GABA ANSWER: a 302. Early neuroimaging research revealed that schizophrenia is associated with an enlargement of the: a. gyri. b. ventricles. c. cortex. d. amygdala. ANSWER: b 303. A large body of research now suggests that the dopamine hypothesis regarding schizophrenia is: a. largely supported but not proven. b. completely false. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice c. an oversimplification and inadequate. d. the best hypothesis to explain the most data. ANSWER: c 304. The fact that antipsychotic medications block dopamine receptors immediately, yet take weeks to work, indicates that: a. the dopamine hypothesis is an insufficient explanation of schizophrenia. b. dopamine is not involved in schizophrenia. c. multiple genes interact to determine the age of onset of schizophrenia. d. the effect of the medication is largely due to expectancy effects. ANSWER: a 305. Which statement about the relationship between neuroanatomy and schizophrenia is TRUE? a. The majority of people who have been diagnosed with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles. b. People who have been diagnosed with schizophrenia exhibiting chronic negative symptoms are least likely to have enlarged ventricles. c. Schizophrenia is associated with enlarged limbic structures, such as a hippocampus filling twice the volume of a typical hippocampus. d. Schizophrenia is associated with progressive brain tissue loss, beginning in the occipital lobe and moving toward the pons. ANSWER: d 306. A person who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia exhibiting which symptom(s) is MOST likely to have enlarged ventricles in the brain? a. disorganized speech b. chronic negative symptoms c. grossly disorganized behavior d. frequent hallucinations ANSWER: b 307. Several studies have demonstrated a link between _____ and the development of schizophrenia. a. attribution style b. the family environment c. attachment style d. Parkinson's disease ANSWER: b 308. Research investigating the role of the family in the onset and development of schizophrenia has NOT characterized a "disturbed family" as one in which: a. at least one family member has schizophrenia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice b. there is extreme conflict. c. there are chaotic relationships among family members. d. there is a lack of communication among family members. ANSWER: a 309. Compared to the others, who statistically is MOST likely to develop schizophrenia? a. Aårno, whose biological mother did not have schizophrenia and who was adopted into a family characterized by chaotic relationships and extreme conflict b. Valdo, whose biological mother had a diagnosis of schizophrenia and who was adopted into a family demonstrating healthy interpersonal relationships c. Tony, whose biological mother had been diagnosed with schizophrenia and who was adopted into a family characterized by chaotic relationships and extreme conflict d. Louiche, whose biological mother did not have schizophrenia and who was adopted into a healthy family along with an adoptive sibling who has schizophrenia ANSWER: c 310. _____ is a condition beginning in early childhood in which a person shows persistent communication deficits as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, or activities. a. Intellectual disability b. Autism spectrum disorder c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Conduct disorder ANSWER: b 311. Autism spectrum disorder is MOST associated with impairments in: a. general intelligence. b. attention. c. communication. d. self-control. ANSWER: c 312. Diagnoses of autism spectrum disorder have been _____ over the past few decades. a. increasing b. decreasing c. increasing for boys and decreasing for girls d. increasing for girls and decreasing for boys ANSWER: a 313. If one considers the full range of disorders that fall under the spectrum, the current prevalence of autism spectrum disorder is about _____ in 10,000. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. 66 b. 230 c. 812 d. 109 ANSWER: b 314. The ratio of boys to girls who are appropriately diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder is approximately: a. 2:1. b. 3:1. c. 4:1. d. 5:1. ANSWER: c 315. Massimo is a 3-year-old who rarely makes eye contact with others, only speaks a few words, and engages in repetitive hand flapping behavior. By DSM-5-TR criteria, Massimo would probably be diagnosed with: a. double depression. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. childhood schizophrenia. ANSWER: b 316. Holden is an 8-year-old with normal intelligence. Although he can talk in a typical manner, he exhibits pronounced social deficits. He has few social relationships and has little interest in making friends. But he does love video games. He will play them for hours at a time and is quite good at them. Holden also follows an extremely rigid schedule. When his schedule is interrupted, he throws tantrums and has a difficult time transitioning to and from activities. By DSM-5-TR criteria, Holden is exhibiting a mild form of: a. double depression. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. childhood schizophrenia. ANSWER: b 317. According to the DSM-5-TR classification scheme, which formerly applied diagnosis currently would NOT fall under the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder? a. conduct disorder b. Asperger's syndrome c. childhood disintegrative disorder d. pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 318. A factor that explicitly does NOT contribute to the recent higher rates of diagnoses of autism spectrum disorder is: a. changes in diagnostic definitions. b. greater awareness. c. side effects of childhood vaccinations. d. better screening and diagnostic tools. ANSWER: c 319. Heritability estimates for autism spectrum disorder are as high as: a. 40%. b. 50%. c. 70%. d. 90%. ANSWER: d 320. One current explanatory model of autism spectrum disorder is that it is associated with an impaired ability to _____ and a superior ability to _____. a. communicate; empathize b. empathize; communicate c. empathize; systematize d. systematize; empathize ANSWER: c 321. Children who experience attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) do NOT experience _____ as part of that diagnosis. a. persistent problems with sustained attention b. delusional thinking c. problems with memory d. disorganization ANSWER: b 322. Which behavior is characteristic of hyperactivity? a. difficulties remaining still b. difficulties following instructions c. persistent problems with sustaining vigilance on a task d. problems with organization and memory ANSWER: a 323. Which behavior is characteristic of inattention? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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TB6 Chapter 15 Multiple Choice a. difficulties remaining still b. difficulties waiting for a turn c. interrupting others d. difficulties following instructions ANSWER: d 324. To receive a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), a person must exhibit the behavioral and cognitive symptoms for _____ months in at least _____ different settings. a. 2; two b. 6; two c. 12; two d. 12; three ANSWER: b 325. Over the past 8 months, at school and at home, Muzafer has been running around when he is supposed to be sitting, not paying attention to what he is told to do, getting easily distracted during tasks, and regularly losing focus when he is trying to read. Muzafer may well be experiencing: a. a medical emergency. b. schizotypal personality disorder. c. delusional thinking. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. ANSWER: d 326. Carmello has been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which characteristic is Carmello LEAST likely to exhibit at school? a. problems organizing his thoughts when writing an essay b. trouble staying in his seat c. getting into fights d. interrupting the conversation of others ANSWER: c 327. Adonis has been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which characteristic is Adonis LEAST likely to exhibit at school? a. problems making friends b. difficulty waiting in line c. problems maintaining sustained interest in a class activity d. interrupting the conversations of others ANSWER: a 328. Intensive early _____ interventions have been shown to help many children diagnosed with autism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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